Test Bank Social Psychology 2nd Canadian Edition Kassin, Fein, Burke by Ace Test Banks

Test Bank to accompany

Second Canadian Edition prepared by

Dawn Macaulay Humber College

TABLE OF CONTENTS CHAPTER 1 What is Social Psychology? .............................................. 1-1 CHAPTER 2 Doing Social Psychology Research ................................. 2-1 CHAPTER 3 The Social Self ................................................................. 3-1 CHAPTER 4 Perceiving Persons ........................................................... 4-1 CHAPTER 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination ...................... 5-1 CHAPTER 6 Attitudes ........................................................................... 6-1 CHAPTER 7 Conformity ....................................................................... 7-1 CHAPTER 8 Group Processes ............................................................... 8-1 CHAPTER 9 Attraction and Close Relationships .................................. 9-1 CHAPTER 10 Helping Others ............................................................... 10-1 CHAPTER 11 Aggression ..................................................................... 11-1 Appendix A Law .................................................................................... A-1 Appendix B Health ................................................................................. B-1

PREFACE

In most post-secondary courses, a large percentage of student assessment is based on multiplechoice testing. Many instructors use multiple-choice reluctantly, believing that it is a methodology best used for testing what a student remembers rather than what she or he has learned. Nelson Education Ltd. understands that a good quality multiple-choice test bank can provide the means to measure higher-level thinking skills as well as recall. Recognizing the importance of multiple-choice testing in today’s classroom, we have created NETA—the Nelson Education Teaching Advantage program—to ensure the value of our high quality test banks. The NETA program was created in partnership with David DiBattista, a 3M National Teaching Fellow, professor of psychology at Brock University, and researcher in the area of multiplechoice testing. NETA ensures that subject-matter experts who author test banks have had training in two areas: avoiding common errors in test construction, and developing multiplechoice test questions that “get beyond remembering” to assess higher-level thinking. All NETA test banks include David DiBattista’s guide for instructors, “Multiple Choice Tests: Getting Beyond Remembering.” This guide has been designed to assist you in using Nelson test banks to achieve your desired outcomes in your course. The Test Bank for Kassin, Fein, Markus, Burke Social Psychology, Second Canadian Edition has been revised for Canadian students by Dawn Macaulay, Humber College. The multiplechoice questions were written and edited to conform to NETA guidelines, which emphasize the development of higher-order thinking and the effective construction of questions. NETA principles of question construction help eliminate ambiguity, arguable answers, guesswork, and unconscious cues to test-savvy students, resulting in a test that accurately reflects student understanding. The Test Bank offers over 1500 questions, including about 1488 multiple choice and about 261 essay questions. In addition to providing a variety of questions related to each chapter objective, this test bank also employs a series of tags that can help design effective, balanced tests by the measure of course outcomes. All of the tags are included with the question in the test bank. These tags include: • ANS: The correct answer. (Suggested answers are provided for the short answer questions.) • PTS: The number of points an instructor can assign for each question. The default is 1 point.

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BLM: The category from Bloom’s taxonomy for learning (Remember or Higher Order). This category is included to assist instructors in assessing student’s higher-order cognitive skills. REF: The related page number in the text.

The Computerized Test Bank All items from this Test Bank are also available in ExamView®, a computerized testing package with online capabilities. ExamView® helps you create, customize and deliver both print and online tests in minutes. Its “what you see is what you get” interface and easy-to-use test wizard guide you step-by-step through the test creation process. The ExamView® Test Bank files and software is available from http://www.socialpsych4ce.nelson.com.

Chapter 1: Introduction MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following would a social psychologists be most likely to do? a. consider how power differences affect particular segments of society b. study how racism and sexism are reflected in societal structures c. study phenomena about which most people hold commonsense beliefs d. pay more attention to group behaviour than the behaviour of individuals within

groups ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 6

BLM: Remember

2. Which of the following questions would a social psychologist be most likely to study? a. Do divorce rates differ within different socioeconomic classes? b. Does exposure to media violence increase aggression? c. What factors contribute to the development of depression? d. Are people with high IQs happier than those with low IQs? ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 7

BLM: Remember

3. Which of the following questions would a social psychologist be least likely to study? a. What kinds of persuasion techniques are the most effective? b. What qualities do people look for in a romantic partner or friend? c. Why do people sometimes sabotage their own performance? d. Have attitudes toward gun control changed in the last five years? ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 7-8

BLM: Higher order

4. Which of the following best describes the focus of social psychology? a. application of the scientific method to the study of human behaviour b. scientific investigation of how others can affect people’s behaviour, emotions, and

thoughts c. compilation of scientific observations and case studies d. application of scientific knowledge to change an individual’s behaviour ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 5

BLM: Remember

5. Which of the following is social psychology primarily concerned with? a. the ways in which group factors contribute to the functioning of social institutions b. the ways in which unconscious forces influence conscious motivations and desires c. the ways in which specific personality characteristics predict behaviour across

situations d. the ways in which others influence an individual’s behaviour, emotions, and

thoughts ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 5-6

BLM: Remember

1-1

Chapter 1 Introduction 6. How does social psychology differ from history and philosophy? a. Social psychology places attention on the scientific method. b. Social psychology is concerned with human behaviour. c. Social psychology has a greater focus on cultural influences. d. Social psychology has a broader, more wide-reaching focus of interest. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 5-6

BLM: Remember

7. Which of the following is most important to the scientific method? a. systematic observation b. in-depth case studies c. intuition d. anecdotal reports ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 5

BLM: Remember

8. Anita wants to spend her career thinking about the idiosyncrasies of love between two people.

If she chooses to become a social psychologist, which of the following will she most likely do? a. focus more on people's thoughts than on their behaviour b. de-emphasize the role that external influences play on couples’ relationships c. consider “couples” rather than “individuals” the unit of analysis d. include systematic observation and measurement of these idiosyncrasies ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 5

BLM: Remember

9. Mariano is interested in why people discriminate on the basis of skin colour. If Mariano is a

social psychologist, which of the following is he least likely to do? a. refer to basic theories of human behaviour to understand discrimination b. pay more attention to political developments related to discrimination than to the behaviour of specific individuals c. conduct experiments on discrimination d. expect discrimination to be a function of both real and perceived social influences ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 5-6

BLM: Higher order

10. How is social psychology defined? a. as the analysis of historical social events b. as the analysis of the influence that other people have on our thoughts and

behaviours c. as the study of groups rather than on the study of individual behaviour d. as the study of the role of society ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 5-6

BLM: Remember

1-2

Chapter 1 Introduction 11. To learn about human behaviour, which of the following does social psychology rely on most

heavily? a. critical analysis to develop general principles that describe human behaviour b. the assumption that only social factors influence human behaviour c. the scientific method to learn about human behaviour d. cultural analysis to learn about human behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 5-6

BLM: Higher order

12. Which of the following would a social psychologist be least likely to study? a. the effect of academic performance on self-esteem b. the effect of temperature on highway shootings c. the effect of political attitudes on friendship formation d. the effect of sleep on concentration ability ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 7

BLM: Higher order

13. Which of the following studies would a social psychologist be most interested in reading? a. a study demonstrating the effects of attitude similarity on interpersonal attraction b. a study demonstrating the effects of immigration patterns on stock market activity c. a study demonstrating the effects of distraction on attention to a visual display d. a study demonstrating the effects of narcotic substances on neurotransmitter

activity in the brain ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 7

BLM: Higher order

14. Which of the following is the most important theme in social psychological research? a. the power of the situation b. the role of the individual's cultural background c. the power of unconscious motivation d. the power of gender roles ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 9-12

BLM: Higher order

15. In a study conducted by Strahan et al. (2008), researchers manipulated whether cultural norms

about women were activated. Which of the following fields does this study have important implications for? a. education b. journalism c. finance d. marketing ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 8

BLM: Higher order

16. What does Strahan et al.’s (2008) study on body satisfaction involve? a. women reading positive or negative comments about their bodies b. women being reminded about cultural norms c. women engaging in physical activity over a number of days d. women “overhearing” other people commenting on their looks ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 8

BLM: Remember 1-3

Chapter 1 Introduction 17. What do the results of the body satisfaction study conducted by Strahan et al. (2008) indicate? a. Women rated their body satisfaction lower than men did. b. Women rated their body satisfaction lower than men did, but only if men were

present c. Women’s ratings of body satisfaction were influenced by media they recently

viewed. d. Women’s ratings of body satisfaction were stable. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 8

BLM: Higher order

18. What does body satisfaction research conducted by Strahan et al. (2008) suggest will happen

when women are reminded that they are compared to other women based on physical characteristics? a. They provide lower self-esteem ratings. b. They report being more concerned with what other people think about them. c. They report beginning to dislike other women. d. They provide lower ratings of other women’s physical attractiveness. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 8

BLM: Remember

19. “ Sociologist” is to “social psychologist” as “group” is to which of the following? a. “individual” b. “relationships” c. “power” d. “society” ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Remember

20. Sociologists studying the effects of media violence would be more likely than social

psychologists to do which of the following? a. conduct experiments manipulating the amount of media violence viewed by participants b. assess changes in television availability and in murder rates over the last 30 years c. concern themselves with situational variables that moderate the effects of media violence on its viewers d. focus on the types of individuals who choose to view media violence ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

21. To examine the relationship between economic conditions and violence, Gunther compares

the murder rates for counties with different median incomes. What field of study best characterizes Gunther's research ? a. social psychology b. clinical psychology c. personality psychology d. sociology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Higher order

1-4

Chapter 1 Introduction 22. To examine the relationship between economic conditions and violence, Priti manipulates

resources given to individuals and then examines the effect of this manipulation on their aggressive behaviour. What field of study does Priti's research best characterize? a. sociology b. social psychology c. clinical psychology d. personality psychology ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Higher order

23. Brad is a social psychologist. Marion is a sociologist. Which of the following research

questions is most likely of interest to both of them? a. How do societal and immediate factors influence racial differences in academic achievement? b. How do positive and negative feedback impact conceptions of the self? c. Do different socioeconomic groups express different political attitudes? d. Can an authority figure influence people to act in ways that they normally would not? ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Higher order

24. How does social psychology differ from sociology? a. Social psychology is the study of societal level variables, whereas sociology is

focussed on more specific and immediate variables. b. Social psychology studies human behaviour at the level of the individual, whereas

sociology studies human behaviour at the group level. c. Social psychologists more often rely on participant observation than sociologists. d. Social psychologists are less likely than sociologists to rely on experimentation to

study human behaviour. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Remember

25. When comparing social psychology to sociology, which of the following is a major

difference? a. the target populations studied b. the number of variables explored c. the focus on the individual or the group d. the emphasis on how social context affects behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Remember

26. Marilyn is interested in whether schizophrenic individuals tend to interpret verbal feedback

from others as negative even if it is positive. It might be said that Marilyn is doing research at the intersection of social psychology and which of the following? a. evolutionary psychology b. sociology c. personality psychology d. clinical psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Higher order 1-5

Chapter 1 Introduction 27. Although related to other fields, social psychology is distinct in that its emphasis is on which

of the following? a. describing the relationship between human behaviour and societal variables b. understanding the influence of societal forces on group behaviour c. identifying individual characteristics that are relatively stable across time d. understanding the immediate situational factors that influence human behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Higher order

28. Which of the following are both social psychology and clinical psychology concerned with? a. Both fields are interested in understanding anxiety and depression. b. Both fields primarily focus on behaviour that is stable across situations. c. Both fields are primarily concerned with the underlying causes of atypical

behaviour. d. Both fields are closely associated with mental health. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 9

BLM: Remember

29. Research concerning how depressed and non-depressed individuals process social information

is at the intersection of what two fields of study? a. personality psychology and cognitive psychology b. social psychology and clinical psychology c. personality psychology and clinical psychology d. clinical psychology and sociology ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Remember

30. Which of the following branches of psychology is most interested in “the power of the

situation”? a. clinical psychology b. cognitive psychology c. personality psychology d. social psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Remember

31. What distinguishes social psychology from other specialties in psychology? a. its use of the scientific method in research design b. its focus on the individual as the unit of analysis c. its attention to the influence of situational context on behaviour d. its status as an isolated division in the Canadian Psychological Association ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Remember

1-6

Chapter 1 Introduction 32. Astrid has developed a questionnaire to help her identify individuals who tend to be high or

low in altruism across a variety of situations. What kind of psychologist is Astrid most likely to be? a. a cognitive psychologist b. a social psychologist c. a clinical psychologist d. a personality psychologist ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

33. The interaction between individual characteristics and situational constraints on the way

people behave best reflects the intersection of which two types of psychology? a. cognitive and personality psychology b. personality and social psychology c. social and clinical psychology d. clinical and cognitive psychology ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

34. Hyunwoo believes that image-oriented ads will be more persuasive for individuals concerned

with their outward appearances, whereas ads that stress product quality will be more effective for individuals who are less concerned with their public image. This belief represents the intersection of what two fields of study? a. social psychology and clinical psychology b. social psychology and cognitive psychology c. social psychology and personality psychology d. social psychology and sociology ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

35. Kirsten is interested in whether women will be more nurturing at the workplace because they

are expected to be nurturing. What kind of psychologist is Kirsten most likely to be? a. a personality psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. a cognitive psychologist d. a social psychologist ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

36. Dina is interested in whether women with nurturing personalities are more reliable friends

both inside and outside of the workplace. What kind of psychologist is Dina most likely to be? a. a personality psychologist b. a clinical psychologist c. a cognitive psychologist d. a social psychologist ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 10-11

BLM: Higher order

1-7

Chapter 1 Introduction 37. Antoine investigates the extent to which depressed individuals misremember occasions when

they have experienced positive life events, particularly in the presence of cues such as a person with whom they have had a failed relationship. His research is best described as being at the intersection of which of the following? a. personality, cognitive, and clinical psychology b. cognitive, social, and personality psychology c. social, clinical, and cognitive psychology d. clinical, personality, and social psychology ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 11

BLM: Higher order

38. Which one of the following “commonsense” findings shows the greatest alignment with

research in social psychology? a. Beautiful people are often assumed to be unintelligent. b. Unattractive people are often assumed to be intelligent c. People tend to underestimate the extent to which others agree with their points of view. d. People tend to overestimate the extent to which others agree with their points of view. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 11

BLM: Remember

39. In which of the following ways does social psychology supplement commonsense ideas about

human behaviour? a. Social psychology allows us to test commonsense assumptions using scientific methods. b. Social psychology supports folk wisdom from various cultures. c. Social psychological theories apply more widely than our commonsense ideas about human behaviour. d. Social psychological findings tend to support our intuitive beliefs about human behaviour. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Higher order

40. Why is social psychological research a better source of information than our commonsense

intuitions? a. because our commonsense intuitions tend to be very unstable b. because our commonsense intuitions often contradict each other c. because our commonsense intuitions are not as shared by other people as we think d. because our commonsense intuitions are generally accurate but are held with little confidence ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Higher order

1-8

Chapter 1 Introduction 41. How does social psychology differ from common sense? a. Common sense tends to produce more accurate knowledge about human behaviour

than social psychology. b. Common sense is applied to nearly every human behaviour. c. Social psychology is far more intuitive than common sense. d. Social psychology relies on the scientific method to test its theories. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

42. When did the field of social psychology emerge as a distinct discipline? a. around the turn of the seventeenth century b. around the turn of the eighteenth century c. around the turn of the nineteenth century d. around the turn of the twentieth century ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 11-12

BLM: Remember

43. Who were Max Ringelmann and Norman Triplett? a. the first researchers to explore conformity b. sociologists who established social psychology as a distinct discipline c. pioneers in the field of social cognition d. the founders of social psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

44. Among the following social psychologists, who was one of the original founders of social

psychology? a. Norman Triplett b. Stanley Milgram c. Michael Norton d. Philip Zimbardo ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Remember

45. Who is credited with publishing the first research article in social psychology? a. Max Ringlemann b. Norman Triplett c. Floyd Allport d. William McDougall ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

1-9

Chapter 1 Introduction 46. Blaine works in a factory producing car stereos. He notices that workers produce more stereos

by the end of the day when they work together in the same room than when they work in separate rooms. His observation is consistent with a classic study conducted by which one of the following researchers? a. Lewin b. Asch c. Triplett d. Sherif ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

47. “Founders of social psychology” Norman Triplett and Max Ringlemann both did research

examining which of the following? a. the influence groups exert on their members b. the impact of the presence of others on performance c. how behaviours are shaped by perceptions d. the impact of different leadership strategies on group performance ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

48. According to your textbook, which of the following events is credited with establishing social

psychology as a distinct field of study? a. the publication of the first three textbooks in social psychology b. the publication of the first research article in social psychology c. the formation of the Society for the Psychological Study of Social Issues d. the introduction of the interactionist perspective to the field of psychology ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

49. Floyd Allport's social psychology textbook, published in 1924, is credited with which of the

following? a. establishing social psychology's emphasis on the scientific method b. imbuing social psychology with a cross-cultural orientation c. introducing the major theories of social psychology d. linking social psychology to evolutionary psychology ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

50. Which of the following inspired Triplett’s groundbreaking research? a. tug of war b. pole vault c. weight lifting d. bicycling ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 12

BLM: Remember

1-10

Chapter 1 Introduction 51. If a student wants to find the first source that established social psychology as a separate field

with an emphasis on experimentation, which of the following should he or she read? a. Allport's (1924) text b. Ringelmann's (1913) article c. McDougall's (1908) text d. Triplett's (1897–1898) article ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

52. One of the people who had the greatest impact on the developing field of social psychology

was not a psychologist. Which of the following was this person? a. Plato b. Abraham Lincoln c. Adolf Hitler d. Franklin Roosevelt ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 12-13

BLM: Remember

53. Which of the following historical events sparked great interest in and gave shape to the field

of social psychology? a. World War I b. the Great Depression c. World War II d. the Korean War ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

54. Of the following important figures in the history of social psychology, who most explicitly

emphasized application of the field to social problems in society? a. Gordon Allport b. Fritz Heider c. Max Ringelmann d. Kurt Lewin ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

55. According to your textbook, which of the following classic investigations is thought to have

arisen from the researcher's attempt to understand events in Nazi Germany? a. Ringelmann’s research on group pressure b. Triplett's research on performance in groups c. Milgram's study of destructive obedience d. Lewin's research on conservation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

1-11

Chapter 1 Introduction 56. Which of the following is least characteristic of research in social psychology between the

1930s and 1950s? a. an emphasis on the application of social psychology to practical concerns b. an integration of social and cognitive processes that determine behaviour c. attention to the topics of conformity and prejudice d. the use of experimentation in research ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 13-14

BLM: Higher order

57. Which of the following social psychologists is credited with demonstrating that complex

social processes could be studied scientifically? a. Sherif b. Triplett c. Heider d. Lewin ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Remember

58. According to your textbook, why was the work of Muzafer Sherif important for the

development of social psychology? a. because he demonstrated the interaction between personality characteristics and situational factors b. because he developed professional associations for social psychologists c. because he showed that complex social behaviour could be examined scientifically d. because he helped to find solutions to the crisis in the field during the 1960s and 1970s ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Remember

59. According to your textbook, why was Muzafer Sherif's research crucial for the development

of social psychology? a. because it introduced the idea of cognitive dissonance b. because it marked the beginning of the pluralistic approach that continues to characterize the field c. because it firmly established the importance of an interactionist perspective d. because it demonstrated the feasibility of studying complex social issues in a rigorous, scientific manner ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Remember

60. Which of the following is one of the fundamental principles of social psychology established

by Lewin? a. Behaviour depends on how the unconscious perceives and interprets the world around us. b. Behaviour is a function of the interaction between the person and the environment. c. Behaviour can be controlled by rewards and punishments. d. Behaviour should be conceptualized as an interaction of cognition and motivation. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 13-14

BLM: Remember

1-12

Chapter 1 Introduction 61. Jack and his girlfriend Diane dine out about three times a week. Jack believes that they hardly

ever dine out, whereas Diane thinks they dine out all the time. What important theme in social psychology does this example illustrate? a. Behaviour is a function of the interaction between a person and his or her environment. b. Different people can see the same situation very differently. c. Complex social behaviours can be studied using the scientific method. d. Social psychological theories can be applied to the solution of real-world problems. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Higher order

62. According to the interactionist perspective, behaviour is a result of the interaction between

which two factors? a. motivation and cognition b. groups and individuals c. personality and situations d. theoretical and practical concerns ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Higher order

63. By stressing both internal differences among individuals and differences among external

situations, the interactionist perspective is an approach combining which of the following fields of study? a. personality psychology and social psychology b. social psychology and clinical psychology c. cognitive psychology and social psychology d. social psychology and sociology ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 13

BLM: Higher order

64. Whose writings have the greatest emphasis on experiments addressing the interaction of

individuals and their social context? a. Floyd Allport b. Max Ringelmann c. Norman Triplett d. Kurt Lewin ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 13-14

BLM: Remember

65. Phoebe is a graduate student in social psychology who will only agree to conduct research that

will help address an ongoing social problem. Which of the following individuals’ philosophies is Phoebe's desire is most consistent with? a. Solomon Asch b. Kurt Lewin c. Fritz Heider d. Gordon Allport ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

1-13

Chapter 1 Introduction 66. Tracey does research on the reasons that people get involved with the environmental

movement. Which of the following theorists probably has the greatest influence on her research? a. Leon Festinger b. Gordon Allport c. Stanley Milgram d. Kurt Lewin ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Higher order

67. Lewin's research concerning both how to promote economical and nutritious eating habits,

and what kinds of leaders elicit the best work from group members, was important in establishing which of the following? a. Different topics require different research strategies. b. Social psychology could be used to understand and help solve practical problems. c. Early theories in social psychology were often historically and culturally limited. d. Social psychologists may unwittingly influence the behaviour of research participants. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 13-14

BLM: Remember

68. Because of his research on practical issues, such as the research he conducted in the 1940s

concerning promotion of more economical and nutritious eating habits, Kurt Lewin could be considered one of the founders of which of the following? a. the field experiment b. basic psychology c. “hot” theories of social psychology d. applied social psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

69. Mona would like to understand the interactionist perspective. She has enough time to skim

two textbooks. One of the textbooks should focus on social psychology. What subject should the other textbook focus on? a. evolutionary psychology b. cognitive psychology c. clinical psychology d. personality psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 14-15

BLM: Higher order

70. Which of the following best illustrates Lewin's interactionist perspective? a. Sally is a very creative kind of person who likes to build things. b. Jerry only works because he receives a very large income. c. Rikki is usually shy, but at work she appears to be quite outgoing. d. Maury gives money to charities because he wants other people to think he is very

generous. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Higher order

1-14

Chapter 1 Introduction 71. Abe subscribes to a psychoanalytic view of human behaviour. Compared to the view of Kurt

Lewin, what is Abe’s view more likely to emphasize? a. the power of external rewards b. the power of internal motives c. the power of situational factors d. the power of interpersonal relationships ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Higher order

72. Which social psychologist helped to establish the study of stereotypes and prejudice in social

psychology? a. S. Asch b. G. Allport c. F. Heider d. M. Sherif ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

73. Suppose that Ria is interested in the ways that people’s own actions can cause them to change

their opinions. Which of the following social psychologists would most likely influence her? a. Asch b. Lewin c. Festinger d. Allport ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

74. Which of the following social psychologists became the first woman elected president of an

academic association for social psychology? a. Caroline Wood Sherif b. Marie Jahoda c. Elisa Festinger d. Rebecca Asch ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

75. Elliot is interested in how the desire to fit in with a group causes people to doubt their own

perceptions and give an answer that is clearly incorrect. Whose writings should Elliot read? a. Allport b. Asch c. Festinger d. Milgram ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Remember

1-15

Chapter 1 Introduction 76. Which of the following areas of social psychology is correctly matched with its founder? a. aggression theory—Lewin b. conformity—Asch c. social obedience—Festinger d. cognitive dissonance theory—Milgram ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Remember

77. Leon Festinger is best known for research concerning which of the following? a. attribution theory b. stereotypes and prejudice c. interpersonal relationships d. attitude change ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Remember

78. Dimitri would like to read about social psychological research on conformity. Whose research

should he read? a. Asch b. Milgram c. Festinger d. Sherif ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Remember

79. Ramanpreet is interested in the history of social psychology. Which of the following

statements will have the strongest support? a. Even at the start of the 1900s, female psychologists were often highly respected and noted contributors to their field. b. Women were leading the field as presidents of societies for the study of social psychology since the early 1900s. c. Almost all of the early female social psychologists faced discrimination. d. Almost all of the early female social psychologists studied discrimination. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14

BLM: Higher order

80. Which of the following was a focal point in critiques of social psychology in the 1960s and

1970s? a. Social psychology was too focused on the effects of different cultures. b. The results of social psychological laboratory experiments may be influenced by experimenters' expectations. c. Social psychology was too focused on current social problems. d. The findings of social psychological experiments were true cross-culturally. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 15-16

BLM: Remember

1-16

Chapter 1 Introduction 81. Reaction to which of the following led to much of the debate in social psychology during the

period of “Confidence and Crisis”? a. the usefulness of applied research b. the use of laboratory experiments c. the overemphasis on culture d. Lewin's interactionist perspective ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Remember

82. What topic did Milgram's research in the early and middle 1960s concern? a. cognitive dissonance theory b. social comparison theory c. stereotypes and prejudice d. obedience to authority ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Remember

83. Which of the following was a key component to critiques of social psychology in the 1960s

and 1970s? a. concerns about whether participants always received ethical treatment b. concerns over the relevance of laboratory research c. concerns that too many research approaches were being used within each area d. concerns that too many different cultures were being studied ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Remember

84. Which of the following was a critique of social psychology in the 1960s and 1970s? a. The discipline failed to address topics of social relevance. b. The discipline failed to distinguish itself from other fields of psychology. c. Researchers had not yet agreed upon a conventional methodology. d. The findings were limited to current historical circumstances. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Remember

85. Mel criticized the field of social psychology during the 1960s and 1970s. It is likely that Mel

wrote about the inability of social psychological researchers to do which of the following? a. to suggest possible solutions to minor social concerns b. to acknowledge the role of personality in producing the results of their studies c. to consider the cultural context in which their findings were obtained d. to design experimental contexts that could produce viable social pressures ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Higher order

86. The most famous research in social psychology concerned obedience to authority. Who

conducted this research? a. Lewin b. G. Allport c. Milgram d. Festinger ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 14-15

BLM: Remember 1-17

Chapter 1 Introduction 87. During the 1960s and 1970s, social psychologists who favoured laboratory experiments

rebuffed critics with which of the following arguments? a. They argued that social problems were too complex to rely on non-experimental methods of study. b. They argued that universities would not hire social psychologists unless they did lab experiments. c. They argued that non-experimental methods were too expensive to employ. d. They argued that the theoretical principles being tested in the lab were widely applicable. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 15-16

BLM: Remember

88. In reacting to critiques of the field in the 1960s and 1970s, what did social psychologists do? a. They adopted more rigorous ethical standards. b. They paid more attention to theoretical predictions. c. They denounced experiments as an unacceptable methodology. d. They developed more stringent procedures to avoid the effects of cultural bias. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 15-16

BLM: Higher order

89. How does your textbook describe social psychology in the period from the middle 1970s

through the 1990s? a. as a time of confidence b. as a time of turbulence c. as a time of pluralism d. as a time of interactionism ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 17

BLM: Remember

90. When Taka is teaching his social psychology class, he emphasizes that the field must

encompass a range of research techniques and cultural perspectives if it is to flourish. Which of the following does Taka's emphasis reflect? a. a contextualist orientation b. an empirical approach c. a “hot” approach to studying social behaviour d. a pluralistic orientation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Higher order

91. Which of the following does a pluralistic approach to social psychology encourage? a. investigation of the motivational more than the cognitive underpinnings of

behaviour b. research outside of controlled laboratory settings c. narrowing of the variety of research methodologies employed d. limitation on the kinds of topics that social psychologists can study ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 15-16

BLM: Higher order

1-18

Chapter 1 Introduction 92. Which of the following reflects the pluralism evident in contemporary social psychology? a. the use of multi-method investigations b. a consolidation of journals in the field c. more homogeneous samples in research d. more studies in which different researchers collaborate ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Higher order

93. Which of the following demonstrates the pluralism in contemporary social psychology? a. the procedures used to secure government funding b. the integration of hot and cold perspectives c. the reduction to simple tightly controlled experimental methods d. the rejection of various cultural perspectives ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Remember

94. Why do social psychologists use a multi-method approach to study behaviour? a. because research participants should be asked their opinion from multiple

perspectives b. because different topics require different kinds of research strategies c. because laboratory experimentation is free from bias d. because human behaviour is fairly consistent across cultures ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Higher order

95. Which of the following best explains why a multi-method approach to the study of social

psychological phenomena is advantageous? a. because it allows researchers to study many more variables within a single experiment b. because it requires fewer research participants c. because it increases confidence in the research findings d. because it permits multiple interpretations of the same result ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Higher order

96. Marta is interested in how behaviour is influenced by the way people think about their social

world. Which perspective in social psychology does Marta subscribe to? a. the cold perspective b. the interactionist perspective c. the hot perspective d. the cross-cultural perspective ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Higher order

97. Which of the following best describes the hot perspective in social psychology? a. the processing of positive information b. the processing of negative information c. the influence of emotion d. the influence of cognition ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 16-17

BLM: Remember 1-19

Chapter 1 Introduction 98. Sasha is interested in how feelings influence people's behaviour. Which perspective in social

psychology does Sasha subscribe to? a. the pluralistic perspective b. the interactionist perspective c. the cold perspective d. the hot perspective ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 17

BLM: Remember

99. A contemporary social psychologist studies both how people understand others and how this

influences their desire to be liked. This approach is an example of which of the following? a. the cognitive revolution b. applied social psychology c. a pluralistic orientation d. a cross-cultural perspective ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 15

BLM: Higher order

100. Benny wants to adopt both a “hot” and “cold” perspective in his research on why married

couples get divorced. Which of the following best exemplifies his approach? a. He wants to understand what motivates people to stay in marriages that they know from past experience will only get worse. b. He wants to study the difference between passive and active aggression in marriages. c. He wants to investigate how spur-of-the-moment marriage problems are solved relative to ongoing problems. d. He wants to determine whether simple factors such as mismatches in attitudes can predict breakups better than communication patterns. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 17

BLM: Higher order

101. Jeff is a social psychologist who favours the “cold” approach to understanding human

behaviour. He is conducting research on why people fail to use condoms even when they know that they can reduce their risk of getting HIV by doing so. Which of the following subjects is Jeff least likely to devote his attention to? a. people’s memory for past cases in which they have behaved in a manner inconsistent with their attitudes b. people’s ability to detect the inconsistency c. people’s awareness of the actual risk of unprotected sex d. people’s drive to avoid this inconsistency ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 17

BLM: Higher order

1-20

Chapter 1 Introduction 102. Which of the following statements best represents the “hot” perspective in social psychology? a. A good mood can foster attitude change. b. Distraction can lead to overdependence on first impressions. c. Failure to recognize that a situation is an emergency can interfere with helping. d. People can be genetically programmed to aggress against others. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 17

BLM: Higher order

103. Which of the following best characterizes the research by Falk and his colleagues (Falk et al.,

2009)? a. Euro-Canadian participants view themselves with a negative bias. b. Japanese participants view themselves with a negative bias. c. Euro-Canadian participants view themselves as having a blend of positive and negative traits. d. Japanese participants view themselves as having a blend of positive and negative traits. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 18-19

BLM: Remember

104. Approximately what percentage of social psychologists lives in North America? a. 25–50 percent b. 50–75 percent c. 75–90 percent d. >90 percent ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Remember

105. Which of the following is characteristic of the field of social psychology today? a. There is a dedication to the role of unconscious motivation. b. There is an emphasis on the role of culture in shaping behaviour. c. There is an emphasis on the role of hormones and biological perspectives. d. There is an ongoing debate about the lack of ethical standards in laboratory

research. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 16

BLM: Higher order

106. Which of the following best describes social cognition? a. the study of how we use information to understand and interpret our own and other

people’s behaviour b. the study of how our deeply engrained cultural differences are manifested in social

behaviour c. the study of the extent to which social behaviour is rooted in the chemistry of the brain d. the study of whether computers can be taught to mimic the thoughts and beliefs of people ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

1-21

Chapter 1 Introduction 107. Social psychologists interested in how we learn, store, and recall information about other

people are interested in which of the following subfields? a. evolutionary psychology b. behavioural genetics c. social cognition d. multicultural psychology ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Remember

108. Amanda is a contemporary social psychologist who studies stereotyping. In which of the

following types of processing is she likely to detect stereotyping? a. controlled, but not automatic, processes b. automatic, but not controlled, processes c. both controlled and automatic processes d. neither controlled nor automatic processes ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Remember

109. Which of the following best describes social neuroscience? a. the study of the evolution of the brain b. the study of the evolution of social behaviour c. the study of the social functioning of neurons d. the study of the interaction of social and neural processes ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Remember

110. Which field of study is concerned with how the brain influences social behaviour? a. evolutionary psychology b. social cognition c. social neuroscience d. behavioural genetics ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 19

BLM: Remember

111. Which of the following questions would be of most interest to a social psychologist who

studies behavioural genetics? a. To what extent are attitudes inherited? b. What brain structures are involved in describing the self? c. Does high self-esteem help people to resist disease? d. What role does testosterone play in aggression? ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

1-22

Chapter 1 Introduction 112. Which of the following best describes the focus of a researcher who holds a behavioural

genetics perspective? a. examination of the extent to which the consistencies across various societies is due to our genes b. examination of the extent to which behavioural tendencies may be inherited c. examination of the ways that natural selection may encourage a particular social behaviour d. examination of the behaviours that are negligibly influenced by social experiences ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

113. Which of the following areas is most concerned with the role of natural selection processes in

the development of social behaviour? a. behavioural genetics b. social cognition c. personality psychology d. evolutionary psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 20

BLM: Remember

114. Izzy finds that when people vacate a parking spot, they do so more slowly when there is

someone waiting to take their spot than if there is no one waiting. He attributes this behaviour to an innate predisposition towards territoriality. Izzy's findings represent a combination of work in social psychology and which of the following fields of study? a. sociology b. behaviour genetics c. clinical psychology d. evolutionary psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 20

BLM: Higher order

115. Kareem is trying to explain to his class the difference between behavioural genetics and

evolutionary psychology by using altruistic behaviour as an example. In order to make the distinction clear, which of the following should he emphasize? a. sex differences in altruistic behaviour b. the adaptive nature of altruistic behaviour c. the role of social factors in producing altruistic behaviour d. the cognitive versus motivational influences on altruistic behaviour ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 20

BLM: Higher order

116. Fatma investigates whether the tendency for people to return favours is the result of natural

selection. Which area is Fatma's research in? a. evolutionary psychology b. cross-cultural psychology c. personality psychology d. multicultural psychology ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

1-23

Chapter 1 Introduction 117. Jessica believes that her sons have been aggressive from birth because she and her husband

Nick have inborn aggressive tendencies. Which area of study best reflects Jessica’s beliefs? a. multicultural psychology b. cross-cultural psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. behavioural genetics ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

118. Nick believes that his sons are aggressive because throughout history it has been adaptive for

men to be aggressive so that they can protect their territory and possessions. Which area of study best reflects Nick's beliefs? a. multicultural psychology b. cross-cultural psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. behavioural genetics ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 18

BLM: Higher order

119. Horatio compares the kinds of group biases exhibited by collectivist cultures to those

exhibited by individualistic cultures. What kind of research is Horatio most likely engaged in? a. interactionist research b. cross-cultural research c. multicultural research d. evolutionary research ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 19

BLM: Higher order

120. Christine conducts cross-cultural research and Betty conducts multicultural research. Which

of the following best describes Christine’s and Betty’s approaches to their research? a. Christine is more interested in discovering differences between her samples than Betty is. b. Betty is more likely to use social psychological research methods. c. Christine is more likely to sample individuals from many different countries. d. Betty is more likely to find differences between her samples than Christine is. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 19

BLM: Higher order

121. Which of the following research programs would be carried out by someone with an interest

in multicultural psychology? a. identifying what behaviours are caused more by culture than by genetics b. evaluating the behaviour of two different cultural groups within the same country c. understanding the historical forces that have led to hatred between cultural groups d. endorsing a “hot” perspective more than a “cold” perspective of human behaviour ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 19

BLM: Higher order

1-24

Chapter 1 Introduction 122. What does virtual reality allow social psychologists to do? a. to deceive research participants more effectively b. to test questions that might otherwise be impractical or unethical c. to scan the brain as it processes stimuli d. to expose the dangers of online environments ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 20

BLM: Higher order

123. What do positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imagining

(fMRI) technologies enable social psychologists to do? a. to record research participants' attitudes without their awareness b. to present visual stimuli to research participants at one-hundredth of a second c. to see images of the brain as people think, feel, and behave d. to induce a particular mood state in people ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 20

BLM: Remember

124. Which of the following led to the internationalization of social psychology? a. World War I b. World War II c. the Internet d. international outreach programs ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 21

BLM: Remember

125. How has the Internet impacted social psychology? a. It has increased communication and collaboration among researchers. b. It has increased the number of different variables that can be studied at one time. c. It has reduced the artificiality of laboratory experiments. d. It has reduced the applicability of social psychology since people spend more time

alone ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 21

BLM: Remember

1-25

Chapter 1 Introduction

ESSAY 1. How does social psychology differ from each of the following: (a) sociology, (b) the other

subdisciplines of psychology, and (c) the approach taken by a journalist who examines the social behaviours of various individuals? ANS:

Although social psychologists and sociologists often study related issues, an important difference between social psychology and sociology is the level of analysis used in each discipline. Sociologists tend to classify people in terms of groups, such as socioeconomic class, nationality, or race, whereas social psychologists tend to focus on the individual, even in the context of groups. In addition, social psychologists use experiments to study human behaviour to a greater extent than do sociologists. Compared to the other subdisciplines of psychology, social psychology is more concerned with human behaviour in social situations—that is, with thoughts, feelings, beliefs, and desires that are relevant to social behaviour. A critical difference between social psychology and the approach taken by a journalist who examines the social behaviours of various individuals is that social psychologists use the scientific method of systematic observation, description, and measurement, whereas the journalist would tend to use much less scientific methods. PTS: 1 2. Max Ringelmann, Floyd Allport, and Kurt Lewin all made singularly important contributions

to the development of social psychology as a field. Summarize these contributions. ANS:

Max Ringelmann was an engineer who, around the beginning of the twentieth century, found that individuals who carry out simple tasks with other people tend to perform worse than they would if they carried out the task by themselves. Because this finding represents an effect of social factors on performance, it is social psychological in nature. Thus, Ringelmann is often considered one of the founders of the field. Floyd Allport wrote one of the first social psychology textbooks, and helped establish the use of the scientific method and the focus on individuals in a social context as part of the field's doctrine. Kurt Lewin emphasized the importance of seeing behaviour as an interaction between an individual's personality and the situational factors impinging on that individual, and also argued that social psychology must be applicable to important, practical issues. Social psychology today is applied to many domains including law, business, health, and many others. PTS: 1

1-26

Chapter 1 Introduction 3. The middle of the twentieth century was an important period in the establishment of social

psychology as a field. Name two general themes in the topics studied by researchers of that era, and give examples. ANS:

Because of the events of World War II (and in particular, Nazi Germany), one general theme in research of that era was an investigation of social influence. For example, Asch and Sherif conducted studies with the aim of understanding the conditions under which people conform to majority behaviour, and Milgram studied destructive obedience. Another theme concerned social perception, or the way in which we judge ourselves and others. For example, G. Allport was interested in the development of stereotypes and prejudice toward others, and Festinger was interested in the extent to which we observe others in order to draw conclusions about ourselves. PTS: 1 4. The field of social psychology endured significant critique in the 1960s and 1970s. What were

the most important elements of this critique, and how has the field addressed them? ANS:

During that time, social psychology was criticized because some thought that its findings did not take historical and cultural context into consideration, and that its use of an experimental methodology suffered from ethical problems and potential experimenter bias. Social psychology has responded to the last two problems by adopting a multi-method approach while at the same time tightening ethical standards for conducting experiments and taking measures to reduce experimenter bias. Moreover, many social psychologists are now considering cross-cultural and multicultural similarities and differences in human behaviour. All of these changes represent a more “pluralistic” approach to research in the field. PTS: 1 5. Define social cognition, and explain how this subfield of social psychology developed from

its early days to current times. ANS:

Social cognition is the study of how we perceive, remember, and interpret information about ourselves and others, and represented social psychology's contribution to the “cognitive revolution” of the 1980s. At first, social cognition research adopted a largely “cold” perspective, meaning that it attributed feelings and behaviours to people's thoughts. However, recent research in this subfield has merged motivation and emotion with cognitive processes, such as in attempts to determine how people's motivations might affect how they think in social situations. PTS: 1

1-27

Chapter 2: Doing Social Psychology Research MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Learning about research methods in social psychology has been shown to have which of the

following effects in critical thinking? a. It affects critical thinking about social psychology, but not other domains. b. It leads to increased critical thinking about fields of psychology, yet it does not affect thinking in non-psychological domains. c. It leads to increased critical thinking about popular claims regarding social, but not non-social, behaviour. d. It leads to increased critical thinking about popular claims in general. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 26

BLM: Higher order

2. Why is it important to have a public record of the methods social psychologists use to test

their hypotheses? a. because it allows other social psychologists to repeat the study themselves b. because it ensures that the right people get credit for the research c. because it provides a solid theoretical foundation for social psychological research d. because it encourages social psychologists to conduct more basic, rather than applied, research ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 26

BLM: Remember

3. Sebastian is learning about research methods in his social psychology course. Which of the

following benefits is he most likely to experience? a. The findings he learns about in class will be easier to relate to real world events. b. It will improve his appreciation of folk wisdom. c. He will become a better consumer of information in general. d. He will develop a better appreciation for the advantages of uncontrolled anecdotal observations. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 27

BLM: Remember

4. What does all social psychological research begin with? a. a question b. an independent variable c. a dependent variable d. a control group ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 27

BLM: Remember

5. What was the inspiration for Solomon Asch’s classic research on conformity? a. real-world historical events b. his own personal experiences and observations of group pressure c. reading Sherif’s prior research in the field d. reading classic literature ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 27

BLM: Remember

2-1

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 6. After a researcher has a particular research question in mind, what is the next step? a. developing a theory to answer the question b. searching the existing literature for related research c. selecting a random sample of participants to test the question d. consulting the institutional research ethics board ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 27-28

BLM: Remember

7. Which of the following best describes the process of "treeing" when searching the psychology

literature? a. cross-referencing output from PsychLIT with that of PsychINFO b. breaking down the size of an electronic search by using several limiting terms c. limiting searches to articles that have been cited by many other articles d. using the reference sections of relevant articles to find other relevant articles ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

8. Why do social psychologists use electronic databases (such as PsychINFO and PsychLIT)? a. to help them select a random sample of participants from the population of interest b. to determine the scientific and moral value of their research question c. to find published research on a particular topic d. to increase the external validity of their research ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

9. For a hypothesis to be useful, which of the following traits must it possess? a. testability b. simplicity c. generativity d. comprehensiveness ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

10. Which of the following is a testable hypothesis? a. Conformity is behaving in agreement with other people. b. Stereotypes are preconceived ideas about a person based on their perceived group

membership. c. People smile more when they are lying than when they are telling the truth. d. Refusing to help someone in need is morally wrong. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Higher order

11. Which of the following is the most important feature of a hypothesis? a. simplicity b. testability c. generality d. comprehensiveness ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

2-2

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 12. What is a hypothesis? a. an organized set of principles used to explain and predict observed phenomena b. a specific procedure for manipulating or measuring variables in an experiment c. an explicit statement specifying the circumstances that give rise to a particular

outcome d. a measure of the strength and association between two or more variables ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 28-29

BLM: Remember

13. On which of the following criteria are theories evaluated? a. their specificity b. their popularity c. their inclusivity d. their generativity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

14. Which of the following are social psychologists most likely to propose? a. mini-theories b. grand theories c. meta-theories d. pluralistic theories ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

15. Which of the following is most consistent with Bem's theory of self-perception? a. People prefer to perceive themselves in positive rather than negative terms. b. Becoming aware of one's own actions is threatening to the self-concept. c. The way that people perceive themselves is primarily determined by their private

thoughts and feelings. d. People sometimes rely on their own behaviour to infer their attitudes and feelings. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Remember

16. On which of the following characteristics are social psychologists most likely to value a

theory? a. the extent that the theory develops from a well-known hypothesis b. the extent that the theory is generative c. the extent that the theory is complex d. the high degree of accuracy of the theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 28-29

BLM: Remember

17. Which of the following is a common attribute of current theories in social psychology? a. They are highly complex in nature. b. They are general theories that apply across many situations. c. They allow researchers to decrease the operationalization of behaviour. d. They address particular and specific features of a person’s behaviour. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 28

BLM: Remember

2-3

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 18. Which of the following is a goal of applied research? a. solving practical problems b. testing psychological theories c. building a foundation of knowledge for the field d. discovering general principles of behaviour ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Remember

19. Melissa's research examines the cognitive processes involved in persuasion and how those

processes can be used to persuade women to have yearly mammograms. This work represents an integration of which of the following fields? a. hypothetical and theoretical research b. specific and general research c. basic and applied research d. conceptual and operational research ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Higher order

20. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of basic research? a. to examine human behaviour in real-world settings b. to test specific hypotheses derived from a specific theory c. to integrate the different research methodologies within one scientific field d. to solve practical problems ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Remember

21. In encouraging social psychologists to generate useful, practical theories, what did Kurt

Lewin do? a. He set apart reliability issues from validity issues. b. He encouraged the synthesis of basic and applied research. c. He reduced the distinction between hypotheses and theories. d. He emphasized the importance of experimental methodologies. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Higher order

22. In which of the following ways is applied research in social psychology different from basic

social psychological research? a. It is more theoretical than basic research. b. It is more experimental than basic research. c. It is specifically designed to find solutions to social problems. d. It is specifically designed to address sociological issues. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 29

BLM: Remember

2-4

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 23. Wayne and Wanda are designing a study to assess the impact of positive reinforcement on

pro-social behaviour in children. Wanda thinks that they should reinforce the children with verbal praise, whereas Wayne thinks they should use candy as the positive reinforcement. What aspect of the reinforcement variable do Wayne and Wanda disagree about? a. internal validity b. experimental realism c. operational definition d. interrater reliability ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 30

BLM: Higher order

Scenario 1 Read the following research scenario and answer the questions that follow:A researcher wanted to see if being drunk raises or lowers a person's self-esteem. In one condition he gives participants three glasses of punch spiked with alcohol and in the other he gives participants three glasses of plain punch. After participants finish their punch, they complete the Rosenberg (1965) self-esteem scale. 24. Refer to Scenario 1. In this study, what type of variable is self-esteem? a. a conceptual independent variable b. a conceptual dependent variable c. an operational independent variable d. an operational dependent variable ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 29-30

BLM: Higher order

25. Refer to Scenario 1. In this study, what type of variable is the Rosenberg questionnaire? a. a conceptual independent variable b. a conceptual dependent variable c. an operational independent variable d. an operational dependent variable ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 29-30

BLM: Higher order

26. What is construct validity? a. the extent to which the independent variable caused the observed change in the

dependent variable b. the extent to which the operational definitions reflect the conceptual variables of interest c. the extent to which the experimental procedures are involving and meaningful to the participants d. the extent to which different constructs within the study are correlated with one another ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 29-30

BLM: Remember

2-5

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 27. In which of the following ways is construct validity important to social research? a. It ensures that the researcher is manipulating the concept of interest. b. It ensures that the researcher is measuring the concept of interest. c. It ensures that the study is high in internal validity. d. It ensures that the study is high in reliability. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 30

BLM: Higher order

28. In a study concerning the cues that signal deception, Winston uses the number of times a

person shifts in his or her seat as a measure of lying. Virginia points out that people may shift their position because they are nervous about being perceived as a liar, even though they are actually telling the truth. What is Virginia questioning? a. the construct validity of Winston's measure of lying b. the interrater reliability of Winston's measure of lying c. the mundane realism of Winston's measure of lying d. the internal validity of Winston's measure of lying ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 30

BLM: Higher order

29. Which of the following is the best example of a bogus pipeline technique? a. Participants agree to be connected to a scanner that detects deception. b. Participants believe that subliminal messages are being “piped” to them through

their headphones. c. Participants agree to be hypnotized to tell the truth. d. Blindfolded participants whisper messages to each other in line. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 31

BLM: Remember

30. A group of participants (Group A) is asked to indicate how often they add salt to their food on

a 5-point scale ranging from "almost never" to "once in awhile." A second group (Group B responds to this question on a 5-point scale ranging from "once in awhile" to "all the time." Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Both groups will be more likely to give responses on the higher than lower end of the scales. b. Both groups will be more likely to give responses on the lower than higher end of the scales. c. On average, Group A will report adding salt to their food more often than Group B. d. On average, Group B will report adding salt to their food more often than Group A. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 31

BLM: Higher order

31. Which of the following has been shown to increase the accuracy of self-reports? a. experimental research b. construct validity c. bogus pipeline d. random sampling ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 31

BLM: Remember 2-6

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 32. Dr. Gillig is worried that when she asks participants to indicate on a questionnaire how they

feel about gun control, they will respond in a socially desirable manner instead of indicating how they really feel. Which of the following scenarios accurately reflects the way that construct validity will be affected in Dr. Gillig’s study? a. There will be higher construct validity if she uses a bogus pipeline. b. There will be lower construct validity if the anonymity of participants' responses is increased. c. There will be higher construct validity if she asks participants to sign a gun-control petition. d. There will be higher construct validity if she asks her participants to respond verbally in person rather than commit their responses to paper. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 30

BLM: Higher order

33. To examine how people cope with anger, Cheryl has participants complete a brief

questionnaire every time they feel angry for a period of two weeks. What is Cheryl collecting? a. interval-contingent self-reports b. event-contingent self-reports c. signal-contingent self-reports d. narrative-contingent self-reports ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Higher order

34. Why have researchers developed interval-contingent, signal-contingent, and event-contingent

report methods? a. to observe participants' behaviour unobtrusively b. to strengthen the ethical standards used in experiments c. to incorporate a more diverse sample of participants and cultures in their research d. to reduce the time that elapses between an actual experience and the person's report of it ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Remember

35. In her research on mood, Selena asks research participants to keep a journal for a period of

one month. In this journal, participants write as much as they can about the various emotions they experience each day. What kind of research is Selena conducting? a. an experimental study b. a correlational study c. a narrative study d. an archival research ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Higher order

2-7

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 36. In comparison to self-report measures, observational measures have the advantage of being

free from which of the following concerns? a. experimenter expectancy effects b. social desirability concerns c. sampling biases d. memory biases ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Remember

37. How are self-report measures and observational measures similar? a. Both are subject to biases and distortions in memory. b. Both require high interrater reliability to be considered accurate. c. Both can be influenced by social desirability concerns. d. Both provide direct access to people's thoughts and feelings. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 31-32

BLM: Remember

38. To assess the extent to which students are reading their textbooks, a professor notes how

creased the spine of each book is. What is this professor relying on? a. a narrative study b. signal-contingent self-reports c. event-contingent self-reports d. observational measures ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 32-33

BLM: Higher order

39. When machines are used to measure dependent variables in observational studies, which of

the following needs is reduced? a. the need for internal validity b. the need for random sampling c. the need for construct validity d. the need for interrater reliability ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Remember

40. In a study examining the creativity of children's paintings, several judges are asked to rate the

creativity of each painting. Which of the following is being assessed if we calculate the level of agreement between judges’ ratings? a. internal validity b. random sampling c. construct validity d. interrater reliability ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 32

BLM: Remember

2-8

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 41. In a study examining well-being in the elderly, respondents living in different nursing homes

are asked to rate the quality of the health care they receive. Researchers then obtain a copy of participants' medical records. The relationship between the quality ratings and actual health is assessed. Which of the following concepts is measured by this relationship? a. internal validity b. external validity c. construct validity d. experimental validity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 30

BLM: Higher order

42. Which of the following research methods do social psychologists tend to prefer? a. meta-analytic research b. correlational research c. experimental research d. descriptive research ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 33

BLM: Remember

43. What do social psychologists use descriptive research to reveal? a. general patterns and trends in the variables of interest b. cause-and-effect relationships between independent and dependent variables c. associations between two or more variables of interest d. the strength of an observed effect ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 34

BLM: Remember

44. Which of the following would be considered a method of descriptive research? a. correlational research b. field experiments c. observational studies d. laboratory experiments ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 34-35

BLM: Remember

45. For which of the following questions would a researcher be most likely to use an

observational study? a. Is memory for television commercials influenced by the content of the programs in which the commercials appear? b. Is there any relationship between taking social psychology courses and happiness later in life? c. Does the consumption of alcohol lead to increased aggressiveness? d. Do banks tend to offer heterosexual couples lower interest rates on home mortgages than homosexual couples? ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 34

BLM: Higher order

2-9

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 46. To examine potential gender differences in the qualities individuals seek in their romantic

partners, HaeJin compares the personal ads placed by men and women. What type of research is HaeJin conducting? a. a survey study b. an observational study c. an archival study d. an experiment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 34-35

BLM: Higher order

47. Latrell, the editor of a popular sports magazine, would like to know more about the

demographics of the magazine's readers. He designs a questionnaire to assess this information and sends it to a random sample of the magazine's readers. What type of research is Latrell conducting? a. a survey study b. an observational study c. an archival study d. an experiment ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 35-36

BLM: Higher order

48. According to your textbook, what is the most important feature that should be considered

when selecting samples in survey studies? a. inclusion of equal numbers of individuals from different groups in the population b. the number of people in the sample c. the ratio of the sample size to the population size d. the extent to which the demographics of the sample proportionally match those of the population ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 35

BLM: Remember

49. A television producer is interested in whether women like soap operas more than sitcoms. The

producer uses a random number table to select a sample of 100 households, and then makes phone calls to these households every afternoon for three weeks. Of those who were home when the producer called, 75 percent reported they liked soap operas more than sitcoms. Which of the following might raise questions about the results? a. the use of archival data b. the representativeness of the sample c. the construct validity of the measure d. the operational definition advanced by the producer ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 36

BLM: Higher order

2-10

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 50. What, in principle, is the purpose of random sampling? a. to make sure that research participants have the right to withdraw from a study

without incurring any penalty b. to make sure that research participants are fully informed as to the procedures and hypotheses of the study c. to make sure that research participants do not differ from one another in systematic ways d. to make sure that research participants constitute a representative sample from the population of interest ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 35

BLM: Remember

51. Which of the following is a general difference between descriptive and correlational research

methods? a. Descriptive research does not look at relationships between variables. b. Descriptive research is more useful when one wants to infer causation. c. Correlational research cannot make use of archival data. d. Correlational research imbues the researcher with more control over the research participants. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 36

BLM: Remember

52. Luke would like to know if there is a relationship between the number of psychology courses

people take and their level of empathy. He surveys a randomly selected group of university students. Each student indicates the number of psychology courses he or she has taken and then completes an empathy scale. Which research method is Luke using? a. an experiment b. a correlational study c. a prospective study d. an archival study ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 37-38

BLM: Higher order

53. What is the primary goal of using correlational research? a. to describe general patterns and trends in the variables of interest b. to establish cause-and-effect relationships between independent and dependent

variables c. to determine the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables d. to examine the effects of manipulated variables on measured variables ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37-38

BLM: Remember

54. What types of variables can researchers use in correlational research? a. Researchers can use measured, but not manipulated, variables. b. Researchers can use one measured variable, and one manipulated variable. c. Researchers can use observational, but not archival, variables. d. Researchers can use archival, but not observational, variables. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Remember

2-11

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 55. What does the absolute value of a correlation coefficient indicate? a. the direction of the relationship between variables b. which of two variables is the cause and which is the effect c. the probability that the observed association was due to chance d. the strength of the association between variables ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Remember

56. Which of the following correlation coefficients reflects the strongest meaningful relationship? a. –0.67 b. 0 c. +0.86 d. +1.25 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Remember

57. When decreases in one variable are accompanied by decreases in another variable, how are

the variables described? a. They are described as negatively correlated. b. They are described as positively correlated. c. They are described as causally related. d. They are described as prospectively related. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Remember

58. Which of the following explanations would be consistent with a negative correlation between

the number of hours a person sleeps per night and her level of positive mood? a. The more sleep a person gets, the better her mood. b. People who are happy are less likely to suffer from insomnia. c. Stress causes people to sleep less and be in a bad mood. d. People who are depressed tend to need more sleep than other people. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

59. Tony finds a correlation of –0.35 between procrastination behaviours and academic

achievement. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation of this correlation? a. Students with a greater tendency to procrastinate, also tend to show lower grades academically. b. Students with a greater tendency to procrastinate, also tend to show higher grades academically. c. Procrastination causes academic achievement to increase. d. Procrastination causes academic achievement to decrease. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

2-12

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 60. Carmella finds a correlation of +0.47 between self-esteem and academic achievement. Which

of the following is the most appropriate interpretation of this correlation? a. High self-esteem motivates students to achieve more academically. b. Doing well academically increases students' self-esteem. c. The higher students' self-esteem, the greater their academic achievement. d. As self-esteem increases, academic achievement decreases. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

61. Which of the following is an example of a negative correlation? a. The more pets you own, the greater your physical health. b. The more alcohol you consume, the lower your grades will be. c. The fewer vacations you take, the less happy you are. d. The more you eat, the more you weigh. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

62. Suppose the correlation between the number of times couples go to the movies and the

number of times they go out to dinner is ?0?0.79. Among the following conclusions, which one is most consistent with this computation? a. The more often that couples go to the movies, the more often they go out to dinner. b. The less often that couples go to the movies, the less often they go out to dinner. c. There is a strong correlation between the number of times couples go to the movies and the number of times they go out to dinner. d. Because the correlation coefficient is less than 1.0, the association between these two variables is very weak and probably unreliable. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

63. Dr. Vandelay found the correlation between conservative political attitudes and overall health

to be +0.18. Which of the following can you conclude from this correlation? a. As conservative political attitudes increase, overall health increases. b. As conservative political attitudes increase, overall health decreases. c. There is virtually no relationship between conservative political attitudes and overall health. d. Becoming ill causes you to become more conservative politically. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

64. Camryn measures the association between students' political attitudes when they first arrive at

university and their political attitudes just prior to graduation. What kind of research is Camryn doing? a. an experiment b. an observational study c. a prospective study d. a concurrent study ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

2-13

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 65. To examine the relationship between media violence and aggressive behaviour, Lomez first

measures the number of hours of violent television watched per week for a sample of boys. Ten years later, the same boys are contacted and asked to complete a questionnaire to measure their aggressiveness. Which research method is Lomez using? a. an experiment b. an observational study c. a concurrent study d. a prospective study ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 37

BLM: Higher order

66. Which of the following is the most important difference between prospective and concurrent

studies? a. They differ in whether the variables are independent or dependent. b. They differ in the amount of time between measurement of the variables. c. They differ in the type of statistic used to assess their significance. d. They differ in the extent to which they are considered ethical by social psychologists. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 37-38

BLM: Higher order

67. Which of the following is one of the many advantages of correlational research over

experimental research? a. It offers more flexibility as to where and how variables are measured. b. It allows the researcher to test for and determine the nature of causal relationships. c. It exhibits high internal validity. d. It tends to be statistically significant. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 38

BLM: Remember

68. What is the most important advantage of correlational research? a. Correlational research aids researchers in the development of new hypotheses. b. Correlational research permits researchers to determine whether one variable

causes another. c. Correlational research is often useful for studying phenomena for which

experimentation is impractical or unethical. d. Correlational research allows researchers to measure relationships between

independent and dependent variables. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 39

BLM: Higher order

69. In what ways can correlational studies be used? a. They can be used to evaluate hypotheses. b. They can be used to help predict behaviour. c. They can be used to establish causal relationships among variables. d. They can be used to study questions after experimentation has failed. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 37-38

BLM: Remember

2-14

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 70. Which of the following is the most important contribution of correlational research? a. It is a powerful way to establish causal relationships between variables. b. It allows an experimenter to control extraneous variables. c. It permits researchers to determine the strength of the relationship between

variables. d. It is allows detailed investigation of variables that can be measured in the

laboratory. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 37-38

BLM: Remember

71. Eugenia will be using a correlational study to examine the relationship between physical

attractiveness and marital satisfaction. Which of the following is a major limitation of Eugenia's chosen research method? a. She will not be able to demonstrate that one of these variables is causing the other. b. She will not be able to assess the strength of the association between these variables. c. She will not be able to determine whether the variables are positively or negatively related. d. She will not be able to discern whether one variable is predictive of the other. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 38

BLM: Higher order

72. Relative to experimental studies, what is the primary disadvantage of correlation studies? a. They are more labour-intensive. b. Cause and effect cannot be determined with them. c. Their results are more difficult to understand. d. The choice of variables that can be studied is limited. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 38

BLM: Remember

73. Causation cannot be inferred from correlational studies? Why is this so? a. because correlational studies suffer from a lack of construct validity b. because correlational studies do not involve the manipulation of variables c. because one can only infer causation from studies conducted in the lab d. because researchers have too much control over the variables in correlational

research ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 38

BLM: Higher order

74. In order to conduct an experiment, which of the following must researchers have? a. the ability to observe behaviour unnoticed b. the ability to systematically measure two variables c. the ability to manipulate an independent variable d. a laboratory environment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 38

BLM: Remember

2-15

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 75. In a well-designed experiment, which of the following conditions is necessary? a. that all participants are treated in exactly the same manner except for the specific

differences the experimenter wants to create b. that all participants are matched on important subject variables c. that all participants accurately represent the groups in the population d. that all participants of different types are assigned to the appropriate conditions in a balanced way ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 40-41

BLM: Remember

76. Irina is interested in whether frustration causes aggression. What type of research should she

conduct? a. an experiment b. a correlation study c. a prospective study d. a narrative study ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 39

BLM: Higher order

77. Which of the following is most relevant to ensuring that any differences one obtains after the

experimental manipulation of a study have been produced only by that manipulation? a. statistical interactions b. external validity c. construct validity d. experimenter control ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 40

BLM: Remember

78. Random assignment is a defining feature of an experiment. What does it mean? a. It means that participants randomly select the particular experimental

manipulations they will experience. b. It means that participants were randomly selected from the population of interest. c. It means that whether participants are in one condition or another is determined by

chance. d. It means that participants are assigned to the experimental conditions on the basis

of their pre-existing differences. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 40

BLM: Remember

2-16

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research

Scenario 2 Instructions: Read the following research scenario and answer the questions that follow. A researcher was interested in the effects of mood on aggression. She decided to see how receiving an insult or a compliment affects aggression, and she measured aggression by having participants administer small shocks to another participant. The researcher found that participants in the insult condition were more aggressive than those in the compliment condition. 79. Refer to Scenario 2. In this research, what is the conceptual independent variable? a. administering of small shocks b. receiving a compliment or insult c. mood d. aggression ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

80. Refer to Scenario 2. In this research, what is the operationalized independent variable? a. administering of small shocks b. receiving a compliment or insult c. mood d. aggression ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

81. Refer to Scenario 2. In this research, what is the conceptual dependent variable? a. administering of small shocks b. receiving a compliment or insult c. mood d. aggression ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

82. Refer to Scenario 2. In this research, what is the operationalized dependent variable? a. administering of small shocks b. receiving a compliment or insult c. mood d. aggression ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

2-17

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 83. Refer to Scenario 2. A reviewer might be concerned that people in the insult condition were

more naturally aggressive than people in the compliment condition, causing the differences observed by the researcher. In which of the following cases would this be a valid concern? a. if participants were not a representative sample of the population b. if participants were not randomly assigned to the condition c. if participants were not randomly selected from the population d. if participants were not evenly divided by gender ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 40-41

BLM: Higher order

84. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose a reviewer thinks that the participants did not believe that they

were actually administering shocks to another person. What feature would the reviewer have concerns about? a. construct validity b. external validity c. experimental realism d. mundane realism ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

85. Refer to Scenario 2. Suppose a reviewer questions the value of the research by stating that the

majority of people never administer a shock to another person in the real world. What feature would the reviewer be concerned about? a. construct validity b. external validity c. experimental realism d. mundane realism ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 30-40

BLM: Higher order

86. Why is random assignment essential to establishing causality? a. because it permits researchers to verify that they have a diverse and representative

sample of participants b. because it reduces the possibility that individual characteristics of the participants

produced the observed results c. because it increases the external validity of the experiment d. because it allows researchers to determine whether or not their operational

definitions reflect the variables of interest ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 40-41

BLM: Higher order

87. What do researchers call the procedure used to ensure that research participants have an equal

chance of being placed in either the experimental or control group in an experiment? a. random assignment b. random sampling c. debriefing d. experimental realism ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 40

BLM: Remember

2-18

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 88. Which of the following is a major difference between field experiments and laboratory

experiments? a. Laboratory experiments are higher in mundane realism. b. Laboratory experiments allow more naturalistic observation of behaviour. c. Laboratory experiments are less susceptible to experimenter expectancy effects. d. Laboratory experiments permit researchers greater control. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 40

BLM: Higher order

89. Which of the following is an advantage of field research? a. Random assignment is more likely to be used in field experiments. b. Researchers can manipulate more variables in the field than in the lab. c. Participants are more likely to behave naturally in the field than in the lab. d. Field research affords greater internal validity than lab experiments. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 41

BLM: Remember

90. A researcher manipulates certain factors in an experiment to see whether they affect the

variables of interest. What are these factors called? a. independent variables b. dependent variables c. control conditions d. interactions ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 41

BLM: Remember

91. What do experiments examine? a. the effects of control factors on dependent variables b. the effects of dependent variables on independent variables c. the effects of independent variables on dependent variables d. the effects of independent variables on control factors ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 41

BLM: Remember

92. To examine the impact of group size on conformity behaviour, Stanley has groups of two,

five, or ten people stand on the street and stare up at a window. Stanley then records the number of passersby who stop and stare at the window. What kind of study is this? a. a prospective study b. an experiment with one independent variable c. an experiment with two independent variables d. an experiment with three independent variables ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 41

BLM: Higher order

2-19

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 93. Dr. Van Nostrand studies the impact of pornography on attitudes toward women. In this

research, what is "attitudes toward women"? a. the independent variable b. the control factor c. the interaction d. the dependent variable ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

94. Vera thinks that having pets increases psychological functioning and well-being. To test this,

one group of randomly selected nursing home residents are each given a pet while a second group are not. Over two months, the overall level of psychological functioning is evaluated on a daily basis. What is the independent variable in this study? a. the number of months of testing b. whether or not the residents received a pet c. the level of psychological functioning demonstrated by the residents d. the level of well-being demonstrated by the residents ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

95. Harrison asks research participants to solve as many math problems as they can while

working either alone or in groups of three. In this experiment, the number of math problems the participants solve is most likely which of the following? a. the control variable b. the subject variable c. the independent variable d. the dependent variable ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

96. Castilla wonders whether environmental factors influence how long juries take to select a

foreperson. Mock jurors are brought into a room with either a rectangular table or a round table. The jurors are asked to select a foreperson before starting deliberation. Castilla records how long it takes each jury to select a foreperson. What variable is the shape of the table? a. the control variable b. the subject variable c. the independent variable d. the dependent variable ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

2-20

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 97. Ashton-James and her colleagues (2009) conducted a study in which they examined the type

of pen selected from a group of pens by Western and East Asian participants. What did they find? a. They found that participants of Western backgrounds were more likely than those of East Asian backgrounds to select the most common pen. b. They found that whether or not the participant selected an uncommon pen depended upon a subject variable. c. They found that whether or not the participant selected an uncommon pen depended upon their mood. d. They found that whether or not the participant selected an uncommon pen depended upon their mood and a subject variable. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 41-42

BLM: Higher order

98. Ashton-James and her colleagues (2009) conducted a study in which they examined the type

of pen selected from a group of pens by Western and East Asian participants. What did the study show about the influence of mood? a. The study revealed that mood had different effects on pen selection for participants of Western and East Asian backgrounds. b. The study revealed that mood influenced pen selection for participants of Western but not East Asian backgrounds. c. The study revealed that mood influenced pen selection for participants of East Asian but not Western backgrounds. d. The study revealed that mood did not influence pen selection for either group of participants. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Remember

99. A study conducted by Ashton-James and her colleagues (2009) examined the type of pen

selected by Western and East Asian participants. What type of research is this study? a. a descriptive study b. an experiment c. an archival study d. a correlational study ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 41-42

BLM: Higher order

100. What was the dependent variable in the study by Ashton-James and her colleagues (2009) ? a. the colour of pen participants selected b. the uncommonness of the pen participants selected c. participants' ethnic backgrounds d. participants' mood ratings ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

2-21

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 101. When researchers find that the results of their studies could have occurred by chance only 5 or

fewer times in 100 possible outcomes, what do they conclude about the results? a. that they are statistically significant b. that they reflect an interaction between the dependent variables c. that they are theoretically meaningful d. that are null because of their low level of reliability ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Higher order

102. Suppose Zachary observes a significant negative correlation between binge drinking and

grades among university students. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by this finding? a. Zachary cannot conclude what causes what, but he can be sure that either binge drinking causes lower grades or vice versa. b. Zachary can conclude that binge drinking causes lower grades. c. Zachary can conclude that lower grades causes binge drinking. d. There is a 5 percent probability or less that this correlation occurred by chance. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Higher order

103. According to standard convention, when is statistical significance achieved? a. when the results could have occurred by chance 1 or fewer times in 100 possible

outcomes b. when the results could have occurred by chance 5 or fewer times in 100 possible outcomes c. when the results could have occurred by chance 10 or fewer times in 100 possible outcomes d. when the results could have occurred by chance 15 or fewer times in 100 possible outcomes ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Remember

104. Which of the following is one reason that social psychologists attempt to replicate the results

of their research? a. because doing so increases the construct validity of the experiment b. because doing so allows them to examine multiple relationships among variables c. because doing so increases our certainty that the results are not due to chance d. because doing so increases the likelihood that participants have been treated ethically ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Remember

2-22

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 105. What do researchers call participants who are subjected to all of the experimental procedures

EXCEPT the experimental manipulation? a. raters b. confederates c. samples d. controls ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Remember

106. What is the purpose of using control groups? a. to answer ethical concerns about experiments b. to determine if there are any interactions among the independent variables c. to ensure a high level of experimental realism d. to provide a baseline against which to compare the effects of the independent

variables ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Remember

107. Which of the following best represents an independent variable? a. gender b. anger c. handedness d. ethnic background ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Higher order

108. Which of the following best represents a challenge to internal validity? a. failure to use a randomization procedure when selecting a sample b. use of a dependent measure high in interrater reliability but low in construct

validity c. differential compensation given to two groups in an experiment d. designing laboratory conditions to be very different from everyday conditions ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 43

BLM: Higher order

109. According to your textbook, what is the best solution to the problem of experimenter

expectancy effects? a. the use of different experimenters in different conditions b. letting participants choose their own condition c. keeping experimenters uninformed about group assignment d. strict attention to random assignment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 42

BLM: Remember

2-23

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 110. Ted treated participants in one condition of his experiment differently from participants in

another condition. This difference in the treatment was not part of the experimental design. What did Ted's behaviour most likely decrease? a. the probability that the results of the study would be statistically significant b. the chances that experimenter expectancy effects would be produced c. the internal validity of the results d. the experimental realism of the procedures ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 43-44

BLM: Higher order

111. Rosenthal (1976) asked students to teach a rat to learn a maze. Some students were told they

had been given a genetically engineered "intelligent" rat, whereas others were told that they had a "dull" rat. Although there were no actual differences among the rats, the "intelligent" rats learned the maze more quickly than the "dull" rats. What is the most likely cause of these results? a. experimenter expectancy effects b. mundane realism c. experimental realism d. high construct validity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 44

BLM: Higher order

112. What does external validity refer to? a. the degree to which there can be reasonable certainty that the independent

variables in an experiment caused the observed effects on the dependent variables b. the degree to which there can be reasonable confidence that the same results would

be obtained for other people and in other situations c. the degree to which participants were assigned to the various conditions on the

basis of representative criteria d. the degree to which the experimental situation engages participants and leads them

to behave naturally and spontaneously ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 44-45

BLM: Remember

113. What does it mean to say that a study has high external validity? a. It means that the theoretical constructs will be accurately represented by the study's

manipulations and measures. b. It means that the results will be able to be generalized to different types of people

and situations. c. It means that changes in the dependent variable will be caused by changes in the

independent variable. d. It means that the theory under investigation by the study is correct. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 44-45

BLM: Remember

2-24

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 114. A social psychologist wants to study the impact of listening to classical music on people's

level of comfort in social interactions. She runs a study using a convenience sample of university undergraduates. Why is using this particular sample a problem? a. It is a threat to mundane realism. b. It is a threat to experimental realism. c. It is a threat to internal validity. d. It is a threat to external validity. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 44-45

BLM: Higher order

115. Joel argues that the use of confederates provides for real interactions that emulate the types of

reactions that occur in real life. Dale argues that the use of confederates simply makes an experiment more involving for the participant. Which of the following about Joel’s and Dale’s beliefs is most likely? a. Joel and Dale both believe that confederates increase mundane realism. b. Joel and Dale both believe that confederates increase experimental realism. c. Joel believes that confederates increase mundane realism; Dale believes that confederates increase experimental realism. d. Joel believes that confederates increase experimental realism; Dale believes that confederates increase mundane realism. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 46

BLM: Higher order

116. The similarity between an experimental situation and characteristics of the real world is an

aspect of which of the following? a. experimental realism b. mundane realism c. internal validity d. experimental control ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 45

BLM: Remember

117. Which of the following is a benefit of using deception in social psychological research? a. Mundane realism is increased. b. Researchers can unobtrusively study naturally occurring behaviour. c. Participants' reactions tend to be less affected by social desirability. d. Deception increases the likelihood of statistically significant findings. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 46

BLM: Higher order

118. Which of the following procedures are involved in research using meta-analysis? a. computation of correlations among more than two variables b. approaching a research question using both correlational and experimental

techniques c. statistical assessment of the consistency among several tests of the same

hypothesis d. computation of correlations when self-report data are not available ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 47

BLM: Remember

2-25

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 119. Lisa is in the process of gathering all recent work on gender differences in conformity. She

intends to examine this work to determine if and when gender differences occur. What kind of analysis is Lisa doing? a. a concurrent analysis b. a meta-analysis c. a narrative analysis d. a descriptive analysis ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 46

BLM: Remember

120. When do researchers request informed consent from participants? a. All participants in any study must give informed consent. b. A deep and fulsome description of the research must be given before seeking

consent if deception is used. c. In observational studies, consent may not be required. d. In observational research with minors, consent is required. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 48

BLM: Remember

121. Which of the following is the most accurate ordering of events in an experiment? a. deception, informed consent, debriefing b. informed consent, debriefing, deception c. debriefing, deception, informed consent d. informed consent, deception, debriefing ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 47-49

BLM: Higher order

122. The research study by Ramirez-Esparza and others (2009) investigated the sociability of

Mexican and American participants. What did the results reveal? a. Mexican and American participants provided self-ratings of sociability that were equally high. b. American participants were far more sociable than Mexican participants, but only on behavioural measures. c. Mexican participants were far more sociable than American participants, but only on behavioural measures. d. Mexican and American participants provided equal sociability on behavioural measures. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 48

BLM: Remember

123. What do researchers call the disclosure made to participants after research procedures are

completed, in which the researcher explains the purpose of the research? a. informed consent b. explanatory statement c. experimenter expectancy effects d. debriefing ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 48

BLM: Remember

2-26

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 124. What is the value of the scientific method to social psychology? a. The scientific method clarifies the types of questions that social psychologists

choose to ask. b. The scientific method can reduce the influence of personal beliefs in social psychology research. c. The scientific method determines the statistical techniques used to analyze a problem. d. The scientific method affects the research techniques used to address a particular issue. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 49

BLM: Remember

125. How do social psychology researchers deal with concerns about experimenter bias in their

research? a. By requiring that research is evaluated by a research ethics board, current researchers have few concerns about experimenter bias. b. Experimenter bias is removed by statistical analysis of the data. c. Social psychology research is devoid of experimenter bias. d. Scientific methods reduce but do not eliminate experimenter bias in social psychology. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 49

BLM: Higher order

ESSAY 1. Explain the difference between random sampling and random assignment, and indicate how

these procedures affect a study's internal and external validity. ANS:

A random sample meets the requirement that all members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected for the sample. Random samples are particularly attractive because they are more representative than other samples (such as convenience samples) of the populations from which they are taken. Moreover, because representative samples allow one to generalize the findings of a study to the larger population, random sampling increases external validity. Random assignment is a procedure that is only relevant when conducting an experiment; in this case, members of the sample (who have already been chosen, randomly or not) have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the experimental conditions. This procedure assures that, on average, members of experimental groups are equivalent in all ways except for the independent variable. Because this condition allows one to infer that the independent variable caused the dependent variable, random assignment increases internal validity. PTS: 1

2-27

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research 2. What are the advantages and the primary disadvantage of doing correlational research rather

than experiments? Give an example of two variables that you think probably are negatively correlated with each other. Explain why you think so. ANS:

An important advantage of doing correlational research rather than experiments is that correlational research can study associations of naturally occurring variables that cannot be manipulated or induced, such as participants' gender, age, race, height, etc. Correlational research can examine phenomena that would be difficult or unethical to create for research purposes, such as certain kinds of violence, love, abuse of alcohol, etc. Correlational research also offers more flexibility than experiments in which variables are measured, as in the field, using archives, through national surveys, etc. The primary disadvantage of doing correlational research rather than experiments is that a correlation cannot demonstrate causation. That is, correlations cannot demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships between variables. A well-designed experiment, in contrast, can demonstrate that changes in one variable can cause a change in another variable. Two variables are negatively correlated if as one variable increases the other decreases. One pair of variables that should be negatively correlated with each other is the amount of time spent studying and the number of courses failed. As the amount of time one spends studying increases, the number of courses one fails should decrease. PTS: 1 3. What are the two essential characteristics of an experiment? Why, and how, is each of these

important for the internal validity of the experiment? ANS:

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Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research

One essential characteristic of an experiment is that the researcher has control over the experimental procedures. The researcher manipulates the variables of interest and keeps all else uniform. That is, all participants should be treated exactly the same way—except for the manipulations that the experimenter is investigating. The other essential characteristic of an experiment is that all participants are assigned randomly to the different conditions. Because of random assignment, at the beginning of the study there should be no difference among the participants, on average, as a function of the condition to which they were assigned. Internal validity is the degree to which there can be reasonable certainty that the independent variables in an experiment caused the effects obtained on the dependent variable. By having a great deal of control over the experimental procedures, researchers can help ensure that the only differences between conditions are the manipulations themselves and not some other factors. If other factors vary along with the independent variables, then it is less clear that the independent variables are the cause of any differences found in the dependent variable, thereby reducing the internal validity of the experiment. Even if the researcher has a great deal of control and ensures that the only differences in the treatment received by the participants across conditions are the manipulations of the independent variables, it is possible that the participants in one condition are different from the participants in other conditions in important ways. If this is the case, the differences found in the dependent variable may be a function of these other differences, rather than the result of the manipulations. If the participants are randomly assigned to the conditions, however, the chances that the participants differed in ways other than those created by the manipulations become very improbable. Differences found in the dependent variable can thus be attributed to the manipulations of the independent variables rather than to pre-existing differences among the participants, thereby creating internal validity. PTS: 1 4. Imagine that some researchers are interested in university students' self-reports about their

reactions to various stressful situations. Rather than simply asking the students to recall various stressful situations and their reactions to them, the researchers want to reduce the time between the students' self-reports about the situations and the actual situations themselves. Describe two methods that have been developed by social psychologists that could serve this purpose. ANS:

The textbook describes three such methods: interval-contingent, signal-contingent, and event-contingent. Using the interval-contingent method, the researchers would have the students report their experiences at regular intervals, such as once a day. Using the signal-contingent method, the researchers would ask the students to report their experiences as soon as possible after being signalled to do so, as with a beeper. Using the event-contingent method, the researchers would ask the students to report on a designated set of events as soon as possible after such events occurred; for example, the students might be asked to report their experiences as soon as possible after being confronted with a stressful situation. PTS: 1 5. What is informed consent? What is debriefing? Why are they important in conducting

2-29

Chapter 2 Doing Social Psychology Research ANS:

Informed consent is the individual's deliberate, voluntary decision to participate in research, based on the researcher's description of what will be required during such participation. Individuals must be given enough information about the research in order to make an informed decision about whether or not they wish to participate. Debriefing is a disclosure, made to participants after research procedures are completed, in which the researcher explains the purpose of the research, attempts to resolve any negative feelings, and emphasizes the scientific contribution made by individuals' participation. Both informed consent and debriefing are very important in protecting the welfare of the individuals who participate in the research. Informed consent, for example, is critically important from an ethical perspective. Human participants should know what the possible risks and dangers are of participating in some research before they agree to do so. The debriefing is also important from an ethical perspective. During the debriefing the researcher should attempt to make the participants feel good about having participated in the research, and any possible negative effects of having been in the study should be eliminated. Research ethics boards exist at all institutions that seek federal funding for research involving human participants. Their responsibility is to review research proposals to ensure that the physical and psychological welfare of the individuals who participate in the proposed research will be protected. PTS: 1

2-30

Chapter 3: The Social Self MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the cocktail party effect? a. the tendency for people to become more self-conscious in large groups b. the tendency for people to get nervous in social settings and forget the names of

those to whom they have been introduced c. the tendency for people to hear the mention of their own name from across a crowded room d. the tendency for people to become more focused on self-presentational concerns in group settings ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Remember

2. From a social psychological perspective, what does the cocktail party effect illustrate? a. the importance of the self as an object of attention b. the genesis of the fundamental attribution error c. that people are selective in their attentional processes d. the importance of setting for social interactions ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Remember

3. While talking to someone she just met at a noisy party, Julianna stops in the middle of a

sentence and turns her head. According to the cocktail party effect, which of the following is most likely to have caught her attention? a. her name b. a phone ringing c. a friend’s voice d. a glimpse of her own reflection ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Higher order

4. Jan is at a party. Which of the following best demonstrates the cocktail party effect? a. Jan smiles more at the party than she does when she is alone. b. Jan is much more concerned about how she appears to strangers at the party than to

her friends. c. Jan has difficulty remembering the names of the people to whom she is introduced. d. Jan notices when someone across the room mentions her name. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Higher order

5. What does the term self-concept refer to? a. the evaluation of one's abilities and attitudes through comparison to similar others b. the sum total of a person's beliefs concerning his or her own personal

characteristics c. the sum total of a person's positive and negative evaluations of him- or herself d. the general disposition to focus on either the inner feelings or outer image of the self ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Remember 3-1

Chapter 3 The Social Self 6. What do psychologists call sets of stored knowledge about the self that allow enhanced

processing of relevant information? a. self-consciousness b. autobiographical memories c. flashbulb memories d. self-schemas ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Remember

7. Bernie considers intelligence to be an important part of his self-concept and he feels that he is

more intelligent than most other people when he is in a group. How would psychologists most likely describe Bernie? a. as aschematic with respect to intelligence b. as schematic with respect to intelligence c. as high in public self-consciousness d. as low in public self-consciousness ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Higher order

8. Helene is schematic concerning honesty. Which of the following statements best describes

Helene? a. She is likely to see honesty as important only some of the time. b. She is likely to consider honesty a central part of her self-concept. c. She is likely to report on the dishonest behaviours of others. d. She is likely to be more concerned about appearing honest than most other people. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Higher order

9. When Gallup (1977) placed different species of animals in front of a mirror, what was it that

only the great apes did? a. exhibit social responses to their reflection in the mirror b. greet their reflection with vocalizations c. use their reflection in the mirror to groom themselves d. attempt to attack their reflection ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 57

BLM: Remember

10. According to developmental psychologists, at what age do children begin to recognize their

own image in a mirror? a. between 6 and 12 months of age b. between 12 and 18 months of age c. between 18 and 24 months of age d. between 24 and 30 months of age ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 58

BLM: Remember

3-2

Chapter 3 The Social Self 11. Varsha stands in front of a mirror. She notices a red spot on the forehead of the image she sees

in the mirror. She then brings her hand up to her own forehead and touches the red spot. What is Varsha demonstrating? a. self-recognition b. self-verification c. self-esteem d. the looking-glass self ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 57

BLM: Higher order

12. Which of the following are two crucial steps to the development of the self-concept? a. self-esteem and self-control b. self-recognition and the presence of other people c. self-verification and self-monitoring d. self-esteem and social factors ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 57-58

BLM: Remember

13. According to the looking-glass model of self-concept development, how does the self-concept

develop? a. from one's physical appearance b. from the way one is viewed by others c. slowly, reaching its complete form only in old age d. quickly, but it is quite fragile and subject to change ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 58

BLM: Remember

14. Gallup's research revealed that when apes were raised in isolation they were unable to

recognize themselves in the mirror. What does this research provide support for? a. the facial-feedback hypothesis b. self-perception theory c. the idea that humans are the only animals capable of self-recognition d. the concept of the looking-glass self ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 58

BLM: Higher order

15. Janne is a middle-aged woman who is starting a new job. Which of the following is likely to

be most important information in her self-concept? a. her self-schemas b. her self-perception c. her self-talk d. her self-consciousness ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 56

BLM: Higher order

3-3

Chapter 3 The Social Self 16. What do psychologists call the process of reflecting on your own inner thoughts and feelings

in order to gain self-knowledge? a. introspection b. self-verification c. self-monitoring d. autobiographical memory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 58-59

BLM: Remember

17. According to Nisbett and Wilson (1977), why are people often unable to give accurate

explanations for the causes of their own behaviour? a. because introspection can sometimes impair self-knowledge b. because internal attitudes can be unconscious c. because people don’t spend enough time thinking about their beliefs and attitudes d. because people try to appear better than others ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 59

BLM: Remember

18. A high school class goes to an art gallery and enjoys one of the exhibitions very much. If the

teacher wants the students to gain accurate self-insight regarding why they liked the exhibition, what should the teacher ask the students to do? a. compare the different exhibitions they had seen b. focus on their feelings about the paintings in the exhibition c. give a list of reasons for why they liked particular paintings in the exhibition d. attempt to analyze the features of the exhibit that they liked ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 59

BLM: Higher order

19. What happens, according to Wilson (2002), the more people consider the reasons why they

like something? a. the more negative their reasons become over time b. the lower the correlation between their attitudes and behaviour c. the more accurate they are in making self-judgments d. the greater their extrinsic motivation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 59

BLM: Remember

20. Fayron is asked to judge how happy she will be six months after she graduates from college.

She believes that it will increase her happiness levels for at least a year. Which concept does this scenario illustrate? a. emotional self-regulation b. affective perception c. emotional judgment d. affective forecasting ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 59-60

BLM: Higher order

3-4

Chapter 3 The Social Self 21. During a discussion with some friends just prior to a school election, Sandra states that she is

certain she will be devastated for months if she isn't elected class president. Which concept does this example illustrate? a. the overjustification effect b. the impact bias c. introspection d. implicit egoism ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 59

BLM: Higher order

22. According to self-perception theory, what are people most likely to do when they are

uncertain about their thoughts or feelings regarding an activity? a. infer their thoughts and feelings regarding that activity from their behaviour b. infer their thoughts and feelings from what others tell them about their engagement in the activity c. focus on past behaviour that relates to the current activity to make inferences about their thoughts and feelings regarding the activity d. think about their self-schemas and decide whether the behaviour is congruent or incongruent with the self-schema before engaging in the activity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Remember

23. Marcia is unsure about whether Janet is her best friend. She thinks about how many times she

has listened to Janet complain, helped Janet study, and brought soup to Janet when she was sick. Marcia realizes that she speaks to Janet almost every night. After thinking about all this, Marcia concludes that Janet must be her best friend. This conclusion is based on a process described by which of the following theories? a. social comparison theory b. self-perception theory c. self-awareness theory d. self-discrepancy theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Higher order

24. Justin falls asleep during a movie that he had been waiting all week to see. If he relies on

self-perception to determine his feelings about the movie, what will he most likely decide? a. that he would stay awake if he saw the movie a second time b. that his perceptions of the movie match his perceptions of himself c. that the movie was one of the best he's ever seen d. that he found the movie to be quite boring ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Higher order

3-5

Chapter 3 The Social Self 25. Newman is having a very bad day—he overslept for his final exam, spilled coffee on himself

at work, and got a speeding ticket on the way home. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, what will happen if he increases tension in the facial muscles active during frowning? a. It will neutralize his negative emotional experience. b. It will intensify his negative emotional experience. c. It will create a competing positive emotion. d. Because he is already in a bad mood, it will have no impact on his emotional experience. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 61

BLM: Higher order

26. Kira hates her calculus class. What should she do to help improve her mood during class? a. Kira should force herself to empathize more with her instructor. b. Kira should force herself to smile throughout class. c. Kira should try to suppress or block out her negative feelings during class. d. Kira should try to sit up straight throughout class. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 62

BLM: Higher order

27. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, how do facial expressions affect emotion? a. Facial expressions are necessary for the experience of emotion. b. Facial expressions can trigger and magnify emotional states. c. Although facial expressions can influence emotions, they do not produce any real

physiological changes. d. In order for facial expressions to evoke a corresponding emotion, people must be

aware of their outward expression. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 61

BLM: Higher order

28. According to the self-perception of emotions, which of the following would be most effective

at inducing a positive mood? a. repeating words that contain the vowel sound O b. sitting at a high table c. smiling d. jumping up and down ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Remember

29. When asked to clean his room, Miguel does so, but only after being assured by his parents that

he will receive an allowance in exchange for cleaning up. Which of the following is the most likely motivated Miguel's behaviour? a. need-driven motivation b. intrinsic motivation c. extrinsic motivation d. self-verification motivation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 62

BLM: Higher order

3-6

Chapter 3 The Social Self 30. Dara loves to paint in her spare time. Painting is an enjoyable activity for her. Which of the

following best explains her desire to paint? a. need-driven motivation b. intrinsic motivation c. extrinsic motivation d. self-verification motivation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 62

BLM: Higher order

31. What do psychologists call motivation that is driven by rewards and punishments? a. instrumental motivation b. intrinsic motivation c. extrinsic motivation d. egoistic motivation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 62

BLM: Remember

32. What do psychologists call the tendency for extrinsic rewards to undermine intrinsic

motivation? a. self-discrepancy theory b. implicit egoism c. the durability bias d. the overjustification effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 62

BLM: Remember

33. Terri is a teaching assistant for an introductory psychology class. She enjoys grading student

assignments, but the professor thinks she takes too long. Hoping to speed up the process, the professor offers her a small cash reward for grading each assignment quickly and accurately. This solution works, until the professor runs out of money. Now Terri dislikes grading, complains about it all the time, and takes even longer than before to complete her work. What appears to have happened to Terri? a. The monetary reward undermined Terri's intrinsic motivation to grade. b. Terri's extrinsic desire to grade was replaced by an intrinsic motivation to make money. c. Terri lost her intrinsic motivation to grade when the professor ran out of money. d. Terri sabotaged her own performance by engaging in self-handicapping. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 62-63

BLM: Higher order

3-7

Chapter 3 The Social Self 34. Josephine bought her six-year-old nephew, Joseph, a new set of paints for his birthday.

Hoping to encourage the little artist, Josephine promised Joseph $1 for every painting. Joseph thinks that is quite a lot of money. According to research by Lepper, Greene, and Nisbett (1973) on overjustification effects, which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Joseph will continue to paint even if his aunt eventually stops rewarding him with money. b. Joseph will develop a love for painting and will want to be an artist when he grows up. c. Joseph will come to see painting pictures as a way to make money, not as something enjoyable in itself. d. The paintings for which Joseph receives money will be judged as better quality than the paintings for which he does not receive any money. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 63

BLM: Higher order

35. Which of the following strategies would be the most effective way to use rewards to motivate

behaviour, but avoid overjustification effects? a. Make a contract clearly stating that the rewards will only occur for exceptional performance. b. Make sure the rewards are contingent upon the desired behaviour and are clearly expected. c. Present the rewards as a special bonus for the desired behaviour and be sure that the reward is unexpected. d. Create an expectation that rewards will be given for the desired behaviour, but then do not actually provide the reward. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 63

BLM: Higher order

36. Suppose your residence assistant asks you to donate two hours of your time to set up an event.

Under which of the following conditions will you be most likely to develop an interest in working for your residence hall? a. if your residence assistant promises you $50 for your help b. if your residence assistant unexpectedly gives you $50 when you are finished c. if your residence assistant promises you $50 and ends up giving you $75 d. if your residence assistant watches you work but does not pay you ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 63

BLM: Higher order

37. A person's spontaneous self-description can often be changed by an alteration of which of the

following? a. that person's self-reference b. that person's social surroundings c. that person's social desirability d. that person's feelings of uncertainty ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Remember

3-8

Chapter 3 The Social Self 38. Which of the following are people's spontaneous self-descriptions most likely to include? a. their age, regardless of their social surroundings b. their gender, regardless of their social surroundings c. characteristics that set them apart from others in the immediate vicinity d. characteristics that make them seem similar to others in the immediate vicinity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 63

BLM: Remember

39. April is a female, black, biology major in a psychology class where the majority of her

classmates are psychology majors. According to McGuire's work on spontaneous self-descriptions, which of the following will April be most likely to mention in her self-description in this situation? a. her race b. her gender c. her university status d. her major ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Higher order

40. April is a female, black, psychology major in a psychology class where the rest of her male

and female classmates are white. According to McGuire's work on spontaneous self-descriptions, which of the following will April be most likely to mention in her self-description in this situation? a. her race b. her gender c. her university status d. her major ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Higher order

41. April is a female, black, psychology major in a psychology class where most of her classmates

are males. According to McGuire's work on spontaneous self-descriptions, which of the following will April be most likely to mention in her self-description in this situation? a. her race b. her gender c. her university status d. her major ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Higher order

42. April is a female, black, Waterloo student in a restaurant with a group of male and female

York students. According to McGuire's work on spontaneous self-descriptions, which of the following will April be most likely to mention in her self-description in this situation? a. her race b. her gender c. her university d. her major ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 60

BLM: Higher order

3-9

Chapter 3 The Social Self 43. What does the tendency for people to focus on their distinguishing attributes in their

self-descriptions suggest? a. that people infer their internal dispositions from their external behaviour b. that the self is defined with respect to other people c. that people have a strong motive for self-verification d. that introspection can both enhance and impair self-knowledge ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Remember

44. When Klein (1997) asked participants to rate their skills on a particular judgment task, what

did he find? a. Social comparison processes did not influence participants' ratings of themselves. b. Participants chose to compare themselves only with others who performed better on the task. c. Ratings were primarily determined by feedback about absolute levels of performance. d. Ratings were primarily determined by feedback about performance relative to others. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Remember

45. Mary Ann is a high school student in Manitoba who wants to determine whether her clothes

are fashionable. According to social comparison theory, Mary Ann would tend to look to which of the following groups to assess how fashionable her clothes are? a. models in a fashion magazine b. university students c. other Canadian high school students d. other Manitoban high school students ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Higher order

46. According to Festinger, in which of the following situations is social comparison is most

likely to occur? a. when one is under conditions of uncertainty b. when one is feeling self-confident c. when objective criteria are not available d. when one is with dissimilar others ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 64

BLM: Remember

47. Schachter (1959) found that participants expecting to receive painful electric shocks preferred

the company of others who were in the same situation. What do these results suggest? a. Social comparison processes are used to evaluate emotions. b. Emotions have a strong physiological component. c. Self-handicapping is more about self-presentation than self-enhancement. d. People are relatively inaccurate at affective forecasting. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 65

BLM: Remember

3-10

Chapter 3 The Social Self 48. What does Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion propose about emotional experience? a. that it is independent of social comparison processes b. that it requires a combination of positive and negative physiological arousal c. that it is independent of physiological arousal d. that it is based on physiological arousal and a cognitive interpretation of that

arousal ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 65

BLM: Remember

49. What important conclusion that can be drawn from Schachter and Singer's (1962) study on

emotions? a. When people are unclear about their emotions, the social context can play an important role in the interpretation of emotion. b. When people are unclear about their emotions, physiological arousal will be the primary determinant of their emotion. c. When people are unclear about their emotions, self-perception of facial expressions will be the primary determinant of emotion. d. When people are unclear about their emotions, the behaviour of other people will not influence the interpretation of emotion. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 65-55

BLM: Higher order

50. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, which of the following does the social context

most directly affect? a. facial expressions of emotion b. the physiological component of emotion c. the cognitive interpretation of emotion d. the self-perception of emotion ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 65-66

BLM: Remember

51. On his first day of class, Professor Saccamano thinks he is nervous because his blood pressure

is up and his hands are shaking. He continues to feel this way, however, before every class meeting of the semester, and eventually realizes that his arousal is due to the five flights of stairs he must climb up to the classroom. Which theory best explains his initial misattribution? a. the downward comparison theory b. the self-handicapping theory c. the self-perception theory d. the two-factor theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 65-66

BLM: Higher order

3-11

Chapter 3 The Social Self 52. With regard to the two-factory theory of emotion, research has shown that the more intense

the physiological arousal, the more people will tend to do which of the following? a. experience the arousal as aversive regardless of the situation b. pay attention to the social context for cues to interpret their emotions c. experience the emotion suggested by social context cues d. use other sources in addition to arousal and social context for interpreting their emotion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 66

BLM: Remember

53. What do psychologists call people's recollection of a sequence of events that directly touched

their lives? a. private self-consciousness b. the hindsight bias c. the distinctiveness effect d. autobiographical memory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 66-67

BLM: Remember

54. Suppose an elderly couple is asked to reflect upon their lives. In addition to reporting more

memories from their recent past than the distant past, it is likely that their retrospective assessment would also include more personal memories from which of the following periods? a. their elementary school years b. their early adolescence c. their late adolescence and early adulthood d. their middle adulthood ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 66-67

BLM: Remember

55. How is the recall of autobiographical memories influenced by age? a. Older adults tend to recall a large number of memories from adolescence and early

adulthood. b. Older adults tend to recall a large number of memories from childhood and late adulthood. People tend to have a more difficult time remembering transitional life periods. c. Younger adults tend to recall the largest number of memories from adolescence. d. Younger adults tend to recall the largest number of memories from childhood. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 66-67

BLM: Higher order

56. Herman remembers exactly what he was doing and where he was when he first heard about

the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks. What would Brown and Kulik (1977) call this type of vivid image? a. the hindsight bias b. a memory heuristic c. memory inflation d. a flashbulb memory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 67

BLM: Higher order

3-12

Chapter 3 The Social Self 57. Which of the following is most consistent with the notion that memory is biased rather than

objective? a. When asked about her university experience, most of Jennifer's memories are about her first day of university and her graduation. b. John spent most of his 65th birthday party reminiscing about his old university days. c. Jordan will never forget the day when he heard about Princess Diana's death on the news. d. Jessica recalls that she has always hated meat, even though she just recently became a vegetarian. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 67

BLM: Higher order

58. Jason fills out an application for university with the grades he remembered getting throughout

high school. While reviewing the application with a guidance counsellor, the counsellor points out that Jason seems to have inflated a few of his lower grades. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jason's behaviour? a. Jason is displaying the reminiscence peak characteristic of autobiographical memories. b. Jason fell prey to the tendency to revise personal histories to reflect favourably on the self. c. Jason relied on introspection and consequently impaired his self-knowledge of his grades. d. Jason was affected by the durability bias, which skewed his memory of his grades. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 67

BLM: Higher order

59. A husband and wife are asked to estimate how much each of them contributes to the

household chores. Based on the research concerning autobiographical memory, which of the following patterns of results is most probable? a. husband 50%, wife 50% b. husband 50%, wife 70% c. husband 70%, wife 50% d. husband 70%, wife 70% ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 67

BLM: Higher order

60. Rebecca fills out a survey in which she asserts complete agreement with the statement: “I

enjoy being unique and different from others.” With which cultural orientation does she most likely identify? a. individualism b. collectivism c. multiculturalism d. cooperativism ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 68

BLM: Higher order

3-13

Chapter 3 The Social Self 61. Raspreet was born and raised in an Eastern culture. Compared to people raised in Western

cultures, which of the following is Raspreet more likely to do? a. compare herself to others b. make friends easily c. view relationships as an important part of her self-concept d. experience anxiety in group settings ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 68

BLM: Higher order

62. Jomei feels that he cannot be happy if his family is not happy. What kind of view of self does

he have? a. an individualistic view b. an independent view c. an interdependent view d. an international view ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 69

BLM: Higher order

63. Juan is from a collectivist culture. Which of the following is he most likely to do? a. describe himself with personality traits and strive for personal achievement b. describe himself with personality traits and derive personal satisfaction from the

status of a valued group c. identify himself by group affiliations and strive for personal achievement d. identify himself by group affiliations and derive personal satisfaction from the

status of a valued group ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 68

BLM: Higher order

64. Cross-cultural research indicates that most North Americans are more likely than most Asians

to do which of the following? a. perceive themselves as unique b. assume blame for failures c. strive for community belonging d. alter their perceptions of others ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 68-69

BLM: Remember

65. According to Markus and Kitayama (1991), people from collectivist cultures are more likely

than those from individualist cultures to do which of the following? a. derive satisfaction from personal achievement b. see themselves as less similar to others c. take personal credit for their successes d. underestimate their contributions to a team effort ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 68-69

BLM: Remember

3-14

Chapter 3 The Social Self 66. Multilingual North American and Japanese citizens are asked to describe themselves in a

research study. Based on the findings by Ross and others (2002), which of the following groups is most likely to focus on group affiliations? a. North Americans asked to respond in English b. Japanese citizens asked to respond in Japanese c. North Americans, regardless of language d. Japanese citizens, regardless of language ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 70

BLM: Higher order

67. What does a person's positive and negative evaluations of the self constitute? a. that person's self-esteem b. that person's self-concept c. that person's self-schema d. that person's ideal self ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 71

BLM: Remember

68. What is self-esteem? a. It is a constructed cognitive component of the self-concept. b. It is an overall self-evaluation based, in part, on success and failure. c. It is a large knowledge-base about the self. d. It is a trait that is stable, varying little across the life span. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 71

BLM: Remember

69. People with unstable, fluctuating self-esteem react more strongly to what type of events than

those with stable self-esteem? a. positive events b. negative events c. both positive and negative events d. predictable repeated events ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 71

BLM: Remember

70. Jade feels great about herself when she gets an A on her calculus test, but then hates herself

when she forgets to meet a friend at the library. What does this scenario reveal about Jade? a. She seems to have an interdependent view of self. b. She seems to have low self-esteem. c. She seems to have unstable self-esteem. d. She seems to have an independent view of self. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 71

BLM: Higher order

71. According to social psychologists, what is the primary function of self-esteem? a. It provides a rough sense of how others perceive us. b. It helps us keep a sense of perspective about our own accomplishments. c. It helps us become aware of weaknesses for self-improvement efforts. d. It provides a means of validating the self-concept. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 71

BLM: Remember 3-15

Chapter 3 The Social Self 72. Consuela has a positive self-image. Which of the following would she be least likely to do? a. persist longer at difficult tasks b. expect to succeed c. blame herself if she fails d. sleep better at night ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 72

BLM: Higher order

73. Which of the following is most likely associated with low self-esteem? a. the expectation of success b. the ability to effectively resist peer pressure c. a sense of optimism about the future d. a greater susceptibility to disease ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 72

BLM: Remember

74. Greenwald and Farnham (2000) used the implicit word-association procedure to assess

self-esteem in both European and Asian Americans. What did their research find? a. Both European and Asian Americans were quicker to associate themselves with positive words than with negative words. b. Asian Americans were quicker to associate themselves with negative words than with positive words, whereas European Americans were quicker to associate themselves with positive words than with negative words. c. European Americans were quicker to associate themselves with positive words than with negative words, whereas Asian Americans did not demonstrate any preference. d. Asian Americans were quicker to associate themselves with positive words than with negative words, whereas European Americans were quicker to associate themselves with negative words than with positive words. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Remember

75. Twenge and Crocker (2002) conducted a meta-analysis of the relationship between

self-esteem and race. What did their research reveal? a. White Americans have higher self-esteem on average than do African Americans. b. White Americans and African Americans tend to have similar self-esteem scores. c. African Americans have higher self-esteem on average than do white Americans. d. Racial differences on measures of self-esteem are quite small. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 73

BLM: Remember

3-16

Chapter 3 The Social Self 76. Self-discrepancy theory suggests that we each have an “actual self,” an “ought self,” and an

“ideal self.” According to Higgins, discrepancies between the ought self and the actual self often lead to low self-esteem and feelings of which of the following? a. frustration b. shame c. sadness d. hostility ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Remember

77. According to self-discrepancy theory, which of the following is related to the experience of

negative emotions (such as anxiety or depression)? a. the content of the actual, ought, and ideal selves b. the stability of the actual, ought, and ideal selves c. the degree of incongruity among the actual, ought, and ideal selves d. the degree of incongruity between individuals' actual and ideal selves and their perception of important others' views of their actual and ideal selves ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Remember

78. Jenna is fairly high-strung. This attribute conflicts more with Jenna's ideal self than with her

ought self. Which emotion is Jenna likely to experience due to this conflict? a. disappointment b. anxiety c. fear d. anger ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Remember

79. According to self-discrepancy theory, what disorder is most likely to develop from a

discrepancy between the real self and the ought self? a. depression b. anxiety disorder c. bipolar disorder d. schizophrenia ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Remember

80. Jasper is feeling guilty and ashamed because he did not help his mother paint the house.

Jasper is most likely suffering from a discrepancy between what two aspects of the self? a. the ideal self and the ought self b. the ideal self and the actual self c. the ought self and the actual self d. the actual self and the real self ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Higher order

3-17

Chapter 3 The Social Self 81. How are self-discrepancy and self-esteem related? a. The more the discrepancy changes over time, the worse we feel. b. The more we focus on the self-esteem, the greater the discrepancies we report. c. The more important the domain of the discrepancy, the better we feel. d. The more discrepant the real self and the self-guides, the worse we feel. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 74

BLM: Higher order

82. Alexia has her social psychology class on Halloween night but she wants to leave candy out

with the instructions that “Trick-or-treaters should take only one piece of candy each.” Which of the following would you recommend to increase the probability for Alexia’s advice to be followed? a. add “please” at the end of the instructions b. place the candy bowl near the street where others can see c. place the candy bowl in front of an image of eyes d. place the candy bowl in front of a window so that someone inside could see ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 75

BLM: Higher order

83. According to self-awareness theory, which of the following behaviours is most likely to draw

attention to self-discrepancies? a. sitting in a darkened theatre b. talking to a friend on the phone c. posing for a photograph d. being on a crowded subway car ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 75

BLM: Higher order

84. Jennifer is competing with other highly qualified students for a scholarship and is in the

interview. Which of the following effects is this high level of self-awareness most likely to produce? a. increased use of stereotypes b. improved natural flow of her performance c. an elated mood state d. a temporary reduction in self-esteem ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 75

BLM: Higher order

85. Tristan has a tendency to be self-focused. How does this tendency affect her behaviour? a. She tends to behave according to her current circumstances. b. She tends to behave according to the standards that will bring her praise from her

friends. c. She tends to behave according to the standards of her family. d. She tends to behave according to her own personal standards, rather than those of

others. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 76

BLM: Higher order

3-18

Chapter 3 The Social Self 86. Baumeister (1991) suggests that drug abuse, sexual masochism, spiritual ecstasy, binge eating,

and suicide may all be attempts to do which of the following? a. increase self-awareness b. reduce self-awareness c. increase public self-consciousness d. increase private self-consciousness ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 76

BLM: Remember

87. What do psychologists call the alcohol-induced tendency to see less discrepancy between

one's actual and ideal selves? a. objective self-awareness b. drunken self-inflation c. alcohol myopia d. intoxicated depression ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 77

BLM: Remember

88. Hideo tends to be very hard on himself and thinks he doesn't live up to his goals, but after

playing a video game for a while, he usually feels a lot better about himself. What is Hideo most likely experiencing? a. self-deception b. decreased self-awareness c. distraction d. decreased self-comparison ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 76

BLM: Higher order

89. Jacqueline asks her roommates' opinions on her choice of clothes each day before she leaves

for her morning classes. If they disapprove, she changes her clothes. What does this behaviour indicate about Jacqueline? a. She is high in private self-consciousness. b. She is high in public self-consciousness. c. She is low in self-monitoring. d. She is low in self-handicapping. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 77

BLM: Higher order

90. Marquez admits that he is always trying to figure himself out, and he pays close attention to

his feelings. Marquez is probably high in which of the following? a. private self-consciousness b. public self-consciousness c. self-monitoring d. strategic self-presentation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 77

BLM: Higher order

3-19

Chapter 3 The Social Self 91. Rayanna is often aware of her internal body states. Which of the following characteristics is

she most likely to show? a. She is very sensitive to the extent to which others share her opinions. b. She is motivated to live up to her own expectations. c. She is motivated to live up to others’ expectations. d. She is quick to describe other people’s characteristics. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 77

BLM: Higher order

92. What do psychologists call the process by which we seek to control or alter our thoughts,

feelings, behaviours, and urges? a. self-handicapping b. self-verification c. self-presentation d. self-regulation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 78

BLM: Remember

93. According to Muraven and Baumeister's (2000) theory, how should self-control be

conceptualized? a. Self-control is a limited inner resource that can be temporarily depleted. b. Self-control is like a muscle, exercising self-control in one situation makes it easier to exert control on a subsequent occasion. c. Self-control is like a pool, people can draw from many different sources. d. Self-control is an illusion used to maintain a positive self-image. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 79

BLM: Higher order

94. Jerome is trying to lose weight. His roommate keeps a stash of peanut butter cups in the

refrigerator. Jerome has little willpower over his urge to eat peanut butter cups. Given the research regarding ironic processes, under what circumstances is Jerome is most likely to think about the peanut butter cups? a. if he tells himself not to think about them and is distracted by something else b. if he tells himself to think about them, but then is distracted by something else c. if he tells himself not to think about them and is not distracted by something else d. if he tells himself not to think about them over and over ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 80

BLM: Higher order

95. When it comes to perceptions of the self, what has research consistently demonstrated that

people have a tendency to do? a. underestimate their intellectual and social abilities b. rate negative traits as more self-descriptive than positive ones c. rate themselves and their capabilities as above average d. rate themselves less positively than others rate them ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 81

BLM: Remember

3-20

Chapter 3 The Social Self 96. People tend to rate the letters in their own names more favourably than other letters of the

alphabet. Which of the following does this phenomenon is best illustrate? a. implicit egotism b. basking in reflected glory c. self-handicapping d. self-verification ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 81

BLM: Higher order

97. Which of the following is a method that people use to enhance their self-esteem? a. basking in reflected glory b. heightening self-awareness c. self-regulation d. self-perception ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 84

BLM: Remember

98. Which of the following is a self-serving tendency used to enhance self-esteem? a. People tend to take blame for their failures, but ignore their successes. b. People underestimate the probability of positive outcomes and overestimate the

probability that they will experience negative outcomes. c. People underestimate the extent to which they can control personal outcomes. d. People bolster their optimism by linking their individual attributes to desirable outcomes. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 82-83

BLM: Remember

99. Carlos is nervous about giving a class presentation because he doesn't think he can

communicate very well with everyone watching him. If Carlos attempts to deal with his anxiety by self-handicapping, which of the following will he most likely do? a. rehearse his presentation in front of a mirror b. rehearse his presentation in front of a group of friends c. stay out all night partying the night before the presentation d. compare himself to others who are eloquent speakers ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 82-83

BLM: Higher order

100. In their study of self-handicapping, Berglas and Jones (1978) found that the tendency to

choose a performance-inhibiting drug was restricted to which of the following groups? a. males told they had solved easy problems b. females told they had solved easy problems c. females told they had solved insoluble problems d. males told they had solved insoluble problems ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 84

BLM: Remember

3-21

Chapter 3 The Social Self 101. Which of the following best exemplifies self-handicapping? a. attributing poor performance on an exam to having just heard of a family member's

cancer diagnosis prior to the exam b. telling someone you were lucky after winning a tournament c. starting work on a project the night before it is due d. attributing one's failure to get a summer job to stable personality characteristics ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 83

BLM: Higher order

102. Prior to the basketball championship game, Jocelyn reminds everyone that she really isn't as

good a player as everyone thinks, that their opponent has had an undefeated season, and that it is unlikely she and her teammates will triumph. What is Jocelyn engaging in? a. sandbagging b. implicit egoism c. downward social comparison d. cutting off reflected failure ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 84

BLM: Higher order

103. Which of the following strategies do people use to help cope with the threat of failure? a. downward social-comparison b. self-regulation c. setting unattainable goals d. basking in reflected glory ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 83-84

BLM: Higher order

104. A young boy is an avid Blue Jays fan. He reads the statistics for the team in the newspaper

every day and a couple of times each summer goes to see the Blue Jays play. After a particularly bad losing streak, the boy decides that he also likes the Yankees and starts to root for them. What is this an example of? a. self-handicapping b. CORFing c. strategic self-presentation d. ironic processes ANS: B

Page: 85 PTS: 1

REF: 85

BLM: Higher order

105. What do psychologists call the tendency for people to think of those worse off than

themselves when faced with difficulties of their own? a. self-regulation b. self-handicapping c. downward social comparison d. public self-consciousness ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 85-86

BLM: Remember

3-22

Chapter 3 The Social Self 106. When people victimized by a crime, disease, or other tragic life event, which of the following

are they most likely to do? a. affiliate and compare themselves with others in the same situation b. affiliate and compare themselves with others who are worse off c. affiliate with others who are worse off, but compare themselves to others in the same situation d. affiliate with others who are in the same situation, but compare themselves to others who are worse off ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 85

BLM: Higher order

107. Jeanette, who is suffering from breast cancer, is most likely to feel better about her situation if

she compares herself to which of the following other patients? a. Jillian, who also has breast cancer but is not responding well to treatment b. Justine, who doesn't have breast cancer, but is approximately the same age as Jeanette c. Joann, whose breast cancer seems to be in remission and is being sent home d. Jewel, who has Alzheimer’s disease but who is much younger than Jeanette ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 85-86

BLM: Higher order

108. Researchers have found affiliation to be important in coping with physical illness. Who do

patients prefer to affiliate with? a. Patients like to affiliate with other patients who are coping well. b. Patients like to affiliate with other patients who are not coping as well as themselves. c. Patients like to affiliate with other patients who are earlier in the process than themselves. d. Patients like to affiliate with other patients who are at the same stage of the process as themselves. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 85-86

BLM: Remember

109. Research by Tesser suggests that when someone close to you performs better than you on a

dimension that is central to your self-concept, you are likely to engage in social comparison with this person. Which of the following events is most likely to be the result of this comparison? a. a decrease in self-esteem b. an increase in self-esteem c. motivation to improve d. motivation to affiliate ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 86

BLM: Higher order

3-23

Chapter 3 The Social Self 110. According to Taylor and Brown (1988), when are people more likely to have realistic views

of themselves? a. when they are depressed b. when they are well-adjusted c. when they are high in self-esteem d. when they are high in need for approval ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 86-87

BLM: Remember

111. Daisy and Casey are siblings. Daisy has tendency to see her successes as being due to her own

capabilities and her failures as being due to her circumstances. Casey, on the other hand, seems to blame himself when things go wrong. How do Daisy and Casey most likely differ from each other? a. Daisy is more likely to have a realistic self-appraisal than is Casey. b. Casey is more likely to react strongly to rejection than is Daisy. c. Daisy is more likely to engage in self-perception than is Casey. d. Casey is more likely to have low self-esteem than is Daisy. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 86-87

BLM: Higher order

112. Research has revealed that people with very high self-esteem are likely to behave in certain

ways when faced with threats to their self-esteem. How are they most likely to behave in such circumstances? a. They are more likely to become angry or violent in response to criticism. b. Their strong sense of self makes them less susceptible to self-defeating behaviours. c. They tend to show more emotional stability in the face of rejection. d. When their esteem is threatened, they tend to make a better impression on others. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 87

BLM: Higher order

113. Erving Goffman (1959) argued that life was much like a theatre and that people act out

various roles. Goffman's ideas are clearly evident in the social psychological study of which of the following? a. self-awareness b. self-presentation c. public self-consciousness d. norm formation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 88

BLM: Higher order

114. In the company of liberals, Kate expresses favourable attitudes toward abortion rights and

social services; in the company of conservatives, she expresses negative attitudes toward government regulation and taxes. What does Kate's behaviour exemplify? a. self-awareness b. self-complexity c. strategic self-presentation d. private self-consciousness ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 88-89

BLM: Higher order

3-24

Chapter 3 The Social Self 115. What do psychologists call the type of self-presentational strategy that describes acts

motivated to establish one's competence? a. self-promotion b. self-verification c. ingratiation d. self-handicapping ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 89

BLM: Remember

116. Supriya considers it more important for her new boss to value her skills than to like her.

Which of the following self-presentational strategies she is most likely to use? a. self-verification b. self-handicapping c. ingratiation d. self-promotion ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 89

BLM: Remember

117. If someone were to show that people with high self-esteem seek out partners who view them

positively, what would this finding demonstrate? a. self-verification b. self-enhancement c. both self-verification and self-enhancement d. self-fulfilling predispositions ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 90

BLM: Higher order

118. What do psychologists call the desire to have others perceive us in the same way we see

ourselves? a. self-verification b. self-enhancement c. implicit egoism d. self-handicapping ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 90

BLM: Remember

119. When people change their behaviour in response to self-presentation concerns or various

situations, they probably exhibit a high level of which of the following? a. self-monitoring b. self-complexity c. self-verification d. self-esteem ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 90

BLM: Remember

3-25

Chapter 3 The Social Self 120. A person who understands the nuances of a social situation and can adapt his or her behaviour

accordingly probably exhibits a high level of which of the following? a. self-verification b. self-esteem maintenance c. social sensitivity d. self-monitoring ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 90

BLM: Higher order

121. Research by Heatherton and Vohs (2000) into the nature of very high self-esteem had students

who did not know each other interact after one member of the pair had taken the Remote Associations test. What did this research reveal? a. People high in self-esteem were generally more liked by their partners whether or not they were threatened by the test. b. People low in self-esteem were generally more liked by their partners whether or not they were threatened by the test. c. People high in self-esteem who were threatened by the test were more liked by their partner. d. People low in self-esteem who were threatened by the test were more liked by their partner. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 87

BLM: Remember

122. Compared to high self-monitors, what are low self-monitors more likely to do? a. gather information about others b. maintain consistency in behaviour c. know the rules of appropriate action d. adjust their behaviour to fit the situation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 90-91

BLM: Remember

123. Yvonne is a high self-monitor and Stacy is a low self-monitor. What is Stacy more likely than

Yvonne to do? a. maintain consistency in behaviour b. know the rules of appropriate action c. adjust her behaviour to fit the situation d. gather information about others ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 90-91

BLM: Remember

124. How does having a high degree of self-monitoring affect a person’s behaviour? a. High self-monitoring is associated with consistent behaviour across social

situations. b. High self-monitors conform even in situations that demand autonomy. c. High self-monitoring is less adaptive than low self-monitoring. d. The tendency to behave in a self-monitoring way drops with age. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 90-92

BLM: Remember

3-26

Chapter 3 The Social Self 125. Naveen is attempting to gain a promotion. Lately, he has been begun bringing in a coffee and

a muffin for his boss Larry some mornings. His co-workers have noticed that he is quick to agree with and to compliment Larry on his ideas. Which strategy is Naveen using to gain that promotion? a. self-promotion b. self-verification c. ingratiation d. self-handicapping ANS: C

Page: 89 PTS: 1

REF: 89

BLM: Remember

ESSAY 1. Sometimes introspections lead to accurate self-knowledge; other times they do not. Explain

the distinction. ANS:

Research has produced the surprising finding that our introspections often interfere with our self-knowledge. Yet this negative effect does not always occur. As Millar and Tesser (1989) have noted, introspections can lead people astray in domains that are primarily affective, such as romantic relationships, but can actually sharpen self-knowledge in domains that are primarily cognitive, such as investment decision making. PTS: 1 2. Identify two biases in our autobiographical memory, and give illustrative examples. ANS:

First, people exhibit an egocentric bias, whereby they overestimate their contribution to a group goal. For example, athletes tend to overestimate the effect of their play on a team outcome. Second, people exhibit a hindsight bias, or a feeling that the outcome of an event could have been known all along. This bias is related to our tendency to revise knowledge of our past in a manner consistent with what we want to believe. For example, if we change our attitude, we may revise our memory such that we believe our attitude has always been what it is now. PTS: 1

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Chapter 3 The Social Self 3. Describe self-discrepancy theory, and explain how it accounts for certain emotional reactions.

Also explain the role of self-awareness in these reactions. ANS:

Self-discrepancy theory states that people's emotional reactions are the result of discrepancies between their ideal and real self-conceptions. To an extent, the emotional reactions depend on the nature of the self-discrepancies. In general, self-discrepancies bring about negative emotional reactions, and the greater the discrepancies the stronger the negative reactions. This process is affected by self-awareness inasmuch as one must be aware of a self-discrepancy before it can bring about a negative emotional reaction. The nature of the self-discrepancy also depends on the emotional reaction, as a function of two kinds of self-guides proposed by self-discrepancy theory: ought selves and ideal selves. Discrepancies between the actual and ought selves provoke feelings of guilt, shame, and resentment, whereas discrepancies between the actual and ideal selves provoke feelings of disappointment, frustration, and sadness. PTS: 1 4. Describe three biases that lead to self-enhancement. Explain how these biases bolster the

self-concept. ANS:

The textbook describes four biases that lead to self-enhancement: self-serving cognitions, self-handicapping, basking in reflected glory, and downward social comparisons. Self-serving cognitions are unjustified positive beliefs that people hold about themselves. For example, people may exaggerate their actual performance in school or be much more optimistic about their chances of avoiding a divorce or getting cancer than the rates corresponding to these negative events would justify. Self-serving cognitions provide evidence of the robust nature of the self-concept and may represent one means by which positive self-conceptions (even if they are deceptions) are maintained. Self-handicapping is the purposeful engagement in actions that will undermine a later performance. These actions provide the self-handicapper with a reasonable excuse for poor performance on the later task, thereby bolstering his or her self-concept from the negative implications of failure. Basking in reflected glory refers to the desire to affiliate with individuals or groups that are successful. For example, people are much more likely to wear team colours after their team's victory than after its failure. By associating with the winning group, people can claim some of its success, thus bolstering their self-concepts. Finally, downward social comparisons are comparisons with others who are doing worse than oneself. These comparisons can bolster the self-concept by placing the self in a context where it appears to be doing relatively well. PTS: 1

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Chapter 3 The Social Self 5. Discuss the relationship between self-presentation and self-monitoring. ANS:

Self-presentation is the portrayal of oneself to others in an effort to put forward a positive image. And self-monitoring refers to the ability to read the situation one is in and to adjust one's behaviour to match that situation. High self-monitors seem to have a repertoire of selves from which to draw and to be especially sensitive to strategic self-presentation concerns from one situation to the next, whereas low self-monitors appear to express themselves more consistently across varying situations. PTS: 1

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Chapter 4: Perceiving Persons MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following can be categorized as a source of “raw data” for social perception? a. the perceiver’s emotional reaction b. knowledge of the situation a person is in c. interpretations of a person's behaviour d. accounts given by others about a person ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 98

BLM: Remember

2. What does the study of social perception address? a. how people understand their own behaviour b. how people form impressions of others c. the strategies people use to create a positive self-image d. the way that we compare ourselves to others ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 98

BLM: Remember

3. Fritz is a social psychologist who specializes in studying the processes of social perception.

Given this interest, which of the following research questions would Fritz be least likely to address? a. How do employers infer traits and abilities about job candidates based on observing their behaviour in a job interview? b. How do police officers and customs agents make judgments concerning how truthful or deceptive particular individuals are? c. How are consumers influenced in their choices by the promotion and packaging of different products? d. How does the performance of athletes vary as a function of their coach's expectations about their ability and potential? ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 98

BLM: Higher order

4. When do we form impressions of others? a. our impressions are formed only after knowing the person for a considerable

period of time b. our impressions are formed after knowing a person for a few hours c. our impressions are formed after knowing a person for a few minutes d. our impressions are formed after knowing a person for a few seconds ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 99

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 5. In Rule and Ambady’s (2011) research on the impact of facial features on judgements about

people, university students were asked to rate the CEOs of top legal firms on competence, dominance, and facial maturity. What factor had the strongest effect on the students’ ratings? a. the age of the CEOs b. the number of years serving as the CEO c. the likability of the CEO d. the profitability of the firm ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Remember

6. Hassin and Trope's (2000) study of physiognomy found that participants assigned traits to

others based on which of the following? a. their hairstyle b. their facial features c. their perceived age d. their perceived race ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Remember

7. According to research by Zebrowitz and her colleagues on facial appearance, how are people

who have baby-faced features most likely to be perceived? a. as warm b. as intelligent c. as dishonest d. as dominant ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Remember

8. Adults with mature facial features are typically viewed as having which off the following

attributes? a. honesty b. experience c. dominance d. kindness ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Remember

9. Different attributes are ascribed to people who have baby-faced features and to those who

have mature facial features. According to your textbook, which of the following theories has received support from a brain imaging study? a. There is an actual link between appearance and behaviour. b. People overgeneralize attributes of babies to baby-faced adults. c. People are wired to have a nurturing response to baby-like features. d. People are positively reinforced by others to perceive baby-faced adults the way they do. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 10. Todd, who is considered to have a baby face, and Martin, who has more mature features, are

both being interviewed for the same position in a bank. Which of the following is the most probable outcome? a. Because of his more mature features, Martin will be viewed as more competent. b. Because he is baby-faced, Todd will be seen as less honest. c. Because he is baby-faced, Todd will be judged as more qualified for employment. d. Because of his more mature features, Martin will be seen as more kind. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 100

BLM: Higher order

11. Scripts are often culture-specific. What does this mean? a. There is a great deal of agreement about the order of events across cultures. b. The more experience one has with a particular behaviour, the more successfully

one can execute the relevant script. c. The more general the script is, the greater cross-cultural consistency it has. d. The same behaviours may be perceived very differently in different cultures. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 101

BLM: Higher order

12. According to research by Pryor and Merluzzi (1985), how does dating experience influence

the use of a script for a first date? a. It was more easily recalled and organized by participants with extensive dating experience. b. It was more easily recalled and organized by participants with moderate dating experience. c. It was more easily recalled but more difficult to organize for participants with extensive dating experience. d. It was more easily recalled but more difficult to organize for participants with moderate dating experience. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 101

BLM: Remember

13. Which of the following is one way that scripts influence social perception? a. People use their scripts to help them slow down and consider the behaviour

carefully. b. Scripts allow people to discount their expectations. c. People can use scripts to fill in missing information. d. Scripts can provide a way to learn about a behaviour that has not been previously

encountered. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 103

BLM: Remember

4-3

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 14. Charlie has never seen a lacrosse game before. What is the best way for Al to give the game

meaning for Charlie and to get him to remember the details of the game? a. ask Charlie to put special effort into learning the players' names b. ask Charlie to pay attention to each stop in play c. ask Charlie to pay attention to the final score d. ask Charlie to pay attention to the surroundings of the game (the weather, fans, field conditions, etc.) ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 102

BLM: Higher order

15. Andrew tends to view the behaviour of others in gross units, whereas Angela tends to break

others' behaviour down into fine units. Compared to Angela, which of the following is Andrew more likely to do? a. pay more attention to the behaviour b. detect more meaningful actions c. remember fewer details about the behaviour d. form a more positive impression of an actor ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 102

BLM: Higher order

16. What do psychologists call behaviour that communicates a person's feelings without words? a. scripted behaviour b. fine-unit behaviour c. perceptually salient behaviour d. nonverbal behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 103

BLM: Remember

17. While travelling around the world, Sven shows various people pictures of men and women

from his hometown who are smiling and frowning, and he asks these people to infer what emotions the individuals in the pictures are experiencing. According to the research on perceptions of primary emotions, which of the following is Sven most likely to find? a. Perceptions of the emotions vary widely as a function of the people's culture. b. Perceptions of the emotions are relatively consistent across most cultures. c. Little can be inferred about the emotions unless the behaviours of the individuals in the pictures are also described. d. Little is inferred about the emotions unless the situational contexts of the individuals in the pictures are also described. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 103

BLM: Higher order

18. Which of the following is considered a “primary” emotion? a. shame b. surprise c. disappointment d. anxiety ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 103

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 19. Which of the following research findings is most consistent with Darwin's hypothesis that the

ability to interpret emotion from facial expressions has survival value? a. People are quicker to recognize angry faces than happy faces. b. People are better able to interpret emotions from video than still pictures. c. People are able to identify six primary emotions. d. People sometimes infer emotions from situations rather than facial expressions. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 104

BLM: Higher order

20. At her town picnic, Haley is scanning the faces in a crowd looking for her sister Jenna. One

other face in the crowd quickly captures her attention and she finds that she keeps looking back at the same person. What is the most likely characteristic of that face? a. It’s an angry face. b. It’s a happy face. c. It’s a beautiful face. d. It’s a surprised face. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 104

BLM: Higher order

21. Marcus sits at an outdoor café. A woman walks by, swaying her hips, lifting her feet, and

swinging her arms. Based on the way the woman is walking, what impression of the woman is Marcus most likely to have? a. The woman is attractive. b. The woman nervous. c. The woman happy. d. The woman impulsive. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 106

BLM: Higher order

22. Jerry makes frequent eye contact with the person to whom he is talking. Which of the

following impressions is his behaviour most likely to elicit? a. an impression that Jerry is domineering and likes power b. an impression that Jerry is insecure and needy c. a positive impression if the person to whom Jerry is talking is a woman, and a negative impression if this person is a man d. a positive impression if the person to whom Jerry is talking is a friend, and a negative impression if this person is an enemy ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 106

BLM: Higher order

23. Hall and colleagues’ (2005) investigated the influence of social status on the initiation of

touching behaviour. What did they find? a. Though high-status individuals do not initiate more touching, they maintain the contact longer than do low-status individuals. b. Social status does not predict the initiation of touching. c. Higher-status individuals initiate more touching. d. Lower-status individuals initiate more touching. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 106

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 24. Jason and Joel work at the same marketing firm. Jason is a senior member of the team and

Joel was recently hired. Given the differences in their social status and based on the research by Hall and others (2005), which of the following is the best prediction of their nonverbal behaviour? a. Jason will initiate a handshake. b. Joel will initiate a handshake. c. Joel will be more likely to speak louder and interrupt. d. Jason will be more likely to speak louder and interrupt. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 107

BLM: Higher order

25. Why is it very difficult to detect deception? a. because we focus too much attention on nonverbal cues and not enough on verbal

cues b. because we fail to attend to the nonverbal cues that actually signal deception c. because we are motivated to believe that others are telling the truth d. because detecting deception is an evolutionary adaptive strategy ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 107-108

BLM: Remember

26. To detect deception, which of the following channels of communication should you attend to? a. eye contact b. body posture c. speech pitch d. facial expression ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 108

BLM: Higher order

27. Which people are most accurate at detecting deception? a. People who are focussed on facial expressions rather than voice cues. b. People who are police officers and FBI agents. c. People who are in sales representatives. d. People who are focussed on body movements rather than facial expressions. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 10

BLM: Higher order

28. Based on what we know about the communication channels that seem to best reveal whether

someone is lying, which of the following specific attributes would be most informative? a. a rise in pitch b. scratching one's head c. whether the person is smiling d. shifts in posture ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 108

BLM: Higher order

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 29. Bella is a teacher who suspects that a student is trying to deceive her. Under which of the

following conditions does Bella have the best chance of detecting whether or not the student is lying? a. if Bella reads a written transcript of the student's story b. if Bella sees a silent video of the student's face as the student tells the story c. if Bella reads a written transcript of the student's story and sees a silent video of the student's face as the student tells the story d. if Bella sees a silent video of the student's body language as the student tells the story ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 108

BLM: Higher order

30. According to the research on detection of deception, when does an observer have the best

chance of accurately detecting whether an actor is lying? a. when the actor is also performing a difficult cognitive task b. when the observer expects the actor to be deceptive c. when the observer is focused on the context of the actor's behaviour rather than the behaviour itself d. when the observer is focused on the actor’s face ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 108

BLM: Higher order

31. What kind of events are people are most likely to search for explanations for? a. expected events b. positive events c. personally relevant events d. repeated but ordinary events ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 109

BLM: Remember

32. Anthony is talking to his friends about his ex-girlfriend and claims that she broke off their

relationship because she is selfish, cold, and arrogant. What kind of attribution is Anthony making? a. a personal attribution b. a situational attribution c. a defensive attribution d. a counterfactual attribution ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

33. Colin and Erin are waiting to meet with their caterer so that they can discuss the menu for

their wedding. The caterer is 30 minutes late and still hasn't arrived. Colin suggests that the caterer is probably delayed because of traffic. Erin suggests that the caterer is probably disorganized and unreliable. What kind of attribution is Colin making? a. a dispositional attribution b. a situational attribution c. a personal attribution d. a correspondent attribution ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order 4-7

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 34. Colin and Erin are waiting to meet with their caterer so that they can discuss the menu for

their wedding. The caterer is 30 minutes late and still hasn't arrived. Colin suggests that the caterer is probably delayed because of traffic. Erin suggests that the caterer is probably disorganized and unreliable. What kind of attribution is Erin making? a. a dispositional attribution b. a situational attribution c. a personal attribution d. a correspondent attribution ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

35. Jorge watches his friend Nina interacting with others and makes a situational attribution for

her behaviour. Which of the following does Jorge most likely believe? a. Nina's way of relating to people stems from particular characteristics of her personality. b. Nina is not acting the way other people would act in the same situation. c. Nina's actions are not consistent with the social norms governing that particular situation. d. Nina's behaviour is best explained by the circumstances surrounding the encounter. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

36. Shannon observes Derek succeed at a task. Shannon believes that Derek's success was caused

by luck and the fact that the task was very easy. What does Shannon's belief illustrate? a. a defensive attribution b. a situational attribution c. a personal attribution d. a correspondent inference ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

37. Lindy is trying to decide whether or not Marisa's behaviour is dispositional. Which of the

following factors should Lindy consider if she relies on correspondent inference theory? a. whether Marisa’s friends are also showing that behaviour b. whether Marisa has behaved in this way before c. if Marisa's behaviour was expected given the situation d. the intensity of Marisa's behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

38. According to correspondent inference theory, in which of the following situations would a

personal attribution be most appropriate? a. Serena, a professor, helps students during her office hours. b. Sally, a naval officer, salutes when her commanding officer enters the room. c. Steve, a wealthy athlete, is ordered by the court to attend a drug rehabilitation program. d. Sam, a world-renowned playboy, joins a monastery and takes a vow of celibacy. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order 4-8

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 39. In Jones and Davis's correspondent inference theory, which of the following questions is best

used to determine whether a particular behaviour corresponds to an enduring personal characteristic of the actor? a. Did the behaviour violate any social norms? b. What were other actors doing at the time? c. What is the actor's perception of the behaviour? d. Did others show this behaviour in the past? ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Remember

40. Which of the following is the primary question underlying Jones's correspondent inference

theory? a. Do attributions correspond with pre-existing beliefs? b. Does an individual's beliefs correspond with that individual's behaviour? c. Does an observer infer that an actor's behaviour corresponds with the actor's personality? d. Does an observer infer that an actor's behaviour is consistent with that of the observer? ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

41. Antonio observes Dwayne behave in a particular way. According to correspondent inference

theory, in which of the following cases would Antonio be most likely to believe that he has learned something important about Dwayne's personal characteristics? a. if Dwayne's behaviour deviates from social norms b. if Dwayne's behaviour was physically coerced c. if Dwayne's behaviour was primed d. if Dwayne's behaviour has a large number of desirable effects ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 110

BLM: Higher order

42. According to correspondent inference theory, when are correspondent inferences most likely

to occur? a. when a person's behaviour is not freely chosen, expected, and results in many desirable outcomes b. when a person's behaviour is freely chosen, expected, and results in few desirable outcomes c. when a person's behaviour is freely chosen, unexpected, and results in many desirable outcomes d. when a person's behaviour is freely chosen, unexpected, and results in few desirable outcomes ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 111

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 43. Joe is leaving his job at Vandalay Industries. According to correspondent inference theory, in

which of the following scenarios would you learn the most about Joe? a. The company is downsizing and many employees, including Joe, are being terminated. b. The company is known for having its employees stay until they retire, and Joe is too young to retire. c. By leaving, Joe will no longer have to work incredibly long hours, in unhealthy air quality, under a demanding and mean supervisor. d. The company is offering a great retirement deal to all of its senior management and, like the other senior managers, Joe has decided to retire early. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 111

BLM: Higher order

44. In which of the following situations will Elizabeth be least likely to make correspondent

inferences from Bob's behaviour? a. if the behaviour has been coerced b. if the behaviour is consistent with social norms c. if the behaviour has just one desirable outcome d. if the behaviour is expected given the circumstances ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 111

BLM: Higher order

45. Kelley's theory of attribution suggests that, in trying to discern personal characteristics from

behavioural evidence, people will tend to do which of the following? a. use cognitive heuristics improperly b. usually attribute behaviour to both personal and situational factors c. fail to adequately consider consensus information d. behave like scientists and engage in informal experiments ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 111

BLM: Remember

46. Which of the following is consistent with Kelley's covariation principle? a. Actors attribute behaviour to the situation, but observers attribute behaviour to

persons. b. People fail to use statistical information, instead relying on intuitive theories to

make personality inferences. c. People infer that something is the cause of a behaviour if it is present when the

behaviour occurs and absent when it does not occur. d. People infer the causes of a behaviour as a function of the intended consequences

of the behaviour. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 111-112

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 47. Everyone you know seems to love the TV show Wipeout. You're a huge fan of reality TV as

well, as you never miss an episode of Dancing with the Stars, American Idol, or The Bachelor. But every time you watch Wipeout, you have the same reaction: You hate it with a passion. According to Kelley's (1967) covariation theory of attribution, your dislike of this show would be which of the following? a. high in consensus, low in distinctiveness, and high in consistency b. low in consensus, high in distinctiveness, and high in consistency c. high in consensus, high in distinctiveness, and low in consistency d. low in consensus, low in distinctiveness, and low in consistency ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 112

BLM: Higher order

48. Among your group of friends, Kent is the only one who is ever late for your weekly movie

night. You've noticed that he is late every week and that he is also late for class, parties, weddings, sporting events, and dental appointments. According to Kelley's covariation model of attribution, how would Kent's behaviour best be described? a. low in consensus, high in consistency, and low in distinctiveness b. low in consensus, high in consistency, and high in distinctiveness c. low in consensus, low in consistency, and low distinctiveness d. high in consensus, high in consistency, and high distinctiveness ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 112

BLM: Higher order

49. Though she doesn't usually watch television, Danielle never misses My Big Fat Obnoxious

Fiancé on Monday nights. Which of the following best describes Danielle's behaviour? a. low in consistency b. high in distinctiveness c. low in consensus d. high in covariation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 112

BLM: Higher order

50. According to the covariation principle, when are consistent behaviours attributed to the

stimulus? a. when consensus and distinctiveness are low b. when consensus and distinctiveness are high c. when consensus is high, but distinctiveness is low d. when consensus is low, but distinctiveness is high ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 112

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 51. When observing other people's behaviour, Danny tends to use the covariation principle and

Amos tends to use cognitive heuristics. Which of the following statements best describes Danny and Amos? a. Danny is more influenced than Amos by consensus information. b. Danny is less careful than Amos when drawing inferences from people's behaviour. c. Danny is more likely than Amos to make judgments consistent with the base-rate fallacy. d. Danny is more likely than Amos to make personal attributions, whereas Amos is more likely than Danny to make situational attributions. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 111-113

BLM: Higher order

52. Which of the following is reflected by estimates of the probability that an event will happen

based on the ease with which one can recall previous instances of this event? a. the base-rate fallacy b. the fundamental attribution error c. the two-step attribution process d. the availability heuristic ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Remember

53. Monica uses the availability heuristic much more frequently than does Raul. Therefore,

Monica is more likely than Raul to do which of the following? a. rely heavily on situational cues that are available in the stream of behaviour she observes b. perceive and utilize the available consensus information c. make judgments that are more resistant to the false-consensus effect d. estimate the likelihood of an event in terms of the ease with which instances of it come to mind ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Higher order

54. Suppose you are asked whether there are more psychology or biology majors at your school.

Imagine that you estimate the numbers at your school based on the number of people with these majors you personally know. What are you using? a. the covariation principle b. the fundamental attribution error c. the availability heuristic d. the actor-observer effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Higher order

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 55. Carol is asked to rate her husband in terms of how helpful he is with the household chores.

Because she cannot think of a single instance of such behaviour, she gives him a very low rating. What is Carol relying on to make her judgment? a. counterfactual thinking b. the base-rate fallacy c. the availability heuristic d. the confirmation bias ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Higher order

56. Lex voted for Dean to be the class president at his university this year. He believes that

approximately 40 percent of people at his university did as well. In reality, closer to 20 percent of voters chose Dean. What concept does Lex's overestimation illustrate? a. the false-consensus effect b. the confirmation bias c. counterfactual thinking d. the covariation principle ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Remember

57. Daphne loves her social psychology class and thinks that most of the other students in the

class love it as well. Anna is in the same class and absolutely hates it. Anna is thoroughly convinced that most of the other students also dislike it. What concept do these distorted perceptions illustrate? a. the actor-observer effect b. the confirmation bias c. counterfactual thinking d. the false-consensus effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Remember

58. In which of the following situations would the false-consensus effect be strongest? a. when predicting the behaviour of out-groups b. when we bring to mind the attitudes of people we like c. when the actual percentage of others who agree is low d. when asking about behaviours rather than opinions ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 113

BLM: Remember

59. Which of the following does the belief in a just world contribute to? a. counterfactual thinking b. the over justification effect c. the false-consensus effect d. blaming the victim ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 120

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 60. What does the base-rate fallacy reflect? a. a failure to use consensus information b. a failure to use consistency information c. the actor-observer effect d. an excessive reliance on situational attributions ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Remember

61. Roger knows someone whose brother received a very lucrative contract to play professional

basketball for the National Basketball Association (NBA). With this success story in mind, Roger ignores the statistics that indicate a very low probability that anyone will make it to the NBA and overestimates his own chances of making it. What concept does this scenario best illustrate? a. the covariation principle b. the base-rate fallacy c. non-correspondent inferences d. the actor-observer effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

62. How can the availability heuristic lead to the base-rate fallacy? a. by increasing people's confidence in the percentage of others who share their

opinions b. by increasing people's confidence that an unlikely event will occur c. by increasing people's tendency to make situational attributions d. by bringing to mind events that could have happened but didn't ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

63. Whenever Elaine goes to the casino, the noise from all the winning slot machines convinces

her that she will be able to win enough money to pay off all her debts. What concept does this scenario illustrate? a. counterfactual thinking b. the base-rate fallacy c. the confirmation bias d. the false-consensus effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

64. Because his father was injured in a train crash last year, Jamal firmly believes that he is much

more likely to be involved in a train accident than to fall while in the shower. What concept does Jamal's belief reflect? a. the actor-observer effect b. the fundamental attribution error c. the base-rate fallacy d. the false-consensus effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 65. What do psychologists call the tendency to mentally undo events or to ask “What if…?”? a. the base-rate fallacy b. attribution c. counterfactual thinking d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114-115

BLM: Remember

66. Based on research on counterfactual thinking, in which of the following scenarios is Tim most

likely to feel upset about missing his plane? a. Tim’s cab was an hour late and he arrived at the airport 40 minutes after the plane departed. b. Tim’s car got a flat tire on the way to the airport and he arrived at the airport 20 minutes after the plane departed. c. Tim left the house on time but had to turn back to get his presentation and he arrived at the airport just as the plane departed. d. Tim slept in and he arrived at the airport 60 minutes after the plane departed. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

67. Esmerelda wonders if she would be happier if she had decided to move to Montreal rather

than Toronto. What concept does this example illustrate? a. the base-rate fallacy b. belief perseverance c. counterfactual thinking d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

68. How are counterfactual thinking and mood related? a. Negative mood prompts counterfactual thoughts about how much worse things

could have been. b. Positive mood prompts counterfactual thoughts about how much better things could have been. c. Counterfactual thoughts can influence how we feel about an event. d. The things we fail to do are more likely to prompt counterfactual thoughts than the things we do. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Remember

4-15

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 69. Vic finished first in the school spelling bee, Fabrizio finished second, and Lana finished third.

The first place winner gets a cash prize and the opportunity to compete at the regional spelling bee, but the others get nothing. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Fabrizio will engage in more counterfactual thinking than Lana. b. Lana will engage in more counterfactual thinking than Fabrizio. c. Fabrizio and Lana will engage in counterfactual thinking to about the same extent, but more so than Vic. d. Fabrizio and Lana will engage in counterfactual thinking to about the same extent, but less so than Vic. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Higher order

70. Based on Medvecs (1997) research, how do you predict that Olympian medalists think about

their performance? a. Bronze and silver medalists are equally likely to think, “What if… I had won the gold?” b. Silver medalists are happier with their standing than bronze medalists, because silver medalists think about how they could have done worse and received the bronze. c. Silver medalists are less happy with their standing than bronze medalists, because silver medalists think about how they could have done better and won the gold. d. Bronze medalists less happy than silver medalists because they are envious of both silver and gold medalists. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 114

BLM: Remember

71. What is the fundamental attribution error? a. the tendency to attribute one's own behaviour to personal factors rather than to the

situation b. the tendency to attribute one's own behaviour to the situation rather than to

personal factors c. the tendency to attribute another person's behaviour to personal factors rather than

to the situation d. the tendency to attribute another person's behaviour to situational factors rather

than to personal factors ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 115-116

BLM: Remember

4-16

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 72. In the Jones and Harris (1967) study, participants read essays that either supported or opposed

Cuban leader Fidel Castro. Participants were either led to believe that the essay writers had chosen their own stance to write about (choice condition), or that the writers had been forced to adopt the position put forth in the essay (forced condition). What did the results of this study demonstrate? a. It demonstrated that only in the choice condition did participants believe that the arguments in the essay were somewhat indicative of the writer's true Castro attitudes. b. It demonstrated that participants in both conditions were equally likely to believe that the essay revealed information about the writer's true Castro attitudes. c. It demonstrated that that in the forced condition, participants understood that the beliefs presented in the essay were chosen by the professor and made no attributions about the writer’s beliefs. d. It demonstrated support for the idea of the fundamental attribution error. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 111

BLM: Higher order

73. You watch a commercial of Lebron James endorsing a new basketball shoe. Although you

know that James was paid to endorse the shoes and didn't even write the endorsement himself, you still think that James really likes the new shoes. What does this example illustrate? a. the confirmation bias b. the false-consensus effect c. the actor-observer effect d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Higher order

74. You are eating at a restaurant on a first date when your date spills spaghetti all over his or her

lap. Which of the following conclusions would you be most likely to draw if you commit the fundamental attribution error? a. Your date gets nervous on first dates. b. Your date is clumsy. c. Your date is even more attractive than you originally thought. d. Your date is even less attractive than you originally thought. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Higher order

75. A politician asks her speechwriter to write a speech that supports same-sex marriage. Under

which of the following circumstances would the fundamental attribution error be most evident? a. if the speechwriter changes her attitude to support same-sex marriage b. if the speechwriter is perceived by others to support same-sex marriage c. if the speechwriter comes to believe that most other people support same-sex marriage d. if the speechwriter is perceived by others to have written the speech because of a request from her boss ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Higher order

4-17

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 76. In which of the following situations are people most likely commit the fundamental attribution

error? a. when they use the availability heuristic to make attributions b. when they are unaware of the actor's feelings about the particular behaviour c. when they attempt to explain their own behaviour d. when they are aware of the situational constraints of the behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Remember

77. We observe a person's behaviour. First, we make a quick personal attribution. Then, we adjust

for the effects of the situation. Which of the following is most likely to be caused in this two-step process? a. the averaging model of information integration b. the trait negativity bias c. the fundamental attribution error d. the primacy effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Higher order

78. How is effort distributed in the two-step model of the attribution process? a. People make an automatic first step of weighing situational and personal

attributions equally, and then an effortful second step of considering the initial inference. b. People make an automatic first step of making a personal attribution, and then an effortful second step of considering situational factors. c. People make an effortful first step of weighing situational and personal attributions equally, and then an automatic second step of making a dispositional inference. d. People make an automatic first step of making a situational attribution, and then an effortful second step of considering personal factors. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Remember

79. What did the “Quiz Show” study by Ross and colleagues find about judging the general

knowledge of the contestant and questioner? a. Observers made the fundamental attribution error, but the questioner and contestant did not. b. Participants did not make the fundamental attribution error because they knew that the quiz show roles were assigned at random. c. Observers and contestants made the fundamental attribution error to the same degree. d. Men were more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error than women. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 116

BLM: Remember

4-18

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 80. According to Gilbert's two-step model of social perception, why should distraction make the

fundamental attribution error more likely to happen? a. because it discourages personal attributions, but has little effect on situational attributions b. because it inhibits perceivers from using distinctiveness information, but allows them to take consistency information into account c. because it does not interfere with the automatic process of making personal attributions, but does interfere with the more difficult process of making adjustments for situational factors d. because it changes the interrelationship between the figure and the background in social perception ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 116

BLM: Remember

81. Which of the following supports Gilbert's two-step model of social perception? a. People tend to form careful impressions of others based on behavioural

information gathered over time. b. People often overestimate the role of situational factors in explaining the behaviour

of others. c. People are more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error when they are

distracted. d. People are more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error if they suspect the actor has ulterior motives for his or her behaviour. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 115

BLM: Remember

82. Al, Saul, Steve, and Kris are each observing Bob's behaviour during a group meeting. Which

of them should be the most likely to commit the fundamental attribution error when making inferences from Bob's behaviour? a. Al, who is not cognitively busy or distracted b. Saul, who is very motivated to make accurate inferences about Bob c. Steve, who is suspicious of Bob's motives d. Kris, who is focused more on Bob's actual behaviour than on the overall context ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 118

BLM: Higher order

83. Suppose an experiment was conducted where people were asked to watch a political debate

between two candidates, and that the debate had been previously judged by political pundits to be a tie. Half of the participants saw a videotape of the debate where the camera focused on candidate A. The other half of the participants saw a videotape of the debate where the camera focused on candidate B. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. The majority of the participants will declare the debate a tie. b. Both groups will think candidate A is victorious. c. The group that viewed candidate A will think candidate B was victorious, whereas the group that viewed candidate B will think candidate A was victorious. d. The group that viewed candidate A will think he was victorious, whereas the group that viewed candidate B will think she was victorious. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 117-118

BLM: Higher order

4-19

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 84. One explanation for the fundamental attribution error concerns Fritz Heider's observation that

people tend to attribute events to which of the following types of factors? a. salient factors b. abstract factors c. emotional factors d. factors that are external to the action ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 117

BLM: Remember

85. What does the actor-observer effect refer to? a. the tendency to explain other people's actions in dispositional terms while viewing

personal behaviour as situationally determined b. the tendency to rely on personally vivid examples of behaviour to judge the likelihood of future behaviour c. the tendency to make assumptions about the unknown personality characteristics of actors on the basis of known characteristics d. the tendency to assume that the behaviour of others will be similar to one's own behaviour ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 117

BLM: Remember

86. Goldberg (1978) found that 85 percent of participants selected more traits to describe others

than to describe themselves. What does this suggest about the fundamental attribution error? a. We make the fundamental attribution error for others, but not for ourselves. b. We make the fundamental attribution error for ourselves, but not for others. c. We make the fundamental attribution error for ourselves as well as for others. d. We make the fundamental attribution error for ourselves as well as for others, but it is much stronger when explaining our own behaviour. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 117

BLM: Higher order

87. When the saleswoman doesn't reply to his “hello,” Mario concludes that she is simply a cold

person. Yet the next day when Mario doesn't reply to the saleswoman who does greet him, he realizes that he is just having a bad day. What does this scenario illustrate? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the actor-observer effect c. counterfactual thinking d. the false-consensus effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 117

BLM: Higher order

88. If you saw a man spanking his child, you might decide that the man was an aggressive person.

The man, however, is likely to see his behaviour as a response to the child's misdeeds. What do these differing perceptions reflect? a. the fundamental attribution error b. the confirmation bias c. the trait negativity bias d. the actor-observer effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 117

BLM: Higher order 4-20

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 89. How does culture influence the likelihood of making the fundamental attribution error? a. Children reared in Western cultures are more likely to make the fundamental

attribution error than those reared in Eastern cultures. b. Children reared in Western cultures are less likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those reared in Eastern cultures. c. Adults in Western cultures are more likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those in Eastern cultures. d. Adults in Western cultures are less likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those in Eastern cultures. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 118-119

BLM: Remember

90. According to Miller’s (1984) research, how do American and Indian participants differ in the

likelihood of making personal or situational attributions? a. Among young children, Americans were more likely to make personal attributions and Indians were more likely to make situational attributions; no cultural differences emerged with adult participants. b. Among young children, Americans were more likely to make situational attributions and Indians were more likely to make personal attributions; no cultural differences emerged with adult participants. c. No cultural differences emerged with young children, but among adults, Americans were more likely to make personal attributions and Indians were more likely to make situational attributions. d. No cultural differences emerged with young children, but among adults, Americans were more likely to make situational attributions and Indians were more likely to make personal attributions. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 118

BLM: Remember

91. What did Dunning’s (2001) research find about how people perceive leadership qualities? a. People’s perceptions of what it takes to be a leader correspond to the traits people

see in themselves. b. People’s perceptions of what it takes to be a leader are not influenced by personal

motivations. c. People’s perceptions of what it takes to be a leader depend upon what is perceived as socially desirable. d. People’s perceptions of what it takes to be a leader are particularly susceptible to false-consensus effects. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 120

BLM: Remember

4-21

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 92. Manuel observes Diana giving very good answers to a series of questions as she practises for

a general knowledge contest. Under which of the following conditions is Manuel most likely to attribute Diana's success to external, unstable causes? a. if Manuel knows that Diana will be his teammate in the contest b. if Manuel knows that Diana will be his opponent in the contest c. if Manuel has had no previous experience with questions of the type that Diana answered d. if Manuel has had considerable previous experience with questions of the type that Diana answered ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 120

BLM: Higher order

93. Which of the following is one way to defend our belief in a just world when we observe a

victim suffering? a. to identify strongly with the victim b. to blame the victim for his or her fate c. to become angry at the offender d. to become very concerned with our own situation out of fear of suffering in the future ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 121

BLM: Remember

94. Maureen is sitting on a jury in a criminal trial for an alleged rapist. The rape victim takes the

stand. Maureen decides not vote “Not guilty,” believing that the victim should have known better than to be dressed suggestively, and to have walked around that area of town when the bars close. What does this kind of reasoning illustrate? a. the belief in a just world b. the false-consensus effect c. implicit personality theory d. priming ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 120

BLM: Higher order

95. In which of the following situations are perceivers most likely to judge accident victims as

more responsible for their unfortunate experiences? a. when the victim's situation is very different from that of the perceiver b. when the accident is mild rather than severe c. when the perceiver is worried about threats to the self d. when the perceiver can aid the victim in some way ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 121

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 96. Wilma hears on the evening news that the attackers of a woman who was beaten and killed

have fled the country. Frank reads in the newspaper about a child molester sentenced to life in prison. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Frank will be more likely than Wilma to have his belief in a just world threatened. b. Wilma will be more likely than Frank to blame the victim. c. Wilma will be more likely than Frank to make situational attributions for the crimes. d. Frank and Wilma will both make situational attributions for the crimes. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 121

BLM: Higher order

97. Which of the following is most consistent with the finding that moderately positive traits can

dilute the impact of extremely positive traits on impressions?? a. the role of central traits in impression formation b. the influence of priming effects in impression formation c. the averaging model of impression formation d. the summation model of impression formation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 122

BLM: Remember

98. The idea that impressions are based on a perceiver's disposition to form certain impressions

and a weighted average of the target person's characteristics is most consistent with which of the following? a. correspondent inference theory b. cognitive heuristics c. the actor-observer effect d. information integration theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 122-123

BLM: Remember

99. Dr. Ji wants to write the most effective possible letter of recommendation for her student.

What should she do? a. exclude any moderately positive comments b. include both strongly and moderately positive comments c. avoid making the fundamental attribution error about the student d. include one negative comment to show that she can be objective about the student ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 122

BLM: Higher order

100. When forming impressions of others, which traits are people most likely to select as

important? a. people see their own skills and abilities as less important to have. b. people see the skills and abilities of the significant others in their lives as most important c. people differ in the particular traits they are likely to notice. d. people see the skills and abilities of community leaders as most important. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 121

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 101. What did Forgas and Bower’s (1987) research on mood demonstrate? a. that good moods can lead to more negative perceptions of others, particularly

among individuals high in need for closure b. that good moods can lead to more negative perceptions of others, particularly when the mood is induced by an unexpected surprise c. that good moods can lead to more positive perceptions of others, particularly among individuals skilled at making correspondent inferences d. that good moods can lead to more positive perceptions of others, particularly when judging others who require more effort to be understood ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 123

BLM: Remember

102. What is priming? a. the tendency to infer unknown personality characteristics on the basis of known

dispositions b. the tendency for recently used concepts to come to mind easily and influence the

interpretation of new information c. the tendency for people to underutilize target characteristics and rely on their own

traits when forming impressions of others d. the tendency to continue to believe pre-existing impressions even after they are

discredited ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 123-124

BLM: Remember

103. The impressions we form of others depend upon many factors, including perceiver

characteristics, target characteristics, and situational factors. Which of the following situational factors is most likely to impact impression formation? a. belief perseverance b. trait negativity bias c. priming effects d. implicit personality theory ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 123

BLM: Remember

104. During her introductory psychology course this morning, Letitia learned that unconscious

desires are often revealed in the jokes people tell. As she is eating lunch with her friends after class, she cannot help but think about the unconscious desires their jokes might signify. Which of the following does Letitia’s behaviour most exemplify? a. counterfactual thinking b. the confirmation bias c. priming d. the false-consensus effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 123

BLM: Higher order

4-24

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 105. When is priming more likely to occur? a. Priming is more likely when people are aware of the exposure. b. Priming is more likely to occur as we first learn about a person.. c. Priming is more likely in our delayed responses.. d. Priming is more likely in our immediate responses. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 123

BLM: Remember

106. Research by Kenny et al. (1994) suggests that perceivers are most likely to agree in their

judgments of which of the following personality factors? a. extroversion b. conscientiousness c. locus of control d. emotional stability ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 125

BLM: Remember

107. Reena meets Rachael for the first time. Rachael is perceived as smart, funny, and sociable, but

rude. Although Reena perceived Rachael to have many good qualities, her rudeness outweighed them, and Reena forms an unfavourable impression of Rachael. Which of the following does this scenario illustrate? a. the implicit personality theory b. the trait negativity bias c. the summation model of impression formation d. the primacy effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 125

BLM: Higher order

108. What does the trait negativity bias refer to? a. the tendency for people to view others' traits more negatively than their own b. the tendency for moderately favourable traits to negatively impact the favourability

of overall impressions c. the tendency for negative impressions to become more positive over time d. the tendency for negative trait information to have a greater impact on impressions ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 124

BLM: Remember

109. Which of the following traits would produce the most extreme impression of a target? a. honesty b. cruelty c. intelligence d. impulsivity ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 124

BLM: Remember

4-25

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 110. According to implicit personality theories, which of the following would be most likely if we

know Yael is an extrovert? a. We would be less likely to form an overall positive impression of her. b. We would be more likely to form an overall positive impression of her. c. We would look for situations in which one ought to be extroverted. d. We would assume she also possesses other traits related to extroversion. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 124

BLM: Remember

111. What do psychologists call traits that suggest the presence of other traits and that exert a

powerful influence on final impressions? a. implicit traits b. central traits c. prime traits d. confirming traits ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 126

BLM: Remember

112. What is the primacy effect? a. the tendency for people's impressions of others to be influenced by their memory

of events that have just recently occurred b. the tendency for perceivers to choose to make personal versus situational attributions as a function of which type is initially available c. the tendency for people to first make situational attributions and then, only later, to insufficiently correct these attributions so as to take dispositions into account d. the tendency for people's impressions of others to be more affected by information that is learned early rather than late in a sequence ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 126

BLM: Remember

113. Imagine that you are grading the exams of two students, Ralph and Nathan. They both get

only half the questions correct. Nathan gets the first 25 questions wrong and the last 25 questions correct, whereas Ralph gets the first 25 questions correct and then misses the remaining 25. According to Asch's work on primacy effects in impression formation, how would you most likely judge Nathan and Ralph? a. You would probably think that Ralph is smarter than Nathan. b. You would probably think that Nathan is smarter than Ralph. c. You would probably think that Ralph and Nathan are equally intelligent. d. You would probably think that Ralph and Nathan are equally careless. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 126

BLM: Higher order

114. Which of the following types of people usually form the strongest first impressions? a. individuals who are high in need for closure b. individuals who have been primed c. individuals who are in a bad mood d. individuals who believe in a just world ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 127

BLM: Remember

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 115. Which of the following concepts is most consistent with the finding that people's initial

impressions of someone affect their interpretation of subsequent information about that person? a. the priming effect b. the change-of-meaning hypothesis c. the summation model of information integration d. the self-fulfilling prophecy ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 127

BLM: Higher order

116. Which of the following is one explanation for the primacy effect? a. Information obtained early is usually more important than information obtained

later. b. People tend to pay closer attention to central trait information. c. The meaning of information obtained later is often altered to fit with earlier

impressions. d. People tend to take initial impression information and compare and contrast

subsequent impression information to it. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 127

BLM: Remember

117. Asch proposed that the difference of a single trait could cause formation of an entirely

different impression. What is this hypothesis called? a. the change of meaning hypothesis b. the power of one hypothesis. c. the primacy hypothesis d. the recency hypothesis ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 127

BLM: Higher order

118. What is the confirmation bias? a. people's tendency to agree with others whose attitudes differ from theirs b. people's tendency to behave according to others' expectations c. people's tendency to reinterpret earlier information to make it more consistent with

subsequent information d. people's tendency to interpret, seek, and create information in ways that support

existing beliefs ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 127-128

BLM: Remember

119. Consider a baseball manager who clings to old strategies that are ineffective, a lawyer who

selects juries according to false stereotypes, and a political leader who does not withdraw support for a failing program. What are all three exhibiting? a. belief perseverance b. confirmatory hypothesis testing c. the fundamental attribution error d. need for closure ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 128

BLM: Higher order

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 120. Susan is a new reporter who has been asked to conduct an interview with an up-and-coming

Hollywood celebrity. In which of the following situations is Susan most likely to produce an unbiased interview? a. if she has not yet formed an impression of the person and is allowed to develop her own interview questions b. if she has already formed an impression of the person and is allowed to develop her own interview questions c. if she has not yet formed an impression of the person and is given the questions to ask in the interview d. if she has already formed an impression of the person and is given the questions to ask in the interview ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 128

BLM: Higher order

121. Craig is convinced that his accountant is a cocaine addict. To determine whether he is correct,

Craig asks his friends if the accountant sniffs a lot, uses slang when he speaks, or frequently excuses himself to use the men's room—three behaviours Craig believes are characteristic of cocaine addicts. What do Craig's methods illustrate? a. the false-consensus effect b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. confirmatory hypothesis testing d. the trait negativity bias ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 129

BLM: Higher order

122. Which of the following is the best example of a self-fulfilling prophecy? a. when poor school children are expected to perform less well than wealthy school

children b. when the whistling of someone diagnosed with schizophrenia is interpreted as

being abnormal c. when minority candidates perform more poorly in interviews because interviewers act on their expectations that these candidates are unprepared d. when people focus on the first information they have about another individual when making an impression ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 131-131

BLM: Remember

123. Vernell is being interviewed for a job. Though it isn't really true, the interviewer suspects that

Vernell is incompetent. Because the interviewer doesn't expect much from Vernell, he sits far away from her during the interview, interrupts her frequently, and seems distracted when she speaks. As a result, she becomes nervous, starts to stutter, and loses her train of thought several times. The interviewer's final impression is that Vernell is, as he suspected, incompetent. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his impression? a. the trait negativity bias b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. primacy effects d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 130-131

BLM: Higher order

4-28

Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 124. How likely are we to we make errors in impression formation? a. People frequently make errors judging others and are rarely accurate in impression

formation. b. People frequently exhibit bias in their perceptions of others. However, their biases do not necessarily result in inaccurate impression formation. c. People frequently exhibit bias in their perceptions of others. Such bias results in inaccurate impression formation. d. People infrequently exhibit bias and, as a result, rarely make errors in impression formation. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 135

BLM: Remember

125. Under which of the following circumstances are social perceivers most likely to form accurate

judgments of others? a. if they rely exclusively on cognitive heuristics b. if they make quick judgments that they don’t think too deeply about c. if they are motivated to be accurate d. if they ignore the rules of probability and logic, and trust their instincts ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 123

BLM: Remember

ESSAY 1. How are adults with baby-faced facial features perceived and treated differently than adults

with mature facial features? What are two explanations for these effects? ANS:

Research has shown that adults with baby-faced features (i.e., large round eyes, high eyebrows, round cheeks, a large forehead, smooth skin, and a rounded chin) tend to be seen as relatively warm, kind, naïve, weak, honest, and submissive, whereas adults with mature features (i.e., small eyes, low eyebrows, a small forehead, wrinkled skin, and an angular chin) tend to be seen as stronger, more dominant, and less naïve. Furthermore, baby-faced individuals are considered more favourably by judges in cases of intentional wrongdoing, and by employers interviewing candidates for a day-care teaching position. There are three explanations for these effects. First, human beings may be genetically predisposed to respond gently to infantile features so that real babies are treated carefully. Second, we may learn to associate infantile features with helplessness and expect this to be true of both infants and adults. Finally, there is the possibility of an actual link between baby-facedness and behaviour. PTS: 1

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 2. On what cues should social perceivers focus in order to try to detect if someone is trying to

deceive others? Conversely, on what cues do social perceivers typically focus, and why are these cues less revealing? ANS:

Research has shown that of the four channels of communication (i.e., words, the face, the body, and the voice), the voice is the least controllable by the deceiver, and thus is the most revealing cue. The voices of people who are lying, particularly when they are highly motivated to deceive, tend to rise in pitch, and there is an increase in speech hesitations. The next most revealing cue is the body. Fidgety movements of the hands and feet and restless shifts in posture tend to be evident in someone who is lying. Perceivers, however, typically focus on the less revealing cues. Perceivers tend to focus on the words that people say, as well as on the face. This strategy is likely to fail because people can control these channels of communication fairly well when they are lying. PTS: 1 3. Describe the availability heuristic. Explain how it can lead to the false-consensus effect. ANS:

The availability heuristic is an information processing “rule-of-thumb” that people often use when making judgments. Specifically, it is the tendency for people to estimate the likelihood of an event by how easily instances of it come to mind. It can give rise to the false-consensus effect, which is the tendency for people to overestimate the extent to which others share their opinions, attributes, and behaviours. Because people often associate with others who are like them in important ways, instances of other people who share their opinions, attributes, and behaviours should come to mind easily. And because these instances come to mind easily, people should estimate that there is a very strong likelihood that people in general share their opinions, attributes, and behaviours. PTS: 1 4. Explain Gilbert and Malone's two-step process of making attributions, and identify when in

this process the fundamental attribution error occurs. ANS:

According to Gilbert and Malone, we first identify a behaviour and then make the initial assumption that it is caused by the actor's disposition. We then seek more information about the situational influences on the actor's behaviour, and adjust our attribution accordingly. Naturally, the latter step is the more difficult and effortful one. The fundamental attribution error (the tendency to over attribute behaviour to one's disposition) occurs when we do not adjust adequately. This may occur because we do not have the right amount of cognitive resources to complete the second step properly. When people have the time and motivation to make accurate judgments, they are more likely to take account of situational constraints, and thus less likely to make the fundamental attribution error. PTS: 1

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Chapter 4 Perceiving Persons 5. Describe the self-fulfilling prophecy. What factors can help prevent a self-fulfilling prophecy

from occurring? ANS:

The self-fulfilling prophecy is the process by which a perceiver's expectations about a person can eventually lead that person to behave in ways that confirm those expectations. Self-fulfilling prophecies are less likely to occur if the perceiver is highly motivated to seek the truth and form an accurate assessment of the target, or if the perceiver is primarily motivated to make a good impression and be liked. If targets are aware of the perceiver's expectations about them, they may be able and motivated to disconfirm these expectations and thus avoid the self-fulfilling prophecy. Also, if the perceiver's expectations clash with the target's self-concept, the target's behaviour may be less likely to be influenced by the expectations. PTS: 1

4-31

Chapter 5: Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination are problematic enough to have a significant impact

on which of the following societies or cultures? a. North American societies b. collectivistic cultures c. individualistic cultures d. most, if not all, societies ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 150

BLM: Remember

2. In social psychological terms, which of the following features would a set of people possess if

they are considered a group? a. a minimum of five individuals b. membership in the same social category c. being in the same place during a period of time d. a common fate ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 140

BLM: Remember

3. Which of the following is an example of discrimination? a. believing that baby-faced men are harmless b. believing that girls should wear pink and boys should wear blue c. voting for a male candidate in your riding d. hiring an attractive candidate rather than an ordinary-looking one with the same

credentials ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

4. Bridgette thinks short people have personality complexes to overcompensate for their height.

What is Bridgette exhibiting? a. discrimination b. stereotyping c. prejudice d. relative deprivation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

5. Barbara refuses to let short people join her book club. What is Barbara exhibiting? a. discrimination b. stereotyping c. prejudice. d. relative deprivation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

5-1

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 6. Jessica receives many jobs applications; however, she only tends to interview people who

have a personal recommendation from someone she knows. How would you characterize Jessica’s hiring practices? a. Her practices are prejudiced. b. Her practices cause certain groups to be advantaged. c. Her practices are discriminatory. d. Her practices lead to stereotypes for certain groups. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Remember

7. Benny thinks lawyers are dishonest, smart, and hardworking. What does his attitude

exemplify? a. prejudice b. discrimination c. social categorization d. a stereotype ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

8. Bonnie dislikes all professors. What does her attitude exemplify? a. prejudice b. discrimination c. social categorization d. a stereotype ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

9. What do psychologists call negative feelings directed at others strictly because of their

membership in a particular social category? a. discrimination b. prejudice c. the out-group homogeneity effect d. the in-group homogeneity effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Remember

10. How do stereotypes differ from prejudice and discrimination? a. Stereotypes concern positive feelings about a social group. b. Stereotypes concern negative feelings about a social group. c. Stereotypes concern positive or negative beliefs about a social group. d. Stereotypes concern negative behaviour directed at members of a social group. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Remember

11. How can you characterize the likelihood of stereotypes, prejudice, and discrimination? a. Most individuals hold prejudices. b. Most individuals show discrimination. c. Prejudiced individuals typically act in a discriminatory way. d. Most individuals hold stereotypes. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order 5-2

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 12. From a sociocultural perspective, what do stereotypes derive from? a. the desire to justify existing social inequalities between groups b. basic cognitive processing c. perceived differences between groups d. past interactions between groups ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 141

BLM: Higher order

13. According to your textbook, why is social categorization advantageous? a. because it leads to more accurate social perception b. because it encourages us to take longer to make judgments about others c. because it frees up cognitive resources d. because it is generally based on realistic assumptions ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 157

BLM: Remember

14. What does social categorization lead people to do? a. perceive group members more accurately b. perceive others as individuals rather than group members c. overestimate differences between groups d. overestimate differences within groups ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 157

BLM: Remember

15. Which of the following results from social categorization processes? a. underestimation of differences between groups b. underestimation of differences within groups c. increased confidence that differences between groups are illusory d. increased tendency to notice behaviours inconsistent with group stereotype ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 159-160

BLM: Higher order

16. What do we call the groups to which the self belongs? a. ingroups b. self-categories c. implicit categories d. self-groups ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 142

BLM: Remember

17. What do we call the groups to which the self does NOT belong? a. social groups b. implicit categories c. explicit categories d. outgroups ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 142

BLM: Remember

5-3

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 18. What do psychologists call the tendency to perceive members of an outgroup as less variable,

or more similar to one another, than members of the ingroup? a. the minimal group effect b. the outgroup homogeneity effect c. the ingroup homogeneity effect d. the contrast effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 158

BLM: Remember

19. Buffy is a member of a sorority. She considers the stereotypes about her sorority to be gross

overgeneralizations, but claims that the stereotypes about other sororities seem to have a kernel of truth. What concept does Buffy's thinking illustrate? a. the outgroup homogeneity effect b. realistic conflict c. reverse discrimination d. social role theory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 158

BLM: Higher order

20. Why do ingroup members often display the outgroup homogeneity effect? a. because ingroups and outgroups must compete for shared resources b. because they lack familiarity with members of the outgroup c. because they lack sufficient information to judge the variability of their own group d. because they usually encounter the most typical members of the outgroup ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 158

BLM: Remember

21. According to the outgroup homogeneity effect, why do ingroup members perceive outgroup

members as similar? a. Ingroup members have little information concerning outgroup members. b. Ingroup members are likely to have frequent contact with outgroup members. c. Ingroup members accurately perceive the lack of diversity within the outgroup. d. Ingroup members interact with stereotypical individuals from the outgroup. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 158

BLM: Remember

22. Arnold is not a cheerleader and doesn't know any cheerleaders personally, but when he sees

them at the football games, they are always smiling. How does Arnold most likely perceive cheerleaders? a. Arnold is likely to think about specific cheerleaders rather than the group stereotype. b. Arnold is likely to notice the ways in which each cheerleader is unique. c. Arnold is likely to be able to distinguish cheerleaders from one another only if they are smiling. d. Arnold is likely to think that all cheerleaders are happy. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 158

BLM: Higher order

5-4

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 23. In a study of modern racism, mock juries heard evidence about either a white or a black

defendant. When were juries most likely to demonstrate racism? a. when there was clear evidence that the white defendant was guilty b. when there was clear evidence that the black defendant was guilty c. when the evidence against a defendant was ambiguous d. when the evidence against a defendant was unambiguous ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 133

BLM: Higher order

24. What is the impact of implicit racism on society? a. Implicit racism is so rare that it has little effect on society. b. Implicit racism effects are so slight and difficult to detect that they have no

significant effects on people’s real behaviour. c. Though the effects of implicit racism are real, they have little effect on society. d. The small effects of implicit racism are demonstrated so commonly across people

that the impact on society is great. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 143

BLM: Higher order

25. Research has shown that certain groups perceive a high level of hostility in the faces of

out-group members. Which of the following statements best summarizes these research findings? a. Most white research participants perceive greater hostility in black faces. b. White research participants with high implicit racism scores perceive greater hostility in black faces. c. Black research participants with high implicit racism perceive greater hostility in white faces. d. Most black research participants perceive greater hostility in white faces. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 144

BLM: Remember

26. Patricia has scored high on a measure of implicit racism. She is in an experiment where she

and her black partner will have a discussion. How is Patricia most likely to respond? a. She will sit further away from her partner if the discussion is racially sensitive. b. She will avoid sitting near her partner even if the discussion is not racially sensitive. c. She will have a lowered stress response. d. She will appear calm. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 146

BLM: Higher order

5-5

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 27. Lou sees women as being especially good at things like raising children and keeping a family

together. But he thinks they are less capable than men in making difficult decisions, and believes that women need men’s protection. What characteristic does Lou’s behaviour illustrate? a. hostile sexism b. benevolent sexism c. ambivalent sexism d. a common stereotype, not sexism ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 148

BLM: Higher order

28. Which of the following is a major difference between gender stereotypes and other group

stereotypes? a. Other group stereotypes have few exceptions, whereas gender stereotypes have many exceptions. b. Gender stereotypes have few exceptions, whereas other group stereotypes have many exceptions. c. Other group stereotypes are prescriptive, whereas gender stereotypes are descriptive. d. Gender stereotypes are prescriptive, whereas other stereotypes are descriptive. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 149

BLM: Remember

29. Though societies differ in their attitudes towards women, there is still a great deal of

consistency in the percentage of women in many occupations. Which of the following is the best explanation of this consistency? a. evolutionary differences b. sex roles c. sexist hiring practices d. discriminatory approaches to education ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 149

BLM: Higher order

30. Sheldon is looking for a daycare centre for his son. He interviewed two centres and has

decided to go to the daycare with all female workers because he believes that women are more caring and nurturing for children. What concept do Sheldon’s beliefs illustrate? a. hostile sexism b. benevolent sexism c. ingroup bias d. outgroup bias ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 148

BLM: Remember

5-6

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 31. What does research show about the accuracy of stereotypes? a. Findings are mixed because some stereotypes seem to be based on completely

inaccurate information whereas others seem to have a kernel of truth. b. Findings clearly indicate that stereotypes are distortions and not accurate in the least. c. Findings clearly indicate that stereotypes are exaggerations, but almost always based on a kernel of truth. d. Findings clearly indicate that that entity stereotypes are more accurate than incremental stereotypes. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 163

BLM: Higher order

32. Which of the following mechanisms allows an individual to maintain a stereotype even in the

face of strongly contradictory evidence? a. an illusory correlation b. a jigsaw classroom c. subtyping d. self-fulfilling prophecies ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Remember

33. Gunner thinks fashion models eat like birds. He overestimates the association between being a

fashion model and not eating because models are very distinctive from the normal population and not eating is deviant behaviour. What does Gunner’s thinking demonstrate? a. a contrast effect b. the outgroup homogeneity effect c. an illusory correlation d. social role theory ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 160

BLM: Higher order

34. Participants in an experiment learn about eight positive and four negative behaviours

performed by members of group A. They also learn about four positive and two negative behaviours performed by members of group B. Which pattern of results is most likely? a. Group B will be liked more, because they performed the fewest number of negative behaviours. b. Group A and B will be liked equally well, because the ratio of positive to negative behaviours is the same. c. Group A will be liked less because of a perceived link between the distinctive events of membership in the larger group and performing more negative behaviours. d. Group B will be liked less because of a perceived link between the distinctive events of membership in the smaller group and performing fewer negative behaviours. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 160

BLM: Higher order

5-7

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 35. Liston believes that psychology professors are absent-minded. Given the research on illusory

correlations, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Liston will notice when his psychology professor remembers students' names. b. Liston will overestimate how often his psychology professor forgets to bring materials to class. c. Liston will underestimate the ways in which his psychology professor is like other psychology professors. d. Liston will make situational attributions for the stereotype-consistent behaviour of his psychology professor. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 160

BLM: Higher order

36. Which of the following is most likely to contribute to the view that members of a stereotyped

group behave in ways consistent with group stereotypes? a. subtyping b. illusory correlations c. stereotype threat d. ingroup favouritism ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 160

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37. When is subtyping most likely to be used? a. when one is confronted with a group member who is dramatically different from

the group b. when one is confronted with a group member who causes observers to bring to

mind others who confirm the stereotype c. when one is confronted with a group member who is perceived to conform to the

stereotype in a few situations d. when one is confronted with a group member who deviates from the stereotype on

only a few dimensions ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

38. Why is the fundamental attribution error likely to promote stereotypes? a. because observers see the stereotype-consistent behaviour of others as

dispositional b. because it is so prevalent that it is unaffected by personal motivations c. because the more a stereotype is violated, the more observers cling to that

stereotype d. because we often perceive members of outgroups as having ulterior motives ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

5-8

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 39. Bradley notices that all of the nurses he has ever seen are women. Because nurses help people,

he assumes that they are gentle and caring by nature so he treats them warmly and with respect. He finds that his nurses do treat him in a very caring and gentle manner. What concept does this situation demonstrate? a. subtyping b. realistic group conflict theory c. the fundamental attribution error d. a self-fulfilling prophecy ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 162

BLM: Higher order

40. In explaining the behaviour of outgroup members, what are people most likely to do? a. make situational attributions for negative behaviours, but personal attributions for

positive behaviours b. make situational attributions for positive behaviours, but personal attributions for negative behaviours c. make situational attributions for both positive and negative behaviours d. make personal attributions for both positive and negative behaviours ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 160

BLM: Higher order

41. Dick thinks Australians are unhealthy. He meets an Australian who doesn't smoke. He makes

an exception, categorizing the individual as a “healthy Australian.” What does Dick’s behaviour illustrate? a. the influence of subtyping on stereotype perpetuation b. the influence of social identity on stereotyping c. the influence of intergroup contact on stereotype exceptions d. the influence of social categorization on stereotype formation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

42. Which of the following best explains the motivation to form subtypes for individuals who do

NOT conform to a group stereotype? a. By holding subtypes it is easier to change the content of the stereotype. b. By holding subtypes it protects the stereotype from change. c. By holding subtypes it prevents the stereotype from being applied to other group members. d. By holding subtypes the stereotypes has the greatest impact on atypical group members. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

5-9

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 43. You think all professors are uncoordinated, but then you see your psychology professor make

a diving catch in an intramural softball game. You maintain your original stereotype of professors as uncoordinated by deciding that this one individual is an exception to the rule because he is a “young professor.” What concept does your thinking illustrate? a. social identity theory b. stereotype distortion c. subtyping d. priming ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

44. When do people perceive others as consistent with their stereotypes? a. when the target's behaviour is very different from the perceiver's expectations b. when the perceiver's ability to process information is compromised c. when the behaviour of the target is extreme d. when the target belongs to a relatively small ingroup ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 160

BLM: Higher order

45. What did Allport and Postman's (1947) study using a photograph of a subway car

demonstrate? a. how racial stereotypes evolve over generations b. how racial stereotypes facilitate memory accuracy and conserve cognitive energy c. how racial stereotypes can be controlled d. how racial stereotypes distort social perception and memory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 162

BLM: Remember

46. Suppose a study of males was conducted in which half of the participants were subliminally

exposed to pictures of females coupled with gender-stereotypical words such as “passive” and “submissive.” Each of the males then worked with a female on a problem-solving task. Results revealed that the men who were subliminally primed asserted more agency and control in the problem solving task than those who had not been primed. In turn, the females who worked with them responded in a more passive manner. What phenomenon best explains these findings? a. illusory correlation b. subtyping c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

47. How do self-fulfilling prophecies perpetuate stereotypes? a. by increasing the likelihood that perceivers create subtypes b. by eliciting stereotype-confirming behaviour from targets c. by threatening individual self-esteem d. by reducing ingroup favouritism ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

5-10

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 48. A government sees a particular societal group as being innately unintelligent, and so it devotes

very little effort or money to educating people within that group. As a result, members of the group tend to perform more poorly on standardized intelligence tests. What phenomenon does this example illustrate? a. subtyping b. realistic group conflict theory c. social identity theory d. a self-fulfilling prophecy ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

49. Novelist Alice Walker said, “Not everybody's life is what they make it. Some people's life is

what other people make it.” What social psychological construct does this quotation capture? a. the self-fulfilling prophecy b. the outgroup homogeneity effect c. social identity theory d. relative deprivation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 161

BLM: Higher order

50. How are our perceptions biased by stereotypes? a. Our perceptions are biased whether or not we agree with the stereotype. b. Our perceptions are biased for outgroup members, but not for ingroup members c. Our perceptions are not biased if we are aware that the stereotype was activated. d. Our perceptions are biased primarily when the stereotype was unconsciously

activated ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 169

BLM: Remember

51. Which of the following was an argument of Devine's (1989) early work on the automatic

activation of stereotypes? a. Exposure to a member of a stereotyped group is sufficient to activate the stereotype. b. Stereotype activation is automatic, but stereotypes cannot influence judgments without conscious intent. c. Activation of the stereotype will only occur for highly prejudiced individuals. d. Automatic stereotype activation leads to prejudice in all that hold stereotypes. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Remember

5-11

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 52. Which group is most affected by automatic stereotype activation? a. Stereotype activation influences subsequent judgments for both high- and

low-prejudice individuals. b. Stereotype activation influences subsequent judgments more for high- than low-prejudice individuals. c. Stereotype activation influences subsequent judgements more for low- than high-prejudice individuals. d. Stereotype activation influences subsequent judgments when people are aware that the stereotype has been activated. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Higher order

53. In which of the following situations are judgments least likely to be influenced by automatic

stereotype activation? a. A highly prejudiced person is exposed to the label “used car salesperson.” b. A person low in prejudice is exposed to the label “used car salesperson.” c. A person whose self-esteem is threatened is briefly shown a picture of a used car salesperson. d. A highly prejudiced person is exposed to information consistent with the “used car salesperson” stereotype. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Remember

54. In the research of Sinclair and Kunda (1999) in which white participants believed they were

praised by a black doctor, how did the participants react? a. They suppressed their stereotypes. b. They activated their stereotypes. c. They subtyped their stereotypes. d. They contrasted their stereotypes. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 172

BLM: Remember

55. In the research of Sinclair and Kunda (1999) in which white participants believed they were

criticized by a black doctor, how did the participants react? a. They suppressed their stereotypes. b. They activated their stereotypes. c. They subtyped their stereotypes. d. They contrasted their stereotypes. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 172

BLM: Remember

5-12

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 56. How does age influence the ability to suppress stereotypes? a. Younger and older individuals are equally successful at suppressing stereotypes. b. Younger individuals have less success with stereotype suppression than older

individuals. c. Older individuals have less success with stereotype suppression than younger

individuals. d. Middle-aged individuals have more success with stereotype suppression than both

younger and older individuals ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 172

BLM: Remember

57. Which of the following factors makes automatic activation of stereotypes more likely? a. exposure to neutral information about a group or target b. a personal motivation to avoid prejudice c. being too cognitively busy to notice category membership of a target d. a recent previous activation of the stereotype ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Remember

58. According to your textbook, how can people best counter the potentially negative effects of

stereotype activation? a. by taking the perspective of a member of the stereotyped group b. by trying hard not to think about the stereotype c. by thinking about the stereotyped group as a whole d. by thinking about recent instances in which they made fair judgments ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Remember

59. According to research on the cognitive functioning of “morning people” vs. “night people,”

what does the influence of stereotypes depend on? a. the personal information a perceiver has about a target b. the motivation of the perceiver c. the age of the perceiver d. the cognitive resources available to the perceiver ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 172

BLM: Remember

60. Donna has just met Arie, an Israeli. In which of the following cases will her stereotype of

Israelis have the most influence on the impression she forms of Arie? a. if Donna is tired and has personal information about Arie b. if Donna is drunk and has no personal information about Arie c. if Donna is pressured for time and has personal information about Arie d. if Donna is mentally alert and has no personal information about Arie ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 172

BLM: Remember

5-13

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 61. Now that Betty knows she has to work with Harvey on a project in their education class,

which of the following is most likely to happen? a. She will see him in a stereotypic manner. b. She will not enjoy her education class. c. She will not display contrast effects in evaluating him. d. She will pay attention to his personal characteristics. ANS: D

LO:

PTS: 1

REF: 181

BLM: Remember

62. Under which of the following circumstances are people are most likely to judge others on an

individual basis? a. if they try to make the judgment when they are cognitively busy b. if they have lots of personal information on which to base their judgment c. if they are high in need for closure d. if they try to make the judgment while they are under the influence of alcohol ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 173

BLM: Remember

63. Which of the following factors tends to reduce people’s reliance on stereotypes? a. having rich background information about a target b. being motivated to form a quick impression c. having little to no personal interactions with the target d. being in a very good or very bad mood ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 170

BLM: Remember

64. Raymond Silverfox and Robert Stone died in police custody. Psychologists have investigated

the role that racial stereotypes and prejudice have on police behaviour. How does a suspect’s race affect police behaviour? a. Racial prejudice does not influence police officers who have received training to look past a suspect's skin colour. b. Racial prejudice can influence the thought processes of police officers, but very rarely their actual behaviour. c. High levels of implicit stereotypes will lead police to react differently to a black suspect. d. Mere awareness of racial stereotypes is enough to influence police behaviour, even if the officers do not endorse these stereotypes. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 143

BLM: Higher order

5-14

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 65. Which of the following has been most successful in correlating to the influence of a target’s

race on a person’s behavioural reaction to that target? a. the Implicit Attitude test b. video game simulations c. virtual reality simulators d. the Modern Racism test ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 144

BLM: Higher order

66. Suppose that the students at rival universities interact only when their athletic teams compete

against one another. According to Sherif's Robbers Cave experiment, what will the students be most likely to do? a. limit their competition to the playing field and behave cooperatively off the field b. change their negative stereotypes of one another because of their interaction c. develop positive views of one another and behave in a friendly manner d. develop negative views of one another and behave in a hostile manner ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Higher order

67. A junior high coach decides to separate his basketball players into an A team and a B team.

These two teams regularly play each other and compete for rewards such as time at the drinking fountain and use of the new basketballs. According to the Robbers Cave experiment, what is the most likely result of the coach's new arrangement? a. It will promote team unity. b. It will lead to animosity between the A team and the B team. c. It will encourage the development of leadership skills. d. It will lead to less vigorous practices. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Higher order

68. What did the Robbers Cave experiment demonstrate? a. Ingroup favouritism is inevitable. b. Group categorization is automatic. c. Prejudice is a function of social class. d. Prejudice can result from intergroup competition. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Remember

69. The Jets and the Bears are two groups of local youths who regularly—and

belligerently—compete against each other. According to the Robbers Cave experiment, which of the following would be the best way to heal the rift between these groups? a. encourage the adult leaders to say positive things about the other group b. encourage them to “air” their differences c. have them work together on a goal that requires cooperative efforts d. have each group note the good qualities of the other group ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Higher order

5-15

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 70. According to Sherif's Robbers Cave experiment, how can prejudice and intergroup hostility be

reduced? a. through intense negotiation b. through controlled processing c. through informal communication d. through cooperative work on superordinate goals ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Remember

71. Two children of different races have been assigned the same bunk house when they arrive at

camp. Each child has prejudice toward the race of the other child. Dana is a camp counsellor who has been assigned the task of getting these two kids to like each other. Based on the results of the Robbers Cave experiment, which of the following strategies should Dana adopt? a. Have the children talk with one another for awhile. b. Have the children sit next to each other at meals. c. Have the children go to the lake and bring a canoe back to camp. d. Have a talk with each of them about how nice the other child is. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Higher order

72. The results of the Robbers Cave experiment can be extrapolated to suggest that prejudice

between groups can be increased under which of the following conditions? a. when the groups are placed in a situation where they compete against one another b. when the groups are placed in a situation where appropriate ways of interacting are unclear c. when the groups are placed in a situation where the groups communicate with one another d. when the groups are placed in a situation where groups must jointly carry out multiple tasks ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Remember

73. Which of the following best exemplifies realistic conflict theory? a. the conflict over land ownership between the Arabs and Israelis in the Middle East b. the conflict between the Protestants and the Catholics in Ireland due to religious

differences c. the conflict between liberals and conservatives regarding political ideology d. the conflict between those who are “pro-choice” and those who are “pro-life” on

the issue of abortion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 152

BLM: Higher order

5-16

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 74. What does realistic conflict theory propose? a. Conflict between groups is a function of interpersonal hostility. b. Intergroup hostility arises from competition among groups for scarce but valued

resources. c. Intergroup conflict is largely a function of how realistically groups view one

another. d. Conflict between groups results in a less realistic view of the outgroup. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 152

BLM: Remember

75. Some people dislike immigrants because they fear that the immigrants will take jobs away

from them. Which theory best explains these feelings? a. social role theory b. social identity theory c. social categorization theory d. realistic conflict theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 152

BLM: Higher order

76. Suppose that the student groups at the school union must compete with each other for a

limited supply of offices and money to support their projects. Over time, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. These groups will view each other in negative terms. b. These groups will work together in an effort to acquire more resources. c. These groups will ignore each other and work for their own causes. d. These groups will develop a negative attitude about the school union. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 151

BLM: Higher order

77. The cooks at Burger Barn dislike the counter workers because the cooks think the counter

workers get better health-care options. What concept do the cooks' perceptions illustrate? a. relative deprivation b. subtyping c. stereotype threat d. superordinate goals ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 152

BLM: Higher order

78. Pedro is not satisfied with his $10 million a year salary because he feels it is below what other

major league pitchers earn. What concept does Pedro's dissatisfaction illustrate? a. stereotype threat b. ingroup favouritism c. confirmation bias d. relative deprivation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 152

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5-17

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 79. Prejudice is not limited to individuals who feel directly threatened by outgroups. From which

of the following perspectives is this fact is most difficult to explain? a. social role theory b. social identity theory c. social categorization theory d. realistic conflict theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 152

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80. How does competition influence prejudice? a. Imagined competition can reduce prejudice just as much as actual competition. b. The perception that one is not competing as well as other ingroup members is

sufficient to produce prejudice toward the outgroup. c. Prejudice can result from competitive threat to the ingroup as well as to the

individual. d. Competition increases prejudice in children but not adults. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 156

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81. What are minimal groups? a. groups consisting of only two people b. groups that occupy low-status positions in society c. groups based on trivial, often arbitrary, distinctions d. groups with a long history of competition and antagonism ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 152

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82. Which of the following has been demonstrated through the use of minimal groups? a. Competition for limited resources is necessary for ingroup favouritism. b. Ingroup favouritism will not occur in trivial laboratory groups. c. Ingroup cohesion is necessary to produce ingroup favouritism. d. Mere categorization is sufficient to produce ingroup favouritism. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 152

BLM: Remember

83. Many U.S. citizens are quick to defend U.S. foreign policy from criticism by citizens of other

countries because they take great pride in being American. Which of the following is demonstrated by these feelings? a. social role theory b. gender-role orientation c. illusory correlations d. social identity theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 152

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5-18

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 84. According to social identity theory, why do people display ingroup favouritism? a. They use it as a way of displacing negative feelings toward the outgroup. b. They use it as a means of increasing self-esteem. c. They use it because they expect to be treated unfairly by outgroup members. d. They use it because intergroup competition demands it. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 153

BLM: Remember

85. According to research by Perdue et al. (1990), what do ingroup pronouns (such as we, us, and

ours) tend to trigger? a. relative deprivation b. activation of negative stereotypes c. positive emotions d. confirmation biases ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 152-153

BLM: Remember

86. Which of the following is predicted by social identity theory? a. Self-esteem is derived from negative outgroup associations. b. Threats to self-esteem tend to decrease ingroup favouritism. c. Expressions of ingroup favouritism tend to increase self-esteem. d. Self-esteem is decreased to the extent that the ingroup is perceived as better than

the outgroup. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 153

BLM: Remember

87. Zena just learned that she did not get into the university of her choice. She comes upon Alec,

a resident of a nearby neighbourhood that most outsiders find distasteful. According to social identity theory, which of the following is Zena most likely to do? a. Zena will make a negative judgment about Alec to increase her self-esteem. b. Zena will make a positive judgment about Alec to increase her self-esteem. c. Zena will make a negative judgment about Alec but it will later decrease her self-esteem. d. Zena will make a positive judgment about Alec but it will later decrease her self-esteem. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 154

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88. Which of the following individuals is most likely to exhibit ingroup favouritism and outgroup

derogation? a. a member of a majority who strongly identifies with the group b. a member of a minority who strongly identifies with the group c. a member of a majority who does not strongly identify with the group d. a member of a minority who does not strongly identify with the group ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 153

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5-19

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 89. Hiral is pledging a sorority. In which of the following cases is she most likely to display

prejudice against members of other sororities? a. if she has not yet formed a strong identification with her sorority b. if she is generally low in prejudice c. if she is in the presence of the sorority president d. if she is from a collectivist culture ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 155

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90. Compared to larger groups and majority groups, what are groups that are small or in the

minority more likely to experience? a. more intense ingroup loyalty and outgroup prejudice b. more intense ingroup loyalty and less intense outgroup prejudice c. less intense ingroup loyalty and more intense outgroup prejudice d. less intense ingroup loyalty and outgroup prejudice ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 156

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91. Researchers have investigated ingroup and outgroup biases cross-culturally. How do people

from collectivist and individualistic cultures differ in these biases? a. Collectivist cultures draw stronger distinctions between ingroup and outgroup members. b. Individualistic cultures draw stronger distinctions between ingroup and outgroup members. c. Collectivist cultures show more intense boosting of the ingroup for self-esteem reasons. d. Individualistic cultures show less intense boosting of the ingroup for self-esteem reasons. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 156

BLM: Remember

92. Researchers have investigated ingroup and outgroup biases cross-culturally. How do people

from collectivist and individualistic cultures differ in these biases? a. Collectivist cultures show less overt ingroup bias. b. Individualistic cultures show less overt ingroup bias. c. Collectivist cultures show greater negative outgroup bias. d. Individualistic cultures show greater negative outgroup bias. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 156

BLM: Remember

93. How do members of low-status groups manage their self-esteem? a. They tend to have lower self-esteem than those in high-status groups. b. They are more likely than those in high-status groups to distance themselves from

negative associations. c. They are more likely than those in high-status groups to derive self-esteem from

group membership. d. They tend to invest their self-esteem in those domains in which the group has high

status. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 156

BLM: Remember 5-20

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 94. Eddie, a teacher who is very proud of his profession, just learned that Hugh, a fellow teacher,

was arrested for possession of narcotics. Which of the following is Eddie most likely to do? a. try to make excuses for Hugh's behaviour because they are part of the same ingroup b. judge Hugh less harshly than an outgroup member in the same situation c. judge Hugh more harshly than an outgroup member in the same situation d. judge Hugh just as harshly as an outgroup member in the same situation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 150

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95. If an individual has a strong social dominance orientation, which of the following is he or she

most likely to do? a. prefer to live in an egalitarian society b. strongly identify with his or her ingroup c. want his or her ingroup to be of higher status than other groups d. endorse government policies that help oppressed outgroups ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 156

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96. Which of the following demonstrates the influence of gender stereotypes? a. Parents see their newborn sons as more vulnerable to infection than their newborn

daughters. b. Parents underestimate the crawling ability of their infant boys and overestimate

that of their infant girls. c. When a baby boy cries in response to a toy, he is thought to be angry; when a baby

girl exhibits the same response, she is thought to be afraid. d. Newborn boys tend to be taller and weigh more than newborn girls. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 165

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97. Two nine-month-old babies (one boy and one girl) are shown a jack-in-the-box. When the toy

springs up, they both cry. In this situation, how are people most likely to perceive the boy baby? a. as startled b. as angry c. as sad d. as frightened ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 165

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5-21

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 98. Consider the common belief that men are much more aggressive than women. With regard to

the accuracy of gender stereotypes, which of the following best describes such a belief? a. It is false. The difference in aggression between men and women is only a belief. It does not have any relation to reality. b. It has a kernel of truth, though it overgeneralizes and exaggerates the difference in aggression between men and women. c. It is more accurate than the belief that men and women differ in competitiveness. d. It accurately reflects differences between men and women in aggression. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 163

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99. Gender stereotypes are prescriptive. What does this mean? a. Gender stereotypes identify what men and women should be like. b. Gender stereotypes can be used to predict when men and women are likely to

behave in stereotype-consistent ways. c. Gender stereotypes are more accurate than other kinds of stereotypes. d. Gender stereotypes are less influenced by cultural standards than other stereotypes. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 147

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100. How have media portrayal of the sexes been shown to effect behaviour? a. Portrayal of women in counter-stereotypical ads and in stereotypical ads leads to

similar self-perceptions in female viewers. b. Portrayal of gender stereotypes have more effect on female viewers who are gender schematic than male viewers who are gender schematic. c. The behaviour a female displays toward a woman can be influenced by whether she has just seen an ad where a woman is portrayed as submissive. d. The behaviour a male displays toward a woman can be influenced by whether he has just seen an ad where a woman is portrayed as a sex object. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 166-167

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101. Karen is watching television with her housemates when a lingerie commercial comes on,

featuring ultra-thin models in various stages of undress. Under which of the following circumstances is Karen most likely to feel best about her own body image? a. if one of her housemates comments about the models’ thinness as unrealistic b. if she tries to suppress the images on the screen c. if all of the housemates in the room with her are men d. if she is only paying slight attention to the commercial ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 167

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102. According to social role theory, what led to gender differences in social behaviour? a. the unequal gender-based division of labour b. unrealistic expectations about how men and women should behave c. biologically based differences in social dominance d. the forces of natural selection ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 166

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5-22

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 103. According to social role theory, gender differences that arise from social roles provide a

continuing basis for which of the following? a. overt sexism b. the glass ceiling c. gender pay inequity d. gender stereotypes ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 166

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104. Both Jorge and Joycelin are applying for two residencies after medical school: orthopedic

surgery (a traditionally male-dominated residency) and pediatrics (a traditionally female-dominated residency). If Jorge and Joycelin have similar academic records, which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Jorge will get more interviews for both types of residencies. b. Joycelin will get more interviews for both types of residencies. c. Jorge will get more orthopedic surgery interviews and Joycelin will get more pediatric interviews. d. Joycelin will get more orthopedic surgery interviews and Jorge will get more pediatric interviews. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 167

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105. What do psychologists call negative feelings directed at women's abilities, value, and their

ability to challenge the power of men? a. ambivalent sexism b. modern sexism c. benevolent sexism d. hostile sexism ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 148

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106. In Glick and Fiske’s (2001) study of sexism in 19 different countries, what did they discover

about countries with the greatest degree of political and economic inequality? a. They exhibited the highest levels of both hostile and benevolent sexism. b. They exhibited the lowest levels of both hostile and benevolent sexism. c. They exhibited high levels of hostile sexism but low levels of benevolent sexism. d. They exhibited low levels of hostile sexism but high levels of benevolent sexism. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 148

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107. How does modern racism differ from what has been termed “old-fashioned” racism? a. Modern racism is more prevalent than “old-fashioned” racism. b. Modern racism is less obvious than “old-fashioned” racism. c. Modern racism is less destructive than “old-fashioned” racism. d. Modern racism is more likely to be revealed later in life than “old-fashioned”

racism. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 143

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5-23

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 108. Jane is from race X and Sara is from race Y. Which of the following scenarios best

demonstrates modern racism? a. Jane yells racial slurs and spits on Sara, who is a stranger. b. Jane and Sara work together. Jane thinks Sara is not doing her share of the work. For this, Jane gives Sara a more negative evaluation than is deserved. c. Jane and Sara are on the same athletic team. The social norm of the team is for everyone to be friendly and personable to one another. Jane never talks to Sara. d. Jane is interviewing Sara as a pianist for her club. Jane is looking for a piano player who will play jazz. Sara plays classical music. Jane doesn't hire Sara for the job. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 144

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109. What do psychologists call a form of prejudice that surfaces in subtle ways when it is safe,

socially acceptable, and easy to rationalize? a. modern racism b. relative deprivation c. relative racism d. reverse discrimination ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 144

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110. Given recent research findings, in which of the following cases would a social psychologist be

least likely to accurately detect modern racism? a. if he or she used the Modern Racism Scale b. if he or she used the Implicit Association Test c. if he or she used the bogus pipeline technique d. if he or she used physiological responses ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 143

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111. Which of the following has been used by psychologists to measure implicit forms of racism? a. the Modern Racism Scale (MRSI) b. the Implicit Association Test (IAT) c. the Common Ingroup Identity Model (CIIM) d. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 144

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5-24

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 112. How are white individuals who score high on a measure of implicit racism affected in their

interactions with black people? a. They must exert a great deal of cognitive effort in order to avoid prejudice when interacting with black people. b. They are usually good at hiding their biases and therefore tend to have comfortable interactions with black people. c. They are usually good at hiding their biases but still tend to have uncomfortable interactions with black people. d. They have relatively low levels of amygdala activation when presented with photos of black faces. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 144

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113. Suppose Jessica, who is black, wants to be a member of a popular social group at her

university. To apply, she submits an essay about herself to the all-white membership committee. Which of the following scenarios will have the most negative impact on Jessica's self-esteem? a. The committee erroneously believes she is white and makes her a member. b. The committee knows she is black and decides not to make her a member. c. The committee does not know her race and decides to make her a member. d. The committee knows she is black and decides to make her a member. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 175

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114. According to your textbook, how do many targets of discrimination respond to these

circumstances? a. by experiencing a drop in self-esteem b. by disliking all members of the dominant group c. by blaming themselves for the discrimination d. by attributing both positive and negative outcomes to prejudice ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 175

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115. In attempting to explain group differences in intelligence scores, researchers had male and

female students take a test composed of difficult math questions. When students believed that the questions were an accurate test of mathematical abilities and limitations, women performed worse than men. However, when students believed that the questions were not diagnostic of math ability, men and women performed equally well. What did the results of this experiment illustrate? a. realistic conflict theory b. the fundamental attribution error c. an illusory correlation d. stereotype threat ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 177

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5-25

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 116. A stereotype exists in this culture that men are better at math than are women. Ramya is about

to take a diagnostic achievement test in math. According to research on stereotype threat, under which of the following conditions is she most likely to perform poorly on the test? a. Ramya does not believe that the test is an accurate measure of math ability. b. Ramya is asked to indicate her gender at the beginning of the test. c. Ramya does not include math as an important part of her identity. d. Ramya is unaware of the stereotype concerning gender and math. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 176

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117. According to research on stereotype threat, which of the following is the most likely cause of

underperformance by black students? a. a fear of confirming negative stereotypes of blacks b. an overemphasis on superordinate goals in instruction c. receiving negative feedback based on racist motives d. the segregation that tends to occur even in so-called integrated schools ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 176

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118. Which of the following experimental procedures would a researcher investigating stereotype

threat be least likely to use? a. having women complete a math test b. having non–English-speaking students complete a verbal skills test in English c. having black individuals complete an athletic task d. having individuals with a history of mental illness complete a logical reasoning task ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 176

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119. Which of the following best illustrates the idea that, under certain conditions, direct contact

between hostile groups can reduce prejudice? a. the theory of minimal groups b. contrast effects c. illusory correlation d. the contact hypothesis ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 180

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120. Which of the following conditions makes the most important contribution to the positive

impact of intergroup contact on prejudice and discrimination? a. having groups with separate goals engage in shared activities b. having high-status groups lead those of lower status c. having social norms that encourage competition for resources d. having personal interaction between members of rival groups ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 181

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5-26

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 121. Two neighbouring high schools have been feuding since the annual football game ended in a

tie. The principals of the schools decide that the tension may subside if the two schools participate in joint activities, such as assemblies that would allow the students to hear a local band. Why is this strategy most likely to be ineffective? a. because the two groups have equal status b. because the students at the two schools know each other too well c. because the students at the two schools are unlikely to have personal contact d. because the principals have established the wrong social norm ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 180

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122. According to your textbook, which of the following is a possible explanation for the failure of

school desegregation to promote better racial relations? a. It was a simplistic idea with no chance of working. b. It was carried out on too large a scale. c. It was often carried out without supportive social norms. d. It was a strategy that provided too much racial contact. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 181

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123. Mr. Belding wants to reduce prejudice toward incoming minority students at his elementary

school. Before the minority students arrive, Mr. Belding puts up posters showing children of all nationalities holding hands. Next, he plans a scavenger hunt in which incoming students are mixed with current students and divided into small groups. Each student receives a secret clue critical to his or her group's success in finding the treasure. What concept do Mr. Belding's actions reflect? a. priming effects b. social identity theory c. social role theory d. the contact hypothesis ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 180

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124. According to your textbook, how was Aronson's jigsaw classroom work is similar to Sherif's

Robbers Cave experiment? a. Both illustrated how social roles can influence the use of stereotypes. b. Both illustrated how superordinate goals can reduce prejudice. c. Both illustrated how social identification with a group can increase ingroup favouritism. d. Both illustrated how overcoming feelings of relative deprivation can decrease prejudice. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 182

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5-27

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 125. According to the common ingroup identity model, how can strategies that employ

superordinate goals, such as the jigsaw classroom, effectively reduce prejudice? a. through decategorization and recategorization b. through subtyping and contrast effects c. through automatic activation and suppression d. through implicit and explicit racism reduction ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 182-183

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ESSAY 1. Describe three mechanisms that help explain why stereotypes are maintained even when

people are presented with stereotype-inconsistent information. ANS:

Illusory correlation is one mechanism that can lead to the maintenance of stereotypes even in the presence of disconfirming information. It results from the tendency of people to see a relationship between infrequent events and negative events. People tend to think that groups that are in the minority are more likely to engage in infrequent acts. Because stereotypes are often about minority groups and because negative events are usually infrequent, illusory correlation can lead to the maintenance of negative evaluations of minority groups. A second mechanism is subcategorization, the process whereby people refine a stereotype to include inconsistent individual members of a group while maintaining the overall negative evaluation of the group. Throughout this process, although evaluations of an individual member may not be consistent with the stereotype, evaluations of the group remain the same. A third mechanism is the confirmation bias, which causes people to seek out and pay more attention to stereotype-consistent information than to stereotype-inconsistent information. Confirmation biases lead people to discount information that is inconsistent with the stereotype. PTS: 1 2. Describe the Robbers Cave experiment, and explain how it relates to realistic conflict theory. ANS:

The Robbers Cave experiment, conducted at several summer camps, investigated the interactions among adolescent boys who were divided into two groups. Sherif found that competition between the two groups led to hostility and intense dislike. Peace was restored to some extent when the two groups worked together on tasks that could be achieved only through cooperation from both groups. The study suggests that group animosity can grow out of competition—the main tenet of realistic conflict theory. PTS: 1

5-28

Chapter 5 Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination 3. Explain how social identity theory accounts for ingroup favouritism. ANS:

Social identity theory proposes that people favour their own group over others in order to maintain a positive image of their group. The theory further argues that people seek to have a positive image of their group in order to promote positive self-esteem. When their self-esteem is challenged, people are more likely to be prejudiced toward others. PTS: 1 4. Describe two ways in which gender stereotypes are strengthened and maintained. ANS:

Gender stereotypes are strengthened and maintained through cultural institutions and social roles, among other mechanisms. Cultural institutions, particularly the media, portray women in a stereotypic fashion. These portrayals can have a cumulative effect on people's views of women. Although social roles may have begun as a division of labour based in part on biology and in part on social factors, over time many people act in ways that are consistent with their roles. In turn, the behaviours that result from these roles often come to justify the original division of labour. PTS: 1 5. How do group stereotypes affect the self-esteem and performance of individuals belonging to

that group? ANS:

Stereotyped individuals are greatly affected by the stereotypes attached to their groups. For example, such individuals often discount positive feedback and exhibit lower self-esteem after receipt of such feedback because they believe it is ingenuine. By the same token, their self-esteem may not be decreased after negative feedback because they can attribute the feedback to the stereotype. Another way in which stereotypes can affect such individuals is when they approach performance situations with the anxiety that they might fail, thus confirming a negative view held of their group. Several experiments show that both women and blacks may perform worse on academic tasks due to this “stereotype threat,” particularly when the stereotype is made salient. PTS: 1

5-29

Chapter 6: Attitudes MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How are attitudes usually characterized? a. They are either positive or negative. b. They are initially positive, but increasingly negative as new information arises. c. They vary in strength along both positive and negative dimensions. d. They range on a single dimension from positive to negative. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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2. Which of the following would be considered an attitude? a. Darnell knows how to play chess. b. Daphne hates liver. c. Daisy voted for a local candidate in the last election. d. Dalton drives a green minivan. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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3. People who are high in need for evaluation tend to have which of the following kinds of

attitudes? a. more negative attitudes b. more informed attitudes c. more strong attitudes d. more positive attitudes ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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4. Antonio describes himself as being high in need for evaluation. Which of the following most

likely applies to Antonio? a. He is less likely than most others to view his experiences in judgmental terms. b. He is opinionated about social issues. c. He tends to be subjective in his evaluations of others. d. He does not feel ambivalent about modern notions of morality. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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5. Why are attitudes useful? a. because they allow us to judge whether something we encounter is good or bad b. because they organize our knowledge about a certain topic c. because they make it more likely that we will change our minds d. because they allow us to predict how others will behave ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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6-1

Chapter 6 Attitudes 6. Sammy and Mark watched a ballgame together. Sammy favoured the home team, while Mark

was an avid fan of the road team. The star player for Sammy's team made a great play and started to celebrate in a rather demonstrative fashion. Sammy got caught up in the celebration, while Mark was angered because he felt this display was an insult to the players of his team. What does this story demonstrate about attitudes? a. that evaluations of the facts of the same event are likely to differ from person to person b. that we interpret events and behaviour based upon pre-existing attitudes c. that central route processing leads to stronger opinions than peripheral route processing d. that we can hold both positive and negative evaluations about the same object ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 190

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7. What is a Likert scale? a. It contains true-and-false questions. b. It contains a list of statements with ratings from strongly disagree to strongly

agree. c. It contains a multiple-choice format of different responses. d. It contains composed of yes-and-no-type questions. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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8. In trying to assess attitudes about particular subjects, public opinion pollsters have become

aware that attitude responses seem to be affected most by which of the following factors? a. the text style in which the question appears b. the reading speed required for the question c. the specific response options given d. the length of the questionnaire ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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9. Shaniqua plans to use a self-report measure in which people indicate their agreement or

disagreement with a list of statements. Which of the following is she using? a. a Likert scale b. the luncheon technique c. a categorical matrix d. an agreement index ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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10. Which of the following is a potential problem with self-report measures of attitudes? a. They do not provide information concerning the intensity of an attitude. b. They do not provide information concerning the direction of an attitude. c. Respondents might not respond truthfully. d. It is not possible to assess the validity of self-report measures. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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6-2

Chapter 6 Attitudes 11. Jacqueline, an attitude researcher, is interested in how people feel about alcohol. Which of the

following methods should she use in her research? a. She should use a Likert scale because it is not as susceptible to social desirability effects as other methods. b. She should use a bogus pipeline because it is not as susceptible to social desirability effects as other methods. c. She should use a behavioural measure because it shows the attitude more clearly than other methods. d. She should use a facial electromyograph because it shows the attitude more clearly than other methods. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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12. Which of the following methods is most likely to increase the accuracy of self-report

measures of attitudes? a. offering many, rather than fewer, response options b. using a single attitude scale, rather than multiple scales c. assessing attitudes toward multiple issues at once d. convincing respondents that any deception would be detected ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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13. Which of the following terms refers to a phony lie-detector device that is sometimes used to

obtain accurate self-reports of attitudes? a. the bogus pipeline b. facial electromyography c. a Likert scale d. the implicit association test ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 191

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14. Which of the following can be used as a covert measure of attitude? a. the facial electromyograph b. response delay c. the Likert scale d. multidimensional scaling ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 192

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15. Wells and Petty (1980) videotaped students as they listened to a speech. What did their results

indicate? a. Students revealed the intensity, but not the direction, of their attitudes through their body language. b. Students' self-reported attitudes did not agree with their observed attitudes. c. Students signalled their attitudes by nodding or shaking their heads. d. Horizontal head movements indicate agreement, whereas vertical head movements indicate disagreement. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 192

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6-3

Chapter 6 Attitudes 16. What are physiological measures of attitudes such as heart rate and perspiration more likely to

show? a. Physiological measures are more likely to show social desirability bias. b. Physiological measures are more likely to reveal the intensity of an attitude. c. Physiological measures are more likely to reveal whether an attitude is positive or negative. d. Physiological measures are more likely to show overt stereotypes. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 192

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17. Anna has decided to use physiological arousal as a measure of attitudes. By relying on this

particular measure, what will Anna be assessing? a. the intensity of the attitude b. the direction of the attitude c. the accuracy of the attitude d. the generality of the attitude ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 192

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18. Cacioppo and Petty (1981) recorded facial muscle activity of university students as they

listened to a message with which they agreed or disagreed. What did the results of this study indicate? a. The results indicated that listening to a disagreeable message increases activity in the cheek muscles. b. The results indicated that listening to a disagreeable message increases activity in the chin muscles. c. The results indicated that listening to an agreeable message increases activity in the cheek muscles. d. The results indicated that listening to an agreeable message increases activity in the muscles in the forehead and brow area. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 192

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19. What are the advantages of using facial electromyography (EMG) to assess attitudes? a. Facial EMG can detect muscular changes not observable to the naked eye. b. Facial EMG is not influenced by the direction of attitudes. c. Facial EMG produces one pattern of activity that can be interpreted as happiness or

sadness. d. Facial EMG is only an accurate measure of attitudes if people know their attitudes

are being assessed, so it is susceptible to the same biases as self-reports. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 193

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6-4

Chapter 6 Attitudes 20. Tsuyoshi has positive implicit attitudes about himself. We know this because on an Implicit

Association Test, he was quickest to associate photos of himself with which of the following? a. positive words b. negative words c. male faces d. female faces ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 194

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21. In which of the following ways does an Implicit Association Tests commonly reveal biased

attitudes? a. by showing more errors and longer response times to connect the concepts of white and good b. by showing fewer errors and longer response times to connect the concepts of white and good c. by showing fewer errors and shorter response times to connect the concepts of black and good d. by showing more errors and longer response times to connect the concepts of black and good ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 194

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22. Why are implicit attitudes difficult to measure? a. because people are not aware of having them b. because physiological measures are not effective in assessing them c. because they can only be measured by direct techniques d. because they are easily influenced by social desirability ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 196

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23. What did LaPiere's (1934) study of attitudes demonstrate? a. that self-reported attitudes are not always predictive of behaviour b. that attitudes and behaviour are strongly related, regardless of how they are

measured c. that prejudiced attitudes in particular are likely to be highly predictive of behaviour d. that behaviour towards members of stereotyped groups depends more on attitudes

than feelings ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 196

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24. Kraus (1995) reviewed a multitude of studies on the consistency between attitudes and

behaviour. Which of the following general conclusions did Kraus’s review suggest? a. that attitudes are not usually correlated with behaviour b. that attitudes are correlated with current but not future behaviour c. that attitudes are substantially correlated with future behaviour d. that attitudes are correlated with feelings more than they are with behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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6-5

Chapter 6 Attitudes 25. Ichiro is interested in finding out how many students plan to vote in an upcoming federal

election. According to the theory of planned behaviour, which of the following questions would be the best predictor of whether a student would vote in the election? a. What are your attitudes about Canadian politics? b. What are your attitudes about voting in federal elections? c. What are your attitudes about the last federal election? d. What are your attitudes about your current Member of Parliament? ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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26. Which theory suggests that intentions to perform a behaviour are best predicted by attitudes

toward the behaviour, subjective norms, and perceived behavioural control? a. the theory of planned behaviour b. the cognitive dissonance theory c. the self-perception theory d. the self-affirmation theory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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27. The theory of planned behaviour posits that behaviour is a function of attitudes, subjective

norms, behavioural intentions, and which of the following? a. the amount of time we have considered engaging in the behaviour b. the correspondence between the attitude and the behaviour c. the amount of control we perceive we have over our behaviour d. the costs of engaging in the behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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28. Jacob wants to learn how to water-ski. According to the theory of planned behaviour, which

of the following would be the most influential on his behaviour? a. He has a positive general attitude toward the water. b. He has seen others learn how to water-ski. c. Many of his friends are water-skiers and they are encouraging him to join them. d. He recognizes the dangers associated with water-skiing. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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29. According to the theory of planned behaviour, why might a person's attitude be different from

that person's behaviour? a. because the behaviour is determined by norms that are consistent with the person's attitudes b. because the behaviour is one that the person feels is within his or her control c. because the behaviour is determined by norms that are counter to the person's attitudes d. because the behaviour occurs only when the person is self-aware ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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6-6

Chapter 6 Attitudes 30. Gloria has a negative attitude toward smoking, but she continues to smoke two packs of

cigarettes a day. According to the theory of planned behaviour, which of the following is the most likely reason that her attitude and behaviour are inconsistent? a. Her attitude is based on feelings rather than beliefs. b. She doesn't believe that she can control her smoking behaviour. c. Her family and friends also have negative attitudes toward smoking. d. Her attitudes are usually accessible when she reaches for a cigarette. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 197

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31. Which of the following findings supports the hypothesis that there is a genetic component to

some attitudes? a. The attitudes of identical twins are more similar than those of fraternal twins. b. The attitudes of identical twins are as similar as those of fraternal twins. c. The attitudes of twins reared together are more similar than those of twins reared apart. d. The attitudes of fraternal twins are more similar than those of other non-twin siblings. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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32. According to the research findings presented in the textbook, which of the following attitudes

are least affected by a genetic contribution? a. attitudes toward exciting experiences b. attitudes toward organized religion c. attitudes toward playing sports d. attitudes toward traditional sex roles ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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33. What understanding of attitude-behaviour constancy is most strongly supported by social

psychological research? a. Attitude-behaviour consistency is greater in unfamiliar environments. b. Attitude-behaviour consistency is greater when the cognition is explicit. c. Attitude-behaviour consistency is greater when the attitude is based on direct experience. d. Attitude–behaviour consistency is unrelated to knowledge about the attitude object. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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34. Which of the following factors distinguishes strong from weak attitudes? a. the number of related attitudes b. the generality of the attitude measures c. the amount of perceived behavioural control d. the extent to which the issue concerns important values ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 198-199

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6-7

Chapter 6 Attitudes 35. In which of the following situations will attitude–behaviour correspondence be greatest? a. when the person cannot see him- or herself b. when social norms are well known c. when the behaviour is not too highly specific d. when the attitude is strongly held ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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36. Professor Abboud would like to reduce cheating in her classes. She knows that students

strongly oppose cheating but, in spite of these negative attitudes, cheating is quite common. Which of the following tactics would be most effective at reducing cheating? a. To strengthen attitudes against cheating, ask students to write and sign a statement indicating that they will not cheat prior to each exam. b. To increase anxiety, make sure students are not well informed about what behaviours constitute cheating or what consequences might result from cheating. c. To increase accessibility, show subliminal messages saying cheating is wrong for a few moments before each exam. d. To increase self-awareness, place a mirror at the front of the class during exams. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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37. Why might mirrors in shopping malls reduce shoplifting? a. Shoppers are distracted by seeing their reflections, which makes them less likely to

behave in accord with their positive attitudes toward shoplifting. b. People focus on the image they see and their negative attitudes toward shoplifting

are weakened. c. Mirrors create a sense of anxiety that others might be able to see us shoplift. d. Mirrors increase self-awareness, which makes negative attitudes toward shoplifting

accessible. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 198

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38. What do we call the process by which a person critically evaluates a persuasive

communication and is influenced by the strength of its arguments? a. persuasion via the primacy effect b. persuasion via insufficient deterrence c. persuasion via the sleeper effect d. persuasion via the central route ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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39. What do we call the process by which a person is persuaded by cues in the persuasion context

rather than thinking critically about the content of a persuasive message? a. persuasion via psychological reactance b. persuasion via the primacy effect c. persuasion via the peripheral route d. persuasion via the central route ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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6-8

Chapter 6 Attitudes 40. While watching a political debate on television, Matilda critically evaluated the arguments

made by each candidate and was persuaded to support a particular candidate because of the quality of her arguments. What did Matilda exhibit in this situation? a. psychological reactance b. persuasion via the central route c. persuasion via the peripheral route d. insufficient justification ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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41. Which of the following conditions is the first step in Hovland's model of persuasion as

necessary for persuasion to occur? a. Message recipients must elaborate the message. b. Message recipients must attend to the message. c. Message recipients must comprehend the message. d. Message recipients must be motivated to accept the message. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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42. In which of the following situations would you be most likely to find the use of the central

route to persuasion? a. When a person relies on non-verbal cues to make their plea. b. When a person has very restricted time to present their argument. c. When a person is able to present a two-sided rather than a one-sided argument. d. When a person has a large quantity of arguments rather than a few high-quality arguments. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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43. What is the primary difference between the models of persuasion proposed by Hovland and

McGuire and that proposed by Greenwald? a. Greenwald's model does not allow for central route processing. b. Greenwald's model emphasizes the role of elaboration in producing persuasion. c. Greenwald's model does not include reception as one of the information-processing steps in persuasion. d. Greenwald's model proposes that memory of message content is the most important determinant of persuasion. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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44. When message recipients use the central route to persuasion, to what extent is persuasive

communication effective? a. to the extent that message recipients respond favourably to the message b. to the extent that message recipients focus on the weak arguments within the message c. to the extent that the message itself arouses psychological reactance d. to the extent that message recipients are high in intelligence and self-esteem ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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6-9

Chapter 6 Attitudes 45. When message recipients use central route processing, which of the following will most likely

happen? a. Difficult messages will be more persuasive than easily learned messages. b. Memorable messages will be more persuasive than forgettable ones. c. Weak messages will engender more favourable responses than strong messages. d. Elaboration of message content will be objective and unbiased. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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46. Which of the following pairs of characteristics matter more on the central route to persuasion

than on the peripheral route? a. whether the message is easily learned and whether it is memorable b. whether the message is memorable and whether it is given by a speaker with an honest reputation c. whether the message is given by a speaker with an honest reputation and whether the message stimulates favourable elaboration d. whether the message stimulates favourable elaboration and whether the message elicits cheers from an audience ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 202-203

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47. Oscar, an advertiser, develops a commercial for Crispy Crackling Cereal. Suppose children,

processing information via the central route, watch the commercial. In which of the following cases will the commercial be least likely to persuade the kids to want the cereal? a. if it uses a spokesperson who tells the kids about the cereal and asks whether they want to try it. b. if it uses a simple, straightforward message that the kids can learn easily c. if it uses a jingle about the great qualities of the cereal that the children will remember d. if it uses an attractive spokesperson who appears to enjoy eating the cereal. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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48. Mina, in putting together a persuasive speech for her speech class, compiled a long list of

arguments favouring her position, as well as the names of several well-known experts who have expressed support for her thesis. What is Mina targeting with these tactics? a. the elaborative route to persuasion b. the peripheral route to persuasion c. the central route to persuasion d. the subjective route to persuasion ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 202

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6-10

Chapter 6 Attitudes 49. When an audience member does not feel personally involved or invested in the topic of a

persuasive message, which of the following is he or she most likely to do? a. focus primarily on the strength of the message, ignoring the apparent expertise of the message source b. be influenced immediately by the sleeper effect c. engage in a central, but not peripheral, route to persuasion d. focus on the attributes of the message source ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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50. Which of the following body movements is most likely to influence a person to show greater

agreement with a persuasive message? a. nodding one’s head up and down b. stretching the arms outward c. shaking one’s head side to side d. flexing the arms inward ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 203

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51. Which of the following does the central route to persuasion require? a. intelligence and strong arguments b. involvement and an expert source c. ability and motivation d. knowledge of the issue and a credible source ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 202

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52. In which of the following situations is the peripheral route to persuasion is more likely to be

chosen than the central route? a. when the argument is a familiar one b. when the message is personally significant c. when the audience is attentive d. when the audience is critical ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 202

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53. Gino, a salesperson, wants to use techniques that will lead his potential customers to rely on

peripheral route persuasion. Which of the following should he do? a. speak carefully when presenting information about his product b. get the customer to nod in the affirmative while he is presenting his sales pitch c. present his sales pitch to customers who have enough time hear his full message d. approach prospective buyers who obviously care deeply about his product ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 202

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6-11

Chapter 6 Attitudes 54. Which of the following factors is a determinant of the route to persuasion? a. the clarity of the speaker b. the attractiveness of the speaker c. the complexity of the language d. the type of scale used to assess persuasion ANS: A

PTS: 1

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55. Dan is listening to the dean of the university speak about banning fraternities on campus. In

which of the following situations is Dan most likely to evaluate the quality of the dean's arguments? a. if the dean speaks very quickly b. if Dan is a member of a fraternity c. if Dan is doing his calculus homework while listening to the speech d. if the dean indicates that most students think fraternities should be banned ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 201

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56. Kudirat is considered an expert in the field of theoretical physics. In order for her to be

perceived as credible when speaking about her area of expertise, which of the following should she also be? a. popular b. attractive c. trustworthy d. direct ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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57. Vicki is a lawyer who is trying to decide which of two experts she should hire to testify in her

case. If Vicki wants the jurors to perceive her expert as trustworthy, which expert should she select? a. the expert with the most recent experience in cases very similar to the current case b. the expert who seems to argue against his or her self-interest c. the expert who has the highest status in their field d. the expert who has the most experience testifying in court ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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58. Because communicator trustworthiness is important, people tend to be readily impressed by

speakers who do which of the following? a. take popular stands b. argue against their own interests c. talk slowly and deliberately d. dress well ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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6-12

Chapter 6 Attitudes 59. Ulysses is a speaker renowned for the trustworthiness he seems to possess. In an effort to

impress people with his trustworthiness, which of the following is he most likely to do? a. argue against his own interests b. talk slowly and deliberately c. dress well d. take popular stands ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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60. Alex and Derek are trying to develop an advertising campaign in which a key element is the

trustworthiness of the message's communicator. Which of the following strategies would they be most likely to use? a. a public service message b. overheard communications c. novel advertising d. political campaigns ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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61. Which of the following source characteristics best explains why a company might recruit a

supermodel to endorse its products? a. similarity b. credibility c. likability d. trustworthiness ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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62. When communicators similar to us are physically attractive, which of the following qualities

will they be perceived as having? a. credibility b. competence c. expertise d. likability ANS: D

PTS: 1

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63. For which of the following products will the physical attractiveness of a spokesmodel have

the greatest effect? a. life insurance b. a hair-care product c. running shoes d. an insecticide ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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64. A university president wants to convince students that the university must double its tuition in

five years. He is looking to hire a credible promoter to appeal to students. If he wanted to implement the change next year, should he adopt a different strategy? a. No, he should do the same thing either way. Copyright © 2014 Nelson Education Ltd.

6-13

Chapter 6 Attitudes b. No, if the change will happen next year, the person he hires will matter more than

the strength of the arguments. c. Yes, if the change will happen next year, he should focus on the strength of the

arguments more than the person he hires. d. Yes, if the change will happen next year, obtaining a credible promoter and

generating strong arguments will both be more crucial than if the change will happen in five years. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 206

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65. As personal involvement regarding an issue increases, which of the following is most likely to

happen? a. The quality of the arguments becomes a more important determinant of persuasion. b. The credibility of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion. c. The attractiveness of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion. d. The likeability of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 206

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66. While shopping at the local mall, Ihno is approached by a man who asks her to sign a petition

for stricter gun-control laws. If Ihno uses the central route to decide whether to sign the petition, under which of the following circumstances will she be most likely to sign? a. if the man who approaches her is physically attractive b. if the man who approaches her is a member of a gun club c. if the man who approaches her is a police officer d. if the man who approaches her presents strong arguments ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 205

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67. What is the sleeper effect? a. A sleeper effect is persuasion that occurs in response to subliminal stimuli b. A sleeper effect is a response to a persuasive message from a noncredible source

that becomes stronger over time c. A sleeper effect is persuasion that is heightened by a distraction that decreases the

ability to pay attention to a persuasive message d. A sleeper effect is a persuasive effect that suddenly reverses. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 207

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Chapter 6 Attitudes 68. Hope read a persuasive message written by a source whom she considered incompetent and

untrustworthy. According to the sleeper effect, what effect will that message most likely have on her attitude over time? a. Her attitude will change over time in the in the direction advocated by the speaker. b. Her agreement with the attitudinal message will first increase, and then decrease over time. c. Her agreement with the attitudinal message will change over time in the opposite direction than that advocated by the speaker. d. Her agreement with the attitudinal message will decrease over time. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 208

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69. Sleeper effects can be reduced by reminding people that the source of a persuasive message

was not credible. Which explanation of sleeper effects does this argument support? a. the inoculation hypothesis b. the discounting cue hypothesis c. psychological reactance theory d. cognitive dissonance theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 208

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70. Josue listened to a speech on the radio advocating the increased use of automobiles that are

not reliant on fossil fuels. According to the research in the textbook, one would expect the sleeper effect to be greatest if Josue was asked about his views on the issue at which of the following times? a. immediately b. that same day c. a few weeks later d. a few months later ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 208

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71. If a company with a poor reputation wants to make successful use of the sleeper effect, it

should make sure the audience only learns the company's identity at which of the following times? a. after a commitment has been made b. after inoculation has occurred c. after a warning has been given d. after the message has been received ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 208

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72. Cairan wants to persuade her friends that residence halls should have curfews. Assuming her

friends consider this issue to be personally involving, what should Cairan do? a. present only strong arguments that support her position b. present her weak arguments first, followed by her strong arguments c. present the strong arguments first and then follow with the weak arguments d. present her friends with both sides of the argument ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 209

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Chapter 6 Attitudes 73. Vince and Allen give consecutive speeches on opposing sides in a debate on solar energy.

Audience members are asked to register their views a few weeks later. How might the order of the speeches affect the audience's decision? a. It should yield a primacy effect. b. It should yield a subliminal effect. c. It should yield a recency effect. d. It should not have any effect. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 210

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74. At a computer trade show, a representative from ABC Computers presents its product to the

audience, and is immediately followed by a representative from XYZ Computers, who demonstrates the benefits of XYZ’s product. If surveyed immediately after the show, what is the audience most likely to report? a. that they were more persuaded by ABC Computers b. that they were more persuaded by XYZ Computers c. that they were equally persuaded by both companies if the presentations were comparable d. that they were persuaded by neither company ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 210

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75. How can we be persuaded to change our position on personally important issues? a. We are more often persuaded by the central route regarding these issues. b. We are more often persuaded by the peripheral route regarding these issues. c. We are more often persuaded when others take a position very discrepant from

how we feel. d. We are more often persuaded when we are in a bad mood. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 210

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76. Michael believes that one's family is more important than one's career. In order for him to

successfully convince his achievement-oriented friend Ronald that he should also possess such a value system, what should Michael do? a. take the very discrepant position that careers never provide satisfaction anywhere close to what a family provides b. use peripheral cues c. present as many arguments for his position as possible d. suggest more of a balance between family and career concerns than is currently true for Ronald ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 210

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6-16

Chapter 6 Attitudes 77. How are fear appeals most effective? a. Fear appeals may be most effective by decreasing the incentive to think carefully

about the arguments in the message. b. Fear appeals are most effective when they include shocking and alarming images. c. Fear appeals are most effective when they include specific information on how to avoid the threat. d. Fear appeals are most effective by increasing the ability of already fearful message recipients to carefully process a message. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 210

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78. Louie runs a clinic that helps individuals to quit smoking, and he would like to use fear to

motivate his clients. Which of the following strategies would be most effective? a. First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking. b. First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then allow them to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking, so that they are more committed. c. Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking, but nothing too scary. Then allow the clients to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking, so that they are more committed. d. Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking, but nothing too scary. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 211

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79. Professor Shackleford is elated because she has just learned that her paper has been accepted

for publication. When a student passes her in the hallway and tells her that he missed the latest exam in order to stay home with his depressed cat, she accepts his story and gives the student a make-up exam. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Professor Shackleford's gullibility? a. the attributions she has made b. central route processing c. her positive mood d. self-persuasion ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 211

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80. Studies found that happy participants used the central route to persuasion when presented with

a pro-attitudinal message, but the peripheral route to persuasion when presented with a counter-attitudinal message. Which of the following does this finding suggest? a. Positive mood disrupts the ability to process persuasive information. b. People in a happy mood rely on superficial processing strategies. c. Positive mood affects different people in different ways. d. People in a happy mood avoid processing only if it threatens to destroy their mood. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 212

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6-17

Chapter 6 Attitudes 81. What effects have subliminal self-help tapes been shown to have on behaviour? a. The subliminal messages delivered verbally have been shown to have powerful

and long-lasting impact on behaviour. b. The content of subliminal self-help tapes has been shown to have a powerful effect on behaviour. c. Participants’ beliefs about the content of subliminal self-help tapes have been shown to have powerful effects on both perceived and actual behavioural changes. d. Participants’ beliefs about the content of subliminal self-help tapes have been shown to have powerful effects on perceived, but not actual, behavioural changes. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 213

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82. Which of the following is a personality variable that distinguishes people on the basis of how

much they enjoy effortful intellectual activities? a. authoritarianism b. the social approval motive c. the need for cognition d. achievement orientation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 214

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83. Myrna is trying to persuade her roommate that equal employment laws actually lead to fewer

opportunities for minorities. In which of the following cases would it be most appropriate for Myrna to use peripheral cues? a. if her roommate cares about the issue b. if her roommate is low in self-monitoring c. if her roommate is “inoculated” before hearing the argument d. if her roommate is low in need for cognition ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 214

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84. How are people high in the need for cognition most likely to be persuaded to change their

attitude? a. They are more likely to process and be persuaded via a message along the central route. b. They are most persuaded by image-oriented appeals. c. They are more likely to agree with a message if they are in a good mood. d. They are more persuaded by the reputation and appearance of the source. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 214

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6-18

Chapter 6 Attitudes 85. In which of the following cases should one avoid producing advertisements that focus on

image? a. if the advertisements are to be targeted toward individuals from individualistic cultures b. if the advertisements are to be targeted toward individuals low in self-monitoring c. if the advertisements are to be targeted toward individuals low in need for cognition d. if the advertisements are to be targeted toward individuals in a good mood ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 215

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86. Which of the following advertising slogans for a new stereo system would be most appealing

to someone in a collectivist culture? a. “Play all of your favourite CDs and hear every nuance.” b. “Invite your friends over so they can dance to music of the highest clarity.” c. “Don't you want to have the best stereo in your neighbourhood?” d. “You work hard every day—why not treat yourself to something special?” ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 217

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87. When people are forewarned that a speaker will take a specific position that is very different

from their own, what do they tend to do? a. generate counterarguments b. experience dissonance c. exhibit attitude-behaviour consistency d. engage in peripheral-route persuasion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 216

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88. Research demonstrates that exposure to weak versions of a persuasive argument tends to

increase later resistance to that argument. Which of the following is this finding consistent with? a. the discounting cue hypothesis b. self-perception theory c. cognitive dissonance theory d. the inoculation hypothesis ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 216

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89. Tariq doesn't want his kids to give in to peer pressure to smoke. According to the inoculation

hypothesis, what is one way he could build up their resistance to potential peer pressure? a. let them smoke, so that their attitudes will be based on direct experience b. present them with weak arguments for smoking, so that they can generate counterarguments c. present them with very strong arguments against smoking on which to base their attitudes d. have them listen to subliminal anti-smoking messages ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 216

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6-19

Chapter 6 Attitudes 90. What do we call a negative reaction to the feeling that one's freedom is being threatened? a. cognitive dissonance b. psychological reactance c. forewarning d. the inoculation hypothesis ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 217

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91. Which of the following is the best method to resist attempts at persuasion? a. self-monitoring effect b. forewarning c. psychological resistance d. source derogation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 216

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92. Lisa's friends can't stand her new girlfriend, Julia, and have been pressuring Lisa to stop

seeing her. According to the concept of psychological reactance, Lisa would be most likely to respond by doing which of the following? a. breaking up with Julia b. feeling even more dedicated to her relationship with Julia c. eventually becoming persuaded by her friends' attitudes about Julia d. taking out her frustration on Julia ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 217

BLM: Higher order

93. Juan believes that gun control is necessary. Which of the following would cause Juan to

change his attitude the most? a. He hears a speech against gun control, and then gives a speech that takes a similar position. b. He anticipates giving a speech against gun control, and then gives the speech. c. He anticipates giving a speech for gun control, and then must give a speech against it. d. He gives a speech for gun control, followed by a speech against gun control. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 220

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94. Why do researchers use role-playing in investigations of attitude change? a. because people show greater attitude change after writing a persuasive speech than

after reading one b. because people show less attitude change for self-generated arguments than for

arguments provided by others c. because people show less attitude change after reading a persuasive argument

when they expect to persuade someone else d. because people show more attitude change after role-playing if they are low in

need for cognition. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 218

BLM: Higher order

6-20

Chapter 6 Attitudes 95. What mechanism accounts for the effects of role-playing on attitudes? a. Role-playing affects attitudes because audience factors are more powerful than

source factors. b. Role-playing affects attitudes because cognitive dissonance accounts for persuasion better than self-perception theory does. c. Role-playing affects attitudes because behaviour can influence attitudes. d. Role-playing affects attitudes because elaboration is an important mechanism of persuasion. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 218

BLM: Higher order

96. What do we call the unpleasant psychological state that is often aroused when someone holds

two directly conflicting thoughts? a. cognitive dissonance b. attitude ambivalence c. functional inconsistency d. self-persuasion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 221

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97. How does the drive for consistency influence our behaviour? a. The drive for consistency allows us to see the implications of our attitudes for our

behaviours. b. The drive for consistency leads us to perform irrational and sometimes maladaptive behaviours. c. The drive for consistency leads us to behave in ways that are socially desirable. d. The drive for consistency leads us to infer our attitudes from the way we behave. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 221

BLM: Remember

98. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the change of heart among participants in

Festinger and Carlsmith's (1959) classic peg-turning study of cognitive dissonance? a. effort justification b. self-affirmation c. insufficient justification d. insufficient deterrence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 222

BLM: Remember

99. A social psychology graduate student who works long hours for little pay becomes

increasingly convinced that she loves social psychology. What is the most likely cause of this student's attitude toward her chosen field of study? a. psychological reactance b. self-affirmation c. insufficient justification d. insufficient deterrence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 222

BLM: Remember

6-21

Chapter 6 Attitudes 100. Which of the following demonstrates the phenomenon of insufficient justification? a. People receiving small rewards show greater attitude change. b. People receiving larger rewards show greater attitude change. c. People instructed to complete a task show greater attitude change. d. People unable to complete a task show greater attitude change. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 222

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101. What do we call the condition in which people avoid participating in an enjoyable activity,

even though they have very little likelihood of negative consequences? a. self-monitoring b. negative attitude change c. insufficient justification d. insufficient deterrence ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 222

BLM: Remember

102. Which of the following did Aronson and Carlsmith (1963) reveal about severe punishment? a. It is less likely than mild punishment to inspire cognitive dissonance. b. It leads to attitude change only when a self-affirmation is possible. c. It causes dissonance-induced physiological arousal to increase. d. It changes behaviour only when attitudes change as well. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 222-223

BLM: Remember

103. When she first joined the military, Stephanie was not sure she would like it. By the end of the

gruelling basic training program, she absolutely loved military life and was totally committed to it. What is the most likely cause of Stephanie's attitude toward the military? a. self-monitoring b. effort justification c. insufficient deterrence d. psychological reactance ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

104. Which of the following is inconsistent with the phenomenon of effort justification? a. the hypothesis that dissonance results from negative behavioural consequences b. the assumption that larger rewards produce greater change c. the idea that we dislike activities we have found to be difficult d. the finding that war veterans are more likely than other citizens to support

peacekeeping efforts ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

6-22

Chapter 6 Attitudes 105. Shawna wants to join a sorority that has recently decided to put incoming members through

various forms of initiation. Based on the findings of Aronson and Mills (1959), what kind of initiation is most likely to lead Shawna to identify strongly with the sorority and to value her membership in the group in the effort to avoid cognitive dissonance? a. a mildly pleasant initiation b. a neutral initiation c. a mildly unpleasant initiation d. a severely unpleasant initiation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

106. Dwayne is starting a new student group on campus. He wants the group to be successful and

wants members of the group to be highly committed. According to cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following should Dwayne do? a. pay the potential members $100 each and require them to undergo a highly embarrassing initiation b. pay the potential members $25 each and require them to undergo a mildly embarrassing initiation c. pay the potential members $5 each to attend the initial meeting of the group d. require potential members to contribute $25 to the group and undergo a highly embarrassing initiation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

107. Which of the following situations should prompt the least decisional dissonance? a. Though he would rather be playing football with his friends, Wyatt decides to start

his 20-page philosophy paper rather than his 25-page history paper. b. Elmer likes both duck and rabbit, but he decides to order the rabbit for dinner. c. Audrey doesn't like cats much, so she decides that her new pet will be a dog. d. Tevin would like to spend his vacation in both Italy and Greece, but can only

afford to travel to one place, so he decides to go to Greece. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 225

BLM: Higher order

108. Sam dislikes Celine Dion's music. One day, he meets Rita, Celine’s number one fan, at a club

and she tries to win him over by giving him the latest CD. In which of the following scenarios would Sam's attitude towards Celine Dion be most likely to change after hearing the CD? a. Rita offers to pay for his drinks if he promises to go listen to the CD in the car immediately. b. Rita asks him to listen to the CD if he can. c. He listens to the CD when he is tense. d. He suppresses negative thoughts about Celine while he listens. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 221

BLM: Higher order

6-23

Chapter 6 Attitudes 109. Marcia has two boyfriends, Dave and Mike, both of whom she likes very much. She has

decided that dating both of them is making her life too complicated and, after careful deliberation, has decided to stop seeing Dave and continue dating only Mike. According to cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following will most likely happen next? a. Marcia will develop an intense dislike for Mike. b. Marcia will develop an intense dislike for Dave. c. Mike will seem more attractive than ever, convincing Marcia that she made the right choice. d. Dave will seem more attractive than ever, making Marcia regret her decision ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

110. In deciding where to go to university, Crystal was torn but finally picked St. Thomas

University over Simon Fraser University. Which of the following facts would be least likely to lead Crystal to experience post-decision dissonance? a. St. Thomas has a much better football team. b. St. Thomas is much more expensive. c. Simon Fraser offers a wider selection of courses. d. All of Simon Fraser's professors she looks up have terrific scores on the “Rate My Professors” website. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 223

BLM: Higher order

111. Abby compliments Sharon on her new outfit, despite thinking it is not flattering. According to

the “new look” at dissonance theory, how will Abby most likely feel? a. Abby will only show cognitive dissonance if she felt physiological arousal after her lie. b. Abby will feel dissonance because she felt her only choice was to flatter Sharon when Sharon asked her, “How do I look?” c. Abby will not feel dissonance because Sharon's outfit is not personally important to Abby. d. Abby will come to believe that Sharon's outfit is flattering in the same way that an observer might infer Abby's attitude from her behaviour. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 226

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112. Which of the following is a necessary condition for cognitive dissonance, as specified by

Cooper and Fazio (1984)? a. People must be assigned to engage in the attitude-discrepant behaviour. b. People must assign responsibility for the behaviour to an outside source. c. People must experience physiological arousal as a result of their behaviour. d. People must experience low levels of physiological arousal to allow for attitude change. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 226

BLM: Remember

6-24

Chapter 6 Attitudes 113. In an experiment some participants are asked to write a counter-attitudinal essay, but others

are forced to write the essay. Based on cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following results should be expected? a. Participants asked to write the essay should change their attitudes, but only if they are paid very little money. b. Participants asked to write the essay should change their attitudes, but only if they are paid a large sum of money. c. Participants forced to write the essay should change their attitudes, but only if they are paid very little money. d. Participants forced to write the essay should change their attitudes, but only if they are paid a large sum of money. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 225-226

BLM: Higher order

114. Participants in an extremely boring experiment are asked to lie and say that the experiment

was fun and exciting. Which of the following participants will most likely exhibit the most favourable attitudes toward the experiment? a. Maria, who is encouraged to do relaxation exercises immediately after telling the lie b. George, who attributes his discomfort to the bulky coat he was wearing when he lied c. Raj, who is convinced that nobody believes him whether he tells the truth or lies d. Jerry, who thinks that his lie will lead other participants to expect the experiment will be fun ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 226

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115. According to the “new look” at cognitive dissonance, what decreases dissonance? a. People will feel less dissonance if they are distracted by high levels of arousal. b. Decreased dissonance will be experienced when negative consequences occur, if

they were not foreseeable. c. People may not feel dissonance if they believe they can attribute discomfort to an

external factor. d. Decreased consequences from our behaviour will increase our feelings of

dissonance. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 226

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116. Evidence has surfaced that challenges which of the following components of the “new look”

at cognitive dissonance? a. physiological arousal and negative consequences b. cognitive inconsistency and foreseeable consequences c. physiological arousal and foreseeable consequences d. cognitive inconsistency and negative consequences ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 226

BLM: Remember

6-25

Chapter 6 Attitudes 117. Which of the following theories is most consistent with the idea that we infer our own

attitudes by observing ourselves and the circumstances of our behaviour? a. planned behaviour theory b. self-perception theory c. cognitive dissonance theory d. elaboration-likelihood theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 227

BLM: Remember

118. If Zachary argues that self-perception theory better explains why people change their attitudes

in research studies than cognitive dissonance theory does, which of the following is he most likely to believe? a. that changes in attitudes are motivated by a desire to reduce unpleasant feelings b. that private attitudes do not really change in these experiments c. that observers are fairly inaccurate in predicting others' attitudes d. that the changed attitude must be directly related to the attitude-discrepant behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 227

BLM: Remember

119. Marge believes rather strongly that more money should be devoted to environmental

concerns. However, she is agitated because she just signed a petition for a friend advocating for the logging of a local forest in order to create new jobs. Marge then seems to soften her stance about the environment. Which theory best explains Marge’s attitude shift? a. cognitive dissonance theory b. self-affirmation theory c. the inoculation hypothesis d. self-perception theory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 226

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120. According to impression-management theory, why do people change their attitudes to match

their behaviours? a. to be consistent b. to appear consistent c. to reduce physiological arousal d. to restore a positive self-image ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 228

BLM: Remember

121. Elena changes her attitude about nuclear weapons after giving a speech supporting their

development to a group of classmates. Brett gives the same speech, but to an empty classroom, and does not change his attitude. Which of the following theories does the difference between Elena and Brett support? a. self-esteem theory b. impression-management theory c. self-perception theory d. self-affirmation theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 228

BLM: Higher order 6-26

Chapter 6 Attitudes 122. Which of the following theories is most consistent with the idea that change is motivated by

threats to the self? a. cognitive dissonance theory b. self-perception theory c. impression-management theory d. self-affirmation theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 229

BLM: Remember

123. After giving the matter a great deal of thought, Iris declared chemistry rather than physics as

her major. Having made this decision, she went out and had a good time with her classmates, who complimented her on being such a great friend. At that point, Iris was able to look at her choice and see both its pros and cons without glamorizing it. Which of the following concepts best explains her behaviour? a. self-perception b. cognitive dissonance c. impression management d. self-affirmation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 228

BLM: Higher order

124. Self-affirmation theory argues that when people feel cognitive dissonance stemming from

counter-attitudinal behaviour, they will NOT need to change their attitude in which of the following cases? a. if they can remember self-aspects consistent with the counter-attitudinal behaviour b. if they can think about other positive aspects of themselves c. if they do not feel any physiological arousal following the behaviour d. if the inconsistency can be attributed to some external factor ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 228

BLM: Remember

125. After narrowing his car choice to either a Toyota or a Honda, James has decided to buy a

Toyota. After he has made his decision, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. James will soon begin to question whether he should have bought the Honda instead of the Toyota. b. James will feel less dissonance about his decision if he is told by friends that he has a great car. c. James will tell friends looking for a new car both the pros and cons of buying a Toyota. d. James will feel more dissonance than he felt before making the decision. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 226

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6-27

Chapter 6 Attitudes

ESSAY 1. According to the theory of reasoned action and the theory of planned behaviour, how do

attitudes influence behaviour and what limits their impact? ANS:

According to these theories, the influence of attitudes on behaviour results from deliberate decision making. However, this influence is limited by (1) the specificity of the attitude (the more specific the attitude is regarding a specific behaviour, the more influential it is), (2) subjective norms, (3) perceived control (individuals believe they have the capability to engage in the behaviour), and (4) intentions (intentions do not always result in behaviour). PTS: 1 2. Identify and explain the process whereby the source of a message gradually loses its impact

over time. ANS:

The sleeper effect is the process whereby the source of a message gradually loses its impact over time. Initially, people are more readily persuaded by credible sources than by noncredible sources; over time, however, they seem to lose the connection between the source and the message, becoming equally persuaded by both types of sources. The sleeper effect tends to occur only when the source of the message is introduced after the message itself. PTS: 1 3. Explain how both the cognitive content and emotional content of a message affect its

persuasiveness. Be sure to discuss the relationship of both types of content to the central and peripheral routes to persuasion. ANS:

The cognitive content of a message has its greatest impact when the message is processed through the central route to persuasion. Owing to the elaboration of the cognitive content through this route, the message is more persuasive if it is of high quality and less persuasive if it is of poor quality. Conversely, the emotional content of a message has its greatest impact when the message is processed through the peripheral route to persuasion. In the latter case, heuristics and attributions affect the persuasiveness of the message. Both heuristics (rules of thumb) and attributions (quick analyses of the speaker's motives) avoid the content of the message, in favour of more superficial cues. PTS: 1

6-28

Chapter 6 Attitudes 4. Describe the phenomenon of insufficient justification, and explain its relationship to cognitive

dissonance. ANS:

Insufficient justification occurs when people cannot find a reason to explain their behaviour. Often this results in attitude change. The relationship between insufficient justification and cognitive dissonance is made clear by reference to the 1959 study of Festinger and Carlsmith. In this study, subjects who had been paid only one dollar for their participation in an unpleasant task (and thus received insufficient justification for doing so) were more inclined to exaggerate their enjoyment of the task (thereby reducing their cognitive dissonance) than were subjects who had been paid 20 dollars. PTS: 1 5. Discuss three alternatives to cognitive dissonance theory. ANS:

Whereas cognitive dissonance theory posits a state of psychological tension that people are motivated to reduce by bringing their attitudes more in line with their behaviours, (1) self-perception theory suggests that people interpret their attitudes by observing their behaviours, (2) impression-management theory maintains that what matters is not the consistency between attitudes and behaviours but the appearance of such consistency, and (3) self-affirmation theory proposes that attitude change is spurred by threats to the self-concept. PTS: 1

6-29

Chapter 7: Conformity MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In which of the following cases is social influence likely to be strongest? a. when we even imagine the presence of another person b. when at least one other is present c. when a group of others is present d. when a group of consistent others is present ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 240

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2. What do psychologists call the research area that investigates how having others around us

(even just in our imaginations) changes the ways we behave? a. social influence b. psychological reactance c. pluralistic ignorance d. the autokinetic effect ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 236

BLM: Remember

3. How does obedience differ from compliance? a. Obedience does not lead to attitude change but compliance does. b. They differ with respect to the degree of influence exerted on an individual c. They differ in that obedience refers to behaviour but compliance refers to attitudes. d. Compliance, but not obedience, occurs automatically. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 236

BLM: Higher order

4. How does conformity differ from obedience and compliance? a. Conformity involves less direct pressure from others. b. Conformity occurs primarily in response to the behaviour of a group of others. c. Conformity requires the physical presence of at least one other person. d. Conformity is more likely to produce destructive behaviours. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 236

BLM: Higher order

5. A half dozen high school students are going to a concert. Chantal wants to wear a new

colourful outfit that she just received as a gift, but she assumes that her five friends will all be wearing nothing but black leather. Chantal decides to do likewise, and leaves her colourful outfit in the closet. What is Chantal demonstrating? a. reciprocation wariness b. idiosyncrasy credits c. resistance d. conformity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 238

BLM: Higher order

7-1

Chapter 7 Conformity 6. Which of the following best exemplifies automatic influence? a. People are more likely to purchase a product if they have been given a free sample. b. In trying to guess how much a point of light moves in a dark room, people use the

estimates of others as an anchor. c. After one student in class yawns, several others soon begin to yawn as well. d. Adolescents often go along with the behaviour of popular others to avoid social

rejection. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Remember

7. What do psychologists call the tendency to unconsciously mimic the nonverbal behaviour of

others? a. reciprocation wariness b. pluralistic ignorance c. the ally effect d. the chameleon effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Remember

8. Chartrand and Bargh (1999) had experimental accomplices mimic the mannerisms of some

participants but not others. What did they find? a. Participants whose mannerisms were mimicked liked the accomplice more than participants who were not copied. b. Participants whose mannerisms were copied by an accomplice reported being more uncomfortable during the interaction than those who were not mimicked. c. Imitating the mannerisms of the participants tended to reduce the nonverbal behaviours exhibited during the interaction. d. Participants who were not mimicked by their interaction partners indicated a greater willingness to interact with that person again in the future. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Remember

9. While being interviewed for a new job, Adrienne notices that her interviewer repeatedly

crosses and uncrosses his legs. Without realizing it, she begins to do the same. What is Adrienne exhibiting? a. psychological reactance b. the chameleon effect c. reciprocation wariness d. idiosyncrasy credits ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Higher order

7-2

Chapter 7 Conformity 10. Frank gets a bit anxious in social situations and tends to scratch his nose when he speaks.

Which of the following people is he most likely to feel positively toward? a. Felicia, who mimics Frank's behaviour and scratches her nose while they speak b. Fletcher, who stares quizzically at Frank every time he scratches his nose c. Florence, who averts her gaze and stares at the floor every time Frank scratches his nose d. Faisal, who hands Frank a tissue ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Higher order

11. What will people mimic about others? a. People will mimic the facial expressions of others, but not their moods. b. People will mimic the overt behaviours of others, but not their moods. c. People will mimic the facial expressions of others, but not their overt behaviours. d. People will mimic moods, facial expressions, and the behaviours of others. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 237

BLM: Remember

12. What do psychologists call the tendency to alter thoughts, feelings, and behaviour in ways that

are consistent with group norms? a. psychological reactance b. compliance c. obedience d. conformity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 238

BLM: Remember

13. At the end of the play, everyone else in the theatre stood up and applauded the performance,

so Arturo did as well. What does Arturo's behaviour illustrate? a. compliance b. conformity c. obedience d. reactance ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 238

BLM: Higher order

14. Sherif (1936) asked groups of participants to estimate the distance moved by a point of light.

What did he find? a. Participants were more accurate when they were alone than when they were in groups. b. Participants were more accurate in groups than when they were alone. c. As the study progressed, the participants' estimates began to converge with each other. d. As the study progressed, the participants' estimates began to diverge from each other. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 239

BLM: Remember

7-3

Chapter 7 Conformity 15. You're out with friends when a talk show host walks up and asks if you'll answer a few trivia

questions on camera. When he asks how many feet are in a mile, your first friend says 2000 and your second friend says 3000. You don't know the correct answer, so you say 2500. Your response is similar to the judgments made by participants in which of the following studies? a. Langer et al. (1978) b. Sherif (1936) c. Asch (1951) d. Baron et al. (1996) ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 239

BLM: Remember

16. What did Sherif's (1936) research using the autokinetic effect demonstrate? a. People often look to others as a source of information. b. People are particularly concerned about social rejection. c. Conformity is difficult to establish in the laboratory. d. Only those with whom one has an existing relationship have the power to influence

behaviour. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 239

BLM: Higher order

17. What is the primary difference between the research of Sherif (1936) and Asch (1955)? a. Sherif was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Asch was not. b. Asch was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Sherif was not. c. Sherif relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Asch used an unambiguous task. d. Asch relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Sherif used an unambiguous task. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 239-240

BLM: Higher order

18. How often did the participants in Asch's line judgment study conform? a. approximately 10 percent of the time b. approximately 20 percent of the time c. approximately 30 percent of the time d. approximately 40 percent of the time ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 240

BLM: Remember

19. When were participants likely to conform in Asch's (1951) line similarity study? a. when the correct response was ambiguous. b. when they had no ally in the situation. c. when they had to decide quickly. d. when they gave their opinions privately. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order

7-4

Chapter 7 Conformity 20. Why does informational influence occur? a. because people are uncertain about how to behave, so they look to others for

guidance b. because people fear the possible negative effects of acting differently from others c. because people are motivated to appear consistent in their feelings and behaviours d. because people respond to social norms automatically and without any thought ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Remember

21. When is normative influence most likely to occur? a. when people are uncertain about how to behave and look to others for guidance b. when people fear the possible negative effects of acting differently from others c. when people are motivated to appear consistent in their feelings and behaviours d. when people feel that their freedom to choose a particular course of action has

been threatened ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Remember

22. What was the most likely cause of the conformity seen in Sherif's (1936) study of group

norms? a. normative influence b. reciprocation ideology c. public conformity d. informational influence ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Remember

23. Imagine that some researchers conducted a study and interpreted the results of the study as

indicative of normative influence. In which of the following cases are these researchers most likely to reach this conclusion? a. if participants in their study were truly convinced that the majority was correct in their opinions b. if participants in their study behaved in the way that would be considered normal to people in Western cultures c. if participants in their study did what they felt was morally right, even if it violated social norms in the process d. if participants in their study conformed because they feared the social impact of appearing different ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order

24. Because he sees everyone else reading the newspaper while his psychology professor lectures,

first-year student Oliver decides that it's okay for him to do so as well. What is Oliver exhibiting? a. informational influence b. normative influence c. compliance d. low expectational influence ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order 7-5

Chapter 7 Conformity 25. Which of the following is most likely to occur in an ambiguous situation where the correct

response is unclear, as opposed to a straightforward situation with no ambiguity? a. public conformity b. private conformity c. cognitive dissonance d. superordinate identity ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 242

BLM: Remember

26. Which of the following is the best example of normative influence? a. patients adhering to doctors' recommendations b. people estimating how far a stable dot has moved by referring to others' estimates c. laughing with another’s joke though we don’t really find it funny d. obeying a dictatorial employer ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order

27. Joanie and Calvin have just started to attend church. Joanie pays attention to when the rest of

the congregation sits and stands because she wants to be sure to stand and sit at the appropriate times. What is causing Joanie to conform? a. normative influence b. informational influence c. compliance d. obedience ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order

28. Joanie and Calvin have just started to attend church. Calvin stands up and sits down when the

rest of the congregation does because if he doesn't, the elderly couple across the aisle scowl at him. What is causing Calvin to conform? a. normative influence b. informational influence c. compliance d. obedience ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Higher order

29. What did Asch's study in which participants were asked to make judgments about the lengths

of various lines demonstrate? a. how vulnerable people are to normative social influence b. how vulnerable people are to two-step compliance techniques c. how vulnerable people are to informational social influence d. how vulnerable people are to cultural influences ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 240

BLM: Higher order

7-6

Chapter 7 Conformity 30. Arnold wears suits every day to his job at the bank, but when he is at home in the evening and

on weekends he spends most of his time nude because that is what he finds most comfortable. What does Arnold's daytime behaviour illustrate? a. perceptual contrast b. informational influence c. conversion d. public conformity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 242

BLM: Higher order

31. The experience of being ostracized (or left out by a group) has been found to be which of the

following? a. fleeting and relatively harmless b. more disturbing for women than for men c. similar in brain activation to the experience of physical pain d. ineffective in changing behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 241

BLM: Remember

32. Though she initially attended the pro-choice rally because all her friends were going, Marion

now firmly believes in a woman's right to choose. What do Marion's new beliefs illustrate? a. private conformity b. public conformity c. reciprocation ideology d. reciprocation wariness ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 242

BLM: Higher order

33. Participants in an experiment are asked to look at pictures of different infants and rate the

attractiveness of each infant on a 10-point scale. The participants are tested in groups of three and indicate their ratings aloud. For almost all of the infants, the participants tend to give ratings similar to other group members. Under which of the following conditions can we be most certain that their ratings represent private conformity rather than public conformity? a. if they exhibit much less conformity in the presence of the experimenter b. if they give the same ratings alone as they do in the group c. if their ratings result from their desire to fit in with the rest of the group members d. if they are not especially motivated to be accurate in their judgments ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 242

BLM: Higher order

34. Which of the following effects does normative influence tend to produce? a. obedience b. compliance c. public conformity d. private conformity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Remember

7-7

Chapter 7 Conformity 35. Which of the following does informational influence tend to produce? a. obedience b. compliance c. public conformity d. private conformity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Remember

36. Why can we conclude that participants in Sherif's study exhibited private conformity rather

than public conformity? a. because when they were retested without their fellow group members, participants reverted to their original estimates b. because they would report their group's normative estimate when asked to respond aloud, but not when asked to respond in writing c. because they continued to use their group estimates when retested alone one year later d. because they influenced others to behave in line with group estimates ANS: C

PTS: 1

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37. Laverne conforms because of informational influence and Emily conforms because of

normative influence. Compared to Emily, which of the following is Laverne more likely to do? a. internalize the conforming behaviour b. exhibit superficial behavioural changes c. conform in few circumstances d. conform publicly but not privately ANS: A

PTS: 1

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38. In a particular situation, Arlene exhibits public conformity, whereas Ron exhibits private

conformity. How are Arlene and Ron likely to be influenced? a. Both Arlene and Ron are affected strongly by informational influence, but only Ron is affected strongly by normative influence as well. b. Both Arlene and Ron are affected strongly by informational influence, but only Arlene is affected strongly by normative influence as well. For Arlene the reality of the situation was very unclear, whereas for Ron it was very clear. c. Arlene will be affected strongly by minority influence, whereas Ron will be affected strongly by majority influence. d. Arlene will conform only when others were present, whereas Ron will conform regardless of whether others were present. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 242

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7-8

Chapter 7 Conformity 39. In a study by Baron et al. (1996) in which groups of three participants were asked to act as

eyewitnesses, in which of the following situations did the greatest level of conformity occur? a. when participants were motivated to be accurate and the task was quite easy b. when participants were motivated to be accurate and the task was quite difficult c. when participants were motivated to be accepted by their partners and the task was quite easy d. when participants were motivated to be accepted by their partners and the task was quite difficult ANS: B

PTS: 1

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40. When is normative influence more likely to occur than informational influence? a. when reality is uncertain b. when people are motivated to be accurate c. when people are motivated to avoid social rejection d. when responses must be made privately ANS: C

PTS: 1

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BLM: Remember

41. Conan participates in an experiment where he and three other participants are asked to judge

the quality of a series of abstract paintings. Under which of the following circumstances is Conan least likely to exhibit informational influence? a. if each painting is shown for only a few seconds b. if he is motivated to be very accurate in his judgments c. if there is no objective criteria by which to make such judgments d. if there is a clear and unambiguous response for each painting ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 241

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42. Ashley and two others witness a crime that takes place in a very short amount of time. Kate

and Beth are both suspects. The two other witnesses indicate that it was Beth who committed the crime. Under which of the following circumstances is Ashley most likely to conform to the others? a. if she stands to be rewarded for accuracy b. if it is a very minor crime c. if she is the first person to be asked to identify the culprit d. if she is shown a videotape of the crime that happens to be available ANS: A

PTS: 1

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43. Why do conformity levels NOT continue to increase dramatically as the group size gets bigger

and bigger? a. because additions to the group are subject to the law of diminishing returns b. because additions to the group are subject to low-balling c. because additions to the group are subject to the silence of norms d. because additions to the group are subject to perceptual contrast ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Remember

7-9

Chapter 7 Conformity 44. Jeff is asked what main dish was served for lunch at the cafeteria yesterday. He thinks it was

roast beef but, before responding, he observes six other students who say the main dish was pizza. Under which of the following circumstances is Jeff most likely to say the main dish was pizza? a. if he hears the response from the six other students in three pairs of two b. if he hears the response from all the students at once c. if he hears the response from the six students at six different times in six different places d. if he hears the response from the six other students in two pairs of three ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Higher order

45. As group size increases, what happens to conformity? a. It will increase. b. It will decrease. c. It will increase, as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an

independent source of influence. d. It will decrease, as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an

independent source of influence. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Higher order

46. With respect to the impact of group size on conformity, what did Asch find? a. that there was greater conformity with ten confederates than with five confederates b. that conformity increases as an exponential function of group size c. that one group of six confederates produced more conformity than two groups of

three confederates d. that there were negligible increases in conformity after three or four confederates ANS: D

PTS: 1

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BLM: Remember

47. How does group size affect conformity? a. As the number of group members increases, they are more likely to be perceived as

acting independently. b. Large majority groups have a greater effect on conformity than smaller majority

groups due to the perception that they have more accurate knowledge. c. Each additional group member exerts less influence than previous members. d. When there is a clear leader, group size no longer affects conformity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Higher order

7-10

Chapter 7 Conformity 48. Reuben notices a group of eight people littering in the park. Rachel sees four different pairs of

people littering in the park. Which of the following is the best prediction of likelihood that Reuben and/or Rachel will follow the group norms? a. Reuben is more likely to conform to the behaviour of the litterbugs than is Rachel. b. Rachel is more likely to conform to the behaviour of the litterbugs than is Reuben. c. Reuben and Rachel are equally likely to conform to the behaviour of the litterbugs. d. Reuben is more likely to conform because of informational influence, but Rachel is more likely to conform because of normative influence. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Higher order

49. A study found that most students overestimate how comfortable their peers are with alcohol

on campus. What does this misperception illustrate? a. pluralistic ignorance b. psychological reactance c. mass psychogenic illness d. the chameleon effect ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Remember

50. Which of the following does pluralistic ignorance about alcohol use on campus illustrate? a. normative influence b. the effects of group size on conformity c. compliance d. how perceptions of social norms are usually accurate ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Higher order

51. According to research by Neighbours et al. (2006), under which of the following

circumstances are university students likely to have more positive attitudes toward drinking on campus and consume more alcohol? a. if they attend universities that strictly forbid drinking on campus b. if they participate in workshops designed to increase their personal responsibility for drinking c. if they overestimate the favourability of their peers' attitudes toward drinking d. if they believe such attitudes and behaviour are inconsistent with social norms ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 243

BLM: Remember

52. Cialdini et al. (1990) observed participants in a clean or cluttered parking garage. In which of

the following situations did they find that participants were most likely to litter? a. when the participants observed a confederate litter in the cluttered garage b. when the participants observed a confederate litter in the clean garage c. when the participants observed a confederate place trash in the proper receptacle in a cluttered garage d. when the participants observed a confederate place trash in the proper receptacle in a clean garage ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 244

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7-11

Chapter 7 Conformity 53. When are social norms are most likely to lead to conformity? a. when they are behavioural b. when they are salient c. when they are complex d. when they are subtle ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 244

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54. What did Cialdini and colleagues (1992) find in their study examining norms about littering? a. They found that similar levels of littering occurred in every parking lot studied. b. They found that littering was more common when the parking lot was clear of

debris. c. They found that littering was more common when the parking lot had some limited debris on the ground. d. They found that littering was more common when the parking lot was covered in debris. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 244

BLM: Remember

55. Stuart works for an energy company. He thinks the company's money should be invested in

developing solar energy. However, in a meeting of his co-workers, it becomes evident to Stuart that his co-workers support the company's continued investment in fossil fuel, the typical source of energy for residents in their community. Which of the following would make Stuart less likely to conform to the opinion of his co-workers? a. if the group decreases in size from 15 to 10 b. if supporting continued investments is consistent with the norms of the company c. if Joyce, one of his co-workers, voices her support for investing the company's money in developing nuclear energy d. if Stuart is younger than his co-workers ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 244

BLM: Higher order

56. Mary has just heard five friends say that Ontario is the largest province in Canada, when she

knows it is Quebec. Rob, the next friend in line, says that Alberta is the largest province. In this situation, Mary is now less likely to conform to the first five friends than if Rob had said which of the following? a. that Quebec is the largest province b. that Ontario is the largest province c. that he isn't sure d. that Manitoba is the largest province ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 244

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57. What reduces the normative pressure to conform to a majority? a. primarily credible allies b. most allies, except for non-credible allies c. primarily allies of the same sex d. any ally ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 245

BLM: Remember 7-12

Chapter 7 Conformity 58. According to research on the subject, which of the following factors is the most important

influence on the relationship between gender and conformity? a. familiarity with the issue at hand b. the experimenter's expectations c. reciprocation ideology d. whether the prevailing social norm is salient ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 245

BLM: Remember

59. According to research on the subject, which of the following factors affects whether men

conform more than women, or vice versa? a. socioeconomic status b. whether the individuals think they are being observed c. whether the individuals have earned idiosyncrasy credits d. the number of people in the majority ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 244

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60. How do men and women differ in conformity? a. Men exhibit greater conformity than women in face-to-face interactions. b. Men exhibit greater conformity than women regardless of the situation. c. Women exhibit greater conformity than men in face-to-face interactions. d. Women exhibit greater conformity than men regardless of the situation. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 245

BLM: Remember

61. Women conform more and men conform less when they believe they are being observed.

According to Eagly (1987), why does this occur? a. because being watched makes people self-aware, which brings out their underlying personalities b. because women are easier to manipulate, whereas men tend to be more independent c. because women and men tend to be knowledgeable about different kinds of topics d. because people feel greater pressure in public to behave in ways consistent with their gender-role ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 245

BLM: Higher order

62. Lee attends a pre-screening of a new romantic comedy with a group of four people, and then

participates in a focus group where the group is asked several questions about the film. The group is asked, “How funny is the film?” Each member of the group responds to the question. Lee responds last, after hearing the rest of the group say that the movie was very funny. In which of the following cases would Lee be most likely to agree with them? a. if Lee is female b. if Lee is from an individualistic culture c. if Lee is elderly d. if Lee's group had seven people instead of four ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 245

BLM: Higher order 7-13

Chapter 7 Conformity 63. How does a collectivist culture usually differ from an individualistic one? a. A collectivist culture tends to have greater complexity. b. A collectivist culture tends to have greater affluence. c. A collectivist culture tends to have greater cultural diversity. d. A collectivist culture tends to have greater conformity. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 246

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64. Compared to individualist cultures, which of the following are collectivist cultures more likely

to exhibit? a. greater conformity in nearly all contexts b. greater conformity in some contexts but not others c. greater non-conformity in nearly all contexts d. greater non-conformity in some contexts but not others ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 246

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65. Differences between individualist and collectivist cultures in conformity can be partially

explained by differential emphasis on which of the following? a. personal goals b. number of people c. ranks of authority d. number of group associations ANS: A

PTS: 1

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66. How do individuals from Eastern cultures usually differ from those from Western cultures in

their responses to social influence? a. Those from Eastern cultures are more likely to have an independent orientation. b. Those from Eastern cultures are more likely to conform to a public norm. c. Those from Eastern cultures are more likely to disobey an authority. d. Those from Eastern cultures are more likely to possess greater heterogeneity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 246

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67. If Australian children were placed in the same classroom as Canadian and Venezuelan

children, which of the following would most likely happen? a. The Canadian children would conform more than the Venezuelan children. b. The Canadian children would conform more than the Venezuelan children. c. The Venezuelan children would conform more than the Australian children. d. The three groups of children would probably conform to the same extent. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 246

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7-14

Chapter 7 Conformity 68. In Asch's conformity study, approximately how often did participants refuse to conform? a. 25 percent of the time b. 37 percent of the time c. 63 percent of the time d. 75 percent of the time ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Remember

69. According to Moscovici, from what do minorities derive their power to influence? a. their sheer numbers b. their social standing c. their style of behaviour d. their normative influence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Remember

70. According to Moscovici, from what do majorities derive their power to influence? a. their sheer numbers b. their social standing c. their style of behaviour

D their informational influence ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 247

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71. Brenda and Eddie are the only two people in a group of 12 to oppose a particular proposal. In

which of the following cases would they have the best chance of influencing the majority? a. if they present their arguments in a consistent, forceful style b. if they try to exert normative influence on the rest of the group c. if they emphasize the social norms created within the group d. if they present themselves as an outgroup rather than as part of the ingroup ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Higher order

72. Keith is a member of a jury trying to decide whether the accused is guilty of the terrible

murder for which she has been charged. All of the members of the jury wish to convict except Keith, who believes she is innocent. Under which of the following circumstances will Keith have the best chance at having the others seriously consider his position? a. if he appears confident in his view that she is innocent b. if he only considers the evidence supporting his point of view c. if he stands up while presenting his view to the group d. if he presents his view after all the other members have stated their views ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 248

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7-15

Chapter 7 Conformity 73. Why does a consistent behavioural style increase minority influence? a. because a consistent minority will be more likely to generate many

counter-arguments b. because a consistent minority challenges the majority in a positive way c. because the position advocated by a consistent minority is more likely to be perceived as valid d. because a consistent minority is easier for the majority to dismiss ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Remember

74. Which of the following is the best explanation of the “minority slowness effect”? a. Members of minority groups are often slow to change their minds during group

discussion. b. It takes longer for minority group members to change the minds of majority group

members than vice versa. c. People with minority opinions are slower to respond to questions about the topic

than people with majority opinions. d. People who hold unpopular opinions may be slower to process incoming

information. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Higher order

75. The residents on Northgate Road have convened to discuss whether their private road should

be paved. The majority are in favour of having the road paved. However Nicholas, a long-time resident, expresses his opposition. Which of the following is least likely? a. The residents will think more carefully about the issue of paving the road because Nicholas presented a dissenting opinion. b. Nicholas's status of being a long-time resident and its accompanying idiosyncrasy credits will help him influence the group. c. Nicholas will not gain private conformity to his opinion, only public conformity. d. Nicholas will be more influential if he repeatedly expresses his opposition as the group discusses the benefits of paving the road. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 247

BLM: Higher order

76. According to the dual-process view of social influence, which of the following best describes

the workings of majority and minority influence? a. A majority influences people to change their private views. b. A majority influences by informational influence. c. A minority influences people to change their private views. d. A minority influences by normative influence. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Higher order

7-16

Chapter 7 Conformity 77. Which of the following is most consistent with the idea that minority influence works in the

same way that majority influence? a. the interpersonal relations model b. research comparing normative and informational influence c. the single-process approach d. research comparing private and public conformity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Higher order

78. How are minority and majority influence understood by the dual-process view of social

influence? a. Majority and minority influence are two processes that occur for similar reasons. b. Majority and minority influence are two processes that occur in very different ways. c. Majority influence is most likely to produce private conformity. d. Minority influence is most likely to result in public conformity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Remember

79. According to the dual-process approach, how do majorities exert influence? a. by producing informational influence effects b. by producing public conformity effects c. by producing reactance effects d. by producing conversion effects ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Remember

80. According to the dual-process approach, how do minorities exert influence? a. by producing normative influence effects b. by producing public conformity effects c. by producing obedience effects d. by producing conversion effects ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Remember

81. At a student council meeting, the officers representing the second-, third-, and fourth-year

students all supported a particular policy concerning alcohol at parties. Only those officers representing the first-year students were opposed to this policy. According to the relevant research, the majority in this case would be most likely to influence the minority by producing which of the following? a. private conformity b. reciprocation wariness c. long-lasting conformity d. normative pressures ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Higher order

7-17

Chapter 7 Conformity 82. At a campaign meeting, the majority of the staff argue that they should use negative ads to

attack their opponent. Despite their strong feelings on this matter, Stefan argues successfully for positive ads. According to the dual-process approach, what has Stefan's influence most likely resulted in? a. defiance b. conversion c. public conformity d. collusion ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Higher order

83. In which of the following cases will a majority show greater influence than a minority? a. Majorities are more influential than minorities on subjective questions. b. Majorities exert more informational influence than normative influence. c. Majorities produce more influence than minorities on questions of faith. d. Majorities produce more public conformity, whereas minorities produce private

conformity. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 228-230

BLM: Higher order

84. What did research by Nemeth (1986) find about minority viewpoints? a. They can dramatically impair the functioning of a group. b. They are valuable because they can improve the quality of the groups' decision

making. c. They are likely to make members of the majority more close-minded and

defensive. d. They can only effectively produce a change in the majority if supported by

normative pressures. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 248

BLM: Higher order

85. As compared to conformity, which of the following best describes compliance? a. It occurs only after careful deliberation. b. It occurs in response to a direct request. c. It occurs publicly, but not privately. d. It occurs as a result of less direct pressure from others. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 249

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86. How are people most likely to respond when they are presented with a request accompanied

by a reason that does NOT offer a real justification for the request? a. They will respond with skeptical reactance. b. They will respond by asking for a more complete explanation. c. They will respond with surprise followed by caution. d. They will respond by complying mindlessly. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 249

BLM: Remember

7-18

Chapter 7 Conformity 87. Mara needs to borrow James's pen and is pondering how to ask him. She considers three

options—asking for the pen outright without any reasoning, telling him that she needs the pen “to write something,” or telling him that she needs it “to sign a letter.” Which of the following is the most likely to occur? a. James is more likely to comply with the outright request than the “letter” plea. b. James is equally likely to comply with the “letter” plea and the outright request. c. James is less likely to comply with the “write something” plea than the outright request. d. James is equally likely to comply with the “letter” plea and the “write something” plea. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 249

BLM: Higher order

88. Harry needs to borrow a quarter from Athena. Which of the following requests would Athena

most likely comply with? a. “I would appreciate it if you could give me a quarter.” b. “I would appreciate it if you could give me a dollar, but a quarter will do.” c. “I would appreciate it if you could give me a quarter, because I need to make a phone call.” d. “I would appreciate it if you could give me a quarter, and please do not expect me to return the favour later.” ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 249-251

BLM: Higher order

89. What do psychologists call the unspoken rule dictating that we should treat others as they

have treated us? a. the social impact theory b. the norm of reciprocity c. the dual-process approach d. the equity principle ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 49

BLM: Remember

90. In order to increase sales of her Girl Guide cookies, Cindy gives potential customers a free

sample before asking them to purchase a box of cookies. What is Cindy using to increase her sales? a. the door-in-the-face technique b. the that's-not-all technique c. the norm of reciprocity d. the chameleon effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 249

BLM: Higher order

7-19

Chapter 7 Conformity 91. People who are especially likely to exploit the norm of reciprocity for personal gain can be

identified by questionnaires that measure which of the following? a. their social impact b. their vulnerability to informational influence c. their idiosyncrasy credits d. their reciprocation ideology ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 250

BLM: Remember

92. Nomar is trying to get Mo to buy a set of encyclopedias. If Nomar wants to use the

foot-in-the-door technique properly and successfully, what should he be careful to do? a. make sure that Mo attributes his compliance with the first request to external reasons b. make sure that the first request is more cumbersome than the second request c. make sure that he gets someone else to make the second request d. make sure that he minimizes the contrast between the first and second request ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 251

BLM: Higher order

93. What do psychologists call the compliance technique in which compliance to a desired request

is increased by first gaining compliance to a smaller, but related, request? a. low-balling b. the that's-not-all technique c. the foot-in-the-door technique d. the door-in-the-face technique ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 251

BLM: Remember

94. Which of the following does the foot-in-the-door technique take particular advantage of? a. the desire to maintain consistent self-perceptions b. the norm of reciprocity c. the effect of mindlessness d. the perceived contrast between small and large requests ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 251

BLM: Higher order

95. As he was about to enter the mall, Evan was approached by someone and asked to wear a

small green ribbon on his shirt to show his support for the “Save the Squirrels” campaign. Evan wasn't quite sure that squirrels were actually endangered, but he agreed to wear the ribbon. A week later, Evan was approached again and asked to contribute $10 to help save the squirrels. Though he would have rather spent his money elsewhere, he agreed. What has Evan been the victim of? a. low-balling b. the foot-in-the-door technique c. the door-in-the-face technique d. the that's-not-all technique ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 251

BLM: Remember

7-20

Chapter 7 Conformity 96. What do we call the technique of getting a commitment from a potential customer and then

changing the terms of the agreement? a. reciprocal concession b. cognitive dissonance c. the foot-in-the-door technique d. low-balling ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 252

BLM: Remember

97. One explanation for the effectiveness of low-balling is that it is based on the psychology of

which of the following? a. conformity b. commitment c. salience d. vigilance ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 252

BLM: Higher order

98. Imogene calls potential research participants and asks if they would be willing to participate

in her psychology experiment. Once they have agreed to participate, she informs them that the experiment is at 7:00 in the morning on a Saturday. Though most participants are not happy to hear this information, almost all of them do show up for the experiment. Which of the following has Imogene used? a. low-balling b. the foot-in-the-door technique c. the door-in-the-face technique d. psychological reactance ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 252

BLM: Higher order

99. Jamie wants an extra day to write a paper for class. Jamie first asks the professor for a

one-week extension for the paper assignment. The professor refuses. Jamie then asks for a one-day extension. The professor agrees. What does Jamie's behaviour illustrate? a. the door-in-the-face technique b. the foot-in-the-door technique c. reactance d. the dual-process approach ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 253

BLM: Remember

100. Which of the following can help to explain why the door-in-the-face technique can increase

compliance? a. feelings of anger b. psychological commitment c. perceptions of consistency d. reciprocal concessions ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 253

BLM: Higher order

7-21

Chapter 7 Conformity 101. Why is the door in the face technique effective? a. because it elicits intentions to comply, but not actual compliance b. because it is related to the norm of reciprocity c. because it is related to the need for consistency d. because it elicits a positive mood ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 254

BLM: Higher order

102. Natasha convinces Joel to take her to the airport by first asking him to loan her his car for a

week. Her attempt to get Joel to do her a favour is most likely based on the principles of which of the following? a. commitment and reciprocity b. perceptual contrast and self-perception c. reciprocity and perceptual contrast d. self-perception and commitment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 252

BLM: Higher order

103. When trying to convince customers to purchase articles of clothing from their store, the

salespeople at Fashion Flourishes often attempt to sweeten the deal by adding free hosiery and gift certificates. What does this sales strategy illustrate? a. low-balling b. the that's-not-all technique c. the foot-in-the-door technique d. the door-in-the-face technique ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 254

BLM: Higher order

104. Which of the following can help us resist the requests of others? a. being aware of the need for reciprocity b. being busy c. directing the request toward a “creditor” d. perceiving compliance attempts as manipulative ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 255

BLM: Higher order

105. What were some unintended consequences of Milgram's research on obedience? a. The studies brought attention to issues of ethics in research. b. The research brought attention to cultural differences. c. The studies brought attention to issues of prejudice. d. The research brought attention to sub-cultural differences. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 258

BLM: Higher order

7-22

Chapter 7 Conformity 106. Which of the following was part of the procedure in Milgram's research on destructive

obedience? a. Participants played the role of learner and received electric shocks that were so intense that they screamed in pain. b. Participants played the role of teacher and believed they administered electric shocks that were so intense that the other person screamed in pain. c. Participants played the role of teacher and received electric shocks that were so intense that they screamed in pain. d. Participants played the role of learner, and believed they administered electric shocks that were so intense that the other person screamed in pain. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 258

BLM: Remember

107. What percentage of the participants in Milgram's study of destructive obedience demonstrated

complete obedience to the experimenter? a. 10 percent b. 35 percent c. 65 percent d. 90 percent ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 258

BLM: Remember

108. Which of the following factors was related to the amount of obedience exhibited in the

Milgram obedience study? a. the participant's sex b. the proximity of the learner to the teacher c. the physical layout of the room d. the severity of the learner’s protests ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 258

BLM: Remember

109. When Cheryl is with her supervisors, she obeys their decisions without question. But when

she is with employees under her supervision, she is aggressive and demanding. What would social psychologists most likely say about Cheryl? a. She has idiosyncrasy credits. b. She has an introverted character. c. She has reciprocation wariness. d. She has an authoritarian personality. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 259

BLM: Higher order

110. If someone scores high on the F-scale, which of the following is he or she most likely to do? a. conform in the Asch study b. comply with sequential requests c. pay attention to minority views d. obey in the Milgram study ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 259

BLM: Remember

7-23

Chapter 7 Conformity 111. Which of the following people is most likely to obey in Milgram's study? a. a woman participating in a study being conducted in a run-down office building b. a participant of either gender in a study being conducted in a run-down office

building c. a woman participating in a study being conducted at Yale University d. a participant of either gender in a study being conducted at Yale University ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 259

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112. Which of the following factors reduced the level of obedience in the Milgram experiment? a. conducting the experiment at a higher-prestige institution b. having the experimenter stand behind the teacher c. informing the participants that the experimenter assumed responsibility for the

learner's welfare d. having the learner be in the same room as the participant ANS: D

PTS: 1

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113. What characterized those participants in Milgram's study who went to the very end of the

shock meter? a. They were often diagnosed as abnormal by a team of psychiatrists. b. They were more often men. c. They were typical of the population. d. They were more often very prejudiced. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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114. In follow up studies, how was Milgram able to manipulate the level of obedience? a. Obedience disappeared when participants were required to manually force the

victim's hand onto a shock plate. b. Obedience was higher when the experimenter informed participants that he took complete responsibility for any consequences to the learner. c. Obedience was higher when the experimenter gave directions in person. d. Obedience disappeared when the experiment was conducted by an ordinary person rather than the experimenter. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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115. How generalizable are Milgram’s obedience studies? a. The findings generalized only in Northern U.S. cities. b. The findings are still generalizable to the current population. c. The findings did not generalize beyond the U.S. d. The results are only generalizable to male participants. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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7-24

Chapter 7 Conformity 116. How did the level of obedience in recent research by Meeus and Raaijmakers (1995), compare

to obedience in Milgram’s research? a. Their research showed lower rates of obedience than Milgram’s study due to less conformity in present day society. b. Their research showed higher rates of obedience than Milgram’s study. c. Their research revealed that, like Milgram's study, over 50 percent of participants exhibited total obedience. d. Their research showed lower rates of obedience than Milgram’s study, because the task was so distasteful. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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117. According to social impact theory, which of the following is determined by a source's

proximity in time and space? a. its strength b. its immediacy c. its number d. its popularity ANS: B

PTS: 1

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118. Which of the following would be predicted by social impact theory? a. A person is more likely to obey a nearby authority than one who is far away. b. Each person in a group of three contributes less money to a tip for their waitperson

than each person in a group of ten. c. A teacher can exert more control over a large class than a small class. d. Patients are more likely to follow advice given by nurses than advice given by

doctors. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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119. Stan is a new student in his Grade 6 class. The other students exert normative pressure on him

to conform to their opinion on some issue. According to social impact theory, in which of the following cases will Stan be more likely to resist this influence? a. if there are 20 rather than 11 students in the class b. if he perceives the other students as having high status c. if there are three other new students in the class who are receiving the same pressures d. if he comes from a culture that values a collectivist orientation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 265

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120. Which of the following statements best describes the relative importance of factors to social

impact theory? a. Immediacy is more important than physical proximity. b. Understanding conformity is more important than understanding obedience. c. Source strength is less important than the number of sources. d. Prestige of a source is more important than the intelligence of a source. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 266

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Chapter 7 Conformity

ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast normative influence and informational influence. Which of these types

of influence played a bigger role in Sherif's study of group norms (in which participants estimated how far a dot of light appeared to move)? And which played a bigger role in Asch's study of conformity and independence (in which participants made judgments involving the lengths of lines)? Explain your answers. ANS:

Normative influence leads people to conform out of fear of the negative social consequences of appearing deviant. Indeed, to avoid standing out from the rest of the group and risking embarrassment, they will often conform to the majority even if they think the majority is wrong. Alternatively, informational influence leads people to conform when they believe others are correct in their judgments. In this case, they conform to the majority because they assume that the relatively large number of people holding a particular opinion or behaving in a particular way suggests that these people are correct. The primary influence found in Sherif's study was informational influence, because the situation was very ambiguous for the participants. They could not be sure how far the dot of light really moved, so they looked to the other participants to provide information about the correct answers. Even when participants in Sherif's study were later asked to make the same judgments alone (where there would be little pressure against deviating from a group norm), they continued to make judgments consistent with the group norm; this suggests that the participants conformed to the group norm because of the information provided earlier. In Asch's study, however, normative influence played the bigger role. Here, the situation was not ambiguous; the correct answers were obvious to the participants. Not needing the other people in the group to provide them with answers that they already knew, the participants were not vulnerable to informational influence. Rather, Asch's participants were concerned about deviating from the opinions expressed by a unanimous majority. Indeed, when these participants were asked to write down their answers privately, their levels of conformity dropped sharply. PTS: 1

7-26

Chapter 7 Conformity 2. A council meeting has produced heated debate about some issue. Most of the members of the

council hold one opinion, but a few hold another. During a break in the meeting, the members of the council who have the minority opinion call you for advice as to the best way to influence the majority of the council. Based on social psychological research, particularly that concerning the dual-process approach, what should you advise them to do? ANS:

According to the dual-process approach, minorities and majorities exert influence in different ways. You should advise the council members to take advantage of factors that enhance minority influence rather than trying to manipulate factors that enhance majority influence. One such factor is the style of behaviour. The research of Moscovici and others has suggested that consistency is very important. That is, the people in the minority should be forceful, persistent, and unwavering in support of their view, while appearing to be open-minded and flexible. Hollander recommends a different approach, however. Hollander argues that those in the minority should first conform to the majority opinions in order to establish themselves as competent insiders, and only then dissent from the majority. Thus, you should advise the council members that they initially show their support for the majority's opinion and then suggest their own opinion, and further, that they present their arguments for this latter position in a forceful, persistent, and unwavering style. In addition, the council members should also call for an anonymous, private vote on the issue, as minorities exert stronger influence on private measures of conformity than on public measures. PTS: 1 3. Describe the door-in-the-face technique, and explain why this is an effective compliance

strategy. What evidence is there to support your explanation of why this technique is effective? ANS:

The door-in-the-face technique is a two-step technique. It begins with a ridiculous request, which, once denied by the audience, is followed up with a more reasonable request. This strategy is effective because it draws on the norm of reciprocity (i.e., the reduction leads the target to reciprocate and accede to the second request) and on perceptual contrast (i.e., the second request does not look so arduous as compared with the first one). In one study, university students were more likely to agree to escorting juvenile delinquents to the zoo for one day if they had been first asked if they would volunteer time over many weeks to work with these children than if they had not received this initial request. PTS: 1

7-27

Chapter 7 Conformity 4. Specific variables concerning the victim in Milgram's research on destructive obedience

affected participants' levels of obedience. Identify one such variable, and describe the nature of its effect. ANS:

One variable in question was the proximity of the victim in relation to participants. The less physically separated they were, the less willing were participants to obey the experimenter and administer the maximum number of shocks. When the victim was in the same room as the participants, 40 percent of the participants fully obeyed, compared to 65 percent in the baseline condition where the victim was in an adjacent room. When participants were required to physically grasp the victim's hand and force it onto a metal shock plate, full obedience dropped to 30 percent. Physical separation from the victim allowed participants to distance themselves emotionally from the consequences of their actions, thus enabling them to obey the experimenter's orders to shock the victim. But the closer the victim was to the participants, the more difficult it was for them to achieve this emotional distance, and, therefore, the negative consequences of their actions were impossible to ignore. Social impact theory offers a related explanation, one that accounts for the effects of proximity in terms of the immediacy of the sources of influence. Just as the experimenter is a source of influence on the participants, so too is the victim a source of influence, but in an opposite manner. That is, the experimenter influences the participants to obey, and the victim, by protesting and crying out in pain, influences the participants to defy the experimenter's orders. The more distant the victim is from the participant, the less immediate is this source of influence, and, therefore, the less social impact it has. PTS: 1

7-28

Chapter 7 Conformity 5. In Asch's study of conformity and independence, in which participants made judgments

involving the lengths of lines in the context of a group of people (actually confederates), a surprisingly high level of conformity was observed among the participants. By contrast, in a study conducted by Gamson et al., in which an experimenter ordered groups of participants to make videotaped statements supporting an oil company, most of the participants defied the orders of the experimenter. From the perspective of social impact theory, explain why so many of the participants in Asch's study conformed, while so many in Gamson et al. study were defiant. ANS:

Social impact theory maintains that social influence depends on the strength, immediacy, and number of source persons relative to target persons. It is this third component—the number of source persons relative to target persons—that is particularly relevant in explaining the difference between the two studies. Although the participants in both studies participated in groups, the groups exerted different influences on the participants. In Asch's study, the groups consisted of a number of confederates, each of whom was a source of influence operating on the one naive participant. These confederates all gave the same wrong answers, creating normative pressure on the naive participant to not deviate from the unanimous majority. In contrast, the groups in Gamson et al.'s study consisted of naive participants, all of whom were targets of the one source of social influence in the study. According to social impact theory, the social impact of a source person is weakened when it is divided across a number of target persons. This was the case in the study by Gamson and colleagues. Thus, whereas the presence of other people in the Asch study created more sources of social influence, thereby increasing the pressure on participants to conform, the presence of other people in the study by Gamson et al. diluted the impact of the one source of social influence, thereby making it easier for the participants to resist this influence. PTS: 1

7-29

Chapter 8: Group Processes MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Martha and Janice both live in Vancouver. Martha lives in False Creek and Janice lives in the

West End. In which of the following scenarios would they be most likely to consider themselves in the same group? a. They both play softball and their teams are playing in a local tournament. b. They both raise funds for the same charity. c. They both shop at Safeway, the grocery store chain in their neighbourhood. d. They both use Vancouver transit. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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2. How do groups differ from collectives? a. Groups, but not collectives, engage in common activities. b. Collectives, but not groups, engage in common activities. c. Groups have more direct interaction with one another than collectives do. d. Collectives have more direct interaction with one another than groups do. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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3. What do psychologists call people who are engaged in a common enterprise but have little

direct interaction? a. a minimal group b. a collective c. conspecifics d. a disjunctive group ANS: B

PTS: 1

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4. Which of the following would most likely be described as a collective? a. members of a fraternity b. children attending summer camp c. passengers on a plane d. a family ANS: C

PTS: 1

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5. What do psychologists call the extent to which group members think, act, and feel like a

single entity? a. social integration b. social facilitation c. need for affiliation d. groupthink ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 272

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8-1

Chapter 8 Group Processes 6. In one of the earliest social psychological experiments, Triplett (1898) had children wind

fishing reels as quickly as they could. What did he find? a. The children were fastest when observed by the experimenter. b. Winding times were faster without an audience than with an audience. c. The children were faster when working next to another child rather than alone. d. The children were faster working alone than with a partner. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 277

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7. What do psychologists call the tendency for the presence of other people to increase

performance on easy tasks and impair performance on difficult tasks? a. social loafing b. social facilitation c. group polarization d. groupthink ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 278

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8. Vladimir, a basketball novice, makes about 70 percent of his free throws when practising

alone. However, when playing with his friends, he only makes about 50 percent of his free throws. What is the most likely cause of this decrease? a. social facilitation b. deindividuation c. group polarization d. groupthink ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9. What effect will facilitation of the dominant response from increased arousal tend to have? a. It will make easy tasks easier, but difficult tasks more challenging. b. It will make both easy and difficult tasks easier. c. It will have no effect on easy tasks, but will make difficult tasks more challenging. d. It will have no effect on challenging tasks, but will make easy tasks easier. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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10. Zajonc's model for how the presence of others influences individual performance is known as

social facilitation. In this case, what does “facilitation” refers to? a. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's ability to focus on the task at hand b. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's task performance c. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's evaluation apprehension d. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's dominant response ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 279

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8-2

Chapter 8 Group Processes 11. According to the theory of social facilitation, what effect should the presence of others have

on someone who is performing a task? a. It should improve performance on both easy and challenging tasks. b. It should impair performance on both easy and challenging tasks. c. It should improve performance on easy tasks and impair performance on challenging tasks. d. It should impair performance on easy tasks and improve performance on challenging tasks. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 278

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12. Your psychology professor calls you in front of the class and asks you to answer practice

exam questions in front of everyone. You find the questions to be easy. According to the model of social facilitation, how should you perform in front of the class compared to working on the questions alone? a. You would respond more slowly but get more correct answers. b. You would respond more quickly but get more incorrect answers. c. You would perform better if the task is well practised. d. You would perform worse if the task is newly learned. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 278

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13. Consider the research by Zajonc et al. (1969), in which cockroaches run in simple or complex

mazes either alone, in pairs, or with an audience. Which explanation of social facilitation does this research provide support for? a. the evaluation apprehension theory b. the distraction-conflict theory c. the persuasive arguments theory d. the mere presence theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 280

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14. According to Zajonc's mere presence hypothesis, what does social facilitation result from? a. the physical immediacy of others b. concerns about being evaluated by others c. dividing attention between the task at hand and the audience d. a reduction in arousal ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 280

BLM: Remember

15. Cottrell et al. (1968) found that dominant responses were no more frequent among people

working in the presence of blindfolded others than among people working alone. Which theory of social facilitation is this finding consistent with? a. the evaluation apprehension theory b. the distraction-conflict theory c. the persuasive arguments theory d. the mere presence theory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 280

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8-3

Chapter 8 Group Processes 16. Which of the following has been proposed to explain social facilitation? a. group cohesiveness b. norms of group behaviour c. distraction, which can create attentional conflict d. the tendency for people to feel less accountable in a group context ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 280

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17. Consider the research of Ingham and colleagues (1974), in which blindfolded people were led

to believe they were pulling a rope with others. What did the researchers find about the effort expended by those blindfolded participants? a. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled as hard during their peaks of effort, but they took more rests b. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled harder. c. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled as hard during their peaks of effort, but they took fewer rests. d. Compared to those pulling alone, they did not pull as hard. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 281

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18. What did Ringelmann's research in the 1880s demonstrate? a. People exert less effort in simple group tasks than they would if working alone. b. The presence of other people improves performance on simple group tasks. c. Groups tend to make more extreme decisions than individuals. d. Individual performance is impaired by the distraction of an audience. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 281

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19. Ingham (1974) asked participants to pull on a rope and found that participants pulled almost

20 percent harder when they thought they were pulling alone than when they thought they were part of a group. What does this example illustrate? a. social loafing b. a social dilemma c. groupthink d. social facilitation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 281

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20. What do psychologists call the decrease in individual effort that occurs when people engage in

a shared group activity? a. social facilitation b. social loafing c. deindividuation d. group polarization ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 281

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8-4

Chapter 8 Group Processes 21. Professor Fester notices that her students seem to put more effort into their individual

assignments than into their group projects. What is the most likely cause of this result? a. social loafing b. group facilitation c. groupthink d. group polarization ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 281

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22. An employee is working with a group of co-workers to finish a project at work. In which of

the following cases will the employee be most likely to engage in social loafing? a. if the employee is high in need for cognition b. if the employee is from an individualist culture c. if the employee perceives the project outcome to be personally important d. if the employee is female ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 281-282

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23. Social loafing is usually reduced when people believe which of the following? a. that their contribution to the group project is anonymous b. that others will join them in working on a project c. that their efforts are necessary for a successful outcome d. that the task will be easy ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 282

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24. Lynn needs to get her subordinates to all invest considerable time and energy into the

development of a new design for the company's fall clothing line. If she wants to reduce the likelihood of social loafing, what should she do? a. bring together a large group of diverse individuals b. tell the subordinates how important the project is to her c. bring together a small group of people who don’t know each other well d. communicate to them how success of the project will benefit each of them personally ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 282

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25. Esteban's work group has been assigned a new project by management. Before deciding how

much effort to exert on this new assignment, Esteban considers how important the group goals are to him and whether his input will help the group reach its goals. Which of the following is most consistent with Esteban's thinking? a. distraction-conflict theory b. the collective effort model c. the social identity model of deindividuation d. persuasive arguments theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 282

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8-5

Chapter 8 Group Processes 26. Which of the following does the collective effort model proposed by Karau and Williams

(1993) help to explain? a. group polarization effects b. social facilitation c. social loafing d. deindividuation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 282

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27. According to the collective effort model, in which of the following conditions is social loafing

most likely? a. when people see the group outcome as personally important b. when people believe the group outcome is important to other group members c. when people believe that their efforts will lead to the desired outcome d. when people feel that their input will not compensate for social loafing by others ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 282

BLM: Remember

28. Henderson suspects that the other members of his work group may slack off, so he works late

and puts in extra time on their proposal. What is Henderson engaging in? a. social compensation b. social facilitation c. social loafing d. deindividuation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 282

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29. According to the model of social facilitation, when the presence of others is physiologically

arousing, what tends to happen to a person's performance? a. It tends to decrease on a task that is well-practised. b. It tends to increase on a task that is well-practised. c. It tends to increase on a task that is newly-learned. d. It tends to improve on any type of task. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 280

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30. The presence of others can improve performance on difficult tasks when the individual's

arousal level is low but only when also paired with which of the following? a. high evaluation pressure b. low evaluation pressure c. high cultural collectivism d. low cultural collectivism ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 280

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8-6

Chapter 8 Group Processes 31. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to deindividuation? a. strong emotions b. feelings of being alone c. low arousal d. anonymity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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32. What is deindividuation? a. the loss of individuality and reduction of constraints against deviant behaviour b. the decrease in individual effort on simple group tasks c. the tendency for group decisions to be more extreme than the decisions of the

individuals comprising the group d. the impairment in group decision making that results from a concern with

unanimity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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33. At crowded parties, Amy loses her sense of self and, as a result, often behaves in ways that

she later regrets. a. deindividuation b. cohesiveness c. groupthink d. entrapment ANS: A

For Amy, what do these parties seem to create?

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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34. How do accountability cues contribute to deindividuation? a. by increasing self-awareness b. by decreasing arousal c. by producing evaluation apprehension d. by altering cost-reward calculations ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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35. In which of the following conditions is deindividuation most likely? a. when accountability for behaviour is high b. when accountability for behaviour is low c. when the group is engaged in a conjunctive task d. when the group is engaged in a disjunctive task ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 285

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8-7

Chapter 8 Group Processes 36. Sheila and Peter are invited to a masquerade party. At the party, people start insulting and

pushing around Parker, another guest at the party. Given the research on deindividuation, in which of the following situations are Sheila and Peter likely to join in the harassment? a. If Sheila was dressed as a nun and Peter was dressed as a priest. b. If Sheila and Peter were dressed as gangsters. c. If Sheila and Peter wore masks and could not be recognized. d. If Sheila and Peter wore make-up and could be recognized ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 285

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37. Which of the following is most likely to be increased by attentional cues that decrease

self-awareness? a. deindividuated behaviour b. social facilitation on an easy task c. cooperation in a prisoner's dilemma d. groupthink in a decision-making process ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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38. Which of the following is most likely to occur in conditions when an actor feels anonymous

and free from evaluation apprehension? a. social facilitation b. social influence c. social conformity d. social loafing ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 284

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39. It seems that every Halloween night, the city of Gotham is marred by violence and vandalism.

Which of the following recommendations by the leaders of Gotham should lead to the reduction of such behaviour? a. decrease self-awareness by making sure everyone who goes out has a cellphone or mp3 player b. decrease anonymity by making sure that everyone goes out alone c. make sure that people only venture outside in groups d. create a highly stimulating environment by playing loud Halloween music over all public address systems ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 284

BLM: Higher order

40. Harriett goes trick-or-treating on Halloween. She arrives at her neighbour's door just as the

phone is ringing. Her neighbour puts the candy on the table and says, “I need to get the phone, so help yourself to whatever kind of candy you want, but please take only one piece.” Which of the following would most encourage Harriett to take only one piece of candy? a. if her neighbour was not able to identify Harriett behind her costume b. if Harriett is dressed up as a Girl Scout c. if the candy is placed in front of a Jack-o-lantern d. if Harriett is two years old rather than twelve years old ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 285

BLM: Higher order 8-8

Chapter 8 Group Processes 41. Johnson and Downing (1979) found that participants wearing nurses' uniforms delivered

lower levels of shock when they were anonymous than when they were identifiable. What does this finding suggest that deindividuation causes people to do? a. It causes them to feel that the normative standards of the group do not apply to them. b. It causes them to engage in destructive behaviour when they are anonymous. c. It causes them to rely more heavily on personal standards of behaviour when they are anonymous. d. It causes them to act in ways that are consistent with the norms of the most salient group. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 285-286

BLM: Higher order

42. According to the social identity model of deindividuation effects, what does deindividuated

behaviour result from? a. a reduction in social identity b. concerns about being evaluated by group members c. conformity to the most immediate group norms d. simultaneous social categorizations ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 286

BLM: Higher order

43. According to the textbook, which of the following reasons is the most important influence on

why people join groups? a. to be free from social threat b. to fulfill the need to belong c. to reduce superordinate identities d. to reduce interactions with disliked others ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 273

BLM: Remember

44. Sharice has just joined the theatre group in her community. Which of the following is most

likely? a. She is optimistic that joining the group will be beneficial. b. Because she is new to the group, it won't matter if she is rejected from the group. c. She will feel good about herself even if the group is of low status. d. Belonging to the group will not affect her sense of self. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 273

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8-9

Chapter 8 Group Processes 45. Madeline has recently been accepted into a sorority at her university. Which of the following

is most likely to happen? a. She will look to the other new members of the group to determine appropriate group behaviour. b. She will be skeptical that sorority membership will be advantageous until she is more comfortable within the group. c. She will engage in social loafing until she feels like an accepted member of the group. d. She will model her behaviour on that of long-standing group members. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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46. Nita has just joined the rowing club, an organization that has been low in members for the last

several years. Which of the following will most likely happen? a. She will assimilate into the club, making whatever changes are necessary to fit in, while the club will make little accommodation. b. She will become committed to the group if the group members accept each other and the group. c. She will make few changes to fit in, hoping the group will accept her as she is. d. She will rarely rely on her relationships with established members of the club. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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47. Tuckman and Jensen propose that groups develop through stages. In order, what are these

stages? a. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning b. forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning c. forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning d. forming, norming, performing, storming, adjourning ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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48. The members of the student council are in the process of reconciling their conflicts and

developing a common sense of purpose. Which of Tuckman and Jensen's (1977) stages of group development is the student council at? a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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8-10

Chapter 8 Group Processes 49. Compared to Tuckman and Jensen's (1977) stages of group development, what does Gersick

(1988) suggest about groups? a. Groups develop gradually through a series of stages. b. Groups adopt problem-solving strategies relatively quickly in their development. c. Groups progress through the first stage of development rather quickly, but relatively slowly through the latter stages. d. There is little variability between groups in the course of development. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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50. Which of the following is one of the essential components of groups? a. rules b. norms c. collectivism d. status ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 274

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51. What are group roles? a. Group roles are the rules of conduct for group members. b. Group roles are the forces that keep groups together. c. Group roles are the set of expected tasks for group members. d. Group roles are the titles assigned to different group members. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 275

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REF: 275

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52. What types of roles develop in groups? a. instrumental and emotional roles b. informational and informal roles c. motivational and political roles d. formal and gender roles ANS: A

PTS: 1

53. Deborah has just joined a sorority. She is unsure what she should wear when she goes to eat at

the sorority's dining hall. What is Deborah uncertain about? a. the informal role b. the formal role c. the informal norm d. the formal norm ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 275

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54. If a leader focuses his or her group on the tasks it needs to achieve, what role is he or she

playing? a. a facilitator role b. an instrumental role c. a normative role d. an expressive role ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 275

BLM: Remember 8-11

Chapter 8 Group Processes 55. In her group, Melanie is always the one who breaks the tension with a funny story and

provides a shoulder to cry on when things go wrong. Which role is she playing? a. an expressive role b. a facilitator role c. an instrumental role d. a normative role ANS: A

PTS: 1

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56. In which of the following scenarios is productivity likely to be highest? a. Daphne isn't quite sure what her role in the group is. b. Frank must play both an instrumental and an expressive role in the group. c. Amanda's role in the group seems to be constantly changing. d. Pierre assumes a clearly defined instrumental role in the group. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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57. How are group norms and roles similar? a. Neither will directly influence group productivity. b. Both can be formal or informal. c. Both negatively impact group cohesiveness. d. They are both more important to men than women. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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58. Which of the following is most likely to decrease group cohesiveness? a. threats from within the group b. commitment to the group cause c. high costs associated with leaving the group d. a dangerous environment ANS: A

PTS: 1

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59. Calvin is part of a highly cohesive group and wants to be sure that this cohesiveness positively

impacts the performance of the group. In which of the following situations could Calvin be most certain of this? a. if his group was large rather than small b. if his group works on tasks that are interdependent c. if the prevailing norms in the group are negative d. if successful performance requires creativity ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 276

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8-12

Chapter 8 Group Processes 60. What has research concerning the relationship between group performance and cohesiveness

shown? a. Group performance and cohesiveness are largely unrelated. b. The relationship is stronger in large groups. c. The relationship is stronger when interdependence between members is required for the task. d. The causal direction of this relationship is mostly one-way, such that cohesiveness increases group performance. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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61. What do psychologists call the tendency for groups to become more extreme in their positions

following discussion? a. group polarization b. social loafing c. a social dilemma d. social facilitation ANS: A

PTS: 1

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62. Following group discussion, which of the following is most likely result? a. Group decisions will tend to become more conservative than the positions of the

individuals comprising the group. b. Group decisions will tend to become more risky than the positions of the individuals comprising the group. c. Group decisions will tend to reflect the average of the positions of the individuals comprising the group. d. Group decisions will tend to become more extreme than the positions of the individuals comprising the group. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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63. Before a meeting, each of several city council members was tentatively considering an air

pollution ordinance. After a meeting, they expressed strong support of the ordinance. What does this example illustrate? a. group polarization b. social loafing c. group persuasion d. social facilitation ANS: A

PTS: 1

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8-13

Chapter 8 Group Processes 64. A group of high school students is discussing the legalization of drugs. The students taking

part in the discussion mildly support the position that drugs should not be legalized. If group polarization were to occur following the discussion, which of the following would most likely happen? a. Students would be less strongly opposed to the legalization of drugs. b. Students would be more strongly opposed to the legalization of drugs. c. Students would be more likely to experiment with drugs. d. Students' attitudes would not change as a result of the discussion. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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65. Myers and Bishop (1970) set up groups of relatively prejudiced and unprejudiced high school

students and asked them to respond to issues concerning racial attitudes, both before and after discussion of these issues. Following the group discussions, what was the result? a. Both groups became more prejudiced. b. Both groups became less prejudiced. c. Those who were relatively unprejudiced became less prejudiced and those who were relatively prejudiced became more prejudiced. d. Those who were relatively unprejudiced became more prejudiced and those who were relatively prejudiced became less prejudiced. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 290

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66. In which of the following cases is group polarization most likely to occur? a. when group members are discussing important issues b. when group members are discussing unimportant issues c. when group members know one another d. when group members do not know one another ANS: A

PTS: 1

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67. Which of the following makes the greatest contribution to group polarization? a. an increase in dominant responses under conditions of high arousal b. lack of group cohesiveness c. deindividuation of group members d. the desire to distinguish one's group from other groups ANS: D

PTS: 1

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68. Based on the social comparison explanation of group polarization, which of the following

should have the most influence on group members' attitudes toward an issue? a. how different their attitudes are from those of an outgroup b. those in the ingroup who favour a cautious approach c. the number of people in their group who share that attitude d. those in the ingroup who offer the most arguments relevant to the issue ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 290

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8-14

Chapter 8 Group Processes 69. Latasha joined a campus group called “Young Conservatives.” Which of these outcomes is

most consistent with the persuasive-arguments explanation for group polarization? a. In the attempt to fit in, Latasha adjusts her attitudes to be even more conservative. b. Latasha self-categorizes as a conservative, and her political beliefs become more extreme as a result. c. After exposure to ideas she has not thought of before, Latasha comes to possess even more conservative beliefs. d. In an attempt to convince others she is a “good” conservative, Latasha persuades herself to be more conservative. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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70. Which theory maintains that group polarization is the result of the quantity and quality of

ideas exchanged in the group? a. social comparisons theory b. balance theory c. social categorizations theory d. persuasive arguments theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

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71. Which of the following is an informational social influence explanation for group

polarization? a. mindless conformity b. persuasive arguments c. social comparisons d. biased samplings ANS: B

PTS: 1

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72. In which of the following situations is group polarization least likely to occur? a. In deciding the best way to recruit new members, the members of Alpha Beta

Fraternity are concerned that their fraternity is distinct from the other fraternities on campus. b. While discussing the possibility of offering more outpatient services, the members of the hospital board are surprised that so many members favour the proposal. c. The re-election committee discusses both the potential advantages and disadvantages of leaking negative information about the opposing candidate. d. In one of the most important decisions it has ever faced, the prosecution team must decide whether to press criminal charges against a high-ranking public official. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 290

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8-15

Chapter 8 Group Processes 73. In which of the following situations is groupthink most likely to emerge? a. when the need for agreement takes priority over the desire to obtain correct

information b. when group members feel that they will be unable to compensate for social loafing c. when individual benefits are in conflict with the needs of the group d. when group norms overwhelm individual identities ANS: A

PTS: 1

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74. In which of the following cases is groupthink most likely to occur? a. when groups have systematic decision-making procedures b. if the group lacks a strong directive leader c. in low-stress situations d. in highly cohesive groups ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 291

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75. Which of the following characteristics of groups contribute to groupthink? a. having several different ingroup orientations b. having several different group leaders c. group size d. group stress ANS: D

PTS: 1

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76. Hendrika owns a small aerospace company and wants to make sure that she recognizes the

signs of groupthink if it crops up in her group meetings. She should be especially concerned that groupthink may be occurring if the group exhibits which of the following characteristics? a. coalition formation b. social loafing c. divergent thinking d. closed-mindedness ANS: D

PTS: 1

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77. According to Janis, what is the most important behavioural symptom of groupthink? a. an illusion of similarity b. a tendency to cautiously support decisions c. a tendency toward self-censorship d. pessimism about what might happen ANS: C

PTS: 1

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78. When groups exhibit groupthink, which of the following tends to characterize their decisions? a. an examination of the risks associated with their preferred course of action b. an exhaustive survey of group goals and objectives c. a comprehensive contingency plan should their preferred course of action fail d. a selective bias in processing of the information relevant to their decision ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 292

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8-16

Chapter 8 Group Processes 79. Four groups, A, B, C, and D, are meeting separately. Each is making an important decision.

Below is one quotation overheard from each group's meeting. Based on these quotations, which group seems least likely to fall victim to groupthink? a. A: “The good Lord is on our side.” b. B: “This is not the time nor the place to bring up worst-case scenarios.” c. C: “This has to be done right even if it takes us all day to decide.” d. D: “The threat is very real and we must act decisively and unanimously.” ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 292

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80. John, Greta, Paul, and Celine are air traffic controllers. They encounter a stressful, anxious

situation in which two planes might soon collide. Which of the following conditions would most encourage this group of air traffic controllers to display groupthink when pondering their next step? a. A majority decision is more acceptable than a unanimous decision. b. There are systematic procedures in place to handle such situations. c. None of them is considered to be a supervisor of any of the others. d. They are a cohesive group. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 292

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81. Which of the following combinations of factors would produce the most biased decision? a. a non-directive leader and an isolated group b. a directive leader and a cohesive certainty-oriented group c. a directive leader and a very diverse group d. a non-directive leader and a group under stress ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 292

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82. Why are self-directed work groups particularly susceptible to groupthink? a. because they often operate under time pressure b. because they lack group cohesion c. because they tend to be relatively heterogeneous d. because they tend to have strong decision-making procedures in place ANS: A

PTS: 1

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83. Which of the following would be an effective way for a leader to reduce the possibility of

groupthink? a. express her opinion only after other group members have voiced their opinions b. emphasize that the group decision must be a unanimous one c. take a more directive role in the group discussion d. appoint a few people in the group to act as “mindguards” ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 293

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8-17

Chapter 8 Group Processes 84. Sharon, a corporate executive, and several of her subordinates are in a plane crash and find

themselves on a deserted island. They have to decide the best strategy for survival. As the leader of the group, what can Sharon do to help the group avoid groupthink? a. break the group into several smaller groups to discuss the issue b. encourage the group to seek agreement c. assign someone the role of “mindguard” d. take a strong stand in the discussion of what she thinks they should do ANS: A

PTS: 1

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85. How do computerized group support systems help to minimize the potential for groupthink? a. by providing more power to the leader of the group b. by allowing group members to raise concerns anonymously c. by focusing the attention of group members on their relationships with one another d. by increasing the cohesiveness of the group ANS: B

PTS: 1

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86. In conjunctive tasks, how is group performance determined? a. by the sum of the performance of each individual in the group b. by the ratio of individual performance to group performance c. by the performance of the weakest group member d. by the performance of the strongest group member ANS: C

PTS: 1

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87. Sam, Dana, and Franz are members of a team competing in a test of general knowledge. Any

team member can answer the moderator's questions. What kind of task are they engaging in? a. an additive task b. a conjunctive task c. a disjunctive task d. a collective task ANS: C

PTS: 1

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88. A team of people decides to donate money to their favourite charity. What kind of task are

they engaging in? a. an additive task b. a conjunctive task c. a disjunctive task d. a collective task ANS: A

PTS: 1

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89. On which of the following types of tasks do groups tend to outperform individuals? a. additive tasks b. disjunctive tasks c. conjunctive tasks d. communal tasks ANS: A

PTS: 1

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Chapter 8 Group Processes 90. What is the most important reason for process loss? a. Extreme motivation causes process loss. b. Social loafing causes process loss. c. Social cohesion causes process loss. d. Deindividuation causes process loss. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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91. Coach Valentine does not think that his team is playing up to its full potential. What should

the coach do to increase the performance of the team? a. build the team's confidence by setting goals that are not challenging and are easy to attain b. urge each team member to try to do his best c. set specific, challenging, and reachable goals for the team d. avoid giving the team any particular goals to minimize the pressure on the team ANS: C

PTS: 1

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92. What effect does being in a group have on setting goals? a. Groups tend to set less ambitious goals than individuals. b. Groups tend to set more ambitious goals than individuals. c. Groups are more likely than individuals to set goals for disjunctive tasks, but not

conjunctive tasks. d. Groups are more likely than individuals to set goals for conjunctive tasks, but not disjunctive tasks. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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93. Pat is leading a task force on drug problems in high schools. She asks members to think of as

many solutions as they can, but also to postpone commenting on any proposal until later. What strategy is Pat using? a. brainstorming b. polarization c. groupthink d. entrapment ANS: A

PTS: 1

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94. What effect does group brainstorming have on the quality of ideas produced? a. People brainstorming together produce fewer and lower-quality ideas than those

brainstorming individually. b. People brainstorming together produce more and higher-quality ideas than those

brainstorming individually. c. People believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are not as

good as those generated by individuals but they do not actually differ in quality. d. People believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are as good as those generated by individuals but they do not actually differ in quality ANS: A

PTS: 1

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Chapter 8 Group Processes 95. Terry and his co-workers are trying to develop a creative direct mail campaign that will

increase sales of their new snowboard. Which of the following strategies is least likely to yield high-quality ideas? a. holding a brainstorming session with a facilitator trained in group brainstorming b. forming an interactive group employing electronic brainstorming c. holding a brainstorming session using Osborn's ground rules for brainstorming d. creating “nominal groups” and working independently ANS: C

PTS: 1

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96. Which of the following appears to increase the effectiveness of group brainstorming? a. production blocking during brainstorming b. electronic brainstorming c. evaluation brainstorming d. performance matching prior to brainstorming ANS: B

PTS: 1

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97. What is biased sampling in groups? a. the process whereby people tend to choose those they know well to be in a group b. the process whereby information that is known by many group members tends to

enter into the discussion more than information known only by a few c. the process whereby people tend to discuss negative information more than

positive information in their discussion about an important decision d. the process whereby sharing information in a group can be impeded by the gender

composition of the group ANS: B

PTS: 1

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98. Three students form a study group for their social psychology course. Which of the following

possibilities would be the best indication that the group is experiencing biased sampling? a. The students focus on the information they all already know instead of reviewing the unique knowledge that each person brings to the group. b. The students assign specific roles and tasks to each other. c. In the effort to categorize themselves as “good” group members, the students conform to each other's opinions about the quality of the course instruction thus far. d. The students refuse to utilize the strategy of brainstorming. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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99. In which of the following situations is biased sampling is least likely to occur? a. when members know each other well, and they share the same information b. when members know each other well, and they do not share the same information c. when members know each other very little, and they do not share the same

information d. when members know each other very little, and they share the same information ANS: B

PTS: 1

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Chapter 8 Group Processes 100. In discussing which of several job applicants to invite for an interview, the hiring committee

discusses only information known to all committee members. What is the name for this practice? a. biased sampling b. production blocking c. social compensation d. the risky shift ANS: A

PTS: 1

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101. How does working in groups affect the use of heuristics in information-processing? a. If the individuals who comprise the group are prone to rely on a particular

heuristic, the group will be even less likely to use this heuristic. b. If the individuals who comprise the group are prone to rely on a particular

heuristic, the group will be even more likely to use this heuristic. c. Regardless of the information-processing propensities of individual group

members, groups are less likely than individuals to rely on heuristics. d. Regardless of the information-processing propensities of individual group

members, groups are more likely than individuals to rely on heuristics. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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102. What do psychologists call the condition in which commitments to a failing course of action

are increased to justify investments already made? a. the lost cause effect b. the escalation effect c. the loss justification effect d. the polarization effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 293

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103. Though the new mentoring program doesn't seem to be working very well, Principal

McVickers argues that the school should continue to invest in it because they have already committed so many resources to it. What does this example illustrate? a. social loafing b. groupthink c. the escalation effect d. the loss justification effect ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 293

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8-21

Chapter 8 Group Processes 104. Rashid is considering employing a computerized group decision support system to increase

the quality of decision-making in his company. Which of the following explains why this may work? a. The anonymity of computer-mediated discussions increases reliance on information-processing heuristics. b. There is no accountability in computer-mediated discussions. c. The probability of process loss will be increased as multiple people attempt to speak at the same time. d. Computer-mediated discussions tend to reduce biased sampling of information. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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105. What do psychologists call a shared system for remembering information that allows groups

to demonstrate more efficient memory than individuals? a. semantic memory b. transactive memory c. process memory d. facilitative memory ANS: B

PTS: 1

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106. Viviana lives in an ethnically diverse community. She is attending a PTA meeting concerning

how to provide a complete and fair history curriculum. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. The members of the PTA will judge their own work more positively than will members of PTAs in ethnically homogenous communities. b. The PTA will come up with more creative solutions than will PTAs in ethnically homogenous communities. c. Misunderstandings will be less likely among her PTA members than among PTA members from ethnically homogenous communities. d. Cliques will be less likely to form in her PTA than in PTAs from ethnically homogenous communities. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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107. What do psychologists call a situation in which a self-interested choice is good for an

individual and bad for the group? a. groupthink b. a risky shift c. a social dilemma d. entrapment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 298

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8-22

Chapter 8 Group Processes 108. According to research on the prisoner's dilemma, how do people tend to respond to

mixed-motive situations? a. with depression b. with reciprocity c. with duplicity d. with confusion ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 298-299

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109. Why is the prisoner's dilemma difficult? a. because one player's outcome depends on what the other person decides to do b. because competition on one trial may provoke the other player not to cooperate in

the future c. because cooperation decreases as the number of players increases d. because a single player's best possible outcome occurs when both players

cooperate ANS: A

PTS: 1

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110. Consider the prisoner's dilemma. In which situation will you receive the worst possible

outcome? a. if you are selfish and your partner is selfish b. if you are selfish and your partner cooperates c. if you are cooperative and your partner is selfish d. if you are cooperative and your partner is cooperative ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 299

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111. Jean-Paul works for a public television station. He has been assigned to run the fund drive

necessary to keep the station on the air in various communities. Suppose that keeping the station on the air in a given community is contingent upon the percentage of people in the community that donate money. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Jean-Paul will get more donations from people who have a collectivist orientation than from those who have an individualist orientation. b. Jean-Paul will be likely to get a greater percentage of donations from people living in the city than from people living in smaller close-knit communities. c. Whether the people Jean-Paul speaks with are in a good mood or a bad mood will have no influence on their willingness to donate. d. If Jean-Paul is truthful and tells people that many others have already donated, people will be less likely to donate their own money. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 301

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8-23

Chapter 8 Group Processes 112. Five students move into a house together and discover they share the odd habit of drinking

milk with ice in it every night before bed. They own several ice trays and make a pact to always refill the trays when they are emptied so that the supply of ice will never run out. But the five often do not have the time or energy to refill the trays, and after a few weeks it becomes quite common for them to meet in the kitchen and discover that they have no ice. What type of dilemma does this situation illustrate? a. a prisoner's dilemma b. a normative dilemma c. a tit-for-tat dilemma d. a resource dilemma ANS: D

PTS: 1

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113. The leaders of a certain country believe that, because they can punish anyone who disagrees

with their policies, residents will not dare to challenge those policies. These leaders thus believe in the efficacy of which of the following? a. social loafing b. social comparison c. entrapment d. threat capacity ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 302

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114. Two competing companies are hooked up to the Internet through the same wiring. Each has

the capacity to sever the connection, which would reduce the ability of both companies to communicate via e-mail with their clients, and thus impede their work. According to research on dilemmas, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Both companies will be negatively affected if they are unaware of their ability to sever the connection. b. Both companies will probably each sever the connection, leading to the worst outcome for both companies. c. Both companies could be affected more negatively if only one company could sever the connection. d. Both companies are likely to form committees to decide how to proceed. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 300

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115. Which of the following is least likely to exacerbate conflict between groups? a. the ability to carry out a threat against the other side b. a mismatch in the perceptions each side has of the other c. dehumanization of individuals on the other side d. holding the other side to a different standard ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 302

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8-24

Chapter 8 Group Processes 116. At Midtown High School, the football players and cheerleaders do not get along at all. The

cheerleaders think the football players are shallow and obnoxious. The football players feel the same way about the cheerleaders. What do the football players and the cheerleaders seem to suffer from? a. a resource dilemma b. superordinate identities c. mirror image perceptions d. groupthink ANS: C

PTS: 1

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117. Bart hopes to employ the GRIT strategy with his opponent, Harry. In order for the strategy to

work, which of the following is necessary? a. Harry must like Bart. b. Harry must have a cooperative orientation. c. Bart must retaliate equally if Harry acts competitively. d. Bart must carry out an initiative only after the previous one has been reciprocated. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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118. The success of GRIT in reducing conflict can best be attributed to which of the following? a. bilateral concessions b. building trust between conflicting groups c. greater liking between the conflicting groups d. the reciprocation of cooperative but not competitive moves ANS: B

PTS: 1

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119. What do psychologists call a negotiated reduction to a conflict in which all parties obtain

outcomes that are superior to those they would have obtained from an equal division of contested resources? a. a social dilemma b. a superordinate identity c. an integrative agreement d. a prisoner's dilemma ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 304

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120. What do psychologists call individuals who have the power to impose a settlement on

opposing parties? a. arbitrators b. free riders c. role models d. mediators ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 305

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8-25

Chapter 8 Group Processes 121. After a long strike at General Hospital, the nurses ask Dwight for help. He listens to the

positions of both the nurses and the administration, suggests some compromises, and communicates each side's reaction to the other. What is Dwight’s role in this situation? a. an arbitrator b. a competitor c. a role model d. a mediator ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 305

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122. What do psychologists call the perception that members of different groups belong to a larger

whole that encompasses both groups? a. group polarization b. an integrative agreement c. a superordinate identity d. social facilitation ANS: C

PTS: 1

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123. How do shared superordinate identities affect group conflict? a. focusing on shared superordinate identities increases conflict between groups b. focusing on shared superordinate identities decreases conflict between groups c. focusing on shared superordinate identities is more helpful than creating shared

goals to decrease conflict d. focusing on shared superordinate identities is required to establish the

superordinate goals that can decrease conflict. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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124. Hans and Fred are young men who grew up in Toronto. Hans goes to the University of

Toronto to major in biology. Fred, who is two years younger, still lives at home, but hopes to one day major in psychology. Which of the following is presently a superordinate identity for the cousins? a. resident of Toronto b. university student c. psychologist d. scientist ANS: A

PTS: 1

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125. What do psychologists call objectives that elicit cooperation by appealing to people's

self-interest? a. superordinate goals b. self-serving biases c. dominant responses d. social comparisons ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 306

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8-26

Chapter 8 Group Processes

ESSAY 1. Explain how the presence of others affects performance on easy and hard tasks, and give three

explanations to account for these effects. ANS:

The presence of others facilitates performance on easy tasks and impedes performance on hard tasks. Three mechanisms have been proposed to account for this phenomenon, which is called social facilitation: (1) the mere presence theory suggests that the mere presence of others is arousing and it is this general arousal that is responsible for the effects of social facilitation; (2) the evaluation apprehension model suggests that it is the fear of being evaluated by others that is responsible for social facilitation effects; and (3) the distraction-conflict theory suggests that other people are distracting and it is simply the distraction provided by their presence that enhances performance on an easy task and impedes performance on a difficult task. PTS: 1 2. Describe how being in a crowd can lead people to engage in destructive behaviours. ANS:

Being in a crowd can cause people to lose their sense of individuality and self-awareness, leading to a loosening of normal restraints against deviant behaviour. This state is called deindividuation. Once the normal restraints on deviant behaviour have been removed, violent and destructive behaviours often ensue. PTS: 1 3. Explain how discussion of a topic with like-minded others can lead people to hold their views

with greater conviction, and why this happens. ANS:

When people discuss a topic with like-minded others, people often experience an exaggeration of the initial tendencies in their thinking. This phenomenon is called group polarization, for which three explanations have been proposed. (1) Persuasive arguments theory suggests that people in a group discussion with like-minded others hear novel arguments to support their initial views that then intensify these views. (2) Social comparison theory suggests that once people get in a group they compare themselves with others and a stronger group norm is formed than any individual's views. Each member of the group then tends to conform with the group norm. And (3), the social categorization approach suggests that people tend to pay more attention to views held by ingroup members with whom they agree than those of outgroup members with whom they disagree, resulting in their greater conviction that their own views are valid. PTS: 1

8-27

Chapter 8 Group Processes 4. Define groupthink, and identify antecedents that contribute to the phenomenon as well as

strategies for preventing it. ANS:

Groupthink is an excessive tendency to seek agreement among group members. It emerges when seeking such agreement takes precedence over the motivation to get accurate information and make appropriate decisions. In Janis's model of groupthink, there are three primary antecedents to groupthink: (1) group cohesiveness, (2) group structure (e.g., unsystematic procedures, isolation, etc.), and (3) stressful situations. It should be noted, however, that recent work indicates that high cohesiveness may not by itself encourage groupthink. Rather, high cohesiveness in conjunction with other conditions conducive to groupthink can encourage the phenomenon. Janis has offered several strategies for preventing groupthink, including consulting with outsiders, having leaders encourage open debate and refrain from taking a strong position, assigning an individual in the group the role of challenging the group's ideas, and meeting for a second time after a decision has been reached before implementing a chosen action. Recent research suggests some additional strategies, including holding members of the group personally accountable for the decision, having a member of the group assigned the role of “reminder,” having leaders encourage information seeking and independent thinking and discourage seeking agreement, and using computerized group support systems. PTS: 1 5. Discuss how GRIT can lead to the reduction of group conflict. ANS:

GRIT (graduated and reciprocated initiatives in tension-reduction) is a unilateral strategy aimed at reducing conflict between groups. When using GRIT, an individual or group issues a general statement of intention to reduce conflict and proposes an initiative aimed at reducing tension. The individual or group then carries out the initiative as proposed. If the other party makes a cooperative move, the initiator reciprocates with a more cooperative move, if possible. The initiator always maintains a retaliatory capability to avoid exploitation. This strategy has been shown to have quite a bit of promise. PTS: 1

8-28

Chapter 9: Attraction and Close Relationships MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Baumeister and Leary (1995) have suggested that humans have a fundamental drive to have

positive and meaningful interpersonal relationships with others. What do they call this drive? a. the need to belong b. the need for affiliation c. the “sociostat” d. the need to love ANS: A

PTS: 1

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2. What is the fundamental issue for individuals who suffer from social anxiety? a. They are likely to have an unusually high need for affiliation. b. They are likely to experience feelings of discomfort in the presence of others. c. They are likely to be very concerned with the overall balance of their relationships. d. They are likely to need constant reassurance about their popularity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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3. Emily experiences intense feelings of discomfort in public. What condition does Emily most

likely suffer from? a. social anxiety b. social penetration c. excitation transfer d. negative affect reciprocity ANS: A

PTS: 1

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4. Buzz experiences severe anxiety whenever he has to speak in public. Which of the following

feelings is Buzz most likely to also experience? a. fear of spiders b. fear of high spaces c. fear of saying something foolish d. fear of being alone ANS: C

PTS: 1

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5. Timo has a network of close social ties. How is Timo most likely to differ from individuals

lacking such a network? a. He will be more likely to suffer from social anxiety. b. He will be more likely to perform well on work-related tasks. c. He will be more likely to have higher intelligence. d. He will be more satisfied with his life. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-1

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 6. Rita has a strong desire to establish and maintain social contact with others. Which of the

following best applies to her? a. She has a low need to belong. b. She has severe social anxiety. c. She has a high need for affiliation. d. She has a broken social thermostat. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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7. Latané and Werner's (1978) research on the regulation of affiliation tendencies demonstrated

that rats will do which of the following? a. approach other rats after periods of prolonged contact, but withdraw after long periods of isolation b. approach other rats after long periods of isolation, but withdraw after periods of prolonged contact c. approach other rats following long periods of either isolation or contact d. withdraw from other rats following long periods of either isolation or contact ANS: B

PTS: 1

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8. Participants in a study by O'Connor and Rosenblood (1996) indicated about every hour

whether they were alone or with others and whether they wanted to be alone or with others. What did the results of this study reveal? a. Most of the time participants wanted to be with others, but were alone. b. Most of the time participants wanted to be alone, but were with others. c. Regardless of whether they wanted to be alone or with others, most of the time participants were not in their desired social state. d. Regardless of whether they wanted to be alone or with others, most of the time participants were in their desired social state. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9. Derek is informed that as part of his fraternity initiation he must sing the school fight song as

loudly as he can while standing on the roof of the fraternity house in his underwear. He is then given the choice to await his turn alone or with the girls from the neighbouring sorority. Which of the following is most likely? a. Derek will choose to wait alone in order to achieve cognitive clarity. b. Derek will choose to wait alone as waiting with the sorority members will likely increase his stress. c. Derek will choose to wait with the sorority members in order to reduce his level of stress. d. Derek will choose to wait with the sorority members because they will be able to tell him about their hazing experiences. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-2

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 10. Though they had all been together on the transcontinental flight for three hours, the

passengers didn't start to talk to one another until the plane ran into some serious turbulence. Which of the following best explains this behaviour? a. the tendency for external threat to increase affiliation b. the matching hypothesis c. the proximity effect d. the impact of social anxiety on the functioning of the sociostat ANS: A

PTS: 1

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11. Whether stress produces increased or decreased affiliation depends on which of the following? a. the norm of reciprocity in the situation b. the ambiguity of the situation c. the familiarity of the stimulus in the situation d. the perceived utility of affiliation in the situation ANS: D

PTS: 1

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12. Kulik and Mahler (1989) found that patients waiting for heart surgery preferred to have

roommates who were post-operative rather than pre-operative. Which hypothesis does this finding support? a. the hypothesis that most people have great difficulty regulating their need for affiliation b. the hypothesis that external threat reduces affiliation tendencies in order to reduce embarrassment c. the hypothesis that having a close network of social support increases physical health d. the hypothesis that affiliation in response to threat can provide cognitive clarity ANS: D

PTS: 1

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13. Ollie is about to undergo a painful and risky surgical procedure. What should Ollie do to have

the best possible outcome? a. Prior to his surgery, he should speak with someone who has gone through the same procedure to gain insight about the experience. b. Prior to his surgery, he should spend some time by himself in order to clear his mind. c. Prior to his surgery, he should speak with someone who is about to have the same procedure so that they can share their concerns with one another. d. After his surgery, he should speak with someone who has had the same procedure so that they can share their experiences. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-3

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 14. What proportion of Canadians suffer from social anxiety disorder? a. 1% b. 3%. c. 10% d. 15% ANS: B

PTS: 1

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15. Malinda is a very shy person. She goes on a blind date with Friedel. Given her shyness, which

of the following is most likely? a. She will expect the date to go well. b. She will suspect that Friedel is not really good enough for her. c. She will fear being rejected by Friedel. d. She will blame Friedel if the date is a disaster. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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16. Which group is most likely to be lonely? a. 20 – 30 year olds. b. 30 – 40 year olds c. 40 – 50 year olds d. 50 – 60 year olds . ANS: A

PTS: 1

17. According to the relevant research, which of the following people is likely to be the loneliest? a. José, who is an adolescent b. Hector, who is 40 years old and has never been married c. Selena, who is 60 years old and is married d. Mabel, who is 60 years old and has never been married ANS: A

PTS: 1

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18. Miranda is in her first semester of university and is feeling quite lonely. If she is like most

other university students, which strategy is she most likely to use to cope with her loneliness? a. invest effort in trying to do well in her courses b. compare herself to other female students c. isolate herself from the other students on campus d. use drugs or alcohol to soothe feelings of loneliness ANS: A

PTS: 1

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19. Which of the following is most consistent with the idea that we are attracted to others with

whom a relationship is rewarding? a. Tina likes Tony because he is playing hard to get. b. Tina likes Tony because they are about equally attractive. c. Tina likes Tony because they live in the same apartment building. d. Tina likes Tony because he smiles at her and compliments her. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-4

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 20. Greg argues that attraction is simply a function of wanting to have healthy offspring. Which

of the following viewpoints does he most likely endorse? a. the belief that situational variables influence attraction b. social exchange theory c. the matching hypothesis of attraction d. the approach of evolutionary psychology ANS: D

PTS: 1

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21. Which of the following is one of the most important prerequisites for the development of

attraction between two people? a. proximity b. complementarity c. high self-esteem d. attribute ambiguity ANS: A

PTS: 1

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22. According to the proximity effect, which of the following are we most likely to enter into a

relationship with? a. those who live near us b. those who are more physically attractive than we are c. those who have similar attitudes and values d. those who are similar in level of attractiveness ANS: A

PTS: 1

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23. Which of the following is consistent with the mere exposure effect? a. Frequent communication increases the likelihood of dating. b. The more we see someone, the greater the attraction. c. A couple falls in love at first sight. d. “Birds of a feather flock together.” ANS: B

PTS: 1

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24. Dr. Green is conducting an experiment on mere exposure effects. To produce the maximal

levels of liking, what should Dr. Green do? a. present his stimuli too quickly to be consciously perceived b. select stimuli toward which participants are likely to have negative attitudes c. present each stimulus at least 100 times to ensure overexposure d. prescreen participants and select only those who are easily bored ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-5

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 25. Mita et al. (1977) found that female university students preferred their own mirror image to

their actual appearance. Which of the following is this finding consistent with? a. the matching hypothesis b. mere exposure effects c. social exchange theory d. excitation transfer ANS: B

PTS: 1

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26. How has physical attractiveness been shown to influence responses in the real world? a. Attractive students were able to solicit roughly the same number of signatures on a

petition as unattractive students. b. Attractive students received smaller court fines than unattractive defendants. c. Attractive children received the same grades as unattractive children. d. Attractive employees earn approximately the same salaries as unattractive employees. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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27. The idea that some faces are inherently more attractive than others is supported by research

demonstrating which of the following? a. People prefer averaged composite faces to individual faces. b. Standards of beauty change over time. c. People from different cultures enhance their appearance in different ways. d. People we like seem more attractive to us. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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28. Which of the following hypotheses is supported by the finding that infants spend more time

looking at attractive, as compared to unattractive, faces? a. the hypothesis that beauty is objective b. the hypothesis that beauty is subjective c. the hypothesis that familiarity increases physical attractiveness d. the hypothesis that physical attractiveness increases familiarity ANS: A

PTS: 1

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29. Which of the following research supports the idea that physical attractiveness is inherently

subjective? a. research demonstrating that specific facial features tend to be associated with physical attractiveness b. research demonstrating that there is a high degree of cross-cultural consistency in ratings of attractiveness c. research demonstrating that liking someone increases their perceived physical attractiveness d. research demonstrating that averaged faces are judged more attractive than individual faces ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-6

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 30. How do people tend to rate averaged faces? a. Averaged faces are rated as less attractive than unusual faces. b. Averaged faces are rated as more attractive due to being symmetrical. c. Averaged faces are rated as more attractive because they look unusual. d. Averaged faces are rated as less attractive because they seem more familiar to us. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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31. Anderson et al. (1992) found that heavy women are perceived as more attractive than slender

women in countries where food is often in short supply. Which of the following ideas is this finding consistent with? a. the idea that certain body types are inherently more attractive than others b. the idea that beauty is subjective c. the idea that we want what is rare or unusual d. the idea that beauty is objective ANS: B

PTS: 1

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32. What does examination of female supermodels and centrefolds from magazines of different

generations indicate about the “ideal” body type? a. It has remained relatively consistent over time. b. It varies widely by culture. c. It has become thinner, with a lower bust-to-waist ratio. d. It has changed with a higher bust-to-waist ratio. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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33. Which of the following best summarizes the impact of exposure to the

what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype in typical Hollywood movies? a. We prejudge the most attractive characters to be the hero and/or heroine. b. Exposure to the stereotype only has an impact on our reactions to that movie. c. Exposure to the stereotype has little effect on our reactions to attractive or unattractive people after the movie. d. Later decisions more highly favour attractive people after exposure to the stereotype. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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34. To appear more attractive, Mark tries to interview for an acting job just after a less attractive

actor has interviewed. What is Mark trying to take advantage of? a. the recency effect b. the contrast effect c. the mere exposure effect d. the assimilation effect ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-7

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 35. Finster, a moderately attractive man, is attending a party. If he wants to be perceived as more

physically attractive than he actually is, whom should he should next to? a. Warren, an average-looking man b. Martha, an average-looking woman c. Prescott, a physically attractive man d. Esther, a physically attractive woman ANS: C

PTS: 1

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36. What do psychologists call the belief that physically attractive individuals also possess

desirable personality characteristics? a. the matching phenomenon b. the what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype c. the aesthetic appeal of beauty d. the reinforcement-affect principle ANS: B

PTS: 1

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37. Johan watches a movie that portrays the “beautiful-is-good” stereotype. How are his

expectations likely to be affected? a. He will expect unattractive individuals to be virtuous and successful. b. He will expect unattractive individuals to be charming but manipulative. c. He will expect physically attractive people to be more intelligent and trustworthy d. He will expect physically attractive people to be more independent and solitary. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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38. How do physically attractive people behave socially? a. they tend to have better social skills than unattractive people. b. they tend to have worse social skills than unattractive people. c. they tend to attend fewer social gatherings than unattractive people. d. they tend to have fewer friendships than unattractive people. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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39. What is one reason why the what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype endures? a. Expectations about physically attractive others can become a self-fulfilling

prophecy. b. The stereotype is largely accurate. c. The benefits of being physically attractive tend to outweigh the costs. d. Judgments of physical attractiveness have both an objective and a subjective

component. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-8

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 40. Mike and Penny meet in an Internet chat room. In which of the following cases is Penny most

likely to appear warm, outgoing, and confident? a. if she is physically unattractive b. if Mike believes that she is physically attractive c. if she is certain that Mike does not know what she looks like d. if she feels their conversation provides more rewards than costs ANS: B

PTS: 1

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41. Why are interactions with physically attractive others often rewarding? a. because physically attractive people tend to have higher self-esteem b. because physically attractive people are likely to experience attributional

ambiguity during the interaction c. because we perceive physically attractive others to be similar to ourselves d. because we expect interactions with physically attractive others to be positive ANS: D

PTS: 1

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42. Which of the following best reflects the benefits and cost of being attractive? a. While attractiveness often brings a social advantage to attractive individuals, it can

cause them to doubt the sincerity of others' praise for their work. b. While attractiveness often brings heightened self-esteem to attractive individuals, it can lead them to doubt others' praise of their attractiveness. c. While attractiveness often brings greater popularity to attractive individuals, it can increase mental health difficulties. d. While attractiveness often brings lifetime happiness to attractive individuals, it can put pressure on them to maintain their appearance. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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43. Paulina knows that she is very physically attractive. Her physical appearance has biased her

employer to think that her work is better than it really is. The employer therefore frequently compliments her work. According to relevant research, however, why won’t Paulina benefit psychologically from these compliments? a. because she compares herself to other very attractive and successful others b. because she lacks the social skills that more average-looking people tend to have c. because she suffers from social anxiety d. because she does not believe the sincerity of the compliments ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-9

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 44. In a classic study on attraction, Newcomb (1961) set up an experimental university dormitory.

What did this study reveal? a. Students' friendships with members of the opposite sex tended to turn into romantic relationships. b. Students who had similar backgrounds tended to like each other. c. Students who held dissimilar attitudes were more likely to form romantic relationships. d. Friendships were more likely than romantic relationships to be based on proximity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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45. Why does similarity tend to lead to attraction? a. because similar others provide a safe place to discuss our beliefs and attitudes b. because we expect positive interactions with similar others c. because similarity implies physical attractiveness, which leads to attraction d. because we expect to be challenged by similar others ANS: B

PTS: 1

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46. Popular wisdom is often contradictory, as with the following two sayings: (1) “opposites

attract” and (2) “birds of a feather flock together.” What does research on the relationship between similarity and liking suggest? a. “Opposites attract” is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are dissimilar from themselves. b. “Birds of a feather flock together” is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are similar to themselves. c. Both are right for different people; heterosexual men tend to be attracted to similar others, whereas gay men tend to be attracted to dissimilar others. d. Both are right in different conditions; people are attracted to similar others when they are interested in long-term relationships, but they prefer dissimilar others for less serious relationships without commitment. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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47. Rosenbaum (1986) argues that social psychologists overestimate the role of attitudinal

similarity in attraction, and suggests that it is not similarity that creates attraction. What is his hypothesis? a. Dissimilarity produces interpersonal repulsion. b. Opposites attract. c. Similarity in physical appearance creates attraction. d. Complementarity processes create attraction. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-10

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 48. Which of the following statements best describes the predictions of the two-stage model of

attraction proposed by Byrne et al. (1986)? a. People seek partners who are similar with respect to physical attractiveness, but dissimilar with respect to attitudes. b. People seek partners who are similar with respect to attitudes, but dissimilar with respect to personality. c. People first approach similar others and then weed out those who are least similar. d. People first avoid dissimilar others and then approach those remaining who are most similar. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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49. Walster et al. (1966) randomly matched students for a dance. At the end of the evening,

students indicated how satisfied they were with their dates. What was the strongest predictor of satisfaction? a. physical attractiveness b. attitudinal similarity c. proximity of dorm rooms d. complementary personalities ANS: A

PTS: 1

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50. Furio believes that people desire and form relationships with others who are similar in terms

of attitudes, values, physical attractiveness, and so on. To which of the following does Furio subscribe? a. equity theory b. the matching hypothesis c. social penetration theory d. the social exchange hypothesis ANS: B

PTS: 1

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51. According to research by Aronson and Linder (1965), which of the following patterns of

comments about us would lead us to like the speaker the most? a. critical comments followed by flattering comments b. critical comments followed by more critical comments c. flattering comments followed by more flattering comments d. flattering comments followed by critical comments ANS: A

PTS: 1

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52. Spike likes L.J., but Spike doesn't like Reggie. In which of the following situations would the

relationship among these three individuals be balanced? a. if L.J. likes Reggie b. if L.J. doesn't like Reggie c. if Reggie likes Spike d. if Reggie likes L.J. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-11

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 53. Jill really wants Mark to like her. What should she do? a. point out the ways in which their personalities complement one another b. appear to be highly selective by playing hard to get c. emphasize her relationships with people Mark does not like d. make sure he knows that she likes him ANS: D

PTS: 1

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54. Sid is mildly attracted to Nicole. If his parents forbid him to see Nicole, which of the

following is most likely to happen? a. Sid will become more attracted to Nicole. b. Sid will become less attracted to Nicole. c. Sid will stay away from Nicole and then use cognitive dissonance to justify his behaviour. d. Sid will play hard to get in order to appease his parents and spark Nicole's interest. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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55. Both male and female bar patrons who are not in committed relationships tend to see one

another as more attractive as the evening wears on. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon? a. the matching hypothesis b. negative affect reciprocity c. psychological reactance d. excitation transfer ANS: C

PTS: 1

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56. Matthew is considering going on a blind date. According to the evolutionary perspective,

which of the following will he be most concerned with? a. the social status of his date b. the physical attractiveness of his date c. whether he and his date have similar attitudes d. whether he and his date are equally intelligent ANS: B

PTS: 1

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57. According to the evolutionary perspective, which of the following do women prefer? a. wealthy men, because wealth is the criterion women use to estimate their best

chances for reproductive success b. physically attractive men, because of the social benefits that come from being

associated with such men c. wealthy men, because wealth gives women the freedom to pursue the lifestyle they

have been socialized to desire d. men who play hard to get, because such men bring about psychological reactance,

which can lead to the misattribution of arousal ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-12

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 58. According to evolutionary psychologists, in which of the following cases would Tom feel the

most upset? a. if his girlfriend had been sexually unfaithful to him b. if his girlfriend had become very attracted to a close friend of his c. if his girlfriend spent all her time with friends d. if his girlfriend had committed emotional infidelity ANS: A

PTS: 1

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59. Which of the following is consistent with the evolutionary account of mate selection? a. Women of all ages prefer partners who are similar in age. b. Men are more disturbed by emotional infidelity and women are more disturbed by

sexual infidelity. c. Both men and women seek partners who are kind and dependable. d. In personal ads, women tend to offer beauty and men offer wealth. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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60. Which of the following findings is most consistent with the sociocultural perspective on mate

selection? a. The more economic power women have, the more important the physical attractiveness of a potential mate is to them. b. Men are more disturbed by sexual infidelity and women are more disturbed by emotional infidelity. c. On average, men want to marry women who are about three years younger. d. Women are most threatened by physically attractive rivals, whereas men are most threatened by dominant rivals. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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61. Which of the following would be most difficult to explain from an evolutionary perspective? a. The vast majority of men seek mates younger than they are. b. Women tend to be more bothered by emotional infidelity than men are. c. Most men eventually get married or enter monogamous relationships. d. Women tend to emphasize their physical appearance when seeking a male mate via

personal ads. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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62. Which of the following most accurately represents differences in mating preferences? a. Men's preferences for young fertile women overcome their interest in other

attributes. b. Men's preferences for young fertile women and women's preferences for

economically secure men are less pronounced as they age. c. Social status is only important to women’s mating preferences. d. Differences found between the sexes regarding mating preferences are small

compared to the similarities in their mating preferences. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-13

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 63. In an intimate relationship, the meaningful and enduring influence that each individual has on

the other is an aspect of which of the following? a. primary appraisal b. social penetration c. interdependence d. comparison level ANS: C

PTS: 1

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64. Which of the following is considered to be a basic component of intimate relationships? a. feelings of sexual attraction b. reproductive compatibility c. interdependence d. fulfillment of social needs ANS: C

PTS: 1

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65. Murstein has identified three stages in relationship development. Although all stages may

exert influence throughout the relationship, in which order does Murstein argue that the stages emerge? a. stimulus stage, value stage, role stage b. value stage, stimulus stage, role stage c. stimulus stage, role stage, value stage d. value stage, role stage, stimulus stage ANS: A

PTS: 1

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66. Joshua is attracted to Daniel because of his warm eyes and great smile. Daniel is attracted to

Joshua because of his muscular body. Which of Murstein's stages are Joshua and Daniel in? a. the stimulus stage b. the value stage c. the role stage d. the norm stage ANS: A

PTS: 1

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67. Which of the following is best supported by research into the characteristics of intimate

relationships? a. Intimate relationships progress through a fixed series of stages. b. Intimate relationships tend to vary greatly in emotional intensity. c. Intimate relationships can exist without providing tangible rewards. d. Intimate relationships are considered less important by most people than successful careers. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-14

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 68. Roshumba is conducting a study on married couples. She interviews 500 couples about how

their relationships developed. Which of the following is she most likely to find? a. Most relationships developed through a fixed sequence of stages. b. There is considerable variability in how the couples' relationships developed. c. The couples generally went through the value stage before the role stage. d. Relationship rewards were unrelated to couples' feelings of being in love. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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69. According to social exchange theory, what is an individual's primary motive in establishing

and maintaining relationships? a. maximizing rewards and minimizing costs b. achieving an equitable balance of inputs and outputs c. maintaining reciprocal levels of self-disclosure d. the reproductive fitness of a potential partner ANS: A

PTS: 1

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70. Bruce and Pam have just started dating. According to social exchange theory, in which of the

following cases is their relationship most likely to last longer and be more satisfying? a. if they each feel that the rewards gained from the relationship are shared equally between them b. if they each feel that the costs of maintaining the relationship are shared equally between them c. if they each feel that the rewards gained from the relationship are equal to the costs of maintaining the relationship d. if they each feel that the rewards gained from the relationship are greater than the costs of maintaining the relationship ANS: D

PTS: 1

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71. What do psychologists call the average, general outcome that an individual expects in a

relationship? a. the intimacy level b. the investment level c. the comparison level d. the self-disclosure level ANS: C

PTS: 1

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72. Everyone doted on Ann when she was a child, and in high school all of the boys wanted to

date her. Now, as an adult, Ann expects a lot of attention from her spouse. Which of the following best describes Ann's expectation? a. an intimacy need b. an attachment style c. a comparison level d. self-disclosure reciprocity ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-15

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 73. According to social exchange theory, in which of the following cases will an outcome from a

relationship produce satisfaction? a. if it falls above a person's self-disclosure level b. if it falls above a person's level of similarity to the partner c. if it falls above a person's intimacy level d. if it falls above a person's comparison level ANS: D

PTS: 1

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74. Although she cheats on him, Abdul stays with his girlfriend because he doesn't think he would

be able to find anyone better. What does this example say about Abdul? a. He has a low comparison level for alternatives. b. He has a high comparison level for alternatives. c. He has a secure attachment style. d. He has an avoidant attachment style. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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75. Within the framework of social exchange theory, satisfaction in relationships is a function of

which of the following? a. debits b. credits c. exchange levels d. comparison levels ANS: D

PTS: 1

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76. Marcie and Karl have been married for several years. Marcie is unhappy in her marriage and

is trying to decide whether or not to leave Karl. Which of the following would encourage her the most to leave the marriage? a. Her comparison level for alternatives is low. b. Her comparison level is low. c. Her comparison level for alternatives is high. d. Her comparison level is high. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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77. Zachary is unhappy in his relationship and is trying to decide whether to break up with his

girlfriend. Which of the following situations would most likely to encourage him to stay? a. if his comparison level for alternatives is high b. if his comparison level is high c. if his investment is high d. if his costs for staying are high ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-16

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 78. Benedict is very committed to his relationship with Beatrice. Which of the following is most

likely? a. Benedict will have a very high comparison level for alternatives. b. Benedict will engage in behaviours that enhance Beatrice's trust in him. c. Benedict will feel over-benefited in relation to Beatrice. d. Benedict and Beatrice will keep investments in their relationship to a minimum. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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79. In which of the following cases does equity theory predict that people will be most satisfied in

their relationships? a. when the perceived rewards of the relationship are equal to the perceived costs of the relationship b. when the perceived rewards of the relationship outweigh the perceived costs of the relationship c. when the rewards and costs one partner experiences are roughly equal to those of the other partner d. when the actual rewards and costs of the relationship exceed the expected rewards and costs of the relationship ANS: C

PTS: 1

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80. Which of the following best describes partners in a relationship who receive more benefits

than they deserve on the basis of their contributions? a. They have a high comparison level. b. They tend to disparage their partners. c. They are overbenefited. d. They face challenges to their social power. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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81. Jack and Donna have been dating and living together for two years. Jack always puts Donna's

needs before his own, is very supportive of Donna, and devotes a great deal of time and energy to the relationship. Donna, on the other hand, focuses on her own needs and problems and does not exert a great deal of effort when it comes to the relationship. What would equity theorists most likely say about Jack and Donna’s relationship? a. Jack should feel underbenefited and upset about the nature of the relationship, whereas Donna will be content because her needs are being met at minimal cost to her. b. Jack and Donna should be content with the relationship because people in an equity relationship do not keep track of costs and benefits. c. Jack should feel underbenefited and upset about the nature of the relationship, and Donna should feel overbenefited and guilty. d. Donna is overbenefited in the relationship because she is much more attractive than Jack. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-17

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 82. Peter offers to help Liza whenever she needs help. In return, however, Peter expects Liza to

drop what she is doing to help Peter immediately when he needs help. What is Peter’s understanding of the relationship? a. He considers it an equitable relationship. b. He considers it an exchange relationship. c. He considers it a communal relationship. d. He considers it an intimate relationship. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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83. In their relationship, Clyde is concerned with maintaining an equal ratio of rewards and costs,

whereas Barb is concerned with being responsive to Clyde's needs. How do Clyde and Barb each view their relationship? a. Clyde views their relationship as a reciprocal relationship, whereas Barb views it as an exchange relationship. b. Clyde views their relationship as an exchange relationship, whereas Barb views it as a communal relationship. c. Clyde views their relationship as a communal relationship, whereas Barb views it as a passionate relationship. d. Clyde views their relationship as a passionate relationship, whereas Barb views it as a companionate relationship. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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84. Ben goes out of his way to help Jennifer whenever he can. However, Jennifer has been busy

lately and unable to reciprocate. Ben doesn't seem upset because he knows she is sensitive to his needs overall. What kind of relationship do they have? a. an equitable relationship b. an exchange relationship c. a communal relationship d. a companionate relationship ANS: C

PTS: 1

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85. Strong communal relationships are most common among which of the following? a. business partners b. romantic partners c. strangers d. classmates ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-18

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 86. Conchita has good relationships with her boyfriend and with her parents. She is also able to

form caring and supportive friendships. Which attachment styles does Conchita most likely have? a. anxious/ambivalent attachment style b. multiple attachment style c. secure attachment style d. avoidant attachment style ANS: C

PTS: 1

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87. Which of the following people has an avoidant attachment style? a. Wayne, who relies heavily on others for support and acceptance b. Keyshawn, who very much wants to be close to his partner, but fears that his

affections won't be returned c. Vinny, who values intimacy, finds it easy to get close to others, and trusts his partner d. Curtis, who finds it difficult to trust others and often feels his partners want to be closer than he would like ANS: D

PTS: 1

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88. June and Walter fell in love at first sight and still find each other very sexy. They are obsessed

with each other, but their love life blows hot and cold. What attachment style to each other do they have? a. avoidant b. anxious/ambivalent c. multiple d. secure ANS: B

PTS: 1

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89. How does attachment style relate to adult relationships? a. People classified as insecurely attached are often abusive b. People classified as securely attached are often in satisfying relationships.. c. People classified as avoidant attachment often seek their mate’s approval d. People classified as anxiously attached are often dismissive of their mate. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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90. Mark has been dating Dierdra for some time.He never lets her go out with her friends or talk

to other men. He is demanding and possessive of her. What type of love does he have for Dierdra? a. agape b. ludus c. storge d. mania ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-19

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 91. How do men and women differ with respect to Lee's (1988) styles of love? a. Men and women score about the same on storge and mania styles of love. b. Women tend to score higher on ludus love, but men score higher on eros love. c. Men tend to score higher on eros love, but women score higher on agape love. d. Men tend to score higher on ludus love, but women score higher on pragma love. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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92. According to Lee's (1988) categorization scheme for styles of love, which of the following

would best describe the feelings between best friends? a. storge b. ludus c. pragma d. agape ANS: A

PTS: 1

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93. In Lee's (1988) categorization scheme for styles of love, what kind of love is agape? a. erotic love b. altruistic love c. uncommitted love d. pragmatic love ANS: B

PTS: 1

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94. Considering the love taxonomies of Lee, Sternberg, and Hatfield, which of the following

classifications all seem to reflect a similar type of love? a. Lee's storge, Sternberg's intimacy, and Hatfield's passionate love b. Lee's eros, Sternberg's passion, and Hatfield's companionate love c. Lee's ludus, Sternberg's commitment, and Hatfield's companionate love d. Lee's storge, Sternberg's intimacy, and Hatfield's companionate love ANS: D

PTS: 1

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95. According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, what are the basic components of love? a. intimacy, passion, and commitment b. rewards, costs, and investments c. romance, companionship, and reciprocity d. ludus, eros, and storge ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-20

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 96. Eileen says she loves Jesse, even though they met very recently and both of them are still

dating other people. When her best friend asks her what she means by “love,” Eileen says, “I feel like even though we just met, I could tell him anything in the world. And he's so sexy—I get butterflies just thinking about him.” According to the triangular theory of love, how would Eileen's feelings towards Jesse best be labelled? a. consummate love b. companionate love c. fatuous love d. passionate love ANS: D

PTS: 1

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97. Brenda is asked to rate her feelings toward her sister Stephanie. According to Sternberg's

triangular theory, how will Brenda most likely rate her relationship with her sister? a. higher in intimacy than commitment or passion b. higher in commitment than intimacy or passion c. fatuous love d. pragma love ANS: B

PTS: 1

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98. After a two-week whirlwind romance, Anna and Ken decide to get married. In the framework

of the triangular theory of love, how would Anna and Ken's love be categorized? a. companionate love b. romantic love c. passionate love d. storge ANS: C

PTS: 1

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99. Herman and Flora have been married for 40 years. They still have a strong relationship and

say they are each other's best friends. According to Sternberg’s model, what kind of love does their relationship best exemplify? a. exchange love b. passionate love c. communal love d. companionate love ANS: D

PTS: 1

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100. What do psychologists call romantic love characterized by high arousal, intense attraction,

and fear of rejection? a. companionate love b. storge love c. passionate love d. agape love ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-21

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 101. Bruno just finished working out at the gym. On his way to the locker room, he passes

Charmaigne, a very pretty woman. Bruno feels his heart pounding and is convinced that he must be in love with Charmaigne. Which of the following best explains Bruno's feelings? a. negative affect reciprocity b. excitation transfer c. psychological reactance d. social penetration ANS: B

PTS: 1

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102. Dutton and Aron (1974) conducted a study in which a female approached and asked survey

questions of men on a rickety suspension bridge. Which of the following scenarios is most analogous to the results of this study? a. After swerving to avoid an oncoming car, your heart races and your mind is flooded with images of how much you care about your significant other. b. Ten minutes after you've begun a strenuous workout, the person next to you strikes up a conversation and you immediately feel attracted to him or her. c. When a classmate that you find particularly attractive happens to sit down next to you, you feel your pulse quicken and you stutter as you try to make conversation. d. You are still agitated after a heated phone conversation with your mother, and when you run into someone you had a crush on several years ago, you are surprised to realize you don't find him or her that attractive in your current state of arousal. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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103. Bonita and Helga are asked to list people they “love,” people they are “in love with,” and

people they are “sexually attracted to.” Which of the following is most likely? a. The names on all three lists will overlap considerably. b. The names on the “love” and “in love with” lists will overlap considerably. c. The names on the “in love with” and “sexually attracted to” lists will overlap considerably. d. The names on all three lists will be fairly different. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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104. If people are asked to characterize romantic love, which of the following attributes will over

two-thirds of the people list? a. happiness b. sexual desire c. commitment d. communication ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-22

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 105. What are the cultural effects on passionate love? a. North Americans report more passionate love than South Americans. b. South Americans report more passionate love than North Americans. c. Collectivist cultures report more passionate love than individualist cultures. d. Passionate love has been identified across as widespread cross-culturally. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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106. How do marriages in individualistic cultures differ from those in collectivistic cultures? a. In individualistic cultures, spouses exhibit lower levels of passionate love. b. In individualistic cultures, spouses give more priority to their own feelings in

marital decisions. c. In individualistic cultures, spouses are especially concerned about social approval. d. In individualistic cultures, spouses find loveless marriages to be more palatable. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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107. How does companionate love differ from passionate love? a. Companionate love is more intense. b. Companionate love is more erotic. c. Companionate love is more likely to remain constant over time. d. Companionate love is more likely to erode over time. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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108. Which of the following best characterizes companionate love? a. high levels of arousal b. high levels of self-disclosure c. low levels of trust d. low levels of stability ANS: B

PTS: 1

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109. What do psychologists call the idea that relationships progress from superficial exchanges to

relatively deeper ones? a. social penetration theory b. social exchange theory c. the mere exposure effect d. the matching hypothesis ANS: A

PTS: 1

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9-23

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 110. When they first started dating, Norma and Nathan didn't share much about themselves with

one another, but as their relationship developed they began to talk more about personal issues and reveal more about themselves to each other. Which of the following is their behaviour most consistent with? a. the matching hypothesis b. equity theory c. the exchange theory of love d. social penetration theory ANS: D

PTS: 1

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111. Susan, Sharon, Kyle and Ben have been friends and co-workers for a number of years and

they regularly eat lunch together. What pattern of self-disclosure would you predict? a. Kyle and Ben disclose more about themselves than do Susan and Sharon. b. Ben is more likely to disclose more to Kyle than to Susan or Sharon. c. Ben is more likely to disclose to Susan or Sharon than to Kyle. d. Susan is more likely to disclose to Kyle than to Sharon. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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112. In which of the following situations is self-disclosure reciprocity most important? a. in the early stages of a relationship b. when interacting with a man c. among couples sharing companionate love d. in opposite-sex interactions ANS: A

PTS: 1

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113. How do men and women differ in their sexual behaviour? a. Women tend to see the world in “sexualized” terms more than men do. b. Women are more likely to fantasize about sex with multiple partners than men. c. Women tend to show more erotic plasticity than men. d. Women more often engage in casual sex without emotional commitment than men. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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114. Denise and Brandon are just getting to know each other. Each compliments how the other one

looks. Given the research on men, women, and sexuality, which of the following outcomes is most likely? a. Denise will interpret Brandon's compliment as a sexual come-on. b. Brandon will interpret Denise's compliment as a sexual come-on. c. Both Denise and Brandon will interpret each other's compliments as a sexual come-on. d. Neither Denise nor Brandon will interpret each other's compliments as a sexual come-on. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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9-24

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 115. In how many animal species have homosexual behaviour been observed? a. in close to 150 species b. in close to 250 species. c. in close to 350 species. d. in close to 450 species. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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116. What did LeVay's (1991) examination of the human brain find? a. The hypothalamuses of homosexual and heterosexual men did not differ. b. The hypothalamuses of men who died of AIDS differed from those of men who

did not have AIDS. c. The hypothalamuses of homosexual men were similar in many respects to those of heterosexual women. d. Differences in the hypothalamus were more pronounced for homosexual and heterosexual men than they were between homosexual and heterosexual women. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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117. Baumeister and colleagues use the phrase erotic plasticity. If women have greater erotic

plasticity, what does this mean? a. that women are more likely to change sexual preference over time than men are. b. that women are turned on by a smaller range of stimuli than men are. c. that women are more likely to have multiple sexual partners than men are. d. that women are less accepting of “alternative” sexual preferences than men are. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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118. What is Bem's theory of sexual orientation development known as? a. the “boys will be boys” theory b. the “exotic becomes erotic” theory c. the “sensual becomes sexual” theory d. the “boys don't cry” theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

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119. For most couples, at what time periods does martial satisfaction change most dramatically? a. at years seven and ten b. at years three and five c. at years two and six d. at years one and eight ANS: D

PTS: 1

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9-25

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 120. What has research concerning the marital trajectory shown? a. The longer couples are married, the more satisfied they become. b. Wives are significantly more satisfied in their marriages than are husbands. c. Husbands are significantly more satisfied in their marriages than are wives. d. The more new experiences married couples share, the greater their satisfaction. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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121. Carly hurls an insult right back at James when James expresses his negative feelings toward

her. Which of the following does this back-and-forth pattern illustrate? a. social penetration b. a demand/withdraw interaction pattern c. negative affect reciprocity d. distress-maintaining attributions ANS: C

PTS: 1

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122. When they have a problem, Rachel tries to get her husband Jared to talk about the problem,

and he typically tries to avoid the discussion. Which of the following best reflects the findings about this communication pattern? a. It leads exchange relationships to become more communal. b. It reflects negative affect reciprocity. c. It illustrates the demand/withdraw interaction pattern. d. It fosters social penetration. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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123. Your significant other has just been short-tempered and impatient with you. Your reaction is

to think, “well, (s)he's had a very stressful week, so I'll just forget that it happened.” Which of the following would your reaction best exemplify? a. affect reciprocity b. a relationship-enhancing attribution c. a demand/withdraw interaction pattern d. a depressive explanatory style ANS: B

PTS: 1

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124. In which of the following cases is a breakup most likely to be especially difficult? a. if the relationship had negative affect reciprocity b. if the relationship began as a friendship c. if the relationship began as a very passionate romance d. if the relationship is important to the individuals' identities ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9-26

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 125. Samantha and David had no close friends outside of their marriage but instead relied on each

other for everything. When the marriage failed, they were both extremely distressed. Which of the following was the most likely cause of this distress? a. their identities b. their comparison level alternatives c. their misattribution d. their interdependence ANS: D

PTS: 1

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ESSAY 1. What is the phenomenon known as mere exposure, and how can it affect attraction? What is

the role of awareness in this effect? ANS:

The mere exposure effect is the phenomenon whereby the more often people are exposed to a stimulus (up to a point), the more positively they evaluate that stimulus. Through mere exposure, repeated contact with an individual can heighten one's attraction to that individual. This effect may occur even if the individual is unaware that he or she has been repeatedly exposed to this individual. For example, we tend to prefer our own mirror images, whereas others prefer actual photos of us. PTS: 1 2. What are the benefits of being beautiful? What are the drawbacks? ANS:

It has been shown that good-looking people have more friends, better social skills, and a more active sex life. Beauty can give the attractive individual an advantage. For example, research by Downs and Lyons (1991) showed that Texas judges set lower bail and imposed smaller fines on suspects rated as attractive rather than as unattractive. However, beauty also has its pitfalls. When one is attractive it is hard to tell whether the attention the person is receiving is for the good looks or for that person's capabilities. A second disadvantage is that there is pressure to maintain appearance, pressures that could contribute, for example, to eating problems such as bulimia and anorexia nervosa. PTS: 1

9-27

Chapter 9 Attraction and Close Relationships 3. How are mating preferences explained from an evolutionary perspective? ANS:

Optimal mating strategies are those that best promote the conception, birth, and subsequent reproduction of offspring. Although the goal is the same for men and women—to ensure the survival of their genes in future generations—the optimal strategies for achieving this goal are different. Because men are potentially able to produce a large number of offspring, their optimal strategy is to inseminate many different women, selected for their reproductive capacity. And because women who are young and healthy are perceived as having the highest reproductive capacity, it is in the best interest of men to be concerned about the age and health of women. From an evolutionary perspective, this is why men are particularly interested in women's physical appearance. Women, in contrast, are biologically more limited in terms of the number of offspring they can produce. The optimal strategy for women, therefore, is to maximize the chances that the offspring they do have will survive and have offspring of their own. And these chances are improved when women select mates who can provide the resources necessary to ensure both their well-being and that of their children. According to the evolutionary perspective, this is why women value the socioeconomic status of men. PTS: 1 4. Explain the basic premise of social exchange theory and describe one prediction about

intimate relationships derived from this theory. ANS:

Social exchange theory suggests that people interact with each other in an attempt to maximize rewards and minimize costs. One prediction derived from social exchange theory is that people who have invested in a relationship are likely to stay in that relationship. PTS: 1 5. Compare and contrast passionate and companionate love. ANS:

Both passionate love and companionate love involve feelings of deep concern for and intimacy with another individual. However, passionate love is characterized by intense emotional experiences, typically occurs early in the relationship, and is unencumbered by costs to the relationship. Companionate love, on the other hand, entails deep commitment and trust and exists between friends as well as lovers. PTS: 1

9-28

Chapter 10: Helping Others MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When is helping behaviour adaptive from an evolutionary perspective? a. when it contributes to the survival of the fittest individual b. when the economic rewards of helping are greater than the costs c. when it helps to secure propagation of an individual's genes d. when it is performed for altruistic rather than egoistic motives ANS: C

PTS: 1

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2. According to the evolutionary principle of kinship selection, who are we most likely to help? a. someone who is a potential mate b. someone who is likely to return the favour c. someone who is physically attractive d. someone who is genetically similar to us ANS: D

PTS: 1

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3. Which of the following assumptions is the principle of kinship selection is based on? a. Although it is sometimes beneficial to help our kin, we must focus primarily on

helping ourselves if we are to survive. b. It is the survival of genes that matters most in evolution. c. We will help those who are likely to reciprocate that help, regardless of whether or

not they are genetically related. d. Those who have the greatest reproductive fitness share more genes with their kin. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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4. Jeffrey jumps into the water after his sister to save her from drowning. According to

evolutionary theory, which of the following is Jeffrey's helping behaviour is best attributed to? a. his emotional bond to his sister b. his altruistic personality c. reciprocal altruism d. kinship selection ANS: D

PTS: 1

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5. Stewart-Williams (2007) found that McMaster students indicated a greater willingness to help

relatives rather than friends and acquaintances. Which of the following is this finding most consistent with? a. kinship selection b. the bystander effect c. pluralistic ignorance d. the negative-state relief model ANS: A

PTS: 1

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10-1

Chapter 10 Helping Others 6. Which of the following is consistent with the predictions of evolutionary psychology and

kinship selection? a. Children indicate a greater willingness to help a friend as compared to a sibling. b. Adults indicate a greater willingness to help healthy relatives than those in poor health. c. Adults indicate a greater willingness to help older as compared to younger relatives. d. Adults indicate a greater willingness to help cousins as compared to siblings. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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7. Which of the following acts is most readily explained from an evolutionary perspective? a. group members helping a group member with a developmental disability b. people helping their siblings c. people helping an injured animal d. people helping a stranger ANS: B

PTS: 1

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8. Ferdinand helps Wendy because he hopes that she will help him when he needs it. Which of

the following is the basis for Ferdinand's thinking? a. kinship selection b. reciprocal altruism c. empathic concern d. moral hypocrisy ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 63

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9. Which of the following ideas do file-sharing websites depend on? a. reciprocal altruism b. kinship selection c. audience inhibition d. the arousal: cost-reward model ANS: A

PTS: 1

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10. What does Sober and Wilson's (1998) notion of group selection propose? a. Helping may be based on social connections rather than genetic relatedness. b. Helping occurs when the rewards of helping are equal to the costs of not helping. c. As the size of a group increases, helping behaviours decrease. d. Groups are more likely to invoke reciprocal altruism than are individuals. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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10-2

Chapter 10 Helping Others 11. Which of the following would be most consistent with the proposition that individuals can

enhance their reproductive success by protecting their group's interests in relation to other groups? a. The government of one country sends relief aid to another country with the expectation that this action will be reciprocated. b. A young woman stops to help an elderly man change a flat tire. c. A teaching assistant agrees to help kids from his hometown study for an exam, but claims not to have the time when other students ask for help. d. The members of the Friday night bowling league spend several weeks each year collecting clothing, food, and toys for underprivileged children. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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12. Which of the following is most consistent with the idea that people respond to emergency

situations by acting to reduce their personal distress in the most cost-effective way? a. the negative state relief model b. the attribution-affect-action model c. the norm of social responsibility d. the arousal: cost-reward model ANS: D

PTS: 1

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13. When does the consideration of rewards and costs influence whether or not an individual

decides to help? a. when people have the time to make a careful deliberate decision about whether to help b. when people are faced with emergency situations in which they must make a quick decision about whether to help c. when people are deciding about whether or not they should help a stranger d. when people are deciding about whether or not they should help ANS: D

PTS: 1

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14. Arianna notices that her neighbours' house is on fire. According to the arousal: cost-reward

model, what should her initial reaction be? a. feelings of personal distress b. feelings of empathic concern c. a consideration of the rewards of helping d. a consideration of the costs of helping ANS: A

PTS: 1

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15. According to research by Rilling et al. (2003), what kind of behaviour is linked to activation

of the brain in areas associated with processing rewards? a. selfish behaviour b. dangerous behaviour c. evolutionarily adaptive behaviour d. mutually cooperative behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

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Chapter 10 Helping Others 16. Muriel, who generally has high self-esteem, learns that she failed her psychology exam. When

her roommate asks Muriel for a ride to the airport, which of the following is most likely? a. Muriel will be more likely to help. b. Muriel will be less likely to help. c. Muriel will focus more on the costs of helping rather than the rewards. d. Muriel will be more concerned with the potential for reciprocity. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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17. Why are individuals who are feeling guilty or whose high self-esteem has been threatened

likely to help? a. because such emotional states tend to activate reciprocity norms b. because it helps them to feel good about themselves c. because bystander calculus becomes too cognitively demanding d. because it helps them to reduce stimulus overload ANS: B

PTS: 1

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18. Justin is an 18-month-old toddler who sees an adult who drops her keys while carrying a big

box and trying to unlock a door. What is Justin likely to do? a. Justin will not help unless asked for assistance. b. If asked for assistance, Justin will help by answering the adult’s simple questions. c. Justin will pick up the keys and hand them to the adult. d. If asked for assistance, Justin will pick up the keys but will only hand them to the adult when specifically told to do so. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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19. Justin is an 18 month old toddler who sees an adult throw her keys to the floor and walk away.

How is Justin likely to respond? a. Justin will respond by leaving the keys on the floor. b. Justin will respond by picking up the keys and throwing them to the floor. c. Justin will respond by picking up the keys and handing them to the adult. d. Justin will respond by avoiding the adult. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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BLM: Higher order

20. In a research study, participants read about Bryan Banks who was running late to class and

was hit by a car. What effect did the instructions to imagine how Bryan feels have on their willingness to help? a. They were more likely to help than students asked to be objective. b. They were less likely to help than students asked to imagine how the accident could have been avoided. c. They were more likely to help when they saw Bryan in a positive light. d. The instructions did not influence people’s willingness to help in this case. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 370

BLM: Higher order

10-4

Chapter 10 Helping Others 21. What do psychologists call sustained and deliberate helping in the face of high costs? a. reciprocal altruism b. overhelping c. courageous resistance d. pluralistic ignorance ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 367

BLM: Remember

22. As the apartment building became engulfed by flames, Candy ran back in to save the children

trapped inside, even though doing so led her to suffer severe burns of her own. What does Candy's behaviour illustrate? a. reciprocal altruism b. overhelping c. courageous resistance d. pluralistic ignorance ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 367

BLM: Higher order

23. Kirk passes a homeless person on the street. In which of the following cases is Kirk most

likely to help this person? a. if the costs of NOT helping are small and Kirk will gain nothing from helping b. if the costs of NOT helping are small and Kirk will feel better about himself by helping c. if the costs of helping are large and Kirk will feel better about himself by helping d. if the costs of helping are small and Kirk will feel better about himself by helping ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 367

BLM: Higher order

24. Some Good Samaritan laws require people to provide or summon help in an emergency. How

are they intended to increase helping? a. by lowering the costs of helping b. by raising the costs of helping c. by lowering the costs of NOT helping d. by raising the costs of NOT helping ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 367

BLM: Remember

25. Some Good Samaritan laws offer legal protection to bystanders who help in an emergency.

How are these laws intended to increase helping? a. by lowering the costs of helping b. by raising the costs of helping c. by lowering the costs of NOT helping d. by raising the costs of NOT helping ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 367

BLM: Remember

10-5

Chapter 10 Helping Others 26. Giles volunteers his time to his local community centre because he thinks it will look good on

his university applications. Which of the following best characterizes Giles behaviour? a. democratic b. egoistic c. altruistic d. realistic ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Remember

27. Grissel volunteers her time to escort patients at an abortion clinic because she is truly

concerned for their safety. Which of the following best characterizes Grissel's behaviour? a. altruistic b. egoistic c. democratic d. realistic ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Remember

28. Which of the following does the primary distinction between altruistic and egoistic helping

concern? a. the motivations of the helper b. the ratio of rewards to costs c. the number of bystanders present d. the mood of the helper ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Higher order

29. When Jo witnessed a serious plane crash, she felt compassion, sympathy, and tenderness for

the victims. What do her feelings show? a. anxious introspection b. perspective taking c. personal distress d. empathic concern ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Remember

30. What do psychologists call the cognitive component of empathy that involves seeing the

world through someone else's eyes? a. anxious introspection b. personal distress c. perspective taking d. empathic concern ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Remember

10-6

Chapter 10 Helping Others 31. When Christine sees how upset Jim is about his father's death, she too becomes upset. As a

result, she goes out of her way to console Jim. Which of the following is most consistent with Christine's actions? a. the empathy-altruism hypothesis b. the mood maintenance model c. the norm of reciprocity d. the threat to self-esteem model ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 368

BLM: Higher order

32. How does empathic concern differ from personal distress? a. Empathic concern is more likely in emergency situations. b. Empathic concern does not directly impact helping behaviour. c. Empathic concern is more cognitive in nature. d. Empathic concern is other-oriented rather than self-oriented. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Remember

33. When Spencer sees the victims of a school shooting on television, he is shocked and

distressed. What aspect of empathy does Spencer's reaction illustrate? a. personal distress b. empathic concern c. perspective taking d. empathic reaction ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Higher order

34. The empathy-altruism hypothesis maintains that, regardless of how easy it is to escape from a

situation, people will help someone else in which of the following situations? a. if their motives are altruistic b. if their motives are simplistic c. if their motives are idiosyncratic d. if their motives are egoistic ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 368-369

BLM: Higher order

35. According to the empathy-altruism hypothesis, which of the following is the primary cause of

altruistic behaviour? a. taking another's perspective b. rewards and costs c. personal distress d. evolution ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 368-369

BLM: Higher order

10-7

Chapter 10 Helping Others 36. What has research on the empathy-altruism model demonstrated about the helping behaviour

of individuals who are high in empathic concern? a. They will offer help when escape from the situation is difficult, but not when escape is easy. b. They will offer help if they can easily escape from the situation, but not if escape is difficult. c. They will offer help regardless of the extent of danger. d. They will offer help regardless of the ease of escape from a situation. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Remember

37. According to the empathy-altruism model of helping, what motivates helping? a. the motivation for self-enhancement b. the desire to receive praise c. the expectation that helping will produce empathic joy d. the belief that helping will reduce the other’s distress ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Higher order

38. Liam is in a bad mood because he failed to get the promotion he was hoping for at work.

When he gets home, his roommate Charlie asks for a ride to the grocery store. Liam willingly agrees to this favour. Which of the following concepts explains why Liam is particularly likely to help his roommate now that he is feeling bad? a. the empathy-altruism hypothesis b. the norm of social responsibility c. the negative state relief model d. the theory of self-esteem threat ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 366

BLM: Higher order

39. Which of the following would be most consistent with the negative state relief model? a. Shoppers who are given a free gift are more likely to donate money to a solicitor as

they leave the store. b. Students who feel guilty about falling asleep in class volunteer to help a professor

by completing a questionnaire. c. Professional athletes are more likely to sign autographs for fans following a win

than following a loss. d. Depressed individuals are less likely to help in an emergency than non-depressed

individuals. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 366

BLM: Higher order

10-8

Chapter 10 Helping Others 40. Which of the following is a limitation of the empathy-altruism hypothesis? a. Egoistic motives are not the most important motives for helping. b. It fails to consider situational factors that influence the helping behaviour of those

with egoistic motives. c. It combines egoistic and altruistic motives, thus assuming concern for both self and

other. d. Personal distress does not always result in helping behaviour. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 370

BLM: Higher order

41. Sandhya has missed class because she is sick, but Luis did attend the lecture. Sandhya asks

Luis if she can borrow his notes. If Luis considers Sandhya's situation from her point of view and decides to offer help, what is he most likely doing? a. invoking the norm of reciprocal altruism b. operating under an altruistic motive c. operating under an egoistic motive d. following the negative state relief model ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Higher order

42. Sandhya has missed class because she is sick, but Luis did attend the lecture. Sandhya asks

Luis if she can borrow his notes. If Luis considers that Sandhya has shared her notes in the past and decides to offer help, what is he most likely doing? a. invoking the norm of reciprocal altruism b. operating under an altruistic motive c. operating under an egoistic motive d. following the negative state relief model ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 369

BLM: Higher order

43. What effect does motivation have on helping behaviours? a. People who volunteered due to empathic concern and personal distress volunteered

for altruistic reasons. b. People who volunteered due to perspective taking volunteered for egoistic reasons. c. People who volunteered for altruistic reasons helped for longer periods of time

than those who volunteered for egoistic reasons. d. People who volunteered for egoistic reasons helped for longer periods of time than

those who volunteered for altruistic reasons. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 370

BLM: Remember

10-9

Chapter 10 Helping Others 44. What is the bystander effect? a. the tendency for a greater number of bystanders to increase the probability that a

victim will receive help b. the tendency for a greater number of bystanders to reduce the probability that a victim will receive help c. the tendency for bystander helping to be motivated more by egoistic concerns than altruistic ones d. the tendency for bystander helping to be motivated more by altruistic concerns than egoistic ones ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 372

BLM: Remember

45. Benny has a heart attack while riding a crowded city bus, and nobody on the bus attempts to

help him. Which of the following does this case exemplify? a. the bystander effect b. the good mood effect c. moral hypocrisy d. the norm of social responsibility ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 372

BLM: Higher order

46. Ervin was in the middle of a bustling crowd when an injured woman fell down. Which of the

following is the most likely reason Ervin might NOT have helped the woman? a. He was embarrassed by the situation. b. He was distracted by the crowd. c. He was aroused by the commotion. d. He was frightened by the crowd's anonymity. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 372

BLM: Higher order

47. Which of the following factors will lead to greater helping in an emergency situation? a. A large group of bystanders witnesses the emergency. b. The emergency occurs in a busy environment. c. The emergency involves two people who are clearly related. d. The situation is clearly an emergency. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 374

BLM: Higher order

48. Which of the following accurately lists the order of steps to helping proposed by Latané and

Darley (1970)? a. notice the event, decide how to help, interpret the event as an emergency, take responsibility, b. notice the event, take responsibility, interpret the event as an emergency, decide how to help c. notice the event, interpret the event as an emergency, take responsibility, decide how to help d. notice the event, decide how to help, take responsibility, interpret the event as an emergency, ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 374

BLM: Remember 10-10

Chapter 10 Helping Others 49. Which of the following situational changes would have made it more likely that someone

would have acted to help Kitty Genovese during her attack? a. if more of her neighbours had been at home b. if there had been more witnesses to the event c. if people had telephones readily available d. if some of the witnesses had just heard a lecture on the situational influences on helping behaviour ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Higher order

50. What do psychologists call the belief that one's own thoughts and feelings differ from those of

others, even though everyone is behaving in the same way? a. stimulus overload b. pluralistic ignorance c. courageous resistance d. diffusion of responsibility ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 375

BLM: Remember

51. Which of the following obstacles to helping behaviour is best described as preventing people

who notice an event from interpreting it as an emergency? a. diffusion of responsibility b. pluralistic ignorance c. stimulus overload d. audience inhibition ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 375

BLM: Higher order

52. Dewanto hears what sounds like gunshots coming from the school parking lot. None of his

classmates appear concerned, so Dewanto assumes that they know the sound was only a car backfiring or someone playing with firecrackers. What do Dewanto's beliefs illustrate? a. diffusion of responsibility b. empathic concern c. audience inhibition d. pluralistic ignorance ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 375

BLM: Higher order

53. During his statistics class this morning, Stuart was completely confused. He considered asking

questions during the lecture, but because nobody else asked questions, he assumed they understood the material. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Stuart's failure to ask questions? a. diffusion of responsibility b. empathic concern c. pluralistic ignorance d. moral hypocrisy ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 375

BLM: Higher order

10-11

Chapter 10 Helping Others 54. Asuni hears her neighbour's burglar alarm go off in the middle of the night, but she doesn't

call the police because she assumes that one of the other neighbours will do so. What does Asuni's failure act illustrate? a. the empathy-altruism hypothesis b. moral hypocrisy c. diffusion of responsibility d. bystander calculus ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 376

BLM: Higher order

55. According to research by Garcia and colleagues (2002), how does imagining you are in a

group with other people affect your tendency to help others? a. It makes you more likely to engage in helping behaviour. b. It makes you less likely to engage in helping behaviour. c. It only influences altruistic helping behaviour. d. It does not affect helping behaviour. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Remember

56. In which of the following cases can diffusion of responsibility most likely be reduced? a. if a bystander's training is relevant to the emergency at hand b. if there are many bystanders c. if the bystanders do not know each other d. if the bystanders do not know the victim ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Remember

57. Bystanders sometimes do not offer help in an emergency situation because they are concerned

about what others will think of them. What do psychologists call this phenomenon? a. diffusion of responsibility b. stimulus overload c. pluralistic ignorance d. audience inhibition ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Remember

58. Ginny thinks she hears her upstairs neighbours having a violent argument where the husband

is beating his wife. However, she does not call the police because she is afraid that her neighbours will start to avoid her if she is wrong. What does Ginny's failure to act exemplify? a. personalism b. audience inhibition c. empathic concern d. pluralistic ignorance ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Higher order

10-12

Chapter 10 Helping Others 59. Consider Latané and Darley's (1970) five step model of helping. At which step does analysis

of costs and rewards occur? a. noticing the event b. interpreting the event as an emergency c. taking responsibility to help d. providing help ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 377

BLM: Remember

60. Which of the following would be the most effective way for a person to secure help in an

emergency situation? a. making a very loud general plea for help b. asking a specific individual for help c. requesting help from those who are more psychologically distant from the situation d. appearing to have the situation entirely under control ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 379

BLM: Remember

61. Fiona needs to get people to fill out her survey. Who is most likely to help? a. those who live in the city rather than the country b. those who feel angry c. those who feel guilty d. those who are in a hurry ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

62. In which of the following situations are people are least likely to notice an emergency? a. if they display empathic concern for others b. if they are aware of their surroundings c. if they are in a good mood d. if they are under time pressure ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 379

BLM: Remember

63. According to the research of Darley and Batson (1973), which of the following best predicted

the helping behaviour of seminary students? a. how religious they were b. the type of speech they were about to give c. how much time they had d. the sex of the person being helped ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 379

BLM: Remember

64. When city dwellers are overwhelmed by all the commotion around them, what are they most

likely experiencing? a. reactance b. alienation c. urban flight d. stimulus overload ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 380

BLM: Remember 10-13

Chapter 10 Helping Others 65. Having struggled with panhandlers on the subway, hassles at the office, and telephone calls at

dinner, Allison retreats to her bedroom rather than noticing that her daughter needs help with a homework assignment. Which of the following is Allison most likely reacting to? a. social norms b. bystander calculus c. stimulus overload d. reactance ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 380

BLM: Higher order

66. How do situational factors influence helping? a. The greater the overall population, the more likely people are to help. b. The higher the cost of living, the more likely people are to help. c. The greater the population density, the more likely people are to help. d. The greater the time pressure, the less likely people are to help. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 379

BLM: Remember

67. Which of the following explains why people in urban areas help less than those in rural areas? a. Stimulus overload is less likely in urban areas than in rural areas. b. Residents of urban areas represent more diverse populations than those in rural

areas. c. Urban residents tend to be wealthier than rural residents. d. People feel more important in urban areas than rural areas. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 380

BLM: Higher order

68. In the process of moving, Igor has to drive across the country in his old car, which he is afraid

will break down along the way. If he is concerned about receiving help, which of the following should he do? a. go through as many rural areas as possible b. go through as many urban areas as possible c. go through as many crowded areas as possible d. go through as many scenic areas as possible ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 380

BLM: Higher order

69. Annie is moving to a city where the cost of living is extremely high. Relative to a city where

the cost of living is extremely low, which of the following can Annie expect? a. She can expect much more help. b. She can expect somewhat more help. c. She can expect less help. d. She can expect the same amount of help. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 381

BLM: Higher order

10-14

Chapter 10 Helping Others 70. While outside enjoying the sunshine, Charlene happily gives directions to a lost tourist. What

is the most likely cause of Charlene's willingness to help a stranger? a. the good mood effect b. reciprocity norms c. pluralistic ignorance d. negative state relief ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 383

BLM: Higher order

71. Which of the following types of people is the good mood effect most likely to influence? a. people who help for empathic rather than egoistic reasons b. people who help for egoistic rather than empathic reasons c. adults and young children d. women ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 381

BLM: Remember

72. Why does feeling good lead to increased helping behaviour? a. because people want to stay in a good mood b. because people in a good mood have a higher level of mental arousal c. because people in a good mood are more likely to avoid pluralistic ignorance and

notice an individual in need of help d. because there is a positive correlation between good mood and an altruistic

personality ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 382

BLM: Remember

73. As she is about to walk into the grocery store, Melissa sees a woman struggling with her

groceries. In which of the following cases is Melissa most likely to help this woman? a. if the woman is a complete stranger b. if the store is located in an urban environment c. if Melissa only has a few minutes to make her purchase, and get to work on time d. if Melissa feels guilty about parking in the handicapped space ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

74. Carlos is in a terrible mood after an argument with his wife and is taking a walk to calm

down. In which of the following cases is he most likely to help by giving money to a homeless person? a. if he is thinking that he should be nicer to avoid fighting with his wife b. if he is blaming his wife for his bad mood c. if he is thinking that he needs to stand up for his own needs more often d. if he is thinking about how upset he is ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

10-15

Chapter 10 Helping Others 75. Suppose Barbara is feeling sad and she sees Mort struggling to move a piece of furniture. In

which of the following cases would Barbara be most likely to help Mort? a. if Barbara felt personally responsible for her bad mood b. if Barbara and Mort were young children c. if Barbara was self-focused on her own concerns d. if Barbara blamed someone else for her bad mood ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

76. When are negative moods most likely to enhance helping behaviour? a. when helping is retaliatory b. when responsibility for the negative mood is placed elsewhere c. when helping values are salient d. when helping is thought to repair mood ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

77. In which of the following cases are people in negative moods least likely to help? a. if they feel guilty because they harmed another person b. if they want relief from their feelings of sadness c. if they take responsibility for their bad mood d. if they become self-focused ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Higher order

78. Jake spends countless hours in front of the television. Which of the following is most likely? a. The violence Jake sees on television will be more influential on his behaviour than

the prosocial behaviour he sees. b. The prosocial behaviour Jake sees on television is more likely to be reflected in his

behaviour than the violence he sees. c. The aggressive and prosocial behaviours that Jake sees on television are equally likely to be imitated. d. Neither the aggressive nor prosocial behaviour that Jake sees on television will have an effect on his behaviour. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

79. Why do helpful models increase prosocial behaviour? a. because helpful models provide an example of risk assessment behaviours b. because helpful models demonstrate that being helpful can be self-motivated c. because helpful models make social norms governing helping salient d. because helpful models make perspective taking more likely to occur ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

10-16

Chapter 10 Helping Others 80. What do we call the general rules of conduct reflecting standards of behaviour within a

society? a. administrative rules b. personal standards c. social norms d. societal taboos ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Remember

81. Kevin asks Wendy to drive him to the airport. Though Wendy doesn't really want to, she

agrees because Kevin loaned her money last week. Which norm most likely led Wendy to agree to help? a. the norm of equity b. the norm of reciprocity c. the norm of social responsibility d. the norm of cooperation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

82. Which norm is the rule of conduct that dictates that people should help those who need

assistance? a. the norm of reciprocity b. the norm of equity c. the norm of social responsibility d. the norm of justice ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Remember

83. Even though he feels that drug addicts often deserve their plight, Steven donates clothes to a

rehabilitation centre because he believes he has an obligation to help those who need assistance, whatever the reasons behind their condition. Which norm is most consistent with Steven's thoughts regarding his actions? a. the norm of reciprocity b. the norm of justice c. the norm of equity d. the norm of social responsibility ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

84. Helene spends a few weeks helping the victims of a tornado because she believes that people

should help others, especially those who deserve assistance. Which norm is most consistent with Helene's thoughts regarding her actions? a. the norm of reciprocity b. the norm of justice c. the norm of equity d. the norm of social responsibility ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

10-17

Chapter 10 Helping Others 85. George believes that abused children are helpless victims of society, but that the homeless are

responsible for their own misfortune. Based on the norm of social justice, which of the following is George most likely to do? a. George is likely to help abused children, but not the homeless. b. George is likely to help the homeless, but not abused children. c. George is likely to help both abused children and the homeless. d. George is likely to help neither abused children nor the homeless. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

86. In which of the following situations are social norms least likely to produce helping

behaviour? a. when they are too cognitive b. when they are too sophisticated c. when they are too general d. when they are too personal ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 384

BLM: Remember

87. Levine and colleagues (2001) compared the likelihood of helping across 23 different cities.

What did their results show? a. People in collectivist cultures helped more than those in individualistic cultures. b. People in economically wealthy cities helped more than people in poorer cities. c. People in poorer cities helped more than people in economically wealthy cities. d. People in individualistic cultures helped more than those in collectivist cultures. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 381

BLM: Remember

88. How do stereotypes and prejudice reduce prosocial behaviour toward outgroups? a. by excluding those groups from one's moral concerns b. by reducing the effects of audience inhibition c. by increasing the effects of diffusion of responsibility d. by focusing attention on the costs, rather than the rewards, of helping ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Higher order

89. Eisenberg and colleagues (2002) found that the extent to which preschool children exhibited

spontaneous helping behaviour predicted how helpful they would be in later childhood and early adulthood. Which of the following hypotheses is most consistent with this finding? a. the hypothesis that there are stable individual differences in helping b. the hypothesis that situational factors can overwhelm personality differences in helping c. the hypothesis that the altruistic personality is genetically based d. the hypothesis that individuals high in empathy tend to be more helpful than those low in empathy ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 386

BLM: Higher order

10-18

Chapter 10 Helping Others 90. What predicts helping behaviour? a. People’s personal characteristics predict helping better than does their situation. b. People whose genetic relatives are likely to help are also more likely to help. c. People who help in non-emergencies tend to also help in emergencies. d. People who are introverted are more likely to show helping behaviour. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 386-387

BLM: Higher order

91. Who do evolutionary theorists predict that we are more likely to help? a. people who have the greatest need b. people who share our attitudes c. people who share our level of physical attractiveness d. people who share our genes ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 362

BLM: Higher order

92. Which of the following combinations of traits has been shown to be essential to helping? a. extroversion and conscientiousness b. empathy and advanced moral reasoning c. empathy and introversion d. independence and conscientiousness ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 387

BLM: Remember

93. People seem to be most likely to help an individual who has which of the following

characteristics? a. good looks b. emotional warmth c. great need d. strong intelligence ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 388

BLM: Remember

94. Lydia needs people to help her by signing a petition. Which of the following is most likely to

increase her chances of receiving help? a. making herself look more attractive b. invoking empathy by noting she is in a bind because she waited until the last minute c. first putting potential helpers in a self-focused negative mood d. making her requests over the telephone rather than in person ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 388

BLM: Higher order

95. What is the effect of attractiveness on helping behaviour? a. We are more likely to help attractive than unattractive people. b. We are more likely to help unattractive than attractive people. c. People who are attractive are more likely to help than people who are unattractive. d. People who are unattractive are more likely to help than people who are attractive. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 388

BLM: Higher order

10-19

Chapter 10 Helping Others 96. According to Dooley’s (1995) research on people's willingness to help individuals with AIDS,

which of the following is most likely? a. People will offer assistance to those they believe are deserving of help. b. People will offer assistance to those who are gravely ill. c. People will offer assistance when they are in a good mood. d. People will offer assistance when they are feeling underbenefited. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Higher order

97. Peggy feels sorry for smokers who have lung cancer because she believes they were duped by

tobacco companies to develop a deadly addiction and are therefore not responsible for their disease. When asked to donate money to support lung cancer research, Peggy gives generously. Which of the following best explains Peggy's prosocial behaviour? a. the negative state relief model b. the attributions of responsibility c. the arousal: cost-reward model d. the norm of equity ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 385

BLM: Higher order

98. In which of the following situations do people tend to help? a. when the victim is responsible for his or her predicament b. when they are motivated to raise awareness about the recipient's capabilities c. when they have little genetic similarity to that of the recipient d. when the benefits of helping outweigh the costs ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Higher order

99. Rinaldo is driving out of a beautiful national park that is having some financial trouble. There

is a box for donations by the park exit, and no one around. Which of the following would most likely encourage Rinaldo to leave a donation? a. He believed that the norm was NOT to donate money. b. He was thinking about his breakup with his girlfriend. c. He observed that the person in the car in front of him did not leave a donation. d. He had heard that a wealthy benefactor had just rescinded funds for the park due to losses in the stock market. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 388

BLM: Higher order

100. Jerry, a devout Montreal Canadiens fan, stops to help a stranded motorist wearing a Canadiens

jersey, but passes by the stranded motorist in the Toronto Maple Leafs jersey. Which of the following could account for Jerry's behaviour? a. Having already helped one person, Jerry was in a good mood and therefore less likely to help a second person. b. Jerry felt more empathy for the Canadiens fan than the Leafs fan. c. Audience inhibition is greater when the person in need of help is similar. d. Pluralistic ignorance is reduced when the person in need of help is dissimilar. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Higher order

10-20

Chapter 10 Helping Others 101. Why is some cross-racial helping NOT truly altruistic? a. because it can be a sign of kinship selection b. because it can be a sign of utility c. because it can be a sign of self-support d. because it can be a sign of feelings of superiority over the person being helped ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Remember

102. Manny needs help and Pedro is capable of giving it. In which of the following situations is

Pedro most likely to help? a. if Pedro perceives Manny as responsible for his own predicament b. if Pedro is of lower status than Manny c. if Pedro endorses the norm of justice more than the norm of social responsibility d. if Pedro has a shared identity with Manny ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 389

BLM: Higher order

103. Which of the following best explains the difference between helping strangers and helping

friends? a. the power of the situation b. mood effects on helping c. the similarity of the helper to the recipient d. adherence to social norms ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 389

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104. Compared to those in communal relationships, which of the following are people in exchange

relationships more likely to do? a. attend to one another's needs b. keep track of rewards and costs c. feel good about helping one another d. feel bad if they are unable to help one another ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 390

BLM: Remember

105. Bill and his brother Sam are both trying to get into medical school. When Bill asks Sam for

help with his application materials, Sam begrudgingly agrees, but then fails to point out several typing errors on Bill's application. Which of the following best explains this behaviour? a. the empathy-altruism hypothesis b. the negative state relief model c. the attribution-affect-action theory d. the self-evaluation maintenance model ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 390

BLM: Higher order

10-21

Chapter 10 Helping Others 106. Grady asks Joe for some coaching tips. According to the self-evaluation maintenance model,

in which of the following situations will Joe be least helpful to Grady? a. Grady is an acquaintance. Joe is feeling confident about his own abilities, and Grady is performing well. Coaching ability is core to Joe's self-concept. b. Grady is an acquaintance. Joe is not feeling confident about his own abilities, and Grady is performing well. Coaching ability is not core to Joe's self-concept. c. Grady is a good friend. Joe is not feeling confident about his own abilities, and Grady is performing well. Coaching ability is core to Joe's self-concept. d. Grady is a good friend. Joe is feeling confident about his own abilities, and Grady is performing well. Coaching ability is not core to Joe's self-concept. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 390

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107. Which of the following are we most likely to help? a. people we find attractive b. people who are similar to us c. people who are close to us d. people with whom we have exchange relations ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 390

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108. Karen and Rob are talking to a mutual friend who suddenly breaks down and asks if one of

them can stay and talk about an important problem. Who is probably more likely to help? a. Karen is more likely to help. b. Rob is more likely to help. c. Both are equally likely to help. d. Whether Karen or Rob is more likely to help depends on the gender of the friend. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 390

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109. In which of the following situations are women more likely than men to help others? a. situations involving physical danger and an audience b. situations involving anonymous circumstances c. situations involving another man d. situations involving social support ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 390

BLM: Remember

110. In which of the following situations are men more likely than women to help others? a. situations involving physical danger and an audience b. situations involving anonymous circumstances c. situations involving another man d. situations involving emotional support ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 390

BLM: Remember

10-22

Chapter 10 Helping Others 111. How do men differ from women in terms of helping? a. Men are more likely to offer another person emotional support. b. Men are more likely to help in anonymous situations. c. Men are more threatened by having to ask for help. d. Men are more likely to receive help from others. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 391

BLM: Remember

112. Which of the following suggests that reactions to receiving assistance depend on whether help

is perceived as supportive or threatening? a. the empathy-altruism model b. the negative state relief model c. the arousal-cost-reward model d. the threat-to-self-esteem model ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 391

BLM: Higher order

113. While Sue was temporarily unemployed, her mother called regularly just to make sure Sue

was okay and to cheer her up. Which of the following best describes the help that Sue received from her mother? a. kindred help b. calculating help c. self-supportive help d. self-directed help ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 391

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114. Help will be perceived as most threatening if the helper and recipient are similar, and if help is

received from which of the following? a. a significant other on an ego-relevant task b. a significant other on an ego-irrelevant task c. a non-significant other on an ego-irrelevant task d. a non-significant other on an ego-relevant task ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 391

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115. Brad decides to help his younger brother Neil with his basketball skills. In which of the

following situations would this help most likely be self-threatening for Neil? a. if Neil has low self-esteem b. if Brad and Neil are dissimilar c. if basketball is ego-relevant to Neil d. if Brad's motives for helping are egoistic ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 391

BLM: Higher order

10-23

Chapter 10 Helping Others 116. In which of the following situations are people least likely to react negatively to receiving

help? a. if they tend to be high in self-esteem b. if they are in an interdependent relationship with the helper c. if they are adults rather than young children d. if they belong to a group that tends to be stigmatized ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 391

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117. In which of the following situations are members of stigmatized groups who receive help

most likely to feel worse about themselves? a. if the help came from a fellow ingroup member b. if the help was unsolicited c. if the help was altruistic in nature d. if the help was anonymous ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 391

BLM: Remember

118. Which of the following people is most likely to be threatened by offers of help? a. someone who has doubts about his or her own competence b. someone with high self-esteem c. someone with a high need for affiliation d. someone who has a strong ego need ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 391

BLM: Remember

119. Oscar feels a strong social connection to the people in his neighbourhood. If one of those

people is in need of help, how will Oscar most likely react? a. Oscar will be more likely to help him or her than to help a stranger. b. Oscar will be less likely to help him or her than to help a stranger. c. Oscar will be neither more likely nor less likely to help him or her than to help a stranger. d. Oscar will be likely to help him or her in some situations but not in others. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 372

BLM: Remember

120. Eleanor is asked to help the people who live on the other side of the city restore their block

after it was burned down in a fire. In which of the following cases will she be most likely to help? a. if her personality is similar to that of the people on the other side of the city b. if her values are similar to those of the people on the other side of the city c. if she has the same social status as the people on the other side of the city d. if she feels a meaningful connection with the people on the other side of the city ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 393

BLM: Higher order

10-24

Chapter 10 Helping Others 121. Which of the following is one reason that people prefer to help their relatives? a. They share the same values as their relatives. b. They have the same personality characteristics as do their relatives. c. They spend more time with their relatives. d. They have a meaningful connection with their relatives. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 390

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122. Which of the following is one reason that perceived similarity may increase helping? a. It causes people to think about their values. b. It enables people to see the power of the situation. c. It breaks down dispositional inferences. d. It provides a meaningful connection between the helper and the person being

helped. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 393

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123. Lauren and Rachel are about the same age, have the same colour hair, and seem to come from

the same background. Why is Lauren likely to help Rachel when the need arises? a. because their similarity prompts her to think about her values b. because their similarity enables her to see the power of the situation c. because their similarity breaks down her dispositional inferences d. because their similarity provides a meaningful connection between the two of them ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 393

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124. Consider the enormous problem of homelessness. Which of the following has been offered as

a social psychological explanation for why such a problem exists? a. lack of receptivity by the homeless for help b. lack of strong adherence to the norm of equity c. lack of social connections d. lack of knowledge about how to help the homeless ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 393

BLM: Higher order

125. We help our family and our friends more than strangers. We tend to be more helpful when we

are empathic toward the plight of others. Diffusion of responsibility is reduced if we anticipate making the acquaintance of someone who needs help. What do all of these examples illustrate? a. the influence of social norms on behaviour b. the underlying human need for social connections c. the predisposition for people to help others d. the conflict between altruistic and egocentric motives ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 393

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10-25

Chapter 10 Helping Others

ESSAY 1. Describe how moods, both good and bad, affect helping. ANS:

Both good and bad moods tend to increase helping. When in good moods, positive thoughts become more accessible, leading perhaps to more consideration of helping others. In addition, people in good moods may help more, so as to maintain these moods. Alternatively, people in bad moods may help more in order to remove their guilt or to rid themselves of the bad moods. It should be noted, however, that bad moods only tend to increase helping in adults and older children. PTS: 1 2. Explain how empathy affects helping. ANS:

The empathy-altruism hypothesis proposes that people are more likely to help someone if they take his or her perspective. Doing so creates an emotional response or concern for this other person, which in turn creates a motive to help that is satisfied when his or her distress is reduced. This hypothesis suggests, then, that helping is sometimes altruistic, not egoistic. PTS: 1 3. Describe how the presence of bystanders affects helping. ANS:

When bystanders are present, a victim is less likely to receive help. Bystanders impede helping by reducing the likelihood that potential helpers will (1) notice that the victim needs help, (2) interpret the situation as an emergency, and (3) take responsibility for helping. These factors together make it less likely that a victim will be helped by someone in a crowd than by a single individual. PTS: 1 4. Identify two characteristics of a person in need that might affect the likelihood that the person

is helped. ANS:

Attractive people tend to be helped more, as do people who are not considered to be responsible for their predicament. In addition, people also sometimes “overhelp” someone who is extremely competent in order to make it seem as if the person's subsequent success could not have been accomplished on his or her own. Finally, we are more likely to help those who are similar and those who share family or group ties with us. PTS: 1

10-26

Chapter 10 Helping Others 5. Describe how feeling connected to others affects the likelihood that we will help them. ANS:

When we feel connected to others, we are more likely to help them. Research on kinship selection indicates that we are more likely to help our blood relatives. Cognitive and emotional connections such as empathy increase helping, as does similarity. In emergencies, bystanders who know the victims are more likely to help. And people in close relationships usually find it easier and more comfortable to receive help. Together, these findings suggest that helping has a profound social element—we are more likely to help those to whom we feel connected. PTS: 1

10-27

Chapter 11: Aggression MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the long-term effects of bullying? a. Bullying has limited effects if it begins in the mid-adolescence. b. Bullying is particularly problematic for children with low self-esteem. c. Though unpleasant for those who are targeted, bullying does not have any serious

long-term negative effects. d. Bullying has limited effects if it begins in late childhood. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Remember

2. Tantri is continually teased, ridiculed, and intimidated at school. Which of the following is

least likely to result from this bullying? a. She will be at greater risk for depression. b. She will experience recurring memories of the events. c. She will be able to excel in her studies. d. She will experience more anxiety. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Higher order

3. What is the defining characteristic of aggression? a. The aggressor intends to injure another living being. b. The aggressor actually causes physical or psychological harm. c. The aggressor is angry or otherwise emotionally aroused during the aggressive act. d. The aggressor derives enjoyment from the aggressive act. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Remember

4. Which of the following best illustrates aggression? a. Felix breaks his stick on the ice when he misses an open-net goal. b. Maude trips over the scooter her son absentmindedly left in the driveway. c. In his attempt to save Samantha from drowning, Danny breaks three of her ribs. d. Ginger tells Maya’s boyfriend that she saw Maya out with someone else last night. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 400

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5. What do psychologists call a negative, antagonistic attitude toward another person or group? a. emotional aggression b. hostility c. anger d. instrumental aggression ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Remember

11-1

Chapter 11 Aggression 6. Whitley feels that Lena deliberately left the tuna fish sandwich sitting out in the sun so that

Whitley would get food poisoning after she ate it. Which of the following best describes Whitley's emotional response? a. instrumental aggression b. hostility c. anger d. displacement ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Remember

7. Which of the following situations best illustrates instrumental aggression? a. When Joe finds out that his favourite television show has been pre-empted, he

pushes Carl, who just happens to be standing nearby. b. After getting fired from her job, Marion yells at the neighbourhood kids who walk

on her lawn. c. Karen pinches Greta until she finally moves out of the way so that Karen can get to

the computer. d. Edith calls Alex a jerk when she finds out that he forgot her birthday. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Higher order

8. When Katie found out that her brother Matt had pulled the heads off all of her dolls, she threw

a book at him. Which of the following does Katie's behaviour illustrate? a. instrumental aggression b. negative reinforcement c. incompatible responses d. emotional aggression ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Higher order

9. Jeff mugs a well-dressed executive because he needs money. What type of aggression does

this example illustrate? a. instrumental aggression b. emotional aggression c. relational aggression d. institutional aggression ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Higher order

10. Amanda trips her closest rival, Oksana, in the warm-up so that Oksana won't be able to

compete in the race. What do Amanda's actions illustrate? a. instrumental aggression b. emotional aggression c. displacement d. catharsis ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 400

BLM: Higher order

11-2

Chapter 11 Aggression 11. Compared to citizens of other nations, which of the following types of violence are American

citizens more likely to engage in? a. politically motivated violence directed toward groups b. mob violence at sporting events c. violence against young girls d. gun-related violence against individuals ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 401

BLM: Remember

12. Based on Bonta's (1997) research on nonviolent societies, which of the following is a

powerful way to reduce violence within a society? a. emphasizing a strict division of labour by gender b. promoting cooperation c. harshly punishing all acts of aggression d. separating subcultures within the society ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Remember

13. Which of the following would decrease the likelihood that Chris would behave aggressively? a. if Chris is a Mennonite b. if Chris is male c. if Chris is drunk d. if Chris is a teenager ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Remember

14. The fact that the population has been aging in recent years has been offered as an explanation

for which of the following? a. the decrease in violent crimes b. the increase in gun-related violence c. the greater availability of violent pornography d. the current overcrowded conditions in prisons ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Remember

15. At what age are people most likely to be involved in violent crimes? a. Teens are more likely to commit violent crimes, whereas older adults are more

likely to be the victim of such crimes. b. Older adults are more likely to commit violent crimes, whereas younger adults are

more likely to be the victim of such crimes. c. Older adults are more likely to both commit violent crimes and be the victims of

such crimes. d. Teens are more likely to both commit violent crimes and be the victims of such

crimes. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 403

BLM: Higher order

11-3

Chapter 11 Aggression 16. Criminologists predict that the incidence of violent crime will increase due to which of the

following? a. regression to the mean b. loosening of gun-control laws c. an increase in the teen population d. a prospering economy ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 404

BLM: Higher order

17. A murder has been committed. Given the research on homicide, which of the following is

most likely? a. The murderer was of a different race than the victim. b. The murder occurred in eastern Canada. c. The murderer was 35 years old. d. The murderer and victim were male. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 404

BLM: Remember

18. According to statistics, which of the following is least likely to be the victim of a homicide? a. a black man b. a black woman c. a white man d. a white woman ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 404

BLM: Higher order

19. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the relatively greater violence rates in the

southern United States? a. a wider range of temperatures b. the manner in which residents respond to status threats c. the ratio of males to females living in that area d. the tighter limits on weapon availability in that region ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 404

BLM: Higher order

20. Carmen, an eight-year-old girl, is angry with her brother so she tells their mother that he was

playing video games when he was supposed to be doing his homework and then tells all his friends that he is afraid of the dark. What does Carmen's behaviour illustrate? a. relational aggression b. hostile aggression c. physical aggression d. overt aggression ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 405

BLM: Higher order

11-4

Chapter 11 Aggression 21. How do men and women differ in their likelihood of responding to a situation in an aggressive

manner? a. Women are more likely to interpret an ambiguous situation as provoking. b. In situations where people feel anonymous, men respond aggressively more than women. c. Girls tend to be more verbally aggressive than boys. d. Girls are more likely to use relational aggression than boys. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 405

BLM: Higher order

22. According to Crick and Rose (2000), why are girls more likely than boys to use relational

aggression? a. because girls have higher levels of testosterone b. because girls are less likely to hide their aggressive episodes c. because girls typically care more about intimacy d. because girls are more likely to misinterpret others' behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 405

BLM: Remember

23. How do the patterns of brain activity differ between aggressive and non-aggressive youth? a. Non-aggressive youth show more activation in the frontal-lobes when observing

aggression. b. Non-aggressive youth show less overall brain activation when watching someone

be purposefully hurt. c. Aggressive youth show higher overall levels of brain activity when observing

aggression. d. Aggressive youth show more activation in the reward centres when watching

someone be purposefully hurt. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Remember

24. According to meta-analysis of experiments on aggressions, in what cases are gender

differences in aggression smallest? a. when guns are implicated in the aggressive act b. when the act involves indirect aggression c. when alcohol is involved d. when you only examine adolescents ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 405

BLM: Higher order

25. According to the evolutionary view of aggression, why are males encouraged to be more

physically aggressive than females? a. Aggression in our ancestors was rewarded by attracting mates and producing offspring. b. Aggression allows men to demonstrate power. c. Aggression allows men to express the basic evolutionary emotion of anger. d. Aggression pushes away others, forcing the human race to populate the globe. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

11-5

Chapter 11 Aggression 26. You notice two men having an argument outside a club. One man has a narrow face and the

other has broader features. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. The man with the broader features is more likely to use a weapon. b. The man with the narrow face is more likely to use a weapon. c. The man with the broader features is more likely to be hurt. d. The man with the narrow face is more likely to be hurt. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

27. Which of the following is most consistent with evolutionary explanations of aggression? a. Children are more likely to be abused by their biological parents than by

stepparents. b. Male-to-female violence is predominantly triggered by threats to status. c. Male-to-male violence is triggered by a rise in testosterone. d. Male violence is higher than female violence worldwide. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

28. Which of the following is most consistent with evolutionary explanations of aggression? a. Children are more likely to be abused by stepparents than by their biological

parents. b. Male-to-male violence is predominantly triggered by sexual jealousy. c. Male-to-male violence is triggered by a rise in testosterone. d. Different cultures demonstrate different levels of aggressiveness. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

29. Which of the following is most consistent with evolutionary explanations of aggression? a. Children are more likely to be abused by their biological parents than by

stepparents. b. Male-to-female violence is predominantly triggered by sexual jealousy. c. Male-to-male violence is triggered by a rise in testosterone. d. Different cultures demonstrate different levels of aggressiveness. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

30. Which of the following is supported by the finding that male-to-male violence occurs

primarily in response to status challenges, but male-to-female violence occurs primarily in response to sexual jealousy? a. the instinct view of aggression b. the evolutionary perspective on aggression c. the learning theory account of aggression d. the socio-cultural perspective on aggression ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

11-6

Chapter 11 Aggression 31. Finnigan notices his wife talking to another man, so he flies into a jealous rage. According to

the evolutionary perspective, what is Finnigan's behaviour designed to do? a. assert his social power b. increase his confidence in the paternity of his offspring c. deflect the death instinct outward instead of inward d. increase the level of serotonin in his brain ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

32. According to the evolutionary perspective on aggression, why are women more likely than

men to use relational aggression? a. because women lack direct access to wealth b. because women have lower levels of testosterone c. because women place more of a value on their own lives d. because women do not want to risk physically harming the father of their offspring ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 408

BLM: Higher order

33. Belligeria is an extremely violent society, whereas Harmonia is entirely non-violent. What do

these cultural variations suggest about aggression? a. Aggression is an evolutionarily adaptive strategy. b. Aggression is an inborn tendency. c. Aggression is the result of hormonal fluctuations. d. Aggression is determined primarily by social factors. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

34. Which of the following statements could be used by defenders of the evolutionary perspective

to explain cultural variations in aggressiveness? a. Cultural variations in aggression result because some cultures are more reproductively fit than others. b. Cultural variations in aggression arise as a result of different environmental pressures. c. Cultural variations in aggression are produced by an interaction of genetics, evolution, and instincts. d. Cultural variations in aggression are actually so small that they are negligible. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 407

BLM: Higher order

35. Which of the following research results would provide evidence that aggression is a heritable

trait? a. Identical twins reared together are more similar in their levels of aggressiveness than identical twins reared apart. b. Adopted children are more similar in levels of aggressiveness to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents. c. Fraternal twins are more similar in levels of aggressiveness than non-twin siblings. d. Identical twins are more similar in levels of aggressiveness than fraternal twins. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 408

BLM: Higher order

11-7

Chapter 11 Aggression 36. Jennifer would like to know if her new boyfriend Brad has any aggressive tendencies.

According to research on aggression, which of the following would be most informative to know about Brad? a. if he was aggressive at age eight b. if he has an aggressive parent c. if he has a sibling who is aggressive d. if he is adopted ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 408

BLM: Higher order

37. In which of the following situations will Claude's testosterone levels be most predictive of his

aggressiveness? a. if he is part of an upper socioeconomic group b. if he has just lost a game c. if he is a male-to-female transsexual d. if he is under a lot of stress ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 408-409

BLM: Higher order

38. The strong positive correlation between testosterone levels and aggressive behaviour could

reflect which of the following explanations? a. Testosterone and aggression are unrelated. b. Testosterone decreases aggression. c. Aggression increases testosterone. d. Stress decreases testosterone but increases aggression. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 409

BLM: Higher order

39. How is testosterone related to acts of aggression? a. Acts of aggression may increase levels of testosterone. b. Testosterone levels drop after successful aggressive episodes. c. The relationship between testosterone and aggression is stronger among fraternity

members than university males who do not belong to fraternities. d. Individuals with low testosterone levels tend to smile less. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 408

BLM: Remember

40. Which of the following is aggression associated with? a. high levels of both testosterone and serotonin b. low levels of both testosterone and serotonin c. high levels of testosterone and low levels of serotonin d. low levels of testosterone and high levels of serotonin ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 409

BLM: Remember

11-8

Chapter 11 Aggression 41. Your act of aggression that prevents or stops an undesirable outcome serves as which of the

following for you? a. a positive reinforcement b. a negative reinforcement c. a positive punishment d. a negative punishment ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Remember

42. Billy tailgates and honks his horn at other drivers because when he does they usually get out

of his way, which he likes. To Billy, what type of event is this aggression? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

43. Billy tailgates and honks his horn at other drivers because when he does they usually get out

of his way, which he likes. What type of event is Billy's aggression for the other drivers? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

44. Brittany has found that she can get her husband to stop leaving his dirty socks on the kitchen

table if she pinches him every time he does it. What type of event is Brittany’s aggression for her husband? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

45. Brittany has found that she can get her husband to stop leaving his dirty socks on the kitchen

table if she pinches him every time he does it. To Brittany, what type of event is her aggression? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

11-9

Chapter 11 Aggression 46. Each of the following people behaved aggressively, and each was punished for his or her

aggression. For which of these people should the indicated punishment have the best chance of successfully reducing aggression? a. Jake, who was punished immediately following his act of aggression b. Keifer, who was extremely angry when punished after committing an act of emotional aggression c. Lakeesha, who was punished in a very angry, hostile manner by her parents after committing an act of instrumental aggression d. Danielle, who was punished for some of her aggressive acts but not for others, and cannot discern a pattern in the incidence of punishment ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

47. Which of the following is a valid criticism of the use of punishment to decrease aggression? a. It is ineffective unless a set of six stringent conditions have been satisfied. b. When perceived as arbitrary, it can provoke retaliatory aggression. c. It provides a model of coercive behaviour. d. It is ineffective unless restricted to cases of physical aggression. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 410

BLM: Higher order

48. Gershoff's (2002) analysis of studies with over 36 000 participants indicates a positive

correlation between corporal punishment and which of the following? a. psychopathic tendencies b. depression c. criminal behaviour d. poor parental relations ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Remember

49. As a parent, Arthur is supportive and warm toward his daughter. He wants to do what he can

to decrease her aggressive behaviour. Which of the following would be his best approach? a. to respond to her aggression by spanking her b. to respond to her aggression by giving her a gentle reprimand c. to respond to her aggression by giving her an immediate, significant, fair punishment d. to respond to her aggression by ensuring both negative and positive reinforcement for the behaviour ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

50. Mario and Lori are trying to decide how best to raise non-violent children. To optimize this

goal, what should they do? a. threaten, but never follow through with violence to their children b. punish their children severely when they act out c. let their children do precisely as they please d. limit time in front of the television ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

11-10

Chapter 11 Aggression 51. Ira believes that aggression is an acquired tendency picked up by observing others and by

experience with rewards and punishments. Which of the following views is most consistent with Ira's beliefs? a. social learning theory b. the evolutionary perspective c. instinct theory d. negative affect escape model ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

52. Jamie's parents occasionally use corporal punishment when she breaks their rules. They

believe that spanking will act as a positive punishment for her bad behaviour. Which concept explains why spanking may actually backfire and lead Jamie to demonstrate increased aggression? a. the arousal-affect model b. social learning theory c. cultivation d. culture of honour ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

53. In which of the following cases is Deion least likely to imitate the aggressive behaviours of

Darcy? a. if Darcy is a cartoon character b. if Darcy is punished for behaving aggressively c. if Darcy is rewarded for behaving aggressively d. if Darcy experiences catharsis following the aggressive behaviour ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 412

BLM: Higher order

54. How do aggressive models teach aggressive behaviour? a. by teaching observers how to perform the aggressive act b. by fostering a negative attitude toward other methods of response c. by allowing observers to be rewarded for aggression d. by increasing the frustration experienced by observers ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 412

BLM: Higher order

55. Nonie gets a new baby doll for her sixth birthday and she immediately begins to punch, kick,

and throw the doll around the house. Which of the following is likely to have contributed to this behaviour? a. Nonie saw Uncle Floyd yell at Auntie Mary when she threw her doll. b. Nonie saw her cousin Bruce hug and kiss his doll. c. Nonie just finished watching someone on TV beat up a doll. d. Nonie has been socialized in a stereotypical female role. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Remember

11-11

Chapter 11 Aggression 56. Marty watches his older brother act non-aggressively after being provoked. According to

social learning theory, which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Marty will subsequently find more socially acceptable outlets for his impulses, such as rough sports. b. Marty will subsequently refrain from acting aggressively, but only if he learns from personal experience that he will be punished for aggressing. c. Marty will subsequently experience catharsis and displace his aggression onto safer, more acceptable targets. d. Marty will subsequently act less aggressively and experience stronger restraints against aggression. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Remember

57. What does research examining the impact of aggressive and non-aggressive models

demonstrate? a. Aggressive models increase aggression and non-aggressive models decrease aggression. b. Aggressive models increase aggression and non-aggressive models decrease aggression, when the models are physically present. c. Both aggressive and non-aggressive models increase aggression. d. Both aggressive and non-aggressive models increase aggression, when they are physically present. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 412

BLM: Remember

58. Based on the principles of social learning theory, which of the following measures is most

likely to be successful in teaching a child to act non-violently? a. Punish the child physically for acting aggressively. b. Expose the child to models (such as adults or older siblings) who are punished harshly for acting aggressively. c. Expose the child to models (such as adults or older siblings) who act non-aggressively in response to provoking situations. d. Teach the child how to displace frustrations and anger in safe, socially acceptable ways, such as by hitting a punching bag or role-playing a desired outcome. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

59. Among what groups is the culture of honour most prevalent? a. It is more prevalent in the American South than in other regions of the United

States. b. It is more prevalent in rural than urban men. c. It is more prevalent among European-American men than among Latin-American

men. d. It is more prevalent among women than men. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 413

BLM: Remember

11-12

Chapter 11 Aggression 60. Research has shown that argument-related murders committed by white males occur at much

higher rates in the American South and Southwest than in other regions in the United States, whereas murders committed during other crimes exhibit much smaller or even reversed regional differences. This set of findings is best explained by which of the following statements? a. Greater interracial tensions and frustrations are experienced in the South and Southwest than in other regions. b. Economic frustrations are likely to be greater in the South and Southwest. c. The prevalent culture of the South and Southwest places a higher premium than that of other regions on protecting one's honour by retaliating aggressively to others' insults. d. Due to different socialization practices, children in the South and Southwest are less likely to be rewarded for distinguishing between instrumental and emotional aggression. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 414

BLM: Higher order

61. In response to an insult, individuals who subscribe to a culture of honour are more likely than

others to do which of the following? a. show a reduction in testosterone levels b. show an increase in serotonin levels c. exhibit signs of physiological arousal d. respond positively to acts of aggression ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 413

BLM: Remember

62. Ethan has been released from jail in the United States, and is applying for jobs in the South

and the Northeast. Ethan is probably more likely to land interviews in the South than in the Northeast if he was in jail for which of the following crimes? a. murdering a person who slept with his wife b. committing fraud on a million-dollar insurance claim c. illegally importing cocaine across the border d. robbing a jewellery store owned by a black man ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 414

BLM: Higher order

63. Which of the following is the generally accepted scientific view of the causes of aggression? a. Aggression is caused primarily by aggressive drives passed along genetically. b. Aggression is caused almost completely by a society's orientation toward

aggression. c. Aggression is caused by biological factors interacting with sociocultural factors. d. Aggression is caused by sociocultural factors, and is passed on genetically through

a process of evolution. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 414

BLM: Higher order

11-13

Chapter 11 Aggression 64. Which of the following conclusions is most difficult to explain from the perspective of the

original formulation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis? a. The need to aggress in response to frustration can be reduced if the frustrated individual behaves in an aggressive but relatively harmless way toward an object that is not related to the source of the frustration. b. The need to aggress in response to frustration is taught directly by reinforcement, important models, and the media, and can be “unlearned” if the reinforcements and models change. c. The need to aggress in response to frustration is a psychological drive that resembles the physiological drive of seeking food in response to hunger. d. The need to aggress in response to frustration can lead to nonviolent acts of aggression such as spreading rumours about someone or telling hostile jokes. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

65. Jonah is reprimanded by his boss for being late to a meeting. Which of the following reactions

best represents displacement? a. He forgets to tell his boss about a change in location of an important meeting so she is late. b. He yells at his boss and is fired. c. He complains about his boss to his wife over dinner later. d. He yells at his wife when he gets home. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

66. When his mother tells him that he cannot ride his bicycle on the roof, Calvin gets mad and

kicks the dog. What does Calvin's behaviour illustrate? a. vicarious aggression b. inhibition c. displaced aggression d. instrumental aggression ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

67. Betty, an anti-war activist, is mad at the prime minister for sending forces to Afghanistan.

Because she cannot go straight to the source of her frustration, she takes out her aggression on her next-door neighbour instead. What does this situation illustrate? a. excitation transfer b. displacement c. arousal substitution d. hostile attribution bias ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

11-14

Chapter 11 Aggression 68. The frustration-aggression hypothesis would probably be least effective as an explanation for

which of the following? a. instrumental aggression b. emotional aggression c. a strong correlation between economic conditions and prejudice toward minority groups d. the desire to enter a violent profession such as boxing ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

69. According to proponents of the frustration-aggression hypothesis, what do correlations

between economic conditions and societal aggression illustrate? a. catharsis b. aggression habituation c. aggression cultivation d. displacement of aggression ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 416

BLM: Higher order

70. Some people believe that they can reduce their likelihood of aggressing against others by

engaging in aggressive sports, such as boxing and hockey. Which theory would argue against this position? a. social learning theory b. the frustration-aggression hypothesis c. the notion of catharsis d. the negative affect escape model ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

71. According to the original formulation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis, what is the first

step in the process of catharsis? a. a freeing up of intrapsychic energy b. the displacement of aggression onto weaker targets c. reduced arousal following acts of aggression d. fear of punishment ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 417

BLM: Higher order

72. Which of the following best describes how catharsis is proposed to reduce aggression? a. Observing aggressive models reduces arousal. b. Expression of any aggressive behaviour reduces the pressure to aggress. c. Responding to frustrations with aggression is more effective than simply letting the

frustration dissipate on its own. d. Expressing frustration intensifies feelings of hostility and anger. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

11-15

Chapter 11 Aggression 73. The concept of catharsis has been undermined by findings suggesting that engaging in or

witnessing aggression often does which of the following? a. It reduces the likelihood of cultivation. b. It produces displacement. c. It causes habituation. d. It slowly weakens restraints against aggression. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 416

BLM: Higher order

74. According to Berkowitz's (1989) revision of frustration-aggression theory, which of the

following is aggression a response to? a. moderate, rather than extreme or mild, frustrations b. previously displaced aggression c. negative emotions d. catharsis ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 417

BLM: Remember

75. Exposure to high levels of which of the following in utero increases aggression? a. testosterone b. cortisone c. novel odours d. serotonin ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 409

BLM: Remember

76. Reifman et al. (1991) found that as temperatures rise, major league baseball pitchers are more

likely to hit batters with a pitch. Which of the following is most consistent with this finding? a. social learning theory b. the cognitive neo-association model c. the revised frustration-aggression hypothesis d. scapegoating ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 418

BLM: Higher order

77. Pace Press is playing Regal Foods in a charity softball game. According to research, in which

of the following cases would fights between the players be most likely to break out? a. if it is a cold day b. if it is a nice summer day c. if it is a relatively hot summer day d. if it is an oppressively hot summer day ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 418

BLM: Higher order

11-16

Chapter 11 Aggression 78. Which of the following people is most likely to respond aggressively when accidentally

tripped by a stranger? a. Nathan, who has just left an empathy training seminar b. Daphne, who has just seen a very funny movie c. Martin, who has just watched his favourite football team lose d. Francis, who has just won a lottery ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 415

BLM: Higher order

79. On his way back from work, Orin nearly collided head-on with another car. After swerving

out of the way at the last minute, Orin could feel his heart racing and his hands shaking. A few minutes later, he arrived home and, just as he walked in, received a phone call from a salesperson. Orin then became verbally abusive toward the salesperson. Which of the following concepts is most consistent with this outcome? a. instrumental aggression b. excitation transfer c. the death instinct d. incompatible responses ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 419

BLM: Higher order

80. Regina has just finished a rigorous aerobics workout at the gym. As she heads toward the

drinking fountain, a man accidentally steps on her toe. Regina pushes him aggressively and insults him. A few days later, on her way to the gym for her workout, a different man accidentally bumps into her, but this time Regina does not react aggressively. Which of the following best explains Regina's different responses to these similar incidents? a. social learning theory b. the negative affect escape model c. the arousal-affect model d. aggression cultivation ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 419

BLM: Higher order

81. Eight-year-old Kevin watches a few hours of violent TV and plays the video game Grand

Theft Auto every day after school, far more than most of his peers. Given this high exposure to media violence, how do you predict Kevin will be as an adult, based on the research by Huesmann et al. (2003)? a. The research is too contradictory to make a prediction. b. The research is correlational, so one should not use it to make future predictions. c. Kevin is likely to show average levels of aggression as an adult. d. Kevin is likely to be more aggressive than others as an adult. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 424

BLM: Higher order

11-17

Chapter 11 Aggression 82. Konijin et al. (2007) had boys play either a violent or non-violent video game for 20 minutes

before competing against an opponent. In the competition, a win was rewarded with the right to deliver a blast of noise with the intensity set by the winning boy. How did playing the violent game affect the boys’ responses? a. Those who had played the violent video game were more aroused, so they won more trials and delivered more blasts of sound. b. Those who had played the violent video game were more distracted, so they lost more trials and received more blasts of sound. c. Those who had played the violent video game were more likely to set very high levels of sound. d. Those who had played the non-violent video game became more frustrated, so they set very high levels of sound when they received a loud blast. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 424

BLM: Remember

83. Klinesmith et al. (2006) investigated the relationship between weapons, aggression, and

testosterone levels. Which of the following does their research support? a. Though handling a handgun increased arousal, it did not affect levels of either testosterone or aggression. b. Men who handled a handgun showed higher levels of testosterone but not aggression. c. Men who handled a handgun showed higher levels of aggression but not testosterone. d. Men who handled a handgun had higher testosterone and showed more aggression against another person. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Remember

84. When Marcia accidentally spills her juice all over Jenny's drawing, Jenny assumes that Marcia

intentionally ruined the drawing and gets angry. When Marcia accidentally breaks Cathy's tennis racquet, Cathy is disappointed rather than angry because she knows it was an accident. Which of the following is the best explanation for the different reactions of Jenny and Cathy? a. social learning theory b. excitation transfer c. mitigating information d. the cycle of family violence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Higher order

11-18

Chapter 11 Aggression 85. Two people are placed in a room and are provoked to behave aggressively toward one

another. Which of the following is most likely to happen if there is a weapon in the room? a. There is a greater likelihood that they will behave aggressively toward one another than if there was no weapon. b. There is a greater likelihood that they will engage in higher-order cognition and subsequently behave less aggressively toward one another than if there was no weapon. c. The weapon will increase the likelihood that they will behave aggressively toward one another, but only if the two people are male. d. The weapon will have no effect on whether or not they behave aggressively toward one another. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Higher order

86. Which of the following most closely represents the weapons effect? a. The presence of weapons deters individuals from performing aggressive acts, but

not from learning the positive reinforcements that are associated with violence. b. The presence of weapons can act as an aggression cue that suggests a way to

release anger. c. Although the presence of weapons does not make aggression more likely, it does

tend to increase the severity of aggression. d. Exposure to weapons in the media desensitizes individuals to violence, thus reducing their inhibitions against aggression. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Higher order

87. Ed conducts music lessons at his home, in a room where his gun collection is displayed in a

trophy case. Which of the following likely to be true? a. The presence of the guns may unwittingly threaten his students during their lessons. b. The presence of the guns may unwittingly cause his students to act more aggressively if Ed provokes them when criticizing their performance. c. The presence of the guns will probably increase aggression to the same extent for aggressive and non-aggressive students. d. The presence of the guns may distract Ed's students from giving their best performance. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Higher order

88. In which of the following situations is mitigating information most likely to be effective in

reducing aggressive responses to a provocation? a. if it is received before the provocation b. if it is received from familiar others c. if it is received after one has consumed alcohol d. if it is received in the presence of weapons ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 420

BLM: Remember

11-19

Chapter 11 Aggression 89. What do psychologists call the tendency to perceive hostile intent in the actions of others? a. aggression cultivation b. emotional aggression c. excitation transfer d. the hostile attribution bias ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 421

BLM: Remember

90. When Paula accidentally bumps into Christopher, causing Christopher to spill his coffee,

Christopher assumes that Paula's behaviour was deliberately intended to make him spill the coffee and he responds by yelling obscenities at Paula. Which of the following best describes Christopher in this situation? a. He has a hostile attribution bias. b. He is suffering from catharsis. c. He is displaying instrumental aggression. d. He is displaying relational aggression. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 421

BLM: Higher order

91. What effect does alcohol have on aggression? a. Alcohol makes people more likely to respond to initial information about an event,

and to render them insensitive to later cues. b. Small and large amounts of alcohol tend to increase aggression, whereas moderate

amounts tend to decrease it. c. Alcohol makes men more likely to aggress, but it makes women less likely to

aggress. d. Intoxicated people are more likely to be influenced by the weapons effect, whereas

sober people are more likely to be affected by factors relevant to the cognitive neoassociation analysis. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 421

BLM: Higher order

92. After six shots of tequila, David doesn't notice that Dana is uncomfortable because he is

standing too close and invading her personal space. What is the most likely cause of David's behaviour? a. alcohol habituation b. aggression cultivation c. the hostile attribution bias d. alcohol myopia ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 421

BLM: Higher order

11-20

Chapter 11 Aggression 93. Aleta gets extremely drunk. Given the research on alcohol and its effects on aggression, which

of the following is least likely to happen? a. She will be more aggressive if she tends to be high in aggressiveness but less aggressive if she is generally non-aggressive. b. She will be more aggressive under the influence of alcohol than she is sober. c. She will fail to be as attentive to mitigating information when she is drunk. d. She will feel less anxious and thus will feel less inhibited about behaving aggressively. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 422

BLM: Remember

94. What effect does exposure to media violence have on aggression? a. Exposure to violent films increases aggressive behaviour in the lab, but decreases

aggressive behaviour in the field. b. Exposure to violent films increases aggressiveness, but violent music videos and song lyrics do not increase aggressiveness. c. Most forms of media violence actually reduce aggression by providing a socially acceptable release of pent-up aggression. d. All forms of media violence appear to increase aggressive behaviour. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 423

BLM: Remember

95. Many researchers maintain that there is a positive relationship between exposure to violent

media and real-life aggressive behaviour. Which of the following best supports the claim that exposure to violence actually causes an increase in aggression? a. a study in which the variable “number of hours of violent television watched per week” is used to predict the likelihood that participants will be convicted of a violent crime in the future b. a study in which participants who are randomly assigned to play violent video games later administer greater levels of electric shock to a confederate than participants who are assigned to play neutral games c. real-world examples where young people have committed crimes intended to mimic behaviours they have seen in violent movies d. a study in which men who have been accused of sexually aggressive behaviour in the past report high levels of exposure to violent media ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 423

BLM: Higher order

96. Ophelia has seen so many violent movies that she has become habituated to them. What does

this mean? a. She believes the world is a much more violent place than it is in reality. b. She believes the world is a much less violent place than it is in reality. c. She experiences more physiological arousal in response to new images of violence. d. She experiences less physiological arousal in response to new images of violence. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 425

BLM: Higher order

11-21

Chapter 11 Aggression 97. When Mina first started playing a new video game, the extremely violent images made her

cringe. Now she has played the game so many times that she barely even notices such images. What concept does this example illustrate? a. displacement b. cultivation c. habituation d. catharsis ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 425

BLM: Higher order

98. A lawyer has a copy of a videotape that shows her client being beaten very violently by two

men. Her client is suing these men. The jury has already seen this video several times during the trial, and the lawyer is considering showing it many more times. Why might an expert social psychologist warn the lawyer against replaying the videotaped beating many more times? a. because the jurors might become habituated to the beatings and thus grant less significance to the video in their final judgment b. because the jurors might form a cognitive neoassociation about the aggression and thus feel less sympathy for the client c. because the jurors might become cultivated by the beatings and thus try to avoid thinking about them when making their final judgment d. because the jurors might be vulnerable to the weapons effect and thus be less likely to award a high settlement ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 425

BLM: Higher order

99. Nikki, who watches a lot of violent television shows as well as horror movies, thinks that the

world is much more violent than it really is. What is the most likely cause of her overestimation? a. habituation b. displacement c. dehumanization d. cultivation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 425

BLM: Remember

100. According to research on pornography, which of the following is the consumption of violent

pornography most likely to lead to? a. increased male-to-male aggression b. positive emotional responses c. habituation over time with no ill effects d. increased male-to-female aggression ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Higher order

11-22

Chapter 11 Aggression 101. Rudolph is viewing some nonviolent pornography. In which of the following conditions is

Rudolph most likely to show greater subsequent levels of aggression? a. when he is angry b. when the pornography portrays nude women c. when Rudolph is sexually aroused by the pornography d. when Rudolph has not viewed pornography before ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Remember

102. Jay has just been exposed to highly arousing violent pornography, whereas Dan has just been

exposed to equally arousing but nonviolent pornography. According to the research on pornography and aggression, which of the following is the most likely result? a. Compared to Dan, Jay will subsequently be less aggressive toward both women and men. b. Compared to Dan, Jay will subsequently be more aggressive toward both women and men. c. Compared to Dan, Jay will subsequently be less aggressive toward women but no different in his level of aggression toward men. d. Compared to Dan, Jay will subsequently be more aggressive toward women but no different in his level of aggression toward men. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Higher order

103. In which of the following situations is violent pornography most likely to increase

aggression? a. when the viewers are male, and they are provoked b. when the woman is portrayed as an unwilling participant, and the viewers are made angry c. when the woman is portrayed as an unwilling participant, and opportunities to aggress against a same-sex other are readily available d. when the viewers are provoked, and they do not find rape to be acceptable behaviour ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Remember

104. Research by Marx and colleagues (1999) investigated the role of alcohol in intimate violence.

Which of the following results did they find? a. Men who consumed alcohol were more influenced by nonviolent pornography than violent pornography. b. Men who consumed alcohol were not influenced by exposure to violent pornography.. c. Men who had consumed alcohol took longer to indicate that the male character in a date-rape scenario should stop in his sexual advances toward the female character. d. Men who had consumed alcohol are not likely to be more affected by observation of sexually aggressive behaviour depicted in a movie than men who had not consumed alcohol. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 429

BLM: Remember

11-23

Chapter 11 Aggression 105. In experiments, how has exposure to violent erotic material been found to affect male

participants in their levels of aggression towards women? a. The men exposed to violent erotic material are more likely to administer lower levels of shock to female confederates. b. The men exposed to violent erotic material are more accepting of interpersonal violence against women. c. The men exposed to violent erotic material are equally aggressive toward male and female confederates. d. The men exposed to violent erotic material are less likely to endorse false beliefs about rape. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Remember

106. How has alcohol been proposed to affect a person’s level of aggression? a. It increases arousal and therefore the strength of the aggressive response. b. It narrows attention and therefore the ability to interpret subtle or ambiguous cues. c. It increases inhibitions against aggressing, and therefore decreases aggression. d. It narrows one’s focus to sexual activity, and therefore primarily increases sexual

aggression. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 421

BLM: Higher order

107. Based on laboratory experiments studying pornography and aggression, which of the

following conclusions has been drawn? a. Exposure to nonviolent pornography increases subsequent aggression in the lab. b. Exposure to violent pornography decreases subsequent aggression in the lab. c. Exposure to violent pornographic images of women affects men's attitudes regarding sexual aggression toward women. d. Exposure to violent pornography decreases subsequent aggression in the lab if the women in the pornography are depicted as passive. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 427

BLM: Remember

108. Which of the following is most likely to exhibit sexually coercive behaviour? a. someone who is sexually aroused by violent pornography b. someone who indicates rejection of interpersonal violence against women c. someone who has consumed alcohol d. someone who indicates strong rejection of rape myths ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 429

BLM: Remember

11-24

Chapter 11 Aggression 109. How do men and women differ in their use of coercion to obtain sex? a. Women are more likely than men to engage in both physical and psychological

coercion to obtain sex. b. Men are more likely than woman to engage in both physical and psychological coercion to obtain sex. c. Women are more likely than men to engage in physical coercion to obtain sex, but men are more likely than women to engage in psychological coercion to obtain sex. d. Men are more likely than women to engage in physical coercion to obtain sex, but women are more likely than men to engage in psychological coercion to obtain sex. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 429

BLM: Remember

110. Jennifer is a female university student attending a fraternity party. How is the consumption of

alcohol most likely to affect her behaviour? a. Alcohol intensifies emotions, making her more likely to have a good time. b. Alcohol reduces inhibitions, making her more likely to take risks. c. Alcohol increases self-awareness, making her more likely to enjoy sex. d. Alcohol numbs feelings of rejection, making her forget her old boyfriend. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 429

BLM: Higher order

111. How does alcohol contribute to sexual aggression? a. by reducing aggression anxiety b. by increasing aggression anxiety c. by reducing frustration d. by increasing frustration ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 411

BLM: Higher order

112. How do men and women differ in their use of violence in intimate relationships? a. Women are more likely than men to use violence to control. b. Men are more likely than women to use milder forms of violence. c. Women are more likely than men to be killed in instances of domestic violence. d. Wife-to-husband violence is more common than husband-to-wife violence. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 430

BLM: Higher order

113. Roger and Harriett have an abusive marriage. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Roger hits Harriett in self-defence. b. Roger hits Harriett, causing a serious injury. c. Harriett hits Roger to try to intimidate him. d. Roger hits Harriett more than Harriett hits Roger. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 430

BLM: Remember

11-25

Chapter 11 Aggression 114. Large scale surveys (1975 and 1985) were conducted about physical aggression between

partners. What are the differences in the incidence of violent aggression by men and women? a. The frequency of husband-to-wife violent abuse is more than five times higher than that of wife-to-husband abuse. b. Wife-to-husband violent abuse is more frequent than husband-to-wife violent abuse, although wives are more likely to sustain serious injuries than are husbands. c. A much greater proportion of men than women report that they have been physically aggressive with a dating partner. d. A much greater proportion of women report being physically aggressive with a dating partner and men are more likely to sustain serious injuries than are women. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 430

BLM: Remember

115. Which of the following most accurately reflects research on the rates of murder and abuse of

children in Canada? a. The majority of Canadian children who are murdered are killed by a stranger. b. The majority of Canadian children who are murdered are killed by a neighbour. c. The majority of Canadian children who are murdered are killed by a family friend. d. The majority of Canadian children who are murdered are killed by a family member. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 431

BLM: Remember

116. Which of the following factors is associated with higher levels of child abuse? a. childhood substance abuse and being the eldest child b. children being raised by biological rather than stepparents c. parental substance abuse and marital conflict d. overinvolvement with peers rather than parents ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 431

BLM: Remember

117. Maureen was abused as a child. She is now married to a man who abuses her and she is

physically abusive toward her child. Which of the following is consistent with this pattern of behaviour? a. the negative affect escape model b. the arousal affect model c. aggression cultivation d. the cycle of family violence ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 431

BLM: Remember

118. Rowell believes that the best way to treat violent juvenile offenders is to address the needs of

these children as well as the many contexts in which they are embedded. What do psychologists call this approach? a. aggression cultivation b. the negative affect escape model c. multisystemic therapy d. the arousal affect model ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 431

BLM: Remember 11-26

Chapter 11 Aggression 119. How can an improved economy and healthier living conditions help reduce aggression? a. by reducing negative affect b. by reducing poverty c. by reducing frustration d. by increasing policing resources ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 431

BLM: Higher order

120. Which of the following is most likely to reduce intimate violence? a. more forceful prosecution of intimate violence cases b. more effective communication c. harsher prison sentences for those convicted of intimate violence d. self-esteem workshops ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 433

BLM: Remember

ESSAY 1. To what extent does culture affect the type and amount of violence one observes in a society? ANS:

Culture exerts a number of different effects on the amount and type of aggression observed. Aggression against individuals tends to be higher in North America, and aggression against groups tends to be higher in the Middle East, Africa, and Eastern Europe. Moreover, overt sexual aggression is more acceptable in Japan than in Canada. Aggression tends to be higher in cultures where one's status and family afford a feeling of “honour,” as is true in the Southern United States. In general, it appears that aggression is lower in cultures that emphasize cooperation and strongly oppose competition. PTS: 1

11-27

Chapter 11 Aggression 2. Under what conditions should punishment be most and least effective in reducing aggression?

From the perspective of social learning theory, explain why punishment might increase rather than decrease aggression. ANS:

Punishment is most likely to be effective in decreasing aggression when it immediately follows the aggressive behaviour, when it is strong enough to be perceived by the aggressor as a real deterrent, when it is applied consistently, and when it is perceived by the aggressor as fair and legitimate. In the absence of these conditions, however, punishment is less likely to be effective. It is also less likely to be effective if the aggressor is engaged in instrumental aggression and thus cannot see any way of obtaining a desired goal other than through aggression, or if the aggressor is engaged in an act of emotional aggression and continues to be very angry. Finally, the person being punished may perceive the punishment itself (particularly if it is delivered in a hostile manner) as a model of aggression, leading the person to imitate the behaviour and thus act aggressively. This latter point is consistent with social learning theory, which maintains that behaviour is learned through imitation of others as well as through direct experience of rewards and punishments. For example, a parent, who uses aggression to punish a child, may act as a model for the child, unintentionally teaching the child that aggression is an accepted way of dealing with problems or conflicts. PTS: 1 3. Discuss the role of arousal and affect in whether a person would act in an aggressive manner.

How could you use your position to explain the results of research concerning the effects of brief exposure to nonviolent pornography? ANS:

Independently, both negative affect and high arousal tend to increase aggression. But in combination, arousal and affect can lead to either more or less aggression. For example, among people who are experiencing negative affect, those who are highly aroused are particularly likely to be very aggressive. High arousal also tends to increase aggression among people who are experiencing neutral affect. Among people who are experiencing positive affect, however, high arousal can either increase aggression (through excitation transfer) or decrease aggression (given the incompatibility of strong positive feelings and unpleasant angry feelings). This can help explain the results of research concerning the effects of exposure to nonviolent pornography by emphasizing the roles of both arousal and the type of affect. If people respond to the pornography with pleasant affect and low levels of arousal, their aggression is likely to be reduced. Conversely, if their response is negative and their arousal is high, their aggression is likely to be increased. PTS: 1

11-28

Chapter 11 Aggression 4. Give two examples of research that illustrates the important role of thought in aggressive

behaviour. Explain both examples. ANS:

Leonard Berkowitz's cognitive neoassociation analysis clarifies the process by which thoughts and feelings interact. One example of research that illustrates deliberate, higher-order cognitive processing is provided by a study (Zillman & Cantor, 1976) in which participants attacked by another person were found to be less aggressive if they were aware of mitigating information before being attacked. A study on the effects of alcohol also illustrates the role of thought in aggression (Steele & Josephs, 1990). According to this study, intoxicated people who are made angry may fail to take into account mitigating information that would have otherwise caused them to choose not to aggress. In short, the alcohol reduces the person's ability to engage in thoughtful, higher-order processing, making the person more likely to respond aggressively, despite cues present in the situation that would ordinarily signal the inappropriateness of aggressive behaviour. PTS: 1 5. A neighbourhood group is debating whether or not to put pressure on the local movie theatre

in an attempt to discourage the showing of violent films. Knowing that you are taking a social psychology course, the group has asked you to summarize to them what the social psychological theories suggest about the effects of exposure to violent films on levels of aggression. Focusing on the frustration-aggression hypothesis and the social learning model, how should you summarize the predictions made by these perspectives? ANS:

The frustration-aggression hypothesis, particularly in its original formulation, would predict that the observation of violence in film produces catharsis, thus reducing the observers' aggression. According to this view, any frustrations that the filmgoers already have will be released through observation of aggression, thereby making them less likely to need to aggress to release their frustrations. If, however, the film itself elicits reactions of frustration or negative affect, then the aggression of the filmgoers might increase. Social learning theory would predict that observation of violent films increases aggression, particularly if the aggression in the films is perceived by the observers to be rewarded in some way. According to social learning theory, then, the filmgoers will become more likely to imitate the aggression they see in the film and to behave aggressively themselves. Indeed, they will do so even if the aggression is not rewarded on screen. In sharp contrast to the frustration-aggression hypothesis, social learning theory does not accept the notion of catharsis. PTS: 1

11-29

Appendix A: Law MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the voir dire process is intended to do? a. allow the lawyers to present evidence to the judge without the jurors present b. identify and dismiss prospective jurors who may be biased c. familiarize prospective jurors with one another before they begin deliberation d. familiarize prospective jurors with the facts of the case prior to the actual trial ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 440

BLM: Remember

2. What may lawyers use to dismiss prospective jurors without having to justify their dismissal? a. jury nullification b. sentencing disparity c. peremptory challenges d. normative influence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 440

BLM: Remember

3. Police interrogators often use minimizing techniques to secure confessions. Which of the

following is one such tactic? a. expressing certainty in the suspect's guilt b. claiming to have an eyewitness to the crime c. showing sympathy and understanding d. minimizing the suspect by showing their own superiority ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Remember

4. Why are police interrogations often conducted in small, bare, soundproof rooms? a. so that distractions will be minimized and the suspect will be better able to focus

on the interrogation b. so that suspects feel socially isolated and powerless c. so that police operating costs will be kept to a minimum d. so that other police officers will not become biased against particular suspects ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 442

BLM: Higher order

5. After a 36-hour interrogation, Liz just wanted it to end and so she confessed to a crime she

knew she had not committed. How would Liz's confession be labelled? a. internalized b. compliant c. reactive d. misinformed ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Remember

A-1

Appendix A Law 6. With respect to social influence processes in interrogations, what does “internalization” mean? a. the process in which innocent suspects come to believe that they have committed

the crimes for which they are being interrogated b. the process in which suspects confess to crimes that they did not commit in order to escape aversive interrogations c. the process in which accused suspects are offered lighter sentences in exchange for important information d. the process in which juries are able to disregard confession testimony that was extracted through coercion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Remember

7. Which of the following conclusions is consistent with the results of Kassin and Kiechel's

(1996) study? a. Suspects are more likely to make a false confession when they are led to believe that they will then be able to testify against an accomplice and go free. b. People often make false confessions to crimes, but they rarely come to internalize the belief that they are actually guilty. c. People are more likely to falsely confess to a crime if they were under the influence of alcohol or drugs at the time of the event. d. People rarely make false confessions to crimes. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Higher order

8. Which of the following best describes the conclusions reached by Kassin and Kiechel (1996)

concerning false confessions? a. People are highly unlikely to confess to crimes they did not commit. b. Internalized false confessions are most likely to occur when a suspect is intimidated with bright lights and physical threats. c. Compliant false confessions are most likely to occur when a friendly interrogator offers sympathy and advice to a suspect. d. Internalized false confessions are most likely to occur when false evidence of guilt is presented. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Remember

9. Why do jurors often fail to adequately discount coerced confessions? a. because of the positive coercion bias b. because of the fundamental attribution error c. because of a sentencing disparity d. because of reconstructive memory ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 443

BLM: Higher order

A-2

Appendix A Law 10. Amy has been interrogated for more than 6 hours about a hit and run accident. She hasn’t

been able to explain that she was not involved in the crash because the officer interrupts each time she begins to explain. The officer is understanding and is generating possible reasons that Amy may not have stayed at the scene of the accident. What method of interrogation is being used? a. the second degree induction b. the Reid technique c. the confession induction d. the Lassiter technique ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 442

BLM: Remember

11. Harwin is hooked up to a mechanical instrument that records his heart rate, blood pressure,

breathing, and sweat gland activity. What is Harwin being subjected to? a. a polygraph test b. an internalized interrogation c. the voir dire process d. a bogus pipeline ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 444

BLM: Higher order

12. How accurate are the results of polygraph tests? a. Polygraph tests are extremely accurate in detecting guilt in those who are guilty,

and innocence in those who are innocent. b. Polygraph results are more accurate in revealing the examiner’s pre-existing

beliefs than the suspect’s guilt or innocence. c. Polygraph tests can be fairly accurate when the suspect is naive and the examiner

is competent. d. Polygraph results prove guilt or innocence beyond a reasonable doubt. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 444

BLM: Higher order

13. Which of the following people is most likely to yield accurate results on a polygraph test? a. someone who is guilty and naive b. someone who is guilty and not naive c. someone who is not guilty, and naive d. someone who is neither guilty nor naive ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 445

BLM: Higher order

14. Melinda is accused of embezzling funds from her employer. During a polygraph test, she is

asked if she ever lied as a child. What is this question is an example of? a. a control question b. a crime-relevant question c. a peremptory challenge d. a reconstructive memory ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 444

BLM: Higher order

A-3

Appendix A Law 15. In theory, what happens when innocent suspects are subjected to a polygraph test? a. They are more aroused by crime-relevant questions than control questions. b. They are more aroused by control questions than crime-relevant questions. c. They exhibit overall lower levels of arousal than guilty suspects. d. They exhibit overall higher levels of arousal than guilty suspects. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 444

BLM: Remember

16. How can guilty suspects fool a polygraph test? a. by simply denying any and all involvement in the crime for which they are being

questioned b. by meditating prior to the administration of the test c. by lying in response to any crime-relevant questions, but telling the truth in

response to the control questions d. by artificially inflating their arousal to control questions by tensing their muscles ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 445

BLM: Higher order

17. What is one recent, and potentially promising, alternative to polygraph tests? a. measures of electrical activity in the muscles b. response time to answer crime-relevant questions c. measures of body temperature fluctuations d. use of hypnosis before interrogation ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 445

BLM: Higher order

18. Which of the following is a major problem with using the polygraph as a lie detector? a. Truthful persons often fail the test. b. Arousal cannot be measured with the polygraph. c. It measures only the vocal channel, ignoring all other channels. d. Control questions tend to evoke arousal even in innocent people. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 428-429

BLM: Remember

19. What do we call intentional efforts to “beat” a polygraph exam? a. countermeasures b. counterbalances c. bogus pipeline d. manipulation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 445

BLM: Remember

A-4

Appendix A Law 20. Which of the following outcomes is most likely when an eyewitness positively identifies a

defendant at trial? a. The defendant is likely to confess to the crime. b. The defendant is less likely to be found guilty by judges but not by juries.. c. The defendant is less likely to be found guilty and, in most cases, this is the correct verdict. d. The defendant is more likely to be found guilty, though in many cases he or she has been misidentified. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

21. Sharon is called to testify about a conversation she overheard while waiting in line at a movie

theatre. How is her highly confident testimony likely to influence the jury? a. Juries tend to believe that highly confident eyewitnesses have been practiced by the lawyer, so the jury will not be influenced by Sharon. b. Juries are well-informed about many of the factors that influence eyewitness accuracy so her confidence is likely to play less of a role than the evidence itself. c. Juries tend to believe that accurate witnesses are not confident so will not be influenced by Sharon. d. Juries tend to believe that highly confident eyewitnesses are more accurate, so the jury will be influenced by Sharon. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 445

BLM: Remember

22. Jesse has just witnessed a brutal assault. In his highly aroused state, what is Jesse is likely to

focus on? a. the exit path of the attacker b. the weapon c. the crime scene d. the other witnesses ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Remember

23. Which of the following best illustrates the acquisition stage of memory? a. When the robbers entered the building, Petra noticed that they were heavily armed. b. After witnessing a hit and run, Vera repeats the licence plate of the car over and

over so that she can give it to the police. c. When interviewed by the police, Marlon told them everything he could remember

about the bar brawl. d. When asked to identify her attacker from a lineup, Coral wasn't sure which suspect

had attacked her. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

A-5

Appendix A Law 24. After Natalie testifies in court that she witnessed the defendant committing the crime in

question, a memory expert is called to testify on behalf of the defence. The expert testifies that Natalie's ability to acquire the information accurately was probably impaired. Which of the following did the expert most likely have in mind when he questioned Natalie's ability to acquire the information accurately? a. the arousal-focus effect b. reconstructive memory c. misleading questions d. leniency bias ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

25. Why does the presence of a weapon reduce eyewitness accuracy? a. because weapons interfere with the retrieval of events b. because witnesses have less sympathy for someone holding a weapon c. because the sight of a weapon causes witnesses to become more self-aware d. because witnesses tend to focus attention on highly salient features ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

26. Prida has witnessed a violent crime involving a knife. Research suggests that he will be less

likely to identify the culprit than in a situation where no knife was present. Why is this so? a. because Prida will be less aroused b. because Prida will focus more on the victim c. because Prida will spend more time looking at the knife d. because Prida will be too afraid to remember anything accurately ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

27. Tony, Silvio, Paul, and Christopher were all in the convenience store when it was robbed.

Who is likely to be the most reliable eyewitness? a. Tony, who was the only one to notice that the thief was brandishing a gun b. Silvio, who was extremely aroused by the whole incident c. Paul, who was drunk at the time of the crime d. Christopher, who is the same race as the thief ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 446

BLM: Higher order

28. What is the stage in memory in which information is held to avoid forgetting? a. the acquisition stage b. the storage stage c. the retrieval stage d. the deliberation stage ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 446-447

BLM: Remember

A-6

Appendix A Law 29. Participants who were asked how fast two cars were travelling “when they smashed into one

another” gave higher estimates than those who were asked how fast the cars were going “when they contacted one another.” Which of the following does this finding support? a. the positive coercion bias misinformation effect b. the familiarity induced bias c. the leniency bias d. the misinformation effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 447

BLM: Remember

30. What do psychologists call the tendency for false post-event information to become integrated

into a person's memory for the event? a. the positive coercion bias misinformation effect b. the familiarity induced bias c. the leniency bias d. the misinformation effect ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 447

BLM: Remember

31. Which of the following most accurately summarizes an important point of controversy that

has been debated among researchers who study reconstructive memory? a. Some believe that post-event information actually alters a witness's real memory, whereas others believe it affects only the reporting of the memory. b. Some believe that post-event information can bias an eyewitness's reporting of an event, whereas others believe that only information that is learned during acquisition can bias an eyewitness's reporting. c. Some believe that scientific jury selection is an effective way to reduce the chances that jurors will be biased by reconstructive memory, whereas others believe that this strategy is unethical. d. Some believe that the use of peremptory challenges leads to false memories, whereas others believe it helps ensure accurate memories. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 448

BLM: Higher order

32. Kirk is going to be called to the witness stand to give his eyewitness testimony regarding a

murder. If Kirk first hears other eyewitness accounts, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Hearing other accounts will make his testimony less accurate. b. Hearing other accounts will counteract the misinformation effect. c. Hearing other accounts will encourage him to be more accurate if the other eyewitnesses agree among themselves as to who the assailant was. d. Hearing other accounts will encourage him to be less accurate if the other eyewitnesses disagree among themselves as to who the assailant was. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 448

BLM: Higher order

A-7

Appendix A Law 33. Marshall witnesses a man assault a woman with a hammer. A few days later, he is called to

the police station to identify the culprit from a lineup. In which of the following situations is Marshall most likely to be accurate? a. if the police tell him that the culprit is in the lineup b. if one of the men in the lineup resembles the description that Marshall had given the police, while the other men in the lineup look very different from that description c. if he is first presented with some mug shots and then views a lineup containing one of the men whose mug shot he has seen d. if he observes the suspects and foils one at a time rather than together in a single lineup ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 449

BLM: Higher order

34. All of the following appear to impact eyewitness identification performance EXCEPT which

one? a. lineup construction b. lineup format c. familiarity induced biases d. eyewitness gender ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 448-449

BLM: Remember

35. Compared to the standard lineup procedure, when eyewitnesses are exposed to a sequential

presentation of mug shots, what tends to happen? a. The eyewitnesses tend to be more susceptible to the impact of post-event information. b. The eyewitnesses tend to be more likely to positively identify a suspect without being confident. c. The eyewitnesses tend to be more cautious in positively identifying a particular suspect. d. The eyewitnesses tend to be less vulnerable to the leniency bias. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 449

BLM: Higher order

36. With respect to lineup identification, in which of the following situations do eyewitnesses

tend to be less accurate? a. when there are six foils present in the lineup b. when the suspect is of the same race as the witness c. when the witness is informed that the suspect may be in the lineup d. when the suspect and the foils are viewed one at a time ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 449

BLM: Higher order

A-8

Appendix A Law 37. In which of the following situations are witnesses most accurate in making identifications? a. when they are asked to make repeated judgments b. when they are asked to make relative judgments c. when they are asked to make absolute judgments d. when they are asked to make familiarity-induced judgments ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 449

BLM: Remember

38. An eyewitness identified Ashtok from a lineup as the man who robbed the bookstore. As an

employee of the store, Ashtok was present during the crime but was not the person who committed the crime. Which of the following was the most likely cause of the eyewitness's false identification? a. the leniency bias b. the misinformation effect c. a familiarity induced bias d. the fundamental attribution error ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 449

BLM: Higher order

39. Brandon is a juror in a murder trial in which both the prosecution and defence are relying on

eyewitnesses. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Brandon will be able to distinguish those eyewitnesses who are accurate from those who are not. b. Brandon will judge eyewitnesses who appear confident to be more accurate than those who appear less confident. c. Brandon will underestimate the accuracy of all of the eyewitnesses. d. Brandon will understand the factors that influence eyewitness accuracy enough to determine whether an eyewitness is biased. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 450

BLM: Higher order

40. Which of the following provides the best explanation of the misinformation effect? a. If people don’t have a clear memory for an event they have witnessed, they search

for more information and may choose to incorporate those details into their memory. b. If people don’t have a clear memory for an event they have witnessed, they search for more information which may automatically become incorporated into their memory. c. Even if people have a clear memory for an event they have witnessed, being exposed to relevant information will very likely change their memory. d. Retelling events commits people to their recollections, regardless of whether or not those recollections are accurate. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 447-449

BLM: Higher order

A-9

Appendix A Law 41. Which of the following eyewitnesses is likely to be least confident in his or her identification? a. Miguel, who is informed that another eyewitness identified the same suspect b. Omar, who is informed that another eyewitness selected a very dissimilar suspect c. Norm, who is informed that another eyewitness selected a very similar suspect d. Alejandra, who is repeatedly questioned about the crime she witnessed ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 450

BLM: Higher order

42. According to research by Wells and Bradfield, how are eyewitnesses influenced by receiving

feedback after making an identification? a. They change the way they remember the initial event. b. They become more confident in their accurate identifications but less confident of inaccurate ones. c. They experience more positive emotion, but neither their memory nor their confidence are influenced. d. They are influenced more strongly when there are identifying an individual from a different race. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 450

BLM: Higher order

43. What has research on pretrial publicity demonstrated about bias? a. It tends to produce bias in favour of the defendant and people will be well aware of

this bias. b. It tends to produce bias in favour of the defendant, though people will not realize they are biased. c. It tends to produce bias against the defendant, and people will be well aware of this bias. d. It tends to produce bias against the defendant, though people will not realize they are biased. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 451

BLM: Remember

44. Why does pretrial publicity tend to produce a bias against defendants? a. because people assume that defendants are guilty until proven innocent b. because information in news reports usually comes from police or the Crown

prosecutor’s office c. because most people charged with crimes really are guilty d. because the publicity makes the defendant seem more familiar, thus resulting in a

familiarity induced bias ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 451

BLM: Remember

A-10

Appendix A Law 45. Kara sees a news story on television about an upcoming criminal defendant who was

previously charged with similar crimes. If Kara is selected to serve as a juror for this defendant's trial, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. The information concerning the defendant's prior criminal activity will have no impact on her verdict as long as she agrees to be objective and impartial. b. The information concerning the defendant's prior criminal record may bias her impression of the defendant, but instructions from the judge can counteract such a bias. c. Kara will interpret the facts of the case in a way that is consistent with the information about the defendant's prior criminal record. d. The pretrial publicity will make the defendant seem more familiar to Kara and so she will be less likely to convict. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 451

BLM: Higher order

46. For two months before Pete's trial begins, the community has been saturated with pretrial

publicity. Which of the following is most likely to happen? a. The publicity will have little impact because the judge will be able to identify biased jurors in the voir dire. b. Because the publicity is more likely to originate from the police, Pete is more likely to be convicted. c. The publicity will have more of an effect if it is restricted to newspaper rather than television news. d. The jurors will be more likely to acquit because of psychological reactance. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 451

BLM: Higher order

47. How does research on inadmissible evidence show that juries respond to the judge’s

instructions to ignore such information? a. Juries ignore the information when it is inadmissible on the grounds of an unreliable source. b. Juries continue to consider the information when it is reliable but inadmissible because of a legal “technicality.” c. Juries ignore the information if the foreperson reminds the panel of the judge’s instructions. d. Juries ignore the information. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 453-454

BLM: Higher order

48. When a witness reveals inadmissible evidence, the judge informs jurors to disregard that

evidence. Why do jurors ignore that instruction? a. because they consciously decide to disagree with the law b. because such evidence is usually not relevant to the case c. because the judge's instructions give added attention to the evidence d. because they disagree with the judge ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Higher order

A-11

Appendix A Law 49. Which of the following helps explain why jurors often disregard judges’ instructions? a. lack of competence b. lack of legal experience c. lack of appreciation of the legal process d. lack of comprehension ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Remember

50. Which of the following is one reason judges' instructions tend to have little impact on jurors? a. The instructions typically come before the evidence is presented, increasing the

likelihood that the jurors will forget them. b. The jurors often find the instructions incomprehensible, leading to

misunderstandings and confusion. c. The jurors frequently consider the instructions to be irrelevant to the trial, leading

them to experience reactance. d. The jurors generally prefer to avoid jury nullification. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Higher order

51. According to research with mock jurors, in which of the following situations are jurors most

likely to comprehend judges' conventional instructions relatively well? a. when these instructions are accompanied by graphs b. when these instructions are presented by the lawyers rather than by the judge c. when these instructions are given first to the jury foreperson, who then passes them along to the rest of the jury d. when these instructions are rewritten in plain words ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Remember

52. A judge instructs jurors that if they have a reasonable doubt about the defendant's guilt, they

should return a verdict of not guilty. In which of the following situations do such instructions decrease the likelihood of a guilty verdict? a. if the judge gives a detailed description of the legal meaning of reasonable doubt b. if the instructions are given before the evidence c. if the instructions are given after the evidence d. if the judge strongly forbids anyone with a reasonable doubt from returning a guilty verdict ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Higher order

53. In which of the following situations do judges' instructions to juries have the greatest impact? a. when the prosecution of the defendant conflicts with jurors' notions of justice b. when each juror receives a written copy of the instructions at the end of the trial c. when they are delivered verbally after the evidence has been presented d. when they are delivered in plain language prior to the presentation of evidence ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Higher order

A-12

Appendix A Law 54. Why do judges' instructions often have little impact on jurors? a. because there are too many instructions for the jurors to follow b. because the jurors disagree with the law c. because they are delivered too early in the trial d. because the jurors are afraid of the judge ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Remember

55. What is the term for jurors' power to disregard the law when it conflicts with their personal

conceptions of justice? a. jury challenge for cause b. jury nullification c. sentencing disparity d. jury overruling ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Remember

56. Eighteen-year-old André has been accused of statutory rape because he had sex with his

15-year-old girlfriend, who is considered a minor. When the case goes to trial, the prosecution presents evidence confirming that André broke the law, yet the jurors vote “not guilty” because they feel the law is outdated What does the jury's action illustrate? a. jury challenge b. internalization c. sentencing disparity d. jury nullification ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 453

BLM: Higher order

57. Why are men more likely than women to be selected as jury foreperson? a. because men are more likely than women to speak first in deliberations b. because men are more likely to be selected to serve as members of juries in the

first place c. because men are more likely than women to intimidate other jury members d. because jurors' implicit personality theories suggest that men make better forepersons ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 454

BLM: Remember

58. Shaquille has been selected to be the foreperson of his jury. Which of the following is most

likely to happen? a. Shaquille will exert more influence over the jury's decision than other members of the jury. b. Shaquille will spend more time than other jurors discussing procedural items. c. Shaquille will exert less influence over the jury's decision than other members of the jury. d. Shaquille will spend more time than other jurors expressing his opinion. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 454-455

BLM: Higher order

A-13

Appendix A Law 59. According to research on the subject, small juries are more likely than large juries to do which

of the following? a. produce non-unanimous decisions b. resist normative pressures within the group c. deliberate for a shorter period of time d. be representative of the larger population ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: 456

BLM: Remember

60. Relative to large juries, why do smaller juries often spend less time deliberating? a. because they are less likely to support a minority position b. because they are more likely to have a male foreperson c. because they are less inclined to reach a unanimous verdict d. because they are not used in trials involving complex decisions ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: 456

BLM: Higher order

61. In a study by Partridge and Eldridge (1974), one judge recommended three years in prison for

a man accused of extortion, whereas another judge recommended 25 years for the same crime. What do these findings demonstrate? a. the misinformation effect b. sentencing disparity c. informational influence d. the leniency bias ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 457

BLM: Higher order

62. Why is there controversy surrounding the sentencing of individuals convicted of crimes? a. because juries lack experience in determining the appropriate level of punishment b. because juries are seen as too lenient c. because judges are seen as too harsh d. because judges vary greatly on the length of sentences they assign ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: 457

BLM: Higher order

63. Which model of justice is practised in the court rooms of most countries in the world? a. adversarial model b. inquisitorial model c. probabilistic model d. logical-deductive model ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: 457

BLM: Remember

A-14

Appendix A Law

ESSAY 1. Summarize the means by which the polygraph works as a lie detector. What two major

problems call its accuracy into question? ANS:

A polygraph is a mechanical instrument that records physiological arousal from multiple channels. The assumption underlying its use is that when a suspect lies, he or she becomes anxious in ways that can be measured—specifically, through changes in breathing, blood pressure, and perspiration. First, the suspect's baseline level of arousal is established. Then, the examiner asks a series of yes?0?no questions and compares the suspect's reactions to emotionally arousing crime-relevant questions with his or her reactions to control questions that are arousing but not relevant to the crime. In theory, suspects whose denials about the crime are truthful should be more aroused by the control questions, whereas suspects whose denials are false should be more aroused by the crime-relevant questions. One problem with the use of the polygraph as a lie detector is that truthful people too often fail the test. A second problem is that the test can be faked. Some guilty suspects, to avoid being aroused by crime-relevant questions, are able to use countermeasures such as distraction or an artificial inflation of their arousal responses to control questions (by, for example, squeezing their toes so that the arousal observed in their responses to crime-relevant questions does not seem high in comparison). PTS: 1 2. Summarize the theory of reconstructive memory as it relates to eyewitness testimony. What

does the research suggest about the use of such testimony from children? ANS:

Reconstructive memory is a concept underlying the theory that eyewitness testimony can be altered by exposure to post-event information. According to this theory, first proposed by Elizabeth Loftus, even untrue information about an event we have earlier observed can influence our memory of that event. For example, Loftus and Palmer (1974) demonstrated that when participants who viewed a film of a traffic accident were later asked questions about the accident, the wording of these questions significantly influenced their recollections. By implication, the accuracy of eyewitnesses' testimony can be reduced by post-event information to which the eyewitnesses were exposed—a particular concern when the eyewitnesses are children. Indeed, children have a difficult time distinguishing between their real memories and the post-event suggestions to which they are later exposed. Laboratory experiments indicate that preschool-age children are more likely than older children or adults to incorporate such post-event suggestions into their memories. Less clear is evidence indicating whether young children are particularly suggestible concerning very stressful life experiences such as acts of abuse. PTS: 1

A-15

Appendix B: Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What causes stress? a. Both positive and negative events can cause stress, but they incur separate and

distinct emotions. b. Positive and negative events cannot be emotionally experienced at the same time,

thus only negative events that overshadow positive ones cause stress. c. Positive but not negative events can cause sufficient stress to affect a person's

long-term health. d. Change is the primary cause of harmful stress. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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2. In Holmes and Rahe’s (1967) research, what had commonly occurred to people who were

hospitalized for major illnesses? a. They had previously been hospitalized for this same illness. b. They had been divorced. c. They had become a parent. d. They had experienced a major life change. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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3. This year, Mischa has been finding his commute to and from work to be longer than before

and to be costing more with the high price of gas. He was also skipped over for a promotion at work and it bothered him quite a bit. How are these stressors likely to affect Mischa in the long run? a. These stressors are likely to motivate a change in Mischa’s behaviour. b. Mischa is likely to change jobs or move closer to work to avoid those stressors. c. These stressors are likely to have a negative effect on Mischa’s health. d. Mischa is likely to have marital problems due to these stressors. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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4. In times of stress, what is released into the blood stream? a. adrenaline b. antibodies c. endorphins d. glucose ANS: A

PTS: 1

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B-1

Appendix B Health 5. Alice was in a minor car accident three months ago, in which she was injured. Now every

time she is in a car she becomes shaky and nervous due to the release of adrenaline. What kinds of effects is Alice likely currently experiencing? a. lack of social support b. suppressed immune system c. enhanced viral load d. hormonal system degeneration ANS: B

PTS: 1

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6. Which of the following is a necessary component of stress? a. Stress is determined more by personality than by situational circumstances. b. Stress is determined by group and familial coping strategies. c. Stress requires high levels of arousal. d. Stress requires a perception of threat. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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7. Consider Selye's general adaptation syndrome. When the body encounters a threat, how does

it respond? a. It enters the arousal stage. b. It enters the exhaustion stage. c. It enters the resistance stage. d. It enters the alarm stage. ANS: D

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8. Consider Selye's general adaptation syndrome. After the initial immediate response to stress,

the body enters a stage of higher-than-normal activation of threat responses. What is that stage called? a. the arousal stage b. the exhaustion stage c. the resistance stage d. the alarm stage ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9. Consider Selye's general adaptation syndrome. When stress persists for a very long time, what

happens to the body? a. It enters the arousal stage. b. It enters the exhaustion stage. c. It enters the resistance stage. d. It enters the alarm stage. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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B-2

Appendix B Health 10. Lee has just been notified that a fire in the area is spreading toward his home and he must

evacuate immediately. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is he in? a. arousal b. exhaustion c. alarm d. resistance ANS: C

PTS: 1

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11. Which of the following people might be classified as having a Type A behaviour pattern? a. Vince, who is very competitive and strives to win at any cost b. Charles, who hates wearing a watch and has the "patience of a saint" c. Barry, who never seems to lose his temper d. Hari, who is always cheerful, friendly, and pleasant to be around ANS: A

PTS: 1

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12. What is the main toxic ingredient in Type A behaviour? a. competitiveness b. hostility c. achievement motivation d. impatience ANS: B

PTS: 1

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13. Angelo and Maria are going through a very difficult period in their marriage and are seriously

considering seeking a divorce. What is most likely to be the effect of this chronic stressor? a. hostility b. enhanced immune response c. depressed immune response d. heightened levels of antibodies ANS: C

PTS: 1

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14. Which of the following is José’s body likely to experience if he is attacked by a dog? a. increased adrenaline b. decreased hormones c. decreased antibodies d. increased antibodies ANS: A

PTS: 1

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15. Which of the following is Joseph likely to experience if he has been in his high-pressure sales

job for two years? a. increased adrenaline b. decreased hormones c. decreased immune response d. increased immune response ANS: C

PTS: 1

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B-3

Appendix B Health 16. In a study by Cohen et al. (1998), which participants were more likely to catch a cold after

being infected with a cold virus? a. High-stress participants caught more colds than low-stress participants. b. Male participants caught more colds than female participants. c. Female participants caught more colds than male participants. d. Older participants caught more colds than younger participants. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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17. In a study by Cohen et al. (1998), which of the following groups of participants were unlikely

to catch a cold even though they had been exposed to a cold virus? a. people who were highly stressed b. people who were highly sociable c. people who experienced a sudden stressor d. people who had experienced a positive life change like a promotion ANS: A

PTS: 1

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18. In a study by Cohen et al. (1998), which of the following groups of participants were unlikely

to catch a cold even though they had been exposed to a cold virus? a. people who were highly stressed b. people who experienced a chronic stressor c. people who had experienced a positive life change like becoming a parent d. people who viewed themselves as having higher socioeconomic status than most of the population ANS: D

PTS: 1

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19. Penelope has been taking care of her ailing father for the last two years. He has dementia and

it is becoming more difficult for her to be able to manage on her own. How is this situation likely to affect her risk of developing a cold if she is exposed to a cold virus? a. She is no more likely to develop a cold now than she was when she took over her father’s care. b. She is slightly more likely to develop a cold now than she was when she took over her father’s care. c. She is three times more likely to develop a cold now than she was when she took over her father’s care. d. It is impossible to say as a single stressor, even long lasting, is unlikely to affect one’s likelihood of developing a cold. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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B-4

Appendix B Health 20. How has the exposure to shocks been shown to affect the likelihood of dying of cancer in

rats? a. Rats who had cancer cells implanted were more likely to die of cancer if they were exposed to shocks that they could not escape. b. Rats who had cancer cells implanted were more likely to die of cancer if they were exposed to shocks that they could escape. c. Rats who had cancer cells implanted were more likely to die of cancer if they were exposed to any type of shocks. d. Rats who had cancer cells implanted were unlikely to die of cancer if they were exposed to any type of shocks. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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21. Researchers have found that people are better able to tolerate the pain of arthritis, childbirth,

and migraine headaches if they have a high level of which of the following? a. self-awareness b. self-monitoring c. self-esteem d. self-efficacy ANS: D

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22. Which of the following people might be classified as having high self-efficacy pattern? a. Valerie, who is very competitive and strives to win at any cost b. Charlene, who is very persistent and believes she can make things work c. Barbara, who is quick to blame others for mistakes d. Helen, who develops very effective plans, but who becomes upset when others do

not follow her recommendations ANS: B

PTS: 1

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23. Which of the following people might be classified as having low self-efficacy? a. Archna, who is finding her work challenging b. Brenda, who is juggling work and being a single parent c. Calli, who is struggling with depression d. Debra, who is very angry about problems at work ANS: C

PTS: 1

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24. Sean is an optimist. According to Seligman, Sean’s explanatory style for failures would be

couched in which of the following types of terms? a. those that are internal, stable, and global b. those that are external, stable, and global c. those that are external, temporary, and specific d. those that are internal, temporary, and specific ANS: C

PTS: 1

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Appendix B Health 25. Sean is an optimist. According to Seligman, Sean’s explanatory style for successes would be

PTS: 1

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26. In which of the following ways did Seligman report learned helplessness to be similar to

depression? a. People who have been exposed to uncontrollable negative events are often very emotional and weepy. b. People who have been exposed to uncontrollable negative events are often unmotivated and discouraged. c. People who have been exposed to uncontrollable events often report feeling angry. d. People who have been exposed to uncontrollable events often report feeling the need for greater social support. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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27. Elena is a new resident in long-term care centre for elderly women. According to the research

on self-efficacy, which of the following circumstances is likely to improve her adjustment to the new living arrangements? a. having existing residents who are welcoming b. having privacy from other residents c. being able to control her daily routine d. being able to participate in engaging activities ANS: C

PTS: 1

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28. Seligman strapped dogs into harnesses and gave them electric shocks that they couldn't escape

from. When he next put them in cages from which they could escape shocks, what did they do? a. They overcame their learned helplessness. b. They were passive and did not try to escape. c. They quickly learned how to activate the escape mechanism. d. They frantically tried to escape, but most were unsuccessful. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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B-6

Appendix B Health 29. Four drivers who each had a small accident gave the following explanations. Which one

exemplifies learned helplessness? a. "I was stopped at the sign when this car hit me from the back and knocked me forward right into the sign. It was the other guy's fault." b. "I am just learning to drive. I guess I need a few more lessons. I seem to be a real slow learner." c. "This is the first time I ever did anything like this. Ordinarily, I'm a very good driver. I must have dozed off at the wheel." d. "I don't know why these things keep happening to me. I can’t do this!" ANS: D

PTS: 1

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30. Which of the following personality features are commonly associated with people who are

high in hardiness? a. low commitment, low challenge, low control b. high commitment, high challenge, low control c. low commitment, high challenge, high control d. high commitment, high challenge, high control ANS: D

PTS: 1

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31. Jasmine successfully competed for a promotion at work. Which of the following statements

during her interview best reflects the personality trait of hardiness? a. “I have experience in doing a difficult job like this one in the past.” b. “I enjoy challenging conditions, and I know that I will be able to perform well.” c. “I will be able to build a team that can deal with these hard problems.” d. “I will rely on my superiors to direct my efforts.” ANS: B

PTS: 1

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32. What do psychologists say about a person who is resilient in the face of stress? a. That person is resistant. b. That person is problem-focused. c. That person is hardy. d. That person is stress-free. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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33. When people are high in psychological hardiness, which of the following traits do they tend to

possess? a. a tendency to view change as a challenge rather than a threat b. a lower sense of control or responsibility for events in their lives c. lower levels of commitment to personal goals d. greater involvement in physically demanding work ANS: A

PTS: 1

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B-7

Appendix B Health 34. If a person’s control, commitment, and challenge enable him or her to handle stressful

situations, which of the following traits would that person also possess? a. a high degree of psychological hardiness b. an external locus of control c. a Type A Behaviour Pattern d. a high degree of social support ANS: A

PTS: 1

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35. Parminder is a psychologically hardy person. How does Parminder differ from her

classmates? a. She is less involved in her work. b. She makes deeper commitments. c. She sees change as a threat. d. She lacks a sense of strong control over personal events. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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36. Eileen is a person who has a relatively stress-resistant personality. Eileen would probably be

high in which of the following traits? a. affect intensity b. psychological hardiness c. Type A characteristics d. expressiveness ANS: B

PTS: 1

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37. Tice and Baumiester (1997) investigated the stress-levels in procrastinators and

non-procrastinators over the course of an academic semester. What did they find? a. Procrastinators were less stressed early in the term but more stressed later. b. Procrastinators were more stressed later in the term but they also received higher grades than their colleagues. c. Procrastinators were more stressed for the entire semester. d. Procrastinators were less stressed for the entire semester. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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38. Rita has been doing background readings and drafts of her term paper throughout this

semester. Compared to Mary who has been avoiding her paper, what outcome is likely for Rita now at the end of the semester? a. She will now suddenly be under stress and will unable to cope as well as Mary. b. She will be less able to cope with stress than Mary who has been more restful all semester. c. She will be more stressed than Mary as she is a worrier. d. She will have less stress than Mary and perform better on her paper. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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B-8

Appendix B Health 39. Jason is struggling with his job and decides to talk to his colleagues about his difficulties and

to seek their advice. Which of the following people is providing Jason with a problem-focussed coping strategy? a. Les, who says that he feels better when he talks to his wife about his problems after work b. Brian, who says that he feels better when he goes out for a drink with friends after work c. Jerome, who says that he feels better when he goes to speak to his boss about those kinds of problems. d. Kyle, who says that he doesn’t talk about problems, only successes ANS: C

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40. When people do not want to think about a particularly stressful situation, what is the best

thing for them to do? a. suppress thoughts of the stressful situation b. rely on the rebound effect to keep the thought out of conscious awareness c. think about the situation intensely for a few minutes to make it easier to subsequently avoid thinking about it d. distract themselves by thinking about something else ANS: D

PTS: 1

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41. Not wanting to think about his pending divorce, Anthony goes to the movies. Which strategy

for coping with stress does Anthony’s behaviour illustrate? a. restraint coping b. avoidance c. positive reinterpretation d. acceptance ANS: B

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42. Fredickson (2009) suggested that experiencing positive emotions when coping with stress

actually improves coping itself. How does she propose this occurs? a. by diminishing the stressor itself b. by decreasing the perceived value of the stressor c. by broadening the person’s outlook d. by cathartic release ANS: C

PTS: 1

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B-9

Appendix B Health 43. Wegner (1997) asked people to think about anything they wanted other than white bears, and

to note any time that they did think of them. What effect did these instructions have on people’s thoughts? a. They never thought of white bears. b. They thought of white bears as often as the group who was not avoiding thoughts of white bears. c. They thought of white bears far less often than the group who was not avoiding thoughts of white bears. d. They thought of white bears far more often than the group who was not avoiding thoughts of white bears. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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44. Wegner (1997) asked people to think about anything they wanted other than white bears, and

to note any time that they did think of them. What effect did these instructions have on people’s thoughts once they stopped trying to suppress thoughts of white bears and were able to think about anything at all? a. They did not think of white bears. b. They occasionally thought of white bears. c. They thought of white bears less often than those that had not been instructed to suppress thoughts of white bears. d. They thought of white bears more often than those that had not been instructed to suppress thoughts of white bears. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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45. Cioffi and Holloway had people use different strategies to cope with a painful stimulus,

sticking one’s hand in ice-water for as long as possible. What were the effects of asking people to avoid thinking about the pain on the length of time they took to recover from the task? a. They were faster to recover than those asked to form a mental picture of their home. b. They were slower to recover than those asked to form a mental picture of their home. c. They were able to keep their hand submerged longer than those who formed a mental picture of their home. d. They were unable to keep their hand submerged as long as those who formed a mental picture of their home. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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46. Which of the following strategies increases proactive coping? a. learning problem-solving techniques b. intelligence-gathering techniques c. developing social support networks d. discussing escape techniques ANS: C

PTS: 1

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B-10

Appendix B Health 47. Josh fell while hiking and dislocated his shoulder. Yemen, his companion, knows how to get

his shoulder back in place but has no pain killers. Which of the following would you recommend to help Josh cope with the painful procedure? a. instruct Josh not to think about the pain b. instruct Josh to think about how much better it is going to feel when the shoulder is reset c. instruct Josh to think about home d. instruct Josh to count backwards from 100 ANS: C

PTS: 1

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48. How does mood affect self-focused attention? a. Self-focused attention is increased by experiencing either positive or negative

moods. b. Self-focused attention is increased by experiencing positive but not negative moods. c. Self-focused attention is increased by experiencing negative but not positive moods. d. Self-focused attention is decreased by experiencing either positive or negative moods. ANS: A

PTS: 1

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49. Raymond is from Japan. Compared to his North American counterparts, how is he likely to

cope with stress? a. He is more likely to use emotion-focused coping in seeking social support b. He is less likely to use emotion-focused coping in seeking social support. c. He is more likely to use problem-focused coping. d. He is less likely to use problem-focused coping. ANS: B

PTS: 1

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50. What do we call the tendency for an inert treatment to improve a patient's condition simply

because he or she believes in the treatment? a. self-efficacy b. the placebo effect c. positive thinking d. expectancy theory ANS: B

PTS: 1

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51. In which of the following cases is opening up to someone else most therapeutic? a. when it does not involve catharsis b. when the events that are disclosed are not traumatic c. when the other person is willing and able to give advice d. when one feels comfortable that the listener is trustworthy ANS: D

PTS: 1

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B-11

Appendix B Health 52. Sarah has just been diagnosed with advanced breast cancer. After her surgery to remove the

cancer, she is deciding between various other approaches to encourage recovery. In considering Spiegel's study of women with advanced breast cancer, which of the following would you recommend? a. Sarah should practise meditation. b. Sarah should adopt a healthy diet. c. Sarah should participate in a support group. d. Sarah should be given a placebo. ANS: C

PTS: 1

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53. Melissa has just been diagnosed with breast cancer. Research would suggest that in addition to

the medical treatment Melissa needs, her therapy should also involve which of the following? a. avoidance of information about negative outcomes b. a chance to discuss fears c. privacy from others d. avoidance of negative emotions ANS: B

PTS: 1

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54. Researchers have found that a majority of women with cancer preferred which of the

following courses of action regarding their treatment? a. selecting their own treatment plan, without input from others b. exercising some control over their treatment plan c. leaving the treatment plan to their physician d. accepting no form of treatment, unless their physician insisted otherwise ANS: B

PTS: 1

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55. Britt is a teenage girl and she sees pictures of her favourite celebrity smoking.

What does research find about the influence of celebrities on health-related behaviour? a. Fans are not actually highly influenced by celebrity behaviour. b. Fans are influenced by positive role models. c. Fans are influenced by negative role models. d. Fans are influenced by both negative and positive role models. ANS: D

PTS: 1

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56. Which of the following lists the necessary features for happiness? a. health, wealth, and wisdom b. social relationships, work, and health c. social relationships, wealth and wisdom d. social relationships, health and wealth ANS: B

PTS: 1

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B-12

Appendix B Health 57. According to research by Rodin and Langer, when did nursing home residents become

happier and more active? a. when they were allowed some control over their daily routines b. when they were enrolled in specially designed exercise classes c. when they were placed on age-appropriate diets d. when they were able to participate in group day trips to area attractions ANS: A

PTS: 1

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58. How does the intimacy model measure a person's social support? a. in terms of his or her having a close relationship with a significant other b. in terms of his or her perception that social support is available when needed c. in terms of his or her having an ongoing sexual relationship d. in terms of the number of his or her social contacts ANS: A

PTS: 1

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59. Heather has an on-going health issue.She has a number of acquaintances but relatively few

close others to rely on. What has research shown to be the most important feature of her social support system? a. actual availability b. perceived availability c. actual resources d. emotional response ANS: B

PTS: 1

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60. The textbook reports that in 2011, 60 percent of Canadian and Japanese respondents rated

themselves as happy, even though Japan had just been through a devastating earthquake, tsunami, and nuclear crisis. Which of the following provides the best account for that finding? a. repression b. suppression c. subjective well-being d. adaptation level ANS: D

PTS: 1

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B-13

Appendix B Health

ESSAY 1. How do people typically react to catastrophic events? ANS:

Victims of catastrophic events are initially dazed and stunned. Rather than showing panic and strong emotional responses, they are typically emotionally number. When they begin to recover from the shock, they typically experience anxiety, nightmares, and a compulsive need to retell the event over and over. PTS: 1 2. How do problem-focused and emotion-focused coping differ, and when are each helpful? ANS:

Problem-focused coping is a response aimed at reducing, modifying, or eliminating the source of stress. Emotion-focused coping is aimed at reducing the emotional impact of the stressors. Problem-focused coping is most useful for areas in which we can actively make a change to a situation or behaviour. It can lead to effective strategies to improve our own performance and circumstances. In situations beyond our control, problem-focused coping will not be particularly useful. These situations require us to become accustomed to a new or different reality and may require us to adjust our expectations and reactions through emotion-focused coping. PTS: 1 3. How is depression similar to learned helplessness? ANS:

Depression is similar to learned helplessness through a lack of motivation, positive emotion, and initiative. It is also associated with a sense of hopelessness and a belief that nothing can be done to change one’s circumstances. PTS: 1 4. How does psychological hardiness protect a person from negative outcomes? ANS:

People who are psychologically hardy are likely to interpret difficult circumstances as a challenge and to face those problems with a positive outlook and expectations of success. They make a deep commitment to achieving those outcomes and, due to the combination of these factors, they are extremely persistent, even in the face of setbacks. This persistence will often pay off in some level of success. PTS: 1

B-14

Appendix B Health 5. What can cancer patients do to help themselves cope with having cancer? ANS:

Cancer patients need medical treatment and social supports that will help them maintain their quality of life. They need to have opportunities to discuss their treatment and emotions openly. If patients maintain an optimistic outlook and are able to accept their condition, they may experience less distress. PTS: 1

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