Test Bank for Life-Span Development 18th Edition by Ace Test Banks

Test Bank for Life-Span Development 18th Edition

richard@qwconsultancy.com

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Development can be defined as the pattern of movement or change that

A) begins at childhood and continues until adulthood. B) begins at conception and continues until adulthood. C) begins at birth and continues through the human life span. D) begins at conception and continues through the human life span.

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2) Who among the following is most likely taking the traditional approach to the study of development?

A) Daren, who emphasizes developmental change throughout adulthood as well as childhood B) Nick, who emphasizes extensive change in adulthood C) James, who emphasizes extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, and decline in old age D) Gregory, who emphasizes development as lifelong, multidimensional, multidirectional, plastic, multidisciplinary, and contextual

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3) The _____ approach to the study of development emphasizes extensive change from birth to adolescence, especially during infancy; little or no change in adulthood; and decline in old age.

A) prescriptive B) constructivist C) traditional D) evolutionary

In the twentieth century, life expectancy in the United States increased by

A) 2 years. B) 12 years. C) 22 years. D) 32 years.

5) In his psychology class, Professor Sharma emphasizes that developmental change occurs throughout adulthood as well as in childhood. Professor Sharma is taking a(n) _____ approach to developmental change.

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A) life-span B) evolutionary C) normative D) constructivist

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6) In the context of Laura Carstensen's view on life expectancy, which of the following statements is true?

A) There has been a remarkable decrease in the number of people living to an old age. B) The conception of work as a full-time endeavor ending in the early sixties is well suited for long lives. C) Science, technol-ogy, and social expectations have not kept pace with the increase in the number of people living to an old age. D) There should be a change from a world constructed mainly for the elderly to a world that is more compatible for young people.

7) On your first day of class, Professor Red-Elk claims that for too long we have focused on the development of young children, especially infants. She argues that the development of adults and elderly people is just as important. This professor is articulating a(n) _____ approach.

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A) evolutionary B) constructivist C) normative D) life-span

The maximum life span of humans

A) has increased over time. B) has not changed since the beginning of recorded history. C) has matched their life expectancy in recent times. D) was about 65 years as the first decade of the twenty-first century drew to a close.

Which of the following is true of life expectancy in the United States?

A) It decreased by 15 years in the beginning of the twenty-first century. B) It has remained unaffected by improvements in sanitation and nutrition. C) It increased by 32 years in the twentieth century. D) It has remained unpredictable and has confused demographers.

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10)

Life expectancy in the United States is currently about

A) 53 years. B) 60 years. C) 79 years. D) 85 years

11) Based on Paul Baltes' view of life-span development, which of the following statements is true?

A) Development stops during adolescence. B) Development is multidimensional. C) Development is unidirectional. D) Development occurs independent of context.

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12) The idea that no age period dominates development highlights the life-span perspective that development is

A) plastic. B) contextual. C) multidimensional. D) lifelong.

13) Dr. Harmon believes that life-span development cannot be studied without considering biological, socioemotional, and cognitive dimensions. Dr. Harmon believes that development is

A) lifelong. B) contextual. C) multidimensional. D) plastic.

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14) Many individuals become wiser as they age, but their performance on tasks that require speed in processing information starts to decline. This illustrates how throughout life, some dimensions or components of a dimension expand and others shrink—in other words, how development is

A) plastic. B) contextual. C) multidisciplinary. D) multidirectional.

15) Jeremy becomes fluent in English at the age of 4. At the age of 6, he becomes fluent in French. However, when Jeremy's parents try to teach him Spanish when he is 8 years old, they find that Jeremy's capacity to acquire a new language has decreased. This scenario most likely illustrates Paul Baltes' view that development is

A) plastic. B) contextual. C) multidisciplinary. D) multidirectional.

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16)

_____ means the capacity for change.

A) Elasticity B) Plasticity C) Contextuality D) Tenacity

17) Bruce Chan, a 57-year-old accountant, decides to enroll in a short-term course on creative writing. He performs well in the course and is surprised that he does so despite not having engaged in creative writing for over 25 years. This scenario most likely illustrates Paul Baltes' view that development is

A) plastic. B) multidisciplinary. C) lifelong. D) contextual.

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18) Divya is 65 years old. She undergoes training and uses effective strategies to improve her memory. As a result, her memory does not decline but rather improves as she ages. According to Paul Baltes, which of the following aspects of the life-span perspective most likely explains the improvement in Divya's memory?

A) Development is plastic. B) Development is contextual. C) Development is multidirectional. D) Development is multidimensional.

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19) According to Paul Baltes' life-span perspective, which of the following is true of contexts?

A) They have a biological impact on development. B) They are influenced by genetic factors. C) They remain constant over time. D) They define the capacity for change.

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20) As people enter adolescence, they start focusing more time on romantic relationships and spend less time with friends as a result. This illustrates how development is

A) plastic. B) contextual. C) multidisciplinary. D) multidirectional.

21) According to Paul Baltes, which of the following statements most supports the view that development is plastic?

A) Early adulthood is not the end- point of development; rather, no age period dominates development. B) The cognitive skills of older adults can be improved through training and acquisition of effective strategies. C) Development has biological, cognitive, and socioemotional dimensions. D) All development occurs within a context, or a setting that changes.

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22) Psychologists, sociologists, anthropologists, neuroscientists, and medical researchers all share an interest in unlocking the mysteries of development through the life span. This indicates how development is

A) multidirectional. B) plastic. C) multidisciplinary. D) multidimensional.

23) "Individuals are changing beings in a changing world." Which characteristic of development is reflected in this statement?

A) Development is multidisciplinary. B) Development is contextual. C) Development is multidimensional. D) Development is multidirectional.

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24) According to Paul Baltes, which of the following do normative age-graded influences include?

A) sociocultural factors and environmental processes B) economic, political, and social upheavals C) long-term changes in the cultural makeup of a population D) long-term changes in the genetic composition of a population

25) By age 51, most women enter menopause. This is an example of how a biological process can exert a _____ influence on development.

A) normative history-graded B) nonnormative multidirectional C) normative age-graded D) nonnormative age-graded

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26) Influences that generally affect a generation (for example, the effect of the Vietnam War on the baby boomers) are considered _____ influences.

A) nonnormative multidirectional B) normative age-graded C) nonnormative age-graded D) normative history-graded

27) The cultural makeup of the U.S. population has changed over the past few years because of immigration and other factors. Such long-term changes in the genetic and cultural makeup of a population are part of

A) nonnormative multidirectional change. B) normative historical change. C) nonnormative life events. D) nonnormative demographic change.

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28) When she was a child, Anna's home was wrecked by a tornado, and her neighbor was killed. More than 30 years later, she is still terrified of storms. This is an example of how a _____ event can influence a person's development.

A) normative age-graded B) normative generational C) nonnormative life D) normative history-graded

29)

According to Paul Baltes, which of the following is true of nonnormative life events?

A) They do not happen to all people. B) They are similar for individuals in a particular age group. C) They do not influence the lives of individual people. D) They are usual occurrences.

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30) Thomas is a teenager who lives with his parents in an American city. One year while he is still in high school, Thomas's house gets destroyed in a fire, forcing his family to relocate to a rural area. According to Paul Baltes, this incident is likely to affect Thomas's development and life and is most likely an example of a

A) normative history-graded influence. B) nonnormative life event. C) minority influence. D) cohort effect.

31) Agatha is 83 years old. According to Baltes and his colleagues, _____ and _____ in her capacities will take center stage.

A) growth; maintenance B) maintenance; regulation of loss C) regulation of loss; augmentation D) growth; regulation of loss

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32) Wang Ying is a clinical psychologist who specializes in counseling young adults. She helps her clients cope with depression, anxiety, and life transitions. In this scenario, Wang is most likely to

A) work individually with clients. B) instruct clients to resolve their problems without seeking outside help. C) refrain from referring clients to medical facilities. D) conduct research on the effects of specific policies on children's well-being.

33) _____ encompasses the behavior patterns, beliefs, and all other products of a particular group of people that are passed on from generation to generation.

A) Culture B) Genotype C) Phenotype D) Ethnocentricity

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34) Dr. Wilman is researching the place women occupy in families in Japan and the United States. Dr. Wilman is conducting a(n) _____ study.

A) longitudinal B) ethnocentric C) cross-cultural D) decentralized

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35) In 2017, 50.5 percent of children 17 years and younger were non-Latino White; by 2050, this figure is projected to

A) decrease to 38.8 percent. B) increase by 38.8 percent. C) drop to 8.8 percent. D) remain stable.

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36)

Socioeconomic status (SES) refers to

A) the behavior patterns, beliefs, and all other products of a particular group of people that are passed on from generation to generation. B) a person's position within society based on occupational, educational, and economic characteristics. C) the degree to which development is similar or universal across cultures. D) a social label placed on a similar group of people based on their heritage, nationality, race, religion, and language.

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37)

_____ is a government's course of action designed to promote the welfare of its citizens.

A) Social policy B) Generational policy C) Cultural legislation D) Equity policy

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38) Based on results of a study that analyzed the exposure to six stressors among poor children and middle-income children in the United States, which of the following is a difference between children in poor families and children in middle-income families?

A) Unlike children in poor families, children in middle-income families are much more likely to separate from a parent. B) Unlike children in poor families, children in middle-income families are much less likely to have a peaceful home. C) Unlike children in middle-income families, children in poor families are much more likely to be exposed to violence. D) Unlike children in middle-income families, children in poor families are much less likely to be exposed to family turmoil.

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39)

Compared with earlier decades, U.S. adults today are

A) more likely to be married. B) more likely to be childless. C) less likely to be living alone. D) less likely to need social relationships and support.

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40) By 2050, how many people in the world’s population are projected to be 60 years and older?

A) 259 million B) 780 million C) 2.1 billion D) 4.1 billion

41) Which of the following was invented in the 1950s and contributed to changing human life permanently?

A) Bluetooth B) the smartphone C) the Global Positioning System (GPS) D) television

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42) Changes in motor skills, nutrition, end exercise, the hormonal changes of puberty, and cardiovascular decline are all examples of _____ processes that affect development.

A) cognitive B) biological C) socioemotional D) cultural

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43)

_____ processes refer to changes in the individual's thought, intelligence, and language.

A) Cognitive B) Biological C) Socioemotional D) Cultural

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44) _____ processes involve changes in the individual's relationships with other people, changes in emotions, and changes in personality.

A) Cognitive B) Biological C) Socioemotional D) Polycentric

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45) The connection across biological, cognitive, and socioemotional processes is most obvious in the two rapidly emerging fields of

A) developmental cognitive neuroscience and developmental social neuroscience. B) developmental biological neuroscience and developmental social neuroscience. C) developmental socioemotional pharmacology and developmental biological pharmacology. D) developmental cognitive biology and developmental cognitive neuroscience.

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46) Thedevelopmental period—whether one is an infant, adolescent, or middle-aged person— refers to

A) a historical circumstance common to people of a particular generation. B) a time frame in a person's life that is characterized by certain features. C) a time frame in which a person experiences maximum change. D) a time frame in a nation's history that is characterized by rapid development.

47)

The _____ period is the time from conception to birth.

A) perinatal B) prenatal C) neonatal D) postnatal

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48) Daniel is 10 months old and is completely dependent on his parents. He is just beginning to acquire language and develop symbolic thought. In this scenario, which of the following developmental periods is Daniel most likely in?

A) adolescence B) middle childhood C) early childhood D) infancy

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49) Jenny is 4 years old. She becomes self-sufficient and develops school readiness skills. In this scenario, identify the developmental period that Jenny is most likely in.

A) infancy B) early childhood C) prenatal period D) late childhood

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50) Which of the following is a characteristic of the developmental period known as early childhood?

A) extreme dependency on adults B) development of school readiness skills C) formal exposure to the larger world D) development of sexual characteristics

51) Alex is 8 years old and in the third grade; his main focus is success in school, as he is gradually exposed to more and more information about the world at large. The developmental period Alex is currently in is

A) early childhood. B) middle childhood. C) adolescence. D) adulthood.

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52) Joey has shot up in height over the past year, has developed a deeper voice, and is starting to grow facial hair. He is preoccupied with the pursuit of independence and identity and is spending more time with friends and less with family. Which of the following periods of development is Joey in?

A) middle childhood B) adolescence C) early adulthood D) late childhood

53) Brittany is preoccupied with the pursuit of independence and identity and is spending more time with friends and less with family. Her thoughts are more logical, abstract, and idealistic. She is also experiencing rapid physical changes such as gaining height and weight. Which of the following periods of development is Brittany most likely in?

A) middle childhood B) late adulthood C) late childhood D) adolescence

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54) _____ is a time of establishing personal and economic independence, career development, and for many, selecting a mate, learning to live with that person in an intimate way, starting a family, and rearing children.

A) Early adulthood B) Late adolescence C) Middle adulthood D) Late adulthood

55) Travis spends a great deal of time working and trying to establish his career. He is also wondering if he should move in with his girlfriend and about their long-term prospects. Travis is most likely in the _____ period of development.

A) late adolescence B) early adulthood C) middle adulthood D) late adulthood

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56) Johnathan and his wife Tracy are in their mid-fifties. They are expanding their personal and social responsibilities and assist-ing their children in becoming competent, mature individuals. Which of the following developmental periods are Johnathan and Tracy currently in?

A) early adulthood B) emerging adulthood C) middle adulthood D) adolescence

57) Peter is a senior partner at his law firm and is an important member of his church and community. Both his children are in college. Peter's situation is most representative of which period of development?

A) early adulthood B) middle adulthood C) late adulthood D) retirement

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58)

Late adulthood is a time of

A) life review, adjustment to new social roles, and diminishing strength and health. B) expanding personal and social involvement and responsibility. C) establishing personal and economic independence and advancing in a career. D) selecting a mate, learning to live with that person in an intimate way, starting a family, and rearing children.

59) Jessica spends a lot of time thinking about the choices she has made in her life and the events she has witnessed. She is adjusting to decreasing strength and health, and she has made several lifestyle changes as a result. Jessica is most likely in the _____ period of development.

A) adolescence B) early adulthood C) middle adulthood D) late adulthood

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60)

Which of the following is true of the period of development known as late adulthood?

A) It involves rapid physical changes and the development of sexual characteristics. B) It is a time of establishing economic independence and advanc-ing in a career. C) It begins in the early twenties and lasts through the thirties. D) It is a time of life review, retirement, and adjustment to new social roles.

61)

Katie-Lou is 88 years old. Katie would most likely be characterized as

A) young-old. B) old-old. C) oldest-old. D) late-old.

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62)

Which of the following statements about the "young-old" is true?

A) They are people between 60 and 65 years of age. B) They have little potential for physical and cognitive fitness. C) They show considerable loss in cognitive skills. D) They can develop strategies to cope with the gains and losses of aging.

63) Sharon is a 30-year-old stay-at-home mother to a toddler. Life-span developmentalists would consider her to be

A) in the second age of prime adulthood. B) transitioning from early adulthood to middle adulthood. C) a middle-aged woman. D) in an adult latency period.

64) Life-span developmentalists who focus on adult development and aging describe lifespan development in terms of four "ages." The "third age" in this conceptualization spans from

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A) adolescence to prime adulthood. B) the twenties through the fifties. C) approximately 60 to 79 years of age. D) approximately 80 years to the time of death.

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65) Who among the following most likely exhibits the developmental pattern of successful aging?

A) Khalid, who is 79 years old and has started experiencing a modest decline in his psychological functioning B) Shyam, who is 81 years old and frequently forgets where he places his belongings C) Carlo, who is 78 years old and suffers from Parkinson disease, which impairs his daily functioning D) Selena, who is 80 years old and capable of walking without the support of a cane

66) The developmental pattern experienced by most people, in which psychological functioning peaks in early middle age and starts to decline in the early eighties, is called

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A) normal aging. B) pathological aging. C) everyday aging. D) successful aging.

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67) Andrew is 60 and is starting to have memory lapses and struggling to complete things that used to take him no time at all. He finds himself forgetting driving routes that he used to know. Andrew might be experiencing the developmental pattern called

A) normal aging. B) pathological aging. C) everyday aging. D) successful aging.

68) According to an increasing number of studies in the United States, compared with younger people, older people

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A) are more pressured to achieve. B) have better relationships with people they care about. C) are less content with what they have in their lives. D) have less time for leisurely pursuits.

69) Determining _____ age involves knowing the functional capacities of a person's vital organs.

A) social B) chronological C) biological D) psychological

70) Ramada, 69, an avid golfer and fitness enthusiast, recently got a comprehensive health exam done, and her physician remarked that her vital organs were in such good shape that her _____ age was about 10 years less than her chronological age.

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A) social B) mental C) biological D) psychological

71) _____ age is an individual's adaptive capacities compared with those of other individuals of the same chronological age.

A) Social B) Psychological C) Physical D) Biological

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72) In predicting an adult woman's behavior, it may be more important to know that she is the mother of a 3-year-old child than to know whether she is 20 or 30 years old. This reflects the concept of

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A) chronological age. B) social age. C) psychological age. D) biological age.

73)

Which of the following statements is true of chronological age?

A) It has become a less accurate predictor of life events in American society when compared with other conceptions of age. B) It is the sole component of the overall age profile of an individual from the life-span perspective. C) It is determined by knowing the functional capacities of a person's vital organs, which may be better or worse than those of other people of comparable age. D) It refers to connectedness with others and the social roles individuals adopt.

74)

In the nature-nurture issue, nature refers to an organism's _____, nurture to its _____.

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A) personality traits; abilities B) attributes; ecological heritage C) biological inheritance; environmental experiences D) acquired traits; heredity

75) The question of whether a fun-loving, carefree adolescent is bound to have difficulty holding down a 9-to-5 job as an adult most likely reflects the

A) epigenetic view. B) stability-change issue. C) nature-nurture issue. D) continuity-discontinuity issue.

76) Gina's therapist attributes her delinquent behavior to heredity and to the gross neglect she suffered as a baby at the hands of her alcoholic mother. Gina's therapist appears to be emphasizing the _____ aspect of her development.

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A) personality B) life-long learning C) discontinuity D) stability

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77) In the continuity-discontinuity issue in development,continuity refers to _____, whilediscontinuity implies _____.

A) abrupt change; stability B) gradual change; distinct stages C) qualitative change; quantitative change D) discrete stages; gradations

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78)

The concept of discontinuity is characterized by

A) qualitative change. B) quantitative change. C) collective change. D) measured change.

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79) Lisa is a clinical psychologist. She decides to conduct a study on whether the progression of memory loss in older adults with Alzheimer disease can be slowed down. According to the scientific method, which of the following describes the sequence Lisa should follow?

A) collect data, conceptualize a process or problem to be studied, analyze data, draw conclusions B) conceptualize a process or problem to be studied, collect data, analyze data, draw conclusions C) collect data, analyze data, conceptualize a process or problem to be studied, draw conclusions D) conceptualize a process or problem to be studied, draw conclusions, collect data, analyze data

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80) Dr. Perkins predicts that children who spend years playing a musical instrument are smarter than children who do not play music. This testable prediction is known as a(n)

A) hypothesis. B) classification. C) variable. D) axiom.

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81) _____ theories describe development as primarily unconscious and heavily colored by emotion.

A) Behavioral B) Social cognitive C) Evolutionary D) Psychoanalytic

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82) Dr. Berenstein holds the view that behavior is merely a surface characteristic and that a true understanding of development requires analyzing the symbolic meanings of behavior and the deep inner workings of the mind. Dr. Berenstein can be described as a(n)

A) psychoanalytic theorist. B) evolutionary theorist. C) cognitive theorist. D) behavioral theorist.

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83) Identify the correct sequence of the five stages of psychosexual development described in Freud's theory of development.

A) genital, oral, anal, phallic, latency B) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital C) anal, genital, oral, phallic, latency D) oral, phallic, anal, latency, genital

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84)

According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following statements is true?

A) Children's social interaction with more-skilled adults and peers is indispensable to their cognitive development. B) Children go through four stages of cognitive development as they actively construct their understanding of the world. C) The primary motivation for human behavior is social in nature. D) People's basic personality is shaped during the first five years of their life.

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85)

Most contemporary psychoanalytic theorists believe that Sigmund Freud

A) proposed a theory that has stood the test of time and needs no revisions. B) overemphasized sexual instincts. C) overemphasized cultural experiences as determinants of an individual's development. D) underestimated the role of the unconscious mind in determining development.

86)

The theory that was created by Erik Erikson is known as a _____ theory of development.

A) psychobiological B) psychogenic C) psychosocial D) psychoanatomical

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87)

One of the differences between Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson is that

A) Freud underestimated the role of the unconscious mind in determining the life-span development of an individual. B) Erikson believed that development lasted only until the age of 20. C) Erikson emphasized the importance of both early and later experiences. D) Erikson overemphasized the role of sexuality in the life-span development of an individual.

88) According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, a lifelong expectation that the world will be a good and pleasant place to live sets in during the _____ stage.

A) industry versus inferiority B) intimacy versus isolation C) initiative versus guilt D) trust versus mistrust

89)

The first stage in Erikson's theory is

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A) autonomy versus shame and doubt. B) initiative versus guilt. C) generativity versus stagnation. D) trust versus mistrust.

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90) Kelly responds to her infant's needs in a consistent and timely way. When he is tired she puts him down for a nap, and when he is hungry she feeds him. Erikson would say that Kelly is helping her son to develop a sense of

A) autonomy. B) initiative. C) trust. D) integrity.

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91) Two-year-old Julia is learning to talk, and her parents would say that her favorite word is "no." This would be considered normal for a child in Erik Erikson's life-span stage of

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A) initiative versus guilt. B) intimacy versus isolation. C) autonomy versus shame and doubt. D) trust versus mistrust.

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92) McKenzie, age 2, wants to do everything on her own. Her mother punishes her when she attempts to pour her own milk or tries to answer the phone. Erikson would say that McKenzie is likely to develop a sense of

A) inferiority. B) autonomy. C) stagnation. D) shame and doubt.

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93) Johnny is attempting to resolve the crisis of initiative versus guilt. According to Erik Erikson, Johnny is most likely in

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A) preschool. B) elementary school. C) junior high school. D) high school.

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94) Erik Erikson's developmental theory consists of _____ stages that last from the first year of life to _____.

A) seven; early adulthood B) eight; late adulthood C) six; adolescence D) nine; death

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95) Edwin was a neglected child in his infancy. Now, at 31 years of age, he is highly cynical about the world and feels that no one can be relied upon. In relationships, he is suspicious toward his partner, and these feelings eventually lead to the breakup of the relationship. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, this indicates that Edwin did not successfully resolve the _____ stage of development, which in turn is causing him to experience _____ in his current developmental stage.

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A) identity versus identity confusion; stagnation B) trust versus mistrust; isolation C) autonomy versus shame and doubt; confusion D) trust versus mistrust; despair

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96) The elementary school years, in which children need to direct their energy toward mastering knowledge and intellectual skills, is when Erikson's stage of _____ takes place.

A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and doubt D) industry versus inferiority

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97) Jessica, 16, is in the process of deciding what she wants to study in college. She wants to be an engineer one day and a painter the next day. Erik Erikson would say Jessica is in the _____ stage of development.

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A) intimacy versus isolation B) identity versus identity confusion C) initiative versus guilt D) industry versus inferiority

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98)

During early adulthood, Erik Erikson's developmental stage of _____ occurs.

A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) initiative versus guilt D) industry versus inferiority

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99) Caitlin, age 25, has a good job as a financial analyst, but she has few friends and has had no success in dating. She admits that being close to others is a problem for her. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, Caitlin is at risk of reaching the state of

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A) stagnation. B) guilt. C) isolation. D) shame and doubt.

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100) The termgenerativity as described in Erikson's seventh stage of development primarily reflects a concern for

A) helping the younger generation to develop and lead useful lives. B) forming healthy friendships and an intimate relationship with another. C) developing healthy ego boundaries. D) feeling secure in one's job.

101)

The final stage of Erik Erikson's developmental theory is

A) generativity versus stagnation. B) trust versus mistrust. C) integrity versus despair. D) intimacy versus isolation.

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102) Roger looks back on his life and feels that he failed to reach his potential, squandered opportunities, and hurt a lot of people. At 82 years of age, he knows it is too late to make amends. Roger is slipping into

A) stagnation. B) identity confusion. C) despair. D) mistrust.

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103)

Psychoanalytic theories are criticized for

A) not emphasizing sexual underpinnings. B) not emphasizing unconscious aspects of the mind. C) creating an image of people that is too negative. D) stressing the importance of cognitive thoughts.

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104) Dr. Wong is a cognitive developmental theorist, so we know that he will stress the importance of _____ in understanding development.

A) conscious thoughts B) repressed memories C) biological processes D) the effects of genes and evolution on the development of intelligence

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105) According to Piaget's theory, two processes underlie children's cognitive construction of the world:

A) assimilation and generalization. B) adaptation and abstraction. C) association and abstraction. D) organization and adaptation.

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106) According to Jean Piaget's cognitive developmental theory, which of the following is true of the sensorimotor stage?

A) It is the second stage of cognitive development. B) It lasts from birth to about 2 years of age. C) It is the longest stage of cognitive development. D) It involves developing images of ideal circumstances.

107)

Piaget's four stages of cognitive development

A) start at conception and continue until adulthood. B) start at birth and end at death. C) span from conception to death. D) start at birth and continue through adulthood.

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108) Lynne, age 5, loves to draw and color. She represents the world with words and her drawings. According to Piaget's cognitive development theory, Lynne is in the _____ stage of cognitive development.

A) preoperational B) sensorimotor C) formal operational D) concrete operational

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109) Hidalgo, age 8, is very good at addition and subtraction, but he has a hard time understanding the complex algebraic problems that his 14-year-old sister does. Hidalgo is currently in which of Jean Piaget's stages of development?

A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) conceptual operational

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110) Sandrine is now able to use abstract thought as well as logic; Piaget would argue that she is in the _____ stage of development.

A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) conceptual operational

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111)

Vygotsky's theory emphasizes how _____ guide(s) cognitive development.

A) culture and social interaction B) biology C) the unconscious mind D) genetic makeup

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Vygotsky's Sociocultural Cognitive Theory

112) A characteristic feature of information-processing psychologists is that they are most likely to

A) emphasize the influence of culture on development. B) emphasize that individuals manipulate information, monitor it, and strategize about it. C) state that individuals develop a gradually decreasing capacity for processing information. D) state that thinking does not constitute information processing.

113)

Behavioral and social cognitive theories emphasize

A) unconscious motives. B) discontinuity in behavior. C) continuity in development. D) that development occurs in stage-like fashion.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Skinner's Operant Conditioning

114) Dr. Nasrin believes that associating behavior with consequence can shape the probability of a behavior occurring. He is arguing that _____ conditioning is important for behavioral modification.

A) stimulus B) operant C) classical D) cognitive

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115) Nellie, age 3, bangs her head against the wall repeatedly throughout the day. How could Skinner's concept of operant conditioning be applied to address this behavior?

A) explore experiences from Nellie's early childhood and address them in therapy B) test Nellie to determine her current level of cognitive functioning C) investigate her psychosocial environment and eliminate stressors D) reward Nellie when she does not bang her head and punish the head-banging behavior

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116) B. F. Skinner, a behaviorist, would argue that the most important things that shape development are

A) thoughts and feelings. B) unconscious motivations. C) rewards and punishments. D) culture and society.

117) Danny's mother is even-tempered, fair, and tactful. Seeing this, Danny is growing up to be a polite, good-natured boy too. This imitation or modeling of behavior mirrors the concept of _____ in Bandura's social cognitive theory.

A) operant conditioning B) observational learning C) salient stimuli D) classical conditioning

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118) Bandura's most recent model of learning and development includes three elements: behavior, the environment, and

A) the person/cognition. B) culture. C) education level. D) motivation.

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119) Individuals guide and motivate themselves by creating action plans, formulating goals, and visualizing positive outcomes of their actions—that is, they are engaging in

A) forethought. B) hindsight. C) forestalling. D) forward thought.

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120) Fernando believes that the presence or absence of certain experiences in life has a longlasting influence on individuals. He further believes that there is rapid, innate learning that involves attachment to the first moving object seen and that this learning takes place at a critical period very early in the life of an animal. In this scenario, Fernando is most likely taking a(n) _____ approach to human development.

A) behavioral B) ethological C) social cognitive D) psychoanalytic

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121) Human infants go through an attachment period. John Bowlby calls this a ______ period, meaning that for optimal development attachment should occur during this period.

A) positive B) critical C) sensitive D) severe attachment

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122) A recent television documentary concluded that, from birth, girls are more nurturing than are boys. Daniel agrees with this because he believes nurturing is an evolutionary trait passed on through the generations, because females needed to be more nurturing to aid the survival of the species. Daniel's view reflects the _____ perspective of development.

A) ideological B) clinical C) ethological D) theological

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123) Konrad Lorenz performed research with goslings and found that many, upon hatching, identified him as their mother. He called this form of attachment

A) conditioning. B) imprinting. C) internalizing. D) acclimatizing.

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124) In Lorenz's view, imprinting needs to take place at a certain, very early time in the life of the animal, or else it will not take place. This period of time is called the

A) receptive period. B) sensitive period. C) critical period. D) bonding period.

125) According to Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory, a person's family, peers, school, and neighborhood constitute his or her

A) microsystem. B) mesosystem. C) chronosystem. D) macrosystem.

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126)

The _____ involves relations between microsystems or connections between contexts.

A) metasystem B) mesosystem C) chronosystem D) macrosystem

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Ecological Theory

127) The _____ consists of links between a social setting in which an individual does not have an active role and the individual's immediate context.

A) microsystem B) mesosystem C) exosystem D) macrosystem

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Ecological Theory

128)

The _____ involves the culture in which individuals live.

A) chronosystem B) mesosystem C) ethnosystem D) macrosystem

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Ecological Theory

129) Which of Urie Bronfenbrenner's environmental systems consists of the patterning of environmental events and transitions over the life course, as well as sociohistorical circumstances?

A) the mesosystem B) the chronosystem C) the macrosystem D) the exosystem

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130) The idea that no singular theory can explain life-span development as a whole, but that each theory plays an important role, is referred to as a(n)

A) eclectic theoretical orientation. B) mixed theoretical orientation. C) abridged theoretical orientation. D) severed theoretical orientation.

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131) Which of the following is true of physiological measures used in the study of life-span development?

A) They are based on the assumption that a person's behavior is consistent and stable, yet personality can vary with the situation. B) They involve the use of a standard set of questions to obtain people's self-reported beliefs about a particular topic. C) They involve the use of electromagnetic waves to construct images of a person's brain tissue and biochemical activity. D) They provide insights that sometimes cannot be attained in the labo-ratory and are used at sporting events and child-care centers.

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132) Flevy, a marketing researcher, is conducting an extensive market study and has hired a big group of college students to hand out a standard set of questions to shoppers at malls and supermarkets and to seek their responses. Which of the following methods of data collection is Flevy using?

A) laboratory research B) surveys C) naturalistic observation D) physiological measures

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133) Cynthia is conducting a survey on the prevalence and patterns of substance abuse in her city. Which of the following problems is she likely to encounter while using this method of data collection?

A) the assumption that a person's behavior is consistent and stable B) the inability to sample a large number of people C) the assumption that surveys have to be conducted only in person D) the fact that some participants may not tell the truth and will instead give socially acceptable answers

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134)

Which of the following is among the criticisms of standardized tests?

A) They allow a person's performance to be compared with that of other individuals. B) They assume a person's behavior is consistent and stable. C) They provide information about individual differences among people. D) They are difficult to design.

135) Ariel wants to describe the strength of the relationship between the number of airplane companies in the world and global warming. Which of the following kinds of research is Ariel most likely to perform?

A) descriptive B) correlational C) collaborative D) discrete

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology. Topic : Correlational Research

136) Dr. Jackson's research has found that the correlation between IQ and head circumference is +.10. From this information, we can conclude that

A) people with large heads have a higher IQ than people with small heads. B) there is a weak relationship between head size and IQ. C) people with small heads tend to have a higher IQ than people with large heads. D) head circumference is an important predictor of IQ.

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137)

Which of the following correlations is the strongest? A) −.65 B) +.46 C) +.70 D) −.77

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138) A(n) _____ is a carefully regulated procedure in which one or more factors believed to influence the behavior being studied are manipulated while all other factors are held constant.

A) case study B) survey C) experiment D) correlation

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology. Topic : Experimental Research

139) A researcher is interested in the effect of exercise on stamina in elderly patients. The patients are randomly assigned to be in a high-exercise or low-exercise training program for eight weeks. At the end of the program, their stamina is measured by seeing how long they can walk comfortably on a treadmill. In this study, the dependent variable is

A) the number of minutes on the treadmill. B) the exercise program (high versus low). C) the number of elderly patients. D) the eight-week duration of the exercise program.

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140) In an experimental study, the _____ group serves as a baseline against which the effects of the manipulated condition can be compared.

A) control B) experimental C) dependent D) independent

141)

The cross-sectional approach to developmental research compares

A) various research methodologies. B) various developmental theories. C) individuals of different ages. D) individuals of different genders.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology. Topic : Cross-Sectional Approach

142) Dr. McLean has designed a study to test the cognitive skills of people in their thirties, fifties, and seventies, where data is collected over the course of a day through a series of tests. What type of research approach is Dr. McLean using?

A) longitudinal B) cohort C) latitudinal D) cross-sectional

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143)

The longitudinal method of research consists of studying

A) the same individuals over a long period of time. B) individuals of different ages. C) individuals from around the globe. D) individuals born in the same year.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Research Methods Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology.

144) A group of people who are born at a similar point in history and share similar experiences as a result is referred to as a A) cult. B) clan. C) cohort. D) posse.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Cohort Effects Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology.

145) According to APA guidelines, all participants must know what their research participation will involve and what risks might develop. This guideline addresses which of the following issues?

A) deception B) debriefing C) informed consent D) confidentiality

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize ethical concerns regarding the use of animals and humans as participan Topic : Ethical Research

146) When researchers use surface labels such as "Blacks," "Hispanics," and "Whites," they underrepresent the differences that exist among people within the same racial group. This is referred to as

A) ethnic gloss. B) euphemization. C) acculturation. D) ethnic cleansing.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize ethical concerns regarding the use of animals and humans as participan Topic : Cultural and Ethnic Bias

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 147) Identify the term that refers to the characteristics of people as males and females. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Gender Learning Objective : Summarize the features of the life-span perspective.

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148) According to Paul Baltes, what is a co-construction of biological, cultural, and individual factors working together? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Characteristics of Life-Span Perspective Learning Objective : Summarize the features of the life-span perspective.

149) In the context of conceptions of age, _____ age refers to connectedness with others and the social roles individuals adopt. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the processes, periods, and issues in human development. Topic : Characteristics of Life-Span Perspective

150) _____ theorists emphasize that behavior is merely a surface characteristic and that a true understanding of development requires analyzing the symbolic meanings of behavior and the deep inner workings of the mind. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Psychoanalytic Theory

151) What is the last name of the theorist who proposed that psychosexual development occurs in the following five stages: the oral stage, the anal stage, the phallic stage, the latent stage, and the genital stage?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Characteristics of Life-Span Perspective Topic : Psychoanalytic Theory

152)

Erik Erikson proposed eight _____ stages of development.

153)

The theorist B. F. Skinner developed the theory of _____ conditioning.

154) Riley argues that behavior is strongly influenced by biology; it is tied to evolution and characterized by critical or sensitive periods. What theoretical orientation does Riley most likely take? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Ethological Theory

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155) The term _____ observation describes the method of gathering data by means of observing behaviors in real-world settings, making no effort to manipulate or control the situation. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate the methods developmental researchers use to collect data. Topic : Naturalistic Observation

156) In contrast to other research designs, _____ research by itself cannot prove what causes a phenomenon but can reveal important information about people's behavior. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Research Methods Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 157) What are the three developmental patterns of aging? Explain the difference between them.

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158) In addition to chronological age, list and briefly describe the three other ways that "age" has been conceptualized.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the processes, periods, and issues in human development. Topic : Periods of Development

159) What is the connection between age and happiness? What evidence is there for this relationship, and why does it exist?

160)

Definetheory andhypothesis. Illustrate your answer with an example.

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161) What are the four important ethical issues that the APA research guidelines address? Name them and explain why they are important.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize ethical concerns regarding the use of animals and humans as participan Topic : Ethical Research

162) List Freud's psychosexual stages, and explain how adult personality is determined as a result of these stages.

163) Describe two characteristics of the life-span perspective on development. Provide an example for each.

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164)

List and briefly describe Urie Bronfenbrenner's five environmental systems.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Ecological Theory

165) Definelife expectancy. Describe a challenge presented by the dramatic increase in life expectancy in the United States.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Expectancy Learning Objective : Summarize the features of the life-span perspective.

166)

Identify one advantage and one disadvantage of using surveys as a way to collect data.

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167) If, as a developmental researcher, one wished to study in-depth the life and mind of Ted Kaczynski—the notorious Unabomber—which method of data collection would one adopt, and why?

168)

Briefly explain the importance of studying life-span development.

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169) Compare and contrast the cross-sectional and longitudinal approaches to research, listing the advantages and disadvantages of both.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the types of research that are used in developmental psychology. Topic : Cross-Sectional Approach

170) bias.

In the context of studies conducted on life-span development, explain the effect of gender

171) Which field of study explores links between development, cognitive processes, and the brain?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the main theories of human development. Topic : Socioemotional Processes Topic : Biological Processes Topic : Cognitive Processes

172) Apart from the issues of stability versus change and continuity versus discontinuity, which developmental issue characterizes development throughout the human life-span?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch01 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) D 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) D 77) B 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) D 82) A 83) B 84) D 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) D 89) D 90) C 91) C 92) D 93) A 94) B 95) B 96) D 97) B 98) A 99) C 100) A 101) C 102) C 103) C 104) A 105) D 106) B 107) D 108) A 109) B 110) C 111) A 112) B 113) C 114) B 115) D 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) A 119) A 120) B 121) C 122) C 123) B 124) C 125) A 126) B 127) C 128) D 129) B 130) A 131) C 132) B 133) D 134) B 135) B 136) B 137) D 138) C 139) A 140) A 141) C 142) D 143) A 144) C 145) C 146) A Version 1

147) gender 148) development 149) social 150) Psychoanalytic 151) Freud 152) psychosocial 153) operant 154) ethological 155) naturalistic 156) descriptive 157) The three developmental patterns of aging are normal aging, pathological aging, and successful aging. In normal aging, experienced by most people, psychological functioning peaks during early middle age, stays stable until the late fifties to early sixties, and then declines modestly in the early eighties. In contrast, pathological aging is shown in those who have greater than average decline during the adult years. During early old age, such individuals may begin to demonstrate mild cognitive impairment and may later develop Alzheimer disease or other chronic diseases that impair their everyday functioning. Successful aging takes place when people's positive physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development is maintained longer, declining later in old age than is the case for most people. 158) Biological age is a person's age in terms of biological health and is determined by knowing the functional capacities of a person's vital organs. Psychological age refers to an individual's adaptive capacities compared with others of the same chronological age. Social age refers to connectedness with others and the social roles individuals adopt.

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159) The connection between age and happiness is that happiness tends to increase with age. In a study done on people aged 18–88, about 33 percent reported being happy at 88, while only 24 percent reported happiness in their late teens and early twenties. Despite facing higher incidences of physical problems and losses, older adults are more content with what they have in their lives, have better relationships with the people who matter to them, are less pressured to achieve, have more time for leisurely pursuits, and have many years of experience— resulting in wisdom that may help them adapt better to their circumstances than younger adults do. Not all studies, however, have found an increase in life satisfaction with age. Some studies indicate that the lowest levels of life satisfac-tion occur in middle age, especially from 45 to 54 years of age. Older adults in poor health, such as those with cardiovascular disease, chronic lung disease, and depression, tend to be less satisfied with their lives than their healthier older-adult counterparts. 160) A theory is an interrelated, coherent set of ideas that helps to explain phenomena and facilitate predictions. An example of a theory is psychoanalytic theory. A hypothesis is a specific assumption or prediction that can be tested to determine its accuracy. For example, a researcher predicts that all the students in a particular school follow the same method to prepare for a test.

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161)1. Informed consent: Participants must know what is involved in the research they are participating in and what risks are involved. Additionally, participants should be able to withdraw from the study at any time. 2. Confidentiality: The data collected should remain confidential to protect the identity of the research participant. 3. Debriefing: After the study is preformed, participants should be fully told of the study's methods and purpose. 4. Deception: Sometimes, deception is necessary to prevent participants from altering their behavior and to get accurate results. In these cases, no harm should occur from the deception, and the participants should be briefed on the real purpose of the study and the methods immediately after the study is completed. 162) Freud believed that we go through five stages of psychosexual development: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. According to Freud, our adult personality is determined by the way we resolve conflicts between sources of pleasure at each stage and the demands of reality. 163)The two characteristics of the life-span perspective on development are as follows: 1. Development is multidirectional: Throughout life, some dimensions or components of a dimension expand and others shrink. For example, when one language (such as English) is acquired early in development, the capacity for acquiring second and third languages (such as Spanish and Chinese) decreases later in development, especially after early childhood. 2. Development is plastic: Plasticity means the capacity for change. For example, research-ers have found that the cognitive skills of older adults can be improved through training and acquisition of effective strategies. Version 1

164)Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory identifies five environmental systems: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The microsystem is the setting in which an individual lives. The mesosystem involves relations between microsystems or connections between contexts. The exosystem consists of links between a social setting in which the individual does not have an active role and the individual's immediate context. The macrosystem involves the culture in which individuals live. The chronosystem consists of the patterning of environmental events and transitions over the life course, as well as sociohistorical circumstances. 165)Life expectancy refers to the average number of years that a person born in a particular year can expect to live. Laura Carstensen recently described the challenges and opportunities presented by the dramatic increase in life expectancy. In her view, the remarkable increase in the number of people living to an old age has happened so quickly that science, technol-ogy, and social expectations have not kept pace. She proposes that the challenge is to change from a world constructed mainly for young people to a world that is more compatible and supportive for the increasing number of people living to age 100 and beyond. 166) Surveys can be used to study a wide range of topics and can collect data from a large number of people. Surveys can be conducted in person, over the telephone, or on the Internet. A disadvantage to survey research is that people sometimes respond in ways that they think are socially acceptable rather than saying what they honestly think and believe.

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167)A case study would best serve the purpose of studying Ted Kaczynski. A case study is an in-depth look at a single individual. It is performed mainly by mental health professionals when, for either practical or ethical reasons, the unique aspects of an individual's life cannot be duplicated and tested in other individuals—as is the scenario for Ted Kaczynski. A case study provides information about the person's experiences and allows the researcher to focus on any aspect of the subject's life that helps him or her to understand the person's mind, behavior, or other attributes. 168) Most development involves growth, but it also includes decline (as in dying). Exploring development helps an individual examine their life span from the point of conception until the time when life ends. It enables the individual to see himself or herself as an infant, as a child, and as an adolescent, and be stimulated to think about how those years influenced the kind of indi-vidual he or she is today. He or she may also be motivated to think about how his or her experiences today will influ-ence development through the remainder of the adult years. 169) The cross-sectional approach is a research strategy that simultaneously compares individuals of different ages. It usually involves the collection of data over a short period of time. The longitudinal approach is a research strategy in which the same individuals are studied over a period of time, usually several years or more. In a cross-sectional study, the researcher does not have to wait for the individuals to grow up or become older. However, it gives no information about how individuals change or about the stability of their characteristics, and it can obscure the increases and decreases of development. Longitudinal studies address these concerns, but they are expensive and time-consuming and carry the risk of participants dropping out mid-way.

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170) Gender bias has had a less obvious effect within the field of lifespan development. For example, it is not unusual for conclusions to be drawn about females' attitudes and behaviors from research conducted with males as the only participants. Furthermore, when researchers find gender differences, their reports sometimes magnify those differences. 171) The field of developmental cognitive neuroscience explores links between development, cognitive processes, and the brain. 172) Three issues are significant to understanding the nature of development. One of these is the nature-nurture issue, which involves the extent to which development is influenced by nature (biological inheritance) and by nurture (environmental experiences).

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Red-feathered and blue-feathered birds occupy the same environment. The birds with the red feathers are better able to survive and avoid predators. This means that the population of redfeathered birds will increase in future generations. This illustrates the process of

A) genetic selection. B) natural adaptation. C) natural selection. D) genetic survival.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the evolutionary perspective on human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Natural Selection

_____ introduced the theory of evolution by natural selection in 1859.

A) Sigmund Freud B) Charles Darwin C) Stephen Hawking D) Wilhelm Wundt

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3) If a baboon learns to eat different kinds of fruit instead of relying on only one kind for its nutritive needs, we would argue that this behavior promotes its survival. Thus, the behavior is

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A) adaptive. B) aggressive. C) dominant. D) submissive.

Evolution takes place

A) over the course of many generations. B) almost immediately. C) when a species is ready for it. D) because of active attempts at change on the part of a species.

5) Psychology's newest approach, _____, emphasizes the importance of adaptation, reproduction, and "survival of the fittest" in shaping behavior.

A) behavioral psychology B) humanistic psychology C) cognitive psychology D) evolutionary psychology

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6) According to evolutionary developmental psychologists, many evolved psychological mechanisms are _____. That is, the mechanisms apply only to a specific aspect of a person's psychological makeup.

A) domain-specific B) maladjusted C) non-operational D) unconditional

Which of the following statements is true of evolutionary developmental psychology?

A) Many evolved psychological mechanisms apply only to a specific aspect of a person's psychological makeup. B) The mind is a general-purpose device that can be applied equally to a vast array of problems. C) All the behaviors that were adaptive for our prehistoric ancestors continue to serve us well today. D) Evolution has not impacted human development.

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8) The food-scarce environment of our ancestors likely led to humans' propensity to gorge when food is available and to crave high-caloric foods, a trait that might lead to an epidemic of obesity when food is plentiful. This illustrates how

A) socialization influences the development of behavior and cognitive skills in human beings. B) evolved mechanisms are not always adaptive in contemporary society. C) organisms pass on characteristics they acquire during their lifetime to their offspring. D) the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age.

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The modularity of the mind view has sometimes been referred to as the

A) Swiss army knife theory. B) Darwinian theory. C) pick-and-choose theory. D) epigenetic theory.

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10)

Which of the following best characterizes the modularity of the mind view?

A) The human mind encompasses a number of independent domains or tools. B) Although the mind can be versatile, its different tools are difficult to employ. C) The mind appears far more useful than it really is in practical use. D) The mind has many broad domains, but few that are capable of precision.

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11) According to life-span developmentalist Paul Baltes (2003), the benefits conferred by evolutionary selection _____ with age.

A) increase B) remain stable C) decrease D) fluctuate

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12) In the context of evolution and life-span development, which of the following statements is true of Paul Baltes (2003)?

A) He believed natural selection weeded out all nonadaptive characteristics appearing among older adults. B) He held that the benefits conferred by evolutionary selection increased with age. C) He believed natural selection occurred primarily during the first half of life. D) He held that natural selection operated on characteristics tied to mental fitness.

13) According to life-span developmentalist Paul Baltes (2003), natural selection has not weeded out many harmful conditions and nonadaptive characteristics that appear among older adults. Why?

A) Degeneration aids in the transmission of desirable traits to future generations. B) Natural selection operates primarily on characteristics that are tied to reproductive fitness. C) Human evolution has no effect on previous generations. D) Evolved mechanisms are always adaptive in contemporary society.

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14) Paul Baltes says that natural selection among humans operates mainly during the _____ of life.

A) second half B) last years C) first half D) first year

15)

In the context of evolutionary psychology, Albert Bandura (1998) acknowledged that

A) "one-sided evolutionism" is primarily used to explain social behavior. B) evolutionary pressures created changes in biological structures. C) evolution dictated behavior. D) social behavior is strictly a product of evolved biology.

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16) According to Paul Baltes, as the benefits of evolutionary selection decrease with age, the need for _____ increases.

A) environmental pressure B) reproduction C) job training D) culture

17) As an alternative to the "_____ evolutionism" presented in evolutionary psychology, Albert Bandura proposed a _____ view.

A) bidirectional; unidirectional B) one-sided; bidirectional C) dynamic; linear D) balanced; biased

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18) of

A fertilized human egg cannot grow into a crocodile, duck, or fish, specifically because

A) the social influences on human reproduction. B) environmental influences. C) adaptive behavior within the womb. D) the genetic code it carries.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

19) _____ is a complex molecule with a double helix shape, like a spiral staircase, and contains genetic information.

A) RNA B) A chromosome C) DNA D) A ribosome

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

20) _____, the units of hereditary information, are short segments of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). They help cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins.

A) Genes B) Chromosomes C) RNA D) Ribosomes

21) The nucleus of each human cell contains _____, which are threadlike structures made up of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) chromosomes D) mesosomes

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22) _____ are the building blocks of cells as well as the regulators that direct the body's processes.

A) Genes B) Proteins C) Ribosomes D) DNA

23) Adam, who has a cardiovascular disease, participated in a research study to identify genetic variations linked to cardiovascular disease. His DNA was obtained, along with DNA from other patients suffering from the same cardiovascular disease. For the purpose of comparison, the researchers also took DNA samples from participants who did not have the disease. Each participant's DNA was assessed to determine markers of genetic variation. The researchers found that genetic variations occurred more frequently in people who had the cardiovascular disease. This led them to pinpoint the region in the human genome linked to the disease. Which of the following approaches to gene identification and discovery did the researchers use in this study?

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A) next-generation sequencing B) linkage analysis C) the Thousand Genomes Project D) the genome-wide association method

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24) In the context of approaches to gene identification and discovery, _____, in which the goal is to discover the location of a gene (or genes) in relation to a marker gene (whose position is already known), is often used to search for disease-related genes.

A) the Thousand Genomes Project B) genome-wide association C) linkage analysis D) next-generation sequencing

25) In the context of approaches to gene identification and discovery, _____ refers to the vast increase in genetic data generated at a much reduced cost and in a much shorter period than in the past.

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A) next-generation sequencing B) linkage analysis C) the Thousand Genomes Project D) the genome-wide association method

26)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the activity of genes?

A) Genes are not collaborative. B) A single gene codes for a single, specific protein. C) Genetic expression is unaffected by environmental factors. D) Events that occur inside of the cell can excite or inhibit genetic expression.

27) Scientists have found that certain genes are turned on or off as a result of exercise, mainly through a process called _____, in which tiny molecules attached themselves to the outside of a gene.

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A) genotyping B) methylation C) glycolysis D) hydroxylation

28) Recent research indicates that the process of methylation may be involved in which of the following?

A) Parkinson disease B) baldness C) colorectal cancer D) bulimia

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29)

Meiosis is a specialized form of cell division that occurs to form

A) split zygotes. B) extra chromosomes. C) somatic cells. D) eggs and sperm.

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30)

_____ is a stage in reproduction whereby an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell.

A) Fertilization B) Osmosis C) Meiosis D) Mitosis

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31) During the process of _____, a cell's nucleus—including the chromosomes—duplicates itself and the cell divides, resulting in the formation of two cells.

A) meiosis B) osmosis C) fertilization D) mitosis

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Mitosis null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

32) A cell that contains 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs undergoes the process of _____ to produce two new cells, each containing the same DNA as the original cell, arranged in the same 23 pairs of chromosomes.

A) mitosis B) osmosis C) meiosis D) fertilization

33)

Which of the following is true of mitosis?

A) Mitosis is the cellular reproduction that occurs to form the sperm and the egg cells. B) Mitosis results in the formation of four new cells. C) Mitosis results in the formation of two new cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes. D) Mitosis results in the formation of three new cells.

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34) A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes divides by mitosis to form two new cells. How many pairs of chromosomes does each new cell contain?

A) 6 B) 12 C) 23 D) 48

35)

Except for the sperm and the egg, all cells in the human body have _____ chromosomes.

A) 10 B) 23 C) 32 D) 46

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36) During _____, a cell of the testes in men or ovaries in women duplicates its chromosomes and then divides twice, thus forming four cells, each of which has only half the genetic material of the parent cell.

A) meiosis B) mitosis C) osmosis D) fertilization

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37)

In human beings, by the end of meiosis, each egg or sperm has _____ chromosomes.

A) 23 unpaired B) 46 paired C) 23 paired D) 46 unpaired

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38)

During fertilization, an egg and a sperm fuse to create a single cell called a

A) blastocyst. B) fetus. C) gamete. D) zygote.

39)

Sasha's 23rd chromosome pair contains two X chromosomes. This indicates that Sasha

A) has Down syndrome. B) has fragile X syndrome. C) is female. D) is male.

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40) Jules's 23rd chromosome pair consists of an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. This indicates that Jules

A) has Down syndrome. B) has XYY syndrome. C) is female. D) is male.

41) Combining the genes of two parents in offspring increases _____ in the population, which is valuable for a species because it provides more characteristics for natural selection to operate on.

A) the number of males B) the number of females C) genetic variability D) genetic uniformity

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42) _____ develop from a single zygote that splits into two genetically matching replicas, each of which becomes a person. Version 1

A) Triplets B) Identical twins C) Fraternal twins D) Quadruplets

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43)

Melody and Harmony are identical twins. This means that they developed from

A) a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm. B) a single egg that was fertilized by two different sperms. C) two eggs that were fertilized by a single sperm. D) two eggs that were fertilized by two different sperms.

44)

Jerome and Tyrone are fraternal twins. This means that they developed from

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45) A mistake by the cellular machinery, or damage from an environmental agent such as radiation, may produce a _____, which is a permanently altered segment of DNA.

A) susceptibility gene B) vulnerability gene C) longevity gene D) mutated gene

46) _____ genes are those that make an individual more vulnerable to specific diseases or accelerated aging.

A) Susceptibility B) Longevity C) Vulnerability D) Mutated

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47) Ethel is 50 years old but appears much more aged. Most of Ethel's relatives have not lived past the age of 60. Which of the following genes are responsible for the accelerated aging observed in Ethel and her family members?

A) susceptibility genes B) longevity genes C) vulnerability genes D) mutated genes

48) _____ genes are those that make an individual less vulnerable to certain diseases and more likely to live to an older age.

A) Susceptibility B) Longevity C) Vulnerability D) Mutated

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49) Erin, a 90-year-old, is healthy and leads an active lifestyle. Most of her relatives have lived to an old age. Researchers have found that Erin's family carries genes related to stress resistance, immunity, and metabolism that help extend life by repairing and protecting body tissues. In this scenario, which of the following genes is most likely responsible for Erin living to an old age?

A) susceptibility genes B) longevity genes C) complimentary genes D) mutated genes

50) Carla is diagnosed with breast cancer. She informs her doctor that her mother and her grandmother have also had breast cancer. The doctor explains to Carla that she has specific genes that make her more vulnerable to breast cancer and that she is genetically predisposed to develop the disease. In this scenario, these genes are known as

A) susceptibility genes. B) conditional lethal genes. C) complementary genes. D) duplicate genes.

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51) While studying a sample for height differences, researchers observed that the height of the participants varied significantly regardless of whether the participants' parents were short or tall. This suggests that the physical characteristic of height is most likely an example of

A) niche-picking. B) X-linked inheritance. C) genetic imprinting. D) polygenic inheritance.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

52) Emma and Anna are identical twins who were adopted by different families a few weeks after their birth. Although genetically identical, they grew up with different physical and psychological characteristics. For example, though both inherited a tendency to grow large, Anna was slim and athletic because of the active lifestyle practiced in her adoptive family. This variability can be explained by how

A) each zygote is unique. B) longevity genes can make an individual less vulnerable to certain diseases. C) for each genotype, a range of phenotypes can be expressed. D) mutated genes can be a source of genetic variability.

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53)

Vanda's genetic heritage comprising her actual genetic material makes up her

A) phenotype. B) metabolome. C) genotype. D) proteome.

54) _____ is the way an individual's genotype is expressed in observed and measurable characteristics.

A) RNA B) DNA C) A phenotype D) A stereotype

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55) Marly describes her friend Gina as having blond hair, green eyes, and fair skin with freckles. Marly has described Gina's

A) genotype. B) genetic imprint. C) phenotype. D) X-linked inheritance.

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56)

Phenotypes include _____ and _____ characteristics.

A) physical; environmental B) conscious; subconscious C) biological; ecological D) physical; psychological

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57) For each genotype, a range of _____ can be expressed, thus providing a source of variability.

A) genetic imprints B) phenotypes C) karyotypes D) monotypes

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58) In some cases of genotypic expression, one gene of a pair always exerts its effects, overriding the potential influence of the other gene. This is the _____ principle.

A) sex-linked genes B) dominant-recessive genes C) genetic imprinting D) polygenic inheritance

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59) Clark's eyes are brown in color. However, both his parents have eyes that are blue in color. According to the dominant-recessive genes principle, the most likely reason for Clark's eyes being brown in color is that

A) Clark's grandparents had brown-colored eyes. B) Clark has a mutation in his genotype, resulting in a change in eye color. C) Clark's family, as would be seen in a family history, has a dominant gene for browncolored eyes. D) Clark's parents are carriers of genes contributing to brown eyes.

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60) Carla has brown hair, and her husband also has brown hair. However, Carla's son is born with blond hair. This most likely indicates that Carla's son

A) inherited the dominant genes for blond hair. B) inherited the recessive genes for blond hair. C) has a susceptibility gene. D) has a longevity gene.

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61) Carrie's parents have brown hair. However, Carrie gets genes for blond hair from both of her parents, and as a result she has blond hair. This indicates that the gene for blond hair is a

A) recessive gene. B) dominant gene. C) susceptibility gene. D) longevity gene.

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62)

A(n) _____ gene overrides the potential influence of a recessive gene.

A) longevity B) dominant C) susceptible D) aggressive

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63)

A recessive gene exerts its influence only if both genes of a pair are

A) recessive. B) complementary. C) conditional lethals. D) dominant.

64) Females who have one abnormal copy of a mutated gene on the X chromosome are known as

A) inhibitors. B) patients. C) carriers. D) promoters.

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65)

Most individuals who have X-linked diseases are males, because

A) males have only one copy of the X chromosome. B) the diseases are triggered by the male sex hormone, testosterone. C) males have an extra Y chromosome. D) males have an extra X chromosome, making them XXY.

66)

Which of the following conditions is due to an X-linked inheritance?

A) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome B) hemophilia C) Wilms tumor D) diabetes

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67) _____ occurs when the expression of a gene has different effects depending on whether the mother or the father passed on the gene.

A) Polygenic inheritance B) X-linked inheritance C) Genetic imprinting D) Y-linked inheritance

68) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a growth disorder that is most likely a result of _____ gone awry.

A) genetic imprinting B) polygenic inheritance C) sex-linked genes D) chromosomes

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69) Genetic testing has found that Gary, Ben, Tara, and Matt all carry a copy of a gene for hemophilia. However, Tara, who is the only female of the four, does not show any signs of the disease, whereas Gary, Ben, and Matt have developed the disease. In this scenario, it can be inferred that hemophilia is most likely a(n)

A) X-linked disease. B) sex-linked chromosomal abnormality. C) gene-linked abnormality. D) autosomal dominant disorder.

70) Which of the following is an example of a chromosomal abnormality that occurs when whole chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis?

A) Down syndrome B) hemophilia C) Huntington disease D) sickle-cell anemia

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Down Syndrome

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71) Jason, a 4-year-old, has an intellectual disability and has shorter limbs than other children his age. His pediatrician observes that Jason has a protruding tongue and an extra fold of skin over his eyelids. Jason's mother informs the pediatrician that she was 30 at the time of Jason's birth and that he was born with a flat skull. From this information, the pediatrician will most likely diagnose Jason with

A) Turner syndrome. B) Klinefelter syndrome. C) Down syndrome. D) XYY syndrome.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Down Syndrome null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

72)

Which of the following is true of Down syndrome?

A) It primarily occurs in African American children. B) It occurs when genetic imprinting goes awry. C) Its symptoms include retardation of motor and mental abilities. D) It is caused by the presence of an extra copy of the Y chromosome.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Down Syndrome

73)

When imprinting goes awry, development is disturbed, as in the case of

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A) cancer. B) schizophrenia. C) spina bifida. D) Prader-Willi syndrome

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development.

74) Which of the following women has the highest probability of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome?

A) Sarah, a 21-year-old Asian woman B) Jane, a 41-year-old Euro-American woman C) Ella, a 27-year-old African American woman D) Destiny, a 38-year-old African American woman

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Down Syndrome null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

75)

Human embryos must possess _____ to be viable.

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A) at least one X chromosome B) two Y chromosomes C) at least one Y chromosome D) three Y chromosomes

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

76) Timothy's wife is having trouble conceiving a child, despite reports of her reproductive fitness being normal. However, on examining Timothy, the doctor determines that his testes are undeveloped, and that he has enlarged breasts. He also observes that Timothy is unusually tall, although his parents and grandparents are of short stature. The doctor informs Timothy that these symptoms are due to Timothy having an extra X chromosome, making him XXY instead of XY. Timothy most likely suffers from

A) Down syndrome. B) fragile X syndrome. C) Klinefelter syndrome. D) Turner syndrome.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

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77) Tristan has a genetic disorder that results in his having an intellectual disability. His mother informs Tristan's pediatrician that Tristan has an extremely short attention span for any task. Based on Tristan's symptoms, the pediatrician is most likely to diagnose Tristan with

A) fragile X syndrome. B) XYY syndrome. C) Turner syndrome. D) Tay-Sachs disease.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

78)

Which of the following is true of fragile X syndrome?

A) It occurs more frequently in males than in females. B) It occurs only in females. C) It makes a female XO instead of XX. D) It results in XXY males.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

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79) Harry is an autistic child and has a short attention span for any task. His intellectual abilities are much lower than other children his age. His pediatrician reveals that Harry has a genetic disorder due to an abnormality in his X chromosome, which has become constricted. Harry most likely suffers from A) Turner syndrome. B) fragile X syndrome. C) XYY syndrome. D) Klinefelter syndrome.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

80) Natasha has a short stature, although everyone else in her family is tall. Unlike her family members and relatives, she has a webbed neck. She dislikes mathematics, as she has difficulty understanding the subject. However, she takes part in and enjoys activities that require verbal communication. Natasha's doctor informs her parents that she is missing an X chromosome, making her XO instead of XX. The symptoms and the cause of the symptoms most likely indicate that Natasha has

A) fragile X syndrome. B) XYY syndrome. C) Klinefelter syndrome. D) Turner syndrome.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

81) Sandra excels in reading and spelling but struggles with mathematics. She is shorter than her peers and has a webbed neck. Her doctor has determined that she has one X chromosome missing. Sandra most likely has

A) XYY syndrome. B) fragile X syndrome. C) Turner syndrome. D) XXO syndrome.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

82)

Which of the following statements about Turner syndrome is true?

A) Turner syndrome occurs exclusively in females. B) People with Turner syndrome have extremely poor verbal ability. C) Males with Turner syndrome are short in stature and have webbed necks. D) Turner syndrome occurs in approximately 1 of every 25,000 live female births.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

83) Which of the following is the most likely characteristic among persons with Klinefelter syndrome?

A) undeveloped testes B) short stature C) small breasts D) an extra fold of skin over the eyelids

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Sex-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

84) Brianna goes to a doctor who specializes in identifying genetic flaws to help prevent the risk of abnormalities. This doctor is called a

A) genealogist. B) genetic counselor. C) chromosomal advisor. D) physiologist.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities null : APA LO: 5.1: Apply psychological content and skills to career goals

85) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder in which an individual cannot properly metabolize _____, an amino acid.

A) phenylamine B) phenylalanine C) phenylacetylene D) phenylacetamide

86)

Which of the following is true of phenylketonuria?

A) It results from a recessive gene. B) It is a chromosomal disorder. C) It typically results in death by the age of 5. D) It is caused by an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

87) Mateo, an infant, is on a special diet, as his parents are aware that he has a genetic disorder in which he cannot metabolize phenylalanine, an amino acid. Mateo's parents are also aware of the importance of this diet and that excess phenylalanine buildup in the infant will produce intellectual disability and hyper-activity. This genetic disorder results from a

A) dominant gene. B) recessive gene. C) complementary gene. D) longevity gene.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

88)

Which of the following is a gene-linked abnormality?

A) Down syndrome B) phenylketonuria (PKU) C) Turner syndrome D) Klinefelter syndrome

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89) Tamara, an African American, is born with a genetic disorder that causes her body's red blood cells to become hook shaped instead of being disk shaped, impairing the normal oxygencarrying capacity of the cells. The doctors explain to Tamara's parents that this condition, however, makes her resistant to malaria. Which of the following disorders is Tamara most likely suffering from?

A) Tay-Sachs disease B) sickle-cell anemia C) leukemia D) Huntington disease

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

90) _____ is a genetic abnormality in which delayed blood clotting causes internal and external bleeding.

A) Hemophilia B) Phenylketonuria C) Sickle-cell anemia D) Tay-Sachs disease

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91) Paul has a gene-linked abnormality, and as a result he suffers from an X-linked inheritance disease. Because of this disease, Paul suffers from internal and external bleeding due to delayed blood clotting. Which of the following will effectively treat Paul's condition?

A) hydroxyurea B) blood transfusions C) anticoagulants D) blood irradiation therapy

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

92) Samantha is diagnosed with a genetic disorder. She suffers from a glandular dysfunction that hinders mucus production. She has difficulty breathing, and her digestion is hampered. She also has frequent lung infections and suffers from shortness of breath. In this scenario, which of the following genetic disorders is Samantha most likely suffering from?

A) cystic fibrosis B) Huntington disease C) phenylketonuria D) Tay-Sachs disease

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

93) _____ is a gene-linked abnormality in which the central nervous system deteriorates, producing problems in muscle coordination and mental deterioration.

A) Cystic fibrosis B) Phenylketonuria C) Huntington disease D) Tay-Sachs disease

94) Which of the following would be an appropriate course of treatment for a person diagnosed with cystic fibrosis?

A) medication for pain, antibiotics, blood transfusions, and hydroxyurea B) insulin treatment C) blood transfusions/injection D) physical and oxygen therapy, synthetic enzymes, and antibiotics

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

95) Mary and Jim are expecting a child. During prenatal diagnostic testing, the doctor confirms that the fetus has a genetic abnormality that will lead to a neural tube disorder, causing brain and spine abnormalities. He also tells the parents that the baby will most likely have protruding tissue, especially from the lower back, and that the abnormality can be treated with corrective surgery at birth, orthopedic devices, and physical or medical therapy. Which of the following disorders is Mary and Jim's child suffering from?

A) spina bifida B) Tay-Sachs disease C) phenylketonuria D) Huntington disease

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

96) Lindsay's body does not produce enough insulin, causing abnormal metabolism of sugar. She is receiving insulin treatments. Lindsay has

A) spina bifida. B) hemophilia. C) phenylketonuria. D) diabetes.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

97) Joshua, a 2-year-old, has been diagnosed with _____, a blood disorder that limits the body's oxygen supply and can cause joint swelling and heart and kidney failure. This genetic disorder can be treated through penicillin, pain medication, antibiotics, blood transfusions, and hydroxyurea.

A) spina bifida B) Tay-Sachs disease C) sickle-cell anemia D) Huntington disease

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

98) Benny has been diagnosed with a gene-linked abnormality characterized by deceleration of mental and physical development caused by an accumulation of lipids in the nervous system. He has been put on medication and a special diet, but his family has been told that he will probably not live beyond the age of 5. Benny is suffering from

A) spina bifida. B) Tay-Sachs disease. C) phenylketonuria. D) Huntington disease.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene-Linked Chromosomal Abnormalities

99) Gwendolyn is pregnant and is undergoing a prenatal medical procedure in which her doctor directs high-frequency sound waves into her abdomen to create a visual representation of the fetus's inner structures. The doctor informs her that the procedure will reveal the number of fetuses she is carrying, detect abnormalities in the fetus, and give clues as to the sex of the baby. In this scenario, which of the following prenatal medical procedures is Gwendolyn most likely undergoing?

A) chorionic villus sampling B) triple screen C) amniocentesis D) ultrasound sonography

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Prenatal Diagnostic Tests Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

100) _____ refers to an abnormally small brain in a fetus, which can lead to intellectual disability.

A) Spina bifida B) Klinefelter syndrome C) Hemophilia D) Microencephaly

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Prenatal Diagnostic Tests null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

101) _____ uses a powerful magnet and radio images to generate detailed images of the body's organs and structures.

A) Triple screen B) MRI C) Ultrasound sonography D) Amniocentesis

102) Esperanza, who is in the 11th week of her pregnancy, is undergoing a prenatal diagnostic test that involves the removal of a small sample of the placenta. The doctor informs her that the test may detect any genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus and that she will have to wait for at least 10 days for the diagnosis. In this scenario, which of the following prenatal medical procedures is Esperanza most likely undergoing?

A) chorionic villus sampling (CVS) B) amniocentesis C) noninvasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) D) triple screen

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103)

Which of the following is the vascular organ that links the fetus to the mother's uterus?

A) the fallopian tube B) the ovary C) the placenta D) the cervix

104) Identify a risk related to the use of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) as a prenatal diagnostic test.

A) limb deformity B) spina bifida C) Down syndrome D) mental retardation

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105) Recent advances in molecular genetics and DNA sequencing allow accurate and noninvasive testing for some genetic abnormalities, using

A) cell-free fetal DNA. B) amniotic fluid. C) ultrasonic measurements. D) fetal blood sampling.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Remember Topic : Prenatal Diagnostic Tests null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

106)

Amniocentesis brings a small risk of

A) mental retardation. B) limb deformity. C) miscarriage. D) Down syndrome.

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107) Which of the following statements regarding chorionic villus sampling (CVS) and amniocentesis is true?

A) Both CVS and amniocentesis provide valuable information about the presence of birth defects. B) Both CVS and amniocentesis increase the risk of miscarriage. C) Both CVS and amniocentesis increase the risk of limb deformities in the fetus. D) Amniocentesis allows a decision on abortion to be made sooner than CVS.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Prenatal Diagnostic Tests null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

108)

The current maternal blood screening test is called the triple screen because

A) it is performed three times. B) it diagnoses three diseases. C) it measures three substances in the mother's blood. D) it is the third prenatal diagnostic test performed in a pregnancy.

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109) Don and Ellie are trying to conceive a baby. How long should they wait before they suspect infertility?

A) 3 months B) 12 months C) 18 months D) 24 months

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Infertility and Reproductive Technology

110)

Which of the following is most likely to be a cause of infertility in a woman?

A) unblocked fallopian tubes B) increased muscle mass C) eggs lacking motility D) a disease that hinders the implantation of the embryo into the uterus

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111)

By far the most common high-tech assisted reproduction technique used is

A) artificial insemination. B) in vitro fertilization. C) spermatogenesis. D) in vivo fertilization.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. Topic : Infertility and Reproductive Technology

112) David and Kelly are seeking help for infertility. Under their physician's guidance, they decide to undergo a procedure in which Kelly's eggs are combined in a laboratory dish with her husband's sperms. What is this procedure called?

A) gamete transfer B) intracytoplasmic sperm injection C) zygote intrafallopian transfer D) in vitro fertilization

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Infertility and Reproductive Technology

113)

Recently a high level of _____ has been linked to male infertility.

A) oxidative stress B) fitness C) meat consumption D) emotional detachment

114) Which of the following is the main risk factor that a couple must be aware of when undergoing fertility treatments?

A) high birth weight in babies conceived through such treatments B) an increase in the possibility of multiple births C) negative psychological impact on children conceived through such treatments D) significant differences in developmental outcomes

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115) _____ is a social and legal process by which a parent-child relationship is established between persons unrelated at birth.

A) Kinship care B) Rebirthing C) Guardianship D) Adoption

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Adoption null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

116)

Which of the following statements is true regarding adopted children?

A) Nonadopted children are more likely to experience school-related problems than adopted children. B) Children who are adopted early in life are more likely to have positive outcomes than those adopted later in life. C) Adopted children should never be allowed to meet their birth parents. D) Most adopted children struggle with school, peer relationships, and self-esteem.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Adoption null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

117) _____ is the field that seeks to discover the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development.

A) Behavior influence B) Behavior therapy C) Behavior genetics D) Behavior development

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Behavior Genetics

118)

In twin studies, it is most common to

A) assess the behavioral similarity of identical twins compared with the behavioral similarity of non-twin siblings. B) determine the behavioral similarity of identical twins compared with the behavioral similarity of fraternal twins. C) conduct genetic studies of the difference between identical twins in their genetic makeup. D) compare adopted fraternal twins with each other.

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119) Rachel loves to read books, and she has encouraged her daughter to read by regularly taking her to the local library and buying her lots of books. Rachel's daughter is now an avid reader. This reflects a(n) _____ correlation.

A) passive genotype-environment B) evocative genotype-environment C) influential genotype-environment D) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Passive Genotype-Environment Correlations

120) Tracy's parents are avid sports fans. Since Tracy was small, they have taken her to numerous baseball and football games, and Tracy has regularly watched the sports channel with her dad. When Tracy was old enough, her parents signed her up for the little league team at her school, and she performed well. This is an example of a(n)

A) evocative genotype-environment correlation. B) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation. C) passive genotype-environment correlation. D) gene-gene correlation.

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121) _____ correlations occur because a child's genetically influenced characteristics elicit certain types of environments.

A) Passive genotype-environment B) Evocative genotype-environment C) Influential genotype-environment D) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Evocative Genotype-Environment Correlations

122) Charlie is a cooperative, attentive child and is a favorite at home and at school; he receives positive, instructive responses from adults. This is indicative of a(n)

A) passive genotype-environment correlation. B) evocative genotype-environment correlation. C) influential genotype-environment correlation. D) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Evocative Genotype-Environment Correlations

123) Timothy is a shy 6-year-old who is usually withdrawn in class. He is always distracted and refuses to cooperate with other students during class activities. He does not volunteer to answer questions, and as his teachers find it difficult to elicit any response from him, they choose to ignore him. He is not liked by his classmates, as he never shares his belongings. As a result, he mostly plays by himself. According to Sandra Scarr's description of the three ways that heredity and environment can be correlated, which of the following correlations is most likely exhibited in this scenario?

A) passive genotype-environment correlation B) active genotype-environment correlation C) niche-picking genotype-environment correlation D) evocative genotype-environment correlation

124) Brad is an athletic child, and he is in every sports team in school, as he enjoys sports immensely. He regularly practices football, tennis, and basketball and hopes to become the captain of one of the sports teams. This scenario most likely reflects a(n) _____ correlation, the type that occurs when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating.

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A) passive genotype-environment B) evocative genotype-environment C) active (niche-picking) genotype-environment D) influential genotype-environment

125) According to Sandra Scarr's description of the three ways that heredity and environment can be correlated, passive genotype-environment correlations occur because

A) biological parents provide a rearing environment for a child. B) children seek out environments that are stimulating. C) a child's genetically influ-enced characteristics elicit certain types of environments. D) certain genes evoke environmental support.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Passive Genotype-Environment Correlations

126)

Which of the following is an example of a passive genotype-environment correlation?

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A) Uncooperative, distractible children receive more unpleasant and disciplinary action from parents and teachers. B) Outgoing children tend to seek out social contexts in which to interact with people. C) Parents who have a genetic predisposition to be musically inclined encourage their children to learn how to play a musical instrument. D) Infants who smile more receive more attention from the individuals in their social environment.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Passive Genotype-Environment Correlations

127) The _____ view states that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

A) epigenetic B) biosocial C) sociogenic D) congenital

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Epigenetic View

128) _____ is the interaction of a specific measured variation in DNA and a specific measured aspect of the environment.

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A) Heredity-environment correlation B) Evocative genotype-environment correlation C) Gene × environment (G × E) interaction D) Passive genotype-environment interaction

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Gene X Environment Interaction

129) While birth fathers are often less likely to be included in open adoption, a recent study indicates that they would like to be part of the

A) open adoption triad. B) adoption-for-pay scheme. C) open sperm donation model. D) foreign adoption program.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Adoption Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Gene X Environment Interaction

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 130) Charles Darwin was the theorist who publishedOn the Origin of Species, in 1859, which outlined his theory of natural _____.

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131)

An organism survives in its natural habitat through _____ behavior.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the evolutionary perspective on human development. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Adaptive Behavior

132) The field of _____ psychology emphasizes the importance of adaptation, reproduction, and "survival of the fittest" in shaping human behavior. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the evolutionary perspective on human development. Topic : Evolutionary Psychology

133) What is the abbreviation for the complex molecule that has a double helix shape and contains genetic information? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Topic : DNA

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134) What are the short segments of DNA that are located on the chromosomes and considered to be the basic units of hereditary information? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Genes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

135) Cell division occurs in the eggs and sperm. A cell duplicates its chromosomes and divides twice. This leads to the formation of four cells that contain only half the genetic material of the parent cell. What is this process called? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Meiosis null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development.

136) During the early stages of a pregnancy, a single zygote splits into two genetically identical replicas. The genetically identical replicas of the single zygote indicate that the pregnant person will have identical, or _____, twins. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Topic : Sources of Variability null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

137) Xiomarra is tall with dark, curly hair and brown eyes. She is outgoing and friendly. The way that Xiomarra's genotype is expressed in these observable characteristics is referred to as her _____. Version 1

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Topic : Sources of Variability

138) Sherry, a 3-year-old, has an extra copy of chromosome 21. She is often made fun of by other children because of her unusual looks: She has a round face and her skull is flat; she has a protruding tongue; and she finds it difficult to play because of her short limbs. Her parents find that her mental abilities are impaired when compared with other children her age. Sherry is most likely suffering from a chromosomal abnormality called _____ syndrome. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Learning Objective : Describe the mechanisms of heredity in normal and abnormal human development. Topic : Down Syndrome null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

139) Identify the prenatal medical procedure in which a sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn by a syringe and tested for chromosomal or metabolic disorders. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Prenatal Diagnostic Tests null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options.

140) Deshawn believes that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and environment. He has most likely adopted the _____ view.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Epigenetic View Topic : Behavior Genetics Topic : Gene X Environment Interaction

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 141) Explain the genome-wide association method and how it has been used to help identify genetic variations of diseases.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Genes Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

142) List the four genetic principles. In your opinion, which do you think is the most serious, and why?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the influence of genes on human development. Topic : Dominant-Recessive Genes null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Evaluate

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143)

List four sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities.

144)

List five gene-linked abnormalities.

145)

Name and describe three prenatal diagnostic tests.

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146) What are some of the possible causes of infertility in women and men? Identify two strategies that can be used to overcome infertility.

147) Differentiate between open and closed adoption. Analyze the effect of open adoption on the overall development of the adopted child.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Adoption Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Analyze

148) What are some problems adopted children face at different points of development (infancy, early childhood, middle and late childhood, and adolescence)?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Adoption Learning Objective : Summarize reproductive challenges and options. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

149) Identify and describe the two common types of studies used by behavior geneticists to investigate the influence of heredity on behavior.

150) What are the three ways that heredity and environment are correlated, as described by behavior geneticist Sandra Scarr?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Evocative Genotype-Environment Correlations Topic : Passive Genotype-Environment Correlations Topic : Active Genotype-Environment Correlations

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151) Assume that in the case study of the Jim and Jim twins, it was found that their similar development trajectories were a result of similar temperament and interests, which caused them to seek out similar environments that were compatible and stimulating to them. Which heredityenvironment correlation is reflected in this scenario?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze Topic : Active Genotype-Environment Correlations

152) Define gene × environment (G × E) interaction. Give an example of a study (either your own or one from the book) that could illustrate the interaction between genes and the environment.

153) Violet, who is in the 11th week of pregnancy, is undergoing a prenatal medical procedure to detect genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. During the procedure, her obstetrician removes a small sample of the placenta for analysis. Name the prenatal medical procedure that Violet is undergoing.

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154) Yelena is an outgoing person, and as a result, people naturally tend to like her and find her personable. According to Sandra Scarr, which genotype-environment interaction does this best represent?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how heredity and environment interact in human development. Topic : Behavior Genetics Topic : Gene X Environment Interaction Topic : Evocative Genotype-Environment Correlations

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Answer Key Test name: Ch02 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) D 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) C 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) A 93) C 94) D 95) A 96) D 97) C 98) B 99) D 100) D 101) B 102) A 103) C 104) A 105) A 106) C 107) A 108) C 109) B 110) D 111) B 112) D 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) B Version 1

117) C 118) B 119) A 120) C 121) B 122) B 123) D 124) C 125) A 126) C 127) A 128) C 129) A 130) selection 131) adaptive 132) evolutionary 133) DNA 134) genes 135) meiosis 136) monozygotic 137) phenotype 138) Down 139) amniocentesis 140) epigenetic 141) Researchers obtained DNA from those who had the disease (such as glaucoma or Alzheimer disease) and those who did not have the disease. Then, they purified the DNA and determined markers of genetic variation. If the genetic variation was more frequent in those with the disease, then that would point to the region in the genome connected to that disease. Version 1

142) Students' answers will vary. The four genetic principles are the dominant-recessive genes principle, sex-linked genes (X-linked inheritance), genetic imprinting, and polygenic inheritance. 143) Klinefelter syndrome, fragile X syndrome, Turner syndrome, and XYY syndrome are all sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities. 144) The gene-linked abnormalities include cystic fibrosis, diabetes, hemophilia, Huntington disease, sickle-cell anemia, spina bifida, TaySachs disease, and phenylketonuria (PKU). 145)Prenatal diagnostic tests include the following: 1) Ultrasound sonography, where high-frequency sound waves are directed into the pregnant woman's abdomen and the echo from the sounds is transformed into a visual representation of the fetus's inner structures 2) Fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), where a powerful magnet and radio images are used to generate detailed images of the body's organs and structures 3) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), where a small sample of the placenta is removed to test for genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities 146)Lack of ovulation, producing abnormal ova, blocked fallopian tubes, and diseases that prevent implantation of an embryo into the uterus are some of the causes of infertility in women. Sperm lacking motility, low sperm count, and blocked passageways are among the causes of infertility in men. In some cases of infertility, surgery may correct the cause; in others, hormone-based drugs may improve the probability of having a child.

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147) Open adoption involves sharing identifying information and having contact with the biological parents; in contrast, closed adoption involves not having such sharing and contact. Most adoption agencies today offer adoptive parents the opportunity to have either an open or a closed adoption. A longitudinal study found that when their adopted children reached adulthood, adoptive parents described open adoption positively and saw it as serving the child’s best interests. Another longitudinal study found that birth mothers, adoptive parents, and adopted children who had contact were more satisfied with their arrangements than those who did not have contact. Also, in this study, contact was linked to more optimal adjustment for adolescents and emerging adults. Further, birth mothers who were more satisfied with their contact arrangements had less unresolved grief 12 to 20 years after placement. In a study of adoptees in emerging adulthood, perceptions of secure parent-child attachment relationships, as well as sensitive and open communication about birth parent contact, were linked to greater satisfaction with life. 148) During infancy, children might struggle with attachment, especially if parents' expectations aren't met. By early childhood, children begin to ask where they came from. Thus, parents must decide when and if to tell their children that they are adopted. During middle and late childhood, children tend to show greater interest in where they came from, their birth parents, and why they were put up for adoption. By adolescence, adopted children start focusing their attention on physical appearances. As a result, they may notice that they look different from their biological parents and try to determine their identity.

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149) To study the influence of heredity on behavior, behavior geneticists often use either twins or adoption situations. In the most common twin study, the behavioral similarity of identical twins (who are genetically identical) is compared with the behavioral similarity of fraternal twins. In an adoption study, investigators seek to discover whether the behavior and psychological characteristics of adopted children are more like those of their adoptive parents, who have provided a home environment, or more like those of their biological parents, who have contributed their heredity. Another form of adoption study compares adoptive and biological siblings. 150)Behavior geneticist Sandra Scarr described three ways that heredity and environment are correlated: 1) Passive genotype-environment correlations that occur because biological parents, who are genetically related to the child, provide a rearing environment for the child 2) Evocative genotype-environment correlations that occur because a child's characteristics elicit certain types of environments 3) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlations that occur when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating 151) This would reflect the active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation, which occurs when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating.

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152) Gene × environment (G × E) interaction refers to the interaction of a specific measured variation in the DNA and a specific measured aspect of the environment. In one study, adults who experienced parental loss as young children were more likely to have unresolved attachment issues as adults only when they had the short version of the 5-HTTLPR gene. The long version of the serotonin transporter gene apparently provided some protection and ability to cope better with parental loss. 153) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is the prenatal medical procedure in which a small sample of the placenta is removed. 154) This best represents an evocative genotype-environment correlation.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) _____ occurs when a single sperm cell from the male unites with an ovum (egg) in the female's fallopian tube, in a process called fertilization.

A) Ovulation B) Meiosis C) Conception D) Mitosis

The process in which cells begin to specialize in order to perform various tasks is called

A) cell differentiation. B) cell senescence. C) cell division. D) mitosis.

3) Salma is trying to get pregnant and is visiting her doctor to understand more about pregnancy and childbirth. She asks her doctor about the duration of typical prenatal development. Which of the following would be her doctor's response?

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A) 20 to 28 weeks B) 24 to 30 weeks C) 28 to 33 weeks D) 38 to 40 weeks

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Embryonic Period Topic : Germinal Period

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the periods of prenatal development?

A) fertile; embryonic; postterm B) preterm; germinal; postterm C) gestational; germinal; postnatal D) germinal; embryonic; fetal

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Topic : Embryonic Period Topic : Germinal Period Topic : Fetal Period

Rachel is in the first period of prenatal development, which is the _____ period.

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A) fetal B) embryonic C) implantation D) germinal

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Germinal Period

The germinal period of development takes place in the _____ after conception.

A) first two weeks B) first two months C) first three months D) first seven weeks

An egg is fertilized in the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) fetal B) embryonic C) implantation D) germinal

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8) Voletta is at the stage of pregnancy in which the zygote has attached itself to the uterine wall. This indicates the _____ stage of prenatal development.

A) embryonic B) postpartum C) germinal D) fetal

_____ refers to the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall.

A) Implantation B) Conception C) Fertilization D) Involution

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10)

The _____ consists of an inner mass of cells that eventually develops into an embryo.

A) trophoblast B) blastocyst C) endoblast D) cytocyst

11)

The blastocyst differs from the trophoblast in that the blastocyst

A) is composed of an inner layer of cells that will finally develop into the embryo. B) is the outermost layer of the embryo that will eventually produce the surface parts. C) is the outer layer of cells that later provides nutrition and support for the embryo. D) is a disk-shaped group of tissues in which small blood vessels from the mother and the offspring intertwine but do not join.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Germinal Period

12) The _____ is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst that later provides nutrition and support for the embryo.

A) ectoderm B) perineum C) cytocyst D) trophoblast

13) Implantation, the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall, takes place about _____ days after conception.

A) 6 to 8 B) 8 to 10 C) 11 to 15 D) 14 to 16

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14)

Which of the following is a feature of the embryonic period of prenatal development?

A) the creation of the fertilized egg B) the formation of the blastocyst C) the attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall D) the formation of support systems for cells

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Topic : Embryonic Period null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

15) Carla is three-and-a-half weeks pregnant. This indicates that her child is in the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) embryonic B) fetal C) placental D) germinal

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16) The attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall begins the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) germinal B) embryonic C) fetal D) zygotic

17) Cell differentiation intensifies and organs appear in the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) embryonic B) zygotic C) fetal D) germinal

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18) In the period of prenatal development that occurs from two to eight weeks after conception, the blastocyst attaches to the uterine wall. During this period, the mass of cells is referred to as a(n)

A) trophoblast. B) follicle. C) fetus. D) embryo.

19) The _____ consists of three layers of cells: the endoderm, the mesoderm, and the ectoderm.

A) blastocyst B) fetus C) embryo D) trophoblast

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20)

The inner layer of cells of the embryo is referred to as the

A) mesoderm. B) epidermis. C) endometrium. D) endoderm.

21)

The embryo's _____ develops into the digestive and respiratory systems.

A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) trophoblast D) mesoderm

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22)

The outermost layer of the embryo is called the

A) mesoderm, which produces the digestive system. B) cytoderm, which produces the circulatory system. C) endoderm, which produces the reproductive system. D) ectoderm, which produces the nervous system.

23)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the middle layer of the embryo?

A) It will develop into the circulatory system, bones, muscles, excretory system, and reproductive system. B) It will develop into the nervous system and brain, sensory receptors, and skin parts. C) It primarily produces internal body parts. D) It primarily produces surface parts.

24) The _____ is a layer of the embryo that primarily produces parts that surround the internal areas.

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A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm D) epidermis

25)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the layers of cells of an embryo?

A) The mesoderm develops into the nervous system and brain, sensory receptors, and skin parts. B) The ectoderm primarily produces surface parts. C) The endoderm is composed of the mesoderm and the ectoderm. D) The mesoderm primarily produces internal body parts and sensory receptors.

26)

The life-support systems for the embryo include the

A) umbilical cord, placenta, and amnion. B) circulatory, nervous, and digestive systems. C) digestive system, umbilical cord, and amnion. D) nervous system, digestive system, and umbilical cord.

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27) The _____ consists of a group of tissues in which small blood vessels from the mother and the offspring intertwine but do not join.

A) amnion B) placenta C) embryo D) umbilical cord

28) The structure that contains two arteries and one vein, and connects the developing embryo to the mother's body, is called the

A) amnion. B) placenta. C) embryo. D) umbilical cord.

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29) The _____ prevents large molecules like red blood cells and harmful substances, such as most bacteria and maternal wastes, from entering the fetus.

A) umbilical cord B) placental wall C) amniotic sheath D) ectoderm

30) The _____ is like a bag or envelope and contains a clear fluid in which the developing embryo floats.

A) placenta B) umbilical cord C) amnion D) cervix

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31) The _____ provides an environment that is temperature and humidity controlled as well as shockproof.

A) placental wall B) pericardial fluid C) umbilical cord D) amniotic fluid

32) Which of the following is a small molecule that would be able to pass through the placental wall?

A) a red blood cell B) carbon dioxide C) a hormone D) maternal wastes

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33) The process of organ development during the first two months of prenatal development is known as

A) organogenesis. B) spermatogenesis. C) urogenesis. D) oogenesis.

34) During the fourth week of prenatal development, the urogenital system becomes apparent, and _____ emerge.

A) fingernails and toenails B) hair and eyelashes C) arm and leg buds D) eyes and eyelids

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35) Tara has just entered the fetal period. It has therefore been _____ months since conception.

A) two B) three C) four D) five

36) Which of the following statements is true regarding the fetus at the end of the fourth month of pregnancy?

A) The fetus is about 3 inches long and weighs about four-fifths of an ounce. B) A growth spurt occurs in the fetus's lower body. C) The eyes and eyelids are completely formed, and a fine layer of hair covers the head. D) The fetus for the first time has a chance of surviving outside the womb.

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37) The fetus that Calista is carrying has reached the age of viability, meaning that it has a chance of surviving outside of the womb. It can therefore be inferred that Calista is _____ weeks pregnant.

A) 4 to 8 B) 10 to 12 C) 16 to 18 D) 24 to 25

38) Sidney is expecting her first child. She has recently begun to feel the fetus kicking. Sidney's current stage of pregnancy would fall under the _____ of prenatal development.

A) embryonic period B) fetal period C) germinal period D) implantation period

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39)

During pregnancy, which of the following organs or systems is the first to develop?

A) the visual system B) the spinal cord C) the urogenital system D) the liver

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Trimesters null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development.

40)

Petra is in the fourth month of her pregnancy. Her unborn child is now referred to as a(n)

A) gamete. B) zygote. C) fetus. D) embryo.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Trimesters Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

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41) Uma has completed her third trimester and has just given birth. Which of the following is most likely to be true, assuming that the baby is perfectly average?

A) The baby is 19 to 20 inches long and weighs 6 to 7.5 pounds. B) Lanugo covers the baby's body. C) Vernix caseosa begins to form after the baby is delivered. D) The baby is more active than it was at 28 weeks.

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42) Mariah is at a particular stage of pregnancy in which the fetus's heartbeat is audible with an ordinary stethoscope. Which prenatal developmental stage is the fetus currently in?

A) the first trimester B) the second trimester C) the fourth trimester D) the conception stage

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43) Melania has tested positive with a pregnancy test. She is very happy and visits her doctor to find out the sex of her unborn child so that she can hold a gender reveal party for her family. Her doctor tells her that it is too early to determine the sex of the child and that it can be determined only after _____ weeks.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 12

44) Cathy is preparing for the birth of her first child. She asks her doctor when her baby may begin to assume the birth position. Which of the following would be her doctor's response?

A) 16 weeks onward B) 20 weeks onward C) 24 weeks onward D) 32 weeks onward

45) The long hollow tube formed by the mother's nervous system and located on the embryo's back is called the

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A) embryonal tube. B) neural tube. C) anacephal tube. D) fetal tube.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development

46) The generation of new neurons that begins to take place in the fifth prenatal week and occurs throughout pregnancy is called

A) neurogenesis. B) neuronal migration. C) neuronal connectivity. D) neural revitalization.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development

47) Cells moving outward from their original point to their appropriate locations and creating different levels, structures, and regions of the brain is called

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A) neurogenesis. B) neuronal migration. C) neuronal connectivity. D) neural revitalization.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development

48)

Neural connectivity begins at around the

A) 20th prenatal week. B) 23rd prenatal week. C) 26th prenatal week. D) 29th prenatal week.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development

49) _____ and _____ are the two birth defects that occur when the neural tube fails to close 27 days after conception.

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A) Down syndrome; Tay-Sachs disease B) Trisomy 13; trisomy 18 C) Spina bifida; anencephaly D) ADHD; autism

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development

50) Sophia has just learned that she is pregnant. Her doctor advises a change in her diet to avoid any potential neural tube defects. Which of the following does her doctor recommend?

A) consuming foods rich in vitamin C B) consuming adequate amounts of the B vitamin folic acid C) consuming additional calcium supplements D) consuming additional iron supplements

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

51) Which of the following statements best distinguishes neurogenesis from neuronal migration?

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A) Neurogenesis refers to the closure of the neural tube 27 days after conception, whereas neuronal migration refers to the formation of the neural tube 18 days after conception. B) Neurogenesis is the occurrence of connections between neurons postnatally, whereas neuronal migration is the formation of the blastocyst and trophoblast. C) Neurogenesis occurs 24–30 hours after fertilization, whereas neuronal migration occurs during the first two weeks after conception. D) Neurogenesis refers to the formation of new neurons, whereas neuronal migration refers to the movement of cells outward to create the different levels, structures, and regions of the brain.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Analyze

52) Sarah is a 20-year-old college student who is paralyzed from the waist down. She can walk—with difficulty—using crutches, but she prefers her wheelchair. Sarah's condition is due to a birth defect that occurs when the neural tube fails to close during gestation. Which of the following birth defects does Sarah most likely have?

A) anencephaly B) neuronal migration C) multiple sclerosis D) spina bifida

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

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53)

Which of the following is true of neuronal migration?

A) It results in the closure of the neural tube 27 days after conception. B) It causes birth defects such as anencephaly and spina bifida. C) At its peak, close to 200,000 neurons are generated every minute. D) It occurs 6 to 24 weeks after conception.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Prenatal Brain Development null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

54) Neurogenesis continues through the remainder of the prenatal period but is largely complete by the end of the _____ month after conception.

A) fourth B) fifth C) sixth D) seventh

55)

Teratogen comes from the Greek word tera, which means

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A) "deformed." B) "monster." C) "earth." D) "evil."

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Teratogen null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development.

56)

A teratogen is any agent that can cause

A) organogenesis. B) birth defects. C) fetal movement. D) maternal back pain.

57)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the impact of teratogens?

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A) Very few fetuses are exposed to teratogens, so it is easy to determine which teratogen causes which defect. B) Fetuses are safe from the effects of teratogens during the first trimester. C) Teratogens cause anatomical defects only after organogenesis is complete. D) Exposure to teratogens does more damage when it occurs at some points in development than at others.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Teratogen Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

58) During which period of development is the unborn baby most at risk of developing a structural defect due to the effects of a teratogen?

A) at conception B) during the germinal period C) during the embryonic period D) during the fetal period

59) _____ act on the nervous system in such a way as to alter states of consciousness, modify perceptions, and change moods.

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A) Antiemetics B) Biofeedback therapies C) Antihypertensives D) Psychoactive drugs

60) Which of the following is advised for pregnant women by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

A) Pregnant women should not consume caffeine or should consume it only sparingly. B) Pregnant women can consume as much caffeine as they want in chocolate but not in coffee. C) Pregnant women can safely drink three cups of coffee each day after the third month of pregnancy. D) Pregnant women should not consume caffeine in soda or tea but can consume caffeine safely through coffee.

61) Which of the following is the U.S. Surgeon General's recommendation regarding alcohol intake during pregnancy?

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A) It is wise to consume alcohol in moderation at the time of conception. B) One or two servings of beer or wine a few days a week can have positive effects on the fetus. C) No alcohol should be consumed during pregnancy. D) One or two servings of hard liquor a few days a week can have positive effects on the fetus.

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62) Jessica is a 25-year-old woman who often drinks alcohol. Now that she is pregnant, her doctor has advised her to avoid alcohol, as it has been proven to cause abnormalities in the offspring. According to recent research, which of the following is a known abnormality?

A) lower birth weight B) withdrawal symptoms C) lower quality of reflexes at one month of age D) facial deformities

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63) Kate is addicted to smoking. Even though her doctor advises her to quit smoking during her pregnancy, she continues smoking. Which of the following is a possible consequence?

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A) Her baby will suffer from attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. B) Her baby will have higher than average birth weight. C) Her baby will suffer from autism. D) Her baby will suffer from schizophrenia.

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64) Alicia is pregnant and is a heavy smoker. Which of the following risks does her baby face?

A) facial and limb deformities B) sudden infant death syndrome C) cognitive defects D) tremors and increased general irritability

65)

Cessation of smoking by pregnant women by the third trimester

A) is linked to improved birth outcomes. B) has shown to increase the irritability of newborns. C) is linked with newborn withdrawal symptoms. D) has not shown to make a notable difference in newborns.

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66) According to research, which of the following risks is linked to environmental tobacco smoke?

A) reduced head circumference in newborns B) withdrawal symptoms in newborns C) lower quality of reflexes at one month of age in newborns D) impaired connectivity of the thalamus and prefrontal cortex in newborns

67)

Prenatal cocaine exposure has been linked to

A) decreased blood pressure at nine years of age. B) impaired language development and information processing. C) increased head circumference at birth. D) quicker motor development at two years of age.

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68)

Which of the following statements is true of cocaine use during pregnancy?

A) Cocaine quickly crosses the placenta to reach the fetus. B) Cocaine is broken down in the mother's bloodstream before it can reach the fetus. C) Cocaine molecules are too large to pass through the placenta. D) Cocaine exposure during prenatal development has no negative effects on the fetus.

69) Sammy is conducting a seminar on the effects of cocaine use by pregnant women. Which of the following statements, if true, would she focus on during her seminar?

A) Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is associated with increased birth weight. B) Prenatal cocaine exposure has been linked to higher arousal. C) Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is associated with reduced length and head circumference. D) Children born to cocaine users exhibit higher quality of reflexes at one month of age.

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70) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of substance abuse by pregnant mothers?

A) Infants whose mothers are addicted to heroin show several behavioral difficulties at birth, including withdrawal symptoms. B) Prenatal marijuana exposure is related to higher intelligence in children. C) Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is linked to low blood pressure at nine years of age. D) Maternal smoking is linked to enhanced ovarian functioning in female offspring.

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of marijuana exposure on offspring? A) Research has concluded that marijuana use by pregnant women is associated with facial deformities in their offspring. B) Research has indicated that mothers who use marijuana while pregnant have a higher risk of having a child who develops depression by age 10. C) Research has shown that offspring exposed to marijuana prenatally tended to use marijuana by age 14. D) Research has concluded that controlled doses of marijuana are associated with increased memory in the developing offspring.

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72) Janis, a 30-year-old woman, has been in and out of drug rehabilitation programs several times over the past few years. Recently, she gave birth to a baby girl. The doctor noticed that the infant showed symptoms of tremors, irritability, abnormal crying, disturbed sleep, and impaired motor control. The doctor diagnosed these withdrawal symptoms as the effects of a drug to which Janis was addicted. Identify the drug.

A) methamphetamine B) nicotine C) marijuana D) heroin

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73) The doctor warned Selena, a 30-year-old pregnant woman, that using methadone for her treatment will result in severe consequences. Why is Selena considering methadone for her treatment, and what is the consequence of using this drug?

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A) Selena is addicted to alcohol. Methadone is a common treatment for alcohol addiction but is known to cause very low birth weight in newborns. B) -Selena is addicted to heroin. Methadone is a common treatment for heroin addiction but is known to cause very severe withdrawal symptoms in newborns. C) Selena is addicted to smoking. Methadone is a common treatment for nicotine addiction but is known to cause lower intelligence in children. D) Selena is addicted to marijuana. Methadone is a common treatment for marijuana addiction but is known to cause lower quality of reflexes at one month of age.

74)

Newborns born to mothers who used marijuana during pregnancy were more likely to

A) be born preterm or low birth weight. B) be overweight at birth. C) develop smoking habits in adolescence. D) display withdrawal symptoms.

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75) Infants born to women using synthetic opioids such as fentanyl and opiate-related pain relievers during pregnancy are

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A) at increased risk for experiencing opioid withdrawal. B) more pain resistant in childhood. C) more likely to be overweight at birth. D) more likely to require cesarean delivery.

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76) Which of the following substances does NOT put infants at increased risk for opioid withdrawal symptoms?

A) fentanyl B) marijuana C) OxyContin D) Vicodin

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77) Rubella, also known as German measles, is a maternal disease that can cause prenatal defects. Identify the most common fetal and neonatal outcome of this disease.

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A) microcephaly B) eye lesions C) stillbirth D) skin lesions

78) Zia is pregnant and has a disease that, if untreated, may result in eye and skin lesions in her baby. Which of the following diseases does Zia have?

A) genital warts B) syphilis C) rubella D) hepatitis C

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Teratogen Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

79) Mindy's doctor recommends a diagnostic X-ray to check her lungs for a possible respiratory infection. Since she is in her first trimester, she is concerned about the possible risks of the X-ray radiation on her baby. Which of the following precautions should the doctor take to avoid any complications in Mindy's unborn baby due to the X-ray?

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A) Give Mindy a mild dose of an analgesic. B) Give Mindy an epidural block to numb her body from the waist down. C) Cover Mindy's abdomen with a lead apron. D) Cover Mindy with several thick, woolen quilts.

80) During delivery, which of the following diseases is transmitted to a newborn through the birth canal?

A) diabetes B) West Nile virus C) rubella D) genital herpes

81) Sylvia is almost nine months pregnant and is very close to her delivery date. The doctors have found that she has an active case of genital herpes. Which of the following is the best course of action to prevent Sylvia's baby from contracting the disease?

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A) performing a cesarean section B) terminating the pregnancy C) delivering the baby through the birth canal D) giving the baby blood transfusions

82) Megan and Kate are studying nursing, having chosen obstetrics as their elective. They are having a discussion on the causes and effects of genital herpes on a newborn baby. Megan thinks that the newborn will contract the virus while still in the mother's uterus; however Kate, who is more familiar with the infection, thinks otherwise. Which of the following statements supports Kate's views?

A) Newborns contract the virus during gestation across the placenta. B) Newborns contract the virus when they are delivered through the birth canal of a mother with the infection. C) Newborns contract the virus when they are breast fed by a mother who has the infection. D) Newborns have the virus in their blood, but the symptoms only show up once they are born.

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83) Bella contracted a sexually transmitted infection from her partner a couple of years ago. When she became pregnant, her doctor advised her to avoid breast feeding her baby, as the baby could contract the infection from her. Which of the following maternal diseases did Bella have?

A) rubella B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) AIDS

84) Which of the following statements is true regarding babies born to HIV-infected mothers?

A) Babies can contract HIV during sperm/egg adhesion in the fertilization process. B) All babies born to HIV-infected mothers are infected with HIV. C) Babies born to HIV-infected mothers can be infected but asymptomatic. D) Babies seldom contract HIV through breast feeding by an infected mother.

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85) Sylvia, a 28-year-old pregnant woman, has been diagnosed with an illness that carries the risk of delivering very large infants, weighing 10 pounds or more. Which of the following diseases has Sylvia been diagnosed with?

A) genital herpes B) AIDS C) gestational diabetes D) syphilis

86) Marlena, who just found out she is pregnant, has very poor eating habits. Her total calorie intake is very low. She eats little protein and unbalanced amounts of vitamins and minerals. If she continues her present eating habits, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) The baby will not be affected. B) The baby will develop Down syndrome. C) The baby is more likely to be malformed. D) The baby is more likely to have severe withdrawal symptoms.

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87) Priscilla just found out she is pregnant, and her doctor prescribed her a B-complex vitamin that promotes normal prenatal development and reduces the risk of preterm deliveries. Which of the following is the vitamin prescribed by Priscilla's doctor?

A) thiamine B) riboflavin C) pantothenic acid D) folic acid

88) The lack of _____ in maternal nutrition has been associated with neural tube defects in offspring.

A) vitamin C B) folic acid C) ferrous sulfate D) vitamin E

89) What is the recommended daily dosage of folic acid for pregnant women, as issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services?

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A) 100 milligrams B) 200 milligrams C) 200 micrograms D) 400 micrograms

90) Tammy is pregnant with her first child. She tells you that she loves swordfish and has it for dinner two or three times a week. Based on current research, what advice should you give Tammy about her diet?

A) Swordfish is a great source of protein and she should continue to consume it. B) Swordfish is not as good for her as king mackerel; she should try to eat more mackerel. C) Swordfish is not recommended for pregnant women because it can contain high levels of mercury. D) Swordfish can be a good part of her diet, but Tammy should also eat other large fish that contain omega-3 fatty acids.

91)

Identify the age group of women who are LEAST likely to obtain prenatal care.

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A) adolescence B) late twenties C) early thirties D) early forties

92) Which maternal age group has increased risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and fetal death?

A) 18 years or younger B) between 18 and 25 years C) between 25 and 30 years D) 35 years and older

93) Susan is trying to conceive. She has been advised by her doctor that because of her age she should be prepared for adverse perinatal outcomes, including spontaneous abortion, preterm birth, stillbirth, and fetal growth restriction. Which of the following age groups does she belong to?

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A) 18 years or younger B) between 18 and 25 years C) between 35 and 39 years D) 40 years and older

94) A recent, very large-scale U.S. study found that for 40-year-old women, the risk of stillbirth increased

A) twofold. B) threefold. C) fourfold. D) tenfold.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Maternal Age

95) Before the delivery of her baby, Karen experiences several traumatic life changes. She separates from her husband, discovers that her mother is seriously ill, and begins a more stressful job. Will Karen's baby be significantly affected by all the stress in Karen's life?

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A) Yes; the baby is likely to develop good coping skills. B) No; fetuses are not significantly affected by the mother's emotional stress. C) No; any effects on the fetus will be temporary and will not produce lasting problems. D) Yes; the baby will be at risk for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and language delay.

96) Julianne lost her baby early in her pregnancy. Which of the following paternal factors could have possibly led to this outcome?

A) Her partner was overweight. B) Her partner was a heavy smoker, even during her pregnancy. C) Her partner was deficient in vitamin C. D) Her partner was undergoing severe emotional stress during her pregnancy.

97) Carla's husband was 50 years of age when she became pregnant. Studies have shown that this paternal factor is connected to

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A) increased risk of autism and schizophrenia in the baby. B) increased success of in vitro fertilization. C) increased risk of childhood cancer. D) increased cardiac malfunction in the fetus.

98) CenteringPregnancy is an innovative prenatal care program in the United States that provides complete prenatal care

A) in individual homes. B) in rural clinical settings. C) in group settings. D) to low-income women only.

99) _____ replaces traditional 15-minute physician visits with 90-minute peer group support settings and self-examination led by a physician or certified nurse-midwife.

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A) CenteringPregnancy B) The use of doulas C) The use of professional midwives D) The Nurse-Family Partnership

100) According to a recent study, which of the following observations was made about women who participated in the CenteringPregnancy program?

A) More women felt secure without the aid of midwives. B) Many women reported feeling more stressed after a session. C) Women had higher rates of breast feeding. D) Low-income women benefited less from the program.

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101) Angela is 30 weeks pregnant. Since her due date is approaching, she is looking for a caregiver who will provide her with continuous physical, emotional, and educational support before, during, and after childbirth. Which of the following terms refers to this kind of caregiver?

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A) doula B) midwife C) pregnancy preparation specialist D) healer

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102)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the birth process?

A) The birth process occurs in three stages. B) The final stage terminates when the baby completely emerges from the mother's body. C) Afterbirth is the second stage of the birth process. D) The final stage is the longest stage, lasting approximately 45 minutes.

103)

The _____ stage is the longest stage of the birth process.

A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

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104) By the end of the _____, contractions dilate the cervix to an opening of about 10 centimeters (four inches), so that the baby can move from the uterus to the birth canal.

A) second trimester B) second birth stage C) third trimester D) first birth stage

105)

The second stage of childbirth begins with the _____ and ends with the _____.

A) emergence of the child's head; delivery of the placenta B) opening of the cervix; delivery of the child C) emergence of the child's head; delivery of the child D) opening of the cervix; delivery of the placenta

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106)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the third stage of the birth process?

A) The placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are detached and expelled. B) It is the longest stage in the birth process. C) It involves complete delivery of the child. D) It usually begins when the baby’s head starts to move through the cervix and the birth canal.

107)

Natasha is entering the third stage of childbirth, also known as the _____ stage.

A) postpartum B) umbilical procedure C) afterbirth D) detachment

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108)

_____ is the shortest of the three birth stages.

A) Involution B) Afterbirth C) Implantation D) Waterbirth

109)

Which of the following is true of the stages of childbirth?

A) The first stage terminates when the baby completely emerges from the mother's body. B) Uterine contractions start in the final stage of the birth process. C) The first stage is the longest of the three birth stages. D) The first stage of birth is longer for a woman who is having her second or third child.

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110) Gisela is having her first baby and has received a drug that will numb the entire lower area of her body during labor. Gisela has been given

A) an epidural block. B) oxytocin. C) an analgesic. D) a hormone.

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111) French obstetrician Ferdinand Lamaze developed a method similar to natural childbirth that is known as

A) induced childbirth. B) prepared childbirth. C) simulated delivery. D) organic delivery.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Natural and Prepared Childbirth null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the birth process.

112) Which of the following is a conclusion drawn by the current proponents of prepared childbirth methods?

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A) Midwifery is the most important support required during pregnancy and childbirth. B) When information and support are provided, women know how to give birth. C) Medication should be totally avoided during pregnancy. D) Natural childbirth methods are superior to aided methods or cesarean sections.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Natural and Prepared Childbirth null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the birth process.

113) The _____ position is the baby's position in the uterus that causes the buttocks to be the first part to emerge from the vagina.

A) fetal B) breech C) asynclitic D) standard

114) Which of the following techniques is used to overcome the threat of problems related to the breech position during delivery?

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A) massage therapy B) music therapy C) acupuncture D) cesarean section

115)

Which of the following is/are a threat to the infant caused by the breech position?

A) bone malformation B) Down syndrome C) respiratory problems D) spina bifida

116) Brenda's baby was born just minutes ago, and the doctor is checking the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, body color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone. Brenda's baby is being tested with the

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A) Apgar Scale. B) preterm outcome test. C) Rogers-Randall Assessment. D) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale.

117) Helen is using a nonmedical technique for pain management during labor. She has someone insert fine needles into specific locations of her body. She is most likely using

A) acupressure. B) acupuncture. C) aromatherapy. D) allostasis.

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118)

What is the rationale for the practice of waterbirth?

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A) Water pressure reduces the strain of contractions. B) It creates an environment similar to that inside the amniotic sac. C) Getting into water speeds up the labor process. D) Water makes the contractions more intense.

119) In one recent study, one hour of Thai traditional massage _____ the first and second stages of labor.

A) decreased the duration of B) significantly eased the pain during C) stimulated the newborn's brain development after D) increased the woman's mental stress during

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120)

In a recent U.S. study, newborns that were born in water were more likely to

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A) be admitted to a NICU. B) have fetal heart rate abnormalities. C) have respiratory complications. D) have lower rates of fetal heart rate abnormalities.

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121) Which of the following statements is true of the condition of a newborn infant based on the Apgar Scale reading?

A) A total score of four and below is considered normal and indicates that the baby is healthy. B) A total score of one to three indicates that the risk of developing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in childhood is absent. C) A total score of seven to ten indicates that the newborn's condition is good. D) A total score of five and above indicates an emergency and that the baby may not survive.

122) The Apgar Scale is a method used to assess the health of newborns. A score of three would indicate

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A) that the newborn's condition is good. B) that there may be some developmental difficulties. C) an emergency, because the baby's survival is in doubt. D) that the evaluator has not made a proper reading.

123) In assessing the health of newborns, the _____ identifies high-risk infants who need resuscitation.

A) Rogers-Randall Assessment B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C) Wechsler Infant Intelligence Scale D) Apgar Scale

124)

Which of the following is evaluated by the Apgar Scale?

A) the newborn's kidney function B) the newborn's birth weight C) the newborn's height D) the newborn's heart rate

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125)

The Apgar Scale is especially good at determining

A) the severity of a newborn's limb deformities. B) a newborn's susceptibility to common postnatal complications. C) a newborn's ability to cope with the stress of delivery. D) a newborn's lactose tolerance.

126) A pediatrician is testing baby Rosaria. The doctor assesses Rosaria's neurological development, reflexes, and reactions to people and objects. Rosaria's pediatrician is using the

A) Apgar Scale. B) Infant IQ test. C) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale. D) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children.

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127) The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale is typically performed within _____ after birth.

A) 24 to 36 hours B) two to five days C) one to two weeks D) one to two months

128) The _____ is designed to gauge normal, healthy, full-term infants and is used as a measure in many studies of infant development.

A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale B) Apgar Scale C) Infant IQ test D) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children

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129) Dakota was born after 40 weeks of gestation and weighed 4 pounds. Dakota would be considered

A) a preterm baby. B) a premature baby. C) to have a low birth weight. D) normal and average for babies born today.

130) Malorie was born during her mother's 32nd week of pregnancy. Malorie would be termed a(n) _____ baby.

A) preterm B) aged C) average D) normal

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131) Juan-Carlos was born full term but was underweight for his gestational age. He would be considered

A) preterm. B) premature. C) normal. D) small for date.

132) Which of the following statements is true regarding the different conditions that pose threats for newborns?

A) Small for date infants weigh less than 5.5 pounds at birth. B) Low birth weight babies weigh between 6 and 7 pounds. C) Small for date infants have a below-normal weight when the length of the pregnancy is considered. D) Low birth weight babies weigh less than 90 percent of all babies of the same gestational age.

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133)

Sandra's baby was born at 27 weeks. Her baby is considered a(n)

A) very preterm infant. B) moderately preterm infant. C) mildly preterm infant. D) extremely preterm infant.

134)

What does the result of a recent Norwegian study about preterm infants indicate?

A) The earlier preterm infants are born, the more likely they will drop out of school. B) The earlier preterm infants are born, the more susceptible they are to congenital diseases. C) The earlier preterm infants are born, the lower are their chances of survival beyond two years. D) The earlier preterm infants are born, the higher the severity of brain damage.

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135) Two increasingly used interventions in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) are _____ and _____.

A) bottle feeding; music therapy B) massage therapy; kangaroo care C) breast feeding; antenatal steroids D) bottle feeding; kangaroo care

136)

Recent research revealed that kangaroo care

A) increased pain in newborns. B) delayed breast feeding with preterm and low birth weight infants. C) promoted earlier breast feeding with preterm and low birth weight infants. D) increased pain in new mothers.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the birth process. Topic : Low Birth Weight and Preterm Infants

137) When the _____ is delivered, estrogen and progesterone levels drop steeply and remain low until the ovaries start producing hormones again.

A) baby B) placenta C) embryo D) blastocyst

138) Massage of preterm infants in the NICU, a recent research review revealed, was associated with

A) a longer duration of infants' stay. B) reduced pain. C) reduced weight gain. D) significantly improved muscle development.

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139) Mariah has given birth to a baby girl. One month after delivery, she is still experiencing very strong feelings of sadness and anxiety. She is so morose that she is having trouble coping with daily tasks. Mariah is most likely suffering from

A) post-traumatic stress disorder. B) postpartum blues. C) paranoid schizophrenia. D) postpartum depression.

140) In a recent meta-analysis, the prevalence of postpartum depression in fathers was ______ percent within the first month after birth.

A) 2 B) 9 C) 20 D) 33

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Remember null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize changes during the postpartum period. Topic : Postpartum Depression

141) Michael and Jessica are having their first child and have told their physician they would like a rooming-in arrangement. This means that

A) Michael can stay overnight in Jessica's room. B) Jessica's hospital room will be more like a nursery. C) Jessica's baby will stay in her room most of the time during its hospital stay. D) Jessica will stay in the hospital for the first two months after pregnancy.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 142) Identify the period of prenatal development that occurs two to eight weeks after conception. During this time, the rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for the cells form, and organs appear. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Topic : Embryonic Period

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143) Candice is studying the anatomy of the female reproductive system and the prenatal developmental stages. She reads about a disk-shaped group of tissues and small blood vessels from the mother and the offspring that intertwine. This part acts like the life-support system of the embryo. Identify this part. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. Topic : Embryonic Period

144) Sergio's wife is pregnant, but Sergio still smokes all the time inside the house. Cigarette smoke has been known to cause birth defects and negatively alter cognitive and behavioral outcomes in unborn babies. Sergio is exposing his child to which type of agent? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Teratogen null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize prenatal development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

145) Justus and Rochelle are taking prenatal classes that involve a special breathing technique to control pushing in the final stages of labor, along with a detailed anatomy and physiology course. What is the last name of the obstetrician on whose work this method is based? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Topic : Natural and Prepared Childbirth null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the birth process.

146) Veronica is one week from her due date when her doctor tells her that the baby hasn't turned yet, meaning he is in the _____ position.

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147) Tadi lives in a community where women generally keep preterm babies close for skin-toskin contact. In the U.S., this is called _____ care. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the birth process. Topic : Low Birth Weight and Preterm Infants

148) Identify the formation of a close connection, especially a physical bond, between parents and their newborn in the period shortly after birth. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Bonding null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize changes during the postpartum period.

149) Victoria delivered a healthy baby girl a week ago. Since then, Victoria has not been herself. She was active during her pregnancy; however, she now tends to cry for the slightest reasons. She has distanced herself from her family and friends. She stays in her room all day and refuses to meet anyone. She feels lonely and sad, despite her family being around her. Victoria's condition is known as _____ depression.

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150) Gertrude, an obstetrician, usually recommends that newborns be kept with their mothers in the same room during their stay at the hospital. This is referred to as a(n) _____ arrangement. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Topic : Bonding null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize changes during the postpartum period. Topic : Postpartum Period

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 151) Describe the three main periods of prenatal development, along with the major steps for developing into a person for each stage.

152)

Explain the four important phases of brain development.

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153) Defineteratogen, and illustrate your answer by listing at least six teratogens one should avoid during pregnancy.

154) How can maternal obesity negatively impact pregnancy outcomes for the mother and the child?

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155) Would you encourage exercise in pregnant women? Why or why not? Use research to back up your statements.

156) Teji's doctor is testing her Rh factor to determine compatibility. Based on the test results, the mother and the fetus are incompatible. Give a brief description of Rh incompatibility, and discuss the dangers associated with it.

157) Xiomara is considering hiring a doula to help with childbirth. Who are doulas, and how are they different from midwives?

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158) Name three different types of drugs that are used during labor. Illustrate your answer with examples.

159) Naia's doctor has told her that because her baby has not turned, he would like to perform a cesarean delivery. What can Naia expect to happen?

160) Bronwyn is interested in using nonmedical techniques to assist her in dealing with pain during childbirth. Based on the text and class discussion, what are the two best options available to her, and why?

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161) Briefly describe postpartum depression. What are some of the symptoms that distinguish it from a more typical case of baby blues? Based on the text and class, what would you consider the two effective treatment methods for postpartum depression?

162)

What is bonding, and why do some hospitals deter bonding?

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163) Identify the test that is given to the neonate within 24 to 36 hours after birth. It is designed to assess a newborn's neurological competence, even up to one month after birth.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch03 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) A 78) B 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) B 83) D 84) C 85) C 86) C Version 1

87) D 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) A 92) D 93) D 94) A 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) C 99) A 100) C 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) D 105) C 106) A 107) C 108) B 109) C 110) A 111) B 112) B 113) B 114) D 115) C 116) A Version 1

117) B 118) B 119) A 120) D 121) C 122) C 123) D 124) D 125) C 126) C 127) A 128) A 129) C 130) A 131) D 132) C 133) D 134) A 135) B 136) C 137) B 138) B 139) D 140) B 141) C 142) embryonic 143) placenta 144) teratogen 145) Lamaze 146) breech Version 1

147) kangaroo 148) bonding 149) postpartum 150) rooming-in 151)Typical prenatal development can be divided into three periods: germinal, embryonic, and fetal. The first period is called the germinal period. During this time, the zygote is created, cell division takes place, and the zygote attaches to the uterine wall. The second period is called the embryonic period. During this time, the rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for the cells form, and organs appear. The embryo is formed, composed of the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm. Life-support systems form. These include the placenta, the umbilical cord, and the amnion. Organogenesis (the process of organ formation) takes place. The third period is called the fetal period. During this time, dramatic growth and development occur. The mother can feel the fetus's movements. 152) The four important phases of brain development involve the neural tube, neurogenesis, neuronal migration, and neural connectivity. The neural tube is the long, hollow tube developed out of the ectoderm and located on the embryo's back. If it fails to close at around 27 days after conception, it can result in anencephaly and spina bifida. Another important phase is neurogenesis, which is the massive proliferation of new immature neurons that occurs after the neural tube closes. Neuronal migration is another important phase occurring 6–24 weeks after conception, when the cells move outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations so that they create different levels, structures, and regions of the brain. The fourth important phase of brain development is called neural connectivity and occurs around the 23rd prenatal week, when connections between neurons begin to occur. This continues postnatally. Version 1

153)A teratogen is any agent that can potentially cause a birth defect or negatively alter cognitive and behavioral outcomes. Teratogens include drugs, incompatible blood types, environmental pollutants, infectious diseases, nutritional deficiencies, maternal stress, and advanced maternal and paternal age. 154) For the mother, maternal obesity puts her at an increased risk of hypertension, diabetes, respiratory complications, and infection. For the child, fetuses show less efficient cardiovascular functioning at 14 weeks, as well as an increased risk of preterm birth and stillbirth. Once the baby is born, there is an increased likelihood the baby will be placed in a neonatal intensive care unit. For the offspring of mothers who were obese during pregnancy, there is an increased risk of obesity in childhood and adulthood. There is additionally a link to cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes in the adolescent and adult offspring of those who were obese during pregnancy. 155) Exercise should be encouraged. Research shows it does not harm the pregnant mother or cause risk for preterm delivery. Exercise during pregnancy helps prevent constipation, conditions the body, reduces the likelihood of excessive weight gain, lowers the risk of developing hypertension, improves immune system functioning, and is associated with a more positive mental state, including reduced levels of stress and depression. 156) Incompatibility between the mother's and father's blood types poses a risk to prenatal development. If a pregnant woman is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive, the fetus may be Rh-positive. If the fetus's blood is Rh-positive and the mother's is Rh-negative, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies that will attack the fetus. This can result in any number of problems, including miscarriage or stillbirth, anemia, jaundice, heart defects, brain damage, or death soon after birth. Version 1

157)Doula is a Greek word that means "a woman who helps." A doula is a caregiver who provides continuous physical, emotional, and educational support for the mother before, during, and after childbirth. Doulas remain with the parents throughout labor, assessing and responding to the mother's needs. In the United States, most doulas work as independent providers hired by the expectant parents. Doulas typically function as part of a "birthing team," serving as an adjunct to the midwife or the hospital's obstetrical staff. 158)Three basic kinds of drugs that are used during labor are analgesia, anesthesia, and oxytocin/Pitocin. Analgesics are used to relieve pain. Tranquilizers, barbiturates, and narcotics can all be used to relieve pain. Anesthesia is used in late first-stage labor and during delivery to block sensation in an area of the body or to block consciousness. An epidural block is a regional anesthetic commonly used in childbirth. Oxytocin is a hormone that is used to promote uterine contractions; Pitocin is the most widely used oxytocin. 159) A cesarean delivery is a surgical procedure in which the baby is removed from the mother's uterus through an incision made in her abdomen. Normally, the baby's head comes through the vagina first. But if the baby is in a breech position, the baby's buttocks are the first part to emerge from the vagina. In one of every 25 deliveries, the baby's head is still in the uterus when the rest of the body is out. Breech births can cause respiratory problems. As a result, if the baby is in a breech position, a cesarean delivery is usually performed. 160) Answers will vary. Some new nonmedical techniques used to reduce stress and pain during childbirth are waterbirth, massage, acupuncture, hypnosis, and music therapy.

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161) Answers will vary. After giving birth, some women have such strong feelings of sadness, anxiety, or despair that they have trouble coping with daily tasks in the postpartum period. This emotional state is called postpartum depression. Several antidepressant drugs are effective in treating postpartum depression and appear to be safe for breastfeeding women. Psychotherapy, especially cognitive therapy, is effective in easing postpartum depression for many women. Also, engaging in regular exercise may help in treating postpartum depression. 162) Bonding refers to the formation of a close connection, especially a physical bond, between parents and their newborn in the period shortly after birth. Some hospitals seem determined to deter bonding because they feel that drugs given to the mother to make her delivery less painful can make the mother drowsy, thus interfering with her ability to respond to and stimulate the newborn. 163) This is the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Identify a disadvantage of breast feeding in the context of impoverished African countries.

A) There is risk of passing HIV to babies through breast milk if the mothers have the virus. B) Breast milk is less hygienic than infant formula. C) Breast feeding predominantly deteriorates the health of the mother. D) Mothers who breast feed have a higher risk of breast and ovarian cancer.

2) the

The cephalocaudal pattern is the sequence in which the earliest growth always occurs at

A) center of the body, and then moves toward the extremities. B) spinal cord, and then expands out to the limbs and head. C) top—the head—with physical growth and differentiation of features gradually working their way down from top to bottom. D) bottom—the feet—with physical growth and differentiation of features gradually working their way up to the head.

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3) Infants can see objects before they can control their torso, and they can use their hands long before they can crawl or walk. This would indicate that they have a _____ pattern of growth.

A) proximodistal B) proximocaudal C) cephalodistal D) cephalocaudal

4) The _____ pattern of growth is the developmental sequence in which growth starts at the center of the body and moves toward the extremities.

A) proximodistal B) proximocaudal C) cephalocaudal D) cephalodistal

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5) Infants control the muscles of their trunk and arms before they control their hands and fingers, and they use their whole hands before they can control several fingers. This indicates a _____ pattern of growth.

A) proximodistal B) cephalocaudal C) proximocaudal D) cephalodistal

Which of the following statements is true regarding brain development?

A) The brain grows exponentially from conception to birth, causing the brain to be completely developed at birth. B) The process of brain development continues through the first year after birth and then stops. C) Extensive brain development continues after birth, through infancy and later. D) Brain development continues after birth only among premature babies.

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7) Which of the following technologies, a measure of the brain's electrical activity, have researchers been able to use successfully to learn about the brain's development in infancy? Version 1

A) positron-emission tomography (PET) scans B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) brain electron sampling (BES) D) electroencephalogram (EEG)

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Which of the following is true of the electroencephalogram (EEG)?

A) It is a measure of the brain's electrical activity and is used to learn about the brain's development in infancy. B) It uses very low levels of near-infrared light to monitor changes in blood oxygen in infants' brains. C) It is an imaging technique that uses strong magnetic fields to generate images of the organs in the body. D) It is an imaging technique that uses computer-processed X-ray measurements to produce cross-sectional images of the organs in the body.

9) Which of the following technologies measures infants' brains as they are exploring the world around them?

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A) positron-emission tomography (PET) scans B) functional near-infrared spectroscopy (fNIRS) C) brain electron sampling (BES) D) electroencephalogram (EEG)

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10) Functional near-infrared spectroscopy (fNIRS) uses very low levels of near-infrared light to monitor changes in

A) blood oxygen. B) urine nitrates. C) blood in the lungs. D) infantile gastric distress syndrome.

11)

Which of the following is true of MEG (magnetoencephalography)?

A) It is used in assessing an infant's fine motor skills. B) It is used in assessing an infant's brain activity. C) It is used in analyzing an infant's suckling reflex. D) It is used in analyzing an infant's gross motor skills.

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12)

Which of the following is true of the forebrain?

A) It is the portion of the brain that is farthest from the spinal cord. B) It includes the tectum, the tegmentum, and the cerebral peduncles. C) It consists of the medulla, cerebellum, and pons. D) It insulates axons and helps electrical signals travel faster down the axon.

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13)

The _____ includes the cerebral cortex and several structures beneath it.

A) forebrain B) hindbrain C) midbrain D) top brain

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14)

Which of the following statements about the structure of the brain is true?

A) The brain has two hemispheres, and each hemisphere is divided into four lobes. B) Speech and grammar depend on activity in the right hemisphere of the cortex. C) Humor and the use of metaphors depend on activity in the left hemisphere of the cortex. D) The forebrain is the portion nearest to the spinal cord.

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15) In the brain, the _____ lobe is involved in voluntary movement, thinking, personality, and intentionality or purpose.

A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal

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16)

Which of the following is true of the occipital lobes of the brain?

A) They are involved in voluntary movement. B) They have an active role in hearing. C) They function in vision. D) They play an important role in motor control.

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17) In the brain, the _____ lobes have an active role in hearing, language processing, and memory.

A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal

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18) The _____ lobe area in the brain plays an important role in registering spatial location, attention, and motor control.

A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal

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19) While watching a football game, Martin jumped up to cheer and dropped baby Theresa to the floor. If she later has trouble with higher-order thinking, planning, problem solving, or voluntary movement, it would indicate that the _____ lobe of her brain was damaged.

A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal

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20) One day when baby Mark was crawling around, he fell down the stairs. After the doctor examined him, Mark's parents learned that he had damaged the parietal lobe of the brain. Mark's parents were told to expect that he would have difficulty with

A) registering spatial locations. B) processing auditory information. C) vision. D) initiating movement.

21) While scooting on the floor, baby Giovanni fell down the stairs. If he can no longer see, it is likely that the _____ lobe of his brain was damaged.

A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal

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22) A fall from the changing table resulted in damage to the temporal lobe of Emily's brain. Her doctor told her parents that this would most likely affect her

A) memory. B) sense of taste. C) vision. D) voluntary movement.

23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the involvement of the left and right hemispheres of the brain in performing different functions?

A) Most neuroscientists believe that complex brain activity involves only one particular hemisphere. B) Logical thinkers are primarily "right-brained," because of the excessive involvement of the right hemisphere. C) Humor and the use of metaphors usually depend on activity in the right hemisphere. D) Excessive involvement of the left hemisphere results in creative thinking.

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24) Your ability to process language in the left hemisphere of the brain and handle spatial thinking in the right hemisphere of the brain is called

A) linearity. B) mastery. C) lateralization. D) learning.

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25) Which of the following statements is true regarding specialization in the hemispheres of the brain?

A) Complex thinking is mostly carried out by the right hemisphere, while the left hemisphere typically deals with motor control. B) Logical thinkers are usually "left-brained." C) Creative thinkers are usually "right-brained." D) Complex thinking in normal people is the outcome of communication between both hemispheres of the brain.

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26)

Recent research indicates that attention and emotion are

A) predominantly right-hemisphere activities. B) predominantly left-hemisphere activities. C) predominantly taking place in the frontal lobe. D) predominantly taking place in the hippocampus.

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27)

When do the hemispheres of the cerebral cortex begin to specialize?

A) before birth B) at birth C) at 7 days of age D) around the first birthday

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28) In the context of the fibers that extend from a neuron's cell body, the fiber that carries signals away from the neuron's cell body is called a(n)

A) axon. B) dendrite. C) neurotransmitter. D) synapse.

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29) In the context of the fibers that extend from a neuron's cell body, the fiber that carries signals toward the neuron's cell body is called a(n)

A) axon. B) dendrite. C) neurotransmitter. D) synapse.

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30)

In the context of neurons, which of the following statements is true of the myelin sheath?

A) It is a layer of fat cells that insulates axons and helps electrical signals travel faster down the axon. B) It is a fiber that carries signals away from the cell body of a neuron. C) It is a fiber that carries signals toward the cell body of a neuron. D) It releases chemicals called neurotransmitters into synapses, which are tiny gaps between neurons' fibers.

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31) In the context of the brain's development, which of the following statements is true of lateralization?

A) It refers to the specialization of function in one hemisphere of the cerebral cortex or the other. B) It refers to the process of encasing the axons of neurons in the brain with fat cells. C) It refers to categorization of the areas of the brain based on ridges and valleys in the cortex. D) It refers to the expansion of dendritic connections that facilitates the spreading of neural pathways in infant development.

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32) Which of the following is involved in providing energy to neurons and aids communication?

A) perception B) lateralization C) myelination D) habituation

33)

_____ refers to the process of encasing axons with fat cells.

A) Myelination B) Lateralization C) Habituation D) Transmission

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34)

_____ are tiny gaps, or junctions, between neurons' fibers.

A) Dendrites B) Myelin sheaths C) Neurotransmitters D) Synapses

35) Which of the following is most likely to allow information to pass from neuron to neuron?

A) the chemical interactions in synapses that connect axons and dendrites B) the formation of a layer of fat cells that encases many axons C) the release of neurotransmitters into the cell body of a neuron by terminal buttons D) the ferrying of information across neurotransmitters by a synapse

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36) A message in the brain is "ferried" across the synapse by a _____, which pours out information contained in chemicals when it crosses the synapse.

A) myelin sheath B) dendrite C) neurotransmitter D) terminal button

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37) Which of the following statements is true regarding how neurons change in the first years of life?

A) Synaptic connections begin to develop only after birth. B) Myelination begins prenatally and stops at birth. C) The synaptic connections that are used become strengthened and survive, while the unused ones are replaced by other pathways or disappear. D) The human brain actually needs more than twice the neural connections made in the first years of life.

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38) When babies engage in physical activity or use language, some synaptic connections will be strengthened, while the unused ones will be replaced by other pathways or disappear. A neuroscientist would identify this process as

A) pruning. B) myelination. C) paring. D) lateralization.

39) The peak of synaptic overproduction in the _____ occurs at about the fourth postnatal month.

A) spinal cord B) prefrontal cortex C) visual cortex D) parietal lobe

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40) Which of the following is true of synaptic overproduction with respect to synaptic connections between neurons?

A) Both heredity and environment are thought to influence the timing and course of synaptic overproduction. B) The peak of synaptic overproduction in the visual cortex occurs at about 1 year of age. C) The peak of synaptic overproduction in the prefrontal cortex takes place at about the fourth postnatal month. D) Synaptic overproduction does not occur in areas of the brain involved in hearing and language.

41)

Which of the following is true of the prefrontal cortex of the brain?

A) It is the portion of the brain farthest from the spinal cord. B) It covers the forebrain like a wrinkled cap. C) It is the area of the brain where higher-level think-ing and self-regulation occur. D) It is the area of the brain that functions in vision.

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42) Fourteen-year-old Michael Rehbein had the left hemisphere of his brain removed to end uncontrollable seizures. His right hemisphere gradually began to reorganize and take over functions that normally occurred in the brain's left hemisphere. This case study is cited in the chapter in order to demonstrate that

A) the brain is both flexible and resilient. B) myelination varies in different areas of the brain. C) the effects of deprived environments on the brain are irreversible. D) the brain can adapt and function only when whole.

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43) According to neuroscientists, which of the following is true of how the brain is wired or rewired?

A) Repeated experience is what wires the brain or rewires it. B) Genes alone deter-mine how the brain is wired or rewired. C) Environmental conditions alone deter-mine how the brain is wired or rewired. D) The wiring of the brain remains constant, as its plasticity is dictated by heredity.

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44)

According to the neuroconstructivist view of brain development,

A) biological processes and environmental conditions influence the brain's development. B) the brain does not have plasticity and therefore functions independent of context. C) a child's cognitive development is weakly linked to the development of the brain. D) our genes determine how our brains are wired.

45) According to the neuroconstructivist view of brain development, which of the following is true of the plasticity of the brain?

A) The plasticity of the brain is context dependent. B) The plasticity of the brain is independent of experience. C) Interactions between experience and gene expression play a minor role in the plasticity of the brain. D) A child's cognitive development is weakly linked to the plasticity of the brain.

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46) Similar to the epigenetic view, the _____ view emphasizes the importance of interactions between experience and gene expression in the brain's development.

A) neuroconstructivist B) dynamic systems C) genetic D) ecological

47)

From an evolutionary perspective, which of the following is true of sleep?

A) Sleep plays a minor role in brain plasticity. B) Sleep is essential to clearing out waste in neural tissues. C) Synaptic connections between neurons decrease during sleep. D) Sleep hinders the consolidation of memories.

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48)

The most common sleep-related problem in infants reported by parents is

A) nighttime waking. B) sleepwalking. C) sudden infant death syndrome. D) choking.

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49)

Infant nighttime waking problems have consistently been linked to

A) parental negligence with regard to sleep-related interactions with the infant. B) extrinsic factors such as high levels of traffic noise. C) intrinsic factors such as an alcoholic mother. D) excessive parental involvement in sleep-related interactions with the infant.

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50)

Persistent severe sleep problems in infants have been linked to prenatal and postnatal

A) maternal depression. B) paternal anxiety. C) maternal hypertension. D) maternal weight loss.

51)

Which of the following statements about infants and REM sleep is true?

A) When infants are 3 months old, the amount of time they spend in REM sleep begins to increase. B) Most infants spend about 70 percent of their sleeping time in REM sleep. C) REM sleep might promote the brain's development in infancy. D) Older adults are the only group that spend more time in REM sleep than infants.

52)

Identify a true statement about REM sleep in infancy.

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A) Compared with non-REM sleep, a much greater amount of time is taken up by REM sleep in infancy than at any other point in the life span. B) Compared with non-REM sleep, REM sleep is more quiet. C) Infants often begin their sleep cycle with non-REM sleep rather than REM sleep. D) REM sleep hinders self-stimulation in infants, since they spend less time awake than do older children.

53) Identify a reason why the members of the American Academy of Pediatrics Task Force on Infant Positioning and SIDS (AAPTFIPS) discourage shared sleeping.

A) They argue that infant-parent bed sharing is associated with less night waking for mothers but more for infants. B) They argue that infant-parent bed sharing is associated with more marital distress. C) They argue that infant-parent bed sharing might lead to sudden infant death syndrome. D) They argue that infant-parent bed sharing leads to earlier bedtimes and a shorter time to fall asleep for infants.

54) Amira is concerned about putting her baby on his stomach to sleep because of the risk that he might stop breathing, usually during the night, and die suddenly without an apparent cause. In other words, she is concerned about

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A) shaken baby syndrome. B) sudden infant death syndrome. C) Down syndrome. D) marasmus.

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55) Which of the following does the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommend to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A) Infants should be placed to sleep in the prone position. B) Infants should be placed to sleep on their backs. C) Infants should be placed to sleep on very soft bedding. D) Infants should be placed to sleep in a bedroom without a fan.

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56)

Who is at the highest risk of SIDS?

A) Malachi, who is 4 weeks old B) Tyrell, who is 6 weeks old C) Chaz, who is 3 months old D) Isaiah, who is 10 months old

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57)

Which of the following is true of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A) It is the least common cause of infant deaths in the United States. B) There is a high risk of SIDS for infants at 36 to 48 months of age. C) It usually occurs when infants stop breathing, usually during the night, and die suddenly without any apparent reason. D) There is a high risk of SIDS for infants when they sleep on their backs, in a supine position.

58) Baby Yoshi has a condition that is a risk factor for SIDS. Sometimes, she has a temporary cessation of breathing in which her airway is completely blocked, usually for 10 seconds or longer. This condition is known as

A) parasomnia. B) arrhythmia. C) sleep apnea. D) catathrenia.

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59) Which of the following is true of the factors that are linked to sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A) Breast feeding is linked to a lower incidence of SIDS. B) SIDS is less likely to occur in infants who do not use a pacifier when they go to sleep than in those who do use a pacifier. C) Infants whose siblings have died of SIDS are unlikely to die of it. D) SIDS is less common when infants and parents share the same bed.

60) Which of the following is generally accepted to be the most critical factor in predicting whether an infant will develop sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A) prone sleeping B) supine sleeping C) perceptual-motor coupling D) swaddling

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61)

How is sleep in infancy linked to cognitive development?

A) Too much sleep in infancy is connected to decreased alertness later on. B) Lower quality of sleep at 1 year of age is related to lower attention regulation and behavioral issues by 3 to 4 years of age. C) Two hours less sleep than average every night in infants increases cognitive function by 3 to 4 years of age. D) If babies do not get good enough sleep during infancy, their brains will completely stop developing.

62)

A recent study has shown that shorter sleep duration at 3, 8, and 24 months is linked to

A) inattentiveness and hyperactivity symptoms at 5 years of age. B) weight gain and smoking habits in late adulthood. C) sexual problems for male infants in adolescence and early adulthood. D) an increased risk of accidental injury in late childhood and early adolescence.

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63)

Which of the following is true of breast feeding with regard to overweight infants?

A) If complementary foods are introduced after breast feeding, the risk of obesity increases by approximately 20 percent in breast-fed infants. B) Breast-fed infants are more likely to become overweight or obese in adult-hood. C) Compared with bottle-fed infants, breast-fed infants have more gastrointestinal infec-tions that can lead to obesity. D) Breast-fed infants have lower rates of weight gain than bottle-fed infants in childhood and adolescence.

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64) In the context of the debate over whether breast feeding is better for an infant than bottle feeding, which of the following is true?

A) The growing consensus is that breast feed-ing is better for the infant's health. B) The majority of doctors are in favor of bottle feeding. C) Breast feeding is better for bonding between mother and infant, whereas bottle feeding is better for the baby's health. D) There are no differences in health outcomes for babies who are breast fed and babies who are bottle fed.

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65) Identify an outcome, supported by research, for infants who are breast fed when compared with bottle-fed infants.

A) Breast-fed infants have higher rates of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) than bottle-fed infants. B) Breast-fed infants are less likely to develop type 1 diabetes in childhood than bottlefed infants. C) Breast-fed infants have better cardiovascular health than bottle-fed infants. D) The cognitive development of breast-fed infants is higher than that of bottle-fed infants.

66) Donna's doctor recommends that she breast feed her newborn. Research conclusively indicates that breast feeding has several positive outcomes for the mother, including a A) speedy return to her prepregnancy weight. B) reduced risk of osteoporosis. C) reduction in the incidence of ovarian cancer. D) reduced incidence of postpartum depression.

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67) Which of the following is true regarding the outcomes for women who breast feed their infants?

A) Conclusive evidence shows that women who breast feed their infants have a higher incidence of metabolic syndrome in midlife. B) Consistent evidence indicates a lower incidence of breast cancer in women who breast feed their infants. C) Evidence indicates reduced rates of osteoporosis in women who breast feed their infants. D) Evidence shows a decreased risk of postpartum depression in women who breast feed their infants.

68) Which of the following is true regarding the circumstances in which mothers shouldnot breast feed their infants?

A) Mothers should not breast feed when they are infected with HIV. B) Mothers who are above 35 years of age should not breast feed their infants. C) Mothers who have type 2 diabetes should not breast feed their infants. D) Mothers should not breast feed if they have a physical disability.

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69) Breast milk contains _____ components that benefit the maturation of the infant’s immune system and provide defenses for fighting off disease.

A) immunomodulating B) immunodeficient C) immutable D) incandescent

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70)

Breast-feeding mothers, according to a study by Bartick and others, had lower rates of

A) hospitalization for cardiovascular problems and diabetes. B) flu and cold infections in late adulthood. C) dementia in old age. D) rates of divorce in late adulthood.

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71)

Developmentalist Arnold Gesell proposed that motor development comes about through

A) repeated experiences. B) the unfolding of a genetic plan. C) positive reinforcement. D) a conducive environment.

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72)

According to dynamic systems theory,

A) infants assemble motor skills for perceiving and acting. B) infants' perception and action are disconnected. C) motor development comes about through the unfolding of a genetic plan. D) infants fine-tune their movements before they perceive something in their environment.

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73) The view of development that sees motor skills development as a solution to an infant's problems is known as _____ systems theory.

A) dynamic B) maturational C) static D) environmental

74) Kyle and Amy want their baby to walk early. In order to accomplish that, they take the baby's favorite toy and place it where the child cannot reach it from a crawling position. Kyle and Amy believe that this will motivate the baby to stand upright to retrieve the toy and will, thus, result in him walking sooner. Their belief is most consistent with the _____ systems view of development.

A) maturational B) evolutionary C) static D) dynamic

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75)

Walking is a good example of motor behavior being

A) embodied. B) embedded. C) encultured. D) enabled.

76)

Which of the following illustrates the meaning ofembedded motor development?

A) steep slopes, narrow passageways, and stairs requiring the infant's flexibility B) caregivers placing infants in the proper settings for motor development C) infants learning how to balance their body weight as they walk D) caregivers holding infants' hands and walking them around the room

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77) When Karen Adolph and Justine Hoch explain that motor development is enculturated, they mean to make the point that

A) social and cultural contexts influence motor behavior. B) motor development contributes to infants’ and children’s development in other domains. C) motor behavior involves the current status of a child’s body. D) environmental circumstances can facilitate or restrict possibilities for motor behavior.

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78) _____ are built-in reactions to stimuli; they govern the automatic movements that are beyond the newborn's control.

A) Instincts B) Reflexes C) Impulses D) Urges

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79) When Martha wants to feed her newborn son, she gently brushes her nipple against his cheek and, in the _____ reflex, he turns his head toward the side that was touched and immediately latches onto her breast.

A) Moro B) sucking C) rooting D) grasping

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80) Whenever baby Beth hears a loud noise, she responds with the _____ reflex, where she arches her back, throws back her head, flings out her arms and legs, and then rapidly closes her arms and legs.

A) Moro B) rooting C) grasping D) fencing

81) Which of the following reflexes is most likely to be activated when something touches an infant's palms?

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A) the grasping reflex B) the rooting reflex C) the sucking reflex D) the Moro reflex

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82)

Which of the following statements about reflexes is true?

A) Reflexive behavior is identical among babies. B) Some reflexes persist through life. C) All reflexes continue to have survival value today. D) All newborn reflexes disappear a few months after birth.

83) _____ motor skills are skills that involve large-muscle activities, such as moving one's arms and walking.

A) Fine B) Gross C) Learned D) Major

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84)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of posture?

A) Postural control is a static process that is linked with sensory information in the skin, joints, and muscles. B) Newborn infants can voluntarily control their posture. C) Postural control is required for gross motor skills to develop. D) Locomotion and postural control develop independent of each other.

85) _____ is a dynamic process that is linked with sensory information in the skin, joints, and muscles, which tell us where we are in space; in vestibular organs in the inner ear that regulate balance and equilibrium; and in vision and hearing.

A) Posture B) Cognitive development C) Alignment D) Reflexive behavior

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86) Clara, a 1-year-old baby, recently started walking. According to research, we would also expect her to

A) show an increase in language development, due to her interaction with more objects. B) be safer, because she is more in control of her relationship with her environment. C) make life easier for her parents now that she can walk. D) show less egocentrism, since she is now able to get around on her own.

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87) In the context of the milestones in motor skills development, which of the following is true of the first year?

A) A smaller size at birth is the aspect of pregnancy and delivery with the strongest link to reach-ing motor milestones earlier. B) Some infants do not follow the standard sequence of motor accomplishments. C) Breast feeding has no link to reaching the milestones earlier. D) In the first year of life, infants are motorically skilled and mobile.

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88) Nadine is a 1-year-old infant. Her doctor wants to assess the development of her fine motor skills. On which of Nadine's abilities is the doctor most likely to focus?

A) the ability to coordinate large-muscle activities like walking B) the ability to move the arm C) the ability to reach and grasp D) the ability to perform reflexive behavior like stepping

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89) Melanie, a 4-year-old child, ties her shoelaces on her own and skillfully uses a fork and a spoon. In the context of motor development, which of the following are most likely involved in this scenario?

A) rooting reflexes B) fine motor skills C) Moro reflexes D) gross motor skills

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90)

In the context of fine motor skills, which of the following is true of reaching by infants?

A) Initially, infants reach by moving their wrists and coordinating their thumb and forefinger. B) Initially, infants reach by seeing their own hands and then swinging their arms toward an object. C) Cues from muscles, tendons, and joints guide reaching by 4-month-old infants. D) The sight of the limb guides reaching by 4-month-old infants.

91) Carson, a 6-month-old infant, grabs a toy by gripping with his whole hand. In the context of fine motor skills, which of the following does Carson exhibit in this scenario?

A) the palmar grasp B) the pincer grasp C) the raking grasp D) the tripod grasp

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92) Jake, age 11 months, is able to pick up cereal and bits of fruit off the tray of his high chair by grasping them with his thumb and forefinger. Jake has developed the

A) palmar grasp. B) pincer grip. C) Moro reflex. D) fencing reflex.

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93)

In the context of grasping, which of the following statements is true of infants?

A) At different stages of development, infants use different per-ceptual systems to coordinate grasping. B) Newborn infants rely greatly on vision to deter-mine how they will grasp an object. C) Experience plays a minor role in reaching and grasping in infants. D) Infants grasp small objects with all of the fingers of one hand or both hands.

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94)

In the "sticky mittens" research project, it was found that

A) the infants in the mitten group developed grasping skills earlier. B) the infants in the group without mittens developed grasping skills more quickly. C) the two groups—mittens and no mittens—developed grasping skills at the same pace. D) the group without mittens developed better object manipulation skills.

95) _____ occurs when information interacts with sensory receptors—the eyes, ears, tongue, nostrils, and skin.

A) Sensation B) Perception C) Reception D) Transition

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Sensation and Perception null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy.

96)

The interpretation of sensory information is called

A) sensation. B) reception. C) perception. D) transition.

97) Robert Fantz believed that we directly perceive information that exists in the world around us and that perception is designed for action. He most likely held a(n) _____ perspective with regard to sensory and perceptual development.

A) ethological B) ecological C) evolutionary D) genetic

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98) According to theorists Eleanor and James Gibson, who developed the ecological view of perceptual development in infancy, which of the following statements is true?

A) People have to take bits and pieces of data from sensations and build up representations of the world in their minds. B) People indirectly perceive information that exists in the world around them. C) People's perceptual system can select from the rich information that the environment itself provides. D) Culture brings people into contact with the environment so that they can interact with and adapt to it.

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99) One of your professors says that our perception brings us into contact with the environment in order to interact with and adapt to it. This indicates that the professor holds a(n) _____ view on perceptual development.

A) ethological B) ecological C) evolutionary D) genetic

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100) In the Gibsons' ecological view on perceptual development in infancy, objects have _____, which are opportunities for interaction offered by objects that fit within our capabilities to perform activities.

A) allowances B) aptitudes C) abilities D) affordances

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Ecological View

101) Fantz's research method in studying sensory and perceptual development—whether infants can distinguish one stimulus from another by measuring the length of time they attend to different stimuli—is referred to as the

A) habituation and dishabituation method. B) orienting response and tracking method. C) visual preference method. D) high-amplitude sucking method.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Visual Perception

102) Baby Jane, a 3-day-old infant, is shown four images: a bright blue square, a white oval, a yellow circle, and a drawing of a face. According to Robert Fantz's visual preference method, which image would she probably prefer to look at for a longer time?

A) the white oval B) the drawing of a face C) the bright blue square D) the yellow circle

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103) Baby Max watches his mother jingle her keys in front of him. After several minutes, he looks away, no longer interested. This would indicate that he is habituated to the jingling keys and is showing _____ the stimulus after repeated presentations.

A) decreased responsiveness to B) increased familiarity with C) increased interest in D) decreased anxiety about

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104) In the context of studying newborns' perception, which of the following is true of the method of high-amplitude sucking?

A) It is used to determine whether an infant can see. B) It is used to assess an infant's attention to sound. C) It is used to measure the electrical activity of an infant's brain. D) It is used to learn about brain development in infancy.

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105) One technique that can be used to determine if an infant can see or hear is the _____ response, which involves turning one's head toward a sight or sound.

A) orienting B) stimulus C) tracking D) sensory

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Visual Perception

106) The technique of _____ consists of measuring eye movements that follow a moving object and can be used to evaluate an infant's early visual ability.

A) eye orienting B) spotting C) visual preference D) eye tracking

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107) Sheena wants to hang a picture above her baby's crib. She wants her baby to show interest in the picture. Which of the following pictures is the baby most likely to be interested in?

A) a picture of a bright red circle B) a picture of an attractive face C) a picture of an unattractive face D) a picture of a white circle

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108)

Which of the following is true of perceptual narrowing?

A) It is the concept that infants are more likely to distinguish between faces to which they have been exposed than faces that they have never seen before. B) It is a concept that involves the recovery of a habituated response after a change in stimulation. C) It is a decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations of the stimulus. D) It is the ability to relate and integrate information from two or more sensory modalities, such as vision and hearing.

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109)

Which of the following is true of an infant's color vision?

A) It usually mirrors that of an adult at birth. B) Its development is independent of the experience of the infant. C) Its development, in part, reflects maturation. D) It usually approximates that of an adult by 4 months of age.

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110)

Which of the following statements about perceptual constancy is true? A) Sensory stimulation remains constant, but perception of the physical world changes. B) Sensory stimulation changes, but perception of the physical world remains constant. C) Constant sensory stimulation receives a constant perceptual response. D) Perception of the physical world remains constant because of limited visual acuity.

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111) When you see an airplane flying away from you, it appears to get smaller. However, you know that it stays the same size. The difference between your sensation and your perception of the plane illustrates the concept of

A) perceptual constancy. B) sensory confusion. C) sensory consistency. D) perceptual disparity.

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112)

The two types of perceptual constancy are

A) size constancy and shape constancy. B) shape constancy and color constancy. C) color constancy and speed constancy. D) speed constancy and size constancy.

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113) _____ is the recognition that an object remains the same even though the retinal image of the object changes as you move toward or away from the object.

A) Shape constancy B) Perceptual disparity C) Size constancy D) Perceptual occlusion

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114) Amber, a 4-month-old baby, knows that the form of a dinner plate remains the same whether it is flat on the table or standing in the dish drainer. In the context of perceptual constancy, Amber has most likely developed

A) shape retention. B) depth constancy. C) shape constancy. D) color constancy.

115)

The "visual cliff" experiment was used to measure

A) size constancy. B) shape constancy. C) visual acuity. D) depth perception.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Depth Perception

116) In the visual cliff experiment by Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk, which of the following did most babies do when encouraged to crawl onto the deep side of the visual cliff?

A) They would crawl onto the cliff side. B) They would not crawl onto the cliff side. C) They would crawl onto the cliff side only when their mothers called them. D) They would not crawl onto the cliff side, but they showed significant increases in heart rate, indicating anxiety.

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117)

Which of the following statements is true regarding perception in infants?

A) Infants are not able to perceive the localization of a sound. B) Newborns cannot hear soft sounds quite as well as adults can. C) Infants are very sensitive to the pitch of a sound. D) Infants are not able to perceive pain.

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118) Amanda is 6 days old. Which of the following is most likely true about Amanda's hearing?

A) Amanda is more sensitive to the pitch of a sound than an adult. B) Amanda is able to hear low-pitched sounds better than high-pitched sounds. C) Amanda is able to hear high-pitched sounds better than low-pitched sounds. D) Amanda cannot determine the general location of the source of a sound.

119) Winnie is considering the use of anesthesia during the circumcision of her newborn son. She wants to know if newborns can feel pain. What would you tell her?

A) Yes; recent research indicates that infants can feel pain. B) No; infants cannot feel pain. C) Maybe; research on the matter is inconclusive as of now. D) Maybe; the level of pain felt depends on the newborn's resilience.

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120) Baby Kendra, who is 6 days old, is presented with two breast pads: one that has been used by her mother and that smells of the mother, and the other that has not been used at all. Which one will Kendra probably prefer? A) Kendra will probably not show any preference. B) Kendra will prefer the pad that has been used by her mother. C) Kendra will prefer the clean breast pad. D) Whether she shows a preference depends on whether or not she has been fed recently.

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121)

Which of the following is true of intermodal perception?

A) It is the recognition that an object remains the same even though the retinal image of the object changes. B) People's experience of the world as a smooth, unitary episode is made possible by intermodal perception. C) It is the recognition that an object remains the same shape even though its orientation to people changes. D) Early forms of intermodal perception become weaker with experience.

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122)

_____ perception involves integrating information from two or more sensory modalities.

A) Extramodal B) Intermodal C) Intramodal D) Multimodal

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123) John believes that his 6-month-old baby, Ali, was born with the ability to perceive the world in an organized way. In the field of perceptual development, John would be described as a(n)

A) nativist. B) empiricist. C) naturalist. D) perceptionist.

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124)

Which of the following statements about perceptual-motor coupling in infants is true?

A) Perception and motor activity occur separately in infants. B) Infants continually coordinate their movements with perceptual information involving people. C) The concept of perceptual-motor coupling does not develop until the age of 2 or 3. D) Perceptual-motor coupling develops in children around the age of 5.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Perceptual-Motor Coupling

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) Provide the last name of the researcher who carefully observed and documented the development of motor skills in the 1930s. Based on this work, the researcher concluded that motor development is entirely due to maturation. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. Topic : Dynamic Systems View

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126) The perspective on motor development that seeks to explain how motor behaviors are assembled for perceiving and acting is referred to as _____ systems theory. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. Topic : Dynamic Systems View

127) Provide the last name of the theorist who believed that infants assemble motor skills for perceiving and acting. The theorist proposed dynamic systems theory to explain his or her findings. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. Topic : Dynamic Systems View

128) Robert Fantz developed and used the "_____ chamber" to study the vision of infants in the early 1960s. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Visual Perception

129) Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk are renowned for using the "visual _____" to study the vision of infants.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Depth Perception

130) The developmental sequence in which the earliest growth always occurs at the top—the head—with physical growth in size, weight, and feature differentiation gradually working from top to bottom is known as the _____ pattern. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Topic : Patterns of Growth

131) Provide the term used to refer to the nerve cell that handles information processing in the brain. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Brain Development

132) The part of the brain that is responsible for voluntary movement and thinking is the _____ lobe.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Brain Development

133) Your ability to see faces and patterns with the right hemisphere of the brain and understand language with the left hemisphere is due to _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Brain Development

134)

Name the part of the neuron that carries signals away from the cell body.

135) Identify the brief term (an acronym) for the condition that occurs when infants stop breathing, usually during the night, and die suddenly without an apparent cause.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember Topic : SIDS null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy.

136) Gustavo believes that motor skills represent solutions to an infant's goals. According to him, when a baby is offered a new toy, the baby attempts to grab the toy while also balancing itself. He believes that this active improvisation and adaptation to achieve a goal demonstrates that nature, nurture, the infant, and the environment are all working together. Gustavo is a proponent of _____ systems theory. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. Topic : Dynamic Systems View null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

137) In the context of reflexes, the _____ reflex is a neonatal startle response in which a newborn arches its back, throws its head back, flings out its arms and legs, and then pulls its arms and legs close to the center of the body. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Reflexes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy.

138) Baby Tobias turns his head when his mother strokes his cheek. Tobias also turns his head toward the side that is touched. This reflex is called the _____ reflex.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : SIDS Bloom's : Apply Topic : Reflexes Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

139) In the context of reflexes, the _____ reflex enables newborns to get nourishment before they have associated a nipple with food and also serves as a self-soothing or self-regulating mechanism. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Reflexes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy.

140) According to the _____ view, perception functions in such a way as to bring organisms in contact with the environment so that they can adapt to it. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Ecological View

141) Identify the term, in the ecological view, that refers to opportunities for interaction by objects that fit within our capabilities to perform functional activities.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Ecological View

142) Mauricio takes his baby to the doctor for a one-month checkup. His doctor does a test where he presents an object or a sound and checks if the baby turns his head toward it. The doctor is testing the _____ response. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Visual Perception

143) Decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations of the stimulus is referred to as _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Visual Perception

144) The recovery of a habituated response after a change in stimulation is referred to as _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Visual Perception

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145) The recognition that an object's shape remains the same even though its orientation to the observer changes is referred to as shape _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Perceptual Constancy

146) The ability to relate and integrate information from two or more sensory modalities, such as vision and hearing, is referred to as _____ perception. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. Topic : Intermodal Perception

147)

In the field of perceptual development, nature proponents are referred to as _____.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Nature and Nurture

148) In the field of perceptual development, those who emphasize learning and experience are called _____.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Nature and Nurture

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 149) Briefly explain the cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns of development. Provide an example of each type of pattern.

150)

Briefly explain MEG (magnetoencephalography) and its uses.

151)

List the four lobes of the brain and briefly describe their functions.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Learning Objective : Describe the structures and functions of the brain. Topic : Brain Development

152) How would you connect the concepts of the overproduction of synaptic connections and their subsequent retraction, or pruning, with the nature-versus-nurture issue?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Neurons Bloom's : Analyze Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

153) Ingrid is getting ready to leave the hospital with her newborn and asks her doctor about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Her doctor suggests several things she can do to reduce the likelihood of SIDS in her infant. List five things that Ingrid can do to reduce the likelihood of SIDS.

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154)

List five risk factors associated with an infant dying from SIDS.

155)

List five benefits that a child receives from breast feeding.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Topic : Breast versus Bottle Feeding

156) Ursula has just had a baby and is considering bottle feeding her, as she plans to return to work very soon. However, she is worried that she will be unable to form a strong attachment with her baby if she does not breast feed her. Based on recent research, what would you tell her?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Analyze Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in infancy. Topic : Breast versus Bottle Feeding null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

157) Provide three examples of when a doctor would advise a mother to not breast feed her infant.

158) Discuss developmentalist Arnold Gesell's view on motor skills development in infants. How does Arnold Gesell's view differ from Esther Thelen's dynamic systems theory on motor development?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Analyze Learning Objective : Summarize motor development in infancy. Topic : Dynamic Systems View null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

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159)

Definegross motor skills andfine motor skills, and give an example for each.

160) To assess an infant's attention to sound, researchers often use a method called highamplitude sucking. Describe how this method is used.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the course of sensory and perceptual development in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Visual Perception

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Answer Key Test name: Ch04 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) B 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) C 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) C 97) B 98) C 99) B 100) D 101) C 102) B 103) A 104) B 105) A 106) D 107) B 108) A 109) C 110) B 111) A 112) A 113) C 114) C 115) D 116) B Version 1

117) B 118) C 119) A 120) B 121) B 122) B 123) A 124) B 125) Gesell 126) dynamic 127) Thelen 128) looking 129) cliff 130) cephalocaudal 131) neuron 132) frontal 133) lateralization 134) Axon 135) SIDS 136) dynamic 137) Moro 138) rooting 139) sucking 140) ecological 141) affordances 142) orienting 143) habituating 144) dishabituation 145) constancy 146) intermodal Version 1

147) nativists 148) empiricists 149) The cephalocaudal pattern is the sequence in which the earliest growth always occurs at the top—the head—with physical growth in size, weight, and feature differentiation gradually working its way down from top to bottom. Examples for such patterns of development are shoulders and middle trunk. The proximodistal pattern is the sequence in which growth starts at the center of the body and moves toward the extremities. For example, infants control the muscles of their trunk and arms before they control their hands and fingers, and they use their whole hands before they can control several fingers. 150) MEG (magnetoencephalography) involves using brain imaging machines to assess infants' brain activity. MEG maps brain activity by recording magnetic fields produced by electrical currents and is being used to assess such perceptual and cognitive activities as vision, hearing, and language in infants. The infant sits under the machine, and when he or she experiences a word, touch, sight, or emotion, the neurons working together in the infant's brain generate magnetic fields, and MEG pinpoints the location of those fields in the brain. 151) The brain has two hemispheres, each of which is further divided into four lobes: frontal lobes, which are involved in voluntary movement, thinking, personality, and intentionality or purpose; occipital lobes, which function in vision; temporal lobes, which have an active role in hearing, language processing, and memory; and parietal lobes, which play important roles in registering spatial location, attention, and motor control.

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152) Nearly twice as many synaptic connections are made as will ever be used. The connections that are used become strengthened and survive, while the unused ones are replaced by other pathways or disappear. In the language of neuroscience, these connections will be "pruned." For example, the more babies engage in physical activity or use language, the more those pathways will be strengthened. This indicates that while brain development is initially a product of genes (or nature), in time, the environment (or nurture) will also partly determine the course of brain development. Thus, both heredity and environment are thought to influence the timing and course of synaptic overproduction and subsequent retraction. 153) Actions Ingrid can take to reduce the likelihood of SIDS in her infant include the following: 1) Make sure that the infant sleeps on his or her back and not in the prone position (on the stomach). 2) Breast feed. 3) Decrease pacifier use when going to sleep. 4) Avoid exposing the infant to cigarette smoke. 5) Make sure the bedding is not too soft, as SIDS is more common if infants sleep in soft bedding. 6) Do not share the same bed as the infant. 7) Let the infant sleep in a bedroom with a fan—a practice that has been shown to lower the risk of SIDS by 70 percent.

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154)Students can include any five of the following points. Risk factors for SIDS include the following: 1) Sleeping in the prone position (on the stomach) 2) Having a sibling who has died of SIDS 3) Sleep apnea 4) Low birth weight 5) African American and Eskimo ethnicity 6) Low socioeconomic status 7) Passive exposure to cigarette smoke 8) Sleeping in soft bedding 9) Infants with abnormal brain stem functioning involving the neurotransmitter serotonin 155)Students may include any five of the following points. Benefits of breast feeding for the child include the following: 1) Appropriate weight gain 2) Lowered risk of childhood and adult obesity 3) Fewer allergies 4) Lower risk of gastrointestinal infections, of lower respiratory tract infections, and of ear, throat, and sinus infections 5) Lower risk of asthma 6) Lower incidence of SIDS 7) Lower risk of type 1 diabetes in childhood and type 2 diabetes in adulthood

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156) Many health professionals have argued that breast feeding facilitates the development of an attachment bond between the mother and infant. However, a recent research review found that the positive role of breast feeding on the mother-infant relationship is not supported by research. The review concluded that recommending breast feeding should not be based on its role in improving the mother-infant relationship, but rather on its positive effects on infant and maternal health. So, while it is not necessary that Ursula feed her baby to have a strong bond with her, it is advisable that she do so in view of the many benefits to her and the baby's health. 157)The three situations when mothers should not breast feed their babies are listed here: 1) When the mother is infected with AIDS or some other infectious disease that can be transmitted through her milk 2) When the mother has active tuberculosis 3) When the mother is taking any drug that may not be safe for the infant if it is passed through the mother's milk

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158)Developmentalist Arnold Gesell (1934) thought his painstaking observations had revealed how people develop their motor skills. He had discovered that infants and children develop rolling, sitting, standing, and other motor skills in a fixed order and within specific time frames. These observations, said Gesell, show that motor development comes about through the unfolding of a genetic plan, or maturation. Later studies, however, demonstrated that the sequence of developmental milestones is not as fixed as Gesell indicated and not due as much to heredity as Gesell argued. According to Esther Thelen's dynamic systems theory, infants assemble motor skills for perceiving and acting and that perception and action are coupled. According to this theory, to develop motor skills, infants must perceive something in their environment that motivates them to act and use their perceptions to fine-tune their movements. Motor skills assist infants in reaching their goals. When infants are motivated to do something, they might create a new motor behavior. The new behavior is the result of many converging factors: the development of the nervous system, the body's physical properties and its possibilities for movement, the goal the child is motivated to reach, and availability of environmental support for the skill. 159) Gross motor skills are those that involve large-muscle activities, such as moving one's arms and walking. Fine motor skills involve finely-tuned movements. Grasping a toy, using a spoon, buttoning a shirt, or anything that requires finger dexterity demonstrates fine motor skills.

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160) In this method, infants are given a nonnutritive nipple to suck, and it is connected to a sound-generating system. The researcher computes a baseline high-amplitude sucking rate in a one-minute silent period. Following the baseline, presentation of a sound is made contingent on the rate of high-amplitude sucking. Initially babies suck frequently so the sound occurs often. Gradually they lose interest in hearing the same sound, so they begin to suck less often. Then the researcher changes the sound that is being presented. If the babies renew their vigorous sucking, the inference is that they have discriminated the sound change and are sucking more because they want to hear the interesting new sound.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Jean Piaget believed that children

A) actively construct their own cognitive worlds. B) passively react to their environments. C) absorb their knowledge from the environment. D) gain their view of the world from their parents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Understand null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

Schemes are

A) actions or mental representations that organize knowledge. B) incorporations of new information into existing knowledge. C) groups of behaviors. D) units of knowledge that have been adjusted to fit new experiences.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

3) Benji has started calling his father "dad," but he also calls other the men "dad." According to Piaget, this error is due to the phenomenon of

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A) amalgamation. B) accommodation. C) assimilation. D) application.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory Topic : Assimilation and Accommodation

4) _____ occurs when children adjust their schemes to take new information and experiences into account.

A) Adaptation B) Accommodation C) Assimilation D) Application

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5) Two-year-old Anita has learned the word "dog" to identify the family pet Rover. Now, Anita says the word "dog" when she sees any animal. Anita has _____ these animals into her existing scheme.

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A) amalgamated B) accommodated C) assimilated D) applied

6) Baby Elise has developed a sucking scheme. She knows that to get food, she must suck on her mother's breast. Now, her mother has begun to introduce solid foods with a spoon. Elise immediately sucks on the spoon. This is an example of

A) accommodation. B) assimilation. C) amalgamation. D) application.

7) Three-year-old Jesse used to call all moving vehicles "car." He now accurately categorizes moving vehicles into trucks, cars, motorcycles, and buses. Jesse has _____ the scheme to fit new information into it.

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A) accommodated B) assimilated C) amalgamated D) applied

8) Ruth, an infant, sucked everything that touched her lips and also sucked nearby objects. A few months later, she learned that certain objects such as her mother's breasts or a milk bottle can be sucked, but other objects such as spoons, her toys, or her blanket cannot be sucked. In the context of Jean Piaget's theory of infant development, the cognitive processes most likely responsible for Ruth's actions are

A) coordination and internalization. B) equilibration and organization. C) assimilation and accommodation. D) habituation and dishabituation.

Jean Piaget's concept of grouping isolated behaviors into a higher-order system is called

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A) assimilation. B) equilibration. C) organization. D) amalgamation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

10) George, a child, sees a hammer in his father's toolbox, but he only has a vague idea about how to use it. He also sees some nails in the toolbox and learns that they can be driven into walls. George later realizes that the hammer is hard and heavy and can be used to drive the nails into walls. In the context of Jean Piaget's theory of infant development, the grouping of knowledge or thoughts by George into a higher-order system is known as

A) assimilation. B) accommodation. C) equilibration. D) organization.

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11) Trenton was playing in a sandbox. He was pouring sand from a short and wide container into a tall and narrow container. When he poured the sand into the tall and narrow container, it appeared as if it had more sand in it. Trenton could not figure out where the extra sand came from and how it got into his container. As Trenton continued to try to solve this puzzle, he experienced considerable movement between states of cognitive _____ and _____ to produce cognitive change.

A) equilibrium; disequilibrium B) adaptation; organization C) classification; modification D) equilibration; categorization

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Equilibration null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

12) When children experience cognitive conflict in trying to understand the world, they shift from one stage of thought to the next. The mechanism through which this shift occurs is called

A) equilibration. B) assimilation. C) organization. D) amalgamation.

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13) For cognitive change to occur, identify the two processes that must work in concert as a child experiences considerable movement between the states of cognitive equilibrium and disequilibrium.

A) equilibration and categorization B) amalgamation and organization C) assimilation and accommodation D) classification and modification

14)

Jean Piaget believed that cognition in one stage is _____ that in another stage.

A) qualitatively different from B) quantitatively different from C) qualitatively similar to D) quantitatively similar to

15)

The sensorimotor stage of development lasts from birth to about

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A) 6 months of age. B) 8 months of age. C) 1 year of age. D) 2 years of age.

16)

Piaget divided the sensorimotor stage of development into _____ substages.

A) two B) three C) five D) six

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Topic : Sensorimotor Stage

17) Alice, who is three weeks old, sucks everything that touches her lips. After a few weeks, her mother observes that she has started to suck even if a nipple or bottle is only nearby and not touching her lips. In the context of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development, Alice is most likely in the sensorimotor substage known as

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A) simple reflexes. B) first habits. C) primary circular reactions. D) secondary circular reactions.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Topic : Sensorimotor Stage

18) Which of the following substages of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development corresponds to the first month after birth?

A) primary circular reactions B) simple reflexes C) tertiary circular reactions D) internalization of schemes

19) Which of the following substages of sensorimotor development is characterized by coordination of sensation and action through reflexive behaviors?

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A) conditioned reflexes B) first habits and primary circular reactions C) simple reflexes D) coordination of secondary circular reactions

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20) Josh is 3 months old. His mother observes that he sucks even when there is no bottle or nipple present nearby, and even in the absence of any object touching his lips. In the context of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development, Josh is most likely in the _____ sensorimotor substage.

A) simple reflexes B) first habits and primary circular reactions C) tertiary circular reactions D) coordination of secondary circular reactions

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Topic : Sensorimotor Stage

21) Kiara is a 2-month-old infant. Her mother informs Kiara's pediatrician that during the first month after birth, Kiara sucked when a bottle or nipple touched her lips and that currently she sucks even when no bottle or nipple is present nearby. In the context of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development, Kiara is most likely in Jean Piaget's _____ substage of sensorimotor development.

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A) coordination of secondary circular reactions B) first habits and primary circular reactions C) tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity D) secondary circular reactions

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22) Which of the following substages of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor development is characterized by an infant becoming more object-oriented, moving beyond self-preoccupation?

A) primary circular reactions B) simple reflexes C) secondary circular reactions D) first habits

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23) Which of the following describes the third substage of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of infant development.

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A) An infant's schemes are intentional and goal-directed. B) It is characterized by an infant being completely preoccupied with the self. C) It develops between 2 and 4 months of age. D) An infant repeats an action for the sake of its consequences.

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24) Which substage of sensorimotor development is characterized by coordination of vision and touch—that is, hand-eye coordination?

A) coordination of primary circular reactions B) tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity C) internalization of schemes D) coordination of secondary circular reactions

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25) In which of the following substages of sensorimotor development do infants become intrigued by the many properties of objects and by the many things they can make happen to objects?

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A) tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity B) coordination of primary circular reactions C) coordination of secondary circular reactions D) internalization of schemes

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26) When Monica was born, she showed the typical grasping reflex by closing her fingers around anything that brushed against her palm. After a few weeks, she showed this grasping behavior even when nothing touched her palm. Monica had developed a _____, which is a scheme based on a reflex that has become completely separated from its eliciting stimulus.

A) habit B) simple reflex C) primitive symbol D) circular reaction

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27) Antonio swings his arms while lying in his crib. One of his arms accidentally hits the mobile hanging above him. This causes the mobile to move. Antonio continues to swing his arms but is unable to strike the mobile again. This is an example of a

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A) habit. B) reflex. C) primary circular reaction. D) secondary circular reaction.

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28)

In which sensorimotor substage does an infant's actions become more object-oriented?

A) the simple reflexes substage B) the first habits substage C) the secondary circular reactions substage D) the primary circular reactions substage

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29) Sarah, a 7-month-old infant, loves to repeatedly shake a toy that lights up and plays music when it is shaken. She repeats this action out of sheer fascination with the consequences of the action. In the context of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of development, Sarah is most likely in Jean Piaget's _____ substage of sensorimotor development.

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A) simple reflexes B) first habits C) secondary circular reactions D) primary circular reactions

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30) Which of the following describes the substage known as coordination of secondary circular reactions?

A) Infants show the presence of intentionality. B) Infants manipulate and transform represented events in simple ways. C) It develops between 15 and 18 months of age. D) An infant develops the ability to use primitive symbols.

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31) Which of the following substages of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of infant development is marked by the presence of intentionality?

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A) the first habits and primary circular reactions substage B) the secondary circular reactions substage C) the coordination of secondary circular reactions substage D) the simple reflexes substage

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32) Eleven-month-old Jenny looks at her toy golf club, grasps it tightly, and visually inspects it. She then uses the toy golf club to bring another toy within reach. In the context of Piaget's theory of infant development, Jenny is in the _____ substage of the sensorimotor stage.

A) simple reflexes B) secondary circular reactions C) coordination of secondary circular reactions D) first habits and primary circular reactions

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33) Sixteen-month-old Akel plays endlessly with a ball, rolling it, throwing it, using it to knock over other toys, standing on it, and trying to ride on it. Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage is represented by Akel's behavior?

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A) the primary circular reactions substage B) the secondary circular reactions substage C) the coordination of secondary circular reactions substage D) the tertiary circular reactions substage

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34) Which of the following substages of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of cognitive development marks the starting point for human curiosity and interest in novelty? A) the second substage B) the third substage C) the fourth substage D) the fifth substage

35) In which sensorimotor substage does an infant develop the ability to use primitive symbols?

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A) the simple reflexes substage B) the first habits and primary circular reactions substage C) the secondary circular reactions substage D) the internalization of schemes substage

36) Which of the following describes the sixth substage of Jean Piaget's sensorimotor stage of cognitive development?

A) An infant becomes intrigued by the many properties of objects for the first time. B) An infant develops the ability to use primitive symbols. C) The most significant change in this substage is the presence of intentionality. D) This substage is marked by complete preoccupation with the self and body.

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37) According to Piaget, a _____ is an internal sensory image or word that represents an event.

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A) transducer B) sensation C) symbol D) memory

38) Which of the following is a Piagetian term for understanding that objects and events continue to exist even when they cannot directly be seen, heard, or touched?

A) joint attention B) object permanence C) internalization of schemes D) object continuance

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39) Heather is shown a teddy bear. The teddy bear is then hidden from her, and she searches for it. This shows that Heather has developed a sense of

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A) symbolic manipulation. B) infinite generativity. C) telegraphic thinking. D) object permanence.

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40) Identify the error that occurs when infants make the mistake of selecting a familiar hiding place rather than a new hiding place as they progress into Piaget's fourth substage of the sensorimotor stage.

A) Type 1 error B) Type 2 error C) F-not-N error D) A-not-B error

41) Researchers such as Baillargeon have found that infants' perceptual abilities are highly developed much earlier than Jean Piaget proposed. These researchers conclude that infants see objects as bounded, unitary, solid, and separate from their background by _____ of age.

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A) 1 to 2 months B) 3 to 4 months C) 5 to 6 months D) 8 to 9 months

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42)

In longitudinal research (Blankenship & others, 2019), attention at 5 months was

A) related to later A-not-B performance but not to reading competence. B) not related to executive function in early childhood. C) related to reading competence at 6 years of age. D) related to memory loss in early adolescence.

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43)

Research suggests that infants learn to perceive gravity and support

A) at birth. B) at around 1 or 2 months of age. C) at around 6 to 8 months of age. D) at the start of toddlerhood.

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44) Research by Renée Baillargeon documents that infants as young as 3 to 4 months expect objects to be _____, in the sense that other objects cannot move through them, and _____, in the sense that objects continue to exist when they are hidden.

A) subject to gravity; transient B) consistent; existential C) substantial; permanent D) opaque; substantial

45) In considering the big issue of whether nature or nurture plays the more important role in infant development, Elizabeth Spelke endorses a _____ approach, which states that infants are born with domain-specific innate knowledge systems.

A) core knowledge B) domain knowledge C) learned domain D) nurture

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46) Which of the following is a key criticism of Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development?

A) Jean Piaget failed to conduct observations in an infant's everyday environment. B) Jean Piaget failed to conduct observations in controlled settings. C) Infants are more competent than Jean Piaget thought. D) Infants are less competent than Jean Piaget reported.

47) Which of the following theories states that the consequences of a behavior produce changes in the probability of the behavior's occurrence?

A) theory of operant conditioning B) dual process theory C) attention schema theory D) theory of social reinforcement

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Conditioning null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the ways that young children learn and remember. Topic : Skinner's Operant Conditioning

48) Attention in the first year of life is dominated by a(n) _____ process, which involves directing attention to potentially important locations in the environment (that is,where) and recognizing objects and their features (that is,what).

A) orienting/tracking B) sustained/focused attention C) habituation/dishabituation D) orienting/investigative

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49) In the context of cognitive development, which of the following terms refers to the focusing of mental resources on select information?

A) assimilation B) attention C) habituation D) imitation

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50) Farah showed her baby a colorful block. Farah then hid the block and showed it to the baby again, and she repeated this activity for some time. After the first few attempts, the baby, who initially paid close attention to the block, became disinterested in the block. In the context of attention, this scenario demonstrates the process of

A) distraction. B) imitation. C) habituation. D) dishabituation.

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51) In the context of cognitive development, decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations of the stimulus is known as

A) assimilation. B) habituation. C) deferred imitation. D) perceptual categorization.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Habituation and Dishabituation Learning Objective : Summarize the ways that young children learn and remember.

52) Eight-month-old Andrew suffered brain damage at birth. His identical twin, Alex, had no brain damage. Research on habituation will likely predict that

A) Alex will not habituate as well as Andrew. B) both twins will habituate at about the same level. C) Andrew will not habituate as well as Alex. D) Alex will not exhibit any sort of habituation.

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53) Which of the following terms refers to the process that occurs when individuals focus on the same object and are able to track another's behavior?

A) deferred imitation B) joint attention C) dishabituation D) accommodation

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54)

Which of the following is a requirement for joint attention?

A) an ability to manipulate objects B) an ability to track another's behavior C) a lack of interest in others D) an intense interest in a particular object

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55)

Which of the following statements about joint attention is true?

A) Joint attention requires the ability to track one's own behavior. B) Emerging forms of joint attention occur at about 4 to 5 months. C) Frequently engaging in joint attention hinders infants' vocabulary development. D) Joint attention requires reciprocal interaction.

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56) Andy is 9 months old, but he seems to be struggling with following another's gaze and directing adults' attention. These could be early indicators of

A) autism. B) dyslexia. C) ADHD. D) low vision.

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57)

_____ involves the retention of information over time.

A) Attention B) Memory C) Cognition D) Organization

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Memory null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the ways that young children learn and remember.

58) Which of the following terms refers to the process in which information is transferred to memory?

A) encoding B) encrypting C) assimilation D) habituation

59) Juno is riding a bike. Riding a bike requires Juno to use her memories of skills and routine procedures that are performed automatically. This type of memory is referred to as _____ memory.

A) explicit B) implicit C) semantic D) episodic

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60) Martha was a very good swimmer during her twenties. Then, because of an injury, she was unable to swim and gave up the sport entirely. After several years, she visits a swimming pool and feels apprehensive about getting into the water, as she believes she has forgotten her swimming skills. However, after she gets into the water, she is surprised that she can swim well and believes that with a bit of practice, she can regain her former skills. In this scenario, which of the following is most likely responsible for Martha's recollection of her swimming skills?

A) joint attention B) implicit memory C) habituation D) explicit memory

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61) When Abraham describes to his friend what he did during his last summer vacation, he relies on his _____ memory.

A) implicit B) explicit C) procedural D) semantic

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62) year.

Most researchers find that babies do not show _____ until the second half of the first

A) dishabituation B) explicit memory C) habituation D) implicit memory

63)

Remembering how to swim is an example of

A) implicit memory. B) deferred imitation. C) joint attention. D) explicit memory.

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64) June knows the names of all the states that comprise the United States. The names of the states are part of June's _____ memory.

A) innate B) explicit C) distinctive D) implicit

65) Renee remembers very little about the first three years of her life. Psychologists find this normal and refer to it as

A) retroactive memory interference. B) infantile amnesia. C) child memory loss. D) memory trace.

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66) Most of young infants' conscious memories appear to be _____, although their implicit memory of perceptual-motor actions can be _____.

A) substantial; rather fragile B) well-developed; underdeveloped C) rather fragile and short-lived; substantial D) long-lasting; short-lived

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67)

Identify a true statement about infant memory development.

A) Babies show explicit memory until the second half of the first year. B) Most of young infants' implicit memory of perceptual-motor actions can be substantial. C) Explicit memory weakens during the second year of life. D) Most of young infants' conscious memories are strong and long-term.

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68) From about 6 to 12 months of age, the maturation of the _____ and the surrounding cerebral cortex, especially the frontal lobes, makes explicit memory possible.

A) amygdala B) hippocampus C) hypothalamus D) cerebellum

69) In a longitudinal study of individuals from 1.5 years to 16 years of age (Reese & Robertson, 2019), individual differences in age of first memory were linked to the extent to which

A) mothers engaged in elaborative reminiscing. B) mothers breast fed their infants. C) parents practiced physical punishment. D) parents smoked in the household during a child's infancy.

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70) Identify a true statement about the work of Andrew Meltzoff on imitation in infant development.

A) He emphasizes that an infant's imitative abilities resemble a hardwired response. B) He has concluded that infants blindly imitate everything they see. C) He holds that deferred imitation does not occur until about 18 months of age. D) He sees infants' imitative abilities as biologically based.

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71) Mandy, a 9-month-old infant, saw a little girl in a toy store pushing buttons on a musical toy that plays a different song for each button. When Mandy's grandmother gave the same toy to her the following day, Mandy immediately started pushing the buttons. In the context of infants' cognitive development, Mandy was most likely displaying

A) dishabituation. B) categorization. C) object permanence. D) deferred imitation.

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72) A newborn baby widens her eyes after her mother widens her eyes and mouth and smiles at the baby. Meltzoff would say that this baby is

A) exhibiting a reflex. B) engaging in true imitation. C) showing deferred imitation. D) habituating to the mother's facial expression.

73)

_____ are cognitive groupings of similar objects, events, people, or ideas.

A) Symbols B) Concepts C) Habits D) Semantics

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the ways that young children learn and remember. Topic : Cognitive Processes

74) Using habituation experiments, some researchers have found that infants as young as _____ can group together objects with similar appearances.

A) 5 or 6 days old B) 3 to 4 weeks old C) 3 to 4 months old D) 5 to 6 months old

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75) According to Jean Mandler, _____ refers to categorizations of objects by infants based on similar features of the objects, such as size, color, and movement, as well as parts of the objects, such as legs for animals.

A) conceptual categorization B) assimilation C) infinite generativity D) perceptual categorization

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76) Ariel is 9 months old. She understands that a bird is an animal and that an airplane is a vehicle even though both the objects have wings. According to Jean Mandler, which of the following statements is most likely true of Ariel's categorization of the objects?

A) Ariel has conceptually categorized the objects. B) Ariel has categorized the objects by making perceptual discriminations between different categories of objects. C) Ariel has perceptually categorized the objects. D) Ariel has categorized the objects on the basis of prototypes that she extracted from the structural regularities of the objects.

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77)

The form of communication that is based on a system of symbols is called

A) syntax. B) grammar. C) language. D) phonology.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Language null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy.

78) Someone with a vocabulary of only 200 words can recombine the words in different ways to say thousands of different things. This aspect of language is referred to as

A) syntax. B) phonology. C) morphology. D) infinite generativity.

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79) In the context of the five systems of rules involved in language, which of the following is the system that involves the way words are combined to form acceptable phrases and sentences?

A) phonology B) syntax C) semantics D) reciprocity

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80) In the context of the five systems of rules involved in language, which of the following terms refers to the sound system of a language, including the sounds that are used and how they may be combined?

A) pragmatics B) semantics C) phonology D) morpheme

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81)

A _____ is the basic unit of sound in a language.

A) morpheme B) phoneme C) grapheme D) syntax

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82) An example of a basic unit of sound in the English language is the sound the letter "m" makes. This sound is called a

A) morpheme. B) phoneme. C) grapheme. D) syntax.

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83)

In the word "falling," both "fall" and "-ing" are considered

A) morphemes. B) phonemes. C) graphemes. D) syntax.

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84) A _____ is a minimal unit of meaning; it is a word or a part of a word that cannot be broken into smaller meaningful parts.

A) symbol B) morpheme C) phoneme D) taxon

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85) In the context of the five systems of rules involved in language, which of the following refers to the units of meaning involved in word formation?

A) infinite generativity B) phonology C) semantics D) morphology

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86)

The rules of _____ describe the way meaningful units can be combined in words.

A) morphology B) phonology C) syntax D) pragmatics

87)

_____ have many jobs in grammar, such as marking tense and number.

A) Syntaxes B) Phonemes C) Morphemes D) Symbols

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88)

Which of the following words is an example of a word with a single morpheme?

A) bathes B) calling C) racer D) tram

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89)

How many morphemes does the word "marker" have?

A) one B) two C) four D) six

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90) Consider the sentence, "The boy the ball with a hit bat." Which of the following rule systems of language does the sentence violate?

A) phonology B) syntax C) morphology D) pragmatics

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91)

_____ involves the way words are combined to form acceptable phrases and sentences.

A) Semantics B) Phraseology C) Syntax D) Phonology

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92) Jane asks Harry, "You didn't go to the party, didn't you?" In the context of the five systems of rules involved in language, this is grammatically incorrect because of an error in

A) syntax. B) semantics. C) pragmatics. D) phonetics.

93)

_____ refers to the meaning of words and sentences.

A) Pragmatics B) Syntax C) Morphology D) Semantics

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Semantics null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy. null : APA LO: 4.3: Interact effectively with others

94) Marvin says, "The chair told the girl to sit down." Which language rule system does this sentence violate?

A) syntax B) morphology C) semantics D) pragmatics

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95) When one uses polite language in formal conversations and personal, informal language in intimate conversations, one is demonstrating the knowledge of _____, or the appropriate use of language in different contexts.

A) pragmatics B) semantics C) syntax D) morphology

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96) Peter uses phrases and words such as "May I," "Please," and "Thank you" and a respectful tone when speaking to his teachers. In the context of the five systems of rules involved in language, this scenario indicates that Peter has knowledge of

A) phonology. B) syntax. C) morphology. D) pragmatics.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Pragmatics null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy. null : APA LO: 4.3: Interact effectively with others Topic : Rule Systems

97)

Identify the correct sequence of vocalization in infants.

A) crying, babbling, cooing B) crying, cooing, babbling C) babbling, crying, cooing D) cooing, crying, babbling

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy. Topic : Babbling and Other Vocalizations

98) In the middle of the first year, babies produce strings of consonant-vowel combinations that influence the behavior of their caregivers. This type of vocalization is referred to as

A) cooing. B) crying. C) gesturing. D) babbling.

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99) Baby Luis interacts with his grandma and makes gurgling sounds in the back of his throat to express pleasure. This demonstrates

A) talking. B) babbling. C) crying. D) cooing.

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100) Kevin loves to say "da, da, da, da" repeatedly. What type of communication is Kevin using?

A) crying B) cooing C) babbling D) gesturing

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101) Eleven-month-old Maya points to her cup when she wants some water to drink. Maya's behavior

A) is considered slow for her age; she should be using simple words by this time. B) is considered appropriate for her age. C) is considered advanced for her age; most children do not point until after 12 months. D) should be discouraged so that she will learn to speak.

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102)

Identify a true statement about gestures in infant language development.

A) Infants start using gestures, such as showing and pointing, at about 4 to 5 months of age. B) Use of the pointing gesture becomes effective in the third year of life. C) Use of the pointing gesture hinders infants' language development. D) Some early gestures are symbolic, as when an infant smacks his or her lips to indicate food or drink.

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103) Kyoko is 13 months old and can understand about 50 words but can say only about 10. This demonstrates how Kyoko's _____ vocabulary is more developed than her _____ vocabulary.

A) expressive; spoken B) spoken; receptive C) receptive; spoken D) spoken; expressive

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104) Which of the following indicates a significant problem in an infant's communication system?

A) a lack of pointing by 15 months of age B) not being able to speak 50 words by 15 months of age C) only speaking 150 words by 2 years of age D) a lack of pointing by 7 months of age

105)

Which of the following statements about the first words of infants is correct?

A) Infants do not recognize their name until they are 1 year of age. B) Children speak more words than they can understand. C) By 18 months, most children have a spoken vocabulary of about 200 words. D) Children often express various intentions with their single words.

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106)

The rapid increase in an infant's vocabulary starting at about 18 months of age is called

A) the secular trend. B) telegraphic speech. C) the vocabulary spurt. D) phonetic advancement.

107) Two-year-old Max sees a rabbit and calls it a "bunny." He then sees a large white hamster and calls it a "bunny," too. The application of a word to objects that are inappropriate for the word's meaning is referred to as

A) deferred imitation. B) underextension. C) infantile amnesia. D) overextension.

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108) Two-year-old Sarai uses the word "doll" to refer to her own Cabbage Patch doll but does not use the word to refer to her sister's Barbie doll. Sarai's error is known as

A) underextension. B) telegraphic speech. C) private speech. D) overextension.

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109)

_____ in the left frontal lobe of the brain is involved in producing words.

A) Broca's area B) Wernicke's area C) Morton's area D) The SMA area

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110) Mariah has suffered damage to the left frontal lobe of her brain. When she tries to speak, she struggles to produce words and is unable to say them correctly. Mariah has sustained injury to

A) Broca's area. B) Wernicke's area. C) the SMA area. D) Morton's area.

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111)

A loss or impairment of language processing ability caused by brain injury is called

A) dysphagia. B) aphasia. C) autism. D) mutism.

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112)

_____ in the left temporal lobe of the brain is involved in the comprehension of speech.

A) Broca's area B) The SMA area C) Morton's area D) Wernicke's area

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113) As an infant, Mary suffered damage to _____ in her brain. This injury severely affected her comprehension abilities; even though her speech is fluent, it remains incomprehensible.

A) Broca's area B) the SMA area C) Morton's area D) Wernicke's area

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114) Linguist Noam Chomsky said that children are born into the world with a _____, a biological endowment that enables the child to detect certain features and rules of language, including phonology, syntax, and semantics.

A) language acquisition device B) biological language center C) primary language center D) biological language device

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115)

Identify a true statement about the role of social interaction in language development.

A) Researchers have found that a child's vocabulary development is linked to the family's socioeconomic status. B) Michael Tomasello emphasizes that children learn language in general contexts, as they are unable to understand the intentions of other people. C) Research indicates that children and infants readily learn language from television and videos. D) Children's vocabulary development is unrelated to the type of talk that parents direct to them.

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116) To understand the effect of maternal talk on children's vocabulary growth, researchers (Pan & others, 2005) studied 1- to 3-year-old children living in low-income families. Which of the following was among the findings of this study?

A) The amount of maternal talk was less important than maternal literacy skills. B) The amount of maternal talk was more important than the amount of paternal talk. C) Mothers' diversity of vocabulary was unrelated to children's vocabulary development. D) Mothers who frequently used pointing gestures had children with a smaller vocabulary.

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117) A recent study of English-speaking preschool children (Levine & others, 2019) revealed that those from lower-income families had

A) less advanced language-processing skills. B) a larger vocabulary. C) fewer syntax deficiencies. D) a lower rate of obesity.

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118) A recent meta-analysis (Dowdall & others, 2020) concluded that shared picture book reading was linked to children having

A) better expressive and receptive language. B) higher mathematical skills in early adolescence. C) poor physical fitness outcomes in adolescence. D) smaller social circles in late childhood.

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119)

Child-directed speech is the

A) ability of parents to understand their children's holographic speech. B) unique way that parents (and others) talk to babies. C) continual correcting of children's syntax by parents. D) special way parents speak to each other in front of their children.

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120) When Alice speaks to her 6-month-old nephew, her voice immediately takes on a higher pitch, her speech becomes slower, and she begins to use more simplistic words and phrases. This change in Alice's language behavior is an example of

A) echoing. B) recasting. C) child-directed speech. D) morphology.

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121) While playing with his toy truck on the couch, Nezzy points to the toy truck and says, "Truck go." His father responds to this by saying, "Oh! Did you see the truck going?" This scenario illustrates the caregiver strategy of

A) labeling. B) recasting. C) overextending. D) underextending.

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122) As they walk in the park together, Damon's dad points out various objects to him— flowers, birds, butterflies, slides, swings, vehicles, and so on—and helps Damon name each of them. Damon's dad is using _____ to help his son learn language.

A) echoing B) encoding C) labeling D) recasting

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123) Rebecca says, "Milk spill," to which her grandfather replies, "Yes, the milk spilled on the floor." This is an example of

A) reframing. B) expanding. C) correcting. D) labeling.

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124) In her bookGrowing Up with Language, which of the following suggestions did Naomi Baron make for facilitating language development in toddlers?

A) Remember to listen. B) Supply words and thoughts, for the child to avoid frustration. C) Use questions that encourage the child to answer "yes" or "no." D) Let the toddler know when he or she is not being clear in communicating.

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125)

The interactionist view of language development emphasizes that

A) the primary language center and the biological language device are both needed for language to develop. B) language development occurs largely because of positive reinforcement. C) the development of receptive language is universal, whereas the development of spoken language differs across cultures. D) both biology and experience contribute to language development.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 126) Identify the linguist (last name only) who proposed that humans are biologically prewired to learn language. The linguist proposed that infants are born into the world with a language acquisition device, which enables the child to detect certain features and rules of language. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Biological Influences Topic : Rule Systems

127) According to Jean Piaget, _____ are actions or mental representations that organize knowledge. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Schemes null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per

128) Eighteen-month-old Moira knows that her mother is "mommy," but she now calls all the women she meets "mommy." According to Piaget, this illustrates _____.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per Topic : Assimilation and Accommodation

129) Identify Jean Piaget's term for the cognitive conflict that occurs when information in the environment is inconsistent with a child's current schemes. This conflict is the motivation to modify schemes or develop new schemes that are more consistent with the outside world. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Equilibration null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain the cognitive processes young children use to construct their world, per

130) According to Jean Piaget, the first substage of sensorimotor thought is apparent at birth and lasts approximately one month. This is the substage of _____ reflexes, in which sensation and action are coordinated primarily through reflexive behaviors. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Topic : Sensorimotor Stage

131) According to Jean Piaget, during the sixth and final substage of sensorimotor thought, apparent in children between 18 and 24 months, the child develops the ability to use primitive symbols. This substage is called _____ of schemes.

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132) While 9-month-old Maeve is playing with a ball, her brother takes it and hides it behind a pillow. Maeve cries and crawls over to the pillow to get the ball, illustrating Piaget's concept of object _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Learning Objective : Summarize Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Topic : Sensorimotor Stage

133) Memory without conscious recollection, such as the memory of skills and routine procedures (like crawling) that are performed automatically, is called _____ memory. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Memory null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the ways that young children learn and remember.

134) The ability to produce an endless number of meaningful sentences using a finite set of words and rules is called infinite _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Language null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy.

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135) Shelby babbles using the sounds "ba, ba, ba" or "ch, ch, ch." These basic units of sound that our language is composed of are known as _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Phonology null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy.

136) The special way that adults speak to babies, characterized by language spoken in a higher pitch than normal, the use of simple words, and the use of simple sentences, is called _____ speech. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the development of language in infancy. Topic : Language Development

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 137) Describe schemes. What are the processes of accommodation and assimilation? How are they related to schemes?

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138) List, in order, Jean Piaget's six substages of the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.

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139) Jean Piaget observes that at 1 year and 2 months, his daughter Jacqueline holds in her hands an object which is new to her: a round, flat box that she turns all over, shakes, and rubs against the bassinet. She lets it go and tries to pick it up. But she only succeeds in touching it with her index finger, without grasping it. She nevertheless tries, and presses on the edge. The box then tilts up and falls again. Jacqueline shows an interest in this result and studies the fallen box. Which of Piaget's six substages of sensorimotor development does this behavior reflect?

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140) Sonali is a 10-month-old infant. While Sonali was watching her mother, her mother hid her favorite toy under a pillow. Sonali searched for the toy at the correct location and found it. Later, her mother hid the toy under a blanket while Sonali was watching her. Sonali still searched for the toy under the pillow. However, in another instance, Sonali correctly searched for the toy under the blanket. In the context of the A-not-B error, analyze the factors responsible for this inconsistency. Version 1

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141) A recent study revealed that habituation assessed at 3 or 6 months of age is linked to verbal skills and intelligence at 32 months of age. How can parents use the concepts of habituation and dishabituation to better interact with their babies and maybe boost their verbal skills and intelligence in the process?

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142)

Distinguish between explicit memory and implicit memory.

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143)

What is infantile amnesia?

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144) By 1 year of age, after only speaking Japanese since she was born, Maria doesn't recognize changes in sounds in English words that she previously seemed to notice at 3 months of age. Why do you think Maria lost that ability? Is this normal or a problem? Support your answer with Patricia Kuhl's research.

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145) Long before infants speak recognizable words, they produce a number of vocalizations. Describe these vocalizations in the order that they appear in infants.

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146)

Distinguish between receptive vocabulary and spoken vocabulary.

147) What is child-directed speech? What are some other strategies adults use to increase infants' acquisition of language?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch05 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) D 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) D 89) B 90) B 91) C 92) A 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) D 97) B 98) D 99) D 100) C 101) B 102) D 103) C 104) A 105) D 106) C 107) D 108) A 109) A 110) A 111) B 112) D 113) D 114) A 115) A 116) A Version 1

117) A 118) A 119) B 120) C 121) B 122) C 123) B 124) A 125) D 126) Chomsky 127) schemes 128) assimilation 129) disequilibrium 130) simple 131) internalization 132) permanence 133) implicit 134) generativity 135) phonemes 136) child-directed 137) Schemes are actions or mental representations that organize knowledge. According to Piaget, as an infant or a child seeks to construct an understanding of the world, the developing brain creates schemes. To explain how children use and adapt their schemes, Piaget offered two concepts: assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children use their existing schemes to deal with new information or experiences. Accommodation occurs when children adjust their schemes to take new information and experiences into account.

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138) Piaget divided the sensorimotor stage into six substages: (1) simple reflexes; (2) first habits and primary circular reactions; (3) secondary circular reactions; (4) coordination of secondary circular reactions; (5) tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity; and (6) internalization of schemes. 139) Jacqueline's behavior is characteristic of Piaget's tertiary circular reactions, novelty, and curiosity stage, which is the fifth sensorimotor substage. It develops between 12 and 18 months of age. In this substage, infants become intrigued by the many properties of objects and by the many things that they can make happen to objects. Tertiary circular reactions are schemes in which the infant purposely explores new possibilities with objects, continually doing new things to them and exploring the results. Piaget says that this stage marks the starting point for human curiosity and interest in novelty. 140) In contrast to what Jean Piaget believed, the A-not-B error does not show up consistently. A-not-B errors are sensitive to the delay between hiding an object at location B and the infant's attempt to find it. The Anot-B error might be due to a failure in memory. And A-not-B performance may be linked to attention as well. Another explanation is that infants tend to repeat a previous motor behavior. 141) Knowing about habituation and dishabituation can help parents interact effectively with infants. Infants respond to changes in stimulation. Wise parents sense when an infant shows an interest and realize that they may have to repeat something many times for the infant to process information. But if the stimulation is repeated often, the infant stops responding to the parent. In parent-infant interaction, it is important for parents to do novel things and to repeat them often until the infant stops responding. The parent stops or changes behaviors when the infant redirects his or her attention. Version 1

142)Implicit memory refers to memory without conscious recollection— memories of skills and routine procedures that are performed automatically. A child riding a bike draws on his or her implicit memory every time he or she performs the task. In contrast,explicit memory refers to the conscious memory of facts and experiences. One's memories of the last vacation taken and the ability to recall the names of former U.S. presidents are examples of explicit memory. 143) Most adults can remember little if anything from the first three years of their life. This is called infantile or childhood amnesia. 144) Maria's loss of this ability is very normal. Research by Patricia Kuhl demonstrated that babies from birth to 6 months of age are really good at determining different sounds regardless of the language. As babies get more used to their "own" language that they are surrounded with, they get better at perceiving the changes in sounds in their "own" language. However, they actually get worse at perceiving changes in sounds in different languages. 145)Babies' sounds or vocalizations go through this sequence during the first year: 1) Crying: Babies cry even at birth. Crying can signal distress, but there are different types of cries that signal different things. 2) Cooing: Babies first coo at about 2 to 4 months. These are gurgling sounds that are made in the back of the throat and usually express pleasure during interaction with the caregiver. 3) Babbling: In the middle of the first year, babies babble—that is, they produce strings of consonant-vowel combinations, such as "ba, ba, ba, ba." 146)Receptive vocabulary refers to the words that a child understands, whereasspoken vocabulary refers to the words that the child uses. Receptive vocabulary always precedes and exceeds spoken vocabulary. Version 1

147) Child-directed speech is language spoken in a higher pitch and slower pace than normal, using simple words and sentences. It has the important function of capturing the infant's attention and maintaining communication. Adults often use strategies other than child-directed speech to enhance the child's acquisition of language, including recasting, expanding, and labeling.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Feelings or affects that occur when a person is in a state or an interaction that is important to him or her, especially to his or her well-being, are known as

A) temperament. B) emotions. C) personality traits. D) feeling states.

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Which of the following statements about emotions is true?

A) Emotions are generally classified as positive or negative. B) Emotions are seldom influenced by biological foundations and experiences. C) The ability to regulate emotions is present at birth. D) Self-conscious emotions are the first to develop in an infant.

Which of the following is an important role played by emotions during infancy?

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A) cognition B) communication C) sensation D) suckling

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Especially in infancy, emotions play important roles in

A) independence. B) reciprocal socialization. C) sensation. D) behavioral organization.

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The infant's ability to regulate emotions is tied to

A) the gradual maturation of the frontal regions of the cerebral cortex. B) parental history of emotional control. C) the pace of myelination in the parietal lobe. D) the growth of the cerebellum in the initial four months after birth.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Biological, Cognitive, and Environmental Influences Learning Objective : Describe the development of emotions and personality in infancy.

Which of the following statements about emotions is true?

A) Self-conscious emotions are the first language with which parents and infants communicate. B) Social relationships seldom provide the setting for the development of emotions. C) Biological evolution has endowed human beings to be emotional. D) Embeddedness in relationships prevents diversity in emotional experiences.

7) Emotions that are present in humans and animals and that appear in the first six months of the human infant's development are known as

A) primitive emotions. B) innate emotions. C) primary emotions. D) evolved emotions.

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Which of the following is a primary emotion?

A) shame B) anger C) jealousy D) pride

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Mark is a 4-month-old toddler. Which of the following would he show at this age?

A) primary emotions B) tertiary emotions C) other-conscious emotions D) self-conscious emotions

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10) Five-month-old Caitlyn demonstrates surprise when an unexpected event occurs. This is a demonstration of a(n) _____ emotion.

A) negative B) self-conscious C) other-conscious D) primary

11) Makiko feels ashamed when her friend, who has come over for a play date, teases her about wearing nighttime diapers. This is an example of _____ emotions.

A) primary B) other worldly C) other-conscious D) conscious

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12) Molly is an 18-month-old child who shows an "other-conscious" emotion when her caregiver praises her for doing a certain task in the presence of other children her age. Identify the emotion being described in this scenario. Version 1

A) interest B) pride C) disgust D) fear

13)

Which of the following statements about self-conscious emotions is true?

A) They are emotions that are present in humans and other animals. B) These emotions appear in the first six months of the infant's development. C) They include emotions like surprise, interest, joy, anger, sadness, fear, and disgust. D) They involve the emotional reactions of others when they are generated.

14) Some experts on infant socioemotional development, such as Jerome Kagan, conclude that _____ makes it unlikely that emotions which require thought can be experienced in the first year.

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A) the lack of innate emotions in the infant brain B) the structural immaturity of the infant brain C) incomplete myelination in the first two months D) the lack of reciprocity of emotional expressions

15) What is the opinion of experts on infant socioemotional development, such as Jerome Kagan, regarding an infant's capacity to display emotions like guilt, pride, despair, shame, empathy, and jealousy in the first year?

A) The structural immaturity of the infant brain makes it unlikely that such emotions can be experienced in the first year. B) Infants characterized by negative affectivity are more prone to experience such emotions in the first year. C) The excitability of the amygdala plays an important role in the development of such emotions. D) Cultural differences in temperament prevent Asian infants from experiencing such emotions in the first year.

16) Mario brings his mother his favorite teddy bear to comfort her when she has had a bad day at work. This demonstrates a(n) _____ emotion.

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A) primary B) self-conscious C) negative D) unconscious

17) Most _____ emotions occur for the first time at some point in the second half of the first year through the second year.

A) unconscious B) primary C) negative D) self-conscious

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18) Which of the following terms refers to the mutually regulated interactions between parents and infants?

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A) other-conscious B) innate C) regulated D) synchronous

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19)

Which of the following statements about crying is true?

A) Newborns seldom use crying as a means of communication. B) The first cry verifies that the infant's lungs are filled with fluids. C) Cries provide information about the health of the newborn's central nervous system. D) Excessive infant crying in 3-month-olds triples the risk of behavioral, hyperactive, and mood problems at 5 to 6 years of age.

20) Two-month-old Trey is crying loudly. It is a sudden long, initial loud cry followed by breath holding. This type of cry indicates that Trey is

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A) experiencing pain. B) experiencing embarrassment. C) very angry. D) very hungry.

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21) When 1-month-old Mai is sleeping, it often looks like she is smiling. This is an example of a _____ smile.

A) private B) reflexive C) natural D) social

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22)

A social smile differs from a reflexive smile in that a social smile

A) occurs in response to an external stimulus. B) is first observed beyond the age of 12 months. C) occurs only when the infant is asleep. D) usually occurs when a child meets unfamiliar adults outside the home environment.

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23) Three-month-old Zoey looks up at her mother and smiles. What do researchers call this smile? A) trust smile B) social smile C) reflexive smile D) attachment smile

24) A recent study (Frick & others, 2018) linked maternal sensitivity to _____ in 10-monthold infants.

A) better emotion regulation B) better emotion manipulation C) emotional hypersensitivity D) emotional instability

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Early Emotions Topic : Emotional Expression Learning Objective : Describe the development of emotions and personality in infancy.

25) Nikita is 18 months old, and she has a tendency to cry when strangers come near her. She is displaying one of a baby's earliest emotions,

A) fear. B) embarrassment. C) jealousy. D) pride.

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26) Researchers have found that infant _____ is linked to guilt, empathy, and low aggression at 6 to 7 years of age.

A) pride B) embarrassment C) fear D) jealousy

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27)

The most frequent expression of an infant's fear involves

A) fear of heights. B) the separation protest. C) stranger anxiety. D) fear of walking.

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28)

The fear of strangers peaks

A) in the first three months after birth. B) toward the end of the first year of life. C) toward the middle of the second year of life. D) in the first six months after birth.

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29)

Researchers have found that infant fear is linked to _____ at 6 to 7 years of age.

A) high effortful control B) empathy C) high aggression D) self-confidence

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30) In which of the following situations will 9-month-old Lucy show the most stranger anxiety?

A) when she meets a stranger in her home B) when she meets another 9-month-old baby at her usual child-care facility C) when she meets a stranger in an unfamiliar place D) when she meets her caregiver after spending the entire day at a child-care facility

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31)

Infants show _____ when they are in familiar settings.

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A) more stranger anxiety B) no separation protest C) less stranger anxiety D) more separation protest

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32) Carla is discussing stranger anxiety in toddlers with her friend, Maria. She tells Maria that her toddler, Beth, showed less stranger anxiety when she met her new nanny in their home. Which of the following statements best explains Beth's reaction?

A) Beth showed less stranger anxiety because she is used to being taken care of by nannies. B) Beth showed less stranger anxiety because she was in a familiar setting. C) Beth showed less stranger anxiety because she likes meeting strangers and is comfortable with them. D) Beth showed less stranger anxiety because she is a disorganized child who was confused and did not know how to react.

33)

Separation protest is characterized by

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A) rejoicing when the caregiver returns. B) crying when the caregiver shouts. C) crying when the caregiver leaves. D) indifference to the whereabouts of the caregiver.

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34) Cindy has worked from home as a freelancer ever since she had a baby. Now that her baby, Hailey, is 15 months old, Cindy has accepted a full-time job offer. Every day, when Cindy drops Hailey off at the day-care, Hailey screams and cries for a couple of minutes. Which of the following terms best describes Hailey's behavior?

A) scaffolding B) separation protest C) surgency D) social referencing

35)

Which of the following statements is true regarding separation protest?

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A) The percentage of infants who engage in separation protest seldom varies across cultures. B) Infants reach a peak of protest at about the same age across cultures. C) It is initially displayed by infants at approximately 10 to 12 months. D) It peaks at about 24 months among U.S. infants.

36) Infancy experts Mary Ainsworth and John Bowlby stress that _____ is an important ingredient in developing a strong bond between the infant and the caregiver.

A) a quick, comforting response to an infant's cries B) ignoring an infant's cries C) forcefully telling an infant not to cry D) responding too much to infant crying

37)

Which of the following statements about soothing crying infants is true?

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A) Developmental psychologists increasingly agree that soothing crying infants is important to help infants develop a sense of trust. B) Research shows that fathers are more likely than mothers to use soothing techniques to reduce infant crying. C) Infants typically soothe themselves and seldom depend on their caregivers to help soothe their emotions. D) A mother's negative emotional responses to her infant's cries are linked to higher selfconfidence in the child's later years.

38) _____ involves individual differences in behavioral styles, emotions, and characteristic ways of responding.

A) Attachment B) Temperament C) Perception D) Social referencing

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39) "Easy child," "difficult child," and "slow-to-warm-up child" are three basic types of _____ identified by psychiatrists Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas.

Version 1

A) trust B) emotion C) attachment D) temperament

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40) When Josh was dropped off at preschool on the very first day of class, he was quite upset. He cried for a long time and would not play with the other children. This behavior continued for a few more days. Some days, Josh would throw tantrums right before his mother dropped him off, and on other days he would cry and scream after his mom left him at the preschool. According to psychiatrists Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, what type of temperament does Josh have? A) slow-to-warm-up B) easy C) difficult D) inflexible

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41) Eva's mother describes Eva as a mildly active child. She also feels that Eva's mood is marginally negative. According to Chess and Thomas' classification, which of the following characteristics is Eva most likely to demonstrate?

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A) Eva tends to throw tantrums and cry frequently. B) Eva accepts and adapts easily to changes around her. C) Eva displays a low intensity of mood. D) Eva engages in irregular daily routines.

42) Sakura isn't a particularly active child, and he tends to be wary of new situations and people. Although he doesn't cry, he dislikes dealing with novel situations. According to Thomas and Chess, he would be classified as

A) an easy child. B) a difficult child. C) a slow-to-warm-up child. D) a slow child.

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43) Betty and Allen are part of a theatrical group, so they travel frequently. Their child, Cara, is an 11-month-old baby and travels everywhere with them. Even though Cara is usually comfortable with strangers, a full-time nanny that Cara grew fond of in a day helps take care of her when her parents are performing. Cara has a regular routine but easily adapts to new eating and sleeping habits whenever the family moves across states. According to Chess and Thomas, Cara would be classified as

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A) a passive child. B) an easy child. C) a slow-to-warm-up child. D) an inhibited child.

44)

Jerome Kagan's classification of temperament focuses on

A) inhibition to the unfamiliar. B) a positive or negative mood state. C) effortful control. D) (hyper) activity level.

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45) According to Jerome Kagan, children with which of the following types of temperament at age 2 to 3 later showed social phobia symptoms at 7 years of age?

A) inhibited B) extremely uninhibited C) intermediate D) surgent

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46) Mary Rothbart and John Bates suggest that infant temperament is characterized by three broad dimensions:

A) emotionality, social ability, and activity level. B) extraversion/surgency, negative affectivity, and effortful control. C) easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up. D) extraversion, introversion, and emotionality.

47) According to Rothbart and Bates' descriptions of temperament, into which category do Kagan's uninhibited children fit?

A) self-regulation B) negative affectivity C) extraversion/surgency D) effortful control

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48) Researchers' recent focus on _____ emphasizes that individuals can engage in a more cognitive, flexible approach to stressful circumstances.

A) extraversion B) extreme inhibition C) negative affectivity D) effortful control

49)

According to Jerome Kagan, temperament

A) is the result of inherited physiological characteristics; however, it can be modified to some degree by experiences. B) is the result of inherited physiological characteristics and cannot be modified by environment influences. C) is minimally influenced by inherited physiological characteristics but is primarily the result of environmental input. D) results completely from environmental factors such as parenting styles.

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50)

An inhibited temperament has been associated with

A) low thyroxine levels. B) an unstable heart rate. C) low levels of the hormone cortisol. D) high activity in the right frontal lobe of the brain.

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51) In a recent study (Johnson & others, 2019), children reported using _____ when experiencing early life stress, while adolescents used _____ when facing such stress.

A) more suppression and disengagement; more engagement coping strategies B) more engagement coping strategies; more suppression and disengagement C) less suppression; more disengagement D) more drug use and self-harm; less violence and abuse

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Biological, Cognitive, and Environmental Influences Learning Objective : Describe the development of emotions and personality in infancy.

52) In Canada, parents tend to prefer children with a(n) _____ temperament, whereas in China a(n) _____ temperament is more highly valued. A) active; inhibited B) inhibited; active C) inner-focused; outward-focused D) outward-focused; inner-focused

53) _____ refers to the match between a child's temperament and the environmental demands the child must cope with.

A) Social referencing B) Secure attachment C) Goodness of fit D) Reciprocal socialization

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54) Monsena is an independent and adventurous child who likes to explore new places in her environment. However, her mother is overprotective and forbids Monsena from playing in the back yard or the garden of their house. Developmental psychologists would say that this discrepancy concerns A) goodness of fit. B) nonreciprocal interactions. C) social dysfunction. D) insecure attachment.

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55) Alexa and Mandy are discussing the best parenting strategies in relation to a child's temperament. Alexa thinks that the best strategy is putting standard goals in place to deal with children's individualities. However, Mandy disagrees with Alexa's view. Which of the following statements supports Mandy's view?

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A) A goal may be accomplished in one way with one child, but it does not necessarily mean the same can be applied to all children. B) Dealing with children's individualities cannot be considered a strategy to deal with a child's temperament, as there is no correlation between the two. C) A child's individuality changes so frequently that it is impossible to come up with goals to deal with it. D) It has been proved that focusing on structuring a child's environment is a better strategy than paying attention to a child's individuality and coming up with goals to deal with it.

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56) Which of the following statements about Erik Erikson's trust-versus-mistrust stage of development is true?

A) The issue of trust versus mistrust is resolved once and for all in the first year of the infant's life. B) Even though the issue of trust versus mistrust arises at each successive stage of development, it can have only positive out-comes. C) Infants who learn trust by being cared for in a consistent, warm manner will never develop mistrust in life. D) Children who leave infancy with a sense of trust can still have their sense of mistrust activated at a later stage, perhaps if their parents get divorced.

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57) Which of the following would Erik Erikson most likely recommend when faced with a crying infant?

A) Do not soothe the baby, because he or she will be spoiled. B) Pick up the baby and soothe him or her so that a healthy sense of trust develops. C) Allow the infant to cry, because this will encourage the development of a selfsufficient child. D) Soothe the baby every other time, so that he or she does not become dependent on external comfort.

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58) Researchers have had mothers put a dot of rouge on the noses of babies and place the babies in front of mirrors to see their reaction. These researchers are studying the concept of

A) trust. B) attachment. C) temperament. D) sense of self.

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59) Eva wants to check if her 8-month-old nephew, Michael, can recognize his own reflection in a mirror. She places him in front of a mirror and applies a bit of baby powder on his nose. Which of the following is most likely to happen? Version 1

A) Michael will touch his own nose to wipe off the powder. B) Michael will touch the reflection of his nose on the mirror to try wipe the powder off. C) Michael will touch the reflection on the mirror because he wonders why the other child has powder on his nose. D) Michael will crawl away from the mirror because he does not recognize his own reflection.

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60) Tyler, who is 24 months old, is placed in front of a mirror with a spot of rouge on his nose. Tyler will most likely

A) touch his own nose to wipe off the spot. B) touch the spot on the mirror to try to wipe the spot off his nose. C) touch the spot on the mirror because he wonders why the other child has a spot on his nose. D) crawl away from the mirror because he does not recognize himself with the spot on his nose.

61) Erik Erikson describes the second stage of personality development as the stage of _____ versus shame and doubt.

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A) curiosity B) dependence C) autonomy D) fear

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62)

What types of behaviors in caregivers create a sense of shame and doubt in children?

A) overprotectiveness and criticism B) neglectfulness and indifference C) enmeshment and fear D) patience and tolerance

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63) Tara holds her 2-month-old daughter Sonia close to her, makes eye contact, and smiles and sings softly to her. Tara is engaging in

A) face-to-face play. B) parallel play. C) joint attention. D) imitation.

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64) Nick is 24 months old. His nanny observes that he has better locomotion skills than other children his age. He loves to walk and run around more than other children. Which of the following would most likely be a result of this behavior?

A) increase in face-to-face play B) increased independent social interchanges C) coincidental cooperative behavior D) decreased expectation of positive interaction

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65) Juan has been showing a marked increase in his imitative and reciprocal play. He goes around imitating nonverbal actions like jumping and running. Juan is probably

A) around 6 months old. B) between 6 and 9 months old. C) between 12 and 18 months old. D) between 18 and 24 months old.

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66)

Which of the following helps the infant understand that other people have intentions?

A) habituation B) joint attention C) the core knowledge approach D) the A-not-B error

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67) Which term refers to "reading" emotional cues in others to help determine how to act in a particular situation?

A) social referencing B) deferred imitation C) infinite generativity D) reciprocal socialization

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68) Quimby, a 15-month-old child, looks to her mother to see if she should be afraid of the stranger who has come to her home. Quimby relaxes when she sees her mother smiling and speaking to the stranger in a calm voice. Quimby is engaging in

A) social checking. B) social scoping. C) social referencing. D) social validation.

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69) Researchers are discovering that infants are more socially sophisticated and insightful at younger ages than previously envisioned. In which aspect is this sophistication and insight reflected?

A) in infants' perceptions of others' actions as intentionally motivated and goal-directed B) in infants' awareness of their selves as independent entities C) in infants' development of more refined sensory perceptions, such as vision and hearing D) in infants' ability to manipulate objects in an effective manner

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize attachment in young children.

70)

According to Freud, infants become attached to the person or object

A) that is perceived to be non-foreign. B) that provides physical comfort. C) that provides oral satisfaction. D) that provides a sense of trust.

71) What is the significant finding of Harlow's experiments on monkeys reared by surrogate mothers?

A) Thermal comfort is the crucial element in the attachment process. B) Feeding is the crucial element in the attachment process. C) Contact comfort is the crucial element in the attachment process. D) Feeding and contact comfort are equally important in the attachment process.

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72)

According to Erikson, _____ are key to establishing a basic sense of trust in infants.

A) physical comfort and sensitive care B) feeding and physical comfort C) contact comfort and feeding D) oral satisfaction and physical comfort

73) During phase 1 of John Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, what is most likely to occur?

A) An infant will show signs of attachment toward the caregiver and anxiety toward strangers. B) An infant will begin to attach to one person and can distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar people. C) An infant is securely attached to the mother but is still trying to form an attachment with the father. D) An infant is likely to exhibit smiling or crying in response to strangers, siblings, or parents.

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74) Anna is at a phase of attachment in which she takes the feelings of others into consideration before acting. According to John Bowlby, Anna is most likely in what age range?

A) 6 months of age or younger B) between 12 and 18 months old C) between 18 and 20 months old D) 24 months of age or older

75) Which of the following characterizes phase 1 of Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment?

A) Infants instinctively direct their attachment to human figures. B) Children become aware of others' feelings, goals, and plans and begin to take these into account in forming their own actions. C) Attachment becomes focused on one figure, usually the primary caregiver. D) Infants start to lose attachment to their primary caregivers.

Version 1

76) Amy is a 5-month-old baby girl. She tends to smile and become comfortable when her mother picks her up. However, when she sees an unknown face, she gets upset and cries for her mother. Which of the following phases of Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment is Amy currently in?

A) phase 1 B) phase 2 C) phase 3 D) phase 4

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77)

According to Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, how long does phase 1 last?

A) from birth to 2 months of age B) from age 2 months to 7 months C) from age 10 months to 18 months D) from age 18 months to 24 months

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78) According to Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, which of the following occurs during phase 3?

A) Attachment becomes focused on one figure, usually the primary caregiver, as the baby gradually learns to distinguish familiar from unfamiliar people. B) Strangers, siblings, and parents are equally likely to elicit smiling or crying from the infant. C) Children become aware of others' feelings, goals, and plans and begin to take these into account in forming their own actions. D) With increased locomotor skills, babies actively seek contact with regular caregivers, such as the mother or father.

79) According to Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, which of the following is the time period for phase 3?

A) from birth to 2 months B) from 2 to 7 months of age C) from 7 to 24 months of age D) beginning at around 24 months of age

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80) 2?

According to Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, what is the time period of phase

A) from birth to 2 months of age B) from 2 to 7 months of age C) from 8 to 12 months of age D) from 12 to 24 months of age

81) Anthony is just starting to crawl and has taken to following his mother around the house. He also lifts his arms up to her when he wants to be picked up. According to Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment, which phase is Anthony currently in?

A) phase 1 B) phase 2 C) phase 3 D) phase 4

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82)

John Bowlby argued that infants develop a(n) _____ model of attachment.

A) external working B) internal working C) external passive D) internal passive

83) According to John Bowlby, infants' internal working model of attachment includes a simple mental model of the caregiver, their relationship, and the self as

A) being independent. B) deserving of nurturant care. C) deserving of constant attention. D) being helpless.

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84) The Strange Situation is an observational measure of infant attachment developed by Mary Ainsworth. It requires the infant to

A) crawl through a dark tunnel with his or her caregiver and a stranger waiting on the other side. B) move through a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with his or her caregiver and a stranger. C) experience loud noises in a room with only a stranger present. D) choose between his or her mother and father in a strange situation.

85) When put on the floor to play, baby Elaine cries as if she wants to be held. When her mother picks her up, though, Elaine pushes away with both arms and turns her head away. Mary Ainsworth would say that Elaine is

A) securely attached. B) insecure avoidant. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure disorganized.

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86) In the Strange Situation, Latoya basically ignored her mother, was not upset when she left the room, and did not seek her out when she returned. Mary Ainsworth would most likely classify Latoya as being

A) securely attached. B) insecure avoidant. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure antisocial.

87) In the Strange Situation, Jermaine used his mother as a "safe base" as he actively explored the playroom. Mary Ainsworth would most likely classify Jermaine as being

A) securely attached. B) trusting attached. C) agape-love attached. D) solidly attached.

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88) In the Strange Situation, Quentin cries mildly when his caregiver departs. However, he is happy upon reunion, and then he continues to explore once the caregiver has returned. He would be classified as being

A) securely attached. B) insecure disorganized. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure avoidant.

89) Diego is in the Strange Situation with his caregiver. He explores the room and examines the toys that have been placed in it. He uses the caregiver as a secure base from which to explore. He would be classified as being

A) insecure resistant. B) insecure avoidant. C) securely attached. D) insecure disorganized.

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90) Austin is in the Strange Situation and shows strong patterns of avoidance and resistance. He also displays extreme fearfulness around the caregiver. He would be classified as being

A) resistant. B) avoidant. C) attached. D) disorganized.

91) Parker is in the Strange Situation, where he shows little interaction with his caregiver. He isn't distressed upon separation and does not reestablish contact upon reunion. He would be classified as being

A) securely attached. B) insecure avoidant. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure disorganized.

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92)

Insecure avoidant babies show

A) displeasure by violently reacting to the situation. B) insecurity by avoiding the caregiver. C) secure attachment to the caregiver. D) insecurity by avoiding the stranger.

93) Natalie is in the Strange Situation, and she clings anxiously to her caregiver. She does not explore the playroom. She would most likely be classified as being

A) securely attached. B) insecure disorganized. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure avoidant.

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94) In the Strange Situation, created by Mary Ainsworth, which of the following babies would appear disoriented?

A) Tina, a baby who is securely attached to her caregiver B) Henry, who is an insecure resistant baby C) Clara, who is an insecure disorganized baby D) Tobias, a baby who is insecure and avoidant toward his caregiver

95) Tiara is in the Strange Situation and appears dazed, confused, and fearful. She would most likely be classified as being

A) insecure avoidant. B) insecure disorganized. C) insecure resistant. D) securely attached.

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96) Mariposa is in the Strange Situation. She moves freely away from her mother but keeps track of where she is through periodic glances. She would most likely be classified as being

A) insecurely attached. B) extremely inhibited. C) securely attached. D) difficult.

97) In the Strange Situation, Cameron did not explore the playroom, he clung to his mother when she was in the room, and he was very upset when she left the room. When she returned, he appeared to be ambivalent—wanting to be comforted by his mother but pushing her away when she attempted to do so. Mary Ainsworth would most likely classify Cameron as being

A) securely attached. B) insecure avoidant. C) insecure resistant. D) insecure disorganized.

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98) According to critics, the Strange Situation might not be able to capture important differences among infants because

A) it is a controlled, artificial situation. B) there is too little control of contextual factors in it. C) its information is biased by observers' impressions. D) as a measure of attachment, it may be culturally biased.

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99)

In every culture studied so far, the most common classification of attachment is

A) secure attachment. B) insecure resistant attachment. C) disorganized attachment. D) insecure avoidant attachment.

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100) Jeremy is a securely attached infant, while Jason is an insecure infant. Which of the following statements about later functioning for these children is true?

A) There will be no differences in their social functioning by age 8. B) Jeremy is likely to have more learning difficulties in elementary school than Jason. C) Jeremy is likely to be more shy and withdrawn than Jason. D) Jeremy is likely to have more self-confidence than Jason.

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101) Andy showed secure attachment as an early infant, and now he is in his early childhood. Which of the following would we expect to see from Andy?

A) increased social competence with peers B) greater intelligence than his peers C) increased social anxiety D) increased aggression with his peers

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102) Shoko responds positively to being picked up by others, and when put back down, freely moves away to play. She would most likely be classified as being

A) securely attached. B) extremely inhibited. C) difficult. D) insecurely attached.

103) According to Mary Ainsworth, a(n) _____ infant avoids the mother or is ambivalent toward her, fears strangers, and is upset by minor, everyday separations.

A) extraverted B) insecurely attached C) easily adaptable D) slow-to-warm-up

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104) The _____ model involves connections across domains over time that influence developmental pathways and outcomes.

A) internal working B) external working C) Strange Situation D) developmental cascade

105) _____ can include connections between a wide range of biological, cognitive, and socioemotional processes, and also can involve social contexts such as families, peers, schools, and culture.

A) Reciprocal socializations B) Developmental cascades C) Secure attachments D) Scaffolding

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106) Jerome Kagan and other developmentalists stress that _____ play a more important role in a child's social competence than the attachment theorists, such as Bowlby and Ainsworth, are willing to acknowledge.

A) the child's genetic characteristics and temperament B) the quality of parenting and extra support provided to mothers C) security of attachment to a primary caregiver and the subsequent experiences of the child D) maternal care and the diversity of social contexts in which the child participates

107) Carla and Mike are discussing secure attachment in infancy. Carla believes that secure attachment in an infant's life provides an important foundation for psychological development that occurs later in life. She strongly feels that there is enough evidence to support this. However, Mike rejects her view. Which of the following is among the criticisms of the emphasis on secure attachment and supports Mike's position?

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A) Studies have shown that a mother's negative emotional reactions (anger and anxiety) to her infant's crying do not have an effect on the child's attachment security or on the child's psychological development later in life. B) It has been proven that social agents and contexts seldom influence an infant's secure attachment and thereby later development. C) Biologically based factors such as genes and temperament have not been given adequate consideration in terms of how they influence an infant's secure attachment and later development. D) It has been observed and proven in all cultures that secure attachment is the least likely factor to influence an infant's later development.

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108) Recent studies found that a disorganized attachment style developed in infancy only when infants had the short version of the serotonin transporter gene, 5-HTTLPR. This geneenvironment interaction only occurred when

A) the infants' other-consciousness developed poorly in the first six months after birth. B) mothers showed a low level of responsiveness toward their infants. C) maternal nutrition was deficient during the prenatal period. D) the infants were temperamentally inclined toward negative affectivity.

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109) A recent research meta-analysis (Darling Rasmussen & others, 2019) concluded that secure attachment was linked to A) better resilience. B) boys' neediness in adolescence. C) emotional hypersensitivity. D) less resilience.

110) Blanca rarely holds Joey, her baby, and tends to respond to his needs in an angry, irritable fashion. It is most likely that Joey will develop a(n) _____ with his mother.

A) secure attachment B) insecure avoidant attachment C) insecure resistant attachment D) disorganized resistant attachment

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111) Carrie is a 19-year-old single mother. She often feels overwhelmed and depressed about her situation and frequently neglects her 8-month-old son and his needs. On several occasions, she has slapped his hand when he reaches for her cell phone. Carrie's baby is most likely to develop a(n) _____ toward her.

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A) insecure avoidant attachment B) insecure disorganized attachment C) insecure resistant attachment D) secure attachment

112) _____, a mammalian hormone that also acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, is released during breast feeding and by contact and warmth.

A) Adrenaline B) Oxytocin C) Vasopressin D) Estrogen

113)

The _____ is a collection of neurons in the forebrain that are involved in pleasure.

A) nucleus accumbens B) corpus callosum C) hippocampus D) amygdala

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114) Bella is making a presentation about social neuroscience and infant attachment. She explains to the audience the role of oxytocin in the formation of the parent-infant bond. Which of the following is an accurate statement she may make during her presentation?

A) Gazing at their babies, expressing positive affect toward them, and touching them are some of the behaviors that increase mothers' oxytocin levels. B) Oxytocin release is stimulated by birth and lactation in mothers. Therefore, males cannot form a bond with the infant like the maternal-infant bond. C) When fathers are administered oxyto-cin, their parenting behavior remains the same. D) Oxytocin is an analgesic drug administered to mothers after childbirth to relieve pain. This drug is thought to be a likely candidate in the formation of the mother-infant attachment, but it is yet to be proved.

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115) When people become parents through pregnancy, adoption, or step-parenting, they face _____ and must adapt.

A) equilibrium B) disturbance C) disequilibrium D) symmetry

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116)

Which of the following statements about the transition to parenthood is true?

A) All mothers are satisfied with their partners' efforts in parenting. B) Women do slightly less than an hour of additional work during the transition to parenthood, in comparison to about 40 minutes for men. C) Couples agree that babies either bring them closer or move them apart. D) Research shows that all married couples report an increase in marriage satisfaction after the baby is born.

117)

Which of the following is a characteristic of reciprocal socialization?

A) It is bidirectional. B) It is asynchronous. C) It is nontransactional. D) It is harmful to infants.

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118) When a mother plays peek-a-boo with her baby, she moves from covering the baby and saying "peek-a-boo" to covering her own eyes and saying it. This illustrates

A) sociability. B) scaffolding. C) emotionality. D) disorganized attachment.

119)

Which of the following is the best description of scaffolding?

A) Parents time interactions in such a way that the infant experiences turn taking with the parents. B) The caregiver and the infant focus on the same object or event. C) Mothers and their infants interact in a dance-like pattern of closely coordinated actions. D) The child is presented with a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with the caregiver.

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120)

Which of the following is a good example of scaffolding?

A) child-directed speech B) the Strange Situation C) a game of peek-a-boo D) social referencing

121) A mother hands her baby a rattle, saying, "Here you are." She then gently takes the rattle away, smiling and saying, "Thank you." She does this repeatedly, letting the baby keep the rattle for several seconds each time and encouraging the baby to offer the rattle. Eventually, the baby takes the rattle, holds it for a few seconds, and then holds it out to her mother and smiles. This is an example of

A) sociability. B) scaffolding. C) emotionality. D) reciprocal socialization.

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122) Mary often plays the game peek-a-boo with her baby. Initially, Mary covers her baby and then removes the cover, registering "surprise" at the baby's reappearance. After a time, her baby does the covering and uncovering. This is an example of

A) object permanence. B) scaffolding. C) attachment. D) sociability.

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123)

Which of the following statements about scaffolding is true?

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A) Studies indicate that when adults use explicit scaffolding (encouragement) with 13and 14-month-old infants, the infants are twice as likely to engage in helping behavior as are their counterparts who do not receive the scaffolding. B) A study of disadvantaged families revealed that an intervention designed to enhance maternal scaffold-ing with infants was linked to lower cognitive skills when the children were 4 years old. C) Turn taking and games like peek-a-boo seldom reflect the development of joint attention by the caregiver and the infant. D) Scaffolding discourages paren-tal support in children's efforts; the emphasis is on allowing children to be more skillful by relying only on their own abilities.

124)

Which of the following statements regarding paternal caregiving is true?

A) Stay-at-home fathers are rarely satisfied with their marriage. B) Fathers tend to be ostracized when they take their children to playgrounds. C) Fathers lack the ability to act as sensitively and responsively as mothers with their infants. D) Paternal interactions usually center on child-care activities, such as feeding, changing diapers, and bathing.

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125)

Research on fathers as caregivers indicates that fathers

A) tend to be less nurturing caregivers than mothers. B) are biologically more suited for a nurturing caregiver role than mothers. C) typically engage in child-care activities such as feeding or bathing rather than play. D) interact with their babies in different ways than mothers do, regardless of which parent is the primary caregiver.

126) Which of the following best exemplifies the difference between how mothers and fathers interact with their children?

A) Mothers smile more at their children. B) Fathers engage in more physical play with their children. C) Mothers express more emotions with their children. D) Fathers are less affectionate with their children.

127) Ryan is father to an 11-month-old baby boy. He loves spending time with his son when he is home from work. Which of the following activities is he most likely to engage in with his son?

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A) peek-a-boo games B) reciprocal socialization C) rough-and-tumble play D) pat-a-cake games

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128) A recent study (Gordon & others, 2017) found that a high level of testosterone in fathers in early infancy was linked to

A) lower father-infant synchrony. B) higher father-infant synchrony. C) higher father-mother synchrony. D) higher rates of paternal postpartum depression.

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129) A recent study (Hughes & others, 2020) found that higher levels of anxiety and depression symptoms in fathers in the third trimester of pregnancy were related to

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A) higher levels of infants' internalizing and externalizing problems at 14 months of age. B) infants' failure to attach at 2 years of age. C) infants showing sleep problems at 3 years of age. D) improvements in their child's learning skills in late childhood.

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130) Recent research on the Bringing Home Baby Project found that fathers who participated in the program

A) felt more appreciated by their wives. B) led to the fathers being less involved in parenting. C) showed lower testosterone levels. D) showed higher levels of employment.

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131) The United States currently grants up to _____ weeks of _____ leave for caring for a newborn.

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A) 12; unpaid B) 14; paid C) 18; paid D) 18; unpaid

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132)

The _____ mandated a paid 14-week maternity leave in 1992.

A) United Nations B) United States C) European Union D) WHO

133) One study of 2- and 3-year-old children revealed that an increase in the number of childcare arrangements the children experienced was linked to a(n)

A) decrease in reciprocal socialization. B) increase in behavioral problems. C) increase in prosocial behavior. D) increase in secure attachment.

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134) Carla is writing an article for a women's magazine. The article mainly highlights the child-care policies in different nations. She hopes that one of the beneficial child-care policies in Sweden will also be implemented in the United States in the near future. Which of the following policies is she referring to?

A) inclusion of the father in parental leave B) provision of low-cost child care C) inclusion of the extended family in child-care benefits D) provision of developmentally appropriate child care

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135)

Which of the following statements about child care and socioeconomic status is true?

A) High-quality child care is available only to those children whose parents are wealthy. B) Children are more likely to experience poor-quality child care if their parents have few resources. C) Children staying in day care for longer than 40 hours a week tend to experience depression regardless of the quality of care. D) There is not enough research on child care and socioeconomic status to be able to make any correlations.

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136) The longitudinal study conducted by the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development in 1991 concluded that

A) a majority of the child care in the first three years of life was of very high quality. B) a child in child care, regardless of the quality, will be more socially incompetent. C) the home environment is the most important predictor of attachment to caregivers. D) children who were given high-quality child care performed better on cognitive and language tasks.

137) The results of the study conducted by National Institute of Child Health and Human Development in 1991 indicate that

A) extensive use of daycare hurts parent-child relationships. B) the influence of families and parenting is not weakened by extensive use of child care. C) a majority of the child care in the first three years of life was of high quality. D) child-care quality was linked to attachment security at 36 months of age.

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138)

_____ has been the most consistent predictor of a secure attachment.

A) Genetic predisposition B) Parental sensitivity C) Extraversion D) An uninhibited disposition

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 139) Baby Tia is crying. Her crying is characterized by the sudden appearance of loud crying without preliminary moaning, followed by breath holding. What is the reason for her crying? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Topic : Crying Learning Objective : Summarize attachment in young children. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

140) Ariel is a newborn baby. Her mother notices that she often smiles in her sleep in the first 30 days of her life. This type of smile is known as a(n) _____ smile. Version 1

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141) A match between a child's temperament and the environmental demands with which the child must cope is known as _____ of fit. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Goodness of Fit Learning Objective : Describe the development of emotions and personality in infancy.

142) Name the ethological psychiatrist (last name only) who believes that both infants and their primary caregivers are biologically predisposed to form attachments. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Attachment Learning Objective : Summarize attachment in young children. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

143) Nicole is in the Strange Situation scenario. She does not play with her caregiver, nor does she ask her caregiver to pick her up. When the caregiver leaves the room, Nicole continues to play on her own. Even after the caregiver's return, Nicole continues to play on her own. Based on Nicole's behavior in the Strange Situation, she would be classified as insecure _____.

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144) Identify a form of reciprocal socialization in which parents time interactions in such a way that the infant experiences turn taking with parents. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain how social contexts influence early development. Topic : Reciprocal Socialization null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

145) Socialization between parents and children is not a one-way process. Parents do socialize with children, but socialization in families is bidirectional. This is known as _____ socialization. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain how social contexts influence early development. Topic : Reciprocal Socialization null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 146) Distinguish between primary emotions and self-conscious or other-conscious emotions. Give an example of each type of emotion.

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147)

List and describe the three types of cries that have been identified in babies.

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148)

What are some cultural differences that occur in the emotional experiences of infants?

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149) Distinguish between reflexive and social smiles. Explain the role of maternal characteristics in infant smiling and laughter.

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150) What is stranger anxiety, and when does it develop? What is separation protest, and when does it peak?

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151) Describe the emotional regulation and coping techniques that infants develop over the initial years.

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152) What is temperament? Describe temperament in terms of predispositions toward emotional reactivity and self-regulation.

153) List the three types of temperament as classified by Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas. Explain how a baby with each type might respond to meeting a new person in a new situation.

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154)

What are the recommended parenting strategies for different children's temperaments?

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155)

Briefly describe the four phases of attachment as identified by John Bowlby.

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156)

Describe the three main types of insecurely attached infants.

157)

Describe the Strange Situation. What is an important criticism of this method?

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158) Explain reciprocal socialization and scaffolding. Explain the importance of scaffolding in infant development.

159) Explain how parents can manage and guide their infants' behaviors in an attempt to reduce or eliminate undesirable behaviors.

160)

Explain how the quality and quantity of child care affect children.

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161) Alicia is a single working mother. Earlier, Alicia's mother used to help care for her baby while she worked. Since her mother passed away, Alicia now has to leave her baby with a neighbor. The neighbor tells Alicia that her baby seldom shows interest in playing with toys or with the other children and gets upset when anyone tries to pick her up or touch her toys. According to Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas, what type of temperament is this baby displaying?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch06 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) D 75) A 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) C 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) C 90) D 91) B 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) C 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) D 101) A 102) A 103) B 104) D 105) B 106) A 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) B 111) B 112) B 113) A 114) A 115) C 116) C Version 1

117) A 118) B 119) A 120) C 121) B 122) B 123) A 124) B 125) D 126) B 127) C 128) A 129) A 130) A 131) A 132) C 133) B 134) A 135) B 136) D 137) B 138) B 139) pain 140) reflexive 141) goodness 142) Bowlby 143) avoidant 144) scaffolding 145) reciprocal

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146) Primary emotions are emotions that are present in humans and animals; these emotions appear in the first six months of the human infant's development. Self-conscious or other-conscious emotions require self-awareness that involves consciousness and a sense of "me." Examples of primary emotions include surprise, fear, joy, anger, disgust, and sadness. Examples of self-conscious emotions include embarrassment, shame, guilt, and pride. 147)Babies have at least three types of cries: 1. Basic cry: This is a rhythmic pattern that usually consists of a cry, followed by a briefer silence, a shorter whistle that is somewhat higher in pitch than the main cry, and then another brief rest before the next cry. Some infancy experts believe that hunger is one of the conditions that incites the basic cry. 2. Pain cry: This is a sudden long, initial loud cry followed by breath holding; no preliminary moaning is present. The pain cry is prompted by a high-intensity stimulus. 3. Anger cry: This is a variation of the basic cry in which more excess air is forced through the vocal cords. 148) Cultural differences occur in emotional responses. East Asian infants display less frequent and less intense positive and negative emotions than non-Latino White infants. Further, Japanese parents try to prevent their children from experiencing negative emotions, while nonLatino White mothers are more likely to respond after their children become distressed, and then help them cope.

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149) A reflexive smile does not occur in response to external stimuli; it occurs during the first month after birth, usually when the infant is asleep. A social smile, however, occurs in response to an external stimulus, such as a face, typically in early development. Social smiling may occur as early as 2 months of age. One study found that higher maternal effortful control and positive emotionality predicted more initial infant smiling and laughter, while a higher level of parenting stress predicted a lower trajectory of infant smiling and laughter. 150) Stranger anxiety is when an infant shows a fear and wariness of strangers. It first appears at about 6 months and continues to escalate through the infant's first birthday. Separation protest is an infant's expression of distress over being separated from its caregiver. It peaks at about 15 months of age among U.S. infants. 151)During the first year of life, the infant gradually develops an ability to inhibit, or minimize, the intensity and duration of emotional reactions. From early in infancy, babies put their thumbs in their mouths to soothe themselves. But at first, infants mainly depend on caregivers to help them soothe their emotions, as when a caregiver rocks an infant to sleep, sings lullabies to the infant, gently strokes the infant, and so on. Later in infancy, when they become aroused, infants sometimes redirect their attention or distract themselves in order to reduce their arousal. By 2 years of age, toddlers can use language to define their feeling states and the context that is upsetting them. Contexts can influence emotional regulation. Infants are often affected by fatigue, hunger, time of day, which people are around them, and where they are. Infants must learn to adapt to different contexts that require emotional regulation.

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152)Temperament involves individual differences in behavioral styles, emotions, and characteristic ways of responding. With regard to its link to emotion, temperament refers to individual differences in how quickly the emotion is shown, how strong it is, how long it lasts, and how quickly it fades away. Temperament can also be described in terms of predispositions toward emotional reactivity and self-regulation. Reactivity involves variations in the speed and intensity with which an individual responds to situations with positive or negative emo-tions. Self-regulation involves variations in the extent or effectiveness of an individual's ability to control his or her emotions. 153)Psychiatrists Alexander Chess and Stella Thomas identified three basic types, or clusters, of temperament: Easy: An easy child is generally in a positive mood, quickly establishes regular routines in infancy, and adapts easily to new experiences. Difficult: A difficult child reacts negatively and cries frequently, engages in irregular daily routines, and is slow to accept change. Slow-to-warm-up: A slow-to-warm-up child has a low activity level, is somewhat negative, and displays a low intensity of mood. In their longitudinal investigation, Chess and Thomas found that 40 percent of the children they studied could be classified as easy, 10 percent as difficult, and 15 percent as slow to warm up. 35 percent did not fit any of the three patterns.

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154) For one, pay attention and give respect to individuality; thus, work toward goals differently for each child. Additionally, structure the environment differently for each child. Crowded noisy environments are harder for difficult children than easier children. Children with a slowto-warm-up temperament could use slower entry to new contexts. Additionally, avoid pigeonholing children into categories and giving negative labels, such as "difficult," as this could become a self-fulfilling prophecy. 155)According to Bowlby, attachment does not emerge suddenly but rather develops in a series of phases, moving from a baby's general preference for human beings to a partnership with primary caregivers. The following are four such phases based on Bowlby's conceptualization of attachment: Phase 1: Infants instinctively direct their attachment to human figures. Phase 2: Attachment becomes focused on one figure, usually the primary caregiver, as the baby gradually learns to distinguish familiar from unfamiliar people. Phase 3: Specific attachments develop, and babies actively seek contact with regular caregivers. Phase 4: Children become aware of others' feelings, goals, and plans and begin to take these into account in forming their own actions. 156) Insecure avoidant babies exhibit insecurity by avoiding the caregiver. Insecure resistant babies often cling to the caregiver and then resist him or her by fighting against closeness, perhaps by kicking or pushing away. Insecure disorganized babies exhibit insecurity by being disorganized and disoriented. In the Strange Situation, these babies may appear dazed and confused.

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157) The Strange Situation is an observational measure of infant attachment that requires the infant to move through a series of introductions, separations, and reunions with the caregiver and an adult stranger in a prescribed order. An important criticism of this method regarding attachment is whether infancy is a critical or sensitive period for development. Studies show continuity, with secure attachment in infancy predicting subsequent positive development in childhood and adolescence. For some children, though, there is little continuity. Not all research reveals the power of infant attachment to pre-dict subsequent development. 158) Reciprocal socialization is socialization that is bidirectional; children socialize parents just as parents socialize children. Scaffolding is parental behavior that supports children's efforts, allowing them to be more skillful than they would be if they were to rely on only their own abilities. Research supports the importance of scaffolding in infant development. For example, a recent study found that when adults used explicit scaffolding (encouragement and praise) with 13- and 14-monthold infants, the infants were twice as likely to engage in helping behavior as were their counterparts who did not receive the scaffolding. Another study of disadvantaged families revealed that an intervention designed to enhance maternal scaffold-ing with infants was linked to improved cognitive skills when the children were 4 years old.

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159) In addition to sensitive parenting that involves warmth and caring that can help babies become securely attached to their parents, other important aspects of parenting infants involve managing and guiding their behavior in an attempt to reduce or eliminate undesirable behaviors. This management process includes (1) being proactive and childproofing the environment so infants won't encounter potentially dangerous objects or situations, and (2) engaging in cor-rective methods when infants engage in undesirable behaviors such as excessive fussing and crying, throwing objects, and so on. 160) In research, when the quality of caregiving was high, children performed better on cognitive and language tasks, were more cooperative with their mothers during play, showed more positive and skilled interaction with peers, and had fewer behavior problems. Caregiver training and good child-staff ratios were connected to higher cognitive and social competence when children were 54 months of age. Poor-quality care was related to insecure attachment, but only if the mother was low in sensitivity and responsiveness. In terms of amount, above 30 hours or more per week in child care led to less optimal development, and more time in non-relative child care was connected to higher levels of risk taking and impulsivity at 15 years of age. However, some research has shown that as long as the child care is of high quality, increased quantity, even more than 45 hours a week, is connected to reduced internalizing and externalizing problems. 161) Slow-to-warm-up According to Chess and Thomas, this is a slow-to-warm-up child.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The Reggio Emilia approach is a(n)

A) nutrition program for young children. B) educational program for young children. C) program for training kindergarten and elementary school teachers. D) parenting education program.

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2) According to Harris, Golinkoff, and Hirsh-Pasek (2011), which of the following is a key principle in young children's vocabulary development?

A) Children learn words best when grammar and vocabulary are given less emphasis. B) Children learn the words they hear most often when interacting with their parents, teachers, siblings, and peers. C) Children learn words more effectively when they are passive, rather than active, learners. D) Children learn new words more effectively when new words are encountered as isolated facts rather than in integrated contexts.

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3) Sandra is informed by a pediatrician that her 4-year-old son, Manuel, has gained 6 pounds over the past year. Sandra should be

A) alarmed, because Manuel has gained a lot of weight. B) concerned, because Manuel has gained less weight than expected for his age. C) positive and change Manuel's diet. D) content that this is normal for Manuel's age.

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During early childhood, girls are _____ than boys.

A) much lighter B) more muscular C) slightly smaller D) considerably taller

By the end of early childhood, girls have more _____ tissue than boys.

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A) fatty B) muscle C) epithelial D) nervous

A review of the height and weight of children around the world concluded that there are

A) congenital differences. B) ethnic differences among them. C) no visible differences. D) cases of hyperthyroidism.

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7) What are the two most important contributors to height differences among children all over the world?

A) nationality and culture B) education and exercise C) prenatal care and emotional challenges D) ethnic origin and nutrition

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Who among the following 5-year-olds is most likely to be the tallest?

A) Timothy, who is a White, urban, middle-socioeconomic-status, later-born boy B) Tina, who is a White, urban, middle-socioeconomic-status, firstborn girl C) Tyrone, who is an African American, urban, middle-socioeconomic-status, firstborn boy D) Tucker, who is an African American, rural, lower-socioeconomic-status, later-born boy

Which of the following statements about brain development and early childhood is true?

A) The development that occurs inside the brain ends at the onset of adolescence. B) By the time a child is 3 years of age, the brain is 25 percent of its adult size. C) By age 6, the brain has reached about 95 percent of its adult size. D) The brain of a 5-year-old is 60 percent the size of an adult brain.

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10) _____ is the process by which the nerve cells are covered and insulated with a layer of fat cells.

A) Centration B) Myelination C) Tropism D) Neurogenesis

11) _____ involves an increase in the speed and efficiency with which information travels through the nervous system during brain development in children between the ages of 3 and 5.

A) Centration B) Myelination C) Tropism D) Neurogenesis

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12) Scientists have discovered that there are _____ the brains of children in the 3- to 15-year age range.

A) dramatic changes in local patterns within B) phenomenal increases in the overall size of C) no significant anatomical changes in D) hardly any internal changes within

13)

Identify a characteristic of autobiographical memory.

A) It pertains to information acquired during adolescence rather than childhood. B) It allows people to do routine work without requiring conscious thought. C) It involves memory of significant events and experiences in one's life. D) It involves information that is retained for up to 30 seconds if it is not rehearsed.

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14) Researchers have found that in children from 3 to 6 years of age the most rapid growth takes place in the _____ lobe areas of the brain.

A) temporal B) parietal C) frontal D) occipital

15) Toby is 3 years old. His parents are concerned because he always runs and jumps around. He cannot sit still. Even when watching his favorite cartoon on TV, he fidgets and wiggles. It is especially frustrating for his parents when Toby does not sit still through dinner. Which of the following should Toby's parents do?

A) They should have him tested for attention deficit disorder. B) They should enroll him in a behavior modification program. C) To help him develop his attention span, they should provide structured and cognitively challenging activities. D) They should avoid panicking, as his behavior is normal for kids in his age group.

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16) When 4-year-olds and 5-year-olds scramble over jungle gyms and race their friends, they demonstrate their

A) cognitive skills. B) fine harboring skills. C) gross motor skills. D) reflective skills.

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17) Fred and Wayne are 4-year-olds. When they are together, they often wrestle, run, race, push, and shove each other. Although this often aggravates their parents, these activities will

A) help the boys develop their gross motor skills. B) stop when their brains become better myelinated. C) be temporary, as the boys will not be friends for long. D) help the boys overcome narcolepsy.

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18) Irene is a 3-year-old girl. Her father takes her to a nearby park in the evening. In the context of the development of gross motor skills in children her age, identify the activity that Irene is most likely to engage in at the park.

A) She will hop and jump just for the sheer delight of performing these activities. B) She will scramble over low jungle gyms to display her athletic prowess. C) She will perform hair-raising stunts on all the climbing objects. D) She will run hard and enjoy races with her father and other children.

19) Debra is a very active child. She loves to tumble and show off. She always tries what her parents consider hair-raising stunts. She also loves running and believes she can run faster than her parents. This type of activity level and confidence is most characteristic of

A) 2-year-olds. B) 3-year-olds. C) 4-year-olds. D) 5-year-olds.

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20) Jim, a 3-year-old boy, gets a box of colorful blocks as a birthday gift from his uncle. He is excited to see the gift and demands to play with the blocks immediately. In the context of physical and cognitive development in early childhood, when playing with the blocks, Jim is most likely to

A) place each block on top of the other with intense concentration. B) stack each block on top of the other in a completely straight line. C) find it impossible to pick up the blocks. D) juggle all the blocks perfectly.

21) Four-year-old Nathan is good at stacking blocks to make tall structures. However, he knocks them down occasionally. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

A) His gross motor skills are underdeveloped. B) He tries to place each block perfectly on top of the other, upsetting those already stacked. C) His coordination skills are not developing normally for his age. D) He is showing signs of dyslexia.

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22) Edgar is a 7-year-old boy who feels extremely sleepy during the daytime. He is unable to concentrate during class and while playing. As a result, his grades are poor, and his teachers often scold him. Identify the sleep problem from which Edgar is most likely suffering.

A) jet lag B) sleep apnea C) insomnia D) narcolepsy

23) Children can experience a number of sleep problems—including narcolepsy, which is characterized by

A) extreme daytime sleepiness. B) difficulty in going to sleep. C) difficulty in staying asleep. D) nightmares.

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24) According to Mona El-Sheikh (2013), which of the following measures will improve children's sleep?

A) ensuring that they do not listen to music before sleeping B) allowing them to try out different bedtimes and wake times C) ensuring that the bedroom is warm and bright D) building positive family relationships

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25)

Short sleep duration in children is linked with being

A) dyslexic. B) myopic. C) overweight. D) paraplegic.

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26) Four-year-old Alex is experiencing sleep problems. Based on research reported in 2010, Alex's difficulties could lead to _____ that may persist into early adolescence.

A) anxiety problems B) attention problems C) improved language abilities D) difficulties with napping

27) Which of the following accurately describes the results of a research study on children's sleep?

A) Preschool children with a short sleep duration were more likely to have better social skills than others. B) Attention problems in early adolescence were independent of sleep problems in early childhood. C) In 2- to 5-year-old children, each additional hour of daily screen time was associated with a decrease in sleep time. D) In a Chinese study, preschool children who used electronic devices three or more hours per day had long sleep durations.

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28) Which of the following should be minimized in order to improve the eating behavior of children?

A) competing activities B) a predictable schedule C) parents eating healthy food D) making mealtimes pleasant occasions

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29) Which of the following determines the categories of obesity, overweight, and at risk of being overweight?

A) weight B) average number of calories consumed daily C) waist-to-hip ratio D) body mass index

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30) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018) has established categories for weight that are determined by body mass index. Children and adolescents at or above the 97th percentile are classified as

A) obese. B) overweight. C) at risk of being overweight. D) severely malnourished.

31) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018), a person with a body mass index (BMI) at the 90th percentile is

A) obese. B) overweight. C) at risk of being overweight. D) underweight.

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32) Six-year-old Gina has a body mass index (BMI) at the 95th percentile. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018), Gina is

A) obese. B) overweight. C) at risk of being overweight. D) not at risk of being overweight.

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33)

Which of the following statements about childhood obesity is true?

A) Children who are overweight at age 3 are also at risk of being overweight at age 12. B) There is no indication that overweight children will become overweight adults. C) Obesity is not linked to type 2 (adult-onset) diabetes in children. D) Obesity actually leads to a decrease in hypertension levels in children when they are 5 years of age.

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34) The World Health Organization recently recommended that young children engage in about _____ of physical activity per day total.

A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 3 hours D) 4 hours

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35) Research reported by Meeks, Heit, and Page in 2020 shows that a child's life should center around _____.

A) meals B) activities C) discipline D) education

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36) Leah, a 6-year-old girl, is a fussy eater. She avoids eating dark green vegetables and meat. She prefers to only have junk food. She feels weak, becomes tired easily, and shows signs of chronic fatigue. It can be said that Leah is showing symptoms of

A) lactose intolerance. B) binge eating disorder. C) iron deficiency anemia. D) alopecia areata.

37) According to Petry and others (2017), young children from _____ families are the most likely to develop iron deficiency anemia.

A) urban B) elementary C) nuclear D) low-income

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38)

The leading cause of death in young children in 2015 in the United States was

A) heart disease. B) malnutrition. C) accidents. D) domestic violence.

39)

Which of the following statements about parental smoking is true?

A) Children are at risk for health problems when they live in homes in which a parent smokes. B) Most children and adolescents in the United States are exposed to tobacco smoke in their homes. C) Children exposed to tobacco smoke in their homes are no more likely to develop asthma than children in nonsmoking families. D) Parental smoking is the leading cause of death in young children in the United States.

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40)

Which of the following can enhance a child's safety and reduce the likelihood of injury?

A) decreasing home/school partnerships B) the absence of playground hazards C) reductions in pool fencing D) reducing frequent parent protective behaviors

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41) According to Sleet and Mercy (2003), which of the following steps can be taken to enhance children's safety and prevent injury in the context of their family and home?

A) actively surveilling environmental hazards B) promoting home/school partnerships C) developing social skills and the ability to regulate emotions D) displaying frequent parent protective behaviors

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42) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2017), which of the following was the most common cause of accidental death in young children in 2015 in the United States?

A) drowning B) deformations C) homicide D) suffocation

43) According to Tomlinson and others (2016), deaths of young children due to HIV/AIDS especially occur in countries

A) in the northern hemisphere. B) with high rates of poverty and low levels of education. C) where common children's health problems like malnutrition do not exist. D) where the society is affluent.

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44) in

Many of the deaths of young children around the world could be prevented by reductions

A) nutrition. B) sanitation. C) poverty. D) education.

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development?

A) In this stage, a child can perform operations independently without adult supervision. B) In this stage, children begin to represent the world with words, images, and drawings. C) This stage lasts from approximately 3 months to 2 years of age. D) This stage involves the ability to use deductive reasoning.

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46) Six-year-old Patricia loves to draw pictures and describe them. Her ideas are more balanced now than when she was younger. She has started to analyze and understand things. However, she is egocentric and holds what her parents describe as "magical beliefs." Patricia is in Piaget's _____ stage of development.

A) sensorimotor B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) preoperational

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47) Piaget's preoperational stage is so named because he believed that children in this stage of development

A) cannot yet perform reversible mental actions. B) cannot yet form stable concepts. C) are unable to reason. D) cannot operate electronic devices like televisions.

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48) Brian is 2 1/2 years old. He dwells on his own imaginary world and represents objects that are not present. He often scribbles patterns, on walls, that represent clouds, trees, birds, and so on. Brian's behavior indicates that he is in Piaget's _____ of cognitive development.

A) symbolic function substage B) intuitive thought substage C) concrete operational stage D) formal operational stage

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49) Three-year-old Ruth draws a picture with lavender, purple, and blue colors intermixed with green, yellow, and brown. "It is a boat in the ocean at sunset, with whales jumping all around it!" she explains to her teacher. Which of the following does this explain?

A) animism B) conservation C) the intuitive thought substage D) the symbolic function substage

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50) The inability to distinguish between one's own perspective and someone else's perspective is known as

A) animism. B) empathy. C) egocentrism. D) symbolism.

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51) Wendy, a 4-year-old girl, decides to gift her father a teddy bear on his birthday because she likes teddy bears. She asks her elder brother to help her wrap the gift. She does not consider the fact that her father may not like the gift or have no use for it. In the context of cognitive development in early childhood, this scenario illustrates

A) animism. B) egocentrism. C) decentration. D) conservation.

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52) Olivia, a 3-year-old girl, loves to play with her toy train. She names it Max and takes it with her everywhere. One day, while drinking milk, she spills the milk on the floor. To avoid being scolded, Olivia tells her mother that Max has spilled the milk. On another day, she blames Max for soiling her dress. In the context of cognitive development in early childhood, this scenario illustrates the concept of

A) egocentrism. B) conservation. C) animism. D) centration.

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53) "My computer does not like me. It keeps eating my pictures," says 3-year-old Kimberly. This is an example of

A) animism. B) intuitive thinking. C) conservation. D) egocentrism.

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54) The second substage of preoperational thought, occurring between approximately 4 and 7 years of age, is characterized by the use of

A) reversible mental actions. B) egocentric views. C) primitive reasoning. D) symbolic thought.

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55) Derek, a 4-year-old boy, is curious by nature and exhausts his parents with "why" questions. However, he has difficulty understanding events he cannot see, and his imagination has little resemblance to reality. For example, whenever he sees a rainbow, he believes that a fairy has painted it with watercolors. In the context of cognitive development in early childhood, this scenario illustrates

A) Piaget's sensorimotor stage. B) Piaget's intuitive thought substage. C) the overjustification effect. D) the misinformation effect.

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56) Piaget called the second substage of the preoperational stageintuitive because children know something but know it without the use of

A) symbolic function. B) primitive reasoning. C) centration. D) rational thinking.

57) Juan and his little sister, Anne, are each given a large cookie. Their mother breaks Anne's cookie into four pieces to enable Anne to eat it more easily. Juan immediately begins to cry and says that it is not fair that his sister got more cookies than he did. Juan is showing a lack of

A) constancy. B) conservation. C) intuition. D) symbolic function.

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58) Which of the following best describes the relationship between centration and conservation?

A) Conservation requires centration. B) Centration is due to the lack of conservation. C) Centration is evidenced in young children's lack of conservation. D) Conservation is independent of centration.

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59) Diego is 3 years old. His mother pours him and his elder sister orange juice. Because his mother does not have two glasses of the same size, she pours his sister the juice in a taller glass than his. Though both glasses have the same amount of juice, Diego starts to cry because he thinks his sister has more juice. In the context of cognitive development in early childhood, this scenario illustrates the concept of

A) egocentrism. B) centration. C) animism. D) imitation.

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60) In general, conservation involves the ability to understand that changing an object's appearance

A) does not change its basic properties. B) affects its inherent features. C) determines the total volume needed for a given task. D) must be considered before the characteristics of the object can be determined.

61)

In Piaget's theory, failing the conservation-of-liquid task demonstrates

A) that a child is at the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. B) that a child is unable to think fluidly. C) centration. D) rational thought.

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62)

According to Rochel Gelman, _____ is especially important in explaining conservation.

A) the age of a child B) heredity C) attention D) intuition

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63)

Thezone of proximal development (ZPD) is Vygotsky's term for

A) a young adult's cognitive development achieved through interaction with children. B) the variety of work that a child can do with ease at a particular stage of cognitive development. C) how a child's environment and his or her genetically programmed learning ability interact during a critical period. D) the range of tasks that are too difficult for a child to master alone but can be learned with guidance and assistance from adults or more-skilled children.

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64) According to Gauvain and Perez (2015), which of the following factors can enhance the effectiveness of the zone of proximal development?

A) ambivalent attachment B) absolute emotion control C) child compliance D) maternal strictness

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65) Kevin is just learning to walk. He can take a few steps by himself if he uses both hands to hold on to a piece of furniture for support. He can walk to the middle of a room only if one of his parents holds his hands. Which of the following represents the lower limit of Kevin's zone of proximal development (ZPD) for walking?

A) Kevin learning to run after he has mastered walking by himself B) Kevin going back to crawling when he becomes frustrated trying to walk by himself C) Kevin walking alone by holding on to a piece of furniture with his hands D) Kevin learning to walk by holding his parents' hands

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66) Three-year-old Sharon can solve 4-piece jigsaw puzzles on her own but needs her parents' help to solve 6-piece jigsaw puzzles. Which of the following represents the upper limit of Sharon's zone of proximal development (ZPD) for solving such puzzles?

A) Sharon moving on to 10-piece puzzles B) Sharon solving 6-piece puzzles with her parents' help C) Sharon helping her 2-year-old brother solve 4-piece puzzles D) Sharon mastering 4-piece puzzles

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67)

Which of the following did Vygotsky call the "buds" or "flowers" of development?

A) tasks a child can accomplish independently B) intuitive thinking and rational thinking C) a child's cognitive skills that are in the process of maturing D) a child's gross motor skills that are fully developed

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68) When adults are working with young children, they often provide a lot of hints, assistance, instructions, and other support to help the children succeed. As the children indicate that they can do more for themselves, the adults begin to withdraw their support. This shows the adults' involvement in the children's

A) zone of proximal development. B) development of conservational abilities. C) enhancement of intuitive reasoning. D) process of centration.

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69) Which of the following refers to teachers' adjustment of their level of support and guidance to the level of the skills of their students?

A) accommodation B) regulation C) scaffolding D) assimilation

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70) Over the past week, Walter has been learning to tie his shoelaces. Initially, his mother held his hands and worked his fingers through the process. Now that Walter is better at it, she only guides him verbally. This is an example of

A) how heredity shapes cognitive development. B) intuitive reasoning. C) scaffolding. D) conservation.

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71) Natalie is 4 years old. When she buttons her shirt, she talks to herself and describes the steps. This helps her in self-regulating and guiding her behavior. In the context of cognitive and physical development in early childhood, this scenario illustrates the concept of

A) centration. B) belief perseverance. C) avolition. D) private speech.

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72) Which of the following describes Lev Vygotsky's belief about the development of thought and language?

A) Thought and language are merged early in development, and they later separate. B) Thought depends on language, and they are merged throughout development. C) Thought and language initially develop independently of each other and then merge. D) Thought and language are two separate functions that remain independent throughout development.

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73)

For Vygotsky, private speech is

A) immature. B) a tool used by children to regulate the behavior of others. C) an important tool of thought during the early childhood years. D) egocentric.

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74) Kristi works in a day-care center. She notices that Pablo, a 4-year-old boy, often indulges in private speech when doing any activity on his own. She has heard him talking to himself when solving puzzles. Kristi believes in Piaget's theory of cognitive development in children. After seeing Pablo's behavior, Kristi is likely to assume that Pablo's usage of private speech is

A) egocentric. B) mature. C) an indication of a significant disability. D) a means of guiding his own behavior.

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75) Four-year-old Michelle talks to herself frequently. She does this especially when she is trying to solve a difficult problem. Lev Vygotsky would say that Michelle is

A) engaging in egocentric and immature thinking. B) likely to be socially competent. C) functioning at the upper limit of her zone of proximal development (ZPD). D) engaging in scaffolding.

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76) Three-year-old Amy looks at her grandmother's collection of glass animals and says, "Those are a 'no-no.' Do not touch." It appears that Amy is using _____ to regulate her own behavior.

A) mindstream B) intuitive reasoning C) private speech D) symbolic function

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77) Which of the following best reflects the application of Lev Vygotsky's theory in education?

A) IQ should be assessed to test a child's learning capabilities. B) A child should learn on his or her own to fully realize his or her capabilities. C) A child's use of private speech reflects immaturity and egocentrism. D) Teaching should begin toward the upper limit of a child's zone of proximal development.

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78) Which of the following scenarios best represents Lev Vygotsky's view of mental and behavioral development?

A) A teacher assigns challenging tasks that students must complete on their own. B) An instructor helps students with laboratory work, showing them how to do things the students cannot yet do themselves. C) A teacher waits patiently for students to come up with good answers and assesses their learning capabilities. D) An instructor systematically offers standardized tests to students to evaluate their mental abilities on varying subjects.

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79) According to Vygotsky, which of the following educational strategies should be incorporated in classrooms?

A) making each child responsible for his or her work without relying on peers or teachers for support B) formal, standardized tests to assess children's learning C) discouraging distractions like self-talk or private talk D) offering just enough assistance to a child to accomplish a task

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80) According to Gauvain (2016) and Holzman (2017), Vygotsky's view of the importance of _____ in children's development fits with the current belief that it is important to evaluate the contextual factors in learning.

A) autonomy B) sociocultural influences C) the economic status of teachers D) scaffolding

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81)

In moving from Piaget to Vygotsky, the conceptual shift is one from

A) the individual to collaboration. B) collaboration to sociocultural activity. C) construction to discovery. D) socialization to operational thought.

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82)

In the context of cognitive development in early childhood, Vygotsky argued that

A) formal, standardized tests are the best way to assess children's learning. B) assessment should focus on determining a child's zone of proximal development. C) educators should focus on abstract presentations of material. D) teaching should begin toward the lower limit of the zone of proximal development.

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83)

Vygotsky believed that children construct knowledge through

A) self-discovery. B) social interaction. C) the reorganization of existing knowledge. D) transforming previous knowledge.

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84)

In the context of theories of cognitive development, unlike Vygotsky, Piaget believed that

A) children construct knowledge through social interaction. B) education plays a central role in helping children learn the tools of culture. C) language plays a powerful role in shaping thought. D) cognition primarily directs language.

85) Tools of the Mind is a program that is grounded in _____ theory of cognitive development.

A) Vygotsky's B) Erikson's C) Sternberg's D) Piaget's

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86)

In a Tools of the Mind classroom, _____ has a central role.

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A) nutrition B) didactic lecture C) dramatic play D) abstract presentation

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87) Ted is in a Tools of the Mind classroom. His teacher guides him in planning his own message by drawing a line to stand for each word he says. Ted then repeats the message, pointing to each line as he says the word. Finally, he writes on the lines, trying to represent each word with some letters or symbols. This process is called

A) model drawing. B) scaffolding writing. C) word visualizing. D) positive role-play.

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88)

Which of the following is among the criticisms of Vygotsky's theory?

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A) Vygotsky was specific about age-related changes and generalized all individuals. B) Vygotsky overemphasized the role of language in thinking. C) Vygotsky particularly described how changes in socioemotional capabilities contribute to cognitive development, which is highly subjective. D) Vygotsky laid no emphasis on guidance, which plays an important role in learning.

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89) According to McClelland and others (2017), _____ attention involves action planning, allocating attention to goals, error detection and compensation, monitoring progress on tasks, and dealing with novel or difficult circumstances.

A) salient B) relevant C) executive D) sustained

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90) _____ attention is focused and extended engagement with an object, task, event, or other aspect of the environment.

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A) Salient B) Relevant C) Executive D) Sustained

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91) A police officer visits Heather's class to discuss safety rules. To attract the children's attention, the officer brings colorful balloons and jars of bubbles for the children to blow. Later, Heather tells her parents all about the balloons and bubbles but cannot remember any of the safety rules the officer talked about. Heather obviously paid more attention to what was

A) salient. B) relevant. C) habituated. D) intended.

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92) A police officer visits Timothy and Evelyn's class to discuss safety rules. To attract the children's attention, the officer brings colorful balloons and jars of bubbles for the children to blow. Later, Timothy tells his parents about all the safety rules discussed by the officer. Timothy obviously paid attention to what was

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A) salient. B) relevant. C) habituated. D) superfluous.

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93) Patsy is a 5-year-old girl. She participates in a laboratory experiment in which random alphabets are rapidly read out to her. After 20 seconds, she is asked to recall those alphabets. In the context of information processing, this experiment has been conducted to assess Patsy's

A) command over syntax. B) pragmatics usage. C) short-term memory. D) interest in literature.

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94)

The ability of preschool children to control and sustain their attention is related to

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A) school readiness and focus. B) the decreased likelihood of obesity. C) increased short-term memory capacity. D) an increase in implicit memory.

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95) When experimenters ask children to judge whether two complex pictures are the same, preschool children tend to use a haphazard comparison strategy, not examining all of the details before making a judgment. The children exhibit a lack of

A) conservation. B) attention to the salient. C) centration. D) planfulness.

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96) According to Mills and Mills (2000) and Posner and Rothbart (2007), in Central European countries such as Hungary, kindergarten children participate in exercises designed to improve their _____. An example is this exercise: The teacher sits in the center of a circle of children, and each child is required to catch the teacher's eye before being permitted to leave the group.

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A) hand-eye coordination B) attention C) social skills D) creativity

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97)

Which of the following statements is true regarding short-term memory?

A) One method of assessing short-term memory is the memory-span task. B) In short-term memory, individuals retain information for up to 5 minutes if there is no rehearsal of the information. C) Short-term memory involves memory of significant events and experiences in one's life. D) One aspect of short-term memory that has been extensively studied in research on children's development is autobiographical memory.

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98) Irene conducts a laboratory experiment to test the memory of children. She rapidly reads out a list of colors to three children aged 4, 6, and 13 years. The children are then asked to repeat the names of the colors. Irene observes that the 6-year-old and the 13-year-old are able to recall more colors than the 4-year-old. What does this experiment illustrate?

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A) Younger children tend to rehearse information more than older children do. B) Short-term memory decreases during late childhood. C) Information is retained in short-term memory for a long period without rehearsal. D) Memory span varies from one individual to another.

99) Using rehearsal, we can keep information in short-term memory for a much longer period. In this context,rehearsal means

A) preparing for a memory-span test. B) doing mental exercises daily to keep one's mind sharp. C) repeating information after it has been presented. D) taking regular memory-span tests.

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100)

Research with the memory-span task suggests that

A) short-term memory increases during early childhood. B) long-term memory reaches maturation by early childhood. C) memory span depends on one's ethnic origin. D) heredity is one of the major factors affecting memory.

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101) In a study comparing the memory spans of preschool and elementary school children, the latter group consistently scored better. This apparent increase in memory span with age could be explained partly by how

A) peer groups play a part in short-term memory. B) older children rehearse the digits from their tests more than younger children do. C) elementary schools practice scaffolding. D) memory-span tests are not always an accurate measure of short-term memory.

102) Six-year-old Shirley, a witness to a robbery, was asked to testify at a trial. The defense argued that her testimony could be invalid because

A) at her age, she has no long-term memories. B) her memories are highly susceptible to suggestion. C) she is more likely to embellish her memories. D) children cannot recall details of events sequentially.

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103) _____ refers to an umbrella-like concept that consists of a number of higher-level cognitive processes linked to the development of the brain's prefrontal cortex, which play a role in managing thoughts to engage in goal-directed behavior and self-control.

A) Executive attention B) Executive function C) Prefrontal control D) Prefrontal inhibition

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104) Theory of _____ refers to awareness of one's own mental processes and the mental processes of others.

A) self-awareness B) recognition C) mind D) consciousness

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105) From 18 months to 3 years of age, children begin to understand different mental states. Based on Lempers, Flavell, and Flavell (1977), by 2 years of age, a child recognizes that another person will see what's in front of that person's own eyes instead of what's in front of the child's eyes. This mental state is referred to as

A) perception. B) emotion. C) desire. D) intellect.

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106) Eighteen-month-old Alan hates spinach but says, "Yum!" when he sees his mother eating her favorite spinach casserole. This indicates that Alan

A) will also like spinach when he grows up. B) recognizes that someone else may have different desires from his own. C) has started to recognize false beliefs. D) has started to understand that people can have ambivalent feelings.

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107) Children begin to understand three mental states from 18 months to 3 years of age. According to Pratt and Bryant (1990), a child realizes that looking leads to knowing what's inside a container by 3 years of age. This mental state is known as

A) suspicion. B) emotion. C) desire. D) perception.

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108) Russell conducts an experiment to study children's theory of mind. He selects participants and divides them into two groups. The first group consists of 3-year-olds, whereas the second group consists of 5-year-olds. Russell takes a crayon box and places candies in it. He opens the box and shows it to both groups. Next, he asks the first group what a child who has never seen the box will think is actually inside the box. The group replies, "Candies!" To the same question, the second group replies, "Crayons!" This scenario illustrates the observation that

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A) children refer to cognitive states earlier than they refer to desires. B) 3-year-old children have a deepening appreciation of the mind. C) 5-year-old children believe that people's behaviors necessarily reflect their thoughts and feelings. D) children younger than 4 years old do not understand that it is possible to have a false belief.

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109) According to Benson and Sabbagh (2017), _____ describes several operations, such as inhibition and planning, that are important for flexible, future-oriented behavior and are also connected to theory of mind development.

A) operational thought B) sustained attention C) executive function D) intuitive reasoning

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110)

Executive function involves

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A) managing one's thoughts to engage in goal-directed behavior and self-control. B) learning difficult tasks with guidance and assistance from adults or more-skilled children. C) focusing attention on one characteristic to the exclusion of all others. D) building memories of significant events and experiences in one's life.

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111) Pointing to a tree, young Leo says, "Bird flied away." Leo's interesting but incorrect use of "-ed" in "flied" shows that he is trying to learn the _____ rules of language.

A) phonological B) morphological C) pragmatic D) syntactic

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112) Three-year-old Zelda always asks questions like, "Where Daddy is going?" and "What Mommy is doing?" This indicates that she has yet to learn the auxiliary-inversion rule and to apply the rules of

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A) pragmatics. B) morphology. C) syntax. D) phonology.

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113)

Jean Berko's experiment involving "wugs" demonstrated young children's knowledge of

A) phonological rules. B) the rules of syntax. C) pragmatic rules. D) morphological rules.

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114) _____ is a process that helps to explain how young children learn the connection between a word and its referent so quickly.

A) Vertical thinking B) Centration C) Fast mapping D) Conservation

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115) Identify the true statement aboutpragmatics in the context of cognitive development in early childhood.

A) It is the process of relating a word to its referent quickly. B) It is the awareness that changing an object's appearance does not change its basic properties. C) It refers to focusing one's attention on one characteristic to the exclusion of all others. D) It is the appropriate use of language in different contexts.

116) Five-year-old Donna uses shorter, simpler sentences when talking to her baby brother. She speaks in a very informal way with her friends and uses a more formal language with her father's friends. Donna is demonstrating her grasp of

A) pragmatics. B) morphology. C) syntax. D) phonology.

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117) In the context of early childhood education, developmentally appropriate practice emphasizes

A) the importance of creating settings that encourage active learning and reflect children's interests and capabilities. B) the education of the whole child and concern for his or her physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development. C) the importance of giving children considerable freedom in choosing activities and allowing them to move from one activity to another as they desire. D) the content of learning rather than the process of learning.

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118) _____ is a philosophy of education in which children are given considerable freedom and spontaneity in choosing activities.

A) The child-centered kindergarten B) The Montessori approach C) Developmentally appropriate practice D) Developmentally inappropriate practice

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119) Nicole, a 3-year-old girl, goes to a school that follows the Montessori approach to education. Which of the following is likely true of Nicole's teachers?

A) They will make all the decisions for her. B) They will show her how to perform intellectual activities. C) They will act as directors rather than facilitators. D) They will ensure that Nicole engages in the activities they believe are most important to her education.

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120) Nurturing is a key aspect of _____, which emphasizes the education of the whole child and concern for his or her physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development.

A) the child-centered kindergarten B) the Montessori approach C) developmentally appropriate practice D) the Reggio Emilia approach

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121) Dorothy is enrolled in a preschool where she spends much of her time in unstructured activities. She plays with the toys she chooses, and her teacher acts as a facilitator rather than a director. Which of the following approaches is Dorothy's preschool using?

A) kindergarten B) Rogerian C) Montessori D) success-oriented

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122)

Which of the following is among the criticisms of the Montessori approach?

A) It lays a lot of emphasis on social interaction. B) It does not employ self-corrective materials. C) It lays a lot of emphasis on imaginative play. D) It neglects children's socioemotional development.

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123) _____ is based on knowledge of the typical progress of a child within an age span as well as the uniqueness of the child.

A) The child-centered kindergarten B) Developmentally appropriate practice C) The Montessori approach D) The success-oriented approach

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124) In 1965, the federal government began an effort to break the cycle of poverty and substandard education for young children in the United States through

A) the Maria Montessori Program. B) the Emancipation Undertaking. C) the Reggio Emilia Project. D) Project Head Start.

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125) Karla is a single mother of a 5-year-old son. She works in a bakery on a meager salary. Recently, she found out about a government-funded program that provides children from lowincome families with the opportunity to acquire the skills important for success in school. The program aims to improve substandard education and alleviate poverty. Karla decides to apply for the program, which is known as

A) the child-centered kindergarten. B) the Montessori Program. C) Big Brothers Big Sisters of America. D) Project Head Start.

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126)

Which of the following is true of Head Start programs?

A) They provide for low-income families. B) They focus on children of a particular ethnic origin. C) They have a negative effect on young children's language development. D) They are funded by private corporate sectors.

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127)

Two current controversies in early childhood education involve

A) the curriculum and universal preschool education in the United States. B) the quality of inner-city schools and free education to all. C) the use of corporal punishment in schools and the use of uniforms. D) Christian holidays for all and boarding schools.

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128) According to Feeney, Moravcik, and Nolte (2019) and Morrison (2020), competent early childhood programs should focus

A) on cognitive development and socioemotional development. B) exclusively on cognitive development. C) on preoperational skills. D) on academics alone.

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129) Which of the following was cited by Edward Zigler and colleagues in support of universal preschool in the United States?

A) the greater value of improving preschool education for young children who are disadvantaged over funding preschool education for all 4-year-old children B) the often questionable quality of inner-city schools C) research showing that the gains attributed to preschool and kindergarten education are often overstated D) analyses indicating universal preschool would bring cost savings on the order of billions of dollars because of a diminished need for remedial and justice services

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130)

Critics of the idea of universal preschool education argue that

A) quality preschools prepare children for school readiness and academic success. B) research has not proven that nondisadvantaged children benefit from attending a preschool. C) the gains attributed to preschool and kindergarten education are often understated. D) quality preschool programs increase the likelihood that a child will drop out of school later.

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131) According to a 2019 World Health Organization (WHO) study, 3- to 4-year-old children should have how many hours of good-quality sleep, including naps, with consistent sleep and wake times?

A) 6–8 B) 8–10 C) 10–13 D) 11–14

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 132) The researcher who showed that when a child's attention to relevant aspects of the conservation task is improved, the child is more likely to conserve is _____. (Provide the surname only.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Centration null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood.

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133) The cognitive theorist who emphasized the social contexts of learning and the construction of knowledge through social interaction is _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Language

134) _____ the early twentieth-century Italian physician-turned-educator who crafted a revolutionary approach to young children's education. In this approach, children are given considerable freedom and spontaneity in choosing activities. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Evaluate different approaches to early childhood education. Topic : Montessori Approach

135) Iron deficiency _____ is a common nutritional problem in early childhood that results from the failure to eat adequate amounts of quality meats and dark green vegetables and causes chronic fatigue. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize physical changes in early childhood.

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136) Adrian is an 8-year-old boy. His mother notices that he is shorter than other boys his age. She consults a physician, who conducts blood tests on Adrian. The physician informs her that Adrian is not growing normally because of the absence of growth hormone produced by his pituitary gland. It can be said that Adrian is suffering from _____ hormone deficiency. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize physical changes in early childhood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Hormonal Changes

137) In the _____ function substage of preoperational thought, a young child gains the ability to mentally represent an object that is not present. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Symbolic Function Substage

138) _____ is the inability to distinguish between one's own perspective and the perspective of another. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Symbolic Function Substage

139) The term _____ refers to the awareness that altering an object's or a substance's appearance does not change its basic properties.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Conservation Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood.

140) The _____ constructivist approach emphasizes the social contexts of learning and asserts that knowledge is mutually built and constructed. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Vygotsky's Sociocultural Cognitive Theory

141) The zone of _____ development describes the range of tasks that are too difficult for children to master alone but can be learned with guidance and assistance from adults or moreskilled children. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Zone of Proximal Development

142) Theory of _____ refers to awareness of one's own mental processes and the mental processes of others. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the major theories of cognitive development in early childhood. Topic : Theory of Mind

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143) Aubrey is in a school that takes into account the typical development of children within an age span as well as the uniqueness of the child. It also emphasizes the importance of creating settings that encourage active learning and reflect the child's interests and capabilities. This view represents a(n) _____ appropriate practice. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Evaluate different approaches to early childhood education. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Developmentally Appropriate Practice

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 144) What are the signs of vision problems in children?

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145) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018) has established categories for obesity, overweight, and at risk of being overweight. Describe how these categories are determined and classified.

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146)

Discuss the 5-2-1-0 obesity prevention guidelines recently issued for young children.

147)

Explain what Piaget meant by anoperation.

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148) Briefly describe the two stages of preoperational thought. Provide an example of children's thinking at each stage.

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149) What is the zone of proximal development (ZPD)? What are its lower and upper limits? How can one use peer scaffolding to teach children mathematics within the zone?

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150)

List ways in which Lev Vygotsky's theory can be incorporated in classrooms.

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151)

Briefly state two criticisms leveled against Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development.

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152)

Describe two reasons for developmental changes in memory span.

153)

Identify the factors that can influence the accuracy of a young child's memory.

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154) Arielle took part in one of Walter Mischel's delay of gratification studies. She was able to stop herself from eating the marshmallow by humming a song to herself. What does research suggest about her future?

155) Briefly describe a child's theory of mind. How are false-belief tasks useful in assessing children's theory of mind?

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156)

What factors influence improved literacy in children?

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157) Describe four strategies suggested by Ellen Galinsky for using books effectively with preschool children.

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158) Describe the six key principles in young children's vocabulary development, as identified by Harris, Golinkoff, and Hirsh-Pasek.

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159)

What are the criticisms of the Montessori approach to early education?

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160)

What are the three principles that the child-centered kindergarten honors?

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161)

What are the current controversies in early childhood education?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch07 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) D 85) A 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) A 92) B 93) C 94) A 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) D 99) C 100) A 101) B 102) B 103) B 104) C 105) A 106) B 107) D 108) D 109) C 110) A 111) B 112) C 113) D 114) C 115) D 116) A Version 1

117) A 118) B 119) B 120) A 121) C 122) D 123) B 124) D 125) D 126) A 127) A 128) A 129) D 130) B 131) C 132) Gelman 133) Vygotsky 134) Montessori 135) anemia 136) growth 137) symbolic 138) Egocentrism 139) conservation 140) social 141) proximal 142) mind 143) developmentally

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144) Children with vision problems rub their eyes, blink or squint excessively, appear annoyed when playing games that require good distance vision, shut or cover one eye, and tilt the head or thrust it forward when looking at something. 145) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (2018) has established categories for obesity, overweight, and at risk of being overweight. These categories are determined by body mass index (BMI), which is computed using a formula that takes into account height and weight. Children and adolescents at or above the 97th percentile are classified as obese, those at the 95th or 96th percentile as overweight, and those from the 85th to the 94th percentile as at risk of being overweight. 146)Recently, the following 5-2-1-0 obesity prevention guidelines have been issued for young children: 5 or more servings of fruits and vegetables, 2 hours or less of screen time, minimum of 1 hour of physical activity, and 0 sugar-sweetened beverages daily (Khalsa & others, 2017). 147) Anoperation is a reversible mental action that allows children to do mentally what before they could only do physically. 148) The Piagetian preoperational stage in cognitive development can be divided into two substages: the symbolic function substage and the intuitive thought substage. The symbolic function substage occurs roughly between the ages of 2 and 4. In this substage, the young child gains the ability to mentally represent an object that is not present, but the child still has limitations like egocentrism and animism. The intuitive thought substage occurs between approximately 4 and 7 years of age when children begin to use primitive reasoning and want to know the answers to all sorts of questions.

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149) The zone of proximal development (ZPD), developed by Lev Vygotsky, consists of the range of tasks that are too difficult for children to master alone but can be learned with guidance and assistance from adults or more-skilled children. The lower limit of the ZPD is the level of skill reached by the child working independently. The upper limit is the level of additional responsibility the child can accept with the assistance of an able instructor. 150)Some of the ways in which Vygotsky's theory can be incorporated in classrooms are (1) assess a child's zone of proximal development; (2) use a child's zone of proximal development in teaching; (3) use skilled peers as teachers; (4) place instruction in a meaningful context; and (5) transform the classroom with Vygotskian ideas. 151) One criticism of Vygotsky's theory is that Vygotsky was not specific enough about age-related changes. Another criticism is that Vygotsky did not adequately describe how changes in socioemotional capabilities contribute to cognitive development. 152) Memory span improves with age. Rehearsal of information is important in improving short-term memory. Older children rehearse the digits from tests more than younger children do. Speed—especially the speed with which memory items can be identified—and efficiency of processing information are important. 153) Several factors can influence the accuracy of a young child's memory. There are age differences in children's susceptibility to suggestion. Preschoolers are the most suggestible age group in comparison with older children and adults. There are individual differences in susceptibility. Some preschoolers are highly resistant to interviewers' suggestions, whereas others immediately succumb to the slightest suggestion. Interviewing techniques can produce substantial distortions in children's reports about highly salient events. Version 1

154) Research suggests that Arielle will be more academically successful than others, have high SAT scores and high grade point averages at the end of college, and cope more effectively with stress than others as an adolescent and emerging adult. Furthermore, Arielle will be more likely to have a lower body mass index and be happier than those who could not delay gratification in preschool. 155) Young children are curious about the nature of the human mind. They have atheory of mind, which refers to awareness of one's own mental processes and the mental processes of others. One of the ways to assess a child's theory of mind is by using false-belief tasks. The realization that people can have false beliefs—beliefs that are not true— develops in a majority of children by the time they are 5 years old. This point is often described as a pivotal one in understanding the mind— recognizing that beliefs are not just mapped directly into the mind from the surrounding world, but that different people can also have different, and sometimes incorrect, beliefs. 156) Children must be actively involved in listening, talking, reading, and writing experiences. One study revealed that children whose mothers had more education acquired more advanced emergent literacy levels than children whose mothers had less education. For low-income families, how often the child is read to, the quality of the mother's engagement with the child, and whether the child is surrounded with age-appropriate books are important to improved language development. 157) Four strategies suggested by Ellen Galinsky (2010) for using books effectively with preschool children are (1) using books to initiate conversation with young children, (2) using what and why questions, (3) encouraging children to ask questions about stories, and (4) choosing some books that play with language.

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158) According to Harris, Golinkoff, and Hirsh-Pasek (2011), the key principles in young children's vocabulary development are as follows: (1) Children especially benefit from encountering words that they do not know; (2) children learn words for things and events that interest them; (3) children learn words better in responsive and interactive contexts than in passive contexts; (4) children learn words best in contexts that are meaningful; (5) children learn words best when they access clear information about word meaning; and (6) children who experience a large number of words and diversity in verbal stimulation develop a richer vocabulary and better understanding of grammar. 159) Critics of the Montessori approach believe that it neglects children's socioemotional development. For example, although Montessori fosters independence and the development of cognitive skills, it deemphasizes verbal interaction between the teacher and child and between peers. Montessori's critics also argue that it restricts imaginative play and that its heavy reliance on self-corrective materials may not adequately allow for creativity and for a variety of learning styles. 160)The child-centered kindergarten honors three principles: (1) Each child follows a unique developmental pattern; (2) young children learn best through firsthand experiences with people and materials; and (3) play is extremely important in the child’s total development. 161) Two current controversies in early childhood education involve (1) what the curriculum for early childhood education should be, and (2) whether preschool education should be universal in the United States.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) According to Erik Erikson, the psychosocial stage that characterizes early childhood is

A) initiative versus guilt. B) autonomy versus shame and doubt. C) industry versus inferiority. D) trust versus mistrust.

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According to Erik Erikson, the great governor of initiative is

A) conscience. B) independence. C) fear. D) obedience.

3) In Erikson's portrait of early childhood, the young child clearly has begun to develop _____, which is the representation of self, the substance and content of self-conceptions.

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A) self-control B) self-confidence C) self-understanding D) self-centeredness

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4) Four-year-old Harlan says, "I'm always happy!" Researchers suggest that Harlan, like other kids his age, has self-descriptions that are typically

A) reflective of reality. B) reflective of what others think about them. C) abstract and magical. D) unrealistically positive.

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5) In a recent study, Charlesworth and other researchers discovered that by 5 years of age, children made character judgements based on others' _____. For instance, they were more likely to _____ those with trustworthy and submissive-looking faces.

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A) facial characteristics; give gifts to B) promises; accept gifts from C) voices; obey D) silences; worry about

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6) _____ especially plays a key role in children's ability to manage the demands and conflicts they face in interacting with others. It is an important component of executive function.

A) Moral integrity B) Emotion regulation C) Moral development D) Independence

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 5.2: Exhibit self-efficacy and self-regulation Topic : Emotional Development

7) Hans feels ashamed when his parents say, "You should feel bad about biting your sister!" To experience a _____ emotion like shame, Hans must be able to refer to himself and be aware of himself as distinct from others.

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A) social B) self-conscious C) penitent D) sympathetic

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : APA LO: 5.2: Exhibit self-efficacy and self-regulation Topic : Emotional Expression

In the context of expressing emotions, at what age does self-awareness occur?

A) 1 to 2 months of age B) 3 to 6 months of age C) 9 to 12 months of age D) 15 to 18 months of age

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9) Brianna is extremely upset because she got scolded by her teacher. Her mother decides to facilitate an open discussion about what happened and why Brianna is upset, to help her figure out how to deal with her negative emotions. Her mother's approach of talking to Brianna about her emotions indicates that Brianna's mother is a(n) _____ parent.

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A) emotion-dismissing B) authoritarian C) emotion-coaching D) indulgent

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10) _____ parents interact with their children in a less rejecting manner, use more scaffolding and praise, and are more nurturant than are emotion-dismissing parents.

A) Emotion-dismissing B) Emotion-facilitating C) Emotion-coaching D) Emotion-encouraging

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11) The children of _____ parents are better at soothing themselves when they get upset, are more effective in regulating their negative affect, focus their attention better, and have fewer behavior problems than the children of emotion-dismissing parents.

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A) emotion-coaching B) emotion-facilitating C) emotion-encouraging D) emotion-independent

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12) Developmental psychologists describe Jennifer as an emotion-dismissing parent. Which of the following best illustrates this?

A) Jennifer will praise her son when he performs a task well. B) Jennifer will try to change her son's negative emotions. C) Jennifer will use scaffolding to interact with her son. D) Jennifer will assist her son in labeling emotions.

13) Barbara monitors her children's emotions. Her daughter is upset because she got reprimanded by her teacher. Barbara initially ignores her daughter's lamentations but then decides to try to change her daughter's emotions by saying that everyone gets reprimanded and that it is not a big deal. Barbara's approach of talking to her daughter about her negative emotions indicates that Barbara is a(n) _____ parent. Version 1

A) indulgent B) emotion-dismissing C) emotion-coaching D) authoritarian

14) Marjorie's son places last in a running race at his school. This makes him upset. He comes home and tells his mother about the result of the competition. His mother initially ignores him, thinking that he will stop thinking about the competition. Later, when she sees that her son is still upset, she tries to distract him from the negative emotion by trying to change it. Marjorie's way of talking to her son about his negative emotions indicates that Marjorie is a(n) _____ parent.

A) emotion-coaching B) authoritarian C) emotion-dismissing D) indulgent

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15) In a recent study, _____ mothers’ parenting was linked to toddlers’ lower emotional competence, while _____ mothers' parenting was associated with toddlers’ higher emotional competence.

A) emotion-dismissing; emotion-coaching B) emotion-coaching; emotion-dismissing C) indulging; authoritarian D) authoritarian; indulgent

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16)

Why is it challenging for parents to discuss emotional topics with their young children?

A) Young children often avoid upsetting topics by changing the topic or pushing away. B) Parents often don't want to know what upsets their child. C) Parents are often afraid that they won't be able to comfort their child. D) Parents struggle with their own emotions and may try to change the topic.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. Topic : Emotional Development Topic : Emotional Expression

17) Which of the following involves thoughts, feelings, and behaviors regarding rules and conventions about what people should do in their interactions with other people?

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A) immanent justice B) the superego C) moral development D) pragmatism

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Moral Reasoning Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

18)

According to Freud, the moral element of personality is called the

A) id. B) superid. C) ego. D) superego.

19) Which of the following aspects of moral development most likely involve(s) anxiety and guilt?

A) moral reasoning B) moral thoughts C) moral behavior D) moral feelings

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Moral Reasoning Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

20) According to Freud, to reduce anxiety, avoid punishment, and maintain parental affection, children identify with parents, internalizing their standards of right and wrong, thus forming the

A) alter ego. B) ego. C) superego. D) id.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Moral Reasoning Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

21) Which of the following terms refers to responding to another person's feelings with an emotion that echoes the other's feelings?

A) anxiety B) empathy C) coaching D) modeling

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22) When her mother asks Selena why she feels so sad, Selena says it is because her best friend just lost her puppy. Selena is exhibiting

A) guilt. B) empathy. C) correspondence. D) a lack of perspective taking.

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23)

The ability to discern another's inner psychological state is known as

A) correspondence. B) congruence. C) perspective taking. D) nurturance.

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24)

Which of the following is the first stage of Piaget's theory of moral development?

A) autonomous morality B) initiative versus guilt C) heteronomous morality D) autonomy versus shame and doubt

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Moral Reasoning Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

25)

From about _____ years of age, children display heteronomous morality.

A) 1 to 3 B) 2 to 4 C) 4 to 7 D) 10 to 12

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26) Susan, a 5-year-old, thinks of justice and rules as unchangeable properties of the world, removed from the control of people. In the context of Jean Piaget’s theory of moral development, Susan is most likely in the stage of moral reasoning known as

A) heteronomous morality. B) empathy. C) autonomous morality. D) sympathy.

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27) According to Piaget's theory, from _____ years of age, children are in a transition, showing some features of the first stage of moral reasoning and some features of the second stage.

A) 1 to 4 B) 4 to 7 C) 7 to 10 D) 10 to 12

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28)

At about _____ years of age and older, children show autonomous morality.

A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10

29) Jerome, 6, and Hani, 10, get up early on Saturday morning to make "breakfast in bed" for their mother. While reaching for the bed tray in the back of the hall cabinet, they accidentally break their mother's favorite porcelain doll. Jerome knows that he's going to get into "big trouble." Hani tells him not to worry and that their mom would understand that it was an accident. In what stage would Jean Piaget categorize the moral reasoning of Jerome and Hani?

A) Jerome, autonomous morality; and Hani, heteronomous morality B) Jerome, heteronomous morality; and Hani, autonomous morality C) Jerome, universal law morality; and Hani, context-specific morality D) Jerome, context-specific morality; and Hani, universal law morality

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30) Ben, a 12-year-old, judges the rightness or goodness of behavior by considering its consequences, not the intentions of the actor. In the context of Jean Piaget’s theory of moral development, Ben will most likely be classified as a(n)

A) autonomous moralist. B) heteronomous moralist. C) pragmatist. D) authoritarian.

31) Julie believes that Jason's accidental act of breaking 12 plates is worse than Peter intentionally breaking 2 plates. Julie can be best described as a(n)

A) moral autonomist. B) gender-typed individual. C) empathic thinker. D) heteronomous moralist.

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32) Dante is a 10-year-old boy who likes to play soccer during recess. One day, a friend teaches him a different set of rules about the game. Dante accepts the rules and now plays soccer in a new way. Dante is in which stage of moral development?

A) autonomous morality B) heteronomous morality C) basic morality D) extended morality

33) Katrina, a 6-year-old, becomes extremely upset when her brother tries to change the rules of their game and yells, "You can't do that! You can't change rules!" Which of the following types of moral reasoning is Katrina exhibiting?

A) autonomous morality B) heteronomous morality C) peer-negotiated morality D) immanent justice morality

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34) In the context of Jean Piaget’s theory of moral development, which of the following is a characteristic of children showing heteronomous morality?

A) They believe intentions are more important than consequences when judging behavior. B) They think of justice as an unchangeable property of the world. C) They are nonbelievers of the concept of immanent justice. D) They are aware that rules and laws are created by people.

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35) Older children, who are _____, recognize that punishment occurs only if someone witnesses the wrongdoing and that even then, punishment is not inevitable.

A) moral autonomists B) empathic thinkers C) gender-typed D) heteronomous thinkers

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36) Maria believes that if a rule is broken, punishment will be meted out immediately. In the context of Jean Piaget’s theory of moral development, this scenario indicates that Maria believes in the concept of

A) immanent justice. B) restorative justice. C) reciprocal socialization. D) egocentrism.

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37)

Piaget concluded that the changes in moral reasoning in children come about through

A) authoritative parent-child relations. B) religious and social conditioning. C) the children's family experiences. D) the mutual give-and-take of peer relations.

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38) According to Jean Piaget, parent-child relations are less likely to advance moral reasoning than peer relations because

A) parents are inconsistent in delivering the consequences for broken rules. B) peers are less likely to allow negotiation and reasoning about broken rules. C) parents often hand down rules in an authoritarian way. D) peer groups immediately mete out punishments for rule breaking.

39) Which of the following approaches hold(s) that the processes of reinforcement, punishment, and imitation explain the development of moral behavior?

A) Freud's psychoanalytic approach B) the evolutionary psychology approach C) the behavioral and social cognitive approaches D) the biological approach

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40) Twice each month, Gini helps to serve dinner at the "Community Table," a program that assists homeless people in her town. She brings her 9-year-old and 11-year-old with her and talks to them about the need to share time, food, and kindness with others who are less fortunate. Social cognitive theorists would say that Gini's children

A) are likely to develop moral behavior that includes helping others. B) are not likely to be impacted by this, as their moral behavior will be modeled on peers, not parents. C) will not benefit from these experiences until they are teenagers. D) will fail to model their behavior on their mother's unless they see some reward in it.

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41) _____ refers to an internal regulation of standards of right and wrong that involves an integration of all three components of moral development, namely moral thought, feeling, and behavior.

A) Ethics B) Protocol C) Constitution D) Conscience

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Conscience null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

42) In Thompson's view, young children are moral _____, striving to understand what is moral.

A) apprentices B) novices C) explorers D) adventurers

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43) Among the most important aspects of the relationship between parents and children that contribute to children's moral development are relational quality, parental discipline, proactive strategies, and

A) religious affiliation. B) family culture. C) conversational dialogue. D) ethnicity.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Conscience null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. Topic : Parent-Child Relations

44) Nicola tries to take steps to avert potential misbehavior by her children before it takes place. The moment she sees that her 4-year-old daughter is going to have a meltdown, she distracts her with her favorite activity. With her 10-year-old son, she has regular talks in which she tries to impart her cherished values to him and indicates what is expected of him as he grows older. Nicola is

A) being overly cautious in her parenting approach. B) being too authoritative in her approach to her children's moral development. C) using moral policing with her children, which may have a detrimental effect on their moral development. D) proactive in her approach to her children's moral development.

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45) _____ involves a sense of one's own gender, including knowledge, understanding, and acceptance of being male or female.

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A) Gender role B) Gender typing C) Gender identity D) Gender labeling

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46) Sets of expectations that prescribe how females and males should think, act, and feel are known as gender

A) roles. B) identities. C) expectancies. D) rules.

47) Meena is a 3-year-old. She is aware that she is a girl and understands and accepts being a female. This indicates that Meena is conscious of her

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A) gender neutrality. B) gender identity. C) ethnicity. D) socioeconomic status.

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48)

Gender _____ refers to acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role.

A) acquisition B) reflection C) typing D) acceptance

49) Michael, aged 4, loves playing with toy cars and airplanes, and his idea of play also involves wrestling and pushing his friends. Melanie, also aged 4, loves playing with her dolls and doll house, and her idea of play is to have a tea party with her dolls and friends. Both are exhibiting

Version 1

A) inappropriate behavior. B) sex-typed behavior. C) rebellious behavior. D) gender confusion.

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50) Low levels of _____ in the female embryo allow the normal development of female sex organs.

A) estradiol B) progesterone C) estrogens D) androgens

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51)

The two main classes of sex hormones, estrogens and androgens, are secreted by the

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A) hypothalamus. B) gonads. C) pineal gland. D) pituitary gland.

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52)

_____ promote the development of female physical sex characteristics.

A) Androgens B) Estrogens C) Endorphins D) Opioids

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53)

_____ promote(s) the development of male physical sex characteristics.

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A) Androgens B) Estrogens C) Progesterone D) Estradiol

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54)

Which of the following is an androgen?

A) testosterone B) progesterone C) estradiol D) insulin

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55)

Which of the following is an estrogen?

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A) testosterone B) androstenedione C) insulin D) estradiol

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56) _____ psychologists propose that men have gradually changed over time to have dispositions that favor violence, competition, and risk taking.

A) Psychoanalytic B) Evolutionary C) Behavioral D) Social learning

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57)

According to evolutionary psychologists, natural selection favored females who chose

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A) multiple partners to have many children. B) a mate who would stay home and help raise the children rather than providing resources. C) ambitious mates who could provide their children with resources and protection. D) short-term mating strategies.

58) With respect to theories of gender differences, evolutionary psychology is criticized for failing to take into account

A) cultural and individual variations in gender differences. B) intelligent speculations about the roles of men and women in prehistoric times. C) the differing roles in reproduction for males and females. D) the fact that people are locked into behavior that was adaptive in the evolutionary past.

59)

Which of the following is among the three main social theories of gender?

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A) the evolutionary psychology view B) Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory C) psychoanalytic theory D) gender schema theory

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize gender development in early childhood. Topic : Gender Development Topic : Psychoanalytic Theory Topic : Social Cognition

60)

Social role theory suggests that

A) the social hierarchy and division of labor are important causes of gender differences in power, assertiveness, and nurturing. B) the mother role and the father role are social constructions that have emerged from our evolutionary past. C) social roles are chosen, not determined. D) nature is the primary determinant of differences between the social labels that we call "gender."

61)

According to UNICEF (2020), in most cultures around the world,

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A) women have less power than men but are given a higher social status. B) women have less power and status than men and control fewer resources. C) men have less power and status than women but control most of the resources. D) men have less power than women but are given a higher social status.

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62) The _____ of gender stems from the view that a preschool child develops a sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.

A) psychoanalytic theory B) social cognitive theory C) evolutionary psychology view D) social role theory

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63) Billy, a preschooler, develops the Oedipus complex. In the context of the psychoanalytic theory of gender, at what age will Billy renounce this feeling?

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A) at 3 or 4 years of age B) at 5 or 6 years of age C) at 9 or 10 years of age D) at 11 or 12 years of age

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64) The psychoanalytic theory of gender stems from Freud's view that a preschool child develops a sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent. Which of the following refers to this condition in girls?

A) the Galatea effect B) the Electra complex C) the Golem effect D) the Oedipus complex

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65) According to Freud, preschool boys develop a sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent in a process called the

Version 1

A) Oedipus complex. B) Electra complex. C) Pygmalion effect. D) Golem effect.

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66) From a young age, Karen has always been praised by her parents for her feminine behavior. Her parents reward her behavior by saying such statements as, "Karen, you look very pretty in your frock." Her brother, on the other hand, is reprimanded for playing with Karen's dolls. In the context of social influences on gender development, this scenario illustrates the _____ of gender.

A) psychoanalytic theory B) social cognitive theory C) gender schema theory D) social role theory

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67) A recent research review (Bronstein, 2006) yielded which of the following conclusions about parental influences on children's gender development?

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A) Mothers socialize their sons to be more obedient and responsible than their daughters. B) Mothers place more restrictions on sons’ autonomy than on daughters’. C) Fathers engage in more activities with their daughters than with their sons. D) Fathers put more effort into promoting their sons’ intellectual development than their daughters’.

68) In a recent analysis (Liu and Lachman, 2019), paternal discipline and high affection were positively associated with adult cognitive function for children living in _____, while paternal discipline was negatively related to adult cognition in children living in _____.

A) low-SES conditions; high-SES conditions B) high-SES conditions; low-SES conditions C) authoritarian households; indulgent households D) conventional families; foster homes

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69) Who among the following is most likely to be rejected by peers based on conformation to gender roles?

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A) a little girl in boy's clothing B) a little boy playing with a doll C) a little boy playing with a toy truck D) a little girl carrying a baseball mitt

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70) Around the age of _____, children already show a preference for spending time with same-sex playmates.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 7

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71) of

Children between the ages of 4 and 12 usually prefer to play in groups that are made up

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A) mixed ages. B) the same sex as theirs. C) both boys and girls. D) children from their own socioeconomic status.

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72) In the context of the size of same-sex groups of children, from about 5 years of age onward,

A) boys are more likely to associate together in larger clusters than girls are. B) girls are more likely to engage in rough-and-tumble play than boys are. C) girls are more likely to participate in organized group games than boys are. D) boys are more likely than girls to play in dyads or triads.

73) Which of the following statements is true of how boys and girls interact in same-sex groups?

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A) Girls are more likely to act in a reciprocal manner. B) Boys are more likely to avoid rough-and-tumble play. C) Girls are more likely to engage in ego display. D) Boys are more likely to engage in collaborative discourse.

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74) A _____ is a cognitive structure, a network of associations that guides an individual's perceptions.

A) format B) schema C) subset D) system

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75)

A gender _____ organizes the world in terms of female and male.

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A) role B) identity C) bias D) schema

76) Children are internally motivated to perceive the world and to act in accordance with their developing

A) preferences. B) schemas. C) roles. D) orientations.

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77) Bit by bit, children pick up what is gender-appropriate and gender-inappropriate in their culture and develop gender _____ that shape how they perceive the world and what they remember.

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A) identities B) roles C) schemas D) types

78)

Which of the following fuel gender typing?

A) gender schemas B) gender identities C) gender biases D) gender mismatches

79) Suzie, aged 3, must eat everything on her plate at dinner. When she does not, her father punishes her by sending her to bed without dinner the next day. Suzie also has strict schedules for playing, watching television, and studying, and any disobedience leads to spanking and punishment. Suzie's father is most likely a(n)

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A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

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80) Juan, a father of two children, tells his children, "In my house, my word is the law." He spanks his children frequently when they do not follow his rules. His children are fearful of him and try their best to avoid him when he is around. In the context of Diana Baumrind’s parenting styles, Juan is best classified as a(n)

A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

81) A parent who uses a restrictive, punitive style to control the behavior of his or her children is a(n)

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A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Baumrind's Parenting Styles null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Parenting

82) Lucy frequently spanks her children, enforces rigid household rules, and exhibits rage toward the children when those rules are broken. Her children are unhappy and have weak communication skills. Lucy also pressures them to eat when they are already full. In the context of Diana Baumrind’s parenting styles, Lucy is most likely a(n)

A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

83) A parent who encourages his or her children to be independent but still places limits and controls on their actions is a(n)

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A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

84) Logan is a warm and loving parent, but he also has high expectations of his kids. Because Logan encourages independent and age-appropriate behavior in his children, Baumrind would classify him as a(n)

A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

85) Ursula can set her own schedules for playtime and for studying. Her mother drives her to her ballet classes and soccer practice. However, Ursula needs to keep her grades up and must go to bed early on most weeknights. Ursula's mom is most likely a(n)

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A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

86) In the context of Diana Baumrind’s parenting styles, children of authoritative parents differ from children of authoritarian parents in that children of authoritative parents

A) cope poorly with stress. B) are more anxious about comparing themselves to others. C) are more achievement-oriented. D) are more likely to be overweight or obese.

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87) According to Baumrind, a parent who is uninvolved in a child's life, showing neither responsiveness nor control, is displaying a(n) _____ parenting style.

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A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) indulgent D) neglectful

88) According to Baumrind, a parent who is highly involved with his or her children but places few demands or controls on them is displaying a(n) _____ parenting style.

A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) indulgent D) neglectful

89) Josh's mother makes his favorite food—burgers, fries, and pizza—every night for dinner. She lets Josh play as much as he wants to and study only when he feels like it, and she imposes no fixed bedtime. Josh's mom is most likely a(n)

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A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

90) Bernard brought home his report card and placed it on the television set. Bernard told his dad that he was required to take the card back to school tomorrow with the signature of one of his parents. Bernard's dad told him to move out of the way, as he could not see the television set. The next morning, Bernard found his report card where he had left it the previous day and it was unsigned. He signed his dad's name and put it in his backpack. Bernard's dad is most likely a(n)

A) authoritarian parent. B) authoritative parent. C) indulgent parent. D) neglectful parent.

91) Misha was sent to his room for hitting his baby sister. Later, his mother talks to him about why he cannot treat his sister this way and about other, more acceptable ways for him to express his anger. Which parenting style does this exemplify? Version 1

A) authoritarian parenting B) authoritative parenting C) indulgent parenting D) neglectful parenting

92) In which parenting style do parents show pleasure and support in response to children's constructive behavior?

A) authoritarian parenting B) authoritative parenting C) indulgent parenting D) neglectful parenting

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93) Which parenting style is more likely than the others to lead to social incompetence, truancy, and delinquency in children?

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A) authoritarian parenting B) authoritative parenting C) indulgent parenting D) neglectful parenting

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94) Which parenting style is more likely than the others to lead to egocentric, domineering, and noncompliant behavior in children?

A) authoritarian parenting B) authoritative parenting C) indulgent parenting D) neglectful parenting

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95) Which parenting style is demanding and controlling while also being accepting and responsive?

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A) authoritarian parenting B) indulgent parenting C) authoritative parenting D) neglectful parenting

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Baumrind's Parenting Styles null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Parenting

96) In the context of Diana Baumrind’s parenting styles, which of the following is a characteristic of parents following an indulgent parenting style?

A) They let their children do what they want. B) They are uninvolved in their children’s lives. C) They allow little verbal exchange and place firm limits on their children. D) They show pleasure in response to their children's constructive behavior.

97) Which parenting style is undemanding and uncontrolling but also rejecting and unresponsive?

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A) authoritarian parenting B) indulgent parenting C) authoritative parenting D) neglectful parenting

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98) Which parenting style is demanding and controlling while also being rejecting and unresponsive?

A) authoritarian parenting B) indulgent parenting C) authoritative parenting D) neglectful parenting

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99) Which parenting style is undemanding and uncontrolling but is also accepting and responsive?

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A) authoritarian parenting B) indulgent parenting C) authoritative parenting D) neglectful parenting

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100) A recent study (Krisnana & others, 2020) revealed that the _____ parenting style was associated with being a bully perpetrator.

A) authoritarian B) indulgent C) authoritative D) neglectful

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101)

Research conducted by Ruth Chao suggests that

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A) the high control of Asian parents is best conceptualized as "training" and is distinct from the domineering control characteristic of an authoritarian style of parenting. B) "authoritarian" parenting is "authoritarian" parenting, whether the parent is Asian American, African American, or European American. C) contrary to stereotypes, Asian parents are indulgent and permissive. D) consistent with stereotypes, Asian parents are domineering and controlling and have rigid and unrealistic expectations for academic achievement in their children.

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102) According to most child psychologists, which of the following is an effective way of handling a child's misbehavior?

A) mild spanking that would not hurt the child B) time out, in which the child is removed from a setting that offers positive reinforcement C) shouting at the child just enough to get the point across D) instilling rigid household rules and meting out severe corporal punishment if those rules are broken

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Punishment null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

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103) Four-year-old Becky has just hit her sister again. According to most developmental psychologists, Becky's mother should

A) spank Becky; she is too young to understand reasoning. B) explain to Becky that "hitting hurts"; she is old enough to understand the consequences of her behavior for others. C) send Becky to bed without dinner; she is too young to understand reasoning. D) spank Becky; she is old enough to understand the consequences of her behavior and will expect to be punished accordingly.

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104) Research on punishment has triggered much debate, partly because so many of the findings are _____ in nature.

A) causal B) correlational C) ambivalent D) victim-blaming

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105) Tom and Katie have recently split up, but for the benefit of their young daughter, they attempt to provide one another support in jointly raising her. This is an example of

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A) joint parenting. B) cooperative parenting. C) collaborative parenting. D) coparenting.

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106) The public and many professionals use the termchild abuse to refer to both abuse and neglect, while developmentalists increasingly use the term

A) child neglect. B) child maltreatment. C) child battery. D) child assault.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Child Maltreatment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

107)

Punching, beating, kicking, biting, burning, and shaking a child constitute

A) verbal abuse. B) sexual abuse. C) child neglect. D) physical abuse.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Child Maltreatment null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

108) In the context of child maltreatment, which of the following would most likely constitute child neglect?

A) beating a child B) allowing chronic truancy C) commercial exploitation of a child D) fondling a child's genitals

109) Damian's parents fail to provide for his basic needs; he is often unfed and dirty when he gets to school. This constitutes

A) physical abuse. B) mental injury. C) child neglect. D) child inattention.

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110) Nine-year-old Tadako's uncle has been taking pictures of her naked body and selling them on the Internet. This constitutes

A) verbal abuse. B) sexual abuse. C) child neglect. D) physical abuse.

111) Eight-year-old Sara's mom has repeatedly called her fat and worthless, which has caused Sara to become withdrawn at home and in school. These actions are best characterized as

A) child neglect. B) sexual abuse. C) emotional abuse. D) child assault.

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112)

Which of the following is true about childhood maltreatment?

A) Two-thirds of parents who are abused go on to abuse their own children. B) Childhood maltreatment can be caused by a single factor. C) Violence on television does not impact the violence we see in families. D) Stress, substance abuse, and various other factors may contribute to child maltreatment.

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113) According to a 2006 study, young children who suffered "institutional neglect" in foster care were _____ than middle-SES young children living with their birth family.

A) less likely to be depressed and engage in suicidal ideation B) less likely to engage in violent romantic relationships, delinquency, sexual risk taking, and substance abuse C) more likely to show abnormal stress hormone levels D) more likely to openly discuss difficult emotional circumstances

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114) In families with two siblings 2 to 5 years of age, the most frequent parental reaction to verbal or physical sibling confrontations is to

A) threaten the children. B) try to help the children. C) admonish the children. D) do nothing at all.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Sibling Relationships null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

115)

Laurie Kramer, who has conducted a number of research studies on siblings, says that

A) it is best to not intervene in sibling conflict and to allow the siblings to work it out on their own. B) it is best to let sibling conflicts escalate so that children learn coping strategies to handle anger and disagreement with peers. C) intervening to help children resolve sibling conflict is not a good strategy. D) not intervening and letting sibling conflict escalate are not good strategies.

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116) Which of the following is among the characteristics of sibling relationships described by Judy Dunn?

A) There is no observable variation in sibling relationships. B) Most siblings report that they do not really know each other very well. C) There is considerable variation in sibling relationships. D) Most children have predominantly negative feelings toward their siblings.

117) In the context of birth order, research indicates that firstborn children are _____ than later-born children.

A) more rebellious B) less self-controlled C) less helpful D) more adult-oriented

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118) Why do more researchers think that birth-order influences on child development have been emphasized too strongly?

A) There are no clear patterns of birth-order influences on personality. B) With continued study on birth-order influences, the findings are bound to create selffulfilling prophecies that will perpetuate birth order. C) The patterns of birth-order influences that scientists describe are largely speculation and are not based on evidence. D) Birth order by itself shows limited ability to predict behavior when all the factors that influence behavior are considered.

119) Which of the following is true of how parents' work affects the development of their children?

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A) The nature of parents’ work has more influence on children’s development than whether a parent works outside the home. B) Children of working mothers are less likely to develop a secure attachment to their parents. C) Children (especially girls) of working mothers engage in more gender stereotyping. D) Whether one or both parents work outside the home is critical to children's development.

120) In the context of working parents, a consistent finding is that in contrast to children whose mothers are not employed outside the home, children of working mothers

A) have more egalitarian views of gender. B) engage in more gender stereotyping. C) are more stressed and demanding. D) enjoy more free time.

121) Maribel works as a housekeeper at a hotel. She has no autonomy in her work, works long hours, and feels quite stressed by her job. Kim is a lawyer who works long hours but has control over her work and a great office environment. Ann Crouter would say that Version 1

A) Kim's children are likely to experience less effective parenting than Maribel's children. B) Maribel's children are likely to experience less effective parenting than Kim's children. C) both Maribel's and Kim's children are likely to do poorly in school. D) neither Maribel's nor Kim's children will be negatively affected by their mothers' jobs.

122)

Which of the following is true of children in divorced families?

A) Children from divorced families are more likely to have adjustment problems than those from nondivorced families. B) Divorces inevitably impair children's ability to adapt to difficulties in their lives. C) Competent children cannot be raised in single-parent families. D) Children in divorced families are no more likely than children in nondivorced families to have academic problems.

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123) Bernice is raised by two lesbian mothers, whereas Jessica is raised by a heterosexual couple. According to research, it is most likely that

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A) Bernice is more popular than Jessica, but Jessica is more psychologically adjusted than Bernice. B) Bernice and Jessica are similar with regard to popularity and mental health. C) Bernice will have a homosexual orientation, while Jessica will have a heterosexual orientation. D) both will grow up to marry men, but Bernice is more likely to get divorced.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Gay and Lesbian Parents Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

124)

The overwhelming majority of children from gay or lesbian families

A) are also homosexual. B) have a heterosexual orientation. C) are likely to be bisexual. D) grow up confused about their sexual orientation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Gay and Lesbian Parents null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

125) Carl and Tulip are getting a divorce and want to know how they can best communicate the news to their young children. Ellen Galinsky and Judy David would suggest that

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A) the children be told that the support they receive from their parents is bound to change. B) it is best that only one parent be present while breaking the news. C) it is best that this painful matter not be discussed repeatedly with the children. D) the children be told that they are not the cause of the separation.

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126) In general, in the United States, African American and Latino family orientations differ from White family orientations in that

A) the nuclear family is less prominent in White families. B) the extended family plays a greater role in African American and Latino families. C) the emphasis in African American and Latino families is on individual self-reliance. D) the emphasis in White families is on family attachment and unity.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Cultural Topic : Ethnic Topic : Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry

127) Cultural changes that occur when one culture comes into contact with another are referred to as

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A) affiliation. B) acculturation. C) accommodation. D) adaptation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Cultural Topic : Ethnic Topic : Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry

128) In the United States and most Western cultures, as compared with lower-SES parents, higher-SES parents

A) are less directive and more conversational with their children. B) are more concerned that their children conform to society’s expectations. C) use physical punishment more in disciplining their children. D) are more likely to create a home atmosphere with an authoritarian style of parenting.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Cultural, Ethnic, Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting

129) For a long time, the prevailing perspective on ethnic differences in children focused on _____. In fact, research indicates that ethnic minority adolescents _____.

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A) deficits; fare better than expected B) color; act out in strange ways C) gender; adapt, but only with great difficulty D) culture; typically reject American values

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Cultural, Ethnic, Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze

130) In a recent study (Lu, He, & Brooks-Gunn, 2020), immigrant children who were once separated from their parents had _____ those who had migrated with parents.

A) a lower level of literacy and a higher level of psychological problems than B) a higher level of literacy and a lower level of psychological problems than C) the same levels of literacy and psychological problems as D) a higher socioeconomic status and fewer immigration pressures than

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Cultural, Ethnic, Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting Bloom's : Analyze

131) What important function is much more likely to be fulfilled by a child's peer group than by a sibling?

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A) having a same-sex friend B) getting a chance to share intimate feelings C) providing comparison on how the child compares with other children of the same age D) giving a view of what the world looks like from another person's perspective

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132)

Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson considered play to be valuable because

A) it helps a child master anxieties and conflicts. B) it advances a child's cognitive development. C) it helps children satisfy their need for mastery over their environment. D) it allows children to interact with their peers.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Play's Function null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

133)

Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky considered play to be valuable because

A) it helps children release tension. B) it advances children's cognitive development. C) it helps children satisfy their need for mastery over their environment. D) it allows children to interact with their peers.

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134)

Which statement best summarizes Daniel Berlyne's views about children's play?

A) Play is important for developing motor skills and coordination. B) Play is important only because it occupies children during times when they are not learning more important things. C) Children use play to digest past experiences and to derive meaning from what has happened to them. D) Children use play to explore new things to satisfy their natural curiosity about the world.

135) _____ play, which can be engaged in throughout life, involves the repetition of behavior when new skills are being learned or when physical or mental mastery and coordination of skills are required for games or sports.

A) Pretense B) Practice C) Social D) Sensorimotor

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Types of Play null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

136) One of the most widely studied types of children's play today is practice play. Which of the following is true of this type of play?

A) Practice play primarily involves social interactions with peers. B) Practice play is confined to infancy, when children learn to transform objects. C) Practice play occurs when a child transforms the physical environment into a symbol. D) Practice play can be engaged in throughout life.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Types of Play null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

137) One of the most widely studied types of children's play today is pretense play. Which of the following is true of this type of play?

A) In pretense play, children transform the physical environment into a symbol. B) Pretense play often appears at about 7 months of age. C) In pretense play, children refuse to share their pretend play with peers. D) In pretense play, children transform people and act toward them as if they were other people.

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138) One of the most widely studied types of children's play today is _____, in which infants in the second quarter of the first year of life engage in exploratory and playful visual and motor transactions.

A) practice play B) sensorimotor play C) social play D) constructive play

139) One of the most widely studied types of children's play today is _____, in which children engage in the self-regulated creation of a product or a solution.

A) constructive play B) games C) collective play D) social play

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140) One of the most widely studied types of children's play today is constructive play. Which of the following is most likely with this type of play?

A) It involves deriving pleasure from exercising sensorimotor schemes. B) It increases in the preschool years as symbolic play increases and sensorimotor play decreases. C) It involves interaction with peers. D) It leads to children transforming objects and acting toward them as if they were other objects.

141) Which of the following refers to activities engaged in for pleasure that include rules and often involve competition with one or more individuals?

A) symbolic play B) role-play C) constructive play D) games

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Games null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

142) In an experiment (Steur, Applefield, & Smith, 1971), preschool children were randomly assigned to two groups: One group watched cartoons containing violence, and the other group watched cartoons with the violence removed. During a free-play session, the children who watched the cartoons containing violence showed more aggression than children who watched the nonviolent cartoons. What conclusion was drawn from this study?

A) Preschool children are naturally more aggressive than older children. B) Violent TV cartoons caused the increased aggression in the children in this investigation. C) The cause of aggression cannot be determined, since aggression is caused by so many other factors. D) Exposure to TV violence caused the aggression in the children in this investigation.

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143) A meta-analysis of studies in 14 countries (Mares & Pan, 2013) found that watching the TV showSesame Street

A) produced positive outcomes in the area of social reasoning. B) was detrimental to children learning positive social interchanges. C) was a good form of electronic babysitting, but was not good at teaching any skills. D) led to negative attitudes toward outgroups.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Media/Screen Time null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 144) Which theorist (last name only) stated that the psychological stage of childhood was initiative versus guilt? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Initiative versus Guilt null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

145) Which theorist (last name only) suggested that children internalize their parents' standards of right and wrong in order to reduce anxiety and avoid punishment? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. Topic : Emotional Expression

146) Which theorist (last name only) proposed that gender differences result from the contrasting roles of men and women in societies where women have less power and status than men and control fewer resources?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Social Influences on Gender null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

147) Which theorist (last name only) proposed the four classifications of parenting involving combinations of acceptance and responsiveness on one hand and demand and control on the other? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Baumrind's Parenting Styles null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

148) Which leading theorist on sibling relationships (last name only) described the three important characteristics of sibling relationships as emotional quality, familiarity and intimacy, and variation? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Sibling Relationships null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

149) In the context of how parents talk with their children about emotions, parents who monitor their children's emotions, view their children's negative emotions as opportunities for teaching, and assist them in labeling their emotions are taking the _____ approach.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. Topic : Emotional Development

150) According to Jean Piaget, the first stage of moral development, in which children think of justice and rules as unchangeable properties of the world, is called _____ morality. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Moral Reasoning Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

151) Nathan's parents are highly involved in his life but place few demands and controls on him. They believe that the combination of warm involvement and few restraints will produce a creative, confident child, so they allow him to do whatever he wants. In the context of Diana Baumrind's parenting styles, Nathan's parents are displaying the style of _____ parenting. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Apply Topic : Baumrind's Parenting Styles Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

152) Time out is the parenting technique for handling misbehavior in children that is characterized by removing the child from a setting that offers positive _____.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Punishment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development.

153) What is the term for the support that parents provide one another in jointly raising a child? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Parenting

154) In the context of the types of children's play, the kind of play that combines sensorimotor/practice play with symbolic representation and occurs when children engage in the self-regulated creation of a product or a solution is called _____ play. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Types of Play null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe play in early childhood.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 155) Explain Eric Erikson's stage of initiative versus guilt. Provide an example of initiative and an example of guilt as these concepts are used by Erikson.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Initiative versus Guilt null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

156)

Why are young children's self-descriptions typically unrealistically positive?

157) Discuss self-conscious emotions and provide two examples. What are the two criteria necessary for children to experience self-conscious emotions?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 5.2: Exhibit self-efficacy and self-regulation Topic : Emotional Expression

158) What are some of the differences between emotion-coaching and emotion-dismissing parents? Version 1

159) Ellen Galinsky and Judy David developed a number of guidelines for communicating with children about divorce. Which one of these guidelines connects with the concept of emotion coaching?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 4.3: Interact effectively with others Bloom's : Analyze

160) Name and briefly describe the stages of moral reasoning in children, as identified by Jean Piaget.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Moral Reasoning null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood.

161) Compare and contrast the three major social theories of gender. Which would you argue is the dominant approach today?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Social Influences on Gender null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry

162) Cultures around the world tend to give mothers and fathers different roles in parenting. Describe the different socializing strategies that mothers and fathers use in raising their children.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Social Influences on Gender Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in early childhood. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry

163) List four characteristics that are generally associated with the firstborn child. Discuss what accounts for these differences. Version 1

164)

Should parents stay in an unhappy or conflicted marriage for the sake of their children?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Divorce Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze

165)

What are the developmental consequences of abuse of children?

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166) What is emotion security theory? What factors influence an individual child’s vulnerability to suffering negative consequences from living in a divorced family?

167) In the context of the influence of ethnicity on parenting, what are some of the stressors experienced by immigrant families? How do ethnic minority families deal with stress?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Topic : Cultural, Ethnic, Socioeconomic Variations in Parenting

168)

Discuss how parents influence their children’s peer relations.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Explain how parenting practices influence development. Topic : Parent-Child Relations Topic : Peer Relations null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

169)

Discuss the negative influence of too much screen time on children.

170) Which theory states that children's gender development occurs through observing and imitating what other people say and do and through being rewarded and punished for genderappropriate and gender-inappropriate behavior?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch08 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) A 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) B 84) B 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) D 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) B 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) C 96) A 97) D 98) A 99) B 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) B 104) B 105) D 106) B 107) D 108) B 109) C 110) B 111) C 112) D 113) C 114) D 115) D 116) C Version 1

117) D 118) D 119) A 120) A 121) B 122) A 123) B 124) B 125) D 126) B 127) B 128) A 129) A 130) A 131) C 132) A 133) B 134) D 135) B 136) D 137) A 138) B 139) A 140) B 141) D 142) D 143) A 144) Erikson 145) Freud 146) Eagly Version 1

147) Baumrind 148) Dunn 149) emotion-coaching 150) heteronomous 151) indulgent 152) reinforcement 153) coparenting 154) constructive 155) In Eric Erikson's first psychosocial developmental stage, initiative versus guilt, children learn to use their perceptual, motor, cognitive, and language skills to make things happen. On their own initiative, children at this stage exuberantly move out into a wider social world. If they are not permitted to explore their world or if they face disappointment consistently, they will develop guilt. 156) Young children's self-descriptions are typically unrealistically positive because they have yet to distinguish between their desired competence and their actual competence; tend to confuse ability and effort, thinking that differences in ability can be changed as easily as can differences in effort; do not engage in spontaneous social comparison of their abilities with those of others; and tend to compare their present abilities with what they could do at an earlier age, which usually makes their abilities look quite good. 157) Self-conscious emotions are those that include the quality of an evaluation or judgment of self. Examples include pride, shame, embarrassment, and guilt. In order for children to experience selfconscious emotions, they must be able to refer to themselves and be aware of themselves as distinct from others.

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158) Depending on how they talk with their children about emotion, parents can be described as taking an emotion-coaching or an emotiondismissing approach. The distinction between these approaches is most evident in the way the parent deals with the child's negative emotions (anger, frustration, sadness, and so on). Emotion-coaching parents monitor their children's emotions, view their children's negative emotions as opportunities for teaching, assist them in labeling emotions, and coach them in how to deal effectively with emotions. In contrast, emotion-dismissing parents view their role as to deny, ignore, or change negative emotions. Emotion-coaching parents interact with their children in a less rejecting manner, use more scaffolding and praise, and are more nurturant than are emotion-dismissing parents. 159) Ellen Galinsky and Judy David urge parents communicating news of their divorce to their children to explain to them that it is normal to not feel good about what is happening, that it may take time for them to feel better, and that many other children feel this way when their parents become separated. This connects directly to how emotion-coaching parents monitor their children's emotions, view their children's negative emotions as opportunities for teaching, assist them in labeling emotions, and coach them in how to deal effectively with emotions. Since the children of emotion-coaching parents are better at soothing themselves when they get upset, more effective in regulating their negative affect, focus their attention better, and have fewer behavior problems than the children of emotion-dismissing parents, this is a good approach to helping children cope with their parents' divorce.

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160) Piaget concluded that children go through two distinct stages in how they think about morality. From about 4 to 7 years of age, children display heteronomous morality, where children think of justice and rules as unchangeable properties of the world, removed from the control of people. From 7 to 10 years of age, children are in a transition, showing some features of the first stage of moral reasoning and some stages of the second stage, autonomous morality. At about 10 years of age and older, children show autonomous morality. They become aware that rules and laws are created by people, and in judging an action, they consider the actor's intentions as well as the consequences. 161)Three main social theories of gender have been proposed—social role theory, psychoanalytic theory, and social cognitive theory. Alice Eagly proposed social role theory, which states that gender differences result from the contrasting roles of women and men. The psychoanalytic theory of gender stems from Freud's view that the preschool child develops a sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent. At 5 or 6 years of age, the child renounces this attraction because of anxious feelings. Subsequently, the child identifies with the same-sex parent, unconsciously adopting the same-sex parent's characteristics. According to the social cognitive theory of gender, children's gender development occurs through observing and imitating what other people say and do and through being rewarded and punished for gender-appropriate and gender-inappropriate behavior. 162) In many cultures, mothers socialize their daughters to be more obedient and responsible than their sons. They also place more restrictions on daughters' autonomy. Fathers, on the other hand, show more attention to sons than to daughters, engage in more activities with sons, and put forth more effort to promote sons' intellectual development.

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163) Whether a child has older or younger siblings has been linked to development of certain personality characteristics. A recent review concluded that "firstborns are the most intelligent, achieving, and conscientious." Compared with later-born children, firstborn children have also been described as more adult-oriented, helpful, conforming, and self-controlled. Proposed explanations for differences related to birth order usually point to variations in interactions with parents and siblings associated with being in a particular position in the family. In one study, mothers became more negative, coercive, and restraining and played less with the firstborn following the birth of a second child. 164) Answers will vary but should incorporate the following: If the stresses and disruptions in family relationships associated with an unhappy, conflict-ridden marriage that erode the well-being of children are reduced by the move to a divorced, single-parent family, divorce can be advantageous. However, if the diminished resources and increased risks associated with divorce also are accompanied by inept parenting and sustained or increased conflict, not only between the divorced couple but also among the parents, children, and siblings, the best choice for the children would be for an unhappy marriage to be retained. It is difficult to determine how these "ifs" will play out when parents either remain together in an acrimonious marriage or become divorced.

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165) There are many developmental consequences of abuse. These include poor emotion regulation, attachment problems, problems in peer relations, difficulty in adapting to school, and other psychological problems such as depression and delinquency. According to research on abnormal stress hormone levels in young children in different types of rearing conditions, maltreated young children in foster care showed abnormal stress hormone levels. Adolescents who experienced abuse and neglect as children are more likely than adolescents who were not maltreated as children to engage in violent romantic relationships, delinquency, sexual risk taking, and substance abuse. 166) Emotion security theory has its roots in attachment theory and states that children appraise marital conflict in terms of their sense of security and safety in the family. Among the factors involved in a child’s risk and vulnerability is the child’s adjustment prior to the divorce, as well as the child’s personality and temperament, gender, and custody situation. Children whose parents later divorce often show poor adjustment before the breakup. Children who are socially mature and responsible, who show few behavioral problems, and who have an easy temperament are better able to cope with their parents’ divorce. Children with a difficult temperament often have problems coping with their parents’ divorce.

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167)Immigrant families often experience stressors uncommon to or less prominent among longtime residents, such as language barriers, dislocations and separations from support networks, the dual struggle to preserve identity and to acculturate, changes in socioeconomic status, and health. Whether the parents are native-born or immigrants, how long the family has been in this country, and their socioeconomic status and national origin all have an impact on how ethnic minority families deal with stress. The characteristics of the family’s social context also influence its adaptation. 168) Parents influence their children's peer relations in many ways. Parents affect such relations through their interactions with their children, how they manage their children’s lives, and the opportunities they provide to their children. Basic lifestyle decisions by parents—their choices of neighborhoods, churches, schools, and their own friends— largely determine the pool from which their children select possible friends. These choices in turn affect which children their children meet, their purpose in interacting, and eventually which children become their friends. Researchers also have found that children’s peer relations are linked to attachment security and parents’ marital quality. Early attachments to caregivers provide a connection to children’s peer relations not only by creating a secure base from which children can explore social relationships beyond the family but also by conveying a working model of relationships.

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169) There are many developmental consequences of too much screen time for children. Too much screen time can make children passive learners, distract them from doing homework, teach them stereotypes, provide them with violent models of aggression, and present them with unrealistic views of the world. Other concerns include decreased time spent in play, less time interacting with peers, higher rates of aggression, an increased risk of being overweight or obese, decreased physical activity, lower cognitive development, and poor sleep habits. 170) This describes the social cognitive theory of gender.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) During the elementary school years, children grow an average of _____ inches a year.

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 5 to 7 D) 7 to 10

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2) Kimberly is 7 years old. She asks her mother to buy her clothes at the start of the new academic year. However, her mother tells her that she won't buy too many clothes now as Kimberly will grow out of them soon. She expects Kimberly to gain _____ pounds per year, on average, during middle and late childhood.

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 5 to 7 D) 7 to 10

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During the elementary school years, head circumference and waist circumference

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A) increase in relation to body height. B) decrease in relation to body weight. C) increase in relation to body weight. D) decrease in relation to body height.

4) Advances in the _____ of the brain in middle and late childhood are linked to children's _____.

A) parietal lobe; peripheral vision B) occipital lobe; improved spatial skills C) prefrontal cortex; improved attention, reasoning, and cognitive control D) temporal lobe; hand-eye coordination and pincer grasp

The improvement of fine motor skills during middle and late childhood is due to

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A) increased myelination of the central nervous system. B) advances in the prefrontal cortex. C) an increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine. D) a simultaneous process in which axons in the brain die while dendrites in the brain grow and branch out.

6) Eight-year-old Ella can use scissors to cut small paper dolls out of craft paper, something she could not do at age 3. What best accounts for her improving dexterity?

A) increased cortical thickening in the temporal lobe B) increased myelination of the central nervous system C) increased bone ossification D) increased muscle development

7) During a workshop for mothers, one of the topics of discussion was the increasing use of cell phones and other gadgets by children. During the session, the speaker asked parents to monitor their children's screen time and stressed the importance of exercise in a child's physical development. She also asked parents to exercise more often, so that their children would be encouraged to spend less time with their gadgets and more time involved in physical activities. Which of the following statements explains why the speaker put forth these requests?

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A) Studies show that screen time is associated with higher levels of language skills and cognitive control. B) Studies show that a higher level of screen time increases the risk of obesity for lowand high-activity children. C) Studies show that screen time is linked with high activity and stable sleep patterns in children. D) Studies show that screen time is associated with higher connectivity between brain regions.

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8) A recent study examined children’s physical activity as they made the transition from elementary to middle school (Pate & others, 2019). In this study, which of the following was found to be associated with children’s reduced physical activity?

A) parents’ encouragement of physical activity B) time children spent indoors C) the number of physical activity facilities near their home D) children’s sports participation

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9) Molly is writing an article for her school newspaper about frequent causes of death in children in middle childhood. Which of the following is/are the most common cause?

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A) motor vehicle accidents B) drowning C) skin and lung cancers D) child abuse

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10)

Being overweight is defined in relation to a person's

A) height. B) body mass index. C) weight. D) waist circumference.

11) Gertrude, 9, is at the 98th percentile in terms of her BMI. Her doctor would likely tell her parents that she is

A) underweight. B) at risk for being overweight. C) overweight. D) obese.

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12) Mitchell is at the 96th percentile in terms of his BMI. His doctor would likely tell his parents that he is

A) obese. B) overweight. C) at risk for being overweight. D) underweight.

13) Ross is at the 85th percentile in terms of his BMI. His doctor would likely tell his parents that he is

A) obese. B) overweight. C) at risk for being overweight. D) underweight.

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14) Sammy, a 9-year-old girl, is overweight. She is constantly teased and tormented by other children in school. Her parents try to cheer her up by telling her that they were also overweight when they were young and even now they are overweight but they don't worry about what others say about them. Based on the given information, which of the following is the primary cause for Sammy being overweight?

A) Sammy spends most of her day playing on her computer. B) Sammy's meal times are irregular. C) Sammy does not exercise as regularly as her parents. D) Sammy's parents are overweight.

15) Martha is writing an article about cardiovascular disease in children. Which of the following is a true statement that might serve as her introductory line?

A) Cardiovascular disease is uncommon in children. B) Cardiovascular disease is highly prevalent in children. C) Cardiovascular disease is nonexistent in children. D) Cardiovascular disease is on the decline in children.

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16) A recent research review of Chinese children revealed that childhood obesity was linked to access to which of the following? A) lack of a gym membership B) excessive use of fitness equipment C) lack of access to fruits and vegetables D) consumption of powerbars

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17)

Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease in children is true?

A) Cardiovascular disease is common in children. B) There is no scientific evidence of high blood pressure in children. C) High blood pressure goes undiagnosed in 75 percent of children with the disease. D) Behaviors in childhood do not affect the development of cardiovascular disease in later life.

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18) Which of the following is/are the second leading cause of death in U.S. children from 5 to 14 years of age?

A) cardiovascular disease B) cancer C) motor vehicle accidents D) drowning

19)

The incidence of cancer in children has _____ in recent years.

A) been linked to obesity B) increased dramatically C) increased slightly D) decreased dramatically

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20)

Which type of cancer is most prevalent in children?

A) leukemia B) lung cancer C) brain cancer D) melanoma (a form of skin cancer)

21)

Children with cancer

A) are rarer today than in the 1960s. B) are dying earlier today than in the 1960s. C) are surviving longer today than in the past. D) have yet to receive the benefits of advancements in cancer treatments.

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22)

Which of the following statements about cancer in children is true?

A) The most common cancer in children in the United States is lung cancer. B) Children with cancer are surviving for a shorter period than in the past. C) Cancer is the leading cause of death in children in the United States. D) One in every 330 children in the United States develops cancer before the age of 19.

23) Lillette, 9, has been diagnosed with _____, a cancer in which the bone marrow manufactures an abundance of abnormal white blood cells that crowd out normal cells, making her susceptible to bruising and infection.

A) neuroblastoma B) lymphosarcoma C) leukemia D) clear cell sarcoma

24) Which was the largest group of students with a disability to be served by federal programs and receive special education in the 2015–2016 school year?

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A) students with a specific learning impairment B) students with speech or language impairments C) students with an intellectual disability D) emotionally disturbed students

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25)

Learning disabilities

A) reside in a single, specific brain location. B) are primarily the result of inadequate intellectual functioning. C) do not involve understanding or using spoken language. D) are not primarily the result of visual, hearing, or motor disabilities.

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26)

Which of the following statements about learning disabilities is true?

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A) Girls are more likely to be referred by teachers for treatment because of troublesome behavior. B) About three times as many boys as girls are classified as having a learning disability. C) Girls have a greater biological vulnerability than boys to being diagnosed with a learning disability. D) Learning disabilities reside in a single, specific brain location in all individuals.

27) Dana and Delma are discussing gender and the identification of learning disabilities. Dana believes that there is evidence that supports that gender does play a role in identifying learning disabilities, whereas Delma opposes this view. Which of the following is a true statement that supports Dana's view?

A) Boys have a greater biological vulnerability for learning disabilities than girls. B) Girls are more likely to be referred by teachers for treatment than boys. C) Girls' education is given priority in schools and homes. D) Learning disabilities are more difficult to detect in boys than in girls.

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28) Sabine is in the second grade. Compared to the other kids in her class, she finds it very challenging to read or spell simple words. Which of the following learning disabilities does Sabine suffer from?

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A) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B) dysgraphia C) dyslexia D) dyscalculia

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29) Marshall is in the fourth grade. He finds it hard to keep up with his classmates' writing speed. His handwriting is illegible, so neither his teachers nor his parents can read his notes. He also makes numerous spelling errors because of his inability to match sounds and letters. Marshall likely suffers from

A) dyspraxia. B) dysgraphia. C) dyslexia. D) dyscalculia.

30) Sandra is a 9-year-old girl. She is always the last student in class to finish assignments, because she can only write slowly, and even then, her writing is virtually illegible and riddled with spelling mistakes. Her teacher refers her to a psychologist, who diagnoses her with a learning disability known as

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A) ADHD. B) dysgraphia. C) ASD. D) dyscalculia.

31) Terence has a learning disability that involves difficulty in math computation, sometimes referred to as developmental arithmetic disorder. Terence's classmate Mindy finds it extremely challenging to read or spell simple words. Based on the given information, which of the following statements is likely true?

A) Both Terence and Mindy have ADHD. B) Terence has dysgraphia, whereas Mindy has dyscalculia. C) Terence has ADHD, whereas Mindy has dysgraphia. D) Terence has dyscalculia, whereas Mindy has dyslexia.

32) Samuel is an 8-year-old boy. He has difficulty solving numerical problems and has not been able to solve any of the problems in the math tests given by his teacher. His teacher gives him extra assignments and has him attend some remedial classes so that he can improve, but these do not help. Samuel's parents finally take him to a doctor, and the doctor diagnoses him with a learning disability called _____, or developmental arithmetic disorder.

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A) dyscalculia B) dysgraphia C) dyslexia D) dyspraxia

33) Carl's son has been diagnosed with a learning disability. Since then, Carl has spent a significant amount of time trying to understand the causes of his son's disability. He learns that even though several research studies have been conducted, the precise causes have not yet been determined. He comes across a research finding that indicates that it is unlikely that learning disabilities

A) reside in a single, specific brain location. B) are due to problems in integrating information from multiple brain regions. C) are a result of subtle impairments in brain structures. D) occur as a result of subtle impairments in brain functions.

34)

Interventions with children who have a learning disability often focus on improving

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A) their math ability. B) right- and left-brain functioning. C) writing skills. D) their reading ability.

35) _____ is a disability in which children consistently show inattentiveness, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity over a period of time. Some children show a combination of these symptoms.

A) ADHD B) OCD C) PTSD D) EMDR

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36) Damon's teachers frequently complain that he disrupts his kindergarten class by fidgeting and moving about all the time. He does not pay any attention to what is being taught in class and behaves impulsively. Considering the presence of the tell-tale characteristics of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity, Damon's pediatrician diagnosed him with _____ and put him on a combination of Ritalin and behavior therapy.

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A) ADHD B) OCD C) PTSD D) EMDR

37)

Which of the following statements about ADHD in children is true?

A) The sole cause of ADHD in children is damage to the brain during prenatal development. B) The number of children diagnosed and treated for ADHD has increased substantially in recent decades. C) Stimulant medication such as Ritalin is effective in improving the attention of children with ADHD to the levels seen in children without ADHD. D) Doctors recommend avoiding exercise in all forms for children with ADHD.

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38) Anne, a 10-year-old girl, has been diagnosed with ADHD. Which of the following scenarios would have most likely caused this disability?

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A) Anne had a high birth weight. B) Anne has poor discipline at home. C) Anne was a victim of verbal and physical abuse during her childhood. D) Anne's mother smoked cigarettes and consumed alcohol frequently while pregnant.

39) A recent study revealed that peak thickness of the cerebral cortex occurs _____ in children with ADHD than in children without ADHD.

A) more often in adulthood B) more often in infancy C) three years later D) two years earlier

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40) Jana's doctor is treating her for ADHD. Which of the following treatment plans will her doctor most likely recommend to achieve positive results?

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A) a combination of stimulant medication and sedatives B) primarily stimulant medication C) primarily behavior management D) a combination of stimulant medication and behavior management

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41) A recent research review (Jeyanthi, Arumugam, & Parasherr, 2019) concluded that _____ improved the attention of children with ADHD.

A) carbohydrates B) group therapy C) physical exercise D) time outs

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42) From the following options, identify the disorder or group of disorders that consists of serious, persistent problems involving relationships, aggression, depression, and fears associated with personal or school matters, as well as other inappropriate socioemotional characteristics. Approximately 8 percent of children who have a disability and require an individualized education plan fall into this classification.

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A) autism B) ADHD C) emotional and behavioral disorders D) learning disorders

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43) _____ is a severe developmental disorder that has its onset in the first three years of life and includes deficiencies in social relationships, abnormalities in communication, and restricted, repetitive, and stereotyped patterns of behavior.

A) Asperger syndrome B) ADHD C) Autistic disorder D) ICF syndrome

44) Three-year-old Jared was taken to the doctor by his parents, who were concerned by his seeming lack of attachment to those around him. Jared hardly spoke a word to his parents and would not respond when his parents called out to him. His parents arranged play dates with other children his age so that Jared could mingle with other kids and play with them; but Jared would instead go to a corner and spend all day preoccupied with bouncing his ball. After a thorough investigation, Jared's pediatrician diagnosed him with

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A) fragile X syndrome. B) ADHD. C) autistic disorder. D) ICF syndrome.

45) _____ is a relatively mild autism spectrum disorder in which the child has relatively good verbal language skills, milder nonverbal language problems, and a restricted range of interests and relationships.

A) Asperger syndrome B) Fragile X syndrome C) Down syndrome D) ICF syndrome

46)

What causes autism spectrum disorders?

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A) improper family socialization B) brain dysfunction with abnormalities in brain structure and neurotransmitters C) damage to the prefrontal cortex of the brain D) childhood immunization

47)

The Education for All Handicapped Children Act, enacted in 1975, required that

A) all students with disabilities be brought into mainstream schools. B) parents of children with disabilities provide homeschooling for their children. C) all students with disabilities be given a free, appropriate public education. D) a standard curriculum be provided for students with and without disabilities.

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48) A(n) _____ is a written statement that spells out a program that is specifically tailored for a student with a disability.

A) tailored education plan (TEP) B) individualized education plan (IEP) C) exclusive education plan (EEP) D) disabilities education plan (DEP)

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49) The _____ is a setting that is as similar as possible to the one in which children who do not have a disability are educated.

A) ideal learning environment (ILE) B) special learning environment (SLE) C) least discriminating environment (LDE) D) least restrictive environment (LRE)

50) Jacob is a third grader and has a disability that has caused him to be separated from his peers during the school day. Recently, Jacob was moved to the regular third-grade classroom. This is an instance of

A) transforming. B) transitioning. C) incorporation. D) inclusion.

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51) Sadie has a learning disability and is being educated in the least restrictive environment possible. This means that Sadie

A) is given great freedom and few rules. B) is placed in as regular a classroom as possible. C) has significant input into the development of her educational goals. D) spends part of her time in a regular classroom and part of her time in a special education classroom.

52) In relation to his cognitive developmental theory, Piaget proposed that the concrete operational stage lasts from approximately _____ years of age.

A) 3 to 5 B) 5 to 7 C) 7 to 11 D) 10 to 13

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53) A child is presented with two identical balls of clay. The experimenter rolls one ball into a long, thin shape; the other remains in its original ball form. The child is then asked if there is more clay in the ball or in the long, thin piece of clay. If the child answers the problem correctly but cannot use abstract reasoning yet, the child is most likely in which stage of Piaget's cognitive developmental theory?

A) sensorimotor stage B) preoperational stage C) formal operational stage D) concrete operational stage

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54) Children who have reached the concrete operational stage are capable of _____, which is the ability to order stimuli along a quantitative dimension, such as length.

A) centration B) seriation C) reversibility D) classification

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55) Luis is able to organize coins in a row from the largest in size to the smallest. His newfound ability is called

A) centration. B) seriation. C) reversibility. D) classification.

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56) Byron can take sticks of different lengths and put them all in order from shortest to longest. He can also discern that if stick A is longer than B, and B is longer than C, then A is longer than C. This ability to logically combine relations to understand certain conclusions is called

A) seriation. B) transitivity. C) transduction. D) classification.

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57) _____ develops more rapidly during early childhood, and _____ develops more rapidly during middle and late childhood.

A) Long-term memory; short-term memory B) Short-term memory; long-term memory C) Knowledge; expertise D) Expertise; knowledge

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58)

Compared with novices, experts have

A) poorer overall memory, regardless of their area of expertise. B) acquired extensive knowledge about a particular content area. C) less experience in their area of expertise. D) lower levels of motivation.

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59) If the word "win" is on a list of words a child is asked to remember, the child might think of the last time he won a pony race with a friend. This is an example of

A) rehearsal. B) organization. C) inclusion. D) elaboration.

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60)

Which of the following is a strategy for improving children's memory skills?

A) Avoid repetition of the same instructional information. B) Embed memory-relevant language when instructing children. C) Motivate children to remember material by memorizing it. D) Discourage children from engaging in mental imagery.

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61) A teacher uses pictures to teach her students about a particular concept. She is confident that doing so will help the children remember the concept easily. Identify the strategy that the teacher is using to improve her students' memory.

A) encouraging elaboration B) engaging in mental imagery C) motivating students to remember the concept by understanding it rather than by memorizing it D) repeating the concept multiple times

62) At some point during the early elementary school years, children begin to use _____ more. According to fuzzy trace theory, this contributes to the improved memory and reasoning of older children.

A) verbatim traces B) elaboration C) verbal traces D) gist

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63)

According to fuzzy trace theory, _____ consists of the precise details of the information.

A) the gist B) the verbatim memory trace C) the fuzzy trace D) mental imagery

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64) When a person thinks reflectively and productively and evaluates evidence, he or she is engaging in

A) critical thinking. B) metacognition. C) cognitive monitoring. D) control processes.

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65) _____ refers to being alert, mentally present, and cognitively flexible while going through life's everyday activities and tasks.

A) Mindlessness B) Mindfulness C) Elasticity D) Creativity

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66) In a recent series of meta-analyses (Takacs & Kassai, 2019), it was concluded that for _____ children, executive function was most effectively increased with _____.

A) typically developing; mindfulness training B) typically developing; biofeedback-enhanced relaxation C) non-typically developing; mindfulness training D) typically developing; strategy teaching involving self-regulation

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67) Emily has the ability to think about things in novel and unusual ways, and this allows her to come up with unique solutions to problems. This ability is called _____ thinking.

A) logical B) analytical C) critical D) creative

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68) _____ thinking characterizes the kind of thinking that is required on conventional tests of intelligence.

A) Convergent B) Creative C) Divergent D) Abstract

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69) The type of thinking that produces many answers to the same question is called _____ thinking. This kind of thinking characterizes creativity.

A) divergent B) convergent C) oblique D) finite

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70) "What would you do if you could be invisible for a day?" is an example of a question that has many possible answers and fosters _____ thinking.

A) divergent B) convergent C) critical D) oblique

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71) _____ is a technique in which individuals are encouraged to come up with creative ideas in a group, play off each other's ideas, and say almost anything that comes to mind that seems relevant to a particular issue.

A) Elaboration B) Metacognition C) Brainstorming D) Inclusion

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72) Natasha's teacher is trying out a new technique for group discussions. She forms a group of six students and gives them a topic—the importance of exercise in a child’s physical development. She encourages the group to talk about the topic, the pros and cons, and the issues and solutions. The students each give their own views and collectively come to the conclusion that exercise is very important in a child’s physical development. Identify the technique used by the teacher.

A) elaboration B) metacognition C) brainstorming D) inclusion

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73) As an elementary school teacher, Helen is always trying to find more ways to increase creativity in her students. She approaches her colleague for guidance. Which of the following would good advice?

A) Discourage intellectual risk-taking. B) Exercise strict control over children's ideas. C) Guide children to be persistent and delay gratification. D) Discourage methods such as brainstorming.

74)

_____ involves knowing about knowing.

A) Cognition B) Brainstorming C) Metacognition D) Metadata

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75)

Knowledge about memory is known as

A) metamemory. B) working memory. C) implicit memory. D) metadata.

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76) Megan, who is 8 years old, has a test tomorrow. "It's an easy test," she tells her mother. "I just have to recognize a bunch of stuff on a chart. I finished studying for it yesterday. I know that I'll remember everything I need to know." Megan is exhibiting her

A) brainstorming ability. B) creative thinking. C) metamemory. D) metadata.

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77)

Michael Pressley believes that the key to education is helping students to

A) develop social skills. B) learn creativity. C) learn a repertoire of problem-solving strategies. D) distinguish between convergent and divergent thinking.

78)

Metacognition helps people to perform many _____ tasks more effectively.

A) cognitive B) physical C) ambidextrous D) bilingual

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79)

Mental age (MA) is

A) the age that an individual mentally identifies as. B) the age at which an individual attains cognitive maturity. C) an individual's level of mental development relative to others. D) an individual's age at the time of peak cortical thickness.

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80) A person's mental age divided by chronological age (CA) and multiplied by 100 would indicate that person's

A) emotional quotient. B) intelligence quotient. C) level of mental development relative to others. D) cognitive maturity.

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81)

Sergio's mental age is 8, but his chronological age is 9. Sergio's IQ

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A) is 100. B) is more than 100. C) is less than 100. D) cannot be determined from the information provided.

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82)

Who created the concept of intelligence quotient (IQ)?

A) Alfred Binet B) William Stern C) David Wechsler D) Robert J. Sternberg

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83)

Sally's mental age is 12, but her chronological age is 10. Sally's IQ is _____.

A) 80 B) 100 C) 120 D) 200

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84) If intelligence is assumed to be normally distributed, which of the following would you expect to find in the overall population?

A) more people of high intelligence than of low intelligence B) more people of moderate intelligence than of high or low intelligence C) more people of high intelligence than of moderate or low intelligence D) more people of low intelligence than of moderate or high intelligence

85) Amber is given a Stanford-Binet intelligence test. Her mental age is determined to be 14, and her chronological age is 10. Which of the following is true of Amber?

A) Her IQ score is 86. B) Her IQ score is about average. C) Her IQ score is below that of the majority of the population. D) Her IQ score is above that of the majority of the population.

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86) The _____ not only provide an overall IQ score but also yield several composite indexes that allow the examiner to quickly determine the areas in which a child is strong or weak.

A) Wechsler scales B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scales C) Stanford-Binet tests D) Apgar Scales

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87) Which of the following is a type of intelligence identified in Robert J. Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence?

A) cultural intelligence B) practical intelligence C) spatial intelligence D) verbal intelligence

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88) Although Casey scores only about average on standardized intelligence tests, she is street-smart and has excellent social skills and good common sense. Given a problem, Casey will try her best to arrive at a solution. Most of her friends and family appreciate this about her, as she seems to be able to find ways to get things done on her own. In the context of Sternberg's theories, she has _____ intelligence.

A) spatial B) practical C) analytical D) interpersonal

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89) Robert J. Sternberg's triarchic theory and Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence are examples of the idea that

A) intelligence is a general ability. B) there are three types of intelligence. C) intelligence consists of a number of specific abilities. D) culture plays an important role in the development of intelligence.

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90)

Howard Gardner suggests that there are _____ types of intelligence.

A) two B) four C) six D) eight

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91) Colin does not get good grades on standardized tests and does not seem to be making an effort to improve his grades. He is more interested in martial arts and has earned a black belt in this field. In the context of Gardner's approach, Colin has the _____ type of intelligence.

A) spatial B) intrapersonal C) bodily-kinesthetic D) naturalist

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92) According to Howard Gardner, who among the following would need to have good spatial abilities to be successful?

A) journalists and authors B) theologians and psychologists C) botanists and landscapers D) architects and sailors

93)

Which of the following is a type of intelligence identified by Howard Gardner?

A) intrapersonal B) analytical C) practical D) creative

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94) One expert on intelligence, Nathan Brody, has observed that people who excel at one type of intellectual task are

A) likely to underperform in other tasks. B) evidence that multiple-intelligence approaches are correct. C) proof that intelligence is a number of specific abilities. D) likely to excel at other tasks, too.

95)

Which of the following statements about IQ or intelligence is true?

A) Modifications in environment have no impact on one's IQ score. B) Schooling has been shown to have no influence on intelligence. C) The conception of intelligence is the same across cultures. D) IQ scores have been rapidly increasing around the world.

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96) The worldwide increase in intelligence test scores that has occurred over a short period of time has been called the _____ effect.

A) Binet B) Goleman C) Flynn D) Wechsler

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97) Considering how early intervention programs to improve intellectual development have shown marked improvements in the IQ of participants, it can be inferred that the main reason children from low-SES families earn lower scores on IQ tests is that

A) their parents have difficulty providing an intellectually stimulating environment. B) the genes for lower intelligence are passed down from parents to children. C) today's IQ tests are culture-fair. D) IQ tests fail to test for street-smarts and practical intelligence.

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98)

It is considered difficult to create culture-fair intelligence tests because they

A) predominantly test the nonverbal skills of the test taker. B) consider the values that are common to all test takers. C) reflect the cultures of some test takers more than others. D) use only standardized test items familiar to all test takers.

99) Peter is in charge of conducting an IQ test in the school where he teaches. Which of the following points should he keep in mind about the test and the results?

A) IQ is the sole indicator of competence in students. B) The IQ test is a measure of fixed potential in students. C) It is perfectly normal to stereotype students based on their test scores. D) Aside from an IQ score, students’ creative and practical skills matter, too.

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100) Researchers suspect which of the following causes for a drop in intelligence test scores in Norway?

A) technological advances B) nutritional deficiencies C) climatic changes D) violence in music and television

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101) Aiden is 18 years old. He has always found it harder to cope with his studies than his siblings do. He is always the last to finish any assignment or task in class. In a recent IQ test, his IQ score was 60. Which of the following is true of Aiden?

A) Aiden is gifted. B) Aiden has an intellectual disability. C) Aiden is an introvert. D) Aiden has dyslexia.

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102) Which of the following statements is true of children with a cultural-familial intellectual disability?

A) Individuals with this type of disability have IQs between 55 and 70. B) Individuals with this type of disability are highly insensitive to what is expected of them. C) Individuals with this type of disability often need intangible rewards—praise rather than candy. D) Individuals with this type of disability can often be identified easily in schools, where they excel in academics.

103)

Most people who suffer from an organic intellectual disability have IQs between

A) 0 to 50. B) 0 to 75. C) 0 to 90. D) 100 and above.

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104)

Studies support the conclusion that gifted people tend to be

A) less mature than others, have fewer emotional problems than others, and grow up in a positive family climate. B) more mature than others, have fewer emotional problems than others, and grow up in a positive family climate. C) less mature than others, have more emotional problems than others, and grow up in a negative family climate. D) more mature than others, have more emotional problems than others, and grow up in a negative family climate.

105) The idea that gifted children are maladjusted is a _____, as Lewis Terman found when he conducted an extensive study of 1,500 children whose Stanford-Binet IQs averaged _____.

A) reality; 75 B) reality; 150 C) myth; 75 D) myth; 150

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106)

Which of the following is the correct definition of intellectual disability?

A) It is a condition of limited mental ability in which the individual (1) has a moderately low IQ, usually above 50 on a traditional intelligence test; (2) has slight trouble adjusting to the demands of everyday life; and (3) first displays these characteristics by age 25. B) It is a condition of limited mental ability in which the individual (1) has a low IQ, usually above 70 on a traditional intelligence test; (2) has little or no trouble adjusting to the demands of a competitive environment; and (3) first displays these characteristics by age 5. C) It is a condition of limited mental ability in which the individual (1) has a low IQ, usually below 50 on a traditional intelligence test; (2) has a lot of difficulty adapting to the demands of a competitive environment; and (3) first exhibits these characteristics by age 25. D) It is a condition of limited mental ability in which the individual (1) has a low IQ, usually below 70 on a traditional intelligence test; (2) has difficulty adapting to the demands of everyday life; and (3) first exhibits these characteristics by age 18.

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107) According to Ellen Winner, which of the following refers to a characteristic displayed by gifted children who begin to master an area earlier than their peers?

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A) marching to their own drummer B) maladjustment C) precocity D) a passion to master

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108) Paul is a gifted pianist. He has always been highly motivated to learn and become an artist of consummate skill. According to his mother, Paul always showed an intense and obsessive interest in learning the instrument. He was always self-motivated and never needed to be "pushed" by his parents. As described by Ellen Winner, what characteristic of gifted children is Paul exhibiting?

A) precocity B) a passion to master C) marching to their own drummer D) vehemence

109)

Organic intellectual disability is caused by

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A) a genetic disorder or brain damage. B) being raised by poorly educated parents. C) an impoverished intellectual environment. D) traumatic experiences in early childhood.

110) When no evidence of organic brain damage can be found, cases are labeled _____ intellectual disability. Individuals with this type of disability have IQs between 55 and 70.

A) pseudo-social B) moderate C) cultural-familial D) severe

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111) Psychologists suspect that _____ often results from growing up in a below-average intellectual environment.

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A) cultural-familial intellectual disability B) metabolic syndrome C) Asperger syndrome D) transitivity

112)

Children with superior talent for something are called

A) gifted. B) creative. C) perspicacious. D) sagacious.

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113)

A child with an IQ of _____ or higher is considered to be gifted.

A) 90 B) 100 C) 120 D) 130

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114)

Fiona, a 10-year-old girl, is an outstanding flautist and has an IQ of 140. Fiona is

A) an anomaly. B) gifted. C) sagacious. D) maladjusted.

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115) Ethan is a gifted 14-year-old boy who has an excellent academic record. He has always scored higher than his classmates in math and can do computations much faster. Seeing his potential, his teachers encouraged him to compete in interstate math tests. He has won several scholarships through these competitions. He recently took an IQ test and found that his score of 140 was much higher than the scores of his classmates. In the light of the findings from Lewis Terman's study of high-IQ children, it is likely that Ethan is

A) socially awkward. B) maladjusted. C) more mature than others his own age. D) emotionally insecure.

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116) Ellen Winner described three criteria that characterize gifted children. Which of the following is one of these criteria? A) mindfulness B) self-confidence C) easily bored D) a passion to master

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117)

Which of the following statements is true of giftedness?

A) Signs of high ability of an individual in a particular area do not manifest themselves at a very young age. B) Deliberate practice is not required of individuals who become experts in a particular domain. C) Individuals with world-class status in the arts, mathematics, science, and sports all report strong family support. D) Individuals who are highly gifted are typically gifted in many domains.

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118)

By the time children are 11 years old, their vocabulary has increased to approximately

A) 10,000 words. B) 40,000 words. C) 100,000 words. D) 200,000 words.

119) _____ is knowledge about language, such as knowing what a preposition is or the ability to discuss the sounds of a language, and it allows children to think about their language, understand what words are, and even define them.

A) Metacognition B) Metalinguistic awareness C) Metapragmatics D) Morphology

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120) The _____-language approach stresses that reading instruction should parallel a child's natural language learning.

A) assisted B) remedial C) complex D) whole

121) At Jackson Elementary, children are taught to read by making them learn to recognize entire words and sentences and to use the context of the words that are given in the text to guess their meaning. Their reading material consists of stories, poems, newspapers, and magazines. This school is using the _____ approach to reading instruction.

A) assisted-language B) remedial-language C) phonics D) whole-language

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122) The _____ approach to reading instruction emphasizes the teaching of basic rules for translating written symbols into sounds.

A) whole-language B) phonics C) balanced-instruction D) morphological

123) Louise is teaching her son to read by helping him sound out letters. She also plays a cartoon where the characters repeat the sounds of each letter. Watching her and the characters in the cartoon pronounce the letters, her son makes the effort to read aloud some of the letters. What approach is Louise using to teach her son?

A) the whole-language approach B) the phonics approach C) the balanced-instruction approach D) the morphological approach

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124) Alberta is a school teacher who introduces children to reading by teaching them a rhyme that goes "A for apple, A says ah, B for ball, B says buh," and so on. This exemplifies the _____ approach to reading instruction.

A) whole-language B) phonics C) information-processing D) analytic

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125) Which of the following statements represents the current thinking among an increasing number of experts in the field of reading?

A) Direct instruction in the whole-language approach is a key aspect of learning to read. B) Direct instruction in phonics is a key aspect of learning to read. C) The whole-language approach and the phonics approach are equally effective in teaching children to read. D) The morphological approach has been shown to be the best way to teach reading.

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126) A recent study of 3-year-olds found that shared book reading at home and school in a second language increases children's ability to

A) shift perspectives and understand others' emotional states. B) defend one point of view. C) memorize longer passages in their first language. D) write longer sentences in their first language.

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127) Violet is teaching her 6-year-old son to write sentences. She notices that, most of the time, if he can't spell a word, he makes up his own spelling. Which of the following approaches should she follow to make her son a competent writer over time?

A) She should be very concerned about how he forms letters and words and should send him for after-school coaching sessions. B) She should discourage him from writing so that he knows he must pay more attention. C) She should give him fewer writing opportunities and instructions so that he can improve independently. D) She should encourage him to apply what he has learned in one paper to another paper.

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128)

Which of the following statements about second-language learning is true?

A) For adolescents and adults, new vocabulary is easier to learn than new sounds or new grammar. B) Children's ability to pronounce words with a native-like accent in a second language typically increases with age. C) Sensitive periods for learning a second language are constant across different language systems. D) Adults tend to learn a second language more slowly than children, but their final level of second-language attainment is higher.

129)

Which of the following statements about children who are bilingual is true?

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A) Children who are bilingual have a larger vocabulary in each language than children who are monolingual. B) Children who are bilingual are better at analytical reasoning than children who are monolingual. C) Children who are bilingual are less conscious of the structure of spoken language than children who are monolingual. D) Children who are bilingual have lower cognitive flexibility than children who are monolingual.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 130) Identify the leading developmental neuroscientist (by last name only) who, along with his colleagues, recently proposed that the prefrontal cortex likely orchestrates the functions of many other brain regions during development. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize physical changes in middle childhood. Topic : Brain Development

131) At the start of the new academic year, Carla's gym instructor recorded all the students' BMI. Carla was at the 95th percentile based on her height and her weight. Carla would fall under the _____ category.

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132) Kevin, an 8-year-old boy, was recently diagnosed with cancer. His doctor explained to Kevin's parents that his bone marrow was manufacturing an abundance of abnormal white blood cells, which caused frequent infections and bruising. Identify the type of cancer detected in Kevin. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize physical changes in middle childhood. Topic : Cancer

133) Tabitha has a learning disability that involves a severe impairment in her ability to read and spell. She most likely has _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Describe how schools educate children with special needs. null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Learning Disabilities

134) Identify (with its abbreviation) the disability in which individuals consistently show problems in one or more of these areas: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.

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135) The concept that a child with a disability must be educated in a setting that is as similar as possible to settings of children who do not have disabilities is known by the abbreviation _____.

136) _____ memory is a mental "workbench" where individuals manipulate and assemble information when making decisions, solving problems, and comprehending written and spoken language. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : Memory

137) Identify the theorist (last name only) who distinguished between convergent thinking and divergent thinking.

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138)

Identify the theorist (last name only) who developed the triarchic theory of intelligence.

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139) Children who have reached the concrete operational stage are also capable of _____, which is the ability to order stimuli along a quantitative dimension (such as length). Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : Concrete Operational Stage

140) Quinn is asked, "How many things can you do with a paper clip?" This kind of question, which can produce many different answers, is a test of _____ thinking. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : Thinking null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry

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141) If we look at Madeline's mental age and divide it by her chronological age and then multiply it by 100, we are calculating her _____ (the abbreviation). Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : IQ Scores

142) In the context of language development, the process through which children make progress in understanding how to use language in culturally appropriate ways is called _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : Vocabulary Development

143) Meghan is a 5-year-old girl. Her mother is teaching her to pronounce words. She shows Meghan the word and the image associated with the word and then says the word out loud while stressing certain parts of the word. This is known as the _____ approach. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive development in middle and late childhood. Topic : Reading

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 144) Discuss height and weight changes that take place during middle and late childhood.

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145)

Identify and describe the most common type of cancer in children.

146) Briefly describe the three types of learning disabilities. Discuss the various treatment options. Do you think that educators treat learning disabilities appropriately? Provide reasons for your answer.

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147) What are the treatment options available for children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

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148) Discuss the key features of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEA).

149) Compare convergent thinking with divergent thinking. What are some of the causes of the decline in creative thinking in children in the United States?

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150) According to Robert J. Sternberg, which type of intelligence in students is most likely to be favored in conventional schooling?

151) What are the two types of culture-fair tests that have been devised? What are the barriers to creating culture-fair tests?

152)

Define giftedness. Is giftedness a product of heredity or environment? Give one example.

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153) What is subtractive bilingualism? Explain with an example. Describe the positive aspects of bilingual education.

154) Which theory states that memory is best understood by considering two types of memory representation: verbatim memory trace and gist?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch09 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) D 60) B 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) D 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) C 73) C 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) D 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) C 92) D 93) A 94) D 95) D 96) C 97) A 98) C 99) D 100) A 101) B 102) A 103) A 104) B 105) D 106) D 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) C 111) A 112) A 113) D 114) B 115) C 116) D Version 1

117) C 118) B 119) B 120) D 121) D 122) B 123) B 124) B 125) B 126) A 127) D 128) A 129) B 130) Johnson 131) overweight 132) leukemia 133) dyslexia 134) ADHD 135) LRE 136) Working 137) Guilford 138) Sternberg 139) seriation 140) divergent 141) IQ 142) pragmatics 143) phonics

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144) During the elementary school years, children grow an average of 2 to 3 inches a year until, at the age of 11, the average girl is 4 feet, 10 inches tall, and the average boy is 4 feet, 9 inches tall. During the middle and late childhood years, children gain about 5 to 7 pounds a year. The weight increase is due mainly to increases in the size of the skeletal and muscular systems, as well as the size of some body organs. Proportional changes are among the most pronounced physical changes in middle and late childhood. Head circumference and waist circumference decrease in relation to body height. A less noticeable physical change is that bones continue to ossify during middle and late childhood but yield to pressure and pull more than mature bones. 145) Childhood cancers mainly attack the white blood cells, brain, bone, lymph system, muscles, kidneys, and nervous system. The most common type of cancer in children is leukemia, a cancer in which bone marrow manufactures an abundance of abnormal white blood cells that crowd out normal cells, making the child highly susceptible to bruising and infection.

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146) Answers will vary but should incorporate the following: The three types of learning disabilities are dyslexia, dysgraphia, and dyscalculia. Dyslexia is a category of learning disabilities that involves individuals who have a severe impairment in their ability to read and spell. Dysgraphia is a learning disability that involves difficulty in handwriting. Dyscalculia, also known as developmental arithmetic disorder, is a learning disability that involves difficulty in math computation. The precise causes of learning disabilities have not yet been determined. Researchers have used brain-imaging techniques, such as magnetic resonance imaging, to reveal any regions of the brain that might be involved in learning disabilities. This research indicates that it is unlikely learning disabilities reside in a single, specific brain location. More likely, learning disabilities are due to difficulty in integrating information from multiple brain regions or subtle impairments in brain structures and functions. Interventions with children who have a learning disability often focus on improving reading ability. Intensive instruction over a period of time by a competent teacher can help many children. 147) Stimulant medication such as Ritalin or Adderall (which has fewer side effects than Ritalin) is effective in improving the attention of many children with ADHD, but it usually does not improve their attention to the same level as children who do not have ADHD. A meta-analysis concluded that behavior management treatments are effective in reducing the effects of ADHD. Researchers have often found that a combination of medication and behavior management improves the behavior of children with ADHD better than medication alone or behavior management alone, although not in all cases.

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148) Until the 1970s, most U.S. public schools either refused enrollment to children with disabilities or inadequately served them. This changed in 1975 when Public Law 94-142, the Education for All Handicapped Children Act, required that all students with disabilities be given a free, appropriate public education. In 1990, Public Law 94-142 was recast as the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). IDEA was amended in 1997 and then reauthorized in 2004 and renamed the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act. IDEA spells out broad mandates for services to children with disabilities of all kinds. These services include evaluation and eligibility determination, appropriate education and an individualized education plan (IEP), and education in the least restrictive environment (LRE). 149) Convergent thinking produces one correct answer and is characteristic of the kind of thinking tested by standardized intelligence tests. Divergent thinking produces many answers to the same question and characterizes creativity. For example, a typical item on a conventional intelligence test is "How many quarters will you get in return for 60 dimes?" In contrast, the following question has many possible answers: "What image comes to mind when you hear the phrase 'sitting alone in a dark room' or 'some unique uses for a paper clip'?" Among the likely causes of the creativity decline are the number of hours U.S. children spend watching TV and playing video games instead of engaging in creative activities, as well as the lack of emphasis on creative thinking skills in schools.

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150) According to Robert J. Sternberg, students with high analytic ability tend to be favored in conventional schooling. They often do well under direct instruction, in which the teacher lectures and gives students objective tests. They often are considered to be "smart" students who get good grades, show up in high-level tracks, do well on traditional tests of intelligence and the SAT, and later get admitted to competitive colleges. 151) Two types of culture-fair tests have been devised. The first type includes items that are familiar to children from all socioeconomic and ethnic backgrounds, or items that at least are familiar to the children taking the test. For example, a child might be asked how a bird and a dog are different, on the assumption that all children have been exposed to birds and dogs. The second type of culture-fair test has no verbal questions. Most tests tend to reflect what the dominant culture thinks is important. If tests have time limits, that will bias the test against groups not concerned with time. If languages differ, the same words might have different meanings for different language groups. Even pictures can produce bias because some cultures have less experience with drawings and photographs. Because of such difficulties in creating culture-fair tests, Robert Sternberg concludes that there are no culture-fair tests, only culture-reduced tests.

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152) People who are gifted have above-average intelligence (an IQ of 130 or higher) and/or superior talent for something. It is likely that giftedness is a product of both heredity and environment. Individuals who are gifted recall that they had signs of high ability in a particular area at a very young age, prior to or at the beginning of formal training. This suggests the importance of innate ability in giftedness. However, researchers have also found that individuals with world-class status in the arts, mathematics, science, and sports all report strong family support and years of training and practice. Deliberate practice is an important characteristic of individuals who become experts in a particular domain. For example, in one study, the best musicians engaged in twice as much deliberate practice over their lives as did the least successful ones. 153) A particular type of bilingualism occurs when immigrant children have used only their native language at home and then must learn the main language of a new country at school. For example, in the United States, many immigrant children go from being monolingual in their home language to bilingual in that language and in English, only to end up being monolingual speakers of English. This is called subtractive bilingualism, and it can have negative effects on children, who often become ashamed of their home language. Research supports bilingual education, in that (1) children have difficulty learning a subject when it is taught in a language they do not understand, and (2) when both languages are integrated in the classroom, children learn the second language more readily and participate more actively. 154) This describes fuzzy trace theory.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following statements about the development of self-understanding in children is true?

A) Self-understanding becomes more complex in middle and late childhood. B) From 8 to 11 years of age, self-understanding is focused on the description of physical characteristics. C) During the elementary school years, children are less likely to recognize social aspects of the self. D) Children's self-understanding in the elementary school years includes distinguishing themselves from others in absolute terms.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Self-Understanding

2) In terms of self-understanding, children in late childhood are more likely than children in early childhood to

A) compare themselves with others. B) refrain from social comparison. C) use physical characteristics to describe themselves. D) use outer states to describe themselves.

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3) In the context of emotional and personality development, which of the following is true of perspective taking?

A) This social cognitive process involves understanding others’ viewpoints, thoughts, and feelings. B) It is referred to as the global evaluative dimension of the self. C) It is referred to as the domain-specific evaluation of the self. D) It is the belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes in comparison to the performance of peers.

4) In the context of emotional and personality development, identify a true statement about perspective taking.

A) Executive function is at work in perspective taking. B) Children decrease their perspective taking in middle and late childhood. C) Perspective taking refers to global evaluations of the self. D) Perspective taking hinders children's likelihood of understanding and sympathizing with others.

In the context of prosocial behavior, which of the following is true of perspective taking?

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A) It improves children's likelihood of understanding and sympathizing with others when they are distressed or in need. B) It makes children become less skeptical of others' claims. C) It is likely to make children engage in more aggressive and oppositional behavior. D) It plays a minimal role in determining whether children develop prosocial attitudes and behavior.

6) In terms of _____ behavior, taking another's perspective improves children's likelihood of understanding and sympathizing with others when they are distressed or in need.

A) aggressive B) antisocial C) atypical D) prosocial

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : The Self

7) Eight-year-old Trey stands in front of a group of kids and says, "I am smart." Which of the following is the most plausible reaction to this incident?

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A) Children 6 years of age are more likely to reject Trey's self-report. B) Children 9 years of age are more likely to reject Trey's self-report. C) Children 5–6 years of age are more likely to reject Trey's self-report. D) Children 10–11 years of age are more likely to accept Trey's self-report.

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Which of the following terms refers to domain-specific evaluations of the self?

A) self-concept B) self-esteem C) self-awareness D) self-control

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Self-Esteem

_____ refers to global evaluations of the self.

A) Self-control B) Self-concept C) Self-esteem D) Self-awareness

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10)

_____ is also called self-worth or self-image.

A) Self-control B) Self-esteem C) Self-efficacy D) Self-concept

11)

Mary thinks that she is a good person. This observation reflects Mary's

A) self-control. B) self-concept. C) self-efficacy. D) self-esteem.

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12)

When Robert says, "I have brown eyes and black hair," it reflects Robert's

A) self-control. B) self-concept. C) self-efficacy. D) self-esteem.

13)

Which of the following is true of the consequences of low self-esteem in children?

A) It makes children prone to both prosocial and antisocial actions. B) It has been implicated in overweight and obesity, anxiety, depression, suicide, and delinquency. C) It often translates into an arrogant, grandiose, and unwarranted sense of superiority over others. D) It reflects accurate perceptions of their worth.

14)

Children with high self-esteem typically

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A) become bullies as they grow up. B) are prone to both prosocial and antisocial actions. C) tend to be insecurely attached to their parents. D) have low initiative, which produces uniquely positive outcomes.

15)

Which of the following statements about children's self-esteem is true?

A) Children have the highest self-esteem when they perform competently in domains that are important to them. B) Self-esteem decreases when children face a problem and try to cope with it. C) Self-esteem increases when children avoid a problem. D) The straightforward teaching of real skills to children often results in decreased achievement and, thus, in diminished self-esteem.

16) Many of today's children grow up receiving praise for mediocre or even poor performance. What could be a possible consequence of this practice?

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A) They tend to undervalue the rewards that aggression can bring. B) The increased self-esteem produces better school performance. C) They are increasingly prone to developing antisocial behaviors. D) They may have difficulty handling competition and criticism.

17)

Children have the highest self-esteem when

A) they are competent in all tasks that are given to them. B) they perform competently in domains that are important to them. C) they are extrinsically rewarded by role models. D) they are encouraged to avoid the problems they face rather than cope with them.

18)

The belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes is called

A) self-concept. B) self-confidence. C) self-efficacy. D) self-esteem.

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19) According to Albert Bandura, which of the following statements is most likely to be endorsed by students with high self-efficacy?

A) "I think I am better than everyone else." B) "I wish I could perform well in sports." C) "I will not be able to do well at this activity." D) "I know that I will be able to achieve the objective in this class."

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20) Students with _____ endorse such statements as "I know that I will be able to learn the material in this class" and "I expect to be able to do well at this activity."

A) high self-efficacy B) high self-esteem C) low self-efficacy D) low self-esteem

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21)

According to Albert Bandura, which of the following is true of self-efficacy?

A) It is a critical factor in whether or not students achieve. B) It is characterized by deliberate efforts to manage one's behavior, emotions, and thoughts. C) It is linked to developmental advances in the brain's prefrontal cortex. D) It refers to global evaluations of the self.

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22) Students with _____ for learning may avoid many learning tasks, especially those that are challenging.

A) high self-efficacy B) a diffused self-concept C) low self-efficacy D) low self-awareness

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23) Which of the following accurately reflects Dale Schunk's findings about students with high self-efficacy?

A) They are less likely than students with low self-efficacy to expend effort on learning tasks. B) They have an "I cannot" attitude and frequently experience helplessness. C) They persist longer at learning tasks than students with low self-efficacy. D) They avoid learning tasks, especially those that are challenging.

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24) The increased capacity for self-regulation that is seen in middle and late childhood is linked to developmental advances in the

A) brain's hypothalamus. B) hippocampus. C) brain's prefrontal cortex. D) amygdala.

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25) Darren is an active 12-year-old boy. When his friend Simon cheats in a game, Darren tends to get irritated. However, Darren controls his anger and tries explaining to Simon why cheating is bad. Which developmental aspect is Darren displaying in his actions?

A) low self-esteem B) self-regulation C) high self-esteem D) self-efficacy

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26) In the context of emotional and personality development in middle and late childhood, which of the following is true of self-regulation?

A) Low self-regulation is linked to a narrowing gap in low-SES children's emotional problems. B) High self-regulation is linked to higher levels of deviant behavior. C) It leads to decreased social competence and achievement. D) It is characterized by deliberate efforts to manage one's behavior, emotions, and thoughts.

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27) Erik Erikson's fourth stage of development, which appears during middle and late childhood, is called

A) industry versus inferiority. B) trust versus mistrust. C) integrity versus despair. D) autonomy versus shame and doubt.

28) Julio, a 12-year-old, cannot get his science project to work. In fact, it seems to him that nothing he makes ever works properly. In the context of Erik Erikson's eight stages of human development, Julio is at risk for developing a sense of

A) stagnation. B) inferiority. C) shame and doubt. D) identity diffusion.

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29) In the context of the developmental changes in emotions during the middle and late childhood years, who among the following children most likely exhibits the ability to suppress or conceal negative emotional reactions?

A) Chris, who has learned to tone down his anger when one of his classmates irritates him B) Lila, who is aware that her sadness today is influenced by her friend's move to another town C) Damian, who realizes that achieving something might involve both anxiety and joy D) Broderick, who feels sympathy for a distressed person and vicariously experiences the sadness the person is feeling

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30) The floods in the Midwest left 40,000 people homeless, and Keith's family is one of the families affected by the disaster. Keith is trying to help his son, Judd, cope with the tragedy. Keith should do which of the following to help Judd cope with the stress?

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A) Keith should allow Judd to retell the details of the event and should be patient in listening to him. B) Keith should discourage Judd from talking about disturbing feelings related to the event. C) Keith should allow Judd to watch repeated news footage of the tragedy. D) Keith should encourage discussion of the event with others in front of Judd.

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31) In 2020, the abrupt emergence of the worldwide spread of _____ took everyone by surprise and increased the stress and anxiety levels of many adults and children.

A) COVID-19 B) the flu C) political radicalism D) the TikTok craze

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32) Which of the following is an aspect of social-emotional learning that the Second Step program focuses on in pre-K?

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A) executive function skills B) problem-solving skills C) communication skills D) decision-making skills

33)

Which of the following is an important distinction between psychiatrist and psychologist?

A) Unlike a psychiatrist, a psychologist cannot prescribe medication. B) Unlike a psychiatrist, a psychologist has a medical degree. C) Unlike a psychiatrist, a psychologist has an undergraduate degree. D) Unlike a psychiatrist, a psychologist must spend 3 to 4 years as a resident physician.

34)

Lawrence Kohlberg studied moral development by

A) identifying the personality type related to high and low self-esteem in children. B) presenting children with a series of stories in which characters face moral dilemmas. C) observing children interact with each other when they were in conflict. D) interviewing families about how they have taught moral principles to their children.

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35) Megan bases her moral decisions on fear of punishment. In the context of Kohlberg's levels of moral thinking, Megan is currently in the _____ reasoning level of moral thinking.

A) preconventional B) conventional C) interconventional D) postconventional

36) Tapi believes that all human beings have certain inalienable rights that need to be protected. She believes that the current law in her country that prohibits interracial marriage is unfair and should be changed. In the context of Kohlberg's levels of moral thinking, which of the following describes Tapi's level of moral reasoning?

A) postconventional B) conventional C) preconventional D) universal

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37) When asked why she participated with other students in a protest against the treatment of women on her university campus, Kai says that all human beings should have equal rights. According to Kai, the university has rules that are unfair to women; and she is morally against such discriminatory practices. Kai is likely operating at the _____ reasoning level of Kohlberg's theory.

A) postconventional B) conventional C) unconventional D) preconventional

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38) A person who is arrested for stealing company documents says, "Yes, I did steal the documents, and I am willing to go to jail for it. These documents prove that the company was engaging in a cover-up of the unsafe properties of its chemical. I think the public has a right to know about it." Lawrence Kohlberg would classify this person as using _____ reasoning.

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A) conventional B) unconventional C) preconventional D) postconventional

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39) Kohlberg emphasized perspective taking and _____ as critical aspects of the social stimulation that challenges children to change their moral reasoning.

A) sibling interaction B) peer interaction C) parental influence D) teachers' influence

40) Which of the following is among the criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

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A) Kohlberg's theory is based on the prevention of suffering of others. B) Compassion is given too much importance in Kohlberg's theory. C) There is too much emphasis on moral thought and not enough emphasis on moral behavior. D) There is no emphasis on the need for justice in matters of morality.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Kohlberg's Critics

41) In a survey, participants were asked whether buying a stolen television is morally right. More than 80 percent of the respondents said that it is morally wrong. However, 50 percent of the respondents admitted that they would buy the television if guaranteed that they would not be caught. This scenario reflects what observation made by critics of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory on moral development?

A) As people age, their moral reasoning is increasingly based on the application of standards set by others. B) Moral thinking is an intuitive gut reaction. C) Purchasing stolen property is an accepted social convention. D) Moral reasoning can sometimes be a shelter for immoral behavior.

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42) Which of the following statements accurately reflects criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

A) Kohlberg's theory stresses that moral thoughts are essentially unimportant in children's moral development. B) Kohlberg's approach misses or misconstrues some important moral concepts in specific cultures. C) Kohlberg's theory puts relationships and concern for others above abstract principles. D) Kohlberg's approach emphasizes that morality begins with rapid evaluative judgments of others.

43) Which of the following statements reflects Carol Gilligan's criticism of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

A) Kohlberg's theory is based on a male norm that puts abstract principles above relationships and concern for others. B) Kohlberg's theory sees an individual as a product of a family process and as dependent on that process to make moral decisions. C) Kohlberg's theory does not capture much of the moral reasoning voiced in various cultures around the world. D) Kohlberg's theory places too much emphasis on moral behavior and not enough emphasis on moral thought.

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44) Which of the following is a component of Carol Gilligan's criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development.

A) Kohlberg's theory puts too much emphasis on interpersonal communication. B) Kohlberg's theory views people in terms of their connectedness with others. C) Kohlberg's theory takes a care perspective with regard to moral development. D) Kohlberg's theory puts justice at the heart of morality.

45) In contrast with Kohlberg's theory, Gilligan argues for a(n) _____ perspective that views people in terms of their connectedness with others and emphasizes interpersonal communication, relationships with others, and concern for others.

A) justice B) care C) nonegocentric D) egocentric

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46) With regard to morality, 18-year-old Nasrin believes that the focus should be on abstract principles rather than on relationships and concern for others. Therefore, she has a(n) _____ perspective on morality.

A) prosocial B) care C) justice D) unconventional

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47) Social psychologist Jonathan Haidt has challenged Kohlberg’s theory as being preoccupied with deliberation. Haidt believes that moral thinking is more often

A) an intuitive gut reaction. B) asking too much of people. C) counterintuitive and the wrong choice. D) a matter of negotiation with others.

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48) Fernando does not cut in line, he raises his hand in class before talking, and he stops his car at stop signs on the road. He focuses on rules that have been established by social consensus in order to control behavior and maintain the social system. Which of the following best describes Fernando's reasoning? Version 1

A) prosocial reasoning B) social order reasoning C) social consensus reasoning D) social conventional reasoning

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49) In the context of domain theory, which of the following scenarios best represents social conventional reasoning?

A) Sheila raising her hand before speaking in class B) Monica providing the airport staff with her passport before boarding her flight C) Damian undergoing a medical test before donating blood to another person D) Mathew punishing his son for lying

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50) and

In the context of domain theory, moral rules are widely accepted, somewhat impersonal,

Version 1

A) arbitrary. B) obligatory. C) only applicable to certain individuals. D) subject to change by social consensus.

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51) Four-year-old Maria is sharing one of her favorite toys with her younger brother. In the context of the developmental progression described by William Damon, Maria's sharing is most likely motivated by a sense of

A) equality. B) obligation. C) moral duty. D) benevolence.

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52)

Children's sharing comes to reflect a more complex sense of what is just and right during

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A) middle and late infancy. B) late infancy. C) middle and late childhood. D) early adolescence.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. Topic : Social Cognition Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

53) It is common to hear children start using the wordfair as a synonym forequal orsame starting at around _____ years of age.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10

54) Individuals who _____ have the moral personality, identity, character, and set of virtues that reflect moral excellence and commitment.

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A) have a moral character B) have a moral identity C) are characterized as moral exemplars D) are characterized as gender-biased

55) Broad categories that reflect general impressions and beliefs about males and females, such as "boys play with trucks and girls play with dolls," are known as gender

A) identities. B) constancies. C) stereotypes. D) roles.

56) Tamara often tells her daughter that a well-adjusted girl is supposed to be dependent, nurturing, and uninterested in power. She also believes that girls should learn to cook and take care of the household. Tamara's notion reflects

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A) gender stereotypes. B) gender constancies. C) gender identities. D) gender schemas.

57) A recent large-scale study of seventh-graders found that girls’ perception that teachers had gendered expectations favoring boys over girls was linked to

A) girls having more negative math beliefs and lower math achievement. B) generally negative attitudes toward teachers. C) generally negative attitudes toward boys. D) generally negative attitudes toward each other.

58)

One area of math that boys are found to be better at is

A) advanced calculus. B) numeracy skills. C) visuospatial skills. D) computation skills.

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59) According to research, in which of the following areas do girls exhibit better skills than boys?

A) visuospatial skills B) verbal skills C) physical skills D) mathematical skills

60)

Males report experiencing and expressing more _____ than do females.

A) joy B) fear C) anger D) shame

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61)

Across childhood and adolescence, research suggests that

A) females engage in more prosocial behavior than males do. B) males engage in more prosocial behavior than females do. C) girls are likely to be more aggressive than boys. D) boys are better at reading and writing than girls.

62) Which of the following is true of the differences in the helping behavior of males and females?

A) Females are helpful irrespective of the situation. B) Males are more helpful when the context is masculine in nature. C) Males are more likely to engage in caregiving behavior. D) Females are more likely to help when the other person involved is also female.

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63) Which of the following statements about developmental changes in parent-child relationships is true?

A) As children move into the middle and late childhood years, parents spend considerably less time with them. B) Parents play a minimal role in supporting children's academic achievement in middle and late childhood. C) Fathers are more likely than mothers to engage in a managerial role in parenting. D) Family management practices are positively related to school-related problems.

64) Middle childhood is a period in which some control is transferred from parent to child. This process is gradual and produces

A) deregulation. B) socioregulation. C) coregulation. D) bioregulation.

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65)

Which of the following is a key developmental task as children move toward autonomy?

A) regulating to have complete control over their own lives B) learning to relate to adults outside the family on a regular basis C) learning to live with deprivation of privileges D) exercising supervision and control of younger siblings

66) In the context of developmental changes in parent-child relationships, which of the following is true of family management practices?

A) They are positively related to students' grades. B) They are positively related to school-related problems. C) They are negatively related to students' self-responsibility. D) Fathers are more likely than mothers to engage in a managerial role.

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67) Angie's mother allows her to schedule her study and relaxation time on her own and, in turn, expects Angie to continue doing well in school and to discuss her activities ahead of time. Her mother frequently checks on her school progress and talks to her about her problems and her social life. In this context, Angie's mother's approach to parent-child relationships is most likely to be a process of

A) boundary ambiguity. B) latchkey control. C) unilateral control. D) coregulation.

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68) In the context of parent-child relationships, the major shift to autonomy with regard to children does not occur until about age _____ or later.

A) 5 B) 9 C) 12 D) 16

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69)

Only _____ of stepfamily couples stay remarried.

A) one-fourth B) one-third C) one-half D) three-fourths

70)

Which of the following statements is true regarding stepfamilies?

A) Most stepfamilies are preceded by divorce rather than the death of a spouse. B) Stepfamilies include far more infants or preschool children than elementary and secondary school children. C) The histories and multiple relationships involved in stepfamilies make adjustment between the couples simpler. D) In stepmother families, the mother typically has custody of the children and remarries, introducing a stepfather into her children's lives.

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71) An analysis of stepfamilies found that _____ percent of children in stepfamilies show adjustment problems.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 40 D) 50

72) Erica, who has two children, marries Wayne. Wayne has a daughter from his previous marriage. After the union, their family will be considered a _____ stepfamily.

A) complex B) segregated C) simple D) mixed

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73)

Peer competence in middle and late childhood has been linked to

A) better satisfaction in marriage in early adulthood. B) less depression in middle adulthood. C) better job performance in middle adulthood. D) better relationships with coworkers in early adulthood.

74) Which of the following statements is true of peer groups and peer interactions in middle and late childhood?

A) Children in middle and late childhood spend approximately 30 percent of their time with peers. B) The size of the peer group decreases with the age of the child. C) Children under 12 years of age prefer mixed-sex peer groups to same-sex peer groups. D) As children move through middle and late childhood, peer interaction is more closely supervised by adults.

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75) The extent to which children are liked or disliked by their peer group is called their _____ status.

A) psychometric B) socioeconomic C) popularity D) sociometric

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76)

According to developmentalists, which of the following is a peer status among children?

A) gifted children B) neglected children C) homeschooled children D) conforming children

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77) Benjamin, a student, sits at the back of the classroom. Only few children in the class know his name. He does not have any best friends, but he is not disliked by his classmates. Which of the following is Benjamin's probable peer status?

A) popular B) neglected C) rejected D) controversial

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78) Most of Blanca's classmates call her a "bully," and many say that they "don't like her at all." Only a few children consider her to be a friend. Which of the following is Blanca's probable peer status?

A) popular B) neglected C) rejected D) controversial

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79) In the context of peer statuses, _____ children give out reinforcements, listen carefully, maintain open lines of communication with peers, are happy, control their negative emotions, act like themselves, show enthusiasm and concern for others, and are self-confident without being conceited.

A) rejected B) controversial C) average D) popular

80) Anthony is rarely nominated as someone's best friend. He is actively disliked by many children in his class. In the context of peer statuses, Anthony would be classified as a(n) _____ child.

A) controversial B) rejected C) neglected D) average

Version 1

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81) Gavin is rarely nominated as a best friend, but his peers don't dislike him. In the context of peer statuses, Gavin would be classified as a(n) _____ child.

A) controversial B) rejected C) neglected D) average

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82) In the context of the five peer statuses distinguished by developmentalists, _____ are frequently nominated both as someone's best friend and as being disliked.

A) controversial children B) average children C) neglected children D) rejected children

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83) According to John Coie, which of the following is a reason why aggressive, peer-rejected boys have problems in social relationships?

A) They are more impulsive and have problems sustaining attention. B) They are less emotionally reactive. C) They receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations from their peers. D) They are unappreciated by their parents and teachers.

84)

How can rejected children be trained to interact more effectively with their peers?

A) They should be kept isolated from their peers to prevent aggressive outbursts. B) They should be taught to more accurately assess whether the intentions of their peers are negative. C) They should be taught to stay away from their peers in order to prevent confrontations. D) They should be subjected to corporal punishment whenever they exhibit aggressive behavior toward their peers.

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85) An aggressive boy's interpretation of an encounter as hostile and his classmates' perception of his behavior as inappropriate illustrate _____ in behavior development.

A) stereotyping B) cognitive dissonance C) cultural bias D) social cognition

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86) According to Kenneth Dodge, aggressive boys are more likely to perceive another child's actions as hostile when

A) their self-esteem is challenged. B) the child's intention is ambiguous. C) their aggressive responses can be exercised discreetly. D) the child presents himself or herself as a weak and gullible victim.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Social Cognition null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during middle childhood.

87) Which of the following statements is true of bullying in the social context of a peer group?

A) Frequent bullying is linked to high social status as indexed by perceived popularity in the peer group. B) Bullies are usually rejected by their peer group. C) Classmates of bullying victims are usually unaware of bullying incidents. D) Bullies avoid tormenting victims in front of their peers.

88) Which of the following types of bullying is experienced more frequently by boys than girls?

A) subject of sexual comments or gestures B) subject of rumors C) belittled about religion or race D) belittled about looks or speech

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89) Based on the research, which of the following statements is true of traditional bullying and cyberbullying?

A) Traditional bullying occurs twice as much as cyberbullying does. B) Cyberbullying is more strongly associated with suicidal ideation than traditional bullying is. C) Those who engage in cyberbullying are unlikely to engage in traditional bullying. D) Adolescents experiencing social and emotional difficulties are more likely to be traditionally bullied than to be cyberbullied.

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90)

Which of the following is true of bullying?

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A) One of the most effective interventions focuses on reducing opportunities and rewards for bullying. B) Frequent bullying is linked to low social status as indexed by perceived popularity in the peer group. C) A recent meta-analysis indicates that positive parenting behavior is related to a greater likelihood of becoming a victim of bullying at school. D) Children who are bullied are more likely to have low grades and to smoke cigarettes and drink alcohol.

91)

In the context of children's development, identify a true statement about friendship.

A) Like adult friendships, children's friendships are characterized by dissimilarity. B) Throughout childhood, friends are more similar than dissimilar in terms of age, sex, race, and many other factors. C) Friends often have dissimilar attitudes toward school and educational aspirations. D) It is often developmentally beneficial to have coercive and conflict-ridden friendships.

92)

Popular children

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A) are infrequently nominated as someone's best friend and are actively disliked by their peers. B) are infrequently nominated as a best friend but are not disliked by their peers. C) receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations from their peers. D) are frequently nominated as a best friend and are rarely disliked by their peers.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during middle childhood. Topic : Peer Status

93) A recent study of adolescents (Esposito, Bacchini, & Affuso, 2019) showed that peer rejection increases the likelihood that victims and bullies would engage in

A) non-suicidal self-injury, such as cutting, burning, or hitting oneself. B) suicide or homicide before high school graduation. C) abuse of their own children as young parents later in their lives. D) aggressive bullying and intimidation of weaker peers in early adulthood.

94) In the context of children's development, which of the following is true of children's friendships?

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A) Throughout childhood, friends are more dissimilar than similar in terms of sex. B) Friends usually have different achievement orientations. C) Children's friendships are typically characterized by similarity. D) Children's friendships are all typically alike.

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95)

Dan Olweus' bullying intervention program focuses on

A) skills training for victims of bullying, especially in self-defense and assertion techniques. B) decreasing opportunities and rewards for bullying. C) moving victims of bullying to a different classroom, where they feel safer. D) ostracizing bullies and empowering victims.

96) Johnny says he likes his best friend, Andy, because Andy is fun and talks about interesting things. Johnny also says that Andy encourages him to do his best and comforts him when he fails. Which of the following functions of children's friendships is Johnny most likely describing?

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A) stimulation and ego support B) companionship and social comparison C) physical support and intimacy/affection D) social comparison and intimacy/affection

97) In the context of children's friendships, which of the following represents the function of social comparison served by friendship?

A) Friendship provides children with interesting information, excitement, and amusement. B) Friendship provides information about where a child stands vis-à-vis others and whether the child is doing okay. C) Friendship provides resources and assistance. D) Friendship provides children with a warm, close, and trusting relationship with another individual.

98) Ten-year-old Jose finds that he needs to talk to Richard, his friend, in order to know whether his feelings about his own brothers and sisters are normal. Which friendship function does Richard provide in this case?

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A) companionship B) ego support C) social comparison D) intimacy/affection

99) Which of the following functions of friendship involves providing resources and assistance?

A) physical support B) affection and intimacy C) ego support D) social comparison

100) Which of the following functions of friendship involves providing encouragement and feedback, thus allowing children to maintain an impression of themselves as competent, attractive, and worthwhile individuals?

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A) physical support B) affection and intimacy C) social comparison D) ego support

101) Which of the following functions of friendship involves providing interesting information, excitement, and amusement?

A) physical support B) stimulation C) social comparison D) ego support

102)

_____ is characterized by self-disclosure and the sharing of private thoughts.

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A) Ego support B) Intimacy in friendships C) Physical support D) Social comparison

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103) The belief that children should be encouraged to explore their world and discover knowledge with the guidance and support of teachers is central to the ______ approach to learning.

A) constructivist B) social cognitive C) direct instruction D) collaborative

104) Mr. Trahan teaches English. He adopts a constructivist approach to learning. In his classroom, it is most likely that the students will be

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A) working in groups to discover the meaning of a poem. B) passively learning relevant information about a poem from Mr. Trahan. C) memorizing the names of all of Shakespeare's plays. D) learning aspects of a play without the guidance of Mr. Trahan.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Constructivist and Direct Instruction Approaches

105) Educational experts agree that students with a disability in reading or writing will do best in a _____ approach.

A) direct instruction B) peer-led discussion C) constructivist D) group discussion

106)

Unlike the constructivist approach to instruction, the direct instruction approach

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A) is a structured, teacher-centered approach that is characterized by high teacher expectations for students' progress. B) is a learner-centered approach that emphasizes the importance of individuals actively constructing their knowledge and understanding with guidance from a teacher. C) emphasizes active learning and adequately challenges children to think in critical and creative ways. D) is characterized by maximum time spent by students on nonacademic tasks.

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107) Karius, a school teacher, is an advocate of the constructivist approach to instruction. Based on this information, Karius is most likely to

A) encourage children to work with each other in their efforts to know and understand. B) simply pour information into children's minds. C) encourage children to rotely memorize irrelevant as well as relevant information. D) direct and control children and also encourage them to spend maximum time on academic tasks.

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108) What is the result of the public and government demand for increased accountability from schools?

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A) the spread of state-mandated testing to measure just what students had or had not learned B) the inclusion of government evaluators for academic curricula C) the separation of academic responsibilities into private coaching and government assessment D) the inclusion of new legislation for the assessment of teaching and supporting staff in schools

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109) According to the advocates of state-mandated testing, which of the following results are believed to be positive outcomes of the testing?

A) increased emphasis on the education of gifted students B) increased student performance and more time teaching subjects tested C) a holistic approach to testing a student's social skills, flexible thinking, and creativity D) integration of all learning styles and teaching styles into the curriculum

110) In the context of school accountability, which of the following is among the criticisms of state-wide standardized testing?

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A) Teachers spend less time teaching the subjects that are tested. B) Teachers end up spending far too much class time focusing on the development of thinking skills. C) Students feel pressured to achieve high test scores, as high expectations are placed on them. D) Using a single test as the sole indicator of students' progress and competence presents a very narrow view of students' skills.

111)

Identify a true statement about schools in low-income areas.

A) They are less likely to have young teachers with less experience. B) They are less likely to encourage rote learning. C) They are likely to have more students with low achievement test scores. D) They are likely to be conducive to effective learning.

112)

Which of the following is true of schools in low-income areas?

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A) They have higher attendance compared with schools in high-income areas. B) Federal and state governments actively participate in the facilitation and assessment of the curricula. C) They have very high graduation rates. D) Teaching is more likely to encourage rote learning.

113) Which of the following is among the criticisms of the No Child Left Behind (NCLB) legislation?

A) Under the NCLB legislation, teachers end up spending far too much class time focusing on the development of thinking skills. B) The tests used as part of NCLB do not create high expectations for all students. C) Under the NCLB legislation, gifted students might be neglected in an effort to raise the achievement level of students who are not doing well. D) The NCLB legislation has neglected identification of poorly performing schools, teachers, and administrators.

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114) Which of the following is linked to the poor performance of American children in math and science as compared to Asian children?

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A) Asian teachers spend less time teaching math than American teachers do. B) Asian parents have much lower expectations for their children's education and achievement than American parents do. C) American parents are more likely to say that their children's math achievement is the consequence of effort and training. D) American parents are more likely to believe that their children's math achievement is due to innate ability.

115) Which of the following is a strategy for improving relationships among ethnically diverse students in schools?

A) reducing bias by refraining from displaying images of children from diverse ethnic and cultural groups in classrooms B) avoiding sharing one's worries, successes, failures, coping strategies, interests, and other personal information with people of other ethnicities C) placing students from different cultural backgrounds in a cooperative group in which they have to construct different parts of a project to reach a common goal D) encouraging students to look at others as members of a homogeneous group rather than as individuals

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116)

Carol Dweck refers to the cognitive view individuals develop for themselves as

A) self-efficacy. B) metacognition. C) a mindset. D) a mind map.

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117) Carol Dweck concluded that individuals have one of two mindsets—namely, a fixed mindset or a _____ mindset.

A) variable B) growth C) open D) apathetic

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118) Individuals with a(n) _____ mindset believe their qualities can change and improve through their own effort.

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A) variable B) apathetic C) open D) growth

119) Karen believes that her qualities and learning abilities cannot change, despite all her efforts. Therefore, she has decided not to try at all and let her grades plummet. In the context of Carol Dweck's description of mindsets, which of the following best describes Karen's mindset?

A) variable mindset B) apathetic mindset C) fixed mindset D) growth mindset

120)

According to Carol Dweck, which of the following is true of a growth mindset?

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A) Children with a growth mindset believe that their qualities cannot change. B) Students from lower-income families are more likely to have a growth mindset than their counterparts from wealthier families. C) Recent research indicates that many parents and teachers with growth mindsets successfully instill them in children and adolescents. D) Teachers can increase adolescents' growth mindset by functioning as a partner with them in the learning process.

121) David Yeager and his colleagues (2018) conducted a national intervention study in which a brief, online, direct-to-student growth mindset intervention

A) improved the challenge-seeking mental activity of higher achievers. B) lowered the grade point average of overachieving students. C) lowered the challenge-seeking mental activity of higher achievers. D) altered the math performances of sixth-grade immigrant boys.

122) Which of the following is a recommendation offered by Eva Pomerantz for parents who want to increase the motivation of their children and adolescents to do well in school?

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A) Parents should realize that children's and adolescents' abilities are not fixed and can change. B) Parents should avoid getting involved often in their children's and adolescents' academic life. C) Parents should understand that all children and adolescents are similar. D) Parents should follow an authoritarian style of parenting to produce emotional stability in their children and adolescents.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 123) Identify the social cognitive theorist (last name only) who stated that self-efficacy is a critical factor in whether or not students achieve. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

124) Identify the psychosocial theorist (last name only) who proposed that there are eight stages of human development. The fourth stage, industry versus inferiority, appears during middle and late childhood.

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125) Identify the theorist (last name only) who criticized Kohlberg's theory of moral development, arguing that it reflects a gender bias, and proposed an alternative perspective that emphasizes connectedness with others. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Kohlberg's Critics

126) What is the term for the belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Self-Efficacy Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

127) The third level of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning—the highest level, where morality is more internal—is known as _____ reasoning.

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128) Children who are infrequently nominated as someone's best friend and are actively disliked by peers have the peer status of _____ child. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during middle childhood. Topic : Peer Status

129) The structured, teacher-centered approach to instruction that is oriented toward the goal of maximizing student learning time is known as the _____ instruction approach. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Constructivist and Direct Instruction Approaches

130) Leilani is in a class where the teacher emphasizes learning through things such as drama productions, team activities, and a variety of other activities. The class works in cooperative groups for history reports and science projects. The teaching style that Leilani's teacher is utilizing is known as the _____ classroom.

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131) What is the term, according to Carol Dweck, for a cognitive view that individuals develop for themselves? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 132) How does the development of self-understanding change from middle to late childhood? Illustrate your answer with examples.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Self-Understanding

133)

Distinguish between self-esteem and self-concept.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Self-Esteem

134) Defineself-efficacy. How do children with low self-efficacy for learning differ from children with high self-efficacy for learning?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Self-Efficacy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

135)

List and describe the levels of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize emotional and personality development in middle childhood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Kohlberg's Stages

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136) Distinguish between the constructivist and direct instruction approaches to student learning.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Constructivist and Direct Instruction Approaches

137) List three possible problems associated with state-mandated testing in schools, which became national policy in 2002 when the No Child Left Behind (NCLB) legislation was signed into law.

138)

How do schools in low-income areas compare with those in high-income areas?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. Topic : Educating Low-Income Students

139) Mrs. Collins is a teacher who needs to develop a strategy for improving relations among ethnically diverse students. List some strategies that she may employ to obtain positive results.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe schooling during middle childhood. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Topic : Ethnicity in Schools

140) When analyzing the performance of American students with that of students in select Asian countries, what differences did Harold Stevenson and colleagues observe in the Asian and American parents?

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141)

Distinguish between the two types of mindsets as described by Carol Dweck.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch10 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) A 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) B 66) A 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) B Version 1

87) A 88) C 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) B 102) B 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) D 111) C 112) D 113) C 114) D 115) C 116) C Version 1

117) B 118) D 119) C 120) D 121) A 122) A 123) Bandura 124) Erikson 125) Gilligan 126) self-efficacy 127) postconventional 128) rejected 129) direct 130) jigsaw 131) mindset

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132)In middle and late childhood, especially from 8 to 11 years of age, children increasingly describe themselves with psychological characteristics and traits, in contrast with the more concrete selfdescriptions of younger children. For example, older children are more likely to describe themselves using adjectives such as "popular, nice, helpful, mean, smart, and dumb." In addition, during the elementary school years, children become more likely to recognize social aspects of the self. They include references to social groups in their selfdescriptions, such as referring to themselves as Girl Scouts, as Catholics, or as someone who has two close friends. Children's self-understanding in the elementary school years also includes increasing reference to social comparison. At this point in development, children are more likely to distinguish themselves from others in comparative rather than in absolute terms. That is, elementary school-age children are no longer as likely to think about what they do or do not do but are more likely to think about what they can do in comparison with others. In sum, in middle and late childhood, self-description increasingly involves psychological and social characteristics, including social comparison.

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133)Self-esteem refers to global evaluations of the self; it is also called self-worth or self-image. Self-esteem reflects perceptions that do not always match reality. For example, a child may perceive that he or she is not merely a person but a good person. Self-concept refers to domain-specific evaluations of the self. Children can make self-evaluations in many domains of their lives—academic, athletic, appearance, and so on. The foundations of self-esteem and self-concept emerge from the quality of parent-child interaction in infancy and early childhood. Thus, if children have low self-esteem in middle and late childhood, they may have experienced neglect or abuse in relationships with their parents earlier in development. Children with high self-esteem are more likely to be securely attached to parents and have parents who engage in sensitive caregiving. 134)Self-efficacy is the belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes. Children who have low self-efficacy for learning avoid many learning tasks, especially those that are challenging. Children with high self-efficacy for learning are more likely to attempt new learning tasks, expend more effort, and persist longer than children with low self-efficacy. 135)Lawrence Kohlberg describes three levels of moral thinking, each of which is characterized by two stages. Preconventional reasoning is the lowest level of moral reasoning. Conventional reasoning is the second, or intermediate, level in Kohlberg's theory of moral development. At this level, individuals apply certain standards, but they are the standards of others, such as parents or the laws of society. Postconventional reasoning is the highest level in Kohlberg's theory of moral development. At this level, morality is more internal.

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136) The constructivist approach is a learner-centered approach that emphasizes the importance of individuals actively constructing their knowledge and understanding with guidance from the teacher. The direct instruction approach is a structured, teacher-centered approach that is characterized by teacher direction and control, high teacher expectations for students' progress, maximum time spent by students on academic tasks, and efforts by the teacher to keep negative affect to a minimum. 137) According to critics, the NCLB legislation created more problems than it tried to solve. One criticism stresses that using a single test as the sole indicator of students' progress and competence presents a very narrow view of students' skills. Second, teachers end up spending far too much class time "teaching to the test" by drilling students and having them memorize isolated facts rather than focusing on the development of thinking skills, which students need for success in life. Critics also point out that while one of NCLB's goals was to raise standards for achievement in U.S. schools, allowing states to set their own standards has lowered achievement standards. 138)Compared with schools in high-income areas, schools in lowincome areas are more likely to have more students with low achievement test scores, lower graduation rates, and smaller percentages of students going to college; they are more likely to have young teachers with less experience; and they are more likely to encourage rote learning. Only a few schools in low-income neighborhoods provide students with environments that are conducive to learning, and many of the schools' buildings and classrooms are old and crumbling. In sum, far too many schools in low-income neighborhoods provide students with environments that are not conducive to effective learning.

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139)Following are some strategies for improving relationships among ethnically diverse students: Turn the class into a jigsaw classroom where students of different backgrounds are placed into cooperative groups; encourage students to have positive personal contact with diverse other students; reduce bias by doing such things as displaying images of children from diverse ethnic and cultural groups and selecting classroom activities that encourage cultural understanding; view the school and community as a team to help support teaching efforts; and be a competent cultural mediator. 140)The American parents had much lower expectations for their children's education and achievement than did the Asian parents. Also, the American parents were more likely to believe that their children's math achievement was due to innate ability; the Asian parents were more likely to say that their children's math achievement was the consequence of effort and training. The Asian students were more likely to do math homework than were the American students, and the Asian parents were far more likely to help their children with their math homework than were the American parents. 141)Carol Dweck defines mindset as the cognitive view individuals develop for themselves. According to Carol Dweck, every individual has one of two mindsets: a fixed mindset or a growth mindset. A fixed mindset is one in which individuals believe that their qualities are carved in stone and cannot change. A growth mindset is one in which individuals believe their qualities can change and improve through their own effort. Dweck argues that individuals' mindsets influence whether they will be optimistic or pessimistic, what their goals will be and how hard they will strive to reach those goals, and what they will achieve.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is the more accurate vision of adolescence?

A) For most individuals, adolescence is a time of evaluation, decision making, commitment, and carving out a place in the world. B) For most individuals, adolescence is a time of rebellion, crisis, pathology, and deviance. C) Most adolescents have a brush with juvenile delinquency. D) Few adolescents contribute positively to their communities and make a successful transition through adolescence.

2) Which theorist proposed the "storm-and-stress" view that adolescence is a turbulent time charged with conflict and mood swings?

A) Anna Freud B) Jean Piaget C) G. Stanley Hall D) Daniel Offer

Public attitudes about adolescence

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A) emerge from a combination of personal experience and media portrayals. B) reflect an objective picture of how normal adolescents develop. C) portray today's adolescents as less troubled, less self-centered, less assertive, and less adventurous than in the past. D) paint an unrealistically positive picture of adolescents.

Puberty refers to a period of

A) declining abstract thought and emotional maturation during late adolescence involving neural and synaptic development in the brain. B) declining gross motor development during late childhood due to the maturation of the temporal and parietal lobes. C) rapid psychological and emotional maturation that lasts through adolescence and is a product of enhanced cognitive development. D) rapid physical maturation involving hormonal and bodily changes that occur primarily during early adolescence.

For most people, puberty

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A) is the same as adolescence. B) ends long before adolescence does. C) occurs as a single, sudden event. D) has an easily identifiable beginning and ending.

6) Ms. Chang is trying to prepare her health class students for the onset of puberty. What should she tell the boys that they are likely to experience first?

A) the first ejaculation B) voice changes C) increased penis and testicle size D) growth of facial hair

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

Which of the following is typically the last male pubertal characteristic to emerge?

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A) the first ejaculation B) voice changes C) increased penis and testicle size D) growth of facial hair

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

A girl's first menstruation is called

A) gonadarche. B) spermarche. C) menarche. D) adrenarche.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

9) Identify a true statement about sexual maturation and weight changes that occur during puberty.

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A) Growth of facial hair is the first male pubertal characteristic to develop. B) Appearance of hair in the armpits is the first physical change in girls. C) By the end of adolescence, most girls will be taller than boys. D) Marked weight gains coincide with the onset of puberty.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

10)

Which of the following statements is true of the pubertal growth spurt?

A) The growth spurt occurs approximately two years earlier for girls than for boys. B) The mean age at the beginning of the growth spurt in girls is 11. C) The peak rate of pubertal change occurs at 11½ years for boys. D) During their growth spurt, girls increase in height about 4 inches per year.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

11)

The mean age at the beginning of the growth spurt in girls is _____.

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A) 6 B) 9 C) 12 D) 14

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

12) The peak rate of pubertal change occurs at _____ years for girls and _____ years for boys.

A) 13; 14½ B) 12½; 11½ C) 11½; 13½ D) 10½; 13

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

13) _____ are powerful chemical substances secreted by the endocrine glands and carried through the body by the bloodstream.

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A) Carbohydrates B) Phospholipids C) Neurotransmitters D) Hormones

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14) Which of the following hormones is associated with breast, uterine, and skeletal development in girls?

A) adrenaline B) estradiol C) somatostatin D) testosterone

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15) _____ is a hormone associated in boys with genital development, increased height, and a deepening of the voice.

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A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Estradiol D) Progestin

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16) Thirteen-year-old Grace's blood tests indicate that her levels of testosterone are about twice as high as they were a few years ago and that her estradiol levels are about eight times higher than earlier. This indicates that Grace is most likely to

A) undergo normal pubertal changes. B) be depressed and show extreme behavior. C) develop abnormal male physical characteristics. D) develop abnormal female physical characteristics.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Hormonal Changes Topic : Puberty

17) Fourteen-year-old Kent recently received his blood test results. The test results indicate an eighteenfold increase in testosterone levels and a twofold increase in estradiol levels over the past few years. It appears that Kent

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A) is experiencing the normal changes of puberty. B) will be put on hormone therapy to correct the significant imbalances in hormonal levels. C) has abnormal levels of male sex hormones. D) has abnormal levels of female sex hormones.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Hormonal Changes Topic : Puberty

18) In the United States, the average age of menarche has _____ since the mid-nineteenth century.

A) increased marginally B) declined significantly C) increased significantly D) not changed

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Timing and Variations in Puberty

19)

Which of the following statements about the timing and variations in puberty is true?

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A) Two boys of the same chronological age will generally complete the pubertal sequence at the same time. B) Menarche is considered within the normal range for girls if it appears between the ages of 9 and 15. C) Genes have little to do with when and how puberty develops. D) An individual's weight is unrelated to pubertal onset.

20) In the context of pubertal changes, preoccupation with body image is especially acute during

A) early adolescence. B) late adolescence. C) young adulthood. D) late adulthood.

21) In the Berkeley Longitudinal Study some years ago, early-maturing boys perceived themselves _____ than did their late-maturing counterparts. When the late-maturing boys were in their thirties, however, they had developed a _____ than the early-maturing boys had.

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A) as more of an anomaly; stronger feeling of inadequacy B) more positively; stronger sense of identity C) more as misfits; more negative self-image D) more negatively; deeper sense of regret

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Early and Late Maturation Bloom's : Analyze

22) In a study by Simmons and Blyth (1987), in the sixth grade, early-maturing girls showed greater satisfaction with their figures than did late-maturing girls, but by the tenth grade, latematuring girls were more satisfied. A possible reason for this is that in late adolescence, latematuring girls are _____ than early-maturing girls.

A) taller B) more intelligent C) more beautiful D) stockier

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Early and Late Maturation

23) According to various research studies, early-maturing girls are more likely to _____ than late-maturing girls.

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A) have younger friends B) be taller and thinner C) graduate from high school D) have an eating disorder

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Early and Late Maturation

24) Maggie is 14 years old and has not yet matured physically. According to recent research, which of the following will most likely occur by the time Maggie reaches tenth grade?

A) She will be more satisfied with her figure than early-maturing girls. B) She will be less satisfied with her figure than early-maturing girls. C) She will be more likely to have an eating disorder than early-maturing girls. D) She will be more likely to drop out of school than early-maturing girls.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Early and Late Maturation

25) A recent Korean study of more than 30,000 girls found that early menarche was associated with

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A) increased risk-taking. B) reduced risk-taking. C) increased task-focus. D) reduced task-focus.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : Difficulty Level: Medium Bloom's : Remember Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Early and Late Maturation

26) The _____, where fibers connect the brain's left and right hemispheres, thickens in adolescence, and this improves adolescents' ability to process information.

A) amygdala B) corpus callosum C) parietal lobe D) temporal lobe

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Brain Development

27) Gregory is undergoing pubertal changes. He has started using addictive drugs and has started taking an increasing number of risks. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely responsible for these developments?

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A) glycine B) histamine C) dopamine D) serotonin

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Brain Development

28) Donna is concerned about her adolescent daughter's tendency to flare up at the mildest provocations. Donna says that her daughter refuses to see reason sometimes and is unable to exercise much self-control. As a specialist in adolescent development, you would tell Donna that her daughter's behavior could partly be explained by what biological factor?

A) The prefrontal cortex—involved in reasoning and self-control—has developed fully by early adolescence. B) The corpus callosum, where fibers connect the brain's left and right hemispheres, thickens in adolescence. C) By the end of adolescence, individuals have fewer, less selective, and less effective neuronal connections than they did as children. D) The amygdala—the seat of emotions such as anger—matures earlier than the prefrontal cortex in adolescents.

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29) A study by Paus and others (2007) found that the prefrontal cortex thickened and more brain connections formed when adolescents

A) struggled for early independence. B) matured early. C) conformed to the ideal body image. D) resisted peer pressure.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Brain Development null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

30) Adolescent engagement in sexting has become increasingly common. For example, in a recent national study of U.S. middle and high school students, _____ percent reported they had sent a sext, and _____ percent indicated they had received a sext.

A) 13; 18.5 B) 25; 18 C) 50; 70 D) 8; 9

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31)

Identify the true statement about the sexual identity development.

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A) All gays and lesbians quietly struggle with same-sex attractions in childhood. B) An adolescent's sexual identity involves styles of behavior and an indication of sexual orientation. C) The majority of sexual minority adolescents have incompetent and unsuccessful paths of development through adolescence. D) Adolescents with opposite-sex attractions never experience any degree of same-sex attraction.

32) Which of the following statements is true of adolescent sexual behavior in the United States?

A) Oral sex is a common occurrence among American adolescents. B) African Americans are likely to engage in sexual behaviors later than other ethnic groups. C) Asian Americans are likely to engage in sexual behaviors earlier than other ethnic groups. D) The majority of Americans report having their first sexual intercourse before the age of 10.

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33) An Australian study (Prendergast & others, 2019) tells us that sex at age 15 or younger predicts lower rates of

A) emerging adult (average age 21) pregnancy. B) forming lifetime sexual partnerships. C) sex with the use of a condom. D) emerging adult substance use.

34) In a recent study of urban, predominantly Latino and African American adolescents, talk with extended family members about sexual _____ was linked to adolescents having fewer sexual partners, while talk about sexual _____ was associated with adolescents having more sexual partners.

A) protection; risks B) risks; protection C) abuse; abstinence D) abstinence; deviance

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35) Juanita, a Latino girl, is entering adolescence, and her mother wants to keep her from risky sexual behavior. According to research, her mother should

A) engage in a lower level of parental monitoring. B) avoid emphasizing the need for academic excellence. C) foster a close and supportive relationship with Juanita. D) keep Juanita away from adolescent males until she reaches an appropriate age.

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36)

Which of the following are an example of long-acting reversible contraception (LARC)?

A) birth control pills B) condoms C) contraceptive implants D) progesterone injections

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37)

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

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A) are rarely transmitted through oral sex. B) can be prevented by contraceptive pills or implants. C) rarely occur in U.S. adolescents. D) are contracted primarily through sexual contact.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

38) In the United States, 15- to 24-year-olds account for _____ of the 20 million new STI infections each year.

A) 10 percent B) a quarter C) nearly half D) almost 80 percent

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

39) With reference to cross-cultural comparisons, which of the following statements about adolescent pregnancies in the United States is true?

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A) In 2015, the birth rate for 15- to 19-year old girls was the lowest ever recorded in the U.S. B) The U.S. adolescent pregnancy rate is much lower than that in the Netherlands. C) Adolescents in the United States are more sexually active than adolescents in the Netherlands. D) The U.S. adolescent birth rate increased significantly from 2007 to 2009.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Adolescent Pregnancy null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

40) A cross-cultural comparison found that among 21 countries, _____ had the lowest adolescent pregnancy rate among 15- to 19-year-olds.

A) the United States B) Switzerland C) Japan D) the United Kingdom

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Adolescent Pregnancy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy

41)

Research has shown that infants born to adolescent mothers are more likely to have

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A) high birth weight. B) Down syndrome. C) childhood illnesses. D) type II diabetes.

42)

Which of the following is most likely to be true of adolescent mothers?

A) They interact more effectively with infants than do adult mothers. B) Their daughters are at a decreased risk for teenage childbearing. C) They were not good students before they became pregnant. D) Latina and African American adolescent girls who have a child are less likely to have a second child than are non-Latina White adolescent girls.

43) One strategy for reducing adolescent pregnancy is the _____ program, which focuses on engaging adolescents in volunteer community service and stimulates discussions that help adolescents appreciate the lessons they learn through volunteerism.

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A) Health Bridge B) Teen Pregnancy Prevention C) Girls, Inc. D) Will Power/Won't Power

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels Topic : Adolescent Pregnancy

44) A number of leading experts on adolescent sexuality conclude that abstinence-only programs

A) are less effective at reducing the risk of adolescent pregnancy than sex-education programs. B) prevent adolescent pregnancies better than sex-education programs emphasizing contraceptive knowledge. C) are more effective at reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections than sexeducation programs. D) provide useful knowledge about safe sex to sexually active adolescents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels Topic : Adolescent Pregnancy

45) In the context of reducing adolescent pregnancy, several recent research reviews have concluded that abstinence-only programs

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A) are more likely to reduce the risk of adolescent pregnancy than sex education. B) are unable to delay the initiation of sexual intercourse. C) reduce risk behaviors associated with contracting the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). D) result in an increase in the incidence of sexual intercourse.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels Topic : Adolescent Pregnancy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

46)

A national study of U.S. adolescents revealed that physical activity

A) increased until 13 years of age but then declined through 18 years of age. B) in childhood and early adolescence would persist through to adulthood. C) increased until 13 years of age and then remained stable throughout adulthood. D) decreased until 13 years of age and then stabilized through 18 years of age.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research Topic : Exercise

47)

According to a national survey, _____ boys exercised the most, _____ girls the least.

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A) Latino; Latina B) African American; non-Latino White C) Latino; African American and Asian D) non-Latino White; African American and Latino

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Nutrition and Exercise null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research

48) According to the National Center for Health Statistics, about 11 percent of 12- to 19year-olds were overweight in the early 1990s. What percentage were overweight in 2016? A) 8.3 percent B) about 15 percent C) nearly 20.6 percent D) 30.2 percent

49)

Which of the following is true of the relationship between exercise and adolescence?

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A) In adolescents, exercise lowers the incidence of type I diabetes. B) Male adolescents' physical activity is associated with their male friends' physical activity. C) Memory is the cognitive factor that improves the least through exercise in adolescence. D) Individuals become less active as they reach and progress through adolescence.

50) Which of the following describes the findings of a U.S. survey of adolescent sleep patterns conducted by the National Sleep Foundation (2006)?

A) The majority of adolescents sleep an average of 9 hours and 25 minutes on school nights. B) Those adolescents who got inadequate sleep of 8 hours or less during school nights were more likely to drink caffeinated beverages than their counterparts who got optimal sleep of 9 or more hours. C) Adolescents engage in four electronic activities or sometimes simultaneously use multiple devices after 9 p.m. D) Adolescents who got inadequate sleep were no more likely to be in a depressed mood than those who got adequate sleep.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Sleep null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research

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51)

Mary Carskadon and colleagues' research on adolescent sleep patterns found that

A) when given the opportunity, adolescents will sleep an average of 9 hours and 25 minutes a night. B) adolescents' biological clocks undergo a shift as they get older, so that older adolescents start to feel sleepy an hour earlier than younger adolescents. C) younger adolescents tend to be sleepier during the day than older adolescents. D) increased sleepiness in adolescents during the day was primarily due to academic work or social pressures.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Sleep

52) Several research studies were conducted by Mary Carskadon and her colleagues on the sleep patterns of U.S. adolescents. They concluded from the studies that

A) when given the opportunity, adolescents will sleep an average of 7 hours a night. B) older adolescents tend to be sleepier during the day than younger adolescents. C) early school starting times are conducive to the sleep patterns of older adolescents but not to those of younger adolescents. D) adolescents being sleepy during the day is a result of academic work and social pressures.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Sleep

53) In a study of 13- to 19-year-olds in Singapore, short sleep duration of less than 7 hours on school nights was associated with low A) risk of being overweight. B) levels of motivation. C) levels of anxiety. D) risk of self-harm.

54) The Seattle School District recently delayed the school start time for secondary school students. Which of the following occurred as a result?

A) Students showed an increase in tardiness. B) Grades went up by 25 percent. C) School attendance improved. D) Students went to bed later and got even less sleep.

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55) Almost half of all deaths from 15 to 24 years of age are due to _____, with the majority of them involving _____.

A) a chronic disease; cancer B) suicide; alcohol C) homicide; gang activity D) unintentional injuries; motor vehicle accidents

56)

The majority of unintentional injuries in adolescence involve

A) motor vehicle accidents. B) firearms. C) homicide. D) sports-related injuries.

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57)

_____ are the second leading cause of death in adolescence.

A) Motor vehicle accidents B) Suicides C) Homicides D) Chronic diseases

58)

Since the 1950s, the adolescent suicide rate has

A) stayed the same. B) decreased. C) doubled. D) tripled.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Causes of Death

59) In which of the following groups is death through homicide especially common in adolescence?

A) African American males B) Latino males C) non-Latino White American males D) Asian American males

60) The Institute of Social Research at the University of Michigan monitored the drug use of America's high school seniors in a wide range of public and private high schools. They found that the percentage of illicit drug use

A) has been declining overall over the past several decades. B) was highest during the late 1980s. C) has been at the same level since 1990. D) increased significantly between 2000 and 2005.

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61)

Adolescent use of alcohol has recently shown

A) little change from previous decades. B) a sizeable decline. C) a mild increase. D) a significant increase.

62) Which of the following has been found to be true about binge drinking among U.S. adolescents?

A) Binge drinking has declined among high school seniors since 1980. B) Binge drinking has increased for students in the eighth grade in recent years. C) Binge drinking has increased for students in the tenth grade in recent years. D) Females engage in more binge drinking than males.

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63) Which of the following qualifies as binge drinking, as defined in the University of Michigan surveys?

A) having less than five drinks in the last two weeks B) having seven or more drinks in a row in the last two weeks C) having less than four drinks in the last week D) having five or more drinks in a row in the last two weeks

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Substance Use and Abuse

64) In the University of Michigan Monitoring the Future Study, 30 percent of high school seniors said that they had

A) been in a vehicle with a drugged or drinking driver in the past two weeks. B) smoked marijuana and heroin by the time they were in the tenth grade. C) consumed alcohol mixed with energy drinks in the past year. D) used e-cigarettes, as they were considered a safer alternative to normal cigarettes.

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65) In research by Miech and colleagues (2019), an increasing percentage of U.S. adolescents since the mid-1990s have reported that they

A) approve of smoking. B) are more accepting of being around smokers. C) prefer to date nonsmokers. D) do not perceive e-cigarette smoking as dangerous.

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66) Bill wants to know how he can prevent his adolescent son from becoming a drug addict. You would suggest that Bill

A) have family dinners most nights of the week. B) discourage his son from making more friends at school. C) engage in less parental monitoring and control. D) cease to emphasize educational success.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Substance Use and Abuse

67) Recent research revealed that _____ parenting was linked to lower adolescent alcohol consumption and cigarette use.

A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) neglectful D) indulgent

68) Recent research (Fadus, Smith, & Squeglia, 2019) suggests that _____ is/are serving as a gateway for adolescent smoking of marijuana.

A) coffee B) heroin C) aspirin D) e-cigarettes

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69)

Anorexia nervosa is a(n)

A) eating disorder that involves a binge-and-purge sequence on a regular basis. B) anxiety disorder whose chief symptom is an unrealistic fear of food. C) drug-induced reaction that produces tremors and vomiting. D) eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Topic : Anorexia Nervosa null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

70)

Which of the following characterize(s) persons suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A) restricted energy intake, low body weight, and an intense fear of gaining weight B) an intense fear of losing weight that does not decrease with weight gain C) lack of concern about how others perceive them D) consistently following a binge-and-purge pattern

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71) Which of the following is one of the main characteristics of people suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A) higher than average body weight B) higher than average height C) a distorted image of body shape D) a constant need to consume food

72) Which of the following is one of the main characteristics of people suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A) precocious puberty in girls B) a well-educated middle or upper-income family background C) body weight that falls in the 98th percentile of the BMI scale D) binge eating followed by purging

73)

Which of the following characterizes a person suffering from anorexia nervosa?

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A) a relentless pursuit of weight gain through binge eating B) a positive image of body shape C) an intense fear of gaining weight that does not decrease with weight loss D) a high level of self-efficacy

74)

Based on the age of onset, when is anorexia nervosa most likely to begin?

A) childhood B) late adulthood C) emerging adulthood D) early to middle adolescent years

75)

Identify a true statement about anorexia nervosa.

A) It is about 10 times more likely to occur in females than in males. B) It occurs when an individual consistently follows a binge-and-purge pattern. C) It is difficult to detect, as anorexics fall within a normal weight range. D) It almost always begins in late adolescence or early adulthood.

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76) Katie watches her calorie intake relentlessly, and as a result of avoiding calories, she suffers from low body weight. Yet, she continues to be afraid she is getting fat. Katie would likely be diagnosed with

A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) body dysmorphic disorder.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Topic : Anorexia Nervosa null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

77)

Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa affect

A) men and women equally. B) men more than women. C) women more than men. D) women more than older men but less than younger men.

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78) The Family Matters program was designed to help families of adolescents to reduce the amount of

A) domestic violence. B) cigarette and alcohol use. C) adolescent pregnancies. D) juvenile delinquency.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Substance Use and Abuse null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels

79)

Adolescents in the Family Matters program reported

A) no change in alcohol and cigarette use at three months but a marked decline at one year. B) lower alcohol and cigarette use at three months, but the positive effect seemed to wear off about one year after the program had been completed. C) no change in alcohol use but a marked decrease in cigarette smoking. D) lower alcohol and cigarette use at three months and at one year after the program had been completed.

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80)

Most anorexic individuals are young adult females from

A) families with functional problems. B) poor and working-class families. C) Asian American and African American families. D) families with low achievement demands.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Topic : Anorexia Nervosa Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

81)

Anorexic people use food as a means of

A) control. B) reward. C) punishment. D) gaining popularity.

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82) Jackie, a 15-year-old girl, has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. It is most likely that Jackie

A) sets very low standards for herself. B) is not very concerned about how others perceive her. C) is competitive and high-achieving. D) is African American and from a low-income family.

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83) Amanda's mother suffers from anorexia nervosa. Which of the following statements about Amanda is most likely true?

A) Amanda is highly likely to have a more positive body image. B) Amanda is at risk of developing anorexia nervosa herself. C) Amanda is more likely to have healthy eating habits. D) Amanda is not at risk for anorexia nervosa, because of her increased awareness.

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84)

Unlike anorexics, individuals who have been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa typically

A) have a positive body image. B) go on an eating binge and then purge. C) find it easy to restrict their food intake. D) have no fear of becoming overweight.

85) Dalia tends to go on eating binges and then purges by self-inducing vomiting or using a laxative. Which of the following conditions does Dalia suffer from?

A) hypochondria B) anemia C) anorexia nervosa D) bulimia nervosa

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Bulimia Nervosa

86) Which of the following is a dissimilarity between those diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and those suffering from bulimia nervosa?

A) Anorexics have difficulty controlling their emotions, but bulimics do not. B) Anorexics fall within a normal weight range, but bulimics are underweight. C) Anorexics have a positive body image, but bulimics do not. D) Anorexics control their weight by restricting food intake, but most bulimics cannot.

87) Identify the similarity between those diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and those suffering from bulimia nervosa.

A) They are unconcerned about their weight. B) They are severely underweight. C) They have a distorted body image. D) They maintain a healthy, well-balanced diet.

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88) Jordan is very afraid of gaining weight, but she cannot control her eating habits. She has been making up for her eating binges by vomiting immediately after a meal or by purging with laxatives. This pattern of behavior has been occurring three times a week for the past four months. Jordan is most likely suffering from

A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) binge eating disorder. D) rumination disorder.

89)

Penny has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. It is most likely that she

A) has a positive body image. B) also suffers from anorexia. C) is severely underweight. D) falls within a normal weight range.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Bulimia Nervosa

90) Martha is suffering from bulimia nervosa, whereas Jane has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. The difference between them is that Martha

A) will eventually recover from the disorder. B) is likely to be highly perfectionistic. C) has an eating disorder. D) has her weight within a normal range.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Topic : Anorexia Nervosa null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Bulimia Nervosa

91)

Bulimia nervosa typically begins in

A) late adulthood. B) childhood. C) late adolescence or early adulthood. D) early to mid-adolescence.

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92) According to Jean Piaget, around age 11, the fourth stage of cognitive development begins—the _____ stage.

A) concrete operational B) formal operational C) postoperational D) passive operational

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Formal Operational Stage

93) In Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the _____ stage is proposed as the fourth and final stage.

A) concrete operational B) passive operational C) preconventional reasoning D) formal operational

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Formal Operational Stage

94) The abstract quality of thinking during the _____ stage is evident in an adolescent's verbal problem-solving ability.

A) passive operational B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) conventional reasoning

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Formal Operational Stage

95) During the beginning of the _____ stage, when assimilation dominates, an adolescent's thoughts are full of idealism and possibilities.

A) formal operational B) preconventional reasoning C) concrete operational D) conventional reasoning

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Formal Operational Stage

96) In the formal operational stage, adolescents begin to think more as a scientist thinks, devising plans to solve problems and systematically testing solutions. This type of problem solving requires

A) trial-and-error reasoning. B) hypothetical-deductive reasoning. C) concrete operational reasoning. D) preconventional reasoning.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Formal Operational Stage

97)

In contrast to Piaget's views, the development of formal operational thinking

A) does not occur during adolescence. B) is promoted by education in the logic of science and mathematics. C) is unaffected by the influence of culture and education. D) is commonly seen among all American adults.

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98) _____ proposed that around 7 years of age, children enter the concrete operational stage of cognitive development.

A) Jean Piaget B) Lawrence Kohlberg C) Albert Bandura D) Erik Erikson

99) Which of the following terms refers to a heightened self-consciousness among adolescents?

A) mirror complex B) service learning C) hypothetical-deductive reasoning D) adolescent egocentrism

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100) According to David Elkind, the personal fable and imaginary audience are parts of adolescent

A) co-rumination. B) expression. C) egocentrism. D) solipsism.

101) The _____ is adolescents' belief that others are as interested in them as they themselves are, often accompanied by attention-getting behavior—attempts to be noticed, visible, and "on stage."

A) personal fable B) stage fear C) imaginary audience D) collective myth

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102) The _____ is the part of adolescent egocentrism that involves a sense of uniqueness and invincibility.

A) personal fable B) self-fulfilling prophecy C) imaginary audience D) collective myth

103) Fifteen-year-old Juanita wants to skip school because she is having a bad hair day and is convinced that everybody will notice and think badly of her. Which aspect of adolescent egocentrism is Juanita experiencing?

A) the personal fable B) the imaginary audience C) the fight-or-flight response D) the top-dog phenomenon

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Egocentrism

104) Leila, a 14-year-old girl, feels that nobody understands her, especially her parents and teachers. Leila's feelings reflect the _____ aspect of an adolescent's egocentrism.

A) personal fable B) imaginary audience C) self-fulfilling prophecy D) collective myth

105) "I know I can handle the car at high speeds much better than others can," says 18-yearold Jake. This reflects the tendency of adolescents to engage in the _____ aspect of adolescent egocentrism.

A) personal fable B) collective myth C) imaginary audience D) perspective taking

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106) Which of the following terms refers to being aware of the options and alternatives that are available and adapting to the situation?

A) self-concept B) hypothetical-deductive reasoning C) cognitive flexibility D) disequilibrium

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107) In _____ executive function, psychological processes involve conscious control driven by logical thinking and critical analysis.

A) cool B) blue C) cognizant D) deliberate

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108) Peaking at 14 to 15 years of age, _____ executive function includes psychological processes driven by emotion, with emotion regulation an especially important process.

A) hot B) cool C) implicit D) indirect

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109) In the context of cognitive control, having confidence in one's ability to adapt one's thinking to a particular situation is an aspect of

A) adolescent egocentrism. B) self-efficacy. C) service learning. D) the top-dog phenomenon.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Information Processing Topic : Self-Efficacy

110) Gina, a 15-year-old, needs to assess a risky situation to quickly get the gist of what is happening and glean that the situation is a dangerous context. She is unlikely to benefit from engaging in reflective, detailed, higher-level cognitive analysis about a decision, especially as it is a high-risk, real-world context where she would get bogged down in trivial detail. This kind of decision making is explained by the

A) cognitive model of emotion. B) fuzzy-trace theory dual-process model. C) tripartite model. D) heuristic-systematic persuasion model.

111) George wants to ensure that his sons become competent decision makers. Which of the following is a strategy you would suggest for improving their decision making?

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A) Provide more opportunities for them to engage in role playing and peer group problem solving. B) Encourage the presence of peers in risk-taking situations. C) Supply contexts where substances and other temptations are readily available, testing their willingness to make risky decisions. D) Keep them in a sequestered environment where they will not have to face decision making in real-world contexts.

112) If _____ are not developed during childhood, critical-thinking skills are unlikely to mature in adolescence.

A) moral values B) hypothetical-deductive reasoning skills C) formal operational skills D) fundamental skills

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113) When Diana transitioned from elementary school to middle school, she moved from being one of the oldest, biggest, and most powerful students in the elementary school to being one of the youngest, smallest, and least powerful students in the middle school. This phenomenon is known as the

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A) blindsight phenomenon. B) top-dog phenomenon. C) domino effect. D) glass-ceiling effect.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Transition to Middle/Junior High School

114)

The Carnegie Corporation evaluated U.S. middle schools and recommended that

A) smaller "communities" or "houses" should be developed to lessen the impersonal nature of large middle schools. B) schools should increase the use of technology, computers, and skills that will be needed in the twenty-first century. C) schools should add more grade levels to encompass a wider age range, to reflect differences in adolescent development. D) middle schools should be integrated with high schools so that younger adolescents can take advantage of having older adolescents as role models.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Effective Schools

115)

Which of the following is a concern related to U.S. high school education?

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A) high expectations for success B) high standards for learning C) fostering of passivity in students D) too much variety in the pathways students can take

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116) Research by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation suggests that only _____ of U.S. high school graduates have the academic skills required to succeed in college.

A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 35 percent D) 50 percent

117) In the last half of the twentieth century and the first several years of the twenty-first century, U.S. high school dropout rates

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A) increased. B) declined. C) remained unchanged. D) plateaued.

118)

The average U.S. high school dropout rates mask some very high dropout rates

A) in high-income areas of the suburbs. B) among adolescents in the 13- to 15-year-old age group. C) among Asian American adolescents. D) in low-income areas of inner cities.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels Topic : Dropout Rates

119)

Which of the following is a school-related reason for leaving school?

A) poor economic conditions B) pregnancy C) being expelled D) marriage

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120)

Identify a strategy that can help prevent students from dropping out of school.

A) enrolling the students only in a community-based education and reducing parental monitoring B) providing early intervention for reading problems, tutoring, counseling, and mentoring C) facilitating and emphasizing peer learning D) using a rotation model for the students in high school

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels Topic : Dropout Rates null : APA LO: 5.1: Apply psychological content and skills to career goals Topic : Effective Schools

121) One dropout prevention program functions by "adopting" entire grades from public elementary schools or corresponding age cohorts from public housing developments. These children are then provided with a program of academic, social, cultural, and recreational activities throughout their elementary, middle school, and high school years. Identify this program.

A) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation program B) Growing Together program C) "I Have a Dream" (IHAD) program D) Teen Outreach Program (TOP)

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122) _____ learning is a form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community.

A) Service B) Social C) Collaborative D) Cooperative

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de Topic : Service Learning null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels

123)

Identify the true statement about service learning.

A) It becomes ineffective when students are given some degree of choice in the service activities in which they participate. B) It aims at making adolescents more self-centered. C) It is effective when it provides students opportunities to reflect about their participation. D) It limits the amount of time students spend volunteering.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 124) In 1904, famous theorist G. Stanley Hall proposed the "_____" view of adolescence as a turbulent time. (Note the term is hyphenated.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the nature of adolescence. Topic : Nature of Adolescence

125) Which researcher, in 2003, suggested that adolescents have difficulty controlling their emotions because their prefrontal cortex has not yet fully developed? (Provide the last name only.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Brain Development

126) Identify the theorist (last name only) who along with colleagues conducted extensive research on adolescent sleep patterns and found that when given the opportunity, adolescents will sleep an average of 9 hours and 25 minutes a night.

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127) David Elkind suggested that adolescent _____ is characterized by "the imaginary audience" and the "personal fable." Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Egocentrism

128) Identify the theorist who suggested that, in the later years of childhood and continuing in adolescence, individuals approach cognitive levels that may or may not be achieved, in contrast to the largely universal cognitive levels that young children attain. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Information Processing

129) What is the term used to refer to the brain-neuroendocrine process occurring primarily in early adolescence that provides stimulation for the rapid physical changes that take place during this period of development?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty

130)

What is the term for a girl's first menstruation?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. Topic : Puberty Topic : Sexual Maturation, Height, and Weight

131) The eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation is _____ nervosa. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the impact that lifestyle choices and health problems have on adolesce Topic : Anorexia Nervosa null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

132) The term _____ audience refers to the belief, reflecting adolescents' egocentrism, that others are as interested in them as they themselves are, as well as for attention-getting behavior— attempts to be noticed, visible, and "on stage." Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. Topic : Egocentrism

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133) The term _____ learning refers to a form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de Topic : Service Learning

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 134) Discuss the findings of Daniel Offer and colleagues (1988) on the self-images of adolescents.

135)

Explore the link between hormones and behavior in adolescence.

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136)

Discuss how early or late maturation affects boys and girls.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the physical changes that occur during adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Early and Late Maturation

137)

Discuss some of the risk factors in adolescent sexual behavior.

138)

Why is bulimia nervosa often more difficult to detect than anorexia nervosa?

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139)

What are the characteristics of the formal operational stage?

140)

Discuss two key components of adolescent egocentrism according to David Elkind.

141)

Discuss the importance of controlling one's attention during adolescence.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Attention

142) Outline the cognitive changes that occur in adolescence and allow improved critical thinking.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the development of cognitive maturation. null : APA LO: 5.1: Apply psychological content and skills to career goals Topic : Critical Thinking

143) What role does the top-dog phenomenon play when adolescents make the transition to middle or to junior high school?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize key aspects of how schools influence different stages of adolescent de Topic : Transition to Middle/Junior High School

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144) In 1989, the Carnegie Corporation issued an extremely negative evaluation of U.S. middle schools. They made several recommendations for how to improve schools. Imagine you are a middle school principal and can institute any changes you want. Based on these recommendations, what kind of things would you do to create more effective schools for adolescents?

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145) A high school principal sends a letter to parents stating that she is instituting a servicelearning component and all students are required to participate. What is service learning? When is it most effective, and why would schools want to use it?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch11 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) B 85) D 86) D Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) D 90) D 91) C 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) B 98) A 99) D 100) C 101) C 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) C 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) B 111) A 112) D 113) B 114) A 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) B 118) D 119) C 120) B 121) C 122) A 123) C 124) storm-and-stress 125) Nelson 126) Carskadon 127) egocentrism 128) Kuhn 129) puberty 130) menarche 131) anorexia 132) imaginary 133) service 134) When Daniel Offer and his colleagues (1988) studied the selfimages of adolescents in the United States, Australia, Bangladesh, Hungary, Israel, Italy, Japan, Taiwan, Turkey, and West Germany, at least 73 percent of the adolescents displayed a healthy self-image. Although there were differences among them, the adolescents were happy most of the time, they enjoyed life, they perceived themselves as able to exercise self-control, they valued work and school, they felt confident about their sexual selves, they expressed positive feelings toward their families, and they felt they had the capability to cope with life's stresses—not exactly a storm-and-stress portrayal of adolescence.

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135) The influx of hormones that causes physiological changes in adolescence contributes to psychological development. In one study of boys and girls ranging in age from 9 to 14, a higher concentration of testosterone was present in boys who rated themselves as more socially competent. However, hormonal effects by themselves do not account for adolescent development. For example, in one study, social factors were much better predictors of young adolescent girls' depression and anger than hormonal factors. Behavior and moods also can affect hormones. Stress, eating patterns, exercise, sexual activity, tension, and depression can activate or suppress various aspects of the hormonal system. In sum, the hormone-behavior link is complex. 136) In the Berkeley Longitudinal Study some years ago, early-maturing boys perceived themselves more positively and had more successful peer relations than did their late-maturing counterparts. When the latematuring boys were in their thirties, however, they had developed a stronger sense of identity than the early-maturing boys had. For girls, early and late maturation have been linked with body image. In the sixth grade, early-maturing girls show greater satisfaction with their figures than do late-maturing girls, but by the tenth grade, late-maturing girls are more satisfied. An increasing number of researchers have found that early maturation increases girls' vulnerability to a number of problems. Early-maturing girls are more likely to smoke, drink, be depressed, have an eating disorder, struggle for earlier independence from their parents, and have older friends. Their bodies are likely to elicit responses from males that lead to earlier dating and earlier sexual experiences. Earlymaturing girls also are less likely to graduate from high school, and they cohabit and marry earlier.

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137) Early sexual activity is linked with risky behaviors such as drug use, delinquency, and school-related problems. In addition to having sex in early adolescence, other risk factors for sexual problems in adolescence include contextual factors such as socioeconomic status (SES) and poverty, immigration/ethnic minority status, family/parenting and peer factors, and school-related influences. A number of family factors are associated with sexual risk-taking. Peer, school, sport, and religious contexts provide further information about sexual risk-taking in adolescents. 138) Unlike anorexics, who have a weight at or below 85 percent of what is considered normal for their age and height, people who binge and purge typically fall within a normal weight range, making bulimia nervosa more difficult to detect. 139) During the formal operational stage, Piaget's fourth stage of cognitive development, thinking becomes more abstract, idealistic, and logical than during the concrete operational stage. An indication of the abstract quality of adolescents' thought is their increased tendency to think about thought itself. Formal operational thought is also full of idealism and possibilities, especially during the beginning of the formal operational stage, when assimilation dominates. Logical thought also increases, as is reflected in adolescents' ability to engage in hypotheticaldeductive reasoning, which involves creating a hypothesis and deducing its implications, steps that provide ways to test the hypothesis.

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140) David Elkind points out that adolescent egocentrism has two key components—the imaginary audience and the personal fable. The imaginary audience is adolescents' belief that others are as interested in them as they themselves are, as well as attention-getting behavior— attempts to be noticed, visible, and "on stage." The personal fable is the part of adolescent egocentrism that involves a sense of uniqueness and invincibility or invulnerability that adolescents feel, often leading them to engage in risky behavior. 141) Controlling attention is a key aspect of learning and thinking in adolescence and emerging adulthood. Distractions that can interfere with attention in adolescence and emerging adulthood come from the external environment or intrusive distractions from competing thoughts in an individual's mind. Self-oriented thoughts, such as worrying, self-doubt, and intense emotionally laden thoughts may especially interfere with focusing attention on thinking tasks. 142) For adolescents with adequately developed fundamental skills, cognitive changes that allow improved critical thinking in adolescence include the following: (1) increased speed, automaticity, and capacity of information processing, which free cognitive resources for other purposes; (2) more breadth of content knowledge in a variety of domains; (3) increased ability to construct new combinations of knowledge; and (4) a greater range and more spontaneous use of strategies or procedures for applying or obtaining knowledge, such as planning, considering alternatives, and cognitive monitoring.

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143) When students make the transition to middle or junior high school, they experience the top-dog phenomenon, moving from being the oldest, biggest, and most powerful students in the elementary school to being the youngest, smallest, and least powerful students in the middle or junior high school. This could potentially cause a drop in school satisfaction and cause stress. 144) In 1989, the Carnegie Corporation issued an extremely negative evaluation of U.S. middle schools. It recommended that the nation develop smaller "communities" or "houses" to lessen the impersonal nature of large middle schools, have lower student-to-counselor ratios (10 to 1 instead of several hundred to 1), involve parents and community leaders in schools, develop new curricula, have teachers team teach in more flexibly designed curriculum blocks that integrate several disciplines, boost students' health and fitness with more in-school programs, and help students who need public health care to get it. 145) Service learning is a form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community. Service learning is often more effective when two conditions are met: (1) giving students some degree of choice in the service activities in which they participate and (2) providing students opportunities to reflect about their participation.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In a study of changes in self-esteem during adolescence, it was found that self-esteem

A) is almost nonexistent in adolescence. B) remains constant in adolescence. C) increases in adolescent boys. D) declines in adolescent girls.

2) A New Zealand longitudinal study assessed the self-esteem of adolescents at 11, 13, and 15 years of age and then assessed the adjustment and competence of the same individuals when they were 26 years old. The results indicated

A) no connection between self-esteem in adolescence and competence as adults. B) that well-adjusted, competent adults were just as likely as adults with poorer mental and physical health to have had low self-esteem in adolescence. C) that individuals with low self-esteem in adolescence showed no negative outcomes in adulthood. D) that adults with poorer mental and physical health were more likely to have had low self-esteem in adolescence than well-adjusted, competent adults.

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_____ refers to a self-centered and self-concerned approach toward others.

A) Egocentrism B) Narcissism C) Egotism D) Solipsism

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4) Ned is an only child and has always enjoyed full attention from his parents and extended family. In college, he tends to speak about himself and his own personal struggles with his friends. He seldom pays attention to others' needs or lets them speak. He expects everyone to agree with his opinions and gets frustrated and upset if they don't. Which of the following terms best describes Ned?

A) pessimist B) optimist C) pragmatist D) narcissist

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Self-Esteem

Which of the following is true of narcissists?

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A) They view their own needs and desires as paramount. B) They are typically aware of their actual self. C) They are typically aware of how others perceive them. D) They show unselfish concern for the betterment of others.

6) In a recent study (Tetering & others, 2020), 13- to 16-year-old _____ reported higher levels of self-control and self-monitoring than their ____ counterparts.

A) female youth; male B) male youth; female C) White youth; African American D) Latino youth; non-Latino White

Identity development

A) is a single, orderly process. B) takes place in bits and pieces. C) happens cataclysmically. D) involves making decisions once and for all.

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Which of the following statements about identity and identity development is true?

A) Synthesizing the identity components is a single, orderly process in normal individuals. B) Decisions about identity may take time, but once they are made, they are set for life. C) Identity development occurs in a single, one-step process. D) Identity encompasses an individual's personality characteristics.

Richard is gay. This orientation is part of Richard's _____ identity.

A) relationship B) intellectual C) sexual D) ethnic

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Identity

10) Holly is quiet and introverted. She feels stressed whenever she has to interact with a lot of people. She keeps mostly to herself and seldom speaks up in class. She never socializes or attends parties. Which of the following terms is best suited to this aspect of Holly's identity?

A) ethnicity B) personality C) achievement D) intellect

11)

An individual's body image encompasses their

A) sexual identity. B) personality. C) relationship identity. D) physical identity.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Identity

12)

Which of the following constitutes the first step in the dual cycle identity model?

A) the formation cycle B) the separation cycle C) the maintenance cycle D) the reflection cycle

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13)

The first phase of the dual cycle identity model

A) relies on exploration in breadth and identification with commitment. B) involves exploration in depth as well as reconsideration of commitments. C) requires a separation of formal morality from individual morality. D) leads to the formation of mature rational thought in adolescents.

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14)

Which of the following is Erikson's fifth developmental stage?

A) identity versus identity confusion B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) initiative versus guilt D) intimacy versus isolation

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Erikson's View of Identity

15) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following developmental stages is experienced by an individual during adolescence?

A) autonomy versus shame and doubt B) intimacy versus isolation C) initiative versus guilt D) identity versus identity confusion

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16) According to Erik Erikson, during the _____ stage, adolescents are faced with deciding who they are, what they are all about, and where they are going in life.

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A) autonomy versus shame and doubt B) identity versus identity confusion C) initiative versus guilt D) intimacy versus isolation

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17) Which of the following terms did Erik Erikson use for the gap between childhood security and adult autonomy?

A) psychosocial moratorium B) sociological amnesty C) societal moratorium D) behavioral reprieve

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18) Which of the following terms did Erikson use for a period in which society leaves adolescents relatively free of responsibilities and free to try out different identities?

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A) sociological amnesty B) societal moratorium C) psychosocial moratorium D) behavioral reprieve

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19) Mike is 14 years old. When asked what he wants to be when he grows up, he promptly replies that he wants to be a lawyer, and he begins to speak about a recent case and how well the lawyers handled the case. However, his mother casually mentions that Mike's interests change almost every few weeks and that she feels that Mike should attend some career guidance sessions to decide what he wants to become. In the context of Erik Erikson's fifth developmental stage, this period of Mike's life is referred to as a

A) sociological amnesty. B) societal moratorium. C) psychosocial moratorium. D) behavioral reprieve.

20) calls

Adolescents who do not successfully resolve their identity crisis suffer from what Erikson

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A) identity diffusion. B) unresolved identity. C) identity confusion. D) identity moratorium.

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21) Eriksonian researcher James Marcia reasons that Erikson's theory of identity development contains _____ of identity, or ways of resolving an identity crisis.

A) five stages B) four statuses C) five statuses D) six stages

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22)

According to James Marcia, what determines an individual's identity status?

A) the choices and alternatives they have access to B) the individual's socioeconomic and academic profile C) the existence or extent of their crisis or commitment D) the existence or extent of parental and social support

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23) James Marcia defines _____ as a period of identity development during which an individual is exploring alternatives.

A) commitment B) calling C) conscientiousness D) crisis

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24)

Which of the following is the term that most researchers use to describe crisis?

A) foreclosure B) exploration C) moratorium D) commitment

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25)

_____ reflects an individual's personal investment in identity.

A) Commitment B) Collaboration C) Calling D) Conscientiousness

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26) Identify the status of individuals who have not yet experienced a crisis or made any commitments.

A) identity crisis B) identity diffusion C) identity foreclosure D) identity achievement

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27) Shane's family wants him to decide on the career that he wants to pursue. His parents are doctors and would prefer that he study medicine. However, Shane does not seem very keen on deciding on his career at the moment. In this scenario, which of the following identity statuses is Shane experiencing?

A) identity moratorium B) identity achievement C) identity foreclosure D) identity diffusion

28) Nicola is under pressure from her family to decide on her course of study. She is interested in studying engineering but is not able to decide on the branch of engineering she wants to pursue. Her brothers are software engineers, and she feels that studying software engineering may be the right choice for her. However, she also seems interested in electrical engineering. In this scenario, Nicola is in the identity status referred to as

A) identity confusion. B) identity stagnation. C) identity diffusion. D) identity moratorium.

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29) Identity _____ is the status of individuals who have made a commitment but not experienced a crisis.

A) foreclosure B) moratorium C) achievement D) diffusion

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30) The status of identity _____ occurs most often when parents hand down commitments to their adolescents, usually in an authoritarian way, before adolescents have had a chance to explore different approaches, ideologies, and vocations on their own.

A) achievement B) moratorium C) foreclosure D) diffusion

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain identity formation in adolescence. Topic : Marcia's Identity Statuses

31) Ramon's parents have decided that he will enroll in a liberal arts program in the state college near their hometown. Ramon has not really thought much about this decision himself, and he will most likely follow their advice. James Marcia would classify Ramon's identity status as identity

A) diffusion. B) foreclosure. C) moratorium. D) achievement.

32) Identity _____ is the status of individuals who have undergone a crisis and made a commitment.

A) diffusion B) foreclosure C) moratorium D) achievement

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain identity formation in adolescence. Topic : Marcia's Identity Statuses

33) Nancy was not able to decide whether she should major in music or take up an undergraduate program in engineering. After significant exploration of both options, she finally chose the latter, with a minor in music. Identify Nancy's identity status.

A) identity diffusion B) identity foreclosure C) identity moratorium D) identity achievement

34) _____ is the identity status in which crisis and commitment are both absent and the individual is undecided about or shows little interest in occupational and ideological choices.

A) Identity diffusion B) Identity foreclosure C) Identity moratorium D) Identity achievement

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35) Which of the following is the identity status in which a crisis is present but commitment is absent?

A) identity diffusion B) identity foreclosure C) identity moratorium D) identity achievement

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36) Arturo's family owns a home appliances business. His parents and his three older brothers manage the business together. They want Arturo to help with the business once he graduates. Arturo has agreed to join the family business without putting much thought into this decision. In this scenario, Arturo is in the identity status referred to as

A) identity achievement. B) identity foreclosure. C) identity moratorium. D) identity diffusion.

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37) Mindy wants to pursue a career in the aeronautical industry. She wants to become either an engineer or a pilot. After discussing this with her parents, she decides to become an aeronautical engineer. In this scenario, in which Mindy's crisis of identity development is resolved and in which she has made a commitment, she is most likely in the identity status referred to as

A) identity achievement. B) identity foreclosure. C) identity moratorium. D) identity diffusion.

38)

Identity moratorium differs from identity diffusion in what way?

A) Individuals in identity moratorium have vaguely defined commitments or no commitments at all. B) Individuals in identity moratorium have not yet experienced a crisis. C) Individuals in identity moratorium have undergone a crisis. D) Individuals in identity moratorium have not yet decided on their occupational and ideological choices.

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39)

Which of the following statements about the timing of identity development is true?

A) In their last couple of years in college, individuals are more likely to be categorized as identity diffused. B) College upperclassmen are more likely to be identity achieved than college freshmen or high school students. C) By the time adolescents reach college, they have typically committed to their religious and political identities. D) A higher percentage of high school students are identity achieved when compared to college upperclassmen.

40) Ethnic _____ is an enduring aspect of the self that includes a sense of membership in an ethnic group along with the attitudes and feelings related to that membership.

A) gloss B) awareness C) identity D) pride

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Cultural and Ethnic Identity

41)

Most adolescents from ethnic minority groups develop a(n) _____ identity.

A) bicultural B) additive C) multiplicative D) monocultural

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Cultural and Ethnic Identity

42) Irene, a 16-year-old girl, is a first-generation immigrant whose parents came to the United States from Ukraine when she was just a baby. Irene enjoys many of the same things that her American friends do but respects her culture's traditions and speaks to her parents in their native language. Irene seems to have formed a(n) _____ identity.

A) additive B) bicultural C) multiplicative D) culturally confused

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43) Misha is a first-generation immigrant in the United States. In the context of cultural and ethnic identity, which of the following statements is most likely to be true about her identity?

A) She is unlikely to change her identity much and may or may not develop a new identity. B) She thinks of herself as an American because she was granted citizenship at birth. C) She is least likely to be secure with her identity. D) She is likely to change her identity tremendously.

44) Abigail is a 16-year-old. Which of the following is the most likely to be the most important venue for her self-expression?

A) Snapchat B) the Girl Scouts C) the church choir D) her school community

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45) When it comes to teenagers' formation of identity and self-expression, which of the following do social media sites have in common with the offline world?

A) They are all supervised. B) They are all unsafe spaces. C) They all provide positiveand negative feedback. D) They all are fully under the control of teenagers.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Topic : Cultural and Ethnic Identity

46) Greta reads a post on social media that mentions that in the twenty-first century, religious interest among adolescents has declined. Greta ponders over the post and then researches online to verify the statement. She goes through several research findings online. Which of the following research findings will most likely help Greta come to a conclusion on whether the information in the post is true?

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A) One study of 13- to 17-year-olds revealed that boys were more likely to attend religious services frequently than girls. B) Research shows that 18- to 24-year-olds in less developed countries are less likely to be religious than their counterparts in more developed countries. C) A developmental study revealed that religiousness declined from 14 to 20 years of age in the United States. D) Research shows that religious interests among adolescents rise steadily until individuals reach the age of 40.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Evaluate

47) Which of the following statements about religion and adolescents has research shown to be true?

A) There has been a resurgence of religious interest among adolescents. B) A majority of American college freshmen report that they had never attended religious services during their senior year of high school. C) Generally, 18-year-olds are more religious than 14-year-olds in the United States. D) Adolescent girls are more religious than are adolescent boys.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development

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48) Analysis of the World Values Survey of 18- to 24-year-olds in less developed and more developed countries revealed that

A) emerging adults in more developed countries are more likely to be religious than those in less developed countries. B) emerging adults in less developed countries are more likely to be religious than those in more developed countries. C) emerging adults in both less developed and more developed countries tend to be highly religious. D) emerging adults in both less developed and more developed countries are not very religious at all.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.4: Interpret, design, and conduct basic psychological research null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development

49)

Many of the cognitive changes thought to influence religious development involve

A) Piaget's cognitive developmental theory. B) Erikson's psychosocial theory. C) Freud's psychoanalytic theory. D) Lorenz's ethological theory.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development

50)

Religious adolescents are more likely than nonreligious adolescents to

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A) be depressed. B) drink alcohol. C) engage in community service. D) engage in problem behaviors.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development

51) Jamila and Angeline are good friends but disagree over the importance of church in their lives. Jamila is convinced that regular church attendance and engagement with the congregation is vital for a young person's health and well-being. Angeline does not like the local church and is not entirely sure where she fits with regard to religion, but she feels spiritual nonetheless and thinks that this is more important for her sense of well-being than a church organization. According to a recent Slovakian study (Dankulincova Veselska & others, 2018), which of the two is right?

A) Jamila is correct: Religious routine matters more than spirituality. B) Jamila is right: Spirituality matters, but not as much as religiosity. C) Angeline is right: Religiosity is known to have a negative impact on young people's well-being. D) Angeline is right: It is spirituality, not religious routine, that is linked to higher life satisfaction.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Religion and Identity Development null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

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52) Stella has involved, responsive parents who support her in her choices as long as she adheres to certain basic rules that they have set for her, like keeping up her grades and coming home in time for dinner on weekdays. Thus, Stella's relationship with her parents is characterized by a high level of trust, acceptance, and quality. Research indicates that Stella will

A) be unwilling to disclose her activities to her parents. B) be concerned about parental disapproval and thus more likely to lie to her parents. C) be likely to share information about her whereabouts, friends, and activities. D) be likely to experience problems in adolescent adjustment.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parental Monitoring and Information Management

53)

Conflicts arise between parents and adolescents because

A) few parents anticipate how strongly their adolescent will push for autonomy and responsibility. B) while parents want autonomy, adolescents want a connection. C) parents want their adolescents to push the boundaries, while adolescents want to maintain the status quo. D) parents want to relinquish all of their control over their adolescent.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Autonomy and Attachment

54) Joseph Allen and colleagues (2009) found that adolescents who were securely attached to their parents at 14 years of age were more likely at 21 years of age to report Version 1

A) feeling uncomfortable in other intimate relationships. B) continuing financial dependence on their parents. C) relationship competence and fewer problematic behaviors. D) conflict in the relationship with their parents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Autonomy and Attachment

55) The National Longitudinal Study on Adolescent Health, which surveyed more than 12,000 adolescents, found that adolescents who did not eat dinner with a parent five or more days a week

A) had dramatically higher rates of smoking and drinking. B) were more likely to gain financial independence at an earlier age. C) were more likely to delay sexual activity. D) had better relationship competence.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Autonomy and Attachment

56) Reggie, a 16-year-old, gets into a lot of arguments with his parents. Going by what is generally observed about parent-adolescent conflict, it is likely that most of the arguments center around

Version 1

A) whether Reggie uses drugs. B) Reggie's delinquent behavior. C) Reggie's alcoholism. D) everyday events of family life.

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57)

Conflict with parents often escalates during

A) early adolescence. B) middle adolescence. C) late adolescence. D) the college years.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

58)

The old model of parent-adolescent relationships suggested that

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A) routine negotiations and minor disputes can serve the developmental function of helping adolescents make the transition from childhood dependency to adult independence. B) in most families, parent-adolescent conflict is moderate rather than severe. C) parents serve as important attachment figures and support systems while adolescents explore a wider and more complex social world. D) as adolescents mature, they detach themselves from parents and move into a world of autonomy apart from parents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

59)

According to the old model of parent-adolescent relationships,

A) parent-adolescent conflict is intense and stressful throughout adolescence. B) parent-adolescent conflict is moderate rather than severe in most families. C) parents serve as important support systems while adolescents explore a wider, more complex social world. D) everyday negotiations and minor disputes are normal.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

60)

The new model of parent-adolescent relationships emphasizes that

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A) parents should take an authoritarian approach to control the lives of adolescents. B) parent-adolescent conflict is intense and stressful throughout adolescence. C) in most families, parent-adolescent conflict is moderate rather than severe. D) even minor parent-adolescent conflicts are not normal and should be avoided as much as possible.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

61) Which of the following does the new model of parent-adolescent relationships emphasize?

A) Parents serve as important attachment figures and support systems during adolescence. B) Parent-adolescent conflict is intense and stressful throughout adolescence. C) The everyday conflicts that characterize parent-adolescent relationships have a detrimental effect on adolescent development. D) As adolescents mature, they move into a world of autonomy apart from parents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

62) According to the new model of parent-adolescent relationships, which of the following is a benefit of everyday negotiations and minor disputes?

Version 1

A) They teach adolescents that their parents are not perfect. B) They help adolescents become more autonomous. C) They help adolescents accept parental control over their lives. D) They teach parents how to exert more control over the lives of adolescents.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes that take place in adolescents' relationships with their parent Topic : Parent-Adolescent Conflict

63) Mark is a 14-year-old teenager who lives with his parents. Over the last two years, Mark and his parents have been in arguments almost every day. These arguments are usually about Mark watching too much TV, not cleaning his room, or not helping with daily chores in the house. Mark always finds excuses to avoid doing any chores. At times, the arguments get heated quickly, and as a result, Mark gets grounded for a few days. In view of these intense parentadolescent conflicts between Mark and his parents and the research studies conducted in related fields, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) Mark will move out of the house. B) Mark will show significant improvement in academics. C) Mark will have better career and financial competence in the future. D) Mark will start attending religious services regularly.

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64)

In contrast with the trend in young children, teenagers typically prefer to have

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A) a large group of friends, some of whom are especially intimate. B) several friends, but only one "best" friend. C) friends that are of the same sex. D) a smaller number of friendships that are more intense and intimate.

65) _____, the most influential theorist to discuss the importance of adolescent friendships, proposed that friends become increasingly important in meeting social needs in adolescence.

A) Erik Erikson B) Harry Stack Sullivan C) Jean Piaget D) James Marcia

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66) Sullivan argued that the need for _____ intensifies during early adolescence, motivating teenagers to seek out close friends.

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A) respect B) compatibility C) intimacy D) similarity

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67)

According to Harry Stack Sullivan, if adolescents fail to develop close friendships, they

A) experience loneliness and a reduced sense of self-worth. B) develop healthier self-esteem as adults than their peers. C) engage in less delinquent behavior. D) become more social as they grow older.

68) Manfred is the father of a 16-year-old boy. He notices that his son heads over to the other side of town after getting back from school to meet some friends who are older than him. Manfred also notices that the frequency of these meetings has increased over time. Manfred is now worried about his son hanging out with these older individuals. According to research, which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of Manfred's son's interactions with the older individuals?

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A) Manfred's son will show higher levels of academic achievement. B) Manfred's son will successfully transition to adulthood. C) Manfred's son is more likely to engage in delinquency and early sexual behavior. D) Manfred's son is more likely to avoid risky sexual behavior and substance abuse.

69)

At which grade level does conformity to peers peak?

A) sixth and seventh grades B) eighth and ninth grades C) tenth and eleventh grades D) twelfth grade

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during adolescence. Topic : Peer Pressure

70) Priscilla is in the eighth grade. Every day after school, she hangs out with her friends from her class, who are popular. She is very fond of them and wants to become popular like them. Her friends have recently started shoplifting at department stores. According to research into the effect of peer pressure on conformity, which of the following is Priscilla most likely to do?

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A) Priscilla will use her moral reasoning to determine if the behavior should be copied or not. B) Priscilla will reject the behavior of her peers. C) Priscilla will go along with her friends to engage in the antisocial behavior. D) Priscilla will report the behavior to her friends' parents.

71) Martha's family has recently relocated to Alabama. This relocation means that Martha will have to go to a new school and make new friends. Martha finds it difficult to make friends. She approaches her mother for advice on making friends. Which of the following is a strategy that her mother should recommend to her?

A) Be psychologically aggressive. B) Wait for the other individual to initiate interaction. C) Be open to engaging in gossip. D) Respect yourself and others.

72) Meghan and her group of five girls are all enthusiastic gymnasts. They hang out together after school and go to the mall on weekends. They are all of the same age and have similar tastes in music and food and, as a result, enjoy each other's company. Which of the following terms best identifies this type of group?

Version 1

A) clique B) crowd C) mob D) horde

73)

Which of the following statements is true about the characteristics of a clique?

A) It is formed solely because adolescents engage in diverse activities. B) The average number of people in a clique is eight to ten. C) The members of a clique are usually of the same sex. D) It is less personal than a crowd.

74) Juliana is part of an online science group. Its members meet once every month to discuss advancements in science and technology. She finds these meetings interesting, as she gets to meet people of different age groups and backgrounds. However, like other members of the group, she does not intend to spend much time with them or get to know them personally. Which of the following terms best identifies this type of group?

Version 1

A) band B) crowd C) team D) squad

75) Sandra and Selena are both in high school. Sandra thinks that being a member of a crowd is more helpful in forming friendships than being a member of a clique, but Selena thinks otherwise. Which of the following is an accurate statement that supports Selena's position?

A) A crowd is less personal than a clique. B) A clique contains more members than a crowd. C) Unlike the formation of a crowd, the formation of a clique is based on reputation. D) Unlike in a clique, the members of a crowd spend a lot of time together.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during adolescence. Bloom's : Analyze Topic : Cliques and Crowds

76)

"Jocks" who are good at sports or "druggies" who take drugs are examples of

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A) cliques. B) teams. C) crowds. D) squads.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during adolescence. Topic : Cliques and Crowds

77)

The COVID-19 pandemic of 2020 led to which of the following side effects?

A) higher rates of severe symptoms among adolescents than among old adults B) higher death rates among adolescents than among old adults C) adolescents engaged in social media barely noticing the consequences of quarantine restrictions D) for some, anxiety and stress due to restrictions on personal interaction during quarantine

78) The initial stage of the development of romantic relationships in adolescence is characterized by entry into romantic attractions and affiliations at about _____ years of age.

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A) 8 to 9 B) 11 to 13 C) 14 to 16 D) 17 to 19

79) At approximately _____ years of age, two types of romantic involvement occur: casual dating and dating in groups.

A) 8 to 9 B) 11 to 13 C) 14 to 16 D) 17 to 19

80) At _____ years of age, romantic relations are characterized by strong emotional bonds more closely resembling those in adult romantic relationships.

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A) 12 to 15 B) 11 to 13 C) 14 to 16 D) 17 to 19

81) Which of the following is the last stage of the development of romantic relationships in adolescence?

A) consolidating dyadic romantic bonds B) entry into romantic attractions and affiliations C) dating in groups, reflecting embeddedness in the peer context D) exploring romantic relationships

82)

Early bloomers include

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A) 15 to 20 percent of 14- to 16-year-olds who say that they currently are in a romantic relationship. B) 10 percent of 17- to 19-year-olds who say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships. C) 15 to 20 percent of 11- to 13-year-olds who say that they currently are in a romantic relationship. D) 15 percent of 17- to 19-year-olds who report that they have not engaged in any romantic relationships that lasted more than four months.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe adolescent sexuality. Topic : Dating and Romantic Relationships null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

83) Late bloomers comprise approximately 10 percent of _____ who say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships.

A) 12- to 13-year-olds B) 14- to 16-year-olds C) 15- to 16-year-olds D) 17- to 19-year-olds

84)

Which of the following statements about dating among gay and lesbian youth is true?

Version 1

A) Sexual minority youth seldom date other-sex peers to disguise their sexual orientation from others. B) Most gay and lesbian youth seldom have same-sex sexual experience. C) Gay and lesbian youth do not get emotionally affected by the breakup of a same-sex relationship they were involved in. D) Some gay and lesbian youth continue to have a same-sex orientation, while others have a primarily heterosexual orientation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Dating and Romantic Relationships null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Learning Objective : Summarize the development of sexual identity that occurs during adolescence. Topic : Gay and Lesbian

85)

A study of tenth-graders revealed that

A) the number of romantic experiences reported had no connection to the level of social acceptance experienced by adolescents. B) having more romantic experience was linked to a higher level of substance use and delinquency. C) co-rumination and romantic involvement predicted a decrease in depressive symptoms. D) having no experience of romantic relationships is a consistent predictor of depression and deviant behavior.

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86) Tina is preparing a presentation on adolescent health in the twenty-first century. She decides to go through a few research studies and collate the findings in her presentation. Which of the following accurately relates a research finding that Tina may include in her presentation?

A) More adolescents around the world are dying from acute infections than before. B) Many adolescent health-compromising behaviors, especially illicit drug use and unprotected sex, are decreasing in frequency. C) The rate of HIV infection in sub-Saharan countries has decreased marginally in recent years. D) Fewer adolescents around the world die from malnutrition now than in the past.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

87) Which of the following statements about the trend in cross-cultural gender differences in sexual expression is true?

A) Gender differences in sexual expression are minor, especially in Latin America and Southeast Asia. B) Gender differences in sexual expression and educational opportunities appear to be narrowing over time. C) In India, there are far more restrictions on the sexual activities of men than on those of women. D) In Arab countries, both male adolescents and female adolescents encounter the same amount of restriction on sexual activities.

Version 1

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

88) Sita is a girl who lives in India; Suki is a girl who lives in Japan. They both have two older brothers. According to research, who is most likely to have better access to education?

A) Sita B) Suki C) They both have a poor chance at receiving an education. D) They both have an equally good chance at receiving an education.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

89) According to research, which of the following is true of adolescents and how they spend their time?

A) Adolescents in other industrialized countries have greater quantities of discretionary time than do adolescents in the United States. B) It is believed that spending large numbers of hours in relaxation and unchallenging activities fosters development in adolescents. C) U.S. adolescents spend about 60 percent as much time on schoolwork as East Asian adolescents do. D) Unstructured activities provide more promise for adolescent development than do structured voluntary activities.

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90) The amount of daily discretionary time that American adolescents have is _____ what adolescents have in East Asia.

A) significantly less than B) significantly more than C) equal to D) declining compared with

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

91) A longitudinal study (Liu & Lachman, 2019) indicated that a low SES in childhood is associated with _____ in middle and late adulthood.

A) lower cognitive function B) lower cholesterol C) a significantly higher SES D) a lower birthrate

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92) A _____ is a ceremony or ritual that marks an individual's transition from one status to another and mostly focuses on the transition to adult status.

A) rite of passage B) litmus test C) march of time D) communion

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

93) Shifu belongs to a tribe in which all the boys must swim across a particular river to mark their transition to adult status. A grand and elaborate ceremony is held in the tribe's village to signal the achievement of adult status. Which of the following terms best describes the ceremony?

A) rite of passage B) litmus test C) march of time D) communion

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94) Baku is a local guide living and working in Kenya. While explaining some of the local cultures and practices to a group of tourists, he notes that some tribes have customs that relate to rites of passage. A tourist asks Baku about the importance of rites of passage. Which of the following statements would be an accurate response?

A) Rites of passage mostly focus on severing ties with adolescents' native culture. B) Rites of passage mostly focus on the initiation of adolescents into a nuclear family. C) Rites of passage mostly focus on the reaffirmation of adolescents' connection with their immediate family. D) Rites of passage mostly focus on the transition of adolescents to adult status.

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95)

Rites of passage

A) are nonexistent in the United States. B) are on the increase in several African countries that are influenced by Western culture. C) provide a forceful and discontinuous entry into the adult world. D) usually involve a reaffirmation of the individual's connection with their immediate family.

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96) is

The event that comes closest to being a culture-wide rite of passage in the United States

A) the birthday party. B) getting a driver's license. C) the school graduation ceremony. D) joining a college fraternity.

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97)

In which of the following locations in sub-Saharan Africa are rites of passage prevalent?

A) locations where the influence of industrialized culture is high B) locations where Western culture is readily accepted C) locations where social structure is present but not adhered to D) locations where formal education is not readily available

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98)

Identify the dual struggle often faced by immigrants to the United States.

A) to acculturate and take on a new identity B) to work and take care of their children C) to preserve their culture and resist change D) to preserve identity and to acculturate

99)

The double disadvantage suffered by ethnic minority adolescents includes

A) the lack of clear rites of passage. B) diversity and difference. C) prejudice and poverty. D) hostility and assimilation.

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100) The 2009 Kaiser Family Foundation survey, which included more than 2,000 8- to 18year-olds, documented that adolescent media use has _____ in the last decade.

A) decreased significantly B) declined slightly C) increased dramatically D) stayed the same

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101) According to the 2009 Kaiser Family Foundation survey, which of the following groups uses media for the greatest amount of time during a day?

A) 4- to 7-year-olds B) 8- to 11-year-olds C) 11- to 14-year-olds D) 15- to 18-year-olds

102)

The largest increases in media use in early adolescence are for

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A) electronic books and DVDs. B) listening to music on MP3 players. C) chatting with friends on cell phones. D) TV and video games.

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103) Based on the 2009 Kaiser Family Foundation survey, adding up the daily media use figures to obtain a report of weekly media use leads to the staggering number of more than _____ hours a week of media use by 11- to 14-year-olds.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 100

104) Based on the 2009 Kaiser Family Foundation survey, adding up the daily media use figures to obtain a report weekly media among 15- to 18-year-olds shows that they engage in almost _____ hours a week of media use.

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A) 56 B) 68 C) 75 D) 84

105) Dylan does his homework in front of the television while listening to music on his iPod and also simultaneously text-messaging his friends. These actions are collectively known as

A) media multitasking. B) simulcasting. C) surfing. D) media conferencing.

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106)

Which of the following is/are mainly driving the increased media use by adolescents?

A) newspapers B) radio C) cell phones D) internet cafés

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107) Based on the results of the national surveys conducted in 2009 that were funded by the Kaiser Family Foundation, identify a true statement about media use and screen time in adolescents' lives.

A) Children aged 8 to 11 years old used media an average of 8 hours and 40 minutes a day. B) The largest increases in media use in early adolescence involved listening to music. C) Adolescents seldom engage in media multitasking. D) Media use jumps more than 3 hours a day in early adolescence.

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108) Based on survey results, which of the following is the main way that adolescents connect with their friends?

A) phone calls B) instant messaging C) e-mail D) text messaging

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109) Based on survey results, which of the following is the primary way that most adolescents preferred to connect with parents?

A) voice mail B) face-to-face contact C) e-mail D) text messaging

110) One study found that low rates of delinquency from 14 to 23 years of age were associated with a(n) _____ parenting style.

A) neglectful B) indulgent C) authoritative D) authoritarian

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111)

The number of juvenile court delinquency caseloads in the United States has

A) increased dramatically since 1996. B) increased slightly since 1960. C) decreased dramatically since 1996. D) decreased slightly since 1996.

112) Which of the following statements is true about trends in juvenile delinquency in the United States?

A) Middle-SES youth are judged delinquent more readily than their lower-SES counterparts. B) Delinquency rates among minority groups are lower than the proportions of these groups within the general population. C) Delinquency rates among lower-SES youth are higher than the proportions of these groups within the general population. D) Female youth are more likely to engage in delinquency than are male youth.

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113)

Early-onset antisocial behavior is defined as antisocial behavior before age _____.

A) 11 B) 13 C) 15 D) 17

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114)

Early-onset antisocial behavior is

A) associated with fewer negative developmental outcomes than late-onset antisocial behavior. B) seldom associated with a tendency to persist into emerging adulthood. C) associated with more negative developmental outcomes than late-onset antisocial behavior. D) seldom associated with relationship problems, unlike late-onset antisocial behavior.

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115) In recent research, which of the following program types was linked to a reduction in delinquency?

A) individual treatment B) restorative justice C) family therapy D) case management

116) Mark is a 15-year-old boy who lives with his foster parents. He regularly gets into fights and arguments with his friends and family and is usually ignored by them. He starts to take drugs to cope with his loneliness and starts abusing drugs. He breaks into an elderly couple's house and steals money to buy drugs. In this scenario, Mark will most likely be labeled as a(n)

A) embezzler. B) hacker. C) juvenile delinquent. D) cyberbully.

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117)

Which of the following statements about depression in adolescence is true?

A) Female adolescents tend to ruminate in their depressed mood and amplify it; hence, they are more likely to develop depression than are male adolescents. B) Puberty occurs earlier for male adolescents than for female adolescents; hence, male adolescents are more likely to develop depression than are female adolescents. C) Male adolescents face more discrimination than female adolescents do; hence, male adolescents are more likely to develop depression than are female adolescents. D) Female adolescents' self-images, especially their body images, are more positive than male adolescents'; hence, female adolescents are less likely to develop depression than male adolescents.

118)

The most effective way to treat adolescent depression is

A) through antidepressant medication such as Prozac. B) not with medication but through cognitive behavioral therapy. C) a combination of psychoanalysis and family treatment. D) a combination of drug therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy.

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119) Which of the following is the third-leading cause of death in 10- to 19-year-olds today in the United States?

A) homicide B) suicide C) motor vehicle accidents D) infectious diseases

120) During a seminar on suicidal tendencies in adolescence, Dr. Karl says, "Female adolescents are more likely to attempt suicide than male adolescents, but male adolescents are more likely to succeed in committing suicide." Which of the following research findings most likely explains the reasoning for Dr. Karl's statement?

A) Male adolescents show higher levels of depressive behavior than do female adolescents. B) Male adolescents give no warning signs before they attempt suicide. C) Male adolescents use more lethal means in their suicide attempts than do female adolescents. D) Male adolescents attempt suicide more frequently than female adolescents.

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121)

Identify the group that is LEAST likely to exhibit suicidal behavior.

A) American Indian/Alaska Native female adolescents B) American Indian/Alaska Native male adolescents C) Latina adolescents D) African American male adolescents

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122)

Which of the following groups has the highest number of suicide attempts?

A) American Indian/Alaska Native female adolescents B) Asian American/Pacific Islander female adolescents C) non-Latino White male adolescents D) African American male adolescents

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123) Which of the following is the most frequently cited factor associated with adolescent suicide?

A) use of alcohol B) suicidal behavior in friends C) drug use D) depression

124) What is the second leading cause of death among 10- to 19-year-olds today, according to the National Center for Health Statistics (2019)?

A) alcohol poisoning B) car accidents C) suicide D) homicide

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125)

Which nation has the highest rate of suicide among 15- to 19-year-olds?

A) New Zealand B) Iceland C) Greece D) Australia

126) Cynthia and Jermaine have a 16-year-old daughter, Madeleine, who gets taunted, ridiculed, and harassed online by other youth from her high school. Why should Cynthia and Jermaine be concerned?

A) Cyberbullying is a likely cause for increased aggression among adolescents. B) Cyberbullying increases the likelihood of suicide by 250 percent. C) Cyberbullying of adolescents can lead to lower cognitive function later in life. D) Cyberbullying can cause inflated egos in adolescents.

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127) The four problems that affect the most adolescents are drug abuse, sexual problems, school-related problems, and

A) career choice dilemmas. B) juvenile delinquency. C) peer-related problems. D) family problems.

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128) Nina is reading an article about the major problems that affect most adolescents. She is aware that drug abuse, juvenile delinquency, sexual problems, and school-related problems are the four most common issues that affect most adolescents. She learns from the article that several research studies have been conducted to understand the effects of these issues on adolescents. Which of the following would most likely be included in the article?

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A) As many as 50 percent of adolescents in the United States have been estimated to engage in all four of the problem behaviors common in adolescence. B) Adolescents most at risk typically suffer from more than one of the four problem behaviors. C) Research studies confirm that the four problem behaviors in adolescence are seldom related. D) It is estimated that the percentage of high-risk youth who engage in two or three of the four main problem behaviors has decreased over the years.

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129) If a community wants to develop programs to help at-risk youths, an important component to include in the program would be

A) intensive individualized attention. B) strong academic support. C) community role models. D) tactics to "scare teens straight."

130)

Fast Track is an intervention program that attempts to lower the risk of

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A) teen pregnancy. B) juvenile delinquency. C) teen suicide. D) adolescent depression.

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131) In populations with high-risk profiles, predicting adult criminal convictions by age 25 is possible with as little as

A) one teacher screen taken during kindergarten or first grade. B) one interview with parents in the child's infancy. C) one blood test in early adolescence. D) one year of therapy in early adulthood.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 132) What term refers to a self-portrait that is composed of many pieces and domains?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Identity

133) The term psychosocial _____ refers to the "gap" between childhood security and adult autonomy, where society leaves adolescents free to "try out" many different identities. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Erikson's View of Identity

134) Which Eriksonian researcher proposed that Erikson's theory of identity development contains four statuses of identity, or ways of resolving the identity crisis? (Provide the last name only.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe self, identity, and religious/spiritual development in adolescence. Topic : Marcia's Identity Statuses

135)

What term refers to a personal investment in identity?

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136) The identity status characterized by both the lack of crisis and the lack of commitment to a self-identity is known as identity _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain identity formation in adolescence. Topic : Marcia's Identity Statuses

137) Identify the individual (with the last name only) that is considered the most influential theorist to discuss the importance of adolescent friendships, who argued that the need for intimacy intensifies during early adolescence, motivating teenagers to seek out close friends. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during adolescence. Topic : Friendship

138) What term refers to a small group that ranges from 2 to about 12 individuals, averages about 5 to 6 individuals, and can form because adolescents engage in similar activities? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe changes in peer relationships during adolescence. Topic : Cliques and Crowds

139) What term refers to an adolescent group structure, usually formed on the basis of reputation, where members may or may not spend time together?

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140) In the context of the development of romantic relationships in adolescence, late _____ comprise 17- to 19-year-olds who either say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships or say that they have not engaged in any romantic relationships that lasted more than four months. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe adolescent sexuality. Topic : Dating and Romantic Relationships

141) _____ of passage is the term for a ceremony or ritual that marks an individual's transition from one status to another. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cultural influences during adolescence. Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

142) The term for an adolescent who breaks the law or engages in behavior that is considered illegal is juvenile _____.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 143) Explain the concept of psychosocial moratorium. What happens to individuals who do not successfully resolve their identity crisis?

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144) What determines an individual's identity status, according to James Marcia? What is the main criticism of this approach, and what is the alternative approach recommended by researchers?

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145)

Which identity status is most closely linked to an authoritarian style of parenting?

146)

Discuss the issue of ethnic identity in the third and later generations of immigrants.

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147) How can parents help their adolescents develop the ability to attain autonomy, gain control over their behavior, and make mature decisions?

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148)

In which situations are adolescents most likely to conform to peers?

149) Explain the two types of romantic involvement that occur between the ages of 14 and 16 years.

150) The discretionary time available to U.S. adolescents is greater than that available to their counterparts in East Asia, Europe, and other industrialized countries. Analyze if this additional discretionary time is an asset or a liability for U.S. adolescents.

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151) Discuss how some characteristics of lower-class culture might promote juvenile delinquency.

152) Is there any gender difference in the incidence of adolescent depression? What accounts for this gender difference?

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153) Miley, a 13-year-old girl, belongs to a caring and supportive family. Her parents often encourage her to take calculated risks and support her in every right decision that she makes in the social world. They give her advice on how to prepare for the transition from childhood dependency to adult independence. Identify the model of parent-adolescent relationship exemplified in this scenario.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch12 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) A 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) D 85) B 86) D Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) D 95) C 96) C 97) D 98) D 99) C 100) C 101) C 102) D 103) C 104) A 105) A 106) C 107) D 108) D 109) A 110) C 111) D 112) C 113) A 114) C 115) C 116) C Version 1

117) A 118) D 119) B 120) C 121) D 122) A 123) D 124) C 125) A 126) A 127) B 128) B 129) A 130) B 131) A 132) identity 133) moratorium 134) Marcia 135) commitment 136) diffusion 137) Sullivan 138) clique 139) crowd 140) bloomers 141) Rite 142) delinquent

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143) Psychosocial moratorium is the term used by Erikson to describe the gap between childhood security and adult autonomy. It aids the search for an identity during adolescence. During this period, society leaves adolescents relatively free of responsibilities and able to try out different identities. Adolescents experiment with different roles and personalities. They may want to pursue one career one month and another career the next month. They may dress neatly one day, sloppily the next. This experimentation is a deliberate effort on the part of adolescents to find out where they fit in the world. Most adolescents eventually discard undesirable roles. Youth who successfully cope with conflicting identities emerge with a new sense of self that is both refreshing and acceptable. Adolescents who do not successfully resolve this identity crisis suffer what Erikson calls identity confusion. The confusion takes one of two courses: Individuals either withdraw, isolating themselves from peers and family, or they immerse themselves in the world of peers and lose their identity in the crowd. 144) James Marcia classifies individuals' identity statuses based on the existence or extent of their crisis or commitment.Crisis is defined as a period of identity development during which an individual is exploring alternatives. Most researchers use the termexploration rather than crisis. Commitment is personal investment in identity. Some critics argue that the identity status approach does not produce enough depth in understanding identity development. One way that researchers are now examining identity changes in depth is to use a narrative approach. This involves asking individuals to tell their life stories and evaluate the extent to which their stories are meaningful and integrated.

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145) An authoritarian style of parenting is most often the cause for identity foreclosure. Authoritarian parents hand down commitments to their adolescent children even before the adolescents have had a chance to explore different approaches, ideologies, and vocations on their own, causing them to experience identity foreclosure, which involves individuals make a commitment without experiencing a crisis. 146) In the third and later generations, the issues involving ethnic identity become more complex than for earlier generations. Historical, contextual, and political factors that are unrelated to acculturation may affect the extent to which members of this generation retain their ethnic identities. For non-European ethnic groups, racism and discrimination influence whether ethnic identity is retained. 147) Adolescents' ability to attain autonomy and gain control over their behavior is acquired through appropriate adult reactions to their desire for control. As an adolescent pushes for autonomy, the wise adult relinquishes control in those areas where the adolescent can make reasonable decisions, but continues to guide the adolescent to make reasonable decisions in areas in which the adolescent's knowledge is more limited. Gradually, adolescents acquire the ability to make mature decisions on their own. 148) Around the eighth and ninth grades, conformity to peers— especially to their antisocial standards—peaks. Research has revealed that adolescents who are uncertain about their social identity, which can appear in the form of low self-esteem and high social anxiety, are most likely to conform to peers. This uncertainty often increases during times of transition, such as school and family transitions. Also, peers are more likely to conform when they are in the presence of someone they perceive as having higher status than they do.

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149) Between the ages of 14 and 16 years, two types of romantic involvement occur: (a) Casual dating emerges between individuals who are mutually attracted. These dating experiences are often short-lived, lasting a few months at best, and usually endure for only a few weeks. (b) Dating in groups is common and reflects embeddedness in the peer context. Friends often act as third-party facilitators of a potential dating relationship by communicating their friend's romantic interest and determining whether this attraction is reciprocated. 150) Answers will vary but should incorporate the following discussion from the text: Whether the additional discretionary time available to U.S. adolescents is a liability or an asset for them depends on how they use this time. According to Larson, this additional time is largely detrimental for optimal development when such time is unstructured. When adolescents in the United States are allowed to choose what they do with their time, they typically engage in unchallenging activities such as hanging out and watching TV. Although relaxation and social interaction are important aspects of adolescence, it seems unlikely that spending large numbers of hours per week in unchallenging activities fosters development. Structured voluntary activities may provide more promise for adolescent development than unstructured time, especially if adults give responsibility to adolescents, challenge them, and provide competent guidance in these activities.

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151) The norms of many lower-SES peer groups and gangs are antisocial, or counterproductive, to the goals and norms of society at large. Getting into and staying out of trouble are prominent features of life for some adolescents in low-income neighborhoods. Being "tough" and "masculine" are high-status traits for lower-SES boys, and these traits are often measured by the adolescent's success in performing and getting away with delinquent acts. And adolescents in communities with high crime rates observe many models who engage in criminal activities. These communities may be characterized by poverty, unemployment, and feelings of alienation toward the middle class. Quality schooling, educational funding, and organized neighborhood activities may be lacking in these communities. 152) Female adolescents are far more likely to develop depression than are their male counterparts. In a recent study, at 12 years of age, 5.2 percent of female adolescents compared to 2 percent of male adolescents had experienced first-onset depression. In this study, the cumulative incidence of depression from 12 to 17 years of age was 36 percent for female adolescents and 14 percent for male adolescents. Among the reasons for this gender difference are that female adolescents tend to ruminate in their depressed mood and amplify it; female adolescents' self-images, especially their body images, are more negative than male adolescents'; female adolescents face more discrimination than male adolescents do; and puberty occurs earlier for girls than for boys. 153) This is the new model of parent-adolescent relationships, in which parents are important support systems and attachment figures, and parent and peer worlds have some important connections.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The transition from adolescence to adulthood has been referred to as emerging adulthood, which occurs from approximately _____ years of age.

A) 12 to 18 B) 18 to 25 C) 21 to 26 D) 20 to 30

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2) In characterizing emerging adulthood asself-focused, Jeffrey Arnett (2006) noted which of the following?

A) Emerging adults have little in the way of social obligations, which leaves them with a great deal of autonomy in run-ning their own lives. B) Many emerging adults don't consider themselves adolescents or full-fledged adults. C) Emerging adults experience residential changes during early adulthood, which commonly leads to insta-bility in love, work, and education. D) Many individuals experience key changes in identity during emerging adulthood.

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3) Jeffrey Arnett (2006) describes emerging adults as both "optimistic about their future" and having "an opportunity to chart their life course in a more positive direction." These two observations support his characterization of emerging adulthood as

A) a period of stability. B) the period of social responsibilities. C) the age of possibilities. D) a time of feeling "in-between."

The concept of emerging adulthood has been criticized as applying mainly to

A) individuals with a master's degree. B) young adults who engage in unhealthy behaviors. C) adolescents who are privileged. D) individuals living in limiting economic conditions.

5) Which of the following statements is true about the various aspects of emerging adulthood?

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A) The increased freedom that is available to emerging adults in Western society places a premium on the capacity to plan ahead and make positive choices. B) For many individuals, identity exploration in love and work remains stable during this period. C) It characterizes typical development in all cultures. D) Most people have little or no autonomy in running their own lives in this period.

In the United States, the most widely recognized marker of entry into adulthood is

A) holding a more or less permanent full-time job. B) moving into one's own home. C) getting married. D) having a child.

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Which of the following statements about the various markers of adulthood is true?

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A) In developing countries, marriage is hardly a significant marker for entry into adulthood. B) Economic independence is one of the key markers of adult status, but achieving it has been considered a long process. C) Marriage is the most widely recognized marker of entry into adulthood among industrialized countries such as the United States. D) The criteria for adulthood remain the same across different types of economies.

8) In one study (Nelson & others, 2007), both parents and college students agreed that taking responsibility for one's actions and _____ are important aspects of becoming an adult.

A) physical maturity B) spiritual maturity C) developing emotional control D) community service

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the transition from adolescence to adulthood. Topic : Becoming an Adult

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9) Derek is a young adult who recently graduated from college. Despite excelling at academics, he is unable to find a meaningful job. Derek has maturity fears, which he has been experiencing since his early adolescent years. He continues to live with his parents and relies on them for financial support. According to Joseph and Claudia Allen, which of the following should Derek's parents have done to launch him adequately into the adult years?

A) They should have protected him from both constructive and negative criticism. B) They should have showered him with praise and material things. C) They should have created service learning opportunities for him. D) They should have assigned him tasks that match his level of ability.

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10) In nonindustrialized countries, marriage—the marker for entry into adulthood—usually occurs _____ the adulthood markers in the United States.

A) much earlier than B) much later than C) around the same time as D) a little later than

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11) Just as the transition from elementary school to middle or junior high school involves change and possible stress, so does the transition from high school to college. The two transitions have many parallels. Which of the following is one of them?

A) movement to a more personal school structure B) increased parental monitoring C) the top-dog phenomenon D) decreased interaction with peers

12)

Which of the following is a positive feature of the transition from high school to college?

A) decreased focus on achievement and its assessment B) opportunities to explore different lifestyles and values C) reduced peer pressure D) movement to a smaller, more personal school structure

13) According to the surveys conducted by the Higher Education Research Institute at UCLA, which of the following is true of college students?

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A) Among U.S. college freshmen, the interest in developing a meaningful philosophy of life has decreased. B) Concern for the well-being of others has remained the same among college students over the years. C) In recent years, traditional-aged college students have shown a decreased concern for personal well-being. D) An increasing number of first-year college students report having higher levels of stress and depression.

14) According to the national survey conducted by the Higher Education Research Institute at UCLA, today's college students are _____ than students in previous generations.

A) more depressed B) less depressed C) less mentally exhausted D) less stressed

15) Which of the following is a new sign that U.S. college students are shifting toward a stronger interest in the welfare of society?

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A) Traditional-aged college students are showing an increasing concern for the welfare of others rather than their own. B) Traditional-aged college students are significantly less interested in being financially well-off than they were 50 years ago. C) Traditional-aged college students are growing more interested in developing a meaningful philosophy of life. D) Traditional-aged college students did less volunteer work in 2017 than they did in 2001.

16)

Most of us reach our peak physical performance

A) between the ages of 15 and 22. B) before the age of 20. C) before the age of 30, often between the ages of 19 and 26. D) before the age of 22, often between the ages of 14 and 19.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Physical Performance and Development

17)

Which of the following athletes would be most likely to peak the earliest?

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A) a golfer B) a swimmer C) a marathon runner D) a baseball player

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Physical Performance and Development

18) Ajith was able to pursue gymnastics with the support and encouragement of his family. During his career as a sportsperson, he represented his country at several international gymnastic competitions. In the context of physical performance and development, which of the following is most likely true of Ajith?

A) He reached his peak performance in his early thirties. B) He became a gymnast in his late twenties. C) He was 42 years old when he participated in his first international event. D) He won most of his medals in his late teens.

19) The examples of Dana Torres (Olympic swimmer) and Tom Brady (football) illustrate the observation that

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A) there have been some instances in recent years of highly conditioned athletes stretching the upper age limits of winning performances. B) the peak of physical performance occurs later than previously thought. C) the peak of winning performances occurs earlier than previously thought. D) declines in physical ability is a common complaint, even among highly conditioned athletes, past a certain age.

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20)

Muscle tone and strength usually begin to show signs of decline around the age of _____.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 40

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21) Which of the following reflects a key finding of research on the mortality rates of emerging adults (Park & others, 2006)?

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A) Among males, suicide is the highest cause of mortality aside from than unintentional injuries. B) The mortality rate among male adolescents is higher than among emerging adults. C) The mortality rate of emerging adults is more than twice the mortality rate of adolescents. D) Usually, females are chiefly responsible for the higher mortality rates of emerging adults.

22)

In the context of health, which of the following statements is true of emerging adults?

A) They have more than twice the mortality rate of adolescents. B) They are less likely to engage in health-compromising behaviors than adolescents. C) They are less likely to be obese or have a mental disorder than adolescents. D) They typically eat regular meals and avoid consuming snacks during the day.

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23) Research has revealed that college students from low-SES backgrounds _____ than their higher-SES counterparts (VanKim & Laska, 2012).

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A) ate less fast food B) ate more fruits and vegetables C) controlled their weight better D) engaged in lower levels of physical activity

24) Research on socioeconomic status and the habits of college students (VanKim & Laska, 2012) showed that college students from low-SES backgrounds _____ than their higher-SES counterparts.

A) ate more fast food and fewer fruits and vegetables B) showed more healthy weight control C) engaged in higher levels of physical activity D) had a more balanced diet

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25) A longitudinal study (Harris & others, 2006) revealed that most bad health habits that were engaged in during adolescence _____ in emerging adulthood.

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A) receded B) did not continue C) remained unchanged D) increased

26)

Emerging adults fail to develop health-promoting habits because they

A) believe that good genes will override any unhealthy behaviors. B) lack knowledge about which behaviors are healthy and unhealthy. C) are reluctant to be seen as health-conscious. D) do not consider how their lifestyle will affect them later in life.

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27) Mark, a 21-year-old, is a college student who plays basketball. He has represented his college in several nationwide basketball competitions. Mark has a healthy body mass index and is popular among his peers for his sturdy, muscular physique. What does Mark most likely do to improve and maintain his health profile?

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A) He follows a strict vegan diet. B) He engages in binge drinking. C) He gets adequate sleep. D) He has multiple sex partners.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze Topic : Health

28) One study explored links between health behavior and life satisfaction in more than 17,000 individuals between 17 and 30 years of age in 21 countries. The young adults' life satisfaction was found to be positively related to

A) exercising regularly. B) alcohol consumption. C) fiber intake. D) increasing fat intake.

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29) Which of the following statements is true of obesity among the general population of the United States?

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A) The number of obese people in the United States is predicted to decrease by 2030. B) Greater reliance on energy-saving devices has reduced obesity in the United States. C) Obesity is more prevalent among American women with low incomes than among women with high incomes. D) Studies in the United States have found that increasing the consumption of fat-rich foods can help people fight obesity.

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30) According to experts, how many hours of sleep do adults require per night for optimal performance the next day?

A) 5 B) 8 C) 11 D) 12

31) According to a recent international comparison of 33 developed countries conducted by the OECD, which of the following countries was found to have the highest percentage of obese adults?

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A) the United States B) Italy C) Norway D) Japan

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32)

Being overweight or obese is linked to increased risk of

A) cancer. B) Down syndrome. C) anemia. D) hypertension.

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33) Identical human twins have similar weights, even when they are reared apart. This indicates

A) the important role nutrition plays in obesity. B) how lifestyle is instrumental in determining an individual's weight. C) the genetic component of a person's weight. D) how a person's weight cannot be traced to genetic factors.

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34) According to the American Academy of Sleep Medicine and Sleep Research Society, which of the following statements is true about an individual's sleep?

A) The level of stress is independent of the quality or amount of sleep. B) Family and social obligations predominantly lead to long hours of sleep in an individual's life. C) Usually five hours of sleep a day is necessary for the optimal performance of an individual. D) Chronic sleep deprivation may contribute to cardiovascular disease and a shortened life span.

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35) With obesity on the rise, _____ has become an obsession with many Americans (Blake, 2020; Donatelle & Ketcham, 2020).

A) dieting B) exercising C) sleeping D) smoking

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36) The human genome has not changed markedly in the last century, yet obesity has noticeably increased. This indicates that

A) environmental factors play an important role in obesity. B) obesity is primarily a product of a person's genes. C) environmental factors have little impact on obesity. D) people today are relying less on energy-saving devices.

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37)

According to recent studies, the most effective programs for losing weight include

A) music. B) exercise. C) reading. D) dieting.

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38)

Which of the following is true of binge eating disorder (BED)?

A) Adolescents with BED are more likely to live in families that function effectively. B) BED involves frequent binge eating with compensatory behavior like purging. C) BED is far more common in females than in males. D) Individuals with BED are frequently underweight.

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39)

One of the most strongly supported interventions for binge eating disorder (BED) is

A) coherence therapy. B) social therapy. C) interpersonal therapy. D) gene therapy.

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40) Rhett is looking for the most effective way to lose his excess weight and keep it off. You would tell him that the most effective weight-loss programs invariably include

A) a calorie-reducing diet. B) daily weigh-ins. C) exercise. D) counseling.

41) Brian was of average weight throughout his childhood and in college. However, he has gained more than 30 pounds over the past 18 months and has become obese. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of his obesity?

A) the decline in food prices in his region B) the absence of physical activity in his daily routine C) the lower availability of energy-saving devices D) the decline in his mental health problems

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42)

Which of the following is an example of aerobic exercise?

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A) weight lifting B) cycling C) bodybuilding D) sprinting

43) Sustained exercises such as jogging or swimming that stimulate heart and lung activity are known as

A) calisthenics. B) strength training. C) flexibility exercises. D) aerobic exercises.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Exercise

44)

Which of the following statements about the benefits of exercise is true?

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A) About 50 percent of adults get the recommended levels of physical activity. B) Exercise can be as effective in reducing depression as psychotherapy. C) Only intense physical activities will produce important physical gains. D) Exercise has little impact on self-concept and in reducing anxiety.

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45) Sustained exercises such as jogging or swimming that stimulate heart and lung activity are known as

A) calisthenics. B) strength training. C) flexibility exercises. D) aerobic exercises.

46) Fatima frequently experiences feelings of sadness and hopelessness. She constantly feels tired and has also developed insomnia. Upon consulting a doctor, she is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Fatima's doctor is most likely to recommend she

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A) increase her screen time. B) spend less time socializing. C) increase her intake of fast food. D) cycle for 30 minutes daily.

47)

Which of the following statements about binge drinking is true?

A) Extreme binge drinking refers to individu-als who had five or more drinks in a row in the last week. B) Chronic binge drinking is common among college men, especially those who live in fraternity houses. C) Overall levels of binge drinking among college students in the United States have risen in recent years. D) Studies show that contrary to general perceptions, college students who binge drink rarely miss classes.

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48)

A key factor in early death, according to the World Health Organization, is

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A) physical inactivity. B) excessive participation in sports. C) contact sports. D) lack of participation in team sports.

49) _____ refers to a behavior pattern characterized by an overwhelming involvement with a drug and a preoccupation with securing its supply.

A) Abuse B) Dependence C) Attachment D) Addiction

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50) Based on data from theMonitoring the Future study (Schulenberg & others, 2018), by the time individuals reach their late twenties,

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A) binge drinking has declined. B) binge drinking is reaching its peak. C) most have quit drinking. D) the majority have become alcoholics.

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51)

Which of the following describes extreme binge drinking?

A) about eight drinks a week B) about five drinks a week C) ten or more drinks in a row D) eight or more drinks in a row

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52)

Binge drinking peaks at about

A) 16 to 18 years of age. B) 17 to 19 years of age. C) 21 to 22 years of age. D) 24 to 26 years of age.

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53) Regular binge drinking can change blood flow, and it can be a precursor for developing _____, which refers to hardening of the arteries.

A) hypoplastic left heart syndrome B) atherosclerosis C) arteriosclerosis D) hypertension

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54)

Which of the following is true of nicotine?

A) It is a depressant that stimulates neurotransmitters that have a calming or painreducing effect. B) It increases the smoker's energy and alertness. C) It deprives the smoker of a pleasurable and reinforcing experience. D) It is a passive drug in cigarettes that reduces the dopamine levels of the smoker.

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55)

Which of the following statements about drinking is true?

A) Pregaming is most rare among college students. B) Binge drinking usually peaks at about 28 to 29 years of age. C) Chronic binge drinking is less common among college students who live in fraternity houses. D) Higher levels of alcohol are usually linked with higher rates of sexual assault and sexual risk taking.

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56) Kendra has a few shots of vodka before going out to attend her annual college party. Kendra has engaged in

A) boot and rally. B) high-risk drinking. C) extreme binge drinking. D) pregaming.

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57)

Which of the following statements about alcoholism is true?

A) There are no genetic influences on alcoholism. B) Family studies reveal a low frequency of alcoholism in the first-degree relatives of alcoholics. C) One in nine individuals who drink will develop alcoholism. D) Research indicates that about two-thirds of alcoholics recover, regardless of them ever being in a treatment program.

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58)

Higher levels of alcohol use have been consistently linked to

A) having sex with contraception. B) committing sexual assault. C) avoiding casual sex. D) refraining from sexual risk taking.

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59)

Orthodox Jews and Mormons have especially low rates of alcohol use, underscoring the

A) environment's role in alcoholism. B) role of genes in alcoholism. C) fact that alcoholism is largely inherited. D) fact that cultural variations do not impact alcoholism.

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60) There is a "one-third rule'' for alcoholism: By age 65, one-third are dead or in terrible shape, one-third are abstinent or drinking socially, and one-third are

A) holding out against treatment. B) still trying to beat their addiction. C) resigned to alcoholism. D) hopeless about recovery.

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61)

Which of the following is true about cigarette smoking?

A) Children of smokers are at special risk of developing several health problems, including asthma. B) More people smoke today than in the past. C) A small percentage of all living adults who have ever smoked have quit. D) Most adult smokers are unwilling to quit because they are unaware of the dangers of cigarette smoking.

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62)

Which of the following is the active drug in cigarettes?

A) leptin B) barbiturate C) nicotine D) amphetamine

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63)

Nicotine is a

A) depressant. B) stimulant. C) narcotic. D) sedative.

64) _____ stimulates neurotransmitters (especially dopamine) that have a calming or painreducing effect.

A) A barbiturate B) Amphetamine C) Leptin D) Nicotine

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65)

Which of the following statements about sexual activity in emerging adulthood is true?

A) Surveys usually indicate that slightly less than 10 percent of individuals have experienced sexual intercourse at the beginning of emerging adulthood (age 18). B) Surveys indicate that emerging adulthood is a time frame during which most individuals are unmarried and not sexually active. C) Most individuals have had sexual intercourse by the end of emerging adulthood (age 25). D) Casual sex is more common in the late twenties than in emerging adulthood.

66) Which of the following is the average age of first marriage for males in the United States?

A) 25.4 B) 26.8 C) 29.8 D) 30.2

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67)

Emerging adulthood is a time frame during which most individuals are

A) in exclusive relationships and married. B) abstaining from sex and unmarried. C) sexually active and unmarried. D) sexually active and married.

68) Which of the following is among the patterns of heterosexual behavior for males and females in emerging adulthood?

A) Emerging adults are less likely than young adults to have had sexual intercourse with two or more individuals. B) Males report being more selective about their sexual partners than females. C) Casual sex is more common in emerging adulthood than in the late twenties. D) Emerging adults have sex more frequently than young adults.

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69) In a recent study of emerging adults (Olmstead, Norona, & Anders, 2019), a greater percentage of _____ than _____ reported having sex and hooking up with an acquaintance.

A) women; men B) men; women C) White youth; Latino youth D) unmarried individuals; married individuals

70) Which of the following statements accurately reflects a key finding from the 1994 Sex in America survey?

A) Most Americans have sex twice a week or more. B) Married and cohabiting couples have sex more often than noncohabiting couples. C) Most men and women have always remained faithful to their partners and have avoided any adulterous relationship. D) Women think about sex far more than men do.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexual Attitudes and Behavior

71) Marie is reluctant to marry because she is worried that her husband might cheat on her. You would tell her that adultery is

A) widespread in the United States. B) a problem in almost half the marriages in the United States. C) clearly the exception rather than the rule. D) a problem most married couples in the United States have faced at some point.

72) One meta-analysis on gender differences in sexuality (Petersen & Hyde, 2010) found which of the following to be true?

A) Men report more permissive attitudes about casual sex than their female counterparts. B) Women report engaging in more in pornography use and casual sex than men. C) Women report having slightly more sexual experience than men for most aspects of sexuality. D) Latino and Asian males report more permissive sexual attitudes than African American males.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexual Attitudes and Behavior

73) Robert Michael and colleagues conducted a comprehensive survey of American sexual patterns. Results from this Sex in America survey (1994) suggested that Americans' sexual lives are _____ than previously believed.

A) more conservative B) less conservative C) more active D) less active

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74) Results from the 1994 Sex in America survey suggest that adult sexual behavior is ruled by _____ and _____ for most Americans.

A) abstinence; marriage B) kinkiness; infidelity C) marriage; monogamy D) noncohabitation; polygamy

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75)

Which of the following statements about sexual orientation is considered true today?

A) Most individuals have a bisexual orientation. B) Sexual orientation is an either/or proposition, where individuals are either heterosexual or homosexual. C) Sexual orientation is a continuum from exclusive male-female relations to exclusive same-sex relations. D) Individuals of different sexual orientations have different physiological responses during sexual arousal.

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76)

The critical-period hypothesis could explain

A) why homosexuals seem to be aroused by the same types of tactile stimulation as heterosexuals. B) how sexual orientation is mostly a product of culture and life experiences. C) why some clinicians consider homosexuality the product of an abnormality of the brain. D) why sexual orientation is difficult, if not impossible, to modify.

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77)

In the context of bisexuality, which of the following statements is true?

A) There is a lack of evidence to support the idea that bisexuality is a stable orientation involving attraction to both sexes. B) Women are usually more likely than men to identify themselves as bisexuals. C) Physiological responses for bisexuals during sexual arousal differ greatly from the responses of heterosexuals. D) Bisexuality is predominantly viewed as sexual attraction primarily to males and then sometimes to females.

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78) Manny has contracted a virus that is destroying his body's immune system. Manny most likely has

A) AIDS. B) herpes. C) syphilis. D) gonorrhea.

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79) Clara has recently been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection. She has fevers frequently and has chronic fatigue. She is also losing weight at an alarming rate. There is no cure for her condition. Given this information, it is likely that Clara has been diagnosed with

A) syphilis. B) chlamydia. C) AIDS. D) genital warts.

80)

Which of the following is true of genital herpes?

A) It is caused by the bacteriumTreponema pallidum. B) It is a very rare infection, affecting only 1 in 100,000 individuals. C) It is commonly called thedrip orclap. D) It involves an eruption of sores and blisters.

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81) Dylan was recently diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection. The infection led to sores developing on his anus. Eventually, a skin rash broke out on the bottom of his feet. Given this information, it is likely that Dylan was diagnosed with

A) genital herpes. B) genital warts. C) syphilis. D) chlamydia.

82)

Condoms are less effective against the spread of

A) syphilis. B) herpes. C) chlamydia. D) gonorrhea.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

83)

Which of the following is true of rape?

A) About two-thirds of college men usually deny that they fondle women against their will. B) Usually only 1,500 rapes are reported each year in the United States. C) Researchers point out that rapists, in general, are seldom angry with women. D) Legal definitions of rape usually differ from state to state.

84) Researchers have found that male rapists share the following characteristics: Aggression enhances their sense of power or masculinity; they are angry at women in general; and

A) they have an overwhelming need for sex. B) they want to hurt and humiliate their victims. C) they believe that the victim was not hurt by the rape. D) they are generally physically strong men.

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85) Gina's boyfriend forced her to have sexual intercourse with him during their last date. Gina experienced

A) marital rape. B) date or acquaintance rape. C) sexual harassment. D) sexual coercion not amounting to rape.

86) In a survey of college students (Watts & Zimmerman, 2002), about _____ of female college freshman women report having been date raped or having experienced an attempted date rape at least once.

A) one-tenth B) one-quarter C) half D) two-thirds

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87)

About _____ college men admit to forcing sexual activity.

A) one in ten B) a quarter of C) three in four D) two-thirds of

88) A number of colleges and universities describe the "red zone" as a period of time _____ of college, when women are at especially high risk for unwanted sexual experiences.

A) early in the first year B) late in the last year C) around the second year D) in the second and third year

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89)

Sexual harassment is a manifestation of

A) genuine attraction toward the victim. B) appropriate sexual contact between two individuals. C) power of one person over another. D) forced, nonconsensual sexual intercourse.

90) In a major study involving a phone survey of 4,446 women attending two- or four-year colleges (Fisher, Cullen, & Turner, 2000), the highest percentage of women reported being victims of attempted rape by a(n)

A) boyfriend. B) classmate. C) ex-boyfriend. D) acquaintance.

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91) In a major study involving a phone survey of 4,446 women attending two- or four-year colleges (Fisher, Cullen, & Turner, 2000), which of the following was observed regarding stalking?

A) Most women were stalked by strangers. B) More than half of the female students said that they had been stalked. C) Most women knew their stalkers. D) Stalking incidents lasted, on average, about 14 months.

92) Women who have experienced sexual assault are more likely to suffer all of the following consequences, EXCEPT

A) more academic problems. B) fewer serious romantic relationships. C) depression and anxiety as much as nine years after the incident. D) increasing attachment in romantic relationships.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Rape

93) David and Diana, both in their early 30s, are dating. Even though David is exactly what Diana is looking for in a partner, she is reluctant to commit to a romantic relationship. She suffers from depression, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress, and had to settle for an undemanding job because she dropped out of college after her junior year. Based on recent research (Rothman & others, 2020), there is a higher than average likelihood that Diana

A) suffered sexual assault in college. B) has hyper-attention deficit disorder. C) needs to improve her diet and exercise. D) grew up in a household with overbearing parents.

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94)

Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?

A) Sexual harassment of men by women occurs, but to a far lesser extent than sexual harassment of women by men. B) Gestures such as patting and brushing against another person's body are different from sexual harassment. C) Sexual harassment appears to be absent educational settings. D) Sexual harassment is synonymous with rape but excludes blatant sexual remarks and propositions.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexual Harassment

95)

According to Piaget, which of the following is the final stage of cognitive development?

A) the sensorimotor stage B) the concrete operational stage C) the formal operational stage D) the preoperational stage

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

96) According to Jean Piaget, at approximately 11 to 15 years of age, adolescents enter the _____ stage of cognitive development.

A) formal operational B) concrete operational C) preoperational D) sensorimotor

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

97) According to Jean Piaget, which of the following characterizes the thinking of 7- to 11year-olds?

A) preoperational thinking B) formal operational thinking C) concrete operational thinking D) sensorimotor thinking

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98) Piaget stressed that young adults are more quantitatively advanced in their thinking than adolescents in the sense that

A) they engage in less logical and abstract thinking. B) they have more knowledge. C) they enter the concrete operational stage at about 18 years of age. D) they engage in more idealistic thinking.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

99) According to Piaget, the _____ stage of cognitive development characterizes adults as well as adolescents.

A) formal operational B) concrete operational C) sensorimotor D) preoperational

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100) Which of the following is a similarity in the reasoning of Jean Piaget and informationprocessing psychologists?

A) The cognitive ability of adolescents and young adults are quantitatively identical. B) Adolescents are capable of concrete operational thinking, and only in adulthood do individuals enter the formal operational stage. C) Adults think more idealistically than adolescents do. D) Adults especially increase their knowledge in a specific area.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

101) Some theorists have pieced together cognitive changes in young adults and proposed a new stage of cognitive development. This stage is referred to as

A) preformal thought. B) postformal thought. C) postconventional thought. D) preconventional thought.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Postformal Thought

102) Which of the following is a difference between formal operational thought and postformal thought?

A) realistic thinking B) abstract thinking C) logical thinking D) idealistic thinking

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Postformal Thought

103) Which of the following statements accurately reflects theprovisional quality of postformal thought?

A) Young adults understand that thinking must be realistic and pragmatic instead of abstract. B) Many young adults see the search for truth as an ongoing and perhaps never-ending process. C) Emerging and young adults are more likely than adolescents to understand that their thinking is influenced by emotions. D) As young adults engage in solving problems, they might think deeply about many aspects of work, politics, and other areas of life.

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104)

Research on the idea of the postformal stage of cognitive development has

A) proven that formal operational thinking is qualitatively more advanced than postformal thinking. B) found no evidence of postformal thought in young adults. C) been unable, thus far, to document postformal thought as a qualitatively more advanced stage than formal operational thought. D) found that concrete operational thought is more advanced than postformal thought.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Postformal Thought

105) According to Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi, _____ refers to a heightened state of pleasure experienced when we are engaged in mental and physical challenges that absorb us.

A) bliss B) flow C) euphoria D) nirvana

106)

Which of the following statements about creativity is true?

A) In such fields as philosophy and history, older adults often show less creativity than they did when they were in their thirties and forties. B) Typically, the most productive creators in any field are hardly as prolific as their least productive counterparts. C) In such fields as lyric poetry, abstract math, and theoretical physics, the peak of creativity is often reached in the late seventies or eighties. D) Researchers have found that creativity peaks in adulthood and then declines.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Creativity

107)

According to Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi, the first step toward a more creative life is

A) cultivating one's curiosity and inter-est. B) spending time on routine activities. C) accepting one's limitations. D) learning about familiar ideas.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Creativity

108) Mini wants to know what activities would be most conducive to creative thinking. Based on what people reported in Csikszentmihalyi's research, you would suggest that Mini would be at her creative best during activities that

A) demand complete attention. B) leave little time free to think about peripheral issues. C) are semiautomatic. D) demand practically no attention.

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109) In such fields as lyric poetry, abstract math, and theoretical physics, the peak of creativity is often reached during

A) the late fifties. B) the twenties or thirties. C) early adolescence. D) old age.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Creativity

110) Identify the concept, recently described by Phyllis Moen, that reflects ingrained cultural beliefs that engaging in hard work for long hours through adulthood will produce a path to status, security, and happiness.

A) the American dream B) the mythical career C) the career mystique D) the golden handshake

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Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Work

111) Jared graduates from college and starts working as a sales executive in a company. He works extra hours on most days in the hopes of getting a quick promotion. Jared believes that working long hours will earn him financial security and help him lead a happy life. Jared most likely believes in what Phyllis Moen describes as the

A) glass ceiling. B) mythical career. C) career mystique. D) golden handshake.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Work

112) In interviews with 12- to 22-year-olds about finding their purpose in life, William Damon found that

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A) most expressed no aspirations and in some instances said they didn't see any reason to have aspirations. B) the largest percentage had engaged in some potentially purposeful activities, but they still did not have a real commitment or any reasonable plans for reaching their goals. C) most have a clear vision of where they want to go in life, what they want to achieve, and why. D) most of those who had engaged in service learning or career counseling had a commitment and reasonable plans for reaching their goals.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Work

113) Based on the U.S. government'sOccupational Outlook Handbook, which of the following statements is true?

A) Projected job growth is independent of educational requirements. B) According to the latest edition, service industries will generate the least number of new jobs in the next decade. C) Few occupations today require specialized knowledge or skills. D) Most of highest-paying occupations require a college degree.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Work

114)

Which of the following is true of work patterns in the United States?

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A) Most individuals spend half their time at work. B) Most Americans work less than 30 hours a week. C) More than a third of Americans work 40 hours a week. D) A majority of Americans work 51 hours or more per week.

115)

Which of the following is a trend in the U.S. workforce?

A) decrease in the number of individuals who work at a series of jobs B) disappearance of short-term career paths for adults C) appearance of long-term careers for an increasing number of individuals D) disappearance of long-term career options for an increasing number of adults

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Topic : Work

116) Ramya is a business analyst by profession. She works in a highly stressful environment. Her manager often yells at her and fails to appreciate her when she completes her tasks on time. Based on the results of a national survey of U.S. adults (American Psychological Association, 2007), Ramya

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A) is likely to view stress as a positive thing. B) will be less productive because of stress. C) is likely to accept a promotion. D) will not make important career decisions based on stress.

117) A national survey of U.S. adults (American Psychological Association, 2007) identified the leading source of stress in the workplace as

A) low salaries. B) uncertain job expectations. C) long working hours. D) sexual harassment.

118)

Which of the following is true regarding adults' expectations of work?

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A) Expectations regarding the workplace have changed very little if at all. B) Many workers today would prefer more rigid work schedules set by the employer. C) The expectations of employees and employers regarding the workplace are usually the same. D) Most employers offer very little flexibility to their employees.

119)

Which of the following statements is true about working while in college?

A) Working more hours results in a decline in grades. B) Working while in college has largely positive effects. C) Working while in college is to be discouraged, as it does not contribute to education in any way. D) College students who work more hours have better grades than those who do not work.

120) are

More than 1,000 colleges in the United States offer cooperative (co-op) programs, which

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A) service jobs on campus. B) paid apprenticeships in a field that students are interested in pursuing. C) community service programs. D) internships with local companies.

121)

Which of the following statements is true regarding unemployment in the United States?

A) Unemployment rates in the United States have drastically decreased in recent years. B) Individuals who cope best with unemployment often refrain from relying on the earnings of other family members. C) Unemployment is associated with a decreased mortality risk for individuals in the early and middle stages of their careers. D) Unemployment is related to physical problems, emotional problems, marital difficulties, and homicide.

122) Which of the following statements is true regarding the impact of unemployment on an individual?

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A) Researchers have found that unemployment is related to homicide. B) Life satisfaction drops considerably following unemployment and completely returns upon reemployment. C) Temporary unemployment is the only scenario in which stress is not experienced. D) Marital difficulties decline significantly following unemployment.

123) Which of the following changes was seen in the division of responsibility for work and family when more U.S. women took jobs outside the home?

A) U.S. men started avoiding any responsibility for maintaining the home. B) U.S. women retracted and withdrew from taking responsibility for breadwinning. C) U.S. women and men failed to adapt any strategies to coordinate work and family. D) U.S. men started showing greater interest in their families and parenting.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Dual-Earner Couples Bloom's : Remember

124) The invisible barrier to career advancement that prevents women and ethnic minorities from holding managerial or executive jobs regardless of their accomplishments and merits is known as the

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A) brick wall. B) glass wall. C) glass ceiling. D) embargo.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) The stage in life during which some individuals show resilience in moving their life in a positive direction following a troubled adolescence is identified as _____ adulthood. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the transition from adolescence to adulthood. Topic : Becoming an Adult

126) The term _____ adulthood refers to the transition from adolescence to adulthood that occurs from approximately 18 to 25 years of age. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the transition from adolescence to adulthood. Topic : Becoming an Adult

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127) In developing countries, for which stage of life is marriage often a significant marker for entry? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Exercise

128) The form of sustained exercise (e.g., jogging or swimming) that stimulates heart and lung activity is called _____ exercise. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Exercise

129) Identify the term given to the common practice among college students of drinking alcohol before going out. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. Topic : Substance Use and Abuse null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

130) Identify the disorder that involves long-term, repeated, uncontrolled, compulsive, and excessive use of alcoholic beverages that impairs the drinker's health and social relationships.

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131) A stereotyped role pattern for how individuals should behave sexually is known as a sexual _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexual Activity

132) What is sometimes thought of either as simply a stepping-stone to homosexuality or as an indicator of sexual fluidity? Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexual Activity

133) According to _____ (last name only), young adults are more quantitatively advanced in their thinking in the sense that they have more knowledge than adolescents. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory

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134)

According to recent research, during which stage of life does creativity peak?

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Creativity

135) In which field of study does the personality trait of openness to experience predict creativity? Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Creativity

136) Apart from ethnic minorities, which group experiences difficulty in breaking through the glass ceiling that prevents them from being promoted to higher rungs on the corporate ladder? Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 137) List the five key features identified by Jeffrey Arnett as characterizing emerging adulthood.

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the transition from adolescence to adulthood. Topic : Becoming an Adult

138) According to Joseph and Claudia Allen, why is the current generation of adolescents experiencing "more adolescence" even after adolescence? Describe two suggestions provided by the Allens that can help adolescents become more mature on their way to adulthood.

139) Describe the markers of becoming an adult in the United States. How are the criteria for adulthood in developing countries different from those in the United States?

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140) Based on the research, what factor is critical to an effective weight loss program? What are the main strategies used by successful dieters?

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. Topic : Obesity Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

141)

Describe binge eating disorder (BED). What factors lead to BED?

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. Topic : Health

142)

Identify a challenge faced by adult smokers who are trying to quit.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in young adults. Topic : Substance Use and Abuse Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults.

143)

What are the sexual patterns and desires of women when compared with men?

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144) What are the gender differences that appear in heterosexual relationships that also occur in same-sex relationships?

145)

List two reasons that deaths due to HIV/AIDS have begun to decline in the United States.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe sexuality in young adults. Topic : Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)

146)

What is postformal thought like in practice?

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Postformal Thought

147) According to research, during which stage in life does creativity peak, and when does it decline?

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in young adulthood. Topic : Creativity

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148) List six strategies suggested by Mihaly Csikszentmihaly to cultivate one's curiosity and interest.

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149) Based on interviews with 12- to 22-year-olds, what were William Damon's findings about adolescents' and young adults' sense of purpose?

150)

Discuss the impact of working while in college.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize the transition to higher education and work in early childhood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Becoming an Adult Topic : Balancing Work and School null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze

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151)

What are some of the physical and psychological effects of unemployment?

152) Identify the coercive sexual activity that is directed at someone with whom the perpetrator is at least casually acquainted.

153) Identify the type of college program that offers paid apprenticeships in the area of the student's academic field.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch13 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) C 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) D 84) B 85) B 86) D Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) C 92) D 93) A 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) D 101) B 102) A 103) B 104) C 105) B 106) D 107) A 108) C 109) B 110) C 111) C 112) B 113) D 114) C 115) D 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) D 119) A 120) B 121) D 122) A 123) D 124) C 125) emerging 126) emerging 127) adulthood 128) aerobic 129) pregaming 130) alcoholism 131) script 132) bisexuality 133) Piaget 134) adulthood 135) arts 136) women 137)Jeffrey Arnett recently concluded that five key features characterize emerging adulthood: identity exploration, especially in love and work; instability; being self-focused; feeling in-between; and an age of possibilities, a time when individuals have an opportunity to transform their lives.

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138)The Allens state that what is happening to the current generation of adolescents is that after adolescence, they are experiencing "more adolescence" instead of adequately being launched into the adult years. Even many adolescents who have gotten good grades and then as emerging adults continued to achieve academic success in college later find themselves in their mid-twenties not having a clue about how to find a meaningful job, manage their finances, or live independently. The Allens offer the following suggestions for helping adolescents become more mature on their way to adulthood: • Provide them with opportunities to be contributors: Help them move away from being consumers by creating more effective work experiences (quality work apprenticeships, for example) or service learning opportunities that allow adolescents to make meaningful contributions. • Give candid, quality feedback to adolescents: Don't just shower praise and material things on them, but let them see how the real world works. Don't protect them from criticism, constructive or negative. Protecting them in this way only leaves them ill-equipped to deal with the ups and downs of the real world of adulthood.

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139)In the United States, the most widely recognized marker of entry into adulthood is holding a more or less permanent, full-time job, which usu-ally happens when an individual finishes school—high school for some, college for others, graduate or professional school for still others. However, other criteria are far from clear. Economic independence is one marker of adult status, but achieving it is often a long process. A recent U.S. study of community college students found that they believed adulthood would mean being able to care for themselves and others. In developing countries, marriage is more often a significant marker for entry into adulthood, and this usually occurs much earlier than the adulthood markers in the United States. In one study, the majority of 18to 26-year-olds in India felt that they had achieved adulthood. 140) The most effective programs include exercise. One research review concluded that adults who engaged in diet-plus-exercise programs lost more weight than those who relied on diet-only programs. Another study of approximately 2,000 U.S. adults found that exercising 30 minutes a day, planning meals, and weighing themselves daily were the main strategies used by successful dieters as compared with unsuccessful dieters.

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141)Binge eating disorder (BED) involves frequent binge eating without compensatory behavior like the purging that characterizes bulimics. Individuals with BED engage in recurrent episodes of eating large quantities of food, during which they feel a lack of control over eating. Because they don't purge, individuals with BED are frequently overweight. BED is far more common in females than males. Researchers are examining the role of biological and psychological factors in BED. Genes play a role, as does dopamine, the neurotransmitter related to reward pathways in the brain. Also, a recent study found that adolescents with BED were more likely to live in families with less effective family functioning, especially in the area of emotional involvement. 142)Most adult smokers would like to quit, but their addiction to nicotine often makes quitting a challenge. Nicotine, the active drug in cigarettes, is a stimulant that increases the smoker's energy and alertness, a pleasurable and reinforcing experience. Nicotine also stimulates neurotransmitters that have a calming or painreducing effect. 143) Compared with men, women are more likely to change their sexual patterns and desires. Women are more likely than men to have sexual experiences with same- and opposite-sex partners, even if they identify themselves strongly as being heterosexual or lesbian. Also, women are more likely than men to identify themselves as bisexual. 144) Many gender differences that appear in heterosexual relationships also occur in same-sex relationships. For example, like heterosexual women, lesbians have fewer sexual partners than gay men. Lesbians also have less permissive attitudes about casual sex outside a primary relationship than gay men do.

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145) Education and the development of effective drug treatments have reduced deaths due to HIV/AIDS in the United States. 146) As young adults engage in more reflective judgment when solving problems, they might think deeply about many aspects of politics, their career and work, relationships, and other areas of life. They might understand that the best solution to a problem depends on the context or setting. Many young adults also become more skeptical about there being a single truth and often are not willing to accept an answer as final. They also often recognize that thinking cannot just be abstract but rather has to be realistic and pragmatic. Many young adults understand that emotions can play a role in thinking. 147)Researchers have found that creativity peaks in adulthood and then declines, but the peak often occurs in the forties. Even though a decline in creative contributions is often found in the fifties and later, the decline is not as great as is commonly thought. An impressive array of creative accomplish-ments can occur in late adulthood. Any consideration of decline in creativity with age requires attention to the field of creativity involved. In such fields as philosophy and history, older adults often show as much creativity as they did when they were in their thirties and forties. By contrast, in such fields as lyrical poetry, abstract math, and theoretical physics, the peak of creativity is often reached in the twenties or thirties.

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148)According to Csikszentmihaly, the first step toward a more creative life is cultivating one's curiosity and inter-est. He suggested the following strategies: ● Try to be surprised by something every day. ● Try to surprise at least one person every day. ● Write down each day what surprised you and how you surprised others. ● When something sparks your interest, follow it. ● Wake up in the morning with a specific goal to look forward to. ● Spend time in settings that stimulate your creativity. 149) In interviews with 12- to 22-year-olds, Damon found that only about 20 percent had a clear vision of where they wanted to go in life, what they wanted to achieve, and why. The largest percentage—about 60 percent—had engaged in some potentially purposeful activities, such as service learning or fruitful discussions with a career counselor—but they still did not have a real commitment or any reasonable plans for reaching their goals. Slightly more than 20 percent expressed no aspirations, and in some instances they said they did not see any reason to have aspirations. 150) Working can pay or help offset some costs of schooling, but it also can restrict learning opportunities. According to a study conducted by the National Center for Education Statistics, for those who identified themselves primarily as students, as the number of hours worked per week increased, their grades suffered. Jobs also can contribute to one's education. Many colleges in the United States offer cooperative (co-op) programs, which are paid apprenticeships in a field that one is interested in pursuing. Other useful opportunities for working while going to college include internships and part-time or summer jobs relevant to one's field of study. Participating in these work experiences can help you land the job you want after you graduate. Version 1

151) According to research, unemployment is related to physical problems (such as heart attack and stroke), substance abuse, emotional problems (such as depression and anxiety), marital difficulties, and homicide. 152)This is known as date or acquaintance rape. 153) This is known as a cooperative (co-op) program.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) If researchers measure an individual's self-esteem at ages 10, 20, 30, and 40 years, where are they likely to find the most stability?

A) when measured at the age of 10 and then again at the age of 30 B) when measured at the age of 20 and then again at the age of 30 C) when measured at the age of 20 and then again at the age of 40 D) when measured at the age of 10 and then again at the age of 40

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Stability and Change

_____ is an individual's behavioral style and characteristic emotional responses.

A) Attitude B) Temper C) Disposition D) Temperament

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Temperament

3) Research relating to individual temperaments has indicated that children with an easy temperament at ages 3 to 5

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A) are more likely to have learning disabilities in adolescence. B) largely do not carry that temperament into adulthood. C) are less likely than other adults to be assertive. D) are more likely to be well adjusted as young adults.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Temperament

4) Which of the following statements is true about the role of temperament among children and adults?

A) Children are likely to be well adjusted as adults regardless of their temperament during childhood. B) Individuals who had an inhibited temperament in childhood are more likely than other adults to delay entering a stable job track. C) Children with an easy temperament are less likely to be well adjusted as young adults. D) Individuals who had an inhibited temperament in childhood are more likely than other adults to be assertive or experience social support.

5) Which of the following scenarios will most likely increase the tendency of a child to become an introvert and create more emotional problems as an adult?

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A) admitting the child to peer groups with other inhibited children with common interests B) having caregivers who are sensitive and accepting and allowing the child to set his own pace C) presence of "defensible shelters" that the child can retreat to when there is too much stimulation in the physical environment D) enrolling the child in a school that is overmanned

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Temperament

6) Which of the following scenarios will most likely aid an inhibited child in being outgoing, sociable, and emotionally stable as an adult?

A) peer groups with other inhibited children with common interests, so the child feels accepted B) the child continuously encountering noisy, chaotic environments that allow no escape from stimulation C) caregivers using inappropriate "low-level control" and attempting to force the child into new situations D) the school being "overmanned," so inhibited children are less likely to be tolerated and more likely to feel undervalued

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7) Theodore Wachs has proposed ways that linkages between temperament in childhood and personality in adulthood might vary depending on the

A) genetic makeup of the individual. B) intervening contexts in individuals' experience. C) age at which children's personality traits are exhibited. D) brain development of the individual.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Learning Objective : Summarize perspectives on personality development during adulthood. Topic : Temperament

8) In one longitudinal study, when 3-year-old children showed good control of their emotions and were resilient in the face of stress, they were

A) likely to continue to handle emotions effectively as adults. B) less likely than adults to be assertive. C) likely to be aggressive in their relationships in later adulthood. D) more likely to engage in compulsive gambling in early adulthood.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Temperament

Secure attachment to parents during childhood correlates with

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A) higher academic achievement in college. B) stronger sibling relationships in adulthood. C) secure attachment to romantic partners in adulthood. D) an easy temperament in adulthood.

10) Research indicates that links between early attachment styles and later attachment styles are _____ by stressful and disruptive experiences.

A) not impacted B) lessened C) facilitated D) enhanced

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11) On an assessment of attachment styles modeled on Hazan and Shaver's questionnaire, Alicia described herself this way: "I find it relatively easy to get close to others and I am comfortable depending on them and having them depend on me. I don't worry about being abandoned or about someone getting too close to me." Alicia seems to have a(n) _____ attachment style.

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A) avoidant B) secure C) anxious D) gregarious

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

12) _____ adults have positive views of relationships, find it easy to get close to others, and are not overly concerned with or stressed out about their romantic relationships.

A) Securely attached B) Insecure anxious C) Insecure avoidant D) Securely detached

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

13) Amy is not overly stressed out about her relationship with her boyfriend Danny. She trusts him and is sure that if there are any problems, they can talk it through and come to an understanding. Which of the following best describes Amy's attachment style?

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A) disorganized B) anxious C) avoidant D) secure

14)

Securely attached adults

A) are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships but are committed once they are in one. B) demand closeness in relationships and are more emotional. C) are less likely than others to have one-night stands. D) tend to distance themselves from their partner.

15) _____ individuals are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships and, once in a relationship, tend to distance themselves from their partner.

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A) Disorganized B) Anxious C) Securely attached D) Avoidant

16) In his meeting with a counselor, Dalton revealed that he was uncomfortable being close to others. He finds it difficult to trust people completely and doesn't allow himself to depend completely on them. He gets nervous if someone tries to get too intimate with him. It seems likely that Dalton has a(n) _____ attachment style.

A) secure B) anxious C) conflicted D) avoidant

17) Rose's ex-boyfriend, Peter, describes her as clingy and dependent. During their relationship, she always told him that she loved him and wanted to rush into marriage. She also kept tabs on Peter and was jealous of all his female friends and colleagues. Rose seems to have a(n) _____ attachment style.

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A) secure B) anxious C) conflicted D) avoidant

18)

Individuals with an anxious attachment style

A) are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships but are committed once they are in one. B) demand closeness in relationships and are less trusting and more emotional. C) are less likely than others to have one-night stands. D) tend to distance themselves from their partner.

19)

Which of the following is a characteristic of insecure anxious individuals?

A) They show strong ambivalence toward a romantic partner. B) They tend to have low levels of health anxiety. C) They tend to distance themselves from their partner. D) They are unlikely to be characterized by higher negative affect.

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20) Which of the following is true of the preferences of adults regarding the attachment styles of their partners?

A) Securely attached adults show a preference for individuals with an anxious attachment style. B) Individuals with an anxious attachment style mostly seem to prefer a partner with an anxious attachment style. C) Adults prefer to have an avoidant adult as a partner. D) Adults prefer having a securely attached partner.

21) In the context of adult attachment styles, both insecure anxious and insecure avoidant individuals are characterized by

A) an overall higher level of satisfaction in close relationships than their securely attached counterparts. B) a need to distance themselves from their partner. C) a greater tendency to engage in risky health behaviors than their securely attached counterparts. D) a well-integrated sense of self-acceptance, self-esteem, and self-efficacy.

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22) The _____ attachment style is more likely to be characterized by trust, commitment, and longevity.

A) disorganized B) avoidant C) anxious D) secure

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

23) Maria recently got married. In the context of adult attachment styles, she is more likely to engage in infidelity if she or her partner has a

A) highly anxious attachment style. B) highly avoidant attachment style. C) secure attachment style. D) disorganized attachment style.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

24) According to recent studies, which of the following individuals showed lower levels of depressive symptoms?

A) adults with an insecure anxious attachment style B) adults with a secure attachment style C) adults with an insecure avoidant attachment style D) adults with an attachment-repellant style

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

25) According to recent studies, which of the following adults had higher levels of sexual satisfaction?

A) adults with a secure attachment style B) adults with an avoidant attachment style C) adults with an anxious attachment style D) adults with a disorganized attachment style

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

26) According to leading experts Mario Mikulincer and Phillip Shaver, individuals who _____ have a well-integrated sense of self-acceptance, self-esteem, and self-efficacy.

A) have an avoidant attachment style B) are insecurely attached C) are securely attached D) have an anxious attachment style

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

27) According to Mario Mikulincer and Phillip Shaver, _____ individuals have the ability to control their emotions, are optimistic, and are resilient.

A) avoidant B) securely attached C) insecurely attached D) anxious-ambivalent

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

28) According to Mario Mikulincer and Phillip Shaver, when adults who are _____ face stress and adversity, they activate cognitive representations of security, are mindful of what is happening around them, and mobilize effective coping strategies.

A) avoidant B) securely detached C) insecurely attached D) securely attached

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Topic : Attachment null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

29) Based on the research of Liu and Ma (2019) an anxious attachment style among college students is likely to lead to which of the following behaviors?

A) extreme avoidance of social networking B) addiction to social networking sites C) avoidance of commitment in relationships D) lack of exercise and poor diet

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30) Which of the following best exemplifies the psychological concept of consensual validation?

A) complimenting someone on the positive changes made in their life B) being curious about someone whose native culture differs considerably from your own C) being comfortable with someone who values the same things that you do D) agreeing with someone that a proposed compromise is valid and acceptable

31) "Amelia's all excited about this new guy she met," says Julie. "I guess it makes sense because he's really a geek." Based on the concept of consensual validation, we can expect that Julie

A) thinks that Amelia is also a geek. B) is an intellectual and charitable person. C) believes that Amelia is not influenced by her friend's opinions. D) is providing consensual validation for Amelia's taste in men.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Familiarity and Similarity null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

32) Apart from consensual validation, what is the other reason that similarity matters in relationships?

A) Similar attitudes tend to negatively influence relationships in the long run. B) It is more socially acceptable to have a partner who is similar. C) People tend to shy away from the unknown. D) Evolutionary forces act toward integration of similar types.

33)

Which of the following is a potential benefit of romantic relationships over the Internet?

A) The chance of potential partners misrepresenting themselves is low. B) The lack of interpersonal connection benefits the relationship in the long term. C) It benefits shy and anxious people who find it difficult to meet potential partners in person. D) It is especially beneficial to secure, gregarious people who want to form close relationships.

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34) Compared to relationships established in person, what is a significant finding about romantic relationships initiated on the Internet?

A) Romantic relationships initiated on the Internet are more likely than relationships established in person to last for more than two years. B) Contrary to popular belief, intentional misrepresentation of the self over the Internet is very rare. C) Women have been found to be more dishonest than men. D) Romantic relationships established in person have been found to last longer than those established over the Internet.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Familiarity and Similarity

35) In the context of online dating, a national study of more than 19,000 individuals (Cacioppo & others, 2013) found that

A) less than one-third of marriages began online. B) marriages that began online were slightly more likely to break up than those that started in traditional offline contexts. C) marriages that began online were characterized by slightly higher marital satisfaction than those that started in traditional offline contexts. D) women lied online most about their height, income, and age.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Familiarity and Similarity

36) According to research, which of the following is the LEAST important characteristic that women look for in men?

A) kindness B) good looks C) earning prospects D) considerateness

37) According to research, which of the following is one of the most important characteristics men look for in a partner?

A) honesty B) dependability C) frugality D) understanding

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38)

The matching hypothesis says that we choose partners

A) who have similar values. B) who are close to our level of physical attractiveness. C) on the basis of proximity. D) who have opposing personality traits.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Attraction Learning Objective : Summarize perspectives on personality development during adulthood.

39) Latrell is very intelligent but only of average physical attractiveness. The matching hypothesis states that he will choose a partner who

A) is also intelligent but is very attractive. B) is bright but unattractive. C) is of average physical attractiveness. D) is very attractive but is not very intelligent.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Attraction null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

40)

Which of the following characteristics do men rate in women as most important?

A) good looks B) honesty C) understanding D) kindness

41) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following stages is the most important issue to be negotiated in adolescence?

A) identity versus identity confusion B) industry versus inferiority C) intimacy versus isolation D) autonomy versus shame

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

42)

According to Erik Erikson, which of the following is the sixth developmental stage?

A) intimacy versus isolation B) identity versus identity confusion C) autonomy versus shame and doubt D) integrity versus despair

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

43) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following stages occurs during early adulthood, after individuals are well on their way to establishing stable and successful identities?

A) identity versus identity confusion B) generativity versus stagnation C) integrity versus despair D) intimacy versus isolation

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

44) Erikson describes _____ as finding oneself while losing oneself in another person, and it requires a commitment to another person.

A) friendship B) intimacy C) attachment D) temperament

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

45) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following is true of individuals who do not develop an intimate relationship in early adulthood?

A) They suffer from low self-esteem. B) They have an insecure attachment style. C) They become narcissistic. D) They face isolation.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

46) According to Erik Erikson, which of the following is a precursor to intimacy in romantic relationships during emerging adulthood?

A) identity development in adolescence B) insecure attachment in childhood C) postconventional reasoning in childhood D) postformal thought in adulthood

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

47) A meta-analysis revealed a positive link between _____ and intimacy, with the connection being stronger for men than women.

A) identity development B) insecure attachment C) postformal thought D) postconventional reasoning

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Intimacy

48)

Female friendships involve more _____ than male friendships.

A) competition B) outdoor activities C) self-disclosure D) sharing of useful information

49)

Which of the following is true about gender differences in adult friendships?

A) Compared with women, men have more close friends. B) Adult male friendships are more competitive than those of women. C) Compared with women, men's friendships involve more self-disclosure and exchange of mutual support. D) The adult female pattern of friendship often involves keeping one's distance while sharing useful information.

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50)

Which of the following is a problem that can plague cross-gender friendships?

A) unclear sexual boundaries B) lack of intimacy C) lack of trust D) learning about shared characteristics

51)

_____ love is also called eros.

A) Companionate B) Affectionate C) Romantic D) Consummate

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love

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52)

Which of the following is another name for romantic love?

A) passionate love B) affectionate love C) companionate love D) consummate love

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love

53)

Which of the following statements about romantic love is true?

A) Men show lower anxiety about romantic love than women. B) Women show a greater avoidance of romantic love than men. C) Men show higher anxiety about romantic love than women. D) Men and women show the same level of avoidance and anxiety about romantic love.

54)

According to Ellen Berscheid, the most important ingredient of romantic love is

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A) friendship. B) sexual desire. C) long-term commitment. D) spontaneity in behavior.

55) Tiara and Evan, who are classmates, have fallen in love with each other. Tiara feels intense passion for Evan and gets extremely jealous when she sees him talk to other girls in their class. She also has a strong sexual desire for him. In this early part of their relationship, Tiara is most likely experiencing

A) companionate love. B) affectionate love. C) consummate love. D) romantic love.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

56) After three years of being in an intimate relationship with her boyfriend, Susan realizes that although she still feels passion for her boyfriend, she now desires to simply have him close to her. She cares for him a great deal and has deep feelings for him. These additional feelings Susan is experiencing are qualities of

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A) passionate love. B) affectionate love. C) fatuous love. D) romantic love.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Affectionate Love

57) _____ love is the type of love that occurs when someone desires to have the other person near and has a deep, caring affection for the person.

A) Passionate B) Fatuous C) Companionate D) Romantic

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Affectionate Love

58)

The early stages of love have more _____ love ingredients.

A) romantic B) companionate C) passionate D) consummate

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love

59) Penelope is describing her marriage of 15 years: "My husband and I were eating breakfast the other day. Neither of us was talking, both of us just reading and thinking our own thoughts. But it was a very comfortable, companionable silence, and I loved it!" What aspect of their relationship does this illustrate?

A) passion B) infatuation C) romantic love D) affectionate love

60) According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, _____ is physical and sexual attraction to another.

A) attachment B) commitment C) intimacy D) passion

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61) According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, _____ relates to the emotional feelings of warmth, closeness, and sharing in a relationship.

A) attachment B) intimacy C) commitment D) passion

62) Carla and Steve are in a love relationship. Carla has appraised their relationship and fully intends to maintain it even when faced with problems. Carla believes that Steve also loves her and will stand by her through life's ups and downs. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, which of the following dimensions of love is emphasized in this scenario?

A) commitment B) intimacy C) attachment D) passion

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63) of

According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, love is characterized by the dimensions

A) role exchanges, exclusivity, and commitment. B) shared activities, self-disclosure, and commitment. C) passion, commitment, and intimacy. D) transference, companionship, and self-disclosure.

64)

Which of the following is a component of Sternberg's triarchic theory of love?

A) passion B) exchange C) jealousy D) good looks

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Triarchic Theory of Love

65) Hajra describes how she feels about Rafael: "I'm very physically attracted to him, but we aren't what you would call emotionally close. I love being with him, but I don't know that this will be a long-lasting relationship." According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, which type of love is Hajra experiencing?

A) affectionate love B) infatuation C) consummate love D) companionate love

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Triarchic Theory of Love null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

66) Lucas and Jonathan have been married for 15 years. When Lucas develops a potentially fatal lung disease, Jonathan retires in order to care for Lucas. This shows that Lucas and Jonathan's relationship has a high level of

A) infatuation. B) commitment. C) fatuous love. D) passion.

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67)

According to Sternberg, _____ love is the strongest and fullest form of love.

A) passionate B) fatuous C) affectionate D) consummate

68) Nicole and Monica are passionately in love with each other. They are attracted to each other and also share their thoughts and emotions. They are thinking of a future together and know that they can depend on each other even in the face of problems. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, Nicole and Monica are most likely experiencing

A) affectionate love. B) consummate love. C) fatuous love. D) passionate love.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Consummate Love null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

69) Gary and Nina, who are colleagues, are attracted to each other and have an affair with each other. However, they do not have feelings for each other and do not intend to maintain or appraise the relationship. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, Gary and Nina's love relationship is best categorized as

A) fatuous love. B) romance. C) infatuation. D) companionate love.

70) Martin and Suzy, who are classmates, have an affair with each other. They are in a relationship that has an ingredient of passion. However, they do not have feelings of warmth or closeness toward each other and do not intend to appraise the relationship. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, Martin and Suzy's love relationship is best categorized as

A) infatuation. B) intimacy. C) fatuous love. D) companionate love.

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71) Tina and Danny have been married for 12 years. Both are working and have busy schedules, but at the end of the day, they sit together and tell each other about their day. They have had their share of ups and downs in life, and their love for each other has grown steadily. However, Tina, although very happy in her marriage, reminisces about and wishes to have the passion they had in the early days of their marriage. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, Tina and Danny's relationship is best categorized as

A) romantic love. B) consummate love. C) affectionate love. D) fatuous love.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Affectionate Love

72) Naina and Samir are a passionate couple. They are physically and sexually attracted to one another. They know that they can count on each other during the ups and downs of life, and they intend to maintain their relationship in the face of problems. However, they lack feelings of warmth or closeness toward each other and avoid sharing their thoughts. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, Naina and Samir are most likely experiencing

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A) romantic love. B) fatuous love. C) affectionate love. D) consummate love.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Triarchic Theory of Love null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology

73)

According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of love, consummate love is characterized by

A) passion, intimacy, and commitment. B) romance, shared disclosure, and sexual desire. C) commitment and exclusiveness. D) eroticism and companionship.

74) Tina is in a romantic love relationship with John. She is very intimate with him and does not place an emphasis on connections outside of her relationship with him. She also has a very small social network. In the context of cross-cultural variations in romantic relationships, Tina's relationship is most characteristic of a(n)

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A) communist country. B) Marxist country. C) collectivist country. D) individualistic country.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

75) Sara is in an intimate love relationship with Ren. She has a strong commitment toward her relationship with Ren. However, the intimacy in her relationship is diffused, as she also places strong emphasis on connections with her family members. Based on cross-cultural variations observed in romantic relationships, Sara's relationship is most characteristic of a(n)

A) narcissistic country. B) totalitarian country. C) collectivist country. D) individualistic country.

76) In the context of cross-cultural variations in romantic relationships, in contrast to individualistic countries, people in collectivist countries are likely to Version 1

A) have a smaller social network. B) have a stronger tendency to engage in self-disclosure. C) be less group-oriented. D) have stronger feelings of commitment.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

77) Rhadhika breaks up with her boyfriend. Although she is extremely upset and heartbroken, she realizes that when she was with her boyfriend, she had completely ignored her friends. She now understands the importance of her friends and apologizes to them. She also realizes that she has more time now, and she takes up the dance classes that she was always interested in. In this scenario, Rhadhika is experiencing _____ changes following her breakup.

A) personal positive B) relational positive C) environmental positive D) emotional positive

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

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78) Following a breakup with her boyfriend, Sherry is devastated and cries herself to sleep every night. Eventually, she starts taking control of her life. She accepts the breakup and her feelings and decides to move on. She becomes more self-confident and realizes that the breakup has made her stronger. In this scenario, Sherry is experiencing _____ changes following her breakup.

A) personal positive B) relational positive C) environmental positive D) organizational positive

79) Jenny feels hurt, following a breakup with her boyfriend. However, a few months later, she gets over the breakup and shares her thoughts about the breakup with her best friend. She uses such statements as, "We should have communicated better," "I have learned the importance of saying sorry," and "I will not jump into another relationship too quickly." This scenario indicates that Jenny is experiencing _____ growth following her breakup.

A) personal positive B) relational positive C) environmental positive D) organizational positive

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Romantic Love null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

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80) A study of unmarried relationship dissolution in 18- to 35-year-olds revealed that experiencing a breakup was linked to

A) a decrease in health problems. B) an increase in life satisfaction. C) a decrease in psychological stress. D) an increase in psychological stress.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Falling Out of Love

81) A nationally representative U.S. survey of more than 5,000 single adults 21 years and older who were not in a committed relationship (Match.com, 2011) found that

A) men had become less interested in marriage than their counterparts were in earlier generations. B) more men than women wanted to pursue their own interests. C) women had become less interested in being independent in their relationships when compared with men. D) more women than men wanted to have personal space.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Learning Objective : Summarize perspectives on personality development during adulthood. Topic : Love and Marriage

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82)

Living together in a sexual relationship without being married is known as

A) consensual validation. B) attachment. C) coparenting. D) cohabitation.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Cohabitation

83)

In which country is cohabitation virtually universal before marriage?

A) France B) Sweden C) United States D) Kenya

84)

Which of the following statements about cohabiting arrangements in the U.S. is true?

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A) Most cohabiting couples want the official aspects of marriage. B) There is no apparent link between education and cohabitation rates in the U.S. C) The length of cohabitation has been increasing since 1995. D) Most of these arrangements are very long-lasting.

85) According to research, which of the following statements is true of the link between cohabitation and marital instability?

A) The link between cohabitation and marital instability is strong when only cohabitation with the eventual marital partner is examined. B) Cohabiting does not have a negative effect on marriage if the couple did not have any previous live-in lovers. C) Cohabiting has a negative effect on marriage if the couple did not have children prior to the marriage. D) The risk of marital dissolution between cohabitors is much larger when they cohabited in their mid-twenties.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Cohabitation

86)

Which of the following statements about cohabitation is true?

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A) People who cohabitate with another person after a divorce have a higher rate of premarital happiness than people who live alone after a divorce. B) Couples who cohabitate before getting engaged have a better chance of a successful marriage than couples who wait until they are engaged to cohabitate. C) Couples who wait until they are engaged to cohabitate have a better chance of a successful marriage than couples who cohabitate before becoming engaged. D) Couples who cohabitate after getting engaged experience marital dissatisfaction earlier than couples who cohabitate earlier.

87)

Since the early 1900s, the goal of maintaining a stable marriage has

A) become even more important than ever. B) decreased in its level of relative importance. C) replaced self-fulfillment as the most important life goal. D) been replaced by self-fulfillment as the most important life goal.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Married Adults null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

88)

Currently, the average duration of marriage in the United States is just over _____ years.

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A) 5 B) 9 C) 15 D) 23

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Divorce

89) In which of the following countries is chastity the most important factor in a marriage partner?

A) China B) Japan C) Sweden D) Finland

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

90)

In the selection of a partner, there is a high value placed on housekeeping skills in

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A) the United States. B) Canada. C) France. D) Estonia.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Cross-Cultural Comparisons

91)

Identify a true statement about premarital education programs.

A) They are linked to a lower level of marital satisfaction. B) They are linked to a higher level of commitment to a spouse. C) They tend to increase the likelihood of divorce. D) They tend to hinder the level of communication between couples.

92) Responses to a recent nationally representative survey of more than 35,000 U.S. single adults (Fisher & Garcia, 2019) are best characterized by which of the following?

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A) fast sex and slow love B) last sex is lost love C) no sex and no love D) fast love and low sex

93)

It is recommended that premarital education begin approximately

A) two to three years before the wedding. B) six months to a year before the wedding. C) six weeks before the wedding. D) one to three months before the wedding.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Married Adults

94)

One of the benefits of a good marriage is

A) increased longevity. B) more financial security. C) an improved gender identity. D) improved social relations.

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95) Soren, a 36-year-old man from Sweden, is marrying 34-year-old Ruth from Israel. Which of the following statements about their marriage age is true?

A) In his native country, Soren is uncharacteristically old for getting married. B) In her native country, Ruth is uncharacteristically old for getting married. C) Soren's marriage age is above average in Sweden but below average in Israel. D) Ruth's marriage age is common for her Israeli male counterparts, just not for women.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Married Adults null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

96)

Which of the following is a factor associated with increases in divorce?

A) youthful marriage B) having a religious affiliation C) partners from different educational backgrounds D) high educational level

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97)

Most divorces occur in the _____ year of marriage.

A) first to third B) second to fifth C) fifth to tenth D) tenth to twelfth

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Divorce

98) Which of the following is a common complaint of both divorced women and divorced men?

A) loss of religious affiliations B) heightened self-esteem C) anxiety about the unknowns in their lives D) entering into a new intimate relationship too quickly

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

99) Which of the following is most likely a reason remarried adults find it difficult to stay remarried?

A) Remarried couples experience more stress in rearing children than parents in neverdivorced families. B) Most people remarry primarily for love. C) Positive attitudes about divorce are uncommon among remarried persons. D) Remarried couples usually have negative attitudes about low marital quality.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Remarriage

100)

Identify a true statement regarding remarriage in the United States.

A) Men tend to remarry after a divorce sooner than women do. B) Remarried adults often find it easy to stay remarried. C) Men with lower incomes are more likely to remarry than their counterparts with higher incomes. D) Remarriage occurs later for partners who initiated the divorce.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Topic : Remarriage

101)

Lesbian couples place an especially high priority on

A) social and economic independence. B) maintaining a dynamic relationship where one partner is masculine and the other is feminine. C) equality in their relationships. D) maintaining an open relationship.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Learning Objective : Summarize the role of gender in young adulthood. Topic : Gay and Lesbian

102)

Which of the following statements is true about gay and lesbian couples?

A) Lesbian couples usually have sexually "open" relationships. B) Lesbian couples especially place a low priority on equality in their relationships. C) In a high percentage of such couples, one partner is masculine and the other feminine. D) Gays and lesbians prefer long-term, committed relationships.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Learning Objective : Summarize the role of gender in young adulthood. Topic : Gay and Lesbian

103) Gay and lesbian couples are comparable to their counterparts in different-sex relationships in all of the following, EXCEPT

A) relationship commitment. B) social acceptance in their community. C) emotional intimacy. D) relationship satisfaction.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Learning Objective : Summarize the role of gender in young adulthood. Topic : Gay and Lesbian

104) Which of the following is one of John Gottman's seven main practices that help marriages succeed?

A) Create a gridlock. B) Solve perpetual conflicts. C) Avoid letting your partner influence you. D) Establish love maps.

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105)

Which of the following is a parenting myth?

A) A child is not an extension or possession of the parent. B) Parenting requires significant training. C) Parenting is an instinctual process. D) The birth of a child will further deteriorate a failing marriage.

106)

Identify a true statement about parenting.

A) Most parents learn parenting practices from their own parents. B) Parenting requires minimal interpersonal skills and does not impose emotional demands. C) When meth-ods of parents are passed on from one generation to the next, the undesirable practices are not perpetuated. D) Parenting is instinctual and requires no training.

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107)

Which of the following is an outcome of the growing trend of having fewer children?

A) Institutional care is replaced by parental care. B) Women have less time for other endeavors. C) Men are apt to invest a greater amount of time in fathering. D) Parents are bound to have more realistic expectations for their children.

108) Kelly has just given birth to her first baby at the age of 37; and her friend Olivia, age 26, also recently gave birth to her first child. Which of the following is most likely to be true for these new mothers?

A) Kelly will have more energy to care for her child than Olivia. B) Olivia will have fewer medical problems with pregnancy and childbirth. C) Olivia will more likely build up expectations for her child. D) Olivia will have more income for child-rearing expenses than Kelly.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Learning Objective : Summarize parental relationships during young adulthood. Topic : Parenting

109)

Which of the following is an advantage of having children early?

A) Parents are more likely to build up expectations for their children. B) Planning for children's growth or education is more methodical and realistic. C) The parents are likely to have more physical energy. D) The parents have more time to consider their goals in life.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize parental relationships during young adulthood. Topic : Parenting null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

110)

Which of the following is an advantage of having children late?

A) There are fewer medical problems during pregnancy. B) Parents have more physical energy. C) Parents have more income for child-rearing expenses. D) Parents are less likely to build up expectations for their children.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize parental relationships during young adulthood. Topic : Parenting null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

111) In Hetherington's research on divorced individuals, the _____ were competent in multiple areas of life and showed a remarkable ability to bounce back from stressful circumstances and to create something meaningful out of problems.

A) good-enoughs B) enhancers C) libertines D) seekers

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena

112) According to E. Mavis Hetherington, the _____ were mostly women who "grew more competent, well-adjusted, and self-fulfilled" following their divorce.

A) good-enoughs B) seekers C) libertines D) enhancers

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113) Following a divorce, Mildred goes back to college, renews old acquaintanceships, and takes up ballroom dancing. She starts focusing on her health and begins a fitness routine. A few months later, she meets an interesting person at a friend's party and enters into a romantic relationship with him. Based on Hetherington's research, Mildred is best described as a(n)

A) libertine. B) defeated. C) seeker. D) enhancer.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

114)

In Hetherington's research, the largest group of divorced people fall into the category of

A) the good-enoughs. B) the enhancers. C) the seekers. D) the defeated.

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115) In Hetherington's research, the _____ are individuals who are motivated to find new mates as soon as possible after their divorce.

A) good-enoughs B) enhancers C) seekers D) defeated

116) As soon as Davis's divorce was final, he was out looking for a new romantic relationship. Based on Hetherington's research, Davis is a(n)

A) competent loner. B) seeker. C) enhancer. D) codependent.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

117) Sandra and Tom divorced after an 18-year marriage when Tom left Sandra for his colleague. Since the divorce two years ago, Sandra has been promoted in her job, has an active social life with her friends, and has taken up golf. However, when her friends suggest that she meet a man, Sandra tells them that she has no interest in men and that she is quite content with her life. Based on Hetherington's research, Sandra is a(n)

A) defeated divorcee. B) competent loner. C) enhancer. D) libertine.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Divorce null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

118) Gayle's divorce was made final last year. During this first year after the divorce, Gayle spent every evening after work in a singles bar, and she had several casual affairs. Based on Hetherington's research, Gayle can be characterized as a(n)

A) enhancer. B) good-enough. C) libertine. D) competent loner.

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119) Nalini is well-adjusted to her single life after her divorce. She is self-sufficient and socially skilled. She has a successful career, has made lots of new friends, and has taken up pottery and gardening. She is satisfied with her lifestyle and is not interested in sharing her life with anyone else. Based on Hetherington's research, Nalini is best categorized as a(n)

A) defeated. B) competent loner. C) enhancer. D) good-enough.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Divorce null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

120) Barney gets divorced after his wife finds out that he is having an extramarital affair with another woman. After the divorce, Barney finds it extremely difficult to cope with life, as he realizes that he has lost a good partner who always supported him. Based on Hetherington's research, Barney is best categorized as a(n)

A) defeated. B) competent loner. C) enhancer. D) good-enough.

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121) Based on Hetherington's research, at the end of the first year post-divorce, who among the following are most likely to grow disillusioned with their sensation-seeking lifestyle and subsequently want a stable relationship?

A) the seekers B) the libertines C) the competent loners D) the defeated

122)

In Hetherington's research, which of the following is true regarding seekers?

A) These individuals are motivated to find new mates as soon as possible. B) People in this category often spend more time in singles bars and have more casual sex than their counterparts in the other divorce categories. C) They are otherwise known as competent loners. D) Individuals in this category had problems before their divorce, and these problems increase after the breakup when the added stress of a failed marriage is more than they can handle.

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123)

In Hetherington's research, which of the following is true regarding the good-enoughs?

A) The good-enoughs form about 10 percent of the divorced. B) Good-enough women usually marry men who are educationally and economically similar to their first husbands. C) The good-enoughs rarely attend night classes and make new friends. D) People in this category often spend more time in singles bars and have more casual sex than their counterparts in the other divorce categories.

124) In Hetherington's research, which of the following is a difference between the enhancers and the competent loners?

A) The enhancers account for about 40 percent of the divorced, whereas the competent loners account for only about 10 percent. B) Unlike the enhancers, the competent loners have little interest in sharing their lives with anyone else. C) The competent loners show a remarkable ability to bounce back from stress, whereas the enhancers typically succumb to stressful circumstances. D) The competent loners category has many women, while the enhancers are primarily a male-dominated divorce group.

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125) Carl gets divorced and starts to spend a lot of time in singles bars, and he engages in a considerable amount of casual sex. By the end of the first year of divorce, however, he becomes disillusioned with his sensation-seeking lifestyle and wants a stable relationship. Based on Hetherington's research, Carl is best categorized as a(n)

A) libertine. B) defeated. C) seeker. D) competent loner.

126) In Hetherington's research, which of the following is a difference between the enhancers and the good-enoughs?

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A) The enhancers make up the largest group of divorced individuals, whereas the goodenoughs form the smallest group. B) The enhancers are usually better at planning and are more persistent, in comparison with the good-enoughs. C) The good-enoughs are competent in multiple areas of life, whereas the enhancers have a low skill level in various aspects of life. D) The good-enoughs are more competent, well-adjusted, and self-fulfilled following a divorce, whereas the enhancers are poor at coping.

127) According to Gottman's research, which of the following statements about perpetual problems is true?

A) They are problems that can be worked out. B) They are problems where the partners are not verbally affectionate. C) They are the type that do not go away and may include disagreements about whether to have children. D) They form only about one-third of marital problems.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 128) One's attitudes and behavior are supported and validated when someone else's attitudes and behavior are similar to one's own. This reflects the principle of consensual _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Familiarity and Similarity

129)

Which theorist (last name only) proposed a triarchic theory of love?

130) In the triarchic theory of love, the type of love that includes passion and commitment but does not include (or is low on) intimacy is known as ____ love. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Consummate Love

131) Which theorist (last name only) has been studying married couples' lives since the 1970s and has found that seven main principles determine whether a marriage will work?

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132) What term refers to the group of divorced people who initially spend more time in singles bars and engage in casual sex but who then seek a more stable, less sensation-seeking lifestyle by the end of the first year post divorce? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Divorce

133) Some divorced individuals had problems before their divorce, and these problems increased after the breakup when "the added stress of a failed marriage was more than they could handle. Others had difficulty coping because divorce cost them a spouse who had supported them, or in the case of a drinking problem, restricted them." Hetherington's term for these individuals the _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Divorce

134) Problems that can be worked out and may include such things as not helping each other reduce daily stresses and not being verbally affectionate are known as _____ problems.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe marital and nonmarital lifestyles. Topic : Married Adults null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

135) The _____ hypothesis states that although one may prefer a more attractive person in the abstract, in the real world one ends up choosing someone who is close to one's own level of attractiveness. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Topic : Attraction

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 136) What is temperament? What is its connection to personality?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe changes in temperament and attachment in young adulthood. Learning Objective : Summarize perspectives on personality development during adulthood. Topic : Temperament

137)

Describe the three adult attachment styles, and include behavioral examples of each.

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138)

Briefly describe Erikson's stage of intimacy versus isolation.

139) Explain consensual validation and the matching hypothesis. Give an example of the matching hypothesis in the real world.

140)

Compare women's and men's friendship patterns.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the role of gender in young adulthood. Topic : Friendship null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships

141)

Briefly describe the three major types of love.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify key aspects of intimate relationships and love. Learning Objective : Describe identity development in young adulthood. Topic : Affectionate Love

142)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of being single in early adulthood.

143)

Does cohabitation influence marital satisfaction? Discuss the possible reasons for this.

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144)

List a few reasons remarried adults often find it difficult to stay remarried.

145)

Discuss the misconceptions about gay and lesbian couples.

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146)

What are some of the advantages of having children later in life?

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147) Describe thegood-enoughs divorce group, based on the research of E. Mavis Hetherington.

148) Identify the theorists who studied attachment styles in young adults and developed an assessment tool to measure attachment style.

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149) In E. Mavis Hetherington's research, which group of individuals were well-adjusted, selfsufficient, and socially skilled and had little interest in sharing their lives with anyone else?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch14 1) B 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) D 60) D 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) B 67) D 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) D 75) C 76) D 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) D 82) D 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) A 90) D 91) B 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) C 99) A 100) A 101) C 102) D 103) B 104) D 105) C 106) A 107) C 108) B 109) C 110) C 111) B 112) D 113) D 114) A 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) B 118) C 119) B 120) A 121) B 122) A 123) B 124) B 125) A 126) B 127) C 128) validation 129) Sternberg 130) fatuous 131) Gottman 132) libertines 133) defeated 134) solvable 135) matching 136) Temperament is an individual's behavioral style and characteristic emotional responses. In early adulthood, most individuals show fewer emotional mood swings than they did in adolescence, and they become more responsible and engage in less risk-taking behavior. Along with these signs of a general change in temperament, researchers also find links between some dimensions of childhood temperament and adult personality. Studies reveal some continuity between certain aspects of temperament in childhood and adjustment in early adulthood. It is also argued that linkages between temperament in childhood and personality in adulthood might vary depending on the intervening contexts in individuals' experience. Version 1

137)The three attachment styles are as follows: Secure attachment style: Securely attached adults have positive views of relationships, find it easy to get close to others, and are not overly concerned with or stressed out about their romantic relationships. These adults tend to enjoy sexuality in the context of a committed relationship and are less likely than others to have one-night stands. Avoidant attachment style: Avoidant individuals are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships and, once in a relationship, tend to distance themselves from their partner. Anxious attachment style: These individuals demand closeness, are less trusting, and are more emotional, jealous, and possessive. 138) In early adulthood, according to Erikson, after individuals are well on their way to establishing stable and successful identities, they enter the sixth developmental stage, which is intimacy versus isolation. Erikson describes intimacy as finding oneself while losing oneself in another person, and it requires a commitment to another person. If a person fails to develop an intimate relationship in early adulthood, according to Erikson, isolation results. 139)Consensual validation provides an explanation of why people are attracted to others who are similar to them. The attitudes and behaviors of others that are similar to ours validate us. The matching hypothesis states that even though we may prefer a more attractive person in the abstract, in the real world we end up choosing someone who is close to our own level of attractiveness.

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140) Compared with men, women have more close friends, and their friendships involve more self-disclosure and exchange of mutual support. Women are more likely to listen at length to what a friend has to say and be sympathetic, and women have been labeled as "talking companions" because talk is so central to their relationship. Women's friendships tend to be characterized not only by depth but also by breadth: Women share many aspects of their experiences, thoughts, and feelings. Male friends are more likely to engage in activities, especially outdoors. Thus, the adult male pattern of friendship often involves keeping one's distance while sharing useful information. Men are less likely than women to talk about their weaknesses with their friends, and men want practical solutions to their problems rather than sympathy. Also, adult male friendships are more competitive than those of women. 141)The three types of love are as follows: Romantic love: Some friendships evolve into romantic love, which is also called passionate love, or eros. Romantic love has strong components of sexuality and infatuation, and it often predominates in the early part of a love relationship. Affectionate love: Affectionate love, also called companionate love, is the type of love that occurs when someone desires to have the other person near and has a deep, caring affection for the person. The early stages of love have more romantic love ingredients—but as love matures, passion tends to give way to affection. Consummate love: Sternberg proposed a triarchic theory of love in which love can be thought of as a triangle with three main dimensions— passion, intimacy, and commitment. In Sternberg's theory, the strongest, fullest form of love is consummate love, which involves all three dimensions.

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142) Some of the advantages of being single include having time to make decisions about one's life course, time to develop personal resources to meet goals, freedom to make autonomous decisions and pursue one's own schedule and interests, opportunities to explore new places and try out new things, and privacy. Common problems of single adults may include forming intimate relationships with other adults, confronting loneliness, and finding a niche in a society that is marriage oriented. 143) The majority of studies have found lower rates of marital satisfaction and higher rates of divorce in couples who lived together before getting married. A recent study revealed that the timing of cohabitation is an important factor in marital satisfaction. It was found that couples who cohabited before getting engaged reported lower marital satisfaction, dedication, and confidence, as well as increased likelihood of divorce, than couples who cohabited only after becoming engaged. The most frequently given explanation of why cohabiting is linked with divorce is that the less traditional lifestyle of cohabitation may attract less conventional individuals who are not great believers in marriage in the first place. An alternative explanation is that the experience of cohabiting changes people's attitudes and habits in ways that increase their likelihood of divorce. 144)Many remarry not for love but for financial reasons, for help in rearing children, and to reduce loneliness. They also might carry into the stepfamily negative patterns that produced failure in an earlier marriage. Remarried couples also experience more stress in rearing children than parents in never-divorced families.

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145) There are a number of misconceptions about gay male and lesbian couples. Contrary to stereotypes, one partner is masculine and the other feminine in only a small percentage of gay male and lesbian couples. Only a small segment of the gay male population has a large number of sexual partners, and this is uncommon among lesbians. Furthermore, researchers have found that gay males and lesbians prefer long-term, committed relationships. About half of committed gay male couples do have an open relationship that allows the possibility of sex (but not affectionate love) outside the relationship. Lesbian couples usually do not have this open relationship. 146)Some of the advantages to having children later (in the thirties) are as follows: The parents will have had more time to consider their goals in life, such as what they want from their family and career roles; the parents will be more mature and will be able to benefit from their life experiences to engage in more competent parenting; and the parents will be better established in their careers and have more income for child-rearing expenses. 147) The good-enoughs were the largest group of divorced individuals, and they were described as average people coping with divorce. They showed some strengths and some weaknesses, some successes and some failures. When they experienced a problem, they tried to solve it. Many of them attended night classes, found new friends, developed active social lives, and were motivated to get higher-paying jobs. However, they were not as good at planning and were less persistent than the enhancers. Good-enough women usually married men who educationally and economically were similar to their first husbands, often going into a new marriage that was not much of an improvement over the first one.

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148) These two theorists are Cindy Hazan and Phillip Shaver. 149) Hetherington identified this group as thecompetent loners.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following best explains why middle adulthood starts later and lasts longer now than in the early 1900s?

A) People today have fewer children than people in the early 1900s. B) People today have higher incomes than people in the early 1900s. C) People today have less anxiety in their lives than people in the early 1900s. D) People today have healthier lifestyles than people in the early 1900s.

Question Details Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Changing Midlife Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

2) Questions such as, "To which age group do you belong?" and "How old do you feel?" reflect the concept of

A) mental age. B) age identity. C) chronological age. D) age stereotype.

Question Details Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Changing Midlife Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

Which of the following is a consistent finding regarding age identity?

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A) As adults become older, their age identity is younger than their chronological age. B) Most adults feel that their age identity is five years older than their chronological age. C) The age identity of adults is directly proportional to their chronological age. D) Most adults feel that their age identity is much older than their chronological age.

Which of the following statements is true of the trends in midlife?

A) Middle age is starting earlier and is shorter for increasing numbers of active and healthy people. B) The U.S. Census Bureau (2019) reports that 15 percent of the U.S. population is older than 65. C) Compared with previous decades and centuries, a decreasing percentage of the population is made up of middle-aged and older adults. D) As medical discoveries are slowing down the aging process, the boundaries of middle age are being pushed downward.

Which of the following statements about trends in life expectancy is true?

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A) The average life expectancy in the twenty-first century is 50 years. B) The percentage of the population living to an older age has drastically decreased. C) People today take longer to grow up and longer to age than in past centuries. D) In 1900, the average life expectancy was only 30 years of age.

6) In Patricia Cohen's analysis, which of the following has/have fueled the emergence of thinking about middle age?

A) more people entering adolescence earlier than in the past B) increased pressure to remain in the workforce and delay retirement C) advances in health and more people living to older ages D) the decrease of life expectancy

7) Compared with earlier and later periods, middle age is influenced most by _____ and biological factors.

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A) sociocultural B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) neurological

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Defining Middle Adulthood Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

8) The rectangularization of the age structure of the population, which can be represented by a pyramid, has been created by

A) workplace stressors that lower longevity. B) the aging of the baby-boom cohort. C) a rising male-to-female sex ratio. D) high fertility rates.

9) When asked their age, adults between the ages of 44 and 64 are most likely to say which of the following?

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A) I am 47 years old, but I feel like 60. B) I am 60 years old, and that's about how my body feels, too. C) I am 57 years old but feel like 37. D) I am 54 years old but can't wait to be 64.

10) _____ adulthood is the developmental period that begins at approximately 40 to 45 years of age and extends to about 60 to 65 years of age.

A) Late B) Middle C) Early D) Emerging

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11)

Many experts on middle adulthood describe the age period of 55 to 65 as

A) late adulthood. B) early midlife. C) late midlife. D) early adulthood.

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12)

Which of the following statements about late midlife is true?

A) Compared with earlier midlife, late midlife is more likely to be characterized by preparation for retirement. B) Compared with earlier midlife, late midlife is less likely to be characterized by the death of a parent. C) People in this age range seldom have health problems. D) For most people in late midlife, the number of gains outnumber losses.

Question Details Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Defining Middle Adulthood null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

13) Compared with middle age, which of the following best describes late middle age for many individuals?

A) Health problems start to decline. B) Losses may begin to outnumber gains. C) Life changes decrease; the path is relatively fixed. D) Losses and gains even out.

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14)

Which of the following is a sign of aging for the average adult in middle adulthood?

A) increase in height B) decrease in weight C) brittle fingernails D) loss of memory

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Topic : Visible Physical Changes null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

15)

The average adult in middle adulthood _____ height and _____ weight.

A) loses; loses B) loses; gains C) gains; gains D) gains; loses

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16)

Which of the following is a reason for the decrease in height with age advancement?

A) brittleness of bones of the limbs B) increase in weight C) a stooping posture D) bone loss in the vertebrae

17)

Which of the following statements regarding changes in weight in middle age is true?

A) A recent study revealed that a decrease in weight from early adulthood to middle adulthood was linked to an increased risk of major chronic diseases and unhealthy aging. B) A large-scale study found that being overweight or obese in middle age decreases an individual’s risk of dying earlier. C) On average, body fat accounts for about 20 percent or more of body weight in middle age. D) Individuals who were obese at age 50 had a 20 to 40 percent higher risk of earlier death, whereas those who were overweight at age 50 had a 100 to 200 percent higher risk of premature death.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Height and Weight

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18) In a Chinese study (Zhou & others, 2018), men and women who gained an average of 22 pounds from 20 to 45–60 years of age had

A) an increased risk of hypertension. B) an decreased risk of high cholesterol. C) lower triglyceride levels. D) a lowered risk of hypertension.

Question Details Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Height and Weight

19) Mildred is in her twenties. Her doctor tells her that she is gradually losing muscle mass and strength, especially in her back and legs. Her doctor has advised her to exercise regularly and focus on her diet as a strategy to slow down the decline of muscle mass and strength. Which of the following most likely identifies Mildred's condition?

A) sarcoma B) osteopenia C) osteoporosis D) sarcopenia

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Physical Performance and Development

20)

Age-related loss of muscle strength is especially marked in

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A) the upper arms. B) the back and legs. C) the jaw and face. D) the chest and abdomen.

21) James is in his mid-forties and has little time to exercise, as he runs a business. However, he knows that he should focus more on his health, eat healthy meals at regular intervals, and exercise as often as he can. One of the age-related conditions that James is most likely to face at his age is

A) increased strength in his upper arms. B) sensitivity to high-pitched sounds. C) joint stiffness. D) decreased bladder control.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Physical Performance and Development

22) Mark is an orthopedic surgeon. He has been asked to conduct a health seminar for middle-aged individuals. During the seminar, he informs the audience that they should include plenty of fruits and vegetables in their diet, as these are known to increase bone density in middle-aged and older adults. Which of the following facts best supports Mark's advice?

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A) Maximum bone density occurs in late adolescence. B) Maximum bone density occurs by the mid- to late thirties. C) Peak functioning of the body's joints occurs in the fifties. D) The rate of bone density loss accelerates and then decelerates with further aging.

23)

Which of the following statements about physical changes in bones is true?

A) Maximum bone density occurs in late adolescence. B) By the end of early adulthood, bones break more easily and heal more slowly. C) The rate of bone loss is steady throughout the life span. D) Women lose bone mass twice as fast as men do.

24) As an orthopedic surgeon, Carla is advising her patient who is in his mid-twenties to make some changes to his diet and include exercises in his daily routine, as that would ensure his bone density remains normal. Which of the following might she add in support of her advice?

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A) Peak functioning of the body's joints usually occurs in the thirties. B) By the end of midlife, bones break more easily and heal more slowly. C) Maximum bone density occurs by the mid- to late twenties. D) The rate of bone density loss decelerates in the fifties.

25) eye.

The ability to focus and maintain an image on the retina is referred to as _____ of the

A) muscle integrity B) focal power C) visual acuity D) accommodation

26)

Accommodation of the eye experiences its sharpest decline between _____ years of age.

A) 20 and 29 B) 30 and 35 C) 40 and 59 D) 60 and 79

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27) Vanessa was never prescribed glasses as a child, as she did not have any vision problems. Now, at the age of 45 years, which of the following tasks is most likely to cause her difficulty?

A) reading a newspaper B) watching TV C) looking at a turn-signal indicator on a vehicle D) reading a road sign during the day

28) Sandra is turning 50 this year. At this age, she can expect certain age-related conditions to affect her, such as loss of strength in her legs and back, and difficulty in viewing objects and hearing clearly. Of the vision-related issues that affect individuals, which of the following is Sandra most likely to experience because of her age?

A) difficulty in viewing moving objects B) difficulty in viewing bright objects C) difficulty in viewing close objects D) difficulty in viewing complicated patterns

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29) Which of the following is one outcome of reduced blood supply to the eye during late middle age?

A) decrease in the visual field's size B) decrease in the eye's blind spot C) formation of wrinkles under the eyes D) increase in the size of the pupil

30)

Diminishing blood supply to the eye in the fifties and sixties may

A) increase accommodation of the eye. B) increase the eye's blind spot. C) increase the visual field's size. D) increase the amount of light entering the eye.

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31) age.

At 60 years of age, the retina receives only _____ as much light as it did at 20 years of

A) a quarter B) one-third C) half D) two-thirds

32) Which of the following is a reason for the reduction in light received by the retina during middle adulthood?

A) an increase in the size of the iris B) an increase in blood supply to the eye C) reduced size of the pupil D) reduced opacity of the lens

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33)

During middle age, the sensitivity to _____ sounds declines first.

A) low-pitched B) high-volume C) high-pitched D) high-amplitude

34)

Sensitivity to _____ sounds usually declines first among _____.

A) high-pitched; women B) high-pitched; men C) low-pitched; women D) low-pitched; men

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35)

Cholesterol comes in two forms, _____ and HDL.

A) LDL B) BDL C) GAL D) QUL

36)

LDL is often referred to as _____ cholesterol.

A) "simple" B) "good" C) "bad" D) "white"

37) Samantha gets a blood test done, and the test results indicate that her level of bad cholesterol is high and that she will have to keep it under control. She researches online and finds out that low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is referred to as bad cholesterol. Which of the following is the main reason LDL is referred to as "bad" cholesterol?

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A) High levels of LDL increase the risk of breast cancer. B) High levels of LDL can lead to arteriosclerosis. C) Low levels of LDL accelerate the process of aging. D) Low levels of LDL cause atherosclerosis.

38) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is often referred to as _____ cholesterol because when it is high and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is low, the risk of cardiovascular disease is lower.

A) good B) simple C) complex D) compound

39)

Which of the following is true of cardiovascular disease?

A) When HDL is high and LDL is low, the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened. B) When HDL is high and LDL is low, the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased. C) When HDL is low and LDL is high, the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened. D) When both HDL and LDL are low, the risk of cardiovascular disease is lessened.

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40) Michelle's tests reveal that she has a high level of LDL (low-density lipoprotein) and the LDL is sticking to the lining of blood vessels, causing the arteries to harden. Michelle's condition is known as

A) arteriosclerosis. B) osteoporosis. C) multiple sclerosis. D) atherosclerosis.

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41) Silas is a man who is in his late seventies. He has a condition characterized by hypertension, obesity, and insulin resistance. This is known as

A) diabetic neuropathy. B) metabolic syndrome. C) internal atrophy. D) neurodegeneration.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Topic : Health null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

42) Landon is 45 years old, and he is obese and suffers from hypertension. He was recently diagnosed with a condition called metabolic syndrome and was advised to exercise every day as well as eat small and healthy meals. In this scenario, which of the following is Landon most likely to suffer from because of his condition?

A) arteriosclerosis and cirrhosis of the liver B) pancreatic cancer and fatty liver C) irritable bowel syndrome and gastric ulcers D) diabetes and cardiovascular disease

43) Individuals with metabolic syndrome who _____ can reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

A) maintain a high blood glucose level B) are physically active C) maintain a high LDL level D) remain sedentary

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44)

Which of the following is true regarding metabolic syndrome?

A) Weight loss and exercise are strongly recommended as part of the treatment for metabolic syndrome. B) Metabolic syndrome usually reduces any risk of diabetes or any other cardiovascular disease. C) Metabolic syndrome often leads to anorexia nervosa. D) Waist circumference is the least recommended method in predicting metabolic syndrome.

45)

Which of the following statements about cholesterol levels is true?

A) High-density cholesterol leads to the hardening of the arteries when its level increases and it sticks to the lining of the blood vessels. B) Low-density cholesterol is referred to as good cholesterol because it reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease. C) High-density cholesterol is referred to as bad cholesterol, as the risk of cardiovascular disease increases when low-density cholesterol is high. D) The level of cholesterol in the blood increases during the adult years and in midlife and begins to accumulate on the artery walls.

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46)

Which of the following is true regarding lung capacity in middle age?

A) There is significant change in lung capacity through most of middle adulthood. B) In late middle age, the proteins in lung tissue become more elastic. C) Stiffening of the chest wall decreases the lungs' capacity to shuttle oxygen. D) The lung capacity of smokers increases drastically in middle age.

47) What is the most common change in the sleep patterns of adults during the middle age years?

A) Sleep-disordered breathing becomes less prevalent. B) Wakeful periods become less frequent during the night. C) The total number of hours slept dramatically increases. D) There is a decrease in the deepest type of sleep.

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48)

Which of the following statements about sleep in middle age is true?

A) An increasing number of experts note that 11 hours of sleep or more per night is necessary for adults to perform optimally the next day. B) Habitual sleep deprivation in adults is linked to morbidity, especially among people with cardiovascular disease. C) Sleep-disordered breathing and restless legs syndrome become less prevalent in middle age. D) The total number of hours slept usually varies, but beginning in the forties, wakeful periods are less frequent and there is more of the deepest type of sleep.

49) Which of the following is typical of the condition of adults' health in early and late middle age?

A) Frequency of accidents increases. B) Susceptibility to colds and allergies decreases. C) Wakeful periods during sleep decrease. D) Incidence of chronic disorders decreases.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Stress and Disease

50)

Which of the following is true regarding chronic conditions?

A) Women have a higher incidence of fatal chronic conditions in middle age. B) Men have a higher incidence of nonfatal chronic conditions in middle age. C) Hypertension is the leading chronic disorder in early adulthood. D) Chronic disorders are rare in early adulthood.

51)

Which of the following are the most common chronic disorders for men in middle age?

A) cancer, heart disease, and stroke B) arthritis, bursitis, and varicose veins C) hearing and vision impairments D) sinus and respiratory problems

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52)

Which of the following is an example of a fatal chronic disorder?

A) varicose veins B) bursitis C) arthritis D) cardiovascular disease

53) Compared with men, women have a higher incidence of _____ disorders in middle adulthood.

A) genetic B) fatal chronic C) nonfatal chronic D) congenital

54)

Which of the following is an example of a nonfatal chronic disorder?

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A) stroke B) bursitis C) cancer D) cardiovascular disease

55)

Compared with men, women have a higher incidence of _____ in middle age.

A) arthritis B) hypertension C) stroke D) cardiovascular disease

56) All the following characteristics are linked to the connection of metabolic syndrome with cardiovascular disease, EXCEPT

A) lower HDL. B) higher blood pressure. C) lower back pain. D) a large waist circumference.

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57) In a recent global study (Jagannathan & others, 2019), _____ was among the conditions that accounted for most of the cardiovascular-related deaths from 1990 to 2017.

A) lower HDL B) higher LDL C) low glucose levels D) low blood pressure

58) A recent global study (Jagannathan & others, 2019) revealed that from 1990 to 2017, high-income regions witnessed a

A) decline in cardiovascular mortality rates. B) steep increase in cardiovascular mortality rates. C) sharp decline in cancer-related deaths. D) sharp increase in cancer-related deaths.

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59) Which of the following statements is true regarding mortality rates in the United States and the world?

A) The least number of deaths in the twentieth century were due to infectious diseases. B) The rates of chronic disorders have decreased and the rates of infectious diseases have increased. C) In old age, many deaths are caused by a single, readily identifiable condition. D) Men usually have higher mortality rates than women for all the leading causes of death.

60) Margie Lachman and her colleagues argue that having a _____ is one of the most important modifiable factors in delaying the onset of diseases in middle adulthood and reducing the frequency of diseases in late adulthood.

A) high body mass index B) sense of control in middle age C) low-calorie diet in middle adulthood D) low number of NK cells

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61) _____ was/were the main cause of death in the United States until the middle of the twentieth century.

A) Infectious disease B) Accidents C) Chronic disease D) Homicide

62)

At present, the main cause of death in middle adulthood in the United States is

A) infectious disease. B) accidents. C) chronic disease. D) homicide.

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63)

_____ refers to the midlife transition in which fertility declines.

A) Puberty B) Menarche C) Spermarche D) Climacteric

64) In a recent Norwegian study of more than 300,000 women (Gottschalk & others, 2020), researchers found _____ to be associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.

A) early menopause B) low blood pressure C) late menopause D) early menarche

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65)

Which of the following statements about menopause is true?

A) The age at which menopause occurs has increased dramatically in recent years. B) There is a correlation between the onset of menarche and the onset of menopause. C) Perimenopause takes up to two years or less in most women. D) Later menopause is linked with increased risk of breast cancer.

66)

Which of the following statements about the onset of menarche and menopause is true?

A) The timing of menarche has significantly decreased since the mid-nineteenth century. B) The average age at which U.S. women have their last period is 61. C) Women who reported early menarche are prone to having an earlier occurrence of menopause. D) In menarche, production of estrogen by the ovaries declines dramatically.

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67) all.

_____ is the transitional period from normal menstrual periods to no menstrual periods at

A) Postmenopause B) Postmenarche C) Perimenopause D) Periadrenarche

68) Diana is 50 years old and has recently started experiencing a few symptoms of menopause. Which of the following symptoms is Diana most likely to experience?

A) bipolar disorder B) psychotic depression C) hot flashes D) high blood sugar

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69) Ruth is currently in menopause. This indicates that the production of _____ by her ovaries will decline drastically.

A) testosterone B) estrogen C) adrenaline D) insulin

70) Lillian is 50 years old. Her doctor has noticed a sharp decrease in her estrogen levels, and Lillian is complaining of nausea and fatigue. Based on these symptoms, what could be her initial diagnosis?

A) She has hyperthyroidism. B) She is going through menopause. C) She is going through postpartum depression. D) She has atherosclerosis.

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71)

Why is menopause an important marker for women?

A) It signals the loss of active sexual life for most women. B) They have to make final decisions about having children. C) They are at greater risk of contracting infectious diseases. D) They are at an increased risk of developing dementia.

72) Meghan is showing initial signs of menopause. She decides to do some reading online about menopause and familiarize herself with the causes, symptoms, and treatments related to this process. After reading about the treatment plans and other details online, she decides that she will not opt for hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which of the following is an accurate statement that favors Meghan’s decision to forego HRT?

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A) HRT is least favorable in reducing negative menopausal symptoms for women 60 years and younger who are within 10 years of menopausal onset. B) HRT is least favorable in reducing bone loss or fractures for women 60 years and younger who are within 10 years of menopausal onset. C) HRT is less favorable for women who are more than 10 or more years from menopausal onset because of the greater risk for cardiovascular disease. D) HRT is less favorable for women who are younger than 50 years old because of the greater risk for Alzheimer disease.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Menopause Bloom's : Analyze

73) Which of the following is most commonly administered during hormone replacement therapy?

A) estrogen B) testosterone C) follicle stimulating hormone D) luteinizing hormone

74)

The gradual decline in men's testosterone levels in middle age can reduce their

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A) lung capacity. B) sexual activity. C) infertility. D) thyroid levels.

75) Howard, a middle-aged man, is suffering from erectile problems. He consults his doctor to learn about the likely causes for his condition. He tells his doctor that he has been suffering from diabetes and low blood pressure. He also tells his doctor that he is a weight lifter and hence spends two hours each day at the gym. He also tells his doctor that his recent blood test shows a lower level of natural killer (NK) cells. In this scenario, which of the following would the doctor mention as the most likely cause for Howard's condition?

A) diabetes B) low blood pressure C) low level of NK cells D) excessive weight lifting

76) Which of the following is a common factor associated with erectile problems in middleaged men?

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A) smoking B) moderate exercise C) excessive sexual activity D) high testosterone levels

77) Douglas is diagnosed with erectile dysfunction. He consults his doctor to learn about the treatment options available for his condition. Which of the following drugs are similar to Viagra and are likely to be prescribed to treat Douglas's condition?

A) Rogaine and Prozac B) Levitra and Cialis C) Oxycodone and Prozac D) Naproxen and OxyContin

78) Brandon is a chain smoker and has been smoking cigarettes since college. He is currently 50 years old and has been recently diagnosed with erectile dysfunction. He consults his doctor to learn more about his condition. Which of the following would the doctor most likely tell Brandon during the consultation?

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A) Erectile dysfunction typically occurs in males over 70 years of age and seldom occurs in younger males. B) Erectile dysfunction is a fatal condition in males. C) Obesity and elevated cholesterol levels are the only known causes for erectile dysfunction. D) The main treatment for men with erectile dysfunction has focused on Viagra and similar drugs.

79) What new treatment for erectile dysfunction did researchers recently discover that has also been used to treat musculoskeletal disorders?

A) low-intensity shockwave therapy B) sildenafil citrate C) marijuana therapy D) psychotherapy

80)

Which of the following is one of the most common sexual problems of older men?

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A) premature ejaculation B) partner non-cooperation C) lack of foreplay D) lubrication difficulties

81)

Which of the following is one of the most common sexual problems of older women?

A) lack of foreplay B) lack of sexual interest C) partner non-cooperation D) reduced muscular movements

82)

Fluid intelligence is the ability to

A) reason abstractly. B) recall information. C) accumulate information. D) accumulate verbal skills.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

83)

Crystallized intelligence is

A) an individual's ability to reason abstractly. B) an individual's accumulated information and verbal skills. C) an individual's ability to think hypothetically. D) an individual's ability to use deductive reasoning.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

84)

John Horn maintains that in middle adulthood, _____ intelligence continues to increase.

A) fluid B) semantic C) crystallized D) multiple

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85)

According to John Horn, _____ steadily declines from middle adulthood onward.

A) fluid intelligence B) crystallized intelligence C) verbal memory D) kinesthetic intelligence

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

86) Identify a possible reason for the changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence among different age groups observed in John Horn's cross-sectional study.

A) secular trends B) cohort effects C) declining IQ with age D) biases in IQ testing

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

87)

Which of the following is true of the Seattle Longitudinal Study?

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A) It involves extensive evaluation of sexual abilities in adulthood. B) It was initiated by John Horn. C) Participants have been assessed in two-year intervals since 1985. D) New waves of participants are added periodically.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

88)

The Seattle Longitudinal Study concluded that middle age is a time of

A) peak performance for verbal ability. B) significant decline in inductive reasoning. C) moderate decline in spatial abilities. D) increased mathematical abilities.

89)

_____ refers to the ability to understand ideas expressed in words.

A) Verbal comprehension B) Verbal memory C) Implicit memory D) Spatial orientation

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

90) Jeanette, a 60-year-old woman, participates in a competition in which people are asked to memorize a list of words and then recall them in the same order in less than two minutes. In this competition, the participant who recalls the maximum number of words in the right order will be the winner. Unfortunately, Jeanette is not able to recall more than 10 words. In the context of the Seattle Longitudinal Study, Jeanette is most likely showing a decline in the mental ability referred to as

A) muscle memory. B) implicit memory. C) verbal memory. D) verbal comprehension.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

91) _____ refers to the ability to encode and recall meaningful language units, such as a list of words.

A) Spatial orientation B) Inductive reasoning C) Implicit memory D) Verbal memory

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

92) Toby is a computer programmer who has a passion for creating 3D games. He has the ability to visualize three-dimensional objects and mentally rotate them, which helps him put his ideas and drawings into virtual reality. In the context of the Seattle Longitudinal Study, Toby's mental ability is referred to as

A) spatial orientation. B) inductive reasoning. C) verbal ability. D) perceptual speed.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

93) _____ refers to the ability to recognize and understand patterns and relationships in a problem and use this understanding to solve other instances of the problem.

A) Spatial orientation B) Inductive reasoning C) Verbal comprehension D) Perceptual speed

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

94) _____ refers to the ability to quickly and accurately make simple discriminations in visual stimuli.

A) Spatial orientation B) Inductive reasoning C) Perceptual speed D) Verbal comprehension

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

95) In the Seattle Longitudinal Study, which of the following abilities showed signs of early decline?

A) spatial orientation B) perceptual speed C) inductive reasoning D) verbal memory

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Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

96) In the Seattle Longitudinal Study, among individuals aged 25 to 95, which of the following abilities showed the LEAST decline with age?

A) verbal comprehension B) spatial orientation C) inductive reasoning D) numerical abilities

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97) Which of the following was Schaie's key finding (1994) when he assessed intellectual abilities both cross-sectionally and longitudinally?

A) Decline in intellectual abilities was more likely in the cross-sectional assessments than in the longitudinal assessments. B) When assessed longitudinally, inductive reasoning showed a consistent decline in the middle adulthood years. C) When assessed cross-sectionally, inductive reasoning increased until toward the end of middle adulthood. D) People reach a peak in their cognitive functioning for many intellectual skills in early adulthood.

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98) Which of the following was among the findings in Schaie's examination (2007) of generational differences in parents and their children?

A) The second generation scored higher on numerical abilities. B) The second generation showed higher levels of cognitive functioning in inductive reasoning. C) The offspring generation showed cognitive declines from 60 to 67 years of age. D) The parent generation showed a modest increase in cognitive functioning from 60 to 67 years of age.

99)

Which of the following statements is true of research by Schaie and Salthouse?

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A) Both agree that adulthood is the time when the level of functioning in a number of cognitive domains is maintained or even increases. B) Salthouse has recently argued that his longitudinal research on aging and cognitive functioning should not be dismissed. C) Salthouse agrees with Schaie that cognitive functioning involving accumulated knowledge, such as vocabulary and general information, does not show early age-related decline but rather continues to increase at least until 60 years of age. D) Schaie has argued that reasoning, memory, spatial visualization, and processing speed begin declining in early adulthood and show further declines in the fifties.

100)

Which of the following is a common way to assess speed of information processing?

A) reaction-time task B) phonic simulation C) visual perception test D) neuropsychological test

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101)

An adult in middle age will most likely do poorly on which of the following tasks?

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A) understanding verbal directions B) completing a crossword puzzle C) hitting the brakes of a car when the light suddenly turns red D) lifting a box that weighs 20 pounds

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. null : Difficulty Level: Medium null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Speed of Information Processing

102) According to cognitive aging expert Denise Park, the slowdown in learning new information has been linked to changes in

A) dopamine levels. B) working memory. C) cognitive atrophy. D) neurotransmitter functioning.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Memory

103) The slowdown in learning new information has been linked to changes in _____, where individuals manipulate and assemble information when making decisions, solving problems, and comprehending written and spoken language.

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A) working memory B) brain circuitry C) episodic memory D) the neural network

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Memory

104) According to Denise Park, much of the blame for declining memory in late middle age goes to

A) neuroanatomical changes during late middle age. B) decreased blood supply to various parts of the brain. C) physiological and cognitive atrophy during late middle age. D) information overload that builds up over the adult years.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Memory

105) age?

Which of the following strategies would be most helpful in improving memory in middle

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A) Avoid using vivid imagery to keep from becoming distracted. B) Use a recall rather than recognition strategy whenever possible. C) Use an organization strategy to categorize information to be remembered. D) Avoid using the information to be remembered, so that it does not become confused with other information.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Memory

106)

Which of the following statements is true of novices and experts?

A) Novices are more creative in solving problems than experts. B) Novices are more flexible in solving problems than experts. C) Experts avoid the use of strategies and shortcuts when solving problems. D) Experts process information more automatically than novices.

107)

Which of the following statements is true of working memory?

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A) Decline in working memory is more likely to occur when individuals do not use effective memory strategies, such as organization and imagery. B) Studies indicate that starting in late middle age, less time is needed to learn new information as working memory expands. C) Decline in working memory in late middle age is due to lack of information stored over the years. D) Studies indicate that techniques such as imagining phone numbers as representing dif-ferent objects around the house are highly inefficient in improving working memory in middle adulthood.

108)

Which of the following statements is true of work in midlife?

A) There are always huge differences in the work performance of young adults and middle-aged adults. B) Age related declines occur in some occupations, such as air traffic controller and professional athlete. C) There is usually little emphasis on work during middle adulthood, regardless of the work being full-time, part-time, or volunteer work. D) The peak of work performance is usually reached in early adulthood; hence the percentage of people working during middle adulthood is the lowest.

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109) Which of the following is one of the outcomes of the restructuring, downsizing, and outsourcing resulting from globalization?

A) offering incentives to middle-aged employees to retire early B) encouraging middle-aged professionals to take up entrepreneurship C) offering incentives to young professionals to outperform middle-aged employees D) hiring more middle-aged professionals to supervisory and managerial positions

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes

110) Which of the following is one of the reasons many middle-aged workers are delaying their retirement plans?

A) the increase of retirement age to 75 years B) the increasing opportunity for middle-aged professionals C) the increased productive health owing to medical advancements D) the decline in defined-benefit pensions

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes

111) A recent analysis (Gosselin, 2019) found that _____ of workers over the age of 50 are pushed out of longtime jobs before they choose to retire, suffering considerable financial damage. Version 1

A) only about 5 percent B) less than 10 percent C) more than 50 percent D) over 80 percent

Question Details Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes

112) Meghan is conducting a seminar in her office on the importance of investing time in leisure activities. She explains that a lot of research has been conducted on the importance of leisure activities and that the research findings indicate that middle-aged adults need to make some changes to their current lifestyle. Which of the following research findings would Meghan most likely mention in her seminar?

A) If an adult develops leisure activities that can be continued into retirement, the transition from work to retirement will be highly stressful. B) When middle-aged adults engage in active leisure pursuits, they show a lower level of cognitive performance in late adulthood. C) When those who had worked in occupations with fewer cognitive challenges prior to retirement engaged in physical and cognitive leisure activities during retirement, they showed less cognitive decline. D) It has been observed that after individuals experienced stressful events, if they engaged in more leisure time than usual on those days, the leisure time seldom helped improve their moods.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Leisure null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Evaluate

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113) A longitudinal study of individuals from their early thirties through their early seventies showed that

A) a significant increase in spirituality occurred between late middle adulthood and late adulthood. B) spirituality peaked in late middle adulthood. C) there was no significant change in spirituality from late middle adulthood to late adulthood. D) a dramatic decrease in spirituality occurred between late middle adulthood and late adulthood.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Religion and Spirituality

114)

Which of the following is true regarding spirituality?

A) Only a small minority of U.S. adults consider themselves to be religious. B) Most U.S. middle-aged adults do not consider spirituality a major part of their lives. C) There is no evidence of changes in spirituality and religiousness in people as they age. D) Women have consistently shown a stronger interest in religion and spirituality than men have.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Religion and Spirituality

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115) Drawing on beliefs, values, and goals to change the meaning of a stressful situation is known as

A) self-efficacy. B) problem-focused coping. C) meaning-making coping. D) proactive coping.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Meaning in Life

116)

Which of the following is true of Austrian psychiatrist Viktor Frankl?

A) He argued that examining the finiteness of our existence and the certainty of death adds meaning to life. B) He said that the two most distinct human qualities are religiousness and philanthropy. C) Spirituality, in his view, has a religious underpinning. D) He argued that freedom refers to a human being's uniqueness of spirit, philosophy, and mind.

117) According to Viktor Frankl, the three most distinct human qualities are freedom, responsibility, and

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A) authority. B) spirituality. C) fraternity. D) industry.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Meaning in Life

118) Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs argue that a meaningful life can be understood in terms of four main needs for meaning, including which of the following?

A) the need for shelter B) the need for intimacy C) the need for values D) the need for food

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119) Which of the following statements is supported by Crystal Park's research on chronic stress and religious experiences?

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A) Individuals who are religious rarely experience a disruption in their values after the death of a loved one. B) Religion can serve as a meaning system through which the bereaved are able to reframe their loss. C) Non-religious individuals show better adjustment to the loss of a loved one than religious individuals. D) Initially, religion is linked with less depressed feelings about a loved one's death.

120) Based on the work of Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs, which of the following is true of the need for efficacy?

A) This need refers to the fact that present events draw meaning from their connection with future events. B) This need can lend a sense of goodness or positive characterization of life and justify certain courses of action. C) This need involves the belief that one can make a difference. D) This need implies that most individuals want to be good, worthy individuals.

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121) Caroline, a 25-year-old professional, has been dating Mike, her colleague, for the past six years. She wants to get married to him by the age of 30 and have kids with him before she turns 35. She feels that getting married to Mike and raising a family with him are her main goals in life and that these goals will show her the meaning of life. In the context of the four main needs for meaning proposed by Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs, which of the following needs is highlighted in this scenario? A) the need for self-worth B) the need for values C) the need for purpose D) the need for self-efficacy

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Meaning in Life null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

122) Cathy, a pious individual, strongly believes in the power of prayer and that she will understand the meaning of her life in due course. She volunteers at the church every weekend to help the needy, and during one such volunteering session, a well-read pastor tells her that a life that has purpose and values but no efficacy would be tragic. She ponders over this thought for days and finally decides to read up on Baumeister and Vohs' four main needs for meaning that guide how people try to make sense of their lives. Which of the following best supports the pastor’s statement to Cathy?

A) The person will do what it takes to achieve his or her own goals and purposes and thus be satisfied but not necessarily happy with his or her life. B) The person will ignore others' needs and focus on his or her own needs over everything else. C) The person might know what is desirable but would not be able to do anything with that knowledge. D) The person might consider the greater good of humanity and do what it takes to achieve these goals, even at the cost of his or her self-worth.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 123) _____ adulthood is the developmental period that begins at approximately 40 to 45 years of age and extends to about 60 to 65 years of age. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Changing Midlife Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation

124) The condition common to middle and late adulthood that may lead to diabetes and cardiovascular disease and is characterized by hypertension, obesity, and insulin resistance is known as _____ syndrome. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Topic : Health

125) Disorders characterized by a slow onset and a long duration are known as _____ disorders.

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126) What is the term that refers to the midlife transition, for both men and women, in which fertility declines? Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Topic : Menopause

127) What is the term that refers to the transitional period from normal menstrual periods to no menstrual periods at all, often taking up to 10 years? Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in middle adulthood. Topic : Menopause

128) The type of intelligence that consists of one's accumulated information and verbal skills is known as _____ intelligence. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

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129) The type of intelligence that consists of one's ability to reason abstractly is known as _____ intelligence. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

130) The mental ability to quickly and accurately make simple discriminations in visual stimuli is known as _____ speed. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

131) Name the theorist (last name only) who initiated the Seattle Longitudinal Study that involves extensive evaluations of intellectual abilities in the adult years. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Seattle Longitudinal Study

132) The mental "workbench" where individuals manipulate and assemble information and solve problems is known as _____ memory.

Version 1

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Memory

133) _____ refers to the pleasant times after work when individuals are free to pursue activities and interests of their own choosing—hobbies, sports, or reading, for example. Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Leisure

134) The type of coping that involves drawing on beliefs, values, and goals to change the meaning of a stressful situation, especially in times of chronic stress such as the death of a loved one, is known as _____ coping. (Note the term is hyphenated.) Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Explain the roles of religion, spirituality, and meaning of life during middle a Topic : Meaning in Life

135) Name the Austrian psychiatrist (last name only) who was a concentration camp survivor and wrote the bookMan's Search for Meaning, in which he proposed that the human qualities of spirituality, freedom, and responsibility were the key to finding one's true meaning in life (and death).

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 136) Describe the changes that occur in late midlife when compared with early midlife.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Changing Midlife Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation

137)

List the physical changes that take place during middle adulthood.

138) Describe the differences between LDL and HDL and some of the changes one can make in lifestyle to affect cholesterol levels.

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139)

What are the leading causes of death in middle adulthood?

140) Briefly discuss the conditions that may occur with menopause. What can one do to alleviate these symptoms?

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141) it.

What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)? Identify some of the risks associated with

142) What are the hormonal changes and related developments in middle-aged men? What are the treatments one can opt for to alleviate these symptoms?

143) What are the significant findings regarding the sexual attitudes and behaviors of middleaged adults?

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144) Distinguish between crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence, with examples. Explain how they change in middle adulthood.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize cognitive changes in middle adulthood. Topic : Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

145)

List four strategies that distinguish experts from a novices.

146) Discuss the career challenges faced by middle-aged workers in the twenty-first century. How can these challenges be addressed and reduced?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize trends in work, retirement, and education in middle adulthood. Topic : Career Challenges and Changes Topic : Leisure

147) Research suggests a higher level of meaning in life is linked to a higher level of psychological well-being and physical health. Outline the four main needs for meaning that Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs argue are what guide how people try to make sense of their lives.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch15 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) B 78) D 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) C 85) A 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) A 89) A 90) C 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) A 98) B 99) C 100) A 101) C 102) B 103) A 104) D 105) C 106) D 107) A 108) B 109) A 110) D 111) C 112) C 113) A 114) D 115) C 116) A Version 1

117) B 118) C 119) B 120) C 121) C 122) C 123) Middle 124) metabolic 125) chronic 126) climacteric 127) perimenopause 128) crystallized 129) fluid 130) perceptual 131) Schaie 132) working 133) Leisure 134) meaning-making 135) Frankl 136) Compared with earlier midlife, late midlife is more likely to be characterized by “the death of a parent, the last child leaving the parental home, becom-ing a grandparent, the preparation for retirement, and in most cases actual retirement.” Many people in this age range experience their first confrontation with health problems. Overall, then, although gains and losses may balance each other in early midlife, losses may begin to outnumber gains for many individuals in late midlife.

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137)Physical changes that take place during middle adulthood include the following: (a) Accommodation of the eye declines; (b) viewing close objects becomes difficult; (c) the eyes' blood supply diminishes; (d) the size of the visual field diminishes; (e) the retina becomes less sensitive to low levels of illumination; (f) hearing declines, with sensitivity to high pitches declining first; (g) individuals become shorter; (h) the skin wrinkles and sags; (i) teeth become yellow; (j) individuals lose strength; (k) there is progressive bone loss; and (l) individuals gain weight. 138) Cholesterol comes in two forms: LDL (low-density lipoprotein) and HDL (high-density lipoprotein). LDL levels should be low; when the level of LDH is high, it sticks to the blood vessels, which can lead to hardening of the arteries and cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol levels are influenced by heredity, but LDL can be reduced and HDL increased by eating food that is low in saturated fat and cholesterol and with regular exercise. 139) In middle age, many deaths are caused by a single, readily identifiable condition, whereas in old age, death is more likely to result from the combined effects of several chronic conditions. For many years, heart disease was the leading cause of death in middle adulthood, followed by cancer; however, since 2005 more individuals 45 to 64 years of age in the United States died of cancer, followed by cardiovascular disease. Although cancer continues to be the number one cause of death in middle age, in recent years the rate of deaths from cardiovascular disease has been increasing once again, likely linked to increased obesity.

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140) In menopause, production of estrogen by the ovaries declines dramatically, and this decline produces uncomfortable symptoms in some menopausal women: hot flashes, nausea, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat. Cross-cultural studies reveal variations in the menopause experience. It is difficult to determine the extent to which cross-cultural variations are due to genetic, dietary, reproductive, or cultural factors. Though menopause overall is not a negative experience for most women nowadays, the loss of fertility is an important marker for women, as it means that they have to make final decisions about having children. One study revealed that in sedentary women, aerobic training for six months decreased menopausal symptoms, especially night sweats, mood swings, and irritability. Another study found that yoga improved the quality of life of menopausal women. 141) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) augments the declining levels of reproductive hormone production by the ovaries. Research indicates that hormone replacement therapy is linked to a slightly higher risk of breast cancer, and the longer HRT is taken, the greater the risk of breast cancer. The current consensus is that HRT increases the risk of breast cancer in women. 142) Men experience hormonal changes in their fifties and sixties. Testosterone production begins to decline about 1 percent a year during middle adulthood, and sperm count usually shows a slow decline, but men do not lose their fertility in middle age. The main treatment for men with erectile dysfunction has not focused on testosterone replacement therapy (TRT) but on Viagra and similar drugs such as Levitra and Cialis.

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143) Although the ability of men and women to function sexually shows little biological decline in middle adulthood, sexual activity usually occurs on a less frequent basis than in early adulthood. The Sex in America survey finds that the frequency of having sex was greatest for individuals aged 25 to 29 years old and dropped off for individuals in their fifties. Other research indicates that middle-aged men want sex, think about it more, and masturbate more often than middle-aged women. For many other forms of sexual behavior, male and female middle-aged adults report similar frequency of engagement. Although middle-aged adults have sex less frequently than when they were younger adults, only 30 percent reported that they were less satisfied with their sex life. 144) John Horn argues that some abilities begin to decline in middle age while others increase. Horn maintains that crystallized intelligence, an individual's accumulated information and verbal skills, continues to increase in middle adulthood, whereas fluid intelligence, one's ability to reason abstractly, begins to decline in middle adulthood. Examples will vary. 145)Strategies that distinguish an expert from a novice include the following: Experts are more likely to rely on their accumulated experience to solve problems. Experts often automatically process information and analyze it more efficiently when solving a problem in their domain than novices do. Experts have better strategies and shortcuts for solving problems in their domain than novices do. Experts are more creative and flexible in solving problems in their domain than novices are.

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146) Middle-aged workers today face globalization, rapid developments in information technologies, downsizing of organizations, outsourcing of jobs, early retirement, and concerns about pensions and health care. One aspect of middle adulthood involves adjusting idealistic hopes to accommodate realistic possibilities in light of how much time individuals have before they retire and how fast they are reaching their occupational goals. If individuals perceive that they are behind schedule, if their goals are unrealistic, they don’t like the work they are doing, or their job has become too stressful, they could become motivated to change jobs. Adults at midlife need to begin preparing psychologically for retirement. Constructive and fulfilling leisure activities in middle adulthood are an important part of this preparation. If an adult develops leisure activities that can be continued into retirement, the transition from work to retirement can be less stressful.

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147)According to Roy Baumeister and Kathleen Vohs, there are four main needs for meaning that guide how people try to make sense of their lives: Need for purpose: This need focuses on present events drawing meaning from their connection with future events. Purposes can be divided into (1) goals and (2) fulfillments. Life can be oriented toward a future anticipated state, such as living happily ever after or being in love. Need for values: This need focuses on lending a sense of goodness or positive characterization of life and justifying certain courses of action. Values enable people to decide whether certain acts are right or wrong. Need for a sense of efficacy: This need involves the "belief that one can make a difference. A life that had purposes and values but no efficacy would be tragic. The person might know what is desirable but could not do anything with that knowledge." With a sense of efficacy, people believe that they can control their environment, which has positive physical and mental health benefits. Need for self-worth: This need focuses on the fact that most individuals want to be "good, worthy persons and that self-worth can be pursued individually."

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Erikson proposed that middle-aged adults face a significant conflict that he referred to as

A) intimacy versus isolation. B) integrity versus despair. C) generativity versus stagnation. D) autonomy versus shame and doubt.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

Which of the following is the seventh stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory?

A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and doubt D) generativity versus stagnation

3) In Erikson's theory, _____ encompasses adults' desire to leave legacies of themselves to the next generation.

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A) self-actualization B) generativity C) self-absorption D) perpetuity

In Erikson's theory, adults strive for generativity to achieve a sense of

A) immortality. B) recognition. C) achievement. D) omniscience.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation

5) Jared is 50 years old. He has been working in a corporate law firm for the past 25 years. Even though he has been successful in his career, he realizes that he has done nothing for his children. According to Erikson’s theory, Jared's realization indicates a concern with

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A) perpetuity. B) generativity. C) self-actualization. D) stagnation.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

Abdiel has three children. According to Erikson, he has achieved

A) biological generativity. B) parental generativity. C) biological stagnation. D) cultural stagnation.

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7) Guillermo has taught his apprentices all the specialized techniques he has developed over the years as a carpenter. According to Erikson, he has achieved _____ generativity.

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A) biological B) parental C) work D) cultural

8) Jacqueline nurtures and guides her children. According to Erik Erikson, she has achieved _____ generativity.

A) biological B) parental C) work D) cultural

9) As he looks back at life, Chris realizes that his work was not as important to him as he believed and that he lost too much valuable time with his children. If he could do it over again, he would work less and spend more time with his children. According to Erikson, Chris is experiencing some degree of

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A) social rejection. B) apathy. C) generativity. D) stagnation.

10) Saeko has committed herself to the continuation and improvement of society as a whole through her connection and relationship with children and grandchildren. According to Erikson, she is

A) self-absorbed. B) generative. C) stagnant. D) apathetic.

11) In a longitudinal study of Smith College women, the desire for _____ increased as the participants aged from their thirties to their fifties.

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A) generativity B) self-concept C) stagnation D) self-absorption

Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation

12) Which of the following statements about Erikson's stage of generativity versus stagnation is true?

A) Research almost universally refutes Erikson's theory that generativity is an important dimension of middle age. B) Generative adults usually refrain from committing themselves to the continuation and improvement of society as a whole. C) Generative adults develop a positive legacy of the self and then offer it as a gift to the next generation. D) Adults usually strive to achieve a kind of recognition through legacies.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

13)

According to Levinson, which of the following should occur at the end of one's teens?

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A) a transition from dependence to independence B) an increase in generativity C) an increase in feelings of stagnation D) a transition from conventional to postconventional reasoning

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

14)

According to Levinson, the transition from dependence to independence is marked by the

A) realization of a goal. B) testing of a dream. C) free experimentation of a dream. D) formation of a dream.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

15) Jensen is 25 years old and is about to start his career as a business analyst. According to Levinson, Jensen is in the _____ phase of adult development.

A) stagnant B) novice C) expert D) generative

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Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply

16) According to Levinson, which of the following is a major task that needs to be mastered in early adulthood?

A) exploring the possibilities for adult living B) determining one's goals in life C) testing one's dreams in the real world D) becoming independent

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

17)

Identify a major task that must be mastered in early adulthood, according to Levinson.

A) reaching the pinnacle of one's career B) developing a stable life structure C) focusing on family development D) forming an image of one's career

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

18) From about the ages of 28 to 33, a man goes through a transition period in which he must face the more serious question of

A) achieving his independence. B) forming his dreams. C) achieving his goals. D) determining his goals.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

19)

Kyle just celebrated his 40th birthday. According to Levinson, Kyle has

A) reached a stable point in his career. B) just started to determine his goals. C) just formed a dream about his future. D) just started his career and is focused.

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20)

According to Levinson, the transition to middle adulthood lasts about _____ years.

A) two B) four C) five D) seven

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

21) According to Levinson, the transition to middle adulthood requires that men come to grips with four major conflicts. Which of the following is one of these conflicts?

A) being young versus being old B) being attractive versus being unattractive C) being extroverted versus being introverted D) being married versus being single

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

22) According to Levinson, the transition to middle adulthood requires that men come to grips with four major conflicts. One of these conflicts is

A) being married versus being single. B) being attractive versus being unattractive. C) being destructive versus being constructive. D) being extroverted versus being introverted.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

23) According to Levinson, the _____ rests on how effectively an individual reduces the polarities in four major conflicts and accepts each of them as an integral part of their being.

A) failure of adolescent transition B) success of the midlife transition C) success of the transition into early adulthood D) success of the transition into late adulthood

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains

24)

Daniel Levinson's studies suggest that most adults feel that middle age is a time of

A) crisis. B) reconsolidation. C) peace and tranquility. D) intimacy and social closeness.

25)

What did Levinson's research conclude about women in the midlife transition?

A) Women have significantly less distress than men during this process. B) Women face the midlife transition earlier and with greater difficulty than do men. C) Women who have children experience an easier time during midlife than those who do not have children. D) The stages and transitions Levinson describes, and the crisis of middle age, hold for women as well as men.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Topic : Levinson's Seasons of Man's Life Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation

26) George Vaillant concludes that _____ is a time for detecting parental flaws and discovering the truth about childhood.

A) adolescence B) late adulthood C) middle adulthood D) old age

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Midlife Crisis

27) Jenna is reevaluating and recording the facts about her adolescent and adulthood years. According to Vaillant's "Grant Study," Jenna is most likely in her

A) thirties. B) forties. C) fifties. D) sixties.

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Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Midlife Crisis

28) Which of the following is a major difference between Levinson's and Valliant's views on midlife?

A) Unlike Valliant, Levinson believes that only men experience a midlife crisis. B) Unlike Levinson, Valliant maintains that only a minority of adults experience a midlife crisis. C) Levinson maintains that the transition to midlife is a period of six years, while Valliant holds it to be eight years. D) Unlike Levinson, Valliant's study was mainly focused on the White, middle-aged, male population within the upper-SES portion of society.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Midlife Crisis

29)

Adult development experts are virtually unanimous in their belief that midlife crises

A) have been validated. B) have been exaggerated. C) have no cross-cultural validity. D) have been underestimated.

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30)

As they examine what individuals go through in midlife, stage theories focus on

A) universals of adult personality development. B) gender differences in adult personality development. C) individual variations in adult development. D) cultural variations in adult personality development.

31)

Which of the following is a shortcoming of stage theories of adult development?

A) They do not adequately address universals of adult personality development. B) They do not adequately address individual variations in adult development. C) They place far too much importance on cultural variations in adult development. D) They place too much importance on individual variations in adult development.

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32) Researchers have found that in one-third of the cases in which individuals have reported going through a midlife crisis, the crisis

A) varies between men and women. B) leads to emotional instability. C) is related to aging. D) is triggered by life events.

Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Midlife Crisis

33) The _____ life-events approach emphasizes that how life events influence an individual's development depends not only on the life event itself but also on mediating factors.

A) contemporary B) standard C) cognitive D) assimilative

34) According to the contemporary life-events approach, one of the factors on which the influence of life events depends is the individual's

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A) cognitive capacity. B) adaptation. C) personality. D) race.

35) One of the drawbacks of the life-events approach to understanding adult development is that it

A) places too much emphasis on change. B) ignores the developmental stages adults go through. C) fails to consider the female experience. D) focuses on minor but not major life events.

36) One study using daily diaries over a one-week period (Almeida & Horn, 2004) found what difference in the experience of stressors between young adults and middle-aged adults?

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A) Young adults experienced daily stressors less frequently. B) Unlike young adults, middle-aged adults experienced fewer multiple stressors than older adults. C) Young adults were less physically reactive to work stressors. D) Middle-aged adults experienced more "overload" stressors.

Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard

37) Which of the following is one of the ten most frequent daily hassles for middle-aged adults?

A) concerns about being lonely B) concerns about meeting high standards C) concerns about weight D) wasting time

38) Aaron is 48 years old. He is married and has two adolescent children. Based on research into stresses and uplifts among college students and middle-aged adults (Kanner & others, 1981), which of the following daily hassles is Aaron is most likely to face?

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A) concerns about meeting high standards B) concerns about completing a task C) concerns about the health of a family member D) an inability to get enough sleep

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age null : Difficulty Level: Hard

39) Miranda is 45 years old. She is a single working mother. Based on research into stresses and uplifts among college students and middle-aged adults (Kanner & others, 1981), which of the following is a daily uplift that Miranda is most likely to experience?

A) finding time for entertainment B) meeting her responsibilities C) maintaining her physical appearance D) maintaining her household

40) Researchers have found that on average a sense of personal control peaks in _____ and then declines.

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A) early adulthood B) midlife C) adolescence D) late adulthood

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

41) Over which of the following aspects of life do middle-aged adults feel they have the least control?

A) finances B) sex life C) work D) marriage

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

42) Middle-aged adults feel they have less control over their _____ than over the other three aspects of personal control given here.

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A) marriage B) finances C) work D) children

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

43) According to research, women and men differ in the way they experience and respond to stressors. When coping with stress, women are more likely than men to

A) try to fix problems themselves. B) engage in comfort eating. C) attend a support group meeting. D) have sex or use pornography.

44) Amanda got divorced after 15 years of marriage. Ever since, she has been experiencing high levels of stress. To cope with stress, Amanda is most likely to

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A) attend a support group meeting. B) have sex or use pornography. C) take prescription medication. D) withdraw from social contact.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

45) According to research, women and men differ in the way they experience and respond to stressors. When coping with stress, men are more likely than women to

A) read a self-help book. B) engage in comfort eating. C) take prescription medication. D) have sex or use pornography.

46) Darren has a stressful work life. His workload has increased threefold, and he is having a hard time dealing with stress. In such a situation, Darren is most likely to

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A) take prescription medication. B) read a self-help book. C) attend a support group meeting. D) seek psychotherapy.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

47) Adam has been facing work-related stress lately. The stress is negatively affecting his health. Adam is likely to respond in a

A) composed manner. B) fight-or-flight manner. C) stagnant manner. D) tend-and-befriend pattern.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

48) Hannah is grieving the death of her mother, so she is experiencing extreme stress. She is likely to engage in

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A) a tend-and-befriend pattern. B) an aggressive behavior. C) a fight-or-flight response. D) social distancing.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age

49) In the context of stress, which of the following is a difference between a fight-or-flight manner and a tend-and-befriend pattern?

A) A fight-or-flight manner involves becoming aggressive and withdrawing from social contact, whereas a tend-and-befriend pattern involves seeking social alliances with others, especially friends. B) When women face stress, they are more likely to respond in a fight-or-flight manner, whereas when men experience stress, they are more likely to engage in a tend-and-befriend pattern. C) A fight-or-flight manner involves seeking psychotherapy or reading a self-help book, whereas a tend-and-befriend pattern involves not admitting to have problems and fixing problems without anyone's help. D) When older adults face stress, they are more likely to respond in a fight-or-flight manner, whereas when adolescents experience stress, they are more likely to engage in a tendand-befriend pattern.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Stress, Personal Control, and Age null : APA LO: 2.5: Incorporate sociocultural factors in scientific inquiry Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard

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50) _____ theory is most similar to the contemporary life-events approach in highlighting the importance of the complex setting of people's lives.

A) Bronfenbrenner's B) Freud's C) Erikson's D) Piaget's

51) Lorenzo was born during the Great Depression in the United States. He and others who were born in the same era show greater cognitive decline than people born at a later time. This illustrates the fact that cohort effects are differences based on

A) gender. B) historical contexts. C) genetic traits. D) cultural aspects.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

52)

Mike and Ashton are cohorts. This means that

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A) they were born in the same year. B) they have the same socioeconomic status. C) they are both males. D) they work in the same field.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Apply null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

53)

According to Neugarten, _____ provide guides for our lives.

A) interval measures B) life-event calendars C) circadian rhythms D) social clocks

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

54) Which of the following is a significant observation made by Neugarten about social clocks?

A) Social clocks are more rigid than they were before. B) Individuals whose lives are synchronized with social clocks are less stressed. C) Younger adults below 25 years are excluded from the social clock age bracket. D) Social clocks are more important for men than for women.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

55) Sandra's mother is concerned about Sandra's lack of interest in marrying and having children. She tells Sandra, "When I was your age, I had already found a good husband and settled down." This is most illustrative of how Sandra and her mother

A) have different social clocks. B) have different coping styles. C) have different commitment levels. D) are in different developmental stages.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

56) Britney and Amy work in a marketing firm. Both are 25 years old. Britney gave birth to her son at the age of 17. She finds it increasingly stressful to juggle office work and household work. On weekends, she prefers staying indoors with her son and attending to his needs. In comparison, Amy is single and frequently meets her friends over the weekends. She enjoys cooking, and she takes dance lessons. She enjoys her everyday life. This scenario illustrates how Britney and Amy

A) have different coping styles. B) have different social clocks. C) have different commitment levels. D) are in different developmental stages.

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Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

57) In a study of 700 women aged 26 to 80 (Mitchell & Helson, 1990), one of the conditions that distinguished the lives of women in their early 50s from those of women in other age periods was

A) a rarity of "empty nests." B) lower health. C) higher income. D) an absence of stress.

58)

Which of the following statements is true of stage theories of adult development?

A) Critics have regularly observed that the stage theories of adult development have a female bias. B) The central focus of stage theories has been predominantly away from career choice or work achievement. C) The stage theories adequately address women's concerns about relationships, interdependence, and caring. D) The adult stage theories have placed little importance on childbearing and child rearing.

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59)

In the context of gender, which of the following statements is true of the midlife period?

A) Middle-aged men have more interpersonal stressors. B) Middle-aged women have more self-focused stressors. C) Childbearing and child rearing are no longer of significance in this period. D) Midlife is a diversified, heterogeneous period for women.

60)

Which of the following statements is true of cultural contexts of adulthood?

A) In many cultures, especially nonindustrialized cultures, the concept of middle age is not very clear and in some cases is absent. B) In nonindustrialized societies, unlike in industrialized societies, individuals are always aptly identified and described as middle-aged. C) Every culture in the world has words for "adolescent" and "young adult." D) In American cultures, unlike in cultures like that of the Gusii in Kenya, a midlife crisis is the exception rather than the rule.

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61)

It is common in nonindustrialized societies to

A) describe individuals as young or old but not as middle-aged. B) describe individuals as middle-aged. C) not have any words for old or young. D) not give much importance to an individual's age.

62)

Stages of adulthood in the Gusii culture of Kenya are defined by

A) a person's age. B) events in a person's life. C) the evaluations of the elders. D) the type of midlife crisis a person experiences.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development null : APA LO: 3.3: Adopt values that build community at local, national, and global levels

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63) Gary got divorced after seven years of marriage. He is highly stressed and is using the fight-or-flight manner to respond to stress. Gary is most likely to

A) withdraw from social contact. B) be merciful and forgiving. C) seek social alliances. D) tend and befriend people.

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64) Which of the Big Five factors of personality deals with emotional stability and describes an individual as being calm or anxious?

A) conscientiousness B) extraversion C) openness D) neuroticism

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65) Which of the following is one of the Big Five factors of personality identified by Costa and McCrae? Version 1

A) enthusiasm B) patience C) adaptability D) conscientiousness

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66)

Recent research indicates that adults with a high degree of conscientiousness are

A) more satisfied with their marriage. B) more likely to develop dementia. C) more likely to be obese. D) always equipped with a significantly higher SES.

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67) A recent study (Non & others, 2020) revealed that an adult's optimistic outlook was related less to _____ and more to _____.

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A) advantaged or disadvantaged circumstances growing up; maintaining a healthy lifestyle B) health or disability; growing up in advantaged circumstances C) sex; gender D) advantaged or disadvantaged circumstances growing up; gender and ethnicity

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Big Five Factors of Personality

68) Which of the following is the conclusion Costa and McCrae reached in their study of approximately 1,000 college-educated men and women aged 20 to 96?

A) Considerable stability occurs in the five personality factors. B) Extraversion is the most unstable personality factor. C) While extraversion and openness remain stable, agreeableness and conscientiousness vary greatly. D) The five personality factors are very unstable across different age groups.

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69)

Which of the following is one of the Big Five factors of personality?

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A) generativity B) extraversion C) transitivity D) stagnation

70) One study on the five personality factors in adulthood (Specht, Egloff, & Schukle, 2011) found that _____ showed a continuous increase from early adulthood to late adulthood.

A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) openness

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71) Which of the Big Five personality factors describes whether an individual is imaginative or practical?

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A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

72) Identify the Big Five personality factor that describes whether an individual is independent or conforming.

A) openness to experience B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness

73) Carla is described by her coworkers as highly organized and meticulous. She has a strong sense of self-discipline. According to the Big Five factors of personality, Carla is most likely to score high on

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A) openness to experience. B) extraversion. C) conscientiousness. D) agreeableness.

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74) Which of the Big Five personality factors describes a person as either disciplined or impulsive?

A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) agreeableness

75) Becky is careless, impulsive, and disorganized. According to the Big Five personality factors, Becky is most likely to score low on

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A) openness to experience. B) agreeableness. C) neuroticism. D) conscientiousness.

76) Chelsea is described as somber and reserved by her coworkers. According to the Big Five factors of personality, Chelsea is most likely to score low on

A) extraversion. B) openness to experience. C) conscientiousness. D) agreeableness.

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77) Identify the Big Five personality factor that describes whether an individual is fun-loving or somber.

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A) agreeableness B) openness to experience C) conscientiousness D) extraversion

78) Darshana is fun-loving, sociable, and affectionate with all her friends and acquaintances. Identify the Big Five personality factor that describes this aspect of Darshana's personality.

A) extraversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) agreeableness

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Costa and McCrae's Baltimore Study null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Topic : Big Five Factors of Personality

79) Jason's friends describe him as softhearted, trustworthy, and helpful. According to the Big Five factors of personality, Jason is most likely to score high on

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A) conscientiousness. B) openness to experience. C) agreeableness. D) extraversion.

80) Lana's friends describe her as highly agreeable. According to the Big Five factors of personality, Lana is likely to be

A) calm. B) cooperative. C) organized. D) disciplined.

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81) According to the Big Five factors of personality, which of the following personality supertraits describes an individual as either secure or insecure?

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A) neuroticism B) agreeableness C) openness D) extraversion

82) Which of the Big Five personality factors describes an individual as either self-satisfied or self-pitying?

A) openness B) agreeableness C) neuroticism D) extraversion

83)

Most research studies indicate that the greatest change in personality traits occurs in

A) midlife. B) late midlife. C) late adulthood. D) early adulthood.

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84) _____ has been found to be related to superior cognitive functioning, achievement, and IQ across the life span (Briley, Domiteaux, & Tucker-Drob, 2014).

A) Agreeableness B) Openness to experience C) Extraversion D) Neuroticism

85) _____ has been linked to greater entrepreneurial success (Zhao, Seibert, & Lumpkin, 2010).

A) Agreeableness B) Neuroticism C) Extraversion D) Openness to experience

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86) Individuals high in _____ are more likely to have satisfying romantic relationships (Donnellan, Larsen-Reif, & Conger, 2005).

A) agreeableness B) neuroticism C) extraversion D) openness to experience

87) According to research, which of the following is a difference between individuals high in conscientiousness and individuals high in neuroticism?

A) Individuals high in conscientiousness are more likely to live longer, whereas individuals high in neuroticism are more likely to die at a younger age. B) Individuals high in conscientiousness are more likely to be drug dependent, whereas individuals high in neuroticism are more likely to have an alcohol addiction. C) Individuals high in conscientiousness are successful entrepreneurs, whereas individuals high in neuroticism are successful managers. D) Individuals high in conscientiousness feel more negative emotion than positive emotion in daily life, whereas individuals high in neuroticism experience more lingering positive states.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Costa and McCrae's Baltimore Study Bloom's : Analyze null : Difficulty Level: Hard

88) In the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, which of the following characteristics was found to be generally stable in the life span of an adult?

A) nurturance B) hostility C) self-control D) self-confidence

89) In the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, which of the following generally changed the most in the life span of an adult?

A) intellectual orientation B) nurturance or hostility C) openness to experience D) self-confidence

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90)

What is John Clausen's criticism of the adult stage theories?

A) Too much attention has been given to the discontinuities in life. B) Most people actually have stable, continuous lives with little change. C) Personality is actually characterized by change, not stability. D) Life changes do not follow through in stages, but rather in a continuum.

91) Which of the following was one of the groups distinguished by Helson and her colleagues in the Mills College study?

A) women with children who pursued only low-level work B) women who were career-oriented C) women who were single mothers and had aged, dependent parents D) women who were divorced

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Helson's Mills College Studies

92) The researchers in the Mills College study concluded that rather than being in a midlife crisis, the women were experiencing

A) perimenopausal agitation. B) a midlife consciousness. C) the empty nest syndrome. D) generational unlearning.

93) Which of the following statements is true of George Vaillant's longitudinal studies of adulthood and aging?

A) Factors such as having good coping skills and being thankful were linked with the "happy-well" category. B) Only individuals with normal weight were more likely to be alive and happy at 75 to 80 years of age. C) Intimacy in middle age was more strongly related than generativity to whether individuals would have an enduring and happy marriage at 75 to 80 years of age. D) Wealth and income at age 50 were usually linked with being in the "happy-well" category at 75 to 80 years of age.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood.

94) According to Helson's Mills College study, women who did not commit themselves to one of the lifestyle patterns (family-oriented, career-oriented, and those who followed neither path)

A) were more prone to depression. B) had a history of insecure attachment in childhood. C) faced fewer challenges and did not develop as fully. D) were more prone to experience marital dissatisfaction.

95) Based on George Vaillant's longitudinal studies, _____ in middle age is more strongly related than intimacy to whether individuals will have an enduring and happy marriage at 75 to 80 years of age.

A) generativity B) stagnation C) autonomy D) assuming a traditional gender role

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood.

96) Vaillant's research showed that at age 50, the best predictors of who would be dead at 75 to 80 years of age were

A) chronic depression and cardiovascular disease. B) diabetes and depression. C) alcohol abuse and smoking. D) smoking and obesity.

97) In the longitudinal studies by George Vaillant, one of the factors at age 50 that was linked with being in the "happy-well" category of 75- to 80-year-olds was

A) being future-oriented. B) being wealthy. C) having a stable job. D) having children.

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Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Stability and Change

98) The _____ model of personality development states that with time and age people become more adept at interacting with their environment in ways that promote increased stability in personality.

A) cognitive personality B) cumulative personality C) humanistic personality D) integrative personality

99)

Middle-aged Americans agree that a major component of their well-being involves

A) physical health. B) positive relationships. C) recovering from a midlife crisis. D) a stable financial situation.

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. Topic : Love and Marriage

100)

What are the two major forms of love?

A) passionate and intimate B) companionate and consummate C) romantic and affectionate D) sexual and noncommittal

101) Cathy and Miguel have been dating for six months. Which of the following is likely to be LEAST important in their relationship, considering that both are in early adulthood?

A) passion B) loyalty C) physical attraction D) romance

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Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. Bloom's : Apply Topic : Love and Marriage

102) Don and Ellie have been married for over 30 years. Which of the following is likely to bemost important in their relationship?

A) romance B) passion C) infatuation D) security

103) Humberto and Xanat are a middle-aged couple. They have been married for 25 years. They view their marriage as a positive experience. According to research on the empty nest experience, it is likely that they

A) have a satisfying sexual relationship. B) feel a high level of physical attraction toward each other. C) engage in mutual activities. D) are religious.

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104) In a survey conducted by AARP (2004), divorced adults reported that they had generally stayed married and postponed their divorces because of

A) their children. B) financial problems. C) religious beliefs. D) cultural norms.

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105) In a survey conducted by AARP (2004), which of the following was among the main reasons cited by middle-aged and older women for their divorce?

A) alcohol or drug abuse B) falling out of love C) unemployment D) difference in values

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Love and Marriage

106) In a survey conducted by AARP (2004), the primary reason middle-aged and older women cited for wanting a divorce was

A) verbal, physical, or emotional abuse. B) different values and lifestyles. C) unemployment. D) falling out of love.

107) In a survey conducted by AARP (2004), one of the reasons middle-aged and older men cited for wanting a divorce was

A) verbal, physical, or emotional abuse. B) different values and lifestyles. C) alcohol or drug abuse. D) unemployment.

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Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.2: Demonstrate psychology information literacy Topic : Love and Marriage Topic : Divorce

108) Angelo and his wife just had their last child move out of the house. The couple had lived vicariously through their children, letting sports activities and various youthful achievements dominate their lives. Now, they may experience _____, which includes a decline in marital satisfaction after children leave the home.

A) the life dilemma B) chronic discontent C) the empty nest syndrome D) alienation

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Empty Nest and Its Refilling

109)

Which of the following is true of the empty nest syndrome?

A) Parents who live vicariously through their children do not experience it. B) It is more common for middle-aged men than for middle-aged women. C) It is a common, though minor, problem for most middle-aged adults. D) It involves a decline in marital satisfaction after children leave the home.

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110) Trevor and Michelle's last child has just left home to attend college. Research suggests that with the increased time they are able to spend together,

A) they will paradoxically grow emotionally distant. B) Michelle will likely sink into depression over the absence of children in the home, but Trevor will not. C) they will grow disinterested in pursuing outside interests. D) they will experience increased marital satisfaction, provided it is quality time.

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111) Katie, a 30-year-old woman, is working as a freelance writer. Recently, she decided to move in with her parents. However, both Katie and her parents are facing adjustment issues. According to research, which of the following is a common complaint likely to be voiced by both Katie and her parents?

A) a lack of social interaction B) a lack of career development C) an increased strain on finances D) a loss of privacy

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112) Matt and Sandra are not letting go of their children, even though the children are now adults and are earning enough to live on their own. Matt and Sandra are engaging in

A) bulldozer parenting. B) helicopter parenting. C) boomerang parenting. D) permaparenting.

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113) Karen, aged 21, is a senior in college, but her mother calls her five or six times a day to "check in" and to ask her what she is doing, what she had for lunch, and so on. This type of parenting is called _____ parenting.

A) pathological B) helicopter C) boomerang D) indulgent

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114) The practice of helicopter parenting has been shown to be linked to which of the following?

A) emerging adults' limited vocational development B) increased perceived competence in transitioning to adulthood C) higher success in careers in early adulthood D) more successful romantic relationships in early adulthood

115) Parents who remove obstacles and stressors for their children, thereby not letting them learn how to make decisions and develop coping strategies of their own, have been referred to in recent research as _____ parents.

A) lawnmower B) garden hose C) robocop D) drone

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116)

Which of the following properly defines the new emerging pattern of "gray divorce"?

A) divorce after retirement B) divorce after the age of 40 C) divorce after the age of 50 D) divorce in circumstances of low SES

117)

Which of the following is likely one of the key reasons for the increase in gray divorce?

A) Women feel less stigma about leaving an unhappy marriage. B) The increasing economic insecurity of older couples causes trouble in the relationship. C) Children increasingly refuse to leave the home in early adulthood. D) Increasing rates of obesity are linked to increasing dissatisfaction in the relationship.

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118) Caleb has decided to leave college and return to live at home with his parents. He is most likely on the cusp of

A) young adulthood. B) adolescence. C) middle adulthood. D) midlife.

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119)

The majority of sibling relationships in adulthood are

A) close. B) neutral. C) apathetic. D) distant.

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120) Which of the following is true of middle-aged and older adults who had poor sibling relationships in childhood?

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A) Men are more likely to develop depression by age 50. B) Women are more likely to develop depression by 40. C) Both men and women tend to re-bond with their siblings in middle age. D) Women tend to move away from sibling relationships.

121)

Which of the following statements is true regarding sibling relationships?

A) Siblings who were psychologically distant from each other in childhood tend to be close in adulthood. B) The majority of sibling relationships in adulthood are apathetic. C) Sibling relationships rarely persist over the entire life span for most adults. D) It is rare for sibling closeness to develop for the first time in adulthood.

122) Gerard and his sister were never close when growing up. Now that they are adults, it is most likely that their relationship is

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A) neutral. B) close. C) distant. D) improving.

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123) Which of the following is a factor that could undermine the influence of increases in longevity on the nature of grandparenting?

A) changing gender roles in child rearing B) early marriage and childbirth C) single and same-sex parenting D) the current trend of delaying childbearing

124) Which of the following is among the three prominent meanings attached to being a grandparent?

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A) a sense of extrinsic reward B) a central role C) a financial strain D) a source of emotional self-fulfillment

Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. Topic : Grandparent Roles

125) Which of the following is one of the main reasons that grandparents are thrust back into the "parenting" role they thought they had shed?

A) spousal abuse B) adolescent pregnancy C) financial problems D) filling the "empty nest"

126)

Almost half the grandchildren who move in with grandparents are raised by

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A) both grandparents. B) a single grandmother. C) a single grandfather. D) both paternal and maternal grandparents.

127) Which of the following statements about grandparents providing full-time care for their grandchildren is true?

A) Only rarely do minority grandparents move in with their children and grandchildren. B) The majority of grandparents who move in with their children and grandchildren are in poverty. C) More grandfathers than grandmothers take care of their grandchildren. D) The majority of grandparents who move in to take care of their grandchildren also contribute to the family income.

Question Details Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains null : APA LO: 3.2: Build and enhance interpersonal relationships Learning Objective : Describe close relationships in middle adulthood. Topic : Grandparent Profile

128)

Middle adulthood is referred to as the "sandwich" generation because

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A) life is very hectic, and families rarely have a full meal together. B) people expect middle-aged adults to be both wise and mature as well as young and energetic. C) middle-aged adults are caught in a conflict between caring more for their spouse's parents than for their own. D) middle-aged adults may have to care for their elderly parents as well as their own adolescent children.

129) According to research on intergenerational relationships, in which of the following ways is an adult child most likely to be similar to his or her parents?

A) in politics B) in lifestyle C) in gender roles D) in work orientation

130)

Which of the following statements about intergenerational relationships is true?

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A) Individuals who had conflicts with their parents in adolescence reported greater closeness with their parents in early adulthood. B) A similarity between parents and an adult child is most noticeable in religion and politics. C) Children who spent less time in shared activities with their parents earlier in their lives provide more support to their parents as they become older. D) Parents who were regular smokers earlier in life are less likely to have adolescents who become smokers.

131) In one study of gender differences in intergenerational relationships (Rossi, 1989), who were found to have the closest relationships in their adult years?

A) fathers and sons B) mothers and sons C) fathers and daughters D) mothers and daughters

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132) that

One study of gender differences in intergenerational relationships (Rossi, 1989) found

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A) fathers and their sons have a much closer relationship in their adult years than fathers and daughters. B) men's relationships across generations are typically closer than other family bonds. C) fathers' intergenerational ties are more influential than mothers' for grandparentgrandchild relationships. D) married men are more involved with their wives' kin than with their own.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 133) Identify the theorist (last name only) who proposed that middle-aged adults faced the significant issue of generativity versus stagnation. Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation

134) According to Erik Erikson, _____ refers to an adult's desire to leave legacies of themselves to the next generation. Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Generativity versus Stagnation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

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135) Identify the theorist (last name only) who conducted the "Grant Study" and suggested that only a minority of adults experience a midlife crisis. Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Midlife Crisis

136) The timetable according to which individuals are expected to accomplish life's tasks, such as getting married, having children, or establishing themselves in a career, is known as a(n) _____ clock. Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

137) In the Mills College study, women were found to be experiencing a midlife _____ rather than a midlife crisis. Question Details null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Helson's Mills College Studies

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 138) Identify and discuss the seventh stage of Erik Erikson's life-span view.

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139) According to Daniel Levinson, what are the four major conflicts that a male adult should deal with?

140) Based on the contemporary life-events approach to development, describe the factors that influence an individual's development.

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141)

Describe how middle-aged adults perceive control over what happens to them.

142)

Definesocial clock.

Question Details Learning Objective : Summarize personality development in middle adulthood. Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Contexts of Midlife Development

143) Is it true that most stage theories have a male bias? How differently do women experience middle age?

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144) Describe how parents undergo adjustments as a result of a child's absence during the launching of the child into adult life.

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145) Based on the findings of the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, what is the major criticism against adult stage theories?

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146)

Describe the three different grandparenting styles.

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147) Why have middle-aged adults been described as the "sandwich" generation? What is an alternative to this view?

148)

Identify the term Erikson assigned to the seventh stage in his life-span theory.

149) Identify the theorists who studied adult personality by examining stability and change in the Big Five factors of personality.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize issues around stability and change in middle adulthood. Topic : Costa and McCrae's Baltimore Study

150)

Identify the main reason middle-aged and older men cite for their divorce.

151) What term refers to a decrease in marital satisfaction after children leave home because parents derive considerable satisfaction from their children.

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152)

Identify the term(s) applied to young adults who return to their parents' homes to live.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch16 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) D 78) A 79) C 80) B 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) B 85) D 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) D 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) A 94) C 95) A 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) B 100) C 101) B 102) D 103) C 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) C 109) D 110) D 111) D 112) D 113) B 114) B 115) A 116) C Version 1

117) A 118) A 119) A 120) A 121) D 122) C 123) D 124) D 125) B 126) B 127) D 128) D 129) A 130) B 131) D 132) D 133) Erikson 134) generativity 135) Vaillant 136) social 137) consciousness 138) Erikson (1968) proposed that middle-aged adults face a significant issue in generativity versus stagnation—the name Erikson gave to the seventh stage in his life-span theory. Generativity encompasses adults' desire to leave legacies of themselves to the next generation. Through these legacies, adults achieve a kind of immortality. By contrast, stagnation (sometimes called "self-absorption") develops when individuals sense that they have done nothing for the next generation.

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139) According to David Levinson, the transition to middle adulthood lasts about five years (ages 40 to 45) and requires the male adult to come to grips with four major conflicts that have existed in his life since adolescence: (1) being young versus being old, (2) being destructive versus being constructive, (3) being masculine versus being feminine, and (4) being attached to others versus being separated from them. 140) In the contemporary life-events approach, how life events influence the individual's development depends not only on the life event itself but also on mediating factors (such as physical health and family supports), the individual's adaptation to the life event (such as appraisal of the threat and coping strategies), the life-stage context, and the sociohistorical context. 141) Researchers have found that on average a sense of personal control peaks in midlife and then declines. In one study, approximately 80 percent of the young adults (25 to 39 years of age), 71 percent of the middle-aged adults (40 to 59 years of age), and 62 percent of the older adults (60 to 75 years of age) reported that they were often in control of their lives. However, some aspects of personal control increase with age while others decrease. For example, middle-aged adults feel they have a greater sense of control over their finances, work, and marriage than younger adults, but less control over their sex life and their children. 142) The social clock is the timetable according to which individuals are expected to accomplish life's tasks, such as getting married, having children, or establishing a career. Social clocks may vary according to the social environment or historical periods in which individuals live.

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143)Students' responses will vary. The stage theories do not adequately address women's concerns about relationships, interdependence, and caring (Gilligan, 1982). The adult stage theories have also placed little importance on childbearing and child rearing. Women's family roles are complex and often have a higher salience in their lives than in men's lives. The role demands that women experience in balancing career and family are usually not experienced as intensely by men. In one study, the early fifties were a new prime of life for many women (Mitchell & Helson, 1990). In this sample of 700 women aged 26 to 80, women in their early 50s most often described their lives as "first-rate." Conditions that distinguished the lives of women in their early 50s from those of women in other age periods included more "empty nests," better health, higher income, and more concern for parents. Women in their early fifties showed confidence, involvement, security, and breadth of personality. The view that midlife is a negative age period for women is stereotypical, as so many perceptions of age periods are. Midlife is a diversified, heterogeneous period for women, just as it is for men.

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144) An important event in a family is the launching of a child into adult life. Parents undergo adjustments as a result of the child's absence. College students usually think that their parents suffer from their absence. In fact, parents who live vicariously through their children might experience the empty nest syndrome, which includes a decline in marital satisfaction after children leave the home. For most parents, however, marital satisfaction does not decline after children have left home but rather increases during the years after child rearing (Fingerman and Baker, 2006). With their children gone, marital partners have time to pursue career interests and to spend with each other. One study revealed that the transition to an empty nest increased marital satisfaction and this increase was linked to an increase in the quality of time—but not the quantity of time—spent with partners (Gorchoff, John, & Helson, 2008). 145) In the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, more than 500 children and their parents were initially studied in the late 1920s and early 1930s. John Clausen, one of the researchers in the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, stresses that too much attention has been given to discontinuities for all members of the human species, as exemplified in the adult stage theories. He points out that some people experience recurrent crises and undergo substantial changes over the life course, whereas others have more stable, continuous lives entailing very little change.

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146) The diversity of grandparenting was apparent in an early investigation of how grandparents interacted with their grandchildren (Neugarten and Weinstein, 1964). Three styles were dominant—formal, fun-seeking, and distant. In the formal style, the grandparent performed what was considered to be a proper and prescribed role. These grandparents showed a strong interest in their grandchildren but were careful not to give child-rearing advice. In the fun-seeking style, the grandparent was informal and playful. Grandchildren were a source of leisure activity; mutual satisfaction was emphasized. A substantial portion of grandparents were distant figures. In the distant-figure style, the grandparent was benevolent but interaction was infrequent. Grandparents who were over the age of 65 were more likely to display a formal style of interaction; those under 65 were more likely to display a fun-seeking style. Because the grandparent role links three generations—grandparents, parents, and grandchildren—the grandparent role is often mediated by parents at least until grandchildren become adults. 147) Middle-aged adults have been described as the "sandwich," "squeezed," or "overload" generation because of the responsibilities they have for their adolescent and young adult children as well as their aging parents. However, an alternative view is that in the United States, a "sandwich" generation, in which the middle generation cares for both grown children and aging parents simultaneously, occurs less often than a "pivot" generation, in which the middle generation alternates attention between the demands of grown children and aging parents. 148) The seventh stage in Erikson's life-span theory is generativity versus stagnation.

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149)The theorists who studied adult personality by examining stability and change in the Big Five factors of personality are Paul Costa and Robert McCrae. 150) These men cite falling out of love as the main reason for divorce. 151) This is the empty nest syndrome. 152) Numerous labels have been applied, including "boomerang kids" and "B2B" (or Back-to-Bedroom).

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Life _____ is the number of years that the average person born in a particular year will probably live.

A) expectancy B) span C) achievement D) extension

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2) Allen can be described as an average American. He is currently 65 years old. He is likely to live 18.4 more years. Hence, it can be said that Allen has a _____ of 83.4 years.

A) mortality rate B) circadian rhythm C) cellular clock D) life expectancy

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3) In 2018, which of the following countries had the highest estimated life expectancy at birth?

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A) the United States B) Swaziland C) Monaco D) Afghanistan

4) Which of the following countries had one of the lowest estimated life expectancies in 2018?

A) South Africa B) Singapore C) Japan D) Macau

5) Which of the following persons, if born today in the United States, would likely have the highest life expectancy?

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A) Jerome, who is an African American male B) Larry, who is a non-Latino White male C) Miranda, who is an African American female D) Susanna, who is a Latino woman

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6) Which of the following biological reasons explains women's increased resistance to infections and degenerative diseases?

A) estrogen production and the additional X chromosome B) lower cholesterol levels and improved lung function C) postmenopausal hormone levels and increased body water D) better osmoregulation and lower trans fat

The "Latino Health Paradox" refers to the fact that

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A) Latinos receive better healthcare despite their typically low SES. B) Latinos have lower rates of diabetes despite their typically low SES. C) Latinos have shorter life expectancies than African Americans. D) Latinos have a life expectancy 5.7 years above that of non-Latino Whites.

8) All of the following help explain the higher life expectancy of Latinos compared to nonLatino Whites, EXCEPT

A) extended family connections. B) migration patterns. C) low rates of smoking. D) a typically higher SES.

Nathan just celebrated his 100th birthday. It can be said that Nathan is a(n)

A) supercentenarian. B) adolescent. C) centenarian. D) millennial.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Summarize the biological theories of aging. null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply Topic : Young-Old and Oldest-Old

10)

Which of the following countries has the highest number of centenarians?

A) England B) the United States C) China D) Japan

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11) According to current projections, what is the expected number of U.S. centenarians by the year 2060?

A) less than 19,000 B) close to 77,000 C) approximately 212,000 D) almost 590,000

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12)

According to recent studies, which of the following is true of centenarians?

A) In developed countries, the number of centenarians is decreasing at a rate of approximately 7 percent each year. B) Chronic high-mortality diseases are markedly delayed for many years in centenarians. C) China has the most centenarians, followed by Brazil, Canada, and Australia. D) Level of education is unrelated to the life span of centenarians.

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13)

One factor that has contributed to the survival of centenarians is

A) their ability to cope effectively with stress. B) the lack of stressful events in their lives. C) their years of marriage. D) their socioeconomic status.

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14)

Which of the following places has the highest ratio of centenarians in the world?

A) New York City, United States B) Okinawa, Japan C) London, England D) Beijing, China

15) Haruto is a 103-year-old centenarian living in Okinawa, Japan. He leads a healthy life. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to his longevity?

A) Haruto has retired from his job. B) Haruto follows a diet rich in meat, eggs, and dairy products. C) Haruto avoids physically vigorous activities. D) Haruto engages in spiritual practice.

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16)

Which of the following is a reason for the longevity of persons living in Okinawa?

A) following a diet that is heavy in meat and eggs B) retiring early from jobs C) avoiding physically vigorous activities D) leading a low-stress lifestyle

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17)

The young-old are people who are _____ years of age.

A) 40 to 50 B) 50 to 65 C) 65 to 84 D) 75 to 84

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18)

Maria is 80 years old. She is considered

A) among the youngest-old. B) young-old. C) oldest-old. D) middle-aged.

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19)

The oldest-old are individuals who are _____ years and older.

A) 70 B) 75 C) 80 D) 85

20)

Calvin has just turned 90 years old. He would be considered among the

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A) young-old. B) middle-old. C) old-old. D) oldest-old.

21) When asked about his age, Uncle Roger tells you that he is a member of the "oldest-old" club. Without knowing his exact age, you would know that Uncle Roger is at least _____ years old.

A) 70 B) 75 C) 80 D) 85

22)

The oldest-old today are mostly

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A) male. B) institutionalized. C) married. D) female.

23) Which of the following accurately reflects characteristics of centenarians in the New England Centenarian Study (NECS)?

A) Most are likely to describe historical events, death/grief, and work/retirement events. B) Only a small percentage have had significant changes in their thinking skills. C) Habitual smoking is common among them. D) Most are obese.

24)

The majority of older adults aged 80 and over

A) continue to live in the community. B) live in some sort of assisted living situation. C) report that their health is excellent or good. D) have major health problems that limit their activity.

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25) According to evolutionary theory, natural selection is linked to _____, which is present in the earlier part of adulthood.

A) reproductive fitness B) neurogenesis C) cognitive and perceptual fitness D) muscular and skeletal strength

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26) According to evolutionary theory, which of the following is the reason Alzheimer disease has not been eliminated by evolution?

A) It appears only in adolescence or early adulthood. B) It is a genetic disorder. C) It is caused by improper diet and inadequate physical activity. D) It does not appear until late middle adulthood or late adulthood.

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27)

According to the cellular clock theory of aging, cells can divide a maximum of

A) 50 to 60 times. B) 65 to 70 times. C) 75 to 80 times. D) 80 to 100 times.

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28) _____ theory states that cells can divide a maximum of about 75 to 80 times, and that as we age our cells become less capable of dividing.

A) Evolutionary B) Cellular clock C) Free-radical D) Hormonal stress

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29) Based on the ways cells divide, Hayflick places the upper limit of the human life-span potential at about _____ years of age.

A) 90 to 100 B) 100 to 110 C) 110 to 119 D) 120 to 125

30)

_____ are DNA sequences that cap chromosomes.

A) Free radicals B) Polymers C) Telomeres D) Mitochondria

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31) According to cellular clock theory, after about 70 or 80 replications, the cell can no longer reproduce and the _____ are dramatically reduced.

A) mitochondria B) telomeres C) chromosomes D) sperm cells

32)

Researchers have extended the life of a human cell by

A) removing the cap of the DNA molecule. B) injecting it with telomerase. C) rearranging the DNA sequences. D) splicing the 18th and 19th chromosomes.

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33) Telomeres and telomerase are increasingly thought to be key components of the _____ process, providing a possible avenue to restrain cancer and delay aging.

A) hormone production B) antibody proliferation C) free radical regeneration D) stem cell regeneration

34) Which of the following biological theories of aging states that people age because their cells' normal metabolism produces unstable oxygen molecules?

A) cellular clock theory B) free-radical theory C) telomerase-injection theory D) hormonal stress theory

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35)

Researchers have found that _____ reduces the oxidative damage created by free radicals.

A) hormone replacement therapy B) moderate intake of red wine C) a diet restricted in calories D) a macrobiotic diet

36)

Which of the following is a biological theory explaining aging?

A) two-factor theory B) attachment theory C) mitochondrial theory D) reverse neurogenesis theory

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37) The tiny bodies within cells that supply essential energy for function, growth, and repair are known as

A) Lewy bodies. B) ribosomes. C) chromosomes. D) mitochondria.

38)

_____ theory states that aging is due to the decay of _____.

A) Free-radical; oxygen molecules B) Mitochondrial; mitochondria C) Stress; nutrients D) Free-radical; mitochondria

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39)

Which of the following best describes sirtuins?

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A) They are DNA sequences that cap chromosomes and are proposed as being the key components of the stem cell regeneration process, providing a possible avenue to restrain cancer and delay aging. B) They are unstable oxygen molecules that ricochet around the cells, damaging DNA and other cellular structures. C) They are a family of proteins that have been proposed as having important influences on longevity, mitochondria functioning in energy, calorie restriction benefits, stress resistance, and cardiovascular functioning. D) They are tiny bodies within cells that supply essential energy for function, growth, and repair.

40)

Which of the following statements is true of mTOR pathway theory?

A) Some scientists argue that the mTOR pathway is linked to longevity, the successful outcomes of calorie restriction, and reducing cognitive decline. B) Proponents argue that sirtuins have no serious side effects on the human body. C) It argues that aging in the body's hormonal system can lower resistance to stress and increase the likelihood of disease. D) It states that the maximum number of times that human cells can divide is about 75 to 80.

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41)

Defects in mitochondria are linked with

A) Parkinson disease. B) arthritis. C) roseola D) cerebral palsy.

42) Which of the following is a similarity in the cellular clock, free-radical, and mitochondrial theories?

A) They attribute the process of aging to hormonal changes. B) They attempt to explain aging at the cellular level. C) They discount the role of genetics in aging. D) They emphasize the effects of ecological factors on aging.

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43)

Mitochondrial dysfunction has been linked to all of the following, EXCEPT

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A) cardiovascular disease. B) Alzheimer disease. C) Parkinson disease. D) perimenopause.

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44)

Which of the following is true of the hormonal stress theory of aging?

A) It attempts to explain aging at genetic and cellular levels. B) It argues that when faced with external challenges such as stressful situations, the human body adapts by altering internal physiological processes. C) It states that natural selection has not eliminated many harmful conditions and nonadaptive characteristics in older adults. D) It states that people age because normal metabolic processes within their cells produce unstable oxygen molecules known as free radicals.

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45) When faced with external challenges such as stressful situations, the human body adapts by altering internal physiological processes. This process of adaptation and adjustment is referred to as Version 1

A) allostasis. B) homeostasis. C) peristalsis. D) transcription.

46) Continuous accommodation of physiological systems in response to stressors may result in _____, a wearing down of body systems due to constant activity.

A) reverse peristalsis B) homeostatic load C) allostatic load D) neuronal proliferation

47) What is the main difference between the way younger people and older people respond to stress?

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A) Younger people have a slower restorative process after a stressful episode than older people. B) Younger people have better coping strategies for dealing with stress than older people. C) The process of aging increases the pituitary gland's response to stress, making it work harder. D) Older people keep stress hormones in their system at elevated levels for longer periods than younger people do.

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48) One of the conditions with which prolonged, elevated levels of stress-related hormones have been associated is

A) seizure. B) roseola. C) diabetes. D) arthritis.

49) 90.

On average, the adult brain loses _____ percent of its weight between the ages of 20 and

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A) 1 to 5 B) 5 to 10 C) 10 to 20 D) 20 to 30

50) Researchers have found that the volume of the brain is _____ in older adults than in younger adults (Shan & others, 2005).

A) 20 percent greater B) 15 percent less C) 25 percent less D) 10 percent greater

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51)

How does the brain's weight and volume change with age?

A) Brain weight, but not brain volume, decreases. B) Brain volume, but not brain weight, decreases. C) Both brain weight and brain volume decrease. D) Brain volume increases, but brain weight decreases.

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52) Which of the following is a primary reason for the lowered brain volume of older adults, compared with that of younger adults?

A) increased growth of dendrites B) increased length and complexity of axons C) lower numbers of synapses D) lower number of neurons

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53) Aaron is a healthy 65-year-old man. Compared with his 24-year-old son Harry, Aaron has much less brain volume. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this difference?

A) Harry has a lower number of synapses than Aaron has. B) Aaron is experiencing a shrinkage of neurons. C) Harry has a reduction in the tree-like branching of the dendrites of his brain. D) Aaron has a thicker corpus callosum than Harry has.

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54)

The _____ is one area that shrinks more than others with aging.

A) prefrontal cortex B) amygdala C) hypothalamus D) premotor cortex

55) Reductions in _____ have been linked to small declines in memory functioning and to the severe memory loss associated with Alzheimer disease.

A) gamma-aminobutyric acid B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) adrenaline

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56)

Severe reductions in the production of dopamine have been linked with

A) Parkinson disease. B) Alzheimer disease. C) dementias other than Alzheimer disease. D) brain cancer.

57) The neurotransmitter _____, which helps control the preciseness of the signal sent from one neuron to another, decreases with aging.

A) serotonin B) dopamine C) gamma-aminobutyric acid D) noradrenaline

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58) Which of the following is a region of the adult human brain where neurogenesis has been documented?

A) amygdala B) hippocampus C) prefrontal cortex D) hypothalamus

59) Identify a region of the human brain in which neurogenesis has been documented in adults.

A) amygdala B) hypothalamus C) prefrontal cortex D) olfactory bulb

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60)

The _____ is involved in memory.

A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) prefrontal cortex D) olfactory bulb

61)

The _____ is involved in the sense of smell.

A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) olfactory bulb D) prefrontal cortex

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62) In a study comparing the brains of adults at various ages (Coleman, 1986), from the forties through the seventies the

A) growth of dendrites increased. B) growth of dendrites decreased. C) number of axons increased. D) number of neurons increased.

63) In a recent study (Low, Wu, & Spira, 2019), older adults who slept 8 to 10 hours or more a night were more likely to have

A) memory recall problems. B) improved cognitive functioning. C) better memory functioning. D) a healthier sex life.

64)

_____ are the most noticeable changes in physical appearance in late adulthood.

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A) Loss of hair and brittle nails B) Osteoporosis and osteoarthritis C) Reductions in height and weight D) Wrinkles and age spots

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65) Ruth and Gerald are a married couple. Both are in their late sixties. It is likely that as they get older,

A) both Ruth and Gerald will get shorter. B) Gerald will get shorter, but Ruth will not. C) Ruth will get shorter, but Gerald will not. D) osteoporosis may result in one or both getting shorter, but if they remain free of osteoporosis their stature will not change.

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66)

Which of the following is one of the findings from the Nun Study?

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A) Positive emotions early in adulthood were linked to longevity. B) Higher levels of idea density were linked with higher incidences of mild cognitive impairment. C) Aerobic exercise was linked to greater telomere length in older adults. D) Stimulating the brain with intellectual activity did not have any effect on the health of neurons.

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67) Tara is 68 years old. In terms of percentage of total weight, which of following is most likely to increase in her late adulthood?

A) muscle B) bone density C) fat D) T cells

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68)

Kevin is 60 years old. What should he do to delay the onset of physical disability?

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A) He should avoid strength training. B) He should walk regularly. C) He should follow a high-fat diet. D) He should ensure that his body mass index (BMI) is above 30.

69)

Why does night driving become especially difficult in late adulthood?

A) because of diminishing sensitivity to contrasts and reduced tolerance for glare B) because of the decline in color vision C) because of increased tolerance for glare and increased sensitivity to contrasts D) because of the expanding area of the visual field

70)

Recently, researchers have found that visual decline in late adulthood is linked to

A) cognitive decline. B) stroke. C) a weakened diaphragm. D) increased touch sensitivity.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Vision

71)

Color vision declines with age because of

A) the yellowing of the lens of the eye. B) a decline in the effectiveness of the cones to discriminate colors. C) cataracts preventing certain parts of the light spectrum from entering the lens of the eye. D) a reduction in the light entering the peripheral area of the visual field.

72)

In which part of the color spectrum is the loss of color vision most likely to occur?

A) red-orange-yellow B) green-blue-violet C) yellow-violet-indigo D) green-yellow-orange

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73) Which of the following is a result of declining color vision in the green-blue-violet part of the color spectrum?

A) difficulty in accurately distinguishing between objects of closely related colors B) difficulty in accurately distinguishing between objects of contrasting colors C) difficulty in seeing colored objects that are at a distance D) difficulty in seeing objects that are very close

74) The vision of older adults can be affected by age-related changes. One of these changes, which can make steps or street curbs difficult to manage, is a decline in

A) hand-eye coordination. B) depth perception. C) ocular elasticity. D) color vision.

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75)

Which of the following is a major disease that can impair the vision of older adults?

A) myopia B) otosclerosis C) glaucoma D) tinnitus

76) Gisela is suffering from a condition that involves thickening of the lenses of her eyes. This causes her vision to become cloudy or distorted. Identify the condition that Gisela is suffering from.

A) glaucoma B) nearsightedness C) macular degeneration D) cataracts

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77)

Which of the following is a risk factor in the development of cataracts?

A) cardiovascular disease B) diabetes C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) arthritis

78) Jake has been diagnosed with a condition characterized by damage to the optic nerve due to a buildup of fluid in the eye. Jake is suffering from

A) glaucoma. B) cataracts. C) retinopathy. D) macular degeneration.

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79) Cynthia is 91 years old. Doctors have found that her optic nerves have been damaged because of accumulation of fluid in the eye. Cynthia is worried that she will lose her vision, but the doctors have told her that her condition can be treated with eye drops. The disease that has marred Cynthia's vision is

A) glaucoma. B) cataracts. C) retinopathy. D) macular degeneration.

80)

What is a leading cause of blindness in older adults?

A) presbyopia B) myopia C) macular degeneration D) retinal hardening

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81) John is 70 years old. He has been a chain smoker throughout his adult years. Consequently, he is now unable to clearly see objects that are in close proximity, even though he has relatively normal peripheral vision. The disease that has marred John's vision is

A) glaucoma. B) cataracts. C) macular degeneration. D) retinal hardening.

82) Lydia has been diagnosed with early macular degeneration. Which of the following treatments is her doctor most likely to recommend?

A) eye drops B) removal of the lens of her eye C) prescription for glasses D) laser surgery

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83)

Which of the following is true of changes in sensory functioning in late adulthood?

A) For adults between 65 and 74 years, there is less susceptibility to masking of what is heard by noise. B) People of the young-old age group are at significant risk for visual dysfunction from cataracts and glaucoma. C) Visual acuity loss can be prevented by corrective lenses for adults between 65 and 74 years. D) For adults who are 75 years and older, there is a significant loss of hearing at high and middle frequencies.

84) Which of the following is linked to more rapid onset of hearing difficulties in older adults?

A) defects in mitochondria and declining levels of testosterone B) poor nutrition and a lifetime of smoking C) high blood pressure and resistant hypertension D) dietary intake of beta-carotene and obesity

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85)

Which of the following is true of changes in touch and pain sensitivity in older adults?

A) The most frequent pain complaints of older adults are back pain, peripheral neuropathic pain, and chronic joint pain. B) With aging, individuals can detect touch less in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities. C) Older adults are more sensitive to pain than are younger adults. D) Increased sensitivity to pain can help older adults cope with disease and injury.

86)

Which of the following is true of hearing loss in older adults?

A) Older adults often recognize that they have a hearing problem. B) Older adults' hearing aid use is associated with increased loneliness. C) Older adults accept loss of hearing as a part of growing old. D) Older adults' cognitive abilities are seldom affected by loss of hearing.

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87) Hearing loss in _____ is linked to declining performance in activities of daily living, cognitive functioning, and language.

A) infants B) older adults C) young women D) middle-aged men

88) In a longitudinal study of individuals 60 years of age and older, visual and hearing difficulties predicted

A) cognitive difficulties in verbal fluency. B) improved processing speed. C) improved smell and touch sensitivity eight years later. D) memory problems eight years later.

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89)

Which of the following statements is true of smell and taste in the elderly?

A) There is no sign of decline in these senses as we age. B) Older adults show a greater decline in their sense of taste than in their sense of smell. C) Smell and taste decline less in healthy older adults than in their less-healthy counterparts. D) Smell and taste become more sensitive as we age.

90) Alex is 70 years old. Which of the following areas of his body will be less sensitive to touch?

A) wrists B) ankles C) shoulders D) elbows

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91) In the respiratory system, lung capacity drops _____ percent between the ages of 20 and 80, even when disease is not present.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60

92) Shane is 67 years old. Although he does not have any disease, he goes for regular health checkups. Which of the following is likely to be observed in his medical report?

A) His lung capacity has increased. B) His lungs have become more elastic. C) His diaphragm has strengthened. D) His chest has shrunk.

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93)

For older adults with a partner who reported not having sex, the main reason was

A) poor physical health. B) depression. C) lack of privacy. D) lack of interest.

94) Which of the following is a major challenge for sexually interested older women (70 years or older)?

A) male partner's physical health B) lack of sex education C) physical health of older women D) not having a partner

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95) When asked about their motivation for having sex, among the answers given by older adults was to make a change from _____ sex to _____ sex.

A) oral; vaginal B) monogamous; promiscuous C) getting; giving D) conventional; tantric

96)

Older adults report all of the following reasons for having sex, EXCEPT

A) to feel young again. B) to feel attractive and desirable. C) to maintain overall functioning. D) to have children.

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97) _____ diseases have a slow onset and a long duration, and they are rare in early adulthood.

A) Acute B) Chronic C) Terminal D) Pervasive

98) Nate and Laura are siblings in their late sixties. Compared with Nate, Laura is less likely to have

A) arthritis. B) hypertension. C) visual problems. D) hearing problems.

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99)

_____ is the most common chronic disorder in late adulthood.

A) Glaucoma B) Diabetes C) Arthritis D) Kidney disease

100) Which of the following chronic conditions is/are been associated with the greatest limitations on work?

A) asthma B) diabetes C) arthritis D) heart conditions

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101) Felicia is a 70-year-old American woman. Her doctor should be most concerned about her developing _____, the leading cause of death in her age group.

A) cancer B) influenza C) lung disease D) cardiovascular disease

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102) Which of the following is the leading cause of death in the 75-to-84 and 85-and-over age groups?

A) cardiovascular disease B) kidney disease C) cancer D) hypertension

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103) Among ethnic groups in the United States, _____ have high death rates for stroke, heart disease, lung cancer, and female breast cancer.

A) African Americans B) Asian Americans C) Latinos D) non-Latino Whites

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104) Among older adults between the ages of 65 to 74, _____ recently replaced _____ as the leading cause of death.

A) cancer; cardiovascular disease B) cardiovascular disease; accidents C) cancer; suicide D) COVID-19; cancer

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105) Mrs. Hernandez has considerable pain and inflammation in her wrists, fingers, and knees. It is becoming quite difficult for her to maintain her usual routines as her stiffness increases. Mrs. Hernandez has

A) arteriosclerosis. B) diabetes. C) arthritis. D) osteoporosis.

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106)

Which of the following is true regarding arthritis?

A) There are a few known cures for arthritis. B) Exercise is not beneficial for people with arthritis. C) Symptoms of arthritis can be reduced with drugs. D) Reducing weight does not noticeably improve symptoms of arthritis.

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107) Maria is 75 years old. She is experiencing severe loss of bone tissue. Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with

A) arteriosclerosis. B) diabetes. C) arthritis. D) osteoporosis.

108)

Selena walks with a marked stoop, now that she is old. This is most likely due to

A) bursitis. B) osteoporosis. C) arthritis. D) diabetes.

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109) Women are especially vulnerable to _____, which is the leading cause of broken bones in women.

A) osteoporosis B) arthritis C) osteomalacia D) muscular dystrophy

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110) Which of the following is among the preventive measures against osteoporosis in middleaged women?

A) eating foods rich in fiber B) avoiding smoking C) reducing weight D) increasing the intake of vitamin B

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111)

_____ are the eighth leading cause of death among older adults.

A) Suicides B) Homicides C) Unintended injuries D) Chronic illnesses

112)

_____ are the leading cause of injury deaths among adults who are 65 years and older.

A) Household fires B) Falls C) Motor vehicle accidents D) Heart conditions

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113) The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (2003) has identified _____ among older adults as the "invisible epidemic" in the United States.

A) substance abuse B) clinical depression C) bipolar disorder D) schizophrenia

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114) Stuart is 67 years old, widowed, and lives alone. Recently, he has started drinking too much and frequently engages in binge drinking. Stuart's example presents a case of

A) geriatric alcoholism. B) manic depressive alcoholism. C) late-onset alcoholism. D) relapse alcoholism.

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115)

Which of the following is true of substance abuse?

A) In 2010, the percentage of individuals who engaged in binge drinking increased considerably in the middle and late adulthood years. B) Substance abuse among older adults is an "invisible epidemic" in the United States. C) The frequency of binge drinking (defined as four or more drinks for women and five or more drinks for men on one occasion in the past 30 days) was lowest among older adults. D) Screening questionnaires are appropriate for eliminating substance abuse among older adults.

116)

Evidence is increasing that _____ plays a key role in red wine's health benefits.

A) resperidol B) rohypnol C) resveratrol D) rogaine

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117)

Exercise is related to reduced risk of developing

A) type I diabetes. B) rosacea. C) Alzheimer disease. D) breast cancer.

118) Susan is 72 years old. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. Her dietician recommends certain measures that she should follow to remain healthy and reduce the risk of disease. Which of the following is Susan’s dietician likely to recommend?

A) decreasing the intake of proteins B) using calorie supplements between meals C) maintaining a healthy weight D) using taste enhancers between meals

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119) Tasha is 68 years old. A change in her eating behavior over the years has led to harmful weight loss. Which of the following has most likely contributed to her weight loss?

A) decrease in the use of protein supplements B) use of calorie supplements between meals C) decrease in snacking between meals D) use of taste enhancers between meals

120) Which of the following observations about the connection between weight and mortality is supported by the research?

A) Men who are underweight live longer. B) Being 20 pounds overweight does not present increased risk of mortality in women. C) Women who are 20 or more pounds underweight live longer. D) Men who are 20 pounds overweight do not have an increased risk of mortality.

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121)

Which of the following is a major antioxidant vitamin?

A) vitamin C B) vitamin A C) vitamin B7 D) vitamin B1

122)

A recent analysis has demonstrated that antioxidant vitamins

A) do not increase the life span and can even increase the incidence of diseases. B) increase the life span and can even reduce the incidence of diseases. C) double the life span and can all but eliminate the incidence of diseases. D) reduce the life span but also reduce the incidence of diseases.

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123) In the context of the free-radical theory of aging, which of the following best describes the action of antioxidants?

A) They generate a large number of white blood cells to fight off pathogens. B) They counteract the cell damage caused by free radicals. C) They increase the hemoglobin count in the circulatory system. D) They increase muscle mass and help burn calories.

124) _____ are theorized to act much like a fire extinguisher, helping to neutralize free-radical activity and reduce stress caused by damage to cells.

A) Ketone bodies B) Antihistamines C) Antibiotics D) Antioxidants

125)

Which of the following is true regarding antioxidants?

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A) There are still many uncertainties about the role of antioxidant vitamins in health. B) Recent research reviews have supported the belief that antioxidant vitamin supplements can reduce the incidence of cancer. C) A recent meta-analysis of seven studies concluded that dietary intakes (not vitamin supplements) of vitamin E, C, and beta-carotene were not linked to a reduced risk of Alzheimer disease. D) Recent research reviews have not supported the belief that antioxidant vitamin supplements can reduce the incidence of cardiovascular diseases.

126) A recent meta-analysis of seven studies concluded that dietary intakes (not vitamin supplements) of vitamin E, C, and beta-carotene were linked to a reduced risk of _____ disease.

A) Alzheimer B) kidney C) cardiovascular D) Parkinson

127) In a classic study, Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer found that an important factor related to health, and even survival, in a nursing home is the

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A) provision of emergency geriatric care. B) availability of trained staff to care for the oldest-old. C) patient's feelings of control and self-determination. D) opportunity to interact with family members during the stay.

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128) Your elderly aunt Marie was recently admitted to a nursing home where there is a "residents' advisory board," consisting of the people who live in the home. The board consults with the staff on changes that affect the residents' lives and help plan the monthly activities. Based on a study by Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer, you would expect Marie to be

A) happier than she was when she did not have any input into decisions affecting her life. B) stressed by having to make decisions; that's what she pays the staff to do. C) even more depressed that she is not able to live on her own anymore. D) apathetic about what happens to her.

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129)

Giving nursing home residents more control over their daily schedules is

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A) harmful. B) beneficial. C) anxiety-provoking. D) usually not necessary for patients that age.

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130)

Which of the following reflects the attitudes of health-care providers for older adults?

A) They are mostly untrained in geriatric care and thus prove inefficient. B) They share society's stereotypes and negative attitudes toward older adults. C) They are mostly young and thus relate better to younger patients. D) They are mostly underpaid and thus lack motivation in providing services.

131)

One of the challenges in the health care given to elderly patients is that elderly patients

A) fail to communicate well with their physicians. B) take a less active role in their own treatment. C) are overly concerned about their own health. D) are suspicious of the treatment they receive.

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132) In Rodin and Langer's classic study (1977), which of the following was found to be the result of older adults having perceived control over their own lives?

A) It led to fewer social interactions. B) It significantly reduced life expectancy. C) It increased the levels of stress. D) It was found to increase longevity.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 133) Life _____ refers to the maximum number of years an individual can live. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the biological theories of aging. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Life Expectancy

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134) What are people who are 85 years and older called? (Note the term should be hyphenated.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize the biological theories of aging. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Young-Old and Oldest-Old

135)

What term refers to the generation of new neurons?

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136) Which disease of the eye is characterized by damage to the optic nerve because of the pressure created by a buildup of fluid in the eye? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Summarize physical development in late adulthood. Topic : Vision null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

137) The disease of the eye that is characterized by the deterioration of the macula of the retina that corresponds to the focal center of the visual field is known as macular _____.

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138) What is the chronic condition that involves an extensive loss of bone tissue, often causing older adults to walk with a marked stoop? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify factors that influence health and well-being in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Illness and Death

139) The label used to indicate the onset of alcoholism after the age of 65 is _____ alcoholism. (Note the term is hyphenated.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify factors that influence health and well-being in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Substance Use and Abuse

140) What is the term for the group of vitamins that may be able to help slow the aging process and improve the health of older adults? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify factors that influence health and well-being in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Nutrition and Weight

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 141) Briefly describe life span and life expectancy.

142)

What is the argument presented by the evolutionary theory of aging?

143)

Discuss the cellular clock theory of aging.

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144)

Discuss the free-radical theory of aging.

145)

Discuss the arguments put forth by the hormonal stress theory of aging.

146)

Describe shrinking of the brain in the aging process.

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147)

Describe the major changes in physical appearance and movement in old age.

148)

List three major findings from the Nun Study on aging.

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149) Identify and discuss the three major eye diseases that can impact the vision of older adults.

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150)

Describe the major changes in sexual functioning among older males.

151) Definechronic disorders, and briefly describe the major chronic conditions affecting the older population.

152)

What is the "invisible epidemic" among older adults in the United States?

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153) What is the name of Leonard Hayflick's theory that states that the maximum number of times that human cells can divide is about 75 to 80, and that as we age, our cells have less capacity to divide.

154) Which theory of aging states that aging in the body's hormonal system can lower resistance to stress and increase the likelihood of disease?

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155) Name the two researchers who found that an important factor related to health, and even survival, in a nursing home is the patient's feelings of control and self-determination.

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Answer Key Test name: Ch17 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) A 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) D 83) D 84) B 85) A 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) D 95) C 96) D 97) B 98) D 99) C 100) D 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) C 106) C 107) D 108) B 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) B 113) A 114) C 115) B 116) C Version 1

117) D 118) C 119) C 120) C 121) A 122) A 123) B 124) D 125) A 126) A 127) C 128) A 129) B 130) B 131) B 132) D 133) span 134) oldest-old 135) neurogenesis 136) glaucoma 137) degeneration 138) osteoporosis 139) late-onset 140) antioxidants

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141) Life span is the maximum number of years an individual can live. Life expectancy is the number of years that will probably be lived by the average person born in a particular year. Since the beginning of recorded history, life span has remained at approximately 120 to 125 years of age. But since 1900, improvements in medicine, nutrition, exercise, and lifestyle have increased our life expectancy by an average of 30 years. The average life expectancy of individuals born in 2018 in the United States was 78.6 years (Xu & others, 2020). In the United States today, 65-year-olds can expect to live an average of 19.5 more years (Xu & others, 2020). 142) In the evolutionary theory of aging, natural selection has not eliminated many harmful conditions and nonadaptive characteristics in older adults because natural selection is linked to reproductive fitness, which is present only in the earlier part of adulthood. For example, consider Alzheimer disease, an irreversible brain disorder that does not appear until late middle adulthood or the late adulthood years. In evolutionary theory, if Alzheimer disease occurred earlier in development, it might well have been eliminated many centuries ago.

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143) The cellular clock theory of aging is Leonard Hayflick's theory that cells can divide a maximum of about 75 to 80 times, and that as we age our cells become increasingly less capable of dividing. Based on the ways cells divide, Hayflick places the upper limit of the human life-span potential at about 120 to 125 years of age. In the last decade, scientists have tried to fill in a gap in cellular clock theory: Hayflick did not know why cells die. The answer may lie at the tips of chromosomes, at telomeres, which are DNA sequences that cap chromosomes. Each time a cell divides, the telomeres become shorter and shorter. After about 70 or 80 replications, the telomeres are dramatically reduced, and the cell can no longer reproduce. One study revealed that healthy centenarians had longer telomeres than unhealthy centenarians. And recent studies have even found that shorter telomere length is linked to having worse social relationships, being less optimistic, and showing greater hostility. 144)The free-radical theory of aging states that people age because normal metabolic processes within their cells produce unstable oxygen molecules known as free radicals. These molecules ricochet around inside cells, damaging DNA and other cellular structures. The damage can lead to a range of disorders, including cancer and arthritis. Overeating is linked with an increase in free radicals, and researchers recently have found that calorie restriction—a diet restricted in calories but adequate in proteins, vitamins, and minerals—reduces the oxidative damage created by free radicals. In addition to diet, researchers also are exploring the role that exercise might play in reducing oxidative damage in cells. A recent study of obese men found that endurance exercise reduced their oxidative damage.

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145) The hormonal stress theory states that aging in the body's hormonal system can lower resistance to stress and increase the likelihood of contracting a disease. When faced with external challenges such as stressful situations, the human body adapts by altering internal physiological processes. This process of adaptation and adjustment is referred to asallostasis. Allostasis is adaptive in the short term; however, continuous accommodation of physiological systems in response to stressors may result in allostatic load, a wearing down of body systems due to constant activity. Normally, when people experience stressors, the body responds by releasing certain hormones. As people age, the hormones stimulated by stress remain at elevated levels longer than when people were younger. These prolonged, elevated levels of stressrelated hormones are associated with increased risks for many diseases, including cardiovascular disease, cancer, diabetes, and hypertension. 146) On average, the brain loses 5 to 10 percent of its weight between the ages of 20 and 90. Brain volume also decreases. One study found that the volume of the brain was 15 percent less in older adults than in younger adults. Some areas shrink more than others. The prefrontal cortex is one area that shrinks with aging, and recent research has linked this shrinkage with a decrease in working memory and other cognitive activities in older adults.

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147) In late adulthood, the changes in physical appearance that began occurring during middle age become more pronounced. Wrinkles and age spots are the most noticeable changes. We get shorter when we get older because of bone loss in our vertebrae. Our weight usually drops after we reach 60 years of age. This likely occurs because of muscle loss, which also gives our bodies a "sagging" look. Older adults move more slowly than young adults, and this slowing occurs for movements with a wide range of difficulty. Recent research indicates that obesity contributes to mobility limitations in older adults. The risk of falling in older adults increases with age and is greater for women than for men. Falls are the leading cause of injury deaths among adults who are 65 years and older. 148) The three major findings from the Nun Study are: (1) idea density, a measure of linguistic ability, was linked to fewer incidences of mild cognitive impairment and fewer characteristics of Alzheimer disease; (2) positive emotions early in adulthood were linked to longevity; (3) mental stimulation and intellectual skills keep neurons healthy and alive.

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149)Three diseases that can impair the vision of older adults are cataracts, glaucoma, and macular degeneration. Cataracts involve a thickening of the lens of the eye that causes vision to become cloudy, opaque, and distorted. Initially, cataracts can be treated by glasses; if they worsen, the cloudy lens should be surgically removed and replaced with an artificial one. By age 70, approximately 30 percent of individuals experience a partial loss of vision due to cataracts. Glaucoma involves damage to the optic nerve because of the pressure created by a buildup of fluid in the eye. Approximately one percent of individuals in their seventies and 10 percent of those in their nineties have glaucoma, which can be treated with eye drops. If left untreated, glaucoma can ultimately destroy a person's vision. Macular degeneration involves deterioration of the macula of the retina, which corresponds to the focal center of the visual field. Individuals with macular degeneration may have relatively normal peripheral vision but be unable to see clearly what is right in front of them. This condition affects one in 25 individuals from 66 to 74 years of age and one in 6 of those 75 years old and older. One study revealed that cigarette smoking contributes to macular degeneration. If the disease is detected early, it can be treated with laser surgery. However, macular degeneration is difficult to treat and thus is a leading cause of blindness in older adults. Also, there is increased interest in using stem-cell-based therapy for macular degeneration.

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150) Aging induces some changes in human sexual performance, more so in males than in females. Orgasm becomes less frequent in males with age, occurring in every second to third attempt rather than every time. More direct stimulation is usually needed to produce an erection. From 65 to 80 years of age, approximately one out of four men have serious problems getting and/or keeping erections, and after 80 years of age the percentage rises to one out of two men. However, with recent advances in erectile dysfunction medications such as Viagra, an increasing number of older men, especially the young-old, are able to have an erection. Also, recent research suggests that declining levels of serum testosterone, which is linked to erectile dysfunction, can be treated with testosterone replacement therapy to improve sexual functioning in males. However, the benefit-risk ratio of testosterone replacement therapy is uncertain for older males. 151)Chronic disorders are characterized by slow onset and long duration. Chronic diseases are rare in early adulthood, increase in middle adulthood, and become more common in late adulthood. Eighty-four percent of U.S. adults 65 years of age and older have one or more chronic conditions, and 62 percent have two or more chronic conditions. Arthritis is the most common chronic disorder in late adulthood, followed by hypertension. Chronic conditions associated with the greatest limitation on work are heart conditions (52 percent), diabetes (34 percent), asthma (27 percent), and arthritis (27 percent).

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152) The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration has identified substance abuse among older adults as the "invisible epidemic" in the United States. The belief is that substance abuse often goes undetected in older adults, and there is concern about older adults who abuse not only illicit drugs but prescription drugs as well. Too often, screening questionnaires are not appropriate for older adults, and the consequences of alcohol abuse may erroneously be attributed to other medical or psychological conditions. Because of the dramatic increase in the number of older adults anticipated over the twenty-first century, substance abuse is likely to characterize an increasing number of older adults. 153) This is known as cellular clock theory. 154) This is known as hormonal stress theory. 155) These two researchers are Judith Rodin and Ellen Langer.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term Baltes uses to describe the "hardware" of the mind, meaning the neurophysiological architecture of the brain that was developed through evolution, is

A) cognitive mechanics. B) cognitive perceptions. C) crystallized pragmatics. D) crystallized intelligence.

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2) Speed and accuracy of the processes involved in sensory input, attention, visual and motor memory, discrimination, comparison, and categorization are components of

A) cognitive perceptions. B) cognitive pragmatics. C) cognitive mechanics. D) cognitive intelligence.

Cognitive _____ are the culture-based "software programs" of the mind.

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A) functions B) perceptions C) mechanics D) pragmatics

4) According to Paul Baltes, which of the following is/are a component of cognitive pragmatics?

A) categorization B) comparison C) visual and motor memory D) reading and writing skills

Cognitive _____ decline in old age, whereas cognitive _____ appear to improve.

A) mechanics; pragmatics B) pragmatics; mechanics C) pragmatics; reasoning D) learning; reasoning

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6) true?

Which of the following statements about cognitive mechanics and cognitive pragmatics is

A) Educational qualifications and professional skills are components of cognitive pragmatics. B) Cognitive mechanics improve in late adulthood. C) Decline in cognitive pragmatics may occur as soon as early midlife. D) Knowledge about the self and life skills that help people master or cope with life are components of cognitive mechanics.

7) According to Paul Baltes, which of the following is/are most likely to deteriorate as a person's age increases?

A) reading and writing skills B) language comprehension C) visual and motor memory D) professional skills

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8) Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to the decline in fluid mechanics in late adulthood?

A) decline in writing skills B) decline in processing speed C) decline in language comprehension D) decline in life skills

9) Which of the following concepts have distinctions similar to the ones between cognitive mechanics and cognitive pragmatics?

A) gross and fine motor skills B) fluid and crystallized intelligence C) physiological and psychological control D) generativity and stagnation

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10)

Which of the following statements about the speed of processing information is true?

A) Moderate-intensity aerobic training improves processing speed in older adults better than high-intensity aerobic training. B) Processing speed increases through childhood, declines during the adolescent years, and later increases in early adulthood. C) A slowing of processing speed is linked to the emergence of dementia in succeeding years. D) Age-related losses in processing speed are linked to improvements in neural connectivity.

11) Recent research indicates that the greater distractibility of older adults is associated with less effective functioning in neural networks running through the _____ of the brain, which is/are involved in cognitive control.

A) occipital and temporal lobes B) frontal and parietal lobes C) cerebellum D) medulla

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12) The term _____ refers to the ability to focus on a specific aspect of experience that is relevant while ignoring others that are irrelevant.

A) divided attention B) selective attention C) attention deficit D) sustained attention

13)

Selective attention is _____, whereas divided attention is _____.

A) vigilance; focusing on a specific event B) paying attention only occasionally; constantly paying attention C) focusing on one thing; focusing on many things D) paying attention to detail; paying attention to significant events

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14) One example of _____ attention is the ability to focus on one voice among many in a crowded room or a noisy restaurant.

A) selective B) divided C) sustained D) executive

15) One example of _____ attention is making a decision about which stimuli to attend to when making a left turn at an intersection.

A) executive B) divided C) sustained D) selective

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16) Zack is having a conversation with his friend Ben in a crowded room. Despite the presence of many voices around him, Zack focuses on what Ben is saying. This is an example of _____ attention.

A) selective B) divided C) implicit D) executive

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17)

_____ attention involves concentrating on more than one activity at the same time.

A) Sustained B) Selective C) Divided D) Executive

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18)

Which of the following is true of attention?

A) The more difficult the competing tasks are, the more effectively older adults divide attention than younger adults. B) When two competing tasks are reasonably easy, age differences among adults are minimal or nonexistent. C) On simple tasks involving a search for a feature, age differences are dramatic even when individuals are given sufficient practice. D) Generally, older adults are more adept at selective attention than younger adults are.

19) _____ attention is focused and extended engagement with an object, task, event, or some other aspect of the environment.

A) Selective B) Sustained C) Divided D) Executive

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20)

Which of the following is a term used to describe sustained attention?

A) executive functioning B) transitivity C) vigilance D) multitasking

21) A recent study of older adults found that the greater the variability in their _____ attention, the more likely they were to experience falls.

A) sustained B) selective C) divided D) executive

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22) Jonas is being tested for decline in cognitive functioning. The test involves assessing his ability to plan actions, allocate attention to goals, detect errors, monitor progress on tasks, and deal with novel or difficult circumstances. The researchers are testing Jonas's _____ attention.

A) sustained B) executive C) divided D) selective

23) Hashim, a 69-year-old, makes errors while performing tasks. He is unable to detect and correct the errors. He is also unable to deal effectively with difficult or novel circumstances. Given this information, it can be said that

A) Hashim's brain receives increased supplies of blood. B) Hashim has deficiencies in executive attention. C) Hashim has high blood pressure. D) Hashim's selective attention has increased.

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24) In one study of older adults (Mahoney & others, 2010), a lower level of _____ attention was linked to low blood pressure, which likely is related to reduced blood flow to the brain's frontal lobes.

A) sustained B) executive C) divided D) selective

25) The retention of information about the details of life's happenings is called _____ memory.

A) episodic B) prospective C) source D) semantic

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26) Remembering where a person went on vacation last summer is an example of _____ memory.

A) situational B) semantic C) prospective D) episodic

27) Remembering the name of a person's favorite toy from years ago when he or she was a child is an example of _____ memory.

A) prospective B) implicit C) semantic D) episodic

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28)

A person's knowledge about the world is called _____ memory.

A) schematic B) functional C) normative D) semantic

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29) Frank, aged 67, recites a poem that he learned in grade school, much to the amazement of his grandchildren. This is an example of Frank's _____ memory.

A) procedural B) implicit C) semantic D) functional

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30)

Helen's knowledge of calculus and statistics is part of her _____ memory.

A) semantic B) episodic C) prospective D) implicit

31) Although Alicia has a great memory for trivia, she has difficulty remembering important events in her life. Alicia has good _____ memory but poor _____ memory.

A) episodic; procedural B) procedural; semantic C) semantic; episodic D) explicit; implicit

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32) Travis, who is 25 years old, knows that Beijing is the capital of China, but he cannot remember when or where he learned this. This is an example of how semantic memory

A) improves with age. B) is closely linked to an individual's personal identity with the past. C) begins to decline in early adulthood. D) is independent of an individual's personal identity with the past.

33) Which of the following statements about semantic memory, episodic memory, and aging is true?

A) Episodic memory declines more than semantic memory in older adults. B) Older adults are usually unable to retrieve semantic information. C) Episodic memory and semantic memory remain unchanged in older adults. D) Older adults can retrieve semantic information from long ago but not from the recent past.

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34) A common memory problem for older adults is _____, in which individuals cannot quite retrieve familiar information but have the feeling that they should be able to retrieve it.

A) dementia B) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon C) temporary memory loss D) a mental block

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35) _____, which is closely linked to short-term memory, allows children and adults to manipulate and assemble information when making decisions, solving problems, and comprehending written and spoken language.

A) Working memory B) Episodic memory C) Working cognition D) Source memory

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36) _____ is a cognitive resource that involves the ability to perform tasks such as deciding whether pairs of two-digit or two-letter strings are the same or different, or determining the time required to step on the brakes when the car directly ahead stops.

A) Sustained attention B) Executive attention C) Episodic memory D) Perceptual speed

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37) Perceptual speed shows considerable decline in late adulthood and is strongly linked to declines in

A) selective attention. B) semantic memory. C) working memory. D) divided attention.

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38) Older adults have more difficulty determining the time required to step on the brakes when a traffic light suddenly turns red. This is because they have

A) a decline in explicit memory. B) slower perceptual speeds. C) inferior semantic memory. D) lost the ability to use their episodic memory.

39) Which of the following is a probable reason for the decline in working memory in older adults?

A) increased distractibility B) efficient inhibition C) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon D) lowered implicit memory

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40)

Which of the following is an example of explicit memory?

A) John summarizes the plot of a novel that he has just read for his friend. B) Max drives the car from his office to his home. C) Linda turns off the lights before going to bed. D) Maria types on her computer while talking to her friend.

41)

Explicit memory is also called _____ memory.

A) collective B) procedural C) declarative D) false

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42)

_____ memory is memory without conscious recollection.

A) Implicit B) Prospective C) Source D) Explicit

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43)

Which of the following is true of implicit memory?

A) It is also known as declarative memory. B) It is more likely to be adversely affected by aging than explicit memory is. C) It involves skills and routine procedures that are performed automatically. D) It is memory of facts and experiences that individuals consciously know and can state.

44)

Which of the following is an example of implicit memory?

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A) being at a grocery store and remembering what an individual wanted to buy B) typing on a computer while talking to a friend C) being able to name the capital of Illinois D) recounting the events of a movie an individual has seen

45) Remembering how to ride a bike without having to consciously think about it is a part of an individual's _____ memory.

A) declarative B) prospective C) implicit D) explicit

46) Why are older adults more likely to forget what items they wanted to buy at a grocery store (unless they write them down on a list and take it with them) than to forget how to drive a car?

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A) Perceptual speed declines with aging. B) Implicit memory is less likely to be adversely affected by aging than explicit memory. C) Source memory is more likely to decline with aging than prospective memory. D) Explicit memory declines more rapidly with aging than prospective memory.

47) Venette recounts a funny story that she had recently heard to her friend Clarice. Clarice tells her that she has heard the story before, and, in fact, she had been the one to originally tell the story to Venette. From the scenario, it can be said that Venette has poor _____ memory.

A) prospective B) source C) fluid D) procedural

48) Adeline, aged 90, still drives her car to the senior center every Friday. Last week, she tells her friends that someone they know from her church died. When they ask her for the person's name she says, "I can't remember her name. She sits near the altar and always has a hat on." Clearly, Adeline has better _____ memory than _____ memory.

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A) explicit; implicit B) implicit; explicit C) explicit; procedural D) source; trait

49) Eighty-year-old Lucia has difficulty remembering to call her son every Sunday at noon. This is most likely due to a decline in her _____ memory.

A) source B) episodic C) implicit D) prospective

50) Michael's mother always forgets to take her heart medication. So, every night Michael calls her after dinner to remind her about her medicines. This demonstrates that Michael's mother is experiencing a decline in _____ memory.

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A) source B) episodic C) prospective D) implicit

51)

Which of the following statements is true regarding prospective memory?

A) Prospective memory involves remembering to do something in the future. B) Planning strategies are not associated with older adults' prospective memory. C) Declines in prospective memory occur more often in real-life settings than in laboratories. D) Age-related deficits occur less often in prospective memory tasks that are time-based than in those that are event-based.

52)

Which of the following is true of memory and aging?

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A) Memory decline occurs primarily in explicit, episodic, and working memory. B) Successful aging means reducing the decline and adapting to it. C) Memory decline occurs primarily in implicit memory or semantic memory. D) Successful aging means not tolerating memory loss and expanding one's memory instead.

53) A recent study (Mendoza & others, 2020) revealed that Latino older adults who are better adjusted to their new culture in the United States had better ______ than their less acculturated counterparts.

A) working memory B) prospective memory C) source memory D) semantic memory

54) Based on recent research (Salhi & Bergstrom, 2020), how can older adults address any possible deficits in their source memory?

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A) by building a large working memory B) with good retrieval strategies C) by lengthening the encoding time D) with proper diet and exercise

55)

Older adults especially perform well when decision making

A) is not constrained by time pressures. B) does not hold any meaning for them. C) involves high risks. D) requires high perceptual speed.

56) _____ is expert knowledge about the practical aspects of life that permits excellent judgment about important matters.

A) Enlightenment B) Wisdom C) Proficiency D) Competence

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57)

Which of the following is true of executive function?

A) It involves managing one's thoughts to engage in goal-directed behavior and to exercise self-control. B) It is unrelated to health, emotion regulation, and social functioning. C) It consists of a number of low-level cognitive processes. D) It shows a considerable increase in late adulthood and is strongly linked to increases in working memory.

58) Lower cognitive abilities are observed in older adults with less/fewer _____ than those with more.

A) education B) children C) close family D) leisure time

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59) According to research by Baltes and his colleagues, the time frame of _____ is the main age window for wisdom to emerge.

A) early midlife and late midlife B) midlife and late adulthood C) late adolescence and early adulthood D) young-old to oldest-old

60) According to research by Baltes and his colleagues, which of the following statements about wisdom is true?

A) Wisdom does not require experience, practice, or complex skills. B) Wisdom increases dramatically from midlife to late adulthood. C) Cognitive factors are better predictors of wisdom than personality-related factors. D) High levels of wisdom are rare.

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61) Which of the following is NOT among the experiences and characteristics that make wisdom in late adulthood more likely?

A) openness to experience B) a supportive childhood C) emotional stability in young adulthood D) poverty and hardship in adolescence

62) Which of the following is true of the influence of education on the cognitive functioning of older adults?

A) Today's older adults were less likely to go to college when they were young adults than were their parents or grandparents. B) Fewer older adults are returning to college today to further their education than in past generations. C) For older adults with less education, frequently engaging in cognitive activities improves episodic memory. D) Educational experiences have no impact or are negatively correlated with scores on intelligence tests and information-processing tasks.

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63) Older adults with less education have been found to have _____ than those with more education (Lachman & others, 2010).

A) lower interpersonal skills B) lower cognitive abilities C) a higher incidence of mental disorders D) a higher level of distractibility

64) Which of the following has been linked to lower cognitive performance, not only in older adults but also in young and middle-aged adults?

A) hypertension B) arthritis C) cancer D) congestive heart disease

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65) The concept of _____ emphasizes that changes in cognitive functioning may be linked more to distance from death or cognition-related pathology than to distance from birth.

A) terminal decline B) terminal slide C) cognitive shift D) cognitive slide

66) The concept of _____ emphasizes that changes in cognitive activity patterns might result in disuse and consequent atrophy of cognitive skills.

A) multiple intelligence B) "mind over matter" C) terminal decline D) "use it or lose it"

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67) The "use it or lose it" concept is a significant component of the _____ model of cognitive optimization that addresses strategies to buffer age-related declines in intellectual development.

A) engagement B) constructivist C) peer-to-peer D) social learning

68) In the context of work and aging, which of the following statements is true of older adults?

A) When older adults engage in complex working tasks and challenging daily work activities, their cognitive functioning shows less age-related decrease. B) Employment gaps involving unemployment or sickness are associated with a lower risk of cognitive impairment in older adults. C) Work-ing in a job with a high level of mental demands is linked to lower levels of cognitive functioning before retirement in older adults. D) For older adults who work in low-complexity jobs, experiencing novelty in their work is linked with a reduction in processing speed and working memory.

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69) In a recent study (Gow, Pattie, & Deary, 2017), which of the following was linked to less cognitive decline in late adulthood?

A) avoiding intellectually engaging activities B) reading as part of a sedentary lifestyle C) retiring before the age of retirement D) engaging in physical activity

70) In the context of links between aging, the brain, and cognitive functioning, which of the following statements is true of older adults?

A) Compared with younger adults, older adults often show less activity in the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain on simple tasks. B) The functioning of the hippocampus increases to a higher degree than the functioning of the frontal lobes in older adults. C) Older adults perform better on tasks involving complex reasoning when neural circuits in specific regions of the brain's prefrontal cortex decline. D) Older adults are more likely than younger adults to use both hemi-spheres of the brain to compensate for declines in attention.

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71) According to Denise Park and Patricia Reuter-Lorenz, neurocognitive _____ involves the use of complementary neural circuits to protect cognitive functioning in an aging brain.

A) scaffolding B) bypassing C) extension D) regeneration

72) Mae is 87 years old. She is most likely to have difficulty in understanding a person when he or she

A) speaks slowly. B) has a face-to-face conversation with her. C) calls her on the phone. D) picks a quiet place to have a conversation.

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73)

One of the most common language difficulties that older adults experience is

A) expressive aphasia. B) stuttering. C) making up new words that other people do not understand. D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

74)

_____ refers to extended verbal expression in speech or writing.

A) Narrative B) Embellishing C) Discourse D) Characterization

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75) Which of the following accurately describes the difference in language skills between older adults and younger adults?

A) A higher working memory capacity in older adults, compared with younger adults, improves their comprehension of sentences. B) Older adults' speech is typically lower in volume, slower, and less fluent than younger adults' speech. C) Older adults are less likely than younger adults to omit key elements, creating discourse that is more fluent and easy to follow. D) When retelling a story, older adults are less likely than younger adults to compress discourse and more likely to improve the cohesiveness of their narratives.

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76)

Which of the following is/are one of the earliest symptoms of Alzheimer disease?

A) increased irritability and aggressiveness B) difficulties in finding and generating words C) decreasing ability to produce well-formed sentences D) decreased hand–eye coordination

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77)

Which of the following is one of the best predictors of job performance in older adults?

A) cognitive ability B) educational attainment C) distaste for retirement/complexity of work D) being married to a working spouse

78)

Which of the following statements about older workers is true?

A) Older workers have more accidents than younger workers. B) Older workers have higher rates of absenteeism than younger workers. C) Older workers are of considerably less value to a company than younger workers. D) Older workers experience more job satisfaction than younger workers.

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79) Older workers are more ____ at work than their young colleagues, take fewer _____, and demonstrate stronger _____ skills.

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A) satisfied; sick days; problem-solving B) dependent; coffee breaks; social C) tardy; chances; coping D) manipulative; sick days; physical

80)

Which of the following can be attributed to giving Americans the option to retire?

A) the Age Discrimination Act of 1967 B) the elimination of mandatory retirement in 1986 C) establishment of the Social Security system in 1935 D) the extension of the mandatory retirement age in 1978

81) In 2017, in the United States, the average age of retirement was _____ for men and _____ for women.

A) 65; 67 B) 64; 62 C) 66; 64 D) 70; 72

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82) On average, today's workers in the U.S. will spend _____ percent of their lives in retirement.

A) 1 to 5 B) 5 to 10 C) 10 to 15 D) 15 to 20

83) According to Phyllis Moen, which of the following statements is true of the life path that individuals follow when they reach their sixties?

A) Some individuals engage in volunteer work even before retiring from their career jobs. B) Some individuals retire from a post-retirement job and go on to yet another job. C) Some individuals who are laid off define it as "resignation." D) Some individuals continue working even in poor health to avoid moving to a disability status.

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84) Which of the following is/are among the antecedents of early retirement identified in a recent research review?

A) parental responsibilities B) workplace organizational pressures C) financial insecurity D) good physical and mental health

85)

Which of the following statements about retirement in America is true?

A) Approximately 20 million retired Americans return to work after they have retired. B) When retired adults return to the labor force, it occurs on average four years after retirement. C) A majority of former retirees report that they were forced to go back to work to meet financial needs. D) Very few retirees who return to work report that they were happy to have done so.

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86)

Identify a true statement about retirement in the United States.

A) The option to retire is a late-twentieth-century phenomenon. B) The option to retire exists largely because of the implementation of the Age Discrimination Act of 1967. C) As baby boomers move into their sixties, they expect to retire earlier than their parents or their grandparents did. D) The average number of years spent in retirement is 10 years.

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87)

Which of the following statements about retirement is true?

A) Men spend less time planning for retirement than women do. B) Older adults with a long work history adjust to retirement more easily than those who have been in the workforce for a shorter period of time. C) Higher levels of financial assets and job satisfaction are more strongly linked to men's higher psychological well-being in retirement. D) Preretirement social contacts are more strongly related to men's psychological wellbeing in retirement than women's.

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88)

Which of the following improves adaptation to retirement?

A) fostering friendships related to work B) cultivating interests unrelated to work C) reminiscing about past experiences D) limiting social participation

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe adaptation to work and retirement in late adulthood. Topic : Retirement Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

89) A person with _____ does not feel well, loses stamina easily, has a poor appetite, and is listless and unmotivated.

A) obsessive compulsive disorder B) schizophrenia C) dementia D) major depression

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90)

Which of the following is an individual with major depression likely to experience?

A) inability to recognize familiar people B) deterioration of reasoning and language C) self-derogatory thoughts D) increased appetite

91)

Which of the following is called the "common cold" of mental disorders?

A) schizophrenia B) Alzheimer disease C) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon D) major depression

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe mental health problems in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Depression

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92) One study of the effects of depression (Schieman, van Gundy, & Taylor, 2004) found that the lower frequency of depressive symptoms in older adults compared with middle-aged adults was linked to

A) fewer economic hardships. B) regular physical activity. C) frequent negative social interchanges. D) decreased religiosity.

93) Which of the following is one of the most common predictors of depression in older adults?

A) excessive sleep B) low social support C) high social participation D) delayed marriage

94) Which of the following is reflected in the research findings regarding depression in older adults? Version 1

A) Insomnia is not a risk factor for depression in older adults. B) Suicidal ideation is strongly associated with depression severity in older adults. C) Living in an institutionalized setting is linked to decreased risk for depression in older adults. D) Community-dwelling older adults who use a computer exhibit a high level of depressive symptoms.

95) Which of the following has been found to be more effective in treating older adults' depression than antidepressants?

A) existential therapy B) ecological counseling C) adlerian therapy D) electroconvulsive treatment

96)

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to suicidal ideation?

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A) high self-worth B) comfort from religion C) physical discomfort D) emotional control

97) Which of the following is a practice of older Chinese adults that has shown to be effective in reducing depression?

A) Kung-Fu B) cooking C) Ma-Jong D) Tai Chi

98) _____ is the global term for any neurological disorder in which the primary symptoms involve a deterioration of mental functioning.

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A) Paranoia B) Dementia C) Schizophrenia D) Alzheimer disease

99)

Who among the following is most likely to commit suicide?

A) a male who lives alone B) a male who travels frequently C) a male who lives with his spouse D) a male who changes jobs frequently

100) Among individuals aged 85 and older, the percentage with Alzheimer disease is _____ percent.

A) 3 B) 17 C) 32 D) 52

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101)

Alzheimer disease is a form of

A) major depression. B) purely psychological decline in old age. C) paranoia. D) dementia.

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102) _____ refers to a progressive, irreversible brain disorder that is characterized by a gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and eventually, physical function.

A) Huntington disease B) Parkinson disease C) Alzheimer disease D) Clinical depression

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103)

Alzheimer disease most often develops in

A) early adulthood. B) adolescence. C) late adulthood. D) middle adulthood.

104)

Alzheimer disease involves a deficiency in an important brain messenger chemical called

A) dopamine. B) serotonin. C) acetylcholine. D) oxytocin.

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105)

The brain messenger chemical _____ plays an important role in memory.

A) serotonin B) acetylcholine C) noradrenaline D) oxytocin

106)

Neurofibrillary tangles consist mainly of a protein called

A) collagen. B) elastin. C) tau. D) coronin.

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107) Which of the following constitute dense deposits of protein that accumulate in the blood vessels?

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A) cholinesterase inhibitors B) neurofibrillary tangles C) amyloid plaques D) apolipoproteins

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108)

A gene called _____ is linked to increasing presence of plaques and tangles in the brain.

A) ApoB B) ApoE C) ApoC D) ApoX

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109)

What is an allele?

A) an alternative form of a gene B) the specific location of a gene on the chromosome C) a particular chromosome in the human genome D) a sequence of DNA that caps the chromosome

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110) Which of the following is a cardiac risk factor that has been implicated in Alzheimer disease?

A) insomnia B) obesity C) low cholesterol D) poor appetite

111) The transitional state between the cognitive changes of normal aging and very early stages of Alzheimer disease and other dementias is called

A) confusion. B) mild cognitive impairment. C) attention deficit disorder. D) neurosis.

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112)

_____ is increasingly recognized as a risk factor for Alzheimer disease.

A) Mild cognitive impairment B) Low cholesterol C) Major depression D) The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

113) Estimates indicate that as many as _____ percent of individuals 65 years of age and older have mild cognitive impairment (MCI).

A) 10 to 20 B) 30 to 40 C) 40 to 50 D) 50 to 60

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114) Which of the following is a drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to treat Alzheimer disease?

A) Ritalin B) L-dopa C) Crocin D) Aricept

115) Which of the following is the effect of the drug treatment given to patients with Alzheimer disease?

A) It increases the amount of amyloid beta in spinal fluid. B) It treats mild cognitive impairment. C) It increases levels of acetylcholine in the brain. D) It activates the apolipoprotein E gene.

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116)

Which of the following is a use of the drug Namenda?

A) addressing the cause of Alzheimer disease B) regulating the activity of glutamate C) reducing progression to dementia from mild cognitive impairment D) increasing levels of acetylcholine in the brain

117) _____ care refers to services that provide temporary relief for those who are caring for individuals with disabilities, individuals with illnesses, or the elderly.

A) Respite B) Hospice C) Palliative D) Home health

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118) A _____ plans and develops services and educational programs that address patterns of human development related to aging.

A) gerontologist B) pediatrician C) gynecologist D) dermatologist

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119)

Which of the following is a similarity between Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease?

A) Both are triggered by a deficiency of the important brain messenger chemical acetylcholine. B) Both are progressive in nature. C) Both affect only the elderly. D) Both are easily managed with medication.

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120)

_____ is triggered by degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain.

A) Parkinson disease B) Alzheimer disease C) Huntington disease D) Spina bifida

121)

Which of the following is/are the main treatment for Parkinson in the earlier stages?

A) dopamine agonists B) L-dopa C) cholinesterase inhibitors D) acetylcholine

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122)

Which of the following is a drug that is used in the treatment of Parkinson disease?

A) ACE inhibitor B) cholinesterase inhibitor C) L-dopa D) serotonin

123)

Which of the following is/are a treatment for advanced Parkinson disease?

A) cholinesterase inhibitors B) electroconvulsive therapy C) dopamine agonists D) deep brain stimulation

124) Mr. Dalton has been complaining of irregular and involuntary movement in the right part of his body. The doctors notice that Mr. Dalton is also showing signs of slow movement and partial facial paralysis. The chronic and progressive nature of the illness is revealed in the pathological findings. Which of the following conditions does Mr. Dalton most likely suffer from? Version 1

A) Alzheimer disease B) multi-infarct syndrome C) Lewy body dementia D) Parkinson disease

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe mental health problems in late adulthood. Topic : Parkinson Disease null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard

125) According to recent studies, which of the following is likely to improve the movement skills of individuals with Parkinson disease?

A) dance B) music C) meditation D) dieting

126) Deep brain stimulation (DBS), which involves _____, improves the motor function in Parkinson patients for up to 10 years.

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A) regular therapeutic scalp massages B) a combination of highly-curated visual and audio stimulants C) electrodes implanted inside the brain D) a pacemaker on the lower neck, which sends out micro-wave stimulants

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127)

Many psychotherapists prefer not to work with older patients, labeling them as

A) YAVISes. B) OPLAs. C) QUOIDs. D) NUIPs.

128) A recent study of older adults (Manning & Miles, 2018) revealed that religious service attendance was associated with a

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A) higher risk of mortality. B) higher level of resilience in life. C) lower risk of Alzheimer disease. D) decrease in life satisfaction.

129)

A Pew poll found that belief in God was higher in _____ than in any other age period.

A) older adulthood B) young adults C) adolescents D) middle-aged adults

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the role of religion and spirituality in the lives of older adults. Topic : Religion and Spirituality

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 130) The term coined by Paul Baltes that refers to the culture-based "software programs" of the mind, including reading and writing skills, language comprehension, and daily life skills is cognitive _____.

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131) The term for a focused and extended engagement with an object, task, event, or some other aspect of the environment is _____ attention. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Attention

132) The type of memory that includes a person's fields of expertise, general academic knowledge of the sort learned in school, and "everyday knowledge" about the meanings of words, the names of famous individuals, the significance of important places, and common things is _____ memory. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. Topic : Memory null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

133) The cognitive resource that shows considerable decline in late adulthood and is strongly linked to declines in working memory is _____ speed.

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134) According to Ellen Bialystok and her colleagues, being _____ is likely to delay the onset of Alzheimer disease by as much as four to five years. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. Topic : Bilingualism

135) The type of memory that involves the ability to remember what one needs to do in the future is known as _____ memory. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. Topic : Memory null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

136)

The gene labeled _____ is the strongest genetic predictor of late-onset Alzheimer disease.

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137) What is the average number of years spent in retirement by Americans? (Provide your answer in numeric form.) Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe adaptation to work and retirement in late adulthood. Topic : Retirement

138) Name the leading expert (last name only) who described seven major pathways that adults in their sixties take to retirement. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe adaptation to work and retirement in late adulthood. Topic : Retirement

139) Name the drug that is a combination of memantine and donepezil and is used to treat Alzheimer disease. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe mental health problems in late adulthood. Topic : Alzheimer Disease null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology

140) The type of dementia that is characterized by muscle tremors, a gradual slowing of movement, and partial facial paralysis is called _____ disease.

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141) In many societies around the world, older adults are the _____ leaders in churches and communities. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the role of religion and spirituality in the lives of older adults. Topic : Religion and Spirituality

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 142) What are the speech and language difficulties faced by individuals with Alzheimer disease?

143) What are cognitive pragmatics? Explain, in brief, the distinction between cognitive mechanics and cognitive pragmatics.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Cognitive Mechanics and Pragmatics

144)

Discuss three types of attention.

145)

Describe the status of semantic memory as individuals age.

146) Differentiate between episodic memory and semantic memory. Provide an example for each.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe the cognitive functioning in older adults. Topic : Memory null : Difficulty Level: Hard null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze

147)

How does a cognitively stimulating work context promote successful aging?

148)

How do contextual factors and ageist stereotypes affect older workers?

149)

What are the most common language-related complaints reported by older adults?

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150)

What is discourse? What are some of the changes in discourse that occur with aging?

151) According to the study of work and retirement in 21 countries conducted by HSBC Insurance in 2007, what were the differences among retirees in different countries?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe adaptation to work and retirement in late adulthood. Topic : Retirement Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

152)

What are the important factors influencing depression in older adults?

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153)

Define and discuss dementia.

154)

Briefly describe Alzheimer disease.

155) Describe the religious patterns of older adults. How do older adults benefit from regularly attending religious services?

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156)

How is religion related to a sense of well-being and life satisfaction in old age?

157) How do religion and spirituality meet some important psychological and social needs of older adults?

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Answer Key Test name: Ch18 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) C 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) D 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) A 72) C 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) B 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) B 95) D 96) C 97) D 98) B 99) A 100) C 101) D 102) C 103) C 104) C 105) B 106) C 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) B 111) B 112) A 113) A 114) D 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) A 119) B 120) A 121) A 122) C 123) D 124) D 125) A 126) C 127) C 128) B 129) A 130) pragmatics 131) sustained 132) semantic 133) perceptual 134) bilingual 135) prospective 136) ApoE4 137) 18 138) Moen 139) Namzatric 140) Parkinson 141) spiritual

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142) Difficulties in finding and generating words are one of the earli-est symptoms of Alzheimer disease. Individuals with Alzheimer disease especially have difficulty on tests of semantic verbal fluency, in which they have to say as many words as possible in a category (fruits or animals, for example) in a given time, typically 1 minute. Most individuals with the disease do retain much of their ability to produce well-formed sentences until the late stages of the disease. Nonetheless, they do make more grammatical errors than older adults without the disease. In a recent study, individuals with Alzheimer disease were less likely to use syntactic components in their language than those who did not have Alzheimer disease. 143) Cognitive pragmatics are the culture-based "software programs" of the mind. They include reading and writing skills, language comprehension, educational qualifications, professional skills, and also the type of knowledge about the self and life skills that help people master or cope with challenges. Because of the strong influence of culture on cognitive pragmatics, their improvement into old age is possible. Thus, although cognitive mechanics may decline in old age, cognitive pragmatics may actually improve, at least until individuals become very old. The distinction between cognitive mechanics and cognitive pragmatics is similar to the one between fluid (mechanics) and crystallized (pragmatics) intelligence.

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144) (1) Selective attention involves focusing on a specific aspect of experience that is relevant while ignoring others that are irrelevant. An example of selective attention is the ability to focus on one voice among many in a crowded room or a noisy restaurant. (2) Divided attention involves concentrating on more than one activity at the same time. When the two competing tasks are reasonably easy, age differences among adults are minimal or nonexistent. However, the more difficult the competing tasks are, the less effectively older adults divide attention than younger adults. (3) Sustained attention is focused and extended engagement with an object, task, event, or some other aspect of the environment. Sometimes, sustained attention is referred to as vigilance. On tests of simple vigilance and sustained attention, older adults usually perform as well as younger adults. However, on complex vigilance tasks, older adults' performance usually drops. 145)Researchers often assess semantic memory based on vocabulary, general knowledge, and word identification. Older adults do often take longer to retrieve semantic information, but usually they can ultimately retrieve it. However, the ability to retrieve very specific information usually declines in older adults. For the most part, episodic memory declines more than semantic memory in older adults. Although many aspects of semantic memory are reasonably well preserved in late adulthood, a common memory problem for older adults is the tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) phenomenon. Researchers have found that older adults are more likely to experience TOT states than younger adults.

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146) Episodic memory is the retention of information about the details of life's happenings. For example, a person remembers what the color of the walls in his or her bedroom was when he or she was a child. Semantic memory is a person's knowledge about the world. It includes a person's fields of expertise, general academic knowledge of the sort learned in school, and "everyday knowledge" about the meanings of words, the names of famous individuals, the significance of important places, and common things. For example, a person remembers what day is Valentine's Day. For the most part, episodic memory declines more than semantic memory in older adults. 147) Changes in federal law now allow individuals over the age of 65 to continue working. Substantively complex work is linked with a higher level of intellectual functioning. Researchers have found that working in an occupation with a high level of mental demands is linked to higher levels of cognitive functioning before retirement and a slower rate of cognitive decline after retirement. In sum, a cognitively stimulating work context promotes successful aging. 148) Important contextual factors—such as age composition of departments or applicant pools, occupations, and jobs—all affect decisions about older workers. Ageist stereotypes of workers and of tasks can limit older workers' career opportunities and can encourage early retirement or other forms of downsizing that adversely affect older workers.

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149) Among the most common language-related complaints reported by older adults are difficulty in retrieving words to use in conversation and problems understanding spoken language in certain contexts. This often involves the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, in which individuals are confident that they know something but can't quite seem to retrieve it from memory. Older adults also report that in less than ideal listening conditions they can have difficulty understanding speech. This difficulty is most likely to occur when speech is rapid, when competing stimuli are present (a noisy room, for example), and when they can't see their conversation partner (in a telephone conversation, for example). 150) Discourse refers to extended verbal expression in speech or writing. Researchers have found conflicting information about changes in discourse with aging. Some have reported increased elaborateness, while others have reported less varied and less complex syntax. One aspect of discourse where age differences have been found involves retelling a story or giving instructions for completing a task. When engaging in this type of discourse, older adults are more likely than younger adults to omit key elements, creating discourse that is less fluent and more difficult to follow. A recent study found that when retelling a story, older adults were more likely than younger adults to compress discourse and less likely to improve the cohesiveness of their narratives. 151) According to the study of work and retirement in 21 countries conducted by HSBC Insurance in 2007, Japanese retirees missed the work slightly more than they expected and the money considerably less than they expected. U.S. retirees missed both the work and the money slightly less than they expected. German retirees were the least likely to miss the work, Turkish and Chinese retirees the most likely to miss it. Regarding money, Japanese and Chinese retirees were the least likely to miss it, Turkish retirees the most likely to miss it. Version 1

152) Among the most common predictors of depression in older adults are earlier depressive symptoms, poor health, disability, loss events such as the death of a spouse, and low social support. Insomnia is also a risk factor for depression in older adults. Curtailment of daily activities is a common pathway to late-life depression. Often accompanying this curtailment of activity is an increase in self-critical thinking that exacerbates depression. A recent meta-analysis found that the following living arrangements were linked to risk for depression in older adults: living alone, in a nursing home, or in an institutionalized setting. 153) Dementia is a global term for any neurological disorder in which the primary symptoms involve a deterioration of mental functioning. Individuals with dementia often lose the ability to care for themselves and can become unable to recognize familiar surroundings and people— including family members. Dementia is a broad category, and it is important that every effort is made to determine the specific cause of deteriorating mental functioning.

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154) Alzheimer disease is a progressive, irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and eventually physical function. Alzheimer disease involves a deficiency in the brain messenger chemical called acetylcholine, which plays an important role in memory. Also, as Alzheimer disease progresses, the brain shrinks and deteriorates. Although scientists are not certain what causes Alzheimer disease, age is an important risk factor and genes also are likely to play an important role. The percentage of individuals with Alzheimer disease doubles every five years after the age of 65. Although individuals with a family history of Alzheimer disease are at greater risk, the disease is complex and likely caused by a number of factors. The current drugs used to treat Alzheimer disease only slow the downward progression of the disease; they do not address its cause. 155) The religious patterns of older adults have increasingly been studied. A longitudinal study found that religious service attendance was stable in middle adulthood, increased in late adulthood, then declined later in the older adult years. A research review con-cluded that individuals with a stronger spiritual/religious orientation were more likely to live longer. In a recent study of older adults, those who regularly attended religious services lived longer than their counterparts who did not attend these services.

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156) In a recent study of older adults, secure attachment to God was linked to an increase in optimism and self-esteem in the future. In another study, older adults who derived a sense of meaning in life from religion had higher levels of life satisfaction, self-esteem, and optimism. Further, a recent study of older adults revealed that religious service attendance was associated with a higher level of resilience in life and lower levels of depression. And in a recent study of Korean older adults, higher levels of religious or spiritual coping were linked to lower levels of depressive symptoms. Finally, a recent study of Latinos found that lack of religiosity was associated with elevated anxiety and depressive symp-toms in older adults but not in young and middle-aged adults. 157) Religion and spirituality can meet some important psychological needs in older adults, helping them face impending death, find and maintain a sense of meaning in life, and accept the inevitable losses of old age. Socially, the religious community can serve many functions for older adults, such as social activities, social support, and the opportunity to assume teaching and leadership roles. One study revealed that over a period of seven years, older adults who attended church regularly increased the amount of emotional support they gave and received.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is Erikson's eighth stage of development?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) integrity versus despair C) industry versus inferiority D) autonomy versus shame

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Integrity versus Despair

2) According to Erikson, which of the following stages of development does an individual experience in late adulthood?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) autonomy versus shame C) industry versus inferiority D) integrity versus despair

3) According to Erikson, the _____ stage of development involves reflecting on the past and either piecing together a positive review or concluding that one's life has not been well spent.

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A) integrity versus despair B) autonomy versus shame C) industry versus inferiority D) generativity versus stagnation

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Integrity versus Despair

4) In the context of socioemotional development in late adulthood, which of the following is true of life review?

A) It is the same for every individual. B) It is used to avoid the revival of negative thoughts. C) It is set in motion by looking forward to death. D) It is independent of interpersonal, relationship dimensions.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Review

5) Erikson believed that people who experience isolation in early adulthood and stagnation in middle adulthood are more likely to experience _____ in late adulthood.

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A) despair B) inferiority C) shame and doubt D) identity diffusion

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Integrity versus Despair

According to Erikson, what is the last stage of development in life?

A) death versus dying B) integrity versus despair C) immortality versus death D) independence versus dependence

Robert Butler states that life review is set in motion by

A) retrospective glances on life's worth. B) looking forward to death. C) handing over the legacy to the next generation. D) conflicting views of wisdom against integrity.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Review

Which of the following is prominent in Erikson's final stage of integrity versus despair?

A) life review B) identity resolution C) integrity formation D) a struggle for independence

9) According to Erikson, who among the following is most likely to face a conflict between identity and confusion?

A) Teena, a 14-year-old who joins a new school after her family's relocation from California to Texas B) Trevor, a 68-year-old retired military policeman who decides to spend the rest of his life as a pilgrim C) Anjali, a 25-year-old who receives admission into her desired college for a postgraduate program D) Lee, an 8-year-old who wins the spelling bee competition in his school

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Erikson's Psychosocial Theory

10) Kendall was a kind and empathetic woman who actively participated in fund-raising events for charity organizations even when she was 87 years old. During her middle adulthood, she began caring for others and empathizing with people who were socially disadvantaged. Which of the following psychosocial conflicts did Kendall most likely experience that resulted in the resolution mentioned in the scenario?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) autonomy versus shame C) industry versus inferiority D) initiative versus guilt

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11) According to Erikson's developmental stages, which of the following is the resolution an individual is most likely to experience if he or she is in the last stage of human development?

A) care B) fidelity C) wisdom D) hope

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Integrity versus Despair

12) According to Erikson, which of the following stages of development does an individual experience in middle adulthood?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) autonomy versus shame C) industry versus inferiority D) integrity versus despair

13)

Identify the developmental stage that individuals experience in adolescence.

A) generativity versus stagnation B) autonomy versus shame C) identity versus confusion D) intimacy versus isolation

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14)

Identify the developmental stage that individuals experience in the school-age years.

A) generativity versus stagnation B) industry versus inferiority C) identity versus confusion D) intimacy versus isolation

15) Which of the following developmental stages do individuals experience in early childhood?

A) initiative versus guilt B) industry versus inferiority C) identity versus confusion D) intimacy versus isolation

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16) According to Erikson, which of the following stages of development does an individual experience in infancy?

A) autonomy versus shame B) industry versus inferiority C) basic trust versus mistrust D) intimacy versus isolation

17) According to Erikson, which of the following stages of development does an individual experience in toddlerhood?

A) autonomy versus shame B) industry versus inferiority C) basic trust versus mistrust D) intimacy versus isolation

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18) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of generativity versus stagnation?

A) infidelity B) wisdom C) care D) will

19) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of intimacy versus isolation?

A) infidelity B) wisdom C) care D) love

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20) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of identity versus confusion?

A) fidelity B) wisdom C) care D) love

21) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of industry versus inferiority?

A) fidelity B) wisdom C) competence D) love

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22) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of initiative versus guilt?

A) fidelity B) purpose C) competence D) love

23) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of autonomy versus shame?

A) fidelity B) purpose C) competence D) will

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24) Which of the following is a positive resolution of the psychological conflict of basic trust versus mistrust?

A) hope B) purpose C) competence D) will

25) Sara is 17 years old. After being confused about her sexual orientation for a long time, Sara is finally able to identify herself as bisexual. According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, which of the following is most likely to be true of Sara when she reaches old age?

A) She will have a strong sense of humor. B) She will believe that heterosexual relationships are immoral. C) She will appreciate the complexity of life. D) She will develop a sense of inferiority.

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26) According to Erikson, the positive resolution of the conflict of generativity versus stagnation culminates in _____ in old age.

A) caring for others, and empathy and concern, B) existential identity C) a sense of complexity of relationships D) humor and resilience

27) In old age, according to Erikson, the positive resolution of the conflict of intimacy versus isolation culminates in

A) acceptance of the cycle of life. B) a merger of sensory, logical, and aesthetic perception. C) acceptance of the course of one's life and unfulfilled hopes. D) a sense of the complexity of relationships.

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28) In old age, according to Erikson, the positive resolution of the conflict of identity versus confusion culminates in

A) a sense of the complexity of life. B) a merger of sensory, logical, and aesthetic perception. C) acceptance of the course of one's life and unfulfilled hopes. D) a sense of humor and resilience.

29) The positive resolution of which developmental stage, according to Erikson, culminates in appreciation of interdependence and relatedness in old age?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) basic trust versus mistrust C) integrity versus despair D) intimacy versus isolation

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30) The positive resolution of which developmental stage, according to Erikson, culminates in acceptance of the course of one's life and unfulfilled hopes in old age?

A) generativity versus stagnation B) basic trust versus mistrust C) industry versus inferiority D) intimacy versus isolation

31)

Life review

A) suggests that many individuals will achieve greater life satisfaction if they continue their middle-adulthood roles into late adulthood. B) might result in increased meaning in life and mastery, but it also might revive bitterness and negative thoughts. C) reveals that those who are more physically active have higher life satisfaction and greater social interaction than their physically inactive counterparts. D) fails to consider sociocultural dimensions, such as culture, ethnicity, and gender.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Review

32) Ramya is an 80-year-old woman who suffers from dementia. She attends therapy sessions in which the clinician uses photographs and video recordings to encourage discussions about Ramya's past activities and experiences. The therapy sessions help reduce Ramya's depressive symptoms and improve her self-acceptance. Based on this information, it can be inferred that the clinician is using _____ therapy.

A) gestalt B) reminiscence C) schema D) drama

33) Clayton is a psychologist who runs a counseling center for older adults. In his center, the clients meet every week and form groups in which each individual narrates his or her past activities and events. Clayton encourages the members of the groups to share old photographs related to their life events and tell anecdotes about their experiences. This scenario illustrates the use of _____ therapy.

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A) cognitive behavioral B) past life regression C) reminiscence D) rational emotive

34)

Which of the following is likely to be an outcome of reminiscence therapy?

A) improved motor skills B) financial independence C) physical well-being D) a more positive outlook

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Review

35) Olivia believes that the more dynamic and involved older adults are, the more likely they are to be satisfied with their lives. Thus, she believes in

A) activity theory. B) Erikson's theory of integrity versus despair. C) socioemotional selectivity theory. D) selective optimization with compensation theory.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Activity Theory

36)

Which of the following is true of activity theory?

A) It states that successful aging depends on three main factors: selection, optimization, and compensation. B) It states that adults become more selective about their social networks as they grow older and place a high value on emotional satisfaction. C) It recommends that older adults identify and reflect on the positive and negative aspects of their lives. D) It suggests that adults who cannot continue their middle-adulthood roles into late adulthood should find substitute roles that keep them engaged.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Activity Theory null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

37) Voletta believes that older adults become more selective about their social networks as they age. She is a proponent of

A) socioemotional selectivity theory. B) selective optimization with compensation theory. C) activity theory. D) social discontinuity theory.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

38) Which of the following theories explains why older adults spend most of their time with familiar individuals and family?

A) activity theory B) socioemotional selectivity theory C) social discontinuity theory D) disengagement theory

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

39) Jeremy is 84 years old. Since the age of 78, Jeremy has deliberately reduced contact with his distant relatives and former work colleagues. He now maintains contact only with close family members and friends. In the context of Laura Carstensen's socioemotional selectivity theory, which of the following is the most likely reason that Jeremy's decided to withdraw from social contact?

A) He developed negative feelings toward his many of his former associates. B) He suffered from social anxiety disorder. C) He was unable to talk loudly or write clearly. D) He placed a high value on emotional satisfaction.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

40)

Which of the following is true of socioemotional selectivity theory?

A) It was first proposed by Paul Baltes and colleagues. B) It emphasizes that the trajectory of motivation for knowledge-related goals declines in adolescence and early adulthood and then peaks during middle and late adulthood. C) It challenges the stereotype that the majority of older adults are in emotional despair because of their social isolation. D) It states that adults become less selective about their social networks as they grow older.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

41) Joaquin believes that older adults deliberately withdraw from social contact with individuals who are peripheral to their lives while maintaining or increasing contact with close friends and family members with whom they have had enjoyable relationships. Joaquin is a proponent of

A) activity theory. B) selective optimization with compensation theory. C) socioemotional selectivity theory. D) social discontinuity theory.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

42) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, a selective narrowing of social interaction _____ as individuals get older.

A) minimizes health-related complications B) minimizes emotional risks C) maximizes social isolation D) maximizes financial freedom

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

43) Which of the following theories challenges the stereotype that older adults are in despair because of social isolation?

A) socioemotional selectivity theory B) activity theory C) disengagement theory D) social breakdown theory

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

44) will

Now that Benita is in late adulthood, socioemotional selectivity theory predicts that she

A) become more socially withdrawn as she prepares for death. B) continue to actively make new friends. C) spend most of her time with familiar friends. D) emotionally invest in peripheral relationships.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

45) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, individuals are motivated by two types of goals: emotional and

A) spiritual. B) practical. C) relational. D) knowledge-related.

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46) _____ theory focuses on the types of goals that individuals are motivated to achieve as they approach the end of life.

A) Selective optimization with compensation B) Activity C) Socioemotional selectivity D) Disengagement

47) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, the trajectory of motivation for knowledge-related goals peaks in

A) middle and late adulthood. B) adolescence and early adulthood. C) early childhood. D) infancy.

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48) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, which of the following is true of the trajectory of motivation for knowledge-related goals?

A) It declines during middle and late adulthood. B) It starts in adolescence. C) It peaks in early childhood. D) It is relatively low in the early years of life.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

49) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, which of the following is true of the emotion trajectory?

A) It increases during early adulthood. B) It is low during early childhood. C) It peaks during middle childhood. D) It is high during infancy.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

50) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, when does the emotional trajectory increase?

A) in adolescence B) in early adulthood C) in middle childhood D) in late adulthood

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

51) In the context of socioemotional selectivity theory, which of the following is/are among the main reasons for the changing trajectories in knowledge-related and emotion-related goals of older adults, as compared with younger adults?

A) perception of time B) state of health C) self-esteem and self-respect D) social support—or the lack of it

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

52) According to socioemotional selectivity theory, when time is perceived as _____, as it is when individuals are younger, people are more strongly motivated to pursue information, even at the cost of emotional satisfaction.

A) fluid B) limited C) open-ended D) created, not given

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

53) In the context of socioemotional selectivity theory, and based on studies of the emotional life of older adults, which of the following is true?

A) Emotional experiences are less positive in the lives of older adults than in the lives of younger adults. B) Older adults focus less on negative events in their past than younger adults do. C) Older adults show less engagement with highly positive contexts than younger adults. D) Compared with younger adults, older adults react more strongly to negative circum-stances.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

54) Selective optimization with compensation theory states that successful aging is related to three main factors:

A) assortment, enhancement, and remuneration. B) reorganization, compensation, and optimization. C) selection, optimization, and compensation. D) remuneration, selection, and enhancement.

55) _____ theory describes how people can produce new resources and allocate them effectively to the tasks they want to master.

A) Activity B) Selective optimization with compensation C) Socioemotional selectivity D) Psychoanalytical

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56) Selective optimization with compensation theory proposes that successful aging is related to three main factors. Which of these factors is based on the concept that older adults have a reduced capacity and loss of functioning, which a reduction in performance in most life domains?

A) selection B) optimization C) compensation D) remuneration

57) According to Baltes, _____ becomes relevant when life tasks require a level of capacity beyond the current level of the older adult's performance potential.

A) selection B) organization C) optimization D) compensation

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58) According to Baltes, which of the following factors suggests that it is possible to maintain performance in some areas through continued practice and the use of new technologies?

A) selection B) compensation C) optimization D) reorganization

59) According to Baltes, in which of the following situations is the need for compensation for older adults the most obvious?

A) reminiscing about life's regrets B) watching soaps on TV C) being bedridden because of an illness D) narrating bedtime stories to grandchildren

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Selective Optimization with Compensation Theory

60) The late Arthur Rubinstein, during his old age, maintained his status as an admired pianist with a few simple strategies. One of these was reducing the scope of his performances and playing fewer pieces. Which aspect of Baltes' theory does this reflect?

A) selection B) organization C) optimization D) compensation

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61)

Which of the following is true of selective optimization with compensation theory?

A) It states that older adults can continue to lead satisfying lives, although in a more restricted manner. B) It emphasizes that the trajectory of motivation for knowledge-related goals peaks in early adulthood. C) It challenges the stereotype that the majority of older adults are in emotional despair because of their social isolation. D) It states that the more active older adults are, the more likely they are to be satisfied with their lives.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Selective Optimization with Compensation Theory

62) When he was interviewed at 80 years of age, Arthur Rubinstein said that he spent more time at practice than earlier in his life. This helped maintain his status as an admired concert pianist. Which aspect of Baltes' theory does this reflect?

A) selection B) organization C) optimization D) compensation

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Selective Optimization with Compensation Theory

63) In order to maintain his status as an admired pianist as he aged, the late Arthur Rubinstein used special strategies, such as slowing down before fast segments, thus creating a perception of faster playing. Which factor of Baltes' theory does this reflect?

A) selection B) optimization C) organization D) compensation

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Bloom's : Apply null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Topic : Selective Optimization with Compensation Theory

64) According to Baltes and colleagues, which of the following is an effective selection strategy?

A) If things don't go well for you, be willing to let others help you. B) Persevere and keep trying until you reach your goal. C) Focus on the most important goal at a particular time. D) When things do not go the way they used to, search for other ways to achieve what you want.

65) Which of the following is a compensation strategy suggested by Baltes and his colleagues?

A) Focus on the most important goal at a particular time. B) To reach a particular goal, you may need to abandon other goals. C) Persevere and keep trying until you reach your goal. D) If things do not go well for you, be willing to let others help you.

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66) According to Baltes and colleagues, which of the following is an effective optimization strategy?

A) To reach a particular goal, you may need to abandon other goals. B) Persevere and keep trying until you reach your goal. C) When things do not go as well as in the past, keep trying other ways until you can achieve results that are similar to what you accomplished earlier in your life. D) Think about what you want in life and commit yourself to one or two major goals.

67) According to a cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger, which of the following is/are the most important investment for adults between 25 and 34 years of age?

A) work B) family C) friends D) leisure activities

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68) According to a cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger, which of the following is/are the LEAST important investment for adults between 25 and 34 years of age?

A) independence B) family C) friends D) work

69) A cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger found that for adults from 35 to 54 years of age, _____ was most important in terms of personal investment.

A) work B) independence C) friends D) family

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70) A cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger found that for adults from 55 to 65 years of age, _____ was most important in terms of personal investment.

A) work B) independence C) family D) friends

71) A cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger found that for adults from 85 to 105 years of age, _____ was most important in terms of personal investment.

A) work B) health C) family D) friends

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72) According to a cross-sectional study by Ursula Staudinger, _____ showed up for the first time on the most important list for those who were 85 to 105 years old.

A) spending time with friends B) concerns about work C) thinking about cognitive fitness D) thinking about life

73) Identify the traits in the Big Five factors of personality that are associated with severe depression in older adults.

A) low conscientiousness and extraversion, and high neuroticism B) low religiosity, and high materialism and humanism C) high agreeableness, and low neuroticism and introversion D) high extroversion, and low openness and materialism

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74) A longitudinal study of more than 1,200 individuals across seven decades revealed that a higher score on the Big Five personality factor of _____ predicted a lower risk of earlier death from childhood through late adulthood.

A) agreeableness B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) extraversion

75)

Older adults characterized by _____ do not live as long as those who display more _____.

A) empathy; sympathy B) materialism; spiritualism C) negative affect; positive affect D) generosity; frugality

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76) According to a cross-sectional study on self-esteem, who among the following have the highest self-esteem?

A) adolescents B) young adults C) middle-aged adults D) the elderly

77) In one cross-sectional study of self-esteem (Robins & others, 2002), researchers studied more than 300,000 individuals from 9 to 90 years of age. Which of the following was among the findings?

A) Self-esteem was low in the twenties. B) The self-esteem of males was lower than the self-esteem of females in adulthood. C) Self-esteem dropped significantly between the ages of 50 and 60. D) The self-esteem of males and females converged in their seventies and eighties.

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78) Which of the following factors has been associated with low self-esteem in late adulthood?

A) lower cognitive skills B) empty nest syndrome C) fear of retirement D) deteriorating physical health

79)

Which of the following is true of self-esteem in older adults?

A) Being physically impaired is linked to low self-esteem. B) Being institutionalized is linked to high self-esteem. C) Having a cohabiting partner is linked to low self-esteem. D) Having a low religious commitment is linked to high self-esteem.

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80) According to recent research, which of the following is linked to high levels of selfcontrol?

A) lower physical activity B) poor cognitive performance C) lower levels of obesity D) higher levels of depression

81) In a cross-sectional study of individuals ranging in age from 13 to 90 years, researchers found that self-control was lowest in the _____ domain for individuals who were 60 to 90 years old.

A) physical B) social C) emotional D) familial

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82) In a cross-sectional study of individuals ranging in age from 13 to 90 years, researchers found that self-control was lowest in the _____ domain for individuals who were 13 to 18 years old.

A) physical B) social C) emotional D) sexual

83) Prejudice against others because of their age, especially prejudice against older adults, is known as

A) ageism. B) adultism. C) racism. D) adultcentrism.

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84) Older adults not being hired for new jobs, being eased out of old ones because they are perceived as too rigid or feeble-minded, and being eased out because they are not considered cost effective are examples of

A) eldercare. B) ageism. C) generational inequity. D) age incongruity.

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85) Considering the fact that many of the health problems of older adults are chronic rather than acute, which of the following is likely to be a concern about the medical system?

A) Medicare does not have special provisions for chronic illnesses. B) Costs of prescription drugs are still not subsidized for the elderly. C) The medical system is still based on a "cure" rather than a "care" model. D) Home visits are not emphasized over hospital stays.

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86) _____ illness is long-term, often lifelong, and requires long-term, if not lifelong, management.

A) Acute B) Chronic C) Terminal D) Debilitating

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87) _____ illness often follows a pattern of an acute period that may require hospitalization, followed by a longer period of remission, and then repetitions of this pattern.

A) Acute B) Chronic C) Terminal D) Debilitating

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88) _____ refers to the view that our aging society is being unfair to its younger members because older adults pile up advantages by receiving an inequitably large allocation of resources.

A) Social justice B) Reverse ageism C) Economic justice D) Generational inequity

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89) The _____ issue raises questions about whether the young should be required to pay for the old.

A) ageist culture B) generational equity C) social justice D) economic equity

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90)

In the context of economic security, which of the following is true regarding older adults?

A) Poverty is linked to a decrease in mental health problems in older adults. B) Low socioeconomic status is linked to decreased risk of earlier death in older adults. C) Poverty is linked to lower levels of physical fitness in older adults. D) Poverty rates among older adults belonging to ethnic minorities are lower than those for non-Latino Whites.

91) In the United States, the concern about whether the young should be required to pay for the old has especially increased with the enactment of the federal government's

A) Affordable Care Act. B) Pure Food and Drug Act. C) Patient Self-Determination Act. D) Patients Act.

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92) The _____ issue raises questions about whether the young should be required to pay for the old.

A) generational inequity B) nature versus nurture C) informed consent D) confidentiality

93) The _____ plays an increasingly important role in providing access to information and communication for older adults as well as younger adults and youth.

A) podcast B) television C) radio D) Internet

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94)

The _____ are the subgroup of older adults most likely to be living in poverty.

A) young-old B) middle-old C) old D) oldest-old

95)

Which of the following statements about the living arrangements of older adults is true?

A) More than two-thirds of women 75 years and older live alone. B) The older people become, the greater their likelihood of living alone. C) Less than half of older adults live with family members. D) Almost half of older adults are residents in institutions, such as hospitals, mental hospitals, and nursing homes.

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96)

Which of the following is linked to increased risk of earlier death in older adults?

A) low socioeconomic status B) high physical activity C) frequent travel D) delayed marriage

97) One stereotype of _____ is that they are often residents in institutions, such as hospitals, mental hospitals, and nursing homes.

A) adolescents B) older adults C) middle-aged adults D) younger adults

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98) In the context of the use of technology among older adults, which of the following statements is true?

A) Increasing numbers of older adults are giving up using e-mail to communicate. B) Older adults are the slowest-growing segment of Internet users. C) Older adults are more likely to have a computer in their home than younger adults are. D) Internet use by older adults reduces their likelihood of being depressed by one-third.

99) In 2013, 59 percent of U.S. adults over the age of 65 used the Internet. What was the share of older adults using the Internet in 2019?

A) 13 percent B) 73 percent C) 90 percent D) 98 percent

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100)

Which of the following is true of the use of technology use among older adults?

A) Older adults visit fewer websites than their younger counterparts. B) Older adults spend less money on the Internet than their younger counterparts. C) Increasing numbers of older adults use e-mail and smartphones to communicate. D) Older adults are especially interested in social media.

101)

Which of the following is referred to as the "final stage in the marriage process"?

A) the time between marriage and impending divorce B) the time when the last child leaves home C) the time from retirement until death D) the time when older parents move into their children's homes

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. Topic : Love and Marriage null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

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102) Sarah and Kent have always had a very traditional family structure. Kent worked outside the home, and Sarah was a homemaker. When Kent retires, which of the following situations is most likely to arise?

A) Sarah will have difficulty in keeping up with housework. B) Sarah will help more with yard work. C) Sarah will be delighted to have someone help her so that she can spend increasing amounts of time away from home. D) Sarah will become uneasy having Kent around the house all day.

103) Rahim retired from his job at the age of 67. He and his wife, Fathima, have been maintaining a traditional family structure throughout their marriage. While Rahim went for work, Fathima was a homemaker. After retiring from his job, Rahim was able to maintain marital happiness and led a peaceful life with Fathima. Which of the following was Rahim most likely to have engaged in after retirement?

A) He would have encouraged Fathima to look for a job. B) He would have started a new business. C) He would have engaged in volunteer work. D) He would have helped Fathima around the house.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology null : Difficulty Level: Hard Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 2.1: Use scientific reasoning to interpret psychological phenomena Bloom's : Analyze Topic : Adjustment to Retirement

104) During which stage in life are married individuals likely to find themselves having to care for a sick partner with a limiting health condition?

A) middle adulthood B) early adulthood C) emerging adulthood D) late adulthood

105) true?

In the context of cohabitation among older adults, which of the following statements is

A) In most cases, the health of couples who cohabit is better than the health of married couples. B) The number of cohabiting older adults is expected to decline in the coming years. C) In most cases, older adults cohabit more for companionship than for love. D) Cohabitation among older adults often results in marriage.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Cohabitation

106)

Which of the following is true of divorce or remarriage in older adults?

A) Women are more likely than men to remarry, thus removing themselves from the pool of divorced older adults. B) Rising divorce rates, increased longevity, and better health have led to an increase in remarriage among older adults. C) Due to their greater longevity, the majority of divorced older adults are men. D) Divorce is far less common among younger adults than older adults.

107)

_____ are more likely to provide support if their parents have a disability.

A) Middle-aged adults B) Adolescents C) Younger adults D) Emerging adults

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108) Researchers have found that relationships between aging parents and their children are characterized by

A) anger. B) ambivalence. C) apathy. D) abuse.

109)

Which of the following is a recent trend in grandparenting?

A) both grandparents moving in with parents to care for their grandchildren B) an increase in the number of grandparents becoming great-grandparents C) grandparents shifting away from the role of distant figures and toward the role of funseekers D) grandfathers assuming the role of raising grandchildren

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110) Alice, Jane, Lois, and Sandra have been friends since grade school. Over the years, they have supported each other and shared in each other's joys and sadness. Which model of social relations does this scenario represent?

A) the longitudinal model B) the cohort model C) the convoy model D) the network model

111) According to aging expert Laura Carstensen, who among the following tend to experience less intense posi-tive emotions with new friends and equal levels of positive emotions with established friends?

A) adolescents B) middle-aged adults C) younger adults D) older adults

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112) Older adults generally experience less stress and more pleasure in their social interactions with _____ than with _____ (Ng & others, 2020).

A) friends; family members B) family members; friends C) partners; friends D) partners; family members

113)

In older adults, a higher level of social support is related to

A) an early cognitive decline. B) lower levels of physical activity. C) a higher probability of being institutionalized. D) a lower probability of depression.

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114) Which of the following is likely the reason that older adults tend to report being less lonely than younger adults?

A) Younger adults tend to perceive time differently, influencing their definition of loneliness. B) Most older adults are in community homes, reducing their loneliness. C) Most older adults tend to reemploy themselves, reducing their loneliness. D) Older adults have more selective social networks and a greater acceptance of solitude.

115)

Which of the following is true of altruism and volunteering among adults?

A) Younger adults are more likely than any other group to volunteer more than 100 hours annually. B) A common perception is that older adults need to be given help rather than to give help themselves. C) Younger adults' strategies are more likely to be aimed at contributing to the public good, while older adults' strategies are more likely to focus on optimizing personal financial gain. D) Older adults who engage in organizational volunteering have a higher mortality risk than those who do not.

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116) Many ethnic minority workers never enjoy the Social Security and Medicare benefits to which their earnings contribute because

A) most of them do not qualify for those benefits. B) they die before reaching the age of eligibility for benefits. C) their contributions to the benefits are negligible. D) most are illegal immigrants.

117)

Identify the possible double jeopardy for elderly ethnic minority individuals.

A) sexism and chauvinism B) nepotism and egotism C) adultism and adultcentrism D) racism and ageism

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118)

Ageism leads to worse health outcomes, particularly in

A) less developed countries and among the less educated. B) more developed countries and among the more educated. C) more developed countries and among the less educated. D) less developed countries and among the more educated.

119) What is the triple jeopardy faced by African American and Latino women when it comes to income and financial levels of support in the elder years?

A) ageism, sexism, and racism B) Medicare, Medicaid, and welfare C) unemployment, poverty, and insufficient Medicare D) inadequate housing, job displacement, and lack of medical care

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120) Which of the following is an important factor in living the "good life" as an older adult in most cultures?

A) status B) political participation C) past experience D) health

121)

Respect for older adults is greater in _____ cultures than in _____ cultures.

A) socialistic; capitalistic B) spiritualistic; competitive C) collectivistic; individualistic D) religious; materialistic

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122) Which of the following factors is most likely to predict high status for older adults in a culture?

A) Age-related role changes involve reduced responsibility. B) Older individuals control key family/community resources. C) Nuclear families are the most common family arrangement in a culture. D) Older adults retire early, and the authority shifts to younger adults.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 123) The term for the process of looking back at one's life experiences, evaluating them, interpreting them, and often reinterpreting them is life _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Life Review

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124) The type of therapy that involves discussing past activities and experiences with another individual or group is _____ therapy. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Life Review

125) _____ in African American and Latino communities provide avenues for meaningful social participation, feelings of power, and a sense of internal satisfaction. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize how ethnicity, gender, and culture impact aging. Topic : Ethnicity

126) Three factors appear to be important in living the "good life" as older adults: health, kinship/support, and _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Learning Objective : Summarize how ethnicity, gender, and culture impact aging. Topic : Culture

127) What term refers to perceived control over the environment and confidence in one's ability to produce positive outcomes?

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128) Formerly, the later years of life were likely to consist of marriage for men. What did the later years of life likely to consist of for women? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. Topic : Love and Marriage Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

129)

Attachment _____ decreases with increasing age.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 130) Discuss Erikson's final stage of development.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Integrity versus Despair

131)

What does activity theory suggest for older adults?

132)

What is the relationship between gender and aging?

133) What are the two important classes of goals identified by socioemotional theory? How do they differ across different age periods?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Socioemotional Selectivity Theory

134) Describe seven factors that are most likely to predict high status for older adults in a culture.

135) According to Laura Carstensen, what are the challenges involved in the dramatic increase in life expectancy?

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136)

Discuss the Big Five personality factors that influence the mortality of older adults.

137) Explain in brief the impact of aging on self-esteem. What are the reasons for declining self-esteem in older adults?

138)

What are the typical effects of ageism?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Describe the relationship between personality, self and society in late adulthoo Topic : Social Support/Integration

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139)

What is the role of friendship in the lives of older adults?

140) Describe the changes that occur in a traditional couple during the final stage of the marriage process and how they adjust to these changes.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. Topic : Love and Marriage Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium

141) What is the role of gender in relationships involving older adult parents and their children?

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142)

Describe the influence of ethnicity in old age.

143) What are the different patterns of change experienced by older adults? Describe any two of them.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Learning Objective : Identify strategies for successful aging. Topic : Successful Aging

144)

What is the relationship between self-efficacy and successful aging?

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145)

What is the relationship between cohabitation and aging?

146)

What problems related to health care does an aging society produce?

147)

Describe two variations of reminiscence therapy.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Summarize the theories of socioemotional development and aging. null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand null : Difficulty Level: Medium Topic : Life Review

148) What is the name for the type of therapy that involves recalling the times one coped with stressful circumstances and analyzing what it took to adapt in those contexts?

149) What is the name of the social support model that says that individuals go through life embedded in a personal network of individuals to whom they give and from whom they receive social support?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Describe relationships in late adulthood. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Topic : Social Support/Integration

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Answer Key Test name: Ch19 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) C 77) D 78) D 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) B 88) D 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) D 99) B 100) C 101) C 102) D 103) D 104) D 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) B 109) B 110) C 111) D 112) A 113) D 114) D 115) B 116) B Version 1

117) D 118) A 119) A 120) D 121) C 122) B 123) review 124) reminiscence 125) Churches 126) security 127) self-efficacy 128) widowhood 129) anxiety 130)Integrity versus despair is Erikson's eighth and final stage of development, which individuals experience during late adulthood. This stage involves reflecting on the past and either piecing together a positive review or concluding that one's life has not been well spent. If the older adult has developed a positive outlook in each of the preceding periods, retrospective glances and reminiscences will reveal a picture of a life well spent, and the older adult will be satisfied (integrity). But if the older adult resolved one or more of the earlier stages in a negative way, retrospective glances about the total worth of his or her life might be negative (despair).

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131) Activity theory states that the more active and involved older adults are, the more likely they are to be satisfied with their lives. Researchers have found strong support for activity theory, beginning in the 1960s and continuing into the twenty-first century. These researchers have found that when older adults are active, energetic, and productive, they age more successfully and are happier than if they disengage from society. Activity theory suggests that many individuals will achieve greater life satisfaction if they continue their middle-adulthood roles into late adulthood. If these roles are stripped from them (as in early retirement), it is important for them to find substitute roles that keep them active and involved. 132)In a recent cross-sectional study of individuals from 12 to 80 years and older, men in their seventies were more likely than adolescents and younger men to endorse androgynous traits. Also, in this study, women in their eighties and older were less likely than younger and middle-aged women to endorse masculine and androgynous traits. In an even more recent study, among older adult men, those who were married were more likely to endorse stereotypically masculine traits but also to have higher androgyny scores than unmarried older men. A possible double jeopardy faces many women: the burden of both ageism and sex-ism. Not only is it important to be concerned about older women's double jeopardy of ageism and sexism, but special attention also needs to be devoted to female ethnic minority older adults. They face what could be described as triple jeopardy—ageism, sexism, and racism. Older women in ethnic minority groups have faced considerable stress in their lives. In dealing with this stress, they have shown remarkable adaptability, resilience, responsibility, and coping skills.

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133) Socioemotional theory suggests that there are two important classes of goals: (1) knowledge-related and (2) emotional. This theory emphasizes that the trajectory of motivation for knowledge-related goals starts relatively high in the early years of life, peaks in adolescence and early adulthood, and then declines in middle and late adulthood. The emotion trajectory is high during infancy and early childhood, declines from middle childhood through early adulthood, and increases in middle and late adulthood. One of the main reasons given for these changing trajectories in knowledge-related and emotion-related goals involves the perception of time. When time is perceived as open-ended, as it is when individuals are younger, people are more strongly motivated to pursue information, even at the cost of emotional satisfaction. But as older adults perceive that they have less time left in their lives, they are motivated to spend more time pursuing emotional satisfaction.

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134)In one view, seven factors are most likely to predict high status for older adults in a culture: • Older persons have valuable knowledge. • Older persons control key family/community resources. • Older persons are permitted to engage in useful and valued functions as long as possible. • There is role continuity throughout the life span. • Age-related role changes involve greater responsibility, authority, and advisory capacity. • The extended family is a common family arrangement in the culture, and the older person is integrated into the extended family. • In general, respect for older adults is greater in collectivistic cultures (such as China and Japan) than in individualistic cultures (such as the United States). However, some researchers are finding that this collectivistic/individualistic difference in respect for older adults is not as strong as it used to be, and that in some cases older adults in individual-istic cultures receive considerable respect. 135) According to Laura Carstensen, the remarkable increase in the number of people living to an old age has occurred in such a short time that science, technology, and behavioral challenges have not kept pace. She proposes that the challenge is to change a world constructed mainly for young people to a world that is more compatible and supportive for the increasing number of people living to 100 years and longer. She states that making this change would be no small feat. Parks, transportation systems, staircases, and even hospitals presume that the users have both strength and stamina; suburbs across the country are built for two parents and their young children, not single people, multiple generations or elderly people who are not able to drive.

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136)Researchers have found that some personality traits are associated with the mortality of older adults. One study revealed that the Big Five personality factor of conscientiousness predicted lower risk of earlier death from childhood through late adulthood. A higher level of conscientiousness has been linked to living a longer life than the other four factors. Affect and outlook on life are also linked to mortality in older adults. Older adults characterized by negative affect don't live as long as those who display more positive affect, and optimistic older adults who have a positive outlook on life live longer than their counterparts who are more pessimistic and have a negative outlook on life. 137) Studies indicate that self-esteem increases in the twenties, levels off in the thirties and forties, rises considerably in the fifties and sixties, and then drop significantly in the seventies and eighties. Throughout most of the adult years, the self-esteem of males is higher than the self-esteem of females. However, in the seventies and eighties, the self-esteem of males and females converge. Explanations for declining self-esteem in older adults include deteriorating physical health and negative societal attitudes toward older adults.

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138) Social participation by older adults is often discouraged by ageism, which is prejudice against others because of their age, especially prejudice against older adults. They are often perceived as incapable of thinking clearly, learning new things, enjoying sex, contributing to the community, or holding responsible jobs. Because of their age, older adults might not be hired for new jobs or might be eased out of old ones; they might be shunned socially; and they might be edged out of their family life. One study found that men were more likely to negatively stereotype older adults than were women. Research indicates that the most frequent form of ageism is disrespect for older adults, followed by assumptions about ailments or frailty caused by age. 139) In late adulthood, new friendships are less likely to be forged, although some older adults do seek out new friendships, especially following the death of a spouse. A recent study found that compared with younger adults, older adults reported fewer problems with friends, fewer negative friendship qualities, less frequent contact with friends, and more positive friendship qualities with a specific friend. In another study, adults who had close ties with friends were less likely to die across a seven-year age span. These findings were stronger for women than for men. People choose close friends over new friends as they grow older. And as long as they have several close people in their network, they seem content. Researchers have found that in comparison with younger adults, older adults tend to experience less intense posi-tive emotions with new friends and equal levels of positive emotions with established friends.

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140) In the traditional family, the husband works and the wife is a homemaker. After retirement, the husband may not know what to do with his time, and his wife may feel uneasy having him around the house so much of the day. In traditional families, both partners may need to move toward more expressive roles. The husband must adjust from being the provider outside of the home to being a helper around the house; the wife must change from being the only homemaker to being a partner who shares and delegates household duties. Marital happiness as an older adult is also affected by each partner's ability to deal with personal conflicts, including aging, illness, and the prospect of widowhood. In late adulthood, married individuals are more likely to find themselves having to care for a sick partner with a limiting health condition. The stress of caring for a spouse who has a chronic disease can place demands on intimacy. 141) Gender plays an important role in relationships involving older adult parents and their children. Adult daughters rather than adult sons are more likely to be involved in the lives of aging parents. Adult daughters are three times more likely than are adult sons to give parents assistance with daily living activities.

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142) Comparative information about African Americans, Latinos, and Whites indicates a possible double jeopardy for elderly ethnic minority individuals. They face problems related to both ageism and racism. Both the wealth and the health of ethnic minority older adults decrease more rapidly than for elderly non-Latino Whites. Older ethnic minority individuals are more likely to become ill but less likely to receive treatment. They also are more likely to have a history of less education, unemployment, worse housing conditions, and shorter life expectancies than their older non-Latino White counterparts. And many ethnic minority workers never enjoy the Social Security and Medicare benefits to which their earnings contribute, because they die before reaching the age of eligibility for benefits. 143)Older adults experience three patterns of change: normal aging, pathological aging, and successful aging. The most common pattern is normal aging, which characterizes most individuals. Their psychological functioning often peaks in early midlife, plateaus until the late fifties to early sixties, then modestly declines through the early eighties, although marked decline often occurs prior to death. Pathological aging characterizes indi-viduals who in late adulthood show greater than average decline. These individuals may have mild cognitive impairment in early old age, develop Alzheimer disease later, or have chronic disease that impairs their daily functioning. Successful aging characterizes individuals whose physical, cognitive, and socioemotional development is maintained longer than for most individuals and declines later than for most people.

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144) Successful aging involves perceived control over the environment. In recent years, the term "self-efficacy" has often been used to describe perceived control over the environment and confidence in one's ability to produce positive outcomes. Researchers have found that many older adults are quite effective in maintaining a sense of control and have a positive view of themselves. 145) An increasing number of older adults cohabit. In 1960, hardly any older adults cohabited. Since 2007, the number of cohabiting adults 50 years and older has increased dramatically. In 2016, 4 million adults 50 years and older were cohabiting, up from 2.3 million in 2007. It is expected that the number of cohabiting older adults will increase further as the large cohort of baby boomers continues to move through late adulthood, bringing their historically more nontraditional attitudes regarding love, sex, and relationships with them. In many cases, cohabiting is more for companionship than for love. In other cases, such as when one partner faces the potential for expensive care, a couple may decide to maintain their assets separately and thus not marry. One study found that older adults who cohabited had a more positive, stable rela-tionship than younger adults who cohabited, although older adults were less likely to have plans to marry their partner. 146) An aging society brings with it various problems involving health care. Escalating health-care costs become the focus of considerable concern. One factor that contributes to rising health-care costs is the increasing proportion of older adults in the population. Older adults have more illnesses, especially chronic diseases, than younger adults do. Older adults see doctors more often, are hospitalized more often, and have longer hospital stays.

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147) A variation of remi-niscence therapy, instrumental reminiscence therapy (recalling the times one coped with stressful circumstances and analyzing what it took to adapt in those contexts), has been used to improve the adaptive ability and resilience of older adults in coping with adverse situations. A recent study found that an instrumental reminiscence intervention improved the coping skills of older adults. Attachment-focused reminiscence therapy is another version of reminiscence therapy that has been used to reduce depressive symptoms, perceived stress, and emergency room visits in older African Americans. 148) This is known as instrumental reminiscence therapy. 149) This is known as the convoy model of social relations.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is true of the American attitude toward death?

A) Americans are conditioned from early in life to live as mere mortals. B) It is not uncommon for Americans to reach adulthood without having experienced the death of someone close. C) To live a full life and die with glory is the prevailing goal of the Americans. D) Americans do not use any symbols associated with death.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand Learning Objective : Describe the cultural and historical contexts of death and dying. Topic : Death System

Which of the following religions believes in reincarnation?

A) Orthodox Judaism B) Methodism C) Buddhism D) Roman Catholicism

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe the cultural and historical contexts of death and dying. Topic : Death System null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

In the Gond culture of India, death is believed to be caused by

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A) natural forces. B) an angry supreme being. C) the ill will of others in the community. D) magic and demons.

4) In the Gond culture of India, which of the following emotional reactions is most common in response to death?

A) peace B) acceptance C) denial D) anger

In the Tanala culture of Madagascar, death is believed to be caused by

A) natural forces. B) magic and demons. C) the ill will of others in the community. D) an evil spirit.

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In 1900, most people died

A) in a hospital, cared for by medical staff. B) in a nursing home. C) at home, cared for by their family. D) in hospice care.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe the cultural and historical contexts of death and dying. null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Topic : Historical Circumstances

Which of the following is true of the American attitude toward death?

A) Americans consider death of the biological body as the end of existence. B) Americans do not believe in a spiritual body that lives on after death. C) Belief in reincarnation is a defining aspect of the American belief about death. D) Americans are generally death avoiders and death deniers.

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8) Which of the following statements is true regarding the changing historical circumstances of death in the United States?

A) Life expectancy has decreased from 79 years for someone born in 1900 to 47 years for someone born today. B) The care of a dying older person has shifted away from the family. C) Today, death occurs most often among adolescents. D) Nowadays, greater numbers of older adults die in the care of their family.

9) Which of the following statements is true regarding the care of a dying older person in the United States today, in contrast with circumstances in 1900?

A) Today, the care of a dying older person has shifted to the family members, whereas in 1900, hospice was the most common choice. B) Today, older people choose to die at home surrounded by friends and family, whereas in 1900, most people chose to die in nursing homes. C) Exposure to death and its painful surroundings today has been minimized. D) Most of the dying today are cared for by distant relatives.

Question Details null : APA LO: 1.3: Describe applications of psychology Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe the cultural and historical contexts of death and dying. Topic : Historical Circumstances null : Difficulty Level: Hard Bloom's : Analyze

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10)

Which of the following was considered to be a clear sign of death 30 years ago?

A) a flat EEG reading for a specified period of time B) the end of certain biological functions such as breathing C) the end of electrical activity in the brain D) the lack of response to sensory stimuli

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11) of

A flat EEG (electroencephalogram) recording for a specified period of time is a criterion

A) rigor mortis. B) euthanasia. C) brain death. D) paralysis.

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate issues involved in decisions about death. Topic : Issues in Determining Death

12)

Which of the following was considered to be a clear sign of death in the past?

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A) a flat EEG (electroencephalogram) B) moderate brain stem function C) lack of higher cortical brain function D) rigor mortis

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate issues involved in decisions about death. Topic : Issues in Determining Death

13)

Brain death occurs when

A) all electrical activity of the brain has ceased for a specified period of time. B) a person remains unconscious for a specified period of time. C) only the lower regions of the brain stop functioning. D) the body loses the ability to breathe on its own.

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14) Meghan is interning as a neurosurgeon in a children's hospital. During one of her hospital visits, a child is brought into the emergency trauma center. A senior doctor asks Meghan to examine the child and note the child's vital statistics. Meghan notices that the EEG (electroencephalogram) reading has been showing a flat line for a long time. The flat EEG reading is a criterion of

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A) rigor mortis. B) concussion. C) brain death. D) epileptic seizure.

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15)

The _____ portions of the brain often die sooner than the _____ portions.

A) lower; higher B) lower; middle C) higher; lower D) middle; lower

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16) If the cortical death definition were adopted, physicians could claim a person is dead when his or her _____ brain area is no longer functioning.

A) lower B) middle C) higher D) entire

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17) Naomi and Carla are first-year medical students. They are currently learning about the brain and its functions. Naomi is of the opinion that the cortical death definition should be adopted as the criterion for death. However, Carla disagrees with her. Which of the following statements best explains why Carla disagrees with Naomi?

A) The cortical function areas of the brain monitor the heartbeat and respiration. If the cortical death definition were adopted, physicians could declare a person dead as soon as the heartbeat and respiration stop. B) The functions one associates with being human, such as intelligence and personality, are located in the lower brain stem areas. Physicians believe that when these functions are lost, the "human being" is no longer alive. C) If the cortical death definition were adopted, physicians could declare that a person is dead when there is no cortical functioning in that person, even though the lower brain stem is functioning. D) Individuals whose higher brain areas have died will not be able to breathe and have a heartbeat.

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18) Which of the following organizations created a legal document that reflects a patient's advance care planning?

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A) Death Wish Commune B) Choice in Dying C) Euthanasia Undertaking D) Death Drive Pact

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19)

A(n) _____ is a legal document that reflects the patient's advance care planning.

A) last request B) dying will C) living will D) easy death order

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20)

An advance directive, such as a living will, must be signed when

A) at least two medical professionals are present. B) a doctor and a lawyer are present. C) an individual is told he or she has a life-threatening condition. D) an individual is able to think clearly.

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21) Laws in _____ states (in the United States) accept advance directives/living wills as reflecting an individual's wishes.

A) 40 B) 45 C) 48 D) 50

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22)

Which of the following is true regarding living wills?

A) A living will is a legally binding document that comes into effect when the individual who signed the document passes away. B) Only the terminally ill can write a living will. C) The next of kin can write a living will for a patient if the patient is in a coma. D) A living will is an advance directive that is accepted by laws in all 50 states in the United States.

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23) Which of the following is true of the document known as Physician Orders for LifeSustaining Treatment (POLST)?

A) POLST involves a health-care professional and a patient or surrogate conferring to determine and state the wishes of the patient. B) POLST comes into effect after a patient who signed the document passes away. C) As of 2019, POLST is accepted in all 50 states in the United States. D) POLST was initiated many years ago and hence is not as specific as some of the more recent advance directives.

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24)

Euthanasia is otherwise known as "_____."

A) easy death B) death wish C) involuntary death D) painless death

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25) Angelique is in the final stage of terminal breast cancer. Her latest reports indicate that the cancer cells have spread to her lungs and other organs. She knows that she does not have a chance to fight this battle and hence accepts the fact that she will die in a couple of weeks. She requests her doctor to end her life painlessly through medication, as she is not able to bear the pain. Which of the following acts is Angelique requesting her doctor to perform?

A) aphasia B) asphyxia C) euthanasia D) dysthanasia

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26)

Sometimes euthanasia is called

A) "honor killing." B) "mercy killing." C) "quick death." D) "violent death."

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27)

Turning off a respirator or a heart-lung machine is an example of _____ euthanasia.

A) active B) deliberate C) passive D) sustained

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28) Basilio, a cocaine addict, sustained severe and irreversible brain damage because of an accidental overdose of drugs. After spending weeks in the hospital, he did not show any signs of improvement. His wife and children then decided to request that hospital authorities remove his life-support system in order to allow Basilio to die. In this scenario, the withholding of the lifesupport system is an example of _____ euthanasia.

A) active B) passive C) natural D) culturally acceptable

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29) Damon was in a car accident four years ago and has been terminally ill since then. He suffered multiple fractures to his skull that caused him to slip into a coma. He has been in a vegetative state for over three years now. His family finally agrees to end his suffering by turning off his respirator. In this scenario, the withholding of the respirator is an example of _____ euthanasia.

A) passive B) active C) natural D) acceptable

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30)

Which of the following is an example of active euthanasia?

A) injecting a lethal dose of a drug into a terminally ill patient B) turning off the respirator of a comatose patient C) removing a heart-lung machine from an individual in a vegetative state D) stopping the supply of antibiotics to a person with a viral infection

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31) Terry is in the final stages of terminal skin cancer, a condition that causes her severe pain and discomfort. At Terry's insistence and her family's approval, her doctor agrees to end her pain by administering a lethal dose of a drug. This is an example of _____ euthanasia.

A) passive B) universally legal C) natural D) active

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32) What do studies say of the American attitude toward euthanasia after the Terri Schiavo case?

A) The general public and experts now entirely agree on the precise boundaries of implementing the practice of euthanasia. B) The general population favors active euthanasia. C) There is a trend toward accepting passive euthanasia in cases of terminally ill patients. D) Use of the inflammatory argument equating the practice of euthanasia with suicide has increased substantially.

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33)

In which of the following states is assisted suicide NOT considered a crime?

A) Nevada B) Texas C) Washington D) New York

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34)

Assisted suicide was most recently approved in the state of

A) California. B) Florida. C) New York. D) New Jersey.

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35)

In U.S. states where assisted suicide is illegal, the crime would most likely be treated as

A) manslaughter or a felony. B) not significant. C) too difficult to prosecute. D) equivalent to suicide.

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36)

Which of the following is true regarding assisted suicide?

A) Canada was the first country to give legal status to assisted suicide. B) An increasing number of states now allow assisted suicide in the U.S. C) The U.S. government has an official policy on assisted suicide that helps decide the legality of assisted suicide in a given state. D) Assisted suicide is legal in Europe, except in Switzerland, Luxemburg, and Belgium.

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37)

Assisted suicide is legal in several countries, including

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A) the Netherlands and Belgium. B) Africa and India. C) Canada and Sweden. D) China and Japan.

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38) Mike is an American citizen residing in Colorado. He is diagnosed with stage 4 lung cancer. He decides to undergo chemotherapy, but his doctor informs him that there is only a slim chance of any improvement in his condition. The doctor also tells him that he has only a few weeks to live. Suffering from deep pain and discomfort, Mike loses the hope to live. He then requests his doctor to provide a lethal injection that can be self-administered. After consulting his family and completing the paperwork, he self-administers the injection and passes away peacefully. Which of the following statements is true of this scenario?

A) This is a case of active euthanasia. B) This is a case of passive euthanasia. C) This is a case of assisted suicide. D) This is a case of involuntary manslaughter.

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39)

Which of the following is true regarding care for dying individuals?

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A) Many health-care professionals have received little training for providing adequate end-of-life care or understanding its importance. B) In every case, doctors usually provide ample information to the dying individuals about how long they are likely to live. C) Scientific advances have always made dying easier by hardly delaying the inevitable. D) Care providers are increasingly losing interest in helping individuals experience a "good death."

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40)

Which of the following does a "good death" involve?

A) avoiding the fact that death is imminent B) dying in a hospital away from family and friends C) religious or community death rites D) appropriate medical care

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41) James is suffering from liver cancer and has been informed by his doctor that he has only a few weeks left to live. He is not able to cope with the pain and is also aware that there is no medication to treat his condition at this stage. Which of the following options will James most likely choose if he wishes to make the end of his life as free from pain, anxiety, and depression as possible?

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A) asylum B) hospital stay C) hospice D) compassionate care

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42) The type of care that is designed to reduce pain and suffering and help individuals die with dignity is known as _____ care.

A) curative B) palliative C) terminal D) compassionate

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43)

Which of the following is true of hospice care?

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A) Hospice care emphasizes the need to limit the administration of painkillers to terminally ill patients. B) Hospice care mainly emphasizes efforts to cure an illness. C) Hospice care focuses on efforts to prolong life. D) Hospice care emphasizes palliative care.

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44) Martha, who is 80 years old, has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. Over the past few weeks, her pain has increased tremendously. Her doctor is trying his best to cure her illness, but the cancer cells have spread, and chemotherapy is taking a toll on Martha's overall health. Considering her age, Martha is reluctant to be admitted to the hospital for long, as she wants to die peacefully, surrounded by her family. She has been advised by her family to consider hospice, as it would

A) work to cure her illness and prolong her life. B) make the end of her life as free from pain and anxiety as possible. C) emphasize death as a process that takes place over years and even decades. D) convince her to avoid the truth that her death is imminent.

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45) Wilma is considering hospice care for her elderly father. She reaches out to a few hospice care agencies to learn more about. She is aware that the idea behind hospice is to make the end of life for a patient as free from pain, anxiety, and depression as possible, rather than to find a cure for an illness. The agencies inform her about another important purpose of hospice:

A) to eliminate Americans' fear of death. B) to provide high-quality medical intervention in a homelike setting. C) to help dying patients face death with dignity. D) to reduce wasteful expenditures on aggressive medical treatments for patients with little hope of survival.

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46)

Which of the following individuals would most likely be considered for hospice care?

A) Monica, who suffers from terminal cancer and has only 2 or 3 months to live B) Brad, who was recently diagnosed with AIDS and has begun treatment for his condition C) Martha, who suffers from high cholesterol levels that have led to cardiovascular disease D) Nigel, who has had a genetic disorder from birth and hence needs special attention at home and school

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47)

Hospice advocates emphasize

A) that it is possible to limit the administration of pain medication and prevent addiction. B) finding new treatments for many incurable diseases. C) finding a cure for all dying individuals. D) the advantages of controlling pain for dying individuals.

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48)

For hospice services to be covered by Medicare, a patient must be

A) diagnosed with a curable illness such as a heart problem. B) deemed by a physician to have six months or fewer to live. C) deemed by a physician to have between one and two years to live. D) suffering from a nonfatal condition.

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49)

Currently, in the United States, approximately 90 percent of hospice care is provided in

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A) special hospital units. B) nursing homes. C) patients' homes. D) free-standing hospice facilities in the community.

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50)

Which of the following statements about the causes of death is true?

A) Compared with in adolescence, death in childhood is more likely to occur because of motor vehicle accidents, suicide, or homicide. B) Major illnesses that cause death in children are heart disease, cancer, and birth defects. C) Younger adults are most likely to die from chronic ailments such as heart disease and cancer. D) The number of deaths caused by sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is usually the lowest in infancy.

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51)

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) occurs when an infant

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A) suffers severe neurological injuries that eventually result in death. B) contracts a virulent salmonella infection. C) dies from septic intravenous respiratory failure. D) stops breathing, usually during the night, and dies without apparent cause.

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52) Three-month-old Marco has died unexpectedly while sleeping in his crib during the night. He seemed healthy at birth, and his doctor did not detect any major health issues during his regular checkup two weeks ago. The doctor concludes that Marco had stopped breathing during the night and died with no apparent cause. Which of the following is mostly likely the reason for Marco's death?

A) anorexia B) Down syndrome C) sudden arrhythmic death syndrome D) sudden infant death syndrome

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53)

What is the leading cause of infant death in the United States?

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A) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) B) accidents C) child abuse D) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

54) Kim is having difficulty coping with the death of her baby, who appeared healthy at birth but stopped breathing and died with no apparent cause within four days. The doctor who attends to her baby informs her that her baby died in his sleep during the night. He also tells Kim that the reason for the baby's death is unknown. The death is most likely to be attributed to which of the following?

A) asthma B) sudden infant death syndrome C) sudden arrhythmic death syndrome D) pneumonia

55) At which age do infants have the highest risk of dying from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

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A) 2 to 4 months of age B) 5 to 6 months of age C) 7 to 9 months of age D) 10 to 12 months of age

56)

Most deaths that occur during adolescence are caused by suicide, homicide, and

A) cancer. B) motor vehicle accidents. C) heart disease. D) genetic disorders.

57)

Older adults are more likely to die from

A) autoimmune diseases. B) genetic disorders. C) motor vehicle accidents. D) chronic ailments.

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58) In a recent study on children's conceptions of death, it was concluded that children as early as _____ of age understand the irreversibility of death and that it involves the cessation of mental and physical functioning.

A) 1 to 2 years B) 4 to 5 years C) 6 to 7 years D) 9 to 10 years

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59) true?

Which of the following statements about young children and their perception of death is

A) Children’s views of death and their experiences with death seldom vary with the contexts and cultures in which they grow up. B) A recent study found that as early as 2 to 3 years of age, many young children understand the irreversibility of death and that it involves the cessation of mental and physical functioning. C) For some children, a parent’s death can be devastating and result in a hypersensitivity about death, including a fear of losing others close to the child. D) American children are more exposed to death than children in other cultures.

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60) Most psychologists emphasize that _____ is the best strategy in discussing death with children.

A) honesty B) evasion C) lying D) distraction

61) Seven-year-old Matthew's mother met with an accident recently and passed away. Matthew has started asking his father about his mother’s whereabouts, and he cries for her all the time. Matthew's father is trying his best to pacify him with toys and other gifts, but he knows that sooner or later he must deal with this situation. Which of the following is the best strategy for dealing with Matthew’s questions?

A) The father should evade Matthew's questions for as long as possible. B) The father should treat the topic of the mother’s death as unmentionable. C) The father should be honest about the mother's death. D) The father should distract Matthew with other pursuits.

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62) Four-year-old Rebecca's grandfather died a few weeks ago. Rebecca was very fond of him and would wait for him to visit her house every weekend. Now that it has been a few weeks since he last visited, Rebecca has been asking her mother why her grandfather has not come over to visit her. Bearing in mind that Rebecca is only a child, her mother should

A) reassure Rebecca that her grandfather will visit her every night in her dreams. B) try to divert Rebecca's attention and avoid questions related to his death. C) explain that her grandfather has gone on a very long trip and will not be coming over anymore. D) explain as simply as possible that her grandfather died, and answer any questions Rebecca has about his death.

63) Cindy's mother passes away suddenly because of a heart attack. Cindy now wants to explain the concept of death to her four-year-old twins, as she is sure that they will ask for their grandmother. Considering their age, which of the following should Cindy mention when communicating her message to her children?

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A) "Death is final and irreversible." B) "All living things eventually die, and so will you." C) "Death is a physical and biological process." D) "You are loved and will not be abandoned."

64) Angeline's husband passes away in a car accident. Angeline's son, who is in high school, is deeply upset and refuses to speak to anyone. Angeline tries her best to console him and also gives him time to overcome his grief. Considering his age and the current situation, which of the following reactions can Angeline most likely expect from him?

A) He will tend to show anger about death. B) He will develop abstract conceptions of death. C) He will seek reassurance from Angeline that he will be loved even after his father's death. D) He will describe death as a painless ending of the life a person.

65) Middle-aged adults _____ than do young adults or older adults (Kalish & Reynolds, 1976).

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A) fear death more B) talk about death more C) think about death more D) accept death more readily

66) Which of the following is true of attitudes toward death among older adults and younger adults?

A) Because younger adults lack any anticipation, death is usually emotionally less painful to them. B) Older adults, who are more likely to have children who need to be guided to maturity than younger adults, cannot accept death. C) Older adults are less likely to have unfinished business than are younger adults; hence, they are more likely to cope with death better than younger adults. D) Young adults think more about death and talk more about it than older adults.

67)

According to Kübler-Ross, which of the following is the first stage of dying?

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A) denial and isolation B) bargaining C) acceptance D) depression

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68) "No, it can't be me. It's not possible," thinks Clara when she hears the news of her terminal illness. In this scenario, Clara is in which of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying?

A) acceptance B) bargaining C) denial and isolation D) depression

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69) Myette's doctor tells her that she has breast cancer and that her tests show that the cancer has spread to her lungs, liver, and other vital organs. Myette says, "I don't think I have cancer. I feel great. The lab obviously has my test results mixed up with someone else's. I'm still young and have so many more years to live." In the context of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying, Myette is in the stage referred to as

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A) anger. B) denial and isolation. C) bargaining. D) depression and acceptance.

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70)

According to Kübler-Ross, which of the following is the second stage of dying?

A) denial and isolation B) bargaining C) acceptance D) anger

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71) In the context of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying, in the _____ stage, the dying person recognizes that denial can no longer be maintained.

A) anger B) bargaining C) acceptance D) isolation

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72) Rueben has been diagnosed with lung cancer and has been told by his doctor that he has only a few more weeks to live. He is shocked, as he thought his symptoms were merely because of chest congestion and that they were not too serious. After speaking with the doctor, he comes to recognize that his death is imminent and there is nothing he can do about it. He thinks that it is unfair because he has never smoked a cigarette all his life. He starts questioning himself and his loved ones: "Why me?" In the context of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying, which stage is most likely exemplified in this scenario?

A) acceptance B) denial C) bargaining D) anger

73) According to Kübler-Ross, during the _____ stage of dying, the realization of loss is great, and those who symbolize life, energy, and competent functioning are especially salient targets of the dying person's resentment and jealousy.

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A) bargaining B) anger C) depression D) acceptance

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74)

Which of the following is Kübler-Ross' third stage of dying?

A) denial and isolation B) acceptance C) bargaining D) anger

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75) According to Kübler-Ross, _____ is the stage of dying in which a person develops the hope that death can somehow be postponed or delayed.

A) bargaining B) acceptance C) depression D) anger

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

76) Ada knows that she has liver cancer and that she will not live much longer. Based on her mother's advice, she joins a prayer group and begins attending church regularly. In her prayers, she asks God to let her live one more year and promises God that she will set everything right with her family and loved ones. In the context of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying, Ada is most likely in the _____ stage.

A) bargaining B) denial C) anger D) acceptance

77) Josue has incurable cancer. However, he promises to lead a reformed life dedicated to God if God spares his life. In this scenario, Josue is in which of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying?

A) denial B) hope C) bargaining D) acceptance

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78)

Which of the following is Kübler-Ross' fourth stage of dying?

A) depression B) acceptance C) bargaining D) anger

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

79) In the context of Kübler-Ross' stages of dying, after accepting the certainty of death, a period of _____ or preparatory grief may appear.

A) anger B) acceptance C) bargaining D) depression

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

80) Irene, a terminally ill cancer patient, has finally accepted the certainty of her death. Now, she refuses to have any visitors in her hospital room and spends most of her time crying and grieving. In this scenario, Irene is most likely in which of the following stages of dying?

A) anger B) acceptance C) bargaining D) depression

81)

Kübler-Ross believed that when a person is dying of a terminal illness, depression is

A) a temporary phase that friends and family should help the person through as quickly as possible. B) the first phase a person goes through when he or she learns that death is imminent. C) part of the normal process of detaching the self from love objects. D) an uncommon reaction that signals that the person needs professional counseling to cope with death.

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82)

Which of the following is Kübler-Ross' fifth stage of dying?

A) depression B) acceptance C) bargaining D) anger

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

83)

Kübler-Ross describes the _____ stage as the end of the dying struggle.

A) anger B) acceptance C) bargaining D) depression

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

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84)

Which of the following is an accurate criticism of Kübler-Ross' theory of dying?

A) She underestimated the amount of time people stay in the anger stage. B) She did not consider that men and women go through each stage differently. C) She did not demonstrate the existence of the five-stage sequence. D) She ignored the fact that most people do not realize they are dying.

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85)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the death experience?

A) Studies have found that educating dying people about Kübler-Ross' stages help them overcome depression. B) Only people with terminal illnesses are benefited by disconnecting the self from love objects. C) Studies have found that spirituality helps buffer dying individuals from severe depression. D) Involvement of community organizations helps minimize the pain and depression faced by dying individuals.

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86)

Which of the following can be the most useful benefit of denying one's imminent death?

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A) Denial allows the person to fully address the issue of death. B) Denial helps shield family members from negative feelings. C) Denial encourages the person to further develop his or her understanding of what will happen after death. D) Denial can help insulate the dying person from coping with intense feelings of anger.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Perceived Control and Denial

87) _____ can be used to avoid the destructive impact of shock by delaying the necessity of dealing with one's death.

A) Acceptance B) Denial C) Anger D) Depression

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88)

Which of the following statements about the contexts in which people die is true?

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A) For many individuals, regardless of the time left before death, the context in which they die is of hardly any importance. B) Individuals who are facing death worry about the competency of caregivers. C) There has been a huge decline in the number of dying individuals who chose to die in the humane atmosphere of a hospice. D) Individuals who are facing death are carefree about the availability of medical treatment if they remain at home.

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89) Identify a true statement about the trends in the contexts in which people choose to die in the United States.

A) Less than 20 percent of Americans choose to die in hospitals. B) An increasing number of people choose to die in the humane atmosphere of a hospice. C) Individuals typically prefer to die in hospitals than in their homes. D) More than 80 percent of Americans choose to die in nursing homes.

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90) According to several studies on the contexts in which people die, most individuals say they would rather die

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A) in a hospice. B) in a nursing home. C) in a hospital. D) at home.

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91)

Which of the following is an advantage of dying individuals knowing that they are dying?

A) They can seek more aggressive medical interventions. B) They can move through the stages of dying more quickly. C) They can construct more effective means of denying death. D) They can close their lives in a way that is consistent with their own ideas about proper dying.

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92)

Most psychologists believe that it is best for dying individuals to

A) be unaware of their condition. B) limit their interaction with others. C) know that they are dying. D) distance themselves from family and friends.

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93) _____ is the emotional numbness, disbelief, separation anxiety, despair, sadness, and loneliness that accompany the loss of a loved one.

A) Grief B) Anger C) Obsession D) Denial

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94)

Which of the following is an effective strategy for communicating with a dying person?

A) Discourage the dying person from expressing any form of guilt or anger. B) Insist that the dying person feel acceptance about death even if the dying person wants to deny the reality of the situation. C) Encourage the dying person to express feelings, but discourage the dying person from reminiscing. D) Eliminate distraction—for example, ask the dying person if it is okay to turn off the TV.

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95)

An intermittent, recurrent wish or need to recover the deceased person is known as

A) grief. B) pining. C) mourning. D) obsession.

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96) Pining for the lost person is one important dimension of grieving. Which of the following is another?

A) depression B) insomnia C) separation anxiety D) death wish

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97)

Which of the following most resembles the grieving process?

A) a year-long period of major depression B) a roller coaster ride of emotions C) an orderly progression of stages D) a period of negative feelings that lasts around three months

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Grieving

98) Jamie lost his wife many years ago. He is still experiencing enduring despair a year after her death. This type of grief is considered _____ grief.

A) depressive B) extended C) abnormal D) prolonged

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99)

Prolonged grief disorder is also known as _____ grief.

A) depressive B) complicated C) abnormal D) extended

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100) _____ describes an individual’s grief over a deceased person that is a socially ambiguous loss and cannot be openly mourned or supported.

A) Complicated grief B) Prolonged grief C) Extended grief D) Disenfranchised grief

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101) When Kendall was in college, she discovered that she was pregnant. Since she was not ready to have a baby at that age, she went through a medical abortion. Following the procedure, Kendall felt very low and upset, and she could not grieve openly, as she wanted to keep her pregnancy a secret from everyone. Years later when she had a miscarriage, she started grieving for the baby she lost and for the baby she had aborted. Identify the type of grief Kendall is displaying.

A) complicated grief B) prolonged grief C) extended grief D) disenfranchised grief

102) The Family Bereavement Program has resulted in _____ bereaved young adults and their parents.

A) fewer mental health problems and less service use by B) no decline in mental health problems, but more service use by C) a slight increase in mental health problems, but less service use by D) a decline in mental health problems and in obesity among

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103) Among family caregivers of terminally ill patients, a study recently showed, prolonged grief often precedes the onset of A) major depressive disorder. B) neurosis. C) bipolar disorder. D) Parkinson disease.

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104) Which of the following is one of the main dimensions of the dual-process model of coping with bereavement?

A) loss-oriented stressors B) relapse-oriented uplifts C) depression-oriented stressors D) denial-oriented traumas

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Forms of Mourning

105) Which of the following statements about the dual-process model of coping with bereavement is true?

A) Loss-oriented stressors exclude any positive or negative reappraisal of the loss. B) Restoration usually shatters assumptions about the world and one’s own place in it. C) Restoration-oriented stressors are one of the key dimensions of the dual-process model. D) Coping with loss and engaging in restoration can occur only separately.

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106)

A changing identity, such as from "wife" to "widow," is an example of

A) a loss-oriented stressor. B) a restoration-oriented stressor. C) denial of grief. D) complicated grief.

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107) After her husband's death, Lorna had to start dealing with her finances. She has had to learn to balance a checkbook and pay the bills—things that her husband always did when he was alive. According to the dual-process model of coping with bereavement, Lorna is experiencing

A) restoration-oriented stressors. B) loss-oriented stressors. C) complicated grief. D) disenfranchised grief.

108) In the dual-process model of coping with bereavement, coping with loss and engaging in restoration can occur

A) separately. B) consecutively. C) only several years after a death. D) concurrently.

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109) A recent research review (Fiore, 2020) concluded that the _____ provides an accurate representation of the bereavement experience.

A) dual-process model B) cognitive functions model C) Family Bereavement Program D) concept of prolonged grief disorder

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110)

Deaths that are sudden, violent, or traumatic are likely to

A) produce less intense feelings in survivors than if the person died of a long illness. B) lead to a faster grieving process for the survivors than if the person died of a long illness. C) produce more intense feelings in survivors than if the person died of a long illness. D) be experienced by survivors in much the same way as if the person died of a long illness.

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111) Delilah lost her husband Hendrick in a highway accident. Being just three years into marriage, she was devastated. Four months later, she experienced problems such as intrusive thoughts, flashbacks, nightmares, sleep disturbance, and problems in concentrating. This description suggests that Delilah was experiencing

A) post-traumatic stress disorder symptoms. B) restoration-oriented stress. C) post-traumatic embitterment disorder. D) separation anxiety.

112)

In general, maintenance of ties with the deceased is an accepted practice

A) in Japan. B) among the Hopi of Arizona. C) in Bali. D) in the United States.

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113)

_____, the deceased are forgotten as quickly as possible, and life is carried on as usual.

A) Among the Hopi of Arizona B) Among Muslim communities in Egypt C) In Japan D) In Israel

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114)

Which of the following statements about cultural approaches to grieving is true?

A) Among the Hopi of Arizona, the bereaved are encouraged to dwell at length on their grief, surrounded by others who relate similarly tragic accounts and express their own sorrow. B) In Bali, the bereaved are encouraged to laugh and be joyful. C) In the United States, maintenance of ties with the deceased is accepted and sustained in religious rituals. D) In Japan, the program of mourning is divided into graduated time periods, each with its appropriate practices.

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115) In one study of the bereavement process (Kim, 2009), finding meaning in the death of a spouse was linked to

A) a higher level of denial during bereavement. B) a higher level of fear during bereavement. C) a lower level of acceptance during bereavement. D) a lower level of anger during bereavement.

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116) A study of more than 1,000 college students (Currier, Holland, & Neimeyer, 2006) found that _____ was/were an important factor in their grieving of a violent loss by accident, homicide, or suicide.

A) making sense B) denial and isolation C) bargaining D) perceived control

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117) Which of the following is true of reactions of widowed individuals following the death of a spouse?

A) Most tend to get back to normal life after a brief grieving period. B) They are more likely to intensify their religious and spiritual beliefs. C) They are typically keen to get back into marital relations as early as possible. D) Most experience prolonged grief periods and develop depressive symptoms.

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Losing a Life Partner

118) In a study of surviving spouses (Carr, 2020), widows were found to be more likely than widowers to use all of the following, EXCEPT

A) positive reframing. B) remarrying. C) turning to God for strength. D) active distraction.

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119)

Which of the following is true regarding the popularity of cremation?

A) Cremation is more popular in the United States than in the rest of North America. B) Cremation is more popular in the Pacific region of the United States than in the South. C) Worldwide, cremation is least popular in Japan and other Asian countries. D) In the United States, the percentage of deaths followed by cremation has significantly declined.

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120)

In which of the following countries is cremation most popular?

A) the United States B) Mexico C) Canada D) Japan

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121) Which of the following is true regarding criticisms of the funeral industry in the United States?

A) Critics claim that funerals tend to push surviving family members into depression and prolonged grief. B) Critics claim that funerals are not a part of the American culture, and people should avoid them. C) Critics claim that funeral directors are just trying to make money and that embalming is grotesque. D) Critics claim that funerals seldom provide a form of closure to the relationship with the deceased.

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122) Traditional Amish and Jewish cultures are similar in how they cope with death in that they both

A) provide a lot of community support for the family over several months. B) have elaborate funeral ceremonies in church to symbolize the last passage from Earth. C) believe that grief is stronger for the whole community than for the individual family. D) expect families to unite and cope together with only minimal support or interference from the rest of the community.

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123)

In Judaism, _____ refers to the period between death and burial.

A) sheloshim B) avelut C) aninut D) shivah

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124) Aninut,avelut, andshivah are all parts of the grieving process for people in the _____ community.

A) Amish B) Jewish C) Muslim D) Protestant

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125) as

In the Jewish tradition, the 30-day period following the burial, including shivah, is known

A) rendering. B) sheloshim. C) aninut. D) avelut.

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126) In the Jewish community, the members of a grieving family all walk together for a short distance to symbolize their

A) common loss. B) unity in grief. C) return to society. D) community unity.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Forms of Mourning

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 127) Who was the theorist (last name only) who emphasized that components comprising the death system in any culture are people, places or contexts, times, objects, and symbols? Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation Learning Objective : Describe the cultural and historical contexts of death and dying. Topic : Death System null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy

128) The term for the neurological definition of death which states that death is indicated by no electrical activity in the brain for a specified period of time is _____ death. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate issues involved in decisions about death. Topic : Issues in Determining Death

129) The term for death induced deliberately for a person suffering from an incurable disease or severe disabilities by injecting a lethal dose of a drug is active _____.

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate issues involved in decisions about death. Topic : Advance Care Planning

130) A program committed to making the end of life of a dying individual as free from pain, anxiety, and depression as possible is known as _____. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Evaluate issues involved in decisions about death. Topic : Care for Dying Individuals

131) When an individual's grief over a deceased person involves a socially ambiguous loss that can't be openly mourned or supported, it is known as _____ grief. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Grieving

132) The model of coping with bereavement that emphasizes oscillation between loss-oriented stressors and restoration-oriented stressors is known as the _____ model. Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Forms of Mourning

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133)

In the Jewish tradition, what is the term for the time between death and burial?

Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Forms of Mourning

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 134) Describe the components of the death system according to Robert Kastenbaum.

135)

Discuss the definition ofbrain death and the criteria involved in its determination.

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136)

Defineeuthanasia. Describe the two types of euthanasia.

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137)

What constitutes a "good death"? What are the criticisms of the "good death" concept?

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138)

Definehospice, and explain its focus.

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139)

Describe how adults cope with death.

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140) Describe Kübler-Ross' first stage of dying. What are the criticisms of Kübler-Ross' approach?

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Kubler-Ross' Stages of Dying

141)

How does denial impact individuals' adaptation to approaching death?

Question Details null : Difficulty Level: Medium Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.2: Develop a working knowledge of psychology's content domains Bloom's : Understand Learning Objective : Explain the psychological aspects involved in facing one's own death and the con Topic : Perceived Control and Denial

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142) Define grief and discuss its major dimensions. Differentiate between prolonged grief and disenfranchised grief.

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143) At 2 days old, Amy passed away in her sleep, even though she did not show any significant health issues at birth. The doctor explained to Amy's parents that she stopped breathing during the night and died without apparent cause. What term is used to refer to the cause of death in this scenario?

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144) What is the term for the type of grief reaction that involves enduring despair and which remains unresolved over an extended period of time?

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Question Details Accessibility : Keyboard Navigation null : APA LO: 1.1: Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in psychology Bloom's : Remember null : Difficulty Level: Easy Learning Objective : Identify the challenges of coping with the death of another person. Topic : Grieving

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Answer Key Test name: Ch20 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) C 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) A 79) D 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) B 90) D 91) D 92) C 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) C 97) B 98) D 99) B 100) D 101) D 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) D 109) A 110) C 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) A Version 1

117) B 118) B 119) B 120) D 121) C 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) B 126) C 127) Kastenbaum 128) brain 129) euthanasia 130) hospice 131) disenfranchised 132) dual-process 133) aninut

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134)Robert Kastenbaum emphasizes that a number of components comprise the death system in any culture. These components include the following: People: Because death in inevitable, everyone is involved with death at some point, either their own death or the death of others. Places or contexts: These include hospitals, funeral homes, cemeteries, hospices, battlefields, and memorials. Times: Death involves times or occasions, such as Memorial Day in the United States and the Day of the Dead in Mexico, which are times to honor those who have died. Objects: Many objects in a culture are associated with death, including caskets, clothes, arm bands, and hearses in specific colors. Symbols: Symbols such as a skull and crossbones, as well as last rites in the Catholic religion and various religious ceremonies, are connected to death. 135) The current legal standard states that a person is brain dead when all electrical activity of the brain has ceased for a specified period of time. One criterion of brain death is a flat electroencephalographic recording for a specified period of time, indicating death of both higher and lower cortical functioning. Currently, most physicians define brain death as the death of both the higher cortical functions and the lower brain stem functions. 136) Euthanasia is the act of painlessly ending the lives of individuals who are suffering from an incurable disease or severe disability. Sometimes euthanasia is called "mercy killing." Distinctions are made between two types of euthanasia: passive and active. Passive euthanasia occurs when a person is allowed to die by withholding available treatment, such as withdrawing a life-sustaining device. Active euthanasia occurs when death is deliberately induced, as when a lethal dose of a drug is injected. Version 1

137)Care providers are increasingly interested in helping individuals experience a "good death." One view is that a good death involves physical comfort, support from loved ones, acceptance, and appropriate medical care. For some individuals, a good death involves accepting one's impending death and not feeling like a burden to others. In a recent review, the three most frequent themes described in articles on a good death involved (1) preference for dying process (94 percent of reports), (2) pain-free status (81 percent), and (3) emotional well-being (64 percent). Recent criticisms of the "good death" concept emphasize that death itself has shifted from being an event at a single point in time to a process that takes place over years and even decades. Thus, say the critics, one needs to move away from the concept of a "good death" as a specific event for an individual person to a larger vision of a world that not only meets the needs of individuals at their moment of death but also focuses on making their lives better during their final years and decades. 138) Hospice is a program committed to making the end of life for a dying individual as free from pain, anxiety, and depression as possible. Hospice care emphasizes palliative care, which involves reducing pain and suffering and helping individuals die with dignity.

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139) Researchers have found that middle-aged adults actually fear death more than do young adults or older adults (Kalish & Reynolds, 1976). Older adults, though, think about death more and talk about it more in conversation with others than do middle-aged and young adults. They also have more direct experience with death as their friends and relatives become ill and die. Older adults are forced to examine the meanings of life and death more frequently than are younger adults. Older adults are less likely to have unfinished business than are younger adults. They usually do not have children who need to be guided to maturity, their spouses are more likely to be dead, and they are less likely to have workrelated projects that require completion. Lacking such anticipations, death may be less emotionally painful to them. Even among older adults, however, attitudes toward death vary (Whitbourne & Meeks, 2011). 140)Denial and isolation is Kübler-Ross' first stage of dying, in which the person denies that death is really going to take place. The person may say, "No, it can't be me. It's not possible." This is a common reaction to terminal illness. However, denial is usually only a temporary defense. It is eventually replaced with increased awareness when the person is confronted with such matters as financial considerations, unfinished business, and worry about surviving family members. According to Robert Kastenbaum (2009, 2012), there are some problems with Kübler-Ross’ approach: • The existence of the five-stage sequence has not been demonstrated by either Kübler-Ross or independent research. • The five-stage interpretation neglected to consider the patients’ situations, including relationship support, specific effects of illness, family obligations, and institutional climate in which they were interviewed.

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141) Denial may be a fruitful way for some individuals to approach death. It can be adaptive or maladaptive. Denial can be used to avoid the destructive impact of shock by delaying the necessity of dealing with one's death. Denial can insulate the individual from having to cope with intense feelings of anger and hurt; however, if denial keeps us from having a life-saving operation, it clearly is maladaptive. Denial is neither good nor bad; its adaptive qualities need to be evaluated on an individual basis. 142)Grief is the emotional numbness, disbelief, separation anxiety, despair, sadness, and loneliness that accompany the loss of someone we love. Grief is not a simple emotional state but rather a complex, evolving process with multiple dimensions. In this view, pining for the lost person is one important dimension. Pining or yearning reflects an intermittent, recurrent wish or need to recover the lost person. Another important dimension of grief is separation anxiety, which not only includes pining and preoccupation with thoughts of the deceased person but also focuses on places and things associated with the deceased, as well as crying or sighing. Some individuals have difficulty moving on with their lives and continue feeling numb or detached, believing their life is empty without the deceased, and feeling that the future has no meaning. This type of grief reaction has been referred to as prolonged or complicated grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to an individual’s grief over a deceased person that is a socially ambiguous loss and can’t be openly mourned or supported. 143) Sudden infant death syndrome The scenario provides a good example of what would likely be attributed tosudden infant death syndrome, orSIDS. Version 1

144) Prolonged grief disorder This describes prolonged grief disorder.

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