Test Bank for Organizational Behavior Improving Performance and Commitment in the Workplace 7th Ed by Ace Test Banks

Test Bank for Organizational Behavior Improving Performance and Commitment in the Workplace 7th Ed

richard@qwconsultancy.com

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Student name:__________ 1) Define organizational behavior (OB). How does it differ from human resource management (HRM)?

2) According to the integrative model of organizational behavior, what are the two individual outcomes? What are the goals of most workers? What are the goals of most managers? Do the feel the goals of the two align?

3) Briefly explain the importance of the individual mechanisms that feature in the integrative model of organizational behavior. Give an example for each.

4) Briefly explain the importance of group mechanisms that feature in the integrative model of organizational behavior. Give an example of each mechanism.

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5) You are asked to analyze two companies using the resource-based view of organizations and distinguish which company has more valuable resources.

Explain the Rule of One-Eighth.

7) Briefly describe the four different ways of knowing things. Give an example of each. Which way do you believe provides the soundest explanation and most compelling support?

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8) You are asked to use the scientific method to evaluate a problem at a retail bakery. The owner currently holds a belief about the root of the problem but has asked you to take a closer look. You will need to deconstruct the scientific method process and determine what, if anything, is needed to complete the process of testing the belief.

Briefly explain correlation.

10)

What is meta-analysis?

11) ________ is a field of study devoted to understanding, explaining, and ultimately improving the attitudes and behaviors of individuals and groups in organizations.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Organizational behavior Strategic management Economic research Resource management Financial management

12) Which of the following attributes have been identified as some of the worst behaviors exhibited by coworkers?

A) B) C) D) E)

resisting even beneficial change being first to arrive and last to leave getting a job done without being managed complaining about anything and everything feeling an attachment to an employer for the long haul

13) Which of the following takes the theories and principles studied in OB and explores the “nuts-and-bolts” applications of those principles in organizations?

A) B) C) D) E)

human resource management operations management financial management strategic management economic research

14) Which of the following focuses on the product choices and industry characteristics that affect an organization’s profitability?

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A) B) C) D) E)

15)

process management strategic management operations management organizational behavior human resource management

When a firm expands into a new product segment, it is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

cartelization. product recall. diversification. monopolization. product divestment.

16) OB research on job performance and individual characteristics draws primarily from studies in

A) B) C) D) E)

managerial and organizational psychology. industrial and organizational psychology. economic and organizational sociology. economic and managerial sociology. industrial and economic psychology.

17) Research on satisfaction, emotions, and team processes found in OB draws heavily from studies in

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A) B) C) D) E)

organizational sociology. industrial psychology. managerial sociology. economic sociology. social psychology.

18) An OB study might explore the relationship between learning and job performance, whereas a(n) ________ study might examine the best ways to structure training programs to promote employee learning.

A) B) C) D) E)

strategic management human resource management job satisfaction profitability behavioral

19) Which of the following is a primary individual outcome of interest to organizational behavior researchers according to the integrative model?

A) B) C) D) E)

job performance team processes personality culture stress

20) Of the following, which is a primary individual outcome according to the integrative model?

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A) B) C) D) E)

team cohesion job satisfaction cultural awareness personality adaptability organizational commitment

21) Three employees work for the same retail clothing store but have different mixes of individual mechanisms. Joe works in maintenance. He does not mind going to work every day but feels the company should pay him more per hour. While the work is generally not stressful, Joe does not have much motivation to complete his daily duties quickly, so he spreads them out to fill the workday. Joe was trained to perform his tasks in a certain way and he performs his job in the same manner today as he did on the first day of work.Maria works as a salesclerk and she enjoys not only selling clothes, but talking about clothes all day. The job is not stressful, other than being on your feet most of the day. The store’s commission motivates Maria to sell as much as possible and to offer suggestions to most customers. However, she is not entirely sure the commission accounts are being figured correctly and has begun to personally track her sales every day. Maria feels like each customer interaction allows her to sharpen her customerevaluation skill, allowing her to make intuitive decisions on which items to push to which customer.Gina works as a middle manager and enjoys her job. She was promoted from salesclerk and is thankful that she spends most of her day at her desk. Her position as manager means she has to handle employee problems and she gets called out of her office for all the complicated, or contrary, customers. That part of the job causes some stress to both her personal skills and her customer service skills, but she is motivated to improve her skills and do well in the job. Gina trusts her supervisor and the company as a whole but feels they do lack in employee training and at times feels adrift on what tasks she is responsible for.Given this information, which of the following statements is more likely to be true?

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A) Gina has the best chance of achieving high individual outcomes in both job performance and organizational commitment. B) Joe has the best chance of achieving high individual outcomes in both job performance and organizational commitment. C) Maria has the best chance of achieving high individual outcomes in both job performance and organizational commitment. D) Maria has the lowest chance of achieving high individual outcomes of both job performance and organizational commitment. E) Gina has the lowest chance of achieving high individual outcomes of both job performance and organizational commitment.

22) According to the integrative model of organizational behavior, motivation, trust, justice, and ethics are

A) B) C) D) E)

organizational mechanisms. individual mechanisms. individual outcomes. group mechanisms. group outcomes.

23) Which of the following is an example of an individual mechanism from the integrative model directly affecting job performance and/or organizational commitment?

A) Peggy is an extrovert, which may account for her position as top salesperson. B) Jamal’s daily job exceeds his physical capacities, and he is becoming depressed due to the strain. C) Ken is a work group with a particularly difficult coworker, he is considering asking for a transfer. D) Haru was hesitant about his new job when he learned that all decisions pass through one person, a surly department head. E) Diane possessed the cognitive ability to work the sales floor, but she lacked the emotional skills necessary for working with the public.

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24) Which of the following reflect(s) the degree to which employees feel that their company does business with fairness, honesty, and integrity?

A) B) C) D) E)

trust, justice, and ethics personality and ability job satisfaction team processes motivation

25) Which of the following shows employees’ psychological responses to job demands that tax or exceed their capabilities?

A) B) C) D) E)

job performance leadership style job satisfaction ability stress

26) Which of these individual mechanisms captures the energetic forces that drive employees’ work efforts?

A) B) C) D) E)

job performance motivation personality ability stress

27) As Isabella gains experience, she obtains job knowledge and uses this knowledge to manage her employees effectively. Which individual mechanism is referred to in this statement? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

learning and decision making trust, justice, and ethics personality and ability team processes motivation

28) Which of the following individual characteristics illustrated in the integrative model of OB reflect the various traits and tendencies that describe how people act, with commonly studied traits including extraversion, conscientiousness, and collectivism?

A) B) C) D) E)

trust, justice, and ethics learning and decision making personality and cultural values job performance and organizational commitment organizational structure and organizational culture

29) In the integrative model, ability—which includes cognitive abilities, emotional skills, and physical abilities—is classified as a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

30)

organizational mechanism. individual characteristic. individual mechanism. individual outcome. group outcome.

Which of the following is an example of a group mechanism?

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A) B) C) D) E)

ability motivation trust, justice, and ethics organizational commitment team characteristics and diversity

31) Which of the following group mechanisms summarizes how individuals attain authority over others?

A) B) C) D) E)

leader personality leader cultural values leader responsibilities leader styles and behaviors leader power and negotiation

32) Which of the following captures the specific actions that leaders take to influence others at work?

A) B) C) D) E)

leader influence and negotiation leader styles and behaviors leader cultural values leader personality leader power

33) Which organizational mechanism illustrated by the integrative model dictates how the units within the firm link to other units?

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A) B) C) D) E)

organizational leadership organizational structure organizational culture organizational ability organization size

34) Organizational ________ is the organizational mechanism in the integrative model that captures “the way things are” in an organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

35)

structure ability leadership performance culture

Which of the following statements is correct when considering OB internationally?

A) Many OB practices are universal across all cultures. B) Companies manage diversity by composing work groups with employees who all share the same national culture. C) An expatriate is an employee living outside his or her native country. D) The number of international companies is decreasing due to problems with cultural understanding. E) The majority of OB theories and practices are “culture free.”

36) Which of the following statements about the resource-based view of organizations is accurate?

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A) B) C) D) E)

It suggests that resources are valuable because they are plentiful. It describes what makes resources capable of creating long-term profits for the firm. It suggests that inimitable resources are of lesser value to an organization. A firm’s resources include resources related to individual behavior. It suggests that the value of resources depends on a single factor.

37) The level of creativity demonstrated by Yosef’s coworkers is rare. Therefore, according to the ________, these employees are valuable to the firm.

A) B) C) D) E)

resource-based view of organizations integrative theory of organizational behavior normative selection model economic theory of the firm performance-based theory of organizations

38) The resource-based view of organizations states that people are valuable assets because their knowledge, skills, and abilities are rare and also because people are

A) B) C) D) E)

39) they

incorrigible. inimitable. accessible. adaptable. infallible.

According to the resource-based view of organizations, people are inimitable because

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A) B) C) D) E)

40)

According to the resource-based view, a resource is more valuable when it is

A) B) C) D) E)

41) it is

are necessary for building coworkers’ morale. are necessary for the production of goods and/or services. do their work with more precision than a machine could achieve. create lasting changes in the organization that can be replicated if necessary. make many small decisions that cannot be replicated by other organizations.

easily mimicked. easily obtained. financial in nature. physical in nature. difficult to imitate.

The resource-based view of organizations suggests that a resource is more valuable when

A) B) C) D) E)

simple. complex. inimitable. expensive. substitutable.

42) Gateway Corporation developed a new form of technology for which they hold a patent. This technology allowed them to significantly reduce the cost of production on their major product line. This resource is

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A) B) C) D) E)

43)

Culture, teamwork, trust, and reputation are examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

44)

simple. complex. inimitable. hypothetical. substitutable.

socially complex resources. easy-to-develop resources. evidence-based resources. associative structures. natural structures.

Which of the following statements concerning OB practices is not accurate?

A) It is easy to “fix” companies that struggle with OB issues. B) OB requires a belief that several different practices are important. C) Effective OB management practices include a long-term commitment to improve those practices. D) Good OB does seem to matter in terms of company profitability. E) No one thing, in and of itself, can increase profitability.

45) Which of the following examples shows an effective way of dealing with the international element of OB?

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A) Nancy adjusted her approach with an employee from South Korea because he had different motivations than U.S. employees. B) Hinata felt ashamed about discussing with her manager the difficulties of adjusting to American business practices. C) Larry assumed the policies he used for his Chicago office would work equally as well in the new Tokyo branch. D) Sean decided to ignore the international aspect of his work team because he did not want to play favorites. E) Mario believes the principles of OB management are consistent in countries throughout the world.

46) Magnus has come to mistrust the company he works for in recent months. Which of the following examples most likely caused this?

A) B) C) D) E) revenue.

Magnus’s efforts to get a new vending machine installed failed. Magnus learned that his employer uses unethical advertising practices. Magnus became disappointed when his employer did not promote a close friend. Magnus had to fire an employee who had worked for his company for many years. Magnus proposed a policy that was partially successful in increasing company

47) The Container Store, a retailer based out of Texas, wants to increase the motivation of its employees. Which of the following examples would most likely achieve this?

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A) a performance-based incentive system for its employees in which workers’ pay will be based on their productivity B) a reduction of insurance benefits for employees who have been working at the company for less than five years C) the implementation of a new computer system that will enable employees to do more work for the same pay D) a more hands-on managerial style in which all employees would have to fill out time cards E) the consolidation of two departments into one, thereby reducing overhead expenses

48) You are the CEO of a business who wants to use an integrative model of OB. Which of the following actions would you take to implement this?

A) B) C) D) E)

use one work team, but do not appoint a specified leader have employees work alone but occasionally report to a manager divide your employees into three work teams, each headed by a different leader have employees work closely with two other people but without forming a team use a work team for the managers, but have the other employees work individually

49) You are a new employee who wants to impress upon your manager how valuable you are to the company. According to the resource-based view, which of the following actions should you take?

A) play it safe and avoid suggesting ideas that might seem risky B) agree with whatever your manager says, even if you disagree C) make sure you arrive on time each work day and attend all the meetings D) act in a friendly way with your coworkers and contribute to team discussions E) make unique, significant contributions to the company that most employees could not achieve

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50)

In which of the following scenarios does history create a business advantage?

A) Using its market research, Rise n’ Shine devises the best-selling alarm clock to hit the market in the last 20 years. B) To maintain a business advantage, Cindy’s Cinnies keeps the recipe for their highly popular cinnamon rolls top secret. C) Smooth Scent’s new ad campaign gives this body lotion and cosmetics company a business advantage over competitors. D) The first company to sell vacuum cleaners in the retail market, Suck It Up, uses its experience to maintain a business advantage. E) HGT Enterprises and BDO, Inc., both West Coast real estate development firms, have been fierce competitors for more than 20 years.

51)

Which of the following scenarios would be the most invisible to competitors?

A) B) C) D) E)

52)

Mongo Films fires its CEO and hires a new one. Sports Stuff, Ltd., lowers its prices on swimwear. JTR, Ltd., opens a manufacturing plant in the Philippines. Spotless, Inc., starts a new line of natural bathroom cleaners. High Grade, Inc., hires a new middle manager for its Boston office.

According to the Rule of One-Eighth,

A) at least 88 percent of organizations will do everything necessary to put people first and thereby build profits. B) at best, 12 percent of organizations will actually do what is required to build profits by putting people first. C) 75 percent of organizations won’t believe the connection between how they manage their people and the profits they earn. D) 38 percent of the organizations try to make a single change to solve their problems. E) one in eight organizations miserably fails at making the people-to-profit connection.

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53) Top Shelf Enterprises is conducting its annual performance review. Which of the following employees would Top Shelf view as being the most inimitable?

A) B) C) D)

Juana, who has had difficulty getting along with members of her work team Bert, who has often been late to meetings and complains about his work load Takumi, who devised a new component that increased company sales by 25 percent Liam, who has been a steady and reliable worker for the company for over five

years E) Lotte, who has brilliant suggestions but often fails to follow them all the way through

54) According to the Rule of One-Eight, which of the following scenarios is the most common?

A) The CEO of Starbridge, Inc., read books about how putting people first build profits, but did not believe them. B) The CEO of Energize, Inc., implemented comprehensive changes to put employees first, but ended this plan prematurely. C) The CEO of LongRun, Inc., increased the benefits of employees, which was one of many suggested changes to put people first. D) The CEO of ShoreIsland, Inc., made long-lasting changes that put employees first and, as a result, the company’s profits soared. E) The CEO of UpGrade, Inc., gave employees more responsibility over their work, but stopped this approach after only two months.

55)

Which of the following are two of the methods by which people “know” things?

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A) B) C) D) E)

method of intuition and method of education method of education and method of authority method of experience and method of intuition method of authority and method of economics method of economics and method of education

56) Which of the following methods suggests that people hold firmly to some belief because it is consistent with their own observations?

A) B) C) D) E)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

57) Chiara decided to increase the price of her merchandise because it seemed to be the obvious thing to do. Which of the following philosophies is he relying on?

A) B) C) D) E)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

58) Of the following methods, which suggests that people hold firmly to some belief because some respected official, agency, or source has said it is so?

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A) B) C) D) E)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

59) Riku, an HR manager, believes that his implementation of HR practices in the company is impeccable because he received the inputs for these practices from the CEO himself. Which of the following philosophies is he relying on?

A) B) C) D) E)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

60) Choose the method that suggests people accept some belief because studies have tended to replicate that result using a series of samples, settings, and methods.

A) B) C) D) E)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

61) Ella believes that 360-degree performance review is ideal for her company because she recently read about a major survey of Fortune 100 companies that highlighted the effectiveness of this method. Which of the following philosophies is she relying on?

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A) B) C) D) E)

62)

method of science method of intuition method of behavior method of authority method of experience

Who is considered to be the originator of the scientific method?

A) B) C) D) E)

Jeffrey Pfeffer Frederick Taylor Charles Darwin Sir Francis Bacon Adam Smith

63) ________ is defined as a collection of assertions that specify how and why variables are related, as well as the conditions in which they should and should not be related.

A) B) C) D) E)

64)

Hypothesis Information Paradigm Data Theory

The scientific method begins with

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A) B) C) D) E)

65)

In the 1960s, a popular ad stated that “Blondes have more fun!” This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

66)

a positive correlation. negative causation. a proven fact. verification. data.

The scientific method requires that theories be used to inspire

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

theory. auditing. paradigm. hypotheses. verification.

verification. hypotheses. experience. intuition. auditing.

________ are written predictions that specify relations between variables.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Hypotheses Verifications Theories Data Collections

68) You are a manager that uses the method of intuition to make decisions. Considering this, which of the following actions would you probably take?

A) You hire more workers because it just makes sense. B) You fire fifteen employees because your boss claims this action was necessary. C) You recommend expanding your company into Canada because of survey reports. D) You approve a budget for a new product lined based on extensive market research. E) You lower your bid for a new project due of your history with a competitor who is also submitting a bid.

69) Ji-hu believes in making decisions based on the method of experience. Considering this, which of the following actions would he most likely take?

A) He would buy the Hellman espresso machine because the choice seems obvious. B) He would buy the Almas espresso machine because his manager highly recommends it. C) He would buy the Franceso espresso machine because research shows it is the most durable. D) He would buy the Jones espresso machine because he liked his previous machine, which was made by Jones. E) He would buy the Lucia espresso machine because surveys of the product show the highest customer approval.

70) Venia, who often relies on the method of authority, has to make an important decision about marketing a product. Which of the following would she most likely do?

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A) B) C) D) E)

hire an ad agency because she liked working with the agency before hire an ad agency because her close friend works for the agency hire an ad agency because many other companies have hired it hire an ad agency because a survey showed it was effective hire an ad agency because her boss recommended it

71) You work for a company that manufactures jeans, and you have an idea about how cold weather correlates with buying jeans. If you were implementing the scientific method for this company, which of the following actions would you do first?

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

write a report showing how the data proves that more jeans sell in cold weather predict that more of the company’s jeans will sell in January than in July collect data to prove that jeans will sell more in January than in July distribute surveys to find out how cold weather affects customers assert that cold weather makes people buy more jeans

Which of the following is an example of meta-analysis?

A) Yeeun used one study, which used a consistent measuring method, to determine the cause of employee stress. B) Sosuke used one study, which combined different samples, to determine why customers buy a certain product. C) Gail used two studies, each using the same samples and measures, to determine why sales of a product have declined. D) Sergio combined several studies, each using the same measuring method, to determine why profitability has increased. E) Fionn combined several studies, each using different kinds of samples and measures, to determine the cause of employee turnover.

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73) Which of the following correlations indicates no statistical relationship between two variables?

A) B) C) D) E)

1 −1 0 0.10 −0.10

74) Which of the following correlations indicates a perfect statistical relationship between two variables?

A) B) C) D) E)

75)

________ summarize the statistical relationships between variables.

A) B) C) D) E)

76)

1 −1 0 100 −100

Hypotheses Correlations Observations Collections Theories

Correlations can be positive or negative and can range from

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A) B) C) D) E)

0 to +1. −1 to +1. 0 to +100. −10 to 0. −10 to +10.

77) In organizational behavior research, a correlation of .50 is considered ________, given the sheer number of things that can affect how employees feel and act.

A) B) C) D) E)

78)

Which of the following explains the term causal inferences?

A) B) C) D) E)

79)

weak perfect moderate irrelevant strong

proving that two variables are correlated making sure the sample size is adequate enough explaining why one variable is not correlated to another establishing that one variable truly does result in another analyzing a situation and understanding what went wrong

Which of these is one of the conditions necessary to establish causal inferences?

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A) B) C) D) E)

The presumed cause follows the presumed effect in time. Multiple alternative explanations exist for the correlation. Factors other than the variables in question could create causation. The two variables are correlated. The sample size is large enough.

80) A study shows that people who chew bubble gum have more cavities. Which criteria of casual inference does this example show?

A) B) C) D) E)

The two variables are not correlated. Multiple alternative explanations exist for the correlation. The presumed cause precedes the presumed effect in time. The study was conducted in an open environment. The sample size is large enough.

81) A study shows that the high turnover rate at a company is only caused by the domineering attitude of a middle manager. What criteria of causal inference does this example show?

A) B) C) D) E)

The study was conducted in an open environment. No alternative explanation exists for the correlation. The presumed effect precedes the presumed cause in time. The two variables are not correlated. The sample size is large enough.

82) Which of these takes all the correlations found in studies of a particular relationship and calculates a weighted average of them?

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A) B) C) D) E)

alpha analysis gamma analysis meta-analysis causal analysis beta analysis

83) Ji-woo is interested in the effects of the choice of reward on employee motivation. She knows that there have been several studies done on this subject and compares their results looking for an average correlation. Ji-woo is conducting a

A) B) C) D) E)

84)

meta-analysis. mediocre analysis. medial analysis. remedial analysis. moderated analysis.

Which of the following options is not a factor in the scientific method?

A) B) C) D) E)

verification hypothesis data theory application

85) Manon supports an evidence-based management style. Considering this, which of the following actions would she most likely take?

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A) disregarding a casual inference that indicates the cause of employee dissatisfaction B) taking the advice of a government agency on how to increase employee motivation C) lessening the reliance on analytics to hire employees and instead relying more on intuition D) transforming a human resources department by hiring more research and development experts E) combining meta-analysis with her own experience to determine the cause of employee turnover

86) Strategic management focuses on the product choices and industry characteristics that affect an organization’s profitability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The theories and concepts found in OB are drawn from two disciplines: human resources management and strategic management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The two primary outcomes of interest to OB researchers, employees, and managers are job performance and job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Much of what we know about organizational behavior is considered universal and “culture free,” showing that managing people faces the same challenges everywhere. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 30

90) Learning and decision making deal with how employees gain job knowledge and how they use that knowledge to make accurate judgments on the job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Organizational behavior is a field of study taking the theories and principles of OB and exploring the “nuts-and-bolts” applications of those principles in organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Like individual characteristics, group mechanisms shape satisfaction, stress, motivation, trust, and learning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) To counter the effects of a bad product, effective management of OB can help make the product get better, incrementally, over the long term. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) According to the resource-based view of organizations, a firm’s resources include resources related to organizational behavior, such as the knowledge, ability, and wisdom of the workforce. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

95) Resources like culture, teamwork, trust, and reputation are termed “socially complex” because it is not always clear which organizations do (and do not) possess them, although it is clear how they came to develop. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Firms that undergo an IPO typically have shorter histories and need an infusion of cash to grow or introduce some new technology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) OB research suggests that there are several OB practices that each can increase profitability; that is, they serve as “magic bullets” for organizations. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

The integrative model of OB was designed with the Rule of One-Eighth in mind. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Theory is defined as a collection of assertions—both verbal and symbolic—that specify how and why variables are related, as well as the conditions in which they should (and should not) be related. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

100)

A correlation describes the statistical relationship between three variables. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) The method of intuition states that people hold firmly to some belief because it “just stands to reason”—it seems obvious or self-evident. ⊚ ⊚

102)

The strength of a correlation can be inferred from the “compactness” of its scatterplot. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Understanding correlation is important because OB questions are “yes or no” in nature. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Causal inferences means establishing that one variable really does cause another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Meta-analysis takes all the correlations found in studies of a particular relationship and calculates a weighted average (such that correlations based on studies with small samples are weighted more than correlations based on studies with small samples). Version 1

⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH1 1) OB is a field of study devoted to understanding, explaining, and ultimately improving the attitudes and behaviors of individuals and groups in organizations, whereas HRM uses the theories and principles studied in OB and explores the practical applications of those principles in organizations. 2) According to the integrative model of organizational behavior, the two individual outcomes are job performance and organizational commitment. Most employees have two primary goals for their working lives: to perform their jobs well and to remain a member of an organization that they respect. Most managers have two primary goals for their employees: to maximize their job performance and to ensure that they stay with the firm for a significant length of time. Student answers will vary on their thoughts about the alignment of the goals. The first goal for the employee is perform their jobs well and the first goal of the manager is to maximize employee performance. Those seem to be aligned but there are several specific behaviors that could affect either side, such as the employee could be sick today or the manager could be incompetent. The second goal of the employee is to stay with an organization they respect and the second goal of the manager is to retain workers for a significant period of time. Again, these goals appear to align but again the goals depend on each other. If the company is not a company the employee can respect, they are unlikely to stay employed with that company for very long, making the manager’s goal unattainable.

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3) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the integrative model of organizational behavior and the individual mechanisms involved. A sample answer follows.Several individual mechanisms directly affect job performance and organizational commitment. These include job satisfaction, which captures what employees feel when thinking about their jobs and doing their day-to-day work. For example, people who complain about the lack of creativity in their jobs are expressing a low level of job satisfaction. Another individual mechanism is stress, which reflects employees’ psychological responses to job demands that tax or exceed their capacities. For example, employees who become ill because of job stress reflect this mechanism. The integrative model also includes motivation, which captures the energetic forces that drive employees’ work effort. For instance, an increase in pay can result in an increase in employee motivation. Trust, justice, and ethics reflect the degree to which employees feel that their company does business with fairness, honesty, and integrity. For example, if employees find out their employer supports dishonest business practices, then the employees could lose their trust of the company. The final individual mechanism shown in the model is learning and decision making, which deals with how employees gain job knowledge and how they use that knowledge to make accurate judgments on the job. For example, employers who offer job training programs deal with this mechanism.

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4) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the group mechanisms that play a role in the integrative model. A sample answer follows.Employees typically work in one or more work teams led by some formal (or sometimes informal) leader. Like the individual characteristics, these group mechanisms shape satisfaction, stress, motivation, trust, and learning. Team characteristics and diversity describe how teams are formed, staffed, and composed and how team members come to rely on one another as they do their work. For instance, the grouping of people with diverse skills into a team so they will complement each other shows this mechanism. Team processes and communication is how teams behave, including their coordination, conflict, and cohesion. For example, a team that knows the strengths and weaknesses of its members can focus on accentuating the strengths and lessening the weaknesses to improve performance. Leader power and negotiation is all about how individuals attain authority over others. For example, people are often made the leaders of groups because of their ability to motivate others. Leader styles and behaviors capture the specific actions that leaders take to influence others at work. For instance, a leader could advocate an accepting attitude of ideas during brainstorming sessions to promote group creativity.

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5) The Acme Company has a team of crackerjack engineers who have designed and produced a new form of widget. The widget has taken the market by storm and consumers and competitors alike are amazed that this widget was not available sooner. The team of six engineers is comprised of four members who have worked together for fifteen years at two different companies and two new recruits with fresh insight and enthusiasm. Acme has been in business for 32 years, but this is their first big product breakthrough. The company is well-positioned on the retail learning curve as the leader in the widget market. Acme has a dedicated executive team, two of which are the children of the founder of the company. The executive team works well together with little infighting. The bulk of the employees at Acme work on the manufacturing floor and most have remained with the company for several years. Acme provides good benefits and has a healthy retirement plan in place. The work itself is carried out in cohesive units where members exhibit teamwork and trust. The overall culture at Acme is one of inclusion and the company and its executives have fine reputations within the industry and community.Quest was founded five years ago and has developed a new, superfast process for analyzing blood samples for various illnesses and diseases. The company patented the process and is currently the only company providing the service. The “Wonder Team” that developed the process consists of 10 members who had all previously worked at various other companies. Though the team had never worked together, they quickly developed an atmosphere of trust and teamwork. The process was developed using all team member’s insights and was built incrementally into lightning fast process it is today. The other employees at Quest also work in teams on various other health-related products. None of the teams has the same cohesion as the Wonder Team and most show signs of infighting. There is some resentment from employees outside the Wonder Team about being excluded. Executives Version 1

at the company would like to replicate the Wonder Team’s cohesion and culture into the rest of the company but are unsure where to start or if it is even possible.Using the resource-based view of organizations, which company has the most valuable resources and capable of creating longterm profits for the company? Assume both companies have equally valuable financial resources, including revenue and equity and equally valuable physical resources such as buildings, machines, and technology. Provide your reasons for your choice.Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how people can be valuable resources. A sample answer follows. The resource-based view suggests that the value of resources depends on several factors, including rarity and inimitable. Both companies have a rare product in the widget and blood analyzing process, but the widget is more likely to eventually be imitated. While Acme is the sole producer for now, with enough money competitors are likely to copy and begin producing their own improved widgets and enter the market as competitors. Quest has a patent on their process is likely to be the sole provider for years to come. The people comprising the group of engineers at Acme have more of a history working together and the company itself has been in business longer than Quest and enjoys a good reputation as an industry leader. Quest does not have the history of Acme and unless they can replicate the cohesiveness of the Wonder Team, they may have continued conflict in their other teams. The Acme Company, and group of engineers, has the advantage of years of numerous small decisions which have led to their position of industry leader today. The Quest Company lacks this advantage but has the opportunity to build this advantage if they can better manage their employees. Both companies have socially complex resources such as culture, teamwork, trust, and reputation but the Acme Company seems to have more of each of these facets than does the Quest Company. While the Quest Company has the opportunity to have Version 1

highly valued resources, they are not quite at the level as the Acme Company currently enjoys. However, if the Quest Company can manage the employees in their teams, they have a better opportunity of creating long-term revenues with their patented product. 6) According to the Rule of One-Eighth, only one-half of organizations will believe the connection between how they manage their people and the profits they earn. One-half of these organizations, which see the connection, will do what other organizations have already done—try to make a single change to solve their problems, not realizing that the effective management of people requires a more comprehensive and systematic approach. Of the firms that make comprehensive changes, probably only about one-half will persist with their practices long enough to actually derive economic benefits. Thus, one-half times onehalf times one-half equals one-eighth, so at best, 12 percent of organizations will actually do what is required to build profits by putting people first.

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7) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the four ways of knowing things. A sample answer follows.The four ways are method of experience, method of intuition, method of authority, and method of science. The method of experience involves people holding firmly to a belief because it is consistent with their experience. For example, a person might never eat at a restaurant chain because of a bad experience with one of these restaurants. People use the method of intuition if they make a choice because it seems obvious. For example, a person might buy a certain cell phone because most people seem to buy it. With the method of authority, people hold a belief because some respected agency, official, or source has said that it is so. For example, a person might not see a movie because a trusted critic panned the film. The method of science involves people holding a belief because of scientific studies. For instance, a person might think that a certain region holds oil because of extensive geological studies of this region. The method of science provides the soundest explanation and most compelling support for arguments, provided the predictions are tested with data.

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8) The Sweet Tooth has been in business for 10 years in the same location, a busy corner in a highly populated urban area. The owner of the bakery owns the building the bakery is located in and pays only utilities, keeping the overhead low. There are only five employees—the owner and four dedicated fellow bakers. Walk-in business is brisk. The bakery offers personalized birthday cakes, donuts, breads, cookies, and cupcakes, coffee and hot tea are free, not fancy. The five workers take turns working weekends, with one weekend worked per month. One of the workers is surly with customers and sales are usually lower on her weekend. While sales of birthday cakes are down, cupcake, donut, and cookie sales are slightly higher, and the bakery has developed a popular gluten-free line of products. Overall sales are slumping, and the owner believes the surly salesperson once a month is discouraging repeat customers.How would you go about evaluating this information using the scientific method? What additional information would you need and where would you get it? What is the owner’s theory and resulting hypothesis?The scientific method begins with a theory and the owner’s theory is that surly customer service discourages repeat customers and is responsible for slumping sales. When investigating this theory, you may interview employees or customers, keep notes, examine the company’s ledgers, and maybe conduct a customer survey. You are looking for a relation between customer service and the likelihood a customer will return for more purchases. From there, the theory is written into a hypothesis, which predicts the relationships between the variables. The owner’s hypothesis could be “Unfriendly customer service is negatively related to repeat customer sales.” To test the hypothesis, you will need to examine the correlation between customer service and repeat purchases. You will want to look at causal inferences—establishing that one variable really does cause another. To do this you must establish three things: the two variables are correlated; the presumed cause precedes the Version 1

presumed effect; and no alternative explanation exists for the correlation. The verification step may require more studies to further test the theory. 9) Correlation is a method used to identify the statistical relationship between two variables. A correlation, abbreviated r, describes the statistical relationship between two variables. Correlations can be positive or negative and range from 0 (no statistical relationship) to ±1 (a perfect statistical relationship). 10) Meta-analysis takes all of the correlations found in studies of a particular relationship and calculates a weighted average (such that correlations based on studies with large samples are weighted more than correlations based on studies with small samples). Meta-analyses can form the foundation for evidence-based management—a perspective that argues that scientific findings should form the foundation for management education, much as they do for medical education. 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) E 18) B 19) A 20) E 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) E Version 1

26) B 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) E 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) E 35) C 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) E 40) E 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) E 50) D 51) E 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) C Version 1

56) E 57) B 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) E 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) E 71) E 72) E 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) A 77) E 78) D 79) D 80) C 81) B 82) C 83) A 84) E 85) D Version 1

86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Define job performance. Does it involve results, such as the dollar value of sales? Why or why not?

Define task performance and explain its dimensions. Give examples.

3) Define job analysis, explain its importance in determining job performance, and list the basic steps involved in job analysis.

Define citizenship behavior and discuss its categories and subcategories. Give examples.

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5) You are asked to analyze six different work incidents and determine which type of counterproductive behavior is present, if any, and rate the severity of each incident.

Describe some of the trends that affect job performance in the contemporary workplace.

Given the increase in service jobs, explain the implications for job performance.

8) Sunrise Roofing is a family-owned business operating for over 35 years. Dale Price Sr. started the business and Dale Price Jr. continues the business to this day. The work itself has changed very little over the years but job performance, and the evaluation of job performance, has changed over that time.

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9) Explain the forced ranking method using Jack Welch’s “vitality curve.” How successful is it as a performance management technique?

10)

Discuss the use of social networking for performance management.

11) Which of the following answer options is a viable outcome attributed to using results as the primary indicator of job performance?

A) B) C) D) E)

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good citizenship behavior an accurate picture of an employee’s worth a bottom-line mentality among employees provides information to improve behavior increased profit and customer retention

12) In their evaluation of his performance as a trainer in the sales department of Ogilvy Pharmaceuticals, Jeremy’s supervisors look at such factors as the amount of time he spends with each of his trainees, his coverage of all key points in training, his success rate in turning out trained salespeople within the amount of time allotted, and so forth. In other words, Jeremy’s supervisors are evaluating his

A) B) C) D) E)

task performance. job performance. service work. boosterism. civic virtue.

13) As the manager of the local Express Package Services, a retail shipping facility, DeAnna is evaluating the employees who work at the counter. She looks at such factors as positive or negative customer comments about each employee, their sales relative to those of their coworkers, the amount of time they spend with each customer, and so forth. DeAnna is evaluating each of these employees in terms of their

A) B) C) D) E)

task performance. job performance. citizenship behavior. counterproductive behavior. courtesy.

14) Selena sells luxury cars for a living, but in recent months her sales have slumped. This is partly due to an economic recession, which has led to a downturn in the market. In addition, Selena has been distracted by the fact that her mother has been in the hospital. As a result of her decline in sales, Selena recently received a bad job performance rating. Why would she have grounds to dispute this rating?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Her mother’s illness is a factor beyond her control. Results do not tell her how to reverse a “bad year.” The economic downturn is a factor beyond her control. Her manager’s focus on the bottom line has led to social undermining. She is contributing to the organization in ways that go beyond the bottom line.

15) Donnell is a computer programmer whose job performance rating notes the fact that he often goes out to the parking lot and sits in his car during lunch hour. He is otherwise sociable and never late coming back from lunch; therefore, this is not an appropriate item to include on his job performance rating because it

A) B) C) D) E)

is not a behavior relevant to the accomplishment of organizational goals. demonstrates an undue focus on interpersonal citizenship behavior. relates to his task performance rather than his job performance. implies that he is doing something wrong by sitting in his car. concerns citizenship behavior rather than job performance.

16) Cheryl continually boosts morale at the sales office of Monroe Consumer Products, and she has helped a number of her colleagues through difficult situations. Nevertheless, she received a bad job performance rating due to the fact that her sales for the quarter were down. This job performance rating is

A) wrong; Cheryl is contributing to the organization in ways that go beyond the bottom line. B) wrong; an emphasis on results such as sales would encourage Cheryl to behave unethically. C) right; even if Cheryl can claim problems that were beyond her control, it is no one’s concern but her own. D) right; if Cheryl is rewarded with a good job performance rating, it will encourage other employees to slack off. E) right; in spite of her positive qualities, Cheryl has failed to produce, and results are what really matter in the end.

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17) When job performance evaluation time rolls around, Michael always comes out ahead of his coworkers, but his success comes at a price. He has been known to give his supervisors negative (and sometimes untrue) information about his coworkers, and when it looks as though someone else may be about to get a better job performance evaluation, bad things tend to happen to that person, such as lost paperwork and missed meetings due to deleted calendar appointments. In terms of organizational behavior and the principles of job performance evaluations, it is clear that

A) the organization has failed to create a sense of group cohesion and an attitude of organizational citizenship. B) unethical behavior on the part of his supervisors has led Michael to seek advancement by any means possible. C) Michael is showing the kind of resourcefulness that rightly has earned him high job performance ratings in the past. D) other employees have failed to understand, as Michael clearly has, that personal success equates with organizational success. E) his supervisors’ emphasis on results has created an environment in which an employee might use unethical behavior to get ahead.

18) When examining job performance, behaviors that contribute positively to the organization fall into which two broad categories?

A) B) C) D) E)

knowledge work and service work voice and civic virtue task performance and citizenship behavior job analysis and job performance production deviance and property deviance

19) The explicit obligations that an employee must fulfill to receive compensation and continued employment are referred to as

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A) B) C) D) E)

job performance. citizenship behavior. knowledge work. task performance. civic virtue.

20) Damita finds an advertisement for a bookkeeper position at a small business. The ad mentions handling accounts payable and accounts receivable, payroll, worker’s compensation and unemployment insurance, and other financial matters related to the operation of the company. These items in the job description are all examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

21) of

job analysis. task performance. job performance. citizenship behavior. forced ranking.

Well-known responses to normal job demands that occur in a predictable way are a part

A) B) C) D) E)

job performance. adaptive task performance. knowledge work. routine task performance. citizenship behavior.

22) LeAnne is exhausted after another long day of answering the phones at the law firm of Boardman, Holloway, and Shriver. She says those three names several hundred times a day, followed by “How my direct your call?” This is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

adaptive task performance. routine task performance. citizenship behavior. job performance. knowledge work.

23) Teresa works in a chemical factory where her job involves inspecting containers of kerosene as they pass down the assembly line. She goes through a five-step process compliant with safety regulations laid down in the company manual, and she seldom has to think about her work. One day, however, a fire broke out on the line, and Teresa, who saw it before anyone else, grabbed an extinguisher just in time. Had she not acted quickly, the fire would have quickly spread, potentially resulting in widespread injuries and even death. In terms of organizational behavior, what is the best way to describe this situation?

A) Teresa’s job is usually very routine, but on this occasion it became exciting. B) Teresa’s job demands that she remain vigilant, but this time she needed to be extra vigilant. C) Normally, Teresa’s job involves routine task performance, but this situation required adaptability. D) Usually, Teresa’s job calls for routine task performance, but in this situation she had to be creative. E) On a typical day, Teresa’s job requires adaptability, but this situation called for creative task performance.

24)

Employee responses to job demands that are novel, unusual, or unpredictable are a part of

A) B) C) D) E)

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job performance. adaptive task performance. creative task performance. routine task performance. citizenship behavior.

25) Today, Jamie, a police officer with a big-city force, apprehended a suspect fleeing the scene of a convenience store robbery. The suspect ran for three blocks before Jamie managed to tackle and handcuff him and read him his rights, by which time other officers had arrived on the scene to take him down to the station for booking. Jamie later described the situation to family and friends as “all in a day’s work,” but in organizational terms this is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

job performance. citizenship behavior. routine task performance. creative task performance. adaptive task performance.

26) Handling work stress and emergencies, solving problems creatively, and responding to unpredictable demands are all aspects of

A) B) C) D) E)

citizenship behavior. civic virtue. helping. adaptability. service work.

27) Remaining composed and cool when faced with difficult circumstances or a highly demanding workload or schedule, and acting as a calming and settling influence to whom others can look for guidance, are all part of ________, one of the behaviors involved in adaptability.

A) B) C) D) E)

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dealing with uncertain and unpredictable work situations handling emergencies or crisis situations demonstrating interpersonal adaptability solving problems creatively handling work stress

28) Agnes is an inventor whose work has made people’s lives better in a number of ways. As one commentator observed, “It’s not just that her work that is original—wearing shoes on your head is original—but it’s also useful.” Agnes’s work is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

organizational citizenship behavior. interpersonal citizenship behavior. adaptive task performance. creative task performance. routine task performance.

29) An artist, Martel is known for his bright canvases awash in extraordinary color combinations. His pieces bring tens of thousands of dollars at auction, and this allows him to pay the salary of assistants, such as Brendan. An aspiring young painter, Brendan mixes paints, cleans brushes, and maintains the inventory of art supplies in Martel’s studio. The difference between their two positions is best described in organizational terms by saying that Martel’s work involves ________ task performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

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creative task performance, whereas Brendan’s is primarily concerned with adaptive adaptive task performance, whereas Brendan’s is primarily concerned with creative adaptive task performance, whereas Brendan’s is primarily concerned with routine routine task performance, whereas Brendan’s is primarily concerned with adaptive creative task performance, whereas Brendan’s is primarily concerned with routine

30) Vincenza is an accountant whose client list includes an array of Fortune 500 companies. She has developed algorithms that have saved her clients millions of dollars, and as many satisfied customers have said, her solutions are often unexpected, but always legal and always effective. Yet Vincenza says that the real star in her family is her younger sister Siena, whose poetry has been published in a number of journals. Siena’s poetry does not pay the bills, but it did get her noticed by a major publisher, who employed her to work in their mail room—a job that has given Siena the opportunity to meet a number of famous authors. In terms of organizational behavior, the best way to describe the difference between Vincenza’s and Siena’s jobs is to say that Vincenza’s job ________ than Siena’s.

A) B) C) D) E)

is much more involved in creative task performance requires a good deal more education has more to do with routine tasks involves much less creativity pays much more

31) Gloria, Angelica, and Roberto all work for Dr. Elena at Brite & Beautiful Dentistry. One day, Gloria was in the small parking lot behind the office and noticed a sizeable pool of water near the building, even though it had not rained recently. She and the others began to monitor the situation, and soon determined that they had a leak somewhere in the drainage pipes, so Roberto called a plumber. The plumber came out the next day, and though he agreed with their assessment that they had a leaky pipe, he could not find the exact spot where the water was leaking. Given that the pipes lay under concrete, digging them out would involve a great deal of time and expense—not to mention noise and dust. Then Angelica had an idea: since Dr. Elena, like many dentists, kept a small amount of radioactive material on hand for making dental implants, they could release an extremely small portion through each of the sinks, toilets, and other drains in succession, then use a Geiger counter, which measures radioactivity, to locate the leak. Her coworkers scoffed, but Dr. Elena said it would be possible to release an amount of material too small to be harmful, but large enough to register on the Geiger counter. The plumber said it sounded like a good idea to him, and thanks to Angelica, within a little more than an hour’s time, he had located the leak and was able to fix it with a minimum of trouble. In arriving at this solution, Angelica demonstrated one of the behaviors involved in adaptability, namely

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A) B) C) D) E)

32)

dealing with uncertain and unpredictable work situations. learning work tasks, technologies, and work situations. handling emergencies or crisis situations. demonstrating interpersonal adaptability. solving problems creatively.

Which of the following statements about task performance is incorrect?

A) Creative task performance involves employee responses to task demands that are novel, unusual, or unpredictable. B) Task performance refers to employee behaviors directly involved in the transformation of resources into goods or services the organization produces. C) When performing routine tasks, employees behave in habitual or programmed ways. D) Adaptive task performance is crucial in today’s global economy. E) More than half the total wages and salary in the United States are paid to employees who need to be creative as part of their jobs.

33) The process by which an organization determines the requirements associated with a specific job is referred to as a

A) B) C) D) E)

job analysis. forced ranking. job evaluation. ranking analysis. forced analysis.

34) Amanda and her team are about to begin performing a job analysis for the position of structural engineer at their firm. The very first thing they should do is

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A) examine highly rated activities, which can then be incorporated into training programs as learning objectives. B) consult with a technical university to determine the requirements for obtaining a degree in structural engineering. C) generate a list of activities involved with the job, using data collected through observations, surveys, and interviews. D) look for activities that can become a part of performance evaluation systems as measures to evaluate task performance. E) arrange for a group of subject matter experts to evaluate the job in terms of the importance and frequency of the activities involved.

35) If organizations find it impractical to use job analysis to identify the set of behaviors needed to define task performance, they can use

A) B) C) D) E)

36)

a job performance ranking. 360-degree feedback. management by objectives. behaviorally anchored rating scales. the Occupational Information Network.

The O*NET is useful for many things, but it does not provide

A) B) C) D) E)

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a resource for organizations that find it impractical to use job analysis. the task requirements unique to a particular organization. the knowledge and skills required to perform a task. the characteristics of most jobs in terms of tasks. the behaviors associated with a given job.

37) Felicia is an experienced lab technician, but at the moment she is not working in the lab. She is reviewing a list of activities associated with her job and rating them in terms of their importance. Most likely, Felicia is a

A) B) C) D) E)

job seeker considering the best qualities she could bring to her new job. soon-to-be retiree preparing to train the person who will replace her. boss completing a job performance evaluation of her subordinates. subject matter expert involved in a job analysis. researcher conducting an industrywide study.

38) Kevin works for Outrageous Burger, a nationwide fast-food chain, but his job does not involve flipping patties or making fries. Instead, he is sitting before a computer screen in the company’s corporate offices, writing something. “Place the two halves of the bun on the counter,” one line reads, “then add enough shredded lettuce to cover the bottom bun to a depth of not more than 0.25 inches.” In all likelihood, Kevin is writing a

A) B) C) D) E)

series of directions for a training script. list of core job tasks for a detailed job analysis. critique of an employee’s mishandling of job tasks. report for an industry publication regarding job tasks. detailed analysis of a day in the life of a fast-food worker.

39) ________ describes voluntary employee activities that may or may not be rewarded but that contribute to the organization by improving the overall quality of the setting in which work takes place.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Creative task performance Adaptive task performance Counterproductive behavior Citizenship behavior Routine task performance

40)

The two main categories of citizenship behavior are

A) B) C) D) E)

41)

social and organizational. social and intrapersonal. social and political. interpersonal and political. interpersonal and organizational.

If an employee is keeping relevant facts and events secret, they are

A) B) C) D) E)

using their voice, an organizational citizenship behavior. not being courteous, an interpersonal citizenship behavior. not helping, an organizational citizenship behavior. using their voice, an interpersonal citizenship behavior. not showing good sportsmanship, an interpersonal citizenship behavior.

42) ________ involves maintaining a good attitude with coworkers, even when they’ve done something annoying or when the unit is going through tough times.

A) B) C) D) E)

Helping Courtesy Sportsmanship Boosterism Civic virtue

43) ________ involves assisting coworkers who have heavy workloads, aiding them with personal matters, and showing new employees the ropes when they first arrive on the job.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Courtesy Civic virtue Helping Sportsmanship Boosterism

44) Today was a tough day at Brightland Real Estate. Word came down from city hall about new zoning requirements that will make it harder to sell property for development, so Kenny, the head broker, called a meeting in the conference room. He had asked the office manager to print out some reports for him, but just as he was starting the meeting, he realized she had given him the wrong documents and then, as soon as she went to pull the right ones off of her computer, the power went out. Yet Kenny managed to smile and even joke about the situation, cheering others up in the process. His behavior is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

helping. courtesy. sportsmanship. civic virtue. boosterism.

45) Although interpersonal citizenship behavior is beneficial in many contexts, it may be most important when people work in

A) B) C) D) E)

46)

service jobs. managerial jobs. small groups. large groups. technical jobs.

Organizational citizenship behaviors include

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A) B) C) D) E)

sportsmanship. civic virtue. courtesy. helping. respect.

47) Some people react to bad rules or policies by constructively trying to change them instead of passively complaining about them. This positive characteristic is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

helping. sportsmanship. voice. civic virtue. boosterism.

48) Emily, Shalonda, and Tomas all work at Terence Butler Life & Auto, an insurance agency. Their boss, Terence, has a very full schedule, but he knows he can rely on his three employees. Emily specifically takes on the role of attending all community-related meetings and functions where the agency might have a stake, and Shalonda helps out with constructive suggestions on the operation of the office. Tomas makes it his job to serve as unofficial representative for the agency, ensuring that it maintains a positive image not only with customers, but also with neighboring businesses and the community as a whole. These employees’ actions are examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

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creative task performance. organizational citizenship behavior. routine task performance. adaptive task performance. interpersonal citizenship behavior.

49) Tandy works in the legal department for SportCity, a chain of health clubs with a large regional office. In addition to performing the functions directly associated with her job, she goes out of her way to represent her department in companywide meetings, keeps up with announcements relevant to the legal department, and stays up to date on industry news related to SportCity. Her behavior is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

helping. boosterism. civic virtue. sportsmanship. voice.

50) Anyone who talks to Maurice for more than a few minutes knows that he works for Ocean Bay Resorts, which he always maintains is the best vacation rental company in the country. In fact, Maurice has plenty of positive things to say about his employer, and if there are any negatives, no one would know it from talking to him. Maurice’s behavior is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

voice. helping. civic virtue. boosterism. sportsmanship.

51) Everyone at the St. Louis offices of Dominique Marceau Cosmetics, from the president to the lowest salesperson, came to the company holiday party—all except for Melanie, who told her coworkers that going to the party was “a waste of time.” When her supervisor told her she had been missed, she claimed that her mother was sick, but she later laughed about this behind her supervisor’s back and said that she spent the evening out partying with friends. Her behavior shows a lack of

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A) B) C) D) E)

voice. helping. civic virtue. boosterism. sportsmanship.

52) Bradley may be only an entry-level fry cook at Danny Boy’s, a fast-food restaurant, but he thinks and acts far beyond his pay grade. He continually offers the manager suggestions regarding how to improve efficiency in the kitchen, and more often than not, the manager adopts his ideas. Bradley was also the one who pointed out that the way they were disposing of used cooking grease presented an environmental hazard and a possible fire hazard. His behavior exemplifies

A) B) C) D) E)

courtesy. boosterism. sportsmanship. civic virtue. voice.

53) When Rebecca and Julie worked together on a project last year, both did more than their share and earned a nice bonus from their boss. Julie was then sent to another state to help set up a new office over the summer, and from her messages on social media, Rebecca could tell that she was working harder than ever. In the fall, when Julie returned to her home office, Rebecca suggested that they work together on a new project. This time, however, things did not go well: Julie seemed to lose interest quickly, and Rebecca began to feel resentful when she realized that she was doing most of the work. What most likely happened?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Julie lacked civic virtue. Rebecca demonstrated a lack of civic virtue. Julie began suffering from citizenship fatigue. Rebecca failed to show a proper level of sportsmanship. Julie was strong on interpersonal citizenship but not organizational.

54) Blake leads a design team that consists of four members, including himself, but the workload has become such that they need to add a fifth member. He is considering a variety of candidates, who have relatively equivalent skill sets when it comes to the work, and all are more or less equally easy to get along with. Given all this, Blake should be looking for a candidate who demonstrates

A) B) C) D) E)

a propensity for speaking well of the company to outsiders. the capacity for heading off problems before they arise. the ability come up with novel solutions to problems. a habit of keeping up with changes in the industry. a tendency to come to the aid of their coworkers.

55) Danielle is a model of good citizenship, particularly of the interpersonal variety. She regularly volunteers to do things for her work group, helps orient new members, attends functions that help the group, and assists others with their work for the benefit of the group. Yet her supervisor is not completely pleased with Danielle’s job performance, most likely because her citizenship behaviors are

A) B) C) D) E)

a distraction to her fellow employees. at odds with her stated job description. not motivated by genuine concern for others. the consequence of deep underlying insecurities. distracting her from other duties and responsibilities.

56) Employee behaviors that intentionally hinder organizational goal accomplishment are referred to as ________ behaviors.

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A) B) C) D) E)

57)

Serious interpersonal counterproductive behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

58)

sabotage. harassment. incivility. gossiping. wasting resources.

Minor organizational counterproductive behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

59)

negative aggressive deviant counterproductive assaultive

sabotage. harassment. incivility. gossiping. wasting resources.

Serious organizational counterproductive behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

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incivility. harassment. gossiping. sabotage. abuse.

60)

Minor interpersonal counterproductive behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

sabotage. harassment. incivility. abuse. theft.

61) Angry at his boss and coworkers, Jerome has booby-trapped the cartridges in the office printers so that ink will bleed all over each page. His behavior is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

62) as

Behaviors that intentionally harm the organization’s assets and possessions are referred to

A) B) C) D) E)

63)

wasting resources, a type of production deviance. wasting resources, a type of property deviance. sabotage, a type of production deviance. sabotage, a type of property deviance. sabotage, a type of political deviance.

production deviance. political deviance. property deviance. personal aggression. organizational aggression.

Personal aggression behaviors include

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A) B) C) D) E)

64)

Production deviance behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

65)

incivility and abuse. incivility and sabotage. harassment and abuse. harassment and sabotage. harassment and substance abuse.

wasting resources and substance abuse. wasting resources and sabotage. theft and substance abuse. theft and harassment. theft and sabotage.

Property deviance behaviors include

A) B) C) D) E)

sabotage and theft. sabotage and harassment. wasting resources and theft. wasting resources and harassment. wasting resources and substance abuse.

66) Behaviors that intentionally disadvantage other individuals rather than the larger organization are referred to as

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A) B) C) D) E)

property deviance. wasting resources. substance abuse. personal aggression. political deviance.

67) When employees use too many materials or too much time to do too little work, this is ________ deviance.

A) B) C) D) E)

wasting resources, a form of production wasting resources, a form of property sabotage, a form of property sabotage, a form of production sabotage, a form of political

68) ________ is made up of behaviors that focus specifically on reducing the efficiency of work output.

A) B) C) D) E)

69)

Political deviance Property deviance Personal aggression Political aggression Production deviance

The most common form of production deviance is

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A) B) C) D) E)

70)

Communication that is rude, impolite, discourteous, and lacking in good manners is

A) B) C) D) E)

71)

theft. incivility. wasting resources. substance abuse. harassment.

abusive. uncivil. gossiping. harassment. property deviance.

Which of the following statements concerning counterproductive behavior is not true?

A) There is evidence that a person engaging in one form of counterproductive behavior also engages in other such behaviors. B) Counterproductive behavior may be contagious. C) Counterproductive behavior is relevant to two-thirds of U.S. jobs. D) If the best task performers exhibit counterproductive behaviors, they may be tolerated for a while. E) Some workplace behaviors are well-intentioned, but also counterproductive when violating norms, rules, policies, or laws.

72) ________ occurs when employees are subjected to unwanted physical contact or verbal remarks from a colleague.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Harassment Abuse Incivility Aggression Bullying

73) ________ occurs when an employee is assaulted or endangered in such a way that physical and psychological injuries may occur.

A) B) C) D) E)

74)

Aggression Sabotage Incivility Abuse Bullying

Among the important points about counterproductive behaviors is the fact that

A) B) C) D) E)

there is little connection between task performance and counterproductive behavior. the worst workers are the most likely to be involved in counterproductive behaviors. counterproductive behavior is relatively easy to isolate and prevent from spreading. people tend to engage only in one specific form of counterproductive behavior. counterproductive behavior usually only applies to specific jobs.

75) The weak negative correlation between task performance and counterproductive behavior can best be explained by the fact that

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A) poor performers are less creative at coming up with ways to undermine the organization. B) the best workers are the ones most likely to get away with counterproductive actions. C) top performers are too busy at their jobs to engage in counterproductive behavior. D) less talented workers are not as successful at avoiding blame for their misdeeds. E) good workers can behave counterproductively and still get the job done.

76) Someone has been stealing from the company, and suspicion has fallen on Elizabeth. Her supervisors have evidence against her, and their suspicions are rightly compounded by the fact that she

A) B) C) D) E)

is not one of the company’s better workers. has a tendency to be abusive toward coworkers. lacks education and is therefore more likely to steal. comes from a background where stealing is common. works as a cashier, a job likely to be associated with theft.

77) Bobby and Sam are taking their time getting their work done. They have already had three smoke breaks in the past hour and a half, and they even managed to sneak in a beer. They could have finished this particular project an hour ago, but as Sam just said to Bobby, “Why bother working when nobody’s watching?” This is an example of ______ deviance.

A) B) C) D) E)

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wasting resources, the most common form of production substance abuse, the most common form of production wasting resources, the most common form of property substance abuse, the most common form of property wasting resources, the most common form of political

78) A week ago, Manny wrecked a company car when another driver pulled out in front of him, and once he threw away about a hundred dollars’ worth of perfectly good office supplies while clearing out an old storage cabinet. Yet his supervisors have not held either action against him. Why is this most likely the case?

A) These acts were unintentional and therefore are not considered counterproductive behavior. B) Manny is already receiving professional help for his tendency toward counterproductive behavior. C) Manny is such a good performer at the company that he can get away with counterproductive behavior. D) Manny has connections to the company’s leadership and therefore will not be blamed for counterproductive behavior. E) These acts were the result of Manny’s personal problems and therefore are not considered counterproductive behavior.

79) Historically, research on organizational behavior has focused on the _____ aspects of job performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

educational political interpersonal physical theoretical

80) Patrick’s father worked in a steel mill all his life, but Patrick, despite having great respect for his dad, never considered this career path. Instead, practically from the time he could walk, he has been taking apart computers and putting them back together, and today he designs computer hardware. The story of Patrick and his father is an illustration of a trend over the past few decades, which can best be described by saying that there has been a(n)

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A) B) C) D) E)

tendency to overemphasize knowledge work as opposed to industrial jobs. shift away from industrial jobs and toward knowledge work. abundance of overqualified applicants in service industries. shortage of trained personnel in jobs across the spectrum. rejection of parents’ jobs and professions.

81) Vince just took an aptitude test and discovered that he is well-suited to a profession that involves working with his mind rather than his hands. This is partly due to his personality, since knowledge work—in contrast to factory work and other industrial jobs—tends to be ________ from day to day.

A) B) C) D) E)

82)

lacking in structure, yet the same more structured and less likely to change less structured and more likely to change the same in terms of structure and changes more complicated, more structured, and more likely to change

Knowledge work can best be defined as jobs that primarily

A) B) C) D) E)

require a graduate-level degree. are occupied by Ivy League graduates. concern scientific or technical activities. demand upper-level problem-solving skills. involve cognitive activity as opposed to physical activity.

83) As he labors at his keyboard, Antonio is discovering one negative consequence of the rise in jobs that involve knowledge work. This negative consequence is most likely the fact that

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A) employers will expect employees to account for their activities on a minute-byminute basis. B) employers are more likely to demand that employees be at work eight hours a day, five days a week. C) employers may have unrealistic expectations about the speed at which employees can complete tasks. D) employees may have unrealistic expectations about the amount of money they can earn in particular jobs. E) employees are more likely to expect employers to give them extra days of paid vacation, as well as sick leave.

84) Work that provides nontangible goods to customers through direct electronic, verbal, or physical interaction defines

A) B) C) D) E)

knowledge work. skilled labor. service work. routine task performance. creative task performance.

85) Tamora has had a rough year. Thanks to a quick temper, she got into an altercation that landed her in jail, and she subsequently lost her job on an auto-parts assembly line. Now she is out of jail and trying to make a new start. The factory will take her back, but only as an unskilled laborer with a chance to work her way back to her old job. On the other hand, an Internet retailer needs customer service personnel, and in spite of her record with the law, they are willing to consider Tamora’s application because she scored high on a battery of tests. Given the fact that both jobs offer about the same level of pay and benefits, the best option for Tamora is to

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A) realize that both jobs represent dying industries and continue looking for a position that has more of a future. B) give the Internet retail job a try because it does not involve physical labor and therefore will be better for her as she ages. C) take the Internet retail job because it is part of a growing industry but realize that she needs to work on her anger issues. D) go back to the factory because she already has contacts there and stands a good chance of quickly working her way into her old job. E) recognize the growth potential in the industrial sector and that she should go back to the factory with the knowledge that she has a long-term future there.

86)

Under management by objectives (MBO), employees meet with their manager in order to

A) B) C) D) E)

evaluate one another’s performance with regard to their respective positions. ascertain whether the setting of goals or objectives is proceeding properly. work out differences regarding their approaches to the job performance rating. develop a set of mutually agreed-upon objectives that are measurable and specific. create mutually agreeable subjective criteria for evaluating job performance.

87) Many organizations gauge the performance of their employees by referring to the achievement of goals and objectives on which the employees have input, even though the system may not be referred to as ________ in the organization itself.

A) B) C) D) E)

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O*NET MBO 360-degree feedback BARS Forced ranking

88) Applied Diagnostics and Technologies, a firm with more than 300 employees, is applying the management by objectives approach to some of its workers, but not all. The reason is that MBO is best for managing the performance of employees who work in jobs for which

A) B) C) D) E)

objective measures of performance can be quantified. an ability to work well with other people is essential. subjective measures of performance apply. the criteria for success are standardized. a high level of skill is involved.

89) The management at Consumer Research Systems, which has several hundred employees, is attempting to determine whether to apply the management by objectives (MBO) or behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) approach for evaluating job performance. In making their choice, they should consider the fact that

A) MBO focuses on performance behaviors, whereas BARS emphasizes both performance behaviors and results. B) MBO emphasizes results as much as performance behaviors, whereas BARS focuses on performance behaviors. C) BARS allows for mutually agreed-upon objectives that are more measurable and specific that those associated with MBO. D) MBO uses “critical incidents”—short descriptions of effective and ineffective behaviors—which are not part of the BARS system. E) BARS permits employees and managers to agree on a time period for achieving objectives, whereas MBO leaves this open-ended.

90) The management technique, known as ________, involves measuring performance by directly assessing job performance behaviors.

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A) B) C) D) E)

behaviorally anchored rating scales management by objectives 360-degree feedback forced ranking job analysis

91) The behaviorally anchored ratings scales (BARS) approach uses “________,” which are short descriptions of effective and ineffective behaviors, to create a measure that can be used to evaluate employee performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

critical feedback workplace feedback critical incidents workplace incidents forced rankings

92) Under the behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) system, critical incidents are short descriptions of ________ employee performance.

A) B) C) D) evaluating E)

the various tasks involved in the job, making it possible to subjectively evaluate effective and ineffective behaviors that make it possible to subjectively evaluate effective and ineffective behaviors used to create a measure for evaluating the various tasks involved in the job, which are used to create a measure for effective and ineffective behaviors that may or may not characterize

93) The management approach, ________, involves collecting performance information not only from the supervisor but also from anyone else who might have firsthand knowledge about the employee’s performance behaviors.

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A) B) C) D) E)

behaviorally anchored rating scales management by objectives 360-degree feedback forced ranking benchmarking

94) In ________, a performance evaluation system, managers differentiate employees relative to one another.

A) B) C) D) E)

forced ranking BARS the MBO process 360-degree feedback an employee evaluation

95) Due to financial difficulties, the management of Briteway Sav-N-Shop, a chain of retail stores, is planning to cut some of the office staff at its headquarters. Therefore, the chief operations officer instructs Daniel, the human resources director, to develop a system for evaluating workers in terms of their performance. The objective is to divide the workforce into three groups: the top producers, who should be retained at any cost; the lost causes, who will need to be cut; and the mid-level performers, whose jobs are relatively assured—at least for now. This method is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

96)

behaviorally anchored rating scales. management by objectives. forced ranking. benchmarking. ranking curves.

Among the problems with the forced ranking system is that it

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A) B) C) D) E)

involves algorithms that are too difficult to apply without advanced computers. places too much emphasis on subjective feelings rather than on excellence. requires managers to quantify behaviors that typically defy categorization. promotes too great an emphasis on excelling at the expense of succeeding. discourages employees from stepping outside the bounds of routine task behaviors.

97) Forward Media, an advertising firm, started a monthly online journal dedicated to allowing company personnel to put forth their ideas about improving organizational performance. Open to all employees through the firm’s website, the journal offers an opportunity to give constructive feedback without revealing one’s identity. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

the forced ranking method. a social networking system. a behaviorally anchored rating scale. management by objectives. 360-degree feedback.

98) This morning, several people in the marketing department were called by someone at headquarters asking about their coworker Joanna’s performance on the job. The man explained that he wanted to get each person’s honest assessment of her strengths and weaknesses, and he assured them that they would remain anonymous. Most likely the company is applying the ________ approach to managing employee performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

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forced ranking 360-degree feedback management by objectives behaviorally anchored rating scales job analysis

99) Evaluating an employee’s performance based on results alone provides the best picture of which employees are worth more to an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Job performance is the collected well-known or habitual responses by employees to predictable task demands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Adaptive task performance involves employee responses to task demands that are novel, unusual, or, at the very least, unpredictable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Employees’ performance of routine task behaviors is becoming increasingly important as globalization, technological, advances, and knowledge-based work increase the pace of change in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Creative task performance is the degree to which individuals develop ideas or physical outcomes that are both novel and useful. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

104) Creative task performance is a behavior that is only valuable in jobs such as artist and inventor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) O*NET captures the “numerous small decisions” that separate the most effective organizations from their competitors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Citizenship behavior is defined as voluntary employee activities that may or may not be rewarded. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Interpersonal citizenship behavior is most important when people work in large groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Organizational citizenship behaviors benefit the larger organization by supporting and defending the company, working to improve its operations, and being especially loyal to it. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Property deviance refers to behaviors that harm the organization’s assets and possessions.

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⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Wasting resources is the most common form of production deviance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Political deviance refers to behaviors that intentionally harm the organization’s assets and possessions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Sabotage is the purposeful destruction of equipment, organizational processes, or company products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) In addition to being more cognitive, knowledge work tends to be more structured and static in nature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Service work contexts place a greater premium on high levels of citizenship behavior and low levels of counterproductive behavior. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

115) The MBO approach involves collecting performance information not just from the supervisor but from anyone else who might have firsthand knowledge about the employee’s performance behaviors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Very few 360-degree feedback systems ask employees to provide ratings of their own performance. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

Forced ranking systems can force managers to give bad evaluations to good performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Social media technology has recently been applied in organizational contexts to develop and evaluate employee job performance. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH2 1) Job performance is formally defined as the value of the set of employee behaviors that contribute, either positively or negatively, to organizational goal accomplishment. This definition of job performance includes behaviors that are within the control of employees, but it places a boundary on which behaviors are (and are not) relevant to job performance. You might be tempted to believe it is more appropriate to define performance in terms of results rather than behaviors. However, using results as the primary indicator of job performance creates potential problems. First, employees contribute to their organization in ways that go beyond bottom-line results. Second, there is evidence that managers’ focus on bottom-line results can create a bottom-line mentality among employees, which in turn, results in social undermining. Third, results are often influenced by factors that are beyond the employees’ control—product quality, competition, equipment, technology, budget constraints, coworkers, and supervisors, just to name a few. Fourth, results do not tell you how to reverse a “bad year.” That is, performance feedback based on results does not provide people with the information they need to improve their behavior.

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2) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of the various types of task performance. A sample answer follows.Task performance includes employee behaviors that are directly involved in the transformation of organizational resources into the goods or services that the organization produces. Put differently, task performance is the set of explicit obligations that an employee must fulfill to receive compensation and continued employment. It includes:Routine task performance involves well-known responses to demands that occur in a normal, routine, and predictable way. For example, an accountant’s job involves routine task performance.Adaptive task performance involves employee responses to task demands that are novel, adaptive, unusual, and unpredictable. Examples of adaptive task performance include handling emergencies and crises.Creative task performance refers to the degree to which individuals develop ideas or physical outcomes that are both novel and useful. An example of creative task performance is developing breakthrough products.

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3) Job analysis is a process used to identify task behaviors. It helps in deciding the most important parameters for measuring employee performance. Although there are many different ways to conduct a job analysis, most boil down to three steps. First, a list of the activities involved in a job is generated. This list generally results from data from several sources, including observations, surveys, and interviews of employees. Second, each activity on this list is rated by “subject matter experts,” according to things like the importance and frequency of the activity. Subject matter experts generally have experience performing the job or managing the job and therefore are in a position to judge the importance of specific activities to the organization. Third, the activities that are rated highly in terms of their importance and frequency are retained and used to define task performance. Those retained behaviors then find their way into training programs as learning objectives and into performance evaluation systems as measures to evaluate task performance.

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4) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of the varieties of citizenship behavior. A sample answer follows.The two types of citizenship behavior are interpersonal and organizational.Interpersonal citizenship behavior includes all those behaviors that benefit coworkers and colleagues. These involve assisting, supporting, and developing other organizational members in a way that goes way beyond normal job expectations. Subcategories include the following:• Helping: assisting coworkers who have heavy workloads, aiding them with personal matters, and showing new employees the ropes when they first arrive on the job.• Courtesy: keeping coworkers informed about matters that are relevant to them.• Sportsmanship: maintaining a good attitude with coworkers, even when they have done something annoying or when the unit is going through tough times.Organizational citizenship behavior includes behaviors that benefit the larger organization by supporting and defending the company, working to improve its operations, and being especially loyal to it. Subcategories include the following:• Voice: speaking up and offering constructive suggestions for change.• Civic virtue: participating in the company’s operations at a deeper-than-normal level by attending voluntary meetings and functions, reading and keeping up with organizational announcements, and keeping abreast of business news that affects the company.• Boosterism: representing the organization in a positive way when out in public, away from the office, and away from work.

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5) Jane performed in a work group with four other workers, meeting first thing on Friday mornings. Steve had missed four of the last six meetings but was otherwise a high performer, always performing his tasks on time. While waiting for the meeting to start, Jane and Sue are talking and Jane wonders aloud if Steve will be present for today’s meeting. Sue says “Between you and me? I think Steve has a drinking problem. That is why he cannot make the morning meetings.” Jane had not considered anything like that before, but now she would look for other clues.Kendra was leaving the office late one evening and her bag accidentally knocked over a potted plant that was sitting on one of the cubicle dividers. The plant fell into her coworkers’ workspace, tragically landing right in the middle of a nearly completed building model her coworker had been working on for two weeks. Kendra felt awful but there was nothing to be done now, she would speak to her coworker the next day.The CEO retired and Mark, a middle manager, was very dissatisfied with Cedric, the replacement the board voted in last week. Mark never liked working with Cedric, let alone reporting directly to Cedric. When Cedric announced a new payroll system was rolling out by the beginning of the next fiscal year, Mark started nitpicking the plan apart to each of his fellow middle managers and the employees directly under him until they too were unhappy with the planned payroll system change.The sales group that both Tim and Devonte worked in was full of high achievers. The group won accolades nearly every month. However, Tim nearly always had the lowest sales total in any given month. When entering meetings, Devonte would greet others by name, but when he got to Tim, he greeted him with, “Hello, Mr. Last Place” or “Hi Mr. Weak Link.” Everyone laughed it off, but it was starting to annoy Tim.Carl worked in maintenance and his supervisor instructed Carl to “touch up” the yellow paint on the ten 2-foot concrete poles at the far edge of the parking lot. When Carl drove the small service vehicle up to the poles, he realized Version 1

they did not need very much paint as they still looked bright and visible with only a few missing chips of paint here or there. Carl took two whole days to “touch up” the ten concrete poles and used ten cans of yellow spray paint in the process.Kiera enjoyed her job as a legal assistant and liked Mr. Vincent, the lawyer she worked for. Another lawyer in the same office, also had a legal assistant, Tina, who nobody liked. Tina had been at this job longer than any of the other assistants and seemed to take joy in making the other assistants squirm. Tina never greeted anyone in the mornings, instead heading straight to her desk. Everyone quickly learned not to greet Tina, or they would get an earful before the workday even began.Analyze the information and discern which behaviors are property deviance, which are production deviance, which are political deviance, and which are personal aggression behaviors. Also identify which are interpersonal behaviors versus organizational behaviors and distinguish which are minor offenses and which are serious offenses.Student answers should resemble the sample answer provided.In the first scenario, Sue is gossiping by stating facts not confirmed as true during casual conversation. Sue does not know that Steve has a drinking problem, there may be other reasons for him being absent from recent meetings. Steve still performs his work tasks on time. Gossiping is considered a political deviance meant to intentionally disadvantage other individuals, such as Steve. Gossiping is considered a minor interpersonal counterproductive behavior.There was no counterproductive behavior in the second scenario as one of the requirements of a behavior being labeled as counterproductive is that the behavior was intentional. Kendra knocking the plant off onto her coworker’s model was an accident and not intentional, although it was destructive and will likely inconvenience her coworker.In the third incident, Mark is sabotaging the new payroll system the company plans to introduce. Mark is talking down the new system to his coworkers and Version 1

his employees. This type of talk is often contagious and now his coworkers and employees also have a negative opinion of the new system. Sabotage is a property deviance, a serious organizational counterproductive behavior.Devonte’s greeting Tim as “Mr. Weak Link” rather than Tim’s proper name is a form of harassment. Devonte is subjecting Tim to unwanted verbal remarks on an ongoing basis. Although the names are laughed off at the time, they can cause Tim distress in the long-term. Harassment is considered personal aggression, a serious interpersonal counterproductive behavior.In the fifth scenario, Carl used way more paint than he needed and took much longer to perform the “touch up” on the concrete poles than he needed. This is a classic example of wasting resources, a production deviance. Although wasting resources is considered a minor organizational counterproductive behavior, it is also the most common form of production deviance.In the final scenario, Tina shows all the signs of incivility, she is rude, impolite, discourteous, and lacking in good manners. Incivility is considered a political deviance, a minor interpersonal counterproductive behavior.

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6) Most notable among these trends are the decline of physical, industrial jobs and the rise of cognitive, service jobs.Today, statistics from the U.S. Department of Labor confirm that knowledge work is becoming more prevalent than jobs involving physical activity. It requires employees to engage in cognitive work, applying theoretical and analytical knowledge acquired through formal education and continuous learning. In addition to being more cognitive, knowledge work tends to be more fluid and dynamic in nature.One of the largest and fastest growing sectors in the economy is not in industries that produce goods, but rather in industries that provide services. Service work, or work that provides nontangible goods to customers through direct electronic, verbal, or physical interaction, accounts for a large part of the economic activity in the United States. Examples of service work include retail jobs, customer service representatives, and food service workers. 7) The increase in service jobs has a number of implications for job performance. For example, the costs of bad task performance are more immediate and more obvious. When customer service representatives do their job duties poorly, the customer is right there to notice. That failure cannot be hidden or corrected by other employees chipping in before it is too late. In addition, service work contexts place a greater premium on high levels of citizenship behavior and low levels of counterproductive behavior. If service employees refuse to help one another or maintain good sportsmanship, or if they gossip and insult one another, those negative emotions get transmitted to the customer during the service encounter. Maintaining a positive work environment therefore becomes even more vital.

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8) Under Price Sr., Sunrise Roofing operated up to five crews, each containing five workers. Each crew contained three positions on the roof and two on the ground. Each position had assigned tasks, but Price Sr. liked his workers to be versatile and able to work any position, upper or lower, on any given day. Under Price Sr., every employee was evaluated and paid at the same level and he hired new crews each roofing season. Price Sr. traveled from jobsite to jobsite overseeing the work and handling any problems. When evaluating workers, Price Sr. kept notes and logged individual feedback from fellow workers, but mainly relied on his observations to decide if a worker was called back to work the next season. Workers who had worked for Price Sr. previously would perform at a higher level while the boss was on the jobsite and routinely fed him negative feedback about fellow workers. In addition, workers often fought over who would perform the relatively easier ground jobs each day. At the end of each roofing season, Price Sr. did not formally meet with any of his workers, nor tell them if they would be called back the followed season but the workers were aware of the company’s practice.Currently, Price Jr. coordinates up to ten crews of six workers, each crew contains the same five positions with an additional crew boss. Each job position is static and the only position requiring any versatility is the crew boss, who is required to jump in and work any position as needed. Under Price Jr., Sunrise Roofing retains its workers who draw unemployment during the off-season. He hires each season only enough workers to fill vacant positions. All workers start at the same hourly pay but if retained, the worker receives a year-end bonus and a raise effective the following season. The younger Price stays in near constant contact with his crew bosses through daily jobsite visits, phone calls and texts. Nearly every crew boss communicates with their crew using calls and texts. Price Jr. formally evaluates workers at the end of every season, relying mainly on his crew bosses for the majority of input, but Version 1

he also considers coworker feedback collected throughout the season. Crew bosses log on to the company website once a week and submit weekly progress reports. Crew bosses report not only on job progress but also on individual worker behaviors such as arriving on time, effort, and daily attitude with fellow coworkers. Price Jr. views the reports and follows up with questions or clarifications, making his own notes on each report. At the end of each roofing season, Price Jr. meets personally with each worker, reviews their work with them, asks for their input and determines if they are eligible for retention, along with the year-end bonus and pay raise.Of the four well-known practices in which job performance information is used to manage employee performance, which do you predict was being used at Sunrise Roofing when Price Sr. owned the company and rationalize your choice? Does it appear the evaluation practice has changed under the management of Price Jr.? Assess the information and deduce if Sunrise Rooking is currently using one or more approaches. Provide your conclusion and rationalize your choice.Student may choose and rationalize any of the four job performance evaluation practices, but their answer should exhibit some of the points given in the following sample answer.Under the direction of Dale Price Sr., Sunrise Roofing was not using the MBO method as there was not objective measures of performance involved. Price Sr. may have used a form of BARS with a mental comparison of different job dimensions against actual worker performance but there was no feedback of any kind to the workers allowing for task improvement. While Price Sr. considered coworker feedback similar to the 360-degree feedback system, there appears to be the potential for highly inaccurate information contained in the feedback, evidenced in the competitive nature of the workers. There were no social networking systems and it appears a forced ranking system was used to determine if a worker was retained for the following season. It appears that Dale Price Sr. was the Version 1

only person doing the ranking, relying mainly on his own observations which were often incorrect as the workers behaved differently while he was on the jobsite.Worker evaluation has changed considerably under the direction of Dale Price Jr. Sunrise Roofing could be using a combination of methods to evaluate worker performance and determine both retention and eligibility for the annual bonus and raise. The MBO method is best suited for managing the performance of employees who work in contexts in which objective measures of performance can be quantified. Aspects of each position could be quantified, such as shingles laid in one minute, but it does not appear worker goals and objectives are formally set at the beginning of the season. Price Jr. may use a form of the BARS system, scoring employee’s overall job performance using “critical incidents” (such as tardiness) provided in the weekly crew boss reports. It is unclear if this feedback is shared with the employees, but possibly shared during the formal evaluation at the end of the season. There are definitely elements of the 360-degree feedback system as Price Jr. asks employees for their own input during the formal evaluation and he already has feedback from their coworkers and crew boss. There is no evidence of a formal social networking system at Sunrise Roofing, but mobile communications allow immediate feedback between Price Jr. and his crew bosses. The likely evaluation method is a form of the 360-degree feedback system and possibly a BARS evaluation.

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9) Former General Electric chairman and CEO Jack Welch’s “vitality curve” forces managers to rank all of their people into one of three categories: the top 20 percent (A players), the vital middle 70 percent (B players), or the bottom 10 percent (C players). The A players are thought to possess “the four Es of GE leadership” (very high energy levels, the ability to energize others around common goals, the edge to make tough yes-and-no decisions, and finally the ability to consistently execute and deliver on their promises). The B players are the focus of development. According to Welch, B players are the backbone of the company but lack the passion of As. The C players are employees who cannot get the job done and should be let go.There are some important limitations to this system of performance management. For example, some believe the system is inherently unfair because it forces managers to give bad evaluations to employees who may be good performers, just to reach a pre-established percentage. Also, employees may become competitive with one another to avoid finding themselves in a lower category, or they may avoid stepping outside the bounds of routine task behaviors for fear of standing out or making a mistake. For these reasons, organizations today (including GE) have moved away from performance management systems that rely upon forced ranking of employees.

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10) Social networking technology has recently been applied in organizational contexts to develop and evaluate employee job performance. Although the effectiveness of social networking applications for performance evaluation and employee development purposes has not been studied scientifically, there are some advantages that make us believe that they will grow in popularity. For example, these types of systems provide performance timelier information relative to traditional practices that measure performance quarterly or even yearly. Although it might be unpleasant to learn from your peers that a presentation you gave was boring, it is much better than giving 50 boring presentations over the course of the year and then getting the news from your boss. 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) E 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) D 27) E 28) D Version 1

29) E 30) A 31) E 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) C 52) E 53) C 54) E 55) E 56) D 57) B 58) E Version 1

59) D 60) C 61) D 62) C 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) E 67) A 68) E 69) C 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) A 79) D 80) B 81) C 82) E 83) C 84) C 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) A Version 1

89) B 90) A 91) C 92) C 93) C 94) A 95) C 96) E 97) B 98) B 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE Version 1

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Student name:__________ 1) Define organizational commitment and explain why it is important. Discuss why employers work to reduce rates of turnover.

2) Define the three types of organizational commitment including a brief statement of how they differ.

3) Define withdrawal behavior and briefly describe its relationship to organizational commitment.

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4) You work as a human resources intern of a company in the Midwest and are tasked with evaluating three employees for their overall continuance commitment, especially their levels of embeddedness. You are given the following information on each of the three employees.Agnes was born in the community and has worked at the company for 35 years, from straight out of high school. She performs routine data entry work and is satisfied with her work. Agnes’ real love is gardening, and she spends all of her time after work in her garden. She is an active member in the local gardening club, along with two of her sisters. At work, Agnes completes her work tasks but her attention to detail is lacking at times. Agnes’ husband is an executive in the local insurance company and there is talk to transfer him to the satellite office in Atlanta. While it would be hard to leave her family, all Agnes can think about is the possibility of a longer growing season.Jamal was also born in the area and has worked at the company for 23 years, in nearly every department. He is a talented project manager and the company has used Jamal to coordinate projects all over the company. Jamal likes working for the company and feels proud of his accomplishments. He has several friends who live in the area and travels with them often on whitewater adventure trips. Jamal has a friend on the West Coast who would love to have him come work at his company. Jamal has entertained the idea, and his friend would match the pay and benefits he is currently receiving. As a single man with no kids, a new locale could be a good move for him.Eli has worked at the company for four years, since graduating from college and moving here from his hometown in Austin. He has friends both within the company and outside of work through the local hobby shop, but he misses his friends and family in Texas. Eli works as a marketing manager utilizes his fresh skills from his recent business degree and the paycheck allows him to live comfortably and pay his school loans down quickly. Eli has started thinking about applying to jobs closer to Austin, or even in Austin. He now dreams of chucking that parka he bought when he moved to the Midwest. Given the three facets—links, fit, and sacrifice—using both work and nonwork reasons, evaluate how embedded each person likely feels and assess their overall continuance commitment. Who do you rank as having the highest continuance commitment?

Define and compare the compensatory forms and progression models of withdrawal.

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6) Describe the four types of employees using the combination of two variables: organizational commitment and task performance.

7) World Décor and Home has issued a notice that it will not be giving bonuses and raises to employees in the next quarter due to a downturn in profits. How do you think employees will react to this change? Describe the reactions likely experienced by each of the following four types of employees: stars, citizens, lone wolves, and apathetics.

Explain the different kinds of psychological withdrawal.

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Describe the different forms of physical withdrawal.

10) The demographics at Martin Industries have shifted dramatically over the past ten years. In the past, the organization was largely dominated by white male employees born in the United States, but today almost half of Martin’s higher-level technical staff were born in foreign countries. In addition, the percentage of older workers has decreased as they have retired, and the younger employees seem to be less motivated by commitment to the organization. What steps should be taken by Martin Industries to increase employees’ commitment to the organization?

11) Describe the specific practices organizations can engage in to foster each of the three forms of commitment. Give an example of each.

12) Which of the following terms refers to the desire on the part of an employee to remain a member of the organization?

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A) B) C) D) E)

organizational efficacy organizational control organizational efficiency organizational commitment organizational effectiveness

13) The set of actions that employees perform to avoid the work situation that may eventually culminate in the employee quitting the organization are referred to as ________ behavior.

A) B) C) D) E)

productivity commitment performance withdrawal citizenship

14) Lucy has a good job she likes, and she is always striving to please her boss. This behavior is a result of

A) B) C) D) E)

self-maintenance. employee attrition. normative commitment. organizational satisfaction. organizational commitment.

15) Tamara shows classic withdrawal behavior and is no longer performing her work tasks effectively. Her friends know she has very little organizational commitment. Tamara is likely

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A) B) C) D) E)

to feel embedded. to have affective commitment. to quit. a “lone wolf.” to feel a sense of guilt.

16) The desire to remain a member of an organization due to emotional attachment to, and involvement with, that organization is called ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance affective evaluative normative associative

17) Chloe loves her job, admires her boss, and believes in the goals and vision of the company she works for. She cannot imagine looking for or finding a better job. Chloe most likely is demonstrating

A) B) C) D) E)

a high level of organizational commitment. a normative level of organizational commitment. high job performance. low job performance. withdrawal behaviors.

18) ________ commitment is defined as a desire to remain a member of an organization because of an awareness of the costs associated with leaving it.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Continuance Affective Associative Normative Situational

19) A desire to remain a member of an organization due to a feeling of obligation is called ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance affective associative normative evaluative

20) Maddie has been working as the creative head at Juno Designs for the past 25 years. Although she likes her job, she has begun to feel like she is in a creative slump and has been considering leaving to start her own company. Maddie will be eligible for retirement in five years. After discussing it with her husband, she decides that leaving now would be a mistake. After she retires, she will reconsider the idea of starting her own company. This is an example of ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance affective ethical normative associative

21) Which of the following terms refers to the various people, places, and things that can inspire a desire to remain a member of an organization?

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A) B) C) D) E)

22)

focus of influence focus of commitment focus of attention focus of performance focus of dominance

The term “focus of commitment” can refer to each of the following, except

A) B) C) D) E)

supervisors. the company’s top management. salary. specific coworkers. industry regulations.

23) Employees who feel a sense of ________ commitment tend to engage in more interpersonal and organizational citizenship behaviors, such as helping, sportsmanship, and boosterism.

A) B) C) D) E)

normative evaluative affective proactive continuance

24) The ________ model suggests that employees with fewer bonds will be most likely to quit the organization.

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A) B) C) D) E)

social influence social impact erosion decay continuity

25) The ________ model suggests that employees who have direct linkages with “leavers” will themselves become more likely to leave.

A) B) C) D) E)

social influence affective continuance decay social identity

26) Since Ginny’s company switched management, they have stopped doing many of the fun, team-building activities they used to do, and the workplace culture has changed for the worse. A few weeks ago, Ginny’s friend Surya quit, and now Ginny and her coworker Tom are thinking of quitting too. This shows the power of ________ in affecting employee attitudes.

A) B) C) D) E)

erosion continuance social identity social influence negative influence

27) Sanjita is rather quiet at her workplace. Her only friend at work, Marisol, quit the company a month ago. The ________ model suggests that Sanjita is more likely to quit her job because Marisol is no longer working in the same organization.

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A) B) C) D) E)

social identity continuance progression embedded social influence

28) Which of the following terms refers to the work and nonwork forces that bind us to our current employer?

A) B) C) D) E)

normative impact affective influence industry regulations embeddedness social influence

29) Which of the following is one of the three types of organizational commitment that focuses on personal and family issues more than the other two commitment types?

A) B) C) D) E)

evaluative commitment continuance commitment associative commitment affective commitment normative commitment

30) Lamar works for the United Bank at Madison. He feels overworked and dislikes his job, but he cannot quit because he needs the job to repay his college loans. What type of commitment does Lamar have?

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A) B) C) D) E)

31)

continuance commitment normative commitment affective commitment cognitive commitment intuitive commitment

The factors that increase normative commitment include

A) B) C) D) E)

salary and other monetary benefits. availability of employment opportunities. a sense that the organization has invested in the employee. links to the local community. organizational culture.

32) There are two ways to build a sense of obligation-based commitment among employees: one way is to create a feeling that employees are in the organization’s debt, and the other way is by

A) B) C) D) E)

33)

becoming a particularly charitable organization. narrowing the focus of commitment. enhancing the visibility of the organization’s goals and values. strengthening an employee’s embeddedness. increasing employee benefit packages.

Normative commitment from employees can result from all of these except

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A) B) C) D) E)

the personal work principles of employees. organizational socialization. the creation of a feeling that the employee is in the organization’s debt. an increase in the organization’s charitable activities. implementation of a matrix structure in the organization.

34) Hector works as an assistant coach for the Boise Geysers in the U.S. Basketball Association. Recently, he was offered the position of head coaching duties with the Boulder Mountain Goats. Although their offer was very attractive, and it would have been a huge career move for Hector, he declined the offer. He felt it was with Geysers that he had learned and developed as a coach and that staying with the team was the right thing to do. This is an example of ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance intuitive evaluative normative affective

35) Sofia, Faisal, and Tad are coworkers at Crossroads, Inc. All three have worked at Crossroads for five years now. One day while eating lunch together, Sofia remarks that she heard their colleague Margo recently quit and went to work for a competitor. Each of the three has a different opinion about Margo’s leaving, and they all have their own reasons for continuing to stay at Crossroads. Faisal remarks that it is not worthwhile for him to leave like Margo because he has put in the time and hard work for a promotion. If he left for another company, he would not likely get this opportunity again soon. Faisal is exhibiting ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

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continuance affective obligation-based normative skill-based

36) When Faisal asks Tad how he feels about Margo’s leaving and about his own reasons for staying with the company, Tad replies that for him, it is the company’s relaxed atmosphere and his best friends at Crossroads that keeps him working there. Tad is exhibiting ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance affective evaluative normative associative

37) When Faisal and Tad ask Sofia her thoughts on the matter, she notes that Margo had no bonds to CI. She was relatively new and had not invested any time there. Sofia says, “Crossroads gave me an opportunity and invested so much in mentoring me, preparing me for the position, and showing me the ropes. There is no way that I could desert them by leaving for another company.” Sofia is exhibiting ________ commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance intuitive evaluative normative affective

38) Omar and Sari work as designers at Hologram Marketing. Recently, Sari’s husband got a new job in a city 50 miles away, and they have decided to move there. Sari already has a new job lined up that pays about the same as her current one and has a better benefits package, but she is sad about leaving because she has made so many close friends during her 15 years at Hologram. Omar is relatively new to the company, having just completed his design degree a few months ago. He completed an internship while in school, but Hologram was the first agency to make him a job offer. Sari tells him she has considered turning down the job offer in the new city and commuting to Hologram instead. She then asks Omar how he feels about working at Hologram. How would Omar most likely respond? Version 1

A) “I’m just thrilled to have any job, even if it’s not my ideal in the long run. The job market is terrible right now.” B) “Even though the pay isn’t what I hoped for, I can apply for a raise in six months. Most companies make you wait a year.” C) “You should take the new job. I like it here, but the salary’s not all that great. If I got a better offer, I’d leave in a heartbeat.” D) “It’s a great offer, but I’d never leave unless I had to. Even though I haven’t been here as long as you, I felt welcomed right away.” E) “I think if you decide to take that other job, I will probably leave as well. Hologram is great, but I’m sure there’s something else out there for me.”

39) Hung and Suzanne were both nurses working at the same hospital which instituted a new “corporate volunteering” program. Neither Hung nor Suzanne volunteered in their community before but Hung signs up for the program, Suzanne does not. Hung begins volunteering at the local Red Cross twice a month during blood drives. A few months later, how does Hung likely feel about her work duties after becoming a volunteer?

A) B) C) D) E)

She feels resentful, since she is essentially working for free. She feels more engaged in her work. She likes volunteering but finds it interferes with her job. She enjoys volunteering, but her colleagues think she is kissing up to management. She likes volunteering but feels it has become a distraction.

40) Which of the following answer options is one of the four primary responses to negative events at work?

A) B) C) D) E)

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looking busy loyalty volunteering anxiety commitment

41) An active, constructive response to a negative work situation in which individuals attempt to improve the situation, is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

voice. neglect. loyalty. exit. honesty.

42) A passive, constructive response to negative work events that maintains public support for the situation while the individual privately hopes for improvement is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

voice. exit. neglect. loyalty. ignorance.

43) Which of the following terms refers to a passive, destructive response to negative work events in which interest and effort in the job decline?

A) B) C) D) E)

exit loyalty voice ignorance neglect

44) Organizational commitment should decrease the likelihood that an individual will respond to a negative work event with Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

exit or neglect. loyalty or neglect. neglect or voice. exit or voice. exit or loyalty.

45) Organizational commitment increases the likelihood that an individual will respond to a negative work event with

A) B) C) D) E)

loyalty or neglect. exit or loyalty. voice or exit. loyalty or voice. neglect or exit.

46) “Stars” are one of the four types of employees based on the degree of organizational commitment and task performance. Stars are likely to respond to negative work events with ________ because they have the desire to improve the status quo and the credibility needed to inspire change.

A) B) C) D) E)

loyalty exit neglect voice ignorance

47) “Citizens” are one of the four types of employees based on the degree of organizational commitment and task performance. “Citizens” are likely to respond to negative work events with ________ because they may not have the credibility needed to inspire change but possess the desire to remain a member of the organization.

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A) B) C) D) E)

loyalty exit neglect voice ignorance

48) Although their performance would give them the credibility needed to inspire change, their lack of attachment prevents them from using that credibility constructively. This best describes which type of employee?

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

stars lone wolves citizens apathetics dogs

Which of the following statements concerning withdrawal behaviors in not true?

A) Lone wolves are likely to enact the ultimate withdrawal behavior when faced with negative work events. B) Withdrawal behavior is the flip side of organizational commitment. C) Withdrawal behaviors are rarely displayed in U.S. workers. D) Apathetics display withdrawal behaviors when confronted with negative work events. E) Neglect is a passive, destructive withdrawal response to negative work events.

50) Thurston’s friend Bao is thinking of applying for a job at Thurston’s company. Thurston tells Bao it’s a great place to work, but secretly Thurston dislikes his boss and is hoping he will retire soon. Thurston is demonstrating

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A) B) C) D) E)

apathy. neglect. loyalty. passivity. withdrawal.

51) Perry was recently hired to join the marketing team at Axon International. He will be starting at the company in two weeks. Perry has the reputation of being an expert in ad campaigns and catching the attention of the target audience. However, he also has the reputation of not getting along with anyone. He does not care much about where or for whom he works and is primarily motivated to achieve goals for himself and beat his own records. Perry can be described as a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

star. lone wolf. citizen. apathetic. dog.

52) Annalise worked with Perry five years ago at a different company, and they had constant personality clashes. Annalise is a team player who prizes loyalty to the team above individual accomplishments. She has been unhappy at Axon for some time and has been considering sending out her CV to other companies. However, when she discovers that Perry is joining the team, she turns in her resignation. Annalise’s response is best described as an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

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ignorance. neglect. loyalty. voice. exit.

53) Sunil, another Axon team member, calls Perry and meets him for lunch to express all the team members’ concerns and to smooth things out before Perry formally joins the team. Sunil's actions best exemplify

A) B) C) D) E)

ignorance. neglect. loyalty. voice. volunteering.

54) ________ possess low levels of organizational commitment but high levels of task performance and are motivated to achieve work goals for themselves, not necessarily for their company.

A) B) C) D) E)

55)

Stars Citizens Dogs Apathetics Lone wolves

Lone wolves are likely to respond to negative events with

A) B) C) D) E)

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loyalty. exit. neglect. voice. ignorance.

56) The talented employees who display high level of task performance but never seem to want to get involved in important decisions about the future of the company are most likely to be

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

citizens. dogs. apathetic. lone wolves. stars.

________ merely exert the minimum level of effort needed to keep their jobs.

A) B) C) D) E)

Apathetics Citizens Dogs Stars Lone wolves

58) ________ represent the flip side of organizational commitment, both are withdrawal behaviors.

A) B) C) D) E)

Voice and neglect Neglect and loyalty Voice and exit Exit and neglect Exit and loyalty

59) Apathetics tend to respond to negative events with ________ because they are low performers who lack marketable skills and who do not have a high enough level of organizational commitment needed to engage in acts of citizenship.

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A) B) C) D) E)

loyalty exit influence voice neglect

60) Tonya is a new hire at The Eagleton Eye, a local weekly publication. She does not like her job and is not committed to the organization. She hardly exerts even the effort that is required to keep her job. Tonya is staying with the paper because she does not want to be unemployed. Tonya is a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

star. citizen. lone wolf. apathetic. dog.

61) Bryce continually breaks off from his assigned tasks to check sports news or check his friends’ Facebook updates. He is engaging in

A) B) C) D) E)

cyberloafing, which is a type of psychological withdrawal. psychological withdrawal, which is a type of daydreaming. cyberloafing, which is a type of antisocial behavior. socializing, which is a type of psychological withdrawal. psychological absenteeism, which is a type of negative organizational behavior.

62) Thalia works in the accounting department at a major department store. Though she does her job reasonably well, she is often late to work and frequently calls in sick. She’s cordial with other employees and her boss but is not given to socializing. Thalia is a(n)

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A) B) C) D) E)

citizen. apathetic. lone wolf. seat-warmer. daydreamer.

63) Tariq and Noelle work in the sales department at CTI Telecommunications. Tariq is the star salesman of the department and makes it his mission to motivate the rest of the team when sales numbers are down or when there are problems interacting with other departments. Meanwhile, Noelle consistently ranks in the middle or near the bottom in terms of sales, and she often gets distracted by calls from her teenage son. She also spends more time than she should socializing with friends in other departments. However, everyone, including the bosses, loves Noelle because of her true-blue loyalty to the company and her team. What else is most likely true of Noelle?

A) Because she is so well-liked, her suggestions for improvements to the company or team culture are taken very seriously. B) She will do minor office tasks, like going out to get supplies, but she does them grudgingly and after a lot of complaining. C) She functions better as part of a team than as an individual worker, but sometimes her lack of “stepping up” annoys her coworkers. D) She volunteers to do the mundane tasks others avoid, and she does things like buying birthday cards for coworkers and organizing parties. E) She gets easily discouraged by negative events at work, such as team disagreements or in-fighting, and it affects her work performance.

64) ________ refers to conversations about nonwork topics that go on in cubicles and offices, in the mailroom, or at vending machines.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Satisficing Moonlighting Daydreaming Socializing Cyberloafing

65) ________ is an intentional desire on the part of employees to appear like they are working, even when they are not performing work tasks.

A) B) C) D) E)

Looking busy Moonlighting Daydreaming Socializing Cyberloafing

66) When employees engage in ________, they use work time and resources to complete something other than their job duties, such as assignments for another job.

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

daydreaming moonlighting social loafing satisficing cyberloafing

There are two types of withdrawal within an organizational setting, and they are

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

68)

affective and normative. psychological and physical. social and erosive. voice and neglect. transactional and relational.

Which of the following is a psychological withdrawal behavior?

A) B) C) D) E)

tardiness missing meetings long breaks moonlighting absenteeism

69) ________ is a form of withdrawal in which employees appear to be working but are actually distracted by random thoughts or concerns.

A) B) C) D) E)

70)

Moonlighting Cyberloafing Socializing Satisficing Daydreaming

Which of the following is a form of physical withdrawal?

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A) B) C) D) E)

71)

daydreaming moonlighting tardiness socializing cyberloafing

Missing meetings is a form of ________ withdrawal.

A) B) C) D) E)

psychological physical cultural community social

72) Tom could not understand his coworkers’ dissatisfaction with Mabel, although Tom did not have to work directly with her as some of his coworkers did. His coworkers complained that although she attended every meeting, Mabel never had any of her assigned tasks completed on time. She seemed to be a quite worker, he hardly heard anything from her. In addition, every day he saw her zoom past his cubicle with a handful of papers looking like she was on a mission of some type. It may be that Mabel was

A) B) C) D) E)

73)

embedded. looking busy. withdrawing physically. socializing. a lone wolf.

The most serious form of physical withdrawal is

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A) B) C) D) E)

absenteeism. tardiness. long breaks. quitting. missing meetings.

74) According to the ________ model of withdrawal, various withdrawal behaviors are uncorrelated with one another, occur for different reasons, and fulfill different needs on the part of employees.

A) B) C) D) E)

independent forms compensatory forms progression normative nominal

75) The ________ model of withdrawal argues that the various withdrawal behaviors negatively correlate with one another—that doing one means you are less likely to do another.

A) B) C) D) E)

independent forms compensatory forms progression normative nominal

76) Which model of withdrawal argues that the various withdrawal behaviors are positively correlated—for example, the tendency to daydream or socialize leads to the tendency to come in late or take long breaks, which leads to the tendency to be absent or quit?

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A) B) C) D) E)

independent forms compensatory forms progression normative nominal

77) Josie, Ignacio, Myra, Randall, and Dinesh work in the human resources department at an educational software company. In the next two weeks, one of them will quit. Based on their behavior, who do you think will be the one to leave?

A) Josie, who spends a lot of time in the break room chatting with her friends at the company B) Ignacio, who often gets caught just zoning out at his desk when there are deadlines to meet C) Dinesh, who always arrives late and leaves early and has been out sick four times in the last six weeks D) Randall, who always volunteers to leave in the middle of the day to get supplies and then is gone for hours E) Myra, who spends more time and focus on her freelance design projects at work than on her actual assignments

78)

Which model of withdrawal has received the most scientific support?

A) B) C) D) E)

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individualistic model compensatory forms model independent forms model autonomous model progression model

79) Priya is sitting at her desk. On her computer screen are several documents for a project that she is supposed to have finished by 2:00 p.m. She is staring at the screen and has her hand on her mouse, but she is thinking about the after-work party she has been invited to. Her colleague Damien walks by and snaps his fingers. “Earth to Priya!” he says. Priya is engaged in

A) B) C) D) E)

80)

exit. satisficing. looking busy. daydreaming. moonlighting.

Which of the following is true of absenteeism?

A) B) C) D) E)

Long attendance streaks tend to be self-perpetuating. Employees with good attendance records rarely take sick days. Employees are more likely to be absent on Mondays and Fridays. An employee who is frequently absent will usually end up quitting. Up to 65 percent of employees have lied about their reasons for absence.

81) At first, Caihong loved her job as an assistant editor at Bradbury Publishers. It was her dream job, made even better by the fact that her boss, Forrest, had a warm, inspiring personality and placed a lot of trust in his employees. He also had a goofy, witty personality that made everyone laugh. Caihong looked forward to work and felt personally committed to helping Forrest achieve his goals for the department. However, Forrest retired a few months ago, and his replacement, Bryan, is his complete opposite—a bottom-line-focused, unpleasant, demanding boss who is always questioning Caihong’s and her team’s abilities and decisions. Caihong never misses a day and still likes the actual work she does, but she has begun to find ways to avoid having to interact with Bryan. Which of the following has Caihong most likely started engaging in?

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A) B) C) D) E) meetings

checking her friends’ Instagram pages and chatting with friends on Facebook updating her CV and combing through online job sites during her work breaks going over to the marketing department to chat with her friends Ellie and Salman fantasizing about quitting her job and going off to teach English in a foreign country taking longer than usual breaks and making excuses for missing department

82) ________ adjustment, the extent to which expatriates have difficulty socializing and interacting with members of the host culture, can affect the level of organizational commitment in global organizations.

A) B) C) D) E)

Interaction Cultural Work Psychological Relational

83) The ________ syndrome is characterized by anger, depression, fear, distrust, and guilt that affects the employees who remain with an organization after a downsizing.

A) B) C) D) E)

employee survivor stress erosion decay

84) ________ contracts reflect employees’ beliefs about what they owe the organization and what the organization owes them.

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A) B) C) D) E)

85)

Cultural Transactional Psychological Normative Relational

________contracts are based on a narrow set of specific monetary obligations.

A) B) C) D) E)

Normative Relational Transactional Continuance Progression

86) NewDay Investments is cutting its workforce in large numbers because of the current recession. The employees who still have their jobs are angered and depressed by the layoffs. They have lost the trust they had in management and are not sure if their futures are secure. They are facing the ________ syndrome.

A) B) C) D) E)

outsourcing survivor decay erosion progression

87) ________ contracts are based on a broader set of open-ended and subjective obligations than ________ contracts.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Transactional; continuance Relational; transactional Normative; relational Progression; continuance Continuance; psychological

88) Tom and Zorah are having a discussion about the representation of minorities in the workforce. Tom thinks that, in general, all minority groups are equally represented, but Zorah corrects him. What does Zorah point out to Tom?

A) Representation is about the same as it was in the 1970s and 1980s. B) The workforce is still much more dominated by men than by women. C) The percentage of minority employees peaked a few years ago and is now declining. D) The percentage of minority employees peaked in the early 2000s and has plateaued since then. E) While minorities are better represented, Asians still only make up about 5 percent of the workforce.

89) Ian and Ubed are engineers at Seedling Laboratories. Ubed comments that during a conversation with his neighbor Nick the other day, Nick expressed a common stereotype about foreign employees. What did Ian’s neighbor Nick likely say?

A) that most immigrants in the United States are in service-related jobs or in blue-collar positions B) that less than a quarter of the scientists and mathematicians in the United States are foreign-born C) that many of the most educated employees, particularly in STEM, come from abroad D) that fewer Americans are working as expatriates in foreign countries than in the past E) that because of globalism, being an expatriate is less stressful than most people think

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90) Wythe Pharmaceuticals recently merged with a large multinational company, Valence Group. The new management made many changes. They decided to move the bulk of manufacturing overseas and cut the marketing department in half. They also restructured the research and development branch. The result was massive reorganization at every level, along with major downsizing that affected almost 20 percent of the Wythe workforce. Due to the downsizing, Hugh and Deanna lost their jobs, but their colleague Eloise was able to keep hers. Which statement about the friends is most likely true two months later?

A) Hugh and Deanna experienced a marked increase in depression, even though both quickly found new jobs. B) Eloise experienced a lower level of affective commitment, but her level of normative commitment stayed about the same. C) Because Eloise had to take on new job duties as a result of the changes, her level of organizational commitment increased. D) Hugh and Deanna, in new jobs, experienced less work-related stress overall than Eloise, who felt depressed by the changes. E) Eloise, as one of the survivors, was happier overall, while Hugh and Deanna were still dealing with the psychological fallout.

91) Jaseem likes his job in the bookkeeping department at German Trucking, Inc., but mainly considers it a way to make good money while he pursues his musical career. He is never absent and rarely late, and he gives work his full attention while he is there, but he does not socialize much with the other employees. Jaseem’s attitude indicates that he has a(n) ________ contract with his employer.

A) B) C) D) E)

opportunistic psychological transactional relational normative

92) Many companies pay all or part of an employee’s tuition for Master’s degree programs. If an employee has taken advantage of this, it can increase the employee’s level of ________ commitment. Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

normative affective continuance psychological educational

93) The degree to which employees believe that the organization values their contributions and cares about their well-being is

A) B) C) D) E)

perceived organizational support. affective commitment. social influence. a psychological contract. a relational contract.

94) Mohammed’s company recently began offering a series of free leadership seminars aimed at helping lower-level employees enter a management track. It has been very successful, and Mohammed’s department manager remarks to his colleague that he has seen a marked increase in ________ among the employees who have taken it.

A) B) C) D) E)

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employee retention affective commitment perceptions of support normative commitment continuance commitment

95) Over the past year, three of the star salesmen at Family Resorts International’s corporate office have been lured away to competitors. On top of that, Karina, the general manager of the sales department, has noticed that most employees come in, do their jobs, and leave. Family Resorts offers a good salary, benefits, and tuition reimbursement, as well as a number of development and training programs. Most employees seem contented enough, but Karina would like to do something to increase the level of engagement among her staff. What do you think Karina should do?

A) look the other way when employees exhibit minor forms of withdrawal B) have fun weekly contests where teams and individuals compete for prizes, bonuses, and other monetary incentives C) investigate the causes of low commitment by asking employees to complete an anonymous survey detailing their feelings D) update and expand the kinds of development programs they offer, perhaps adding seminars that focus on technological skills E) organize a volunteer program, where staff can work to help kids from disadvantaged backgrounds prepare for professional careers

96) Organizational commitment is the desire on the part of an employee to remain a member of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Withdrawal behavior is a set of actions employees perform to avoid the work situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Employees who feel a sense of continuance commitment identify with the organization, accept that organization’s goals and values, and are more willing to exert extra effort on behalf of the organization.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The social influence model of withdrawal behavior suggests that employees with fewer bonds will be most likely to quit the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Continuance commitment tends to create more of a passive form of loyalty than affective commitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Embeddedness summarizes employees’ links to their organization and community, their sense of fit with that organization and community, and what they would have to sacrifice for a job change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Affective commitment exists when there is a sense that staying is the “right” or “moral” thing to do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Loyalty is defined as an active, constructive response to a negative work event in which individuals attempt to improve the situation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Employees falling under the category of “lone wolves” tend to respond to negative events with voice because they have the desire to improve the status quo and the credibility needed to inspire change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Employees categorized as citizens demonstrate the highest levels of organizational commitment and behave in an active, constructive manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Employees in the category of apathetics demonstrate passive, destructive behavior. They exert the minimum level of effort required to keep their jobs. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Tardiness, long breaks, and missed meetings are actions of psychological withdrawal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) When employees engage in moonlighting, they use work time and resources to complete something other than their job duties, such as assignments for another job. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 36

109)

The most serious form of physical withdrawal is absenteeism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The compensatory forms model of withdrawal argues that the various withdrawal behaviors are positively correlated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Perceived organizational support reflects the degree to which employees believe that the organization values their contributions and cares about their well-being. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Survivor syndrome refers to the anger, depression, fear, distrust, and guilt of the employees who remain after an organization downsizes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Research suggests that the continued participation of Baby Boomers in the workforce will subtract a significant amount from the U.S. economic output. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

114) Psychological contracts reflect employees’ beliefs about what they owe the organization and what the organization owes them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) An effective way for organizations to foster affective commitment is through improving salary and benefits packages. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH3 1) Organizational commitment is defined as the desire on the part of an employee to remain a member of the organization. Organizational commitment sits side-by-side with job performance in an integrative model of organizational behavior. It is not enough to have talented employees who perform their jobs well. Employers also need to be able to hang on to those employees for long periods of time so that the organization can benefit from their efforts. Estimates suggest that turnover costs between 90 percent and 200 percent of an employee’s annual salary. Those estimates include various costs, including the administrative costs involved in the separation, recruitment expenses, screening costs, and training and orientation expenses for the new hire. They also include “hidden costs” due to decreased morale, lost organizational knowledge, and lost productivity. 2) Affective commitment is a desire to remain a member of an organization due to an emotional attachment to, and involvement with, that organization. Continuance commitment is a desire to remain a member of an organization because of an awareness of the costs associate with leaving it. Normative commitment is a desire to remain a member of an organization due to a feeling of obligation. With affective commitment, a person stays because they want to, while with continuance commitment, a person stays because they need to and finally with normative commitment, a person stays because they ought to.

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3) Employees who are not committed to their organizations engage in withdrawal behavior, defined as a set actions that employees perform to avoid the work situation—behaviors that may eventually culminate in quitting the organization. Withdrawal behavior is the flip side, or the opposite, of organizational commitment.

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4) Student answers will vary somewhat depending on the weight the student feels accompanies each facet of embeddedness and continuance commitment. A sample answer is provided.Agnes has worked for her hometown company for 35 years and has many family and friends in the area. However, the job does not utilize Agnes’ skills and talents and she does not have much authority or responsibility given her long years of service. While Agnes currently fits in her community, thoughts of a longer growing season are appealing to her. Agnes would be sacrificing much to leave the community but not so much in leaving the organization. Her husband’s retirement benefits are bound to be substantial. As for overall continuance commitment, Agnes is invested in terms of time, effort, and energy in both her community and the organization but her overall job alternatives are not much higher than the job she currently performs, no matter where she lives.Jamal has strong links to both the company and the community, having worked at the company for 23 years, being born in the area, and having a large social group of friends nearby. Jamal’s skills are very effectively used by the company and Jamal takes pride in his work, a good fit. Jamal would not be sacrificing much to leave the company and move to the West Coast. Even though he is invested in time and energy to the company, his job alternatives are endless. With Jamal’s skill and experience, he could work anywhere he chose.Eli has weak links to both the company and the community, having only lived and worked in the area for four years. Most of his friends and family are still in Texas. Eli fits well with the job itself but not so for the community, he dislikes the cold. Eli would not be sacrificing much if he left the area, his investments are low and his job alternatives are high. He could take his marketing degree to any company.Jamal seems to be the most embedded employee and ranks as the highest in continuance commitment, even with his endless job opportunities. He seems to rank slightly above Agnes due to the superior Version 1

job fit. If the company can keep him committed, they will retain a star employee. 5) The compensatory forms model of withdrawal argues that the various withdrawal behaviors negatively correlate with one another—that doing one means you are less likely to do another. The idea is that any form of withdrawal can compensate for, or neutralize, a sense of dissatisfaction, which makes the other forms unnecessary. From this perspective, knowing that an employee cyberloafs tells you that the same employee probably is not going to be absent. The third statement summarizes the progression model of withdrawal, which argues that the various withdrawal behaviors are positively correlated: The tendency to daydream or socialize leads to the tendency to come in late or take long breaks, which leads to the tendency to be absent or quit. From this perspective, knowing that an employee cyberloafs tells you that the same employee is probably going to be absent in the near future. 6) The four types of employees that can be described using the combination of the two variables organizational commitment and task performance:• Stars possess high commitment and high performance and are held up as role models for other employees.• Citizens possess high commitment and low task performance but perform many of the voluntary “extra-role” activities that are needed to make the organization function smoothly.• Lone wolves possess low levels of organizational commitment but high levels of task performance and are motivated to achieve work goals for themselves, not necessarily for their companies.• Apathetics: possess low levels of both organizational commitment and task performance and merely exert the minimum level of effort needed to keep their jobs.

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7) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the different types of employees and their reactions to negative events. The following is a sample answer.Employees can react to a negative work event in one of four general ways: exit, voice, loyalty, neglect.• Stars: Those employees in World Décor who possess high commitment and high performance and are held up as role models for other employees will voice their disapproval toward the lack of bonuses and raises. They might even make some suggestions that will help the organization improve its financial condition (voice).• Citizens: The employees falling under the “citizens” category will respond to the lack of bonus and salary hike with loyalty. They will not display their disapproval, but they will privately feel that the organization should have given raises.• Lone wolves: Employees falling under the category of “lone wolves” are motivated to achieve work goals for themselves, not necessarily for their company. These employees will most likely quit their jobs at World Décor (exit).• Apathetics: The employees falling under the category of “apathetics” exert the minimum level of effort needed to keep their jobs. These people will not be affected by the lack of bonus and salary hike, and they will most probably ignore the notice (neglect).

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8) Psychological withdrawal consists of actions that provide a mental escape from the work environment. Psychological withdrawal can be referred to as “warm chair attrition,” meaning that employees have essentially been lost even though their chairs remain occupied. This withdrawal form comes in a number of shapes and sizes. The least serious is daydreaming, when employees appear to be working but are actually distracted by random thoughts or concerns. Socializing refers to the verbal chatting about nonwork topics that goes on in cubicles and offices or at the mailbox or vending machines. Looking busy indicates an intentional desire on the part of employees to look like they are working, even when they are not performing work tasks. Sometimes employees decide to reorganize their desks or go for a stroll around the building, even though they have nowhere to go. (Those who are very good at managing impressions do such things very briskly and with a focused look on their faces!) When employees engage in moonlighting, they use work time and resources to complete something other than their job duties, such as assignments for another job. Perhaps the most widespread form of psychological withdrawal among white-collar employees is cyberloafing—using Internet, email, and instant messaging access for their personal enjoyment rather than work duties. Some estimates suggest that typical cubicle dwellers stop what they are doing about once every three minutes to send email, check Facebook or Twitter, surf over to YouTube, and so forth.

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9) Physical withdrawal consists of actions that provide a physical escape, whether short-term or long-term, from the work environment. The following are types of physical withdrawal:• Tardiness reflects the tendency to arrive at work late or leave work early.• Long breaks involve longer-than-normal lunches, soda breaks, coffee breaks, and so forth that provide a physical escape from work.• Missing meetings means employees neglect important work functions while away from the office.• Absenteeism occurs when employees miss an entire day of work.• Quitting is voluntarily leaving the organization.

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10) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of practices that can foster commitment. The following is a sample answer.The increased diversity of the workforce makes it more challenging to retain valued employees. As work groups become more diverse with respect to race, gender, age, and national origin, there is a danger that minorities or older employees will find themselves on the fringe of such networks, which potentially reduces their affective commitment. At the same time, foreign-born employees are likely to feel less embedded in their current jobs and perceive fewer links to their community and less fit with their geographic area. This feeling may reduce their sense of continuance commitment. Employees who feel a sense of affective commitment identify with the organization, accept that organization’s goals and values, and are more willing to exert extra effort on behalf of the organization. By identifying with the organization, they come to view organizational membership as important to their sense of self. So Martin Industries should take appropriate steps to increase employees’ level of affective commitment. The organization can offer recreational perks, such as a gym, to help employees stay connected to one another. The organization can also build an obligationbased sense of commitment by becoming a particularly charitable organization. This will also provide good public relations for the organization.

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11) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of practices that can foster the three forms of commitment. The following is a sample answer.Organizations can foster affective commitment by increasing the bonds that link employees together. Ben & Jerry’s holds monthly “joy events” during which all production stops for a few hours to be replaced by Cajun-themed parties, table tennis contests, and employee appreciation celebrations. From a continuance commitment perspective, the priority should be to create a salary and benefits package that creates a financial need to stay. Companies that are well known for their commitment to promotionfrom-within policies, like A.G. Edwards and the Principal Financial Group, also enjoy especially low voluntary turnover rates. From a normative commitment perspective, the employer can provide various training and development opportunities for employees, which means investing in them to create the sense that they owe further service to the organization. IBM’s “workforce management initiative” keeps a database of 33,000 résumés to develop a snapshot of employee skills. 12) D 13) D 14) E 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) C Version 1

25) A 26) D 27) E 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) E 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) E 53) D 54) E Version 1

55) B 56) D 57) A 58) D 59) E 60) D 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) E 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) E 79) D 80) C 81) E 82) A 83) B 84) C Version 1

85) C 86) B 87) B 88) E 89) A 90) D 91) C 92) A 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE Version 1

115) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Carrie owns an event management firm. She believes that employees who carefully follow instructions and a well-written manual of procedures tend to have maximum productivity. She closely oversees the work of her employees and controls the timing, scheduling, and sequencing of work activities. She discourages any deviation from standard practices. How will this affect the job satisfaction of employees working in Carrie's firm? Do you agree with her views?

2) Alex has been working as technical service representative for Convergence Technologies, a software development firm, for two years. His duties and responsibilities include providing technical assistance to end users, preparing reports on product problems encountered, selling additional products, and soliciting customer feedback. During a performance review meeting with his manager, Alex mentions that he finds his job to be very monotonous. Discuss how his manager could use job enrichment to deal with this situation.

3) Define job satisfaction. What is the current trend in satisfaction levels for American workers?

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4) Define moods. Briefly summarize the different moods in which people sometimes find themselves. Give an example of a mood you or someone you know felt recently.

5) Define emotions. Identify five positive and five negative emotions. Give examples of two strong emotions you felt recently. What caused these emotions? Who were they directed at? How did you handle these emotions?

6) Why is it important for restaurant servers, flight attendants, and retail salespeople to be able to control their emotions? Discuss the importance of emotional labor. Support your answer with examples.

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7) While learning about the value-percept theory in their organizational behavior class, two students (Rick and Anne) decide to apply the theory to their current jobs. Both students complain about their jobs to each other and are interested to see who has “the worst job.” They agree to figure their total job satisfaction score and compare them during the next class period. They also agree to a rating system using the numbers ranging from 1 to 5, with 1 being low importance and 5 being high importance and to rate each element honestly.

How is job satisfaction related to life satisfaction? Provide two examples.

What is the JDI? Discuss the developers' suggestions regarding the administration of JDI.

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10) A prestigious environmental nonprofit group is currently hiring for a middle-management position in their marketing and website development department. The pay is lower than comparable levels of the same position in the business environment, but the salary is not bad. The nonprofit tends to recruit outsiders for upper-level positions, which are easily filled by applicants with the credentials and motivation to make a name for themselves. Even though volunteers are applauded for their work more than employees, most employees are dedicated and generally exhibit pleasant dispositions. The offices are neat, tidy, and comfortable with a well-lit parking lot and a bustling atmosphere. The organization does a poor job of using worker’s skills, assigning tasks regardless of ability. Upper management has a tendency to micromanage, which hinders output at times.

11) ________ is a pleasurable emotional state resulting from the appraisal of one's job or job experiences.

A) B) C) D) E)

Job development Life satisfaction Emotional labor Job satisfaction Organizational growth

12) The results of surveys of common work values can be broken down into several general categories. Those general categories include which of the following sets of items?

A) B) C) D) E)

promotions, altruism, and status equity and equality meaningfulness of work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of results identity, autonomy, and feedback joy, pride, hope, and compassion

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13)

Workplace surveys suggest that satisfied employees are becoming

A) B) C) D) E)

14)

more uncommon. more widespread. less expensive. less productive. more complacent.

Values are defined as

A) those things that people consciously or subconsciously want to seek or attain. B) pleasurable emotional states resulting from the appraisal of one's job or job experiences. C) a set of shared attitudes, goals, and practices that characterizes an institution, organization, or group. D) processes that elicit, control, and sustain certain behaviors. E) the particular combination of emotional, attitudinal, and behavioral response patterns of an individual.

15) Akari accepted a position with Innovate Electronics because she knows the company is highly regarded. Which of the following work value categories does Akari’s choice relate to?

A) B) C) D) E)

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supervision coworkers pay promotions status

16) When an employee’s specific values are comfort and safety, which general category of work values would be most important to them?

A) B) C) D) E)

17)

status pay environment promotion supervision

Which of the following is a specific value related to the work itself?

A) B) C) D) E)

high salary good supervisory relations intellectual stimulation enjoyable coworkers power over others

18) Yusuf is a pediatrician who is passionate about helping children with difficult medical conditions. He also volunteers at a free clinic during the weekend. Judging from this, which of the following work value categories would be important for him?

A) B) C) D) E)

status environment pay altruism supervision

19) Manuela, a writer of advertising copy, has been an overachiever throughout her career. She enjoys the intellectual stimulation she has at work. She feels her work allows her to use her creativity and artistic skills to their full potential. Which of the following work value categories is important to Manuela? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

status work itself coworkers altruism supervision

20) Which of the following theories argues that job satisfaction depends on whether an employee perceives that his or her job supplies the things that he or she values?

A) B) C) D) E)

Maslow's theory job characteristics theory value-percept theory job withdrawal theory emotional contagion theory

21) According to the value-percept theory, in which of the following scenarios would the employee be the most dissatisfied?

A) Levente wants to work with people, so he took a job with a boat tour company. He didn’t realize most of his hours would be spent alone doing paperwork. B) Laura wants to focus on scientific research. In her job for Lako Chemical, about half of her time involves research and the rest involves meetings. C) Sofia wants to work with numbers. As an accountant, she works with numbers for the majority of her time in the office. D) Lorenzo likes physical activity and taking risks. His job in a circus involves both of these elements, but he also spends time cleaning animal cages. E) Rokas likes helping people who are less fortunate, so he took a job as a social worker. Although he spends hours helping the poor, he dislikes his hour-long commute.

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22) You want a job that is creative and pays well, but you are also concerned with the work environment. Based on the concept of supervision satisfaction, which of the following jobs would you most likely take?

A) B) C) D) E)

23)

The supervisor provides regular pay raises and seems unlikable. The supervisor provides little technical support and seems like a nice person. The supervisor allows several sick days and seems surly. The supervisor encourages innovative ideas and has a friendly attitude. The supervisor seems open to new ideas and has a cold personality.

Which of the following scenarios deals with satisfaction with the work itself?

A) B) C) D) E)

Ximena is happy with her job because she just became a department head. Piotr enjoys his job because he constantly faces new challenges. Lotte likes her job mainly because a coworker has become a close friend. Santiago enjoys his job because his boss is so easy to get along with. Krystyna is happy with her job because it’s a fast-track to the top.

24) According to the value-percept theory, the relation between dissatisfaction, value (importance), and value (want) is given by the following:

A) B) C) D) E)

25)

Dissatisfaction = (V want - V perceive) × (V importance) Dissatisfaction = (V want - V have)/(V importance) Dissatisfaction = (V want - V have)^(V importance) Dissatisfaction = (V want - V have) × (V importance) Dissatisfaction = (V want - V perceive)/(V importance)

Which of the following is true regarding value-percept theory?

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A) Value-percept theory describes the central characteristics of intrinsically satisfying jobs. B) Value-percept theory implies that perceptions of the work environment are unrelated to job satisfaction. C) Value-percept theory suggests that people evaluate job satisfaction according to specific "facets" of the job. D) Value-percept theory suggests that satisfied employees are becoming more and more rare. E) Value-percept theory implies that moral causes and gaining fame and prestige are relevant in all jobs.

26) When it comes to pay satisfaction, most employees base their desired pay on their job duties and

A) B) C) D) E)

the potential for promotions. their basic needs. their status. the pay received by their superiors. the pay received by comparable colleagues.

27) Eliska is well established as a financial analyst at the Magnify Investment Company. She has significant financial responsibility for her family, and she has recently applied for a mortgage. Which of the following work value categories would likely be important to her?

A) B) C) D) E)

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altruism pay status achievement environment

28)

Which facet of job satisfaction brings more responsibility and increased work hours?

A) B) C) D) E)

29)

promotion compensation environmental factors competition coworker satisfaction

Which of the following statements is not true of supervision satisfaction?

A) Promotion satisfaction refers to employees’ feeling about the company’s promotion policies and their execution. B) Promotion satisfaction includes whether promotions are frequent, fair, and based on ability. C) Promotions may provide more money but will likely also require more responsibility. D) Every employee seeks frequent promotions. E) Promotions may provide more money but may also require increased work hours.

30)

Which of the following statements is true regarding coworker satisfaction?

A) Coworker satisfaction leads to lowered productivity. B) Coworker satisfaction requires that all employees of the same level be promoted at the same intervals. C) Coworker satisfaction increases if employees take part in annual reviews of each other’s work. D) Coworker satisfaction does not contribute much too overall job satisfaction. E) Coworker satisfaction is important because employees spend considerable time with coworkers.

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31) Out of the five facets of the value-percept theory, which facet focuses on what employees actually do?

A) B) C) D) E)

the work itself pay promotion supervision coworkers

32) Saki, Jake, and Tamar have different ideas about what makes a job satisfying. They all work for a nonprofit relief agency and travel to areas where disasters have occurred to render assistance to victims. The pay is not high, and there can be extreme health risks because contagious diseases often break out in disaster zones due to the resulting poor sanitation. Their coworkers are friendly, intelligent, and generally nice. Saki feels strongly that she wants to be able to make a difference and help people when they are in trouble. Jake worries deeply about expenses. He has a large load of student debt to pay off, and his wife is expecting their second child. Tamar tolerates teamwork but isn't thrilled by it, and she also has mild anxiety about germs.Which of the following statements is most likely true?

A) B) C) D) E)

Saki has the highest level of job satisfaction. They all have essentially equal levels of job satisfaction. None of them are likely to have high job satisfaction. Jake has the highest level of job satisfaction. Tamar has the highest level of job satisfaction.

33) Saki, Jake, and Tamar have different ideas about what makes a job satisfying. They all work for a nonprofit relief agency and travel to areas where disasters have occurred to render assistance to victims. The pay is not high, and there can be extreme health risks because contagious diseases often break out in disaster zones due to the resulting poor sanitation. Their coworkers are friendly, intelligent, and generally nice. Saki feels strongly that she wants to be able to make a difference and help people when they are in trouble. Jake worries deeply about expenses. He has a large load of student debt to pay off, and his wife is expecting their second child. Tamar tolerates teamwork but isn't thrilled by it, and she also has mild anxiety about germs.Which of the following statements is most likely true? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Jake most likely has the lowest job satisfaction. Saki most likely has the lowest job satisfaction. Jake most likely has the highest job satisfaction. Tamar most likely has the highest job satisfaction. Tamar most likely has the lowest job satisfaction.

34) Of the five facets of value-percept theory, if job satisfaction had to increase to a large extent, which facet should be given high priority for improvement?

A) B) C) D) E)

pay satisfaction promotion satisfaction supervision satisfaction coworker satisfaction satisfaction with the work itself

35) According to research, of the five facets of value-percept theory, which two facets have moderate (as opposed to strong) correlations with overall job satisfaction?

A) B) C) D) E)

pay satisfaction and promotion satisfaction promotion satisfaction and coworker satisfaction supervision satisfaction and altruism coworker satisfaction and supervision satisfaction satisfaction with the work itself and promotion satisfaction

36) The psychological state that reflects the degree to which work tasks are viewed as something that "counts" in the employee's system of philosophies and beliefs is known as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

37)

responsibility for outcomes. knowledge of results. meaningfulness of work. variety. identity.

Which of the following is true about knowledge of results?

A) It captures the degree to which employees feel that they are key drivers of the quality of the unit's work. B) It reflects the extent to which employees know how well (or how poorly) they are doing. C) It reflects the degree to which work tasks are viewed as something that "counts" in the employee's system of philosophies. D) It captures the degree to which employees feel like their efforts do not really matter because work outcomes are dictated by effective procedures. E) It implies that trivial tasks tend to be less satisfying than tasks that make employees feel like they're aiding the organization in some meaningful way.

38)

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates the core job characteristic of variety?

A) Dmitri has to constantly perform before an audience that lets him know how he is doing. B) Anastasia has to spend most of her time out of the office, during which she supervises herself. C) Mariya has to formulate policies that affect thousands of her constituents. D) Ivan has to track a project all the way from conception to implementation. E) Maxim has to answer the phone, provides tours, write reports, and make appointments.

Version 1

39)

Which of the following examples of work involves the core job characteristic of identity?

A) published. B) work. C) D) E) forms.

40)

Min-jun took two years to write a novel, from starting the first draft to getting it Malik works as a jack-of-all trades, which includes carpentry, plumbing, and yard Harry spends most his day driving from place to place, trying to sell appliances. Joan works as a therapist rehabilitating accident victims so they can walk again. Diego requires little supervision for his office work because it involves standardized

Which of the following examples shows feedback obtained directly from the job?

A) As a scientist, Zoran receives monthly feedback from his manager about his research. B) As a business executive, Ignas receives feedback from his supervisor twice a year. C) As a politician, Gabila constantly receives feedback from her constituents through email and phone calls. D) As a factory worker, Robert receives feedback from the factory owner via his floor boss at regular intervals. E) As a teacher, Lucinda receives feedback from the principal after each semester.

41)

Which of the following scenarios shows high growth need strength?

Version 1

A) Fleur knows she might be up for a promotion because of her good work, but she thinks she might refuse because she enjoys her work so much. B) Thijs knows refusing to work overtime will lessen his chance at a promotion, but spending time with his family is more important. C) Although Eduardo's job as mail deliverer doesn't pay well, he is satisfied because he enjoys spending so much time outside. D) Although Barry dislikes aspects of his job as a quality-control manager, he knows other jobs are worse and so decides to stay put. E) Although pleased that she works as a script reader with Aim High Pictures, Maria Fernanda wants to become one of the top scriptwriters in Hollywood.

42) Many organizations have employed job characteristics theory to help improve satisfaction among their employees. The first step in this process is assessing the current level of the characteristics to arrive at

A) B) C) D) E)

a knowledge of results. an active events theory. a satisfaction potential score. a level of emotional contagion. a level of life satisfaction.

43) Farragut Industries wants to promote job enrichment for its employees across all its divisions. Which of the following is an example of putting that in practice?

Version 1

A) After talking with upper management, Joud's supervisor explained to her why Joud can't have more autonomy. B) After talking to a friend, Ghena spent more personal time traveling to make up for her lack of autonomy at work. C) After reading a motivation book, Karam rearranged his meeting schedule to allow for more autonomy. D) After talking with coworkers, Jake demanded that his manager give him more autonomy. E) After consulting with job design consultants, Cheng-En's manager gave him more autonomy.

44) Managers at PopLit, a company that produces comic books and graphic novels, believe in providing continuous feedback to employees regarding their work. Newly hired employees are assigned an established employee to shadow for six weeks. The established employee also reviews the shadow's work and provides tips on improving productivity. In this example, the firm is addressing which of the following critical psychological states that make work satisfying for employees?

A) B) C) D) E)

responsibility for outcomes identity meaningfulness of work variety knowledge of results

45) Lethabo is the marketing manager at BlueSky Concepts, a management consulting firm. His calendar is filled with meetings with heads of the companies, interviewing new employees, giving interviews to business magazines, attending presentations and seminars in different countries, and the like. Lethabo feels that every workday he has something different to do, and he is rarely bored with his job. According to the job characteristics theory, which of the following is true about Jon's job?

Version 1

A) It has high moral significance. B) It has low autonomy. C) It has low labor equity. D) It has high variety. E) It has high identity.

46) Sean is a gas station employee whose job consists of ringing up customers who don’t pay at the pump. Which of the following statements is true about Sean's job?

A) It has high moral significance. B) It has low variety. C) It has low stability. D) It has high utilization of ability. E) It has high identity.

47) According to the job characteristics theory, the degree to which the job requires completing a whole, identifiable, piece of work from beginning to end with a visible outcome is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

responsibility for outcomes. knowledge of results. significance. variety. identity.

48) Karabo works at United Causes International. Her job requires her to spend eight hours a day entering donor information on Excel spreadsheets. Karabo's job is characterized by

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

high autonomy. high variety. high identity. high significance. low variety.

49) Mehmet was recently hired at Brainstorm Inc., an advertising firm. Part of his training involves moving through all of the departments and learning what each one does. Every day is something new for him and requires him to use different skills and knowledge. He truly enjoys the challenge of facing something new every workday. Mehmet's job is characterized by

A) B) C) D) E)

low autonomy. high variety. high identity. high status and power. low utilization of ability.

50) Hans is an interior designer who works with an architect who builds unique, private luxury homes. Hans is responsible for coming up with the acoustics, lighting, temperature, color, furniture, furnishings, and moldings inside the home, as well as supervising the purchases and installation of materials. He enjoys transforming interior spaces into a unified whole that conveys the personality of the residents who will live there. Hans's job has

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

low autonomy. low variety. high identity. high monotony. low utilization of ability.

51) Greta is responsible for the organization and distribution of relief packages to nations affected by famine throughout the world. According to the job characteristics theory, Greta's job has a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

variety. significance. autonomy. identity. feedback.

52) According to the job characteristics theory, the degree to which the job provides freedom, independence, and discretion to the individual performing the work is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

feedback. significance. meaningfulness of work. autonomy. identity.

53) According to job characteristics theory, which of the following responsibilities can be described as part of an autonomous job?

A) B) C) D) E)

having a strict schedule using your own procedures using methods proscribed by your manager following the instruction manual word for word adhering to the way things have always been done

54) When your job provides ________, you view the outcomes of it as the product of your efforts rather than the result of careful instructions from your boss or a well-written manual of procedures. Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

feedback autonomy variety significance identity

55) Luca is a psychologist who has the freedom to set his own schedule with his clients. This indicates that Luca's job has

A) B) C) D) E)

low identity. low significance. high autonomy. high significance. high variety.

56) According to the job characteristics theory, the degree to which carrying out the activities required by the job provides the worker with clear information about how well he or she is performing is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

feedback. significance. meaningfulness of work. autonomy. identity.

57) In job characteristics theory, the degree to which employees have strong needs for personal accomplishments or developing themselves beyond their current levels is known as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

feedback. significance. growth need strength. autonomy. identity.

58) Employees are engaged in ________ when they shape, mold, and redefine their jobs in a proactive way.

A) B) C) D) E)

job crafting job enrichment job enlargement perception testing satisfaction remodeling

59) Although Ella works as a waitress in a supper club, she wants to eventually open her own restaurant that combines traditional supper club dishes with more innovative cuisine. According to job characteristics theory, Ella has a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

the need for power. altruism. agreeableness. growth need strength. status.

60) When the duties and responsibilities associated with a job are expanded by the employer to provide more variety, identity, and autonomy, it is termed as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

vertical integration. job enrichment. onboarding. job coaching. job crafting.

61) Which of the following statements is true regarding the scoring and interpretation of a satisfaction potential score?

A) If your score is 100 or above, your work tasks tend to be satisfying and enjoyable. B) If your score is 120 or below, you might benefit from taking on more challenging assignments. C) If your score is 75 or above, your work tasks tend to be satisfying and enjoyable. D) If your score is 130 or below, you might benefit from taking on more challenging assignments. E) If your score is 150 or above, your work tasks tend to be satisfying and enjoyable.

62)

Which of the following demonstrates how day-to-day events can affect job satisfaction?

A) After receiving news of his mother's illness, Baltasar became stressed about the deadlines of his job. B) After going to lunch, Birta continued to enjoy her work assignment. C) After talking about his baseball team to a coworker, Onni bought game tickets during his afternoon break. D) After talking to her manager, Venia realized she could finish her work by the deadline. E) After planning the project for months, Victor finally received the go ahead.

63) Over the course of a week, various coworkers confide in you about their states of feeling. Which of the following scenarios are you most likely to characterize as a mood?

Version 1

A) After his team lost an account, Leon felt out-of-sorts at work for the entire afternoon. B) Although she doesn't know why, Martina felt intense anger at Maria during the meeting. C) For some unknown reason, Vasil felt vaguely irritable at work for days. D) After learning that she won a sweepstakes, Chloe felt overjoyed during a long, boring meeting. E) Because she worked long hours, Audrey felt giddy and found everything funny.

64) People often describe flow as being “in the zone” and report heightened states of clarity, control, and concentration. In which of the following scenarios would the person involved most likely experience a flow state?

A) Ibuki stands at a machine, punching out the same parts day after day. B) Hyata enjoys research even though his present research task is not demanding. C) Mark has been trying to create a good project proposal, but he feels out of his depth. D) Leslie has been using her skills to write a proposal for a project that will be challenging. E) Louise has been stamping envelopes for hours, a task she finds repetitive and boring.

65) Leo is making a presentation on the affective events theory to his management team. Which of the following examples should he use as a demonstration?

Version 1

A) Although Alikahn dealt with a difficult patron, his overall sense of well-being persisted. B) After he received a critical email from his boss, Miras simmered with anger for the rest of the day. C) After Isabella talked to her friend, she continued to work intensely on her assignment. D) Although Eileen received a compliment from her boss, her vague unease about the project continued. E) Although Dylan did not contribute to the meeting, he still liked working for his employer.

66) States of feeling that are often mild in intensity, last for an extended period of time, and are not explicitly directed at or caused by anything are known as

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

emotions. satisfaction. moods. withdrawal symptoms. personality traits.

Moods can be categorized by

A) B) C) D) E)

feelings and schemas. classical conditioning and operant conditioning. cognition and affect. pleasantness and activation. emotions and cognition.

68) Violeta has been feeling grouchy at her coworkers for weeks, but she doesn't know exactly why she has this feeling. What type of mood is she experiencing?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

engaged pleasant deactivated unpleasant intense

69) Thato, Ellis, and Amahle have just finished their team's project and are waiting for their supervisor's feedback. Thato is not satisfied with the team he is working with and has hostile feelings toward them. He feels annoyed because they procrastinated their parts of the assignment until the last minute, and now he is feeling nervous that their sections will be filled with errors. How would you describe Thato’s mood?

A) B) C) D) E)

intense negative intense positive intense deactivated unpleasant deactivated pleasant deactivated

70) Bert, Kiko, and Jamila have just finished their team's project and are waiting for their supervisor's feedback. Jamila had ensured that the project was completed on time and met all the requirements. She received good feedback on the part she worked on. She is elated and enthusiastic about her future projects. Her mood would be labeled as

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

intense negative. intense deactivated. unpleasant deactivated. intense positive. pleasant deactivated.

71) Jamie, Patrick, and Lori have just finished their team's project and are waiting for their supervisor's feedback. Patrick has been mostly unengaged and quiet ever since the project started. While this was not his best work, neither was his work bad. His mood would be categorized as

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

Which of the following combinations is most likely to result in flow?

A) B) C) D) E)

73)

intense negative. intense positive. deactivated. negative activated. positive activated.

high skill and high challenge low altruism and low identity high altruism and high identity low activation and high pleasantness high autonomy and low growth need

Emotions can be categorized into

A) B) C) D) E)

structured and unstructured. cognition and affect. schemas and rules. positive and negative. semi-structured and unstructured.

74) Which type of emotion best explains a distressing condition that has changed for the better?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

pride hope relief compassion love

75) Which of the following statements concerning emotional labor and emotional contagion is not true?

A) Service employees are trained to act like they are having fun on their job even when they are not. B) Service jobs require employees to suppress the urge to spontaneously engage in negative behavior. C) Negative emotions can be transferred to coworkers but not to customers. D) Emotional labor is a vital part of good customer service. E) Bottled up emotions may end up bubbling over, sometimes resulting in angry outbursts against customers.

76)

Which of the following is true regarding emotions?

A) B) C) D) E)

77)

Failing to live up to your ideal self is termed as guilt, a negative emotion. Emotions are directed at someone or some circumstance. Enhancement of identity by taking credit for achievement is a negative emotion. Revulsion aroused by something offensive is shame. Being moved by another's situation is a negative emotion.

According to the affective events theory,

Version 1

A) emotions need to be concealed at the workplace. B) emotions are independent of job satisfaction, which depends on rational analysis. C) emotions can trigger spontaneous behavior. D) employees feel like their efforts do not really matter when work evaluation is dictated by affective procedures. E) an employee will have high supervisor satisfaction if the supervisor is likeable.

78) Shari works at a fast-food restaurant, which requires her always to be cheerful even when customers are rude or impatient. Shari's job involves a large amount of

A) B) C) D) E)

79)

When the emotions of one person affect the emotions of another person, it is called

A) B) C) D) E)

80)

emotional labor. deactivated moods. emotional contagion. mood swings. flow immersion.

attachment. engagement. emotional contagion. empathy. emotional labor.

Job satisfaction has a ________ correlation with task performance.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

relatively weak strong positive moderate positive relatively strong weak negative

81) In which of the following scenarios would the person involved most likely experience life satisfaction?

A) Ally stays in her job as a maid because her education doesn’t qualify her for anything better. B) Rick keeps working for the company because of its generous vacation package. C) Alessio enjoys his coworkers at the espresso shop, but he finds being a barista to be boring. D) Filippo enjoys serving as a politician because of the influence he has on government policy. E) Bianca likes being a waitress because of her customers but dislikes her low pay.

82)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) People who experience lower levels of job satisfaction tend to feel higher levels of affective commitment. B) Job satisfaction is weakly correlated with affective commitment. C) Job satisfaction is moderately correlated with citizenship behavior. D) Job satisfaction is weakly correlated with normative commitment. E) Job satisfaction has a weak positive effect on job performance.

83)

Job satisfaction has a ________ correlation with counterproductive behavior.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

84)

moderate negative strong negative moderate positive weak positive strong positive

Job satisfaction has a ________ correlation with affective commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

moderate weak strong positive moderate weak positive weak negative

85) Research shows that job satisfaction has a ________ correlation with normative commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

moderate weak moderate strong positive weak positive weak negative

86) Job satisfaction is positively correlated with ________ and negatively correlated with ________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

87)

A person with high job satisfaction will tend to have ________ life satisfaction.

A) B) C) D) E)

88)

organizational commitment; counterproductive behavior counterproductive behavior; performance performance; organizational commitment performance; equity equity; organizational commitment

weak high moderate high negative low positive

Which of the following statements is true about life satisfaction?

A) Job satisfaction has little effect on life satisfaction. B) It is the degree to which employees feel a sense of happiness with customers. C) Research shows that life satisfaction is one of the strongest predictors of job satisfaction. D) Increases in job satisfaction have a stronger impact on life satisfaction than do increases in salary. E) If we want to feel better about our jobs, we need to find a way to be more satisfied with our lives.

89) Jattestor Enterprises administered the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) to all its employees and then shared the results with department heads. Afterward, which of the following department heads acted most appropriately?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Tobias implemented several reforms based on its results. Jakob held several meetings, which failed to lead to cohesive action. Mia issued a memorandum saying why she disagreed with the results. Catherine delayed taking action for several months. Ralph followed it up with another type of survey in his department only.

90) ________ are usually the most accurate and most effective in assessing the job satisfaction of rank-and-file employees.

A) B) C) D) E)

Attitude surveys Interviews Focus groups Questionnaires Discussions

91) ________ can provide a "snapshot" of how satisfied the workforce is and, if repeated over time, reveal trends in satisfaction levels.

A) B) C) D) E)

Focus groups Structured interviews Attitude surveys Focus groups followed by interviews Unstructured interviews

92) Pratique Solutions offers jobs that require creativity and hires people who are enthusiastic and friendly. Their pay scale meets the industry norm but does not exceed it, and managers tend to stay at the same job level for a long time. In which of the following areas would Pratique Solutions score low on in a JDI survey?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

93)

pay satisfaction and promotion satisfaction pay satisfaction and work itself satisfaction promotion satisfaction and coworker satisfaction work itself satisfaction and coworker satisfaction work itself satisfaction and supervisor satisfaction

Which of the following statements about the JDI is true?

A) JDI is written in complex style and needs a manual to understand. B) JDI is one of the least-administered job satisfaction surveys. C) JDI should require participants to identify themselves so the company can verify it is receiving honest feedback. D) JDI recommends surveying a small portion of a company. E) JDI allows for within-organization comparisons to determine which departments have the highest satisfaction levels and which have the lowest.

94) The ________ assesses satisfaction with pay, promotion, supervision, and coworkers, as well as satisfaction with the work itself.

A) B) C) D) E)

95)

Employee Motivation Index Job Descriptive Index Job Satisfaction Index Employee Characteristics Index Employee Satisfaction Index

The JDI includes a companion survey, the JIG scale that assesses

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

altruism. job significance. overall job satisfaction. mental well-being. leadership potential.

96) Research shows that employees with low job satisfaction experience strong positive feelings when they think about their duties or take part in their task activities. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Values are those things that people consciously or subconsciously want to seek or attain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The value-percept theory utilizes three critical psychological states to measure job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The elements in employees' relationships with their supervisors that affect levels of job satisfaction are much different from the elements in employees' relationships with their coworkers that affect job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

100) Some employees do not want frequent promotions because promotions bring more responsibility and increased work hours. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Satisfaction with the work itself is the single strongest driver of overall job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Meaningfulness of work captures the degree to which employees feel that they are key drivers of the quality of the unit's work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Job characteristics theory argues that variety, identity, significance, autonomy, and feedback result in high levels of the three psychological states (meaningfulness of work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of results), making work tasks more satisfying. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) According to job characteristics theory, when students tell professors they hope to take more courses with them, this high level of identity positively affects the professors' job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

105) The moderate to strong positive correlations between the five core job characteristics and job satisfaction indicate all employees want more variety and more autonomous and significant jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Many employees can engage in job enrichment, where they shape, mold, and redefine their jobs in a proactive way. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) States of feeling that are intense, last for a few hours, and are clearly directed at (and caused by) someone or some circumstance are termed moods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) A challenging assignment given to a knowledgeable and skillful person would be likely to trigger an intense positive mood. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Passive recreation like watching TV is likely to trigger a flow state. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Service jobs in which employees often make direct contact with customers are high in emotional labor.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Job satisfaction has a moderate positive effect on job performance and a strong positive effect on organizational commitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Job satisfaction is weakly correlated to life satisfaction, or the degree to which employees feel a sense of happiness with their lives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) The United States is not only the richest country on earth, it also leads all the nations in levels of life satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) The developers of the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) survey recommend that surveys in the organization should not be anonymous so that managers can identify which employees are not satisfied and address their specific needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) The JDI manual provides national norms for all facets and breaks down those norms according to relevant demographic groups.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: CH4 1) Job characteristics theory argues that five core job characteristics (variety, identity, significance, autonomy, and feedback) result in high levels of the three psychological states (meaningfulness of work, responsibility for outcomes, and knowledge of results), making work tasks more satisfying. Autonomy is the degree to which the job provides freedom, independence, and discretion to the individual performing the work. When a job provides autonomy, employees view the outcomes of it as the product of their efforts rather than the result of careful instructions from their boss or a well-written manual of procedures. Because Carrie does not allow any freedom to her employees, it will result in lowered job satisfaction. Students' answers to the last part of the question will vary; however, it is important they should provide a rationale for their answers. 2) Student answers will vary. A sample answer follows: Job characteristics theory suggests that five "core characteristics"—variety, identity, significance, autonomy, and feedback—combine to result in particularly high levels of satisfaction with the work itself. When variety is high, almost every workday is different in some way, and job holders rarely feel a sense of monotony or repetition. The manager could expand the duties and responsibilities associated with Alex's job to provide more variety, identity, and autonomy. For example, he could assign additional tasks to Alex such as making him responsible for checking the quality of the documentations and resolution sessions of other technical service representatives, training new hires, and resolving difficult, high priority client issues. Students' answers will vary.

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3) Job satisfaction is a pleasurable emotional state resulting from the appraisal of one’s job or job experiences. In other words, it represents how you feel about your job and what you think about your job. Workplace surveys suggest that satisfied employees are becoming rare. A recent survey showed that just 45 percent of Americans were satisfied with their jobs, down from 61 percent two decades ago. The same survey revealed declines in the percentage of employees who find their work interesting, who are satisfied with their boss, and who like their coworkers. 4) Student examples will vary. A sample answer follows: Moods are states of feeling that are often mild in intensity, last for an extended period of time, and are not explicitly directed at or caused by anything. The different moods in which people sometimes find themselves can be categorized in two: pleasantness and activation. The most intense positive mood is characterized by feeling enthusiastic, excited, and elated. In contrast, the most intense negative mood is characterized by feeling hostile, nervous, and annoyed. For example, I recently felt sluggish and drowsy for several days. I couldn't place the exact reason, but eventually my mood lifted.

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5) Student examples will vary. A sample answer follows: Emotions are states of feeling that are often intense, last for only a few minutes, and are clearly directed at (and caused by) someone or some circumstance. According to affective events theory, these emotions can create the ebb and flow in satisfaction levels and can also trigger spontaneous behaviors. For example, positive emotions may trigger spontaneous instances of citizenship behavior, whereas negative emotions may trigger spontaneous instances of counterproductive behavior. Positive emotions include joy, pride, relief, hope, love, and compassion. Negative emotions include anger, anxiety, fear, guilt, shame, sadness, envy, and disgust. For example, recently I felt angry at a teammate on my school's basketball team because he kept on taking shots and didn't set up plays for others often enough. I told him that I thought he was playing selfishly and mentioned the situation to my coach. Also, I felt happy when I was given a surprise birthday party. I thanked my friends for giving the party. 6) Student examples will vary. A sample answer follows: Service jobs in which employees make direct contact with customers often require those employees to hide any anger, anxiety, sadness, or disgust that they may feel, suppressing the urge to spontaneously engage in some negative behavior. Thus, it is important for restaurant servers, flight attendants, and retail salespeople to be able to control their emotions and avoid spontaneous reactions such as expressing anger toward a customer. Such jobs are high in what's called emotional labor, or the need to manage emotions to complete job duties successfully. Flight attendants are trained to "put on a happy face" in front of passengers, retail salespeople are trained to suppress any annoyance with customers, and restaurant servers are trained to act like they're having fun on their job even when they're not.

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7) Rick works at his parent’s restaurant and gets paid less than other employees though he has no living expenses while still living at home with his parents while attending school. He knows he will have plenty of time to make money after graduation and is saving most of his weekly paycheck for postcollege expenses. Rick likes working at his parent’s restaurant and many of his coworkers are friends outside work. Rick’s older brother is his direct supervisor and Rick’s brother has already agreed to take over the restaurant for his parents after they retire. Rick’s brother is a taskmaster and seems to take relish in assigning Rick the most menial jobs around the restaurant. For instance, Rick always has garbage duty at the beginning and end of his shifts, and often in the middle. Rick longs for graduation when he can begin his real career.Anne lives on her own while attending college and works as a teller for the local bank. The pay is not bad, but Anne’s clothing budget seems to be her largest luxury expense and she shops in consignment shops to save money. Anne feels secure at the bank and likes her supervisor, but her coworkers seem shallow and are often contrary with both her and the customers. Since she is the junior employee, she has to ask for their help at times and this seems to make the problem worse. The bank promotes from within and Anne has her eyes open for any position with a higher level of responsibility and pay. Her current work is repetitive and, at times, boring.Assign weights to each want, have, and importance element for each facet in the value-percept theory as Rick and Anne agreed, arriving at a dissatisfaction number for each facet, and ultimately an overall job satisfaction number for each student.Which student has the highest job satisfaction number, Rick or Anne? Which has the lowest? What do these numbers mean?Student answers will vary considerably but all values should be supported by inferences made from the information in the question introduction. Both Rick and Anne need a dissatisfaction number for pay, promotion, supervision, and coworker Version 1

satisfaction, as well as a number for the applicant’s satisfaction with the work itself. The dissatisfaction number from each facet is combined to produce an overall job satisfaction number for each applicant. A sample follows.Rick is currently happy with his pay although it is lower than that of other employees. Since Rick does not have many expenses, his pay is adequate for him at this time and he is even able to save some money, so his pay dissatisfaction score could be 1 [(5 – 4) x 1].Promotion at the restaurant is not of importance to Rick as he knows his brother is taking over the business and Rick has no real desire to be promoted. Rick’s dissatisfaction score may be a 0 [(2 – 2) x 1].Rick does have issues with his brother as his supervisor. His brother is a taskmaster and seems to enjoy getting as much work out of Rick as possible in each work shift. Rick’s supervisor dissatisfaction score may be 12 [(5 – 1) x 3].Rick likes his coworkers, and many are friends, so his coworker dissatisfaction score should be fairly low, maybe a 2 [(5 – 4) x 2].As for the work itself, Rick does not enjoy the menial tasks assigned by his brother and his score may be higher. Rick’s work satisfaction score may be 15 [(5 – 2) x 5].This provides an overall job satisfaction score for Rick of 30.Anne would like more pay as she does not seem to have much money for her clothing allowance. Her pay dissatisfaction score may be 8 [(5 – 3) x 4].The bank’s promotion policy of hiring from within is a good fit for Anne, who is ambitiously eyeing job posting for a better position. Anne’s promotion dissatisfaction score should be fairly low with a 5 [(5 – 4) x 5].Anne likes her supervisor but, while sympathetic, her supervisor has not done much to help Anne’s coworker issues. Anne’s supervisor dissatisfaction score may be in the middle with a 4 [(5 – 3) x 2].Anne’s coworker dissatisfaction score is bound to be a bit higher as her coworkers are contrary and unhelpful. The dissatisfaction score may be a 16 [(5 – 1) x 4].The dissatisfaction score for the work itself may be in the middle. While sometimes boring, the Version 1

work is easy. The work dissatisfaction score may be a 4 [(5 – 3) x 2].This provides an overall job satisfaction score for Anne of 37. Anne has the higher overall job satisfaction score of 37 versus Rick’s of 30. The value-percept theory argues that job satisfaction depends on whether you perceive your job supplies the thing you value. The bigger differences between the wants and haves create a sense of dissatisfaction and the value is multiplied by importance, so existing discrepancies get magnified by their importance to each student. The overall job satisfaction score is arrived at by totaling all the dissatisfaction scores for each of the five facets in the value-percept theory and so the higher the score the more dissatisfied the person is, overall, with their current job. Anne’s higher overall satisfaction score shows that she is actually more dissatisfied, overall, with her job than Rick.

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8) Student examples will vary. A sample answer follows: Job satisfaction is strongly related to life satisfaction, or the degree to which employees feel a sense of happiness with their lives. Research shows that job satisfaction is one of the strongest predictors of life satisfaction. Put simply, people feel better about their lives when they feel better about their jobs. This link makes sense when you realize how much of our identity is wrapped up in our jobs. Increases in job satisfaction have a stronger impact on life satisfaction than do increases in salary or income. For example, a person could spend ten years or more working for a company, including working overtime, and not receive a promotion to a more-fulfilling position even though he or she does good work. The person, thus, has devoted thousands of hours to the job without receiving the fulfillment he or she desires. As a result, a person's outlook on life could be negatively affected. The person could become depressed or cynical. On the other hand, a person could do work that provides a creative outlet and autonomy, such as freelance illustrating. Doing this work gives the person fulfillment and thus gives him or her a more positive outlook on life and the possibilities that lie ahead.

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9) One of the most widely administered job satisfaction surveys is the Job Descriptive Index (JDI). The JDI assesses five satisfaction facets: pay satisfaction, promotion satisfaction, supervisor satisfaction, coworker satisfaction, and satisfaction with the work itself. The JDI also has been subjected to a great deal of research attention that, by and large, supports its accuracy. The JDI includes a companion survey—the Job in General (JIG) scale—that assesses overall job satisfaction. Suggestions by developers include surveying of most of the employees because any unsurveyed employees might feel that their feelings are less important. And it is kept anonymous for honest replies without worries about punishment. Companies must be careful in collecting demographic information on the surveys. Some demographic information is vital for comparing satisfaction levels across relevant groups. Surveys should be administered by the firm's human resources group or an outside consulting agency for employees to feel that their anonymity is more protected.

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10) There are three applicants interested in the middle-management position. The first is a recent college graduate who likes his current job and current supervisor but would like to add this job to his résumé. The second applicant worked, until recently, as a middle manager in the fastfood industry but is currently desperate for a job, any job. The final applicant is currently in upper management in the business sector but wishes to work her preretirement years at a slower pace and the organization is a personal interest of hers.Which specific values will the position satisfy for each applicant? Predict which applicant will find the most satisfaction, and stay the longest in the position if hired? Support your prediction. Student answers will vary but should include some of the following elements. The pleasant environment and dedicated coworkers should be valued by all applicants. The college grad who currently likes their work and their supervisor may be quite dissatisfied with micromanaging upper management. The college grad will also likely be dissatisfied with the poor salary and lack of both praise and promotions. Underutilization of their skills, lack of freedom, and little sense of achievement all reflect the low value of the work itself, which may be enough to turn the grad into a disgruntled employee fairly quickly. Only the status category of values, specifically prestige, is fulfilled for the recent college grad. The desperate middle manager from the fast-food industry values the pay and other values are currently irrelevant. As time goes on, the middle manager will also become dissatisfied as the values of the work itself is the greatest predictor of job satisfaction, mostly lacking in this position. The final applicant wants an easy workload for her preretirement years and the micromanaging of upper management may be welcomed by this applicant who then does not have to invest as much mental work into any project. The pay appears to be a nonissue or she would not be trading positions and lack of promotions will also not be a problem. The applicant is most likely Version 1

already self-fulfilled from her other job and would not need praise from upper management, another good fit for the position. The applicant would likely do well in the job as her motivation appears to be altruism since she already has a personal interest in the work of the organization. Students will likely predict the final applicant as the one to find the most satisfaction in the position and therefore be willing to stay the longest. 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) E 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) E 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) E Version 1

35) A 36) C 37) B 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) E 42) C 43) E 44) E 45) D 46) B 47) E 48) E 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) E 62) A 63) C 64) D Version 1

65) B 66) C 67) D 68) D 69) A 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) C 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) A 87) B 88) D 89) A 90) A 91) C 92) A 93) E 94) B Version 1

95) C 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Distinguish between a stressor and a strain and give one example of each.

Explain the transactional theory of stress.

3) Describe the nature of hindrance stressors and give one example each of three different hindrance stressors.

4) Christopher works as a financial analyst in an investment firm. Because several of his colleagues recently resigned from the firm, he has had to take over extra responsibilities. His manager notices that Christopher has started smoking heavily and often gets irritable with his coworkers. What kind of strain is Christopher experiencing? If you were his manager, what kind of coping mechanism would you prefer that he use to cope with the stress?

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Explain the four broad categories of coping and give an example of each.

6) Tina is a highly ambitious graphic designer. She has a constant sense of urgency and tends to be impatient with persons who do not live up to her sense of perfection. Her general activity level is very high, and she sets high standards for herself work-wise. She puts much more effort into her work than other people do. What type of behavior pattern does she have? How would this influence her work? Are there any risks associated with her behavior pattern?

7) Explain the concept of presenteeism and describe the effects it has on workplace productivity.

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8) FinSmart, a finance firm, plans to hire a psychological counselor to help employees cope with stress. The firm also holds relaxation trainings and plans to build a recreation room where employees can relax. The finance manager of the firm feels that these are unnecessary costs. How would you counter his argument?

What is a stress audit? Explain how to reduce stressors and strains.

10) The organization must help its employees cope with stress. List the various resources an organization can provide to help employees cope with stressors.

11)

Describe the practices that organizations use to reduce employee strains.

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12) Which of the following is defined as a psychological response to demands for which there is something at stake and coping with those demands taxes or exceeds a person's capacity or resources?

A) B) C) D) E)

13)

stressors Type A behavior strains stress Type B behavior

Which of the following statements concerning stress is not true?

A) Different people experience the same levels of stress when confronted with the exact same situation. B) Stress is a psychological response to demands that tax or exceed the person’s capacity or resources. C) Negative consequences that occur when demands tax or exceed a person’s capacity or resources are called strains. D) A “stressed out” feeling might be accompanied by headaches, stomach upsets, backaches, or sleeping difficulties. E) Demands that cause people to experience stress are called stressors.

14) First, the network went down, then the guy in the next cubicle would not stop clearing his throat, and now Delia cannot find a sticky note when she needs one. Delia's head hurts, her shoulders are tense, and her back aches. Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Delia’s inability to find a sticky note is a strain, while her headache is a stressor. B) The network going down represents a stressor, while Delia’s backache is a strain. C) The guy clearing his throat is a daily hassle, while Delia’s tense shoulders are a work outcome. D) The network going down is a work hassle, while Delia’s hurting head and back are daily outcomes. E) Delia’s difficulty finding a sticky note is a primary effect, while her tense shoulders are a secondary outcome.

15) ________________are the negative consequences that occur when demands tax or exceed one's capacity or resources.

A) B) C) D) E)

Strains Daily hassles Time pressures Type A behavior Cognitive pressures

16) Nobuko is a customer service representative at Call Center Central. She thought a job answering phones all day would be easy, and at first it seemed to be. But over time, the large daily call volume and number of angry or aggressive callers made her edgy, and she found herself being short with customers for no reason. She started having muscle spasms and began to get headaches while at work. Nobuko’s physical symptoms are examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

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poor decision making. personality quirks. stress reduction. stressors. strains.

17)

Which of the following best exemplifies benign job demands?

A) Carolina’s laptop has been crashing at least three times a day, which makes it difficult for her to get all of her work completed. B) Rachel has not been given clear instructions on how to prepare month-end financial statements and is worried about doing it wrong. C) Anaya teaches third grade, and due to budget cuts, she has been forced to shop for her own school supplies on her own time and with her own money. D) Ferdinand, who fills orders for an online pharmacy, has been told he needs to increase both the number of orders he fills per hour and reduce the number of errors he makes. E) Gerald works as a shipping clerk at a publisher’s warehouse, and although it can be a challenge to load all the pallets onto trucks each day, he takes satisfaction in meeting the afternoon deadline.

18)

The transactional theory of stress

A) instructs people how to categorize and cope with stressors. B) explains how stressors are perceived and appraised, as well as how people respond to those perceptions and appraisals. C) includes a primary appraisal (How can I cope?) and a secondary appraisal (Is this stressful?). D) differentiates between benign job duties and stressors. E) lists common stressors by occupation.

19)

When people first encounter stressors, the process of ________ is triggered.

A) B) C) D) E)

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behavioral appraisal problem-focused appraisal primary appraisal emotional venting critical thinking

20) Judy has just started a new job as a checker at Farmer’s Grocery. It is her first job after graduating from high school, and she hopes to save enough money in the first year to be able to move in with her boyfriend. In her first week, she befriends two other new checkers, Silvio and Natasha, and she finds the majority of customers to be polite and sociable. At the end of her first week on the job, she checks the upcoming week’s work schedule only to discover that she is scheduled to have Tuesday and Friday off instead of Wednesday and Thursday as she requested. She is disappointed because her boyfriend has Wednesdays and Thursdays off from his job as a waiter, and their conflicting schedules means she will not be able to see him much. The next week, she finds that she has Tuesday and Saturday off, despite once again requesting Wednesday and Thursday off. The week after that, she finds herself feeling anxious about going into the break room because she is reluctant to find out if her days off are again different from what she requested. According to what you know about the transactional theory of stress, what will be the next step Judy takes?

A) to ignore the problem and see if her boyfriend can get his work schedule changed to match hers B) to call in sick on the days she wants to have off and try to pick up extra shifts to make up the difference C) to confront her manager and demand that her schedule match the schedule she has requested, or else she will quit D) to decide that no job is worth that kind of hassle and immediately look for a new job that offers a more desirable, fixed schedule E) to realize the importance of spending time with her boyfriend and understand that a variable work schedule will negatively impact her personal life

21)

Job demands that tend not to be appraised as stressful are called

A) B) C) D) E)

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benign job demands. work responsibilities. work complexity. daily hassles. personal development.

22) Alberto works as a receptionist for a graphic design firm. His daily job duties include making copies, replying to emails, answering phones, and greeting people who enter the office. This suite of tasks, when they are not overly taxing or exceeding his capacity, are called

A) B) C) D) E)

23)

benign job demands. primary appraisals. Type A activities. stressors. strains.

Which of the following is an example of a strain?

A) Sylvia leaves her waitressing shift early many days in a row as a result of low customer turnout. B) Amrita develops insomnia while trying meet the deadline to sequencing a new gene. C) Dario clocks in late to his retail sales job after a night of partying. D) Vandaya works a second job to save up money for college. E) Ahmed sits alone on his lunch hour and reads a book.

24) ________ are stressful demands that are perceived as hindering progress toward personal accomplishments or goal attainment.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Challenge stressors Time pressures Family time demands Hindrance stressors Work complexities

25) ________ are stressful demands that are perceived as opportunities for learning, growth, and achievement.

A) B) C) D) E)

Challenge stressors Daily hassles Role conflicts Hindrance stressors Work–family conflicts

26) Which of the following stressors is likely to trigger negative emotions such as anxiety and anger?

A) B) C) D) E)

work complexity personal development work responsibility time pressure daily hassles

27) ________ is a work hindrance stressor that occurs from incompatible demands within a single role that a person may hold.

A) B) C) D) E)

Time pressure Daily hassles Role overload Role ambiguity Role conflict

28) ________ refers to a work hindrance stressor that occurs when the number of demanding roles a person holds is so high that the person simply cannot perform some or all of the roles very effectively.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Time pressure Daily hassle Role overload Role ambiguity Role conflict

29) Alejandro hires Leona as a new sales coordinator at Rainproof Outdoor Gear after the previous coordinator quit unexpectedly. After she completes orientation, Alejandro needs Leona to quickly plan an upcoming sales meeting for all of the company’s field sales representatives, who will be gathering at the office in a week to go over the new product line. Despite the fact that her predecessor did little planning for the meeting before she left, Leona wants to make a good impression and begins to prepare the meeting even though she has never planned one before. Three days before the meeting, Alejandro observes Leona in a conference room pacing back and forth and wearing a slightly dazed expression as she shuffles papers around on the table. It is obvious to Alejandro that she is trying to block out meeting rooms for each sales representative group, determine the duration of each presentation, and figure out what kinds of audio-visual equipment will be needed in each room. When he asks if she needs help, Leona smiles and says, “Nope! I’ve got it all under control.” However, Alejandro can tell she is struggling to get things right. Based on what you know about the different types of work hindrance stressors, what should Alejandro do to help lessen Leona’s stressors?

A) explain to Leona the basic requirements for the meetings and provide her with the expected times and locations needed for each group presentation B) take Leona off the project and give it someone with more experience in planning meetings, allowing Leona to observe and take notes C) avoid interfering and let Leona continue to struggle her way through the task so that she profits from learning by doing D) step in and plan the meeting himself to ensure that things go smoothly and productivity is not compromised E) hire a temp to cover Leona’s regular duties so that she has more time to devote to planning the meetings

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30) Angela is working as the head of sales at Blue Mountain Cola. Her work requires her to travel extensively and meet customers in various countries. However, Angela’s role also requires her to mentor several sales representatives who work under her and keep track of their progress. Because Angela stays away from her office most of the time, she finds it difficult to manage both types of work responsibilities. Angela faces which of the following challenges?

A) B) C) D) E)

role complexities role conflict role penetration role ambiguity role enrichment

31) Kwame, Rosalinda, and Sven work at Security First Trust and National Reserve, a medium-sized bank with 240 branches in eight states. Kwame works as a teller. Rosalinda works as one of five regional supervisors, each of whom is expected to supervise a team of tellers. Kwame recently received instructions from his supervisor that all tellers will be evaluated on the number of people they assist at their window per day. Serving more customers means higher performance effectiveness. However, Kwame is also expected to follow the bank's number-one goal of customer satisfaction. Rosalinda is facing her own challenges. Two of the regional supervisors suddenly left the bank for other opportunities, resulting in a significant increase in work responsibility and time pressure for Rosalinda and the remaining two supervisors. Just two days before the two regional supervisors quit, the bank hired Sven as a supervisor trainee. With the bank suddenly short-handed, Sven was asked to take up all the responsibilities of a regional supervisor. He has been given very few instructions or guidelines about how things are supposed to be done. Instead, the bank expects him to learn on the job.In this scenario, Kwame is facing which type of stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

32)

work enlargement work hindrance work enrichment work challenge work complexity

Which of the following statements concerning the four main types of stressors is true?

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A) Hindrance stressors are demands perceived as opportunities for growth and achievement. B) Challenge stressors trigger positive emotions. C) Daily hassles are a work challenge stressor. D) Challenge stressors are demands perceived as hindering progress toward goal attainment. E) Word complexity is a work hindrance stressor.

33) Kwame, Rosalinda, and Sven work at Security First Trust and National Reserve, a medium-sized bank with 240 branches in eight states. Kwame works as a teller. Rosalinda works as one of five regional supervisors, each of whom is expected to supervise a team of tellers. Kwame recently received instructions from his supervisor that all tellers will be evaluated on the number of people they assist at their window per day. Serving more customers means higher performance effectiveness. However, Kwame is also expected to follow the bank’s number-one goal of customer satisfaction. Rosalinda is facing her own challenges. Two of the regional supervisors suddenly left the bank for other opportunities, resulting in a significant increase in work responsibility and time pressure for Rosalinda and the remaining two supervisors. Just two days before the two regional supervisors quit, the bank hired Sven as a supervisor trainee. With the bank suddenly short-handed, Sven was asked to take up all the responsibilities of a regional supervisor. He has been given very few instructions or guidelines about how things are supposed to be done. Instead, the bank expects him to learn on the job.In this scenario, Sven is encountering stress resulting from

A) B) C) D) E)

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work complexity. role conflict. role ambiguity. negative life events. daily hassles.

34) Kwame, Rosalinda, and Sven work at Security First Trust and National Reserve, a medium-sized bank with 240 branches in eight states. Kwame works as a teller. Rosalinda works as one of five regional supervisors, each of whom is expected to supervise a team of tellers. Kwame recently received instructions from his supervisor that all tellers will be evaluated on the number of people they assist at their window per day. Serving more customers means higher performance effectiveness. However, Kwame is also expected to follow the bank’s number-one goal of customer satisfaction. Rosalinda is facing her own challenges. Two of the regional supervisors suddenly left the bank for other opportunities, resulting in a significant increase in work responsibility and time pressure for Rosalinda and the remaining two supervisors. Just two days before the two regional supervisors quit, the bank hired Sven as a supervisor trainee. With the bank suddenly short-handed, Sven was asked to take up all the responsibilities of a regional supervisor. He has been given very few instructions or guidelines about how things are supposed to be done. Instead, the bank expects him to learn on the job.In this scenario, Rosalinda is facing which type of stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

35)

nonwork challenge benign work demands work hindrance work challenge nonwork hindrance

Which of these is a work challenge stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

time pressure daily hassles role overload role ambiguity role conflict

36) ________ refer(s) to the lack of information regarding what needs to be done in a role, as well as unpredictability regarding the consequences of performance in that role.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Time pressure Daily hassles Role overload Role ambiguity Role conflict

37) Meilla is the vice president of marketing at a medical supply company. In a typical workweek, she is required to attend three departmental meetings, prepare progress reports, sit in on job interviews for other departments, have one-on-one meetings with each of her five managers, and travel to a satellite location where mock-ups of new products are photographed for catalogs. Most weeks, Meilla puts in more than 70 hours at the office, and she often responds to emails while watching movies at home on the weekends. Despite this, she finds herself falling behind. Meilla’s experience is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

a lack of information about what needs to be done to accomplish her tasks. competing expectations from different departments about her job duties. the number of role demands placed on her being too high. the requirements of the job exceeding her capabilities. having too many nonwork obligations.

38) Gregor has worked in software quality assurance for three years but is looking for opportunities at other companies as a means to increase his salary and gain responsibility. To prepare for his interview for a software engineer position, he studies programming in his spare time and asks friends who are already programmers for interview tips. Despite his relative lack of experience, he is thrilled when the human resources manager for the new company calls to tell him he has been hired. Although he is eager to please his new boss, he gets nervous when his first assignment requires him to implement a new user interface feature in a programming language that he is not very familiar with. While feeling a bit anxious about his ability to complete the task, he uses online tutorials and asks for guidance from coworkers to help him achieve his goal. He has to work late for three nights, but by the end of the week, he is proud to have accomplished the task successfully and have learned new skills in the process. Gregor’s path to success is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

work responsibility. work complexity. role ambiguity. time pressure. role overload.

39) Which of the following reflect(s) the relatively minor routine demands that get in the way of accomplishing the things that we really want to accomplish?

A) B) C) D) E)

40)

family time demands daily hassles personal development positive life events negative life events

Which of the following is a work challenge stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

work complexity a positive life event role overload a negative life event role ambiguity

41) Which of the following refers to the degree to which the requirements of the work—in terms of knowledge, skills, and abilities—tax or exceed the capabilities of the person who is responsible for performing the work?

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A) B) C) D) E)

42)

work responsibility time pressure work complexity role conflict a negative life event

________ refers to the nature of the obligations that a person has toward others.

A) B) C) D) E)

Job capability Time pressure Work complexity Role conflict Work responsibility

43) Beth is a senior accountant at The American Bank. Her job profile includes preparing monthly financial statements, getting high-net-worth individuals to invest in the bank, and dealing with people who want loans above $30,000. Her work involves a lot of paperwork and she frequently travels to meet clients. The end of each month is especially busy because Beth has to check the audit reports as well. Unable to handle the pressure, Beth speaks to her boss and asks to be given an assistant. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

44)

daily hassles. time pressure. role overload. work complexity. a negative life event.

Work–family conflict is a type of ________ stressor.

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A) B) C) D) E)

45)

According to research, which of the following is considered the most stressful life event?

A) B) C) D) E)

46)

divorce jail term pregnancy death of a spouse change in occupation

Which of the following is a nonwork hindrance stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

47)

nonwork hindrance primary work challenge nonwork challenge work hindrance job enrichment

family time demands a positive life event personal development time pressure financial uncertainty

Which of these is a nonwork challenge stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

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role overload time pressure role ambiguity a positive life event financial uncertainty

48)

Family time demands are what type of stressor?

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

nonwork challenge stressor nonwork hindrance stressor work challenge stressor work hindrance stressor emotional stressor

According to the transactional theory of stress, the secondary appraisal focuses on

A) B) C) D) E)

evaluating benign job demands. evaluating the meaning of the stressor. considering if the demand causes them to feel stressed. evaluating the significance of the stressor. coping.

50) ________ refer(s) to the behaviors and thoughts that people use to manage both the stressful demands that they face and the emotions associated with those stressful demands.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Coping Cognition Hindrances Social support Recovery

51) Lupe is the assistant editor at the Voice of Today, an online publication. With recent increased readership, the editorial committee had decided to move up the deadline for article submissions to eight hours. This move was not welcomed by the junior writers and editors. Lupe, though unhappy with the decision, faces the problem head on and choses to cope by working faster and harder. This is an example of ________ coping.

A) B) C) D) E)

52)

Coping strategies can be viewed as either________ focused.

A) B) C) D) E)

53)

emotion-focused problem-focused fear-focused cognitive anxiety-focused cognitive stress-focused behavior

problem or emotion behavior or cognition positively or negatively work or nonwork personally or organizationally

Which of the following is an example of behavioral coping?

A) Marcel asks his manager for advice on how to create a spreadsheet to track defective items. B) Rocio conceives of a strategy for more efficiently conducting next month’s warehouse inventory. C) Jenna sits at her desk and daydreams about her upcoming vacation rather than thinking about tomorrow’s deadline. D) Jean-Baptiste chooses not to worry about his broken office chair and thinks about playing ping-pong on his lunch break. E) Efram pumps himself up before making a presentation to the board of directors by visualizing a successful outcome.

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54) Which of the following answer options is considered a problem-focused cognitive coping method?

A) B) C) D) E)

venting anger working harder reappraising strategizing acquiring additional resources

55) As manager of the accounting department at the Low Price Warehouse, Babette noticed that the cohesion of the collections team was rather low. Each team member was assigned a section of the alphabet, A–D, E–G, etc., and was responsible for calling only those customers within that particular range. In terms of division of labor, this worked well, but it also kept her employees in their own specific bubbles, resulting in few interactions between team members. To address this, Babette instituted mandatory Friday afternoon meetings where she would provide coffee and brownies, and employees would pair up, and each person would present the other’s weekly report to the entire group. She felt this would give the entire team a sense of what others were working on and would encourage healthy competition once everyone knew what everyone else’s stats were. As soon as she began holding the meetings, one of her best employees, Jermaine, began leaving the office just before the meetings began. He always turned his reports into her before he left, and they were always accurate and well written, but he never showed up at the meetings. When Babette talked to Jermaine about his absences, he sheepishly explained that he had a fear of talking in front of groups.Applying the concepts behind secondary appraisal, how should Babette deal with Jermaine’s avoidance issue?

A) require Jermaine to attend the meetings or be given a formal reprimand B) arrange for Jermaine to attend an intensive class on effective public speaking C) discontinue the meetings to make sure Jermaine is not uncomfortable around his colleagues D) make meeting attendance voluntary and hope that Jermaine will attend when he feels less pressure to do so E) allow Jermaine to continue to skip the meetings because in every other way his work performance is exceptional

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56) Makayla was taking the trash out to the dumpster behind the bakery where she worked when she heard a loud noise. Just around the corner she saw her coworker Narayan kicking at the brick wall and cursing under his breath. She asked him what was wrong, and he told her that his boss had denied his request for vacation even though it had been approved two months before. Narayan was told that due to the recent layoffs, they would be understaffed for the Thanksgiving holiday, and all previously approved vacation requests had been put on hold. Narayan was upset because this meant he would be unable to attend his cousin’s wedding, where he was looking forward to seeing his extended family. Narayan’s outburst is an example of ________ coping.

A) B) C) D) E)

fear-based cognitive emotion-focused cognitive problem-focused cognitive emotion-focused behavioral problem-focused behavioral

57) Kristen attempts to address time pressure by working harder and seeking assistance in devising a strategy for accomplishing the work more efficiently. In the example, Kristen uses

A) B) C) D) E)

58)

virtual coping. cognitive-based coping. problem-focused coping. Type A coping mechanisms. organizational coping mechanisms.

Self-motivation and changing priorities are examples of ________ coping strategies.

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A) B) C) D) E)

problem-focused behavior emotion-focused behavior emotion-focused cognitive problem-focused cognitive primary

59) Hector works as an office assistant for a small, five-person software development startup. Since it is a relatively new company without extensive resources, Hector is constantly having to deal with a lack of supplies and faulty office equipment. While these problems sometimes get him down, the co-owners of the fledgling company are his friends from college, and he looks forward to seeing them every day. In order to offset his frustration with the sometimes inadequate equipment, Hector instead celebrates the fact that he gets to work in a casual environment with friends. Hector’s approach is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

60)

emotion-focused cognitive coping. problem-focused cognitive coping. secondary appraising. behavioral coping. strain mitigation.

Which of the following is an example of problem-focused coping?

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A) Layla meets with her manager to discuss her feelings of failure after her new packaging design was rejected by the marketing department. B) When Josiah was unable to find the source of a bug in a smartphone app he was testing, he set that task aside and worked on something else. C) In order to meet a pending deadline, Ava chooses to wear noise canceling headphones and set her phone to ring through to voicemail while she focuses on achieving her goal. D) Kai reassessed his feelings of inadequacy after being passed over for a promotion and decided to see it as an opportunity to reengage with the job he has rather than the job he wants. E) Because Cora was always being asked by her boss to stay late on Fridays to finish last-minute tasks, she elected to take advantage of the company’s telecommuting policy and work from home on Fridays instead.

61) Seeking support and venting anger are examples of which of the following coping strategies?

A) B) C) D) E)

emotion-focused behavior coping problem-focused behavior coping stress-focused cognitive coping fear-avoidance cognitive coping problem-focused cognitive coping

62) Alisha and Carolina work at the Flash-Frozen Vegetables factory. The company is shortstaffed, and the employees are finding it difficult to meet the daily production requirements. Both Alisha and Carolina are facing time pressures in their respective departments. Alisha decides to work longer hours to meet the deadline, whereas Carolina tries to distance herself from her problems at work by thinking about the positive things in her life.Which of these coping strategies is Alisha utilizing?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

emotion-focused behavior coping problem-focused behavior coping emotion-focused cognitive coping problem-focused cognitive coping primary cognitive coping

63) Alisha and Carolina work at the Flash-Frozen Vegetables factory. The company is shortstaffed, and the employees are finding it difficult to meet the daily production requirements. Both Alisha and Carolina are facing time pressures in their respective departments. Alisha decides to work longer hours to meet the deadline, whereas Carolina tries to distance herself from her problems at work by thinking about the positive things in her life.Which of these coping strategies is Carolina utilizing?

A) B) C) D) E)

social support problem-focused behavior coping emotion-focused cognitive coping instrumental support behavior coping

64) Looking for the positive in the negative, and avoiding, distancing, and ignoring are examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

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problem-focused cognitive coping strategies. problem-focused behavior coping strategies. emotion-focused cognitive coping strategies. primary cognitive coping strategies. primary behavior coping strategies.

65) Raoul owns a furniture moving company. During late spring, especially when the local colleges go on summer break and students move out of the dorms, he finds himself overloaded with work, which often makes him feel irritable and anxious. To calm himself, he often takes time out to go swimming. In this example, the coping strategy that Raoul uses can be classified as

A) B) C) D) E)

primary appraisal. cognitive coping. emotion-focused coping. Type A coping behavior. Type B coping behavior.

66) ________ is the emotional, mental, and physical exhaustion that results from having to cope with stressful demands on an ongoing basis.

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

Burnout Type A behavior pattern Type B behavior pattern A stressor A benign job demand

Which if the following is an example of instrumental support?

A) Talisa complains about her boss to a coworker in the break room. B) Horatio’s husband listens to him complain about his workday over dinner. C) Odell invites each of his team members to open up to him about their grievances. D) Jenny offers to answer phones to give the receptionist a chance to get caught up on his filing. E) Uriel stops at the gym at the end of his shift to work out his frustrations by sparring with a boxing partner.

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68) Due to time pressure and heavy workload, Dan has developed high blood pressure and has started to show forgetfulness at work and home. These are examples of ________ strains.

A) B) C) D) E)

physiological and behavioral psychological and behavioral physiological and psychological internal and external psychological and cognitive

69) After dealing with stressful work demands for over a year, Sarah began to feel emotionally, mentally, and physically exhausted. Sarah is likely suffering

A) B) C) D) E)

physiological strains. from burnout. behavioral strains. from challenge stressors. the consequences of recovery.

70) George is a stockbroker in a leading brokerage firm. Recently, he has been assigned several additional tasks. He begins to consume alcohol to cope with the increasing workload. George also becomes demanding and overly critical of his coworkers and his family. In this example, George is exhibiting ________ strain.

A) B) C) D) E)

71)

virtual Type A hindrance behavioral instrumental

People with the Type A Behavior Pattern are typically

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A) B) C) D) E)

72)

aggressive and competitive. thoughtful and cooperative. methodical and precise. lazy and unproductive. cautious and insecure.

The two major types of social support are

A) B) C) D) E)

financial and literal. practical and theoretical. instrumental and emotional. psychological and cognitive. behavioral and physiological.

73) Which of these terms refers to the degree to which energies used for coping with work demands are replenished from a period of rest or relief from work?

A) B) C) D) E)

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recovery coping burnout social support instrumental support

74) Charene is a product development manager for Unique Automotive Accessories. When she was first hired, she proved herself to be one of the most productive new employees. Lately, Charene’s supervisor, Ivan, has noticed that her productivity is slipping from its previous high point. Whenever Ivan stays late at the office, he sees that Charene is always at her desk, eating take-out, and she is always the first to arrive in the morning. He also observes that her email replies are often time-stamped on the weekend. Ivan decides to hire Charene an assistant to ease her workload and improve her work–life balance. Ivan’s approach to alleviating Charene’s stressors is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

burnout. cognitive coping. emotional support. instrumental support. organizational cohesion.

75) After a lengthy, stressful company restructuring, the project manager took a six-week medical leave just to keep his sanity intact. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

social support. recovery. role overload. personal development. behavioral coping.

76) Akono is an associate with Wealth Management Partners in Texas. Among various other work commitments, Akono has to compile the annual financial statement for Broadband Express, an important client. It is a job with heavy workload and a short turnaround deadline. Anaya, Akono's colleague, observed this stressful situation and volunteered to assist Akono in meeting the deadline. The support received by Akono can be best described as ________ support.

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A) B) C) D) E)

77)

marginal physiological emotional adaptive instrumental

Which of the following is an example of a Type A Behavior Pattern?

A) Enrique keeps to himself at office parties, preferring to read a book or wear earbuds rather than talk to anyone. B) Natalia comes in late and leaves early, often without asking for permission or notifying her supervisor in advance. C) During weekly meetings, Sharona talks over other people and is always in a hurry to get back to her desk and get back to work. D) Frederica is an excellent team player, and she never takes credit for her efforts, preferring to see the outcome as the product of a group effort. E) Kristoffer is a slow and methodical worker, and he can always be counted on to get his work done with a high degree of accuracy, if not always on time.

78)

Which of the following statements is true regarding social support?

A) Social support refers to the support that occurs outside the stress-causing environment. B) Social support refers to the level of financial security that an individual receives from government-managed social work programs. C) Social support is classified into two types: emotional support and cognitive support. D) Most research on social support focuses on the ways that social support buffers the relationship between stressors and strains. E) Social support cannot directly influence the stress process.

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79) A year ago Niantha was promoted to project manager at FeedTheWorld.com, an online charity organization that facilitates the distribution of out-of-date food from supermarkets and restaurants to homeless shelters and food pantries. In an effort to boost productivity and keep the team engaged and relaxed, Niantha implemented a number of light-hearted strategies such as casual Fridays, Random Theme Mondays, and Pajama Wednesdays. Since there is little client contact at the office, she saw no reason for her team to dress formally, and she wanted them to feel as comfortable as possible in the workplace. In order to keep things her team energized and goal-oriented, she created weekly challenge goals and friendly competition among team members by posting the total amount of food each person managed to reclaim that week. As a result of Niantha’s efforts, the team’s productivity skyrocketed in the first three months, with multiple members vying to win the week’s “Biggest Community Helper” award. The team got along well, fraternized after hours, and Niantha’s vice president applauded her department’s improved output. In the past six months, however, productivity has been slipping, and Niantha is puzzled. Looking over her records, she sees that her two best employees, Reggie and Shay, have not missed a single day of work in six months. Niantha did catch Reggie sleeping at his desk once or twice, and Shay recently had a persistent cough. But both of them engage in a friendly rivalry each week as they vie for the top prize, and each seems to respond positively to her demands on their time. Yet, somehow, their overall productivity has ebbed, as has that of the team as a whole.Given what you know about the nature of challenge stressors, how should Niantha address the issue of lost productivity?

A) by giving Shay and Reggie extra projects each week that require them to stay late or work weekends B) by assigning projects to different pairs of employees each week, making sure Reggie and Shay are never on the same team C) by allowing Reggie and Shay to choose their own projects each week before handing out assignments to the rest of the team D) by making the rest of the team responsible for Shay and Reggie’s work output and taking away casual dress privileges if the team fails to meet its goals E) by requiring that Reggie and Shay use at least one day of paid time off per month and sending them home if they show up to work visibly sick, tired, or distressed

80)

Hindrance stressors have a ________ effect on job performance.

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A) B) C) D) E)

high negative strong negative strong positive weak negative moderately positive

81) Which of the following situations demonstrates the connection between hindrance stressors and organizational commitment?

A) Xander deals with his frustration over his boss showing favoritism to other members of his team by going for runs at lunch. B) Hilary’s manager constantly makes unreasonable demands that force her to work long hours, and as a result she is looking for another job. C) When Oberon learned that a lazy coworker had been given a big raise, Oberon decided to work harder in order to earn a similar raise for himself. D) Frida’s company cuts costs by not replacing old, worn out equipment, so she is forced to ignore the problems in order to focus on getting her work done. E) The psychological pressure Sheila felt as an accountant during tax season led her to form a support group with other people in her department who felt the same way.

82)

Hindrance stressors have a ________ relationship with organizational commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

83)

weak positive strong negative strong positive moderate negative moderate positive

Which of the following statements is true about the effects of stressors?

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A) Hindrance stressors have a strong negative effect on job performance. B) Hindrance stressors have a moderate negative effect on organizational commitment. C) Challenge stressors have a strong negative relationship with job performance. D) Employees who experience higher levels of challenge stressors also tend to have lower levels of job performance. E) Challenge stressors have a moderate positive relationship with organizational commitment.

84) Some highly motivated individuals come to work even though they are suffering from the physiological, psychological, or behavioral strain caused by stress. This phenomenon, known as ________, can result in reductions in productivity even greater than those resulting from employees who avoid work due to the effects of stress.

A) B) C) D) E)

85)

presenteeism insubordination stress resistance workplace defiance organizational commitment

People who experience higher levels of challenge stressors tend to have higher levels of

A) B) C) D) E)

presenteeism. hindrance stress. job performance. organizational burnout. psychological distractions.

86) Attempts to reduce stressors in the workplace are most beneficial when focused on________ stressors.

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A) B) C) D) E)

cognitive challenge hindrance behavioral ambiguous

87) Miranda is in charge of tracking the output quality of recycled aluminum at Reclaimed Metals. When she went on maternity leave, Silas was brought on in a temporary capacity to cover her position during her absence. The department manager, Rochelle, knew that the company’s rapid growth had increased Miranda’s workload over recent months, and she wanted to ensure that Miranda would not have to work overtime upon her return since Miranda would have a new baby at home. In order to allow Miranda to ease back into work upon her return and to account for increased work demands due to future company growth, Rochelle decided to hire Silas permanently to handle the quality assurance responsibilities with Miranda. This arrangement is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

contracting. job sharing. virtual work. term-time working. compressed working hours.

88) By providing ________, organizations aim to increase job-related competencies and skills that help employees to cope with stressful demands.

A) B) C) D) E)

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hindrance stressors benign job demands training interventions emotional support transactional theories

89) of

A compressed workweek, telecommuting, on-site childcare and flextime are all examples

A) B) C) D) E)

training interventions. supportive practices. challenge stressors. primary appraisals. job sharing.

90) Indira manages a team of people in the accounting department at Financial Partners, LLP. The company has been in buyout talks with a large competitor for the past few months. As the merger deal nears completion, Indira started noticing a change in her team’s conduct. One of the collection agents, Malcolm, is taking longer lunches and often returns reeking of alcohol. She observed Akobo, the accounts receivable supervisor, uncharacteristically lashing out at vendors on the phone. Her own assistant, Marjorie, started nervously tapping her feet and pulling at her hair during meetings. Indira is worried about her team and their well-being. According to the protocols of assessment, which of the following actions will help Indira best understanding her team’s issues?

A) hiring an expert to observe her team as they work and to report on the status of each member B) reading through her team’s email correspondence to search for clues about their shift in behavior C) bringing in a masseuse at lunch time once a week to give free massages to the team members who want them D) instituting a program through which high-performing employees mentor lowerperforming team members, regardless of seniority E) considering what might be causing the issues and having her team members fill out questionnaires asking about the sources of their anxieties

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91) As an alternative to managing stressors, many organizations teach employees to use ________ to counteract the effects of stressors by engaging in activities that slow the heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure.

A) B) C) D) E)

heuristics relaxation techniques emotional suppression primary performance appraisal transactional analysis

92) Which of these techniques attempt(s) to help people appraise and cope with stressors in a more rational manner?

A) B) C) D) E)

self-hypnosis techniques relaxation techniques catharsis cognitive-behavioral techniques free association

93) Veronica is feeling stressed and has asked her manager if there are any supportive practices available to help her. Her manager suggests that since Veronica is interested in environmental issues, she should take advantage of a program that would enable her to take six months away from the company to work on the local “reclaim the bay” initiative. Veronica's manager is offering her

A) B) C) D) E)

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a sabbatical. a vacation. flextime. a compressed workweek. a stress challenge.

94)

A majority of all ________ are attributable to stress-related causes.

A) B) C) D) E)

firings doctor visits violent outbursts health care costs work-related injuries

95) The process by which managers evaluate the nature of the jobs in their organization to determine if high stress levels are an issue is known as a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

stress audit. health check. time pressure test. transactional study. organizational assessment.

96) Mohammed, who managed an IT department at the corporate headquarters of the retail clothing chain Real Cheap Shirts, noticed one of his best technicians, Mia, was often coming in late, and when she was on time, she was distracted and harried. She occasionally ran diagnostic tests on the wrong systems or lost focus when presenting her weekly recap reports to the team. Mohammed asked if something was going on, and Mia admitted that her grandfather, whom she lived with, was showing signs of dementia, and she was trying her best to care for him alone, but it was hard to do that and commit 100 percent to her work duties. Mohammed proposed to alter Mia’s work requirements such that she could work whatever hours she wanted to, including some telecommuting from home, as long as she completed her assigned tasks by the end of each week. Mia smiled when she heard this and was grateful that her boss was so understanding. In allowing Mia to have altered work hours, Mohammed was utilizing

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A) B) C) D) E)

97)

cognitive coping. personal instruction. supportive practices. training interventions. organizational flexibility.

The particular demands that cause people to experience stress are called strains. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) According to the transactional theory of stress, when people first encounter stressors, the process of primary appraisal is triggered. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The transactional theory of stress holds that benign job demands are a work-related hindrance stressor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Role ambiguity is often experienced among new employees who have not been around long enough to receive instructions from supervisors or observe and model the role behaviors of more senior colleagues. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

101) Most people appraise situations with high time pressure as rather stressful, and they also tend to appraise these situations as more hindering than challenging. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Kathleen thought her college studies had prepared her completely for her new job as a restaurant manager. She is completely surprised by the amount of responsibility that has immediately been given to her and the number of skills she is expected to already have. Combined with the amount of pressure she is under to get all the staffing and ordering forms filled out and filed, she is feeling quite stressed. Kathleen is experiencing work-related challenge stress. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Work–family conflict is an example of work hindrance stressor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Burnout is a physiological strain resulting as a negative consequence associated with stress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) A critical factor that determines coping strategy choice is the degree to which people believe that a particular strategy gives them some degree of control over the stressor or how they feel about it. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

106)

Stressors can cause gastrointestinal system problems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Social support refers to the help that people receive when they are confronted with stressful demands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Instrumental support refers to the help people receive that can be used to address the stressful demand directly. ⊚ ⊚

109)

Hindrance stressors have a strong positive relationship with job performance. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Challenge stressors have a weak positive relationship with job performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Challenge stressors have a moderate negative relationship with organizational commitment.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Type A individuals are more likely to appraise demands as being benign rather than being stressful. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Hindrance stressors such as role ambiguity, conflict, and overload not only cause strain but also decrease commitment and job performance. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Supportive practices are one way of helping employees cope with stressful demands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) In general, relaxation techniques to reduce strain attempt to help people appraise and cope with stressors in a more rational manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Exercise programs are particularly successful because they reduce the types of stressors that employees encounter. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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Answer Key Test name: CH5 1) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the difference between stressors and strains. A sample answer follows.The demands that cause people to experience stress are called stressors. The negative consequences that occur when demands tax or exceed a person's capacity or resources are called strains. People differ in terms of how they perceive and evaluate stressors and the way they cope with them. As a result, different people may experience different levels of stress even when confronted with the exact same situation.An example of a stressor is equipment failure that hinders job performance, such as a copier that jams repeatedly and prevents an employee from assembling weekly reports on time. An example of a strain is the tension headache that same employee suffers as a result of the frustration caused by the faulty copier. 2) The transactional theory of stress explains how stressors are perceived and appraised, as well as how people respond to those perceptions and appraisals. When people first encounter stressors, the process of primary appraisal is triggered. Primary appraisal occurs as people evaluate the significance and the meaning of the stressor they are confronting. Here, people first consider whether a demand causes them to feel stressed, and if it does, they consider the implications of the stressor in terms of their personal goals and overall well-being. Job demands that tend not to be appraised as stressful are called benign job demands.

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3) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of hindrance stressors. A sample answer follows.Hindrance stressors are stressful demands that people tend to perceive as hindering their progress toward personal accomplishments or goal attainment. Hindrance stressors most often trigger negative emotions such as anxiety and anger. Work hindrance stressors include role conflict, role ambiguity, role overload, and daily hassles. Nonwork hindrance stressors include work–family conflict, negative life events, and financial uncertainty.One example of the work hindrance stressor role overload is a lawyer who has so many clients that she ends up working late every night and every weekend to keep up with her workload. An example of the nonwork hindrance stressor negative life events is an employee going through a divorce that affects her attitude at work and results in negative emotions. An example of the work hindrance stressor role conflict is a grocery cashier who is required to check out customers as quickly as possible but who is also asked to be polite and sociable with customers. Talking leisurely with customers, while fostering a warm atmosphere in the store, can work against the goal of fast checkout.

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4) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of behavioral strains and potential coping mechanisms. A sample answer follows.Christopher is experiencing behavioral strains. Behavioral strains are unhealthy behaviors such as grinding one's teeth at night, being overly critical and bossy, excessive smoking, compulsive gum chewing, overuse of alcohol, and compulsive eating. The coping strategy that Christopher uses will ultimately have important implications for how effectively he can meet or adapt to the different stressors that he faces. A manager would most likely want subordinates to cope with the stress of heavy workload by using a problem-focused strategy—working harder—rather than an emotion-focused strategy—leaving work several hours early to create distance from the stressor. Students' answers to the last part of the question will vary.

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5) Student answers and examples will vary. A sample answer follows.Coping involves different activities that can be grouped into four broad categories based on two dimensions. The first dimension refers to the method of coping, and the second dimension refers to the focus of coping. Behavioral coping involves the set of physical activities that are used to deal with a stressful situation. Cognitive coping refers to the thoughts that are involved in trying to deal with a stressful situation. Problem-focused coping refers to behaviors and cognitions intended to manage the stressful situation itself. Emotion-focused coping refers to the various ways in which people manage their own emotional reactions to stressful demands.An example of behavioral coping would be a copywriter working on a tight deadline choosing to work faster and harder to meet the goal successfully. An example of cognitive coping would be a sewer repairperson focusing her thoughts on the good her job is doing for the community rather than being disgusted by the unpleasant odors she is mired in day after day. An example of problem-focused coping would be a mail carrier who spent time to work out the most efficient route for delivering the mail in his service area to make sure he got home on time each day. An example of emotion-focused coping would be a construction worker who was afraid of heights seeking counseling to ease his anxiety.

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6) Tina exhibits Type A Behavior Pattern. Such people have a strong sense of time urgency and tend to be impatient, hard-driving, competitive, controlling, aggressive, and even hostile. They also have a strong desire to achieve. Tina, being a Type A individual, is more likely to appraise demands as being stressful rather than being benign. Her hard-driving competitiveness could make her hypersensitive to demands that could potentially affect her progress toward goal attainment. Tina may be more prone to interpersonal conflict. Students' answers will vary for the last response. The Type A Behavior Pattern has been directly linked to coronary heart disease and other physiological, psychological, and behavioral strains. 7) High levels of challenge stressors may have negative consequences that only become apparent over the long term. People whose jobs are filled with challenge stressors experience strains that can result in illness, but because they tend to be more satisfied, committed, and engaged with their jobs, they come to work anyway. This phenomenon, which is referred to as presenteeism, can result in prolonged illness, as well as the spread of illness, and ultimately a downward spiral of impaired performance and employee health. In fact, it may surprise you to learn that the reductions in productivity that result from presenteeism are even larger than reductions in productivity that result from employee absenteeism.

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8) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how organizations can help reduce stress for their employees.Employee stress results in strains that cost organizations in terms of reduced employee performance and commitment. Health-related costs are driven to a great extent by employee stress. Estimates are that between 60 percent and 90 percent of all doctor visits can be attributed to stressrelated causes, and the cost of providing health care to people who experience high levels of stress appears to be approximately 50 percent higher than for those who experience lower levels of stress. The relationship between stress and health care costs means that there could be huge dividends for FinSmart if it manages employees’ stress more effectively. 9) A stress audit is an assessment of the level and sources of stress in the workplace. This is the first step in managing stress. If a stress audit reveals that stress may be a problem, then alternative courses of action must be taken into consideration. Managing or reducing stressors is one general course of action. One way an organization could reduce stressors is to try to eliminate or significantly reduce stressful demands. Job sharing is an example of this approach. This is to reduce role overload and foster work–life balance. As an alternative to managing stressors, many organizations use practices that reduce strains. One type of strainreducing practice involves relaxation techniques, such as progressive muscle relaxation, meditation, and miscellaneous calming activities. Another practice involves cognitive-behavioral techniques. These techniques tend to help people appraise and cope with stressors in a more rational manner. A third practice involves health and wellness programs. These are comprehensive efforts that include health screening and health-related courses and information.

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10) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of methods and resources organizations can use to help employees cope with stressors. A sample answer follows.One way that organizations provide resources to employees is through training interventions aimed at increasing job-related competencies and skills. Employees who possess more competencies and skills can handle more demands before they begin to appraise these demands as overly taxing or exceeding their capacity. Training that increases employee competencies and skills is also beneficial to the extent that it promotes a sense that the demands are more controllable, and a sense of control promotes problem-focused coping strategies. A second way that organizations provide resources to employees so that they can cope more effectively is through supportive practices that help employees manage and balance the demands that exist in the different roles they have. For example, organizations use flextime to give employees some degree of latitude in terms of which hours they need to be present at the workplace. Flexible working hours give employees the ability to cope with demands away from work, so they do not have to worry about these demands while they are at work. Some organizations allow telecommuting on a part-time basis.

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11) As an alternative to managing stressors, many organizations use practices that reduce strains. Some organizations use relaxation techniques, such as progressive muscle relaxation, meditation, and miscellaneous calming activities like taking walks, writing in a journal, and deep breathing. Although these relaxation techniques differ, the basic idea is the same—they teach people how to counteract the effects of stressors by engaging in activities that slow the heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure. Cognitive-behavioral techniques attempt to help people appraise and cope with stressors in a more rational manner. To understand what these techniques involve, think of someone you know who not only exaggerates the level and importance of stressful demands but also predicts doom and disaster after quickly concluding that the demands simply cannot be met. Strain-reducing practices involve health and wellness programs. The nature of these programs and resources varies a great deal from organization to organization, but in general, they are comprehensive efforts that include health screening (blood pressure, cholesterol levels, pulmonary functioning) and healthrelated courses and information. Other examples of health and wellness programs intended to reduce strain include smoking cessation programs, on-site fitness centers or fitness center memberships, and weight loss and nutrition programs. 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) E Version 1

21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) E 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) E 50) A Version 1

51) B 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) B 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) B 76) E 77) C 78) D 79) E 80) D Version 1

81) B 82) B 83) E 84) A 85) C 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) B 90) E 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) B 95) A 96) C 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE Version 1

111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Define and explain motivation and its forces.

2) How do employees make the choices that take them in the “right direction”? Justify your answer with the help of expectancy theory.

3) Identify and explain the mathematical formula for expectancy theory that suggests the total motivational force to perform a given action. Construct an example from your own life to illustrate this theory.

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4) Sheena did not plan to go to college. She worked part-time at a law office while in high school and always considered routine office work her future. Sheena’s work productivity and commitment on the job was very high and her supervisor gave her more responsibility. Her success continued to grow and the law partners took notice. Sheena became a favorite among the lawyers and was asked to assist on several high-profile cases, with high praise given each time. A few of the lawyers began encouraging Sheena to pursue a law degree, but she scoffed, at first. Sheena soon decided she really enjoyed this kind of work and began imagining herself arguing a case in court. Sheena soon began the process of applying to college. Just a few short years ago, Sheena would not have dreamed of entering college, yet she is now applying. Define and describe the sources of self-efficacy, then list specific events in Sheena’s life that changed her self-efficacy to a belief she wanted to attend college?

5) What is the difference between extrinsic and intrinsic motivation? Give some examples of outcomes associated with each of these. Are you more motivated by extrinsic or intrinsic outcomes? Explain, using examples from your own life.

6) Freddie needs to set goals for his team of real estate agents. Freddie wants the goals to improve task performance for his team. Use Freddie’s situation to identify and explain the factors that alter the effects of goal setting on task performance.

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7) Identify and explain the acronym S.M.A.R.T. as used in goal setting theory. Give an example of a S.M.A.R.T. goal from your own life.

8) Melissa has noticed that people in her office lack commitment to their goals. Each year goals are set and then ignored. Describe some strategies for fostering goal commitment that Melissa could use in her office.

9) Describe equity theory. What are the three general possibilities that can result from the comparison of the ratio of outcomes and inputs to the ratio of some comparison other? Describe a situation when you experienced a sense of inequity and relate your response to that situation.

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10) At Drone Craft Industries, several people are feeling that things are not fair. Reva works harder than Brit, but Brit gets first choice on vacation dates and earns more bonus pay. Benny slacks off, but the boss likes him, so he gets better assignments than Lanie, the team member who works next to him and works harder than Benny ever has. Identify and explain the possible outcomes of equity theory comparisons and ways to restore the balance for each outcome. Then, identify the situations Reva and Benny are in, and suggest how they might feel and what they might do about it.

11) Maitlyn has discovered that almost all of her coworkers are just there to collect a paycheck, and few of them feel as though they are motivated intrinsically. Maitlyn feels she should bring this to the attention of upper management so they can make some changes. Define psychological empowerment, and using Maitlyn’s situation, identify the four concepts that can make work tasks intrinsically motivating, and explain each concept.

12) Iggy has seen what he feels is too much turnover in the work force at his distillery. He wants to see his workers perform better and demonstrate a better commitment to the organization. Explain how motivation relates to job performance and organizational commitment and give some examples of what Iggy can do to boost performance and commitment.

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13) Loren wants to implement a new compensation plan in his growing prefabricated housing business. He has been using profit sharing, but he did not see the productivity gains he was hoping for. Identify and explain individual-, unit-, and organization-focused compensation plan elements, and explain which method might be a good choice for Loren to use.

14) ________ is the set of energetic forces that originates both within and outside an employee; initiates work-related effort; and determines its direction, intensity, and persistence.

A) B) C) D) E)

Organizational commitment Job satisfaction Job performance Motivation Leadership

15) Wallace just got a new batch of articles to edit. He is enthused about starting something new. He decides to put all other distractions aside and focus on this task. He gets a great deal done, but after three hours, he is ready for something else. Deciding to quit after a few hours demonstrates the effect of Wallace’s motivation on his ________ of effort.

A) B) C) D) E)

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sincerity direction intensity persistence expectancy

16) Kwame designs and delivers public outreach programs for Hydro Sun Electric. He seems to never take a break, he always talks about work, and he often reaches the end of the day wishing he could do more and not realizing how late it has gotten. Kwame’s behavior demonstrates the concept of

A) B) C) D) E)

vicariousness. engagement. feedback. valence. equity.

17) There are a list of opening procedures Brittany must accomplish before the store opens, but first she checks the show times on the movie she plans to see that night after work. Brittany’s ________ of effort is decided when she pulls up the cinema website.

A) B) C) D) E)

18)

intensity direction motivation persistence sincerity

Effective job performance is most often a function of

A) B) C) D) E)

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motivation and emotions. emotions and ability. ability and expectations. motivation and ability. expectations and emotions.

19)

Expectancy theory focuses on describing

A) how goals are the primary drivers of the intensity and persistence of effort. B) the type of rewards people get from outside forces, such as wages and vacations. C) a form of intrinsic motivation in which merely performing the work tasks serves as its own reward. D) how employees create a “mental ledger” of the outcomes (or rewards) they get from their job duties. E) the cognitive process that employees go through to make choices among different voluntary responses.

20) Alvin is the leader of a team of counselors at a camp for recovering addicts. He and his team have been asked to implement a new program, which on the surface looks much more difficult than what they have been doing. Before the program begins, Alvin feels he needs to give his team a speech to help motivate them for the upcoming challenge. What is the first thing Alvin should do in his speech?

A) the past B) numbers C) D) E)

remind the team of how they worked hard to successfully overcome challenges in admit that he is not completely sure the project can be done with existing staff tell them that he will be watching them carefully for any failure to follow procedure express that he has a great deal of anxiety about taking on such a huge endeavor tell the team they may get a raise if everything goes well for a few weeks

21) Which of the following scenarios demonstrates how workers determine efficacy levels through vicarious experiences?

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A) Sal looks at his diploma from a prestigious university and realizes he is very smart. B) Reno pats Ed on the back and tells him he is making great progress on his design project. C) Butch compares the salary he has just been offered to the salary he made at his previous job. D) Bill, just named sales manager, asks Fred what his job was like when he was the sales manager. E) Linda, who has a tight deadline to meet, ranks her tasks by urgency in the hopes that this will keep her on track.

22) Employees at Carpet Lot were given a survey about the workplace. One of the questions asked them about their wages. Which of the following respondents gave a response that shows a belief in a high level of instrumentality at Carpet Lot?

A) B) C) D) E)

Leah, who said most people get raises because they are related to someone Irvin, who said wages are determined by employee job performance LaShawn, who said that the highest wages go to dishonest people Skylar, who said that most people are paid based on seniority Marti, who said that wages should be the same for everyone

23) ________ theory argues that employee behavior is directed toward pleasure and away from pain or, more generally, toward certain outcomes and away from others.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Psychological empowerment Expectancy Goal setting Extrinsic Equity

24) Each month Karen’s supervisor conducts a contest among staff and the monthly winner is awarded the best parking spot in the lot. This month’s winner will be the staff member who solicits the best proposal for increasing cost-saving “green” initiatives in the workspace. Karen has knowledge of the subject as she has incorporated many such initiatives into her own home. However, Karen rarely enters the monthly contests and has never been interested in having the closest parking spot. She prefers to park far away so she gets some exercise walking to and from her car each day. According to expectancy theory, which belief does Karen consider a “zero,” making her motivational force to enter a proposal for the contest a “zero”?

A) B) C) D) E)

expectancy self-efficacy past accomplishments valence instrumentality

25) ________ is a subjective probability ranging from 0 to 1 that describes how a specific amount of effort will lead to a specific level of performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

Expectancy Meaning Efficacy Valence Need

26) The ________ is the idea that money can have symbolic value in addition to economic value.

A) B) C) D) E)

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meaning of money extrinsic value of money valence of money intrinsic value of money instrumentality of money

27) Linda has been hired by Doctor Patel to oversee a fast-paced, innovative medical office. It is a highly difficult, but well-paid job. Linda believes she has the skills and experiences to easily handle the task and improve the efficiency of the office. Linda’s belief in her capabilities is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

28)

instrumentality. self-efficacy. complexity. valence. equity.

When employees consider efficacy levels for a given task, they first consider their

A) B) C) D) E)

past accomplishments. vicarious experiences. current projects. extrinsic motivators. instrumentality.

29) Flint has been assigned the task of reconfiguring all the digital projectors in his office building. He knows Ellie had to do this two years ago, and he remembers that she was crying in frustration and almost resigned because of complications and a lack of cooperation that hindered her ability to do the job properly. This is an example of Flint taking ________ into account.

A) B) C) D) E)

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emotional cues instrumentality verbal persuasion vicarious experiences past accomplishments

30) Evander has been asked to lead a team of educators. He is afraid his employees will not take him seriously because he is a nice guy, and he is nervous that his supervisors will see him as weak and ineffective. He is also excited by some great ideas he has for how to improve educational delivery methods that he knows will work. Evander’s efficacy is moderated by his fears and anxieties, as well as his pride and enthusiasm, which are all examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

emotional cues. instrumentality. verbal persuasion. vicarious experiences. past accomplishments.

31) Blake is determined to finish a building project for Mr. Hicks before the deadline. Blake is certain that if he successfully performs this building project, Mr. Hicks will hire him as a permanent builder for his expanding condominium business. Blake’s belief demonstrates

A) B) C) D) E)

32)

instrumentality. self-efficacy. complexity. expectancy. valence.

Technically, instrumentality is

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A) the value of a work goal or purpose, relative to a person’s unique individual ideals and passions. B) the belief that a person has the capabilities needed to execute the behaviors required for task success. C) a set of subjective probabilities, each ranging from 0 to 1, that successful performance will bring a set of outcomes. D) a subjective probability, ranging from 0 to 1, that a specific amount of effort will result in a specific level of performance. E) a cognitive grouping or cluster of outcomes that are viewed as having critical psychological or physiological consequences.

33) The Morning Muffin is a family-run baking company. It specializes in custom-made cakes, turnovers, croissants, muffins, and pies. Younger family members have learned the value of attention to detail when creating a new recipe by observing the praise given to bakers who exhibit this level of attention. Those who now exhibit close attention to detail while creating recipes have learned through

A) B) C) D) E)

past accomplishments. vicarious experiences. lecture sessions. emotional cues. instrumentality.

34) Kelli is about to deliver an important presentation on her highly innovative efficiency technique at an internationally recognized business conference. Just minutes before she is to go on stage, Kelli gets nervous and cannot remember half of her talking points. Her boss speaks to her, reminding her that she works everyday with the information she plans to communicate, which helps shore up her confidence. Kelli then makes a presentation that earns her a standing ovation. Which of the following considerations dictated Kelli’s self-efficacy?

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A) B) C) D) E)

past accomplishments vicarious experiences verbal persuasion equity distress instrumentality

35) Jerri and Janelle work at Logistics of Love, a nonprofit designer of homeless shelters. Last month, Janelle, newly hired on a temporary designing assignment, was asked by her supervisor to oversee the company’s social media presence. Being new to using social media in a professional context, Janelle is considering her efficacy. She talks to Jerri and other individuals who have been creating professional social media content for several years. Jerri takes pride in her work-related social media posts and always approaches company-based social media with total enthusiasm. Jerri tells Janelle that she believes exerting a high level of effort will result in a successful performance in representing the company on social media. Which of the following best describes Jerri’s belief about exerting a high level of effort?

A) B) C) D) E)

equity valence expectancy instrumentality emotional cues

36) Jerri and Janelle work at Logistics of Love, a nonprofit designer of homeless shelters. Last month, Janelle, newly hired on a temporary designing assignment, was asked by her supervisor to oversee the company’s social media presence. Being new to using social media in a professional context, Janelle is considering her efficacy. She talks to Jerri and other individuals who have been creating professional social media content for several years. Jerri takes pride in her work-related social media posts and always approaches company-based social media with total enthusiasm. Jerri tells Janelle that she believes exerting a high level of effort will result in a successful performance in representing the company on social media. Jerri’s self-efficacy source appears to be

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A) B) C) D) E)

37)

The symbolic value of money can be summarized in at least three dimensions,

A) B) C) D) E)

38)

past accomplishments. vicarious experiences. verbal persuasion. emotional cues. instrumentality.

past accomplishments, vicarious experiences, and emotional cues. expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. outcomes, needs, and bonuses. achievement, respect, and freedom. existence, control, and esteem.

________ is the anticipated value of the outcomes associated with performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

Instrumentality Valence Equity Expectancy Self-efficacy

39) ________ are the cognitive groupings or clusters of outcomes that are viewed as having critical psychological or physiological consequences.

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A) B) C) D) E)

40)

Instrumentality Valence Equity Expectancy Needs

Examples of physiological needs are

A) B) C) D) E)

autonomy, control, and responsibility. lasting interpersonal relationships. effectiveness and respect. food, safety, and shelter. purpose and fulfillment.

41) Marilou just left her job at Valley Creek Community College. Valley Creek had not honored the wage scale they promised to employees for several years, and many of Marilou’s colleagues were let go before they could retire, often with no reason given. Marilou was stressed about her inability to guess what the future would hold for her at Valley Creek. Marilou was stressed because she had a need for

A) B) C) D) E)

esteem. control. relatedness. self-regard. self-actualization.

42) To hold a high evaluation of oneself and to feel effective and respected by others are ________ needs.

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A) B) C) D) E)

control self-actualization esteem autonomy relatedness

43) Ernest has a high paying, low-stress job as a buyer at a warehouse facility. Most people are envious of Ernest, but he is not happy. Ernest would rather work in a park or forest where he could help the environment and preserve nature, because that is more important to him than his high salary. Ernest’s longing to work with nature is a ________ need.

A) B) C) D) E)

control self-regard relatedness responsibility self-actualization

44) Motivation that is controlled by some contingency that depends on task performance is ________ motivation.

A) B) C) D) E)

control extrinsic intrinsic expectant efficacious

45) Motivation that is felt when task performance serves as its own reward is ________ motivation.

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A) B) C) D) E)

instrumental extrinsic intrinsic expectant efficacious

46) Rocco has been asked to set some effective goals for the workers in his sales department. Rocco wants to get the best performance out of his team that he can, because he is being evaluated on how well they do. How should Rocco go about determining the goals for his team?

A) allow the team to have autonomy and ownership by letting them set their own goals B) set the goals beyond what people can actually do, so they go above and beyond in trying C) keep the goals very broad and general, allowing them to evolve as market conditions fluctuate D) make the goals very specific, stating exactly how many sales he wants and when he wants them E) show his faith in the team by asking them to do their very best, because that’s all he can ask of them

47) Which of the following scenarios demonstrates how feedback can moderate progress toward attaining goals?

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A) Theodore explains to Gilbert that the initial blueprints must be submitted to the client by the end of November. B) Joleen tells Adam the original task they started will become considerably more complicated than was initially thought. C) Jerry tells Jorge he has done a fantastic job so far, but he needs to bump his production up by ten percent to meet the required rate. D) Samir tells Cliff to reach out to him and let him know if he has any questions or needs any supplies or equipment to do his job properly. E) Louie tells Elaine she needs to make sure she has enough covers made for the seats Alex is making but does not tell her how many seats Alex has made.

48) Bill lays out a goal for Larry, the head of his printing department. He wants Larry to print exactly 500,000 books, which will be tracked by the counter on the book binding machine. Bill knows Larry can do this because they have printed that many books before. What does Bill need to add to make this a S.M.A.R.T. goal?

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

a list of suggested ways to improve efficiency a deadline for when the books should be printed the promise of a monetary bonus for making the goal the contact information for the authors whose books will be printed a sample book so Larry can see what the finished product looks like

Goals are defined as

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A) measurable proof that significant progress is being made toward fulfilling some important purpose by a set deadline. B) how complicated the information and actions involved in a task are, as well as how much the task is expected to change over time. C) the objective or aim of an action, typically refer to attaining a specific standard of proficiency, often within a specified time limit. D) cognitive groupings or clusters of outcomes that are viewed as having critical psychological or physiological consequences. E) a set of energetic forces that originates both within and outside an employee, initiates work-related effort, and determines its direction, intensity, and persistence.

50) Which of these refers to the learning plans and problem-solving approaches used to achieve successful performance?

A) B) C) D) E)

51)

The internalized goals people use to monitor their own progress is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

52)

expectancies emotional cues vicarious experiences valences task strategies

self-set goals. self-efficacy. instrumentality. task strategies. goal commitment.

Task complexity can show

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A) a way that successful performance will result in some outcome. B) a kind of self-confidence or a task-specific version of self-esteem. C) the degree to which a person accepts a goal and is determined to try to reach it. D) learning plans and problem-solving approaches used to achieve successful performance. E) the degree to which the information and actions needed to complete a task are complicated.

53)

Goal commitment is defined as

A) a series of updates on employee progress toward goal attainment. B) the belief that successful performance will result in some outcome. C) the degree to which a person accepts a goal and is determined to try to reach it. D) the belief that a person has the capabilities needed to execute the behaviors required for task success. E) the degree to which the information and actions needed to complete a task are complicated.

54) After his annual performance appraisal, Joe was disappointed with his 5 percent increase in pay, compared to the 10 percent increase his colleagues received. When Joe spoke to his manager, he was told his colleagues were able to perform well over the minimum standard. Joe had not been aware of the minimum he was expected to achieve or the levels generally achieved by his colleagues. What would best help Joe improve his performance?

A) B) C) D) E)

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increasing Joe’s goal commitment increasing Joe’s task complexity increasing Joe’s dissonance decreasing Joe’s valence setting specific goals

55)

The “S” in the S.M.A.R.T. goals acronym stands for

A) B) C) D) E)

56)

The “M” in the S.M.A.R.T. goals acronym stands for

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

measurable. monetary. methodical. model. major.

The “A” in the S.M.A.R.T. goals acronym stands for

A) B) C) D) E)

58)

systematic. specific. self-set. scientific. serious.

affordable. ability. achievable. aspire. assess.

The “R” in the S.M.A.R.T. goals acronym stands for

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A) B) C) D) E)

59)

robust. resolved. requirements. results-based. realist.

Which of the following is true about goal setting theory?

A) The theory argues that specific, difficult goals are best. B) Goal setting theory outlines how “do-your-best” goals elicit the highest levels of performance. C) The theory contends that equity is the greatest moderator of goal achievement. D) Goal setting theory proposes that SNARK goals result in the highest levels of goals achievement. E) The theory argues that employees work hardest and are most engaged when the goals are easy.

60) This strategy for fostering goal commitment relays goals to significant others and coworkers to create some social pressure to attain it.

A) B) C) D) E)

publicity rewards support resources participation

61) This strategy for fostering goal commitment provides supervision to aid employees if they struggle to attain the goal.

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A) B) C) D) E)

support resources participation publicity rewards

62) Loralie feels guilty. She spends much of her day goofing around and never gets caught, but if Lillianne, who works at the next desk, replies to her or says anything, the boss seems to magically show up, and Lillianne gets reprimanded for wasting time. According to equity theory, which of the following scenarios would be the most productive way for Loralie to get rid of her guilt?

A) B) C) D) E)

purposely get caught goofing off the next time the boss is near file harassment charges against the boss on Lillianne’s behalf ignore Lillianne and pretend she does not work next to her stop goofing off and remain as focused as Lillianne teach Lillianne to goof off without getting caught

63) Which of the following scenarios involving Tisha, a nurse at a major metropolitan hospital, depicts a situation where her ratio of outcomes to inputs is lower than her comparison other?

A) Tisha meets her improvement goal and receives a gift card, just as she was promised. B) Tisha finds out that she will be assigned to the same number of hours as all of the other nurses. C) Gavin, a nurse who has always outperformed Tisha, does not get a raise like Tisha and most other nurses. D) Tisha makes a mess which is cleaned up by Rachel, another nurse, and then Rachel gets lectured for making the mess. E) Valerie, a nurse with less experience than Tisha, gets first choice of vacation days, which is supposed to be done by seniority.

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64) Which of the following is an example of what equity theory refers to as an external comparison?

A) Ashley is guilty because she found out she will be beating out her best friend, Morgan, for a promotion. B) Bailey is angry because she finds out that dental hygienists in other offices earn more than she does. C) Emmi thinks the other two receptionists in her office get longer lunches than she does. D) Syd often calls other dentists to ask where to get supplies for the best price. E) Marci feels like she is probably the least skilled player in the city orchestra.

65) Brandy has been given a great deal of opportunity to advance her career. She recently got a huge increase in authority and salary, and she was hired to do what she has always claimed was her dream job. However, Brandy is not enthusiastic about coming to work, and when she is there, she spends most of her time complaining about how Maurice got a bigger office and nicer furniture than she did. Brandy’s behavior would seem to support ________ theory.

A) B) C) D) E)

equity extrinsic expectancy goal setting psychological empowerment

66) Which theory suggests that employees create a “mental ledger” of the outcomes they get from their job duties?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

expectancy goal setting equity psychological empowerment extrinsic

67) The ________ is the person who seems to provide an intuitive frame of reference for judging equity.

A) B) C) D) E)

equity resolver comparison other cognitive distortion creator goals monitor outcome evaluator

68) In equity theory, ________ is the internal tension that is caused by an imbalance in the ratios.

A) B) C) D) E)

cognitive distortion expectancy equity distress goal commitment cognitive dissonance

69) Noticing her reduced performance at work, Sabrina enrolled herself for training sessions offered by the company and saw her productivity improve. This helped restore her balance of comparison ratios. Prior to enrolling in the training session, Sabrina was most likely experiencing

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

overreward inequity. self-efficacy. cognitive distortion. equity. underreward inequity.

70) In equity theory, ________ is rethinking your inputs to restore balance mentally without altering your behavior in any way.

A) B) C) D) E)

71)

Which of the following answer options represents an outcome as opposed to an input?

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

equity distress instrumentality cognitive distortion internal comparisons external comparisons

performance seniority education intrinsic rewards skills and abilities

Which of the following answer options is considered an input as opposed to an outcome?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

seniority benefits status symbols workplace perks satisfying supervision training

73) Trini worked in a small office with one colleague and one supervisor. Each day, someone from the office had to walk a block to the courthouse to pick up registration forms. None of the three liked to make the trip to the courthouse because it always took longer than expected and each felt they could be more productive in the office. The three randomly decided who would go each day depending on their workload. However, Trini began to feel angry that her turns were always on bad-weather days, either raining, snowing, or windy. According to equity theory, which of the following scenarios is the most productive way for Trini to correct the anger she is beginning to feel?

A) Trini can start claiming her workload is heavy on bad-weather days, meaning one of the other two will have to go. B) Trini can talk to her supervisor about instituting a set rotation schedule for daily pickups at the courthouse. C) Trini can try to get out of going to the courthouse on any day. D) Trini can offer to go to the courthouse every day. E) Trini can let her anger out the next time she is chosen to make the trip to the courthouse on a bad-weather day.

74) For about five years, Lucy and Betty have been working for Bright Fires at the same level of management and doing similar kinds of work. Lucy has been focusing on setting specific and difficult goals for herself and believes that exerting a high level of effort will result in the successful performance in her job. On the other hand, Betty compares herself to different managers, such as Meg, who works for the competitor in a similar work position. Betty feels disheartened when she finds out that she is significantly underrewarded at Bright Fires. From Betty’s view in this situation, Lucy is a(n)

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

emotional cue. external comparison. internal comparison. intrinsic motivator. extrinsic motivator.

75) For about five years, Lucy and Betty have been working for Bright Fires at the same level of management and doing similar kinds of work. Lucy has been focusing on setting specific and difficult goals for herself and believes that exerting a high level of effort will result in the successful performance in her job. On the other hand, Betty compares herself to different managers, such as Meg, who works for the competitor in a similar work position. Betty feels disheartened when she finds out that she is significantly underrewarded at Bright Fires. From Betty’s view in this situation, Meg is a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

emotional cue. external comparison. internal comparison. extrinsic motivator. intrinsic motivator.

76) ________ equity is when you compare yourself to others doing the same job in other company, with similar levels of education, seniority, and performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

77)

Job Company Occupational Age Educational

Which scenario depicts an employee who experiences a high level of meaningfulness?

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A) Don is a mechanic. He stays after work sometimes to look at tools and engines. On evenings and weekends, he goes to car shows and works on cars in his garage. B) Lloyd works in a leather tannery. He can come and go as he pleases and schedule orders as he wishes as long as he completes each week’s orders on time. C) Floyd walks around his pet rescue, patting his employees on the back and reminding them they are improving the lives of animals and people. D) Becky leaves work early several days a week, but she still produces more sales and earns more money than anyone else on the sales force. E) Jimmy can put up drywall faster than anyone else on his crew, and customers say his work is the neatest they have ever seen.

78) Gordon works as a senior software engineer. He can work from home or in the office, and he can take off whenever he likes. He can add features to the programs he is working on and change them significantly without collaborating with anyone else. He can also decide which projects get most of his attention. Which of the following does Gordon’s job definitely have?

A) B) C) D) E)

79)

physiological needs self-determination meaningfulness competence impact

The dimensions of psychological empowerment include all of these except

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

meaningfulness. self-determination. competence. impact. needs.

80) ________ is the energy rooted in the belief that work tasks contribute to some larger purpose.

A) B) C) D) E)

Self-efficacy Goal commitment Goal setting Vicarious experience Psychological empowerment

81) ________ captures the value of a work goal or purpose, relative to a person’s own ideals and passions.

A) B) C) D) E)

Meaningfulness Self-determination Competence Impact Integrity

82) Diane is a senior manager at The Southern Credit Union. A good part of her workday is spent in meetings with clients, subordinates at the bank, prospective customers, and auditors. Although Diane has such a busy schedule, she manages to find time for her equally important meetings with the Animal Habitat foundation. Diane’s commitment to Animal Habitat can be classified under which of the following concepts of psychological empowerment?

A) B) C) D) E)

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meaningfulness self-determination competence expectancy impact

83) Incusafe is a venture capital firm that helps finance small businesses. New hires at the firm are given a project worth $100,000 to work on with minimum interference from the senior associates. The project has a large scope for innovation and creation. What is management attempting to use as a motivator for the new hires?

A) B) C) D) E)

84)

expectancy meaningfulness self-determination surface-level diversity outcome interdependence

Which of the following statements concerning psychological empowerment is not true?

A) Studies of generational trends show psychological empowerment is falling out of favor with younger workers. B) Psychological empowerment represents a form of intrinsic motivation. C) Managers can instill a sense of self-determination in their employees by delegating work tasks. D) Employees can build their own sense of meaningfulness by identifying and clarifying their own passions. E) Employees can attain a deeper sense of impact by building collaborative relationships.

85) Eric is a loan assistant, but wants to become a commercial lender, so he engages in selfdirected learning, seeks out feedback from his managers, and manages his own workload. Eric is attempting to build his own

A) B) C) D) E)

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meaningfulness. instrumentality. competence. valence. impact.

86) The efforts of Coach Greene have made the Red Wolves the best soccer team in Arizona. The team owners tell Coach Greene that his efforts have vastly improved the team’s performance and that they believe his continuing efforts will result in the Red Wolves being ranked as the best team in the conference. Which psychological empowerment concept best describes the effect of the owners’ comments on Coach Greene’s motivation?

A) B) C) D) E)

impact self-dignity competence meaningfulness self-determination

87) Libby is a mid-level supervisor in a university administrative office. Some of the employees feel the office lacks true equity. Libby has to do employee evaluations soon. What action should Libby take to reduce the feelings of inequity associated with her office?

A) B) C) D) E) favorites

give every employee exactly the same evaluation score make employee evaluate their peers anonymously through a random drawing give employees honest evaluation scores based on their performance, good or bad avoid giving any really low evaluation scores to employees who have complained avoid giving any really high evaluation scores to employees who are seen as

88) Jamie owns a small sporting goods store. He has decided to aggressively pursue a policy to make sure employees feel a sense of equity in his store. What result is Jamie most likely going to see as a result of his push for equity?

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A) B) C) D) E)

89)

Which of the following motivating forces have the strongest performance effect?

A) B) C) D) E)

90)

greater commitment from his employees fewer citizenship behaviors from his employees huge improvement in employee task performance the elimination of merit-based compensation plans a slight increase in counterproductive employee behavior

difficult goals high levels of valence and instrumentality perceptions of equity high levels of expectancy self-efficacy and competence

Motivation has a ________ effect on job performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

strong positive moderate positive weak positive moderate negative strong negative

91) Equity has ________ effect on citizenship behavior and ________ effect on counterproductive behavior.

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A) B) C) D) E)

a strong positive; a strong negative a moderate positive; a moderate negative no; a moderate positive a moderate negative; a strong negative a strong negative; a moderate positive

92) Russell works in a canvas factory where workers are paid five dollars for every tent they sew together. Workers who are very fast may make twice as much money as some of the slower workers. Which of the following compensation plan elements is used at Russell’s factory?

A) B) C) D) E)

merit pay piece-rate gainsharing profit sharing lump-sum bonus

93) In which of the following scenarios is the compensation plan element of gainsharing used?

A) Florida receives a set payment for each dog she grooms. B) Landon gets an additional 10 percent increase in salary each year if he meets his goals. C) Nigel gets an extra paycheck because his supervisors rank him as their most valuable employee. D) The members of Shae’s distribution unit get an extra seven percent salary if they meet their goals. E) Angelina gets a free large screen television because she stayed after work hours to fix a software glitch.

94)

Which of the following is an organization-focused compensation plan element?

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A) B) C) D) E)

merit pay lump-sum bonus profit sharing gainsharing piece-rate

95) Motivation determines the direction, intensity, and outcome of work-related employee effort. ⊚ ⊚

96)

Engagement is a term commonly used in the workplace to summarize motivation levels. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Expectancy represents the belief that low performance is the outcome of high efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The belief that a person has the capabilities needed to execute the behaviors required for task success is known as self-actualization. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

Valence can be positive, negative, or zero.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Leticia has been assigned a task for which she knows that she does not have the necessary skills or knowledge. However, she really wants the bonus she can earn by completing the task. According to expectancy theory, Leticia will be highly motivated to complete the task. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Hannah has been asked to give the opening speech at her global company’s annual sales convention. She has successfully given speeches in the past, and her friends have all told her she would be great. These have resulted in a high sense of self-efficacy, and she accepts the assignment. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

Intrinsic motivation is controlled by some contingency that depends on task performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Research suggests that employees underestimate how powerful a motivator pay is to them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Individuals who value money for the achievement, respect, and freedom it confers value the rational meaning of money.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

105) As goals move from moderate to difficult, the intensity and persistence of the effort needed are minimized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) When goal commitment is high, assigning specific and difficult goals will have significant benefits for task performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) According to equity theory, any imbalance in the ratio of outcomes triggers cognitive distortion—an internal tension that can only be alleviated by restoring balance to the ratios. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Extrinsic theory acknowledges that motivation depends not only on a person’s beliefs and circumstances, but also on what happens to other people. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Impact captures a person’s belief in their capability to perform work tasks successfully. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

110)

A sense of self-determination is a strong driver of extrinsic motivation. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

The motivating force with the strongest performance effect is the perception of equity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Employees who feel a sense of equity on the job are more likely to engage in citizenship behaviors, particularly when those behaviors aid the organization. ⊚ ⊚

113)

Merit pay represents the most common element of organizational compensation plans. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Gainsharing is an organization-focused element of a compensation plan. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH6 1) Motivation is a defined set of energetic forces that originates both within and outside an employee; initiates work-related effort; and determines its direction, intensity, and persistence. Motivation is a critical consideration because job performance is largely a function of two factors: motivation and ability. Motivation is not one thing but rather a set of distinct forces. Some of those forces are internal to the employee, such as a sense of self-confidence, whereas others are external to the employee, such as the goals an employee is given. Motivation also determines a number of facets of an employee’s work effort. Motivation determines what employees do at a given moment. Once the direction of effort has been decided, motivation goes on to determine how hard an employee works and for how long.

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2) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of expectancy theory and how it relates to employee choices. A sample answer follows.The expectancy theory describes the cognitive process that employees go through to make choices among different voluntary responses. The theory suggests that our choices depend on three specific beliefs that are based in our past learning and experience: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Expectancy represents the belief that exerting a high level of effort will result in the successful performance of some task. Instrumentality represents the belief that successful performance will result in some outcome. It is a set of subjective probabilities, each ranging from 0 (no chance!) to 1 (a mortal lock!) that successful performance will bring a set of outcomes. Valence reflects the anticipated value of the outcomes associated with performance. Salary increases, bonuses, and more informal rewards are typical examples of “positively valenced” outcomes, whereas disciplinary actions, demotions, and terminations are typical examples of “negatively valenced” outcomes.

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3) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of expectancy theory and its mathematical formula. A sample answer follows.According to expectancy theory, the direction of effort is dictated by three beliefs: expectancy (E → P), instrumentality (P → O), and valence (V). More specifically, the theory suggests the total “motivational force” to perform a given action can be described using this formula:Motivational Force = (E → P) X {Σ [(P → O) X V]}The Σ symbol signifies that instrumentalities and valences are judged with various outcomes in mind, and motivation increases as successful performance is linked to more and more attractive outcomes. The multiplication sign means motivational force equals zero if any one of the three beliefs is zero.Because of my height, I was asked to try out for the basketball team. I liked playing basketball with my friends but the rules were lax and we played more for fun. I had the skills to make the basketball team, but I really wanted to be in the school play. The rehearsals for the play overlapped the basketball season and I could not do both. I did not try out for the basketball team, but I got the lead in the play. My expectancy of making the basketball team was positive, and I believed if I practiced I would have a starting position—so my instrumentality was also positive. However, my valence was essentially zero, because I really wanted to be in the play. Since my valence was zero, my total motivational force was also zero, meaning I did not try out for the basketball team.

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4) Self-efficacy is the belief a person has about the capabilities needed to execute the behaviors required for task success. Sources of self-efficacy are past accomplishments, vicarious experience, verbal persuasion, and emotional cues. When Sheena graduated from high school her selfefficacy for college was a zero. Her rising success at work (past accomplishments), her work with other lawyers on high-profile cases (vicarious experience), encouragement from the lawyers to pursue her law degree (verbal persuasion), and her own imagining of herself arguing a case before a court (emotion cue), all worked to boost Sheena’s self-efficacy. She now believed she wanted to attend to college, working toward her law degree. 5) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of extrinsic and intrinsic motivation. A sample answer follows.Extrinsic motivation is motivation that is controlled by some contingency that depends on task performance. Other outcomes foster intrinsic motivation—motivation that is felt when task performance serves as its own reward.Examples of extrinsic outcomes are pay, bonuses, promotions, benefits and perks, spot awards, praise, job security, support, free time, lack of disciplinary actions, lack of demotions, and lack of terminations. Example of intrinsic outcomes may include enjoyment, interestingness, accomplishment, knowledge gain, skill development, personal expression, lack of boredom, lack of anxiety, and lack of frustration.I am more motivated by extrinsic motivation. I work for the contingency that I will get paid. I do not like working, but I do it for the check. I believe that if I had a chance to do a job with intrinsic motivation, I would be even more motivated, but right now all I know is extrinsic motivation.

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6) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the factors that impact the effects of goal setting on task performance. A sample answer follows.Goal setting theory views goals as the primary drivers of the intensity and persistence of effort. Goals are defined as the objective or aim of an action and typically refer to attaining a specific standard of proficiency, often within a specified time limit. More specifically, the theory argues that assigning employees specific and difficult goals will result in higher levels of performance than assigning no goals, easy goals, or “do-your-best” goals. The assignment of a specific and difficult goal shapes people’s own self-set goals—the internalized goals that people use to monitor their own task progress. In the absence of an assigned goal, employees may not even consider what their own goals are, or they may self-set relatively easy goals that they are certain to meet. As a self-set goal becomes more difficult, the intensity of effort increases, and the persistence of effort gets extended. However, goals have another effect; they trigger the creation of task strategies, defined as learning plans and problem-solving approaches used to achieve successful performance. In the absence of a goal, it is easy to rely on trial and error to figure out how best to do a task. Under the pressure of a measuring stick, however, it becomes more effective to plan out the next move. Put differently, goals can motivate employees to work both harder and smarter.Freddie should make sure to set team goals that are difficult and specific, and he should set a timeline for achieving them. This will increase the performance required for the goals his team will set for themselves as well, forcing them to challenge themselves more and take more creative approaches to problems. Freddie could set a goal for listings and sales within a timeframe, such as a month or six weeks. He should tell the agents exactly how many listings they should aim for. The goal should be a bit higher than what they typically achieve. Version 1

7) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of S.M.A.R.T. goal setting. A sample answer follows.The S.M.A.R.T. acronym summarizes many beneficial goal characteristics, standing for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Results-Based, and Time-Sensitive. (Although that acronym is a useful reminder, note that it omits the allimportant “Difficult” characteristic.)I set a S.M.A.R.T. goal to complete my degree in three years. It is specific because it tells exactly what I am doing; it is measurable because when I complete my credits I will have earned my degree; it is achievable because many people finish in three years; it is results-based because if I do not pass my classes, I will not achieve it; and it is time-sensitive because it has to be done in three years.

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8) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of strategies that can increase goal commitment. A sample answer follows.Goal commitment is defined as the degree to which a person accepts a goal and is determined to try to reach it. When goal commitment is high, assigning specific and difficult goals will have significant benefits for task performance. However, when goal commitment is low, those effects become much weaker. The importance of goal commitment raises the question of how best to foster commitment when assigning goals to employees. Powerful strategies for fostering goal commitment include rewards, publicity, supervisory support, employee participation, and providing resources to help employees reach goals.The rewards strategy ties goal achievement to the receipt of monetary or nonmonetary rewards. The publicity strategy publicizes the goal to significant others and coworkers to create some social pressure to attain it. The support strategy provides supportive supervision to aid employees if they struggle to attain the goal. The participation strategy has employees collaborate on setting the specific proficiency level and due date for a goal so the employee feels a sense of ownership over the goal. Finally, the resources strategy provides the resources need to attain the goal and removes any constraints that could hold back task efforts.Melissa could give prizes to employees who reach their goals. She could give a special parking space to the one who does the best. She could also tell the workers she is there to help them and ask them if they need any supplies or training to help them meet their goals.

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9) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of equity theory and the three general possibilities that can result from comparison. A sample answer follows.Equity theory acknowledges that motivation does not just depend on your own beliefs and circumstances but also on what happens to other people. More specifically, equity theory suggests that employees create a “mental ledger” of the outcomes (or rewards) they get from their job duties. Equity theory argues that you compare your ratio of outcomes and inputs to the ratio of some comparison other—some person who seems to provide an intuitive frame of reference for judging equity.There are three general possibilities that can result from this “cognitive calculus.” The first possibility is that the ratio of outcomes to inputs is balanced between you and your comparison other. In this case, you feel a sense of equity, and you are likely to maintain the intensity and persistence of your effort. The second possibility is that your ratio of outcomes to inputs is less than your comparison other’s ratio. According to equity theory, any imbalance in ratios triggers equity distress—an internal tension that can only be alleviated by restoring balance to the ratios. The third possibility is that your ratio of outcomes to inputs is greater than your comparison other’s ratio. Equity distress again gets experienced, and the tension likely creates negative emotions such as guilt or anxiety.Once, I worked at a grocery store. I did extra jobs, such as sweeping and straightening shelves. My friend, who also worked at the store, did nothing extra and even stole snacks from the back room. He always got to work more hours than I did. I quit the job because I felt it was unfair.

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10) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of equity theory. A sample answer follows.The first possibility is that the ratio of outcomes to inputs is balanced between you and your comparison other. In this case, you feel a sense of equity, and you’re likely to maintain the intensity and persistence of your effort. The second possibility is that your ratio of outcomes to inputs is less than your comparison other’s ratio. According to equity theory, any imbalance in ratios triggers equity distress—an internal tension that can only be alleviated by restoring balance to the ratios. In an underreward case, the equity distress likely takes the form of negative emotions, such as anger or envy. One way to stop feeling those emotions is to try to restore the balance in some way. You could be constructive and proactive by talking to your boss and explaining why you deserve better outcomes. Such actions would result in the growth of your outcomes, restoring balance to the ratio. Of course, anger often results in actions that are destructive rather than constructive, and research shows that feelings of underreward inequity are among the strongest predictors of counterproductive behaviors, such as employee theft. Another means of restoring balance is to shrink your inputs by lowering the intensity and persistence of effort. The third possibility is that your ratio of outcomes to inputs is greater than your comparison other’s ratio. Equity distress again gets experienced, and the tension likely creates negative emotions such as guilt or anxiety. Balance could be restored by shrinking your outcomes (taking less money, giving something back to the comparison other), but the theory acknowledges that such actions are unlikely in most cases. Instead, the more likely solution is to increase your inputs in some way. You could increase the intensity and persistence of your task effort or decide to engage in more “extra mile” citizenship behaviors. At some point though, there may not be enough hours in the day to increase your inputs any further. An alternative (and less labor-intensive) means Version 1

of increasing your inputs is to simply rethink them—to reexamine your mental ledger to see if you may have “undersold” your true contributions. On second thought, maybe your education or seniority is more critical than you realized, or maybe your skills and abilities are more vital to the organization. This cognitive distortion allows you to restore balance mentally, without altering your behavior in any way. There is one other way of restoring balance, regardless of underreward or overreward circumstances: Change your comparison other. After all, we compare our “lots in life” to a variety of other individuals. Some of those comparisons are internal comparisons, meaning that they refer to someone in the same company. Others are external comparisons, meaning that they refer to someone in a different company. If a given comparison results in high levels of anger and envy or high levels of guilt and anxiety, the frame of reference may be shifted.Reva sees herself in an underreward situation, where her ratio of outcomes to inputs is less than Brit’s, and she probably feels anger and resentment. She might complain to her boss about the inequity, or she may begin to engage in destructive behaviors or quit. Benny’s ratio of outcomes to inputs is greater than Lanie’s, and he probably feels guilt or anxiety. He could restore balance by working harder or by offering Lanie first choice of job assignments.

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11) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of psychological empowerment and intrinsic motivation. A sample answer follows.Psychological empowerment represents a form of intrinsic motivation, in that merely performing the work tasks serves as its own reward and supplies many intrinsic outcomes. Models of psychological empowerment argue that a similar set of concepts can make work tasks intrinsically motivating. Four concepts are particularly important: meaningfulness, self-determination, competence, and impact. Meaningfulness captures the value of a work goal or purpose, relative to a person’s own ideals and passions. When a task is relevant to a meaningful purpose, it becomes easier to concentrate on the task and get excited about it. Self-determination reflects a sense of choice in the initiation and continuation of work tasks. Employees with high levels of self-determination can choose what tasks to work on, how to structure those tasks, and how long to pursue those tasks. That sense of selfdetermination is a strong driver of intrinsic motivation, because it allows employees to pursue activities that they themselves find meaningful and interesting. Competence captures a person’s belief in his or her capability to perform work tasks successfully. Competence brings with it a sense of pride and mastery that is itself intrinsically motivating. Impact reflects the sense that a person’s actions “make a difference”—that progress is being made toward fulfilling some important purpose. Phrases such as “moving forward,” “being on track,” and “getting there” convey a sense of impact. The polar opposite of impact is “learned helplessness”—the sense that it does not matter what a person does, nothing will make a difference. Here, phrases such as “stuck in a rut,” “at a standstill,” or “going nowhere” become more relevant.Maitlyn’s supervisors could structure the work so employees have more say in choosing how to do their work, which might give them a sense of selfdetermination. They might also set up a standard that workers can Version 1

achieve to show that they are capable of doing their jobs, boosting their sense of confidence and competence. Supervisors could also use encouraging phrases to give the workers more of a sense of impact.

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12) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of motivation and how it relates to job performance and organizational commitment. A sample answer follows.Turning first to job performance, literally thousands of studies support the relationships between the various motivating forces and task performance. The motivating force with the strongest performance effect is self-efficacy/competence, because people who feel a sense of internal self-confidence tend to outperform those who doubt their capabilities. Difficult goals are the second most powerful motivating force; people who receive such goals outperform the recipients of easy goals. The motivational force created by high levels of valence, instrumentality, and expectancy is the next most powerful motivational variable for task performance. Finally, perceptions of equity have a somewhat weaker effect on task performance.The relationship between motivation and organizational commitment seems straightforward. After all, the psychological and physical forms of withdrawal that characterize less committed employees are themselves evidence of low levels of motivation. Clearly employees who are daydreaming, coming in late, and taking longer breaks are struggling to put forth consistently high levels of work effort. Research on equity and organizational commitment offers the clearest insights into the motivation–commitment relationship. Specifically, employees who feel a sense of equity are more emotionally attached to their firms and feel a stronger sense of obligation to remain.Iggy can set difficult goals that he knows will challenge his workers, but he should also make them attainable. When the employees achieve goals, Iggy should praise them, so they gain self-confidence and believe in their abilities. Iggy can also make sure all employees are treated fairly and equally in order to boost their sense of equity.

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13) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of compensation plan elements and how they can be used to motivate. A sample answer follows.Individual-focused compensation plan elements include piece rates, merit pay, lump-sum bonuses, and recognition awards. Unit-focused compensation plan elements include gain sharing. Organization-focused elements include profit sharing. Merit pay and profit sharing offer little in the way of difficult and specific goals because both essentially challenge employees to make next year as good (or better) than this year. In contrast, lump-sum bonuses and gain sharing provide a forum for assigning difficult and specific goals; the former does so at the individual level and the latter at the unit level. Partly for this reason, both types of plans have been credited with improvements in employee productivity. Profit sharing, for example, is unlikely to have strong motivational consequences because an individual employee can do little to improve the profitability of the company, regardless of the employee’s job performance. Instrumentality and equity are more achievable with gain sharing because the relevant unit is smaller, and the relevant outcomes are more controllable. Still, the highest instrumentality and equity levels will typically be achieved through individual-focused compensation elements, such as piece-rate plans or merit pay plans.Loren can try profit sharing again, but it does not provide difficult or specific goals, and the workers have little control over the result as individuals. He might try gain sharing because it allows workers to set goals together, but also gives them more control than profit sharing. He is likely to see the greatest gains in productivity and equity by implementing wage incentives at the individual level, such as piece wages or individual merit pay. He can increase the effectiveness and pinpoint the goals of merit pay better if he shortens the span between tracking and recognition of productivity to less than the standard annual interval that companies have traditionally used. Version 1

14) D 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) E 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) E Version 1

44) B 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) E 53) C 54) E 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) E 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) E 73) B Version 1

74) C 75) B 76) C 77) C 78) B 79) E 80) E 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) A 87) C 88) A 89) E 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE Version 1

104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Tara and her friend Jeremy work as servers for Bonnano’s Grill, a busy restaurant. After their Friday night shift, Tara caught Jeremy underreporting his cash sales, reducing the amount he had to tip out the hosts and server assistants. Jeremy could lose his job if the manager found out. All the servers were edgy because last month, the manager simply stopped scheduling one server. When the server asked why they were not on the schedule, the manager said, “You are no longer needed” and refused to supply any reasoning behind the decision. Using this example, briefly explain the relationships among trust, justice, and ethics.

2) Jamal, fresh out of college, landed his first job as a salesperson at Downtown Cycle, a bicycle shop. Two of Jamal’s closest friends, Becca and Lee, also work there. Because the salespeople work mainly on commission, Becca and Lee will be both Jamal’s colleagues as well as his competitors. Jamal is concerned about the various issues he could face at work. Using this scenario, illustrate and briefly explain the factors that influence trust levels.

3) What is trustworthiness? Explain how employees can gauge the “track record” of their supervisors.

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How do employees evaluate the fairness of an authority’s decision making?

5) What are the rules under procedural justice? Explain how they serve to create equal employment opportunity.

6) Describe interpersonal justice and its significance. Explain the two rules that foster interpersonal justice.

What is moral intensity? Briefly explain the factors that drive moral intensity.

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Compare economic exchanges to social exchanges.

9) Beth began working at a successful upscale restaurant and bar, Tip Top. The owners were equally respectful to everyone and treated staff like family. Wait-staff voluntarily shared their cash tips with kitchen staff following each shift. The owners strictly followed all legal requirements when serving alcohol, all guests had to show an ID and the servers were welltrained in policies. The owners made sure that bar managers, bartenders, and wait-staff received annual training on recognizing alcohol impairment and situations requiring them to refuse service. Beth liked her new job but was annoyed by one thing, there was no recycling program. Each weekend night bar-staff threw away several garbage bags worth of glass bottles. Beth asked why the bottles were put in the dumpster rather than recycling them. The owners said they could recycle them, but the dumpster was the easiest way. Two years later, when the city enacted a garbage fee based on weight, the bar began recycling their glass bottles. Explain how Tip Top showed attention to their corporate social responsibility.

10)

Differentiate between the ethical and legal components of corporate social responsibility.

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11) ________ is the willingness to be vulnerable to an authority based on positive expectations about the authority’s actions and intentions.

A) B) C) D) E)

12)

Trust Justice Consensus Ethics Proximity

Justice reflects the perceived fairness of an authority’s

A) B) C) D) E)

corporate social responsibility. ethical orientation. decision making. benign power. morality.

13) Mariel is in the market to buy a used car. Her friend Mika tells her that she should avoid City Motors. Mika’s boyfriend bought his car there, and it breaks down constantly. Mariel talks to several other friends who agree with Mika. Their judgment reflects the fact that City Motors has

A) B) C) D) E)

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poor ethics. bad marketing. a poor reputation. high trustworthiness. good after-sales service.

14) There should be trust in organizational authorities who “put a face on a company.” Which of the following job positions is not considered an organizational authority?

A) B) C) D) E)

department manager shift supervisor CEO full-time customer service employee head of marketing

15) Jay, Kuo, and Elaine’s company has an opening for a manager, and all three of them apply. However, Elaine, who has been with the company the longest and has a business degree, gets the job. Although Jay and Kuo are disappointed, they most likely agree that the company’s decision reflects a high level of

A) B) C) D) E)

trustworthiness. favoritism. authority. justice. bias.

16) ________ reflects the degree to which the behaviors of an authority are in accordance with generally accepted moral norms.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Ethics Justice Competence Trust Morality

17)

Trust in authorities like the management in a firm depends on which two factors?

A) B) C) D) E)

justice and perception of power competence and legitimacy ethics and responsibility commitment and ethics justice and ethics

18) When trust is rooted in a rational assessment of the authority’s trustworthiness, it is called ________ trust.

A) B) C) D) E)

disposition-based affect-based cognition-based power-based feeling-based

19) ________ refers to a general expectation that the words, promises, and statements of individuals and groups can be relied upon.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Trust propensity Moral judgment Moral awareness Moral intensity Propriety

20) Kamal is looking for a part-time job. He has several acquaintances who have worked for SlamDogs Burgers and Dogs, a restaurant chain. They say that the company pays well, has a good company culture, and treats its employees with respect. Plus, its high quality and affordable food and the cleanliness of its establishments make it extremely popular with the public—in fact, Kamal loves going to SlamDogs and has eaten there on a regular basis since he was a child. Kamal thinks SlamDogs sounds like a good place to work and decides to fill out an application. What can you deduce based on his decision?

A) B) C) D) E)

21)

Kamal trusts everything his friends say. Kamal’s trust in SlamDogs being a good place to work is disposition-based. Kamal’s trust in SlamDogs being a good place to work is cognition-based. Kamal’s trust in SlamDogs being a good place to work is based on emotion. Kamal’s trust in SlamDogs being a good place to work is affect-based.

Which of the following is not an element in cognition-based trust?

A) B) C) D) E)

trustworthiness trust propensity ability benevolence integrity

22) Raheem recently hired a new assistant, Cathy. At his office, he often receives confidential letters and documents regarding work, as well as some personal mail, including financial statements. As Raheem often spends much of his day in meetings, he has asked Cathy to collect his mail and leave it on his desk to sort through later. When Cathy gives him the mail, Raheem trusts that she has not stolen or opened any of it. Raheem has a high degree of

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A) B) C) D) E)

23)

cognition-based trust. power-based trust. moral awareness. trust propensity. gullibility.

Which of the following is true with regard to trust propensity?

A) The importance of trust propensity is seen in interactions with family and friends. B) Trust propensity is most likely to be seen in people who display cognition-based trust. C) The nation in which we live affects our trust propensity. D) Trust propensity refers to the use of track records and rational assessments in making decisions. E) Low trust propensity is ideal as it prevents us from trusting others who are not trustworthy.

24) Kathryn was bullied as a child and later married a man who lied and stole money from her. Kathryn is not likely to demonstrate ________ trust.

A) B) C) D) E)

25)

disposition-based cognitive-based affect-based organizationally based justice-based

Which of the following statements concerning nationality and trust is not correct?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Your nation of origin affects your trust propensity. The U.S. has higher trust propensity than France. China has higher trust propensity than France. People in Sweden feel most people cannot be trusted. Both the U.S. and China have higher trust propensity than Brazil.

26) Laraine’s team leaders challenged members to come up with a marketing campaign for the new phone they were introducing. Laraine, who studied marketing and public relations in college, reviewed numerous articles, studied the new phone thoroughly, and came up with a campaign that received good reviews from her team leaders. Her success in creating a good campaign for the new phone completely on her own reflects her

A) B) C) D) E)

benevolence. ability. integrity. trust propensity. morality.

27) In some ways, Colin is not a very good manager. He can be disorganized and flaky, and he often foists his own job responsibilities off onto others. However, his staff love him because he has a lot of personal charm and lets them do things like bring their pets to work. Colin’s staff displays ________-based trust in him.

A) B) C) D) E)

28)

affect integrity disposition cognition reputation

The characteristics or attributes of a trustee that inspire trust are defined as one’s

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A) B) C) D) E)

29)

moral intensity. trust propensity. propriety. trustworthiness. ability.

Which of the following drives cognition-based trust?

A) B) C) D) E)

the trustor’s disposition the authority’s track record the trustor’s trust propensity the trustor’s intuitive feelings the trustor’s affect-based trust

30) ________ is a dimension of trustworthiness, defined as the skills, competencies, and areas of expertise, that enable an authority to be successful in some specific context.

A) B) C) D) E)

Character Benevolence Personality Ability Affect

31) Which of the following dimensions of trustworthiness is defined as the belief that the authority wants to do good for the trustor, apart from any selfish or profit-centered motives?

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A) B) C) D) E)

good will competence benevolence trust propensity actualization

32) Bao is the art director at Blue Cat Publishing, a publisher of art monographs, coffee-table books, and several niche lifestyle magazines. He has an art degree, and he won many awards for his design work before he took over the branding and marketing at Blue Cat. Even though Bao’s employees do not always understand his thinking and find Bao to be introverted and difficult to talk to, they all have huge respect for his talent and vision for the company. In fact, the company has received many accolades for its overall branding since Bao took over the department. Which of the following is most likely true about Bao’s employees at Blue Cat?

A) Their trust in Bao is due to their propensity to have faith in people. B) They believe that Bao cares about them personally, and this makes them loyal to him. C) Their trust in Bao stems from their belief in his personal integrity, character, and principles. D) Their trust in Bao is based more on emotion than on reason; basically, his employees like him. E) Their trust in Bao is based on his proven track record and his demonstrated expertise in his field.

33)

When authorities are perceived as benevolent, it means that they

Version 1

A) care for employees, are concerned about their well-being, and feel a sense of loyalty to them. B) display hostile verbal and nonverbal behaviors, excluding physical contact. C) reward employees for exposing illegal or immoral actions by their organization. D) lack a general expectation that the words and promises of employees can be relied upon. E) hinder employees’ ability to focus, which reflects the degree to which employees can devote their attention to work.

34) The employee’s perception that the authority adheres to a set of values and principles that the trustor finds acceptable is the ________ dimension of trustworthiness.

A) B) C) D) E)

integrity benevolence ethics ability justice

35) In the case of ________-based trust, we rationally evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of an authority along the dimensions of ability, integrity, and benevolence.

A) B) C) D) E)

cognition mentor affect emotion disposition

36) In the case of ________-based trust, our trust arises mostly from the emotional feelings we have for the authority.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

cognition authority affect rational disposition

37) Cheyanne’s supervisor conspires with her employees against the unfair work schedule determined by the department manager. The supervisor assures the employees she will discuss the issue with the department manager. However, every time her supervisor has an opportunity to raise those concerns to the manager, her supervisor always backs down and does not mention the unfair scheduling. It is likely the employees will quickly begin to lose faith in the supervisor’s ________.

A) B) C) D) E)

38)

Affect-based trust is driven by the

A) B) C) D) E)

39)

integrity ability ethics reputation social exchange

authority’s track record. authority’s strengths and weakness. trustor’s disposition. trustor’s feelings for the trustee. trustor’s rational assessment of the trustee.

Which of the following statements concerning trustworthiness is true?

Version 1

A) Trustworthiness is the belief the authority wants to do good for the trustor. B) Benevolence is the skills and expertise enabling an authority to be successful. C) Integrity conveys an alignment between words and deeds. D) Employee email is trustworthy because people are truthful when emailing. E) Job applicants are trustworthy, people know it is senseless to exaggerate accomplishments.

40)

________ justice is when decision-making outcomes are perceived as fair.

A) B) C) D) E)

Procedural Interpersonal Informational Distributive Restorative

41) When employees evaluate outcomes such as pay, rewards, and promotions to determine whether they are allocated using proper norms, they are applying the ________ type of justice.

A) B) C) D) E)

informational procedural distributive interpersonal retributive

42) Kelvin has worked for his company for two years and had to take on additional responsibilities when his colleague Charles retired. However, his managers have not given him a pay raise that he feels rightly compensates him for his increased workload. Kelvin finally decides to quit and begins looking for another job. His resentment related to his pay reflects the lack of ________ justice in the company that he works for.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

informational distributive retributive procedural interpersonal

43) When considering distributive justice, the ________ norm is typically judged to be the fairest choice in situations in which the goal is to maximize the productivity of individual employees.

A) B) C) D) E)

equity equality need standard prescriptive

44) The managers at Telstar, a public relations firm, have noticed that the employees are not team players and are primarily focused on achieving individual goals. Management wants to change this attitude and works to create a reward system in which all group members would receive exactly the same outcome, regardless of their individual productivity levels, to promote their ability to work effectively in groups. Which of the following allocation norms would you recommend for this purpose?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

standard norm consensus norm equity norm equality norm propensity norm

45) Which of the following is an allocation norm under which all group members receive exactly the same outcome on a project regardless of their individual productivity levels?

A) B) C) D) E)

propensity norm need norm equity norm reciprocity norm equality norm

46) Manuela and Noor were incensed when their company decided to get rid of its onsite childcare center and expand its gym and sports facilities instead. They find it outrageous that the company did not factor its employees’ wants and needs into its decision, especially given the fact that 47 percent of its employees have children still living at home. Manuela and Noor feel that ________ justice was not served.

A) B) C) D) E)

distributive procedural interpersonal informational adaptive

47) When organizations protect new employees from committee assignments and other extra activities so that they can get their careers off to a productive start, they are using the ________ norm type of allocation norms.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

propensity need reciprocity equity equality

48) Sunshine Foods, Inc., has a human resources policy that does not allow its newly hired employees to work on committee projects or get involved in union meetings. This is done to ensure that the new employees can concentrate on their work without getting distracted. Which of the following allocation norms has Sunshine Foods adopted?

A) B) C) D) E)

standard norm equity norm reciprocity norm need norm equality norm

49) Procedural justice is fostered when authorities adhere to four rules that serve to create equal employment opportunity. Which of the following answer options is not one of those four rules?

A) B) C) D) E)

bias suppression representativeness respect consistency accuracy

50) Procedural justice is defined as a dimension of justice that reflects the perceived ________ of decision-making processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

fairness timeliness organization ethics equity

51) Synergy Laboratories has a very liberal atmosphere in which all employees are welcome to participate in the decision-making process. The company values the feedback and suggestions given by the employees, who in turn are pleased that they are able to express their opinions freely. Which of the following dimensions of justice is the company promoting by giving its employees voice?

A) B) C) D) E)

52)

Which of the following is a procedural justice rule of fair process?

A) B) C) D) E)

53)

correctability justification equality respect propriety

Interpersonal justice is fostered when authorities adhere to which two particular rules?

A) B) C) D) E)

54)

informational justice procedural justice distributive justice interpersonal justice retributive justice

the propriety rule and the equity rule the respect rule and the accuracy rule the respect rule and the propriety rule the truthfulness rule and the respect rule the propriety rule and the consistency rule

Which of the following statement concerning procedural justice is true?

Version 1

A) Distributive justice is a stronger driver of reactions to authorities than procedural justice. B) C) D) E)

Procedural injustice occurs when authorities are rude or disrespectful to employees. Allocation norms are important in procedural justice. Distributive justice is a stronger predictor of job satisfaction than procedural justice. Distributive justice and procedural justice combine to influence employee reactions.

55) Bruce, a first-line supervisor at Lou’s Market, regularly uses abusive and derogatory words when dealing with his subordinates. Many employees have also heard Bruce refer to specific employees with inappropriate labels ridiculing their ethnicity, names, or weaknesses. From the scenario, it can be concluded that workers at Lou’s lack ________ justice.

A) B) C) D) E)

56)

distributive informational procedural interpersonal restorative

Which of the following statements concerning interpersonal justice is not true?

A) Civility training teaches the benefits of respectful communication. B) Increased respect may become ‘contagious’ throughout the organization. C) Fifteen percent of employees are victims of abusive supervision behaviors. D) Interpersonal injustice occurs when authorities are rude or disrespectful to employees. E) Positive interactions have a stronger effect on mood than negative interactions.

57) Josh, who is nearing retirement, often makes improper or offensive remarks to younger employees. Which rule is Josh violating?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

propriety justification truthfulness accuracy voice

58) Companies that engage in civility training are most likely concerned about ________ justice.

A) B) C) D) E)

interpersonal procedural ethical legal perceived

59) ________ is defined as the sustained display by a manager of hostile verbal and nonverbal behaviors, excluding physical contact.

A) B) C) D) E)

Trust propensity Bias suppression Justification Whistleblowing Abusive supervision

60) When employees consider the perceived fairness of communications from authorities during the course of organizational decision making, ________ justice is occurring.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

61)

distributive informational interpersonal procedural restrictive

Which of the following is an informational justice rule?

A) B) C) D) E)

truthfulness consistency equity bias suppression propriety

62) Marco and Sam lost their jobs when the recession hit and their company had to lay off many of its employees. However, a few workers in their department with less seniority than Marco and Sam kept their jobs. When they confronted their supervisor about this, he offered only vague answers and changed the subject quickly. Given what you know about justice in organizations, why do you think their supervisor might have behaved this way?

A) It is not standard practice for large companies to explain the reasons for laying off large numbers of lower-level employees. B) Many managers find sharing bad news to be stressful, leading them to distance themselves rather than to explain decisions. C) Their manager was engaging in a passive form of abusive supervision––Sam and Marco likely have a legal case. D) Low levels of information tend to prevent wrongful termination claims because most employees just give up. E) Honest and adequate explanations actually tend to increase retaliation responses against the organization.

Version 1

63)

Informational justice is fostered when authorities adhere to the rules of

A) B) C) D) E)

voice and accuracy. justification and truthfulness. equity and equality. consistency and accuracy. respect and propriety.

64) The ________ rule requires that the decision-making procedures and outcomes that the authorities explain to employees be honest and candid.

A) B) C) D) E)

65)

accuracy respect informational equity truthfulness

Which of the following is an example of an especially ethical behavior?

A) B) C) D) E)

moral awareness economic exchange abusive supervision legal compliance whistleblowing

66) ________ is defined as the process by which employees expose illegal or immoral actions by their employer.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Social exchange Whistleblowing Abusive supervision Distributive justice Economic exchange

67) In 1989, Jeffrey Wigand was a scientist working for the tobacco company Brown and Williamson. When he discovered that the company was adding carcinogenic substances to increase the impact of its tobacco, he was fired from his job. In 1996, he went on the TV news show 60 Minutes to reveal this information to the public. His allegations resulted in many state lawsuits that ultimately won $368 billion in settlements against the company, along with greater scrutiny of the tobacco industry. This scenario reflects Wigand’s

A) B) C) D) E)

preconventional moral reasoning. whistleblowing. bias suppression. trust propensity. abusive supervision.

68) Which of the following is not a factor in the four-component model of ethical decision making?

A) B) C) D) E)

69)

moral sensitivity moral awareness moral intent ethical behavior moral judgment

The first step in the four-component model of ethical decision making is

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

70)

moral intent. moral judgment. ethical behavior. moral awareness. moral identity.

The third step in the four-component model of ethical decision making is

A) B) C) D) E)

ethical behavior. moral awareness. moral identity. moral intent. trust propensity.

71) ________ is defined as the authority’s act of recognizing that a moral issue exists in a situation or that an ethical standard or principle is relevant to the circumstance.

A) B) C) D) E)

Ethical behavior Moral judgment Moral intent Trust propensity Moral awareness

72) When professors bring convicted white-collar criminals to speak to students about their unethical actions, and the consequences of those actions, the professors are attempting to increase student’s moral

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

propensity. awareness. identity. intensity. ability.

73) Several managers at Fletcher’s company were publicly accused of sexual harassment by an ex-employee of the company. The press immediately latched onto the story and it went viral on the Internet. This is an example of a situation with high

A) B) C) D) E)

moral awareness. ethical intensity. moral intensity. social pressure. virtue ethics.

74) Which of the following statements differentiates between moral intensity and moral attentiveness?

A) Moral intensity is an exclusive function of employees, while moral attentiveness must be maintained by all employees. B) Moral intensity reflects the degree to which one perceives oneself as being a moral person, while moral attentiveness reflects the organization’s perception of the moral behavior of its employees. C) Moral intensity captures the degree to which an issue has ethical urgency, while moral attentiveness captures the degree to which people chronically perceive and consider issues of morality during their experiences. D) Moral intensity is measured by its consequences and effect, while moral attentiveness is measured by previous ethical actions and behaviors. E) Moral intensity is constant across people of different nations, while moral attentiveness changes from one society to another.

Version 1

75)

The final step in the four-component model of ethical decision making is

A) B) C) D)

76)

ethical behavior. ethical identity. moral intent. moral awareness.

Which of the following is a feature of moral development at the preconventional stage?

A) Right versus wrong is referenced to the expectations of one’s family and one’s society. B) Concepts such as doing one’s duty and maintaining the social order come to be valued for their own sakes. C) People come to emphasize the laws, rules, and orders that govern society. D) Right versus wrong is referenced to a set of defined, established moral principles. E) Morality is practiced to avoid punishment regardless of any concern about moral order.

77)

Moral development at the conventional stage is characterized by

A) B) C) D) E)

an emphasis on laws, rules, and orders that govern society. self-interest and a lack of loyalty, gratitude, or fairness. a set of defined, established moral principles. specific principles like utilitarianism and egoism. the desire to obtain pleasure and avoid pain regardless of any concern about moral

order.

78) At the postconventional stage of moral development, right versus wrong is established on the basis of Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

consequences of various actions for the individual. expectations of one’s family and one’s society. stereotypes about what is considered right. laws, rules, and orders that govern society. a set of defined, established moral principles.

79) According to the principle of ________, an act is morally right if the decision maker freely decides to pursue short- or long-term interests.

A) B) C) D) E)

egoism ethics of rights ethics of duties virtue ethics utilitarianism

80) Utilitarianism and egoism are both specific ________ principles used in the ________ stage of cognitive moral development.

A) B) C) D) E)

consequentialist; postconventional consequentialist; conventional nonconsequentialist; preconventional nonconsequentialist; postconventional nonconsequentialist; preconventional

81) According to the principle of ________, an act is considered to be morally right if it allows the decision maker to lead a “good life” by adhering to virtues like wisdom, honesty, courage, friendship, mercy, loyalty, modesty, and patience.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

ethics of rights ethics of duties egoism virtue ethics utilitarianism

82) If an authority recognizes a moral issue exists but is then unable to determine whether a given course of action is right or wrong; the authority is having trouble with the second step of the four-component model of ethical decision making,

A) B) C) D) E)

83)

moral attentiveness. moral awareness. moral intensity. moral intent. moral judgment.

________ is defined as the degree to which people see themselves as moral.

A) B) C) D) E)

Moral judgment Moral identity Trust propensity Moral awareness Moral intensity

84) Not only is Jayesh perceived by his employees as a kind and fair boss, but he is very committed to local initiatives. For example, he donates a percentage of company profits to a prison rehabilitation program, and the company participates in numerous charity events. Jayesh’s behavior suggests his ________ is very important to him.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

moral awareness ethical identity sense of justice moral identity moral intent

85) ________ is defined as the degree to which employees can devote their attention to work, as opposed to perpetrating or being victimized by office politics.

A) B) C) D) E)

Moral intensity Ability to focus Moral awareness Moral judgment Trust propensity

86) Tamara is considering accepting a bribe from a company bidding on a construction project even though she knows that the company has engaged in dangerous practices in the past. She knows her family, friends, coworkers, and managers would all consider this action unethical, but the money could pay for a really nice vacation. This decision is causing her a great deal of stress. Tamara is feeling a high level of

A) B) C) D) E)

stress based on personal principles. virtue ethics based on utilitarianism. moral awareness based on moral intent. moral intensity based on social consensus. ethical awareness based on social consensus.

87) An individual could argue that smashing a window to save a dog trapped in a hot car is defensible and ethical. This rationale is based on which of the following principles?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

the ethics of rights the ethics of duties egoism utilitarianism virtue ethics

88) Which of the following has been proven in research studying the impact of trust on performance and commitment?

A) B) C) D) E)

Trust has a strong positive effect on performance. Trust has no effect on citizenship behavior. Trust makes employees less likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors. Trust has a strong positive relationship with continuance commitment. Trust has a weak positive correlation with affective and normative commitment.

89) Lourdes’ boss, Miguel, has a temper and has been known to chew employees out for minor infractions, and his behavior is changing the workplace. Given what you know about trust, what is Lourdes most likely experiencing?

A) Lourdes feels as though she might have to become a whistleblower in order to save the company from Miguel’s actions. B) Lourdes finds herself working more slowly and erratically as she steels herself for another one of Miguel’s outbursts. C) Lourdes is working more efficiently than ever because she knows Miguel’s focus is on the work of other employees. D) Lourdes’s relationship with Miguel is developing into one based on vaguely defined obligations. E) Lourdes feels like she can trust Miguel to look out for her interests as an employee.

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90) “Playing politics” or “covering one’s backside” has a negative effect on employees’ job performance, because it hampers their

A) B) C) D) E)

continuance commitment. normative commitment. affective commitment. ability to focus. social exchange.

91) Employees who trust their authorities have ________ relationships that are based on vague, open-ended obligations.

A) B) C) D) E)

emotional economic exchange transactional mutually committed social exchange

92) Which of the following is a feature of economic exchange relationships between organizations and employees?

A) B) C) D) E)

an explicit repayment schedule open-ended job demands affective and normative organizational commitment vaguely defined obligations mutual investment

93) When an employee does nothing more than fulfill the duties in their job description in exchange for pay, they are engaging in ________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

cognition-based trust an economic exchange affect-based trust benevolence a social exchange

94) Yuka has a great relationship with her boss, Oliver. Oliver demands a lot of his employees, but he gives a lot in return in the form of not only bonuses and other incentives, but also sincere praise and personal accolades. He often asks Yuka for her opinion about things outside her area of expertise, and he communicates that he finds her to be a smart, capable person. As a result, Yuka has no qualms about staying late and taking on extra duties. Which of the following is most likely true about the way Yuka views her job responsibilities?

A) Even though Yuka appreciates Oliver, she sometimes feels taken advantage of. B) Yuka’s behavior is based primarily on the fact that she has a high propensity for trust. C) Yuka’s respect for Oliver is based on his integrity and is more rational than emotional in nature. D) Even though Yuka loves her job, it is still just a job, and she would leave if she got a better offer. E) Yuka has an emotional connection to Oliver and feels theirs is a mutually beneficial relationship.

95) Which of the following is a feature of social exchange relationships between organizations and employees?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

a narrow definition of work demands an explicit repayment schedule advance knowledge of occupational obligations impersonal and contractual exchanges mutual investment

96) ________ is a perspective that acknowledges that the responsibility of a business encompasses the economic, legal, ethical, and citizenship expectations of society.

A) B) C) D) E)

Corporate social responsibility Social exchange theory Rational choice and responsibility Consequential egoism Predicted outcome value theory

97) Fulfilling the legal component of corporate social responsibility suggests that the organization has reached the ________ level of moral development.

A) B) C) D) E)

preconventional principled postconventional conventional preoperational

98) While fulfilling the ethical component of corporate social responsibility, an organization does what is right, just, and fair. This suggests that the organization has reached the ________ level of moral development.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

preconventional principled preoperational conventional metaphysical

99) Which of the following is a unique feature of the citizenship component of corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

A) The citizenship component of CSR demands that organizations follow the prescribed ethical codes for their business. B) The citizenship component of CSR proposes that law represents society’s codification of right and wrong and must therefore be followed. C) The citizenship component of CSR ensures legal compliance so that a company’s reputation is protected against allegations like violation of intellectual property rights or labor laws. D) The citizenship component of CSR argues that organizations should contribute resources to improve the quality of life in the communities in which they work. E) The citizenship component of CSR represents the conventional level of moral development.

100) Two years ago, Tanaka Technologies, an international manufacturer of smart appliances, opened a location in Springville and created a huge amount of jobs in the area. Glenn works at Tanaka in the accounting department. Overall, he likes his job, even though the benefits could be better, and he thinks the company could be more diverse than it is. Moreover, the management is not very invested in its corporate social responsibility—in fact, within the first year, it was hit with a number of fines for violating local environmental regulations. Following this, the company did rectify the situation by installing a compliance team, but Glenn and other people in Springville feel the company is neglecting its citizenship responsibilities. What could Tanaka do in order to improve its corporate social responsibility in this area?

A) B) C) D) E)

focus on improving diversity as there are few minorities in senior positions offer employees more incentives and bonuses for achievements offer better company benefits, like dental and vision coverage institute volunteer initiatives to work with local charities invest in training and development programs for staff

101) Trust is defined as the willingness to be vulnerable to a trustee based on positive expectations about the trustee’s actions and intentions.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Reputation reflects the degree to which the behaviors of an authority are in accordance with generally accepted moral norms. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Justice reflects the actual fairness of an authority’s decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) The importance of trust propensity is most obvious in interactions with strangers, in which any acceptance of vulnerability would amount to “blind trust.” ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Jasmine met Lee at her apartment pool and agreed to go out on a date with him that evening. She has often gone out with people she just met. Her agreement to go out with him when she just met him demonstrates cognition-based trust. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Darien has just started a new job. His coworkers tell him that their manager is very unselfish and always keeps her promises. In addition, she is the leading expert in the company on product development. As a result of this information, Darien is likely to develop cognition-based trust in his manager.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

107)

Ability is defined as the degree to which employees can devote their attention to work. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

Affect-based trust is seen in a select few relationships. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Employees gauge procedural justice by asking whether decision outcomes, such as pay, rewards, evaluations, promotions, and work assignments, are allocated using proper norms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Anya, a manager at Marquette Industries, is always very careful to award bonuses and other rewards to her subordinates based on each individual’s performance and contribution. Anya is concerned with interpersonal justice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Procedural justice tends to be a stronger driver of reactions to authorities than distributive justice. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

112) Interpersonal justice is fostered when authorities adhere to two particular rules: the justification rule and the truth rule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Low levels of informational justice can make an organization vulnerable to wrongful termination claims. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Moral awareness captures the degree to which an issue has ethical urgency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Kohlberg’s theory of cognitive moral development proposes that as people age and mature, they move through the preconventional, postconventional, and principled stages of moral development. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) All people move through the preconventional and conventional stages and finally operate from the postconventional stage of moral development. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

117) In the context of trust and job performance, the ability to focus reflects the degree to which employees can devote their attention to work, as opposed to engaging in workplace politics or saving themselves from problems like abusive supervision. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Trust has a moderate positive effect on job performance and a strong positive effect on organizational commitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) The legal component of corporate social responsibility argues that the law represents society’s codification of right and wrong and must, therefore, be followed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Efforts to improve the quality of life in the communities in which organizations work is typically an effort that comes under the citizenship component of corporate social responsibility. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: CH7 1) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the relationships among trust, justice, and ethics and how they relate to the given scenario. A sample answer follows. Trust is defined as the willingness to be vulnerable to an authority based on positive expectations about the authority’s actions and intentions. Issues of trust are intertwined with two related concepts. Justice reflects the perceived fairness of an authority’s decision making. Ethics reflects the degree to which the behaviors of an authority are in accordance with generally accepted moral norms. In this case, it is likely Jeremy has lost trust in the company. The firing of a fellow server with no explanation would make other servers unsure of their job and affect their job performance. Jeremy likely feels the firing was not only unjust, but unethical. This loss of trust is the most likely reason Jeremy is underreporting his cash tips. The loss of trust has led to Jeremy’s unethical behavior.

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2) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how trust can be influenced. A sample answer follows. Trust is rooted in different kinds of factors. Sometimes trust is disposition-based, meaning that your personality traits include a general propensity to trust others. Sometimes trust is cognition-based, meaning that it is rooted in a rational assessment of the authority’s trustworthiness. Sometimes trust is affect-based, meaning that it depends on feelings toward the authority that go beyond any rational assessment. As a new employee, Jamal is likely to be cautious and initially display cognition-based trust (unless he has a high propensity to trust people as in the case of disposition-based trust). With time, if Jamal views the company’s policies and people as trustworthy, he may develop a high level of organizational commitment and display affect-based trust toward the company, managers, and colleagues, despite the fact that some employees represent the competition. 3) An authority’s trustworthiness is defined as the characteristics or attributes of a trustee that inspire trust. Trust begins to be based on cognitions we have developed about the authority, as opposed to our own personality of disposition. In this way, cognition-based trust is driven by the authority’s “track record.” Research suggests that we gauge the track record of an authority along three dimensions: ability, integrity, and benevolence. The first dimension of trustworthiness is ability, defined as the skills, competencies, and areas of expertise that enable an authority to be successful in some specific area. The second dimension of trustworthiness is benevolence, defined as the belief that the authority wants to do good for the trustor, apart from any selfish or profit-centered motives. The third dimension of trustworthiness is integrity, defined as the perception that the authority adheres to a set of values and principles that the trustor finds acceptable.

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4) Employees evaluate the fairness of an authority’s decision making along four dimensions of justice.• Distributive justice reflects the perceived fairness of decision-making outcomes. Employees gauge distributive justice by asking whether decision outcomes, such as pay, rewards, evaluations, promotions, and work assignments, are allocated using proper norms. • Procedural justice reflects the perceived fairness of decision-making processes. Procedural justice is fostered when authorities adhere to rules of fair process. One of those rules is voice, or giving employees a chance to express their opinions and views during the course of decision making. A related rule is correctability, which provides employees with a chance to request an appeal when a procedure seems to have worked ineffectively. • Interpersonal justice reflects the perceived fairness of the treatment received by employees from authorities. Interpersonal justice is fostered when authorities adhere to two particular rules. The respect rule pertains to whether authorities treat employees in a dignified and sincere manner, and the propriety rule reflects whether authorities refrain from making improper or offensive remarks. • Informational justice reflects the perceived fairness of the communications provided to employees from authorities. Informational justice is fostered when authorities adhere to two particular rules. The justification rule mandates that authorities explain decision-making procedures and outcomes in a comprehensive and reasonable manner, and the truthfulness rule requires that those communications be honest and candid.

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5) The first rule of procedural justice is that of voice, or giving employees a chance to express their opinions and views during the course of decision making. A related rule is correctability, which provides employees with a chance to request an appeal when a procedure seems to have worked ineffectively. Aside from voice and correctability, procedural justice is fostered when authorities adhere to four rules that serve to create equal employment opportunity. The consistency, bias suppression, representativeness, and accuracy rules help ensure that procedures are neutral and objective, as opposed to biased and discriminatory. These sorts of procedural rules are relevant in many areas of working life. As one example, the rules can be used to make hiring practices fairer by ensuring that interview questions are unbiased and asked in the same manner across applications. 6) Interpersonal justice reflects the perceived fairness of the treatment received by employees from authorities. Interpersonal justice is fostered when authorities adhere to particular rules. The respect rule pertains to whether authorities treat employees in a dignified and sincere manner, and the propriety rule reflects whether authorities refrain from making improper or offensive remarks.

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7) Moral intensity captures the degree to which the issue has ethical urgency. Moral intensity is driven by six factors: magnitude of consequences, probability of effect, temporal immediacy, and concentration of effect, which make up the general dimension of potential for harm; and social consensus and proximity, which make up the general dimension of social pressure.• Magnitude of consequences: How much harm would be done to other people? • Probability of effect: How likely is it that the act will actually occur and that the assumed consequences will match predictions? • Temporal immediacy: How much time will pass between the act and the onset of its consequences? • Concentration of effect: Will the consequences be concentrated on a limited set of people, or will they be more far reaching? • Social consensus: How much agreement is there that the proposed act would be unethical? • Proximity: How near (in a psychological or physical sense) is the authority to those who will be affected?

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8) Employee-authority relationships in organizations can take on many forms. Employees who do not trust their authorities have economic exchange relationships that are based on narrowly defined, quid pro quo obligations that are specified in advance and have an explicit repayment schedule. Economic exchanges are impersonal and resemble contractual agreements, such that employees agree to fulfill the duties in their job description in exchange for financial compensation. As trust increases, social exchange relationships develop that are based on vaguely defined obligations that are open-ended and long-term in their repayment schedule. Social exchanges are characterized by mutual investment, such that employees agree to go above and beyond their duties in exchange for fair and proper treatment by authorities. In social exchange contexts, employees are willing to engage in beneficial behaviors because they trust that those efforts will eventually be rewarded.

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9) Corporate social responsibility acknowledges the responsibilities of a business encompasses economic, legal, ethical, and citizenship expectations of society. Tip Top’s success fulfilled the economic expectation. Tip Top followed the legal component of corporate social responsibility by strictly adhering to the laws surrounding alcohol consumption. The ethical component of corporate social responsibility argues Tip Top has an obligation to do what is right, just, and fair and to avoid harm. Respectful owners show they want to do what is right, just, and fair. The servers sharing tips with kitchen staff shows respectfulness is common throughout staff. The owners training bartenders, bar managers and wait-staff on alcohol impairment and giving them resources to handle such situations implies an ethical component of corporate social responsibility. Finally, the citizenship component of corporate social responsibility seems to be the only factor the owners did not pay proper attention. If they had paid it proper attention, it would not have taken a city ordinance on garbage weight to change their recycling habits. 10) First, the legal component of corporate social responsibility argues that the law represents society’s codification of right and wrong and must therefore be followed, while the ethical component of corporate social responsibility argues that organizations have an obligation to do what is right, just, and fair and to avoid harm. Second, fulfilling the legal component speaks of the integrity of the organization and suggests that it has reached the conventional level of moral development. In contrast, fulfilling the ethical component is relevant to the benevolence and integrity of the organization and suggests that it has reached the principled level of moral development. 11) A 12) C 13) C Version 1

14) D 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) A Version 1

44) D 45) E 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) E 57) A 58) A 59) E 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) E 65) E 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) E 72) B 73) C Version 1

74) C 75) A 76) E 77) A 78) E 79) A 80) A 81) D 82) E 83) B 84) D 85) B 86) D 87) A 88) C 89) B 90) D 91) E 92) A 93) B 94) E 95) E 96) A 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) D 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE Version 1

104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss the relationships among learning, experience, and decision making.

2) Organizations impart certain types of knowledge to employees through formal training, whereas some forms of information cannot be communicated through such training. Identify and compare the two types of knowledge these represent. Provide a personal example of each.

What are the four contingencies of reinforcement? Explain each and provide an example.

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4) The ABC Sales Company wanted to experiment by splitting the sales force into five teams and varying the reinforcement schedule for each team to determine which technique is the best. The first team is led by Sue and for every sale Sue inflates a balloon from the helium tank and affixes it to the employee’s sales desk. Balloons are color coded by amount of the sale. Team members are able to compare the number of balloons and get a rough idea of sales totals at a glance. The second team is led by Tim and each member of sales staff receives their standard paycheck with nothing else being done to change the reinforcement schedule. This is the control group. The third group is led by Tina and her reinforcement schedule includes a two-hour window of opportunity at some point during the week where sales staff can earn a flat commission on any sales, added to their standard pay. Ken runs the fourth group where sales staff are given a bonus for every 10th item they sell, no limit. The final group is led by Kim and this group receives commission on every item they sell. The commission is graded to increase with the price of the item. Which type of reinforcement schedule is each group using? Which group do you predict will have the highest sales at the end of the experiment? Rank the groups in order of potential level of performance from high to low.

Identify and explain the two methods of decision making and give examples of each.

6) Define intuition. Explain how intuitive decision making is important during a crisis. Provide the five steps for communicating intent to others when using intuition during a crisis.

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7) Define the term heuristics, discuss the relationship between heuristics and biases, and explain at least two of the associated biases with examples. Why do people fall prey to these biases, and what is faulty about them?

8) Discuss the concept of attribution, as well as faulty attribution, along with the three dimensions—consensus, distinctiveness, consistency—by which people form judgments of other people’s actions. How does the level of each (low or high) lead to a judgment of external or internal causes behind another person’s behavior? Give examples.

9) How important is learning? Discuss the relationships among learning, job performance, and organizational commitment.

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10)

Discuss the steps an organization can take to foster learning. Provide an example of each.

11) Relatively permanent changes in an employee’s knowledge or skill that result from experience are reflected in that person’s

A) B) C) D) E)

learning. intuition. expertise. heuristics. consistency.

12) ________ is the process of generating and choosing from a set of alternatives to solve a problem.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Decision making Knowledge transfer Selective perception Escalation of commitment Continuous reinforcement

13) As a team leader for C & C Engineering, Colin needs to choose the best possible candidate to head up a sensitive project. The client had worked with another engineering firm whose inexperience resulted in structural defects that need to be corrected, and now they have brought the project to Colin’s firm. They want someone who can get up to speed on the project quickly and make sound decisions on the job. With little room for error, Colin’s best choice for project manager would be

A) Wayne, who is known throughout the industry for his hard-nosed commitment to his ideas and his “my way or the highway” stance as a team leader. B) Tori, who has proven to be a solid worker with the ability to work well with others, and who has shown up for work every day without fail for the past ten years. C) Gayle, who graduated from one of the finest engineering programs in the country at the top of her class, and who has been a stellar performer with C & C ever since she joined the company two years ago. D) Deborah, who has worked for the company for two decades and performed flawlessly, making herself known as someone who consistently delivers within her particular area of expertise. E) Roland, who experienced a number of failures early in his career two decades ago but went back to school and set out to learn his trade from the bottom up, taking on new and different projects along the way.

14) Wes’s employer has established a course of learning for him. From the standpoint of organizational behavior, this is particularly important because learning will help him to

A) B) C) D) E)

15)

find other employment. make more money at his job. move up the corporate ladder. become a better decision maker. take greater authority in group situations.

The knowledge and skills that distinguish specialists from novices is referred to as

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A) B) C) D) E)

learning. training. intuition. expertise. distinctiveness.

16) Research shows that the differences between experts and novices are almost always a function of

A) B) C) D) E)

17)

learning. intuition. expertise. intelligence. distinctiveness.

True learning only occurs when

A) B) C) D) E)

negative behaviors are unlearned over time. novices distinguish themselves from experts. employees are assigned larger responsibilities. changes in behavior become relatively permanent. employees avoid mimicking the behaviors of experts.

18) ________ knowledge is information that is relatively easily communicated and a large part of what companies teach during training sessions.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Tacit Implied Inferred Inherent Explicit

19) In her job as a research analyst for a stock brokerage, Caroline spends a lot of time at her computer. Today her boss told her, “Find out everything you can about the textile industry in the Philippines,” and she immediately sat down and typed a few words into a search engine. Soon she had a dossier on the subject, gleaned from her research on the Internet. The information Caroline acquired in this way is an example of ________ knowledge.

A) B) C) D) E)

tacit explicit intuitive heuristic distinctive

20) As a soldier in the U.S. Army, Lexi underwent an extensive course of training as a combat field medic. During that time, she learned from manuals and performed exercises involving dummies and other simulation aids. A few months later, she found herself in a combat situation overseas, treating real soldiers with actual wounds. She would later tell her family that what she learned in a day on the battlefield was worth many weeks of training in school. In terms of organizational behavior, this example illustrates the difference between ________ knowledge.

A) B) C) D) E)

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explicit and tacit general and specific ordinary and esoteric theoretical and practical transitory and permanent

21)

________ knowledge is typically learned by employees only through experience.

A) B) C) D) E)

Tacit Explicit Heuristic Intuitive Nonprogrammed

22) Although it is not easily communicated, ________ knowledge could very well be the most important aspect of what we learn in organizations.

A) B) C) D) E)

23)

Tacit knowledge is

A) B) C) D) E)

24)

nonprogrammed intuitive heuristic explicit tacit

readily available. easily communicated. highly personal in nature. easy to acquire from books. always conscious and accessible.

Which of the following answer options is an example of a manager’s tacit knowledge?

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A) Bolin believes a sales spike is imminent and pushes employees to increase production. B) Bolin constructs a job duty manual for each part-time position. C) Bolin attends a short training on how to use the new phone system. D) Bolin confers with the HR manager on discipline policies. E) Bolin provides the shift supervisor a list of employees with remaining vacation time.

25) Eric has never had any formal training in computer science, yet everyone at the office recognizes him as a genius with hardware and software. On numerous occasions, he has repaired a piece of equipment that seemed unsalvageable or helped someone recover a document they thought was lost forever. When asked how he always seems to know just the right solution, he just shrugs and says with a laugh that if anybody spent as much time messing around with computers as he has, then they would be able to do the same thing. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

26)

tacit knowledge. transfer of training. knowledge transfer. learning orientation. rational decision-making.

Which of the following answer options is an example of explicit knowledge?

A) Working in the Junior ROTC helped Kiera determine who to approach for letters of recommendation. B) Donte knew the rules of baseball inside and out, he had been playing since he was four. C) Trini had an extensive mental model of the business she planned to start after college. D) After completing a difficult project, Brian and Tina produced a thorough report to help any of their colleagues through similar situations. E) Each year Don correctly predicted the Academy Award winners, and he never missed viewing a nominated movie.

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27) Brad is widely acknowledged as one of the best sales trainers in the real estate business. He has often been described as having an intuitive grasp not only of real estate sales techniques, but also of the methods for teaching them. One day after a seminar, a new trainee named Tiffany approaches him and asks him to teach her how to do what he does. Dropping the friendly persona that was typical of his on-stage presence, he simply said, “I can’t,” and walked out. Brad was

A) wrong, because he placed too great an emphasis on his own abilities and paid too little attention to the importance of being diplomatic. B) right, because he had already spent a great deal of time teaching at the seminar, and whatever he needed to convey had already been conveyed. C) wrong, because clearly Tiffany was eager to learn, and almost anything can be taught to someone else if that person is eager and willing enough to learn. D) right, because it is not his job to train potential competition—especially someone of the opposite sex who might be attempting to gain an unfair advantage. E) right, because what he does is based on experience and his personal qualities and is probably not something he could teach someone else how to do, even if he wanted to.

28) ________ is the idea that we learn by observing the link between our voluntary behavior and the consequences that follow it.

A) B) C) D) E)

Learning orientation Selective perception Operant conditioning Social identity theory Contingencies of reinforcement

29) Organizations use four specific consequences to modify employee behavior. These are known as

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A) B) C) D) E)

30)

________ is when an unwanted outcome is removed following a desired behavior.

A) B) C) D) E)

31)

climates for transfer. communities of practice. schedules of reinforcement. behavior modeling training. contingencies of reinforcement.

Performance-prove orientation Performance-avoid orientation Behavior modeling training Positive reinforcement Negative reinforcement

________ is when an unwanted outcome follows an unwanted behavior.

A) B) C) D) E)

Extinction Punishment A crisis situation Operant conditioning Negative reinforcement

32) The training instructor at the state police barracks told all the trainees that they had to keep their lockers secured at all times. Brandi forgot and failed to put her lock on, so when the instructor discovered this, he made her mop the bathroom and the hallway of the barracks. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

33) true?

Which of the following statements concerning contingencies of reinforcement is not

A) B) C) behavior. D) E)

34)

training. extinction. punishment. operant conditioning. negative reinforcement.

Negative reinforcement is designed to decrease desired behaviors. Public recognition following a desired behavior is a form of positive reinforcement. Extinction occurs when there is a removal of a consequence following an unwanted Punishment occurs when an unwanted outcome follows an unwanted behavior. The use of extinction can be purposeful or accidental.

________ is the removal of positive consequences following an unwanted behavior.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Extinction Punishment Positive reinforcement Negative reinforcement Performance-avoid orientation

35) Soon after becoming the new manager of operations at the Cooper Motors, a local car dealership, Finn discovers that employees are coming in late to work, taking long breaks, and behaving unprofessionally while on the job. After considering the situation, he introduces a new set of guidelines, along with contingencies of reinforcement. Those who show up on time, do not exceed their allotted break schedules, and show themselves behaving professionally at all times while on duty during the next month will enjoy a steak dinner, courtesy of management. Those who fail to meet the requirements, on the other hand, will be invited to stay late for three nights in a row and attend an unpaid training session. The contingencies Finn is planning to implement—the steak dinner on the one hand and the unpaid training sessions on the other—are, respectively,

A) B) C) D) E)

punishment and extinction. negative reinforcement and extinction. positive reinforcement and punishment. punishment and negative reinforcement. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement.

36) Thanks to donations from merchants in the community, an after-school club for disadvantaged children has introduced a new promotion: those who maintain a B average for the school year will each receive $100 in gift certificates from local businesses, such as an ice-cream parlor and a clothing store. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

learning orientation. behavioral modeling. positive reinforcement. continuous reinforcement. performance-prove orientation.

37) When Julia first began her new job in a small office, she came in early every day to start the coffee and tidy up the counter they used as a kitchen. Initially, the others made small comments, like, “Someone cleaned up the counter, it looks good,” but those comments quickly stopped. Everyone drank the coffee though! After a few months, Julia stopped coming in early to get the coffee started. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

38)

positive reinforcement. punishment. extinction. negative reinforcement. continuous reinforcement.

Which of the following statements concerning schedules of reinforcement is true?

A) Piece-rate pay is an example of fixed interval schedule. B) The fixed ratio schedule is the most common form of reinforcement schedule. C) The addictive good feeling you get when someone responds to your Facebook post is a form of variable interval schedule. D) Variable schedules lead to high performance, but they are not appropriate for some types of reinforcement. E) Commission pay is an example of variable interval reinforcement scheduling.

39) In ________ a specific consequence follows each and every occurrence of a desired behavior.

A) B) C) D) E)

a fixed ratio schedule a fixed interval schedule a variable ratio schedule continuous reinforcement a variable interval schedule

40) Workers are rewarded after a certain amount of time, and the length of time between reinforcement periods stays the same, with

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A) B) C) D) E)

a fixed ratio schedule. a fixed interval schedule. a variable ratio schedule. continuous reinforcement. a variable interval schedule.

41) As Taryn likes to say, she may not love her job, but she loves getting paid every two weeks. Her paycheck is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

42)

a fixed ratio schedule. a fixed interval schedule. a variable ratio schedule. continuous reinforcement. a variable interval schedule.

The two reinforcement schedules based on actual behaviors are

A) B) C) D) E)

fixed interval schedules and fixed ratio schedules. variable interval schedules and fixed ratio schedules. variable interval schedules and variable ratio schedules. fixed interval schedules and variable interval schedules. fixed ratio schedules and variable ratio schedules.

43) At Sound & Light, a store that sells computers, stereos, and accessories, the sales team has monthly evaluations, and the top five performers receive bonuses. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

a fixed ratio schedule. a fixed interval schedule. a variable ratio schedule. continuous reinforcement. a variable interval schedule.

44) Employees at Pak-N-Sav, a discount grocery chain, know that they have to stay on their toes at all times. Mr. and Mrs. Kessler, the company founders, have been known to put on disguises and make unannounced visits to stores to make sure the staff is treating customers politely. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

a fixed ratio schedule. a variable ratio schedule. a fixed interval schedule. continuous reinforcement. a variable interval schedule.

45) The ________ schedule reinforces behaviors after a certain number of them have been exhibited.

A) B) C) D) E)

fixed ratio fixed interval variable ratio continuous reinforcement variable interval

46) Jerry and his brother Joe both work in manufacturing plants, but Jerry gets a regular paycheck, whereas Joe is paid according to the number of items he produces. The difference between the way that Jerry gets paid and the way Joe gets paid is the difference between ________ schedules.

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A) B) C) D) E)

47)

fixed interval and fixed ratio fixed interval and variable ratio variable interval and fixed ratio variable interval and continuous variable interval and variable ratio

A slot machine is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

a fixed ratio schedule. a fixed interval schedule. a variable ratio schedule. continuous reinforcement. a variable interval schedule.

48) Denise is a freelance writer who works with a number of clients. She used to charge by the hour, but she has now switched to charging by the page. In other words, she has moved from a ________ schedule.

A) B) C) D) E)

fixed interval to a fixed ratio fixed interval to a variable ratio variable interval to a fixed ratio variable interval to a continuous variable interval to a variable ratio

49) One of Val’s biggest challenges as the leader of a sales team is getting team members to fill out and file their paperwork properly at the end of the day. He has tried in a number of ways to get them to comply, but nothing seems to work. He does know that no one likes to lead the daily sales meeting, which is a task that revolves among the team members on a regular basis, and that gives him an idea. The best way to achieve the result he desires is to announce that employees who

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A) are last to file their paperwork each day will be required to lead the sales meeting the following day, and if their paperwork is filled out incorrectly, they will have to lead the meeting the day after that, as well. B) comply with guidelines for filing their paperwork every day for a month will be exempted from leading the sales meeting at some point in the near future. C) file their paperwork correctly and on time five days in a row will be exempted from leading the sales meeting the next time their turn comes around. D) turn in their paperwork as directed every day for a two-week period will be exempted from leading the sales meeting for the next two months. E) fail to file their paperwork correctly and on time five days in a row will be required to lead the sales meeting two times in a row.

50) People in organizations have the ability to learn through the observation of others, according to

A) B) C) D) E)

bounded rationality. selective perception. social learning theory. behavior modeling training. the rational decision-making model.

51) When employees observe the actions of others, learn from what they observe, and then repeat what they have observed, they are engaging in

A) B) C) D) E)

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learning orientation. behavioral modeling. positive reinforcement. communities of practice. performance-prove orientation.

52)

The first step in the behavioral modeling process involves ________ processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

53) that

heuristic retention production attentional reinforcement

People with a performance-avoid orientation focus on demonstrating their competence so

A) B) C) D) E)

others will think favorably of them. others will not think poorly of them. they will think favorably of themselves. they will not think poorly of themselves. they will not cause others to think poorly of themselves.

54) A learner must remember the behaviors of the model once the model is no longer present in the ________ processes step of the modeling process.

A) B) C) D) E)

attentional retention reinforcement production social learning

55) Building competence is deemed more important than demonstrating competence when a person has a(n)

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A) B) C) D) E)

projection bias. availability bias. self-serving bias. learning orientation. performance-prove orientation.

56) People with a ________ orientation focus on demonstrating their capabilities so that others will think favorably of them.

A) B) C) D) E)

performance-avoid performance-prove programmed decision rational decision-making nonprogrammed decision

57) Decisions that become somewhat automatic because people’s knowledge allows them to recognize and identify a situation and the course of action that needs to be taken are known as ________ decisions.

A) B) C) D) E)

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rational intuitive nonintuitive programmed nonprogrammed

58) Beverly is the night manager at a motel near an interstate highway. In the wee hours of the morning, a tour bus breaks down and she is inundated with more than 50 unexpected guests. Rather than go into panic mode, however, she marshals the help of one other person on duty and speeds the tour group through check-in, placing them all in rooms in less than an hour’s time. Although it took some effort, the whole process went relatively smoothly for Beverly because she has checked in countless guests over the years. Handling the unexpected influx of guests involved a series of ________ decisions for her.

A) B) C) D) E)

rational intuitive nonintuitive programmed nonprogrammed

59) ________ judgments are emotionally charged, arising through quick, nonconscious, and holistic associations.

A) B) C) D) E)

60)

Ideation Intuition Heuristic Consensus Stereotyping

New, complex, and unrecognized situations call for ________ decisions.

A) B) C) D) E)

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rational intuitive nonintuitive programmed nonprogrammed

61)

The first step in rational decision making is to

A) B) C) D) E)

generate the list of available alternatives. choose the solution that maximizes value. evaluate the alternatives that are available. choose a person who could evaluate the decision. identify the criteria that are important in making the decision.

62) The leadership at Morgan Industrial Chemicals has been confronted with a crisis: someone incorrectly filed a purchase order from a key client, thus resulting in a shipment of the wrong materials. Not knowing this, the client proceeded to make use of the chemicals—with disastrous results. This has never happened to the company before, and although they have procedures for addressing various contingencies, the situation at hand requires quick thinking. The task of addressing the problem has fallen to Beth, who is an experienced manager, and she readily comes up with a solution. However, at first glance her idea sounds counterintuitive, and she needs the immediate support of her entire team to get behind her idea quickly. Therefore, she should

A) let the team members know that as a manager with considerable experience, she knows what needs to be done, and therefore requires absolute allegiance. B) explain the situation, present her solution and reasoning, point out what the team should be on the lookout for, and invite feedback from team members. C) begin by acknowledging that her solution is one possible idea out of many, then present her proposal and ask for feedback from the team. D) inform the team that the problem needs to be investigated, then form a study group and invite them to present their findings. E) first see to it that the person responsible for the mistake is identified and dealt with, then take action on the problem.

63) Research is clear that intuition can be a very effective way to make decisions, but only when those making the decisions have a high level of

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A) B) C) D) E)

explicit knowledge. social learning. performance-prove orientation. domain expertise. performance-avoid orientation.

64) Tracy and Tonya’s business has enjoyed enormous growth, and they are not sure how to handle the growing list of back orders, so they sit down together to figure out what they should do. First, they list the important criteria involved, then they write down all possible solutions. Having done so, they evaluate these alternatives against the criteria they have established, and after a great deal of discussion, they choose an alternative that they believe will yield the best results. Lastly, having made a decision, they set out to implement it. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

knowledge transfer. bounded rationality. communities of practice. performance-prove orientation. the rational decision-making model.

65) The notion that decision makers simply do not have the ability or resources to process all available information and alternatives to make an optimal decision is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

66)

intuition. satisficing. bounded rationality. social identity theory. the rational decision-making model.

When decision makers select the first acceptable alternative considered, the result is

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A) B) C) D) E)

67)

extinction. satisficing. stereotyping. optimization. neutralization.

Bounded rationality says we are likely to

A) identify the problem by thoroughly examining the situation and considering all interested parties. B) pick the alternative that maximizes value. C) use accurate information to evaluate alternatives. D) evaluate each alternative as soon as we think of it. E) develop an exhaustive list of alternatives to consider.

68)

The concept of bounded rationality suggests that we are likely to

A) B) C) D) E)

choose the first acceptable alternative. evaluate all alternatives simultaneously. pick the alternative that minimizes value. use accurate information to evaluate alternatives. develop an exhaustive list of alternatives to consider as solutions.

69) ________ is the process of selecting, organizing, storing, and retrieving information about the environment.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Intuition Learning Satisficing Perception Stereotyping

70) When traveling with friends, Tony found himself eating at a restaurant he had never eaten at before. Tony had boundaries when eating at a new restaurant: always eat from the specials menu and avoid seafood—unless it is on the specials menu. Tony’s personal rules are a form of

A) B) C) D) E)

social identity theory. heuristics. self-serving bias. projection bias. satisficing.

71) The ________ bias causes people to assume that everyone’s criteria will be just like theirs and that everyone will react to a decision just as they would.

A) B) C) D) E)

fundamental attribution social identity availability self-serving projection

72) The dean of the college of arts and sciences held a mixer last night, but was dismayed to see that rather than mixing, the students tended to split off into groups by major: arts and humanities students there, students majoring in the natural sciences there, and social-science majors over there. This is an example of ________ in action.

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A) B) C) D) E)

fundamental attribution error communities of practice social identity theory climate for transfer self-serving bias

73) When assumptions are made about others on the basis of their membership in a social group, this is

A) B) C) D) E)

a fundamental attribution error. social identity theory. projection bias. a stereotype. satisficing.

74) ________ are simple, efficient rules of thumb that allow us to more easily make decisions.

A) B) C) D) E)

Nonprogrammed decisions Communities of practice Selective perception Stereotypes Heuristics

75) Tonya would not eat at the Broken Spoke after following a local murder trial in the newspaper. The murder took place in the parking lot of the Broken Spoke. Tonya’s refusal to eat at the restaurant is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

fundamental attribution error. social identity theory. availability bias. stereotyping. satisficing.

76) ________ is the tendency to rely too heavily on one trait or piece of information when making decisions.

A) B) C) D) E)

Framing Recency Contrast Anchoring Representativeness

77) The senator was having trouble getting support for his pet piece of legislation, called The Omnibus Tax Increase Act. After soliciting input from his staff, he renamed it An Act to Protect the American Way of Life. Suddenly, public opinion was on his side, and he soon had the votes he needed. The reason lies in a decision-making bias known as

A) B) C) D) E)

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recency. contrast. framing. anchoring. representativeness.

78) Kate’s firm does marketing research studies for film production companies, and this week they showed carefully selected test audiences a soon-to-be released blockbuster called Love, Explosions, and Laughter. Afterward, they presented participants with a series of questions, including one that asked them to rate their favorite movie of all time. Production company executives were thrilled to see that viewers rated Love, Explosions, and Laughter higher than such classics as Citizen Kane and The Wizard of Oz, but most likely the reason for this was a decision-making bias known as

A) B) C) D) E)

representativeness. anchoring. framing. recency. contrast.

79) Although Hal did not win the drawing for the statewide lottery, which sells thousands of tickets, he is much more confident of winning the drawing for the nationwide lottery, which sells millions of tickets. The reason is that whereas he bought just one ticket for the statewide game, he bought 10 tickets for the nationwide one. Hal’s reasoning is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

representativeness. a self-serving bias. the ratio bias effect. the gambler’s fallacy. fundamental attribution error.

80) Whenever there is an errand to run around lunchtime, Abdul always volunteers. His boss thinks this is because Abdul is a highly motivated, ambitious worker, but in fact something quite different is happening: Abdul has a crush on a young woman from the same office complex who always eats her lunch in the courtyard, so those lunchtime errands give him a chance to see her and, if he is lucky, talk to her. The boss is subject to the

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A) B) C) D) E)

anchoring error. ratio bias effect. self-serving bias. gambler’s fallacy. fundamental attribution error.

81) ________ is when we attribute our failures to external factors and our successes to internal factors.

A) B) C) D) E)

The ratio bias effect The self-serving bias The gambler’s fallacy Escalation of commitment The fundamental attribution error

82) One model of attribution processes suggests that people with a level of familiarity with the person being judged will use a more detailed decision framework and consider:

A) B) C) D) E)

reinforcement, observation, and goal orientation. consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency. bias, escalation of commitment, and heuristics. expertise, tacit knowledge, and explicit knowledge. positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and extinction.

83) Pamela’s sales have been slipping for the last four quarters, but this has not adversely affected her performance ratings. As her boss, Paul, observes, “Things are tough all over, and especially in that northeastern territory where she’s working. I do not think anybody else could have done any better, given the same situation.” This indicates ________ attribution.

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A) B) C) D) E)

high distinctiveness resulting in an internal high consensus resulting in an external low consensus resulting in an external high consensus resulting in an internal low consensus resulting in an internal

84) Blaine’s coworker, Tamika, has accused him of sexual harassment, but Blaine denies it. Though there is little evidence to support either person’s claims, their supervisor, Yessi, is inclined to believe Tamika. She knows that Blaine had a DUI just a few years back, and he was once reprimanded for mismanaging company funds. Yessi’s judgment is one of ________ attribution.

A) B) C) D) E)

high distinctiveness resulting in an internal low distinctiveness resulting in an external low distinctiveness resulting in an internal low consensus resulting in an external low consensus resulting in an internal

85) Jamarcus, a manager at the corporate headquarters of Shurway Shipping & Packing Supply, has just received a complaint about Wanda, a receptionist, having been rude a customer who called the office. After apologizing to the caller, Jamarcus asks Wanda to report to his office. Confronted with the situation, she says that she has been having a bad day and the caller was extremely rude to her. She apologizes and says she will not do it again. Jamarcus, knowing that Wanda has never had any negative interactions with clients in her 10 years with the company, is inclined to believe that this particular caller was indeed rude, and he therefore takes no further action. This is an example of ________ attribution by Jamarcus.

A) B) C) D) E)

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high distinctiveness resulting in an internal high consistency resulting in an internal low consistency resulting in an external low consistency resulting in an internal low consensus resulting in an internal

86) ________ describes the situation when someone decides to continue to follow a failing course of action.

A) B) C) D) E)

The ratio bias effect The self-serving bias The gambler’s fallacy An escalation of commitment The fundamental attribution error

87) The president of a country has dedicated the bulk of the country’s military power to an invasion of a neighboring country. For a time, the war seems to be going his way. Then the enemy begins to take the offensive, conducting massive encircling movements, taking tens of thousands of prisoners, and forcing whole divisions into retreat. Still the president presses on, ordering more troops to the front, in spite of protests from his generals. This is known as

A) B) C) D) E)

88)

transfer of training. communities of practice. escalation of commitment. a nonprogrammed decision. a fundamental attribution error.

Learning has a ________ effect on commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

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moderate negative effect on performance and a moderate positive moderate positive effect on performance and a weak positive strong positive effect on performance and a strong positive weak negative effect on performance and a strong positive weak positive effect on performance and a weak negative

89) Juliet has just completed a 12-week training course and now is back at work. Her boss should expect that she will be

A) considerably better at her job and much more committed to staying with the firm than she was twelve weeks earlier. B) somewhat better at her job and slightly more emotionally attached to the company than she was before she began her training course. C) so convinced, as a result of her training, that she knows more than she actually does that she will lose her emotional attachment to the company. D) slightly better as a worker but, due to gratitude for the opportunity to further her education, considerably more committed to her employer than she was before. E) largely unchanged, aside from a bit more knowledge with regard to her job, as compared with virtually no increase or decrease in her emotional attachment to the firm.

90) Groups of employees, or ________, work together and learn from one another by collaborating over an extended period of time.

A) B) C) D) E)

organic models of community organic models of attribution communities of shared aims organic models of practice communities of practice

91) Which of the following is not a factor that can help an organization foster a climate of transfer?

A) B) C) D) E)

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practice opportunities applying learned skills to the job supervisor support peer support selective perception

92) ________ happens when the knowledge, skills, and behaviors used on the job are maintained by the learner once training ends and generalized to the workplace once the learner returns to the job.

A) B) C) D) E)

Heuristics Transfer of training Climate of transfer Communities of practice Escalation of commitment

93) Transfer of training can be fostered if organizations create an environment that can support the use of new skills—that is,

A) B) C) D) E)

knowledge transfer. bounded rationality. a climate for transfer. communities of practice. behavior modeling training.

94) Nicole is spending this week working alongside Ed, a senior manager at the company. She has been instructed to follow his every move, and she soon discovers that Ed not only has years of experience but also a great deal of knowledge—so much so that, as she comes to realize over the course of the week, he does not even know how much he knows. This situation is best described as an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

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learning. expertise. tacit knowledge. behavior modeling training. performance-prove orientation.

95) Applied Dynamic Systems, a large international technology provider, has just transferred Darrell to China. His supervisor has informed him that he will be involved in a knowledge transfer, which most likely means that

A) he will be working with a Chinese counterpart interested in learning about American culture. B) Darrell will be receiving a debriefing regarding what he knows about China and the company in general. C) someone with experience living in China will help him learn how to operate and live in his new environment. D) Applied Dynamic Systems is engaged in a transfer of technology and other information to a Chinese corporation. E) Chinese company officials will provide Darrell with an education regarding their country, culture, history, and customs.

96) Learning refers to the process of generating and choosing from a set of alternatives to solve a problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) For complex jobs, it takes most employees anywhere from three months to a year to become an expert. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Research shows that the difference between experts and novices is almost always a function of intelligence as opposed to the more popular view that learning makes the difference. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

99) Tacit knowledge is the kind of information that can be easily communicated during training sessions or using written manuals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) The entire process of reinforcement is a continuous cycle, and the repetition of behaviors is strengthened to the degree that reinforcement continues to occur. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) The three components in the operant conditioning process are: antecedent, behavior, and consequence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Company meetings tend to run long because Dmitri invariably raises irrelevant points that get everyone off track discussing something that has nothing to do with the business at hand. He seems to enjoy this, but Sandra, his manager, finds it extremely annoying. Without Dmitri knowing it, she has instructed the others to remain silent the next time he tries to get everyone talking about something unrelated to the discussion. In an effort to change Dmitri’s behavior, Sandra is using the contingency of reinforcement known as extinction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Research has consistently shown that fixed reinforcement schedules lead to higher levels of performance than variable schedules.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Those with a performance-prove orientation focus on demonstrating their competence so that others will not think poorly of them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Because of their tacit knowledge, experts sometimes cannot put into words why they know that a problem exists, why a solution will work, or how they accomplished a task. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) The rational decision-making model offers a step-by-step approach to making decisions that maximizes outcomes by examining all available alternatives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Under enormous pressure to make a decision, Emily ends up selecting the first acceptable solution without considering any more possibilities. Emily has engaged in satisficing behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Heuristics are simple, efficient rules of thumb that allow us to make decisions more easily. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 36

109) Elaine is now a division manager, but for more than a decade she was the sales manager, and she tends to view all organizational problems based on the effect they will have on the sales department. Her decisions are flawed due to projection bias. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The self-serving bias occurs when we attribute our own failures to external factors and our own successes to internal factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Escalation of commitment refers to the decision to continue to follow a failing course of action. ⊚ ⊚

112)

Learning is moderately correlated with task performance. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Learning has a weak positive effect on commitment. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

114) Communities of practice are groups of employees who work together and learn from one another by collaborating over an extended period of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Transfer of training occurs when the knowledge, skills, and behaviors used on the job are maintained by the learner once training ends and generalized to the workplace once the learner returns to the job. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH8 1) Learning reflects relatively permanent changes in an employee’s knowledge or skill that result from experience. The more employees learn, the more they bring to the table when they come to work. Why is learning so important? Because it has a significant impact on decision making, which refers to the process of generating and choosing from a set of alternatives to solve a problem. One reason inexperience can be so problematic is that learning is not necessarily easy. It takes a significant amount of time to become proficient at most complex jobs. It takes most employees anywhere from three months to a year to perform their job at a satisfactory level. 2) Explicit knowledge is relatively easily communicated, and a large part of what companies teach during training sessions, whereas tacit knowledge is what employees can typically learn only through experience. Explicit knowledge is also easily transferred through written or verbal communication. It is readily available to most and can be learned through books. Explicit knowledge is always conscious and accessible information. In contrast, tacit knowledge is very difficult, if not impossible, to articulate to others. It is highly personal in nature, based on experiences. Sometimes, holders do not even recognize that they possess it. It is typically job- or situation-specific. Personal examples will vary by student. An example of explicit knowledge could be the class they are currently attending or any other class or training they have attended. Examples of tacit knowledge will likely vary greatly with some students being proficient at sports or playing an instrument. Some may use the example of job experience.

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3) Student answers and examples will vary but should reflect an understanding of the contingencies of reinforcement and their proper application. A sample answer follows.The four specific consequences used by organizations to modify employee behavior are positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction.1. Positive reinforcement occurs when a positive outcome follows a desired behavior, such as when a worker receives a bonus for performing well. 2. Negative reinforcement occurs when an unwanted outcome is removed following a desired behavior, such as when workers are told they do not have to work on the weekend after completing a project early. 3. Punishment occurs when an unwanted outcome follows an unwanted behavior, such as when an employee is placed on unpaid leave after violating company policy regarding confidentiality. 4. Extinction occurs when there is the removal of a consequence following an unwanted behavior, such as when a manager stops chatting with employees who have a tendency to talk more than work.

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4) Sue is using a continuous reinforcement schedule and Tim is using the fixed interval schedule. Tina is using the variable interval schedule and Ken is using the fixed ratio schedule. Finally, Kim is using the variable ratio schedule. Research consistently shows that variable schedules lead to higher levels of performance than fixed schedules. So, Tina and Kim have the best chance of higher levels of performance. Kim, with the variable ratio schedule is the most likely to experience a high level of performance, followed by Ken with the fixed ratio schedule. Sue, with the continuous schedule also could see high levels of performance but she has got to be tired of inflating balloons by this point. Sue may be able to sustain inflating balloons for each sale during the experiment, but this would be difficult to maintain on a day-to-day basis. The group with the next highest potential for increased performance is Tina with the variable interval schedule. Tim, using the fixed interval schedule, is the team that is least likely to experience increased performance. 5) Student answers and examples will vary but should reflect an understanding of programmed and nonprogrammed decisions, as well as the differences and appropriate applications of each. A sample answer follows. The two methods that employees can use to make decisions are programmed and nonprogrammed methods. Programmed decisions are decisions that become somewhat automatic because people’s knowledge allows them to recognize and identify a situation and the course of action that needs to be taken, such as the process a hotel clerk uses to check in guests. When a situation arises that is new, complex, and not recognized, it calls for a nonprogrammed decision on the part of the employee, such as when there is an emergency at a car factory.

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6) Intuition is an emotional judgment based on quick, unconscious, gut feelings. Intuitive decision making is perhaps never more important than during a crisis situation—a change (sudden or evolving) that results in an urgent problem that need to be immediately addressed. One of the key factors in nearly all crisis situations is that decisions must be made quickly. Unless there is preplanning for a particular crisis, managers must use their intuition rather than take a lengthy period of time to think through all options. When a manager uses intuition during a crisis, followers often misinterpret the manager’s intent as the manager cannot put their reasons for their decisions into words. In turn, implementation may suffer. Managers can follow five steps for communicating intent to others when using intuition.Here’s what I think we face. (How does the manager perceive the situation?)Here’s what I think we should do. (A task-focused statement of what the manager wants to happen.)Here’s why. (The reasoning behind the decision.)Here’s what we should keep our eye on. (What things should staff look for to ensure the intuition is correct or that the situation has not changed.)Now, talk to me. (Confirm that everyone understands their roles and that there is no other information to consider.)

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7) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of the various biases associated with heuristics. There may be an opportunity to offer extra credit for students who discuss more than two biases. A sample answer follows.Heuristics are simple, efficient, rules of thumb that allow us to make decisions more easily. However, they can also bias us toward inaccurate decisions at times. An example is the availability bias, or the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is easier to recall. Other notable biases are:• Anchoring—the tendency to rely too heavily on one trait or piece of information when making decisions. • Framing—the tendency to make different decisions based on how a question or situation is phrased. • Representativeness—the tendency to assess the likelihood of an event by comparing it to a similar event and assuming it will be similar. • Contrast—the tendency to judge things erroneously based on a reference that is near to them. • Recency—the tendency to weigh recent events more than earlier events. • Ratio bias effect—the tendency to judge the same probability of an unlikely event as lower when the probability is presented in the form of a ratio of smaller rather than of larger numbers.As to why people fall prey to these biases and what is faulty about them, the fact is that decision makers are forced to rely on their perceptions to make decisions. Although perceptions can be useful, they can often become distorted versions of reality. Perceptions can be dangerous in decision making because we tend to make assumptions or evaluations on the basis of them. When the underlying assumptions are faulty, the decision may be faulty.

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8) Research on attributions suggests that when people witness a behavior or outcome, they make a judgment about whether it was internally or externally caused. The fundamental attribution error argues that people have a tendency to judge others’ behaviors as due to internal factors. Thus, when a coworker arrives late, the tendency would be to blame the person rather than environmental factors such as heavy traffic. The selfserving bias occurs when we attribute our own failures to external factors and our own successes to internal factors. The three dimensions of attribution are consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency.• Consensus: Did others act the same way under similar situations? • Distinctiveness: Does the person tend to act differently in other circumstances? • Consistency: Does the person always do this when performing this task? According to one theory of attribution, when consensus and distinctiveness are high and consistency is low, people tend to attribute the behavior of others to external factors. Thus, in the case of the late coworker, if others have been late in similar situations (high consensus), the coworker in question is normally responsible in his or her behavior (high distinctiveness), and he or she is not usually late (low consistency), then the tendency would be to attribute the late arrival to external factors. On the other hand, if other people are usually not late in similar situations (low consensus), the coworker in question has demonstrated irresponsibility in other situations (low distinctiveness), and he or she tends to be late (high consistency), then people are more likely to attribute internal factors—in other words, the coworker is personally to blame for arriving late. Student examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of attribution, attribution errors, the dimensions by which people judge the Version 1

actions of others, and the relationship between the degree of each dimension and the tendency to attribute behavior to either external or internal causes. 9) Learning is moderately correlated with task performance. It is difficult to fulfill one’s job duties if the employee does not possess adequate levels of job knowledge. In fact, there are reasons to suggest that the moderate correlation observed by G. M. Alliger et al. in their study on the subject is actually an underestimate of learning’s importance. That is because most of the research linking learning to task performance focuses on explicit knowledge, which is more practical to measure. It is difficult to measure tacit knowledge because of its unspoken nature, but clearly such knowledge is relevant to task performance. Learning is only weakly related to organizational commitment. In general, having higher levels of job knowledge is associated with slight increases in emotional attachment to the firm. It is true that companies that have a reputation as organizations that value learning tend to receive higher-quality applicants for jobs. However, there is an important distinction between organizations that offer learning opportunities and employees who take advantage of those opportunities to actually gain knowledge. Moreover, it may be that employees with higher levels of expertise become more highly valued commodities on the job market, thereby reducing their levels of continuance commitment.

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10) Student examples will vary, but should reflect an understanding of training, knowledge transfer, behavior modeling training, communities of practice, transfer of training, and climate for transfer. A sample answer follows. Traditional training and knowledge transfer can help foster learning and knowledge retention by an organization. Training represents a systematic effort by organizations to facilitate the learning of job-related knowledge and behavior. Knowledge transfer can take the form of behavior modeling training as well as communities of practice. Some companies are using variations of behavior modeling training to ensure that employees have the ability to observe and learn from those in the company with significant amounts of tacit knowledge. Another form of knowledge transfer that’s being used by companies more frequently is social networking. One such example of this type of networking is communities of practice. Communities of practice are groups of employees who work together and learn from one another by collaborating over an extended period of time. Transfer of training occurs when the knowledge, skills, and behaviors used on the job are maintained by the learner once training ends and generalized to the workplace once the learner returns to the job. Transfer of training can be fostered if organizations create a climate for transfer. 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) E 19) B 20) A Version 1

21) A 22) E 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) D 27) E 28) C 29) E 30) E 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) E 43) B 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) C Version 1

51) B 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) B 57) D 58) D 59) B 60) E 61) E 62) B 63) D 64) E 65) C 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) E 72) C 73) D 74) E 75) C 76) D 77) C 78) D 79) C 80) E Version 1

81) B 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) C 86) D 87) C 88) B 89) B 90) E 91) E 92) B 93) C 94) D 95) C 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE Version 1

111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

What is personality? Explain how personality affects how others see us.

2) Della and Paul have had similar educational backgrounds, share the same interests, and work in the same organization at the same job level. Della wants to be the boss some day and seems to seek the position with a single-minded determination. However, Della is not well-liked by her coworkers because her work is sloppy, she never shares any information with them and often belittles their ideas. On top of that, Della always thinks someone else is getting something better than her: a better promotion, a better office, a better computer, and so on. She is also a nervous wreck when the boss is scheduled for a visit. To her credit, Della had come up with some great solutions that at first sounded outlandish but actually worked. Della was assertive and bold, often voicing her opinion that she would be the boss one day. Her coworkers cringed at the idea. Paul also wants to be a boss someday. He is a hard worker who always finishes his projects before deadline and keeps his desk meticulously clean. Paul is known to help coworkers meet their deadlines, all while staying relatively laid back and calm. Paul rarely steps outside the box however, always following, and never questioning, rules and processes. When someone suggested a more efficient process of handling invoices, it took Paul two days to grasp the idea. Paul always went along with any directive handed down by upper management and tended to do his best work alone at his desk with noise cancelling headphones on. Analyze the personality traits of both Della and Paul according to the Big Five model.

3) Describe each of the Big Five dimensions. Which dimension has the biggest influence on job performance? Explain.

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4) Nicole just interviewed Anne for a sales position and found her to be very conscientious. Nicole says, “I hired Anne, because conscientious employees strive for accomplishment.” Discuss what research has shown about this statement and explain what this may mean in Anne’s sales position.

5) Compare and contrast extraversion and neuroticism. Explain the negative implications of neuroticism.

6) Minnie and Wendy both applied for the associate director position in their campus research administration office. They both have similar experience, but Minnie got the job. Minnie has an internal locus of control, and Wendy has an external locus of control. Define locus of control. Differentiate between the beliefs of external and internal locus of control and explain how locus of control might influence how Minnie and Wendy view Minnie’s hiring.

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7) Keisha remembers learning about the Myers-Briggs test in her college psychology class. She thinks it would be great to use in her new job on the human resources team at a pharmaceutical sales organization. She has brainstormed several ways she would like to use the Myers-Briggs in her job. Describe the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). Explain how Keisha could and should use this taxonomy in her organization.

Describe the personality types from Holland’s RIASEC model.

9) Briefly describe Hofstede’s five dimensions of cultural values. Provide at least one country that exemplifies either end of each dimension.

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10)

Explain the principle of situational strength and the principle of trait activation.

11) Cyrus just had a job interview. His buddy, Andy, asks him if they asked him clear purpose questions or veiled purpose questions. Cyrus says he is not sure, but they asked him things like if he felt it was okay to steal something that would be thrown away, if he had ever lied in a job interview, and if it was okay to secretly leave work early if a friend covered the job. Contrast clear purpose tests with veiled purpose tests and explain which one Cyrus took and why.

12)

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates personality?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Dalton can perform any mechanical task well. Lulu scores extremely well on an intelligence test. Monte lacks coordination and performs poorly in all sports. Shanda is generally friendly, likeable, and calm under pressure. Phoebe volunteers in the crisis shelter like everyone in her church.

13) Kevin fidgets and taps on things, sighs often, squirms, constantly checks the time, and yells at people when they ask him how a project is going. The people who work with Kevin perceive him as uptight, mean, anxious, and rude. These perceptions are primarily formed by Kevin’s

A) B) C) D) E)

abilities. perception. personality. ethnocentrism. cultural values.

14) ________ are beliefs about desirable outcomes or modes of conduct shared with others who were raised in the same environment.

A) B) C) D) E)

15)

Personality is a collection of multiple

A) B) C) D) E)

16)

Cultural values Traits Attributions Positive affectivity Perceptions

abilities. traits. aptitudes. emotions. capacities.

Traits are defined as

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A) recurring regularities or trends in people’s responses to their environment. B) shared beliefs about desirable end states or modes of conduct in a given culture. C) tendencies to regard new situations as a challenge and to adjust behaviors to meet that challenge. D) dispositional tendencies to experience pleasant, engaging moods such as enthusiasm, excitement, and elation. E) the structures and propensities inside people that explain their characteristic patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior.

17)

Personality traits are a function of both your

A) B) C) D) E)

values and beliefs. beliefs and environment. environment and genes. genes and perceptions. culture and beliefs.

18) Arney has been retained by Fluffy Soft Programmers to hire a new worker because he is an expert at personality types and their effect on job performance. Which one of the following interviewees should Arney hire?

A) B) C) D) E)

Joy, who likes to work hard until a task is completely finished Theresa, who has very complex ideas and constantly seeks answers Linda, who goes out of her way to help others and show them respect Barbara, who talks to everyone and likes to be in the middle of the action Andrea, who gets easily jealous and worries that she is not good enough to do her

job

19)

Which of the following scenarios describes a worker with a neurotic personality?

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A) Raul greets everyone entering the office with a handshake and a funny story. B) Lynn stays two hours after closing all week to complete her blueprints perfectly. C) Tyler envisions and then experiments with a new approach to do his job every week. D) David takes on a substantial part of Jo’s workload just to help her and everyone on the team have a pleasant day. E) Amy yells at Jacob to go away when he asks her how she is doing, then brings him coffee with a big smile an hour later.

20) Herb’s office is impeccably organized. Herb always shows up on time and can be counted to volunteer when someone is needed to go above and beyond usual duties. Herb says he will run the company someday, and he is willing to put in as many hours and as much suffering as it takes to get there. Herb exemplifies the personality trait of

A) B) C) D) E)

21)

neuroticism. extraversion. agreeableness. conscientiousness. openness to experience.

Which of the following is a dimension of the Big Five taxonomy?

A) B) C) D) E)

integrity motivation extraversion veiled purpose locus of control

22) Quincy is always wondering about why things happen, how things work, and what would happen if something was different. He thinks of exciting possibilities that are often outside the box. He is described by his friends as classy and eloquent. Quincy is probably high on the trait of

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A) B) C) D) E)

openness to experience. conscientiousness. neuroticism. extraversion. introversion.

23) Kartik never raises his voice or loses his temper, and he explains things calmly in chaotic situations when others cannot. He is described by his coworkers as cool and relaxed. Kartik probably scores

A) B) C) D) E)

high in openness to experience. high in neuroticism. high in introversion. low in neuroticism. low on introversion.

24) Peyton is a well-liked intern at Gary’s Tri-State Metal Sales. Customers and coworkers describe Peyton as kind, cooperative, sympathetic, and warm. Peyton probably has a great deal of the Big Five Trait of

A) B) C) D) E)

conscientiousness. agreeableness. extraversion. neuroticism. openness.

25) The day before Angel begins an important assignment at work, she shows a tendency to get nervous, moody, and insecure. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, the personality dimension ________ best describes Angel.

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A) B) C) D) E)

26)

openness to experience conscientiousness agreeableness extraversion neuroticism

Adjectives that describe opposite traits for agreeableness would include

A) B) C) D) E)

nervous, moody, and emotional. careless, sloppy, and lazy. critical, selfish, and rude. quiet, shy, and inhibited. calm steady, and relaxed.

27) The Source, an engineering company, introduced a 360-degree feedback system. Lou, who was being considered for a promotion, was described as eager to learn and innovate. Isaac was appreciated for his meticulous and organized work and was the one the team could depend on during crunch time. Gloria’s warm, kind nature and sympathetic ear to customers who had grievances was well acknowledged in the feedback. Tina’s feedback revealed she was often seen visiting other departments, chatting with everyone. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, which employee best displays conscientiousness?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Tina Lou Gloria Isaac All of the employees show signs of conscientiousness.

28) The Source, an engineering company, introduced a 360-degree feedback system. Lou, who was being considered for a promotion, was described as eager to learn and innovate. Isaac was appreciated for his meticulous and organized work and was the one the team could depend on during crunch time. Gloria’s warm, kind nature and sympathetic ear to customers who had grievances was well acknowledged in the feedback. Tina’s feedback revealed she was often seen visiting other departments, chatting with everyone. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, which employee best displays openness to experience?

A) B) C) D) E)

None of the employees show signs of openness to experience. Isaac Gloria Tina Lou

29) The Source, an engineering company, introduced a 360-degree feedback system. Lou, who was being considered for a promotion, was described as eager to learn and innovate. Isaac was appreciated for his meticulous and organized work and was the one the team could depend on during crunch time. Gloria’s warm, kind nature and sympathetic ear to customers who had grievances was well acknowledged in the feedback. Tina’s feedback revealed she was often seen visiting other departments, chatting and joining in on discussions anywhere in the building. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, which employee best displays agreeableness?

A) B) C) D) E)

Tina Lou Gloria Isaac None of the employees show signs of agreeableness.

30) When considering the nature versus nurture debate, one method of separating the two effects is to study identical twins raised in different adoptive homes. These studies show that nearly half of the variation in ________ is accounted for by genetic differences.

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A) B) C) D) E)

extraversion conscientiousness neuroticism openness to experience agreeableness

31) Cung leads the design team at Rapidware, a software firm that deigns custom software to meet its clients’ needs. He needs to hire an employee to recognize when new approaches are needed and to learn what clients need and quickly come up with an innovative way to serve them. Which of the following candidates would best meet Cung’s requirements?

A) B) C) D) E)

Lanny, a fast worker who forces others to do things his way Gale, a lovable character who encourages and helps everyone Rico, a curious person who loves art and buys the latest gadgets Gage, a very successful worker who is self-proclaimed “old school” Jennifer, a methodical worker who defines herself by her career success

32) Ingrid has brought in a consultant to help her understand the people working on her team. The consultant tells Ingrid that one of the people on her team is neurotic. Which person is it?

A) Don, who does not like his job, but says he only has himself to blame for being there. B) C) D) E)

33)

Winston, who always looks on the bright side, even in poor circumstances. Katina, who is always in a hurry, fidgeting, and bossing people around. Belinda, who works long hours against all odds to complete projects. Tabby, who worries more about making friends than doing her job.

Which of the following scenarios represents a zero-acquaintance situation?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Kareem never associates with coworkers outside of the office. Larry is at a conference and has just been introduced to Heidi. Marco refuses to speak to Charlie because of political differences. Whitman took a personality test that labeled him as being neurotic. Bryce and Layla have a discussion and realize they do not have any mutual friends.

34) One method of examining the genetic basis of personality is to examine changes in personality traits over time. These longitudinal studies reveal which two dimensions are most dependent on genes?

A) B) C) D) E)

conscientiousness and extraversion extraversion and openness agreeableness and openness openness and conscientiousness neuroticism and agreeableness

35) Long-term studies show that one Big Five dimension remains quite stable throughout a person’s life, and that dimension is

A) B) C) D) E)

extraversion. conscientiousness. agreeableness. openness to experience. neuroticism.

36) One reason conscientiousness is so valuable is found in the general goals that people prioritize in their working life, and conscientious people prioritize

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A) B) C) D) E)

37)

status striving. communion striving. accomplishment striving. curiosity. power striving.

Accomplishment striving describes a

A) strong desire to achieve task-related goals as a means of expressing personality. B) strong desire to obtain acceptance in personal relationships as a means of expressing personality. C) dispositional tendency to experience unpleasant moods such as hostility, nervousness, and annoyance. D) strong desire to obtain power and influence within a social structure as a means of expressing personality. E) dispositional tendency to experience pleasant, engaging moods such as enthusiasm, excitement, and elation.

38) Sofia is driven to finish something once she starts it. This often means she stays at work later then other workers, stays more focused when she is at work, and takes shorter breaks than everyone else. Sofia is a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

39)

accomplishment striver. communion striver. power striver. status striver. values striver.

Agreeable people prioritize ________ striving.

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A) B) C) D) E)

40)

status communion accomplishment attainment power

Communion striving reflects a

41) When Ken starts his job at the customer service desk, he works with a nice man named Tom who is in his 50’s. Tom has a great relationship with the supervisor and all of the other customer service representatives. Tom said he never sought promotion as he did not want the extra work and responsibility that accompanied the higher positions, he is happy with his job duties and his paycheck plus he is good at his job. Tom likes coming to work, can sooth even the most irate customer, and is a courteous and giving colleague. Tom is most likely

A) B) C) D) E)

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a neurotic employee. an extravert. an agreeable employee. a conscientious employee. open to experience.

42) ________ people are reluctant to react to conflict with criticism, threats, or manipulation—instead adopting a “wait and see” attitude, or giving in to the other person.

A) B) C) D) E)

43)

Of the Big Five, ________ is the easiest to judge in zero acquaintance situations.

A) B) C) D) E)

44)

openness to experience conscientiousness agreeableness neuroticism extraversion

A zero acquaintance situation is a situation in which

A) B) C) D) E)

45)

Conscientious Agreeable Neurotic Diligent Relaxed

two people have just met each other. two people have no friends in common. a company forbids romantic relations among employees. someone has a personality that makes them avoid others. a company routinely shifts personnel among departments.

Extraverted people prioritize ________ striving.

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A) B) C) D) E)

status communion accomplishment value attainment

46) ________ striving reflects a strong desire to obtain power and influence within a social structure as a means of expressing personality.

A) B) C) D) E)

Accomplishment Status Fellowship Attainment Communion

47) Candace can be described as an ambitious individual. She joined Boulder Distributors as a junior recruiter and wants to climb the corporate ladder to become a team leader in the future. Candace works hard to build up her reputation, makes time to interact with not only her manager but other managers as well, and lets everyone know how passionate she is about working at Boulder. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, the personality dimension ________ best describes Candace.

A) B) C) D) E)

48)

neuroticism extraversion agreeableness conscientiousness openness to experience

________, who are more energetic and outgoing, are perceived to be more “leader-like.”

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A) B) C) D) E)

49)

Extraverted people tend to be high in

A) B) C) D) E)

50)

Neurotics Hysterical individuals Extraverts Emotionally adjusted people Agreeable people

neuroticism. agreeableness. status striving. conflict avoidance. positive affectivity.

Positive affectivity is a dispositional tendency to

A) obtain power and influence within a social structure as a means of expressing personality. B) experience pleasant, engaging moods such as enthusiasm, excitement, and elation. C) obtain acceptance in personal relationships as a means of expressing personality. D) experience unpleasant moods such as hostility, nervousness, and annoyance. E) accomplish task-related goals as a means of expressing personality.

51) The Big Five dimension ________ is also called by its flip side “emotional stability” or “emotional adjustment.”

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A) B) C) D) E)

52)

The Big Five dimension neuroticism is synonymous with

A) B) C) D) E)

53)

conscientiousness extraversion agreeableness openness to experience neuroticism

extraversion. openness to experience. conscientiousness. collectivism. negative affectivity.

Negative affectivity is a

54) Neuroticism is associated with a(n) ________ to stressors, meaning that neurotic people are more likely to appraise day-to-day situations as stressful.

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A) B) C) D) E)

communion striving factor differential reactivity differential exposure openness to experience locus of control

55) Neuroticism is linked to a(n) ________ to stressors, meaning that neurotic people are less likely to believe they can cope with the stressors that they experience.

A) B) C) D) E)

status striving factor locus of control differential exposure differential reactivity accomplishment-striving factor

56) Neurotic people tend to hold ________, meaning they often believe the events that occur around them are driven by luck, chance, or fate.

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

differential exposure an internal locus of control positive affectivity an external locus of control differential reactivity

Which of the following statements concerning locus of control is true?

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A) Those with internal locus of control exhibit lower job performance. B) External locus of control is associated with higher levels of job satisfaction. C) Those with an external locus of control often have lower blood press and less stress. D) Internal locus of control often means the person has less social support at work than externals. E) Those with an internal locus of control earn a higher salary than those with an external locus of control.

58) Together with cognitive ability, ________ is a key driver of creative thought, as people with this trait excel at the style of thinking demanded by creativity.

A) B) C) D) E)

conscientiousness extraversion agreeableness openness to experience neuroticism

59) In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, the personality dimension ________ is also called “inquisitiveness” or “intellectualness.”

A) B) C) D) E)

conscientiousness extraversion agreeableness openness to experience neuroticism

60) Nikola wants to use some type of a test to help his employees better understand how different team members approach tasks at work. What should he do?

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A) B) C) D) E)

give a test that identifies no bad personality types give a test that divides workers into five personality types use an assessment to match employee traits with ideal jobs use an assessment to identify which traits workers inherited give a test that points out personality types that make bad employees

61) Which of the following scenarios represents the most appropriate use of the MyersBriggs Type Indicator?

A) B) C) D) E)

Patrick suspects Gary is neurotic and uses it to find out. Amberly administers it to screen applicants for employment. Jonna uses it to see if she might be interested in being a welder. Mack thinks he is smarter than everyone else and uses it to prove his point. Stu applies it to build understanding of the different approaches used on his team.

62) Carter was categorized as ISTJ on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator. Which of the following behaviors would we expect to see out of Carter?

A) B) C) D) E)

following speculations and imagined ideas being energized by the presence of people approaching decisions in a logical manner being spontaneous in approaching a task worrying if a decision will anger others

63) Abby flunked the midterm and tells everyone it is the teacher’s fault. She did not study because she knew it would just be a waste of time. After all, she knew the “teacher had it in for her.” Abby demonstrates a(n)

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

external locus of control. internal locus of control. low level of neuroticism. high level of extraversion. high level of conscientiousness.

64) Gretchen Rubin provides a different taxonomy of personality, including ________ who are people who embrace both outer expectations and inner expectations.

A) B) C) D) E)

65)

questioners obligers upholders rebels strivers

One of the preferences the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator uses to evaluate individuals is

A) B) C) D) E)

short-term versus long-term orientation. individualism-collectivism. conventional versus artistic. thinking versus feeling. masculinity-femininity.

66) Compton and Lula are successful stockbrokers working with the Market Beat Brokerage firm. Before buying a company’s stock, Compton reviews the company’s reports and past data. Lula, on the other hand, buys stock based on speculation. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, the ________ type best describes Compton, and the ________ type best describes Lula.

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A) B) C) D) E)

feeling; thinking sensing; intuition perceiving; judging short-term; long-term extraversion; introversion

67) “Approaching tasks by planning and setting goals” describes the ________ type of Myers-Briggs indicator.

A) B) C) D) E)

perceiving introversion extraversion feeling judging

68) Gretchen Rubin offers an additional taxonomy of personality where ________ are people who push back on outer expectations and struggle with inner expectations.

A) B) C) D) E)

questioners rebels strivers obligers upholders

69) ________ are expressions of personality that influence behavior through preferences for certain environments and activities.

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A) B) C) D) E)

70)

Values Beliefs Tests Interests Ethics

According to the RIASEC model, an investigative person enjoys

A) B) C) D) E)

practical, hands-on, real-world tasks. persuading, leading, or outperforming others. abstract, analytical, and theory-oriented tasks. organizing, counting, or regulating people or things. entertaining and fascinating others using imagination.

71) Zenda’s psychology curriculum required her to study an individual’s personality type using the process of interviewing. She selected Evan, her brother’s roommate, as her test subject. The highlighted points of her research were that Evan is a law graduate, who is a musician in his spare time. He is an independent person who paid his own way through law school. His friends get annoyed with his impulsive behavior. According to the RIASEC model, Zenda classified Evan under the ________ type of personality dimension.

A) B) C) D) E)

artistic realistic enterprising investigative conventional

72) Chance lives in Louisiana on a boat he built. Chance is good at carpentry and electrical work. According to the RIASEC model, the ________ type of personality dimension best describes Chance.

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A) B) C) D) E)

73)

artistic realistic enterprising conventional investigative

Which of the following scenarios illustrates a case of ethnocentrism?

A) Liam, a millwright from Kentucky, ignores input from engineers at his tractor company’s Japanese subsidiary because he believes Americans build the best tractors. B) T.J., a television producer from California, goes out of his way to share ideas and methods with other producers from India, South Korea, and Hollywood. C) Chad, a fisherman from Alaska, has tried using nets manufactured in Japan and Russia, but finds his American-made nets perform slightly better. D) Nelson, a civil engineer from New York, comes off as pushy and rude when he visits engineering firms in Nordic Europe. E) Orlando, an architect from Missouri, is fascinated by the culture he encounters when his company sends him to Scandinavia.

74) Fern’s company is expanding, and she would like a foreign presence to reach broader markets and have some diversification. Fern wants a factory where rules are strictly followed, performance is high, and workers are able to accept the authority of people above them. In which of the following places should she choose to build her factory?

A) B) C) D) E)

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China Brazil Greece Mexico Germany

75) Arjit wants to take his idea for a tech firm to a country where he can hire a work force from people who focus on the future, care about others, and want equality among workers and between genders. Where should Arjit build his firm?

A) B) C) D) E)

the Netherlands Venezuela Germany Russia Iran

76) Which of the following in not one of the dimensions measured in the multicultural personality questionnaire?

A) B) C) D) E)

open-mindedness emotional stability cultural empathy locus of control social initiative

77) Volkwear Ltd., a German clothing manufacturer, is known as a company that focuses on improving its customers’ quality of life. In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions, the cultural values dimension of ________ best describes Volkwear Ltd.

A) B) C) D) E)

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femininity individualism high power distance short-term orientation uncertainty avoidance

78) Houston, a project manager at Universe Inc., was the man behind the company’s shift to a new culture that focused on being assertive with its clients. In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions, the cultural dimension ________ best describes Universe Inc.

A) B) C) D) E)

masculinity collectivism low-power distance uncertainty avoidance short-term orientation

79) Cooper, a trainer at D&J Inc., preaches the company’s policy of prudence to all his new trainees. In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions, this cultural value followed at D&J Inc. is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

masculinity. collectivism. low-power distance. long-term orientation. high uncertainty avoidance.

80) In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions, the cultural dimension ________ stresses values such as respect for tradition and fulfilling obligations.

A) B) C) D) E)

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individualism high power distance masculinity low uncertainty avoidance short-term orientation

81) The Chinese culture is a tight social framework in which people take care of the members of a broader ingroup and act loyal to it. In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions, what is the personality dimension used to describe the Chinese culture?

A) B) C) D) E)

82)

collectivism uncertainty avoidance masculinity low-power distance short-term orientation

Organizations use the multicultural personality questionnaire when

A) B) C) D) E)

hiring new employees. employees enter leadership training. assessing group processes and cohesion. identifying employees suitable to work in foreign subsidiaries. deciding whether to do business with a supplier.

83) Hofstede’s research found that a culture high on ________ accepts the fact that authority is usually distributed unequally within organizations.

A) B) C) D) E)

collectivism uncertainty avoidance masculinity power distance short-term orientation

84) Prisha is very uncomfortable because she received a larger bonus than other members of her work group. She is most likely from a ________ culture.

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A) B) C) D) E)

global uncertain feminine collectivistic short-term oriented

85) Considering the individualism-collectivism distinction, which of the following statements is true?

A) B) C) D) E)

Individualists exhibit lower levels of counterproductive behaviors. Collectivists prefer rewards tied to individual achievement. Individualists exhibit higher levels of task performance in work team settings. Collectivists exhibit lower levels of withdrawal behaviors. Individualists exhibit higher levels of citizenship behaviors in work team settings.

86) Which of the following refers to the propensity to view one’s own cultural values as “right” and those of other cultures as “wrong”?

A) B) C) D) E)

ethnocentrism neuroticism extraversion zero acquaintance short-term orientation

87) ________ examines the impact of culture on the effectiveness of various leader attributes, behaviors, and practices.

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A) B) C) D) E)

88)

Project GLOBE Project HOFSTEDE Myers-Briggs CANOE RIASEC

Which of the following scenarios is an example of typical performance?

A) Holly has to skip her breaks and work extra hours for three days to prepare for a surprise audit. B) Anna casts five hundred transmission cases, hitting her average production rate for the week. C) Ashley breaks the printer trying to load it with the wrong kind of toner cartridge. D) Sheila switches departments to fill in for Freddie while he has bypass surgery. E) Bart is tired, so he gets by doing as little as possible for a couple of days.

89) Whit is walking to his workstation, when he sees Frank fall off a platform and get seriously injured. Though he is usually quiet and passive, Whit pulls Frank to safety, begins first aid, and orders the other workers to do various tasks to help with the situation. This scenario exemplifies

A) B) C) D) E)

organizational commitment. typical performance. trait activation. cultural values. ethnocentrism.

90) Of the Big Five, ________ has the strongest effect on task performance, partly because these employees have higher levels of ________ than other employees.

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A) B) C) D) E)

openness to experience; creativity conscientiousness; motivation agreeableness; power distance collectivists; femininity neurotics; focus

91) The principle of ________ suggests that “strong situations” have clear behavioral expectations, incentives, or instructions that make differences between individuals less important, whereas “weak situations” lack those cues.

A) B) C) D) E)

situation awareness situational strength situational prevention situational ethics situation specificity

92) Lucky administers an integrity test at Garden Haven, a supplier of lawn and garden supplies, in order to screen out potential thieves or dishonest workers. Howard, another Garden Haven employee, frantically finds Lucky and tells him the test is no good because several applicants just told him they faked their answers. What should Lucky do?

A) nothing because faking is common and does not influence the correlation between scores and performance B) do away with unreliable integrity tests and ascertain the qualities of applicants from face-to-face interviews C) stop using the integrity test and switch to the more reliable and less invasive polygraph test instead D) hire a group of proctors who are trained to catch cheaters to oversee test administration E) invalidate all of the tests taken during the testing period referred to by Howard

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93) When considering the use of personality testing for applicants, there are detractors. Which of the following statements is not true of concerns when using personality testing?

A) B) C) D) E)

security of the personality profiles stored in databases valid assessment is not guaranteed the personality testing industry is not regulated no personality test has been validated in scientific journals vendor’s tests leave the scoring and evaluation to you, causing more room for error

94) Which of the following asks applicants about their attitudes toward dishonesty, the desire to punish dishonesty, and confessions of past dishonesty?

A) B) C) D) E)

a clear purpose test differential reactivity positive affectivity a veiled purpose test a Big Five Inventory

95) ________ do not reference dishonesty explicitly but instead assess more general personality traits that are associated with dishonest acts.

A) B) C) D) E)

Clear purpose tests Differential reactivity tests Positive affectivity tests Veiled purpose tests Aptitude inventories

96) If you are exaggerating your responses to a personality test in a socially desirable fashion, you are Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

exhibiting ethnocentrism. faking. displaying neuroticism. creative. using negative affectivity.

97) Personality refers to the structures and propensities inside people that explain their characteristic patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) When Rafael started his new job, his coworkers found him to be very traditional and risk averse, yet assertive. These are all examples of personality characteristics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Felix started his new job about a month ago. When asked, he says he likes most of his coworkers. One of them, though, is mean-spirited, obnoxious, petty, and belligerent. Felix is describing his coworker’s social traits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, a traditional, conforming person is said to show openness. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

101) Miriam is known as a person who is talkative. In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, the extraversion personality dimension best describes Miriam. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Agreeableness is one of the Big Five dimensions of personality reflecting traits like being nervous, moody, emotional, insecure, jealous, and unstable. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Extraversion changes quite significantly over a person’s life span. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Conscientious employees prioritize accomplishment striving, which reflects a strong desire to accomplish task-related goals as a means of expressing personality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Of the Big Five, openness to experience is the easiest to judge in zero acquaintance situations. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

106) From the perspective of job performance, neuroticism is the most important of the Big Five. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

Neurotic people tend to have an external locus of control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) In the context of the Big Five taxonomy, openness to experience is positively related to performance across all occupations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) The most appropriate use of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is in a team-building context. ⊚ ⊚

110)

Holland’s RIASEC model focuses on people’s vocational interests. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

Artistic people tend to enjoy abstract, analytical, theory-oriented tasks. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

112) Holland’s RIASEC model includes the personality dimensions of conscientiousness and neuroticism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Low-power distance cultures prefer that power be distributed uniformly where possible, in an egalitarian fashion. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Conscientiousness has a moderate positive effect on performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Christina is attending a business meeting at a client’s office. Some of the other attendees are formally dressed; others are in shorts and T-shirts. The table is round instead of rectangular, so there is no head to let her know who the most important person at the meeting is. There is no agenda to let her know what the important topics are today. Her personality is most likely to drive her behavior in this situation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Personality tests are valid and reliable assessments that have been subjected to scientific investigation. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 36

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Answer Key Test name: CH9 1) Personality refers to the structures and propensities inside people that explain their characteristic patterns of thought, emotion, and behavior. Personality creates people’s social reputations—the way they are perceived by friends, family, coworkers, and supervisors. In this way, personality captures what people are like. Although we sometimes describe people as having “a good personality,” personality is actually a collection of multiple traits. Traits are defined as recurring regularities or trends in people’s responses to their environment. Adjectives such as responsible, easygoing, polite, and reserved are examples of traits that can be used to summarize someone’s personality.

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2) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the personality characteristics in the Big Five model. A sample answer follows.Della appears to be ambitious, a sign of a conscientious employee but her work is sloppy which a conscientious employee would not allow. Della is likely not very conscientious. Della’s lack of sharing information with coworkers shows she is selfish and her critical attitude towards other’s ideas show she is not very agreeable. Her jealousy of others is apparent in Della’s opinions that other people are always getting something better than she, and her nervous attacks when a boss’ visit is imminent bot point to a certain level of neuroticism. Della does appear to have a fairly high level of openness to experience due to her creative, imaginative solutions. She is likely an extravert as she is assertive and bold. Paul is likely high on conscientiousness as he is ambitious, dependable, hard-working, and organized. Paul is also likely an agreeable employee since he helps his coworkers meet their own deadlines. He is likely not a neurotic employee as he has a calm, relaxed demeanor. However, Paul does not appear to be open to experiences as it took him two days to grasp a simple process change. Paul likes the rules to stay the consistent. He is also likely not an extravert as he is a quiet, reserved person who shows his submission to those above him in the organizational hierarchy.

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3) Conscientious people are dependable, organized, reliable, ambitious, hard-working, and persevering. Conscientious employees prioritize accomplishment striving. They have a built-in desire to finish work tasks, channel a high proportion of their efforts toward those tasks, and work harder and longer on task assignments. Agreeable people are warm, kind, cooperative, sympathetic, helpful, and courteous. They prioritize communion striving. They focus on “getting along” and not necessarily on “getting ahead.” Agreeableness is not related to performance across all jobs and occupations. Extraverted people are talkative, sociable, passionate, assertive, bold, and dominant. Of the Big Five, extraversion is the easiest to judge in zero acquaintance situations. Like agreeableness, extraversion is not related to performance across all jobs and occupations. Extraverts prioritize status striving. They care a lot about being successful and influential and direct their work efforts toward “moving up” and developing a strong reputation. Neurotic people are nervous, moody, emotional, insecure, and jealous. Whereas extraversion is synonymous with positive affectivity, neuroticism is synonymous with negative affectivity. Neurotic individuals experience lower levels of job satisfaction. Openness to experience is the final dimension of the Big Five. Open people are curious, imaginative, creative, complex, refined, and sophisticated. This dimension is also referred to as inquisitiveness or intellectualness or culture. This dimension is not related to performance across all jobs and occupations. This dimension is more likely to be valuable in jobs that require creativity. Conscientiousness is the most important dimension and has the most influence on the job performance. It has a moderate positive effect on both performance and commitment.

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4) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of conscientious employees. A sample answer follows. Conscientious employees prioritize accomplishment striving, which reflects a strong desire to accomplish task-related goals as a means of expressing personality. People who are “accomplishment strivers” have a built-in desire to finish work tasks, channel a high proportion of their efforts toward those tasks, and work harder and longer on task assignments. As evidence of their accomplishment-striving nature, one research study showed that conscientious salespeople set higher sales goals for themselves than less conscientious salespeople and were more committed to meeting those goals. Another study of salespeople showed that conscientious salespeople’s organizational skills were particularly valuable during their first year of employment, and their ambitious nature became more critical as they gained tenure and experience. Anne will probably set higher personal goals than many other employees, and she will be dedicated to reaching those goals. She will probably use her organizational skills early on to get off to a good start, and her ambition will carry her further later in her career.

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5) Both extraversion and neuroticism are dimensions of the Big Five. Extraverted people are talkative, sociable, passionate, assertive, bold, and dominant. Of the Big Five, extraversion is the easiest to judge in zero acquaintance situations. Extraversion is not related to performance across all jobs and occupations. Extraverts prioritize status striving. They care a lot about being successful and influential and direct their work efforts toward “moving up” and developing a strong reputation. Extraverted employees tend to be high in positive affectivity, a dispositional tendency to experience pleasant, engaging moods such as enthusiasm, excitement, and elation. They tend to be more satisfied with their jobs. Neurotic people are nervous, moody, emotional, insecure, and jealous. Whereas extraversion is synonymous with positive affectivity, neuroticism is synonymous with negative affectivity—a dispositional tendency to experience unpleasant moods such as hostility, nervousness, and annoyance. Neurotic individuals experience lower levels of job satisfaction and life satisfaction.

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6) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of internal and external locus of control. A sample answer follows.Locus of control reflects whether people attribute the causes of events to themselves (internal locus of control) or to the external environment (external locus of control). Neurotic people tend to hold an external locus of control, meaning that they often believe that the events that occur around them are driven by luck, chance, or fate. Less neurotic people tend to hold an internal locus of control, meaning that they believe that their own behavior dictates events. Minnie, having an internal locus of control, will probably feel that she was hired because she did a few extra things, such as working a few more hours or volunteering for assignments. Wendy, having an external locus of control, probably feels she was unlucky because Minnie applied first or happened to get a better set of interview questions or some other reason beyond her or Minnie’s control.

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7) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and its uses. A sample answer follows.The MBTI evaluates individuals on the basis of four types of preferences: • Extraversion versus introversion • Sensing versus intuition • Thinking versus feeling • Judging versus perceiving The MBTI categorizes people into one of 16 different types on the basis of their preferences. The most appropriate use of the MBTI is in a teambuilding context to help different members understand their varying approaches to accomplishing tasks. It should not be used for hiring decisions. Keisha can use the MBTI to help employees understand themselves and how they approach situations, and to understand how their coworkers do the same. She should not use the MBTI to test applicants and then decide who to hire based on the results. 8) Holland’s RAISEC model suggests that interests can be summarized by six different personality types:• Realistic: enjoys practical, hands-on, real-world tasks. Tends to be frank, practical, determined, and rugged. • Investigative: enjoys abstract, analytical, theory-oriented tasks. Tends to be analytical, intellectual, reserved, and scholarly. • Artistic: enjoys entertaining and fascinating others using imagination. Tends to be original, independent, impulsive, and creative. • Social: enjoys helping, serving, or assisting others. Tends to be helpful, inspiring, informative, and empathic. • Enterprising: enjoys persuading, leading, or outperforming others. Tends to be energetic, sociable, ambitious, and risk-taking. • Conventional: enjoys organizing, counting, or regulating people or things. Tends to be careful, conservative, self-controlled, and structured.

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9) Hofstede’s cultural dimensions include: individualism-collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, masculinity-femininity, and short-term vs. long-term orientation. Individualistic cultures are a loosely knit social framework in which people take care of themselves and their immediate family. Examples include the United States, the Netherlands, and France. On the other end of this dimension is collectivism where the culture is a tight social framework in which people take care of the members of a broader ingroup and act loyal to it. Examples of collectivistic cultures include Indonesia, China, and West Africa. The second dimension is power distance which ranges from low to high. Cultures with a low-power distance orientation prefer that power be distributed uniformly where possible, in a more egalitarian fashion. Examples of cultures with a low-power distance include the United States, Germany, and the Netherlands. In contrast, cultures with a highpower distance accept the fact that power is usually distributed unequally within organizations. Cultures with high power distance orientation include Russia, China, and Indonesia. The third dimension, uncertainty avoidance, also ranges from low to high. Cultures with a low uncertainty avoidance tolerate uncertain and ambiguous situations and value unusual ideas and behaviors. Examples of countries with a low uncertainty avoidance orientation include the United States, Indonesia, and the Netherlands. Opposite that are cultures with a high uncertainty avoidance who feel threatened by uncertain and ambiguous situations and rely on formal rules to create stability. Examples of countries with high uncertainty avoidance orientation include Japan, Russia, and France. Next is the masculinity-femininity dimension. Masculine countries value stereotypical male traits such as assertiveness and the acquisition of money and things while feminine cultures value stereotypically female traits such as caring for others and caring about quality of life. Masculine countries include the United States, Japan, and Version 1

Germany, while feminine countries include the Netherlands, Russia, and France. Finally, short-term versus long-term orientation. A short-term oriented culture stresses values that are more past- and present-oriented, such as respect for tradition and fulfilling obligations. Examples of short-term oriented cultures include the United States, Russia, and West Africa. Long-term oriented cultures stress values that are more futureoriented, such as persistence, prudence, and thrift. Examples of longterm oriented cultures include China, Japan, and the Netherlands. 10) The principle of situational strength suggests that “strong situations” have clear behavioral expectations, incentives, or instructions that make differences between individuals less important, whereas “weak situations” lack those cues. Personality variables tend to be more significant drivers of behavior in weak situations than in strong situations. Similarly, the principle of trait activation suggests that some situations provide cues that trigger the expression of a given trait. For example, a cry for help provides a cue that can trigger the expression of empathy. Personality variables tend to be more significant drivers of behaviors in situations that provide relevant cues than in situations in which those cues are lacking. 11) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of clear purpose tests and veiled purpose tests. A sample answer follows.Clear purpose tests ask applicants about their attitudes toward dishonesty, beliefs about the frequency of dishonesty, endorsements of common rationalizations for dishonesty, desire to punish dishonesty, and confessions of past dishonesty. Veiled purpose tests do not reference dishonesty explicitly but instead assess more general personality traits that are associated with dishonest acts. Cyrus took a clear purpose integrity test, as evidenced by the direct questions about what he would do or what he has done in various morally compromising situations. They did not try to mask what they were asking of him. Version 1

12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) C 27) D 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) C Version 1

42) B 43) E 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) E 50) B 51) E 52) E 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) D 57) E 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) E 62) C 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) E 68) B 69) D 70) E 71) A Version 1

72) B 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) D 80) E 81) A 82) D 83) D 84) D 85) D 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) B 92) A 93) D 94) A 95) D 96) B 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE Version 1

102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Explain how environment influences cognitive abilities and provide a personal example of this.

What is quantitative ability? Describe its component abilities.

3) Define perceptual ability. Consider the two facets of perceptual cognitive ability and explain the difference between the two. Give examples of the types of jobs that may require each of these abilities.

4) Lindsay is facing four problems. The first is that the way her department is overworking its employees is going to lead to problems soon. The second is that she has to figure out what procedure must be followed to discharge George, an employee who has not been behaving appropriately. The third problem is that she has to determine where missing supplies have gone. Finally, she needs to come up with a new idea to address how to package the company’s products since shipping requirements have changed. Identify and describe the four types of reasoning abilities, and explain which one Lindsay needs to apply to each of her four problems. Version 1

5) Define emotional abilities. Identify and describe the four abilities related to emotional intelligence. Provide a personal example of a time when you used your emotional intelligence to your advantage.

6) Adena is a national-level ballet dancer. Physical fitness and innovating new sequences are very crucial for her career. Discuss the physical abilities you consider relevant in her profession.

7) Differentiate among the three types of strength. Explain what types of jobs may require these strengths.

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8) Benson is the head of security for a large government facility covering several square miles. He has to screen people entering and leaving the facility, watch for wild animals entering areas where they could pose a risk, and monitor the weather. Describe the role of sensory ability in task performance and explain how it applies to Benson’s job.

Explain the effects of general cognitive ability on performance and commitment.

10) Terry is a great college football player. He is so good, in fact, that next spring, he will enter the NFL draft. Much to his puzzlement, his buddy Andre tells him he better be ready for the Wonderlic. Explain what the Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test is and describe what type of questions Terry might be facing when he takes it.

11)

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates Tim’s ability rather than his personality?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Tim was kind to everyone he met and a generous co-worker. Tim carried a high bowling average and once bowled a perfect game. Tim’s monthly dinner parties were always a success due to his diligent planning. Tim appeared calm and steady, even during a crisis. Tim’s creative thoughts allowed him to envision creative solutions to most problems.

12) Daylen and Daven had totally different childhoods. Daylen was raised in a supportive environment, and Daven was raised in an abusive, neglectful environment. Daylen always scored about 50 points higher than Daven on cognitive ability tests when they were in school. After graduation, they both were hired by the same company for the same occupation. Now, five years later, what would be the most likely result if they both took a cognitive ability test?

A) Daven would outscore Daylen because adult cognitive ability is inverse to childhood cognitive ability. B) Daylen would still score about 50 points higher than Daven because ability remains relatively stable over time. C) Daylen would score less than Daven because cognitive ability test scores are based on improvement over previous scores. D) Daven would narrow the scoring gap with Daylen because environmental influences on cognitive ability tend to decrease as people age. E) Daven would score more than 50 points less than Daylen because the test would remind him of the last time he took the test and his abusive childhood.

13) Which of the following refers to the relatively stable capabilities people have to perform a particular range of different but related activities?

A) B) C) D) E)

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knowledge beliefs ability values attitudes

14)

Which of the following are the strongest determinants of one’s abilities?

A) B) C) D) E)

genes and the environment training and skills values and attitudes knowledge and beliefs experience and attitude

15) In the context of abilities, which of the following is true regarding the relative influence of genes and the environment?

A) Genes play a greater role than the environment. B) The amount attributed to genes or the environment depends on the nature of the ability. C) Environment plays a role only when it is deficient. D) Environment plays a greater role than genes. E) Genes play a marginal role, but environment plays no role.

16) Which of the following represents the three general categories into which abilities can be grouped?

A) B) C) D) E)

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social, physical, and emotional emotional, social, and cognitive physical, cognitive, and external cognitive, emotional, and physical external, internal, and transactional

17) Eagle is a human resources coordinator for a large firm dealing with a range of products. She needs to immediately hire an employee high in reasoning ability, but the only tests she has available test for quantitative and verbal abilities. What can she do when she administers the test to Pablo, and he scores very well on both of them?

A) B) C) D) E)

18)

ignore the results because all three areas are completely unrelated pass up Pablo because verbal ability is inverse to reasoning ability calculate Pablo’s likely reasoning ability score as 60 percent of his verbal score repeat the test because it is impossible to score high on both math and verbal ability hire Pablo because people tend to score similarly across all types of cognitive ability

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates general cognitive ability?

A) Sharon has the ability to sense when other people are beginning to become frustrated before they realize it. B) Alice scored well above average on the verbal, quantitative, and reasoning segments of a test. C) Jen scores poorly on a test because her parents yelled at her the previous night. D) Rylee does great in math, but she has difficulty reading and writing. E) Emmi excels at playing four completely different sports.

19)

Which of the following people described below has a high degree of reasoning ability?

A) B) C) D) E) imagery.

20)

Wanda is an accountant who can make mathematical calculations rapidly. Barry is a judge who uses laws and rules to guide him in making decisions. Roe is a backhoe operator who can shave a thin layer of dirt that is perfectly level. Steve is a carpenter who can imagine what a room will look like before he builds it. Drake is a language arts teacher who writes very descriptive poetry with vivid

Cognitive abilities refers to capabilities related to the

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A) B) C) D) E)

capacity to manipulate and control objects. appraisal and recognition of emotion in others. acquisition and application of knowledge in problem solving. degree to which people can harness emotions and use them to succeed. ability to perceive colors and judge relative distances between things accurately.

21) Ollie is taking the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT), which is an evaluation of the literacy and writing skills required for academic success in college. The SAT is testing Ollie’s ________ ability.

A) B) C) D) E)

emotional cognitive physical coping social

22) Researchers recognize ________ general types of cognitive ability, and each type has two or more related specific facets.

A) B) C) D) E)

23)

5 12 4 6 10

Verbal and spatial abilities come under the general category of ________ abilities.

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A) B) C) D) E)

24)

cognitive emotional physical sensory psychomotor

Which of these is a type of cognitive ability?

A) B) C) D) E)

sensory abilities psychomotor abilities perceptual abilities response orientation coordination

25) The ability to discern differences among people that are due to their nationalities and to understand what these differences mean in terms of the way people tend to think and behave in different situations is called

A) B) C) D) E)

problem sensitivity. deductive reasoning. cultural intelligence. emotional intelligence. self-awareness.

26) A group of friends decided to start their own custom clothing firm with the resources and abilities they have. Steven is really good at applying formulas to solve complex problems that involve numbers. Bobby excels at combining specific data into general conclusions. Richie is able to study stock market data and predict how the market fluctuations will affect an industry. These people believe that they can build a great future, and they are working hard toward their goals. From the information given, it can be concluded that Steven has high ability in the area of

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A) B) C) D) E)

mathematical reasoning. response orientation. inductive reasoning. problem sensitivity. number facility.

27) A group of friends decided to start their own custom clothing firm with the resources and abilities they have. Steven is really good at applying formulas to solve complex problems that involve numbers. Bobby excels at combining specific data into general conclusions. Richie is able to study stock market data and predict how the market fluctuations will affect an industry. These people believe that they can build a great future, and they are working hard toward their goals. From the information given, it can be concluded that Bobby has a high ability in the area of

A) B) C) D) E)

mathematical reasoning. verbal comprehension. inductive reasoning. perceptual speed. spatial reasoning.

28) A group of friends decided to start their own custom clothing firm with the resources and abilities they have. Steven is really good at applying formulas to solve complex problems that involve numbers. Bobby excels at combining specific data into general conclusions. Richie is able to study stock market data and predict how the market fluctuations will affect an industry. These people believe that they can build a great future, and they are working hard toward their goals. From the information provided, Richie can be described as having a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

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originality. visualization. spatial orientation. response orientation. speed and flexibility of closure.

29) The students of Chestnut Tree Prep always earned low grades in mathematics. The administration looked into the matter and found out that although the handouts given by the teacher were extremely good, the teacher was unable to convey the steps and procedures involved in lectures and discussions. The teacher demonstrated

A) B) C) D) E)

30)

low ability in written expression and high ability in oral expression. high ability in written expression and low ability in oral expression. low ability in written comprehension and high ability in oral comprehension. high ability in written comprehension and low ability in oral comprehension. high ability in written comprehension and high ability in oral comprehension.

Of the following answer options, which position is verbal ability most relevant?

A) B) C) D) E)

financial manager surgeon pilot firefighter CEO

31) Actuaries for major insurance companies have to choose and apply formulas to solve problems related to risk and the premiums. Which of the following abilities is required?

A) B) C) D) E)

32)

mathematical reasoning inductive reasoning number facility problem sensitivity deductive reasoning

Which of these refers to the capability to do simple math operations?

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A) B) C) D) E)

response orientation number facility problem sensitivity mathematical reasoning deductive reasoning

33) Whenever Marie has a plan, she runs her idea past James first. James always seems to be able to see potential problems with an idea before they happen. James has a high level of

A) B) C) D) E)

34)

spatial orientation. problem sensitivity. perceptual speed. visualization. originality.

Using general rules to solve problems is referred to as ________ reasoning.

A) B) C) D) E)

probabilistic quantitative deductive inductive spatial

35) Employatech, an employment research and consulting firm, completed a job analysis revealing that the primary skill required of applicants for a particular job is the ability to make effective decisions based on a presented set of facts. The skill being identified by the job analysis is ________ reasoning.

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A) B) C) D) E)

spatial inductive deductive quantitative hypothetical

36) The job of a parole board primarily involves making decisions by applying rules to an applicant’s case and then deciding whether or not the individual should be granted parole. This process uses the parole board members’ ability in the area of ________ reasoning.

A) B) C) D) E)

syllogistic deductive inductive spatial verbal

37) Gracie was recently hired by a detective agency after rounds of preemployment testing and interviews. The preemployment testing showed that she had a high ability to gather information regarding crimes, filter out unwanted information, and draw the right conclusions to strengthen her case. We can say that the preemployment tests revealed that Gracie is good at

A) B) C) D) E)

verbal comprehension. deductive reasoning. inductive reasoning. problem sensitivity. visualization.

38) Gabriel works in an engineering department. Even though they are sometimes envious, his coworkers enjoy watching him work because he comes up with unusual and often unlikely solutions to problems that are very clever and usually work. Tim has a high level of

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A) B) C) D) E)

flexibility. originality. coordination. number facility. problem sensitivity.

39) ________ means having a good understanding of where one is relative to other things in the environment.

A) B) C) D) E)

40)

Spatial orientation Visualization Problem sensitivity Flexibility Perceptual speed

The two main types of spatial ability are spatial orientation and

A) B) C) D) E)

originality. flexibility of closure. perceptual speed. visualization. coordination.

41) Jacob is a renowned landscape designer, and his clients feel that he can bring to life a dull yard with minimal cost and effort. Before starting a project, Jacob always describes the changes he is going to make so the client gets a feel of what the final changes will look like. In doing so, Jacob reflects his strong ability not only to mix and match different designs to create a completely new image, but also to help his clients imagine it beforehand. Jacob has high ability in the area of

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A) B) C) D) E)

coordination. visualization. perceptual speed. response orientation. mathematical reasoning.

42) Hyun had a great skirt at home that she loved but she needed a perfect top to go with it. One weekend, while shopping with her aunt, she spied the perfect blouse to go with the skirt. Hyun also picked up a cute belt she thought would pull the outfit together. When she got home with the top and the belt and put them all together, she was right, they looked great. Hyun likely possesses which spatial ability?

A) B) C) D) E)

speed and flexibility of closure perceptual speed originality spatial orientation visualization

43) Which of the following cognitive abilities is especially important for a range of professions like pilots, drivers, boat captains, and photographers?

A) B) C) D) E)

44)

reasoning ability quantitative ability spatial ability verbal ability affective ability

Which of the following statements concerning the intelligence quotient (IQ) is true?

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A) The IQ test was originally used in educational contexts to test for student placement in advanced learning classes. B) Scores on IQ tests and tests of general cognitive ability both say pretty much the same thing about the person taking the test. C) IQ test scores over 100 indicate a potential learning deficiency. D) People with higher IQs tend to be less satisfied with their lives. E) IQ test scores under 100 indicate the person is bright for their age.

45) Ken has an editorial position at an independent publisher in which he rapidly proofreads documents, sorts, files and images, and categorizes objects. Ken depends a lot on

A) B) C) D) E)

46)

problem sensitivity. spatial orientation. perceptual speed. visualization. originality.

The “g-factor” refers to

A) B) C) D) E)

gross motor facilitation. gross body equilibrium. gross body coordination. general cognitive ability. general adaptation syndrome.

47) Aaron leads a sales team. Ralph is the only team member who has not yet reached his quarterly sales quota. How can Aaron best help Ralph in this situation?

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A) by saying nothing until after the month is over and then taking appropriate action to deal with Ralph B) by telling Ralph that he may want to rethink being in sales if meeting a simple quarterly goal is this hard C) by calling some trusted clients and asking them to buy from Ralph but not mention his phone call to them D) by reminding Ralph to keep working on his goal because it will get harder to reach if he wastes time worrying about it E) by informing Ralph that he is currently the worst salesperson on the team and that his sales ability seems to be really slipping

48) On the third day teaching at a public school, Tiffany, who is used to teaching at a small private school, has become very frustrated with the larger class size and louder behavior than she is accustomed to. When Kathy, the principal, comes into the room and asks how she is doing, despite wanting to pretend everything is under control, Tiffany admits that she is feeling a bit frustrated and overwhelmed because she is not used to this environment. Tiffany has just displayed

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

spatial ability. self-awareness. other awareness. perceptual ability. emotion awareness.

Which of the following scenarios depicts someone using other awareness?

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A) Gabby scores higher than anyone in her class on the SAT exam. B) Hannah pretends to be angry to motivate her team to work faster. C) Forest feels himself losing his temper and walks outside to take a deep breath. D) Angie can tell that Lewis is overwhelmed and lets him switch places with another worker. E) Edmund gets fired from a job he loves, but he immediately goes out and finds a new one by the end of the day.

50) The ability that influences the degree to which people tend to be effective in social situations, regardless of their level of cognitive abilities, is called

A) B) C) D) E)

51)

Self-awareness is a(n) ________ ability.

A) B) C) D) E)

52)

intelligence quotient. emotional intelligence. the g-factor. originality. emotion regulation.

cognitive emotional physical sensory intuitive

Self-awareness refers to the ability of people to

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A) harness emotions and employ them to improve their chances of being successful in whatever they are seeking to do. B) understand the types of emotions they are experiencing, acknowledge them, and express them naturally. C) block out any sensation of emotions as they move through life in pursuit of specific goals. D) recognize and understand the emotions that other people are feeling. E) be able to recover quickly from emotional experiences.

53) Jan, the manager at Direct, is a favorite with her employees because she has the ability to recognize and understand the emotions of her peers and subordinates. She interacts with all employees in a warm manner and is very approachable when her employees encounter problems. Which of the following characteristics does Jan possess?

A) B) C) D) E)

need for power other awareness emotion regulation emotional resilience need for achievement

54) Everyone has heard of a “sore loser,” but a “sore winner” is just as annoying. Both of these are examples of a person’s failure at the ________ facet of emotional intelligence.

A) B) C) D) E)

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self-awareness use of emotions locus of control other awareness emotion regulation

55) When Matt was driving to work, a car sped past him, and its passengers began throwing trash out of the car window. Although Matt was taken aback by this behavior, he was able to forget the incident and had soon regained his focus on his plan for the day. From the scenario, it can be concluded that Matt has a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

originality. other awareness. personal distress. emotional arousal. emotion regulation.

56) Which of the following types of emotional intelligence represents the degree to which people can harness emotions and employ them to improve their chances of being successful in their pursuits?

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

self-awareness other awareness use of emotions emotion regulation emotion resilience

Which of the following statements is true regarding emotional intelligence?

A) Emotional intelligence and cognitive intelligence are measures of the same ability. B) Emotional intelligence is a determinant of successful social functioning only. C) Emotional intelligence is vital as it is always aligned to the organization’s values. D) Emotional intelligence can sometimes compensate for a deficit in cognitive intelligence. E) Emotional intelligence focuses exclusively on understanding the emotions of others.

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58) Which of the following is an assessment that asks people about behaviors and preferences that reflect their emotional intelligence?

A) B) C) D) E)

Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test Scholastic Aptitude Test Google Labs Aptitude Test Emotional Quotient Inventory Differential Aptitude Test

59) Gus works in a lumber yard, and he has to throw heavy wooden posts up onto a conveyor. Gus has to use a high level of

A) B) C) D) E)

60)

explosive strength. dynamic strength. perceptual speed. flexibility. stamina.

Which of the following scenarios represents a worker using gross body equilibrium?

A) B) C) D)

Lora has to calculate changing distances as she tracks storms. Ponch has to stretch in order to perform safety inspections in tight crawlspaces. Keenan completes a daily twenty-mile hike as he patrols the perimeter of a park. Tanner balances on branches with a chainsaw when he trims dead limbs over power

lines. E) Hannah has to sprint to catch up with and tag the wild animals she is monitoring in a wetland.

61)

Strength refers to the

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A) B) C) D) E)

62)

ability to exert oneself over a period of time. degree to which the body is capable of exerting force. ability of the lungs and circulatory system to work efficiently. ability to synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs. capacity to keep the arms and hands steady while doing precise work.

Which of the following represent the three types of strengths?

A) B) C) D) E)

fine, gross, and manipulative static, dynamic, and explosive sensory, psychomotor, and reflexive flexible, dynamic, and sensory reflexive, dynamic, and static

63) Naomi works for a medium-sized farm. She and the other farmhands often have to lift heavy bales of hay into the back of a truck so they can feed the horses and cows. Naomi has a high level of

A) B) C) D) E)

static strength. response time. depth perception. perceptual speed. fine manipulative abilities.

64) Lars has applied for a job delivering packages for a major shipping company. He will most likely be tested for what abilities?

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A) B) C) D) E)

fine manipulative abilities strength and stamina hearing sensitivity other awareness originality

65) Glen is a lineman. He has to climb up telephone poles all day long. In order to do his job all day without becoming overly fatigued, Glen must have a high degree of ________ strength.

A) B) C) D) E)

static sensory dynamic response explosive

66) Greg is aiming to be the next national lumberjack champion, and much of his training is focused on preparing his body to exert short bursts of intense power to swing an axe. From the information provided, we can conclude that this aspect of Greg’s training focuses on

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

control movement abilities. fine manipulative abilities. explosive strength. extent flexibility. depth perception.

________ is important in jobs that require running, swimming, and climbing.

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A) B) C) D) E)

68)

Homeostasis Gross body equilibrium Stamina Flexibility Response orientation

When a job requires extreme ranges of motion, it involves a need for

A) B) C) D) E)

dynamic flexibility. extent flexibility. self-regulation. gross body equilibrium. explosive strength.

69) Which of the following demonstrates the difference between dynamic flexibility and extent flexibility?

A) Dynamic flexibility is required over short periods of time, while extent flexibility is required in jobs spread over a longer period of time. B) Dynamic flexibility involves fine motor movements, while extent flexibility requires gross motor movements. C) Dynamic flexibility is a type of physical ability, while extent flexibility is a type of sensory ability. D) Dynamic flexibility is seen in jobs that require repeated and quick bends, while extent flexibility is seen in jobs that require extreme ranges of motion. E) Dynamic flexibility is the quality of physical movement, while extent flexibility refers to the recognition of different sensory modalities.

70)

When a job requires reaching, stretching, and twisting, the employee will need

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A) B) C) D) E)

71)

gross body coordination. dynamic flexibility. extent flexibility. gross body equilibrium. stamina.

Gross body coordination refers to the ability to

A) synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs to do something while the whole body is in motion. B) maintain the balance of the body in unstable contexts or when the person has to change directions. C) lift, push, or pull very heavy objects using the hands, arms, legs, shoulders, or back. D) choose the right action quickly in response to several different signals. E) perceive colors and judge relative distances between things accurately.

72) The ability to maintain the balance of the body in unstable contexts or while changing directions refers to

A) B) C) D) E)

73) of

homeostasis. gross body equilibrium. extent flexibility. gross body coordination. dynamic flexibility.

Athletes who perform on balance beams or tightrope walkers must display a high degree

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A) B) C) D) E)

74)

gross body equilibrium. extent flexibility. perceptual speed. static strength. gross body coordination.

Which of the following is a physical ability?

A) B) C) D) E)

speed and flexibility of closure written expression oral expression speech recognition spatial orientation

75) Hans is one of the most skilled employees at Grand Time, which is a clock manufacturing company that preserves the traditional art of making grandfather clocks by hand. Being an expert, he can often be seen handling screwdrivers and tweezers making intricate designs and fitting in parts. This reflects Hans’s ability in the area of

A) B) C) D) E)

76)

fine manipulative abilities. gross body coordination. spatial orientation. dynamic flexibility. depth perception.

Sensory ability refers to the

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A) B) C) D) E)

ability to quickly respond to signaling information after it occurs. capabilities associated with vision and hearing. ability to synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs. ability of the body to bend, stretch, twist, and reach. ability to choose the right action quickly in response to several different signals.

77) Carlos could not pursue a pilot’s license because he lacked depth perception, which is ________ ability.

A) B) C) D) E)

78)

a spatial an emotional a sensory a perceptual a cognitive

Response time refers to the ability

A) that reflects how quickly an individual responds to signaling information after it occurs. B) C) D) E)

79)

to exert a short burst of energy to move a body or an object. to choose the right action quickly in response to several different signals. required to differentiate between sound pitches rapidly. to quickly bend, stretch, or twist the body.

Depth perception is the ability to

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A) B) C) D) E)

see details of an object both up close and far away. judge relative distances between things accurately. recognize objects from their outline silhouette. detect differences in shades. see well in low light.

80) When drilling a patient’s teeth, a dentist must have excellent ________, one of the psychomotor abilities.

A) B) C) D) E)

81)

response orientation gross body coordination static strength control movement abilities response time

________ is the ability to identify and understand the words spoken by another person.

A) B) C) D) E)

Hearing sensitivity Perceptual speed Speech recognition Auditory attention Oral expression

82) ________ is the ability to hear and discriminate sounds that vary in terms of loudness and pitch.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Auditory attention Hearing sensitivity Speech recognition Verbal comprehension Oral expression

83) Chet works in a loud factory with multiple machines running at the same time. Somehow, he is able to tell immediately when a machine needs maintenance by subtle differences in the sound it is making. Chet’s ability to focus on a single sound in the presence of many other sounds is termed

A) B) C) D) E)

84)

Which of the following is a psychomotor ability?

A) B) C) D) E)

85)

depth perception. auditory attention. speech recognition. problem sensitivity. verbal comprehension.

night vision auditory attention response orientation speech recognition depth perception

Which of the following is a sensory ability?

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A) B) C) D) E)

response time fine manipulative abilities response orientation control movement abilities depth perception

86) William works for a small firm with only enough money budgeted to use one test to help with hiring decisions. What kind of test would be the most generally beneficial for the company as the ability it tests is applicable to the most jobs?

A) B) C) D) E)

87)

general cognitive ability emotional stability sensory ability physical ability honesty

Which of the following scenarios shows the strongest predictor of job task performance?

A) B) C) D) E)

Lanay has a great deal of stamina. Jamie has excellent fine motor skills. Val is really good at sensing the emotions of others. Song received a perfect score on a cognitive ability test. Lou maintains an even temper when facing adverse situations.

88) Orlando needs to hire a worker for his medical supply company. The only information he has to go on are the SAT scores of three applicants. Nora scored a 1560, Charles scored a 1220, and Leon scored a 900. Based on the information he has, which person should Orlando hire and why?

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A) B) C) D)

Nora, because high cognitive ability correlates with high job performance Leon, because low cognitive ability correlates with high organizational commitment Nora, because high cognitive ability correlates with high organizational commitment Leon, because low cognitive ability correlates with a high potential to learn new

tasks E) Charles, because both high and low cognitive ability correlate with poor task performance

89)

________ ability is a strong predictor of task performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

Emotional General cognitive Spatial Psychomotor Sensory

90) The effects of general cognitive ability on job performance are most pronounced in the area of

A) B) C) D) E)

administrative skills. managerial capabilities. task performance. interpersonal functioning. affective commitment.

91) People who have higher ________ ability tend to be better at learning and decision making.

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A) B) C) D) E)

general cognitive emotional interpersonal physical motivational

92) Which of the following statements is not true of cognitive ability testing for academic performance?

A) Aside from SAT scores, certain tendencies such as working hard and staying organized play a role in grades earned in college. B) Students with higher SAT scores tend to have a higher likelihood of graduating. C) SAT scores are a reliable indicator of solid college performance but the same does not hold for GMAT scores and graduate school performance. D) Students with higher SAT scores tend to perform much better their freshman year of college. E) The GMAT is similar to the SAT in structure and content.

93)

Which of the following is true regarding individuals with high cognitive ability?

A) Individuals with high cognitive ability are not significantly better than others at task performance. B) Individuals with high cognitive ability also have significantly higher levels of organizational commitment than other employees. C) Testing to select employees with high cognitive abilities is widely discouraged and avoided as it discriminates between people. D) The relationship between high cognitive ability and task performance is observed in the academic context as well as in the work context. E) High cognitive ability tends to be equally correlated with the variables of task performance, citizenship behavior, and counterproductive behavior.

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94)

High cognitive ability has a strong correlation with increased

A) B) C) D) E)

95)

citizenship behaviors like helping a colleague. counterproductive behaviors like breaking office rules. affective, continuance, and normative commitment to the organization. task performance, especially in complex and demanding jobs. physical stamina and interpersonal functioning.

When testing cognitive ability, one of the most widely used tests is the

A) B) C) D) E)

Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test. Keirsey Temperament Sorter. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. NEO Five-factor Inventory. Myers-Briggs Type Inventory.

96) Fran wants to hire a diverse group of capable people to work at her brand new fitness studios. Unfortunately, many of the applicants Fran perceives as having good emotional intelligence and agreeable personalities (a plus for a fitness studio), do not score well on the cognitive ability test and she has to rule them out as a possible hire. What should Fran do to meet her goals?

A) ignore the test results because they are biased and under predict job performance for disadvantaged groups B) use a combination of tests measuring both cognitive abilities and non-cognitive traits such as emotional intelligence and personality C) hold off opening her studios until she finds enough people from these groups who do score well D) switch to a different general cognitive ability test E) allow people in these groups to cheat so they can earn the scores she is looking for

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97) Provided that their employers followed the recommended guidelines, which of the following people had to earn the highest Wonderlic score to earn his or her job?

A) B) C) D) E)

Kelsey, a mechanical engineer Milton, a machine operator Bartholomew, a firefighter Woodrow, an attorney Dani, a cashier

98) Ability refers to the relatively stable capabilities people have to perform a particular range of different but related activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The natural level of a given ability generally limits how much a person can improve that ability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Abilities can be modified over time, unlike skills, which remain stable over one’s lifetime. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Abilities are a function of both genes and the environment.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Differences in cognitive abilities due to the environment become more apparent as people get older. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Malnutrition, exposure to toxins such as lead, and prenatal exposure to alcohol are some risk factors related to low cognitive abilities. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Written expression is the ability to understand written words and sentences. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Quantitative ability includes the mathematical capabilities of number facility and mathematical reasoning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Anesthesiology is an area in which professionals require a great degree of problem sensitivity. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

107) Speed and flexibility of closure is making sense of information and finding patterns. This is a specific facet of the reasoning type of cognitive ability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Detectives found two sets of skid marks and tire tracks at the accident scene. More importantly, the single car on the scene was white but there were marks of blue paint in the car’s impact zone. A headlight left behind at the scene identified the second car as a Ford. The detectives were now looking for a blue Ford with damage to the front of the car. This conclusion is an example of deductive reasoning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Hannah’s manager just took credit for her hard work—again! She is so angry she throws her coffee cup across her office, sends off an angry e-mail to a client, and is rude to her assistant for the rest of the day. Hannah demonstrates a low level of “use of emotions,” one of the factors in emotional intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Evidence exists that emotional intelligence is positively correlated with counterproductive behaviors such as gossiping, harassment, and theft. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) The Emotional Quotient Inventory has been criticized for measuring personality traits, rather than actual abilities. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Stamina is involved whenever the nature of the physical activity causes the heart rate to climb and the depth and rate of breathing to increase for prolonged periods of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Gross body coordination refers to the ability to synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs to do something while the whole body is in motion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) The ability to focus on a single sound in the presence of many other sounds is referred to as auditory attention. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Scores on cognitive ability tests have a strong negative correlation with measures of performance across different types of jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Cognitive ability tends to be equally correlated with citizenship behavior and task performance. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 36

117)

Cognitive ability tests are ideal for helping managers decide which candidate to hire. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH10

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1) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how environment can influence cognitive abilities. A sample answer follows.For abilities that are more cognitive in nature, it appears that genes and the environment play roughly equal roles. However, differences in cognitive abilities due to the environment become less apparent as people get older, and this may be especially true for the effect of the family environment. As an example, though neglect, abuse, and deprivation may have a negative impact on how children fare on standardized intelligence tests, that negative impact does not tend to carry over into adulthood. Beyond the family situation, there are some other factors in the environment that affect cognitive ability. For instance, the quantity of schooling may be important because it provides opportunities for people to develop knowledge and critical thinking skills. There is also evidence that our choice of occupations may influence our cognitive abilities. Complex work develops and exercises our minds, which promotes higher performance on intelligence tests. Finally, certain biological factors are known to affect cognitive abilities negatively during childhood. Examples include malnutrition, exposure to toxins such as lead, and prenatal exposure to alcohol. In fact, over the last century average scores on standardized intelligence tests have risen significantly in industrialized countries as the quality and availability of education and health factors have improved, and the complexity of life has increased.My cousin had parents who never taught him to study. The school said he was a couple years behind, and he failed everything. When he got older and moved in with his grandpa, he got a job that offered a training program, went to college, and now has a graduate degree.

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2) Quantitative ability refers to two types of mathematical capabilities. The first is number facility, which is the capability to do simple math operations (adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing). The second is mathematical reasoning, which refers to the ability to choose and apply formulas to solve problems that involve numbers. Although number facility may be necessary to solve this problem, mathematical reasoning may be important if a person needs to know which formulas to apply. 3) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the differences between speed and flexibility of closure and perceptual speed. A sample answer follows.Perceptual ability refers to being able to perceive, understand, and recall patterns of information. There are two facets to perceptual ability: speed and flexibility of closure and perceptual speed. Speed and flexibility of closure refers to being able to pick out a pattern of information quickly in the presence of distracting information, even without all the information present. People who work for the CIA likely need speed and flexibility of closure to break secret codes. Perceptual speed refers to being able to examine and compare numbers, letters, and objects quickly. Effectiveness in jobs in which people need to proofread documents, sort things, or categorize objects depends a lot on perceptual speed.

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4) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the four types of reasoning abilities and when they should be applied. A sample answer follows. Reasoning ability is actually a diverse set of abilities associated with sensing and solving problems using insight, rules, and logic. • Problem sensitivity is the ability to sense that there is a problem right now or likely to be one in the near future. Anesthesiology is a great example of a job for which problem sensitivity is crucial • Deductive reasoning refers to the ability to use general rules to solve problems, and it is important in any job in which people are presented with a set of facts that need to be applied to make effective decisions. The job of a judge requires deductive reasoning • Inductive reasoning refers to the ability to consider several specific pieces of information and then reach a more general conclusion regarding how those pieces are related. Inductive reasoning is crucial for police officers and detectives. • Originality refers to the ability to develop clever and novel ways to solve problems. Inventors and designers frequently use originality in their jobs. Lindsay will use problem sensitivity to detect and address the upcoming problems caused by overworking the employees. She will use deductive reasoning to make sure George is terminated according to proper procedure. She will use inductive reasoning to investigate and solve the problem of the missing supplies. Finally, she will use originality to address the packaging situation.

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5) Emotional abilities refer to type of abilities that influence the degree to which people tend to be effective in social situations regardless of their level of other cognitive abilities. Emotional intelligence is defined in terms of four different but related abilities: • Self-awareness refers to the ability of an individual to understand the types of emotions he or she is experiencing, the willingness to acknowledge them, and the capability to express them naturally. • Other awareness refers to a person’s ability to recognize and understand the emotions that other people are feeling. People who are high in this aspect of emotional intelligence are not only sensitive to the feelings of others but can also anticipate the emotions that people will experience in different situations. • Emotion regulation refers to being able to recover quickly from emotional experiences. • Use of emotions reflects the degree to which people can harness emotions and employ them to improve their chances of being successful in whatever they are seeking to do. When my high school softball team was playing in a tournament, I did not get on base a single time. On the way home, I was pretty mad at myself for letting the team down. My mom asked if I was upset about losing the tournament and I told her I was more upset at myself for failing to get a hit to help the team. I worked on batting practice every day for the next week until I felt more confident in the batter’s box. Telling my mom about my disappointment in my hitting was an example of self-awareness.

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6) The key areas of physical ability that have significant impact in a career in dancing could be stamina, flexibility, and coordination. Stamina involves being able to exert oneself over a period of time without the circulatory system giving out. Stamina comes into play whenever the nature of the physical activity causes the heart rate to climb and the depth and rate of breathing to increase for prolonged periods of time. Flexibility refers to the ability to bend, stretch, twist, or reach. When a job requires extreme ranges of motion, the type of flexibility involved is called extent flexibility. When a job requires repeated and somewhat quick bends, stretches, twists, or reaches, the type of flexibility involved is called dynamic flexibility. In addition to flexibility, gross body coordination and gross body equilibrium may be important in some jobs. Gross body coordination refers to the ability to synchronize the movements of the body, arms, and legs to do something while the whole body is in motion. In contrast, gross body equilibrium involves the ability to maintain the balance of the body in unstable contexts or when the person has to change directions.

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7) The three types of strength are static, explosive, and dynamic. Although jobs requiring physical strength may vary as to which category is important, there are also many jobs that require all three categories. • Static strength refers to the ability to lift, push, or pull very heavy objects using the hands, arms, legs, shoulders, or back. Static strength is involved in jobs in which people need to lift objects like boxes, equipment, machine parts, and heavy tools. • With explosive strength, people exert short bursts of energy to move the body or an object. Employees who are required to run, jump, or throw things at work depend on their explosive strength to be effective. • Dynamic strength refers to the ability to exert force for a prolonged period of time without becoming overly fatigued and giving out. Dynamic strength is involved in jobs in which employees have to climb ropes or ladders or pull themselves up onto platforms.

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8) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of sensory ability and how it applies to Benson’s job. A sample answer follows.Sensory ability refers to capabilities associated with vision and hearing. Examples of important visual abilities include the ability to see things up close and at a distance (near and far vision) or in low light contexts (night vision), as well as the ability to perceive colors and judge relative distances between things accurately (visual color discrimination and depth perception). There are many different jobs that emphasize only one or two of these visual abilities. For example, whereas effectiveness as a watch repairer depends on good near vision, effectiveness as an interior designer depends on visual color discrimination. However, there are other jobs in which effectiveness might depend on almost all categories of visual abilities. A fighter pilot needs near vision to read instruments and checklists, far vision and depth perception to see enemy targets and landmarks, night vision to conduct operations in low light, and visual color discrimination to interpret information from warning lights and computer readouts correctly. Abilities related to hearing, also referred to as auditory abilities, include the capability to hear and discriminate sounds that vary in terms of loudness and pitch (hearing sensitivity), being able to focus on a single sound in the presence of many other sounds (auditory attention), and the ability to identify and understand the speech of another person (speech recognition).Benson must be able to notice small details about people, use long-range vision in all types of lighting conditions to monitor the facility, and scrutinize identification cards and other documents. He needs to listen to conversations and listen for sounds like wild animals, weather, or anything out of the ordinary that may pose a security threat.

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9) Substantial research linking general cognitive ability to job performance exists. General cognitive ability is a strong predictor of job performance—in particular, the task performance aspect. Of all the variables, none has a stronger correlation with task performance than general cognitive ability. Thousands of organizations, many of which are quite well known, assess cognitive ability in efforts to select the best candidates available for specific jobs. The use of cognitive ability tests for this purpose appears to be quite reasonable, given that scores on such tests have a strong positive correlation with measures of performance across different types of jobs. 10) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the Wonderlic. A sample answer follows.All companies are interested in hiring employees who have high cognitive ability, and applicants for jobs in many of these companies are given a cognitive ability test as part of the selection process. One of the most widely used tests is the Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test, a 12-minute test of general cognitive ability that consists of 50 questions. It has been in use for several decades now and has been given to more than 120 million people by thousands of organizations. People who take the test receive one point for each correct response, and those points are summed to give a total score that can be used as a basis for selecting people for different jobs. The Wonderlic User’s Manual offers recommendations for minimum passing scores for different job families. Terry will have to figure out number patterns, do mathematical calculations, and answer “if, then” questions. 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B Version 1

16) D 17) E 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) E 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) E 43) C 44) B 45) C Version 1

46) D 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) B 54) E 55) E 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) D 75) A Version 1

76) B 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) E 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) C 93) D 94) D 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE Version 1

106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE 117) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) “All teams are groups, but not all groups are teams.” Is this statement true? What is the difference between a “group” and a “team”?

2) Briefly describe the five types of teams and provide an example of each. Also briefly describe a virtual team.

Summarize the five-stage progression model of team development.

4) Define task interdependence. Briefly describe the four primary types of task interdependence.

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5) Differentiate between goal interdependence and outcome interdependence. How can goal interdependence be increased? What are the possible effects of higher outcome interdependence?

Identify and briefly describe the five aspects of team composition.

How does diversity improve the ability of groups to solve problems and be successful?

8) Harold just set up teams in his office, making sure to use approximately equal numbers of males and females and old and young workers within each team. He also tried to make sure each team had a blend of ethnicities. Harold explained to the other managers that he had done a great job of creating diversity, but Kim told him he had only created surface-level diversity, not deeplevel diversity. Differentiate between surface-level diversity and deep-level diversity and determine if Kim is correct.

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9) Steel Bar Metalworks is going to implement two new teams in their organization. One team will work on the routine tasks of the organization, such as ordering supplies, scheduling shifts, and inspecting facilities. The other team will be doing complex engineering work related to designing new equipment and products. Explain how task interdependence is likely to influence performance in each of these teams.

10) High-performing employees often feel the low-performing employees are rewarded more than they deserve in teams with high outcome interdependence. What could be a possible solution for designing a reward system that will keep all employees happy?

11) Alyssa works for an engineering firm that has been hired to design and supervise the construction of a highway bridge over a major river. The bridge will be a unique design, incorporating complex designs that will likely never be duplicated. How should Alyssa deal with designing and overseeing the building of the bridge?

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A) She should build a team of reliable workers who work well together and like being around each other. B) She should create a permanent team of management executives to monitor this and all projects her firm accepts. C) She should reward employees who have been with the company the longest with the opportunity to join the team. D) She should assemble a permanent, full-time group of production workers to produce the parts needed for the bridge. E) She should gather a group of people with a wide range of specialized talents to work on the bridge until it is completed.

12) Which of the following examples, each occurring about midway through a project, demonstrates punctuated equilibrium?

A) Graden finally feels comfortable enough with his role to slip into a mundane routine. B) Brady realizes his team is failing and asks his supervisors for permission to disband it. C) Sunny illuminates long festering resentments within the team and progress comes to a standstill. D) Phyllis and her teammates realize they need to quit messing around and get busy to meet their deadline. E) Blaine and her associates have worked ahead, so they can relax and do nothing for the duration of the project.

13)

Which of the following is an example of a function of an action team?

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A) Art and Raul lead the rescue effort when their company’s coal mine collapses. B) Shelly and Jenny divide the tasks associated with assembling the refrigerators on their line. C) James and Michael form a committee to purchase new busses for the school corporation. D) Bruce and Brad work to improve the durability of the battery covers their company makes. E) Han and Otto correspond via electronic means to coordinate product development in two countries.

14)

Which of the following is true of teams?

A) A team consists of two or more people who work independently, with distinct goals and strategies. B) A team works interdependently over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose. C) Groups are formed with a specific purpose in mind, while teams do not have a specific goal. D) The members of a team operate relatively independently of each other, and other members are not essential to their completion of goals. E) Interactions among members within teams are more personal and informal than interactions between people in groups.

15)

Teams differ from groups because

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A) teams have no limits on the number of members, while groups have a restricted membership. B) members of teams work independently of each other, while those in groups show greater dependence on each other. C) members of teams work toward individual goals that may or may not be related, while groups have a common goal. D) members of teams have a specific task-related purpose, while groups do not. E) teams have a no fixed duration, while groups last only for a specific amount of time.

16) Mindy worked with a team, one from each department, that readied acquisition requests. The work was easy enough, but important. She also worked on a union liaison team handling any grievances that arose. Mindy thought that this work was very important and arranged her schedule around team meetings. Mindy was dedicated to both of these positions but the team she really enjoyed was the morale team. Many of the team members met for lunch every day and the discussion always centered on how they could boost morale. Mindy was involved in

A) B) C) D) E)

17)

punctuated equilibrium. multiple team membership. disjunctive tasks. hybrid outcome interdependence. a similarity-attraction approach.

An example of a work team would be a

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A) band traveling around the country for six months, playing shows at different venues. B) group of four workers making a specific part on the production line of an automobile factory. C) team that oversees the functioning of all the teams in an organization and coordinates activities among teams. D) team composed of interior designers, architects, and builders involved in designing and creating the layout of a new hotel. E) quality control team at a factory that oversees the quality of the good produced and recommends changes in production techniques.

18) While ________ teams focus on the accomplishment of core operational-level production and service tasks, ________ teams focus on integrating the activities of subunits across business functions.

A) B) C) D) E)

management; work action; work parallel; project project; work work; management

19) Which of the following types of teams generally requires a full-time commitment from team members?

A) B) C) D) E)

20)

a work team an action team a project team a management team a parallel team

An example of a management team would be a

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A) band traveling around the country for six months, playing shows at different venues. B) group of four workers making a specific part on the production line of an automobile factory. C) team that oversees the functioning of all the teams in an organization and coordinates activities among teams. D) team composed of interior designers, architects, and builders involved in designing and creating the layout of a new hotel. E) quality control team at a factory that oversees the quality of the goods produced and recommends changes in production techniques.

21)

An action team could take the form of a

A) band traveling around the country for six months, playing shows at different venues. B) group of four workers making a specific part on the production line of an automobile factory. C) team that oversees the functioning of all the teams in an organization and coordinates activities among teams. D) team composed of interior designers, architects, and builders involved in designing and creating the layout of a new hotel. E) quality control team at a factory that oversees the quality of the goods produced and recommends changes in production techniques.

22) Willie’s Beverage Bottlers formed several teams to plan and execute the 150th anniversary celebrations of the company. Over a period of two months, the teams organized events, oversaw logistics, and coordinated employee activities. The events that were planned were on a large scale and required a lot of input from the managers and production workers. These are examples of ________ teams.

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A) B) C) D) E)

work action project parallel management

23) Amy, Allyson, and Kelly work in different teams at Oaktown Powersports. Amy’s team ensures that all the raw materials, machinery, tools, and other production equipment are available to employees around the clock. Any procurement needs have to be addressed to Amy, who also takes part in high-level decisions regarding the number of units to be produced, exported, and so on. Allyson works as part of a team of eight members who concentrate on the day-to-day production; they also ensure that quality checks are done and inspect each other’s work. Kelly is the operations manager, who works for five hours in the production department and spends the rest of her time assisting management as an internal consultant on manufacturing issues. Her input is crucial in improving the production process.Allyson is part of a(n) ________ team.

A) B) C) D) E)

work action project parallel management

24) Amy, Allyson, and Kelly work on different teams at Oaktown Powersports. Amy’s team ensures that all the raw materials, machinery, tools, and other production equipment are available to employees around the clock. Any procurement needs have to be addressed to Amy, who also takes part in high-level decisions regarding the number of units to be produced, exported, and so on. Allyson works as part of a team of eight members who concentrate on the day-to-day production; they also ensure that quality checks are done and inspect each other’s work. Kelly is the operations manager, who works for five hours in the production department and spends the rest of her time assisting management as an internal consultant on manufacturing issues. Her input is crucial in improving the production process.Kelly is part of a(n) ________ team.

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A) B) C) D) E)

work action project parallel management

25) Amy, Allyson, and Kelly work in different teams at Oaktown Powersports. Amy’s team ensures that all the raw materials, machinery, tools, and other production equipment are available to employees around the clock. Any procurement needs have to be addressed to Amy, who also takes part in high-level decisions regarding the number of units to be produced, exported, and so on. Allyson works as part of a team of eight members who concentrate on the day-to-day production; they also ensure that quality checks are done and inspect each other’s work. Kelly is the operations manager, who works for five hours in the production department and spends the rest of her time assisting management as an internal consultant on manufacturing issues. Her input is crucial in improving the production process.Amy is part of a(n) ________ team.

A) B) C) D) E)

work action project parallel management

26) Which of the following teams focuses on providing recommendations and resolving issues?

A) B) C) D) E)

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work teams management teams parallel teams action teams project teams

27) A team was formed to coordinate the impending ISO accreditation process for a company over a period of six months. The team members are drawn from various departments. Which of the following types of teams does this most exemplify?

A) B) C) D) E)

parallel teams management teams work teams action teams project teams

28) Quality circles, which consist of individuals who normally perform core production tasks but also meet regularly to identify production-related problems and opportunities for improvement, are an example of ________ teams.

A) B) C) D) E)

management parallel project action work

29) A planning team composed of engineers, architects, designers, and builders that is charged with designing a suburban town center is a(n) ________ team.

A) B) C) D) E)

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parallel action work project management

30)

A musical group and a surgical team are examples of ________ teams.

A) B) C) D) E)

parallel project management action work

31) Some types of ________ teams work together for an extended period of time, while other teams of the same type may stay together only as long as the task takes to complete.

A) B) C) D) E)

management parallel action work project

32) Work at Sanitech is accomplished continuously because once members of a team in one country have finished their workday, they electronically hand off the work to team members in another country who have just arrived at their workplace. Sanitech is utilizing a(n) ________ workflow.

A) B) C) D) E)

off-shoring cross-docking norming follow-the-sun time-to-market

33) Which of the following represents the predictable sequence of stages in team development?

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A) B) C) D) E)

performing, forming, norming, storming, and adjourning forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning norming, forming, performing, storming, and adjourning norming, forming, storming, performing, and adjourning storming, norming, performing, forming, and adjourning

34) Marilyn was just hired to work at a college administration office. She is not exactly sure what she is supposed to be doing or who to ask when she has a question. She also would like to know how many breaks she can take, and if she can leave for lunch. Marilyn is in the ________ stage of team development.

A) B) C) D) E)

forming norming storming adjourning performing

35) Jimmy and Beth have both been assigned to a team to choose how to dispose of waste. Jimmy has long believed the company should create its own waste disposal department, and Beth has long believed they should hire an outside vendor to handle it. They both cut each other off in meetings, refuse to listen to each other, and have made some people on the team choose sides and feel resentment toward other members. Jimmy and Beth are on a team in the ________ stage of team development.

A) B) C) D) E)

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forming norming storming adjourning performing

36) Wren and Zola are on a team that has been assigned to cut production costs in an electronic component production facility. For several months, they have argued and made no progress. This morning, their supervisor told them that she expected the team to have a viable plan within three weeks. Wren and Zola realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals, and consequently, they begin to cooperate with one another. Wren and Zola are in the ________ stage of team development.

A) B) C) D) E)

37)

forming norming storming projecting performing

In the performing stage of team development, members

A) remain committed to ideas they bring with them to the team. B) orient themselves by trying to understand their boundaries in the team. C) are comfortable working within their roles, and the team makes progress toward goals. D) experience anxiety and other emotions as they disengage and ultimately separate from the team. E) realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals, and consequently, they begin to cooperate.

38) Alfred, Mario, and Lydia have worked together on the same team for three years. The company has just hired a new personnel director at their facility. The new director recommends a total restructuring of all jobs, including teams. Alfred is experiencing anxiety, Lydia is angry, and Mario is relieved as they all realize they must soon disengage and ultimately separate from the team. Alfred, Mario, and Lydia are in the ________ stage of team development.

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A) B) C) D) E)

39)

forming norming storming adjourning performing

Which of the following statements is true?

A) All teams go through the stages of team development. B) Adjourning is most significant for teams that have not been together long. C) For action teams with clear expectations, the developmental sequence is less applicable. D) Punctuated equilibrium takes place during the adjourning stage. E) Project teams that change their approach at the midway point of a project tend to fail.

40)

Which of the following statements is true of the stages of team development?

A) During the forming stage, members remain committed to ideas they bring with them to the team. B) Not every team has to progress through the sequence of team development. C) Dissolving a project team is likely to trigger greater anxiety and stronger emotions than disbanding a work team. D) During the performing stage, members realize they need to work together to accomplish their goals and begin to cooperate. E) During the norming stage, members are comfortable working within their roles, and the team progresses toward its goals.

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41) Donovan manages a warehouse with over 1,000 associates performing a variety of tasks. After walking through the building talking to his employees, he is startled to learn that very few of the workers share any sense of common goals within teams. He notes a huge variety in what people believe they are trying to accomplish. How can Donovan best address this issue and help his work force find some common goals?

A) B) C) D)

by dismantling the teams so he can make one goal for the entire facility by instructing his teams to create mission statements with clearly defined goals by making all employees trade jobs for several weeks so they have more in common by increasing the dependence of the teams on each other so all tasks share common

goals E) by giving each worker a set amount of time to find out what their goals should be or face discipline

42) Every day at Coat Tech, Bill sands down cars and then Brian removes the dust. Next, Loni sprays primer on them, and Katie sprays paint and a topcoat on them. Finally, Lyle dries the cars and polishes them. Each person is the best team member at performing the job he or she does. Coat Tech’s workers have ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

reciprocal pooled comprehensive coordinated sequential

43) Charles is an accountant at a large firm. His boss has instituted a plan designed to create high levels of task interdependence. Which of the following is an example of a trade-off resulting from this plan?

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A) B) C) D) E)

The team will be less able to adapt to new situations. Charles will have less opportunity to interact with coworkers. Charles will have less time to complete tasks he is responsible for as an individual. Less knowledge will be shared among workers. Fewer people will understand how to do tasks outside their job description.

44) Which of the following provides an example of a situation with high goal interdependence?

A) and retire. B) report. C) D) E)

Bailey is just coasting at work until she can get her pension in a couple more years Three members of Charlene’s team have created different versions of a financial Larry’s team has developed a mission statement within a week of its formation. Ellen wants her team to expand the store, and Jay says it is already too big. Xander’s team members are paid for their individual contributions.

45) ________ is the degree to which team members interact with and rely on other team members for the information, materials, and resources needed to accomplish work for the team.

A) B) C) D) E)

Task interdependence Goal interdependence Deep-level diversity Outcome interdependence Surface-level diversity

46) The type of task interdependence with the lowest degree of required coordination among team members is ________ interdependence.

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A) B) C) D) E)

comprehensive sequential pooled reciprocal response

47) Terry led a team of strawberry pickers who traveled from field to field and hired out to local farmers. Each member of the team loaded their basket with berries and deposited the berries into containers in the back of a truck. At the end of the day, Terry received payment for the total number of containers picked and he redistributed the money to team members. This arrangement is a form of ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

comprehensive pooled sequential reciprocal response

48) Parkdale Windows utilizes a classic assembly line in manufacturing its window components. Which type of interdependence is depicted?

A) B) C) D) E)

pooled response sequential reciprocal comprehensive

49) Member 1 → Member 2 → Member 3 → Member 4 → OutputWhich type of interdependence is represented by this diagram?

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A) B) C) D) E)

pooled reciprocal response comprehensive sequential

50) Total Tone Fitness has structured its employee teams so that members interact with a subset of other members to complete the team’s work. Total Tone uses ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

linear pooled sequential reciprocal comprehensive

51) The highest level of interaction and coordination among members is required in ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

comprehensive sequential pooled reciprocal linear

52) As the level of task interdependence ________, members must spend ________ amounts of time communicating and coordinating with other members to complete tasks.

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A) B) C) D) E)

decreases; similar increases; increasing increases; decreasing decreases; increasing remains the same; increasing

53) A high degree of ________ interdependence exists when team members share in the rewards that the team earns.

A) B) C) D) E)

task goal sequential outcome reciprocal

54) When team members have a shared vision and align with that vision, the team is said to have a high degree of ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

task outcome sequential goal reciprocal

55) When creating a mission statement, it should be evaluated using four criteria. Which of the following answer options is not one of those criteria?

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A) B) C) D) E)

56)

challenge transparency meaningfulness realistic focus

To assure a high level of goal interdependence, a team should have

A) B) C) D) E)

a formalized mission statement. an organizational chart. clear expectations. explicitly assigned roles. high outcome interdependence.

57) In NCAA College Football, the Heisman Trophy is given to the top player, without regard to the performance of the player’s team. The award could go to a player whose team does not even reach the playoffs. This award is an example of ________ interdependence.

A) B) C) D) E)

low task low goal high task low outcome high outcome

58) High ________ interdependence implies that team members depend on the performance of other team members for the rewards that they receive.

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A) B) C) D) E)

comprehensive reciprocal goal outcome sequential

59) In team functions in the past at Bonnie’s Barn, a retailer that sells country-themed décor, several employees have consistently displayed certain behaviors. Allie has always motivated the teams to do better. Gary has always challenged the status quo. Thor has performed routine tasks to keep things rolling. Erin has constructively challenged the team to consider different points of view. Billy has proposed new ideas. Bonnie, the company owner, is assembling a team for a project where all of the decisions have high stakes. Which of the previously mentioned employees would likely be the most valuable for Bonnie to add to this particular team?

A) B) C) D) E)

60)

Allie Billy Gary Thor Erin

Which of the following examples depicts someone acting in an individualistic role?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Louie lays out goals the team should focus on. Jason motivates people to beat last year’s performance. Terri gives a hostile look to Reva when she shares an idea. Faron asks Greg to calm down when Cindy disagrees with him. Sam asks probing questions to challenge obvious flaws in the team’s plans.

61) At Bark Shape industries, each employee has a workspace in which to debark logs used to make rustic homes and patio furniture. The policy is that everyone on a team must remain at his or her workstation until everyone has secured the logs they were working on. At the end of the shift, everyone on team C is ready to go home, but they are waiting on Felipe, who still has not secured his logs. Exceeding the time allocated in a shift hurts the production rating of a team. Team C is witnessing a(n) ________ task.

A) B) C) D) E)

conjunctive disjunctive subtractive additive virtual

62) Francisco has been given a detailed explanation of the behavior he is expected to display in various contexts as an associate at Desmond’s Dock, a seafood distributor. Francisco has been given a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

63)

role. goal. value. belief. ability.

Which of the following statements accurately describes leader-staff teams ?

A) The members have the ability to create and choose their own tasks. B) The responsibilities of the leader and the rest of the team are distinct. C) The members have no latitude with respect to the behaviors they exhibit. D) The members are bound to follow their duties and have no scope to improve their performance. E) The team makes decisions for the leader to execute and directs and controls the leader’s actions.

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64) Bambi serves as a member of a team responsible for reviewing all of the company’s facilities to make sure they are making the best use of the available space. Whenever someone suggest that some aspect of the current configuration is working fine, Bambi challenges the status quo with constructive alternative views. Bambi has assumed the role of

A) B) C) D) E)

65)

slacker. blocker. follower. compromiser. devil’s advocate.

The team-building role of ________ encourages participation from teammates.

A) B) C) D) E)

compromiser gatekeeper-expediter harmonizer encourager follower

66) Which of the following roles refers to behaviors that influence the quality of the team’s social climate rather than work?

A) B) C) D) E)

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team task roles team building roles inferential roles individualistic roles thematic roles

67) Emilee is frequently hostile to other team members, cynical about the goals of the team and others’ engagement in the project, and sometimes disagrees and stubbornly blocks progress “just because.” Her behavior often leaves other team members feeling hopeless or tired. Emilee’s behavior reflects a(n) ________ role.

A) B) C) D) E)

68)

devil’s advocate individualistic team-building gatekeeper team task

Individualistic role behaviors

A) directly facilitate the accomplishment of team tasks. B) focus on activities that benefit the team as a whole rather than the separate team members. C) include the roles of harmonizer and the encourager. D) foster negative feelings among team members and hinder a team’s ability to perform effectively. E) are particularly important in team contexts in which decisions are “high stakes” in nature.

69)

Which of the following is a team-building role?

A) B) C) D) E)

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initiator-contributor orienter energizer procedural-technician compromiser

70)

Which of the following is an example of a team-building role?

A) B) C) D) E)

71) role?

Which of the following is an example of a team task role rather than an individualistic

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

self-confessor energizer standard-setter procedural-technician coordinator

aggressor recognition seeker devil’s advocate dominator blocker

Which of the following statements about team and individualistic roles is true?

A) B) C) D) E)

An aggressor manipulates team members for personal control. A standard-setter expresses goals for the team to achieve. A gatekeeper offers challenges to the team’s status quo. A slacker brags and calls attention to him- or herself. A dominator is one who encourages participation from teammates.

73) When Mia performs day-to-day tasks needed to keep her team moving forward, she is performing the role of a(n)

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A) B) C) D) E)

orienter. energizer. compromiser. initiator-contributor. procedural-technician.

74) In tasks with an objectively verifiable best solution, the member who possesses the highest level of the ability relevant to the task will have the most influence on the effectiveness of the team. These types of tasks are ________ tasks.

A) B) C) D) E)

additive conjunctive subjunctive disjunctive indicative

75) Layla participated in a problem-solving quiz competition among teams of coworkers. Because Layla was the most familiar with the types of problems on her quiz, her team’s performance depended largely on Layla’s performance. What is the type of task represented by the quiz competition?

A) B) C) D) E)

additive disjunctive conjunctive surface-level multiplicative

76) Which of the following statements concerning the abilities or personalities of individual team members and team performance is correct?

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A) A limited number of extraverts on a team is beneficial to both the social climate of the group as well as team effectiveness. B) Team members with a high degree of agreeableness are likely to play the devil’s advocate role, decreasing performance. C) A team full of highly agreeable members is the most effective team. D) The natural reaction to a low conscientiousness team member is to simply avoid them, increasing effectiveness. E) Extraverts are most efficient at individualistic roles, increasing team performance.

77) Tasks for which the contributions resulting from the abilities of every member are considered in total to determine team performance are ________ tasks.

A) B) C) D) E)

conjunctive subjunctive disjunctive indicative additive

78) Trent loves working on the new engineering team. Everyone is so friendly, and there is never any bitterness or conflict. Trent is sure they will come up with the most innovative designs ever. Is Trent right?

A) Maybe, but only as long as there are a majority of narcissists participating on the team. B) Yes, but only if all the team members also demonstrate rather high levels of neuroticism. C) No. Teams must have dissenters, questioners, and confrontational individuals in order to succeed. D) Yes. The absolute best makeup for a team is to have all members demonstrate high levels of agreeableness. E) Maybe, but the team members may be so focused on creating harmony, they may endanger task accomplishment.

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79)

Which of the following observations about member conscientiousness is true?

A) A team member with low conscientiousness tends to be dependable and works hard to achieve team goals. B) Correcting a team member who has high conscientiousness will result in interpersonal conflicts. C) A team member with low conscientiousness will have a positive effect on other team members. D) A team member who has low conscientiousness helps other team members to accomplish work responsibilities. E) A team with high conscientiousness will be more productive than a team with even one member with low conscientiousness.

80) Milo has assembled a diverse team of leaders to carry out major initiatives within his company. Milo has quickly noticed that the wide variety of viewpoints shared by team members has made it hard for the team to reach any goals. How can Milo address this problem?

A) B) C) D) E)

instruct the team to reflect on its goals and progress encourage freedom of expression within the team setting eliminate introverted and disagreeable members from the team try to avoid overemphasizing the importance of tasks and procedures make sure every team member participates and has input in each discussion

81) Halle is on a team that has just been formed. There are people of a wide variety of ages and ethnicities, and there is an even blend of men and women. Halle’s team demonstrates

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A) B) C) D) E)

deep-level diversity. surface-level diversity. high task interdependence. conjunctive task completion. low outcome interdependence.

82) Elizabeth is on the same team as Reece, but she never interacts with him because she knows they are on opposite sides of the political ideological spectrum. As a result, their team generates few ideas to help the company. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

83)

deep-level diversity. the role of devil’s advocate. comprehensive interdependence. the similarity-attraction approach to diversity. the value in diversity problem-solving approach.

According to the value in diversity problem-solving approach

A) diversity in teams is beneficial because it provides for a larger pool of knowledge from which a team can draw as it carries out its work. B) diversity in teams is not beneficial if the problems to be solved are unfamiliar to the team members. C) surface-level diversity is less likely to lead to team cohesion than deep-level diversity is. D) deep-level diversity in teams is less likely to lead to productive outcomes than surface-level diversity is. E) diversity in teams is beneficial because it allows the individual team members to accept differences between people and work together.

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84) One complication is that ________ often occur in diverse groups, whereby informal subgroups develop based on similarity in surface-level attributes such as gender or other characteristics.

A) B) C) D) E)

punctuated equilibriums fault lines leader-staff teams pooled interdependencies parallel teams

85) ________ diversity refers to diversity regarding observable attributes such as race, ethnicity, sex, and age.

A) B) C) D) E)

Disjunctive Additive Surface-level Conjunctive Deep-level

86) ________ diversity refers to diversity with respect to attributes that are less easy to observe initially but that can be inferred after more direct experience.

A) B) C) D) E)

87)

Disjunctive Similarity-attraction Surface-level Conjunctive Deep-level

Deep-level diversity has positive effects on team creativity when

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A) B) C) D) E)

team members are instructed to take the perspective of their teammates. all team members are highly conscientious. there are no team members exhibiting individualistic roles. team size is more than 15 people. there are fewer than three fault lines in the team.

88) Brenda wants to create teams in her office that perform well and have members who are dedicated to their team. What can she do to try to make performance and commitment as high as possible within her teams?

A) B) C) D) E)

simplify the types of tasks that team members must complete increase opportunities for team members to work independently increase the complexity of the tasks team members must complete require team members to share all information even if it seems unnecessary eliminate concrete guidelines for task completion and procedures within the team

89) Sam and Ernie have been friends since high school. They both like designing landscapes and work well together. They also enjoy working with Larry, a man who is a bit older than them and the third member of their landscaping design team. Often, any one of them can be heard saying he could do landscape design with his friends forever. This team has

A) B) C) D) E)

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low viability. high viability. deep-level diversity. individualistic roles. surface-level diversity.

90) The concern in this chapter is which team characteristics influence team effectiveness. When measuring team effectiveness, two aspects are considered important: ________, which may include metrics such as the quantity and quality of output, and ________, sometimes called team commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

team composition; team size task interdependence; goal interdependence norming; performing team performance; team viability team roles; team diversity

91) ________ helps to determine the likelihood that the team can work together effectively into the future.

A) B) C) D) E)

92)

Team viability Surface-level diversity Team development Deep-level diversity Team integration

One metric for measuring team performance is

A) B) C) D) E)

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team size. team viability. customer net worth. team demographics. customer satisfaction.

93) Yuri likes the results he gets from organizing the employees at his law firm into teams. Unfortunately, Jacob, undeniably the most talented partner in the firm, feels he is not being recognized and is insufficiently compensated for his contribution to the firm, and Yuri realizes that he is probably right. How can Yuri structure his salaries to encourage teamwork, while retaining top performers like Jacob?

A) B) C) D) E)

begin paying each employee the same hourly wage base wages on the performance of each individual team base wages on the performance of all the teams in the firm pay each individual based on his or her individual performance combine individual and team performance when determining wages

94) Carter’s Critters, a large pet store, pays its employees a base salary, as well as up to a 10 percent bonus based on high individual performance and up to a 7 percent bonus based on high team performance. Carter’s uses a reward structure with

A) B) C) D) E)

parallel teams. management teams. punctuated equilibrium. sequential interdependence. hybrid outcome interdependence.

95) Moe is an average worker stuck on a team of complacent workers. Nick is an innovator who produces triple the amount of the average worker. Wyatt is a slacker who has been placed on Nick’s team. Shanda is an average worker on an average team. Leroy is the hardest worker on Shanda’s team. Which of these individuals would probably benefit most from high outcome interdependence at work?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Moe Nick Wyatt Leroy Shanda

96) Part of the problem with ________ is that it can lead to uncertainty about which types of behaviors are being rewarded and how pay ultimately is determined.

A) B) C) D) E)

97)

task interdependence hybrid outcome interdependence goal interdependence team diversity team viability

Which of the following is true with regard to outcome interdependence?

A) In an organization with compensation that has high outcome interdependence, a higher percentage of employees’ pay will depend on how well their team does. B) In an organization with compensation that has low outcome interdependence, members receive rewards that are dependent on their team’s performance. C) Team reward structures with hybrid outcome interdependence reward members based solely on their own performance, irrespective of team performance. D) In an organization with compensation that has low outcome interdependence, a higher percentage of employees’ pay will depend on how well their team does. E) Team reward structures with high outcome interdependence reward members based solely on their own performance, irrespective of team performance.

98)

Management teams are formed to take on “one-time” tasks that are generally complex.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

99) On a highly self-managed team, there are strict rules regarding goals, procedures, and roles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) High levels of self-management may be most advantageous for teams where members have high levels of team-relevant knowledge obtained from outside experts and others in their social networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) In the storming stage of team development, feelings of solidarity develop as members work toward team goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Jan works on the budget team. Members include the bookkeeper who tracks the daily expenditures and revenues of the company; the accountant who takes the bookkeeper’s work and organizes it into financial statements, including the cash flow statement, the income statement, and the balance sheet; and the analyst who interprets the financial statements. Once these three tasks have been accomplished, Jan prepares and presents the results to top management. Jan’s team engages in reciprocal interdependence. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

103) In sequential interdependence, the member performing the task in the latter part of the sequence depends on the member performing the task in the earlier part of the sequence, but not the other way around. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) A high degree of goal interdependence exists when team members have a shared vision of the team’s goal and align their individual goals with that vision as a result. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) As the level of task interdependence increases, members must spend increasing amounts of time communicating and coordinating with other members if they want to complete tasks effectively. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Cognitive ability is more important to teams when team members have to learn from one another to adapt to unexpected changes, compared with contexts in which team members perform their assigned tasks in a routine fashion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Cora frequently challenges the teams’ assumptions and status quo. Cora exhibits the devil’s advocate role.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

108) In tasks with an objectively verifiable best solution, the member who possesses the highest level of the ability relevant to the task will have the most influence on the effectiveness of the team. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) According to the similarity-attraction approach, a team with high diversity will have high team effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The key to understanding the impact of team diversity requires that you consider both the general type of diversity and the number of team members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) With surface-level diversity, time appears to increase the negative effects on team functioning and effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Having a greater number of members is beneficial for management and project teams but not for teams engaged in production tasks.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Team viability refers to the likelihood that the team can work together effectively into the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Task interdependence is one of the most important characteristics that distinguish true teams from mere groups of individuals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Team reward structures with hybrid outcome interdependence reward members based on how well they perform as individuals rather than overall team performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Members tend to be more productive in high task interdependence situations when there is low outcome interdependence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) The majority of organizations that use teams use some sort of hybrid outcome interdependence. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 39

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Answer Key Test name: CH11 1) Technically, yes, the statement is true. A group is just a collection of two or more people. A team consists of two or more people who work interdependently over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose. A team is a special type of group. A team can always be considered a “group,” but a group may not represent the makeup of a team. Teams are special for two reasons. First, the interactions among members within teams revolve around a deeper dependence on one another than the interactions within groups. Second, the interactions within teams occur with a specific task-related purpose in mind.

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2) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of teams, including virtual teams. A sample answer follows.The five types of teams are work teams, management teams, parallel teams, project teams, and action teams. A work team produces goods or provides services, such as a sales team. Management teams integrate activities of subunits across functions, such as the top management team. A parallel team provides recommendations and resolves issues, such as a quality circle or an advisory council. Project teams produce a one-time output— a product, a service, a plan, a design, etc. An example of project team is a product design team. Finally, an action team performs complex tasks that vary in duration and take place in highly visible or challenging circumstances. Examples of action teams include a surgical team, a musical group, an expedition team, or a sports team. Virtual teams are those in which the members are geographically dispersed, and interdependent activity occurs through electronic communications— primarily email, instant messaging, group calendars, web conferencing, social media, and other meeting tools.

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3) During the forming stage, members orient themselves by trying to understand their boundaries in the team. Members try to get a feel for what is expected of them, what types of behaviors are out of bounds, and who’s in charge. In the next stage, called storming, members remain committed to ideas they bring with them to the team. This initial unwillingness to accommodate others’ ideas triggers conflicts that negatively affect some interpersonal relationships and harm the team’s progress. During the next stage, norming, members realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals, and consequently, they begin to cooperate with one another. In the fourth stage of team development, which is called performing, members are comfortable working within their roles, and the team makes progress toward goals. Finally, because the life span of many teams is limited, there’s a stage called adjourning. In this stage, members experience anxiety and other emotions as they disengage and ultimately separate from the team.

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4) Task interdependence refers to the degree to which team members interact with and rely on other team members for the information, materials, and resources needed to accomplish work for the team. The four types of task interdependence are:• Pooled interdependence— Members complete their work independently, and the work is simply piled up to represent the group’s output. • Sequential interdependence—Different tasks are done in a prescribed order, and the group is structured such that the members specialize in these tasks. Interaction only occurs among members who perform tasks that are next to each other in the sequence. • Reciprocal interdependence—Members are specialized; however, instead of a strict sequence of activities, members interact with a subset of other members to complete a team’s work. • Comprehensive interdependence—This is the highest level of interdependence, in which each member has a great deal of discretion in terms of what they do and with whom they interact in the course of the collaboration involved in accomplishing the team’s work.

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5) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of both goal interdependence and outcome interdependence. Goal interdependence exists when team members have a shared vision of the team’s goals and align their individual goals with that vision as a result. Outcome interdependence exists when team members share in the rewards that the team earns. In most team contexts, there are asymmetries in the goals of individual team members that interfere with the pursuit of team goals, and what makes managing this situation difficult is that team members often do not become aware of the incompatibilities until it is too late. One thing to increase goal interdependence is to ensure the team has a formalized mission statement that members buy into. A good mission statement clearly describes what the team is trying to accomplish in a way that creates a sense of commitment and urgency among team members. High outcome interdependence implies that team members depend on the performance of other team members for the rewards they receive. In contrast, low outcome interdependence exists in teams in which individual members receive rewards and punishments on the basis of their individual performance, without regard to the performance of the team. Research shows that higher levels of outcome interdependence increases the amount of information shared among members, which promotes learning, and, ultimately, team performance. 6) The five aspects of team composition are:• Member roles—patterns of behavior that people are expected to display in a given context • Member ability—relevant abilities of team members • Member personality—personality traits that affect roles, norms, and overall functioning and performance • Member diversity—differences among team members on deep- and surface-level characteristics • Team size—the number of members of a team Version 1

7) One predominant theory that has been used to explain why diversity has positive effects is called the value in diversity problem-solving approach. According to this perspective, diversity in teams is beneficial because it provides for a larger pool of knowledge and perspectives from which a team can draw as it carries out its work. Having greater diversity in knowledge perspectives stimulates the exchange of information, which in turn fosters learning among team members. The knowledge that results from this learning is then shared and integrated with the knowledge of other members, ultimately helping the team perform more effectively. 8) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the differences between surface-level and deep-level diversity. A sample answer follows.Surface-level diversity refers to diversity regarding observable attributes such as race, ethnicity, sex, and age. Deep-level diversity, on the other hand, refers to diversity with respect to attributes that are less easy to observe initially but that can be inferred after more direct experience. Differences in attitudes, values, and personality are good examples of this diversity. Kim is correct because Harold simply looked at people’s outward traits and assigned them to groups. The groups do not provide a deeper understanding of the differences and viewpoints of the participants, although these may develop over time.

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9) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how task interdependence can influence performance. A sample answer follows.The relationship between task interdependence and team performance is moderately positive. That is, task performance tends to be higher in teams in which members depend on one another and have to coordinate their activities rather than when members work more or less independently. It’s important to mention that the relationship between task interdependence and team performance varies somewhat depending on how team performance is measured. Additionally, the relationship tends to be significantly stronger in teams that are responsible for completing complex knowledge work rather than simple tasks. When work is more complex, interdependence is necessary because there’s a need for members to interact and share resources and information. When work is simple, sharing information and resources is less necessary because members can do the work by themselves. The engineering team will most likely see more sharing of information and stronger performance than the routine team because their work is more complex and requires more sharing of information.

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10) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how reward systems can improve the morale of high-performing employees on teams with high outcome interdependence. The following is a sample answer.A reward system that will keep all employees happy is the hybrid outcome interdependence, which means that members receive rewards that are dependent on both their team’s performance and how well they perform as individuals. In fact, the majority of organizations that use teams use some sort of hybrid outcome interdependence. But it is difficult to answer what percentage of team members’ pay is typically based on team performance because there are so many different types of teams doing so many different types of tasks and also because organizations vary dramatically in their approaches to rewarding their employees. 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) E 26) C 27) E Version 1

28) B 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) E 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) E 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) A 57) D Version 1

58) D 59) E 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) B 64) E 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) E 70) C 71) C 72) B 73) E 74) D 75) B 76) A 77) E 78) E 79) E 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) E 87) A Version 1

88) C 89) B 90) D 91) A 92) E 93) E 94) E 95) C 96) B 97) A 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE Version 1

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Student name:__________ 1)

Define team process and differentiate between process gain and process loss.

2) Explain what is meant by the terms production blocking and motivational loss and provide one example for each.

3) Briefly describe creative behavior and decision-making taskwork processes and give one example of each.

4) Discuss three specific factors that account for a team’s ability to make effective decisions. How can these factors be used to improve team decision making?

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5) Define boundary spanning and describe the types of activities involved in this taskwork process. Provide an example of each activity.

6) When Brice was promoted to head of production, he quickly realized the production team had some serious problems. The team consisted of eight members but only one member, Gina, made the decisions and all information flowed through Gina. Gina dominated discussions and everyone mostly went along with her decisions, she had seniority and relative success. The team has other problems: Trixie is often late placing orders for raw materials and Paul, who abhors both lateness and running out of materials, thinks Trixie forgot and he places an order, now there is double of everything. The team understood their mission, and everyone was even-tempered but from what Brice witnessed, most of the team members used meetings to catch up on their social media. One of the younger team members, Darius had some energy and always seemed to be on task. Plus, he was known to speak up to Gina during meetings. As the new head of production, Brice feels he needs to step into this dysfunctional team and restore some order. If you were Brice, how would you shake this team up? Consider both teamwork processes and communication.

How are taskwork processes different from teamwork processes?

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8) Define information richness and provide an example of a situation high in information richness and one low in information richness.

9) Define the concept of a network structure and explain the difference between a centralized and a decentralized structure and include times when each is preferable.

10) What are team states? Identify and briefly describe the various team states discussed in the text.

11)

Differentiate between team cohesion and potency.

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12)

Explain the role of a devil’s advocate in relation to group cohesion.

13)

Distinguish between mental models and transactive memory.

14)

Describe the effects of teamwork processes on team performance and commitment.

15)

Identify the three levels of cross-training and provide an example of each.

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16) Differentiate between positional modeling and positional rotation and provide an example of each.

17)

Explain the steps organizations can take to improve team processes.

18) Daniel’s team is working on a project to create an effective marketing campaign for a company that specializes in food processors. Daniel gathers all the necessary information to help his team understand the product and the desires and needs of the client. He then clearly explains the responsibilities of each member of the team. He is ensuring that his team has high

A) B) C) D) E)

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process gain. internal variation. decision informity. nominal technique. hierarchical sensitivity.

19) Team ________ is a term that reflects the different types of communication, activities, and interactions that occur within teams that contribute to their ultimate end goals.

A) B) C) D) E)

gain process diversity cohesion effectiveness

20) ________ is most critical in situations in which the complexity of the work is high or when tasks require members to combine their knowledge, skills, and efforts to solve problems.

A) B) C) D) E)

21)

Synergy Dynamic cohesion Task improvement Production blocking Hierarchical sensitivity

Which of the following examples best exemplifies the concept of process gain?

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A) Ginny, Spenser, and Tobias frequently propose valuable ideas about improving employee morale to their boss, the human resources supervisor. B) Tim, Eloise, and Mia, through their combined efforts to improve efficiency as shipping and receiving clerks, achieve a higher on-time delivery rate than their coworkers. C) Jaime and Wallace collaborate on devising new ways to reduce absenteeism by tossing around as many ideas as they can without criticizing or impeding each other’s thought processes. D) The accounting supervisor Clementine relies on the advice of one of her account managers, Celeste, more than others because of Celeste’s track record with providing valuable insights. E) Horatio, a warehouse manager divides his workers into groups of five and assigns each group a leader to oversee the group’s progress and submit a weekly report detailing any problems.

22)

Process gain is important because it results in

A) B) C) D) E)

useful resources and capabilities that did not exist before the team created them. the use of time and energy that could otherwise be devoted to task activity. disagreement among members about the team’s task. loss in team productivity when team members do not work as hard as they could. members having to wait on one another before they can do their part of the team

task.

23) The phenomenon of a team delivering “less than the sum of its parts” can be explained by the term

A) B) C) D) E)

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process loss. social loafing. decision informity. production blocking. communication conflict.

24) A team of highly skilled and qualified members of an organization failed to perform the team objective assigned to them. When the reason for this lack of performance was investigated, it was clear that, although the team members worked hard, they had to wait for their teammates to complete a particular task before they could start their own. Which of the following explains the reason for process loss in this case?

A) B) C) D) E)

motivational loss social facilitation production blocking coordination loss synergy

25) Mark, David, Tia, and Ashley are team members in a computer programming class. They have been assigned the task of creating a computerized payroll system involving multiple programs. Mark and Tia worked very hard and created programs that worked well. David and Ashley, however, did not work as hard as they could and created programs with numerous errors. This resulted in a payroll system that could not be implemented. The team’s poor performance that was a result of David and Ashley not doing their best can be termed as

A) B) C) D) E)

coordination loss. synergy. production blocking. social loafing. motivational loss.

26) ________ results from members feeling less accountable for team outcomes relative to independent work resulting in individually identifiable outcomes.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Production blocking Social loafing Coordination loss Social facilitation Motivational loss

27) A psychology class has been assigned an individual case study project as well as a group project. The members of the group will receive the same grade for the group project, but they will be graded separately for their individual projects. Drew, Ben, Donna, and Julia are members of one such group. Drew and Donna worked very hard on the group project. Ben and Julia, however, did not contribute much to the group project because they felt that Drew and Donna would manage to get good grades for it. Instead, they focused their efforts on their individual projects. Which of the following answer options best exemplifies Ben and Julia’s behavior?

A) B) C) D) E)

28)

motivational loss coordination loss production blocking social loafing synergy

Brainstorming and nominal group technique and two ways to teams can increase

A) B) C) D) E)

decision making. creative behavior. boundary spanning. interpersonal processing. groupthink.

29) ________ involves a face-to-face meeting of team members in which each offers as many ideas as possible about some focal problem or issue.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Social loafing Groupthink Brainstorming Scout activity Boundary spanning

30) Five students from the KLM School have been selected to form the team that will represent the school in the National Science contest. They must come up with a creative project. These students’ first meeting was face-to-face and involved each of them suggesting as many ideas as they could think of without analyzing or critiquing them at that time. The activity that the students engaged in is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

31)

boundary spanning. social loafing. ambassador activity. scouting activity. brainstorming.

Brainstorming results in production blocking because members

A) have to wait their turn to express their ideas. B) do not work as hard thinking up ideas as they would if they had to turn in individual ideas. C) are hesitant to express ideas that are not well thought-out. D) are reluctant to pool good ideas with other ideas that are bad. E) have the tendency to social loaf due to lack of accountability.

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32) Britney, a manager in an advertising firm, was assigned a team and asked to come up with ideas for an advertising campaign. Britney briefed her team and outlined the purpose of the meeting clearly, after which she asked the members to individually generate ideas and bring their list to the next meeting. In the second meeting, the ideas were compiled, doubts clarified, and ideas built-on, after which the members were then asked to individually rank the ideas and submit the list to Britney, who tabulated the scores and created a list of the five highest rated ideas. Britney used ________ to generate the ideas.

A) B) C) D) E)

cross-training brainstorming positional rotation cognitive bias nominal group technique

33) Nominal group technique decreases social loafing and production blocking—problems with brainstorming—by

A) B) C) D) E)

making people pool their ideas in a face-to-face meeting. making people write down ideas on their own. discouraging bad ideas in the meeting. making people agree to one idea generated in a face-to-face meeting. making people speak in turns during all face-to-face meetings.

34) ________ reflects whether members possess adequate information about their own task responsibilities.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Staff validity Hierarchical sensitivity Boundary spanning Decision informity Groupthink

35) Which three specific factors have been found to account for a team’s ability to make effective decisions?

A) B) C) D) E)

groupthink, social loafing, and process rotation decision informity, staff validity, and hierarchical sensitivity transactive memory, transformative memory, and decision memory individual effort, team effort, and boundary spanning effort decision redundancy, social facilitation, and transactive memory

36) Which of the following refers to the degree to which members of the team make useful recommendations to the leader?

A) B) C) D) E)

social loafing staff validity hierarchical sensitivity groupthink decision informity

37) The marketing team of A.T. International was asked to develop the marketing strategy for the European market. Members of the team were provided with all the information required to make good recommendations to the leader but failed to deliver due to their lack of insight and poor judgment. This indicates that the marketing team had low

A) B) C) D) E)

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decision informity. groupthink. staff validity. production blocking. social loafing.

38) ________ reflects the degree to which the leader effectively weighs the recommendations of the members.

A) B) C) D) E)

Hierarchical sensitivity Social loafing Staff validity Groupthink Decision informity

39) Rebecca and her students from the drama class have been asked to conduct a play to raise funds for the school library. To make the play a success, Rebecca consults and enlists the help of the headmaster and senior teachers, while her students meet a few theater artists. They also consult a costume designer and a dance choreographer who have agreed to help the team with the play. Such activities involving individuals and groups who are not part of the team are termed as

A) B) C) D) E)

40)

information richness. a network structure. potency. boundary spanning. team building.

Which of the following activities are boundary-spanning activities?

A) B) C) D) E)

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groupthink, social loafing, and staff validity decision informity, staff validity, and hierarchical sensitivity transactive memory, transformative memory, and social loafing ambassador, task coordinator, and scout decision informity, social loafing, and transactive memory

41) ________ activities refer to communications that are intended to protect the team, persuade others to support the team, or obtain important resources for the team.

A) B) C) D) E)

Systems monitoring Task coordinator Ambassador Scout Potency

42) While performing the boundary-spanning process, members who engage in ambassador activities typically communicate with

A) B) C) D) E)

people who are in high positions in the organization. vendors and distributors of competitors. front-line production supervisors in the industry. their subordinates in the organization. the customers of the organization.

43) Matt, a training coordinator at ARC Technologies, and his team are organizing a workshop for the employees. Matt is meeting the vice president of finance to get support for an increase in the budget to accommodate a session by a well-known motivational speaker. Matt, in this case, is performing a(n) ________ activity of the boundary-spanning process.

A) B) C) D) E)

44)

task coordinator social loafing scout staff validity ambassador

Which of the following is an example of an ambassador activity?

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A) Mimi, a grocery cashier at Fine Fresh Foods, requests a more regular, fixed work schedule so that she can better plan childcare for her three children. B) Sylvester, a delivery driver for Worldwide Package Express, collaborates with other drivers working the same shift on ways to improve efficiency and reduce fuel costs. C) Xavier, a waiter at the El Matador Steakhouse chain, takes night classes to learn software programming in the hopes of getting job at the company’s corporate headquarters. D) Gypsy, a member of the sales team, approaches the VP of sales about the possibility of hiring a temp to help with menial tasks that are bogging the team down and impeding its progress. E) Bethany, a call center manager, implements a new policy that allows the top five customer service representatives with the most number of calls per week to take the following Monday off.

45) Leslie, a marketing manager at the Sunshine Spa, is consulting with Tess, a dermatologist at the spa, to explore the possibility of incorporating certain treatments as part of the spa’s package schemes. Leslie is engaging in a(n) ________ activity of the boundary-spanning process.

A) B) C) D) E)

action learning ambassador task coordinator scout staff validity

46) ________ activities refer to things team members do to obtain information about technology, competitors, or the broader marketplace.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Social loafing Task coordinator Action learning Scout Ambassador

47) Noah, a services manager at the Feel Well Health Clinic, consults an alternative medicine specialist to see if it is feasible to incorporate certain treatments as part of the clinic’s services. Noah is performing a(n) ________ activity of the boundary spanning process.

A) B) C) D) E)

action learning scout groupthink ambassador staff validity

48) ________ activities involve communications that are intended to smooth the performance of work with people or groups in other functional areas.

A) B) C) D) E)

Groupthink Scout Social loafing Ambassador Task coordinator

49) In a boundary-spanning process, the marketing team member who meets with someone from manufacturing to work out how a coupon might be integrated into the product packaging materials is engaging in

A) B) C) D) E)

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scout activities. decision informity activities. ambassador activities. production blocking. task coordinator activities.

50) Spiros is a member of the production design team on a science fiction film called The Future Begins Yesterday. It is a big budget production and is already behind schedule due to weather delays. Spiros and two other team members, Juanita and Alex, are tasked with finding futuristic background props for a scene in which the hero and his nemesis have a huge fight. Spiros, while glad to have landed his first job in the film industry, earns more money from posting videos offering behind-the-scenes glimpses of the set online. To that end, he sneaks back to the team’s trailer as often as he can to post new material. This means that the set decorations the team was supposed to source are not yet complete, and the scene cannot be filmed at the scheduled time. The set design supervisor, Marsha, observes Juanita and Alex arguing with Spiros about holding up his end of the group effort. Marsha hears Spiros telling them that they are much better at finding props than he is, so they do not really need his help. Marsha sees a lot of potential in Spiros, but she is unhappy with the fact that he is not contributing as much as he should and is holding up the production as a result. Given what you know about process loss, how should Marsha address Spiros’ behavior?

A) transfer Spiros to the front office where he will not have direct access to the set B) require employees to check in their cell phones and laptops when arriving on set C) make Spiros responsible for sourcing wall hangings and window treatments only D) demand that Juanita and Alex address Spiros’ shortcomings however they see fit E) fire Spiros from the production since he is not capable of working in a team environment

51) Acme manufacturing had to stop production on their widget due to an engineering problem in fitting the pieces together. While the company switched over to producing their whatsit, the production manager tasked the engineering group to meet and come up with a solution for the widget’s manufacturing problem. He instructed them to call when they had a recommendation on solving the problem and he would come down to hear the recommendation and make the final decision. Two hours later, the group called his office to say they had a recommendation. However, when the production manager arrived at the meeting, the team was heatedly divided between two relatively creative solutions. One solution cost more time and money but was proposed by an engineer that had successfully solved such problems in the past, the production manager trusted the engineer’s judgment to propose a solution that worked. The other solution cost more time but not nearly as much money and was proposed by a relatively new engineer who had already made one costly mistake. The production manager had said he would make a decision, but he liked both solutions. What is the best advice for this situation?

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A) The production manager should choose the solution from the new engineer, they are bound to get this one right. B) The production manager should choose the solution from the trusted engineer, they have a good track record. C) The production manager should take both recommendations, they may both be correct. D) The production manager should retreat to his office to make his final decision. E) The production manager should instruct them to start over until they reach a consensus.

52) Silas, Jerome, and Sasha are members of the marketing team at Widget Innovations, Inc. (WII), and are responsible for generating ideas for new marketing strategies. Silas has done a phenomenal job in gathering information necessary to help the team understand the desires and needs of the client. All things being equal, Sasha has the best record of making good recommendations to Alvaro, the vice president of marketing. Jerome can make some good recommendations, but sometimes his recommendations are completely off base. Usually, Alvaro pays careful attention to what Sasha has to say, but he generally does not pay much attention to what Jerome proposes. In addition to Alvaro, Sasha has been meeting with the vice president of operations and other members of the executive team to gain support for their request to increase the marketing budget. Silas’s action would contribute to which factor in effective decision making at WII?

A) B) C) D) E)

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staff validity decision informity production blocking transactive memory hierarchical sensitivity

53) Silas, Jerome, and Sasha are members of the marketing team at Widget Innovations, Inc. (WII), and are responsible for generating ideas for new marketing strategies. Silas has done a phenomenal job in gathering information necessary to help the team understand the desires and needs of the client. All things being equal, Sasha has the best record of making good recommendations to Alvaro, the vice president of marketing. Jerome can make some good recommendations, but sometimes his recommendations are completely off base. Usually, Alvaro pays careful attention to what Sasha has to say, but he generally does not pay much attention to what Jerome proposes. In addition to Alvaro, Sasha has been meeting with the vice president of operations and other members of the executive team to gain support for their request to increase the marketing budget. The decision-making records of Sasha and Jerome reflect which factor in effective decision making at WII?

A) B) C) D) E)

cohesion staff validity decision informity transactive memory hierarchical sensitivity

54) Silas, Jerome, and Sasha are members of the marketing team at Widget Innovations, Inc. (WII), and are responsible for generating ideas for new marketing strategies. Silas has done a phenomenal job in gathering information necessary to help the team understand the desires and needs of the client. All things being equal, Sasha has the best record of making good recommendations to Alvaro, the vice president of marketing. Jerome can make some good recommendations, but sometimes his recommendations are completely off base. Usually, Alvaro pays careful attention to what Sasha has to say, but he generally does not pay much attention to what Jerome proposes. In addition to Alvaro, Sasha has been meeting with the vice president of operations and other members of the executive team to gain support for their request to increase the marketing budget. Alvaro’s tendency to listen to Sasha and ignore Jerome reflects which factor in effective decision making?

A) B) C) D) E)

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staff validity decision informity production blocking hierarchical sensitivity transition process gain

55) Silas, Jerome, and Sasha are members of the marketing team at Widget Innovations, Inc. (WII), and are responsible for generating ideas for new marketing strategies. Silas has done a phenomenal job in gathering information necessary to help the team understand the desires and needs of the client. All things being equal, Sasha has the best record of making good recommendations to Alvaro, the vice president of marketing. Jerome can make some good recommendations, but sometimes his recommendations are completely off base. Usually, Alvaro pays careful attention to what Sasha has to say, but he generally does not pay much attention to what Jerome proposes. In addition to Alvaro, Sasha has been meeting with the vice president of operations and other members of the executive team to gain support for their request to increase the marketing budget. Sasha is engaging in which of the boundary-spanning processes?

A) B) C) D) E)

coordination scout activity task coordinator systems monitoring ambassador activity

56) Interpersonal activities that facilitate the accomplishment of the team’s work but do not directly involve task accomplishment itself refer to

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

groupthink. network structure. transition processes. teamwork processes. interpersonal communication.

Teamwork activities that focus on preparation for future work refer to

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A) B) C) D) E)

cohesion. process gain. team process. brainstorming. transition processes.

58) The development of courses of action and contingency plans and then adapting those plans in light of changes that occur in the team’s environment refer to

A) B) C) D) E)

goal progress. helping behavior. taskwork protocols. systems monitoring. strategy formulation.

59) Marcella is a network administrator for Diablo Electronics. The company recently completed a merger with Machine Parts, Inc., and her team is responsible for integrating the two companies’ computer networks. Before embarking on the project, Marcella meets with her team. Together, they discuss the potential issues that might arise during integration, outline the major steps required to complete the project successfully, and review the list of hardware and software that will be required to make the two systems work together. What kind of transition process activity is Marcella is engaging in?

A) B) C) D) E)

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coordination mission analysis goal specification systems monitoring strategy formulation

60) Debriefing and after-action reviews improve the effectiveness of teams. These are used during ________ processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

action helping transition interpersonal affect management

61) The advertising agency Positive Impressions lands a large new corporate client. The accounts manager, Julie, assembles a team of 12 people from across the company’s many departments to assess and plan how best to serve the client’s needs. This group has worked together before with much success. The team is comfortable with each other and feel free to propose any kind of wild, crazy idea that comes to mind as everyone will listen without judgment. In fact, those ‘crazy’ ideas have led to some great advertising campaigns. If there are any disagreements, the group usually talks through the issue until it is resolved. Everyone is even-tempered and there are rarely disagreements but two members, Josephine and Eric, are butting heads about one small production issue. Both strongly believe their way is the more effective, efficient way but they have not taken the issue before the group yet because they are still trying to convince each other. At the most recent discussion, they traded some journal articles between them supporting their positions. Julie is aware there is a conflict between Josephine and Eric but they still appear friendly and even continue to eat lunch together. Keeping the concepts of interpersonal processes in mind, what actions should Julie take?

A) hire a consultant to facilitate team-building exercises that promote group effort over individual achievement B) divide the group into smaller pairings, making sure that Josephine and Eric have no shared duties or unnecessary interactions C) create a team hierarchy that requires Josephine and Eric to report to senior team members who are empowered to issue reprimands D) refrain from interfering, but monitor Josephine and Eric’s working relationship for any conflict escalation E) go behind the two member’s backs and inform the other team members there is a conflict

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62)

Which of the following are teamwork processes?

A) B) C) D) E)

63)

nominal technique, social loafing, and staff validity decision informity, staff validity, and hierarchical sensitivity transactive memory, transformative memory, and social loafing ambassador, task coordinator, and scout transition, action, and interpersonal

Which of the following statements is true with regard to transition processes?

A) Transition processes are important as the task work is being accomplished. B) Transition processes are important between periods of work activity. C) Transition processes involve members going out of their way to help other team members. D) Transition processes involve keeping track of things that the team needs to accomplish its work. E) Transition processes promote conformity at the expense of other team priorities.

64) ________ processes are primarily important before and between periods of taskwork, whereas ________ processes are primarily important as the task work is being accomplished.

A) B) C) D) E)

65)

Mission analysis; scout activity Transition; action Scout activity; interpersonal Action; transition Interpersonal; transition

Monitoring progress toward goals is a type of ________ process.

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A) B) C) D) E)

66)

________ involves keeping track of things that the team needs to accomplish its work.

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

action cohesive transition team-building interpersonal

Goal specification Systems monitoring Coordination Helping behavior Strategy formulation

Systems monitoring and helping behaviors are examples of ________ processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

action cohesive interpersonal managerial transition

68) What synchronizes team members’ activities in a way that makes them mesh effectively and seamlessly?

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A) B) C) D) E)

cohesion groupthink coordination confidence building affect management

69) As a result of a strong marketing push during the pre-holiday period, sales of the Talking Tomato novelty toy increase by 150 percent. Troy, the production manager for the company that makes the product, is tasked with making sure the company can meet demand in the coming months. Things seem to be going well at first, but then the assembly line manager tells Troy that they are low on the audio components that provide the Talking Tomato’s vocal sounds. After checking his past purchase orders, Troy realizes he failed to submit a request for additional parts. As a result, the assembly line workers are unable to deliver enough units to keep store shelves stocked for the holidays. Troy would have avoided this mistake if he had employed which of the following teamwork processes?

A) B) C) D) E)

coordination goal specification helping behavior systems monitoring strategy formulation

70) The creative team of a fashion house is racing against a deadline to come up with the spring collection, and the pressure is leading to frayed tempers, which is hampering the team’s progress. This is an example of poor

A) B) C) D) E)

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group cohesion. time management. confidence building. affect management. resource management.

71) Motivating and confidence building, conflict management, and affect management are types of ________ processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

action transition interpersonal coordination mission analysis

72) Jasmine is promoted to a position in marketing after two years in customer service at the upscale clothiers Blanston Brothers. She is excited about the opportunity and tries hard to fit in with her new team. Things go well at first, and the team works effectively to come up with new approaches to promote a new line of silk ties and handkerchiefs. One day at lunch, her coworkers are talking about their children, and Jasmine mentions she does not plan on having kids. Two of her teammates, Misty and Marco, are shocked. Since both come from large families and have multiple siblings, they cannot understand Jasmine’s decision, and they become distant toward her. As a result, the team begins to lose the productivity gains it once had. This team is demonstrating ________ conflict.

A) B) C) D) E)

task goal mission strategy relationship

73) Expressions that create a sense of urgency and optimism are examples of communications that reflect which of the following processes?

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A) B) C) D) E)

task coordinator activities scout activities boundary spanning motivating and confidence building systems monitoring

74) Disagreements among team members with regard to interpersonal interactions or incompatibilities in personal values or preferences is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

relationship conflict. goal specificity mismanagement. poor mission analysis. poor coordination. task conflict.

75) ________ can be beneficial to teams if it stimulates conversations that result in the development and expression of new ideas.

A) B) C) D) E)

76)

Task conflict Relationship conflict Noise Groupthink Social loafing

Having a cell phone conversation at a busy construction site is difficult because of

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A) B) C) D) E)

signal overload. signal confusion. signal competition. the presence of noise. information richness.

77) Many years ago, Sprint Telecommunications aired an advertisement intended to demonstrate the clarity of reception Sprint customers could expect. The ad showed a rancher, who had used a different company, complaining that he had ordered 100 oxen from his supplier and instead received 100 dachshunds. The mix-up was probably due to the presence of ________ in the communication process.

A) B) C) D) E)

noise message filtering signal complexity network confusion competing messages

78) A small outdoor athletic footwear company, Choose-to-Reuse Shoes, prides itself on its “green” image. Twice a year, the company puts out a call to its customers, telling them that if they send in a used pair of shoes in workable condition, they will receive a coupon good for 50 percent off a new pair. The company then repackages the shoes and ships them to three different international charities. This year Jenna, the VP of marketing, has been asked to take charge of the project. If she were to use the principles of network structure, which approach would Jenna take to maximize the efficiency of the charitable effort?

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A) set up a competition between departments to see who can collect the most shoes B) ask the department heads to oversee their employees’ contributions to the overall effort C) make employees responsible for collecting, packaging, and shipping their own charity packages D) outsource the work to a logistics company that will handle the collection and distribution at another location E) name one employee to coordinate the effort and have the group channel all its communications through that person

79) the

If you say that the information richness of a communication process is high, it means that

A) amount of noise in the communication process is high. B) amount and depth of information getting transmitted in the communication process is high. C) sender is encoding unnecessary information in the communication process. D) receiver is unable to decode the information encoded by the sender. E) receiver is transmitting an overload of feedback to the sender.

80) The highest level of information richness is achieved when messages are transmitted through

A) B) C) D) E)

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phone calls. instant messages. handwritten letters. audio-visual displays. face-to-face channels.

81) The more communication flows through fewer members of the team, the higher the degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

cohesion. divisiveness. social loafing. centralization. interpersonal conflict.

82) Daryl, the warehouse manager for Everything Paper, Inc., tells Hailey and Roberta that three pallets of paper need to be taken to the warehouse. Hailey and Roberta move the three pallets from the loading dock onto the warehouse floor. Afterwards, Roberta tells Hailey, “That was fast. Time for a break!” But Hailey says, “Not so fast. We need to move the boxes of paper from the pallets to the shelves.” Roberta responds, “Daryl just said to move them to the warehouse. He didn’t say where in the warehouse to put them.” Hailey cautions, “Yeah, but every other time he’s asked us to take pallets to the warehouse, we’ve put the boxes on the shelves.” Roberta says, “If he’d wanted us to do that, he should have told us so.” Roberta and Hailey’s confusion is a result of Daryl’s

A) B) C) D) E)

high information richness. low emotional intelligence. high emotional intelligence. low communication competence. high communication competence.

83) Which type of network structure in communication has the lowest degree of centralization?

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A) B) C) D) E)

84)

all-channel network circle network Y network wheel network X network

Which of the following statements concerning network centrality is true?

A) B) C) D)

Team members tend to prefer a centralized network structure. A decentralized structure is more efficient when the tasks are simple. When the work is complex, a centralized network structure is more effective. A decentralized structure means members can communication with anyone on the

team. E) When tasks are straightforward, a decentralized structure means fewer mistakes.

85) In communication, the ________ network is the most effective for teams handling complex tasks.

A) B) C) D) E)

all-channel circle Y wheel Y and wheel

86) ________ refer(s) to specific types of feelings and thoughts that coalesce in the minds of team members as a consequence of their experience working together.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Groupthink Team states Centralization Team cohesion Cognitive states

87) When members of a team develop strong emotional bonds to other members of the team and to the team itself, they have ________, which tends to foster high levels of motivation and commitment to the team.

A) B) C) D) E)

potency cohesion groupthink transparency shared competency

88) Navy Seals go through extremely difficult training. Those who succeed become members of one of the most elite fighting units in the world. They trust each other completely and form intense emotional bonds. These teams have high levels of

A) B) C) D) E)

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cohesion. groupthink. centralization. interdependence. individual achievement.

89) A repair order came into the city garage for bus number 11. Melanie, one of the newer mechanics, took the order and laughed. “What?” said Geoffrey, the shop manager. Melanie said, “It’s bus 11, yet again.” “Let me guess,” said Geoffrey. “The order says the engine is making ‘weird noises.’” Melanie confirmed his assumption, and Geoffrey told her to ignore the report because nothing was wrong with the bus. Then he called over another mechanic, Raphael. Geoffrey said, “We got another ‘weird noise’ problem. Guess which bus?” Without pausing, Raphael replied with a smirk, “Number 11. Don’t waste your time fixing it, Melanie. Nothing’s wrong.” Raphael then shouted out to the group of mechanics in the garage, “How many of you have tried to fix number 11’s weird noises, but found nothing wrong?” Four other mechanics raised their hands. “See? Tighten the belts, and send it on its way,” Raphael said to Melanie. Later that day, Melanie gave the engine a cursory look, tightened a few belts, and sent the bus back into service. The next day, bus 11 was involved in a minor accident when its power steering failed. What should Geoffrey do to prevent this type of thing from happening again?

A) He should immediately retire and disassemble all buses that come to the shop making weird noises. B) He should formally assign Raphael the role of picking apart any assumptions that the team might make about similar problems. C) He should limit the amount of information about buses’ history that is available to the newer mechanics to reduce information overload. D) He should demand quiet in the shop so that it is easier for the mechanics to think and communicate their ideas about the causes of problems. E) He should give all mechanics in the shop the ability to make decisions and then ask them to cast votes on what to do in similar circumstances.

90) If a team member develops a sense that it is okay to do things that are interpersonally risky, or that expressing opinions and making suggestions that challenge the status quo will not be met with embarrassment and rejection, this is a sign of

A) B) C) D) E)

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psychological safety. centralization. communication competence. task conflict. affect management.

91) John F. Kennedy’s decision to go forward with the Bay of Pigs invasion of Cuba, NASA’s decision to launch the space shuttle Challenger in unusually cold weather, and Enron’s board of directors’ decisions to ignore illegal accounting practices are famous examples of

A) B) C) D) E)

noise. groupthink. team process. network structure. communication complexity.

92) One way to potentially prevent problems associated with too much cohesion is to formally institute the role of a(n) ________, a person who is responsible for evaluating and challenging prevailing points of view in a constructive manner and also bringing in fresh perspectives and ideas to the team.

A) B) C) D) E)

mediator arbitrator mental model devil’s advocate conflict appraiser

93) A team’s strong belief that it can be effective across a variety of situations reflects which of the following?

A) B) C) D) E)

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high potency low decision informity strong helping behavior strong transactive memory weak ambassador activities

94)

Which of the following statements concerning potency is not true?

A) B) C) D) E)

Potency has a weak positive impact on team performance. A team with strong potency has confident members. Teams with low potency have members who begin to question the team’s goals. High-potency teams focus energy on team tasks. A team’s confidence can be too high.

95) Which of the following refer(s) to the level of common understanding among team members with regard to important aspects of the team and its tasks?

A) B) C) D) E)

team process potency mental models cohesiveness emotional bonding

96) The product design team at cell phone maker Sapling, Inc., has had a fantastic string of successes over the past four years. The first phone it released helped Sapling dominate the marketplace with its line of powerful and highly photo-capable devices. Lately, however, the team’s manager, Serena, notices that the team seems content to rest on its laurels and bask in past glories. The team spends a good deal of time in meetings tracking the sales of last year’s model and speculating about how big everyone’s bonus will be. In the team’s early days, the ergonomics specialist, Fritz, and the audio designer, Astrid, would argue over the ideal placement of the headphone jack and built-in speakers, but now they have built a strong bond and constantly agree with the other’s proposals. With respect to group cohesion, which of the following approaches should Serena adopt to restore the team’s capacity for innovation?

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A) B) C) D) E) stagnate

divide the team into two halves and pit them against each other threaten to replace the entire team if it fails to deliver fresh ideas meet with team members individually to assess their needs and frustrations destabilize the team by promoting low-performing members to leadership positions hire a consultant to attend team meetings and ask challenging questions when ideas

97) ________ memory refers to how specialized knowledge is distributed among members in a manner that results in an effective system of memory for the team.

A) B) C) D) E)

Process Transactive Centralized Institutional Task

98) Rachel, Emily, and Dravos are new product development specialists at the athletic footwear company Sole Success. All three have been part of the same team for over a year, and as a team they have had tremendous success, with three of their shoe designs among the current season’s best sellers. There is a healthy sense of competition among them, but they take credit as a group for their successes rather than focus on individual achievement. A team such as this is said to have

A) B) C) D) E)

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high potency. high cohesion. good mental modeling. good transactive memory. good conflict management.

99) In a project team at Kaizen International, everyone focuses on his or her specialty and what they do best. Members know exactly where they can go to get information when there are gaps in their knowledge, and this team produces synergistic results. This shows that the project team at Kaizen has an effective

A) B) C) D) E)

staff validity. mental model. transactive memory. potency. hierarchical sensitivity.

100) Which of the following refer(s) to the degree to which teams are capable of remaining together as ongoing entities?

A) B) C) D) E)

team process team potency team viability group technique team dependency

101) Teamwork processes have a ________ effect on team performance and a ________ effect on team commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

weak positive; moderate positive weak positive; strong positive moderate positive; moderate positive moderate positive; strong positive strong positive; moderate positive

102) When a team member always greets other team members and is good at making small talk, this member is likely competent in which transportable teamwork competency? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

planning and task coordination conflict resolution goal setting and performance management collaborative problem solving communication

103) The idea behind ________ is that team members can develop shared mental models of what is involved in each of the roles in the team and how the roles fit together to form a system.

A) B) C) D) E)

104)

synergy action learning cross-training team cohesion devil’s advocacy

Cross-training may involve instructions at three different levels of depth. These levels are

A) B) C) D) E)

transactive, transformative, and collaborative. personal clarification, positional modeling, and positional rotation. taskwork, teamwork, and team states. cohesion, potency, and efficacy. transition, action, and interpersonal.

105) Richard’s team has been assigned the task of organizing an exhibition for companies selling home appliances. Richard ensured that each member of the team had an opportunity to observe other members perform their roles. This type of cross-training is termed

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

personal clarification. boundary spanning. positional modeling. team process training. positional rotation.

106) Talia is the northeast regional sales rep for Mountain Bike Tires 4 Less (MBT4L). Her territory includes a number of large chain stores and smaller bike shops that carry her company’s bike tires. She has good personal relationships with many of the smaller shops, but she has been hearing from many of them that they are having trouble competing with the larger chains on price. In order to keep the smaller retailers happy, she offers extended payment terms on large orders. She told Bob of Bob’s Bikes that he could take 120 days to pay on his latest order. Bertram works in the credit department at the MBT4L headquarters and is in charge of monitoring shipments and payments to the customers in Talia’s region. When he sees that Bob’s Bikes has not paid for their most recent order, he places their account on credit hold pending the receipt of payment. When Bob is unable to place a new order, he calls to complain to Talia who then calls and yells at Bertram for holding up one of her customers’ orders. Bertram explains that Bob’s Bikes’ account is past due. Talia tells him that it is not past due because she offered extended terms. Bertram tells Talia that he had no knowledge of these special terms. The conflict between Talia and Bertram causes mistrust and resentment, and Bob’s Bikes is caught in the middle. Eventually, Miguel, the VP of sales and marketing, is forced to intervene. Keeping the benefits of cross-training in mind, which approach should Miguel use to achieve improved communication and reduced friction between Talia and Bertram?

A) requiring Bertram and Talia to attend anger management classes together B) having Talia sit in Bertram’s cubicle for half a day observing the demands of his job C) organizing a lunch meeting between Talia and Bertram so they can become better acquainted D) providing Talia with a copy of Bertram’s detailed job description and recent performance reviews E) hiring a team-building consultant to craft a series of trust exercises for Talia and Bertram to perform together

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107) This type of team process training gives the team the opportunity to work on an actual problem within the organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

positional modeling positional rotation personal clarification behavior modeling action learning

108) The deepest level of cross-training involves ________, which gives members actual experience carrying out the responsibilities of their teammates.

A) B) C) D) E)

109)

Which of the following is a type of team process training?

A) B) C) D) E)

110)

personal clarification positional rotation planning and task coordination positional modeling conflict resolution

personal clarification positional modeling conflict resolution positional rotation action learning

Which of the following is true about competency in conflict resolution?

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A) It coordinates and synchronizes activities among team members. B) It helps establish specific and difficult goals for the team. C) It understands communication networks. D) It can identify situations requiring participative problem solving. E) It can distinguish between desirable and undesirable conflict.

111) Daphne is the top performing nurse on the maternity ward at Downtown General Hospital. In advance of her annual performance review, her supervisor, Raul, begins observing her work behavior more closely to facilitate a more thorough review. One day, a doctor begins berating a nurse for not notifying him of a patient’s change in medication, and Daphne steps in to defuse the situation by explaining that the medication was changed from a brand name drug to an identical generic version. Another day, Raul watches as Daphne works with two other nurses to sort out how best to deal with the aggressive husband of a woman recovering from a five-week premature delivery. Additionally, Raul sees that Daphne keeps a daily calendar of events and tasks. Going into the performance review, Raul concludes that Daphne is exhibiting a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

112)

group cohesion. devil’s advocacy. boundary spanning. teamwork competency. positional modeling.

Which of the following competencies synchronizes activities among team members?

A) B) C) D) E)

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planning and task coordination collaborative problem solving communications goal setting and performance management conflict resolution

113) Monitoring, evaluating, and providing performance-related feedback are associated with which of the following?

A) B) C) D) E)

conflict resolution collaborative problem solving communications planning and task coordination goal setting and performance management

114) ________ is normally conducted by a consultant and intended to facilitate the development of team processes related to goal setting, interpersonal relations, problem solving, and role clarification.

A) B) C) D) E)

Team building Team integration Task coordination Conflict resolution Cohesion realignment

115) A special surveillance and rescue team is being deployed to counter the menace of pirates in the Indian Ocean. Nick, Sid, and Kevin are the core members of the team. Nick was elected as the leader of the team. Sid is responsible for monitoring the team’s progress toward its goals. Kevin took on the role of motivator and confidence builder for the team. This team has worked together before and has developed a high level of common understanding regarding the team and its mission. Members also strongly believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. As a standard practice, before deployment, the team members observe how other members perform their roles by shadowing and going through simulations. Sid’s role of monitoring the team’s progress contributes to which of the following teamwork processes?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

brainstorming processes action processes transactive memory processes transition processes interpersonal processes

116) A special surveillance and rescue team is being deployed to counter the menace of pirates in the Indian Ocean. Nick, Sid, and Kevin are the core members of the team. Nick was elected as the leader of the team. Sid is responsible for monitoring the team’s progress toward its goals. Kevin took on the role of motivator and confidence builder for the team. This team has worked together before and has developed a high level of common understanding regarding the team and its mission. Members also strongly believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. As a standard practice, before deployment, the team members observe how other members perform their roles by shadowing and going through simulations. Beyond his task responsibilities, Kevin’s role also consists of behaviors that contribute to ________ processes.

A) B) C) D) E)

transition brainstorming transactive memory action interpersonal

117) A special surveillance and rescue team is being deployed to counter the menace of pirates in the Indian Ocean. Nick, Sid, and Kevin are the core members of the team. Nick was elected as the leader of the team. Sid is responsible for monitoring the team’s progress toward its goals. Kevin took on the role of motivator and confidence builder for the team. This team has worked together before and has developed a high level of common understanding regarding the team and its mission. Members also strongly believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. As a standard practice, before deployment, the team members observe how other members perform their roles by shadowing and going through simulations. The team’s high level of common understanding refers to which of the following?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

potency cohesion transactive memory mental models boundary spanning

118) A special surveillance and rescue team is being deployed to counter the menace of pirates in the Indian Ocean. Nick, Sid, and Kevin are the core members of the team. Nick was elected as the leader of the team. Sid is responsible for monitoring the team’s progress toward its goals. Kevin took on the role of motivator and confidence builder for the team. This team has worked together before and has developed a high level of common understanding regarding the team and its mission. Members also strongly believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. As a standard practice, before deployment, the team members observe how other members perform their roles by shadowing and going through simulations. The standard pre-deployment practice of the team represents which aspect of cross-training?

A) B) C) D) E)

positional rotation positional modeling action learning personal clarification collaborative problem solving

119) Lou chose the new product team very carefully, recruiting only the best performers from marketing, operations, finance, and HR. She expected this group to design and develop a stellar new product in record time. She doesn’t understand why this team, composed only of superstars, has not lived up to her expectations. Lou’s group has not demonstrated synergy. ⊚ ⊚

120)

true false

It is easy to keep an accurate account of the contribution of each member in a team.

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⊚ ⊚

121)

true false

Organizations no longer use brainstorming because of the problems associated with it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) The nominal group technique involves utilizing a combination of individual and team settings to generate ideas and solutions and arrive at a good idea. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Leaders do a better job considering recommendations and making final decisions when they do it together with team members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Tran needs to increase his team’s creativity. He calls them in to a meeting and tells them to shout out as many ideas as they can think of for a new project. No one is to analyze or criticize any ideas while this exercise is going on. Tran is using the brainstorming technique. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Creative processes are interpersonal activities that facilitate the accomplishment of the team’s work but do not directly involve task accomplishment itself. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 45

126) Transition processes are relevant before the team actually begins to conduct the core aspects of its work; they have no role between periods of work activity. ⊚ ⊚

127)

Conflict management is an action process. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

Affect management is an action process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) Information richness is the amount and depth of information that gets transmitted in a message. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Kelly has thought a lot about how to explain why she is quitting her job. Now that she has her thoughts in order, she is writing them down in a formal letter of resignation. Kelly is engaged in the decoding part of the communication process. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

131) The degree of centralization is higher in a network structure where more communication flows through fewer members. ⊚ ⊚

132)

true false

According to researchers, a cohesive team is always a high-performance team. ⊚ ⊚

true false

133) Transactive memory refers to how specialized knowledge is distributed among members in a manner that results in an effective system of memory for the team. ⊚ ⊚

134)

true false

Team potency is higher in teams that have found success in the past. ⊚ ⊚

true false

135) Kat is not worried about offering contrary or radical ideas in team meetings because both the team leader and the team members are supportive of new or even seemingly strange ideas and don’t laugh at or criticize each other. Kat has a strong feeling of psychological safety within her team. ⊚ ⊚

136)

true false

Teamwork processes have a moderate negative effect on team performance.

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⊚ ⊚

137)

The shallowest level of cross-training involves positional modeling. ⊚ ⊚

138) unit.

true false

Team process training helps a team function and perform more effectively as an intact

⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

Answer Key Test name: CH12 1) Team process refers to the different types of communication, activities, and interactions that occur within teams that contribute to their ultimate end goals. Getting more from the team than you would expect according to the capabilities of its individual members refers to process gain. When you get from teams “more than the sum of their parts,” the teams seem to benefit from process gain. On the other hand, when you get from teams “less than the sum of their parts,” the teams seem to suffer from process loss. Factors that cause process loss include coordination loss and motivational loss.

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2) Production blocking occurs when members have to wait on one another before they can do their part of the team task. If you have ever worked in a team in which you felt like you could not get any of your own work done because of all the time spent in meetings, following up requests for information from other team members, and waiting on team members to do their part of the team task, you already understand how frustrating production blocking (and coordination loss) can be. In the context of a game like soccer, production blocking might occur if a player has to wait too long for a teammate to get into position to receive the ball before making a pass. Motivational loss is the loss in team productivity that occurs when team members do not work as hard as they could. Why does motivational loss occur in team contexts? One explanation is that it is often quite difficult to gauge exactly how much each team member contributes to the team. This uncertainty regarding “who contributes what” results in team members feeling less accountable for team outcomes and they exert less effort when working on team tasks than they would if they worked alone on those same tasks. This phenomenon is called social loafing. If a student team is responsible for a project, motivational loss and social loafing may result if some students on the team come to depend on a student who is particularly motivated and knowledgeable.

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3) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of creative behavior and decision-making taskwork. A sample answer follows.When teams engage in creative behavior, their activities are focused on generating novel and useful ideas and solutions. The team environment must also be uniquely suited to fostering creative behavior. Creative behavior in teams can be fostered when members participate in a specific set of activities.Decision making involves multiple members gathering and considering information that is relevant to their area of specialization and then making recommendations to a team leader who is ultimately responsible for the final decision.An example of creative behavior would be a team in a marketing department that comes up with a campaign that uses graffiti artists to paint murals around a city to promote a new product. An example of decision-making taskwork would be assembly line workers who each suggest an efficiency improvement to a manager based on their particular task in the process of creating a finished product.

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4) Three factors account for a team’s ability to make effective decisions:• Decision informity reflects whether the team members possess adequate information about their own task responsibilities. • Staff validity refers to the degree to which members make good recommendations to the leader. • Hierarchical sensitivity reflects the degree to which the leader effectively weighs the recommendations of the members.Experienced teams tend to make better decisions because they develop an understanding of the information that is needed and how to use it, and leaders develop an understanding of which members provide the best recommendations. Team decision making may be improved by giving members feedback about these three variables involved. For example, a team can improve its decision making if the members are told that they have to share and consider additional pieces of information before making recommendations to the leader.

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5) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of boundary spanning. A sample answer follows.Boundary spanning involves activities with individuals and groups other than those who are considered part of the team. The following are the three types of activities:• Ambassador activities refer to communications that are intended to protect the team, persuade others to support the team, or obtain important resources for the team. For example, a manager might request to hire a trainer to teach her team how to use new software effectively. • Task coordinator activities involve communications that are intended to coordinate task-related issues with people or groups in other functional areas. For example, a team leader in charge of marketing might work with the manager of the shipping department to design packaging that is both attractive and practical for shipping. • Scout activities refer to things team members do to obtain information about technology, competitors, or the broader marketplace. For example, a leasing assistant at an apartment complex might call nearby apartment building to learn about their occupancy rates and rent specials.

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6) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the chapter’s subject matter.Brice should start by appointing Darius to the role of devil’s advocate to break up the groupthink that has taken over the team. Brice should also consider changing the communication processes to keep all information from flowing through one person, Gina. Since production is a complex process, an all-channel system may be better so any group member can approach any other member with problems or assistance. Brice could begin some team-building exercises such as shadowing so every team member understands the roles of every other team member. This will increase accountability. Also, Trixie who places the orders, should be watched more closely. Perhaps Trixie should have to report order numbers to another team member, so she is more accountable for the timing of the orders. As for teamwork processes, transitional processes and interpersonal processes are not awful but action processes need shoring up. Perhaps Paul, the stickler, could be placed in charge of systems monitoring to keep Trixie ordering on time. Gina could be coached into offering coordination as she basically used to run the team herself. She could also be useful offering helping behavior. Gina’s transactive memory needs to be transferred to the rest of the team and Gina would be a good coordinator of this metaknowledge. Brice could assign Darius, as devil’s advocate, to lead a brainstorming or nominal group technique to increase creativity and get the thoughts flowing.

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7) Taskwork processes are the activities of team members that relate directly to the accomplishment of team tasks. Generally, taskwork occurs any time team members interact with the tools or technologies that are used to complete their work. In the context of teams, especially those that engage in knowledge work, three types of taskwork processes are crucially important: creative behavior, decision making, and boundary spanning. Teamwork processes refer to the interpersonal activities that facilitate the accomplishment of the team’s work but do not directly involve task accomplishment itself. They are behaviors that create the setting or context in which taskwork can be carried out. They include transition processes, action processes, and interpersonal processes.

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8) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of information richness. A sample answer follows.A factor that influences the communication process is information richness, which is the amount and depth of information that gets transmitted in a message. Messages that are transmitted through face-toface channels have the highest level of information richness because senders convey meaning both verbally through language and nonverbally through body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. Face-to-face communication also achieves high information richness because it provides the opportunity for senders and receivers to receive feedback, which allows them to verify and ensure their messages are received and interpreted correctly. At the opposite end of the information richness spectrum are computer-generated reports that consist largely of numbers. Although these types of reports may include a lot of information, they are limited to information that is quantifiable, and there is an absence of additional cues that could provide context and meaning to the numbers.A situation high in information richness is a departmental meeting where team members interact with each other face-to-face and can interact in real time by asking questions and requesting clarification when messages are unclear. A situation low in information richness is a warehouse manager reading an inventory report. The report offers information about the number of items in inventory but does not necessarily convey any information about where those items are stored or how well organized the items are. A visit to the warehouse to observe these factors would increase the level of information richness vis-a-vis the report alone.

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9) A network structure is defined as the pattern of communication that occurs regularly among each member of the team. Communication patterns can be described in terms of centralization, or the degree to which the communication in a network flows through some members rather than others. The more communication flows through fewer members of the team, the higher the degree of centralization. In a highly decentralized structure, every member can communicate with every other member, while a centralized network has information flowing through one or a few members. When the work is simple and straightforward, a centralized structure tends to result in faster solutions with fewer mistakes. When the work is complex and difficult to understand, a decentralized structure tends to be more efficient. The team benefits if members have the ability to communicate with anyone on the team to get assistance or resolve problems. When the work is simple and easy to understand, the additional communication channels become unnecessary and divert members’ attention from the task. 10) Team states refer to specific types of feelings and thoughts that coalesce in the minds of team members as a consequence of their experience working together.•Cohesion tends to foster high levels of motivation and commitment to the team; it can also create situations of groupthink. •Potency refers to the degree to which members believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. •Mental models refer to the level of common understanding among team members with regard to important aspects of the team and its tasks. •Transactive memory refers to how specialized knowledge is distributed among members in a manner that results in an effective system of memory for the team.

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11) Members of teams can develop strong emotional bonds to other members of their team and to the team itself. This emotional attachment, which is called cohesion, tends to foster high levels of motivation and commitment to the team, and as a consequence, cohesiveness tends to promote higher levels of team performance. Potency refers to the degree to which members believe that the team can be effective across a variety of situations and tasks. When a team has high potency, members are confident that their team can perform well, and as a consequence, they focus more of their energy on team tasks and teamwork in hopes of achieving team goals. When a team has low potency, members are not as confident about their team, and so they begin to question the team’s goals and one another. 12) Is a cohesive team necessarily a good team? According to researchers, the answer to this question is no. In highly cohesive teams, members may try to maintain harmony by striving toward consensus on issues without ever offering, seeking, or seriously considering alternative viewpoints and perspectives. So how do you leverage the benefits of cohesion without taking on the potential costs? It is important to acknowledge that cohesion can potentially have detrimental consequences. One way to prevent the problems associated with cohesion would be to formally institute the role of devil’s advocate. The person filling this role would be responsible for evaluating and challenging prevailing points of view in a constructive manner and also bringing in fresh perspectives and ideas to the team. Although the devil’s advocate role could be filled by an existing team member, it is also possible that the team could bring in an outsider to fill that role.

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13) Mental models refer to the level of common understanding among team members with regard to important aspects of the team and its tasks. When team members share in their understanding of one another’s capabilities, they are more likely to know where to go for the help they might need to complete their work. In addition, they should be able to anticipate when another member needs help to do his or her work. Whereas mental models refer to the degree to which the knowledge is shared among members, transactive memory refers to how specialized knowledge is distributed among members in a manner that results in an effective system of memory for the team. Team effectiveness requires that members understand when their specialized knowledge is relevant to the team and how their knowledge should be combined with the specialized knowledge of other members to accomplish team goals. This requires that team members not only possess useful specialized knowledge, but also meta-knowledge, or knowledge of who knows what.

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14) Research conducted in a wide variety of team settings has shown that teamwork processes have a moderate positive relationship with team performance. This same moderate positive relationship appears to hold true, regardless of whether the research examines transition processes, action processes, or interpersonal processes. The interpersonal activities that prepare teams for future work appear to be just as important as those that help members integrate their taskwork and those that build team confidence and a positive team climate. Researchers have also found that the importance of team processes to team performance may be more strongly positive in teams in which there are higher levels of interdependence. Activities that are meant to improve the integration of team members’ work are simply more important in team contexts in which the work of team members needs to be integrated. Teamwork processes have a strong positive effect on team commitment. That aspect of team process has a stronger effect on commitment for teams involved in more complex knowledge work rather than less complex work. Research also indicates that teamwork processes have a strong positive relationship with team commitment. In other words, teams that engage in effective teamwork processes tend to continue to exist together into the future. People tend to be satisfied in teams in which there are effective interpersonal interactions, and as a consequence, they go out of their way to do things that they believe will help the team stick together.

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15) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the levels of cross-training. A sample answer follows.One approach to training teams is to help individual team members develop general competencies related to teamwork activities. This type of training could involve many different forms of knowledge, skills, and abilities. Taken together, such knowledge, skills, and abilities are referred to as transportable teamwork competences. This label reflects the fact that trainees can transport what they learn about teamwork from one team context and apply it in another. Cross-training is a type of team training that involves training members in the duties and responsibilities of their teammates. The idea behind this type of training is that team members can develop shared mental models of what is involved in each of the roles in the team and how the roles fit together to form a system. At the shallowest level, there is personal clarification. With this type of training, members simply receive information regarding the roles of the other team members. At the next level of cross-training, there is positional modeling, which involves team members observing how other members perform their roles. Finally, the deepest level of cross-training involves positional rotation. This type of training gives members actual experience carrying out the responsibilities of their teammates.An example of personal clarification would be paramedics being given a written description of the job duties of a call dispatcher to help the paramedics understand what a dispatcher’s responsibilities are. An example of positional modeling would be a VP of sales spending a day observing the work of customer service representatives to gain first-hand knowledge of their daily tasks and duties and to gain an understanding how they function within the entire sales support framework. An example of positional rotation would be a warehouse manager spending a day doing the job of an order-picker to actually experience the demands of the jobs his subordinates are doing. Version 1

16) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of positional modeling and positional rotation. A sample answer follows. Positional modeling involves team members observing how other members perform their roles. For example, an airline pilot might spend a flight observing the flight attendants as they address passenger needs and prepare the airplane for takeoff and landing. This would give the pilot a better understanding of the demands of a flight attendant’s job. Positional rotation gives members actual experience carrying out the responsibilities of their teammates. Although this type of hands-on experience can expand the skills of members so that they might actually perform the duties of their teammates if they had to, the level of training required to achieve proficiency or certification in many situations may be prohibitive. An example of positional rotation would be a sales team at a condiment manufacturing company spending a day on the shop floor performing the tasks of workers who fill bottles and monitor the assembly line. This would give the salespeople a deeper understanding of the steps required to fill an order when they make a sale.

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17) At the individual level, organizations can utilize development of transportable teamwork competencies and cross-training. Transportable teamwork competencies reflect the fact that trainees can transport what they learn about teamwork from one team context and apply it in another. Cross-training involves training members in the duties and responsibilities of their teammates so that they can develop shared mental models of what’s involved in each of the roles in the team and how the roles fit together to form a system. At the team level, it could be team building and team process training such as action learning. Team building is a type of training normally conducted by a consultant and intended to facilitate the development of team processes related to goal setting, interpersonal relations, problem solving, and role clarification. Team process training occurs in the context of a team experience that facilitates the team being able to function and perform more effectively as an intact unit. 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) C 30) E 31) A 32) E Version 1

33) B 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) E 44) D 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) E 50) C 51) D 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) D 57) E 58) E 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) E Version 1

63) B 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) C 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) E 73) D 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) E 79) B 80) E 81) D 82) D 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) B 87) B 88) A 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) D Version 1

93) A 94) A 95) C 96) E 97) B 98) A 99) C 100) C 101) D 102) E 103) C 104) B 105) C 106) B 107) E 108) B 109) E 110) E 111) D 112) A 113) E 114) A 115) B 116) E 117) D 118) B 119) TRUE 120) FALSE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE Version 1

123) FALSE 124) TRUE 125) FALSE 126) FALSE 127) FALSE 128) FALSE 129) TRUE 130) FALSE 131) TRUE 132) FALSE 133) TRUE 134) TRUE 135) TRUE 136) FALSE 137) FALSE 138) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Explain what leadership is and provide a one-sentence example.

2) Define power and identify the two dimensions of power, along with a brief mention of the five types of power found within those two dimensions. Which of the dimensions of power is more strongly related to organizational commitment and job performance?

3) Identify and briefly describe the five types of power and provide a brief example of each. List at least one of the recommended guidelines for each type of power.

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4) Tyrone worked for a small manufacturing company that produced packaging boxes for various large companies. Tyrone’s workday was broken into four two-hour shifts, rotating between production line and preparation tasks. He did not mind the four hours a day on the production line other than the noise and dust, but the four hours spent each day on preparation tasks was more enjoyable as everyone could socialize while they worked and the tasks were easy. The top management team was effective, including Mario, head of production who was a great guy, everybody liked Mario. Mario toured the line daily with the CEO, Carl. Carl was also a super nice guy and he and Mario had grown up together. When starting the company, Carl had designed their efficient production line and the innovative approach allowed the small company to compete with larger companies. Together, Mario and Carl kept the line running smoothly. They both knew every minute detail of production and solved issues quickly, all while keeping the employees informed about what was happening. Tyrone had no issue with either Mario or Carl. Tyrone was also very pleased with the benefits this company offered. Lucy was the head of human resources and employee benefits and she was a whiz at her job. The pay was good and there were regular bonuses. On top of that Lucy always had some kind of contest running with prizes like free lunch for a week, days off with pay, and gift cards. Tyrone liked his coworkers and the management staff but was considering looking for a new job as he was not happy with his line supervisor, Charlotte. Two weeks ago Carlos was late for work when he had a flat tire and Charlotte made Carlos work all day on the production line rather than rotating to preparation. In addition to that, Charlotte made Carlos stay late that day and empty all the trash in their department even though a custodial crew emptied the trash between shifts. However, last week, when Makayla ran out of gas on the way to work and was late, Charlotte did nothing because Makayla and Charlotte were friends outside of work. All the employees in his department were edgy on days Charlotte was in a bad mood and barking orders because they never knew what was going to happen. Charlotte did not have the authority to fire anyone, but she could make your workday very unenjoyable.

5) Name the four contingencies of power and explain how they affect a leader’s ability to influence others.

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6) Identify the four most effective types of influence tactics, as well as the best ways to use each.

7) Identify and briefly describe the three types of influence tactics that are moderately effective and the three types that are least effective, and briefly explain when and how each are used.

8) Identify and briefly describe the three basic varieties of response to influence tactics, along with the relative effectiveness of each.

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9) Define both organizational politics and political skill and briefly describe the dimensions of political skill. Are there benefits to political skill?

10) There were five people working on a massive marketing project for a prominent, new client. Frank, as project lead and the member with the highest seniority, was known to pull rank when it came to decision making. Cecelia was always looking for the best solution for everyone, she had a knack for combining everyone’s thoughts into the perfect idea at just the right time and she was not afraid to speak up. Roz followed the power, in this case Frank, so her decisions mirrored Frank’s most of the time. Greg sometimes had to be asked to share his thoughts, which were always good, and he looked for easy solutions and ways to help others in order to make the final product better. Colin was the youngest employee on the team and pretty much went along with any team decision. The deadline is a month away and emotions are beginning to run high when the client contacts Frank to ask if there is any way the project can be completed two weeks before the deadline. Frank really wants to meet the early deadline and presents the idea to the team. To meet the early deadline, the team will have to present the idea they currently have, and Cecelia, Colin, and Greg are not sure if that is the best they can offer. As Frank is moving ahead with plans and assigning everyone final tasks, Cecelia speaks up with an idea. Everyone, even Frank and Roz, see the idea is brilliant but Frank steadfastly denies it saying there is no time now, they have to meet the early deadline. Cecelia pushes the issue and asks what others think. Colin mumbles it is a good idea, nothing else. Greg says they should deny the early deadline and go with Cecelia’s idea and he is also steadfast. Roz, of course, sides with Frank saying there is no way to meet the early deadline, but the idea is indeed brilliant. They all look back to Colin who shifts uncomfortably, his is the tie-breaking vote. Frank tells Colin if he does not agree to preparing the current project for presentation and hitting the early deadline, he will never work on another team project with him. Cecelia and Greg look at each other and then Cecelia tells Colin that he should side with them because Colin knows the new marketing idea is better than the current idea. Greg speaks up briefly to tell Colin he agrees with Cecelia. Colin speaks up to agree with Greg and Cecelia. To his credit, Frank backs down and informs the client they will not be able to meet the earlier deadline but when they deliver, it will be good.

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11) Identify and briefly define the five styles of conflict resolution, including when the style is most often used and then provide at least one appropriate situation when each style should be used.

12)

Distinguish between distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining.

13)

Describe the various stages in the negotiation process.

14)

Differentiate between mediation and arbitration.

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15) Discuss the effects of power and influence on job performance and organizational commitment.

16) ________ is the use of power and influence to direct the activities of followers toward goal achievement.

A) B) C) D) E)

Organizational politics Rational persuasion Ingratiation Leadership Influence

17) Paolo knew the deadline was approaching quickly and his team need just one more week to complete their assigned project. He used both his power and influence to get the deadline extended another week so his team could meet their goal. Paolo is exhibiting his

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A) B) C) D) E)

visibility. centrality. collaboration. leadership. ingratiation.

18) Lynette is the new head of operations for ShurWay, a nationwide corporation with offices in several major cities. Promoted to headquarters from an office in another city, she will be overseeing people who have long worked together and may feel some resistance to an “outsider.” Therefore, it is important for her to establish herself as a leader in their eyes. She will have an opportunity to do just that tomorrow, when she will be invited to make some remarks at a departmental get-together organized in her honor. The best way for Lynette to set the right tone is to let everyone know that she is ready to

A) take charge of the department, which means that she will not tolerate dissent and will deal as severely as possible with anyone who makes trouble for her. B) create a fully open, nonhierarchical environment in which she is simply the first among equals, dedicated to ensuring a nurturing work situation for all employees. C) do everything she can, both in terms of her position and her knowledge and other abilities, to help each employee do what they need to do to help the company meet its objectives. D) work tirelessly on behalf of each employee, learning from them as she goes, in order to help them meet their personal objectives, which will most likely help the company in the end. E) use every element of authority she has to ensure that all employees are doing their jobs as well as possible, and thus to create a department that will be the envy of all other departments.

19) ________ is the ability to influence the behavior of others and to resist unwanted influence in return.

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A) B) C) D) E)

20)

Major types of power can be grouped along two dimensions,

A) B) C) D) E)

21)

inner and outer. social and personal. organizational and political. organizational and personal. professional and organizational.

The three types of organizational power are ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

22)

Force Power Centrality Leadership Ingratiation

expert, reward, and referent expert, reward, and coercive legitimate, expert, and referent legitimate, expert, and coercive legitimate, reward, and coercive

The two types of personal power are ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

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expert and referent reward and referent expert and coercive reward and coercive expert and legitimate

23)

Power derived from a position of authority inside the organization is ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

structural legitimate political reward expert

24) Cynthia is project manager over a team of six. This project is for a big new client who is requesting some outlandish things like white roses in her hotel room when she arrives in town for the next meeting. Cynthia really wants to impress this client and she politely appoints Jack to order the roses. She explains the situation to Jack and asks him to take on a new role of “client liaison” for this one project. It looks to be a tough job, but if Jack agrees to take on the extra responsibilities Cynthia told him she would get him an extra raise on top of his annual wage increase approaching in three months. Cynthia hopes she can convince her boss that Jack needs the extra raise, but she is unsure because her boss has turned down many of her similar requests. Which of the following statements is true of this scenario? A) In asking Jack to take on the extra role of “client liaison,” Cynthia is not staying within the rights her position holds, a guideline for coercive power. B) In promising Jack an extra raise on top of his annual wage increase and being unsure if her boss will approve the raise means Cynthia may not be able to follow through on her offer, a guideline for reward power. C) In failing to assign a “client liaison” on every project, Cynthia is not keeping her requests consistent, breaking a guideline for legitimate power. D) In not providing Jack with any notice about this change in his responsibilities, Cynthia is not following the guideline for referent power. E) In making Jack wait for his promised bonus until his next annual wage increase, Cynthia is not following through quickly and therefore not adhering to the guidelines for expert power.

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25) A brilliant designer of computer programs, Darren, has often been compared to the late Apple Computers cofounder Steve Jobs not only because of his abilities in the digital realm, but also his charisma. Like Jobs, he is not a lone techie writing code in a windowless room; he serves in an executive role at DiaTech, the company he and his partners founded. But now he has a problem: there is a special project for which he needs the help of a few key subordinates. They will need to work extra hours, and because of the top-secret nature of his new design, they will need to keep the nature of their work to themselves. The best way for Darren to get these employees on board for the project is to tell each one of them that

A) working on this project may give them an opportunity to learn about the skills that helped create the company. B) as the founder and one of the leading executives in the company, he has the power to demand their compliance. C) they will get extra pay above their ordinary salary, as well as a strong recommendation for advancement in the company. D) after the project is over, he will take them to lunch and give them a one-hour career planning and question and answer session. E) he does, after all, have the power and the means to make life very difficult for them if they do not offer him their absolute loyalty.

26) By virtue of being vice president in charge of operations at Standard Plastics, Inc., Tom has ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

collaborative substitutable diplomatic legitimate referent

27) As manager and team leader, Sandra calls her subordinates together and says, “Okay, this week I’ll need each of you to work a few extra hours because we need to get out those brochures that were back-ordered.” She is exercising her ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

28) As manager of a 12-person team, Andre has legitimate power over his employees. But he would be abusing his legitimate power if he

A) B) C) D) weekend. E)

asks Joe to take over Sue’s job while waiting for a replacement to be hired. tells Brittney to take a five-minute break while waiting for further instructions. instructs Beth to deliver a message to one of the other managers. creates a team schedule for members to walk his dog while he is gone for the commands Tony to answer the phones at the front desk.

29) When someone has control over the resources another person wants, ________ power exists.

A) B) C) D) E)

expert reward personal referent coercive

30) International Printers, a computer hardware firm, is looking for an employee to serve as field director at the company’s Paris office. Reggie wants the position and has approached Meredith, who is in charge of interviewing for the position, to convince her that he is right for the position. In this situation, Meredith has ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

expert reward personal referent coercive

31) When a person has control over punishments in an organization, they possess ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

32)

expert reward referent personal coercive

Coercive power operates primarily on the principle of

A) B) C) D) E)

agreement. reward. hope. fear. hate.

33) Because it tends to result in negative feelings toward those that wield it, ________ power is generally regarded as a poor form of power to use regularly.

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A) B) C) D) E)

expert reward referent coercive legitimate

34) The type of power derived from a person’s skill or knowledge on which others depend is ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

expert reward referent coercive legitimate

35) As one of the most experienced medical doctors in the world when it comes to a particular rare but serious rheumatological condition, Serena possesses enormous ________ power within the medical community.

A) B) C) D) E)

structural reward formal expert legal

36) When others have a desire to identify and be associated with a person, that person possesses ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

expert reward referent coercive legitimate

37) Noted for his flamboyant ties and his outspoken opinions, Billy is no ordinary vice president within the gigantic Mulray Corporation. Top management has identified him as one of the rising stars, and he has an enormously loyal following among the company’s youngest and most energetic executives. Everyone, it seems, wants to be around Billy, who possesses a great deal of ________ power within the organization

A) B) C) D) E)

reward referent coercive structural collaborative

38) Michael Jordan is an icon in basketball. Many people buy shirts with his name on them. Jordan’s iconic status gives him ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

reward referent coercive structural collaborative

39) Bill Gates commands the respect and admiration of people around the world for his achievements in information technology as well as for his philanthropy. Many people who admire him try to emulate his actions. He clearly wields ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

40)

reward referent coercive structural legitimate

________ is the degree to which people have alternatives in accessing resources.

A) B) C) D) E)

Centrality Discretion Substitutability Accommodation Integrative bargaining

41) Leaders who control resources to which no one else has access can use their power to gain greater influence. This is associated with the contingency factor known as

A) B) C) D) E)

visibility. centrality. discretion. ingratiation. substitutability.

42) As the head of overseas operations for FoodCo., an international conglomerate supplying more than 60 countries, Devon has access to resources beyond the reach of most people—even the company president—and this in turn has made him very influential within the company. Devon holds the authority that is an example of the contingency factor

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A) B) C) D) E)

43)

internalization. substitutability. ingratiation. centrality. visibility.

Discretion is the degree to which

A) B) C) D) E)

a person’s job has an impact on others. others are aware a leader’s power and position. people have alternatives in accessing resources. managers have the right to make decisions on their own. favors, compliments, and friendly behavior can influence a situation.

44) The staff at company headquarters seemed to have a problem with motivation, so the organization’s leadership brought in Herb Sewell, one of the most prominent motivational experts in the industry. Herb had what sounded at first like a lot of crazy ideas, but as it turned out, there was method to his madness, and after a week of doing his strange-sounding, sometimes downright comical team-building exercises, the staff had a renewed level of excitement and commitment. This happened in part because the company leadership gave Herb a high degree of ________ in doing his job.

A) B) C) D) E)

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visibility centrality discretion ingratiation substitutability

45) Leslie in as administrative manager with a number of exciting new ideas about how to change organizational procedures and run the company more efficiently. However, she soon ran into opposition from company leadership, who insisted that she stick with policies adopted several decades earlier. This indicates a low degree of ________, which limits Leslie’s ability to influence others.

A) B) C) D) E)

power visibility centrality discretion substitutability

46) How important a person’s job is and how many people depend on that person to accomplish their tasks is represented by

A) B) C) D) E)

power. visibility. centrality. discretion. substitutability.

47) Leaders who perform critical tasks and interact with others regularly have a greater ability to use their power to influence others. These leaders are exhibiting the contingency factor called

A) B) C) D) E)

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visibility. centrality. discretion. ingratiation. substitutability.

48) If a manager fails to communicate their request politely, they are breaking the guideline for using ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

Which of the following answer options is a guideline for using reward power?

A) B) C) D) E)

Support and uphold others when called for. Stay within the rights your position holds. Follow through on commitments. Only offer what you can follow through on. Warn people prior to giving rewards.

50) “Follow through quickly and without discrimination or bias” is a suggested guideline for using ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

51) When people have a track record of high performance, the ability to solve problems, or specific knowledge that is necessary to accomplish tasks, they are more likely to be able to influence other people due to their ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

52)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

Which of the following statements about the various forms of power is not true?

A) It is possible for one person to possess all five forms of power at the same time. B) From an employee’s perspective, it is sometimes difficult to gauge what form of power is most important. C) Organizational forms of power are more strongly related to organizational commitment than are the personal forms of power. D) You may not know what type of power your boss possesses until they attempt to use it. E) Personal forms of power are more strongly related to job performance than are the organizational forms.

53)

One of the suggested guidelines for using coercive power is to

A) B) C) D) E)

54)

be consistent, thoughtful, and honest about requests. make sure you describe the purpose of your request. be clear on exactly what you are offering a reward for. do things for others even when you are not required to do so. make sure the punishment fits the nature of the lack of compliance.

A suggested guideline for using expert power is to

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A) B) C) D) E)

55) Kenya heads the nurse’s staff in the intensive care ward of Alston Memorial Hospital. Her job involves ensuring that work in the ward runs smoothly, which in part means maintaining the requisite standard in hospital hygiene and patient care. Her job naturally involves the use of coercive power, which also means remembering the guideline that she should

A) B) C) D) E)

warn people prior to giving punishment. make sure to describe the purpose of each request. be consistent, thoughtful, and honest about requests. do things for others even when not required to do so. be clear on exactly what a reward is being offered for.

56) There are four factors that affect the strength of a person’s ability to use power to influence others. Which of the following answer options is not one of the four factors?

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

legitimacy discretion substitutability visibility centrality

How aware others are of a leader’s power and position is a function of

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A) B) C) D) E)

skill. visibility. centrality. discretion. substitutability.

58) Josh is a technological expert whose work with advanced broadband systems has made him one of the most high-profile figures at Takemodo Telecommunications, one of the world’s leading technology companies. With his picture on the cover of magazines and his name popping up in blogs all over the Internet, Josh has a high degree of ________, which gives him influence over others.

A) B) C) D) E)

charisma visibility centrality discretion substitutability

59) In the context of the contingency factor of visibility, a leader’s ability to influence others increases when

A) B) C) D) E)

the leader’s role is important and interdependent with others in the organization. the leader has the freedom to make decisions without being restrained by rules. there are no substitutes for the rewards or resources the leader controls. others know about the leader and the resources he or she can provide. they can give and withhold rewards as they see fit.

60) As executive vice president in charge of sales and marketing, Josephine heads a large international team. Her position gives her a great deal of ________ power.

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A) B) C) D) E)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

61) Tyrell is widely known and liked throughout the company. His magnetic personality is obvious to anyone who meets him, and strangers can recognize his influence in an instant just by observing how many people gravitate to him wherever he goes. Tyrell possesses ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

legitimate coercive referent reward expert

62) As head of the sales team, Kevin has the power to dispense sales leads to the members of the team. He gives the best leads to the personnel who impress him the most at any given moment, and therefore the members of the team are always trying to impress Kevin. He possesses ________ power.

A) B) C) D) E)

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legitimate coercive referent reward expert

63) When management brought Julie in to run the creative department, they told her that, within reason, she could reorganize and direct its operations as she saw fit. This illustrates the ________ contingency of power.

A) B) C) D) E)

power visibility centrality discretion substitutability

64) ________ is the use of an actual behavior that causes behavioral or attitudinal changes in others.

A) B) C) D) E)

Power Visibility Influence Discretion Internalization

65) ________ is the use of logical arguments and hard facts to show the target that a request is a worthwhile one.

A) B) C) D) E)

Consultation Collaboration Legitimate power Rational persuasion Inspirational appeal

66) A few minutes before the grand opening of the newest store in the chain, Chanel from the corporate office gave the whole team a rousing speech in which she told them that they had the power to make things better for the entire community. This is an example of Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

consultation. collaboration. legitimate power. rational persuasion. inspirational appeal.

67) To influence others using ________, leaders must have insight into the kinds of things that are important to the target.

A) B) C) D) E)

consultation collaboration legitimate power rational persuasion inspirational appeal

68) The target’s stake in seeing that his or her opinions are proven right serves to increase commitment under the influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D) E)

consultation. collaboration. legitimate power. rational persuasion. inspirational appeal.

69) A leader helps complete a task, provides required resources, or removes obstacles that make task completion difficult under the influence tactic known as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

consultation. collaboration. legitimate power. rational persuasion. inspirational appeal.

70) The up-and-coming presidential candidate has an ability to make voters feel that they are helping decide the future. One of his slogans is “Come shape tomorrow with me,” a message he has driven home at town hall meetings across the country. Often, he invites “ordinary Americans” from the audience to come down front and share their concerns with him—concerns which he then fits into his platform. The candidate is adept at using the influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D) E)

rational persuasion. collaboration. consultation. ingratiation. exchange.

71) Choosing from the following answer options, which influence tactic is considered the most effective?

A) B) C) D) E)

exchange personal appeals pressure inspirational appeals coalitions

72) “Sucking up” is an expression often used to describe the influence tactic otherwise known as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

coalition. exchange. apprising. ingratiation. personal appeals.

73) Kent is on the rise in the corporate hierarchy, and he is building a personal following along the way. Those who are loyal to him, he says, will benefit significantly in the future, when he is in a position to decide salaries and benefits. Kent is using the influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D) E)

74)

coalition. exchange. apprising. ingratiation. personal appeals.

The difference between apprising and rational persuasion is that apprising

A) focuses on benefits to the group or organization rather than benefits solely for the target. B) C) D) E)

75)

is an emotional appeal while rational persuasion is a logical appeal. focuses on benefits to the target rather than benefits to the group or organization. is a logical appeal while rational persuasion is an emotional appeal. is presented in a face-to-face meeting in order to increase the emotional appeal.

Using the influence tactic known as pressure usually involves

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A) B) C) D) E)

enlisting other people to help influence the target. the promise of some type of resource the target wants. the target becoming committed to the influence request. legitimate power to gather benefits over the long term. the use of threats and demands.

76) Raul has a plan to completely reorganize the workflow in his department, but before presenting it to Gordon, his supervisor, he recruits the support of his colleagues Natalie and Andre. This is an example of the influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D)

coalitions. ingratiation. apprising. visibility.

77) ________ occurs when the target of influence agrees with and becomes committed to the influence request.

A) B) C) D) E)

Resistance Ingratiation Consultation Collaboration Internalization

78) The best response to influence tactics, from the standpoint of the leader, is when a shift in both the behaviors and the attitudes of employees occurs—otherwise known as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating. substitutability. internalization. collaboration. compliance.

79) A shift in the behaviors of employees, but not their attitudes, occurs with a response to influence tactics known as

A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating. internalization. collaboration. compliance. resistance.

80) ________ manifests when the target refuses to perform the influence request and puts forth an effort to avoid having to do it.

A) B) C) D) E)

Internalization Collaboration Compliance Resistance Conflict

81) ________ happens when the targets of influence are willing to do what the leader asks, but they do it with a degree of ambivalence.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Accommodating Internalization Collaboration Compliance Resistance

82) Tanya is making a presentation for a new building design, and she hopes the rest of the team will support her proposal. In the days leading up to the meeting, she has lunch or coffee with several different colleagues. In each case, at some point she says something like, “Look, we’ve been friends for a long time. Can I count on you to back my play?” This is an example of the influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D) E)

exchange. apprising. ingratiation. personal appeal. organizational politics.

83) Hayden has a plan to launch what he believes is an exciting new product line, but he knows that if he is going to get his boss’s support, he needs to appeal to facts rather than emotion. Therefore, he puts together a detailed proposal showing sales, marketing research, costbenefit analyses of potential product launch strategies, and other support data. Hayden is using an influence tactic known as

A) B) C) D) E)

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consultation. collaboration. legitimate power. rational persuasion. inspirational appeal.

84) Matthew won the race for student council president partly due to a pledge that he would get the school to put in a swimming pool. It was a big thing to promise, but he knew that the school system had recently had a large influx of tax dollars and that the money is there; he just needs to win over the powers that be. First, he has to get his school principal on his side, and together they will go to the board of education. The principal, Ms. Wetherby, is new to the school system, and other than simply meeting her, he has had few interactions with her. In his meeting with Ms. Wetherby, the best approach for Matthew is to

A) talk to her about how exciting it would be to be to have a pool. B) let her know about all the coaches, teachers, and students he has on his side. C) compliment her leadership and let her know that he sees her as capable and competent. D) present her with data showing that the pool is not only needed but also affordable and practical. E) explain that the student body is motivated and could make things difficult if they do not get their way.

85) ________ occurs when actions by individuals in an organization are directed toward the goal of furthering their own self-interests.

A) B) C) D) E)

Leadership Internalization Political skill Organizational politics Distributive bargaining

86) ________ is the ability to effectively understand others at work and use that knowledge to influence others in ways that enhance personal and/or organizational objectives.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Negotiation Ingratiation Political skill Organizational politics Distributive bargaining

87) ________ involves having an unassuming and convincing personal style that is flexible enough to adapt to different situations.

A) B) C) D) E)

Interpersonal influence Suitability Social astuteness Organizational politics Apparent sincerity

88) Individuals who exhibit these types of skills have higher ratings of both task performance and organizational citizenship behaviors from others, especially when the social requirements of the job are high.

A) B) C) D) E)

89)

leadership skills political skills negotiation skills influencing skills expert skills

A personal characteristic that fosters organizational politics is the

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

desire to help. need for power. drive to be a vision-holder. requirement for participation. tendency to need to socialize.

90) Employees are willing to manipulate and deceive others to acquire power are referred to as having ________ tendencies.

A) B) C) D) E)

utopian egoistic Napoleonic Machiavellian Brobdingnagian

91) Organizational factors that are the most likely to increase politics are those that raise the level of ________ in the environment.

A) B) C) D) E)

self-awareness participation uncertainty energy strife

92) Wherever he goes, Sammy develops contacts, only he calls it simply making friends. He asks the person about themselves, they chat a bit, and a few minutes later Sammy walks away having made a new friend—not to mention a business contact whose information he now has logged in on the address book of his cell phone. This illustrates ________, the dimension of political skill.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

social astuteness apparent sincerity networking ability organizational politics interpersonal influence

93) There may be some formal, pompous people on the board at Mayweather Dairies, but the chairman and chief executive officer—Mr. Mayweather himself—is not one of them. He is as comfortable talking to dairy farmers or truck drivers as he is corporate executives. Mr. Mayweather’s behavior illustrates the dimension of political skill known as

A) B) C) D) E)

social astuteness. apparent sincerity. networking ability. organizational politics. interpersonal influence.

94) Of Joey it is often said, “He’s the real deal.” Coworkers perceive him as a straight shooter whom they can trust to speak the truth. Therefore, if Joey says something, people tend to put great store by it. Joey’s behavior illustrates ________, a dimension of political skill.

A) B) C) D) E)

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social astuteness apparent sincerity networking ability organizational politics interpersonal influence

95) Brad was a department manager who was usually a push-over in meetings. When a regional manager position came open, Tom knew Brad wanted the position but would back down if someone else wanted the job. Tom did not really want the job but decided to apply for the position so Brad would back down. In this case, Brad should use the ________ resolution style.

A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding competing compromise collaboration accommodating

96) Melissa was the sales manager of a highly skilled group of salespeople. Melissa heard through the grapevine that two of her sales associates had just gotten into a physical scuffle in the employee’s break area over a perceived threat to steal a customer. She heard there was much shouting and accusations and a little pushing and shoving but nothing to be too surprised at with the sales quota deadline approaching. Both employees were due to go to lunch in an hour and neither had apologized yet. What is the best suggestion for Melissa is this situation?

A) Melissa should wait until after lunch to discuss the issue with the two employees. B) Melissa should approach both employees separately, telling both they were right. C) Melissa should put both employees in a room until they can sort out the problem. D) Melissa should pull both employees off the floor for reprimands. E) Melissa should judge which employee is more accommodating and ask them to give in to the other.

97) as

Low assertiveness and high cooperation represent the style of conflict resolution known

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A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

98) This style of conflict management results in the best outcomes and reactions from both parties.

A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding competing compromise collaboration accommodating

99) In a conflict situation, Pat attempts to get his needs met without any concern for the needs of the other party. He utilizes ________, a conflict resolution style.

A) B) C) D) E)

100)

avoiding competing compromise collaboration accommodating

Which of the following statements concerning conflict management is not true?

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A) Women are more likely to use compromise as a tactic in comparison to men. B) Collaboration is the one style superior to all the others. C) Trust is important when using cooperative forms of conflict management. D) Men are more likely than women to use the competing tactic. E) Emotionally intelligent individuals are likely to use constructive forms of conflict management.

101) The conflict resolution style that occurs most often when one party has high levels of organizational power and can use legitimate or coercive power to settle the conflict is

A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

102) The conflict resolution style that is best used in situations in which leaders know they are right and a quick decision needs to be made is

A) B) C) D) E)

103)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

The style of conflict resolution most likely to yield an unfavorable result for everyone is

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A) B) C) D) E)

104)

Although it is a style of conflict resolution, ________ can never really resolve a conflict.

A) B) C) D) E)

105)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

avoiding competing compromise collaboration accommodating

Two styles of conflict resolution likely to result in negative feelings toward the leader are

A) B) C) D) E)

competing and avoiding. compromise and avoiding. competing and compromise. competing and accommodating. compromise and accommodating.

106) Diane and Tia had two conflicting ideas regarding how to relaunch their restaurant to a new market. Tia favored a flashy, after-hours club atmosphere, whereas Diane proposed a more middle-class look and feel. At one point, the tension between them seemed about to escalate, but then Diane gave in and suggested that they go with Tia’s plan. Diane used the ________ style of conflict resolution.

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A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating collaborating compromise competing avoiding

107) A conflict resolution style typically used by leaders when an issue is really not that important to them but is very important to the other party is

A) B) C) D) E)

108)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

The style of conflict resolution that is considered a win-win approach is

A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

109) ________ happens when both parties work together to maximize outcomes, it is a form of conflict resolution.

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A) B) C) D) E)

110)

Accommodating Collaboration Compromise Competing Avoiding

The style of conflict resolution generally regarded as the most effective is

A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

111) The form of conflict resolution that requires the complete sharing of information by both parties, a full discussion of concerns, relatively equal power between parties, and a lot of time investment to arrive at a resolution is

A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

112) Moderate assertiveness and moderate cooperation occur when conflict is resolved through

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A) B) C) D) E)

113)

The most common form of conflict resolution is

A) B) C) D) E)

114)

avoiding. competing. compromise. collaboration. accommodating.

An accommodating conflict resolution style should be used

A) B) C) D) E)

115)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

when quick decisive action is vital. when a quick decision is really important. if you are going to lose and want to preserve your dignity. on important issues for which unpopular actions need implementation. when someone will try to leverage your unwillingness to compete against you.

A competing style of conflict resolution should be used

A) B) C) D) E)

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upon realizing that an alternative is better. when you believe you are right and there is no middle ground. if the issue is not as important as others from a timing perspective. when arriving at a solution will cause more strife than a solution is worth. in order to show that you are reasonable and to build up credit with others.

116) When confronted with a conflict at work or in other organizational aspects of her life, Millie tends to take an avoiding style. That is best used when she is in a situation where she

A) B) C) D) E)

is willing to compromise on her terms. cannot win and there is no acceptable alternative. needs to reach a solution to the conflict as soon as possible. has legitimate power over the people she is negotiating with. wants people to make rash decisions as a result of high emotions.

117) Raj has a strongly collaborative style of conflict resolution, which will prove especially helpful for him in situation where

A) B) C) D) E)

the issue is not as important as others from a timing perspective. different perspectives might help arrive at a better alternative. potential disruption outweighs the benefits of resolution. he believes he is right and there is no middle ground. others can resolve the conflict more effectively.

118) In the mid-1800s, Senator Henry Clay was known as The Great Compromiser for his ability to strike compromises on the hot-button issues of the day, most notably slavery. In reaching such agreements as the Missouri Compromise, Clay and others of like mind most likely believed that

A) the potential for disruption outweighed the benefits of resolution. B) the issue was not as important as others from a timing perspective. C) different perspectives or learning might help arrive at a better alternative. D) arriving at an interim solution would allow more time to study the problem. E) others cared substantially more about the outcome, and the ongoing relationship mattered most.

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119) Recent research shows that individuals most likely to choose constructive forms of conflict management score high in terms of

A) B) C) D) E)

120)

annual earnings. corporate ranking. emotional intelligence. sheet intellectual capacity. proven leadership capabilities.

A collaborative conflict resolution style should be used to build

A) B) C) D) E)

indispensability. commitment. dominance. safety. power.

121) Under the autocratic government of his homeland, Gustav knew that he and other members of the student movement at the national university had little power and influence to use against the authorities. In such a situation, the ________ style of conflict resolution made the most sense.

A) B) C) D) E)

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accommodating collaborating compromise competing avoiding

122) The board was split over a fundamental question of the company’s future direction, but Mr. Gillespie declared himself neutral in the conflict. As the oldest member of the board, he said, he should not take sides. His behavior exemplifies an approach to conflict resolution known as

A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

123) Sharelle has a conflict resolution style that works for her. Whenever she is involved in settling an issue, everybody comes away feeling that for anything they lost, they gained something else in return. Her efforts have helped save friendships and prevent interdepartmental rivalries from taking over, and along the way she has gotten positive evaluations from everyone who has ever worked for her. Sharelle is adept at the conflict resolution style known as

A) B) C) D) E)

accommodating. collaboration. compromise. competing. avoiding.

124) ________ is a process in which two or more independent individuals discuss and attempt to come to an agreement about their different preferences.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Coalition Ingratiation Negotiation Internalization Substitutability

125)

________ is a win-lose negotiation over a “fixed pie” of resources.

A) B) C) D) E)

Alternative dispute resolution Closing and commitment Exchanging information Distributive bargaining Integrative bargaining

126) Wendy has developed a reputation in her industry for her key involvement in several high-profile negotiations where she has used a distributive framework. Now, she likely finds that

A) B) C) D) E)

she has to use integrative techniques next time. she has difficulty negotiating in any other way. her level of emotional intelligence has increased. it is impossible to use inspirational appeals with colleagues. other managers in her company are shunning the same technique.

127) In distributive bargaining, when one person gains, the other person loses. This is also known as a ________ condition.

A) B) C) D) E)

competing negotiated substitute zero-sum win-win

128) Distributive bargaining is similar in nature to the ________ approach to conflict resolution.

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A) B) C) D) E)

avoiding competing compromise collaboration accommodating

129) Involving the use of problem solving and mutual respect to achieve an outcome that’s satisfying for both parties, ________ is aimed at accomplishing a win-win scenario.

A) B) C) D) E)

exchanging information distributive bargaining integrative bargaining substitutability negotiation

130) Leaders who thoroughly understand the conflict resolution style of collaboration are likely to thrive in ________ negotiations.

A) B) C) D) E)

131)

alternative dispute resolution closing and commitment distributive bargaining integrative bargaining substitutability

Which of the following statements concerning negotiation styles is not true?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Integrative bargaining allows a long-term relationship to form between the parties. Over time, leaders can develop a reputation for how they negotiate. The integrative negotiation style is appropriate for all situations. Union-management labor negotiations are usually distributive in nature. There are two negotiation styles: distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining.

132) The best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) is part of the ________ step of negotiation.

A) B) C) D) E)

133)

Two parties are more likely to take on a more integrative approach to negotiations when

A) B) C) D) E)

134)

bargaining preparation goal-setting deal-making information-exchanging

one party has significantly more power. they are feeling negative emotions. Machiavellian tendencies prevail. their power is relatively equal. emotional intelligence is low.

Which of the following statements is true of a BATNA?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Only one party has a BATNA, the other side does not. The BATNA is formed during the exchanging of information stage of negotiation. At the BATNA point, a negotiator is better off not negotiating at all. BATNA stands for Basic Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement. Ideally, proposed agreements will come in under your BATNA.

135) Erin has just concluded another case in which she lived up to the slogan posted on billboards all over the city: “The number-one choice for women facing divorce!” She followed textbook negotiation strategies and came fully prepared to the meeting with her client’s soon-tobe ex-husband and his lawyer. At the meeting, Erin asked a number of questions, maintained a friendly atmosphere, and presented her client’s list of demands. In the end, she got everything she wanted for her client—the house, one of the cars, custody of the children—and did so without acceding to a single one of the opposing side’s demands. They finished off with a formalized agreement and then Erin and her client went out to celebrate their victory. However, Erin may have missed one thing, which is that she should have

A) sought to win over the other side, not simply in legal terms but also in personal terms, so as to maintain a friendly atmosphere. B) taken a different tone from the beginning, dispensing with niceties and letting the other side know that she intended to win. C) let the other side win on some small point, so they would walk away feeling they had won at least something. D) spent more time researching the husband’s net worth to see if she could extract more money for her client. E) asked her client if there were any point at which she would rather walk away than give up anything more.

136) Chris is an attorney working with a married couple seeking damages from a builder who failed to complete their home according to contract and left them with several structural and cosmetic issues. The couple are demanding $250,000, as well as an apology. In order to best help them, Chris needs to

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A) explain that he will do the best job he can for them. B) help his clients understand that the apology is unnecessary. C) ask his clients the least amount they would be willing to accept from the builder. D) look into the builder’s financial assets to see if he can afford to pay more than $250,000. E) give them a detailed accounting of everything that could possibly go wrong in the negotiations.

137) Power and influence have a ________ effect on job performance and organizational commitment.

A) B) C) D) E)

moderate negative moderate positive strong negative strong positive weak positive

138) ________ is the process by which two parties resolve conflict through use of a specially trained third party.

A) B) C) D) E)

Alternative dispute resolution Closing and commitment Distributive bargaining Integrative bargaining Substitutability

139) When a third party facilitates the dispute resolution process but has no formal authority to dictate a solution, this is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

arbitration. mediation. integration. distribution. competition.

140) Armand runs a small company, and although he is generally happy with his staff, he would like to see them increase their productivity and develop a greater long-term sense of personal identification with the company. The best way for him to achieve that is to

A) establish a hierarchical environment, tell employees they have to improve, and emphasize the fact that he is boss. B) create a structured environment and focus on teaching employees that improved skills will help them keep their jobs. C) maintain a friendly environment, help them improve their work skills, and make sure they always remember who is boss. D) work on making the office a fun place, take less of a direct approach to job skills, and make sure employees know that he cares. E) construct an open environment, dedicate himself to helping his employees achieve their goals, and take the emphasis off hierarchy.

141) An attorney with a long and impressive track record, Tracey is helping to resolve a dispute between an inventor and a large corporation that he claims has stolen his idea. After a great deal of argument from both sides, Tracey receives offers from both sides. The inventor asks for damages of $3 million, royalties of 10 percent on the invention for the next 10 years, and a written apology, whereas the company offers to pay $1.25 million, with royalties of 7 percent for 5 years, as well as a written apology. After considering both offers and the arguments behind them, Tracey determines that the company’s offer is fair, and an agreement is reached. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

convention arbitration. distributive mediation. integrative mediation. final-offer arbitration. binding arbitration.

142) From time to time, leaders need to resist the influence of other leaders or higher-ups to do what is best for their own unit. ⊚ ⊚

true false

143) Legitimate, reward, and coercive power are derived primarily from a person’s position within the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

144) The CEO had no idea how to perform any of the jobs on the auto-manufacturing assembly line. One day, while hastily walking past the assembly line he saw two workers putting the front bumper on a car and told them they were installing the wrong bumper. The workers knew they had the correct bumper, but the CEO stopped the assembly line to sort out the conflict. In stopping the assembly line, the CEO was using his expert power. ⊚ ⊚

145)

true false

It is impossible for a person to possess all of the forms of power at the same time. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

146) The personal forms of power are more strongly related to organizational commitment and job performance than are the organizational forms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

147) If a person works alone and performs tasks that nobody sees, even when he or she has high levels of expert and referent power, that person’s ability to influence others is greatly reduced. ⊚ ⊚

true false

148) Rational persuasion is the only tactic that is consistently successful in the case of upward influence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

149) Consultation occurs when the target is allowed to participate in deciding how to carry out or implement a request. ⊚ ⊚

150)

true false

Ingratiation has been shown to be more effective when used as a short-term strategy. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

151)

For a leader, internalization is the best outcome of influence tactics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

152) Organizational politics is the ability to understand others and the use of that knowledge to influence them to further personal or organizational objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

153) Organizational factors that are the most likely to increase political activity are those that raise the level of uncertainty in the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

154) Leaders will typically use an avoiding conflict resolution style when an issue is really not that important to them but is very important to the other party. ⊚ ⊚

155)

true false

Collaboration is seen as a win-win form of conflict resolution. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

156) Compromise is the most common form of conflict resolution, whereby each party’s losses are offset by gains and vice versa. ⊚ ⊚

157)

Distributive bargaining is aimed at accomplishing a win-win scenario. ⊚ ⊚

158)

true false

The most important step of negotiation is preparation. ⊚ ⊚

159)

true false

Mediation occurs when a third party determines a binding settlement to a dispute. ⊚ ⊚

true false

160) Repeated uses of coercive power could actually decrease organizational commitment levels. ⊚ ⊚

161)

true false

Power and influence can have a moderate positive effect on organizational commitment. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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Answer Key Test name: CH13 1) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of leadership as an organizational concept. A sample answer follows.We define leadership as the use of power and influence to direct the activities of followers toward goal achievement. That direction can affect followers’ interpretation of events, the organization of their work activities, their commitment to key goals, their relationships with other followers, and their access to cooperation and support from other work units. For example, a manager uses leadership to get employees to accomplish their daily tasks and work toward achieving the company goals. 2) Power can be defined as the ability to influence the behavior of others and resist unwanted influence in return. Note that this definition gives us a couple of key points to think about. First, just because a person has the ability to influence others does not mean they will actually choose to do so. Second, in addition to influencing others, power can be seen as the ability to resist the influence attempts of others.There are five major types of power that can be grouped along two dimensions: organizational power and personal power. Organizational powers are legitimate, reward, and coercive powers. They are derived primarily from a person’s position. Personal power refers to expert and referent power. Generally speaking, personal forms of power are more strongly related to organizational commitment and job performance than are the organizational forms.

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3) Student answers should reflect an understanding of the various types of power and the differences between them. A sample answer follows.There are three types of organizational power—legitimate, reward, and coercive—and two types of personal power—expert and referent.Legitimate power is derived from a position of authority inside the organization and gives that person the right to ask others to do things that are considered within the scope of their authority. Those with legitimate power have the understood right to ask others to do things that are considered within the scope of their authority. Examples include when managers ask an employee to stay late to work on a project, work on one task instead of another, or even to work faster. The three guidelines for using legitimate power are: stay within the rights your position holds; communicate your request politely; and make sure you describe the purpose of your request.Reward power is held when someone has control over the resources or rewards another person wants. For example, managers generally have control over raises, performance evaluations, awards, more desirable job assignments, and the resources an employee might require to perform a job effectively. The three guidelines for proper use of reward power are: propose rewards that are attractive; only offer what you can follow through on; and be clear on exactly what you are offering a reward for.Coercive power is held when someone has control over the resources or rewards another person wants. For example, a manager might have the right to fire, demote, suspend, or lower the pay of an employee. Coercive power is generally regarded as a poor form of power to use regularly, because it tends to result in negative feelings toward those that wield it. The three guidelines for the proper use of coercive power are: warn people prior to giving punishment; make sure punishment is fair relative to the nature of the lack of compliance; and follow through quickly and without discrimination or bias.Expert power derives from a person’s expertise, Version 1

skill, or knowledge on which others depend. Consider a lone programmer who knows how to operate a piece of antiquated software, a machinist who was recently trained to operate a new piece of equipment, or the only engineer who has experience working on a specific type of project. All of these individuals will have a degree of expert power because of what they individually bring to the organization. The three guidelines for proper use of expert power are: put forth data or other evidence to support your proposal; communicate why the request is important and the justification for it; and be consistent, thoughtful, and honest about requests.Finally, referent power exists when others have a desire to identify and be associated with a person. This desire is generally derived from affection, admiration, or loyalty toward a specific individual. These may be people within an organization, such as a leader who possesses a good reputation, attractive qualities, or a certain charisma, or these may be public figures such as a sports star. The three guidelines for proper use of referent power are: follow through on commitments, do things for others even when not required to do so, and support and uphold others when called for.

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4) Who holds power in this scenario and which kind(s) of power does that person hold? Is the person using their power appropriately? If not, which guidelines are they failing to follow? Carl, as CEO holds all five types of power. His legitimate power comes from his title and even though the scenario does not say specifically, he also has reward and coercive power in the fact that he has the power to either reward or punish any employee. In addition, Carl has expert power as he was the person who invented the efficient process the company works under and he knows every inch of the process. Carl also holds referent power as he is a likeable person who everyone likes. Carl appears to be using his powers appropriately. He works to keep the line efficient and keeps the employees informed. Mario holds the same personal powers as Carl, he has referent power as everyone likes him and his expert power comes from his expertise in the production line. Mario holds legitimate power as head of production and also reward and coercive power in that he can reward and punish employees. Mario also appears to be using his powers appropriately. Lucy as head of human resources and payroll holds reward power and appears to be using this correctly. She proposes attractive rewards and only offers what she can follow through on. Charlotte, as line supervisor is the one not using her power correctly. Charlotte’s legitimate power as line supervisor allows her to assign workers to their tasks but she breaks the guidelines in that she did not stay within her position rights by making Carlos stay late and empty the garbage and she barks orders instead of asking politely. Charlotte pairs this with coercive power that she holds in that she can take workers off rotation and make them work the production line all day, as she did to Carlos. She again breaks the guidelines by not giving Carlos any warning before assigning him on the production line all day. In addition, her failure to punish Makayla for the same infraction a week later makes Carlos’ punishment even more unfair and Charlotte also showed bias Version 1

and discrimination by not punishing Makayla. Charlotte actually holds a bit of reward power in that she could offer workers an extra two-hour shift on preparation, or some other reward, but she does not appear to do this. Charlotte definitely does not hold the personal referent power, as it appears most people do not like her and she holds no real expert power. 5) The four contingencies of power are substitutability, centrality, discretion, and visibility. Substitutability is the degree to which people have alternatives in accessing resources. Leaders who control resources to which no one else has access can use their power to gain greater influence. Discretion is the degree to which managers have the right to make decisions on their own. If managers are forced to follow organizational policies and rules, their ability to influence others is reduced. Centrality represents how important a person’s job is and how many people depend on that person to accomplish their tasks. Leaders who perform critical tasks and interact with others regularly have a greater ability to use their power to influence others. Visibility is how aware others are of a leader’s power and position. If everyone knows that a leader has a certain level of power, the ability to use that power to influence others is likely to be high.

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6) The four most effective types of influence tactics are rational persuasion, inspirational appeal, consultation, and collaboration.Rational persuasion is the use of logical arguments and hard facts to show the target that the request is a worthwhile one. Research shows that rational persuasion is most effective when it helps show that the proposal is important and feasible. Rational persuasion is particularly important because it’s the only tactic that is consistently successful in the case of upward influence.An inspirational appeal is a tactic designed to appeal to the target’s values and ideals, thereby creating an emotional or attitudinal reaction. To use this tactic effectively, leaders must have insight into what kinds of things are important to the target.Consultation occurs when the target is allowed to participate in deciding how to carry out or implement a request. This tactic increases commitment from the target, who now has a stake in seeing that his or her opinions are valued.A leader uses collaboration by attempting to make it easier for the target to complete the request. Collaboration could involve the leader helping complete the task, providing required resources, or removing obstacles that make task completion difficult.

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7) The moderately effective influence tactics are ingratiation, personal appeals, and apprising, while the least effective ones are pressure, coalitions, and exchange.Ingratiation is the use of favors, compliments, or friendly behavior to make the target feel better about the influencer. You might more commonly hear this referred to as “sucking up,” especially when used in an upward influence sense. Ingratiation has been shown to be more effective when used as a long-term strategy and not nearly as effective when used immediately prior to making an influence attempt. Personal appeals occur when the requestor asks for something based on personal friendship or loyalty. The stronger the friendship, the more successful the attempt is likely to be. Apprising occurs when the requestor clearly explains why performing the request will benefit the target personally. It differs from rational persuasion in that it focuses solely on the benefit to the target as opposed to simple logic or benefits to the group or organization.Pressure, the use of coercive power through threats and demands, is a poor way to influence others and may only bring benefits over the short term. Coalitions occur when the influencer enlists other people to help influence the target. These people could be peers, subordinates, or one of the target’s superiors. Coalitions are generally used in combination with one of the other tactics. For instance, if rational persuasion is not strong enough, the influencer might bring in another person to show that that person agrees with the logic of the argument. An exchange tactic is used when the requestor offers a reward or resource to the target in return for performing a request. This type of request requires that the requestor have something of value to offer. It differs from apprising in that the benefit is something that the requestor gives to the target and not something that simply results from the action. Although exchange “can” be effective at times, it is very unpredictable and can even end up have a negative effect on influence.

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8) There are three basic responses to influence tactics: internalization (behavior and attitude changes), compliance (behavior changes only), and resistance (no change in behavior or attitude).Internalization occurs when the target of influence agrees with and becomes committed to the influence request. For a leader, this is the best outcome because it results in employees putting forth the greatest level of effort in accomplishing what they are asked to do. Internalization reflects a shift in both the behaviors and the attitudes of employees. Proper use of the personal forms of power are most likely to result in internalization.Compliance occurs when targets of influence are willing to do what the leader asks, but they do it with a degree of ambivalence. Compliance reflects a shift in the behaviors of employees but not their attitudes. This behavior is the most common response to influence attempts in organizations, because anyone with some degree of power who makes a reasonable request is likely to achieve compliance. That response allows leaders to accomplish their purpose, but it doesn’t bring about the highest levels of employee effort and dedication. Proper use of organizational forms of power are, at best, most likely to result in compliance.Resistance occurs when the target refuses to perform the influence request and puts forth an effort to avoid having to do it. Employee resistance could come in the form of making excuses, trying to influence the requestor in return, or simply refusing to carry out the request. Resistance is most likely when the influencer’s power is low relative to the target or when the request itself is inappropriate or unreasonable.

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9) Organizational politics can be seen as actions by individuals that are directed toward the goal of furthering their own self-interests. Although there’s generally a negative perception of politics, it’s important to note that this definition doesn’t imply that furthering one’s self-interests is necessarily in opposition to the company’s interests. Research has recently supported the notion that, to be effective, leaders must have a certain degree of political skill.Political skill is the ability to effectively understand others at work and use that knowledge to influence others in ways that enhance personal and/or organizational objectives. Research indicates that there are four dimensions of political skill. Networking ability is an adeptness at identifying and developing diverse contacts. Social astuteness is the tendency to observe others and accurately interpret their behavior. Interpersonal influence involves having an unassuming and convincing personal style that’s flexible enough to adapt to different situations. Apparent sincerity involves appearing to others to have high levels of honesty and genuineness.Taken together, these four skills provide a distinct advantage when navigating the political environments in organizations. Individuals who exhibit these types of skills have higher ratings of both task performance and organizational citizenship behaviors from others, especially when the social requirements of the job are high.

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10) Which type of conflict resolution does each person normally use and which style are they using in this particular decision? Are they using it correctly? Which influence tactic did Frank use? Did it work? Which influence tactic did Greg and Cecelia use? Did it work?Frank and Roz both normally use the competing style of conflict resolution, high assertiveness and low cooperation. Cecelia customarily used the collaboration style, high assertiveness and high cooperation. Greg appears to normally use an accommodating style and Colin uses the avoiding style as the youngest member of the team. In this particular situation everyone is using the competing style except for Colin who starts by using the avoiding approach but ends using the accommodating approach in agreeing with Greg and Cecelia. Frank ultimately also uses the accommodating approach by going along with the group decision when he could have overridden the decision and forced the group to meet the early deadline. In this scenario, Greg and Cecelia are using the competitive style appropriately because a quick decision is really important and they believe they are right, Frank and Roz are wrong, and there is no middle ground—they do not want to hand in work that is not their best. Frank and Roz both start off using the competing style because that is their nature, but Frank does end up using the accommodating style because he likely realizes Cecelia’s idea is better. In this case Frank is using the accommodating style correctly. Roz always accommodates Frank’s decisions and would have met the earlier deadline if Frank asked for it knowing there was no use arguing anyway, even though she did like the new idea better. Colin is appropriately using the accommodating approach by siding with Greg and Cecelia as he will show them, he is reasonable and build some credit with them. Finally, for the influence tactics, Frank tries to use pressure on Colin to make him agree to the early deadline. This does not work as Colin resists the influence. Cecelia, on the other hand, tries to influence Colin using Version 1

rational persuasion and backing up with a coalition of Greg who agrees with Cecelia. This tactic does work and Colin internalizes the influence and sides with Greg and Cecelia.

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11) Student examples will vary but should demonstrate an understanding of how best to use each style of conflict resolution. A sample answer follows.There are five different styles a leader can use when handling conflict, each of which is appropriate in different circumstances.A competing style occurs when one party attempts to get his or her own goals met without concern for the other party’s results. Competing occurs most often when one party has high levels of organizational power and can use legitimate or coercive power to settle the conflict. A competing style of conflict resolution should be used when a quick decision is really important; when you believe you are right, other solutions are wrong, and there is no middle ground; or when someone will try to leverage your unwillingness to compete against you.An avoiding style occurs when one party wants to remain neutral, stay away from conflict, or postpone the conflict to gather information or let things cool down. An avoiding style of conflict resolution is best used if the issue is not as important as others from a timing perspective; when there is no acceptable alternative and you can’t win; when arriving at a solution will cause more strife than a solution is worth; when people’s emotions are running high and backing off might help to come up with a resolution; or if acquiring more information would help to arrive at a better solution.An accommodating style occurs when one party gives in to the other and acts in a completely unselfish way. Leaders will typically use an accommodating strategy when the issue is really not that important to them but is very important to the other party. An accommodating style of conflict resolution should be used if you arrive at the conclusion that your choice or solution is wrong or that an alternative is better; when you want to show that you are reasonable and/or to build up credit with others; when others care substantially more about the outcome than you do and the ongoing relationship is important; or if you are going to lose and want to preserve your Version 1

dignity.Collaboration occurs when both parties work together to maximize outcomes. Collaboration is seen as a win-win form of conflict resolution. Collaboration is the most difficult to come by because it requires full sharing of information by both parties, a full discussion of concerns, relatively equal power between parties, and a lot of time investment to arrive at a resolution. A collaborative style of conflict resolution should be used when both parties have legitimate concerns and compromise won’t solve the problem; when different perspectives or learning might help arrive at a better alternative; or to build commitment by working together toward a consensus decision.Finally, compromise occurs when conflict is resolved through give-and-take concessions. Compromise is perhaps the most common form of conflict resolution, whereby each party’s losses are offset by gains and vice versa. It is seen as an easy form of resolution, maintains relations between parties, and generally results in favorable evaluations for the leader. A compromise style of conflict resolution should be used when a strong approach isn’t worth the damage it might cause; if both parties are committed to their choices and they are equally powerful; if arriving at an interim solution allows you to examine a complicated issue more fully; when time pressure doesn’t allow for a protracted resolution; or when other approaches haven’t worked.

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12) Distributive bargaining involves win-lose negotiating over a “fixed pie” of resources. That is, when one person gains, the other person loses (also known as a “zero-sum” condition). Distributive bargaining is similar in nature to a competing approach to conflict resolution. Some of the most visible negotiations that have traditionally been approached with a distributive bargaining tactic are union-management labor negotiations.Integrative bargaining is aimed at accomplishing a win-win scenario. It involves the use of problem solving and mutual respect to achieve an outcome that’s satisfying for both parties. Leaders who thoroughly understand the conflict resolution style of collaboration are likely to thrive in these types of negotiations. In general, integrative bargaining is a preferable strategy whenever possible, because it allows a long-term relationship to form between the parties (because neither side feels like the loser). In addition, integrative bargaining has a tendency to produce a higher level of outcome favorability when both parties’ views are considered, compared with distributive bargaining. Integrative bargaining is most appropriate in situations in which multiple outcomes are possible, there is an adequate level of trust, and parties are willing to be flexible.

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13) The negotiating process typically goes through a series of stages: preparation, exchanging information, bargaining, and closing and commitment.1. Preparation. Arguably the single most important stage of the negotiating process, during preparation each party determines what its goals are for the negotiation and whether or not the other party has anything to offer. Each party also should determine its best alternative to a negotiated agreement, or BATNA. A BATNA describes each negotiator’s bottom line. In other words, at what point are you willing to walk away? At the BATNA point, a negotiator is actually better off not negotiating at all.2. Exchanging information. In this nonconfrontational process, each party makes a case for its position and attempts to put all favorable information on the table. Each party also informs the other party how it has arrived at the conclusions it has and which issues it believes are important. When the other party is unfamiliar, this stage likely contains active listening and lots of questions. Studies show that successful negotiators ask many questions and gather much information during this stage.3. Bargaining. This stage is the one most people imagine when they hear the term “negotiation.” Success at this stage depends mightily on how well the previous two stages have proceeded. The goal is for each party to walk away feeling like it has gained something of value (regardless of the actual bargaining strategy). During this stage, both parties likely must make concessions and give up something to get something in return. To the degree that each party keeps the other party’s concerns and motives in mind, this stage will go much more smoothly.4. Closing and commitment. This stage entails the process of formalizing an agreement reached during the previous stage. Ideally, there will be no issues or misconceptions about the agreement arrived at during the bargaining stage. If they do exist, the negotiation process can regress back into the bargaining stage, and the process starts all over again. The stage also might be simply a recognition that the Version 1

parties ended at an impasse with no agreement. 14) Mediation requires a third party to facilitate the dispute resolution process, though this third party has no formal authority to dictate a solution. In essence, a mediator plays the role of a neutral, objective party who listens to the arguments of each side and attempts to help two parties come to an agreement. In serious, potentially litigious situations, trained mediators offer a relatively easy and quick way out of difficult disputes.Arbitration occurs when a third party determines a binding settlement to a dispute. The arbitrator can be an individual or a group (board) whose job is to listen to the various arguments and then make a decision about the solution to the conflict. In some ways, arbitration is much riskier for both parties because the outcome of the dispute rests solely in the arbitrator’s hands. The arbitrator’s role isn’t to make everyone happy, but rather to arrive at the most equitable solution in his or her opinion.

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15) Power and influence are moderately correlated with job performance. When used correctly and focused on task-related outcomes, power and influence can create internalization in workers, such that they are both behaviorally and attitudinally focused on high levels of task performance. That internalization also helps increase citizenship behavior, whereas the compliance associated with power and influence can decrease counterproductive behavior. These job performance benefits make sense given that the effective use of power and influence can increase the motivation levels of employees, whereas the ineffective use of power and influence can increase the stress levels of employees.Likewise, power and influence are moderately related to organizational commitment. When a leader draws on personal sources of power, such as expert power and referent power, a stronger emotional bond can be created with the employee, boosting affective commitment. The effective use of such power should increase job satisfaction and a sense of trust in the leader, all of which are associated with increased commitment levels. As with job performance, however, it’s important to note that an ineffective use of power can also decrease commitment levels. In particular, repeated uses of coercive power or repeated reliance on hard influence tactics such as pressure or coalitions could actually decrease organizational commitment levels. 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) E 22) A 23) B 24) B Version 1

25) D 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) B 40) C 41) E 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) E 52) C 53) E 54) A Version 1

55) A 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) E 67) E 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) E 76) A 77) E 78) C 79) D 80) D 81) D 82) D 83) D 84) D Version 1

85) D 86) C 87) A 88) B 89) B 90) D 91) C 92) C 93) E 94) B 95) B 96) A 97) E 98) D 99) B 100) B 101) B 102) D 103) E 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) E 108) D 109) B 110) D 111) B 112) C 113) C 114) C Version 1

115) B 116) B 117) B 118) D 119) C 120) B 121) A 122) E 123) C 124) C 125) D 126) B 127) D 128) B 129) C 130) D 131) C 132) B 133) D 134) C 135) C 136) C 137) B 138) A 139) B 140) C 141) D 142) TRUE 143) TRUE 144) FALSE Version 1

145) FALSE 146) TRUE 147) TRUE 148) TRUE 149) TRUE 150) FALSE 151) TRUE 152) FALSE 153) TRUE 154) FALSE 155) TRUE 156) TRUE 157) FALSE 158) TRUE 159) FALSE 160) TRUE 161) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

What are the various ways in which leader effectiveness can be gauged?

Describe the leader-member exchange theory. Explain the two types of dyads.

3) Briefly define both leader effectiveness and leader emergence and provide the difference between them. Which traits and characteristics are associated with each? What are the two limitations to research directed at identifying leadership traits and characteristics?

Describe the four leader decision-making styles with examples.

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5) Briefly describe the time-driven model of leadership, including all seven factors the model includes. How does a manager use the model?

Differentiate between initiating structure and consideration.

7) Describe the R1 and R2 stages of the life cycle theory of leadership and identify the appropriate behaviors that should accompany each stage.

8) Describe the R3 and R4 stages of the life cycle theory of leadership and identify the appropriate behaviors that should accompany each stage.

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9) What is transformational leadership? Describe the “four I’s” of transformational leadership.

10) How does transformational leadership affect job performance and organizational commitment?

11)

Describe the training methods that can be used to create more effective leaders.

12)

The leader-member exchange theory argues that

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A) new relationships between leaders and members are typically marked by a role taking phase. B) most leaders can judge their performance by referring to the number of companies they have created. C) leader traits holds more practical relevance than leader actions. D) the correlations of the trait-leadership magnitude are strong. E) organizations should limit leader-member exchanges to maximize organizational productivity.

13) During which phase of the leader-member exchange theory does a manager describe role expectations to employees, with the employees attempting to fulfill those expectations with their job behaviors?

A) B) C) D) E)

readiness role taking role selling role making role designing

14) During the ________ phase of the leader-member exchange theory, the employee’s own expectations for the dyad get mixed in with those of the leader.

A) B) C) D) E)

role taking role selling participating role making role allocating

15) The ________ process is marked by a free-flowing exchange in which the leader offers more opportunities and resources and the employee contributes more activities and effort.

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A) B) C) D) E)

role taking role selling participating role making role allocating

16) During her first week at her new job, Ai’s manager, Consuelo, goes over all of the duties Ai will be expected to perform. She also introduces Ai around the office and makes her aware of all the fun things they do in and out of the office, such as “Pizza Fridays” and volunteering at an at-risk children’s center. She encourages Ai to get involved. Consuelo is engaged in

A) B) C) D) E)

mentoring. orientation. role taking. role making. role modeling.

17) According to the leader-member exchange theory, the two general types of leadermember dyads are

A) B) C) D) E)

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role taking exchange and role selling exchange. high-quality exchange and low-quality exchange. intrinsic and extrinsic. role making and role taking. participating exchange and observing exchange.

18) Joyce works in an office of 20 people and seven or eight employees go to lunch together at least once a week. Joyce never attends the lunches, though all are welcome, but the office manager attends regularly. When Joyce found out about the new phone system being installed, she realized her coworkers that attended the lunches already knew about the new phone system. Joyce likely has a(n) ________ dyad with her office manager.

A) B) C) D) E)

19)

participating low-quality intrinsic high-quality extrinsic

In the leader-member exchange theory, the low-quality exchange dyad forms the leader’s

A) B) C) D) E)

outgroup. internal attributes. ingroup. levels of mutual trust. obligations.

20) Brady looks up to his boss, Malik, who has a business degree from Yale and, like Brady, is ambitious, successful, and extroverted. In addition, Brady and Malik share a similar, warped sense of humor. Malik often tells Brady “you remind me of myself ten years ago.” Brady is likely to be a member of Malik’s

A) B) C) D) E)

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triad. dyad. ingroup. outgroup. support team.

21) Simon started working at Solaris Industries right after college, and he had instant rapport with his boss, Felix. Felix not only showed him the ropes, but always encouraged Simon as he pursued his goals, such as starting graduate school. Over the years, Simon and Felix developed a close relationship, with Felix coming to Simon’s wedding and his graduation. The other employees in Felix and Simon’s department love Felix as well. A few months ago, Felix retired and was replaced by Emmett. Emmett has a very different personality but soon proves himself to be an effective and motivating boss. What do you think is a likely reaction of Simon to this change?

A) He tells his colleague Naomi that things are not the same and that he is thinking about leaving the company. B) Simon, along with the rest of the employees feel demoralized, unmotivated, and angry about the change. C) He is resentful because he feels he should have gotten Felix’s job, so he talks to senior management. D) After a period of depression, Simon experiences a renewed sense of commitment to the company. E) Simon’s affect-based trust of Felix and the company is transferred to Emmett.

22) The degree to which the leader’s actions result in the achievement of the unit’s goals; the continued commitment of the unit’s employees; and the development of mutual trust, respect, and obligation in leader-member dyads are all called

A) B) C) D) E)

23)

outgroup readiness. leader effectiveness. leader emergence. leader focus. individualized consideration.

________ suggest that leaders are born, not made.

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A) B) C) D) E)

24)

Leader-member exchange theories Ohio State studies of leadership Transformational theories of leadership Contingent theory of leadership Great person theories of leadership

The traits of high conscientiousness and low agreeableness are linked to leader

A) B) C) D) E)

efficiency. emergence. effectiveness. substitution. efficacy.

25) Sierra, an intern, is well-liked by everyone in the office. She has seemingly boundless energy, asks a lot of questions, and is self-confident without being arrogant. Her supervisor, John, is discussing her time at the company with his colleague Maxine. He predicts that

A) B) C) D) E)

26)

Sierra is a natural-born cooperator, rather than a leader. Sierra’s personality has no bearing on her leadership abilities. Sierra’s personality means she is likely to emerge as a leader. Sierra is too nice and therefore unlikely to be an effective leader. Sierra’s personality means she is likely to become an effective leader.

Which of the following refers to how well people actually do in a leadership role?

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A) B) C) D) E)

27)

leader personality leader effectiveness leader emergence leader perception leader characteristic

Which of the following characteristics is most closely related to leader effectiveness?

A) B) C) D) E)

low agreeableness high conscientiousness high introversion low neuroticism high openness to experience

28) Researchers found two particular limitations to trait theory: traits had less practical relevance than leader actions and

A) B) outcome. C) D) E)

correlations between leader traits and leader effectiveness were weak. trait-leadership correlations were strong when leader effectiveness served as the traits had more to do with inclusion in the ingroup. transformational leaders had different traits than other leaders. leader traits had no relationship to dyadic leadership.

29) Ji-Eun is in charge of selecting an intern for the HR department at her company. She is especially interested in identifying the candidate with the strongest possibility for leadership. After interviewing five candidates, who do you think she chooses?

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A) Kaelynn, who was late to the interview and not very well-prepared but was funny and smart B) Dennis, who was introverted but reacted well when the interview was interrupted by an important phone call C) Carlotta, who bragged about having gone to an Ivy League school and ended up sort of taking over the interview D) Rosemary, who was smart and sharp but was self-deprecating and shy when asked to talk about herself E) Qasim, who did not have quite as much experience but was sharp and outgoing and showed an extreme willingness to learn

30) A leader’s ________ reflects the process that the leader uses to generate and choose from a set of alternatives to solve a problem.

A) B) C) D) E)

operational efficiency day-to-day behavior decision-making style emergence style operational style

31) Which of the following decision-making styles is characterized by the highest level of employee involvement?

A) B) C) D) E)

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consultative autocratic delegative facilitative supportive

32) Alisha is the manager of Fresh Marketplace, an organic café, juice bar, and supermarket. The company has recently been faced with competition from Oriole Organic Supermarket. Alisha meets with her team to get their thoughts on how Fresh Marketplace can become more competitive. They have a limited budget, so she needs to figure out where to best spend the money they have. After the meeting, she weighs their ideas before making a decision. Alisha’s leadership style is

A) B) C) D) E)

33)

autocratic. facilitative. democratic. team-based. consultative.

Which of the following is not one of the four styles leaders can use to make decisions?

A) B) C) D) E)

autocratic negotiative facilitative delegative consultative

34) Claire has built her company by giving special attention to details. She is highly meticulous and demanding and often imposes her decisions on subordinates. Claire makes use of the ________ style of decision making.

A) B) C) D) E)

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autocratic consultative transformational participative delegative

35) Solange, a department manager at LeClerc Sportswear, uses a style of decision-making that focuses on using the skills, experiences, and ideas of others. The final decision-making power is with Solange. However, she does not make major decisions without getting inputs from those that will be affected. It can be said that she uses the ________ style of leader decision making.

A) B) C) D) E)

autocratic consultative facilitative participative transactional

36) With a(n) ________ decision-making style, employees have a say in the decision-making process, but the ultimate authority still rests with the leader.

A) B) C) D) E)

delegative directive consultative facilitative autocratic

37) Chang is the art director at Idlewild Graphic Design. The firm recently acquired a new client, Palomino Film Productions. They are designing a logo, ad campaign, posters, and other materials for the client. Chang meets with his entire design team, and together they hash out ideas for the visual approach they should take on the project. Designers bring prototypes and everyone votes on them, majority wins. Chang’s leadership style is

A) B) C) D) E)

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consultative. democratic. facilitative. autocratic. delegative.

38) Tarquin is a quality control manager at Olympia Sporting Goods. Any time a problem arises and a decision needs to be made, he believes in getting his people involved. He presents the problem to his employees and seeks consensus on a solution. He insists in these problemsolving meetings that his opinion and suggestions carry no more weight than anyone else’s. Which of the following is the decision-making style that Tarquin is displaying?

A) B) C) D) E)

consultative autocratic delegative facilitative negotiative

39) Julio has been newly appointed as the CEO of SmartSystems, Inc. He is still learning how various departments function in the organization. Until he is able to gain sufficient knowledge and can suggest some changes, he relies on the suggestions and opinions of his team members and lets them do the things the way they are used to. He does not generally interfere in the decisions made by the employees but, at times, shares his past experiences with the employees. It can be said that Julio has adopted a(n) ________ style of decision making.

A) B) C) D) E)

autocratic participative consultative delegative negotiative

40) Which of the following is the style of decision making whereby the leader plays no role in deliberations unless asked?

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A) B) C) D) E)

directive autocratic delegative facilitative consultative

41) Nico is the owner of Yesteryear, a chain of vintage clothing stores. She lets the store managers and employees decide for themselves how best to lay out the stores and what to do about the problems they face on a daily basis. She basically serves as a consultant, but leaves the ultimate decision of how to solve problems up to her workers. Nico’s leadership style is

A) B) C) D) E)

worker-based. laissez-faire. consultative. delegative. facilitative.

42) Research studies have repeatedly shown that not only does allowing employees to participate in decision making develop the employees’ own decision-making skills, but it also increases their

A) B) C) D) E)

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social skills. job satisfaction. task skills. obedience. job performance.

43) Ariel, Fouad, Nicola, and Daryush are four managers at Lost Soles Shoes. Each uses a different decision-making style and believes that their style is the best. Ariel always presents the problem to her employees and gathers their opinions and suggestions but makes the decision herself. Fouad gives his employees the responsibility for making the decision within a set of specified boundary conditions. Nicola makes the decision without asking her employees for their opinions or suggestions. Daryush presents the problem to his employees and seeks consensus, emphasizing that her opinion is only as important as every other employee’s in her department. Ariel is displaying the ________ style of decision making.

A) B) C) D) E)

consultative autocratic delegative facilitative directive

44) Ariel, Fouad, Nicola, and Daryush are four managers at Lost Soles Shoes. Each uses a different decision-making style and believes that their style is the best. Ariel always presents the problem to her employees and gathers their opinions and suggestions but makes the decision herself. Fouad gives his employees the responsibility for making the decision within a set of specified boundary conditions. Nicola makes the decision without asking her employees for their opinions or suggestions. Daryush presents the problem to his employees and seeks consensus, emphasizing that her opinion is only as important as every other employee’s in her department. Fouad is using the ________ decision-making style.

A) B) C) D) E)

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consultative autocratic delegative facilitative directive

45) Ariel, Fouad, Nicola, and Daryush are four managers at Lost Soles Shoes. Each uses a different decision-making style and believes that their style is the best. Ariel always presents the problem to her employees and gathers their opinions and suggestions but makes the decision herself. Fouad gives his employees the responsibility for making the decision within a set of specified boundary conditions. Nicola makes the decision without asking her employees for their opinions or suggestions. Daryush presents the problem to his employees and seeks consensus, emphasizing that her opinion is only as important as every other employee’s in her department. Which of the following decision-making styles is Nicola displaying?

A) B) C) D) E)

consultative autocratic delegative facilitative negotiative

46) Ariel, Fouad, Nicola, and Daryush are four managers at Lost Soles Shoes. Each uses a different decision-making style and believes that their style is the best. Ariel always presents the problem to her employees and gathers their opinions and suggestions but makes the decision herself. Fouad gives his employees the responsibility for making the decision within a set of specified boundary conditions. Nicola makes the decision without asking her employees for their opinions or suggestions. Daryush presents the problem to his employees and seeks consensus, emphasizing that her opinion is only as important as every other employee’s in her department. Daryush is displaying the ________ decision-making style.

A) B) C) D) E)

47)

consultative autocratic delegative facilitative directive

Which of the following factors is not included in the time-driven model of leadership?

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A) B) C) D) E)

48)

team cohesiveness employee expertise importance of commitment teamwork skills leader expertise

Which of the following factors is included in the time-driven model of leadership?

A) B) C) D) E)

intellectual stimulation shared objectives idealized influence individual personality contingent rewards

49) In the time-driven model of leadership, which style is reserved for decisions that are significant and where the leader’s expertise is high?

A) B) C) D) E)

consultative autocratic delegative facilitative supportive

50) In the time-driven model of leadership, which style is appropriate for circumstances in which the decision significance is low, employees have expertise and strong teamwork skills, and leader expertise is low?

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A) B) C) D) E)

consultative autocratic facilitative delegative negotiative

51) According to research on the time-driven model of leadership, which leadership style seems to be overused by managers?

A) B) C) D) E)

autocratic consultative delegative facilitative negotiative

52) Quentin is the owner of Sail Away Travel, a travel agency specializing in luxury cruise packages. Following a fire at their old location, the company moved into a brand-new location, and Quentin is in the process of refurbishing the new space. He needs to buy furniture and equipment as well as office décor, kitchen supplies, new computers for his employees, and many small office supplies. The old space consisted of several small rooms, while the new one is basically one large room. Quentin’s employees have their own ideas about how the new office should be laid out. Lorna and Dani want an open office plan with no partitions, while Andre says he can only work in a space with more privacy. Dani brings up that she studied art in college, while Mark says he has a friend who can get computer equipment at cost. Quentin himself honestly does not care that much about how the office looks. How should he approach the situation?

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A) He should make all the decisions himself. Because everyone in the office wants to do things differently, they will never agree on everything. B) He should weigh the pros and cons of what employees want but make the ultimate decision himself because they have a limited budget and cannot afford some of the options the employees like. C) He should consider input from his employees, but he should ultimately make the decisions himself, and if they do not like it, too bad. After all, it is impossible to make everyone in an office happy. D) He should meet with his employees and discuss each remodeling decision, seeking to obtain consensus as much as possible. He might put the partitioned space versus open space question to a vote, for example. E) He should hand over the reins to his employees on the majority of decisions. For example, Dani should be responsible for purchasing artwork for the office, while Mark should be tasked with buying the new computers.

53) Which type of structure reflects the extent to which the leader defines and structures the roles of employees in pursuit of goal attainment?

A) B) C) D) E)

initiating structure delegative structure consideration structure participative structure transformational structure

54) Jackson’s boss, Samira, is excited about a new project management system she learned about at a weekend seminar, which purports to increase accountability and efficiency by 30 percent. She bought it for the office and hired a trainer to teach everyone in the office how to use it. What dimension of day-to-day leadership is Samira demonstrating?

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A) B) C) D) E)

innovation consideration initiating structure test-marketing group consensus

55) ________ reflects the extent to which leaders create job relationships characterized by mutual trust, respect for employee ideas, and thoughtfulness regarding employee feelings.

A) B) C) D) E)

Transformation Delegating Consideration Participation Initiating structure

56) Orrin, the manager of Nordic Kitchen and Bath, has always been supportive toward the employees and understands their feelings. On most occasions, he overlooks their mistakes and gives them opportunities to develop a friendly atmosphere in the office. He often takes on some of their work in order to reduce their burden. Orrin would score high on

A) B) C) D) E)

initiating structure. intermediation. consideration. directive behavior. transactional leadership.

57) Fatima has a deep concern for the welfare of her subordinates, and she promotes interactive discussions with them. Fatima can be described as a manager who scores high on

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A) B) C) D) E)

initiating structure. autocratic leadership. consideration. managerial control. discipline.

58) Which of the following statements is true of the Ohio State studies or the University of Michigan studies?

A) The Ohio State studies framed their concepts as task-oriented and relations-oriented. B) The University of Michigan studies framed their concepts as production-centered and employee-centered. C) The Ohio State studies framed their concepts as two ends of one continuum. D) The University of Michigan studies found leaders could have high initiating structure and high consideration. E) The University of Michigan studies argued that initiating structure and consideration were independent concepts.

59) The Ohio State studies argued that initiating structure and consideration are ________, while the University of Michigan studies proposed them to be

A) B) C) D) E)

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independent concepts; ends of a continuum ends of a continuum; independent concepts dependent concepts; independent concepts correlated with leadership effectiveness; not correlated with leadership effectiveness ends of a continuum; central points in a continuum

60) Bianca has just hired five new people for her startup, Inspirex, which has been in business for a few years and recently received a large sum of money from an angel investor. Xavier and Rashad are two of the new team members. They go out for a drink at the end of their second week and discuss the atmosphere at Inspirex. Rashad really appreciates the fact that Bianca planned a fun meet-and-greet party the first week and went out of her way to integrate them into the team. Xavier agrees and adds that he appreciated Bianca’s responsiveness to questions and her “open-door” policy. What else did Rashad and Xavier most likely take note of regarding Bianca’s behavior?

A) She emphasized the roles of each member of the team, making sure they understood their duties and responsibilities. B) In a meeting the first week, she solicited Rashad’s and Xavier’s opinions, instead of just making them sit and listen. C) She checked in frequently the first week to make sure Rashad and Xavier were making progress toward daily goals. D) She went over the company rules and had Rashad and Xavier take a short quiz to demonstrate their understanding. E) She introduced Rashad and Xavier to their team leaders, who then explained to them their respective projects.

61)

Which of the following theories is also known as the situational model of leadership?

A) B) C) D) E)

the Ohio State studies the University of Michigan studies the life cycle theory of leadership the time-driven model of leadership Herzberg’s two-factor theory

62) The life cycle theory of leadership suggests that ________ varies across employees and can be expressed in terms of four important snapshots from low to high.

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A) B) C) D) E)

motivation skills experience readiness emotional intelligence

63) Google’s project OXYGEN found that the three most important habits that determined leader success were all oriented toward ________: meeting regularly with employees, taking an interest in them personally, and asking questions rather than always providing answers.

A) B) C) D) E)

integration initiating structure efficiency consideration emergence

64) According to the life cycle theory of leadership, a group of employees who are working together for the first time and are eager to begin, but who lack the experience and confidence needed to perform their roles, are at which level of readiness?

A) B) C) D) E)

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R1 R2 R3 R4 R5

65) Margarita recently started working as a temp for Lucid Systems Technology. On her first day, Shari, her team leader, goes over the details of how to use the accounting software and how to file a report on her work at the end of each day. By the end of the first week, Margarita is confident and able to do her work without asking Shari for guidance, but Shari still checks in periodically to give her encouragement and suggestions. By the end of the week, Shari is demonstrating which stage in the life cycle theory of leadership?

A) B) C) D) E)

R1, telling R1, selling R3, selling R4, delegating R3, participating

66) Hamid is part of a team working on a new website for the company. Hamid is new to the company but taught himself to code at age 11 and has a degree in web design from the local university. When Isa, his supervisor, realizes the extent of Hamid’s expertise in this area, he tasks Hamid with taking over the back-end design of the website. Isa’s behavior is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

R4, participating. R4, delegating. R3, delegating. R2, selling. R1, telling.

67) The life cycle theory of leadership holds that the ________ stage, leader’s attention must be devoted to directing followers because their goals and roles need to be clearly defined, so the ________ leader behavior is appropriate.

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A) B) C) D) E)

R1; telling R2; selling R2; participating R1; delegating R2; performing

68) Which leader behavior, according to the life cycle theory of leadership, comprises high initiating structure and high consideration?

A) B) C) D) E)

telling selling participating delegating performing

69) In the life cycle theory of leadership, the optimal combination of leader behavior in the R2 stage is

A) B) C) D) E)

delegating. telling. selling. participating. negotiating.

70) The optimal combination of leader behavior in the R3 stage of the life cycle theory of leadership is

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A) B) C) D) E)

delegating. telling. selling. participating. negotiating.

71) The life cycle theory of leadership advocates that the optimal combination of leader behavior in the R4 stage is

A) B) C) D) E)

delegating. telling. selling. participating. negotiating.

72) In the ________ leader behavior, leaders supplement their directing with support and encouragement to protect the confidence levels of the employees.

A) B) C) D) E)

delegating telling selling participating negotiating

73) Which of the following statements is false about research findings related to the life cycle theory?

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A) B) C) D) E)

The theory’s predictions are not supported for high readiness situations. The theory’s predictions are supported only for low readiness situations. The shifting nature of its predictions has made scientific testing somewhat difficult. Actual leaders use the recommended combinations more than 50 percent of the time. Telling and selling behaviors are more effective when motivation and confidence are

high.

74) Shawn, Thu, Rei, and Heather are managers working at PureDrop, a bottled water manufacturing company. They each supervise groups of employees who are very different from each other. From a readiness point of view, it can be said that Shawn’s group is able but unwilling, Thu’s unit is both able and willing, Rei’s is neither able nor willing, and Heather’s is not able but highly willing to take on the responsibilities.Which of the following behaviors would be best suited to deal with Shawn’s group’s readiness?

A) B) C) D) E)

delegating telling selling participating negotiating

75) Shawn, Thu, Rei, and Heather are managers working at PureDrop, a bottled water manufacturing company. They each supervise groups of employees who are very different from each other. From a readiness point of view, it can be said that Shawn’s group is able but unwilling, Thu’s unit is both able and willing, Rei’s is neither able nor willing, and Heather’s is not able but highly willing to take on the responsibilities.Rei’s optimal behavior to deal with her group’s readiness should be characterized by ________ initiating structure and ________ consideration.

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A) B) C) D) E)

moderate; low low; high low; moderate high; high moderate; moderate

76) Shawn, Thu, Rei, and Heather are managers working at PureDrop, a bottled water manufacturing company. They each supervise groups of employees who are very different from each other. From a readiness point of view, it can be said that Shawn’s group is able but unwilling, Thu’s unit is both able and willing, Rei’s is neither able nor willing, and Heather’s is not able but highly willing to take on the responsibilities. In this scenario, Heather’s group is at the ________ readiness level.

A) B) C) D) E)

R1 R2 R3 R4 R5

77) Shawn, Thu, Rei, and Heather are managers working at PureDrop, a bottled water manufacturing company. They each supervise groups of employees who are very different from each other. From a readiness point of view, it can be said that Shawn’s group is able but unwilling, Thu’s unit is both able and willing, Rei’s is neither able nor willing, and Heather’s is not able but highly willing to take on the responsibilities. Which of the following leadership behaviors should Thu adopt for his group?

A) B) C) D) E)

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delegating telling selling participating negotiating

78) Shawn, Thu, Rei, and Heather are managers working at PureDrop, a bottled water manufacturing company. They each supervise groups of employees who are very different from each other. From a readiness point of view, it can be said that Shawn’s group is able but unwilling, Thu’s unit is both able and willing, Rei’s is neither able nor willing, and Heather’s is not able but highly willing to take on the responsibilities. Which of the following leadership behaviors should Heather adopt to deal with her group’s readiness?

A) B) C) D) E)

delegating telling selling participating negotiating

79) ________ leadership involves inspiring followers to commit to a shared vision that provides meaning to their work while also serving as a role model who helps followers develop their own potential and view problems from new perspectives.

A) B) C) D) E)

80)

Management-by-exception Contingent reward Transactional Laissez-faire Transformational

Which of the following styles represents avoidance of leadership altogether?

A) B) C) D) E)

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passive management-by-exception contingent-reward transactional leadership laissez-faire leadership active management-by-exception transformational leadership

81) Kazue works in a department store. She has noticed that several of her coworkers avoid interacting with customers, take a lot of smoke breaks, and leave their sales areas messy and disorganized. When she discusses the situation with her manager, Rob, he says he will do something about it, but he does not. In fact, nothing changes until several customers file complaints in the space of a single week, at which point Rob takes disciplinary measures toward two of his employees. Rob is demonstrating

A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire leadership. transactional leadership. contingent reward leadership. active management-by-exception. passive management-by-exception.

82) In the case of ________ leadership, the leader promises rewards in exchange for adequate performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire transactional transformational contingent reward active management-by-exception

83) The full spectrum of transformational leadership can be summarized using four dimensions, collectively called “the Four I’s.” Which of the following answer options is not one of the Four I’s?

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A) B) C) D) E)

intellectual stimulation individualized consideration inspirational motivation idealized influence initiating structure

84) Kenya believes that there are no actions needed until she receives complaints about someone’s performance. Which of the following styles of leadership is Kenya following?

A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire leadership transactional leadership passive management-by-exception contingent reward transformational leadership

85) With ________, the leader arranges to monitor mistakes and errors dynamically and takes corrective action when required.

A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire leadership contingent reward leadership passive management-by-exception active management-by-exception ctransformational leadership

86) Technically, Vinh’s direct supervisor is Leila, but his de facto boss is his colleague Mark, who has been with the company for several years. Vinh has stopped even trying to get Leila’s feedback on problems, since she always seems to be out of the office for some reason or another, and even when she is there, she avoids talking to anyone. Leila is demonstrating

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A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire leadership. transactional leadership. contingent reward leadership. active management-by-exception. passive management-by-exception.

87) Cary just announced to his employees that if they meet the sales goal for the month of August, they can have a paid four-day vacation. Which of the following styles of leadership is being used by Cary in this case?

A) B) C) D) E)

88)

laissez-faire contingent reward passive management-by-exception active management-by-exception transformational

Which of the following represents the carrot-and-stick approach to leadership?

A) B) C) D) E)

laissez-faire leadership passive-avoidant leadership transactional leadership charismatic leadership transformational leadership

89) ________ involves behaving in ways that foster an enthusiasm for and commitment to a shared vision of the future.

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A) Idealized influence B) Intellectual stimulation C) Inspirational motivation D) Individualized consideration E) Intellectual simulation

90) ________ involves behaving in ways that challenge followers to be innovative and creative by questioning assumptions and reframing old situations in new ways.

A) B) C) D) E)

Laissez-faire leadership Inspirational motivation Transactional leadership Intellectual stimulation Individualized consideration

91) ________ involves behaving in ways that help followers achieve their potential through coaching, development, and mentoring.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Laissez-faire leadership Inspirational motivation Transactional leadership Intellectual stimulation Individualized consideration

92) Over lunch, Daniela and Hassan are discussing their managers. Daniela describes her boss as extremely motivating. Work goals are more demanding than ever, but even though the rewards of the hard work may not come soon, Daniela trusts her manager’s emphasis on the future good that will come from their work. She feels that working with this new manager has led to a much stronger emotional bond with the organization, much more engagement with the work, and an overall increase in her job satisfaction. Daniela’s boss can be described as a(n) ________ leader.

A) B) C) D) E)

transformational authentic transactional perceptive Weberian

93) ________ reduce the importance of the leader while simultaneously providing a direct benefit to employee performance.

A) B) C) D) E)

Substitutes Directive styles Transactional styles Neutralizers Enhancers

94) JoBeth works at a nonprofit organization whose goals she feels very in tune with. Having said that, she does not especially care for her boss, and neither do most of the other employees in her department. JoBeth finds Rani an unimaginative, inefficient, and personally unappealing boss, who makes things harder than they have to be and has unpleasant habits. However, JoBeth loves working with her team. They all get along well and do a lot to support each other. She feels deeply motivated by and invested in her team’s goals. JoBeth’s team is an effective

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A) B) C) D) E)

95)

neutralizer. benefactor. substitute. motivator. satisficer.

Which of the following answer options is a neutralizer rather than a substitute?

A) B) C) D) E)

professionalism intrinsic satisfaction task feedback task stability group cohesion

96) Phyllis and her coworkers hardly ever talk to their boss Courtney. In fact, they only see her once or twice a day. Nevertheless, their department generally chugs along like a well-oiled machine thanks to the extremely structured nature of their work. They use a software system that tracks their time, guides them through each step of their workday, and even contains a help guide that addresses almost every conceivable problem that could arise. Everyone knows what their job is and what is expected of them. The software system acts as a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

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replacement. neutralizer. augmenter. substitute. accessory.

97) Craig, the CEO of ShopRite, Inc., has noticed that one of his store locations has consistently through-the-roof sales numbers. Also, a survey completed by employees revealed that this particular location’s workers showed extremely high levels of motivation and job satisfaction when compared to other locations in the region. Everyone who works there gave high praise to their manager, Jamal. What else did the survey reveal about Jamal’s employees?

A) B) C) D) E) the team.

They reported feeling a lot of pressure to exceed sales goals every month. They demonstrated citizenship behaviors, such as volunteering after work. They reported higher levels of stress than stores with lower sales numbers. They loved Jamal but were not especially committed to the company overall. The highest achievers were doing it for themselves rather than out of commitment to

98) Many training programs (ideally) focus on ________ leadership content, and research suggests these programs can be effective.

A) B) C) D) E)

consultative delegative transactional transformational consideration

99) Employees whose managers participated in transformational leadership training programs reported ________ afterwards.

A) B) C) D) E)

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higher levels of organizational commitment a temporary boost in their commitment levels higher levels of job performance and satisfaction higher levels of affective commitment to their bosses an increased level of teamwork among their coworkers

100) Martin started in the mail room at his company and worked his way up to a management position within a few years. For the first six months as manager of the sales department, he reflexively adopted a fairly autocratic style of leadership. The department did well enough, with good sales numbers and a middling level of employee commitment. During his paid vacation, Martin participated in a three-week transformational leadership retreat offered by the corporate headquarters. Tara and Kentaro are two of Martin’s employees. They are having lunch two months after Martin’s retreat and are discussing his leadership. What do you think they most likely observe about the effect of Martin’s new leadership style on the atmosphere in the office?

A) Kentaro remarks that, if anything, the seminar had had a somewhat negative effect, as Martin is now expecting them to problem-solve on their own, rather than telling them what to do. B) They discuss how everyone in the office seems a lot more motivated and how much it has affected their sales numbers, which are the highest the department has reported in years. C) Tara remarks that, while there were definite positive changes in Martin’s behavior the first few weeks after the seminar, he has since slipped back into his old leadership style. D) Kentaro says that while he personally feels more of a connection with Martin, he knows some people do not—for instance, Lupe actually misses Martin’s old leadership style. E) They both feel they have a more positive relationship with Martin, but their motivation and levels of commitment to the company are the same as they always were.

101) Leadership is the use of power and influence to direct the activities of followers toward goal attainment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Leader-member exchange theory argues that new leader-member relationships are typically marked by a role taking phase. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Traits are more predictive of leader emergence than they are of leader effectiveness.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Many of the correlations between traits and leadership are strong in magnitude when leader effectiveness serves as the outcome. ⊚ ⊚

105)

The autocratic style of leadership is characterized by high follower control. ⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

With a consultative style of decision making, leaders do not make the ultimate decision. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

With a delegative style, a leader plays no role in the deliberations unless asked. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Tony had six full-time leatherworkers and two part-time workers who worked in his leather shop. Tony was considering expanding his line of leather products from the boots, moccasins, and bags he now sold to include motorcycle accessories such as saddlebags and motorcycle seats. Tony separately asked each full-time leatherworker what they thought and if they had any expertise in either product. Then Tony caught up with the two part-time workers to ask their opinions. After that, Tony considered all the advice and decided to expand the product line. In this scenario, Tony used a facilitative style of decision making.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Each department at the public library had an information desk to help library patrons answer questions and find books. The department’s staff rotated desk duties so that everyone had time to work on other projects. As department manager, Miles grew weary of individual employees approaching him about changing their desk schedule. He finally told the department that as long as the desk is covered at all times by two employees, he did not care how it was handled. He left the desk scheduling up to them and he no longer had the annoying schedule change requests. Miles is using a facilitating style of decision making in this scenario. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The time-driven model of leadership suggests that factors combine to make some decision-making styles more effective in a given situation and other styles less effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Leaders who are high on initiating structure play a passive role in directing group activities and often fail to plan activities. ⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

Situational leadership theory is well supported by many scientific studies. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

113) Transformational leaders heighten followers’ awareness of the importance of certain outcomes while increasing their confidence that those outcomes can be achieved. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Transformational leadership represents the carrot-and-stick approach to leadership. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Idealized influence involves behaving in ways that earn the admiration, trust, and respect of followers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Inspirational motivation involves behaving in ways that foster an enthusiasm for a shared vision of the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) Employees with transformational leaders have higher levels of job satisfaction than other employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) The substitutes for leadership model suggests that certain characteristics of the situation can constrain the influence of the leader, making it more difficult for the leader to influence employee performance.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Neutralizers reduce the importance of the leader while providing a direct benefit to employee performance. ⊚ ⊚

120)

true false

Increasing the time spent on training the leaders can help maximize their effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH14 1) Leader effectiveness can be gauged in a number of ways. Leaders might be judged by objective evaluations of unit performance, such as profit margins, market share, sales, returns on investment, productivity, quality, costs in relation to budgeted expenditures, and so forth. If those sorts of indices are unavailable, the leader’s superiors may judge the performance of the unit on a more subjective basis. Other approaches to judging leader effectiveness center more on followers, including indices such as absenteeism, retention of talented employees, grievances filed, requests for transfer, and so forth. Those sorts of indices can be complemented by employee surveys that assess the perceived performance of the leader; the perceived respect and legitimacy of the leader; and employee commitment, satisfaction, and psychological wellbeing.

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2) Leader-member exchange theory describes how leader-member relationships develop over time on a dyadic basis. New leader-member relationships are typically marked by a role taking phase during which the manager describes the role expectations and the employee attempts to fulfill those expectations with his or her job behaviors. Eventually, it is supplemented by role making during which employees’ own expectations for the dyad get mixed in with those of the leader. Over time, these processes result in two general types of dyads. One type is the “high-quality exchange” dyad, marked by the frequent exchange of information, influence, latitude, support, and attention. Those dyads form the leader’s “ingroup” and are characterized by higher levels of mutual trust, respect, and obligation. The other type is the “low-quality exchange” dyad, marked by a more limited exchange of information, influence, latitude, support, and attention. Those dyads form the leader’s “outgroup” and are characterized by lower levels of trust, respect, and obligation.

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3) Leader effectiveness is the degree to which the leader’s actions result in the achievement of the unit’s goals, the continued commitment of the unit’s employees, and the development of mutual trust, respect, and obligation in leader-member dyads. Leader emergence is the process of becoming a leader in the first place. Leader emergence predicts who becomes a leader in the first place while leader effectiveness describes how well people actually do in a leadership role. There are six traits or characteristics that are linked to both emergence and effectiveness: high openness to experience, high extraversion, high general cognitive ability, high energy level, high stress tolerance, and high self-confidence. Two traits or characteristics have been linked directly to leader emergence: high conscientiousness and low agreeableness. The two limitations to research linking traits and characteristics to leadership are first, many of the trait-leadership correlations are weak in magnitude, particularly when leader effectiveness serves as the outcome. Second, the focus on leader traits holds less practical relevance than a focus on leader actions. Although research shows that traits can seemingly have an effect on leader effectiveness, these effects are generally explained much more strongly by leader behavior.

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4) Student answers and examples will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the four leader decision-making styles.The various leader decision-making styles include:1. Autocratic—The leader makes the decision without asking employees for their opinions or suggestions. For example, a boss who decides to select a new office supply company.2. Consultative—The leader presents the problem to the employees, gathers their opinions/suggestions, and then makes the decision himself or herself; employees “have a say” in the process. For example, a manager who asks for employee opinions about several temporary workers, but who makes ultimate decision on who to hire.3. Facilitative—The leader presents the problem to employees and seeks consensus with the leader’s opinion only as important as every other employee’s. For example, a manager who asks for employees to vote on a location for the annual awards banquet and selects the answers with the most votes, regardless of the location the manager personally voted for.4. Delegative—The leader gives employees the responsibility for making the decision within some set of specified boundary conditions. For example, a manager who sets a budget for new office computers but allows the IT employees to select the best model for the company’s purposes.

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5) The time-driven model of leadership suggests that seven factors combine to make some decision-making styles more effective than others in a given situation. These seven factors include: decision significance, importance of commitment, leader expertise, likelihood of commitment, shared objectives, employee expertise, and teamwork skills. Each factor is rated high or low. The figure of the model functions like a funnel, moving from left to right, with each answer taking you closer to the recommended style. Autocratic styles are reserved for decisions that are insignificant or for which employee commitment is unimportant. Delegative styles should be reserved for circumstances in which employees have strong teamwork skills and are not likely to commit blindly to whatever decision the leader provides. Deciding between the two remaining styles—consultative and facilitative—is more nuanced and requires a more complete consideration of all seven factors. 6) Initiating structure reflects the extent to which the leader defines and structures the roles of employees in pursuit of goal attainment. Leaders who are high on initiating structure play a more active role in directing group activities and prioritize planning, scheduling, and trying out new ideas. They might emphasize the importance of meeting deadlines, describe explicit standards of performance, ask employees to follow formalized procedures, and criticize poor work when necessary. On the other hand, consideration reflects the extent to which leaders create job relationships characterized by mutual trust, respect for employee ideas, and consideration of employee feelings. Leaders who are high on consideration create a climate of good rapport and strong, two-way communication and exhibit a deep concern for the welfare of employees. They might do personal favors for employees, take time to listen to their problems, support them when needed, and treat them as equals.

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7) R1 refers to a group of employees who are working together for the first time and are eager to begin, but they lack the experience and confidence needed to perform their roles. Here the optimal combination of leader behaviors is telling—high initiating structure and low consideration—in which case the leader provides specific instructions and closely supervises performance. In the R2 stage, the members have begun working together and, as typically happens, are finding that their work is more difficult than they had anticipated. As eagerness turns to dissatisfaction, the optimal combination of leader behaviors is selling— high initiating structure and high consideration. 8) At the R3 stage, employees have learned to work together well, although they still need support and collaboration from the leader to help them adjust to their more self-managed state of affairs. Here participating—low initiating structure and high consideration—becomes the optimal combination of leader behaviors. Finally, the optimal combination for the R4 readiness level is delegating—low initiating structure and low consideration—such that the leader turns responsibility for key behaviors over to the employees.

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9) Transformational leadership involves inspiring followers to commit to a shared vision that provides meaning to their work while also serving as a role model who helps followers develop their own potential and view problems from new perspectives.The “four I’s” are:1. Idealized influence involves behaving in ways that earn the admiration, trust and respect of followers, causing them to want to identify with and emulate the leader.2. Inspirational motivation involves behaving in ways that foster an enthusiasm for and commitment to a shared vision of the future.3. Intellectual stimulation involves behaving in ways that challenge followers to be innovative and creative by questioning assumptions and reframing old situations in new ways.4. Individualized consideration involves behaving in ways that help followers achieve their potential through coaching, development, and mentoring. 10) Employees with transformational leaders tend to have higher levels of task performance and engage in higher levels of citizenship behaviors. One reason is higher levels of motivation for these employees over employees without a transformational leader. Another reason is the employees trust a transformational leader more, making them willing to exert extra effort even when that effort might not be immediately rewarded. Employees with transformational leaders also tend to be more committed to their organization and have a stronger sense of obligation to remain present and engaged in their work. One reason for this is that employees with transformational leaders have higher levels of job satisfaction than other employees.

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11) Student answers will vary but should address specific examples of how leadership-training programs function and their results. A sample answer follows.Leadership training programs often focus on very specific issues, such as conducting more accurate performance evaluations, being a more effective mentor, structuring creative problem solving, or gaining more cultural awareness and sensitivity. Many training programs focus on transformational leadership content, and research suggests that those programs can be effective. For example, content could focus on contextual considerations that alter the effectiveness of decision-making styles or particular leader behaviors, such as initiating structure and consideration. One study of transformational leadership training occurred in one of the largest bank chains in Canada. The results showed that managers who participated in the training were rated as more transformational afterward. More importantly, their employees reported higher levels of organizational commitment, and their branches enjoyed better performance in terms of personal loan sales and credit card sales. 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) E 24) B Version 1

25) C 26) B 27) E 28) A 29) E 30) C 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C Version 1

55) C 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) D 64) A 65) E 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) A 72) C 73) B 74) D 75) D 76) A 77) A 78) B 79) E 80) C 81) E 82) D 83) E 84) C Version 1

85) D 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) E 92) A 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) B 97) B 98) D 99) A 100) B 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE Version 1

115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE 120) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Define organizational structure. What is an organizational chart, and how does it relate to organizational structure?

2) Brad is a plant manager for Future Bulbs, a manufacturer of LED lights. He is a bit dismayed by the production levels he is getting from the employees. Lenny, a manager from another plant, tells Brad he should implement work specialization because it boosted productivity in his plant. State at least two advantages and disadvantages Brad may experience if he implements work specialization.

Differentiate between centralization and decentralization.

4) Sky Dry Incorporated has over a dozen levels of management, and each manager is responsible for overseeing an average of three subordinates. Mountain Light Corporation has three levels of management, and each manager is responsible for overseeing an average of twenty subordinates. Classify Sky Dry and Mountain Light as having a tall or flat organizational structure, and explain why. State at least two disadvantages of tall organizational structures. Version 1

List the five dimensions of organizational structure and briefly define each dimension.

6) Ed’s Traditional Trail creates authentic supplies for historical reenactors. The business has used and perfected the same techniques to make its products for decades, and it has had a limited but loyal pool of customers since it began. Angie’s Apps creates computer software applications for an ever-changing clientele. The products they create and technology used to create them evolves constantly. Identify if Ed’s and Angie’s operate in stable or dynamic environments and explain how the environment influences organizational structure.

7) Differentiate between functional and multi-divisional structures. Create a diagram of each.

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Describe the three multi-divisional structures. Draw their organizational charts.

9) Ray is employed by Perpetual Products. Recently, Perpetual has grown too broad to be managed the way it always has been, so the company has implemented a matrix structure in response to its changing needs. Define matrix structure. Identify one strength and one weakness of such a structure from Ray’s viewpoint.

10) Briefly describe the effect of restructuring on job performance and organizational commitment.

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11) River Flow Incorporated has seen its core business of developing water sanitation devices undergo some major changes in recent years due to environmental regulations and the discovery of new technologies. River Flow’s leaders realize that the company must undergo an extensive restructuring to survive. What steps can River Flow’s leaders take to reduce the negative effects of restructuring efforts on employees? Explain.

12) ________ formally dictates how jobs and tasks are divided and coordinated between individuals and groups within the company.

A) B) C) D) E)

An organizational chart Formalization Centralization An organizational structure The chain of command

13) Eileen is the leader of a small compost facility that caters to organic farmers. She has to decide which person will perform which task, and how all the tasks will come together as the end product. This is an example of Eileen shaping her company’s

A) B) C) D) E)

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supply chain. profit margin. cultural values. mission statement. organizational structure.

14) Dana is the CEO of a large technology company. She has some very talented employees, but the company keeps falling behind its competitors. When Dana observes what is going on, she finds some cases where managers are micromanaging good employees, while other managers cannot address all the needs of their employees. Dana needs to address how her talent is

A) B) C) D) E)

recruited. identified. organized. disciplined. compensated.

15) The ________ helps organizational members and outsiders understand and comprehend how work is structured within a company.

A) B) C) D) E)

chain of command organizational chart structural map scalar chain Gantt chart

16) The managers at Microfab meet and realize that they have huge costs associated with training new employees, difficulty finding someone who can take the place of lost employees, and lower productivity than they would prefer from each employee. What can they do to address this issue?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

decrease the amount of control managers have over employees decrease the number of tasks each employee performs increase the number of tasks each employee performs increase the number of employees under each manager train the new employees themselves

17)

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies span of control?

A) B) C) D) E)

Briley is responsible for the fall seasonal product line. Vanna is responsible for managing 16 employees. Savannah makes all decisions affecting shipping. Octavio performs one single task repeatedly. Lucy is responsible for an annual purchasing budget of $100,000.

18) At Buddy’s Bird Barn, every employee has to consult Buddy before completing any sale, and only Buddy can make decisions about purchasing and advertising. These rules represent ________ at Buddy’s Bird Barn.

A) B) C) D) E)

specialization centralization formalization span of control chain of command

19) Shane is the project manager of the organizational development team at Solid Hardwoods. Shane’s team has been assigned the task of studying and evaluating Solid Hardwoods’ organizational structure. Shane divided the tasks among the team members to collect preliminary information on different elements of Solid Hardwoods’ structure. Meg was asked to collect information on the degree to which tasks are divided into separate jobs. Andrea was asked to collect information on formal authority relationships. Francine started looking into how many employees each manager has responsibility for, and Carol was asked to collect evidence on the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors at Solid Hardwoods. Shane decided to personally collect information and evidence on where exactly decisions are formally made at Solid Hardwoods. The team decided to meet with information in two weeks.Meg was given the job of collecting information on which of the following elements of the organizational structure?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

work specialization chain of command span of control formalization centralization

20) Shane is the project manager of the organizational development team at Solid Hardwoods. Shane’s team has been assigned the task of studying and evaluating Solid Hardwoods’ organizational structure. Shane divided the tasks among the team members to collect preliminary information on different elements of Solid Hardwoods’ structure. Meg was asked to collect information on the degree to which tasks are divided into separate jobs. Andrea was asked to collect information on formal authority relationships. Francine started looking into how many employees each manager has responsibility for, and Carol was asked to collect evidence on the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors at Solid Hardwoods. Shane decided to personally collect information and evidence on where exactly decisions are formally made at Solid Hardwoods. The team decided to meet with information in two weeks.Andrea was asked to collect information on which of the following elements of the organizational structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

work specialization chain of command span of control formalization centralization

21) Shane is the project manager of the organizational development team at Solid Hardwoods. Shane’s team has been assigned the task of studying and evaluating Solid Hardwoods’ organizational structure. Shane divided the tasks among the team members to collect preliminary information on different elements of Solid Hardwoods’ structure. Meg was asked to collect information on the degree to which tasks are divided into separate jobs. Andrea was asked to collect information on formal authority relationships. Francine started looking into how many employees each manager has responsibility for, and Carol was asked to collect evidence on the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors at Solid Hardwoods. Shane decided to personally collect information and evidence on where exactly decisions are formally made at Solid Hardwoods. The team decided to meet with information in two weeks.Francine is looking into information on which element of organizational structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

centralization formalization span of control chain of command work specialization

22) Shane is the project manager of the organizational development team at Solid Hardwoods. Shane’s team has been assigned the task of studying and evaluating Solid Hardwoods’ organizational structure. Shane divided the tasks among the team members to collect preliminary information on different elements of Solid Hardwoods’ structure. Meg was asked to collect information on the degree to which tasks are divided into separate jobs. Andrea was asked to collect information on formal authority relationships. Francine started looking into how many employees each manager has responsibility for, and Carol was asked to collect evidence on the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors at Solid Hardwoods. Shane decided to personally collect information and evidence on where exactly decisions are formally made at Solid Hardwoods. The team decided to meet with information in two weeks.On which element of organizational structure is Shane collecting information?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

formalization centralization span of control work specialization chain of command

23) Shane is the project manager of the organizational development team at Solid Hardwoods. Shane’s team has been assigned the task of studying and evaluating Solid Hardwoods’ organizational structure. Shane divided the tasks among the team members to collect preliminary information on different elements of Solid Hardwoods’ structure. Meg was asked to collect information on the degree to which tasks are divided into separate jobs. Andrea was asked to collect information on formal authority relationships. Francine started looking into how many employees each manager has responsibility for, and Carol was asked to collect evidence on the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors at Solid Hardwoods. Shane decided to personally collect information and evidence on where exactly decisions are formally made at Solid Hardwoods. The team decided to meet with information in two weeks.On which element of organizational structure was Carol asked to collect evidence?

A) B) C) D) E)

24)

centralization formalization span of control chain of command work specialization

Work specialization refers to

A) where decisions are formally made in organizations. B) the degree to which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs. C) how many employees each manager in the organization has responsibility for. D) answering the question of “who reports to whom?” and signifies formal authority relationships. E) the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors and decisions in an organization.

25) When looking at Wonder Guard Industries’ organizational structure, Janice spots a heading for work specialization, which is also commonly referred to as

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

26)

formalization. centralization. span of control. division of labor. chain of command.

Which of the following is true about work specialization?

A) It creates problems in larger firms where little flexibility is required. B) It makes training new employees easier when replacements are needed. C) It encourages employees to upgrade their skills in multiple disciplines. D) It improves the flexible nature of workers. E) It ensures that each worker performs different tasks every day.

27) The degree to which a job requires a number of different activities involving a number of different skills and talents is referred to as

A) B) C) D) E)

28)

task identity. variety. task significance. autonomy. feedback.

Which element of the organizational structure signifies formal authority relationships?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

chain of command formalization centralization work specialization span of control

29) Davanna is describing her company’s organizational structure. Which of the following terms would she use in her description?

A) B) C) D) E)

30)

newcomer orientation work specialization personality testing cognitive ability cultural values

Span of control

A) is the degree to which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs. B) answers the question of “who reports to whom?” and signifies formal authority relationships. C) refers to where decisions are formally made in organizations. D) refers to the number of employees each manager is responsible for in the organization. E) is the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors and decisions in an organization.

31) Kayden ran his own small company, WeBike, and had six people working for him. Dante also worked in a small company, BikesRUs, but he and four other co-workers answered to Sven, whose father owned the company and made all the final decisions. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true?

Version 1

A) WeBike’s company chart would be narrower than company chart of BikesRUs. B) Kayden has a wider span of control than Sven. C) BikesRUs would have a flatter company chart compared to WeBike’s company chart. D) Both companies have decentralized decision making. E) WeBike has a longer chain of command than BikesRUs.

32) At Pleasant Pools Inc., there is a total focus on providing care and satisfaction to each customer. In the Prominent Clients division, each manager is assigned three employees to supervise, whereas in the Component Assembly division, each manager supervises about 15 employees. The Prominent Clients division managers can be described as having ________ as opposed to ________ for the Component Assembly division managers.

A) B) C) D) E)

33)

a narrow span of control; a wide span of control a wide span of control; a narrow span of control narrow centralization; tall centralization tall formalization; flat formalization flat formalization; tall formalization

Which of the following statements is not true of span of control?

A) A wide span of control requires organizations to hire many managers, increasing labor costs. B) Narrow spans of control allow managers to be more interactive with employees. C) Ten employees is typically considered a wide span of control. D) A narrow span of control is typical of a tall structure. E) Organizational performance increases as span of control increases, but only up to a point.

34)

The relationship between performance and span of control is graphed as a(n)

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

35)

“arch” shape. “U” shape. straight horizontal line. straight vertical line. diagonal line sloping up to the right.

Current research suggests that

A) the narrower the span of control, the more productive employees become. B) a moderate span of control is best for an organization’s productivity. C) spans of control in organizations have decreased significantly in recent years. D) a wide span of control requires organizations to hire many managers. E) a wide span of control is especially important if the manager has more skill than the subordinates.

36)

________ reflects where decisions are formally made in organizations.

A) B) C) D) E)

Centralization Chain of command Formalization Company strategy Span of control

37) Jeff and Matthew, father and son, opened a large boutique named Modus in Chicago. Being the owners of the business, they decide all of the important matters. All the rest of the decisions like product, finance, marketing, and personnel are carried out by the department heads, who have to act according to Jeff’s and Matthew’s instructions and orders. Which of the following is true about Modus?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

The degree of formalization is very low in the organization. It has a centralized system of decision making. It has a very tall organizational structure. It has a matrix organizational structure. It has a narrow span of control.

38) If decision making is pushed down to lower-level employees, and these employees feel empowered to make decisions on their own, an organization has a ________ structure.

A) B) C) D) E)

flat decentralized wide narrow centralized

39) ________ refers to the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors and decisions in an organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

Centralization Normalization Span of control Chain of command Formalization

40) Which of the following is a necessary coordination mechanism that organizations rely on to get a standardized product or deliver a standardized service?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

formalization centralization span of control chain of command work specialization

41) In Big Bluff Heirlooms, a furniture manufacturing company, the arrival and departure times to and from work are specified to the minute, with time clocks used to control deviant behavior. It can be said that the company is high in

A) B) C) D) E)

42)

Which of the following tends to be associated with decentralization in decision making?

A) B) C) D) E)

43)

formalization. centralization. decentralization. division of labor. work differentiation.

moderate spans of control tall spans of control wide spans of control narrow spans of control flat spans of control

Which of the following statements is true?

Version 1

A) Wide spans of control tend to be associated with centralized decision making. B) Narrow spans of control tend to be associated with decentralized decision making. C) A high level of work specialization tends to bring about a high level of work formalization. D) Mechanistic organizations are typified by a structure that relies on low levels of work formalization. E) Organic organizations are typified by a structure that relies on high degrees of work specialization.

44)

Organic organizations are

A) efficient, rigid, predictable, and standardized organizations that thrive in stable environments. B) more complex designs that try to take advantage of two types of structures at the same time. C) flexible, adaptive, outward-focused organizations that thrive in dynamic environments. D) business units grouped around different products that the company produces. E) flat organizations with one person as the central decision-making figure.

45)

Organic organizations are typified by a structure that relies on

A) B) C) D) E)

46)

a rigid and hierarchical chain of command. high degree of work specialization. centralization of decision making. high levels of formalization. weak chains of command.

In a mechanistic organization, employees are

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

47)

encouraged to engage in lateral communication. required to make their own decisions when appropriate. given a very narrow view of the tasks they are to perform. urged to develop knowledge outside of their specialization. asked to think more broadly in terms of where their responsibilities lie.

In an organic organization,

A) employees know exactly whom they report to. B) employees are not encouraged to make decisions without their manager’s consent. C) there are very clear lines of authority from the employee to the president of the company. D) employees are encouraged to develop knowledge and expertise outside of their specialization. E) information is passed through vertical communication between an employee and his or her supervisor.

48) Talia formed a technology startup in her garage, and it has grown more rapidly than she ever imagined. She has always kept tabs on all of her people, and her company has just passed 150 employees. What should she do now?

A) B) C) D) E)

send managers to large corporations to bring back a sense of largeness add more structure for communication and decision making decrease the span of control to make the structure more flat increase the number of decisions that only she can make eliminate some positions to keep numbers manageable

49) Michelle’s Universal Boat Fins makes one product, a type of boat fin designed to fit on any pontoon boat, over and over again. The fins never change, because the unique design fits all boats. Given the nature of its business, Michelle’s should

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

look for ways to vary its manufacturing procedures. give each employee a specific task to perform. allow employees to make their own decisions. have a low mechanistic structure. adopt an organic structure.

50) Paul’s Creations makes handcrafted furniture out of vine twisted sassafras wood. Paul’s could make the furniture more efficiently, but the individual touch and specially selected wood draws in customers who are willing to pay a premium for Paul’s Creations’ furniture. Paul’s Creations is an example of a

A) B) C) D) E)

51)

matrix. differentiator. low-cost producer. mechanistic design. geographic structure.

Organizational design is the process of

A) B) C) D) E)

creating procedures used to standardize employee behavior. creating, selecting, or changing the structure of an organization. empowering employees to have a greater say in the decision-making process. determining how corporate management offices will be laid out and decorated. describing an organization’s objectives and goals and how it tries to make money.

52) Which of the following answer options are not part of an organization’s business environment?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

competitors suppliers customers workers distributors

53) Which of the following statements about an organization in a dynamic business environment is true?

A) It does not change frequently. B) It allows organizations to primarily focus on efficiency. C) It requires organizations to have structures that are more rigid. D) It requires little change over time. E) It requires organizations to have structures that are more adaptive.

54)

Company strategy refers to

A) the method by which an organization transforms inputs into outputs. B) the degree to which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs. C) customers, competitors, suppliers, distributors, and other factors external to the firm. D) an organization’s objectives and goals and how it tries to capitalize on its assets to make money. E) how jobs and tasks are divided and coordinated between individuals and groups within the company.

55) Which of the following statements about companies that adopt a low-cost producer strategy is true?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

They believe that people will pay more for a product that is unique in some way. Their company is likely mechanistic in design. They depend on being able to adjust to changing environments quickly. Such companies are more likely to take an organic approach to organizational

design. E) They focus on supplying high-quality differentiated products to customers.

56) Which of the following statements about companies that adopt a differentiation strategy is true?

A) Their product is likely of high quality or has unique features. B) Their focus is on being as efficient as they can be. C) They rely on selling products at the lowest possible cost. D) They are more likely to take a mechanistic approach to organizational design. E) They concentrate on developing large quantities of the same product, thereby providing cost advantages to their customers.

57) SB Stationary is the low-cost producer of one type of standard notepad. Given that it operates in a fairly stable environment, the company focuses on making its product as efficiently as possible. Which of the following approaches to organizational design is likely to be appropriate for SB Stationary?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

multi-divisional mechanistic organic global matrix

58) Stately Crafters is a custom manufacturer of handcrafted furniture. The company has 101 locations throughout the country and relies on decentralized decision making to meet the needs of the dynamic environment and customer needs. Which of the following approaches to organizational design is likely to be appropriate for Stately Crafters?

A) B) C) D) E)

59)

matrix global simple organic mechanistic

One element of a firm’s environment is

A) B) C) D) E)

work specialization. chain of command. decentralization. formalization. customers.

60) At Morris’ Boat Shop, the machines have to be re-tooled with each boat they repair. On top of that, customers may drop in for a quick fix and the mechanics have to know how to quickly refit every machine they use. In the case of Morris’ Boat shop,

A) B) C) D) E)

61)

the shop should keep rigid policies. decisions should be decentralized. each mechanic should be responsible for one machine. formalization should increase. procedures need to be standardized.

As organizations become larger, they tend to become more ________ in nature.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

simple cultural mechanistic organic flat

62) This type of structure will have only very basic differences in work specialization and low formalization.

A) B) C) D) E)

simple functional client-based product matrix

63) Mazie heads Grass Roots Diversified, a company that started making garden rakes in Oregon and has now diversified into a huge range of areas totally unrelated to gardening. Grass Roots has become impossible to run under its current configuration. How should Mazie redesign the organization?

A) create complete business units in Oregon, Kansas, and Alabama B) group business units by rakes, furniture, shelving, and kitchen goods C) group employees by accounting, marketing, design, production, and so on D) structure business units according to the technology used to create products E) organize the business units around serving the government, gardening stores, and kitchen stores

64)

Which of the following examples illustrates a functional structure?

Version 1

A) Linda’s Pet Grooming has eight employees that all report to Linda. B) Rio Riffic has a hydraulics division, a PVC division, and a fixtures division. C) AB Aeronautics has a private division, a commercial division, and a government division. D) BG Limited has a Pacific Northwest division, a Midwest division, and a Northeast Division. E) Handy Homes has a financial department, a production department, and a sales department.

65)

Which of the following examples illustrates a client structure?

A) Ayden’s Printing has 18 employees that all report to Ayden. B) Motor Monster has a pistons division, a manifold division, and a gasket division. C) Stone Farms has a restaurant division, a supermarket division, and a festival division. D) BG Limited has a Pacific Northwest division, a Midwest division, and a Northeast Division. E) Lighting Landing has a marketing department, a lending department, and a warranty department.

66) What is the primary reason for simple structures being perhaps the most common form of organizational design?

A) There are more small organizations than large ones. B) Employees can come and go with no major ripple effects on the organization. C) Changes in specialization lead to less confusion about how exactly employees are supposed to do their jobs. D) Employees feel less emotionally attached to the firm. E) Approval for decisions need not be authorized at every step of the hierarchy.

Version 1

67)

Which of the following is true of an organization with a simple organizational structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

68)

rules are formalized work is specialized decision making is likely to be decentralized the company chart is likely to be flat the owner, the president, and the managers form the top management team

Which of the following reflects a bureaucratic structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

decentralization loose chains of command variety in job tasks formalization wide spans of control

69) A bureaucratic structure is an organizational form that exhibits many of the facets of the ________ organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

70)

simple global adaptive organic mechanistic

The most basic bureaucratic structure is the ________ structure.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

client-based matrix organic functional simple

71) At LMNO Creating, employees are grouped according to their expertise in an area. All marketing employees are in one department, all finance employees are grouped in another department, and similarly, all human resources and manufacturing employees are in their respective departments. Which of the following structures does LMNO Creating use?

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

client-based geographic functional product simple

Which of the following statements is true about functional organization structure?

A) Small companies experiencing rapid growth are the only organizations to benefit from a functional structure. B) One of the main disadvantages of the functional structure is the lack of work specialization. C) Functional structures are extremely efficient when the organization as a whole has a relatively wide focus. D) One of the main advantages of the functional structure is that it encourages communication across functions. E) Functional structures are extremely efficient when the organization has fewer product lines or services.

Version 1

73)

The biggest weakness of a functional structure is that

A) B) C) D) E)

it is not efficient when the organization as a whole has a relatively narrow focus. it is not efficient when the organization has fewer product lines or services. it cannot operate efficiently in a stable environment. employees do not communicate as well across functions as they do within functions. employee efficiency is decreased due to a high degree of work specialization.

74) Katarina is the East Coast manager of Boots for You. Other managers are in charge of the West Coast, South, and Great Lakes divisions. Her brother, Jordan is a marketing manager at a different firm who enjoys watching sports with the finance and operations managers from his company. Katarina likely works in a company with a ________ structure, while Jordan most likely works in a company with a ________ structure.

A) B) C) D) E)

product; functional geographic; product product; client-based geographic; functional client-based; geographic

75) Which of the following is a bureaucratic organizational form in which employees are grouped into divisions around products, geographic regions, or clients?

A) B) C) D) E)

mechanistic structures global structures multi-divisional structures matrix structures organic structures

76) Which of the following structures generally develop from companies with functional structures whose interests and goals become too diverse for that structure to handle? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

mechanistic global multi-divisional matrix organic

77) When Lakefront Marine Company groups its business units around the different lines of boats such as the Shark, Bass, and Catfish, which of the following structures is it creating?

A) B) C) D) E)

simple product functional geographic client-based

78) A plastic injection molding company, Flexiplast, has diversified to the point that the products it sells are very different and managing them has become overwhelming. Which of the following structures would help Flexiplast manage this situation?

A) B) C) D) E)

simple product functional geographic client-based

79) When Jolly Fingers Gloves, Inc., groups its business units according to where they do business—such as the North American division, the South American division, the Australian division, and the African division—it is creating which of the following organizational structures?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

client-based geographic functional product simple

80) A large pharmaceutical company recently adopted a structure in order to give its top managers more responsibility and flexibility. The company is now structured around five customer groupings: major healthcare provider networks, individual consumers, small and midsized pharmacies, military bases and government employee facilities, and public clinics. Which of the following organizational structures has this company created?

A) B) C) D) E)

81)

client-based geographic functional product simple

Matrix structures

A) are generally used by small organizations in which the manager, president, and owner are all the same person. B) place the functions required to serve a business under a manager who is in charge of a specific location. C) organize their businesses around serving customers that all act in a similar way. D) group business units around different products that the company produces. E) try to take advantage of two types of structures at the same time.

Version 1

82) At Blue Wall Technology, employees are grouped according to their functional expertise as well as the different vital product lines that they are working on. Thus, the company has simultaneously created a combination of a functional and a product structure. This is an example of a ________ structure.

A) B) C) D) E)

83)

conglomerate geographic simple global matrix

The matrix structure gives each employee ________ chain(s) of command.

A) B) C) D) E)

team-based mechanistic at least two infinite organic

84) Lasting Skin Care Inc. is growing very fast in both sales and number of employees. It manufactures and sells skin products for youth, male, female, elderly, and ethnic populations all over the United States and several other countries. So far, the company has followed a simple structure. However, with fast-paced growth, it has become a necessity that the company explore other organizational structures. Larry, a long-time employee at Lasting Skin Care, has collected information on how some of its competitors have organized their companies. Tracks Inc. groups its employees by their different areas of expertise such as Marketing, Finance, Human Resources, and Operations. Fine Base, which is primarily in the United States, groups its activities as Northeast Division, Southeast Division, Northwest Division, Southwest Division, and Central Division. Prints Inc. has organized its employees according to the accounts they serve, such as Large Company Contracts, Internet Sales, Individual Sales, and Small Salon Direct Sales. Finally, Make Safe International has grouped its business units around different types of makeup, including the Lipstick and Lip Gloss Division, the Eye shadow Division, the Foundation Division, the Mascara Division, and the Bronzer and Blush Division.Which of the following describes Make Safe International’s organizational structure? Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

matrix product functional geographic client-based

85) Lasting Skin Care Inc. is growing very fast in both sales and number of employees. It manufactures and sells skin products for youth, male, female, elderly, and ethnic populations all over the United States and several other countries. So far, the company has followed a simple structure. However, with fast-paced growth, it has become a necessity that the company explore other organizational structures. Larry, a longtime employee at Lasting Skin Care, has collected information on how some of its competitors have organized their companies. Tracks Inc. groups its employees by their different areas of expertise such as Marketing, Finance, Human Resources, and Operations. Fine Base, which is primarily in the United States, groups its activities as Northeast Division, Southeast Division, Northwest Division, Southwest Division, and Central Division. Prints Inc. has organized its employees according to the accounts they serve, such as Large Company Contracts, Internet Sales, Individual Sales, and Small Salon Direct Sales. Finally, Make Safe International has grouped its business units around different types of makeup, including the Lipstick and Lip Gloss Division, the Eye shadow Division, the Foundation Division, the Mascara Division, and the Bronzer and Blush Division.Which of the following describes Fine Base’s organizational structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

client-based geographic functional product matrix

86) Lasting Skin Care Inc. is growing very fast in both sales and number of employees. It manufactures and sells skin products for youth, male, female, elderly, and ethnic populations all over the United States and several other countries. So far, the company has followed a simple structure. However, with fast-paced growth, it has become a necessity that the company explore other organizational structures. Larry, a longtime employee at Lasting Skin Care, has collected information on how some of its competitors have organized their companies. Tracks Inc. groups its employees by their different areas of expertise such as Marketing, Finance, Human Resources, and Operations. Fine Base, which is primarily in the United States, groups its activities as Northeast Division, Southeast Division, Northwest Division, Southwest Division, and Central Division. Prints Inc. has organized its employees according to the accounts they serve, such as Large Company Contracts, Internet Sales, Individual Sales, and Small Salon Direct Sales. Finally, Make Safe International has grouped its business units around different types of makeup, including the Lipstick and Lip Gloss Division, the Eye shadow Division, the Foundation Division, the Mascara Division, and the Bronzer and Blush Division.Which of the following describes Prints Inc.’s organizational structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

client-based geographic functional product matrix

87) Hard Facts publishing has decided to restructure their organization. During the restructuring, they will probably see

A) B) C) D) E)

faster employee learning. reduced workplace stress. slightly increasing employee trust. slightly declining task performance. less confusion about employee roles.

88) Very Nice Curtains is planning to restructure their business. How will this most likely affect their employees in the short-term?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

89)

________ is the process of changing an organizational structure.

A) B) C) D) E)

90)

Trust will decline quite a bit. Task performance will increase. Stress will remain unchanged. Confusion will decline slightly. Learning will increase greatly.

Restructuring Structuring Centralizing Formalization Layoff

Which of the following statements is not true of restructuring?

A) B) C) D) E)

Confusion from restructuring may hinder learning and decision making. Restructuring has a moderate positive effect on citizenship behavior. Stress is common during restructuring. Restructuring may make employees feel less emotionally attached to the firm. Organizational commitment is reduced during restructuring.

91) Although not much is known about the effect of restructuring on affective commitment, restructuring generally results in ________ level of affective commitment on the part of employees.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

92)

no significant a large positive a moderate positive a small negative a moderate negative

Which of the following is an example of a company flattening its structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

Marco’s Windows lays off 300 production workers and hires 10 managers. Doug’s Excavating opens branches in the South and the Midwest. Kimmi’s Design adds an assistant manager position. Jay’s Auto eliminates a layer of management. Billy’s Produce hires two new salesmen.

93) Tatum is the CEO of a company that is undergoing a major restructuring. How should she deal with the employees who survive the layoffs in the restructuring?

A) B) C) D) E)

remove any control they may have give them a voice in the process tell them as little as possible halve their workload boost their salary

94) Sometimes a company has to adapt to its environment. The first step in adapting to the environment is

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

95)

actually restructuring. recognizing the need to change. evaluating the external environment. evaluating the internal environment. exploring the competitor’s structures.

Which of the following has been the most common kind of restructuring in recent years?

A) B) C) D) E)

from a functional to a geographic-based structure from a product to a client-based structure from a bureaucratic to a matrix structure a flattening of the organization creating a tall structure in the organization

96) Which of the following is the main reason behind many organizations flattening their organizations?

A) It improves employee morale. B) It provides more rewards for fewer employees. C) It is used to reduce costs and show investors that the company is profitable. D) It creates a government subsidy qualification. E) It increases employee performance.

97)

Which of the following answer options exhibits a successful restructuring?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

employees are working in different ways you retained half of your workers after restructure the organizational chart looks leaner survivors have a voice there is honest and frequent communication with layoff survivors

98) Organizational structure can have a significant impact on an organization’s financial performance. ⊚ ⊚

99)

The organizational structure has little to do with the organizational chart. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

Henry Ford was a strong believer in work specialization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Employees tend to be more satisfied with jobs that require them to perform a specialized kind of activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) In a traditional organizational structure, every employee has one person to whom they report.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

103) The chain of command helps the organization to attain order, control, and predictable performance. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

A company’s chain of control determines how many employees report to each manager. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Tony has a wide span of control at the warehouse which enables him to be much more hands-on with his employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Decentralized organizational structures tend to concentrate power and authority within a relatively tight group of individuals in the firm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Organic organizations are efficient, rigid, predictable, and standardized organizations that thrive in stable environments. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

108) Companies that follow a low-cost producer strategy make an organic organizational structure more appropriate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) If technologies need to be changed often to suit consumer needs, the decisions should be centralized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) As companies become larger, they tend to use a combination of specialization, formalization, and centralization to control their activities, thereby becoming more mechanistic in nature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Many small companies naturally evolve into functionally based structures as they grow larger. ⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

Matrix structures try to take advantage of two types of structure at the same time. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

113) The bureaucratic structure is more flexible than a matrix structure, allowing it to adjust much more quickly to the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Restructuring an organization has a positive impact on task performance because restructuring helps employees view their jobs in new and exciting ways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) The most common kind of restructuring in recent years has been a “flattening” of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Many restructuring efforts are designed to remove one or more organizational layers to reduce costs. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

Many layoff survivors experience a great deal of guilt and remorse following a layoff. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH15 1) An organizational structure formally dictates how jobs and tasks are divided and coordinated between individuals and groups within the company. Organizational structures can be relatively simple when a company only has 5 to 20 employees but grow incredibly complex as the number of employees increases. An organizational chart is a drawing that represents every job in the organization and the formal reporting relationships between those jobs. It helps organizational members and outsiders understand and comprehend how work is structured within the company.

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2) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of work specialization and its advantages and disadvantages. A sample answer follows.Work specialization is the way in which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs. The main advantages of work specialization are as follows:It helps increase the productivity of employees because they each have only one task to perform.It makes training new workers much easier when replacements are needed.However, there are trade-offs when organizations make jobs highly specialized. Highly specialized jobs can cause organizations to lose the ability associated with employees who can be flexible in what they do. By spending all their time performing specialized tasks well, employees fail to update or practice other skills. Organizations may also struggle with employee job satisfaction when they make jobs highly specializedBrad’s employees will be able to spend less time training new people and new hires will learn their jobs more quickly since they only need to learn to do one thing. On the negative side, his employees will have less skill and be more limited in what they can do if needed. Employees may also get bored more easily and have less job satisfaction. 3) Centralization reflects where decisions are formally made in organizations. If only the top managers within a company have the authority to make final decisions, the organization is highly “centralized” in its structure. In contrast, if decision-making authority is pushed down to lower-level employees and these employees feel empowered to make decisions on their own, an organization has a “decentralized” structure. Decentralization becomes necessary as a company grows larger because sooner or later, the top management of an organization will not be able to make every single decision within the company.

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4) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of flat and tall organizational structures. A sample answer follows.A tall organizational structure has many hierarchy levels and a narrow span of control, while a flat organizational structure has few levels and a wide span of control. Some of the disadvantages of tall organizations are as follows:More layers of management means having to pay more management salaries.Communication in the organization becomes more complex as each new layer becomes one more point through which information must pass when traveling upward or downward.The organization’s ability to make decisions becomes slower because approval for decisions has to be authorized at every step of the hierarchy.Sky Dry has a tall structure because there are many levels of management, and each manager has a small number of subordinates, or a narrow span of control. Mountain Light has a flat structure because there are few levels of management, and each manager has a large number of subordinates, or a wide span of control. Tall organizations have to pay more managers, and decision making becomes slower and more complex in tall organizations. 5) The five dimensions of organizational structure are: work specialization, chain of command, span of control, centralization, and formalization. Work specialization is the degree to which tasks in an organization are divided into separate jobs. Chain of command answers the question of “who reports to whom?” and signifies formal authority relationships. Span of control represents how many employees each manager in the organization has responsibility for. Centralization refers to where decisions are formally made in organizations. Formalization is the degree to which rules and procedures are used to standardize behaviors and decisions in an organization.

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6) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of stable and dynamic environments and how these environments influence organizational structure. A sample answer follows.One of the biggest factors in an environment’s effect on structure is whether the outside environment is stable or dynamic. Stable environments do not change frequently, and any changes that do occur happen very slowly. Stable environments allow organizations to focus on efficiency and require little change over time. In contrast, dynamic environments change on a frequent basis and require organizations to have structures that are more adaptive.Ed’s has a stable environment. The business has changed very little over time, and its structure does not need to change much at all. Angie’s operates in a dynamic environment and needs an organizational structure that allows for rapid change and adaptation to meet the changing environment. 7) A functional structure groups employees by the functions they perform for the organization such as marketing, finance, or human resources, whereas multi-divisional structures are bureaucratic organizational forms in which employees are grouped into divisions around product, geographic regions, or clients. Each of these divisions operates relatively autonomously from the others and has its own functional groups. Multi-divisional structures generally develop from companies with functional structures whose interests and goals become too diverse for that structure to handle.Student diagrams will vary but should clearly illustrate the differences between functional and multidivisional structures.

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8) Multi-divisional structures are bureaucratic organizational forms in which employees are grouped into divisions around products, geographic regions, or clients. Product structures group business units around different products that the company produces. Each of those divisions becomes responsible for manufacturing, marketing, and doing research and development for the products in its own division. Geographic structures are generally based around the different locations where the company does business. The functions required to serve a business are placed under a manager who is in charge of a specific location. One last form of multi-divisional structure is the client structure. When organizations have a number of very large customers or groups of customers that all act in a similar way, they might organize their businesses around serving those customers.Student diagrams will vary but should clearly illustrate the three multi-divisional structures. 9) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of matrix structures and their advantages and disadvantages. A sample answer follows.Matrix structures are more complex forms of organizational design that try to take advantage of two types of structures at the same time. Ray will be able to gain more information to help him make decisions since he is working with two different groups. Ray will likely be more stressed because he will have to report to two different bosses and meet two sets of requirements.

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10) Research suggests that restructuring has a small negative effect on task performance, likely because changes in specialization, centralization, or formalization may lead to confusion about how exactly employees are supposed to do their jobs, which hinders learning and decision making. Restructuring has a more significant negative effect on organizational commitment, however. Restructuring efforts can increase stress and jeopardize employees’ trust in the organization. There is some evidence that the end result is a lower level of affective commitment on the part of employees, because they feel less emotionally attached to the firm. 11) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of how companies can minimize the negative effects of restructuring. A sample answer follows.The negative effects of restructuring are higher stress and uncertainty. Managing layoff survivors is one step. The best ways to help layoff survivors adjust are to do things that give them a stronger sense of control. Allowing survivors to have a voice in how to move forward or help set the plans about how to accomplish future goals is another way by which managers can help employees feel more in control. Frequent communication and participation in decision making should be practiced, especially when the company is hiring and firing at the same time. The leaders at River Flow need to make sure they carefully manage and support employees who survive layoffs. They can give the employees a voice in how to move forward and keep communication open. 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) B Version 1

18) B 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) E 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) D Version 1

48) B 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) E 54) D 55) B 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) E 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) E 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) D 69) E 70) D 71) C 72) E 73) D 74) D 75) C 76) C 77) B Version 1

78) B 79) B 80) A 81) E 82) E 83) C 84) B 85) B 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) E 92) D 93) B 94) B 95) D 96) C 97) A 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE Version 1

108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Briefly describe the three major components of culture. Provide an example of each.

Identify and describe the six major types of observable artifacts.

3) Describe each of the four general types of work cultures in terms of solidarity and sociability.

4) Briefly define each of the following culture types, and choose two to describe in detail: customer service culture, safety culture, diversity culture, sustainability culture, and creativity culture.

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5) Discuss the pros and cons of a strong culture, and describe an example of a strong culture you are, or have been, a part of or that someone you know has been a member of.

6) Define and discuss the existence of subcultures and countercultures within an organization. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a counterculture.

Define the ASA framework. Does it always work, and if not, what is the result?

List and briefly discuss the three stages of the socialization process.

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9) There are certain tactics designed to encourage adaptation to the organization’s culture and tactics designed to discourage adaptation to the organization’s culture. List three of the five tactics from the text for each orientation—both encouraging and discouraging adaptation. Provide one reason why management would want to encourage or discourage adaptation to the organization’s culture.

10)

Discuss the two common methods by which an organization can change its culture.

11) Why are mergers and acquisitions not considered one of the best methods to change an organization’s culture?

12)

What is meant by person-organization fit? What are its advantages?

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13)

Define and discuss the mentoring process, along with its benefits for companies.

14) The shared social knowledge within an organization regarding the rules, norms, and values that shape the attitudes and behaviors of its employees refers to organizational

A) B) C) D) E)

15)

study. culture. growth. definition. dynamics.

The three major components to any organizational culture are

A) B) C) D) E)

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observable artifacts, espoused values, and basic underlying assumptions. observable artifacts, hidden artifacts, and semi-public artifacts. internal values, espoused values, and enacted values. symbols, physical structures, and ceremonies. language, stories, and rituals.

16) ________ are the manifestations of an organizational culture that everyone can see or talk about.

A) B) C) D) E)

Core values Structural traits Communal cultures Networked cultures Observable artifacts

17) Rigby has gotten his dream job working with one of the most prominent tech companies in Silicon Valley, and he is determined to make a good showing from the first day. The best way for him to do that is to

A) learn as much as possible about his own specialty, as well as the particular technical needs of the company, and take extra classes if he discovers anything lacking in his skill set. B) conduct extensive online research using a wide variety of business sources, such as Standard & Poor’s, and social media, to get a detailed portrait of the company. C) make a point of staying late and going in to the office on weekends, both to get noticed by management and to talk with other people who work extra hours. D) observe his coworkers from the start, figure out who is most successful and plugged in, get to know them, and not be shy about asking questions. E) talk to people who have left the company and find out how their work experience was, including whatever negatives views they might have.

18) The physical layout of workspaces, dress codes, and the level of technology used are all examples of ________ that are represented by the organization’s culture.

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A) B) C) D) E)

core values cultural diversity personal dynamics observable artifacts operational capacity

19) Rose works in the human resources department of Spartan, makers of athletic clothing, shoes, and accessories. Celebrity athletes are regularly spotted wearing Spartan gear, but the company’s slogan—“For the Athlete in All of Us”—is designed to appeal to the ordinary buyers who account for a large portion of revenues. Rose has been assigned to train a group of new employees, and she intends to begin with an informative talk that includes a story about the company. Given this information, the best choice for Rose would be an account of

A) Spartan’s emerging understanding of its market and the corporate values it needs to uphold in order to maintain its position—knowledge it has gained by interviewing hundreds of ordinary people and athletes of all kinds. B) the challenges one of the company’s leading executives overcame in order to live up to the company slogan, training relentlessly for weeks and months and going on to compete in the Boston Marathon. C) the time when a local store manager had a problem keeping up with inventory and, after attempting to solve it on his own, took the issue to company headquarters and got the help he needed. D) a wounded Iraq War veteran who got a job as a cashier at a local Spartan store and who, despite having a prosthetic arm, competed in the company’s annual Spartan Games. E) how the company’s founder and CEO turned a struggling, unprofitable firm into one of the most prominent competitors in the athletic-wear market.

20) Which of the following supply the primary means of transmitting an organization’s culture to its workforce?

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A) B) C) D) E)

underlying assumptions observable artifacts espoused values competitive responses norms

21) During her stay at the Renaissance Hotel, Ginny noticed that all the staff wore the same color and style of clothes. Which of the following layers of organizational culture would such a dress code represent?

A) B) C) D) E)

espoused values enacted values observable artifacts mnemonics basic underlying assumptions

22) When Mathilda first walked into the glass-enclosed lobby of Data Mining Solutions’ headquarters, she observed an enormous three-dimensional recreation of the company’s logo—a bright red question mark—hanging from the ceiling. As she was taken on a tour of the building, the same red question mark appeared painted along the hallways, in decals placed on all streetfacing windows, and as a screen saver on the company computers. Such corporate branding is an example of which type of observable artifact?

A) B) C) D) E)

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rituals stories symbols language physical structures

23) At the annual holiday party, ABC Airlines gives awards to employees to recognize examples of “going above and beyond” to serve customers. Almost all the employees who possibly can, attend. This is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

a story. a ritual. a symbol. a ceremony. an unobservable artifact.

24) The manager and sales crew all arrived at the store before opening and worked at straightening shelves, unloading stock and cleaning. When the owner arrived every day, as she entered the store she shouted “Marco,” and each employee answered “Polo” which gave her an idea of where everyone was located at that moment and she could deduce their actions. This is a form of which observable artifact?

A) B) C) D) E)

25)

language stories ceremony symbol ritual

________ is(are) the jargon, slang, and slogans used within the walls of an organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

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Rituals Beliefs Values Language Symbols

26) Which of the following exemplifies the observable artifact category of physical structures?

A) the elaborate, marble-floored conference room where Bull and Bear Wealth Management Partners conducts meetings with its top clients B) the annual holiday party thrown by Party Planner Professionals that also serves as a hands-on demonstration of the coming year’s product line C) the label on every can of Primal Urge Dog Food that is emblazoned with the words: “We love dogs, and we put that love into all of our products” D) the group meeting held every Monday morning at Coastal Coffee Roasters where the CEO has every employee sample a cup of that week’s featured roast E) the HR supervisor for Double-Dipped Donuts who tells all new employees how the founder came up with the name of the company after accidentally glazing the same donuts twice

27)

Which of the following is an example of espoused values?

A) the apocryphal story told by the founder of Delicious Delicacies about how she was fired from her first three catering jobs B) the open floor plan of DailyScoop.com’s office that seats employees across from one another at long tables with no dividers C) the weekly bagel breakfast Integrated Robotics hosts in its conference room that encourages employees from different departments to mingle D) the annual field trip Island Surf Products takes to a nearby beach where all employees are required to spend the day picking up trash and beautifying the area E) the sustainability message that Outdoor Footwear prints on each of its shoe boxes that celebrates the amount of post-consumer recycled content in its products

28) ________ consist of anecdotes, accounts, legends, and myths that are passed down from cohort to cohort within an organization.

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A) B) C) D) E)

29)

Rituals Stories Values Structures Symbols

________ are the daily or weekly planned routines that occur in an organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

Rituals Stories Values Representations Symbols

30) At Rolce Technologies, the core design team of 10 employees has daily “stand-up” meetings. All the core design team members gather standing up for a rapid-fire update on current projects. These stand-up meetings are representative of which of the following components of the organization’s culture?

A) B) C) D) E)

rituals solidarity espoused values physical structures enacted values

31) The tall tale passed around among the lawn center employees, and always told to each new employee, is that the owner believed in customer service so much that he once mowed a customer’s yard for them while the customer was on vacation. This is an example of which observable artifact?

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A) B) C) D) E)

stories rituals values language symbols

32) ________ are formal events that are generally performed in front of an audience of organizational members.

A) B) C) D) E)

Rituals Stories Ceremonies Language Symbols

33) Every year, 7 Days, a large retail chain, organizes a large annual function in which it gives an “Employee of the Year” award to a deserving employee, along with a $5,000 cash prize and an opportunity to launch the retail chain’s new product. This is an example of which of the following components of organizational culture?

A) B) C) D) E)

stories symbols espoused values basic underlying assumptions ceremonies

34) Which of the following answer options reflects the beliefs, philosophies, and norms that a company explicitly states?

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A) B) C) D) E)

rituals stories ceremonies espoused values observable artifacts

35) Quest, Inc., has a sign hanging in every employee’s cubicle that reads: “Together we are greater than any one of us.” This is an example of a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

ritual. espoused value. enacted value. basic underlying assumption. physical structure.

36) When a company holds to its espoused values over time and regardless of the situations it operates in, the values become

A) B) C) D) E)

37)

more believable to employees and outsiders. background noise. stale and in need for a change. one of the observable artifacts. a story.

Walker International recently published its vision statement, which is an example of

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A) B) C) D) E)

observable artifacts. stories. basic underlying assumptions. rituals. espoused values.

38) ________ are the taken-for-granted beliefs and philosophies that are so ingrained that employees simply act on them rather than questioning the validity of their behavior in a given situation.

A) B) C) D) E)

39)

________ represent the deepest and least observable part of a culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

40)

Espoused values Stories Basic underlying assumptions Rituals Observable artifacts

Which of the following is an enacted value rather than an espoused value.

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A) All salespeople were expected to dress professionally to match the company’s motivational motto “We look as sharp as our discounts.” B) The doctor believes exercise leads to good health and every year the doctor’s office workers participate in their city’s 5k charity run. C) The company believes customer service is everyone’s responsibility so every employee wears a button that says “Yes, you can ask me.” D) Every day before the restaurant opened, the owner tells his crew to remember to please the customer. E) The school system believes in sustainability and there are recycling containers in every school room.

41) At Workboots Inc., a big order is called a stomp. This is an example of which observable artifact?

A) B) C) D) E)

ritual symbol espoused value ceremony language

42) Ingrid is a department manager at Workboots, Inc. Ingrid starts every Monday morning with a 60-minute department meeting where each member in the department gets five minutes to report progress; share stories of success and failure; and seek general input, advice, and information. What Ingrid does every Monday morning can be described as a(n)

A) B) C) D) E)

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ritual. story. espoused value. ceremony. symbol.

43) ________ is(are) the degree to which group members think and act alike, and ________ represent(s) how friendly employees are to one another.

A) B) C) D) E)

Espoused values; basic underlying assumptions Solidarity; sociability Basic underlying assumptions; observable artifacts Sociability; solidarity Observable artifacts; basic underlying assumptions

44) At Spinner Bearings, Inc., employees are distant and disconnected from one another. Based on this, the organizational culture at Spinner Bearings can be described as

A) B) C) D) E)

diversified. fragmented. individualized. safety oriented. service oriented.

45) In organizations with fragmented cultures, there is ________ sociability and ________ solidarity.

A) B) C) D) E)

low; low moderate; high high; moderate high; high moderate; moderate

46) In organizations with mercenary cultures, we tend to find ________ sociability and ________ solidarity. Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

moderate; low low; high high; low high; moderate moderate; moderate

47) Jamie is about to go to work for Potpourri, a store that sells various bed and bath accessories. Although technically a chain, Potpourri is a small chain and currently has just three stores, all within an hour of each other in the Midwestern United States. The type of organizational culture Jamie is likely to encounter at Potpourri is one in which employees

A) have very little connection to one another. B) are free spirits, each of them his or her own little island. C) tend to share a lot of opinions, including a dislike for each other. D) enjoy friendly relations, but differ on many things, including work-related matters. E) get along well and share many of the same views, including admiration for the company founder.

48) In organizations with networked cultures, we tend to find ________ sociability and ________ solidarity.

A) B) C) D) E)

49)

low; low low; moderate high; low moderate; high moderate; low

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies a communal culture?

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A) the wait staff work together to provides excellent customer service but steals each other’s customers whenever possible B) a new start up, the Yarn Barn, where the owner and her three employees are all committed to knitting and the environment C) the editorial firm where most employees fraternize daily after work at a local pool hall but spend their time at the office developing their own editorial projects D) the web development firm where programmers are empowered to solve software problems in their own unique ways and are known to play a song snippet throughout the department whenever someone has a success E) the children’s library staff work on their own projects but get along well and have dinner together once a month

50)

Which of the following is an example of a mercenary culture?

A) Crazy Imported Foods, where the employees brainstorm new product ideas every Monday at a local winery B) Tactical Flashlights, Inc., where product designers operate independently and do not share ideas due to chronic mistrust C) Fun Phone Apps, where the two founders, who are best friends, work in their shared apartment to develop smartphone apps D) Mildred’s Creative Preschool, where the teachers nurture and support each other but structure their lesson plans in their own ways E) Bob’s Used Exotic Cars, where the salespeople all try to sell as many cars as they can each month but look at their fellow salespeople as competitors, not friends

51) In organizations with communal cultures, there is ________ sociability and ________ solidarity.

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A) B) C) D) E)

low; low moderate; high moderate; low high; high low; moderate

52) Political cultures where everyone is looking out for themselves would be considered a ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

fragmented mercenary disconnected networked safety

53) The environment at National Studio, Inc., is very political. Its employees often think alike but are generally unfriendly to each other. The culture at this company is best described as

A) B) C) D) E)

collective. networked. communal. mercenary. fragmented.

54) ________ cultures are those where all employees are friendly to one another, but everyone thinks differently and does his or her own thing.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Communal Mercenary Networked Fragmented Complex

55) Which of the following statements is true of types of cultures to be found within an organization?

A) A fragmented culture is political and everyone is out for themselves. B) As companies grow, they tend to move toward a networked culture because solidarity is harder to foster when groups get really large. C) A mercenary culture is low on both solidarity and sociability. D) Most highly creative organizations have a communal culture. E) A fragmented culture is high on sociability but low on solidarity.

56) Organizations that have successfully created a ________ culture have been shown to change employee attitudes and behaviors toward customers.

A) B) C) D) E)

57)

service mercenary safety fragmented creativity

Manufacturing and medical companies primarily desire to create a ________ culture.

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A) B) C) D) E)

58)

safety diversity sustainability creativity customer service

Which of the following culture types reduces treatment errors in medical settings?

A) B) C) D) E)

creativity culture service culture safety culture diversity culture communal culture

59) This type of culture can be incredibly valuable in recruiting top talent as the culture resonates well with many of today’s job applicants.

A) B) C) D) E)

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service sustainability creativity diversity safety

60) County Medical Center has a good track record of treating patients well and discharging them in a timely manner. Then, in the span of one week, twelve patients suffer post-surgical bacterial infections that are resistant to drug treatment. Shortly afterward, the surgical and patient recovery teams gather to discuss the problem. One cardiac surgeon, Yvette, mentions that she read in a medical journal about a simple but effective method of reducing such infections. It involves encouraging and enforcing hand washing before all new patient contact. The key is to post reminders in every patient room and nurse station. There is also a smart phone app that will beep once every five minutes as a backup reminder. The hospital staff agrees to implement the protocol, and six months later the rate of infection has dropped by more than 50 percent. The hospital is striving to create a ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

61)

safety diversity creativity sustainability customer service

A culture that attempts to help the greater social good is a ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

sustainability customer service safety diversity creativity

62) Petunia, Daisy, Constance, and Anna are four friends working at four different organizations. In Petunia’s firm, Social Network Development, employees are both distant and disconnected from one another, whereas in Daisy’s company, Solar Singularity, it is quite the opposite—employees are friendly, and they all think alike. Constance works for Credit Protection Services, where employees think alike but are not friendly to one another. Finally, Anna is employed at Living Trust Wealth Management, where employees are friendly, but they think differently and do their own thing.Petunia’s firm, Social Network Development, can be described as having which of the following culture types?

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A) B) C) D) E)

communal mercenary networked fragmented collective

63) Daisy, Petunia, Constance, and Anna are four friends working at four different organizations. In Petunia’s firm, Social Network Development, employees are both distant and disconnected from one another, whereas in Daisy’s company, Solar Singularity, it is quite the opposite—employees are friendly, and they all think alike. Constance works for Credit Protection Services, where employees think alike but are not friendly to one another. Finally, Anna is employed at Living Trust Wealth Management, where employees are friendly, but they think differently and do their own thing.Daisy’s firm, Solar Singularity, can be described as having a(n) ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

communal mercenary networked fragmented individualistic

64) Constance, Petunia, Daisy, and Anna are four friends working at four different organizations. In Petunia’s firm, Social Network Development, employees are both distant and disconnected from one another, whereas in Daisy’s company, Solar Singularity, it is quite the opposite—employees are friendly, and they all think alike. Constance works for Credit Protection Services, where employees think alike but are not friendly to one another. Finally, Anna is employed at Living Trust Wealth Management, where employees are friendly, but they think differently and do their own thing.Anna’s firm, Living Trust Wealth Management, can be described as having which culture type?

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A) B) C) D) E)

communal mercenary networked fragmented complex

65) Constance, Daisy, Petunia, and Anna are four friends working at four different organizations. In Petunia’s firm, Social Network Development, employees are both distant and disconnected from one another, whereas in Daisy’s company, Solar Singularity, it is quite the opposite—employees are friendly, and they all think alike. Constance works for Credit Protection Services, where employees think alike but are not friendly to one another.Constance’s firm, Credit Protection Services, can be described as having a ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

communal mercenary networked fragmented collective

66) ________ exist(s) when the overall organizational culture is supplemented by another culture governing a more specific set of employees.

A) B) C) D) E)

Subcultures Socialization Fragmentation Service cultures Encounter stages

67) ________ can sometimes serve a useful purpose by challenging the values of the overall organization or signifying the need for change.

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A) B) C) D) E)

68)

Which of the following statements about organizational culture is true?

A) to happen. B) C) D) E)

69)

Countercultures Creativity cultures Diversity cultures Sustainability cultures Safety cultures

In a high consensus culture, employees disagree about the way things are supposed In a high intensity culture, employees’ behaviors are inconsistent with expectations. Subcultures are less likely to exist in large organizations than in small firms. Strong cultures are not always good for the organization. Countercultures reinforce the values of an organization.

Which of the following organizations has a strong culture?

A) Blue Blood Investments, whose youthful sales team clashes with upper management over the best way to implement new product rollouts B) Global Package Delivery Systems, whose drivers dress the same, drive the same types of trucks, follow the most efficient routes, and rarely deviate from established delivery protocols C) Sandi’s Sunglass Shack, whose retail clerks purposefully receive little training and are hired based on their personality and ability to come up with creative ways of selling the company’s products D) Healthy Heart Snacks, whose purchasing department is predominantly vegan and frequently pushes to eliminate animal products from the company’s catalog even though they are the best sellers E) Action Video Cameras, whose product development team is led by Vance, a wellknown adventurer and maverick designer who sets up a satellite office for his team three miles from the main campus

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70)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a strong culture?

A) It differentiates the organization from others. B) It allows employees to identify themselves in the organization. C) It attracts and retains similar kinds of employees. D) It creates stability within the organization. E) It facilitates the desired behaviors among employees.

71) Robin, a former sales manager, has been out of the workforce for more than a decade and is thrilled when she lands a job at Yoyodyne Technology Systems. For her first day at work, she dresses in a conservative business suit and digs her old briefcase out of the closet. When she arrives at the office, she is shocked to see people dressed in jeans and sweatshirts, with some not even wearing shoes. Instead of working in a cubicle as she had for years, she is seated at a long, open table with numerous other employees where everyone wears headphones as they work. She finds that she has trouble keeping up with department communications because she still relies on e-mail instead of inter-office social networks. The casual office atmosphere is distracting and the level of familiarity her coworkers demonstrate with each other is foreign to her. After a few weeks, Robin gives her notice because she realizes she will never fit in at such an organization. This situation is indicative of

A) B) C) D) E)

72)

bullying. a weak culture. a strong culture. a counterculture. a lack of self-confidence.

Which of the following is an advantage of a strong culture?

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A) It makes merging with another organization more simple. B) It allows employees to identify themselves with the organization. C) It can be “too much of a good thing” if it creates extreme behaviors. D) It makes adapting to the environment less difficult. E) It attracts and retains similar kinds of employees.

73) Eco-Adventure Gear is a well-respected apparel company. For over 50 years it has produced high-quality, durable products at a relatively high price point. Customers are willing to pay a premium for its wares because of the company’s commitment to quality and its history of providing effective customer service. The company’s headquarters are located at the base of a mountain range, and once a month the CEO closes the office for two days and leads the staff on a rock climbing trip. Since the company attracts outdoorsy types, nearly all the employees join in on these voluntary trips. Employees are proud to say they work at Eco-Adventure and rarely quit. Eco-Adventure Gear is demonstrating the advantages associated with which type of culture?

A) B) C) D) E)

weak ritual strong physical observable

74) With a lineup that includes some of the most well-known brands in the laundry, home care, and related departments, RWB Home Products is among the largest and most well-known companies in its industry. Founded in the late 1800s, it is a venerable and distinguished organization. RWB is often described as being almost synonymous with America itself (the initials stand for “Red, White, and Blue”), yet unlike America, it is noted for a lack of diversity among its workforce. Certainly there is diversity in terms of ethnicity and background, but diversity of opinion is lacking. “You can always spot the RWB employees in a crowd,” one industry journal commented, “because they dress, talk, and even walk the same way.” Most likely RWB Home Products is a company

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A) B) C) D) E)

that is likely to experience a great deal of change in the near future. whose identity is hard to distinguish from that of its competitors. in which employees feel a sense of rootlessness and alienation. where new employees might find it difficult to adapt. that would be a good candidate for a merger.

75) In extreme cases, countercultures can split the organization’s culture right down the middle, resulting in a(n) ________ culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

differentiated diverse fragmented individualized safety

76) ASA in the “ASA framework,” a process that can help keep culture of the organization strong, stands for

A) B) C) D) E)

anticipation-socialization-articulation. attraction-selection-attrition. attrition-selection-attraction. attribution-submission-anticipation. assertion-supplementation-apprehension.

77) Which of the following hold(s) that potential employees will be attracted to organizations whose cultures match their own personality, organizations will weed out the potential misfits, and the remaining misfits will leave due to being unhappy or ineffective?

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A) B) C) D) E)

reality shock creativity culture weak socialization the encounter stage the ASA framework

78) Cheryl, a supervisor with more than a dozen subordinates, is concerned about whether Carlos, a new employee, is fitting in properly with the department and the company as a whole. The best way for her to make that determination is to observe the

A) B) C) D) E)

kinds of things he talks about with other employees. language he uses in company emails. way he dresses at the office. place he sits at lunch. websites he visits.

79) ________ is the primary process by which employees learn the knowledge that enables them to understand and adapt to the organization’s culture.

A) B) C) D) E)

80)

Socialization Communal culture Networked culture Culture framework Customer service training

Which of the following is an example of the anticipatory stage of socialization?

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A) Participating in Friday afternoon karaoke sessions at BuzzwebNews cures Max of his fear of singing in public. B) After three months at Al’s Auto Repair, Benjamin is no longer confused by the technical jargon his coworkers use. C) On her first day at Cakewalk Corporation, Jezebel is introduced to her new coworkers, and they take her out to lunch. D) During orientation training at Green Grocery Goods, Simone asks her fellow new hires about where they used to work. E) Miranda is unhappy at her current job and asks her friend Saul about the culture at Streaming Music Solutions, where he works.

81) Which of the following is a process that begins before an employee starts work and does not end until an employee leaves the organization?

A) B) C) D) E)

adaptation socialization indoctrination self-assessment performance evaluation

82) Jean-Claude is thrilled to have been hired at The Reality Network as an assistant producer. He has always wanted to work in television, and the reality show he gets to work on, Find Your Voice, is one he has followed closely for years as a fan. The show’s host, Terrence, is someone he admires and respects, based on how kindly and gently he treats the guests on the show. Once he arrives on set to start work, however, Jean-Claude is dismayed to learn that Terrence is an egotistical, rude, and selfish person. His on-screen persona is the complete opposite of his true self. After only two weeks on the job, Jean-Claude quits, disillusioned. Which of the following best describes what Jean-Claude experienced?

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A) B) C) D) E)

83)

reality shock a subculture anticipatory anxiety organizational instability understanding and adaptation

The three stages of socialization are

A) B) C) D) E)

anticipatory, encounter, and understanding and adaptation. assessment, understanding, and acceptance and adaptation. anticipatory, acceptance, and adaptation. learning, comprehending, and accepting. encountering, resisting, and accepting.

84) At the ________ stage of the socialization process, relevant information includes the way employees are treated during recruitment, the things that insiders tell them about the organization, and any other information employees acquire about what the organization is like and what working there entails.

A) B) C) D) E)

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reality anticipatory encounter adaptation understanding

85) Esmerelda, who is currently employed at Hotel Management Partners, is looking for a new job. In the process of doing so, she comes across the website of Lucrative Property Rentals and finds that the values and culture of this other company match with her own personal values. She also learns about the various activities that take place at Lucrative Property Rentals on a yearly basis and the company’s various achievements. From this example, it is clear that Esmerelda is in the ________ stage of the socialization process with regard to Lucrative Property Rentals.

A) B) C) D) E)

86)

anticipatory encounter understanding adaptation attrition

Which of the following statements about the encounter stage of socialization is true?

A) The encounter stage of socialization takes place prior to an employee spending even one second on the job. B) New employees compare the information they acquired as outsiders with what the organization is really like now that they are insiders. C) Newcomers come to learn the content areas of socialization and internalize the norms and expected behaviors of the organization. D) The encounter stage involves the adoption of the spoken and unspoken goals and values of the organization. E) The encounter stage of socialization is the last stage in the socialization process.

87) During the ________ stage of socialization, new employees compare the information they acquired as outsiders during the ________ stage with what the organization is really like now that they are insiders.

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A) B) C) D) E)

encounter; anticipatory understanding and adaptation; encounter encounter; understanding and adaptation anticipatory; encounter anticipatory; understanding and adaptation

88) In her final semester of college, Serena interviews at VisionMasters, Inc. Before the interview, she collects information from VisionMasters’ website and from employees she knows. Serena gets additional information during the interview process from the managers. Serena is in which stage of the socialization process?

A) B) C) D) E)

encounter attrition anticipatory adaptation and understanding selection

89) Umberto has recently been hired by Petabyte Partners Data Storage. Today is his first day. Umberto can be described as being in which stage of the socialization process?

A) B) C) D) E)

encounter attrition anticipatory adaptation and understanding selection

90) A couple of days after starting her new job as a logistics manager at Recycled Steel Products, Florence is heard commenting that “Working at Recycled Steel Products is not nearly what I expected it to be.” This is an example of ________, which occurs in the ________ stage of the socialization process.

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A) B) C) D) E)

counterculture; encounter reverse adaptation; attrition culture shock; anticipatory reality shock; encounter reverse adaptation; understanding

91) The goal of an organization’s socialization efforts should be to minimize ________ as much as possible.

A) B) C) D) E)

mentoring diversity reality shock espoused values newcomer orientation

92) In this stage of the socialization process employees enjoy and get along with coworkers, know who makes things happen, and understands and can perform the key function of their job.

A) B) C) D) E)

encounter attrition anticipatory understanding and adaptation selection

93) During which stage of socialization do newcomers come to learn the content areas of socialization and internalize the norms and expected behaviors of the organization?

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A) B) C) D) E)

encounter attrition anticipatory understanding and adaptation selection

94) Companies merge for various reasons, but with acquisitions, the company doing the acquiring has a ________ culture to which the other is expected to adapt.

A) B) C) D) E)

95)

In practice, there are two major ways to change a culture. They are

A) B) C) D) E)

96)

safety fragmented differentiated dominant service

ASA framework and socialization. changes in leadership and mergers or acquisitions. ASA framework and changes in leadership. socialization and mergers or acquisitions. mergers and ASA framework.

Who among the following represent probably the biggest driver of culture?

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A) B) C) D) E)

97)

middle managers front-line employees top executives first-line managers stockholders

Most merged companies operate under a ________ for an extended period of time.

A) B) C) D) E)

strong culture weak culture subculture differentiated culture counterculture

98) ________ is the degree to which an individual’s personality and values match the culture of an organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

Reality shock Culture strength Communal culture Integration framework Person-organization fit

99) Ron works for Advanced Family Medical Systems, often known simply as AdFaMS, and has earned the nickname “Mr. AdFaMS” because of his dedication to the company. Ron says it is not hard to be dedicated to a company he believes in as much as AdFaMS. However, Ron is not perfect. Which of the following is most likely the problem with Ron?

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A) B) C) D) E)

He lacks a general willingness to help others. He places a low level of trust in his managers. He has problems with excessive work-related stress. His emotional attachment to the company is minimal. His job performance is lower than that of most other employees.

100) Corinne is looking forward to starting her new job at Flash Forward, a social-networking platform. Everything she has read suggests the company promotes a healthy work/life balance and supports causes that are important to her, such as sustainability and combating climate change. Walking to her desk on her first day, she sees posters in the hallway outlining the company values of “people over profit” and “work to live, not live to work.” She smiles because that is how she feels about things, too. After a week on the job she finds herself eager to get to work each day and tackle new challenges, something she has never felt about a job before. Her coworkers are friendly and supportive, the management team seems genuinely concerned about morale and job satisfaction, and she learns the company gives all employees one week off per year with pay to perform charitable work of their choosing. All this makes Corinne proud to be a Flash Forward employee. Corinne is experiencing a high degree of

A) B) C) D) E)

101)

subculture. reality shock. person-organization fit. anticipatory socialization. basic underlying assumptions.

Realistic job previews occur during which stage of socialization?

A) B) C) D) E)

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encounter attrition anticipatory adaptation understanding

102) Which of the answer options is an approach a company can take if they are trying to “shake things up” in their company culture?

A) B) C) D) E)

103)

provide role models for newcomers orient new employees along with a group of other new employees provide hurdles required to be met prior to organizational membership use no examples of what an employee is supposed to be like constantly remind newcomers they are now part of the group

A common form of training called ________ teaches attendees about the organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

person-organization fit realistic job previews mentoring newcomer orientation basic underlying assumptions

104) ________ is the process by which a junior-level employee develops a deep and longlasting relationship with a more senior-level employee within the organization.

A) B) C) D) E)

Mentoring Promotion RJP pairing Socialization Orientation

105) Which of the following tactics is designed to encourage adaptation to the organization’s culture?

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A) using no examples of what an employee is supposed to be like B) allowing newcomers to interact with current employees while they are being oriented C) allowing organizational membership regardless of whether or not any specific requirements have been met D) orienting new employees in a solitary setting to avoid overwhelming them with both new tasks and new people E) constantly reminding newcomers that they are now part of a group and that this new group helps define who they are

106) Ulrich finishes college with a degree in computer science. One of his favorite aspects of the discipline is that it is a fairly solitary endeavor. In school he got to work on projects by himself with little social interaction, and that is just how he likes it. After accepting a position as a programmer at VitalTech Resources, he is surprised to learn that he is required to s make a weekly progress report in front of the sales and marketing departments. The mere prospect makes him lightheaded and sweaty. He confesses his misgivings to his supervisor, who pairs him up with a more experienced programmer, Alison. She has been making these kinds of reports for years, and tells him not to worry. With Alison’s help, Ulrich is able to feel more confident about making his presentation. He falters a few times during his first attempt, but Alison coaches him on ways to improve, and he is eventually able to confidently deliver a ten-minute report to a room full of thirty people. The arrangement between Alison and Ulrich is an example of

A) B) C) D) E)

mentoring. acclimation. diversity culture. newcomer orientation. a realistic job preview.

107) Which of the following is a tactic designed to discourage adaptation to the organization’s culture?

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A) providing role models for newcomers B) orienting new employees along with a group of other new employees C) providing hurdles that are required to be met prior to organizational membership D) putting newcomers through orientation apart from current organizational members E) allowing anyone to become a member of the organization without meeting specific requirements

108) Employees transfer knowledge about a company’s culture to other employees through explicit communication, simple observation, and other less obvious means. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Observable artifacts supply the primary means of transmitting an organization’s culture to its workforce. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Espoused values are just another term for enacted values, or how employees consistently act in ways that support those values. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

Organizations that have mercenary cultures are likely to be very political. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

112) The type of organizational culture that is low on solidarity but high on sociability is a fragmented culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) Strong cultures are always good cultures as they guide their employees toward the most successful organizational outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Subcultures unite a smaller subset of the organization’s employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) When the values of subcultures do not match those of the larger organization, the subcultures are known as fragmented cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) As a college senior, Mason researched many companies before deciding on those he wanted to apply to. He searched particularly for those where the company’s values were in agreement with his personal values, and he didn’t apply to those where they weren’t. Recruiters for the companies he did apply to recommended hiring him partly because they saw Mason’s values as a good fit with the company’s values. When he made his selection, Mason was sure he would enjoy working for the company because it seemed like a perfect fit for him. Mason’s job search reflects the attraction-selection-attrition framework. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

117) Attraction and selection processes do not always align employees’ personalities with organizational culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) The socialization process ends once the employee stops needing outside help to handle the job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Shawna was excited for her first day on the job at the pet groomer. By the end of the day, Shawna realized this job was not at all what she imagined. Shawna is in the understanding and adaptation stage of socialization. ⊚ ⊚

120)

true false

The anticipatory stage of socialization begins the day an employee starts work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) When a company is attempting to change its culture, they want a CEO whose leadership style closely matches the company’s culture. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

122)

Job satisfaction is higher and stress is lower when there is a good person-organization fit. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) When employees feel they fit with their organization’s culture, they are much more likely to develop an emotional attachment to the company. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

One of the main disadvantages of realistic job previews is that they are very expensive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Formal mentoring programs have always existed in companies, but their use is increasing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Marie is the department manager at Verve, Inc. Marie has created the workplace for her department in a totally open forum. There are no walls or cubicles, and everyone—including Marie—is in one open room. Marie’s choice of workspace represents the observable artifact known as a symbol. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

127) Marie, the department manager at Verve, Inc., starts every Monday morning with a 60minute department meeting where each member in the department gets five minutes to report progress; share stories of success and failure; and seek general input, advice, and information. Jeremy is responsible for sharing an anecdote, an account, or a legend about the company for every first Monday of the month to keep everyone reminded of where they work and what is important. What Marie and Jeremy are doing are parts of the observable artifacts component of culture. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: CH16 1) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of the three major components of culture.There are three major components to any organization’s culture: observable artifacts, espoused values, and basic underlying assumptions. Observable artifacts are the manifestations of an organization’s culture that employees can easily see or talk about. There are six major types of artifacts: symbols, physical structures, language, stories, rituals, and ceremonies. For example, a department may hold a meeting every Monday morning so that employees can exchange progress reports. Espoused values are the beliefs, philosophies, and norms that a company explicitly states. For example, companies typically have mission statements. Basic underlying assumptions are the taken-for-granted beliefs and philosophies that are so ingrained that employees simply act on them rather than questioning the validity of their behavior in a given situation. For example, the employees of a company may always assume that the customer is right and act in accordance with that belief.

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2) The major types of artifacts are symbols, physical structures, language, stories, rituals, and ceremonies. Symbols can be found throughout an organization, from its corporate logo to the images it places on its website to the uniforms its employees wear. Physical structures refer to the physical buildings, furniture, room design, décor, etc. Language reflects the jargon, slang, and slogans used within the walls of an organization. Stories consist of anecdotes, accounts, legends, and myths that are passed down from cohort to cohort within an organization. Rituals are daily or weekly planned routines that occur in an organization. Ceremonies are formal events, generally performed in front of an audience of organizational members. 3) One popular general typology divides organizational culture along two dimensions: solidarity and sociability. Solidarity is the degree to which group members think and act alike, and sociability represents how friendly employees are to one another. Organizations that are low on both dimensions have a fragmented culture in which employees are distant and disconnected from one another. Organizations that have cultures in which employees think alike but are not friendly to one another can be considered mercenary cultures. These types of organizations are likely to be very political, “what’s in it for me” environments. Cultures in which all employees are friendly to one another, but everyone thinks differently and does his or her own thing, are networked cultures. Many highly creative organizations have a networked culture. Organizations with friendly employees who all think alike are communal cultures.

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4) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate familiarity with all culture types and more in-depth knowledge of two culture types.Many organizations try to create a customer service culture focused on service quality. Organizations that have successfully created a service culture have been shown to change employee attitudes and behaviors toward customers. For manufacturing and medical companies, and other companies with a high probability of accidents and injuries, creating a safety culture is of paramount importance. A positive safety culture has been shown to reduce accidents and increase safety-based citizenship behaviors. A diversity culture is focused on fostering or taking advantage of a diverse group of employees. One of the newer specific cultures many firms are trying to create is a sustainability culture. Sustainability cultures are fostered by the mission and values of many organizations. In addition to helping the greater social good, a sustainability culture can be incredibly valuable in recruiting top talent as the culture resonates well with many of today’s job applicants. Given the importance of new ideas and innovation in many industries, it’s understandable that some organizations focus on fostering a creativity culture. Creativity cultures affect both the quantity and quality of creative ideas within an organization.

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5) Student answers will vary but should demonstrate understanding of strong cultures. A sample answer follows.A high level of culture strength exists when employees definitively agree about the way things are supposed to happen within the organization (high consensus) and when their subsequent behaviors are consistent with those expectations (high intensity). A strong culture serves to unite and direct employees. Strong cultures take a long time to develop and are very difficult to change. Individuals working within strong cultures are typically very aware of it. However, “strong” cultures are not always “good” cultures. Strong cultures guide employee attitudes and behaviors, but that does not always mean that they guide them toward the most successful organizational outcomes.I used to work for a chain of coffee shops that had a strong culture. Employees were expected to dress in a certain way, make drinks according to standardized formulas, and clean the shops according to a specific schedule. The company paid employees relatively well and offered benefits and the opportunity to move up in the company. As a result, most employees were proud to work there, even if they did not plan to work there for the rest of their lives. When employees were off work, it was not uncommon for them to visit their home store to say hi and get a drink, and most employees praised the company to anyone who would listen.

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6) In some cases, the culture of an organization is not really strong or weak. Instead, there might be subcultures that unite a smaller subset of the organization’s employees. These subgroups may be created because there is a strong leader in one area of the company that engenders different norms and values or because different divisions in a company act independently and create their own cultures. However, when a subculture’s values don’t match those of the larger organization, we call them countercultures. Countercultures can sometimes serve a useful purpose by challenging the values of the overall organization or signifying the need for change. In extreme cases however, countercultures can split the organization’s culture right down the middle, resulting in the differentiated culture. 7) The ASA (attraction-selection-attrition) framework states that employees will be drawn to organizations with cultures that match their personality, organizations will select employees that match, and employees will leave or be forced out when they are not a good fit. Attraction and selection processes do not always align employees’ personalities with organizational culture—one reason voluntary and involuntary turnover occurs in every organization.

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8) The anticipatory stage is the first stage of the socialization process. It happens prior to an employee spending even one second on the job. It starts the moment a potential employee hears the name of the organization. Anticipatory socialization begins as soon as a potential employee develops an image of what it must be like to work for a given company. The bulk of information acquired during the anticipatory stage occurs during the recruitment and selection processes that employees go through prior to joining an organization. Relevant information includes the way employees are treated during the recruitment process, the things that organizational insiders tell them about the organization, and any other information employees acquire about what the organization is like and what working there entails.The encounter stage begins the day an employee starts work. There are some things about an organization and its culture that can only be learned once a person becomes an organizational insider. During this stage, new employees compare the information they acquired as outsiders during the anticipatory stage with what the organization is really like now that they’re insiders. To the degree that the information in the two stages is similar, employees will have a smoother time adjusting to the organization. Problems occur when the two sets of information don’t quite match. This mismatch of information is called reality shock. Reality shock is best exemplified by the employee who says something to the effect of, “Working at this company is not nearly what I expected it to be.” Surveys suggest that as many as one-third of new employees leave an organization within the first 90 days as a result of unmet expectations.The final stage of socialization is one of understanding and adaptation. During this stage, newcomers come to learn the content areas of socialization and internalize the norms and expected behaviors of the organization. The important part of this stage is change on the part of the employee. A perfectly socialized employee has adopted the goals and values of the Version 1

organization, understands what the organization has been through, and can converse with others in the organization using technical language and specific terms that only insiders would understand. In addition, the employee enjoys and gets along with other employees in the organization, knows whom to go to in order to make things happen, and understands and can perform the key functions of his or her job. 9) The five tactics designed to encourage adaptation to the organization’s culture are: orient new employees along with a group of other new employees; provide role models for newcomers; provide hurdles that are required to be met prior to organizational membership; put newcomers through orientation apart from current organizational members; and finally constantly remind newcomers that they are now part of a group and that this new group helps define who they are. The five tactics to discourage adaptation to the organization’s culture are: orient new employees by themselves; use no examples of what an employee is supposed to be like; allow organizational membership regardless of whether any specific requirements have been met; allow newcomers to interact with current employees while they are being oriented; and finally, constantly affirm to newcomers that they are to be themselves and that they were chosen for the organization based on who they are. If management is encouraging newcomers to adapt to the current culture, then they must believe that the organization has a strong culture and definite norms and values it wants new employees to adopt. Some organizations do not have a strong culture or they might be trying to change their culture and want new employees to come in and shake things up, then they would discourage new hires from adapting the current company culture.

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10) In practice, organizations utilize two common methods to change their culture: changes in leadership and mergers and acquisitions. There is perhaps no bigger driver of culture than the leaders and top executives of organizations. Just as the founders and originators of organizations set the tone and develop the culture of a new company, subsequent CEOs and presidents leave their mark on the culture. Many times, leaders are expected simply to sustain the culture that has already been created. At other times, leaders have to be a driving force for change as the environment around the organization shifts. This expectation is one of the biggest reasons organizations change their top leadership.Merging two companies with two distinct cultures is a surefire way to change the culture in an organization. Merging two different cultures has major effects on the attitudes and behaviors of organizational employees. Slightly less troublesome but still a major hurdle to overcome are acquisitions. In most instances, the company doing the acquiring has a dominant culture to which the other is expected to adapt.

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11) Merging two companies with two distinct cultures is a surefire way to change the culture in an organization. The problem is that there is just no way to know what the culture will look like after the merger takes place. What the new culture will resemble is a function of both the strength of the two cultures involved in the merger and how similar they are to each other. Ideally, a new culture would be created out of a compromise in which the best of both companies is represented by the new culture. Mergers rarely result in the strong culture that managers hope will appear when they make the decision to merge. In fact, most merged companies operate under a differentiated culture for an extended period of time. Some of them never really adopt a new identity, and when they do, many of them are seen as failures by the outside world. This perception is especially true in global mergers, in which each of the companies not only has a different organizational culture but is from a different country as well. Merging two different cultures also sometimes has major adverse effects on the attitudes and behaviors of the organizational employees. Slightly less troublesome but still a major hurdle to overcome are acquisitions. In most instances, the company doing the acquiring has a dominant culture to which the other is expected to adapt. One of the major reasons that one company purchases another is simply to acquire the technology that it has. In such cases, the acquired company usually is expected to change to fit the buyer’s culture.

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12) Person-organization fit is the degree to which a person’s personality and values match the culture of an organization. Employees may judge fit by thinking about the values they prioritize the most, then judging whether the organization shares those values. Two recent meta-analyses illustrate the importance of person-organization fit to employees. When employees feel that their values and personality match those of the organization, they experience higher levels of job satisfaction and feel less stress about their day-to-day tasks. They also feel higher levels of trust toward their managers. When employees feel they fit with their organization’s culture, they are much more likely to develop an emotional attachment to the company. The effects of fit on job performance are weaker, however. In general, person-organization fit is more related to citizenship behaviors than to task performance. Employees who sense a good fit are therefore more likely to help their colleagues and “go the extra mile” to benefit the company. 13) Mentoring is a process by which a junior-level employee (protégé) develops a deep and long-lasting relationship with a more senior-level employee (mentor) within the organization. The mentor can provide social knowledge, resources, and psychological support to the protégé both at the beginning of employment and as the protégé continues his or her career with the company. As organizations continue to learn about the strong benefits of these relationships, they are more frequently instituting mentoring programs that formally match newcomers with mentors. Formal programs allow the company to provide consistent information, train mentors, and ensure that all newcomers have the opportunity to develop one of these fruitful relationships. 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) D Version 1

18) D 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) E 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) E Version 1

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