Understanding American Politics and Government, second edition Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Understanding American Politics and Government, second edition By John J. Coleman , Kenneth M. Goldstein , William G. Howell

Test Bank to accompany

Coleman ⬧ Goldstein ⬧ Howell

Understanding American Politics and Government 2011 Edition

Prepared by Anika Leithner California Polytechnic State University

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Table of Contents Chapter 1: Thinking About American Politics .................................................................. 1 Chapter 2: Political Culture ............................................................................................. 27 Chapter 3: The Constitution ............................................................................................. 55 Chapter 4: Federalism ...................................................................................................... 83 Chapter 5: Civil Liberties............................................................................................... 109 Chapter 6: Civil Rights .................................................................................................. 137 Chapter 7: Public Opinion ............................................................................................. 167 Chapter 8: Political Participation ................................................................................... 195 Chapter 9: Voting, Elections, and Campaigns ............................................................... 223 Chapter 10: Media and Politics ...................................................................................... 249 Chapter 11: Political Parties........................................................................................... 279 Chapter 12: Interest Groups ........................................................................................... 309 Chapter 13: Congress…………………………………………………………………..339 Chapter 14: The Presidency……………………………………………………………365 Chapter 15: The Federal Court System…………………………………………………391 Chapter 16: The Bureaucracy…………………………………………………………..417 Chapter 17: Economic and Social Policy……………………………………………….443 Chapter 18: Foreign Policy……………………………………………………………..469 Chapter 19: State and Local Governments……………………………………………..495

Chapter One Reading-Comprehension Quiz Mutiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT true about Sarah Palin’s appeal as a vice-presidential candidate in 2008? A) She was considered more honest than other politicians. B) She appealed primarily to Republican women. C) She was considered charming. D) Her relative lack of previous exposure in Washington was an advantage. E) She was considered down-to-earth. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following can you logically infer from what you have learned about the 2008 presidential election? A) The state of the economy tends to matter a great deal in presidential elections. B) Voters tend to blame incumbents for current problems. C) Voters prefer experienced candidates. D) Support for war is short-lived among voters. E) All of the above can be inferred. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 3. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are causal questions? A) What is the likely impact of the government’s bailout plan on the economic crisis? B) Does political apathy lead to a decrease in democracy in a country? C) What is the relationship between a person’s religion and his or her likelihood of voting? D) Should abortion be made illegal, unless the mother’s life is in danger? E) How does a person’s perception of a political candidate’s personality affect his or her vote choice? Answer: D Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Application

4. Before we can tackle causal questions in political science, we need to be able to A) describe the basic characteristics of American society. B) describe the basic characteristics of American government. C) measure the basic aspects of American government. D) understand how American society is organized. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Understanding 5. A good researcher tries to do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Determine causal relationships B) Realize that real-world issues are extremely complex C) Find the most simplistic solution to a problem D) Find good measures for concepts E) Think about issues on different levels Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Understanding 6. Which of the following could NOT be a potential causal factor that explains the low voter turnout in the United States? A) Voters get tired of voting so often. B) The two-party system doesn’t offer a meaningful choice. C) The quality of candidates running makes voters not care about politics. D) Registration makes it harder to vote. E) Election Day is on a workday. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Analysis 7. What is the definition of a “correlation”? A) Two or more phenomena happen to change at the same time. B) Two or more phenomena change at the same time, suggesting a potential causal relationship. C) Two or more phenomena occur at the same time, suggesting that one is definitely causing the other. D) Two or more phenomena are directly causing each other. E) Two or more phenomena are indirectly causing each other. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding

8. A study has shown that college students who smoke tend to get worse grades than college students who do not smoke. From this we can conclude that A) smoking causes one to perform worse in school. B) getting bad grades causes students to smoke. C) there may be a third variable that causes both the smoking habit and the school performance. D) there is no causal relationship whatsoever. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 9. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for making a causal argument? A) Correlation B) Time order C) Non-spuriousness D) Empirical evidence E) All of the above are necessary. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 10. The textbook’s definition of “government” refers to ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Institutions that create rules B) Institutions that enforce rules C) A specific territory D) A specific type of government E) A specific people Answer: D Reference: LO 1.2, p. 7 Skill: Understanding 11. In the United States, most citizens enter into the social contract A) explicitly, by applying for a driver’s license. B) explicitly, by applying for a passport. C) implicitly, by living in the United States. D) implicitly, by voting in national elections. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 10–12 Skill: Analysis

12. Because everyone can take advantage of so-called public goods without necessarily contributing to them, such goods tend to be A) plentiful. B) replaceable. C) underprovided. D) overprovided. E) cheap. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Analysis 13. Generally speaking, is a capitalist economic system, such as the United States has, conducive to the provision of public goods? A) Yes, because the inherent competition in capitalist systems will lead to public goods of higher quality. B) Yes, because the great demand for public goods will ensure that the market will supply them. C) Yes, because capitalist states also tend to be democratic, and in democracies people care about each other. D) No, because the costs of providing public goods are much higher than the benefits of doing so. E) No, because the demand for public goods is simply not there, and capitalist economies operate based on the laws of supply and demand. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Application 14. The concept of “one person, one vote” illustrates the idea of A) equal opportunity. B) representative democracy. C) political equality. D) direct democracy. E) political unity. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Understanding

15. In a presidential system, the election of the head of government more closely represents a(n) ________ democracy, whereas in a parliamentary system the election of the head of government more closely represents a(n) _________ democracy. A) indirect, direct B) direct, indirect C) consolidated, electoral D) electoral, consolidated E) true, quasi Answer: B Reference: LO 1.3, p. 18 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Sarah Palin’s appeal to the Republican base was due to the fact that she perfectly matched the long-standing type of politicians that most Republicans tended to vote for. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding 2. The 2008 presidential election suggests that during times of economic insecurity voters tend to punish the incumbent party for the economy’s performance. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 3. According to the textbook, what we know about politics is largely defined by how we come by this knowledge. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Analysis 4. From observing that the richer countries around the world are also overwhelmingly democratic, we can conclude that democracy causes wealth to increase. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Application 5. In a truly spurious relationship, the relationship between two correlated phenomena will disappear once we control for the true causes of both. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Analysis

6. In order to make a causal argument, we have to be sure that our variable is the only one that causes the outcome we are trying to explain. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 7. Clearing public roads cannot be considered a public good in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Application 8. Most Americans believe that citizens should have equal opportunities, but Americans do not necessarily expect or desire an equal outcome. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Understanding 9. Since England has a queen, it should be considered an autocracy. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Application 10. In a parliamentary system, the head of government is largely dependent on the legislature. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.3, p. 18 Skill: Analysis Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. John McCain’s initial decision to choose Governor Palin as his running mate A) drew a lot of criticism from Republicans. B) was considered a huge gamble by his advisers, owing to her inexperience. C) was believed to help McCain’s campaign. D) was welcomed by Democrats because they believed she could never win. E) drew a lot of criticism from the conservative base of the party. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding

2. Who would ultimately decide the outcome of the 2008 presidential election, according to the textbook? A) Moderate Republicans B) Moderate Democrats C) Undecided voters D) Male voters E) Young voters Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding 3. Which of the following ultimately contributed to Sarah Palin’s downfall as a vicepresidential candidate? A) The American media B) Late-night comedians C) Her inexperience with foreign policy D) Her handlers’ poor strategy E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding 4. Sarah Palin’s experience during the 2008 presidential election primarily illustrates the power of A) the media. B) female voters. C) male voters. D) the incumbent party. E) party politics. Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 5. Which of the following is a causal question? A) Should Congress adopt term limits? B) Is American foreign policy ethical? C) How important are human rights in foreign policy? D) Do federal judges make fair decisions? E) None of the above are causal questions. Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Application

6. Casual understanding depends on accurate A) prediction. B) description. C) mathematics. D) inquiry. E) guessing. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 7. Understanding the fundamentals of the American political system and of analytical thinking allows you to A) hold political leaders accountable. B) become a better citizen. C) become more involved in politics. D) maximize your personal benefits in the system. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 8. Which of the following is NOT a potential causal factor that explains the president’s approval rating? A) The state of the economy B) Partisanship C) War D) The president’s perceived competence E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 9. Good political-science research A) tries to identify the one factor that causes an outcome. B) looks for the single most important causal variable. C) attempts to explain an issue with a quick sound bite. D) realizes that real-world phenomena are extremely complex. E) identifies only correlations. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Analysis

10. According to the textbook, single-cause explanations often result from ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) A lack of alternative explanations B) Partisan posturing C) A need for quick explanation D) Personal bias E) Sensationalism Answer: A Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 11. When two variables are related in such a way that change in one variable is directly responsible for change in the other variable, this is called A) a spurious relationship. B) causation. C) a correlation. D) a coincidence. E) proof. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 12. When a third, previously unobserved variable causes changes in both variables you had previously thought were causally related, this illustrates A) a causal relationship. B) an intervening variable. C) a spurious relationship. D) a triangular relationship. E) a reciprocal relationship. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 13. Some empirical studies have shown that in countries with high Internet usage people tend to live longer. From this evidence we should conclude that A) the fact that people live longer means they have more time to use the Internet, which explains the higher Internet-usage rates. B) using the Internet makes people live longer. C) there is a causal connection between Internet usage and life expectancy. D) there could be a spurious relationship between the two variables. E) Internet usage has nothing to do with life expectancy. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application

14. What happens in a spurious relationship between variables A and B when you control for alternative variables? A) The relationship between A and B will get stronger. B) The relationship between A and B will become negative. C) The relationship will disappear if it is completely spurious. D) The relationship between A and B will remain the same. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Analysis 15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for arguing that variable 1 causes variable 2? A) The two variables have to be correlated. B) Variable 2 cannot precede variable 1. C) There are no other variables that can potentially also cause variable 2. D) There is no third factor that causes both variables. E) All of the above are necessary conditions. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 16. We know that a person’s income and his or her level of education are correlated. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are potential causal explanations for this? A) More education results in higher income. B) Higher income results in more education. C) A third variable may be causing both. D) Only people who are educated make a lot of money. E) It depends on the context. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 17. If we can establish that variable X happened before variable Q in time, then we can say that A) variable X is the only cause of variable Q. B) variable X is a cause of variable Q. C) variable X is NOT a cause of variable Q. D) variable Q is a cause of variable X. E) We can’t say any of the above for certain. Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Analysis

18. In order to assess a researcher’s findings, you should ask ALL BUT WHICH of the following questions? A) What is the research question? B) Why is it important? C) What were the methods used? D) What are the variables and the proposed relationships? E) What other research has the researcher published? Answer: E Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 9–10 Skill: Understanding 19. ALL BUT WHICH of the following entities have authorities similar to governments, according to the textbook? A) Wealthy individuals B) Corporations C) Churches D) Courts E) Parents Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, p. 10 Skill: Understanding 20. According to the textbook’s definition, what characterizes the alternative to government? A) Anarchy B) Communism C) Socialism D) Tribalism E) Authoritarianism Answer: A Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding 21. In order to be called a democracy, a majority of citizens in a country have to A) be informed about politics. B) participate directly in the political process. C) participate in the political process. D) actively monitor their representatives. E) not participate at all. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding

22. The defining principle in a democracy is A) political participation. B) voter turnout. C) the consent of the governed. D) the approval of government policies by the governed. E) direct participation. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding 23. In a modern democracy, the majority of citizens participate A) directly. B) indirectly. C) not at all. D) through elections only. E) mainly through letter writing. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding 24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life without government, according to Thomas Hobbes? A) Shortness B) Meanness C) Solitariness D) Brutishness E) Nastiness Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 11 Skill: Understanding 25. Thomas Hobbes wrote Leviathan in the context of which war? A) The French and Indian War B) The American War of Independence C) The French Revolution D) The English Civil War E) The War of 1812 Answer: D Reference: LO 1.2, p. 11 Skill: Understanding

26. Thomas Hobbes viewed the social contract primarily as a means for A) self-government. B) self-discovery. C) social justice. D) self-preservation. E) governmental authority. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.2, p. 11 Skill: Understanding 27. The social contract is made by A) citizens with each other. B) citizens and the government. C) federal and local government. D) federal and state government. E) American and foreign governments. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 11 Skill: Understanding 28. Instruments of compulsion include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Laws B) Courts C) Police D) Prisons E) Retaliation Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 11 Skill: Understanding 29. In the United States, the social contract is A) unwritten. B) the Constitution. C) citizenship. D) a social norm. E) the Declaration of Independence. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 11 Skill: Understanding

30. According to the social-contract theory, A) the government grants specific rights to the citizens and retains all others. B) the government retains only those rights it specifically claims for itself. All others revert back to the citizens. C) the government receives only those rights that citizens specifically grant it. D) the government receives those rights that citizens do not specifically retain for themselves. E) the government receives all rights. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 11–12 Skill: Understanding 31. A public good is one that A) is paid for by tax dollars. B) citizens cannot be excluded from using. C) is underprovided. D) is diminished by overuse. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Analysis 32. Which of the following is NOT an example of a public good in the United States? A) Pensions B) Highways C) Public education D) National security E) Clean air Answer: A Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Understanding 33. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are reasons why most nongovernmental organizations do not have an incentive to provide public goods? A) It is almost impossible to exclude non-payers. B) It is expensive. C) People will abuse them. D) They may not have the resources and the ability. E) They do not need public goods. Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Understanding

34. The term “democracy,” derived from ancient Greek, refers to A) the rule of all. B) the rule of many. C) the rule of few. D) the rule of one. E) the rule of none. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Understanding 35. Before the American invasion in 2003, Iraq would have been considered a(n) A) monarchy. B) autocracy. C) quasi democracy. D) oligarchy. E) failed state. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Application 36. In a representative democracy, A) elected officials accurately represent all their voters’ interests. B) elected officials accurately match the general population’s demographics. C) the majority of citizens directly participate in the political process. D) elected officials have the consent of the people. E) important decisions are made by all citizens. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Understanding 37. When California citizens successfully launched and passed an initiative that reduced property taxes by 57 percent, this was an example of A) a public referendum. B) direct democracy. C) indirect democracy. D) representative democracy. E) federalism. Answer: B Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Application

38. Political equality implies all but which of the following? A) Every citizen in the United States has the right to vote. B) All votes count equally. C) All Americans have the right to participate in politics at all levels. D) All Americans have equal access to politics. E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 1.2, p. 16 Skill: Understanding 39. Americans all have the same ________ to participate in politics. A) right B) opportunity C) willingness D) ability E) desire Answer: A Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Understanding 40. Plurality rule means that in order to win one has to garner A) unanimity. B) three-quarters of the vote. C) at least two-thirds of the vote. D) at least 50 percent of the vote. E) more votes than one’s opponent. Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Understanding 41. Specific minority rights in the United States are granted in A) federal law. B) state law. C) federal and state constitutions. D) federal and state court decisions. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Understanding

42. If in the same election citizen M casts her ballot for a Republican candidate for president and a Democratic candidate for Senate, this is called A) disloyal voting. B) preferential voting. C) split-ticket voting. D) strategic voting. E) Citizen M has to vote for the same party. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.2, p. 18 Skill: Application 43. If in a parliamentary system the head of government is voted into (or out of) office by the legislature, then we can assume that A) the head of government is dependent for his or her political survival on the legislature. B) the head of government will usually be chosen by the majority party or a majority coalition in the legislature. C) there is less of a separation of powers between the legislature and the executive than in other systems. D) the government can theoretically fall at any time, if the legislature loses trust in it. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 1.3, p. 18 Skill: Analysis 44. Which of the following can we NOT typically assume of a parliamentary system? A) The head of government has less independent power than in a presidential system. B) The head of government represents the majority party. C) People feel less close to the head of government. D) The government is potentially unstable because it depends on the consent of the legislature that elects it. E) We can conclude all of the above. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.3, p. 18 Skill: Analysis

45. The United States is considered to have a federal system owing to the fact that A) it is a representative democracy. B) each state has equal representation in the U.S. Senate. C) the president is elected by an electoral college. D) it contains national and state governments. E) power is centralized within the federal government. Answer: D Reference: LO 1.3, p. 18 Skill: Understanding 46. In which system would you expect the head of government to be more accountable to the citizens? A) In a parliamentary system B) In a presidential system C) Equally in a parliamentary and a presidential system D) Neither in a parliamentary nor a presidential system E) Only in some parliamentary systems Answer: B Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 18–19 Skill: Analysis 47. Which of the following is mentioned in the textbook as a primary component of American political culture? A) Individualism B) Capitalism C) Socialism D) Welfare E) Diversity Answer: A Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Understanding 48. Political culture could be thought of as a ______ through which to view American politics. A) magnifying glass B) lens C) kaleidoscope D) window E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 19 Skill: Understanding

49. Americans believe in the concepts associated with the American creed A) both in the abstract and in specific cases. B) less in the abstract than in specific cases. C) less in specific cases than in the abstract. D) There is not much agreement in either the abstract or in specific cases. E) no matter what. Answer: C Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Understanding 50. American political culture is sometimes referred to as A) the American creed. B) the American mission. C) the American manifest. D) the American destiny. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. One of the main reasons Sarah Palin appealed to Republicans was that she acted like a seasoned politician. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding 2. It could be argued that in Sarah Palin John McCain picked a running mate who overcame his weaknesses among Republican Party members. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 3. The failure of the McCain-Palin ticket can most likely be attributed to Sarah Palin’s low approval ratings. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding

4. Voters were equally critical of both parties during the 2008 presidential election, blaming both for the global financial crisis. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 5. Based on what you have learned about the 2008 presidential election, voters will be likely to still blame the Bush administration for the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan in 2012. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Application 6. “Should the United States continue to give foreign aid to developing countries?” is an example of a causal question. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 7. In a truly spurious relationship, the relationship between two correlated phenomena will disappear once we control for the true causes of both. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Analysis 8. In order to make a causal argument, we have to be sure that our variable is the only one that causes the outcome we are trying to explain. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 9. In order to determine a causal relationship between two or more phenomena, we need to establish time order and rule out alternative variables. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 10. In order to assess a researcher’s findings, you need to be aware of the questions asked and the methods used. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 8–9 Skill: Understanding

11. The United States has only one government. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding 12. The textbook defines “government” as the political institutions that create and enforce rules and the people who are ruled by these institutions. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Understanding 13. Thomas Hobbes’s most influential work was entitled Social Contract Theory. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 11–12 Skill: Understanding 14. According to Thomas Hobbes, without a social contract there would be “war of all against all.” Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 11–12 Skill: Understanding 15. National security can be considered a public good in the United States. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Understanding 16. Having roads that are in good condition is an example of a public good. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Understanding 17. Politics starts once an issue makes it to the governmental agenda. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 15 Skill: Understanding 18. Without politics, issues would be more likely to be settled violently. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 15 Skill: Understanding

19. The term “democracy” is derived from ancient Greek and means the “rule of many.” Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Understanding 20. With regard to the accountability of leaders, democracies and autocracies can be considered opposing ends of the spectrum. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Understanding 21. The U.S. federal government is an example of a direct democracy. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Understanding 22. A parliamentary system is likely to decrease the accountability of the head of government to the people, as well as the stability of the government. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 18–19 Skill: Analysis 23. By definition, a parliamentary system has a weaker system of checks and balances than a presidential system. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 18–19 Skill: Analysis 24. American political culture is also referred to as the American creed. Answer: True Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Understanding 25. American political culture is a good indicator of what kinds of policies are likely to be adopted in the United States, because it illustrates what is possible. Answer: False Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Understanding

Short-Answer Questions 1. After the 2008 presidential election, some politicians and members of the media blamed the selection of governor Sarah Palin for the defeat of the Republican presidential ticket. According to the textbook, what speaks for and what speaks against this assessment? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Understanding 2. What are two of the lessons that may be drawn from Sarah Palin’s experience in running for vice-president? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 2–3 Skill: Analysis 3. Please provide a definition of a so-called spurious relationship and provide one example of such a relationship that is not mentioned in the textbook. Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Application 4. In order to be able to determine a potential causal relationship between two or more phenomena, what three conditions have to present? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 5. Which of the following criteria would you consider most important in evaluating political-science research: applicability, importance, or testability? Why? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 8–9 Skill: Evaluation 6. The textbook states that one distinct characteristic of a government is that it can make people do things they might not otherwise do. In your opinion, what are areas in which the government should be able to do this, and what are areas in which this principle should not apply? Why? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 9–11 Skill: Evaluation 7. Please explain the basic aspects of the so-called social-contract theory. Whose writings is this idea based on? Who enters into this contract, and what are the rights and responsibilities associated with it? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 10–12 Skill: Understanding

8. How does a citizen enter into the social contract with the government? In other words, how would you say someone actually expresses his or her agreement with this principle? What are someone’s options if she does not wish to be part of the social contract? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 10–12 Skill: Application 9. The incentives for providing public goods tend to be very few. Why is this? What are ways in which new incentives could be introduced to ensure greater provision of public goods? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Application 10. The textbook states that politics is about influencing the working of government. Please outline three distinct ways in which citizens—either individually or collectively—can attempt to do so and how successful you believe these approaches are. Reference: LO 1.2, p. 15 Skill: Application 11. What is a plurality vote? In your opinion, how democratic is a plurality vote? Why or why not? Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Evaluation 12. What would you consider two advantages and two disadvantages of a direct democracy? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Analysis 13. Please name and briefly explain the three principles American democracy is based on. Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Understanding 14. What would you say are the advantages and disadvantages of a presidential as opposed to a parliamentary system? Try to give at least two pros and two cons. Also try to think of different categories for your evaluation (e.g., effectiveness, representativeness, etc.). Reference: LO 1.3, pgs. 16–18 Skill: Analysis 15. The textbook points out that political culture is never harmonious and that some values and ideas clash with each other. Briefly describe one such clash that you currently perceive in American society. In addition, try to explain what might cause those diverging opinions. Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Application 24 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Essay Questions 1. The textbook points out that finding answers to causal questions is the main concern of political scientists. What is the reasoning behind this? In other words, what do you think is the purpose of the field of political science as a whole? What should it be, in your opinion? Is there room in political science for nonscientific questions, such as those concerned with morals and ethics, or should those be relegated to the field of philosophy? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Evaluation 2. Why do politicians and journalists tend to seek simplistic answers to issues? And how does this potentially affect American citizens with regard to their political beliefs, their voting behavior, or their attitudes toward government? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Analysis 3. Some research shows that countries in which people eat more fat as part of their diets also show higher rates of certain types of cancer. One might conclude that there is a causal relationship between the two phenomena. However, what are two potential causal relationships that could also account for this result? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–5 Skill: Application 4. It seems to be human nature to ask causal questions such as, Why did this happen? What differentiates political science from the layman theorizing about cause and effect? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 3–7 Skill: Analysis 5. What should you be paying attention to in order to assess the correctness and/or usefulness of political research? In other words, how would you know that the researchers got it right? Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 5–7 Skill: Understanding 6. The social-contract theory is based on the assumption that people willingly give up certain natural rights in order to gain protection and public goods from governments. Not much is mentioned, however, regarding the ways in which citizens give up those rights. In your opinion, what are the modern processes by which one gives his or her consent to be governed? And how do noncitizens (legal or illegal) fit into this? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 10–12 Skill: Analysis

7. Based on what you have learned, what would you say is the relationship between capitalism and the provision of public goods? Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Application 8. The text makes the point that there is little incentive to provide public goods. One example of such a public good is clean air. Based on what you know about the difficulties associated with the provision of public goods, what strategy would you develop to increase the incentives of individuals and organizations to contribute to cleaner air? Please be sure to include a definition of “public goods” in your answer. Focus primarily on problems inherent to all public goods and merely use clean air as an example. Reference: LO 1.1, pgs. 13–14 Skill: Application 9. Briefly explain the basic principles of democracy in the United States. Based on what you know, assess the status of each of these principles in modern-day America. How universally accepted and applied are these principles? What are examples that might illustrate potential difficulties with these principles? Be as specific as possible in your answer. Reference: LO 1.2, pgs. 16–17 Skill: Application 10. The concept of political culture is—by definition—constantly changing. Please assess the brand of political culture you believe characterizes your generation. In particular, point out similarities and differences to the values mentioned in the textbook. Reference: LO 1.3, p. 19 Skill: Application

Chapter Two Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following makes Americans American, according to the textbook? A) A shared ethnic heritage B) A long shared history C) A shared religion D) A shared ideology E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 25–26 Skill: Understanding 2. Political culture PRIMARILY refers to A) concrete beliefs and values. B) general beliefs and values. C) beliefs and values shared by all Americans. D) commonly practiced norms. E) unifying symbols and traditions. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 25–26 Skill: Understanding 3. The number of competing political cultures in a country is related to A) the level of diversity. B) the number of immigrants. C) the state of the economy. D) the number of political parties. E) It would be wrong to assume any of the above. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 27–28 Skill: Analysis

4. Given what you have learned, ALL BUT WHICH of the following aspects of the American creed explains many Americans’ reluctance to accept public health care? A) An emphasis on individualism B) An emphasis on equality C) The belief in self-reliance D) The belief in liberty and self-determination E) The lack of belief in welfare Answer: E Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 27–29 Skill: Application 5. The central value of the American creed is A) equality. B) justice. C) property. D) individualism. E) faith. Answer: A Reference: LO 2.1, p. 30 Skill: Understanding 6. Based on their political culture, most Americans are likely to consider unemployment a problem of A) government failure. B) market failure. C) personal responsibility. D) social circumstances. E) social injustice. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.1, p. 31–33 Skill: Analysis 7. The American ideal of democracy includes ALL BUT WHICH of the following criteria? A) The will of the people B) The consent of the governed C) The approval of all governed D) Equal opportunity to influence government E) Equal treatment under the law Answer: C Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33–34 Skill: Understanding

8. Which of the following examples of international law can be said to most closely resemble the notion of natural rights inherent in American political culture? A) The Kyoto Protocol on greenhouse emissions B) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights C) The Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty D) The Peace of Westphalia, which established state sovereignty E) International trade law Answer: B Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Application 9. Property rights in America most correspond with which element of the political culture? A) Equality under the law B) Equal opportunity C) Individualism D) Democracy E) Self-reliance Answer: C Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 36–38 Skill: Application 10. What accounts for the strong dedication to limited government in the United States compared to other industrialized countries? A) American political culture B) The lack of powerful parties in the nineteenth century C) America’s unique historical experience D) The lack of powerful labor unions E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 42–43 Skill: Application 11. The textbook example of the poor high-school student who is qualified for admission to a prestigious university but cannot afford to attend illustrates the conflict between which two beliefs of the American creed? A) Individualism and equality B) Individualism and property rights C) Property rights and equal treatment under the law D) Equality and equal opportunity E) Equality and property rights Answer: B Reference: LO 2.4, p. 48 Skill: Understanding

12. Based on what you have learned, where or among whom would you NOT expect to find tensions concerning the balance between different values included in the American creed? A) Between the young and old B) Between the rich and poor C) Between different regions D) Between different ideologies E) Between immigrants and nonimmigrants Answer: E Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 48–49 Skill: Analysis 13. Which belief best matches JFK’s famous quotation, “Ask not what your country can do for you, but what you can do for your country”? A) Traditionalism B) Individualism C) Communitarianism D) Libertarianism E) Capitalism Answer: C Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–52 Skill: Application 14. Which of the following elements of the American creed might explain the lack of national health care in the United States? A) Individualism B) Property C) Liberty D) All of the above E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 54–57 Skill: Understanding 15. When groups try to maintain their own unique culture in a multicultural society, this is often called A) multicultural politics. B) cultural politics. C) identity politics. D) segregation. E) discrimination. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.4, p. 60 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. Most people are not even consciously aware of the impact of political culture on their daily lives. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.1, p. 26 Skill: Understanding 2. Immigrants typically have a different interpretation of political culture than Americanborn citizens do. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 28–29 Skill: Understanding 3. Current or former welfare recipients are just as likely to place responsibility for success in life on the individual rather than society or the government as the rest of America is. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 30–31 Skill: Understanding 4. Most industrialized democratic countries exhibit the same belief in individualism found in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.2, p. 32 Skill: Understanding 5. A majority of Americans believe that one important reason for income inequality is that some people simply choose low-paying jobs. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Analysis (Table 2-3) 6. Because of the importance of religious freedom, governments—especially local and state governments—in the United States have always taken care not to openly favor one religion over another. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.2, p. 38 Skill: Understanding

7. The only program a majority of Americans were in favor of cutting spending for during the last fifteen years was the military. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.3, p. 43 Skill: Analysis (Figure 2-3) 8. There tend to be a great deal of regional differences in the American creed. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.4, p. 48–49 Skill: Understanding 9. Having government unemployment programs represents an aspect of individualism in the American creed. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.4, p. 53 Skill: Understanding 10. Young women in the United States are among those who are least likely to have health insurance. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.4, p. 54–57 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What was John F. Kennedy’s main message in his famous speech before Protestant ministers in September of 1960? A) His religion makes him a better politician. B) It is unfair to judge him based on religion. C) Catholicism is superior to Protestantism. D) His religion does not define him as a politician. E) His religion is no one’s business. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 24–25 Skill: Understanding

2. On the campaign trail, presidential candidates typically A) try to redefine the American way of life. B) question the American way of life. C) condemn the American way of life. D) completely steer clear of comments about the American way of life. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 24–25 Skill: Understanding 3. Political culture is often closely entwined with A) politics. B) national identity. C) personal identity. D) public opinion. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 25–26 Skill: Analysis 4. Which of the following is NOT an example of political culture as defined by the textbook? A) Belief in a democratic form of government B) Support of the rights of the individual C) Respect and tolerance for others D) Disillusionment with the economy E) Respect for personal property Answer: D Reference: LO 2.1, p. 27 Skill: Application 5. Which of the following statements is an example of current American political culture? A) The government should pay for public health care. B) All children are entitled to good grades in school. C) Everyone deserves to have the same. D) All Americans deserve the same opportunities. E) Everyone should pay taxes. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.1, p. 27 Skill: Application

6. Which of the following is true? A) The level of demographic diversity in America has led to sharply competing sets of political values. B) The level of economic diversity in America has led to sharply competing sets of political values. C) The political values of American-born citizens and immigrants tend to differ sharply. D) As minorities are slowly becoming majorities, political culture will inevitably change. E) Despite its great diversity, America does not have a large number of competing political cultures. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 27–28 Skill: Understanding 7. The development of political culture in a country depends on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The mass media B) Relative social and economic homogeneity C) Agreement on public policy D) A common enemy that unites people E) A lack of social conflict Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 27–30 Skill: Analysis 8. One of the main divisions in terms of political culture in many European countries is between _________ and _________. A) communists, socialists B) democrats, socialists C) socialists, capitalists D) democrats, republicans E) capitalists, communists Answer: C Reference: LO 2.1, p. 28 Skill: Understanding

9. The main reason why the American population has become more varied over time is probably A) changing political ideologies. B) changing political culture. C) immigration. D) secularization. E) economic crises. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 28–30 Skill: Analysis 10. ALL BUT WHICH of the following explains why there is no socialism in the United States? A) Voting rights spread early to white men. B) The political system was more open to the working class than in other countries. C) The United States was relatively prosperous. D) The United States did not experience the same class relations as European countries did. E) Early experiences with socialist Europe left Americans disillusioned about socialism. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, p. 30 Skill: Understanding 11. The definition of equality as part of the American creed includes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Equal treatment under the law B) Equal resources to succeed C) Equal opportunity D) Equal ability to influence government E) Equal rights to be heard Answer: B Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 30–31 Skill: Understanding 12. When asked, most Americans place the blame for not succeeding in life on A) the American educational system. B) the government. C) the individual. D) the society. E) parenting. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.1, p. 31 Skill: Understanding

13. The belief that anyone should be able to choose his or her own path in life is an expression of which American political value? A) Equality B) Democracy C) Patriotism D) Individualism E) Tolerance Answer: D Reference: LO 2.1, p. 31 Skill: Understanding 14. ALL BUT WHICH of the following can you infer about Americans’ beliefs about income inequality, based on what you have learned about the American creed? A) Americans are unique in preferring equality of opportunity to equality of outcome. B) Fewer than one in three Americans believes the government should reduce income inequality. C) Americans are more likely to blame the individual rather than the circumstances for income inequality. D) Most Americans consider income inequality a problem. E) Most Americans do not see anything wrong with the distribution of income in this country. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 30–33 Skill: Application 15. Based on what you have learned about the different political cultures of Europe and the United States, which of the following explains why so many more Europeans consider it the government’s responsibility to reduce income inequality? A) The greater number of poor people in Europe B) Europe’s experience with class struggle C) Europe’s extended experience of poverty D) Europe’s lack of advancement opportunities for the working class E) The development of socialism in Europe Answer: A Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 32 Skill: Application

16. Which of the following is an example of direct political participation? A) Protesting B) Lobbying C) Initiatives D) Voting E) Referenda Answer: C Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Understanding 17. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about American democracy? A) Americans can exercise democratic rule directly and indirectly. B) All segments of American society participate equally in democracy. C) Americans partake of democratic means more than citizens in other countries. D) American democracy is not perfect. E) Americans have a variety of means for participating in democracy. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Understanding 18. A political system in which the power exercised by public officials is always an extension of the public will is a system that is based on A) power sharing. B) direct democracy. C) consent. D) public approval. E) opportunism. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Understanding 19. Which of the following generally ensures that the government follows the will of the people? A) Opinion polls B) Lobbying C) Interest groups D) Elections E) Initiatives Answer: D Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Understanding

20. Imagine that 55 percent of Americans were opposed to the war in Iraq but the government decided to invade the country anyway. Does this violate the principle of consent? A) Yes, the government is required to listen to the public in making such an important decision. B) Yes, the people have the final say over issues of war. C) No, the government knows better than the people. D) No, the American people gave their consent when they elected the government. E) No, it doesn’t matter what the people think. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 33–34 Skill: Application 21. The notion of liberty in America is closely linked to A) sovereign rights. B) legal rights. C) individual rights. D) natural rights. E) collective rights. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Understanding 22. Which of the following is NOT a natural right of Americans? A) The right to freedom of speech B) The right to associate in groups C) The right to compete equality D) The right to practice religion E) All of the above are natural rights. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 35–36 Skill: Understanding 23. Which of the following is NOT an instance in which the government can restrict freedom of speech? A) If the speech is overtly racist in nature B) If the speech concerns national security C) If the speech is slanderous and libelous D) If the speech involves marching and demonstrating without a permit E) The government can restrict speech whenever it wants. Answer: A Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Understanding

24. According to the textbook, the importance of freedom of religious expression in American political culture can be traced back to A) Colonial times. B) the War of Independence. C) the Spanish-American War. D) the movement for civil rights. E) World War I. Answer: A Reference: LO 2.2, p. 38 Skill: Understanding 25. Concerning religious tolerance, which of the following is true? A) The ideal of religious tolerance and the practice of religious tolerance have always gone hand in hand in the United States. B) The ideal preceded the practice. C) The practice preceded the ideal. D) There is still no religious tolerance. E) There is religious tolerance in practice but no legal basis for it. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Understanding 26. Compared to other industrialized democratic countries, the degree of religiosity among Americans is A) unusually low. B) somewhat lower than the average. C) about the same. D) somewhat higher than the average. E) unusually high. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38 Skill: Understanding 27. The groups who were traditionally excluded from taking advantage of the American creed A) probably had never heard of the creed. B) never believed in the creed. C) became disillusioned and lost their belief in the creed. D) still continued to believe in the creed. E) It depends on the group. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 39–40 Skill: Understanding

28. Which of the following is the last arena Americans tend to rely on for solving problems? A) The family B) Churches C) The government D) Nonprofit organizations E) The marketplace Answer: C Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 41–43 Skill: Understanding 29. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an example of expansive government (as opposed to limited government)? A) Obama’s 2010 health-care-reform proposal B) The government bailouts during the financial crisis C) The Obama administration’s mortgage-relief acts during the financial crisis D) The expansion of limits on freedom of speech E) The reduction of Social Security coverage Answer: E Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 42–43 Skill: Application 30. A majority of Americans support spending cuts for A) the military. B) public schools. C) health care. D) environmental protection. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 2.3, p. 43 Skill: Analysis (Table 2-3) 31. Which of the following DOES NOT explain why Americans tend to trust the government less now than they used to? A) The American media tends to overemphasize negative political news, causing Americans’ perceptions of politics to be overly negative. B) Politicians used to be more trustworthy than they are now. C) The increasing polarization of politics has produced more conflict, which has caused citizens to be suspicious of politicians. D) Americans do not feel that the government has done enough to address economic concerns. E) Americans are less trusting in general today. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 43–45 Skill: Understanding

32. Having sovereign power equates to being A) the most respected authority. B) the best-liked authority. C) the highest authority. D) the most knowledgeable authority. E) the only authority. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.3, p. 45 Skill: Understanding 33. In a high-school setting, who is most likely to have the sovereign power? A) The teacher B) The students C) Student government D) Parents E) The principal Answer: E Reference: LO 2.3, p. 45 Skill: Application 34. What is the most likely explanation for why it is acceptable for politicians to appeal to the middle class but no other? A) Members of the middle class are more tolerant. B) Members of the middle class are more forgiving. C) Members of the middle class do not have as much political influence. D) Most Americans consider themselves members of the middle class. E) The middle class is most respected by all Americans. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.3, p. 46 Skill: Analysis 35. Socialist parties A) have never existed in the United States. B) have never had any success in the United States. C) had some success nationwide in the early-twentieth century. D) had some success in certain states in the early-twentieth century. E) had some success in industrial cities in the early-twentieth century. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.3, p. 47 Skill: Understanding

36. Much of the current debate on the redrawing of district lines is derived from which famous Supreme Court principle? A) Primus inter pares. B) One person, one vote. C) Equality for all. D) Equal representation. E) No taxation without representation. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.3, p. 49 Skill: Understanding 37. If District A has 30,000 potential voters and District B has 150,000 potential voters, then A) District B would get to elect five times as many representatives. B) District B would be five times more powerful than District A. C) District B would have more weight in Congress. D) the vote of a citizen of District B would be worth only one-fifth of a citizen in District A. E) the above would be an example of gerrymandering. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.3, p. 49 Skill: Analysis 38. The way district lines are currently redrawn typically benefits A) the voters. B) the incumbent party. C) the opposition party. D) the government. E) special-interest groups. Answer: B Reference: LO 2.3, p. 50 Skill: Understanding 39. The process by which incumbent parties redraw district lines in order to maximize seats for the party is known as A) redistribution. B) strategic redistribution. C) logrolling. D) gerrymandering. E) cheating. Answer: D Reference: LO 2.3, p. 50 Skill: Understanding

40. Communitarianism most closely corresponds with which other view? A) The traditionalist culture B) The moralist culture C) The individualist culture D) The communist culture E) The capitalist culture Answer: B Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–52 Skill: Application 41. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of communitarianism? A) The acceptance of a potential loss of civil liberties B) The heavy emphasis on collective over individual needs C) The reciprocity between the individual and society D) Communal property ownership E) The interdependence of individuals Answer: D Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–52 Skill: Understanding 42. Social security programs can be considered most in line with ___________ thinking. A) capitalist B) long-term C) democratic D) communitarian E) communist Answer: D Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–52 Skill: Application 43. Which of the following is NOT true about health care in America? A) Health care is worse than in most other industrialized countries. B) The United States devotes a much larger share of its economy to health-care expenditures. C) Private health care is much more common than in other industrialized countries. D) American governments (national and state) spend substantial amounts of money on health care. E) All of the above are true. Answer: A Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 54–57 Skill: Understanding

44. One of the strongest rallying cries of opponents of the president’s health-care agenda during the summer of 2009 was that the plan A) went against the grain of American political culture. B) was unfair to women and minority groups. C) violated the Constitution. D) was not thought-out. E) was undemocratic. Answer: A Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 54–57 Skill: Understanding 45. For much of America’s history, discrimination was pervasive among ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Minority leaders B) Political leaders C) Educational leaders D) Business leaders E) Intellectual leaders Answer: A Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 58–59 Skill: Understanding 46. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of multiculturalism? A) Group identity influences political beliefs. B) Groups are naturally diverse. C) Tensions between groups are inevitable. D) A shared dominant political culture is impossible. E) Political culture is imposed by the strongest group. Answer: C Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 59–61 Skill: Understanding 47. Multiculturalism applies to ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Gender groups B) Social classes C) Racial groups D) Ethnic groups E) Religious groups Answer: E Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 59–61 Skill: Understanding

48. Which of the following is NOT an element of libertarianism? A) The importance of individual choice and responsibility B) The importance of the free market C) The importance of the private sector D) The importance of government responsibility E) Individual property rights Answer: D Reference: LO 2.4, p. 62 Skill: Understanding 49. The libertarian view on the role of government corresponds most closely with the _________ view. A) moralistic B) traditionalist C) individualist D) communitarian E) socialist Answer: B Reference: LO 2.4, p. 62 Skill: Application 50. Most Americans A) have a very clear-cut preference for one type of belief. B) subscribe to individualist beliefs. C) believe in communitarian values. D) subscribe to multiculturalism. E) hold many different beliefs, sometimes contradictory ones. Answer: E Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 62–63 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. A controversy over values and beliefs can aid a presidential candidate’s campaign. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 24–25 Skill: Understanding 2. A widely shared political culture suggests a great deal of agreement and heterogeneity among American citizens. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 25–29 Skill: Understanding

3. American political culture does not necessarily reflect political realities. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.1, p. 27 Skill: Understanding 4. As diversity continues to increase in America, it is more likely that competing definitions of political culture will develop. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.1, p. 28 Skill: Understanding 5. The textbook implies that a struggling working class might be a necessary condition for socialism to take hold. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.1, p. 30 Skill: Understanding 6. The fact that voting rights were extended relatively early to white men in America helped with the development of socialism in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.1, p. 30 Skill: Understanding 7. Most Americans do NOT believe that the government should create greater equality of income among its citizens. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 32 Skill: Understanding 8. On average, Europeans are much more likely to believe that reducing income inequality is a task that should be tackled by the government than Americans are. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 32 Skill: Understanding 9. The fact that many Americans tend to attribute income inequality to personal factors such as work ethic is an example of the emphasis on individualism in the American creed. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Analysis (Table 2-3)

10. Most Americans tend to associate income inequality with personal choices rather than natural differences between people’s abilities. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 33 Skill: Analysis (Table 2-3) 11. For Americans, the definition of “liberty” is very closely tied to their perceived natural rights. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Understanding 12. Government can neither grant nor restrict citizens’ natural rights. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Understanding 13. Unlike Americans, citizens of Scandinavia tend to believe that in order to be fully free the government needs to provide citizens with the tools—such as health care, education, etc.—to fully utilize their freedom. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 35–36 Skill: Understanding 14. A small majority of Americans believes that politicians express their religious faith too much. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Understanding 15. The United States is very comparable to other wealthy democracies in terms of its level of religiosity. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Understanding 16. The number of Americans who hold neutral beliefs about whether a woman’s place is in the home has decreased by more than 100 percent since 1972. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 41 Skill: Analysis (Figure 2-2)

17. From the statistics presented in the textbook, we can conclude that Americans today tend to be more supportive of women in the workforce than they used to be. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.2, p. 41 Skill: Analysis (Figure 2-2) 18. Most other industrialized democratic nations believe in limited government as much as Americans do. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.3, p. 42 Skill: Understanding 19. The traditionalist subculture in the United States encourages increased political participation among citizens. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.4, p. 49 Skill: Understanding 20. Legislative district lines are typically redrawn on the basis of population size and demographics. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.3, p. 49 Skill: Understanding 21. Gerrymandering refers to public officials helping each other pass their proposed laws. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.3, p. 50 Skill: Understanding 22. The communitarian view tends to downplay the needs and rights of the individual. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–53 Skill: Understanding 23. Compared to countries with universal health care, Americans, on average, tend to receive lower-quality care. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 54–47 Skill: Understanding

24. Universal health care has the potential to produce lower-quality care owing to the lack of competition among providers. Answer: True Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 54–47 Skill: Analysis 25. Multiculturalism approves of affirmative action as a way to level the playing field. Answer: False Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 59–62 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. What are two arguments that stress the importance for American political culture of speaking English? What are two arguments against the speaking of English? Reference: LO 2.1, p. 28 Skill: Analysis 2. How do Americans’ abstract beliefs in the American creed compare to the reality of practicing these beliefs in specific circumstances? Provide examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 30–40 Skill: Application 3. According to the textbook, what is the general public perception of the causes of income inequality in the United States? How might you be able to explain these perceptions by linking them to the values contained in American political culture in general? Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 32–33 Skill: Analysis 4. An important component of democracy is that the government listens to the will of the people. Can you think of current examples that illustrate both the advantages and disadvantages of listening to the will of the people? Reference: LO 2.1, p. 32–33 Skill: Application 5. Given what you have learned about the freedom to acquire and use property, how do you reconcile that natural right with the obligation to pay sales taxes, property taxes, and other taxes? Provide logical arguments and SUPPORT them. Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. 37–39 Skill: Analysis

6. Briefly describe the role religion plays in American politics. Provide one example from current domestic politics and one from current international politics that illustrate the interconnectedness of religion and politics. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Application 7. Do you believe it is a contradiction that the majority of Americans believes in freedom of religion and that the government should not have a preferred religion but also wants the president to have strong religious values? Why or why not? Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Evaluation 8. In terms of the religious beliefs of its citizens, the United States is more comparable to less-developed countries than to other industrialized democratic nations. What do you believe accounts for this discrepancy? Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Analysis 9. How would you assess the perceptions of Americans with regard to the role of women in society? Have they reached full equality, or are there areas in which women are still viewed differently? Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 39–41 Skill: Evaluation 10. One of the consequences of the American creed is that most Americans prefer limited government. What are two areas in which you would like to see more government intervention? What kind of intervention would you approve of? And how do you think the rest of the country would feel about your suggestions? Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 42–43 Skill: Application 11. How would you explain the fact that while most Americans believe in a limited role for government and have doubts about the efficiency and effectiveness of the government, a majority does not favor budget cuts for government programs? Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 42–43 Skill: Analysis 12. Please choose one issue or idea that is considered a taboo in American political culture but that—in your opinion—needs to be talked about more often. Why do you think this issue or idea is currently not addressed, and how likely is this to change? Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 45–47 Skill: Application

13. Alexis de Tocqueville once said that Americans engage in “self-interest rightly understood.” Please provide one scenario in which the pursuit of self-interest is not only acceptable but beneficial for society as a whole. Provide another scenario in which selfinterest is detrimental to society as a whole, and address whether or not it should be considered unacceptable as a result. Reference: LO 2.3, p. 47 Skill: Application 14. The textbook mentions the tensions within the American creed. Please address what the two prominent sources of tension are in current American politics and/or society. How— if at all—do you expect these tensions will be resolved? Reference: LO 2.3, pgs. 48–49 Skill: Application 15. What are the basic assumptions of communitarianism? In what ways—and to what degree, if at all—do they differ from the current version of the American creed? In your personal opinion, which assumptions are preferable and why? Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 51–53 Skill: Evaluation 16. What is your assessment of the occurrence of discrimination in the United States these days? To what degree does discrimination still exist? Which groups are particularly affected and in what concrete ways? How would you suggest that Americans overcome this problem? Reference: LO 2.4, pgs. 58–59 Skill: Application 17. How does the United States compare with other countries on the question of equal opportunities versus equal outcomes? Which do you believe to be the better approach from a democratic perspective, from a humanistic perspective, and from an economic perspective? Reference: LO 2.1, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation Essay Questions 1. The textbook suggests that American political values are often expressed—and thus reinforced—through popular culture. Please choose one of your favorite songs, and explain what elements of the American creed it speaks to and how it does so. Reference: LO 2.1, p. 29 Skill: Application

2. The textbook argues that one of the reasons there is no socialism in the United States has to do with the fact that Americans have never experienced class struggles. At the same time, the authors point out that Americans are often concerned that politicians will pass policies that help one class at the expense of another. How do you reconcile these two opposing views? How would you describe the current relationship between the different social classes in the United States? Provide examples and support your arguments. Reference: LO 2.2, p. 30 Skill: Analysis 3. What does equality mean in the context of the American creed, and what does the term not entail? In your opinion, what is one example of a lack of equality in 21st-century America, and how would you solve this problem? Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 30–31 Skill: Application 4. In 2010, a federal judge ruled that Hispanic citizens are entitled to six votes each in a local New York village election in order to boost the representation of Hispanics among the village’s trustee board. Based on what you have learned about the American creed and the four principles of democracy, how would you evaluate this decision? Support your opinion. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 30–31 Skill: Application 5. How democratic is American democracy? In your answer, be sure to address all the elements of a democracy outlined in the book. Be specific in your assessment, and support your arguments with examples. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 33–34 Skill: Analysis 6. The Declaration of Independence states that among Americans’ inalienable rights are “life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.” These are among the natural rights of all human beings. If that is so, then how can the government justify imprisoning people (i.e., taking away their liberty) or sentencing them to death (i.e., denying them the right to live)? In your answer, please refer to the explanations given in the textbook as well as your own analysis. Reference: LO 2.2, p. 35 Skill: Evaluation 7. In your opinion, does having the phrase “In God We Trust” on American banknotes and swearing government officials in on the Bible violate freedom of religion? Why or why not? Be sure to include in your answer the appropriate definition(s) of freedom of religion as outlined in the textbook. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Evaluation 52 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. What role do you believe religion plays in contemporary U.S. politics? In your answer, address institutional, cultural, and political considerations both during election years and in general. Be specific in your answer and use examples to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 38–39 Skill: Analysis 9. The textbook points out that equality for women has improved significantly during the 20th and the early-21st centuries. Are there any areas in which women are still at a disadvantage in American society? If so, what are they? If not, explain why you believe the current situation is fine the way it is. Reference: LO 2.2, pgs. 39–41 Skill: Application 10. Based on what you know about the forces of globalization, in what ways does it challenge all or parts of the American creed? Please be specific in your answer, taking into consideration cause-effect relationships. In particular, would you expect an increase in individualism or communitarianism? Why? Reference: LO 2.4, entire chapter Skill: Application 11. In 2008, Congress passed a $700 billion bailout plan to help stabilize the U.S. economy. How, if at all, is an action like this reconcilable with the American creed? Reference: LO 2.1, entire chapter Skill: Application 12. It is no secret that Hollywood often tackles political issues in movies and documentaries and that celebrities support political candidates and/or issues. In many ways, such productions also shape American values and ideas. To what degree, if at all, do you believe average Americans are influenced in their political beliefs by Hollywood? In addition, do you think Hollywood should be involved in politics? Why? Reference: LO 2.1, entire chapter Skill: Application 13. Which elements (and interpretations) of the American creed do Democrats and Republicans typically appeal to? How? What do they agree on, and where do they differ? Reference: LO 2.1, pgs. Entire chapter Skill: Application

14. In 2010, an Australian journalist founded a Web site called Wikileaks and used it to leak top-secret U.S. documents pertaining to the war in Afghanistan. Given what you have learned about individual liberties (such as freedom of speech) and government control, how do you assess this incident? What would have been an appropriate government response? And what about the fact that the journalist was not a U.S. citizen? Reference: LO 2.3, entire chapter Skill: Application

Chapter Three Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. In emergencies, the 1978 Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) allows the government to A) expedite the process of getting a warrant. B) completely disregard the need for a warrant. C) begin surveillance without a warrant but only for three days. D) begin surveillance as long as it’s done in secret. E) There is no emergency provision in the act. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 68–69 Skill: Understanding 2. The Founding Fathers believed that the responsibility for ensuring good governance lay with A) political leaders. B) ordinary citizens. C) intellectual elites. D) the middle class. E) the military. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.1, p. 70 Skill: Understanding 3. By the time of the Declaration of Independence, the colonists had A) virtually no experience with self-government. B) only very little experience with self-government. C) moderate experience with self-government. D) extensive experience with self-government. E) It depends on the colony. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.1, p. 71 Skill: Understanding

4. The Declaration of Independence was inspired by ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Lessons of history B) Philosophical treatises C) Interpretations of history D) Colonial experiences E) Domestic disputes Answer: E Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 70–74 Skill: Analysis 5. Which of the following is NOT an example of a nation? A) North Americans B) Native Americans C) French Canadians D) U.S. Americans E) Kurds in Iraq Answer: A Reference: LO 3.1, p. 74 Skill: Application 6. The examples of Germany, Iraq, and the United States illustrate that crafting a constitution is largely A) context dependent. B) history sensitive. C) problem oriented. D) culture sensitive. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 77–90 Skill: Analysis 7. If the Constitution were a book, it would most likely be a(n) A) self-help book. B) philosophical treatise. C) general outline. D) instruction manual. E) novel. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 77–90 Skill: Analysis

8. When Americans began to refer to the United States in the singular rather than the plural, this indicated A) a shift in loyalty. B) the development of a common identity. C) the facilitation of consensus. D) a strengthening of the union. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 3.2, pg. 79 Skill: Analysis 9. In the Constitution as ratified, the American people directly elected which of the following? A) Members of the House of Representatives B) Members of the Senate C) Federal judges D) The president E) Supreme Court justices Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding 10. Which of the following ensures internal checks and balances in Congress? A) Unicameralism B) Bicameralism C) Judicial review D) Veto powers E) Appointment powers Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 85–86 Skill: Understanding 11. The Constitution’s Supremacy Clause declared ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) National laws and treaties have supremacy over state laws and treaties. B) State laws and treaties can be more stringent than national laws and treaties but not more relaxed. C) State law can differ from national law in select categories determined by both parties. D) Federal law can preempt states from deviating from it. E) State laws can be different from national laws but have to be consistent with them. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 88 Skill: Understanding

12. The Bill of Rights focuses primarily on the protection of A) national rights. B) state rights. C) individual rights. D) property rights. E) collective rights. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.3, p. 92 Skill: Understanding 13. How did James Madison feel about self-interest? A) He thought it was dangerous to place self-interest above community interests. B) He thought that self-interest was useful. C) He thought self-interest needed to be controlled at all times. D) He thought self-interest was not a problem as long as it was in line with the majority’s interest. E) He did not write about self-interest. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 92–93 Skill: Understanding 14. Amending the Constitution requires A) simple majorities in both the proposal and the ratification stages. B) a simple majority in the proposal stage and a supermajority in the ratification stage. C) a supermajority in the proposal stage and a simple majority in the ratification stage. D) a supermajority in both the proposal and ratification stages. E) unanimity in both stages. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 97–99 Skill: Understanding 15. Which of the following was one of the main reasons why the universal voting age in the United States was lowered to 18 in 1971? A) War B) Economic crises C) Social movements D) Political considerations E) Pressure from the younger generation Answer: A Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 99–101 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. To the colonists, the American Revolution was an attempt to maintain freedom, not create it. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, p. 71 Skill: Understanding 2. The importance of tea in the Colonial era is comparable to the importance of technology for the national economy today. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 72–73 Skill: Understanding 3. The Declaration of Independence was influenced both by contemporary and historical events. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 73–74 Skill: Understanding 4. The concept of a nation is NOT necessarily bound by territorial borders. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 73–74 Skill: Understanding 5. Once nominated by the president and confirmed by the Senate, federal judges have lifetime tenure. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding 6. The United States is a good example of a direct democracy. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.2, p. 84 Skill: Application 7. Madison believed that factions in a direct democracy would ultimately lead to the emergence of an authoritarian government. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.3, p. 92 Skill: Understanding

8. When carefully analyzing James Madison’s arguments, it appears as though his rhetoric was frequently instrumental in nature. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 92–93 Skill: Analysis 9. Constitutional amendments have generally dealt with social and economic matters. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 97–98 Skill: Analysis 10. The Constitution can informally be amended through judicial review. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.4, p. 103 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Americans’ interpretation of constitutional limitations—such as searches without warrants—tend to A) remain very rigid throughout time. B) change all the time. C) be subject to pressures from interest groups. D) change during times of crisis. E) be governed by bureaucratic thinking. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 68–69 Skill: Analysis 2. The example of the surveillance program established by George W. Bush after 9/11 illustrates that presidents A) sometimes use the Constitution to expand their own authorities. B) are severely constrained by the Constitution. C) can freely ignore the Constitution. D) sometimes have leeway in the ways they interpret the Constitution, E) have no influence over the interpretation of the Constitution. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 68–69 Skill: Analysis

3. The American Revolution was primarily a(n) _________ revolution. A) social B) ideological C) economic D) political E) cultural Answer: B Reference: LO 3.1, p. 70 Skill: Understanding 4. The British claim that American colonists were virtually represented was based on the assumption that A) the interests of the colonies and the British Empire were the same. B) the members of British parliament were aware of the special needs and interests of the colonists. C) the colonists had some delegates in London. D) the colonists did not know what was good for them and needed guidance. E) the colonies were not important enough to have direct representation. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 70–71 Skill: Understanding 5. The colonists’ criticism of the British concept of virtual representation is reminiscent of the A) allegory of the cave. B) social-contract theory. C) democratic peace theory. D) collective-action problem. E) public-goods problem. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 71–73 Skill: Application 6. Which of the following is the most likely causal explanation of the American Revolution? A) The ideas about self-government preceded the events. B) Economic events produced the ideas about self-government. C) Political events preceded the ideas about self-government. D) Economic and political events mutually reinforced each other. E) There is no causal connection between the ideas and the events. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 71–73 Skill: Analysis

7. The Stamp Act of 1765 resulted in A) strong divisions among the American colonists. B) American protests and boycotts. C) the strong desire to become economically independent from Great Britain. D) increased respect for the crown among many colonists. E) political apathy among many colonists. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.1, p. 72 Skill: Understanding 8. The concept of a nation is primarily based on A) a perception. B) geographic facts. C) demographic facts. D) a government. E) a common language. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.1, p. 74 Skill: Analysis 9. Which of the following was NOT a problem that resulted from the Articles of Confederation? A) The federal army was weak. B) The United States had no coherent way of dealing with foreign nations. C) Economic treaties were a free-for-all. D) Congress had little or no enforcement power. E) The credibility of the government abroad suffered. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 74–77 Skill: Understanding 10. During the 1780s, the level of democracy in the newly independent states was A) just as high as it had been at the time of the Declaration of Independence. B) even higher than it had been a decade before. C) beginning to slip away owing to mobocracy. D) very low owing to British interference. E) virtually nonexistent as evidenced by Shays’s Rebellion. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.1, p. 76 Skill: Understanding

11. Which of the following was NOT a direct or indirect consequence of Shays’s Rebellion? A) Political leaders worried that the people’s capacity for restrained self-government had failed. B) Congress called on each state to send delegates to Philadelphia in 1787. C) Political leaders concluded that the Articles of Confederation had failed. D) The framers realized that a weak central government could be just as dangerous as a strong one. E) Similar local rebellions sprang up across the colonies. Answer: E Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 76–77 Skill: Understanding 12. As the Founding Fathers understood the concept, self-governance implies that A) people are only responsible to themselves and should primarily pursue their own interests. B) some groups will have advantages over others, depending on how effectively they pursue their interests. C) people should use their power cautiously and consider the public good as well as their own interests. D) the federal government should oversee most affairs and leave only some minor issues to the states and the people themselves. E) state governments should be completely independent from the federal government. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.1, p. 76 Skill: Understanding 13. ALL BUT WHICH of the following was a major objective of the framers of the Constitution? A) Overcoming disputes over representation B) Overcoming fundamental ideological differences C) Encouraging public input while limiting excessive democracy D) Protecting commerce and property E) Creating legitimacy for the new system Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 77–78 Skill: Analysis

14. According to the textbook, crafting a constitution primarily requires A) patience. B) compromise. C) nerves. D) problem-solving skills. E) optimism. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, p. 78 Skill: Understanding 15. Whom were delegates at the Constitutional Convention PRIMARILY oriented toward? A) Themselves B) Special-interest groups C) The American nation as a whole D) Their states E) Each other Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, p. 79 Skill: Understanding 16. The so-called Three-Fifth Compromise dealt with the following issue. A) The rights of states versus the rights of the federal government B) How to measure states’ population sizes C) The size of states’ territory and their influence in Congress D) The size of states’ populations and their influence in Congress E) The number of states Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79–80 Skill: Understanding 17. During the Philadelphia Constitutional Convention, __________ states gravitated toward the _________, whereas ____________ states favored the ____________. A) larger, Virginia Plan, smaller, New Jersey Plan B) larger, New Jersey Plan, smaller, Virginia Plan C) richer, Virginia Plan, poorer, New Jersey Plan D) richer, New Jersey Plan, poorer, Virginia Plan E) larger, Great Compromise, smaller, Three-Fifth Compromise Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79–82 Skill: Understanding

18. The provisions concerning slavery in the Constitution represented A) a philosophical consensus. B) a strategic compromise. C) economic considerations. D) universal beliefs. E) social justice. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79–82 Skill: Analysis 19. At the time of the Constitutional Convention, the framers had A) no experience with direct democracy. B) positive experiences with direct democracy. C) only negative experiences with direct democracy. D) some experience with direct democracy on a national level. E) some experience with direct democracy on a local level. Answer: E Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 82–83 Skill: Understanding 20. What would the framers of the American Constitution most likely have thought about a country like Switzerland, in which virtually all important political decisions are put to a vote by the people in the form of referenda? The framers would have A) approved because this gives power to the people. B) approved because they favored a direct democracy. C) disapproved because they would not have thought that this was doable in a large country. D) disapproved because they feared excessive democracy. E) disapproved because they favored initiatives over referenda. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 82–83 Skill: Application 21. How long would it take the American public to clean house in Congress? A) Ten years B) Eight years C) Six years D) Four years E) Two years Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding

22. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a benefit of having staggered elections? A) Consistency in the legislature B) Insurance against impulsive decision-making C) More-efficient elections D) Greater pool of experience in the legislature E) Gradual change Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Analysis 23. Based on the way it is set up, which of the following could be considered the part of government that is MOST responsive to the people? A) The presidency B) The Senate C) The House of Representatives D) Congress as a whole E) The judiciary Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Analysis 24. The United States’ democratic system today is ________ direct than it used to be. A) more B) no more or less C) less D) much less E) It has virtually no aspects of direct democracy. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Analysis 25. When did U.S. senators begin to be elected directly by the people? A) They always have been elected directly. B) In the late-eighteenth century C) In the early-nineteenth century D) In the late-nineteenth century E) In the early-twentieth century Answer: E Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding

26. Which of the following was NOT a provision through which the framers tried to protect the government against the effects of excessive democracy? A) Staggered elections B) Limited voting-rights C) The electoral college D) Separation of powers E) Indirect elections Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding 27. Which of the following can declare presidential actions unconstitutional? A) The judiciary B) The legislature C) The executive D) The Senate E) A and B Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, p. 84 Skill: Understanding 28. Which of the following can grant pardons to convicted criminals? A) Congress B) The Senate C) The Supreme Court D) The president E) No one Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, p. 84 Skill: Understanding 29. Judicial review gives the judiciary the power to do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Review laws and procedures for their constitutionality B) Strike down federal laws C) Change the criteria for constitutionality D) Strike down state laws E) Determine the meaning of the Constitution Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 85 Skill: Understanding

30. How did Madison refer to the system of checks and balances? A) Double jeopardy B) Double security C) Double standard D) Double democracy E) Double protection Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, p. 86 Skill: Understanding 31. When multiple levels of government have independent ruling authority over certain policy areas, this is called A) a republic. B) sovereignty. C) federalism. D) republicanism. E) independence. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Understanding 32. The election of a prime minister in a parliamentary system is most comparable to the A) election of the U.S. president. B) election of U.S. senators prior to 1903. C) appointment of U.S. federal judges. D) election of members of the U.S. House of Representatives. E) appointment of Supreme Court justices. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Application 33. In a parliamentary system, which of the following typically determines the exact meaning of the constitution? A) The executive B) The legislature C) The upper chamber D) The lower chamber E) The judiciary Answer: B Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Understanding

34. According to the Constitution, the national government has all but which of the following responsibilities? A) Producing coinage and currency B) Establishing bankruptcy laws C) Protecting copyrights and patents D) Regulating banking E) Regulating commerce between states Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 87–88 Skill: Understanding 35. The existence of minimum wages in all states of the United States can be seen as an example of the A) Supremacy Clause. B) Full Faith and Credit Clause. C) Equal Opportunity Clause. D) Equal Privileges and Immunities Clause. E) Worker Protection Clause. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, p. 88 Skill: Application 36. The 2010 Arizona immigration law—which assumes the right to enforce federal borders—can potentially be interpreted as a challenge to which of the following clauses in the Constitution? A) The Supremacy Clause B) The Equal Privileges and Immunities Clause C) The Full Faith and Credit Clause D) Checks and balances E) Federalism Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 88 Skill: Application 37. The provision in the Constitution that says that contracts entered into have to be honored retroactively was primarily motivated by A) existing Revolutionary War debts. B) debts owed by the British government. C) debts owed between colonies. D) personal debts owed between citizens. E) debts owed by the Founding Fathers. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.2, p. 88 Skill: Understanding

38. When Congress and the president passed the Defense of Marriage Act in 1996, this act overrode A) the Supremacy Clause. B) the Equal Privileges and Immunities Clause. C) the Full Faith and Credit Clause. D) checks and balances. E) federalism. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.2, p. 88 Skill: Understanding 39. A political system’s legitimacy is primarily derived from A) efficiency. B) responsibility. C) transparency. D) trust. E) faith. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.2, p. 89 Skill: Understanding 40. In the battle for ratification of the Constitution, the Anti-Federalists warned of A) not enough tax revenues for the government. B) decentralized power. C) national dominance. D) state dominance. E) lack of individual rights. Answer: C Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 91–92 Skill: Understanding 41. The Bill of Rights refers to the first ____ amendments to the Constitution. A) three B) five C) seven D) ten E) twelve Answer: D Reference: LO 3.3. p. 92 Skill: Understanding

42. The Bill of Rights focuses primarily on the protection of ________ rights. A) national B) state C) individual D) property E) minority Answer: C Reference: LO 3.3. p. 92 Skill: Understanding 43. With regard to factions, James Madison pointed out that they A) threaten representation. B) threaten liberty. C) can be a majority or a minority. D) need to be controlled. E) are natural. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.3. p. 92 Skill: Understanding 44. Today’s social and political situation can be seen as a threat to Madison’s vision owing to ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Geographic mobility B) High-tech communication C) More-immediate connections between people and the government D) People’s greater wealth E) People’s enhanced ability to coordinate with each other Answer: E Reference: LO 3.3. pgs. 92–93 Skill: Analysis 45. Why is it important for us today to understand the motivations behind the drafting of the Constitution? A) To evaluate its performance B) For historical reasons C) As a matter of national pride D) To better understand it E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 3.3. pgs. 94–96 Skill: Understanding

46. According to Charles Beard, what was the main motivation for drafting and voting on the Constitution? A) Social interests B) Elite interests C) Economic self-interests D) Foreign-policy interests E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 3.3. pgs. 94–96 Skill: Understanding 47. Compared to the Articles of Confederation, the current U.S. Constitution A) is easier to amend. B) is slightly more difficult to amend. C) is much more difficult to amend. D) is similarly difficult to amend. E) It depends on the issue. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.4. p. 97 Skill: Understanding 48. The framers of the Constitution intended for amendments to A) have practical applications. B) have broad societal acceptance. C) be nonpartisan. D) be efficient. E) be minimal. Answer: B Reference: LO 3.4. p. 97 Skill: Understanding 49. The introduction of amendments to the U.S. Constitution is a ___________ process, and the ratification of amendments is a ____________ process. A) national-level, state-level B) state-level, national-level C) national-level, national-level D) state-level, state-level E) It depends on the type of amendment. Answer: A Reference: LO 3.4. pgs. 97–98 Skill: Understanding

50. The voting age in the United States was lowered to 18 in the A) Twenty-first Amendment. B) Twenty-third Amendment. C) Twenty-fourth Amendment. D) Twenty-sixth Amendment. E) Twenty-seventh Amendment. Answer: D Reference: LO 3.4. pgs. 99–101 Skill: Understanding 51. How many amendments to the Constitution are there currently? A) 21 B) 23 C) 25 D) 27 E) 29 Answer: D Reference: LO 3.4. p. 101 Skill: Understanding 52. Which of the following is NOT a logical explanation for the infrequency of amendments to the Constitution? A) Institutional factors B) Alternatives to formal amendments C) Lack of desire to attempt amendments D) The impact of the Founding Fathers’ spirit E) Lack of agreement on amendments Answer: C Reference: LO 3.4. pgs. 101–103 Skill: Analysis True-False Questions 1. George W. Bush justified his authorization of searches without warrants in the aftermath of 9/11 with the argument that his obligation as commander-in-chief was to win wars. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 68–69 Skill: Understanding 2. John Locke’s ideas on expansive government and social contracts were especially influential for the American Revolution. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, p.70 Skill: Understanding 73 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3. The British government viewed the Tea Party as an act of terrorism. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 72–73 Skill: Understanding 4. The Boston Tea Party and its aftermath illustrate the influence of economic issues on political decision-making. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 72–73 Skill: Analysis 5. Canada is a good example of a state in which the concepts of country and nation are virtually identical. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.1, p. 74 Skill: Application 6. One of the challenges of the Articles of Confederation was to reconcile people’s state and national identities. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 74–76 Skill: Analysis 7. At the time, the lack of resources to implement decisions made Congress less effective than the lack of responsibilities it was given in the Articles of Confederation. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 74–76 Skill: Analysis 8. Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress was able to institute taxes. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.1, p. 75 Skill: Understanding 9. It was primarily Shays’s Rebellion that convinced political leaders that the Articles of Confederation had failed. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 76 Skill: Understanding

10. The U.S. Constitution is the oldest national written constitution in the world. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, p. 77 Skill: Understanding 11. In order to be considered democratic, a country needs a written constitution that the government is built upon. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.2, p. 77 Skill: Understanding 12. The main disagreement over state representation in the legislature is illustrated by the differences in the Virginia Plan and New Jersey Plan. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79 Skill: Understanding 13. The delegates at the Philadelphia Convention were primarily motivated by loyalty to the American nation. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79 Skill: Understanding 14. The terms “slave” and “slavery” do not actually occur anywhere in the original Constitution. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, p. 81 Skill: Understanding 15. The concept of a republic is in many ways the opposite of a direct democracy. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, p. 83 Skill: Understanding 16. Most European countries chose to have a presidential system similar to that of the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Understanding

17. In a parliamentary system, the head of government is elected by the legislature rather than the people. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Understanding 18. A political system’s legitimacy is PRIMARILY derived from its effectiveness. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.2, p. 89 Skill: Understanding 19. The Anti-Federalists favored a system that would have given more power to the central government. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 91–92 Skill: Understanding 20. James Madison’s arguments about direct democracy implied that he did not trust the people to completely govern themselves. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 92–93 Skill: Analysis 21. If James Madison were still around today, he would approve of California’s system of allowing citizens to bring forth initiatives such as Proposition 8, which deals with gay marriage. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 92–93 Skill: Application 22. The invention of the Internet would have been interpreted as positive for democracy by James Madison. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.3, p. 93 Skill: Application 23. The internal and domestic challenges Americans faced at the time helped bring about a compromise on the Constitution more quickly than might have been the case otherwise. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 93–97 Skill: Analysis

24. The president has no formal role in the process of amending the U.S. Constitution. Answer: True Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 97–99 Skill: Understanding 25. Informal amendments to the Constitution typically take just as long as formal amendments. Answer: False Reference: LO 3.4, p. 103 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. Please explain the ways that John Locke’s ideas on social contracts affected the American Revolution. Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 70–71 Skill: Understanding 2. In your own words, outline the role New England merchants and southern planters played in the American Revolution. Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 71–72 Skill: Understanding 3. What defines the American nation? What are the principles, beliefs, and symbols that make up America’s identity? And in what ways do you see this identity shaping American politics abroad? Reference: LO 3.1, pgs. 73–74 Skill: Application 4. What were the four major objectives the framers had when they crafted the Constitution? In hindsight, how well would you say they were able to meet each of these objectives? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 77–79 Skill: Analysis 5. One of the main concerns of the framers was to include safeguards against excessive democracy in the Constitution. Analyzing the current state of politics in the 21st century, how successful would you say these attempts were? Provide examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 3.2, p. 78 Skill: Analysis

6. What are the pros and cons associated with the term limits the framers included for members of Congress? How would you change these provisions in order to achieve greater effectiveness? How would you change them in order to increase the representativeness and responsiveness of members of Congress? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 82–87 Skill: Application 7. In your own words, outline several aspects of the system of checks and balances. What are some responsibilities that are unique to each branch, and where do responsibilities overlap? What was the intention behind this setup? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 82–87 Skill: Understanding 8. What are the main characteristics of a parliamentary system of governance? How does it differ from a presidential system such as the United States’? What are the pros and cons of each system, and which one do you consider superior? Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Analysis 9. The textbook outlines the measures and principles the framers emphasized in order to enhance the legitimacy of the political system they created. In your opinion, how well do these principles still hold up in the 21st century? Give concrete examples to illustrate your argument. Give at least one example that casts doubt on the legitimacy of the American political system. Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 89–90 Skill: Evaluation 10. Please summarize the main arguments of the Federalists and Anti-Federalists in the struggle for ratification of the Constitution. Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 90–93 Skill: Understanding 11. The textbook proposes various theories concerning the motivations of the framers of the Constitution. Please summarize each. Which one do you agree with the most? Why? Reference: LO 3.3, pgs. 94–96 Skill: Evaluation 12. Would you consider an amendment that allows legal aliens who pay taxes but are not citizens to vote? Why or why not? In which types of elections would you allow them to vote? Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 97–101 Skill: Application

13. The age group of 18- to 24-year-olds is currently the least likely to vote. Do you think lowering the voting age to 16 would change that? Why or why not? What arguments are there for and against such a reform? Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 97–99 Skill: Analysis 14. Some observers have suggested that the ideals the United Nations was founded upon have given way to a culture of consumerism. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Provide examples to illustrate your point. Reference: LO 3.2, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 15. Democratic theory and the ideals that the United States is based upon require that America be governed by a majority. How do you think the majority makes its wishes known? Reference: LO 3.2, entire chapter Skill: Application Essay Questions 1. In the war on terror, the debate often focuses on the importance of national security at the expense of constitutional rights. In your opinion, where should the U.S. government draw the line between protecting the country as a whole and safeguarding citizens’ rights? In addition, should the executive be allowed to expand its power (as opposed to the legislative and judiciary) in the name of national security? Why or why not? Please provide specific examples in your answer. Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 68–69 Skill: Evaluation 2. Based on what you know about the difference between a country and a nation, please write an essay about the binding glue of the American nation. Provide at least three different characteristics along with specific examples to illustrate your point. Furthermore, in what way does immigration—legal and illegal—affect this concept of the nation? How can these effects be managed? Reference: LO 3.1, p. 73–74 Skill: Application 3. Using your own words, explain what led to Shays’s Rebellion and how the rebellion affected the development of the American political system. Reference: LO 3.1, p. 74–76 Skill: Understanding

4. What would American politics look like today if the framers of the Constitution had chosen either the Virginia Plan or New Jersey Plan? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 79–80 Skill: Analysis 5. In what ways—if at all—does the legacy of slavery continue to affect both American politics and American society? How should Americans deal with these issues? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 80–82 Skill: Application 6. In many ways, one could argue, the Founding Fathers didn’t want the people to have too much influence over politics. What concrete examples in the American political system illustrate this? Were the framers right to distrust the people? How would they feel about the state of American democracy today? Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 82–87 Skill: Evaluation 7. One of the reasons that the framers of the Constitution established a system of checks and balances was to prevent the government from acting recklessly. In the more than 200 years since then, how well has this worked? Give specific examples to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 3.2, pgs. 85–87 Skill: Evaluation 8. Under what circumstances does it make sense for a country to adopt a system of federalism? What are the pros and cons of such a system, instead of a unitary state? Reference: LO 3.2, p. 87 Skill: Application 9. According to the Full Faith and Credit Clause, states are to honor the official acts of other states. One especially sensitive area where this has become the subject of much debate is the question of whether states need to honor same-sex marriages that were entered into in another state. Do you believe that the 1996 exception to the Full Faith and Credit Clause in the case of same-sex marriages sets a precedent for similar issues? Do you agree with the exception (or any exception in general)? Why or why not? Reference: LO 3.2, p. 88 Skill: Evaluation

10. What is the difference between formal amendments and informal amendments to the Constitution? Based on what you know about how they are adopted, and considering the basic values of democracy, what would you say are the advantages and disadvantages of the process of amending the Constitution, especially in terms of efficiency and representativeness? Reference: LO 3.4, pgs. 102–103 Skill: Analysis 11. Please write an essay about the Colonial era and its impact on the drafting of the U.S. Constitution. In particular, explain how the system of governance set forth in the Constitution specifically addresses grievances and concerns the framers had based on their Colonial experiences. Reference: LO 3.1 and 3.2, entire chapter Skill: Understanding

Chapter Four Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Ultimately, the question of dividing labor between the federal government and states is about ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Power B) Influence C) Morality D) Responsibility E) Governance Answer: C Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–125 Skill: Analysis 2. Which of the following is not a weakness of the United Nations? A) It has numerous competitors for international governance. B) It has difficulty settling disputes between states. C) It has difficulty collecting membership fees. D) It often has to rely on states to voluntarily comply with its decisions. E) Member states’ politicians may rant against the United Nations to gain a domestic political advantage. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.1, p. 123 Skill: Analysis 3. A federalist system can help countries deal with ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Linguistic diversity B) Regional influence C) Ethnic and racial tensions D) Different geographic needs E) The interests of different nations Answer: B Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–127 Skill: Analysis

4. The United States is an example of a A) unitary system of government. B) confederate system of government. C) mixture between a unitary and a confederate system of government. D) consociational system of government. E) parliamentary system of government. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.1, p. 124–125 Skill: Understanding 5. The term “sovereignty” refers to the fact that A) a government is respected by all. B) a government is self-sufficient. C) there is no higher authority than the government. D) the government is able to exert unchecked power. E) the government cannot be criticized. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.1, p. 126 Skill: Understanding 6. The system of dual federalism has sometimes been compared to A) a layer cake. B) a marble cake. C) scrambled eggs. D) eggs sunny-side up. E) chocolate-chip cookies. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.2, p. 130 Skill: Understanding 7. The distribution of power between states and the national government concerning interstate commerce A) is prescribed in detail in the original Constitution. B) is prescribed in detail in an amendment to the Constitution. C) was fought over in a number of court decisions but was finally resolved in the nineteenth century. D) often depends on definitions and interpretations, rather than facts alone. E) is currently being decided for good by the Supreme Court. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.2, pgs. 133–134 Skill: Analysis

8. After the passage of welfare-reform legislation in 1996 A) the previously practiced cooperative federalism ended. B) the national government took complete control of welfare policy. C) state-by-state variations of welfare programs became more pronounced. D) the states took complete control of welfare policy. E) welfare was privatized. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, p. 135 Skill: Understanding 9. If the Anti-Federalists had been around to witness the decision in McCulloch v. Maryland, they most likely would have A) unconditionally welcomed the decision. B) welcomed the decision for the most part. C) felt indifferent about the decision. D) been worried about the implications of the decision. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 136–137 Skill: Application 10. Which of the following fictitious mandates would NOT be exempt from the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act? A) A program that encourages equal gender treatment in the workplace B) A program that guarantees free speech C) A natural-disaster relief program D) An education-reform program E) All of the above would be exempt. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 144–146 Skill: Application 11. A federal grant that would give states money for education reforms but leave the implementation of such reforms to the states would be considered a(n) A) categorical grant. B) revenue-sharing grant. C) unfunded grant. D) conditional grant. E) block grant. Answer: E Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 146–147 Skill: Application

12. Which of the following typically prefer block grants? A) Low-level officials in local governments B) Low-level officials in state governments C) High-level officials in state governments D) High-level officials in both local and state governments E) None of the above likes block grants. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, p. 146 Skill: Understanding 13. Federalist political systems A) always cause a race to the bottom. B) may produce incentives for a race to the bottom. C) do not affect whether a race to the bottom occurs. D) discourage a race to the bottom. E) prevent a race to the bottom. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 150–152 Skill: Analysis 14. The fact that states cannot typically be sued in federal court by individuals or organizations is captured in the concept of A) legal immunity. B) sovereign immunity. C) political immunity. D) diplomatic immunity. E) immunity. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Understanding 15. In 2009, the U.S. Justice Department announced that it would A) more severely prosecute states that allowed the use of medical marijuana. B) allow the use of medical marijuana federally. C) officially prosecute states that allowed the use of medical marijuana but unofficially look the other way. D) no longer prosecute states that allowed the use of medical marijuana. E) The U.S. Justice Department made no announcement regarding the use of medical marijuana. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, p. 159 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. In the United States’ federalist system, marriage is exclusively a state issue in which the federal government has no say. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 122–123 Skill: Understanding 2. Rather than establish a confederation, the framers of the Constitution constructed a unitary system. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–125 Skill: Understanding 3. In international relations, the United Nations represents principles similar to the compact theory of federalism. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 127–128 Skill: Application 4. One of the primary intents of the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was to eliminate unfair business practices. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.2, p. 133 Skill: Application 5. The Supreme Court’s decision in McCulloch v. Maryland set a precedent that allowed the Congress to expand its power through so-called implied powers. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 136–137 Skill: Understanding 6. When the federal government imposes a mandate on states, the government is required to offer federal financial assistance that ensures that those mandates can be fulfilled. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 143–144 Skill: Understanding 7. The Northeast and Midwest states pay less money into the system than they receive from the federal government. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, p. 148 (Figure 4-4) Skill: Analysis 87 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Research shows that states engage in a so-called race to the bottom, in which they imitate each other when it comes to raising or lowering benefits. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 150–152 Skill: Understanding 9. Shifting authority for the implementation of programs such as the Clean Air Act from the federal to state governments can enhance effectiveness but also raises potential questions of oversight. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 154–155 Skill: Analysis 10. Congress’s Real ID Act of 2005 was intended as a counterterrorist measure. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Both Federalists and Anti-Federalists believed that the question of federalism was important because it had major implications for A) society. B) liberty. C) the economy. D) the balance of power. E) morality. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–126 Skill: Understanding 2. Which of the following is NOT an element of a unitary governmental system? A) States are dependent on the national government. B) The central government is free to create lower-level governments. C) The central government is free to disband lower-level governments at any time. D) Lower-level governments can raise their own funds but have to give a large percentage of them to the federal government. E) Lower-level governments have little, if any, independent governing authority. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–126 Skill: Understanding

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of a federalist system of government? A) Great Britain B) Germany C) Canada D) Mexico E) Spain Answer: A Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 126–127 Skill: Understanding 4. Which of the following is NOT a right states can claim in the United States? A) Any rights that the Constitution does not specifically delegate to the national government and that are not specifically prohibited for states B) Any right that is specifically delegated to the national government by the Constitution C) Voting rights in the Senate D) The preservation of a representative form of government E) The protection from foreign invasion Answer: B Reference: LO 4.1, p. 127 Skill: Understanding 5. The ___________ emphasizes the sovereignty of states above all else. A) doctrine of nationalism B) compact theory C) federalist theory D) communitarian theory E) integration theory Answer: B Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 127–128 Skill: Understanding 6. The nationalist theory of federalism had the greatest support in the A) North B) East Coast states C) West Coast states D) Midwest E) South Answer: A Reference: LO 4.1, p. 128 Skill: Understanding

7. Which famous phrase did the proponents of the nationalist theory of federalism base their arguments on? A) United we stand; divided we fall. B) Divide and conquer. C) We, the people. D) I want to be a unificator. E) Only the lonely. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.1, p. 128 Skill: Understanding 8. The principle of dual federalism maintains that A) the national government’s legislation represents the law of the land. B) states and the national government share equal responsibility for lawmaking in all areas of policy. C) in case of a conflict of interest, states have priority. D) in case of a conflict of interest, the national government has priority. E) the national government and states each have authority over certain areas of policy. Answer: E Reference: LO 4.2, p. 130 Skill: Understanding 9. What does the Takings Clause stipulate? A) It guarantees that citizens are compensated if the government takes private property for public purposes. B) It guarantees that the government cannot take private property for public purposes. C) It guarantees that the government cannot take private property, except during times of war. D) It allows the government to take private property without compensation, if necessary. E) It prevents citizens from taking each other’s private property. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.2, p. 130 Skill: Understanding

10. In the context of dual federalism, the concept of dual citizenship refers to A) U.S. citizens who are also citizens of a state. B) U.S. citizens who are also citizens of another country. C) U.S. citizens who live in two different states. D) U.S. residents who live in two different states. E) local and state citizenship. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.2, p. 130 Skill: Understanding 11. The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was basically designed to do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Ensure continued competition in the marketplace B) Eliminate unfair business practices C) Give states more power over commerce D) Protect equality and democracy E) Protect property rights Answer: C Reference: LO 4.2, p. 133 Skill: Analysis 12. Cooperative federalism developed for _________ purposes. A) practical B) ideological C) philosophical D) nefarious E) dogmatic Answer: A Reference: LO 4.3, p. 134 Skill: Understanding 13. For work categories that have a minimum-wage standard, most states A) match the standard set by the national government exactly. B) have lower minimum wages than the national standard. C) have no set minimum wage. D) exceed the standard set by the national government. E) All states have the same minimum-wage standard. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, p. 136 (Map) Skill: Analysis

14. Which of the following is NOT true about the case of McCulloch v. Maryland? A) It expanded the authority of the national government. B) The Supreme Court decided that Congress could charter a national bank. C) The Supreme Court pointed to the Necessary and Proper Clause. D) The Supreme Court pointed out that Congress has explicit powers. E) The Supreme Court decided Congress could make the laws needed to carry out its enumerated powers. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 136–137 Skill: Understanding 15. Congress’s so-called implied powers are directly derived from A) tradition. B) legal precedent. C) habit. D) enumerated powers. E) the Constitution. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, p. 137 Skill: Understanding 16. In his 1994 executive memorandum concerning Native Americans, President Bill Clinton reaffirmed that the national government was to deal with Native American tribes A) as they would with any other U.S. state. B) as they would with a U.S. territory. C) on a government-citizen basis. D) on a government-to-government basis. E) not at all. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 140–141 Skill: Understanding 17. The management and disposal of nuclear waste generated by national-defense needs is controlled by A) the states in which such waste is accumulated. B) the national government. C) both the states and the national government. D) the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). E) the National Nuclear Waste Disposal Agency (NNWDA). Answer: B Reference: LO 4.3, p. 143 Skill: Understanding

18. The federal law passed in 2005 that prohibits certain types of liability suits against firearms manufacturers in state courts is an example of A) balance of power. B) checks and balances. C) preemption legislation. D) state supremacy. E) necessary and proper legislation. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, p. 144 Skill: Understanding 19. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act applies to all of the following EXCEPT A) existing unfunded mandates. B) mandates that protect the constitutional rights of individuals. C) environmental mandates. D) mandates that prohibit discrimination. E) emergency legislation. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 144–145 Skill: Understanding 20. A federal grant that would give states money for new housing projects but that would require the states to make at least 50 percent of the housing available to low-income families would be considered a(n) A) free grant. B) categorical grant. C) block grant. D) unfunded grant. E) conditional grant. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 145–146 Skill: Application 21. In terms of its intended purpose, a block grant most closely resembles a _____________, whereas a categorical grant most closely resembles a _____________. A) mortgage, personal loan B) personal loan, mortgage C) mortgage, car loan D) car loan, mortgage E) car loan, personal loan Answer: B Reference: LO 4.3, p. 146 Skill: Application

22. Which of the following is NOT true about categorical grants? A) Members of Congress tend to prefer them. B) They may ignore more urgent needs elsewhere. C) They are the most flexible of all grants. D) They may come with strings attached. E) City officials tend to prefer them. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 146–149 Skill: Understanding 23. Which of the following statements is NOT directly supported by the data available? A) Income security is less of a concern than it used to be. B) Medical expenses have risen dramatically. C) The concern for education has remained relatively stable. D) The level of community and regional development has increased slightly. E) None of the above is supported. Answer: E Reference: LO 4.3, p. 147 (Figure 4-3) Skill: Analysis 24. Based on the information presented in Figure 4-3, which of the following statements is NOT true? A) The share of federal aid used for medical expenses has risen more sharply than any other type of expense. B) The share of federal aid used for income security has dropped more sharply than any other type of expense. C) In 1990, more federal aid was used for medical expenditures than for education, community, and regional development combined. D) In 2007, more federal aid was used for medical expenditures than for all other areas combined. E) The overall amount of federal aid has increased significantly since 1990. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, p. 147 (Figure 4-3) Skill: Analysis

25. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) States in the West receive as much as or more money from the federal government than they contribute. B) States in the South receive as much as or more money from the federal government than they contribute. C) States in the Midwest receive as much as or more money from the federal government than they contribute. D) States in the North contribute more money to the federal government than they receive from it. E) All of the above are true. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, p. 148 (Figure 4-4) Skill: Analysis 26. In 2009, states were unable to apply for Race to the Top funds from the U.S. Department of Education unless they agreed to A) allow the evaluation of teachers and principals to be linked to students' academic achievement. B) participate in No Child Left Behind. C) spend the money on hiring new teachers. D) receive reduced benefits for their employees. E) pay back the money over a period of ten years. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 148–149 Skill: Understanding 27. An argument AGAINST categorical grants is that A) states do not have enough expertise. B) one state’s solutions may cause problems for other states. C) states may engage in a race to the bottom. D) they are not as democratic. E) they usually waste money. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, p. 149 Skill: Analysis 28. According to the premise of the “race to the bottom” debate, states have an incentive to A) appeal to the national government for financial aid. B) increase their welfare benefits. C) reduce their welfare benefits. D) exclude certain groups from welfare benefits. E) raise taxes to pay for welfare benefits. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 150–152 Skill: Understanding 95 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

29. If in response to a state increasing its welfare and social-security benefits more poor families from surrounding states move there, we can conclude that A) that state has become a welfare magnet. B) families are moving because of the benefits. C) federalism has failed. D) there may be a correlation between the migration and the benefits offered. E) the state is taking better care of its welfare recipients. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 150–152 Skill: Analysis 30. Which of the following is NOT a reason why presidential or congressional candidates with prior experience in government have an electoral advantage? A) They have good performance records they can build on. B) Their names are more recognizable. C) They likely have made connections. D) They have practical governing experience. E) They have experience with campaigning. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.3, p. 153 Skill: Analysis 31. Political-science research suggests that federalism may have contributed to conflict particularly in what region? A) Western Europe B) Eastern Europe C) North America D) Africa E) Asia Answer: B Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 153–154 Skill: Understanding 32. Which of the following does NOT help to explain the inconclusive results of studies on the relationship between federalism and conflict? A) The ambiguity of the term “federalism” B) The ambiguity of the term “conflict” C) Context- and time-sensitive findings D) Potential alternative explanatory variables E) There is too much data available. Answer: E Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 153–154 Skill: Analysis

33. Federalism in the United States changed dramatically during the A) sixties. B) seventies. C) eighties. D) nineties. E) aughts. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, p. 154 Skill: Understanding 34. A transfer of authority from the national government to state governments is called A) revolution. B) evolution. C) devolution. D) separation of power. E) synthesis. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.4, p. 154 Skill: Understanding 35. Based on what you have learned about American government thus far, which of the following would you expect to support devolution the most? A) The Republican Party B) The Democratic Party C) Libertarians D) Independents E) All parties Answer: A Reference: LO 4.4, p. 154 Skill: Application 36. The Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Morrison A) increased federal power at the expense of state power. B) increased state power at the expense of federal power. C) increased state and federal power. D) increased the power of the judiciary vis-à-vis the other two branches. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Analysis

37. The concept of sovereign immunity ensures that states can only be sued in federal court A) by Native American tribes. B) by individuals but not organizations. C) by organizations but not individuals. D) if they allow themselves to be sued. E) if the federal government agrees. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Understanding 38. The case of Printz v. United States specifically dealt with the issue of A) gun control. B) drug legislation. C) educational policy. D) gambling. E) welfare policy. Answer: A Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Understanding 39. Which clause in the Constitution prevents the federal government from requiring state officials to perform federal functions? A) The Dual Sovereignty Clause B) The Necessary and Proper Clause C) The Supremacy Clause D) The Equal Privileges Clause E) The Full Faith and Credit Clause Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Understanding 40. Many of the policy innovations made by states in the nineties and early-21st century can be seen as the result of ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Their dissatisfaction with national government policies B) More generous budgets, making policy innovations possible C) Government officials’ focus being diverted to other issues D) Increased demands being put on states by advocacy groups E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 157 Skill: Understanding

41. The 2010 Arizona-immigration-law debate is MOST similar to which of the following cases with regard its content and focus on state and federal powers? A) Help America Vote Act (2002) B) No Child Left Behind (2002) C) Motor Voter Law (2003) D) Real ID Act (2005) E) Medical-marijuana decision (2005) Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 157–159 Skill: Application 42. President Obama’s goals for national health insurance would A) give greater power to the states. B) give greater power to the national government. C) not affect the balance between state and national power. D) affect the balance between state and national power only for some states. E) take away all state power over health insurance. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 157–161 Skill: Analysis 43. In 2005, the federal government tried to require all states to demand proof of ________ before issuing driver’s licenses. A) identity B) nationality C) age D) permanent residency E) trustworthiness Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Understanding 44. According to the federal government’s 2005 Real ID Act, individuals whose driver’s licenses did not conform to federal standards A) were not allowed to drive. B) were not allowed to use their licenses for identification purposes at federal agencies. C) were not allowed to use their licenses for identification purposes at all. D) had their licenses taken away. E) could be arrested. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Understanding

45. The Motor Voter Act of 1993 enabled A) drive-through voting. B) pickup service for the elderly and disabled. C) voters registering at government offices. D) electronic voting. E) digital voting. Answer: C Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Understanding 46. The Help America Vote Act of 2002 A) made voter registration simpler. B) mandated changes in states’ voting technology. C) educated Americans about voting. D) lowered the voting age. E) was never passed. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Understanding 47. Education policy has long been the bastion of A) the federal government. B) state governments. C) local governments. D) both state and local governments. E) school boards. Answer: D Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 158–159 Skill: Understanding 48. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were reasons for the increased role of the federal government during George W. Bush’s presidency? A) Reactions to crises B) Budget issues C) The similarity of state and federal goals D) Partisan goals E) Interest-group activism Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 159 Skill: Understanding

49. The main reason why the U.S. Department of Justice decided in 2009 to no longer prosecute states that allowed the use of medical marijuana was A) moral issues. B) concerns over the efficiency of the prosecution. C) a change in federal law. D) a Supreme Court decision. E) public demand. Answer: B Reference: LO 4.4, p. 160 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The Constitution contains some limited provisions for the existence of sub-state governments, e.g. at the city and county level. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.1, p. 125 Skill: Understanding 2. Most countries around the world have a federal system of governance. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 125–126 Skill: Understanding 3. Given the nature of the supremacy clause, the U.S. government can potentially decide to re-draw the borders of individual states. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.1, p. 127 Skill: Understanding 4. The doctrine of nullification was laid to rest for good once the federalist system was adopted for the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 128–129 Skill: Analysis 5. The takings clause represents the American creed’s emphasis on personal property. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.2, p. 132 Skill: Application

6. The examples in the textbook illustrate that when it comes to the regulation of interstate commerce, the distribution of power between the national and state governments depends on the facts of the individual case. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.2, pgs. 133–134 Skill: Analysis 7. The commerce clause in the Constitution gave Congress the right to regulate intrastate commerce. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.2, pgs. 133–134 Skill: Understanding 8. The Federal Trade Commission monitors false and deceptive advertising. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.2, p. 134 Skill: Understanding 9. Based on what you have learned about the beginning of cooperative federalism in the United States, it is reasonable to assume that the 2010 economic recession would increase the willingness of states to accept more cooperative federalism. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 134–135 Skill: Application 10. Airport security is an example of so-called picket-fence federalism. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 135 Skill: Understanding 11. The necessary-and-proper clause is responsible for giving Congress its enumerated powers. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, p. 137 Skill: Understanding 12. Native American tribes can be taxed directly by state governments, but not by the federal government. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 140–141 Skill: Understanding

13. Native American tribes are free to operate slot machines and roulette with full sovereignty on their reservations. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 140–141 Skill: Understanding 14. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act caused such mandates to drop significantly after it was passed. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, p. 144 Skill: Understanding 15. The federal government can pass preemption legislation that declares certain actions offlimits for state governments. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 144–145 Skill: Understanding 16. The federal government can use fiscal federalism to coerce states into cooperating. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 145–146 Skill: Understanding 17. In 2009, the proportion of state and local governments' funds that was made up of block and categorical grants spiked due to the large infusion of federal stimulus and recovery funds. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 146 Skill: Understanding 18. Between 1990 and 2007, the amount of federal aid given to states has more than tripled. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 147 (Figure 4-3) Skill: Analysis 19. Among other problems, fiscal federalism has the potential to increase competition between states. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 147 Skill: Understanding

20. Of all the regions, the Northeast is the largest net contributor to federal funds. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 148 (Figure 4-4) Skill: Analysis 21. One of the advantages of federalism is that it can enhance competition and innovative problem-solving in a country like the United States. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, p. 149 Skill: Analysis 22. An argument against the “race-to-the-bottom” theory is that policymakers may confuse citizens’ opportunity and willingness to move from state to state. Answer: True Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 150–152 Skill: Analysis 23. The federal government requires states to have uniform graduation requirements for high schools in order to ensure fair admissions processes across the nation. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.3, p. 153 Skill: Understanding 24. Since the early 1990s, American federalism has increasingly moved toward so-called cooperative federalism, aided by numerous Supreme Court decisions. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 154–157 Skill: Analysis 25. When Congress created gun-free school zones in 1996, it justified the law by pointing out its authority over security issues, even if it interfered with state law. Answer: False Reference: LO 4.4, p. 155 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. What factors would speak against the establishment of a unitary, rather than a federalist, system in the United States? Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–126 Skill: Analysis

2. What are the main differences between the nationalist and the compact theory regarding federalism? In addition, who were the most likely supporters of each approach, how did they justify their positions, and why do you suppose they held these beliefs in the first place? Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 127–129 Skill: Analysis 3. Briefly outline the importance of the case of Barron v. Baltimore for the federalist system in the United States. Reference: LO 4.2, pgs. 132–133 Skill: Understanding 4. Do you agree that there should be a law regulating minimum wages? What speaks for it, and what speaks against it? In arguing for it, at which level of government should this decision be made? Why? Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 135–136 Skill: Evaluation 5. In your opinion, on what grounds can the special status of Native American tribes in the U.S. federal system be justified? Do you agree or disagree? Why? Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 140–141 Skill: Evaluation 6. In your opinion, which level of government should be primarily responsible for environmental policy? Why? Be specific in your answer, and provide examples to support your arguments. Reference: LO 4.3, p. 142 Skill: Application 7. From a state’s perspective, is it preferable to receive a categorical grant or a block grant? What is an example of each type of grant? Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 146–149 Skill: Analysis 8. How do the different regions in the United States compare when it comes to contributing to federal revenue and receiving federal funding? Do you think it is fair that some states receive more than they pay into the system? Why or why not? Reference: LO 4.3, p. 148 (Figure 4-4) Skill: Evaluation

9. What did Supreme Court justice Louis Brandeis mean when he said that states were “laboratories of democracy”? Reference: LO 4.3, p. 149 Skill: Understanding 10. What types of countries tend to be served best by adopting a federalist system? Why? Provide specific examples in your answer. Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 153–154 Skill: Application 11. Does federalism prevent conflict (physical or otherwise) in the United States? Be specific in your answer, and provide examples that illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 153–154 Skill: Analysis 12. Where does federalism stand in the United States today? In what areas would you say that the states have the upper hand and in what areas does the federal government tend to dominate? If you were in a position to make such a change, what is the one area of which you would give exclusive control to the states and what is one area of which you would give exclusive control to the federal government? Why? Reference: LO 4.4, pgs. 154–161 Skill: Application 13. The Supreme Court decided that states have sovereign immunity against lawsuits by private parties. What speaks for and against this ruling? If you could, what exception to this rule would you institute? Why? Reference: LO 4.4, p. 156 Skill: Application 14. How would you assess the Real ID Act passed by Congress in 2005? Do you agree with Congress, or do you side with the states that opposed the act? Why? How does this case compare to the 2010 Arizona-immigration-law debate? Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Evaluation 15. President Woodrow Wilson once suggested that the question of federalism cannot be settled by the opinions of one generation but rather that it is a question of growth. What do you think he was trying to say? Does what you have learned support his notion or not? Why? Reference: LO 4.3 and LO 4.4, entire chapter Skill: Application

16. Between 1865 and 1937, the Supreme Court tended to restrict national power, whereas it expanded national authority for the next half-century after that. What historical, social, economic, or political contexts help explain these two distinct trends? Reference: LO 4.3 and LO 4.4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. The Defense of Marriage Act of 1996 effectively negates the Full Faith and Credit Clause. Do you agree or disagree with this exception? Are there any issues that you believe warrant such federal intervention into the relative liberty of the states? If so, what are they? If not, why do you feel that way? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 122–123 Skill: Evaluation 2. Please explain in what ways the Articles of Confederation can be compared to the political system of the United Nations. Try to be as specific as possible. Do you see the United Nations experiencing similar difficulties to those of the United States back then? Keeping in mind the American experience, how would you reform the U.N. in order to address these difficulties? Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 124–125 Skill: Application 3. What aspects of American politics and political culture have clearly been influenced by the tenets of the compact theory? What aspects have been influenced by the nationalist theory? Reference: LO 4.1, pgs. 127–129 Skill: Application 4. Please explain the difference between dual federalism and cooperative federalism. During which era in U.S. history was either dominant? In what ways did the context of the time contribute to the dominance one? Which type is the current federalist system based on? Provide concrete examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 4.2 and LO 4.3, pgs. 130–154 Skill: Analysis 5. How successful has the 1995 Unfunded Mandates Reform Act been in reducing the financial burden imposed on states by federal programs? In your answer, be sure to include the background for the passing of the reform act as well as your opinion of whether or not it has had the intended effect. Support your assessment of the act’s success. Reference: LO 4.3, p. 144 Skill: Analysis

6. Based on what you know about the principles of federalism, sovereignty, and checks and balances, do you believe that the federal government’s use of fiscal federalism compromises the independence of states? Why or why not? Be specific, and support your arguments. Reference: LO 4.3, pgs. 145–149 Skill: Evaluation 7. One of the debates surrounding dual sovereignty has focused on the states’ ability to fund stem-cell research. Current federal legislation seeks to deter such research by not allowing federal funds to be used for it even though stem-cell research is not, technically, illegal. What is your opinion of this case? Is it acceptable for the federal government to use its powers of federal funding in such a manner? Or does it violate the true meaning of dual sovereignty? Do you believe there are any cases other than or in addition to the above in which you would consider it acceptable for the federal government to act this way? Reference: LO 4.4, p. 147 Skill: Evaluation 8. The war on terror has sparked debates about the need for and acceptability of an expansion of federal power to counter the terrorist threat. The USA PATRIOT Act is one example of such an expansion; the Real ID Act is another. In your opinion, to what degree—if at all—should dual federalism be sacrificed for national security? What types of policies would you accept, and which ones would you consider beyond the realm of acceptability? Reference: LO 4.4, p. 158 Skill: Evaluation 9. Please analyze what the implications of a federalist system are. Specifically, address what problems federalism can help solve and how it does so. In addition, what problems does a federal system itself cause? Provide concrete examples from the textbook to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 4.1 and LO 4.2, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 10. Based on everything you have learned about the history of federalism in the United States, where do you expect federalism to be headed in the 21st century? In addition, can you imagine a future in which the international arena could be organized according to federalist principles, such as perhaps the European Union is today? Why or why not? Reference: LO 4.4, entire chapter Skill: Application

Chapter Five Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The Republican Party is more likely than the Democratic Party to talk about ALL BUT WHICH of the following rights? A) Property rights B) Gun ownership C) Voting rights D) The right to life E) The right of U.S. territories to self-determination Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 168–169 Skill: Understanding 2. According to the Freedom Map in the textbook, which of the following regions is the LEAST democratic? A) Africa B) South America C) Central America D) Western Europe E) North America Answer: A Reference: LO 5.1, p. 171 Skill: Analysis 3. The right of an accused individual to appear in court to hear charges against him or her is contained in the A) Due Process Clause. B) bill of attainder. C) ex post facto law. D) habeas corpus. E) Criminal Justice Clause. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Understanding

4. Imagine that Congress passes a law on June 1 of 1978 that makes being drunk in public illegal. Individual X was arrested and placed in police custody on May 31 of 1978 for destruction of public property. Individual X was under the influence of alcohol at the time. According to U.S. law, individual X A) can be tried for the destruction of public property but not for being drunk in public. B) can be tried for both, since he was already in custody when the law on drunkenness was passed. C) can be tried for both, since laws can be applied to time period up to 30 days before their passage. D) cannot be tried for either offense, since he damaged the property while drunk but there was no law against public drunkenness at the time. E) has to be tried separately for each of the two offenses. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Application 5. The Fourteenth Amendment was ratified in what context? A) The War of Independence B) The British-American War of 1812 C) Post-Civil War Reconstruction D) Industrialization in the late-nineteenth century E) World War I Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, p. 174 Skill: Understanding 6. When was the guarantee of free speech incorporated into the Fourteenth Amendment? A) 1798 B) 1897 C) 1925 D) 1944 E) 1963 Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, p. 175 Skill: Understanding

7. Traditionally, the Supreme Court has considered the constitutional right to keep and bear arms A) an individual’s right to own guns. B) an individual’s right to self-defense. C) a collective right to self-defense. D) the right of certain groups only. E) The Supreme Court has not yet declared a stance on the issue. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 176–178 Skill: Understanding 8. Most often, prior restraint has affected A) extremist groups. B) individuals. C) churches. D) news media. E) colleges. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.2, p. 179 Skill: Understanding 9. During the war on terrorism, most Americans A) pushed for restrictions on civil liberties in order to enhance security. B) resisted restrictions on civil liberties in the name of security. C) prevented restrictions on civil liberties in the name of security. D) acquiesced to politicians’ restrictions on civil liberties in the name of security. E) did not care about civil liberties one way or another. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Understanding 10. The Supreme Court case that established preferred position as the primary free-speech standard dealt with A) gender issues. B) religious issues. C) social issues. D) criminal issues. E) security issues. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 185–186 Skill: Analysis

11. When determining obscene content, the Supreme Court typically uses the _________. A) conservative standard B) community standard C) cosmopolitan standard D) convergent standard E) comparative standard Answer: B Reference: LO 5.2, p. 187 Skill: Understanding 12. How was the so-called balancing test used to determine the constitutionality of restrictions on the exercise of religion? A) A restriction could not impose a significant burden on the exercise of religious beliefs. B) A restriction had to serve a compelling government interest. C) The practice of religious beliefs could not interfere with a person’s contractual obligations (e.g., in the workplace). D) A and B E) B and C Answer: D Reference: LO 5.3, p. 192 Skill: Understanding 13. In the past, the Supreme Court has declared the death penalty A) unusual but not cruel. B) cruel and unusual punishment for anyone. C) cruel and unusual punishment in the case of some methods, of minors, and of the mentally retarded. D) cruel and unusual punishment in the case of the temporarily insane. E) never cruel or unusual. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 199–200 Skill: Understanding 14. Which of the following is NOT a factual statement? A) States exhibit significant variation in terms of penalties for certain crimes. B) The United States is in the minority of countries that use the death penalty around the world. C) The death penalty serves as a major deterrent to crime in the United States. D) Most criminals sentenced to death remain on death row for many years. E) The debate surrounding the death penalty often focuses on the deterrence effect of capital punishment. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 199–200 Skill: Analysis 112 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15. The decision in Roe v. Wade illustrates an emphasis on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) State interests B) Individual rights C) Privacy D) Women’s rights E) The protection of life Answer: D Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 204–205 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Due process essentially limits a government’s ability to restrict civil liberties. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 169–170 Skill: Analysis 2. Research has shown that civil liberties encourage economic growth rather than the other way around. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, p. 171 Skill: Understanding 3. The process by which the Supreme Court applied the Bill of Rights provisions to the states was called nationalization. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 174–175 Skill: Understanding 4. The standard of clear and present danger was adopted by the Supreme Court during World War II. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.2, p. 181 Skill: Understanding 5. A person’s level of trust in government heavily influences his or her commitment to civil liberties. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Analysis

6. If a school endorses a particular religion in school prayer, this does not constitute establishment of religion and is therefore constitutional. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 190–191 Skill: Analysis 7. The main standard currently used in the United States to determine the constitutionality of restrictions of the free exercise of religion is the balancing test. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 192–193 Skill: Understanding 8. Police officers are not allowed to search a person’s trash without probable cause. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 196–197 Skill: Understanding 9. The vast majority of U.S. states have the death penalty. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.4, p. 200 Skill: Understanding 10. Parents’ right to homeschool their children is derived from their right to privacy. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.5, p. 208 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Civil liberties are another name for _______. A) majority rights B) minority rights C) collective rights D) individual rights E) political rights Answer: D Reference: LO 5.1, p. 168 Skill: Understanding

2. With regard to Israel, A) both parties have an interest in Israel’s self-defense. B) only the Republican Party has an interest. C) only the Democratic Party has an interest. D) neither party has an interest. E) the United States has no relations with Israel. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.1, p. 169 Skill: Understanding 3. When the government restricts citizens’ rights to due process, this means that A) the members of government have weighed all the pros and cons of restricting rights carefully before making any decisions. B) there are established procedures and rules that have been followed. C) the government has given citizens ample time to adjust to the new restrictions (i.e., a due date). D) the government has put restrictions to a vote by the people. E) there is no such thing as due process. The government is not allowed to restrict civil rights. Answer: B Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 169–170 Skill: Understanding 4. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are criteria that Freedom House used to determine which countries have the strongest protections for civil rights? A) Freedom of expression B) Freedom of religion C) Freedom of thought D) Freedom of education E) Free economic activity Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 170–171 Skill: Understanding 5. The Freedom House ratings shown in the textbook reveal a(n) __________ pattern. A) geographic B) economic C) cultural D) political E) All of the above are correct. Answer: E Reference: LO 5.1, p. 171 Skill: Analysis

6. Patterns of the strength of civil liberties around the world correlate roughly with patterns of A) distribution of natural resources. B) levels of industrialization. C) levels of social homogeneity. D) distribution of prosperity. E) social stratification. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 171–172 Skill: Understanding 7. A bill of attainder is legislation that Congress A) can use in emergency situations to deal with war criminals. B) can use to deal with cases of treason. C) can use in emergency situations but only with foreign nationals. D) can use in cases of suspected terrorism. E) is prohibited from using by the Constitution. Answer: E Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Understanding 8. Which of the following protections are NOT included in the articles of the Constitution? A) Religious tests or oaths are prohibited for federal employment. B) Individuals have the right to hear the formal charges brought against them in court. C) Habeas corpus cannot be suspended for any reason. D) An individual cannot be tried ex post facto. E) All of the above are included. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Understanding 9. The first eight amendments of the Bill of Rights are primarily geared toward ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) State powers B) Law-making C) The interpretation of law D) The implementation of law E) Freedom of expression Answer: A Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 172–174 Skill: Understanding

10. So-called enemy combatants who are held at Guantanámo Bay A) never had habeas corpus rights. B) have always had habeas corpus rights. C) used to have habeas corpus rights but lost those rights in 2008. D) used to not have habeas corpus rights but gained those rights in 2008. E) might have habeas corpus rights depending on the crime they are accused of. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.1, p. 173 Skill: Understanding 11. Which amendment to the Constitution states that a right does not have to be specifically listed in the Constitution for a person to possess it? A) The First B) The Third C) The Fifth D) The Seventh E) The Ninth Answer: E Reference: LO 5.1, p. 174 Skill: Understanding 12. What explains why the Bill of Rights had a more limited effect on American politics in the nineteenth century than it does today? A) The Bill of Rights was expanded owing to judicial interpretation. B) The Bill of Rights was enforced less strictly in the nineteenth century. C) The nature of American politics has changed since the nineteenth century. D) The Bill of Rights was amended. E) The effect was not more limited during the nineteenth century. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.1, p. 174 Skill: Understanding 13. The concept of selective incorporation refers to the fact that the Bill of Rights A) was passed in several different steps, incorporating one right at a time. B) initially incorporated only a few states. C) was applied to states in bits and pieces rather than all at once. D) was applied to states only if they actually ratified it. E) was initially applied only to new states. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 175–176 Skill: Understanding

14. Prior to 1961, A) there was no state, local, or federal prohibition on conducting police searches without a warrant. B) there was no state or local prohibition on conducting police searches without a warrant, but there was a federal law against it. C) conducting police searches without a warrant was prohibited locally but not on the state or federal level. D) there was no federal prohibition on conducting police searches without a warrant. E) there have always been federal, state, and local laws to prevent police searches without a warrant. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.1, p. 176 Skill: Understanding 15. ALL BUT WHICH of the following amendments is not fully incorporated yet? A) The right to keep and bear arms B) No search and seizure without warrant C) Limits on the quartering of soldiers D) The right to a jury trial in civil cases E) No excessive bail or punishment Answer: B Reference: LO 5.1, p. 176 Skill: Understanding 16. The Supreme Court A) has nationalized all civil rights. B) tolerates some flexibility on fundamental rights. C) tolerates some flexibility on qualified rights. D) tolerates some flexibility on fundamental and qualified rights. E) has not tried to regulate civil rights at all. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 178–179 Skill: Understanding 17. With regard to the freedom to obtain an abortion, the Supreme Court A) has nationalized the issue. B) is trying to nationalize the issue. C) has denationalized the issue. D) has not addressed the issue. E) has universally granted the right to an abortion. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 178–179 Skill: Understanding

18. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are paths by which the scope and reach of civilliberties protections have changed over time? A) Incorporation B) Nationalization C) Legal precedents D) New interpretations E) The discovery of new rights Answer: C Reference: LO 5.2, p. 179 Skill: Understanding 19. What is today’s Supreme Court’s position on prior restraint? A) It encourages prior restraint. B) It approves of prior restraint in cases of national security. C) It approves of prior restraint in cases of political partisanship. D) It approves of prior restraint during times of war. E) It is reluctant to tolerate prior restraint. Answer: E Reference: LO 5.2, p. 179 Skill: Understanding 20. The Supreme Court has ruled that cross burning A) is always constitutionally protected. B) is constitutionally protected as long as it is not intended to intimidate. C) is constitutionally protected as long as it is not done in a racial context. D) is never constitutionally protected. E) The issue has not been addressed by the Supreme Court yet. Answer: B Reference: LO 5.2, p. 180 Skill: Understanding 21. Up until _____________, the standard of ____________ guided the Supreme Court’s decisions on freedom of speech. After that, it was replaced by the standard of ______________. A) 1899, clear and present danger, presumed reasonableness B) 1909, presumed reasonableness, clear and present danger C) 1919, presumed reasonableness, clear and present danger D) 1929, clear and present danger, presumed reasonableness E) 1939, clear and present danger, presumed reasonableness Answer: C Reference: LO 5.2, p. 180 Skill: Understanding

22. In the context of World War I, the Supreme Court A) replaced the standard of presumed reasonableness with the clear-and-presentdanger standard. B) replaced the clear-and-present-danger standard with the standard of presumed reasonableness. C) expanded the standard of presumed reasonableness by adding the standard of clear and present danger. D) expanded the standard of clear and present danger by adding the presumedreasonableness standard. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 5.2, p. 181 Skill: Understanding 23. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are influences on Americans’ level of commitment to civil liberties, according to the textbook? A) The degree of perceived threat B) A person’s socioeconomic background C) The level of trust in the government D) The occurrence of international conflict E) Political rhetoric Answer: B Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Understanding 24. Which of the following made it illegal for anyone to write or say anything that might bring disrepute or disfavor to the government? A) The Sedition Act of 1798 B) The Alien Act of 1918 C) The Smith Act of 1940 D) The Internal Security Act of 1950 E) The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 Answer: A Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Understanding

25. Americans’ likelihood of accepting restrictions on civil liberties depends largely on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The historical context B) The level of perceived threat C) The verifiability of danger D) Political rhetoric E) The level of trust in the government Answer: C Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Analysis 26. According to the gravity-of-danger standard used by the Supreme Court, speech can be restricted under which of the following circumstances? A) The effect of a speech is very grave and very likely. B) The effect of a speech has to be neither very grave nor very likely. C) The effect of a speech is very grave but not very likely. D) Neither gravity nor likelihood plays a role at all. E) Only the likelihood of an outcome plays a role, regardless of the gravity. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.2, p. 185 Skill: Understanding 27. In ALL BUT WHICH of the following scenarios is speech constitutionally protected? A) A white-supremacist rally at which a participant holds up a sign that encourages the burning of minority groups’ property B) A high-school student at a Catholic private school holding a sign with an antireligious message at a school event C) The American Nazi party marches through a community heavily populated by Holocaust survivors D) A newspaper knowingly publishing a false accusation against a public figure E) All of the above are protected. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 185–186 Skill: Application 28. In which decision did the Supreme Court adopt preferred position as its primary freespeech standard? A) Brandenburg v. Ohio B) Florida v. Gaines C) Connecticut v. Miller D) Rhode Island v. James E) Delaware v. Rhodes Answer: A Reference: LO 5.2, p. 186 Skill: Understanding 121 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

29. With its decision in Brandenburg v. Ohio, the Supreme Court did ALL BUT WHICH of the following? It A) reversed the burden of proof in cases of restrictions on free speech. B) implied that government restrictions on freedom of speech were inherently unreasonable. C) placed the burden of proof on the government. D) required proof that limiting speech was desirable and constitutionally acceptable. E) removed the protection for political speech. Answer: E Reference: LO 5.2, p. 186 Skill: Understanding 30. Defamation of a nonpublic figure includes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) A spoken or written statement B) A statement that is heard or read by a third party C) A statement that harms the target’s reputation D) A person knowingly making a false statement E) A statement that is false Answer: D Reference: LO 5.2, p. 187 Skill: Understanding 31. Assume that a newspaper prints a story that falsely claims that a famous movie star has committed a crime. The newspaper did not know the information was incorrect but did not particularly care to investigate its correctness. This can be considered A) slander. B) libel. C) defamation. D) All of the above E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 5.2, p. 187 Skill: Application 32. One of the main reasons that the Supreme Court has continued to refine its position on restrictions of free speech is A) the emergence of new potential threats. B) the ambiguous terminology used in standards. C) the replacement of justices. D) political pressure. E) the realization that the court had been wrong. Answer: B Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 187–200 Skill: Analysis

33. The fact that the government is not supposed to designate any official religion is derived from the A) Establishment Clause. B) Free Exercise Clause. C) Right and Proper Clause. D) Freedom of Religion Clause. E) Separation of Church and State Clause. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.3, p. 189 Skill: Understanding 34. In its decisions, the Supreme Court A) is not allowed to refer to the United States as a Christian nation as part of its reasoning, in order not to give preference to one religion over another. B) is not allowed to refer to the United States as a Christian nation as part of its reasoning but has consistently done so anyway. C) has sometimes referred to the United States as a Christian nation as part of its reasoning, even though it is not founded specifically upon Christianity. D) is allowed to refer to the United States as a Christian nation as part of its reasoning but only because the United States is founded specifically upon Christianity. E) has avoided religious references as part of its reasoning. Answer: C Reference: LO 5.3, p. 189 Skill: Understanding 35. Over time, the Supreme Court’s decisions concerning freedom of speech have A) become stricter, allowing the government more leeway in restricting speech. B) become stricter, increasing the punishments for violations. C) remained relatively stable. D) become more relaxed, giving individuals greater freedom to speak their minds. E) become much more relaxed, making it next to impossible for the government to restrict freedom of speech. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 189–190 Skill: Analysis

36. In which of the following countries are students prevented from wearing religious insignia? A) Germany B) France C) The United States but only in public schools D) The United States in all schools E) Canada Answer: B Reference: LO 5.3, p. 192 Skill: Understanding 37. What standard is currently used to determine the constitutionality of restrictions on the free exercise of religion? A) The balancing test is used universally. B) The neutrality test is used universally. C) The neutrality test is used first, then the balancing test is used in some cases. D) The Supreme Court and Congress disagree over which should be the primary standard. E) It depends on the type of religion. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.3, p. 194 Skill: Understanding 38. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are the rights of a person accused of committing a crime? A) No double jeopardy B) The hearing of charges C) No entrapment D) The right to confront witnesses E) The right to be granted bail Answer: E Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 195–196 Skill: Understanding

39. Assume that the police are pursuing a car that they know carries illegal drugs. The police do not have a search warrant, however, and the driver is not violating any traffic rules. If the cops stop the car, search it, and collect the illegal drugs, is this evidence admissible in court? A) No, because the cops did not have a search warrant. B) No, because the driver did not violate any traffic rules. C) Yes, because they knew the drugs were in there. D) Yes, because the fact that the illegal drugs were being moved introduced a timesensitive element. E) Yes, but only if it seems reasonable that the drugs would have been found in a legal search later on. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 196–197 Skill: Application 40. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is currently still offering Miranda-like warnings? A) Germany B) France C) Italy D) Great Britain E) The United States Answer: D Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 198–199 Skill: Understanding 41. Which of the following is not a factual argument against the death penalty? A) People are released from prison every year once new evidence proves their innocence. B) The death penalty is immoral and cruel. C) Most cases involving the death penalty go through several appeals, significantly raising the cost to the U.S. legal system. D) The death penalty has not significantly reduced the number of crimes committed in the United States. E) All of the above are factual arguments. Answer: B Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 199–200 Skill: Analysis

42. The state of Texas passed new death-penalty statutes in 1973. Since that time, approximately 15 percent of death-penalty cases have been overturned on appeal, which is roughly half the national average. This indicates that A) the new death-penalty statutes in Texas have been a success. B) the state of Texas protects defendants’ rights at a very high level. C) fewer people have been wrongfully convicted in Texas. D) the chances of an innocent person being executed are very slim in Texas. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 199–200 Skill: Analysis 43. What did Congress ultimately decide when it came time to consider reauthorizing the USA PATRIOT Act? A) The act has not yet come up for reauthorization. B) Congress refused to reauthorize the majority of the provisions. C) Congress reauthorized approximately half of the provisions. D) Congress made all but two of the provisions permanent. E) Congress is still considering the issue. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 201–202 Skill: Understanding 44. A study on the USA PATRIOT Act revealed that between 2001 and 2005 support for which of the following provisions had dropped below 50 percent? A) Expanded government monitoring of e-mails and cell phones B) Detaining immigrants without charges for up to seven days C) Obtaining personal information from third parties D) The ability to obtain information on Americans’ reading and viewing habits E) Easier authorization for searches and wiretaps Answer: A Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 201–202 Skill: Understanding 45. The landmark abortion decision Roe v. Wade was based on A) an earlier decision concerning the right to privacy for married couples. B) an earlier decision about new medical standards in women’s health care. C) an earlier decision about gender equality. D) an earlier decision concerning freedom of religion. E) Roe v. Wade was not based on a prior decision. Answer: A Reference: LO 5.5, p. 204 Skill: Understanding

46. In Roe v. Wade, the Supreme Court decided that __________ take(s) precedence in the second trimester. A) state interests B) a woman’s right to privacy C) marital rights D) the protection of life E) government interests Answer: A Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 204–205 Skill: Understanding 47. Which of the following is NOT true about abortion rights at the national level? A) The most significant restriction of abortion rights was George W. Bush’s PartialBirth Abortion Ban. B) The Partial-Birth Abortion Ban applied only to one specific procedure. C) The Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the Partial-Birth Abortion Ban. D) The issue of the Partial-Birth Abortion ban is awaiting a public referendum. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Reference: LO 5.5, p. 206 Skill: Understanding 48. In which of the following did the Supreme Court conclude that there is no right to privacy for homosexual conduct? A) Roe v. Wade B) Griswold v. Connecticut C) Bowers v. Hardwick D) Lawrence v. Texas E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 5.5, p. 206 Skill: Understanding 49. In the case of Lawrence v. Texas, the Supreme Court addressed in its decision on homosexual behavior ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Privacy B) Liberty C) Social norms D) State interests E) Dignity Answer: C Reference: LO 5.5, p. 206 Skill: Understanding

50. With regard to end-of-life issues, which of the following is correct? A) The Supreme Court has decided that a patient can refuse unwanted medical treatment. B) In the case of an incompetent patient, the state can require clear and convincing evidence about the wishes of the patient. C) The court has yet to address the broader issue of whether liberty includes the right to suicide. D) The court upheld state bans on physician-assisted suicide in New York and Washington. E) The court let stand a law that allowed physician-assisted suicide in Oregon. Answer: E Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 207–208 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. In 2010, the Supreme Court ruled that nonprofit organizations, but not corporations, have the right to spend their funds independently in support of or in opposition to candidates. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 166 Skill: Understanding 2. Most political-science research has not found a clear causal connection between the campaign spending of PACs and their supported candidate’s vote in Congress. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 167 Skill: Understanding 3. The habeas corpus writ can never be suspended. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Understanding 4. A right does not have to be specifically included in the Constitution in order for people to possess it. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 172–173 Skill: Understanding

5. The Federalists decided to adopt the Bill of Rights primarily because they were concerned about the rights of the individual and in order to introduce a certain balance of power between citizens and their government. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 172–173 Skill: Analysis 6. The provisions in the Bill of Rights are likely the result of British-American relations. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 172–174 Skill: Analysis 7. In many ways, the incorporation of the Bill of Rights became a self-fulfilling prophecy. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 174–176 Skill: Analysis 8. One of the most controversial provisions in the Bill of Rights that has NOT yet been incorporated is the right to bear arms. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 174–175 Skill: Understanding 9. The Supreme Court tolerates very little variation from state to state when it comes to qualified rights. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 176–177 Skill: Understanding 10. The Supreme Court today is reluctant to tolerate prior restraint. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 177–178 Skill: Understanding 11. The Supreme Court has continuously refined its position on freedom of speech owing to political pressures. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 177–185 Skill: Analysis

12. Americans are more likely to accept restrictions on civil liberties when they perceive a threat to their identities. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Analysis 13. Political rhetoric tends not to affect Americans’ commitment to civil liberties, mainly because these liberties are such an instrumental part of American political culture. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Analysis 14. The Supreme Court’s standard of the preferred position represents by far its strongest position on freedom of speech. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 185–186 Skill: Understanding 15. As part of the so-called Lemon Test, government action concerning freedom of religion cannot favor a particular religion. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.3, p. 190 Skill: Understanding 16. Students in Germany are prohibited from wearing any religious insignia in school. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 191–192 Skill: Understanding 17. Imagine that an employer forbids its workers from wearing any jewelry on the job owing to safety reasons. One employee who was told she cannot wear her cross feels that this takes away her right to freely exercise her religion. She is correct. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.3, p. 192 Skill: Application 18. If restricting religious expression is the incidental result of another law, this nonetheless interferes with the Constitution’s clause on free exercise. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.3, p. 193 Skill: Understanding

19. Police are allowed to stop cars for sobriety checkpoints even if the driver does not exhibit suspicious behavior. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 196–197 Skill: Understanding 20. Assume that a known terrorist is in the process of moving evidence against his organization out of the country on a boat. U.S. law enforcement stops him and collects the evidence but has no warrant for a search. As a result, the evidence is not permissible in court. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 196–198 Skill: Application 21. The death penalty serves as a major deterrent to crime in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.4, p. 200 Skill: Understanding 22. The current legislation on abortion acknowledges states’ interests in preserving life under certain circumstances. Answer: True Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 203–205 Skill: Understanding 23. With regard to abortion rights, judges and politicians tend to be much more conservative than the general public. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 206–207 Skill: Analysis 24. Lawyers and Supreme Court justices can identify new civil rights only through the Fourteenth Amendment. Answer: False Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 208–209 Skill: Understanding 25. Substantive due process deals with the interpretation of “life, liberty, and property.” Answer: True Reference: LO 5.5, p. 209 Skill: Understanding

Short-Answer Questions 1. Under what circumstances are Americans usually willing to tolerate limits being placed on their civil rights by the government? Which rights do you believe Americans are more willing to give up? Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 166–170 Skill: Analysis 2. How do American civil liberties compare to those of other regions in the world? Which regions have very few civil liberties? What are three factors that contribute to the development of strong civil liberties in a country, and what are factors that might prevent such a development? Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 170–172 Skill: Analysis 3. Looking at the map outlining the levels of freedom around the world, what patterns do you detect? What are possible variables—political, historical, cultural—that might explain these patterns? Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Analysis 4. Research suggests that civil liberties encourage economic growth and vice versa. Please analyze the causal relationship between these two variables, explaining how they are connected. Reference: LO 5.1, p. 172 Skill: Analysis 5. How would you personally interpret the intent of the Constitution when it comes to the right to bear arms? Why? Reference: LO 5.1, pgs. 173–178 Skill: Analysis 6. Choose a real-world or hypothetical example (not one from the textbook) that illustrates a situation that—in your opinion—justifies prior restraint. What about the situation makes you likely to accept prior restraint here? Reference: LO 5.2, p. 179 Skill: Application 7. How does Americans’ support for civil liberties in general compare with their support for specific cases? Provide several examples to illustrate your arguments. Why do you suppose this is the case? Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Analysis 132 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Which amendment (and which element of that amendment) holds a so-called preferred position in the eyes of the Supreme Court? What exactly does this mean? Do you agree with this? Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 185–186 Skill: Analysis 9. In your opinion, how does the principle of separation between church and state compare in theory and in practice in the United States? Provide specific examples. Reference: LO 5.3, p. 189 Skill: Application 10. How has freedom of religion—and specifically placing religious symbols in public— been addressed in European countries? Do you agree with these approaches? What, if anything, can the United States learn from these examples? Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 191–192 Skill: Evaluation 11. Please explain the nature of the exclusionary rule and its implications for court cases. Do you agree with all the provisions currently in place? If you had to change one, which would it be? Why? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 197–198 Skill: Evaluation 12. What are the current standards used to determine cruel and unusual punishment? What types of punishment are considered cruel and unusual? Which ones should be considered cruel and unusual? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 198–200 Skill: Evaluation 13. What are the major provisions of the USA PATRIOT Act? Do you believe these provisions will change anytime soon or that they’re here to stay? Why? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 201–202 Skill: Analysis 14. How far do you think a person’s right to privacy should go? Where would you draw the line? Why? Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 203–204 Skill: Evaluation

15. Do you think your university should be allowed to monitor e-mails that are sent from a school-issued account? What about your professors’ e-mails? What about private e-mail accounts that are accessed through campus computers or campus Internet connections? Why? Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 207–208 Skill: Application Essay Questions 1. In your opinion, what is the difference between censorship and prior restraint? Be as specific as possible, and support your arguments. Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 179–180 Skill: Analysis 2. If you could change any aspect of the current status of freedom of speech in the United States, what would you change? Why or why not? In other words, do you believe that the current standards being used are appropriate? Use concrete examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 179–189 Skill: Application 3. Please summarize the evidence provided in the textbook that suggests that Americans are more likely to tolerate restrictions of their civil liberties during times of war. In your opinion, is this tendency a good thing or a bad thing? What are the pros and cons you can think of? Reference: LO 5.2, pgs. 182–185 Skill: Evaluation 4. When it comes to freedom of religion in the United States, do you think Americans are equally tolerant of all religions? Which religions do you think are perhaps less accepted in this country? Why? Reference: LO 5.3, pgs. 189–192 Skill: Evaluation 5. In your opinion, should the rights (outlined in the textbook) of individuals accused of having committed a crime apply to (a) legal aliens, (b) illegal aliens, (c) individuals suspected of terrorist acts? Why or why not? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 195–201 Skill: Application

6. Do you believe the death penalty constitutes cruel and unusual punishment? Why or why not? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 199–200 Skill: Evaluation 7. How do you think the framers of the Constitution would feel about the USA PATRIOT Act? Why? Be sure to link your argument to specific aspects of the framers’ own political thoughts. Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 201–202 Skill: Application 8. How effective do you think the provisions in the USA PATRIOT Act are in the fight against terrorism? Which provisions would you change—and how—and what provisions would you add in order to make it more effective? Reference: LO 5.4, pgs. 201–202 Skill: Application 9. Do you believe that the government should be allowed to read individuals’ e-mails during times of war? If so, which individuals? Why? If not, why do you think this should not be allowed? Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 203–207 Skill: Evaluation 10. Where would you set the boundaries of an individual’s right to privacy? In other words, under what circumstances do you think it is justified to invade someone’s privacy? And when should it never be allowed? Why? Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 203–207 Skill: Application 11. Do public figures have less of a right to privacy? What are arguments in favor of this viewpoint, and what speaks against it? How do you feel about this? Reference: LO 5.5, pgs. 203–207 Skill: Evaluation 12. With regard to the recent developments in civil liberties in the United States, U.S. congressman Ron Paul (R-TX) said, "Our forefathers would think it's time for a revolution. This is why they revolted in the first place….They revolted against much more mild oppression." What was he trying to say? Do you agree or disagree with his sentiment? Why? Reference: LO 5.1, LO 5.2, LO 5.3, LO 5.4, and LO 5.5, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

Chapter Six Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The bill dealing with the issue of Japanese-American detentions contained provisions for all of the following EXCEPT A) a $20,000 payment to each detainee or descendant. B) a return of private property seized. C) funds for research. D) funds for education. E) a national apology. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, p. 215 Skill: Understanding 2. The textbook definition of “civil rights” includes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Equal treatment B) Equal responsibilities C) Equal opportunities D) Equal education E) Equal privileges Answer: D Reference: LO 6.1, p. 216 Skill: Understanding 3. The Thirteenth Amendment makes it unconstitutional to A) deny someone the right to vote based on race. B) own slaves anywhere in the United States. C) deny former slaves equal protection under the law. D) deny anyone the right to freely exercise his or her religion. E) deny women the right to vote. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.1, p. 218 Skill: Understanding

4. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of the Constitution’s Equal Protection Clause? It A) is contained in the Fourteenth Amendment. B) grants equal legal protection to former slaves. C) is tied to the definition of American citizenship. D) put an end to racial segregation. E) became the basis for much subsequent legislation. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.1, p. 218 Skill: Analysis 5. Which of the following best supports the argument that the Reconstruction period did not successfully establish civil rights for blacks? A) The Fourteenth Amendment B) The doctrine of state action C) The Civil Rights Act of 1875 D) The Civil Rights Cases of 1883 E) The founding of the Ku Klux Klan Answer: D Reference: LO 6.1, p. 220 Skill: Analysis 6. What happened after Franklin D. Roosevelt’s death in 1945? President Harry Truman A) continued to use executive orders for the advancement of civil rights with congressional approval. B) continued to use executive orders for the advancement of civil rights even though Congress opposed many of his decisions. C) abandoned the advancement of civil rights owing to congressional opposition. D) abandoned the advancement of civil rights despite congressional opposition. E) repealed some of the advancements of civil rights made under FDR. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 222 Skill: Understanding 7. Which of the following was the first most fully integrated institution in American society? A) Churches B) Universities C) Civil service D) The military E) Schools Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, p. 222 Skill: Understanding

8. Busing was used to address the issue of A) de jure segregation. B) de facto segregation. C) ad hoc segregation. D) economic inequality. E) private discrimination. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 224 Skill: Analysis 9. According to the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which of the following is an example of discrimination? A) A privately owned textile company hires a lesser-qualified male candidate over a female candidate. B) A public university denies admission to a Pakistani-born student because he is not a United States citizen. C) A private security company fires a person because she belongs to a religious group the agency considers to be a cult. D) A government agency does not consider a qualified white employee for promotion because it wants to increase the percentage of minorities in leadership positions. E) All of the above are examples. Answer: E Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 226–227 Skill: Application 10. With regard to affirmative-action college admissions, the Supreme Court ruled—in several cases—ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Minorities had been discriminated against and deserved help. B) No racial quota was permissible. C) Race could be considered a plus factor. D) Any advantage resulting from race needed to be narrowly tailored. E) Increasing diversity on campus could be considered of compelling interest to public academic institutions. Answer: A Reference: LO 6.2, p. 231 Skill: Understanding

11. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about Great Britain? A) Britain has a sizable minority population, both native and immigrant. B) Britain has enforced anti-discrimination laws more strongly. C) Britain has moved toward American-style antidiscrimination laws. D) Britain has more-generous government services. E) Britain has government services that are tailored to particular minority groups. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Understanding 12. Which of the following CANNOT be said to have contributed to advancements in civil rights? A) Economic incentives for the majority B) Changes in the political culture C) New legislation D) Court decisions E) Presidents’ executive decisions Answer: A Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 232–233 Skill: Analysis 13. Why did issues brought forth in the later stages of the Black civil-rights movement garner less support from the general population? A) People had become tired of the constant demands. B) The new issues would have cost more. C) The new issues were much more radical and extremist. D) The new issues did not fit well into American political culture. E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 237–238 Skill: Analysis 14. The fact that race and ethnicity are considered suspect categories by the courts when it comes to classifications owes primarily to _________ reasons. A) cultural B) historical C) political D) rational E) economic Answer: B Reference: LO 6.4, p. 239 Skill: Understanding

15. Which of the following is not true about the same-sex marriage movement? A) Marriage has traditionally been a state-level issue. B) The federal government has no authority to ban state-approved marriage arrangements. C) Opponents are pushing for a constitutional amendment that prohibits same-sex marriage. D) Supporters are arguing that this is a civil-rights and equality issue. E) All of the above are true. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.4, p. 247 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The original Constitution contained a provision that forbade the importation of slaves after 1808. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Understanding 2. The Supreme Court’s Dred Scott decision upheld the view that Congress could not deprive citizens of their property. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 217–218 Skill: Understanding 3. De facto segregation has been successfully overcome through legislative means. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 226–227 Skill: Analysis 4. With regard to college admissions, the Supreme Court ruled that race cannot be the basis for any decisions. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, p. 227 Skill: Understanding 5. Political scientists have not been able to reach any conclusive evidence on the existence of racism in modern America. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Analysis

6. France’s affirmative-action programs have been more successful at overcoming racial division than the United States’. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Analysis 7. The practice of civil disobedience in the fifties and sixties involved both violent and nonviolent tactics. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 233–235 Skill: Understanding 8. Native Americans were granted citizenship rights after women and before Black Americans. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.4, p. 241 Skill: Understanding 9. Compared to the United States, many European countries’ policies on maternity leave are much stricter. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.4, p. 243 Skill: Understanding 10. Age and disability discrimination is judged by the same standard as racial and sexual discrimination. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 245–246 Skill: Understanding

Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. In 1944, the Supreme Court addressed the issue of Japanese-American detentions and concluded that A) the removal and detention of Japanese-Americans was unconstitutional. B) the removal and detention of Japanese-Americans was constitutional. C) the removal and detention of Japanese-Americans was constitutional but the seizure of their private property was not. D) the detention of Japanese-Americans was constitutional but they should have been held in their hometowns. E) the removal of Japanese-Americans from sensitive areas was constitutional, but it did not directly rule on the matter of their detention. Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, p. 214 Skill: Understanding 2. Which civil-rights movement was the earliest to be extensively organized, according to the textbook? A) The Black movement B) The women’s movement C) The Hispanic immigrants’ movement D) The European immigrants’ movement E) The Irish-American movement Answer: A Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 216–217 Skill: Understanding 3. With regard to slavery, the Constitution A) expressly forbade slavery. B) allowed slavery to continue but set a date in the future when it would have to be abolished. C) expressly permitted slavery. D) implied that slavery was constitutional. E) did not address slavery directly or indirectly. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Analysis

4. An important goal of political leaders after the ratification of the Constitution became A) making the issue of slavery a priority. B) abolishing slavery as soon as possible. C) maintaining the balance of power between slave states and non-slave states. D) persuading the slave states to give up slavery. E) persuading the non-slave states to tolerate slavery. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Understanding 5. What did the Missouri Compromise of 1820 address? A) The legal treatment of slaves B) The line separating slave states from non-slave states C) The morality of owning slaves D) The economic impact of slave ownership E) The minimal civil rights of slaves Answer: B Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Understanding 6. The Supreme Court decided against Dred Scott’s appeal for freedom in 1857, arguing that A) even though Scott had lived on free soil with his master he had lived most of his life in a slave state. B) Scott’s status as a slave was not tied to a specific territory. C) his master’s widow had the same claim that his master did. D) Scott did not have the money to buy his freedom. E) Scott was not entitled to bring forth a lawsuit. Answer: E Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 217–218 Skill: Understanding 7. The so-called Civil War Amendments A) concerned only civil rights for blacks. B) concerned some civil rights for blacks, as well as reparations to be paid by the southern states. C) included some civil rights for blacks, provisions for reparations, and a restructuring of the U.S. government. D) concerned only the restructuring of the U.S. government and economy. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 217–218 Skill: Understanding

8. The Fifteenth Amendment makes it unconstitutional to A) deny someone the right to vote based on race or color. B) own slaves anywhere in the United States. C) deny former slaves equal protection under the law. D) discriminate against minorities when hiring employees. E) require literacy tests for voters. Answer: A Reference: LO 6.1, p. 218 Skill: Understanding 9. The laws that were passed in order to ensure the implementation of the Civil Rights Acts of the Reconstruction era were called A) civil-rights acts. B) implementation acts. C) enforcement acts. D) promise acts. E) executive acts. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 218–219 Skill: Understanding 10. Which political party initially tried to attract Black voters during the Reconstruction era? A) Republicans. B) Democrats C) Independents D) The civil-rights party E) None of the parties Answer: A Reference: LO 6.1, p. 219 Skill: Understanding 11. A direct consequence of the Fourteenth Amendment was A) the integration of blacks into American society. B) the path to citizenship being made easier. C) the so-called State Action Doctrine. D) a vastly increased caseload at the Supreme Court. E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 6.1, p. 219 Skill: Analysis

12. In the Civil Rights Cases, the Supreme Court ruled that A) the states were in charge of implementing the Civil War Amendments. B) the Civil War Amendments did not apply to the private sector. C) the federal government did not have to pay for the implementation of the Civil War Amendments. D) some of the Civil War Amendments were to be overturned. E) the Civil War Amendments were unconstitutional. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.1, p. 219 Skill: Understanding 13. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were stumbling blocks for the Civil War Amendments? A) Lack of enforcement power B) Lack of political will among blacks C) The ambiguity of the amendments D) The narrow interpretation of civil-rights laws by the Supreme Court E) Lack of application to the private sector Answer: B Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 219–220 Skill: Analysis 14. The Jim Crow laws essentially legalized ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Segregation B) Inequality C) Discrimination D) A two-class society E) Hatred Answer: E Reference: LO 6.1, p. 220 Skill: Analysis 15. At the end of the nineteenth century, the president and Congress A) had finally begun to take the issue of racial discrimination seriously. B) had passed numerous laws that addressed the issue of racial discrimination. C) had passed laws that addressed the issue of racial discrimination but did nothing to enforce it. D) were not likely to touch the issue of racial discrimination. E) were unaware of the issue of racial discrimination. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.1, p. 221 Skill: Understanding

16. Which of the following was NOT part of the strategy of Black activist organizations in the first half of the twentieth century? A) Form a legal strategy for use in the courts B) Convince politicians that the protection of civil rights was in their own best interests C) Lobby both the legislative and executive branches D) Concentrate their efforts on influencing the president E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, p. 221 Skill: Understanding 17. Which president was instrumental in the advancement of Black civil rights owing to the use of unilateral executive powers? A) Woodrow Wilson B) Herbert Hoover C) Franklin D. Roosevelt D) Dwight D. Eisenhower E) John F. Kennedy Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, p. 221 Skill: Understanding 18. The Fair Employment Practices Committee (FEPC) was created by A) the NAACP. B) the president. C) Congress. D) the president and Congress. E) the Supreme Court. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 221 Skill: Understanding 19. President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the executive order that created the Fair Employment Practices Committee (FEPC) in 1941 because of ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Domestic political pressures B) Domestic economic concerns C) Domestic social pressures D) International developments E) National-security concerns Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 221–222 Skill: Analysis

20. What happened to the Fair Employment Practices Committee (FEPC) after the end of World War II? A) It has remained in effect to the present day. B) It had always been a temporary committee designed to help win the war, so it was dissolved in 1945. C) It expired in 1946, when Congress refused to extend funding, and has not been revived since. D) It expired in 1946 but was made permanent a few years later. E) It was not even created until after World War II. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, p. 222 Skill: Understanding 21. After 1937, Supreme Court decisions began to challenge racial discrimination. This turn was primarily due to A) World War II. B) a change of power at the Supreme Court. C) the lack of resistance in Congress. D) the lack of resistance from the public. E) the economic situation in the United States. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 222 \Skill: Understanding 22. The legal strategy the NAACP used to challenge racial segregation could best be described as A) all or nothing. It challenged the larger issues first. B) baby steps. It challenged only small issues that were easy to win. C) the snowball principle. It began with specific cases that then lead to further legislation. D) uncoordinated. There was no grand scheme. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, p. 222 Skill: Analysis

23. The Supreme Court’s decision in Brown v. Board of Education essentially did ALL BUT WHICH of the following? It A) ensured equal treatment of blacks. B) overturned Plessy v. Ferguson. C) overturned the Jim Crow laws. D) required the integration of public schools. E) stated that segregated education was inherently unequal. Answer: A Reference: LO 6.2, p. 223 Skill: Analysis 24. Segregation that is explicitly written into laws is called A) de facto segregation. B) de jure segregation. C) ad hoc segregation. D) primus inter pares segregation. E) post hoc segregation. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 224 Skill: Analysis 25. According to a 1974 Supreme Court decision, which of the following examples falls under the Fourteenth Amendment’s equal-protection guarantee? A) A minority student is denied admission to a mostly white private school because his parents cannot afford the tuition. B) A rural public high school has no minority students because it happens to be in an exclusively white neighborhood. C) A minority student is denied admission to a public university because she does not have a high enough SAT score. D) A minority student is granted admission to a public university at the expense of another minority student who is more qualified. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, p. 224 Skill: Application

26. A decade after Brown v. Board of Education, roughly what percentage of southern black children attended schools that had a majority of white students? A) 70 percent B) 50 percent C) 30 percent D) 10 percent E) Less than 5 percent Answer: E Reference: LO 6.2, p. 224 Skill: Understanding 27. Studying the decisions of Plessy v. Ferguson and Brown v. Board of Education illustrates A) that even the Supreme Court makes mistakes but later corrects them. B) that Supreme Court decisions tend to coincide with public opinion. C) that Supreme Court decisions are heavily influenced by politics. D) that the Supreme Court occasionally helps to determine public policy. E) that the Supreme Court shies away from social issues. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 224–225 Skill: Analysis 28. All but which of the following determine whether a school system is unitary, as outlined in Brown v. Board of Education? A) The student and faculty assignments B) The demographics of the school district C) Transportation D) The physical facilities E) The extracurricular activities Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 225 (Table 6-1) Skill: Understanding

29. Based on the information presented in Figure 6-1, which of the following can we NOT conclude from the data presented? A) Generally speaking, Asian students are as likely to attend schools with low percentages of poverty as white students are. B) Latino students are more likely to attend schools with high percentages of poverty than schools with low or moderate percentages of poverty. C) Black students and Latino students’ percentages are very similar. D) More students attend schools with low or moderate percentages of poverty than schools with high percentages of poverty. E) Native Americans are just as likely to attend schools with low percentages of poverty as they are to attend schools with low or moderate percentages of poverty. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, p. 226 (Figure 6-1) Skill: Analysis 30. Based on the information presented in Figure 6-1, which of the following can we NOT conclude from the data presented? A) Black and Latino students perform worse in school than white and Asian students. B) Race largely determines what type of school a student is likely to attend. C) There are more schools with low or moderate percentages of poverty than there are schools with high percentages of poverty. D) Most schools with high percentages of poverty are located in inner cities. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 6.2, p. 226 (Figure 6-1) Skill: Analysis 31. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was specifically linked to the A) equal-protection guarantee in the Fourteenth Amendment. B) separate-but-equal doctrine. C) ability of Congress to regulate commerce. D) state-action requirement. E) decision in Brown v. Board of Education. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 226–227 Skill: Understanding

32. Literacy tests designed to prevent African-Americans from voting were finally prohibited in ________. A) 1945 B) 1957 C) 1965 D) 1968 E) 1974 Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 226 Skill: Understanding 33. Affirmative action in the United States began as the result of a(n) A) executive decision. B) constitutional amendment. C) court order. D) committee recommendation. E) congressional bill. Answer: A Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 226–227 Skill: Understanding 34. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were the results of presidential executive orders? A) President Eisenhower’s and President Kennedy’s deployments of National Guard units to southern states in order to enforce school desegregation B) President Kennedy’s creation of compliance mechanisms for nondiscriminatory employment policies by federal contractors C) President Johnson’s protection against discrimination based on sex D) President Johnson’s order to abolish poll taxes E) President Clinton’s protection against discrimination based on sexual orientation and on one’s status as a parent Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 227–231 Skill: Understanding 35. How did Black civil-rights leaders feel about affirmative action in the form of fixed quotas in the sixties? A) They were the ones who had been pushing for affirmative action. B) They welcomed the opportunity. C) They felt indifferent about it. D) They feared a backlash among white working-class voters. E) They protested against it. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 227–231 Skill: Understanding

36. When the classification of race is involved in a case, the Supreme Court uses the standard of A) minimum rationality. B) strict scrutiny. C) intense scrutiny. D) maximum rationality. E) common sense. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, p. 231 Skill: Understanding 37. Opinion polls show that A) there is no significant difference of opinion between blacks and whites in America concerning important issues. B) the differences of opinion between blacks and whites in America on certain issues are often larger than the differences between members of different religions, classes, and genders. C) blacks and whites in America have very different opinions, primarily on racerelated issues. D) blacks and whites in America have very different opinions, primarily on economic issues. E) blacks and whites in America typically do not agree on anything important. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Understanding 38. In an experiment in which white subjects were asked about aid programs for blacks and recent European immigrants, findings suggested that A) discrimination against Black Americans is much more likely than against European immigrants. B) discrimination against European immigrants is much more likely than against Black Americans. C) Americans are likely to equally discriminate against Black Americans and against European immigrants. D) Americans do not discriminate against either Black Americans or European immigrants. E) Americans do not treat Black Americans and European immigrants differently but it’s unclear whether their motivations were based on discrimination. Answer: E Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Analysis

39. Based on findings from a study in which researchers looked at whether Americans were more likely to give aid to Black Americans or European immigrants, which of the following was the main factor that explained participants’ answers? A) Prejudice against Black Americans B) Prejudice against European immigrants C) Belief in personal responsibility D) An aversion to giving aid to a minority group E) Lack of funding Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Analysis 40. In dealing with racism, France emphasizes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Color blindness in employment and education B) The stripping of convicted racists of some civil rights C) Soft affirmative action for some groups D) Generous benefits that are not based on race E) Punishment of racial divisiveness Answer: C Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Understanding 41. The fact that the United States has less-generous government services and benefits than other countries is primarily due to ________. A) political culture B) political reasons C) historical context D) institutions E) economic reasons Answer: A Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Analysis 42. Generous government benefits and service are proven to A) reduce racism. B) reduce economic inequality between groups, which is the main reason for racism. C) cause resentment among those who pay for the services. D) increase racism. E) They are not proven to accomplish any of the above. Answer: E Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Understanding

43. The Southern Christian Leadership Conference pursued a strategy of A) activism. B) civil disobedience. C) violent protests. D) litigation. E) segregation. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.3, p. 233 Skill: Understanding 44. When did the number of civil-rights-movement-related events peak? A) Between 1963 and 1965 B) Between 1961 and 1963 C) Between 1962 and 1960 D) Between 1958 and 1960 E) Between 1956 and 1958 Answer: A Reference: LO 6.3, p. 233 (Figure 6-2) Skill: Understanding 45. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were reasons for the success of the civil-rights movement in the sixties? A) As successes began to mount, more people had an incentive to join. B) The civil-rights movement remained united from beginning to end. C) People in the North sent letters to legislators and contributed financially. D) The Democratic Party transformed itself. E) Activists skillfully used media publicity for their cause. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 233–236 Skill: Analysis 46. Which of the following was NOT a reason why the civil-rights movement began to slow down in latter half of the sixties? A) The unity of the movement disintegrated. B) New issues were added to the agenda. C) Whites who had not opposed the movement earlier began to do so. D) Many of the demands had been met. E) The relationship with the Democratic Party posed challenges. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 236–238 Skill: Understanding

47. During the sixties, the Black civil-rights movement split apart because of what issue? A) The use of violence B) Sit-ins C) Specific rights D) Money E) The use of lobbyists Answer: A Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 236–238 Skill: Analysis 48. Which of the following was probably the most contentious issue brought forth by Black civil-rights activists? A) Voting rights B) Economic equality C) Legal protection D) Political equality E) Legal equality Answer: B Reference: LO 6.3, p. 237 Skill: Analysis 49. Which standard do the courts usually use to decide cases of differential treatment on the basis of age and income? A) Strict scrutiny B) The rational basis C) Government interest D) Context E) The equality standard Answer: B Reference: LO 6.4, p. 240 Skill: Understanding 50. In the case of Virginia’s maintenance of an all-male military college, the Supreme Court would use the _________ standard, since the case involves a __________ category. A) strict-scrutiny, suspect B) strict-scrutiny, quasi-suspect C) rational-basis, suspect D) rational-basis, quasi-suspect E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 6.4, p. 242 Skill: Application

51. Given the intermediary-scrutiny standard the courts use in cases of classifications based on gender, which of the following does NOT meet the standard that allows differential treatment on the basis of gender? A) The draft B) Public military colleges C) Military combat D) Professional sports teams E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 6.4, p. 242 Skill: Application 52. A group of female volleyball players at a public university request permission from their school to start a volleyball team. The school administration tells them that there are no plans for such a female volleyball team, even though there is a male volleyball team. The female players are also told that they will not be able to join the male team. Which of the following could the players find protection under? A) The 1964 Civil Rights Act B) The Tenth Amendment C) The Higher Education Act of 1972 D) The Equal Opportunity Act E) It’s the school’s decision. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 242–243 Skill: Application 53. Which of the following was not a reason the women’s movement could not sustain its initial momentum? A) The movement splintered. B) The movement had achieved many of its goals and found it difficult to recruit activists. C) Any social movement tends to lose momentum after a while. D) The interests and demands of the movement became too specialized. E) All of the above are reasons. Answer: B Reference: LO 6.4, p. 242–243 Skill: Application

54. According to the current status of legislation dealing with discrimination based on disabilities, employers A) are required to pursue anti-discrimination remedies. B) cannot be required to pursue anti-discrimination remedies. C) can be required to pursue anti-discrimination remedies but only if the cost is not prohibitive. D) can require the government to pay for anti-discrimination remedies. E) can apply for a no-interest loan to help pay for anti-discrimination remedies. Answer: C Reference: LO 6.4, p. 245 Skill: Understanding 55. According to the Supreme Court, who bears the burden of proof in cases of discrimination in the workplace? A) It has always been the individual alleging discrimination. B) It has always been the employer. C) It used to be the employer but is now the individual. D) It used to be the individual but is now the employer. E) There is a separate committee that is in charge of finding proof. Answer: D Reference: LO 6.4, p. 249 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. In 1944, the Supreme Court ruled that the detention of Japanese-American citizens was unconstitutional. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 214 Skill: Understanding 2. According to the textbook, civil rights include the right to an equal education. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.1, p. 216 Skill: Understanding 3. The original Constitution contained a provision that said fugitive slaves were to be returned to their owners. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Understanding

4. The reason that the Supreme Court decided against Dred Scott was that, it said, he was ineligible to bring forth such a suit in the first place. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, p. 217 Skill: Understanding 5. The so-called Civil War Amendments all concerned the reconstruction of America. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.1, p. 218 Skill: Understanding 6. Due process essentially limits a government’s ability to restrict civil liberties. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, p. 218 Skill: Understanding 7. The Jim Crow laws are a good indicator that the Reconstruction period did not successfully establish civil rights for African-Americans. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.1, p. 220 Skill: Analysis 8. During the first half of the twentieth century, Black Americans primarily pursued a strategy of lobbying for their civil rights. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, p. 221 Skill: Understanding 9. President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the executive order that created the Fair Employment Practices Committee (FEPC) in 1941 primarily owing to domestic social pressures. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 221–222 Skill: Understanding 10. The Supreme Court struck down the separate-but-equal doctrine under the leadership of chief justice Earl Warren. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.2, p. 223 Skill: Understanding

11. The Supreme Court decided in 1974 that busing could never be used to address de facto segregation in schools. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, p. 224 Skill: Understanding 12. Discrimination against white students does not constitute the same form of discrimination as against minority students. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, p. 225 Skill: Understanding 13. Native American students are more likely to attend schools with low-to-moderate poverty than Black or Latino students. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.2, p. 226 (Figure 6-1) Skill: Analysis 14. Black civil-rights leaders in the fifties welcomed the idea of affirmative action in the form of fixed quotas. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, p. 227 Skill: Understanding 15. On certain issues—such as gender, religion, and nationality—the difference of opinion between Black and white Americans is larger than between any other two groups. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Understanding 16. In an experiment in which white subjects were asked about aid programs for blacks and for recent European immigrants, respondents were much more likely to support aid for European immigrants. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 229–230 Skill: Understanding 17. The civil-rights movement in America was largely successful because the activists remained unified from beginning to end. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 233–238 Skill: Understanding

18. In the first half of the twentieth century, the South had essentially a one-party system. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.3, p. 235 Skill: Understanding 19. The development of a competitive party system in the South during the second half of the twentieth century helped the civil-rights movement. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 235–236 Skill: Analysis 20. As the civil-rights movement progressed, whites became more and more likely to support it. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 237–238 Skill: Understanding 21. Sexual orientation is considered a suspect category by the courts. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 239–240 Skill: Understanding 22. After the civil-rights movement, other minorities were as successful as AfricanAmericans were in pursuing their rights. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.4, p. 241 Skill: Understanding 23. The states that failed to ratify the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) were located primarily in the South and the West Answer: True Reference: LO 6.4, p. 244 (Figure 6-3) Skill: Understanding 24. According to the current status of legislation regarding disabilities discrimination, employers are required to pursue antidiscrimination remedies. Answer: False Reference: LO 6.4, p. 245 Skill: Understanding

25. The federal government has no authority to ban state-approved marriage arrangements. Answer: True Reference: LO 6.4, p. 247 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. What roles did the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary play in the development of civil rights? Please provide examples for each branch. Reference: LO 6.1, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Comprehension 2. What is the difference between traditional racism and so-called racial resentment, according to some scholars? What are the main arguments in the debate surrounding the racial-resentment thesis? What possible implications does this thesis have for the question of equality in the United States? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Analysis 3. Please explain how France’s approach to racial divisiveness and to ensuring equality differs from that of the United States. In your opinion, which approach is better in the sense that it is most likely to produce equal treatment of minorities and to reduce racial tensions within society? Why? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 231–232 Skill: Analysis 4. How have other countries addressed the issue of civil rights? In what ways has the historical and political context shaped these countries’ policies? What—if anything—do you think the United States can learn from observing foreign countries? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 228–230 Skill: Analysis 5. What specific role did the marches and rallies play in the civil-rights movement? If these events had not conformed to the nonviolent strategy of civil disobedience, how might the movement have turned out instead? Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 233–235 Skill: Analysis 6. Do you believe that the 2008 presidential elections will prove to be a turning point for political participation among Black Americans? Or will it be considered an isolated incident? Why? Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 238–238 Skill: Application 162 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7. Which do you think is the better strategy for maximizing minority votes: clustering them or spreading them across districts? Why? What other initiatives would you suggest for increasing minority participation in elections? Reference: LO 6.3, pgs. 238–238 Skill: Application 8. Would you consider racial gerrymandering an opportunity for enfranchisement or simply another form of political and racial apartheid? Why? Reference: LO 6.3, p. 239 Skill: Analysis 9. Explain why other ethnic groups such as Latinos, Asians, and Native Americans have had less success organizing themselves politically than blacks have had. Address what all three of these groups have in common and in what regards they differ. Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 240–241 Skill: Analysis 10. In your opinion, what are two areas in which women are still at a disadvantage in the United States? And what are two areas in which you feel men might be at a disadvantage? How would you address these situations? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 241–245 Skill: Application 11. Age and disability aren’t typically talked-about dimensions of discrimination. Based on your personal experiences, what would you say are the two most significant challenges for older people and what are the two most significant challenges for disabled people? What should the government do in order to address these challenges? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 245–246 Skill: Application 12. In your opinion, what has been the single-biggest obstacle for the gay and lesbian movement in this country thus far? Do you think this obstacle will ever be overcome? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 246–247 Skill: Evaluation 13. Who currently bears the burden of proof in cases of discrimination? What are the pros and cons of this approach? Who should bear the burden of proof? Why? Reference: LO 6.4, p. 249 Skill: Analysis

14. How do you justify a draft for men but not for women? How would you justify a draft for both sexes? Reference: LO 6.4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 15. Based on what you have learned about civil-rights movements in the United States, what recommendations would you give the leaders of the LGBT movement in the country on the strategy they should pursue? Reference: LO 6.4, entire chapter Skill: Application Essay Questions 1. In the case of Japanese-American detention centers during World War II, the Supreme Court stated that in times of national emergency the court needed to defer to Congress, the president, and military commanders. Drawing on what you have already learned about the U.S. Constitution, the system of checks and balances in the U.S. government, and the nature of democracy, please evaluate this statement. Do you agree or disagree? On what basis? What are the specific arguments for and against this position by the Supreme Court? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 214–216 Skill: Evaluation 2. Write an essay on the major milestones of the civil-rights movement. Include major decisions and policies, and explain why and under what circumstances they were made. What were some of the major obstacles along the way? Reference: LO 6.1 and LO 6.3, entire chapter Skill: Understanding 3. In the 21st century, what types of schools were minorities likely to attend in the United States, according to a study cited in the textbook? What are two different explanations for this? What are two different consequences? How would you address this issue, if you were in a position to make significant changes? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 225–227 Skill: Evaluation 4. Until 1964, many southern states had a so-called poll tax that was designed to prevent African-Americans from voting. Even though the legal obstacles have now been removed, minorities are still less likely to vote than white Americans. What do you believe accounts for this discrepancy? How would you solve this problem? Reference: LO 6.2, p. 227 Skill: Application

5. Do you agree with the practice of affirmative action? To what degree do you believe this is acceptable, if at all? Why? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 227–231 Skill: Evaluation 6. What role do you believe racism—conscious or subconscious—played in the 2008 presidential election? Reference: LO 6.2, pgs. 227–231 Skill: Evaluation 7. Compare and contrast the civil-rights movement with the women’s movement in terms of the strategies used, their effectiveness, and the level of support from the public as well as from legislators. Which of the two movements do you believe has produced greater equality in our day and age? Why do you suppose that is? Reference: LO 6.3 and LO 6.4, pgs. 232–245 Skill: Analysis 8. Is the fact that women are not allowed in military combat units a sign of sex discrimination? What are arguments for this assumption? What are arguments against it? How do you personally feel about this issue? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 241–245 Skill: Evaluation 9. Despite legislation that was intended to end sex discrimination, inequality between men and women still exists. For instance, research on the gender pay gap suggests that women still make approximately 25 percent less for the same job than men. In what other areas of business, politics, and society are women still treated differently than men? What needs to be done in order to address this issue? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 241–245 Skill: Application 10. One might argue that American society is prejudiced against older people. What are signs that might suggest that such a prejudice does, in fact, exist? What are typical misconceptions and stereotypes against older people in language, the media, and politics? How has legislation tried to address the consequences resulting from such stereotypes? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 245–246 Skill: Analysis

11. Summarize the movement for gay and lesbian equality in the United States. What is the current status of these groups’ rights? Using what you have learned about the civil rights and the women’s movements, what can the gay and lesbian movement learn from these previous movements in terms of strategies, approaches, and chances for success? Reference: LO 6.4, pgs. 246–248 Skill: Application 12. Please compare and contrast the civil-rights legislation during the Reconstruction period and during the civil-rights movement. What are the similarities, and what are the differences? Why was the latter movement more successful? (Provide at least three possible factors.) Reference: LO 6.1 and LO 6.2, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 13. Based on everything you have learned about civil rights in this chapter, what concrete advice would you give developing countries in which minorities still struggle with civilrights issues? Be sure to refer to concrete lessons from the American experience, but also address the potential factors that might limit the usefulness of these lessons. Reference: LO 6.4, entire chapter Skill: Application 14. What do you believe causes humans to discriminate against each other under any circumstance? Do you think the primary cause is nature or nurture? What are the chances that we will ever be free of discrimination in this country and elsewhere? Reference: LO 6.1, LO 6.2, LO 6.3, and LO 6.4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

Chapter Seven Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Galton’s experiment led some political scientists to conclude that A) public opinion cannot be trusted. B) the American public is uninformed about and uninterested in politics. C) the American public typically makes bad decisions about politics. D) the public does not need to be informed or experienced to collectively make good decisions. E) Galton’s experiment has nothing to do with public opinion. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, p. 254 Skill: Understanding 2. The direction of public opinion measures A) how opinions have changed in the past. B) how opinions are likely to change in the future. C) whether the public agrees or disagrees with an issue. D) what the consequences of public opinion on an issue are. E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 3. The notion that what is learned first is learned best is called A) politicization. B) persistence. C) primacy. D) primary learning. E) precognition. Answer: C Reference: LO 7-2, p. 257 Skill: Understanding

4. When every member of the population has the same chance of being picked, this is a A) universal sample. B) random sample. C) systematic sample. D) scientific sample. E) chance sample. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis 5. Based on what you know about American political culture, which of the following is the most likely to produce negative responses in an opinion poll? A) Do you approve of helping those on welfare? B) Do you approve of helping the poor? C) Do you approve of helping the needy? D) Do you approve of helping the unfortunate? E) Do you approve of helping those in need? Answer: A Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 6. According to studies, what is the single most important agent in the political socialization of new generations? A) School B) Government C) Peers D) Family E) MTV Answer: D Reference: LO 7-2, p. 263 Skill: Understanding 7. Events that contribute to a person’s political socialization are divided into all but which of the following categories? A) Generational effects B) Period effects C) Cultural effects. D) Life-cycle effects E) All of the above are categories. Answer: C Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 265–267 Skill: Understanding

8. What type of effect would you expect the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, and the resulting war on terror to have on the American people? A) Generational effect B) Period effect C) Life-cycle effect D) Cultural effect E) Religious effect Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, p. 266 Skill: Application 9. Compared to the level of political knowledge in other countries, Americans tend to find themselves A) at the very top of the list. B) in the top third. C) in the middle third. D) in the lower third. E) dead last. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-3, p. 269 Skill: Understanding 10. Based on the results summarized in Table 7-1, Americans are A) more likely to know about specific policies than about positions and institutions. B) more likely to know about controversial issues than noncontroversial ones. C) more likely to know about government institutions than about specific policies. D) more likely to know about those in low-ranking positions than high-ranking positions. E) most likely to know about foreign heads of state than about domestic ones. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-3, p. 269 (Table 7-3) Skill: Analysis 11. Americans’ knowledge of foreign political leaders appears to most closely correlate with A) cultural similarities. B) alliances. C) the importance of the country to the United States. D) the importance of the foreign country to the world. E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 (Table 7-4) Skill: Analysis

12. The so-called miracle of aggregation refers to the fact that A) an uninformed individual can still make a good decision. B) sometimes even the uninformed get lucky. C) opinion leaders typically manage to convince the majority of the right decision. D) people collectively make sense, even if they are individually largely uninformed. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Understanding 13. According to the textbook, opinion leaders impact public opinion through the ______ effect. A) trickle-down B) persuasion C) imitation D) coercion E) indoctrination Answer: A Reference: LO 7-4, p. 275 Skill: Understanding 14. Researchers studying the change in public opinion between 1969 and 1983 found that these changes corresponded significantly with A) television news commentary. B) changes in the educational system. C) the age of respondents. D) the context of international politics. E) the context of domestic politics. Answer: A Reference: LO 7-4, p. 276 Skill: Understanding 15. Which segment of the American public causes the most aggregate political-opinion change? A) The group that is very attentive to politics B) The group that is moderately attentive to politics C) The group that has no interest in politics D) The opinion leaders E) The politicians themselves Answer: B Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 276–277 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. Public opinion plays a negligible role in American politics, since politicians only pay attention to it in election years. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 254 Skill: Understanding 2. A sample in an experiment is supposed to represent the entire population of the United States. The total number of subjects is 70. Of these, eight are African-Americans. Assuming that the total sample size is large enough, is this sample representative of African-Americans? Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 3. As the size of a sample increases, so do the chances for a sampling error to occur. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Understanding 4. Imagine that a public-opinion survey includes the following question: do you agree that the war in Iraq is going terribly and that the United States should withdraw its troops as soon as possible? This is a bad question. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 5. During the late-childhood period, children’s respect for authority figures increases. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 261–263 Skill: Understanding 6. The educational system is the least important agent of socialization in a person’s life. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 263–264 Skill: Understanding 7. In a 1986 eight-nation study on knowledge of foreign affairs, the United States performed by far the worst. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 269–270 (Table 7-3) Skill: Understanding 171 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. In political surveys during the last 50 years, Americans have performed very badly, revealing a decided lack of political knowledge. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 269–270 Skill: Understanding 9. Government teachers are examples of so-called opinion leaders in American politics. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 274–275 Skill: Understanding 10. Those who are only moderately interested in politics play a so-called scorekeeper function in American politics. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 276–277 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The results of Galton’s analysis of a weight-judging competition in Plymouth are supposed to illustrate that A) in order to come to an informed conclusion, one needs a sufficient number of experts. B) even a blind chicken occasionally finds a worm. C) collective judgments do not necessarily require individual expertise or even interest in order to be correct. D) most citizens of Plymouth were farmers. E) uninformed opinions are useless. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, p. 254 Skill: Analysis 2. What is the causal relationship between public opinion and government actions? A) There is none. B) Public opinion determines government actions. C) Government actions determine public opinion. D) Public opinion and government actions affect each other. E) Both are determined by special-interest groups. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Analysis

3. Citizens in other democracies typically have A) greater opportunity than Americans to influence politics with their opinions. B) equal opportunity as Americans to make their opinions count in politics. C) less opportunity than Americans to influence politics with their opinions. D) much less opportunity than Americans to influence politics with their opinions. E) There is not consistent trend. Answer: C Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 4. Which of the following is NOT a basic trait of public opinion? A) Salience B) Information C) Stability D) Direction E) Intensity Answer: B Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 5. An issue’s salience indicates its level of A) importance to people. B) persistence over time. C) agreement within the public. D) strength. E) controversy. Answer: A Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 6. The stability of an issue refers to A) how correct public opinion is on an issue. B) how strongly the public feels about an issue. C) how beneficial public opinion is. D) how long-lasting public opinion is. E) how united the public is on an issue. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding

7. The majority of Americans no longer support the war in Iraq. This statement speaks to the _________ of public opinion on the war. A) persistence B) salience C) strength D) direction E) intensity Answer: D Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Application 8. Officeholders in a representative democracy A) always follow public opinion. B) never follow public opinion. C) follow public opinion when they agree with it. D) typically follow public opinion when it is very strong. E) follow public opinion only on some issues. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-1, p. 256 Skill: Understanding 9. Reliable opinion polls select people for interviews on the basis of A) carefully decided selection criteria. B) self-selection. C) It depends on the survey. D) online polls. E) random selection. Answer: E Reference: LO 7-1, p. 256 Skill: Understanding 10. Political socialization refers to A) high-school government classes. B) the way individuals acquire their political values and attitudes. C) the media’s encouraging people to become politically active. D) parents teaching their children about society. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, p. 257 Skill: Understanding

11. What age is most important in the formation of political attitudes and values throughout one’s life? A) Infancy B) Childhood C) College years D) Mid- to late twenties E) Attitudes and values constantly change throughout life. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, p. 257 Skill: Understanding 12. Which of the following is the most reliable and random way of surveying public opinion? A) Online, because the Web is fast and a lot of people will respond B) A mail-in survey, because it gives people more time to think about their responses C) A survey by telephone, because the phone is most efficient D) A survey conducted by an interviewer in the streets, because people will feel more obligated to answer the interviewer E) All of the above have potential sampling and response biases. Answer: E Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis 13. If the goal is to be representative, an opinion poll that is conducted online is A) reliable because the Internet can be accessed from anywhere. B) reliable because people are more likely to tell the truth online than in person. C) reliable because it will most likely attract those who are already informed. D) potentially unreliable because of sampling errors. E) always unreliable because there’s no proof of identity. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 14. When a random sample does not represent the total population, this fact is typically reported as the A) omitted variable error. B) margin of error. C) randomization bias. D) representation error. E) sample bias. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Understanding

15. If an opinion poll shows that 52 percent of Americans are likely to vote for candidate A and 48 percent of Americans are likely to vote for candidate B, this suggests that A) candidate A will definitely win. B) candidate A will most likely win. C) people right now prefer candidate A. D) candidate A is more likeable. E) None of the above, owing to the margin of error Answer: E Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 16. Imagine that a public-opinion survey includes the following question: do you agree that the war in Iraq is going terribly and that the United States should withdraw its troops as soon as possible? Is this a good question? A) Yes, because it is short and to the point. B) Yes, because most respondents are likely to have a strong opinion about it. C) Yes, because it is easy to understand. D) No, because it is a leading question. E) No, because it is an ambiguous question. Answer: E Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 17. Populists are people who A) incite violence among the population. B) support a limited role for government. C) represent the interests of the population. D) support an active role for government in social morality. E) are very cynical about the government. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-2, p. 261 Skill: Understanding 18. Assume that a student is brought up in a very conservative home and goes on to attend a moderate-to-conservative high school. That student then attends a very liberal college. Based on what we know about political socialization, on average that student is most likely to develop A) conservative attitudes and values. B) moderate attitudes and values. C) liberal attitudes and values. D) extremely liberal attitudes and values. E) There is no research that suggests one or the other. Answer: A Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 261–262 Skill: Application 176 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

19. At what age do people begin to develop an understanding of good citizenship? A) Preschool B) Kindergarten C) Grade school D) High school E) College Answer: C Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 261–262 Skill: Understanding 20. Compared with their parents, high-school seniors tend to be _________ about politics and the government. A) more cynical B) less cynical C) equally cynical D) the exact opposite of their parents E) not concerned at all Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, p. 263 Skill: Understanding 21. Imagine that Mike’s parents are very conservative, he attends a very liberal high school and college, and most of his friends are independents or uninterested. Based on what you know about political socialization, what is the most likely ideology you would you expect Mike to adopt? A) Conservative B) Liberal C) Independent D) Uninterested E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 7-2, p. 263 Skill: Application 22. Which of the following is transmitted most reliably from parent to child? A) Party identification B) Beliefs on abortion C) Political values D) Social values E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 7-2, p. 263 Skill: Understanding

23. Why is peer-to-peer socialization typically limited when it comes to the political values of adolescents? A) Because adolescents do not trust each others’ judgments B) Because parents have a stronger effect than one’s peers C) Because that group tends to have extremely diverse views D) Because politics is an issue of low salience among that group E) Peer-to-peer socialization is extremely important. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-2, p. 264 Skill: Understanding 24. According to a Gallup poll, the number of Americans who believe that the Bush administration had gone too far in restricting people’s liberties in order to fight terrorism increased significantly between 2002 and 2006 (15 percent in 2002, 28 percent in 2003, 41 percent in 2006). What type of effect would you say is most likely to explain those numbers? A) Periodic B) Generational C) Life cyclical D) Cultural E) Religious Answer: A Reference: LO 7-2, p. 266 Skill: Application 25. The so-called life-cycle effect suggests that people A) become more liberal as they grow older. B) become more conservative as they grow older. C) go through phases of being more liberal or more conservative. D) start caring less about politics the older they become. E) start caring more about politics the older they become. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 266–267 Skill: Understanding

26. Which of the following is NOT true about public opinion on defense spending between 1971 and 1981? A) The number of those who thought that the government was spending too little increased fivefold. B) The number of those who thought that the government was spending just enough decreased. C) The number of those who thought that the government was spending too much decreased sharply. D) The number of those who had no opinion on the matter decreased significantly. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-2, p. 267 Skill: Analysis (Figure 7-1) 27. From the perspective of democratic theory, Americans generally have __________ levels of knowledge regarding American politics and the government. A) extremely low B) low C) average D) high E) extremely high Answer: B Reference: LO 7-3, p. 268 Skill: Understanding 28. According to a study based on 50-years’ worth of survey questions, roughly what percentage of questions was answered correctly by more than half of the American public? A) 80 percent B) 60 percent C) 40 percent D) 20 percent E) 10 percent Answer: C Reference: LO 7-3, p. 269 Skill: Understanding

29. In a 1964 study on the political thinking of Americans, Michigan scholar Philip Converse found that Americans are ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Displaying a unique brand of reasoning B) Not capable of informed political thought C) Innocent of logical political thinking D) Ideologically innocent E) Politically unsophisticated Answer: A Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 Skill: Understanding 30. Philip Converse’s black-and-white model of public opinion suggests that A) Americans stubbornly cling to false political beliefs. B) Analyzing people’s attitudes could be compared to flipping a coin. C) Americans have no meaningful political beliefs. D) Americans are quite predictable in their political beliefs. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 Skill: Understanding 31. According to the cross-national study cited in the textbook, which country had the highest percentage of correct answers overall about foreign affairs? A) Canada B) France C) Germany D) The United States E) The United Kingdom Answer: C Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 (Table 7-4) Skill: Analysis 32. According to the cross-national study cited in the textbook, which country had the highest percentage of respondents overall who answered questions about foreign affairs incorrectly? A) Canada B) France C) Germany D) The United States E) The United Kingdom Answer: D Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 (Table 7-4) Skill: Analysis

33. Knowledge of political leaders among a country’s population seems to correlate with A) the importance of the leader’s country. B) geographic proximity. C) the foreign-policy interests of the respondent’s country. D) Both A and C E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 (Table 7-4) Skill: Analysis 34. Critics of Philip Converse’s findings on American political thinking raised ALL BUT WHICH of the following concerns? A) Converse overstated the importance of so-called non-attitudes in politics. B) Converse carried out his study at a time when no major political events were happening that might have produced more political interest. C) Converse’s measurements were flawed owing to bad wording. D) Converse’s concept of ideology was too limited. E) Respondents may simply have had a variety of ideas about a certain issue. Answer: A Reference: LO 7-3, p. 271 Skill: Understanding 35. Which of the following was a criticism of Philip Converse’s findings on American political thinking? A) He overstated the importance of non-attitudes in politics. B) Converse faked his results. C) Converse carried out his study at a time of political crisis, which affected his results. D) Converse intentionally included misleading questions in his survey. E) Converse’s concept of ideology was too limited. Answer: E Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 271–272 Skill: Understanding 36. The term “non-attitudes” refers to A) someone who has no interest in and no opinion about politics. B) political apathy. C) pessimistic attitudes. D) hastily concocted opinions. E) unconstitutional attitudes. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-3, p. 272 Skill: Understanding

37. In a 1978 follow-up study to Converse’s 1964 study, researchers A) found that many Americans were willing to make up an opinion on the spot about a fictitious piece of legislation. B) asked the same questions as Converse did but got very different responses. C) asked the same questions as Converse did and got very similar responses. D) improved Converse’s questions and found that people have much firmer opinions than had been assumed. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 7-3, p. 273 Skill: Understanding 38. Galton’s experiment summarized in the introduction illustrates a(n) A) miracle of aggregation. B) collective-action phenomenon. C) lucky guess. D) exception to the rule. E) informed public. Answer: A Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Understanding 39. What does the so-called miracle of aggregation depend on to work? A) The silence of the uninformed B) The chance that those without an opinion will guess correctly C) The random distribution of made-up answers among those without a real opinion D) The correct interpretation of the flawed information of policy-makers E) The willingness of people to admit they are uninformed Answer: C Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Analysis 40. Studies of public opinion divide the American public into ALL BUT WHICH of the following categories? A) Those who pay very close attention to politics B) Those who are generally indifferent but pay attention sporadically C) Those who pay no attention at all D) Those who pay no attention at all but offer an opinion E) All of the above are categories. Answer: D Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Understanding

41. Which segment in the American public is the smallest? A) Those who pay very close attention to politics B) Those who are generally indifferent but pay attention sporadically C) Those who pay no attention at all D) Those who pay no attention at all but offer an opinion E) A and C Answer: A Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Understanding 42. Looking at the results of the Gallup poll’s “most important problem” question over time illustrates the A) change of political interest among Americans. B) willingness of Americans to learn. C) continued lack of information among Americans. D) flawed measures of opinion polls. E) important role of opinion leaders. Answer: E Reference: LO 7-4, p. 275 Skill: Understanding 43. So-called opinion leaders need NOT A) have a high level of interest in politics. B) be correct in their beliefs. C) have expertise in political issues. D) try to communicate their opinions to others. E) be popular. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-4, p. 275 Skill: Understanding 44. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are examples of opinion leaders, according to the textbook? A) Political writers B) Journalists C) Academic political scientists D) Political junkies E) Novelists Answer: E Reference: LO 7-4, p. 275 Skill: Understanding

45. By 2008, roughly what percentage of Americans stated in a study that they did NOT understand the issue of global warming at all? A) 32 percent B) 28 percent C) 15 percent D) 12 percent E) 2 percent Answer: E Reference: LO 7-4, p. 275 Skill: Understanding 46. In a scholarly study that compared responses to 80 questions that were asked at least twice between 1969 and 1983, researchers found that A) the same patterns emerged time and again. B) in many cases, opinion had changed noticeably. C) in many cases, opinions had changed but only slightly so. D) opinions had become much more liberal. E) opinions had become much more conservative. Answer: B Reference: LO 7-4, p. 276 Skill: Understanding 47. Partisanship _________ political judgments. A) complicates B) simplifies C) does not affect D) determines E) prevents Answer: B Reference: LO 7-4, p. 276 Skill: Understanding 48. If you were on a road to political judgment, partisanship would be a A) roadblock. B) roundabout. C) shortcut. D) maze. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 7-4, p. 276 Skill: Analysis

49. According to the textbook, a person’s approval of a policy-maker’s job performance tends to depend on a person’s A) level of education. B) level of interest. C) level of partisanship. D) gender. E) age. Answer: C Reference: LO 7-4, p. 276 Skill: Understanding 50. According to one political scientist cited in the textbook, which segment of the American public serves a scorekeeper function? A) The group that is very attentive to politics B) The group that is moderately attentive to politics C) The group that has no interest in politics D) The opinion leaders E) The politicians themselves Answer: B Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 276–277 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Galton’s experiment illustrates that an uninformed American public is detrimental to the political process. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 254 Skill: Analysis 2. Compared with other political systems, public opinion seems to have more opportunity to matter in American politics. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 254 Skill: Understanding 3. The salience of an issue is its level of importance to people. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding

4. In a truly representative democracy, politicians always follow public opinion. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 5. A public-opinion poll that is conducted online is reliable because it is simple and reaches more people quickly. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis 6. A good sample is one in which minorities are especially well represented. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis 7. Imagine that viewers who have just seen a presidential debate are asked by researchers, “How do you assess the candidates’ performances? Good, bad, or neutral?” This constitutes a good research question if one wants to find out what the effect of the debate on people’s opinion was. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 8. A large number of nonresponses to a survey are typically a problem only if a certain group systematically does not respond. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis 9. The following question is likely to produce reliable results in an opinion poll: given that global warming is reducing the ozone layer, which will lead to a rise in skin cancer, would you support giving more government money to environmental programs? Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 10. An opinion poll that is based on telephone interviews is always less reliable than interviews that are conducted in person. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Analysis

11. If an opinion poll shows that 52 percent of Americans are likely to vote for candidate A and 48 percent of Americans are likely to vote for candidate B, this suggests that people definitely prefer candidate A. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 12. Children typically begin to develop an understanding of good citizenship in elementary school. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 261–263 Skill: Understanding 13. It is not until high school that students begin to take sides on major political issues. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 261–263 Skill: Understanding 14. A child’s family has the single most important impact on his or her political development. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 263–264 Skill: Understanding 15. Peer-to-peer socialization when it comes to political values is very low, mainly because young people tend to take their parents’ political views more seriously than their peers’. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 263–264 Skill: Understanding 16. The September 11 terrorist attacks have no potential of becoming a period effect. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-2, p. 266 Skill: Analysis 17. Period effects refer to events that affect political attitudes for two or more generations. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, p. 266 Skill: Understanding

18. The so-called life-cycle effect describes the phenomenon wherein as people become older they also become more conservative in their political views. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 266–267 Skill: Understanding 19. In 2007, more than half of all Americans were able to identify vice-president Dick Cheney and secretary of defense Robert Gates. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-3, p. 268 (Table 7-2) Skill: Understanding 20. An eight-nation political survey in 1994 revealed that Americans were more likely than any other group to not be able to answer a single question correctly. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-3, p. 269 (Table 7-3) Skill: Understanding 21. Philip Converse argued in 1964 that Americans were uninformed but capable of logical political thinking. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-3, p. 270 Skill: Understanding 22. Critics of Philip Converse’s study argued that the lack of major political events at the time the study was carried out might explain the indifferent political attitudes of the respondents. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 271–272 Skill: Understanding 23. Critics of Philip Converse’s study argued that Converse made too much of the lack of consistent attitudes among his respondents, suggesting that it was normal for people to continuously change their opinions. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 271–272 Skill: Understanding 24. The miracle of aggregation depends on those who are uninformed keeping their opinions to themselves. Answer: False Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Understanding 188 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

25. American public opinion is full of non-attitudes. Answer: True Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 276–277 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. Briefly explain the four basic traits of public opinion. Reference: LO 7-1, p. 255 Skill: Understanding 2. Define “political socialization.” Identify and briefly explain three different agents of socialization and discuss their relative effects on a person’s political attitudes. Provide examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 257–263 Skill: Understanding 3. Explain the logic behind survey sampling. In particular, address the nature and importance of random samples, sampling errors, and margins of error. Provide an example to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Understanding 4. What—if anything—might be an event that qualifies as a generational effect for your generation? Reference: LO 7-2, p. 265 Skill: Application 5. Provide two arguments for why the war on terrorism might become a period effect and two arguments for why it might not. Reference: LO 7-2, p. 266 Skill: Analysis 6. Please explain the so-called life-cycle effect. In your opinion, what causes this effect to take place? Provide at least three possible explanations. Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 266–267 Skill: Analysis 7. What are three factors that contribute to the relative political ignorance of Americans compared to the citizens of other modern democracies? What are possible consequences of this ignorance? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Analysis 189 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Do you believe that citizens of a democracy have the duty to be politically informed? Or do they have the right—by virtue of living in a free society—to remain ignorant of political issues if they so choose? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Evaluation 9. Do you believe that asking people about the heads of state of foreign nations is a good way to measure their political knowledge? What speaks for this test, and what speaks against it? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Analysis 10. Based on your own experiences, how would you assess the level of political interest and knowledge of your age-group? What do you think contributes to this? If there is a problem with political knowledge, how would you address it? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Application 11. Do you agree or disagree with Philip Converse’s findings in his 1964 study on the political thinking of Americans? On what basis? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 270–273 Skill: Evaluation 12. How would you explain the so-called miracle of aggregation? Reference: LO 7-4, p. 274 Skill: Analysis 13. Provide two actual examples of opinion leaders in the United States, and illustrate how and to what degree they have affected American public opinion. Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 274–275 Skill: Application 14. Do you believe that celebrities such as Sean Combs should be considered opinion leaders among the younger generation? Why or why not? Is this desirable? Reference: LO 7-4, pgs. 274–275 Skill: Evaluation 15. V.O. Key once said, “To speak with precision of public opinion is a task not unlike coming to grips with the Holy Ghost.” Based on what you have learned, what do you believe was meant by this? Reference: LO 7-1 and LO 7-2, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

16. Which issues do you think Americans tend to be more informed about than others? Why? Reference: LO 7-2 and LO 7-3, entire chapter Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. Apply what you have learned about political socialization to your own political development. What are at least four different factors that have affected your own political views? At least one of them should be a larger event that transcends your immediate environment. Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 257–263 Skill: Application 2. How would you use what you have learned about political socialization in order to offer a solution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict (or any other protracted conflict in which generations of children have grown up learning to hate each other)? Be sure to refer to specific insights about the development of political attitudes, then address how you would use this knowledge to reverse their effects. Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 257–263 Skill: Application 3. Based on what you know, how would you imagine that totalitarian systems such as the Soviet Union or North Korea tried to manipulate the political socialization of their citizens? To what effect? Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 257–263 Skill: Analysis 4. If you had to construct a survey to test the current state of American public opinion on a number of issues, what would you need to consider in order to ensure that your results are reliable and representative? Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 258–261 Skill: Application 5. The textbook suggests that peer-to-peer socialization plays a very small role in a young adult’s political socialization. Based on your personal experiences, do you agree or disagree? Does this change once a person enters college? Why or why not? Provide examples. Reference: LO 7-2, p. 264 Skill: Evaluation

6. Outline the importance of different agents of political socialization in the life of young Americans. Which would you say is the most important? Why? Have any of these agents become more or less important over time? If so, why? If not, explain why you see no change. In addition, how would you say the context of globalization and the so-called information age has affected the political socialization of young Americans? Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 263–265 Skill: Analysis 7. The fact that young people between the ages of 18 and 24 are the least likely age-group to vote in the United States has often been described as a generational effect. Please explain what aspects of your generation’s experiences can be said to have contributed to this effect. Reference: LO 7-2, p. 265 Skill: Application 8. The Vietnam War can be considered a crucial experience for many Americans who were in high school and college during it. As such, it became a generational effect that would influence the political values and opinions of an entire generation. One might argue that the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, could represent a similar experience for the current generation of high-school and college students. In your informed opinion, do you expect 9/11 to leave its mark on the current generation of young Americans? If so, what kind of attitudes and values do you expect Americans to take away from this experience? If not, why do you believe that 9/11 cannot be compared to Vietnam in that manner? Reference: LO 7-2, pgs. 265–266 Skill: Evaluation 9. It is not a secret that many Americans are less informed about politics than they could (or should) be. A liberal democracy, however, requires informed voters. In your opinion, which do you believe is worse for democracy in this country: people who do not vote at all or people who vote without being informed on the issues? Why? How would you address either problem? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Evaluation 10. Why, in your opinion, are Americans on average so much less informed about politics than citizens in other countries seem to be? Try to address possible explanations in a variety of contexts (e.g., social, cultural, historical, political). Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–270 Skill: Analysis

11. How would you address the problem of the lack of political information among Americans? In what ways and through what institutions, programs, or media would you attempt to educate American citizens? What do you expect would be the advantages and disadvantages of such a plan? Reference: LO 7-3, pgs. 268–273 Skill: Application 12. Mark Twain had one of his fictitious character say, “You tell me whar a man gits his corn pone, en I'll tell you what his 'pinions is.” What did he mean to suggest by this? How well—if at all—do you believe this applies to American public opinion? Use examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 7-1, LO 7-2, and LO 7-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Eight Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. When did African-Americans gain de facto voting rights? A) Right after the Civil War B) In the 1880s C) Around 1900 D) During the 1930s E) Not until the 1960s Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 280–281 Skill: Understanding 2. Which discipline do political scientists primarily borrow from when studying political participation? A) History B) Psychology C) Economics D) Sociology E) Anthropology Answer: C Reference: LO 8-1, p. 281 Skill: Understanding 3. For all intents and purposes, you can assume that your vote A) is extremely important to the outcome of an election. B) could be the tiebreaker between two candidates. C) adds to your chosen candidate’s success. D) does not determine the outcome of the election. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 8-1, p. 282 Skill: Understanding

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of a selective benefit? A) Health care in the United States B) Private education C) AAA services D) Labor-union activities E) All of the above are selective benefits. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Application 5. According to a 2008 study summarized in the textbook, which of the following activities did a majority of Americans participate in during the previous year? A) Contacting public officials B) Volunteering C) Discussing politics with friends and/or family D) Attending a community meeting E) Protesting Answer: C Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 (Table 8-1) Skill: Understanding 6. Which of the following are NOT included in political scientists’ measure of the votingage population? A) Legal foreigners living in the United States B) Convicted felons C) American citizens over the age of 18 D) Americans living overseas E) All of the above are included. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–288 Skill: Understanding 7. Socioeconomic status is a measure that combines all but which of the following? A) Income B) Education C) Social standing D) Occupation E) All of the above are included. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Understanding

8. According to the statistics shown in Table 8-2, ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true? A) People in the South are more likely to vote than people elsewhere. B) Republicans are more likely to vote than Democrats. C) Older people are more likely to vote than young people. D) In terms of ideology, moderates are the least likely to vote. E) All of the above are true. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, p. 292 (Table 8-2) Skill: Analysis 9. Which of the following has never served as a voting qualification in the United States? A) Gender B) Age C) Wealth D) Property ownership E) Occupation Answer: E Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Understanding 10. Until when were voting rights tied to land ownership? A) 1790s B) 1820s C) 1840s D) 1860s E) 1880s Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Understanding 11. California’s Proposition 209 A) made affirmative action illegal in certain public institutions. B) legalized affirmative action in certain public institutions. C) made bilingual education in public schools illegal. D) legalized bilingual education in public schools. E) banned same-sex marriage. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, p. 295 Skill: Understanding

12. How do the typical voter-mobilization efforts of Democrats and Republicans compare? A) They are very similar. B) They are very different. C) They target the same population but use different tactics. D) Democrats are much more likely to try to mobilize voters than Republicans are. E) Republicans are much more likely to try to mobilize voters than Democrats are. Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 297–298 Skill: Understanding 13. According to a study comparing voter turnout in 21 countries, where does the United States rank? A) Top ten B) Top third C) Middle third D) Second to last E) Last Answer: D Reference: LO 8-4, p. 300 Skill: Understanding 14. The case of the national elections in Spain in 2004 illustrates A) the effect of having a multiparty system. B) a high level of political efficacy among the Spanish. C) the consequences of political accountability. D) the effect of the political environment. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 8-4, p. 302 Skill: Analysis 15. Which of the following is a conclusion we can draw from the data presented in Figure 86? A) Whites are more interested in politics. B) Latinos are the least interested in politics. C) Black Americans lack the opportunity to participate. D) Whites have more civic responsibility. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Figure 8-6) Skill: Analysis

True-False Questions 1. Having registration deadlines close to Election Day decreases the number of people likely to vote. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Analysis 2. Compared to citizens of countries such as the United Kingdom and Germany, Americans are less likely to participate in any type of political activity. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 (Figure 8-1) Skill: Analysis 3. A person’s level of political efficacy is determined almost exclusively by internal factors. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 290–292 Skill: Analysis 4. According to the statistics shown in the textbook, Republicans were more likely to vote than Democrats in 2008. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-3, p. 292 (Table 8-2) Skill: Analysis 5. No state is allowed to have its voter-registration deadline for a presidential election in September. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Application 6. Once the voting age was lowered to 18, voter turnout decreased. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 304–305 Skill: Understanding 7. The levels of party mobilization have declined during the last forty years. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 304–305 Skill: Understanding

8. The disproportionate political participation found across demographic categories in the United States is largely due to institutional factors rather than cultural or social ones. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 306–309 Skill: Analysis 9. Overall, Black and white Americans tend to disagree the most when it comes to their assessments of the government and its responsibilities. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Table 8-4) Skill: Analysis 10. There is systematic evidence that indicates that grassroots lobbying is not effective. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-5, p. 310 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. When did African-Americans gain de jure voting rights? A) Right after the Civil War B) In the 1880s C) Around 1900 D) During the 1930s E) Not until the 1960s Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 280–281 Skill: Understanding 2. Which of the following was NOT a barrier that continued to prevent African-Americans from voting after the Fifteenth Amendment was passed? A) Poll taxes B) Literacy tests C) Citizenship laws D) Physical intimidation E) They all were barriers. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 280–281 Skill: Understanding

3. The reason for the continued lack of voting rights of African-Americans after the Fifteenth Amendment was passed was largely a(n) A) legal problem. B) economic problem. C) social problem. D) enforcement problem. E) cultural problem. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 280–281 Skill: Analysis 4. Political scientists believe that political participation depends primarily on a person’s perception of the A) importance of the issue. B) energy involved. C) economic context. D) political context. E) costs and benefits. Answer: E Reference: LO 8-1, p. 281 Skill: Understanding 5. Approximately _________ of Americans engage only in voting and no other form of political participation. A) three-quarters B) half C) one-third D) one-quarter E) one-tenth Answer: B Reference: LO 8-1, p. 281 Skill: Understanding 6. Political scientists assume that under normal circumstances A) the costs of voting outweigh the benefits. B) the benefits of voting outweigh the costs. C) the costs of voting outweigh the benefits but people vote anyway. D) voting is not about costs and benefits but about civic duty. E) voting is considered a waste of time. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-1, p. 282 Skill: Understanding

7. Political scientists studying participation consider voting a A) civic duty. B) waste of time. C) paradox. D) normal phenomenon. E) puzzle. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-1, p. 282 Skill: Understanding 8. Health insurance in the United States prior to health-care reform could be considered a A) collective benefit. B) individual benefit. C) personal benefit. D) selective benefit. E) universal benefit. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Understanding 9. Your preferred candidate’s victory or defeat in an election is considered a(n) A) selective benefit. B) collective benefit. C) positive benefit. D) individual benefit. E) personal benefit. Answer: B Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Understanding 10. According to a large-scale survey of Americans who regularly participate in political activities, well over half of them stated that they did so because A) they felt they had a moral obligation. B) they wanted a chance to influence government policy. C) they wanted their voices to be heard. D) they believed their contribution made a difference. E) of material gains. Answer: B Reference: LO 8-1, pgs. 283–284 Skill: Understanding

11. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is likely true about people who regularly participate in political activities? A) They feel they have a chance to influence government policy. B) They have a high level of political efficacy. C) They are informed about the issues. D) They definitely make a difference. E) All of the above are likely true. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-1, pgs. 283–284 Skill: Analysis 12. All but which of the following are likely to decrease voter turnout? A) The election is for a low-ranking official. B) The voters do not know much about the position up for election. C) The candidates are running on very sensitive platforms. D) The candidates are very close in their positions. E) A candidate is running unopposed. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-1, p. 284 Skill: Understanding 13. What is the most common type of political activity? A) Voting B) Protesting C) Watching the news D) Writing letters E) Signing petitions Answer: A Reference: LO 8-2, p. 284 Skill: Understanding 14. According to a 2008 study summarized in the textbook, roughly what percentage of Americans participated in campaign-related activities? A) 60 percent B) 50 percent C) 40 percent D) 30 percent E) Less than 10 percent Answer: E Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 (Table 8-1) Skill: Understanding

15. In today’s America, social movements A) play a more important role than ever. B) are as important to American politics as they have always been. C) play a less important role than they used to. D) play no role at all. E) play a very important role in some issue areas. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 Skill: Understanding 16. According to the textbook, social movements like the ____________ of nonvoting political participation. A) sleeping beauty B) ugly duckling C) lazy dog D) sleeping giant E) monster Answer: D Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 Skill: Understanding 17. In international comparison, which of the following political activities do Americans lag behind in? A) Campaign work B) Voting C) Volunteering D) Community work E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 (Figure 8-1) Skill: Analysis 18. When measuring voter turnout, political scientists typically measure the A) absolute number of people who voted. B) absolute number of people who did not vote. C) percentage of people who voted. D) percentage of people who did not vote. E) number of legal citizens. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–288 Skill: Understanding

19. How is the voter turnout in American elections calculated? The actual number of voters is divided by the number of A) the total population. B) potential voters. C) registered voters. D) voting-age citizens. E) voting-age residents. Answer: B Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–288 Skill: Understanding 20. The voting-age population includes which of the following? A) Registered voters only B) People who have actually voted in the past C) All American citizens at home and abroad D) Everyone living in the United States who is 18 years of age or older E) American citizens who are 18 years of age or older Answer: E Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–288 Skill: Understanding 21. Measuring voter turnout on the basis of the voting-age population tends to A) understate how many Americans voted. B) overstate how many Americans voted. C) report fairly accurately how many Americans voted. D) be difficult to accomplish. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–288 Skill: Understanding 22. Which of the following is the MOST important component of socioeconomic status? A) Income B) Education C) Social standing D) Occupation E) Age Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Understanding

23. According to the textbook, ALL BUT WHICH of the following are included in so-called civic skills? A) Writing B) Speaking C) Analyzing D) Listening E) Organizing Answer: D Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Understanding 24. Which of the following lowers the costs of political participation for a person? A) Civic skills B) Motor skills C) Manual skills D) Mental skills E) Occupational skills Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Understanding 25. If a person does not believe that he or she has the ability to influence politics, this is referred to as A) lack of faith. B) low political efficacy. C) low self-esteem. D) lack of political skill. E) lack of knowledge. Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Understanding 26. Which of the following is NOT likely to influence a person’s political efficacy? A) Social status B) Personality C) Political environment D) Education E) Gender Answer: E Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Analysis

27. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are factors that influence a person’s likelihood of participation in political activities, according to the textbook? A) Gender B) Socioeconomic status C) Legal factors D) Political environment E) Mobilization Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 290–292 Skill: Understanding 28. Which of the following is considered the MOST important determinant of political participation? A) Gender B) Socioeconomic status C) Race D) Age E) Education Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 290–292 Skill: Understanding 29. Which of the following categories displayed the LEAST amount of difference in voter turnout among different groups in 2008? A) Income B) Education C) Region D) Ideology E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 292 (Table 8-2) Skill: Analysis 30. Which of the following categories displayed the GREATEST amount of difference in voter turnout among different groups in 2008? A) Income B) Education C) Region D) Ideology E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, p. 292 (Table 8-2) Skill: Analysis

31. When were young people between the ages of 18 and 20 allowed to vote in the United States? A) 1865 B) 1890 C) 1965 D) 1970 E) They have been allowed to all along. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Understanding 32. Non-U.S. citizens who live in the United States legally are A) never allowed to vote in state or national elections. B) allowed to vote in national elections under certain circumstances. C) allowed to vote after three years of residence. D) allowed to vote after ten years of residence. E) allowed to run for office but not allowed to vote. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Understanding 33. Which of the following is the only state that does NOT require voter registration? A) Florida B) California C) Wyoming D) North Dakota E) New York Answer: D Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Understanding 34. The effect of requiring voter registration is that A) people become more likely to vote because they feel obligated. B) people become more likely to vote because they become more informed. C) people become less likely to vote. D) There is no direct effect. E) A and B Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 294 Skill: Understanding

35. Over time, the movement has been toward making voter registration A) more difficult. B) more legal. C) easier. D) unnecessary. E) There has been no movement. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 294 Skill: Understanding 36. Voter-registration offices are required to stay open A) 24 hours a day. B) on weekends. C) during normal business hours. D) only two months prior to elections. E) There is no requirement for opening hours. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 294 Skill: Understanding 37. The maximum number of days someone has to register before an election is now A) 90 days. B) 60 days. C) 30 days. D) 10 days. E) 2 days. Answer: C Reference: LO 8-3, p. 294 Skill: Understanding 38. Which of the following CANNOT be said to have contributed to the success of the 21stcentury Tea Party movement? A) The use of social-networking media B) Voters’ disillusionment with the Democrats and Republicans C) The global economic recession D) The movement’s radically new ideas E) People’s worries over the growing national debt Answer: D Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 294–295 Skill: Analysis

39. States that use referenda for certain issues tend to have A) higher voter turnout than other states. B) the same voter turnout as other states. C) lower voter turnout than other states. D) It depends on the state. E) There is no connection between referenda and voter turnout. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 295–296 Skill: Understanding 40. Which of the following does NOT explain why states that have referenda tend to have higher voter turnouts? Referenda increase A) transparency. B) political efficacy. C) the potential benefits for voters. D) political legitimacy. E) direct democracy. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 295–296 Skill: Analysis 41. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are typical voter-mobilization activities? A) Phone calls B) Financial incentives C) Personal visits D) Mailings E) Transportation on Election Day Answer: B Reference: LO 8-3, p. 296 Skill: Understanding 42. Based on what you learned in previous chapters, why do you think Switzerland is the only country that has a lower voter turnout than the United States? A) Because people in Switzerland are very uninterested in politics B) Because people in Switzerland are disillusioned about politics C) Because elections in Switzerland are not free and fair D) Because people in Switzerland vote more often than in any other country E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 8-4, p. 300 Skill: Analysis

43. Which of the following is NOT a reason given in the textbook for the comparatively low voter turnout among Americans? A) Registration rules B) Corruption among politicians C) The two-party system D) Electoral rules E) Election scheduling Answer: B Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 300–302 Skill: Understanding 44. If it were not for voter registration, how would voter turnout in the United States compare to that of Western European democracies? Voter turnout would A) still be significantly lower. B) be significantly higher. C) be very comparable overall. D) be comparable in presidential elections. E) be comparable in midterm elections. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-4, p. 301 Skill: Understanding 45. In terms of election scheduling, which of the following is NOT an obstacle mentioned in the textbook to high voter turnout? A) The location of the polls B) Having elections on a Tuesday C) The frequency of the elections D) The complexity of the elections E) The number of elected offices Answer: A Reference: LO 8-4, p. 301 Skill: Understanding 46. In a ____________ system, political parties tend to have more narrowly focused agendas and closer links to population groups. A) two-party presidential B) two-party parliamentary C) multiparty presidential D) multiparty parliamentary E) B and D Answer: D Reference: LO 8-4, p. 302 Skill: Understanding

47. ALL BUT WHICH of the following factors account for the decline in voter turnout since 1960? A) A decline in political trust B) The decrease in civics education C) A decline in political efficacy D) A decline in party attachment E) The inclusion of young people Answer: B Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 304–306 Skill: Analysis 48. According to the statistics presented in the textbook, which of the following political activities are Latinos more likely to participate in than white and Black Americans? A) Protests B) Campaign work C) Community activities D) Membership in a political organization E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Figure 8-6) Skill: Analysis 49. Which of the following is NOT an issue on which whites and African-Americans differ significantly? A) The war in Iraq B) The death penalty C) Government actions in improving the situations of minorities D) The role of government being limited E) The government collecting too much information on citizens Answer: D Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Table 8-4) Skill: Analysis 50. Which of the following is not true about the differences in attitudes among the young (under 30) and the old (55-plus)? A) Older people are more likely to favor government insurance as opposed to private insurance. B) Older people are more likely to be conservatives. C) Younger people are more likely to favor government services, even if it means increased spending. D) Younger people are more likely to favor increased spending on student loans. E) Older people more likely to believe that the war in Iraq was worth the cost. Answer: A Reference: LO 8-5, p. 308 (Table 8-5) Skill: Analysis 212 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

51. According to studies cited in the textbook, what effect would it have on public opinion if the various demographic groups in America—some of which are currently underrepresented—began to participate according to their percentages in the population? A) Public opinion would shift dramatically. B) Public opinion would become more conservative. C) Public opinion would become more liberal. D) Public opinion would not change collectively. E) Scholars are unsure of what would happen. Answer: D Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 308–309 Skill: Understanding 52. Political-science research shows that A) the collective actions of individuals can have a significant effect on politics. B) contacting elected officials has a big effect on politics. C) voting has the smallest effect on politics of all political activities. D) nonvoting forms of political participation have almost as big an effect on politics as voting does. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 309–312 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Barriers that prevented African-Americans from voting included physical intimidation. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 280–281 Skill: Understanding 2. More than three-quarters of Americans engage in some form of political participation in addition to voting. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-1, p. 281 Skill: Understanding 3. Americans primarily decide whether or not to engage in political participation on the basis of a sense of civic responsibility. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-1, p. 281 Skill: Understanding

4. Labor unions who lobby for a pay raise for their members typically produce a selective benefit. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Understanding 5. A sense of having done one’s duty by voting in an election is an example of a selective benefit. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-1, p. 283 Skill: Understanding 6. Compared to citizens of other countries, Americans are less likely to work on political campaigns. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 (Figure 8-1) Skill: Analysis 7. When political scientists measure voter turnout based on registered voters only, this tends to overstate the level of political participation. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Understanding 8. In most other countries, there is no formal voter registration, which partially accounts for the higher turnouts in those countries. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Understanding 9. Green-card holders are allowed to vote in local elections in the United States but not in national elections. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Understanding 10. One of the problems with conducting public-opinion surveys in order to determine voter turnout is that people tend to lie about voting. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Understanding

11. Political efficacy and political participation are highly correlated. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 290–292 Skill: Understanding 12. According to the statistics shown in the textbook, people in the South are more likely to vote than people elsewhere. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-3, p. 292 (Table 8-2) Skill: Analysis 13. The effect of voter registration is to increase voter turnout because people who get registered are clearly more interested in politics. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 293–294 Skill: Analysis 14. The Republican Party used a neighbor-to-neighbor approach in the 2004 election, which was very successful in mobilizing the Republican vote. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-3, p. 298 Skill: Understanding 15. If America were to switch from a plurality electoral rule to a majority rule, this would increase voter turnout, according to the textbook. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 300–302 Skill: Application 16. Multiparty parliamentary systems tend to increase representation and accountability. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-4, p. 302 Skill: Analysis 17. The case of the national elections in Spain in 2004 illustrates the consequences of political accountability. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-4, p. 302 Skill: Analysis

18. Americans have the same levels of education now as they did 40 years ago. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 304–305 Skill: Understanding 19. According to some studies, voter turnout in the United States is tied to the development of education. Answer: False Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 304–305 Skill: Understanding 20. The richer and more conservative someone is, the more likely he or she is to participate in politics. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, p. 306 Skill: Understanding 21. Education, race, and age are all important variables in political participation. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 306–308 Skill: Understanding 22. Differences of opinion between whites and blacks in America are significant enough to suggest that the low levels of political participation among Black Americans could pose a problem for equal representation. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Table 8-4) Skill: Analysis 23. One of the issues that white and Black Americans disagree on the most is the war in Iraq. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Table 8-4) Skill: Analysis 24. White Americans are more likely to contribute financially to political campaigns than other groups. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, p. 307 (Figure 8-6) Skill: Analysis

25. On an individual level, it is difficult to argue that political participation matters. Answer: True Reference: LO 8-5, p. 309 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. In your own words, please explain the so-called paradox of voting using the concepts of costs and benefits. In particular, what is the difference between collective benefits and selective benefits? How does this difference affect political participation in general? Reference: LO 8-1, pgs. 281–284 Skill: Understanding 2. Briefly outline what types of activities Americans are more likely and less likely to participate in. (Provide three examples of each.) What factors do you suppose explain these tendencies? Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 284–289 Skill: Analysis 3. How does the level of political participation in America compare to that of the other countries listed in the textbook? In which categories do Americans perform well? Why? In which categories are Americans trailing? Why do you think that is? Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 Skill: Analysis 4. How is the voter turnout in American elections calculated? What are potential problems with this measure? Is there a better way to calculate this? If so, what is it? If not, why is the current method the best? Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Analysis 5. What does the term “political efficacy” refer to? On average, how would you judge most Americans’ levels of political efficacy? Support your answer. Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Analysis 6. If you were asked to devise a strategy that would increase Americans’ political efficacy, how would you go about this? Be specific and offer at least three different approaches. Reference: LO 8-3, p. 290 Skill: Application

7. What are elements of the political environment that influence voter turnout, and how do they do so? Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 295–296 Skill: Understanding 8. What kinds of GOTV events would you recommend in order to attract more young people to politics? Why? Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 296–300 Skill: Application 9. What kinds of GOTV efforts would you recommend in order to increase political participation among minorities in the United States? Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 296–300 Skill: Understanding 10. In your opinion, what are good reasons for continuing to keep voter registration in the United States? What speaks against this practice? If it were up to you, would you reform this system, and how would you do this? Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 300–302 Skill: Analysis 11. Based on what you know, would switching from a two-party system to a multiple-party system increase Americans’ political efficacy and therefore voter turnout? Why or why not? Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 300–306 Skill: Analysis 12. Would you prefer a multiple-party system to a two-party system? Why or why not? In your answer, focus on the specific effects of each system (e.g., on efficiency, voter turnout, representativeness). Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 300–306 Skill: Evaluation 13. How has voter turnout in U.S. presidential elections changed since 1960? How do you expect it to change over the next twenty years? Why? Support your answer by analyzing the factors that typically affect turnout, and show how you expect the factors to change in the future. Reference: LO 8-4, pgs. 303–306 Skill: Analysis

14. What are the major characteristics of various demographic groups with regard to political participation? How would you explain these phenomena? Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 306–308 Skill: Analysis 15. Do you believe political participation matters? Why or why not? In particular, does it matter whether certain groups participate more than others? Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 306–308 Skill: Evaluation 16. What are three major issues that young and old people in America disagree on? What do you think explains these differences in opinion? What are two issues they agree on? Why? Reference: LO 8-5, p. 308 Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. Figure 8-1 compares the levels of participation in various activities across countries. How does the United States compare internationally? How would you explain these patterns? Reference: LO 8-2, p. 285 Skill: Analysis 2. Explain why political scientists have such a difficult time measuring—let alone predicting—voter turnout in the United States. Be as specific as possible, and address as many methodological issues as you can remember. Reference: LO 8-2, pgs. 286–289 Skill: Understanding 3. Based on what you know about voter turnout in the United States, as well as the costs and benefits associated with voting, how would you assess the usefulness of allowing people to vote online? What are the positives and negatives of such an idea? Do you believe we will ever see online voting? Why or why not? Reference: LO 8-3 and LO 8-4, pgs. 300–316 Skill: Evaluation 4. Table 8-2 illustrates the connections between age and political participation. For each age-group shown, please explain why you think that age-group is behaving the way the numbers suggest it is. In addition, address what the possible implications of these patterns are for American politics. Reference: LO 8-3, p. 302 Skill: Analysis

5. Voter-mobilization efforts are often dubbed GOTV (get out the vote). Please outline a strategy for your own GOTV campaign. Be as specific as possible, and explain why you feel your strategy might be successful. Reference: LO 8-3, pgs. 306–310 Skill: Application 6. What about a two-party system depresses voter turnout? Address as many different factors as possible. Reference: LO 8-4, p. 312 Skill: Analysis 7. Political participation varies considerably across demographic groups. Please explain the differences between groups (according to age, gender, race) and what you believe accounts for the differences. Reference: LO 8-5, pgs. 316–318 Skill: Analysis 8. Please write an essay about political participation in the United States. Begin by summarizing the current status of participation across America. In addition, explain what factors influence a person’s likelihood of participating, in what ways he or she is likely to participate, and why that is the case. Reference: LO 8-1, LO 8-2, and LO 8-3, entire chapter Skill: Understanding 9. Imagine that you are a campaign worker for a candidate in an upcoming senatorial race. Your boss explains to you that it will be crucial to get young people motivated to register to vote in the election. You are given the task of coming up with a strategy for ensuring that (a) young people in your area register to vote and that (b) on Election Day they actually show up to vote. How would you do this? Reference: LO 8-1, LO 8-3, and LO 8-5, entire chapter Skill: Application 10. If the trends outlined in the textbook concerning voting and political participation continue in similar fashion in the future, do you believe democracy will still be viable in the United States? What will be some concrete consequences, if the trends persist? Reference: LO 8-4 and LO 8-5, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

11. In what ways has the Internet affected political participation? Do you believe the effect has been largely positive (in the form of getting people connected more quickly)? Or has it largely been negative (by distracting people from going out and becoming active)? What are other concrete ways in which the Internet—and information technology in general—has affected participation levels? Reference: LO 8-3, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 12. Some scholars have argued that religion plays an important role in why some individuals are more likely to participate in political activities than others. For instance, one school of thought suggests that religion provides a sense of community, which in turn promotes a sense of civic duty. What other possible connections do you see between religion and political participation (either positive or negative)? Reference: LO 8-3, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

Chapter Nine Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following were NOT instrumental in the 2000 election puzzle in Florida? A) Network-TV executives B) Election officials C) Voting-machine manufacturers D) Supreme Court judges E) Voters Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Analysis 2. The first important audience for a political candidate running for national office is A) his or her family. B) the party. C) the American people. D) the state legislature. E) the media. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 317 Skill: Understanding 3. What percentage of the vote does a Democratic candidate have to receive in order to be eligible to receive his or her share of delegates? A) 50 percent B) 40 percent C) 30 percent D) 15 percent E) 5 percent Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding

4. If the goal was to have candidates who represent as broad a section of society as possible, it would be best to use A) a closed primary. B) an open primary. C) no primary. D) a proportional primary. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Analysis 5. A so-called brokered convention becomes necessary when neither candidate receives A) unanimity. B) a supermajority of votes. C) a plurality of votes. D) a majority of votes. E) It has nothing to do with votes. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 321–322 Skill: Understanding 6. In terms of presidential primaries, which of the following is correct? A) On average, the Democratic Party has held more primaries than the Republican Party. B) On average, the Republican Party has held more primaries than the Democratic Party. C) The Democratic Party used to hold more primaries than the Republican Party. D) The Republican Party used to hold more primaries than the Democratic Party. E) No such generalization is possible. Answer: E Reference: LO 9-1, p. 322 Skill: Analysis 7. Assume that candidate A receives 35 percent of the vote. Candidate B receives 33 percent of the vote, whereas candidate C receives 32 percent of the vote. If the election is based on the plurality rule, then A) candidate A wins. B) there is a runoff election between candidates A and B. C) there is a runoff election between all three candidates (since they all received a substantial percentage of the vote). D) there is a new election later in the year (since no one received a majority). E) superdelegates decide the election. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Application 224 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Which of the following are sufficient preconditions for a voter to engage in issue voting? A) The voter must be aware of the issue. B) The voter must have an opinion on the issue. C) The voter must be able to identify the candidate’s position on the issue. D) The voter must believe that one candidate represents his or her own position better than any other candidate. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 9-2, p. 329 Skill: Analysis 9. Based on the logic behind issue voting presented in the textbook, which the following issues would you expect voters to the have the weakest opinions on? A) Abortion B) Gay marriage C) The death penalty D) Immigration E) Social-security reform Answer: E Reference: LO 9-2, p. 332 Skill: Application 10. Until the early eighties, the key to understanding the primary process was A) charisma. B) momentum. C) ideology. D) the economy. E) personality. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-3, p. 334 Skill: Understanding 11. Research about the invisible primary and nomination has primarily shown us A) causality. B) correlation. C) speculation. D) wishful thinking. E) no systematic information. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-3, p. 335 Skill: Analysis

12. Which of the following may irrevocably change our understanding of the invisible primary? A) The polarization of the American people B) The growing interdependence of the world C) The Internet D) The global economy E) The decrease in democracy Answer: C Reference: LO 9-3, p. 336 Skill: Understanding 13. Which of the following appears to have negatively affected Al Gore’s chances for success in the 2000 election campaign? A) His likeability deficit B) His close association with Bill Clinton C) His being perceived as too liberal D) His perceived lack of competence E) His perceived lack of experience Answer: C Reference: LO 9-3, pgs. 338–339 Skill: Understanding 14. According to the insights of the retrospective-voting model, which of the following strategies should Barrack Obama have followed in the 2008 presidential campaign? A) Primarily emphasize his plans for the economy in the future B) Primarily emphasize his plans for the war on terror in the future C) Highlight his past achievements as a senator D) Highlight the past mistakes of the Republican Party and president George W. Bush E) Ridicule his opponent John McCain’s platform Answer: D Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 340–341 Skill: Application 15. The total limit on hard-money contributions to a presidential campaign for both the primary and the general election is set to _________ per person. A) $2,300 B) $3,200 C) $4,600 D) $6,400 E) $7,500 Answer: C Reference: LO 9-4, p. 346 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. Political scientists’ models assume that people vote with a retrospective perspective. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Understanding 2. In a modified open primary, a registered Republican is allowed to vote in the Democratic primary. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Understanding 3. Superdelegates can vote for whomever they want. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 321–322 Skill: Understanding 4. One of the disadvantages of a system of proportional representation is that it might lead to more political instability in the government. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 5. According to The American Voter, the party affiliation people adopt in their preadult years becomes akin to their racial identity. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 325–326 Skill: Understanding 6. Retrospective voting is arguably the easiest form of voting. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Analysis 7. The Internet may irrevocably change our understanding of the invisible primary. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-3, p. 336 Skill: Understanding

8. Al Gore’s chances for success in the 2000 presidential election seem to have been negatively affected by his likeability deficit. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-3, p. 338 Skill: Understanding 9. Candidates who want to use public funds for their campaigns have to agree to use that money in a certain way. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 346–347 Skill: Understanding 10. The costs of political campaigns have increased significantly over the years. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The results of the 2000 presidential election raise questions about ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The American electoral system B) The representativeness of the elections C) The nature of checks and balances in the U.S. D) The voting procedures and ballot structures E) The will of the American people Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Analysis 2. Political-science models designed to predict electoral outcomes assume that people vote with a ___________ perspective. A) reactive B) retrospective C) proactive D) practical E) future-oriented Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Understanding

3. Which of the following is the primary predictor of people’s votes, according to most political-science models of analysis? A) Age B) Income C) Party identification D) Occupation E) Regional factors Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Understanding 4. In an electoral system that uses proportional representation, the seats a party receives in the legislature are determined by A) the party’s electoral success in past elections. B) a first-past-the-post system. C) the size of the party’s membership. D) the party’s vote share. E) an electoral-college vote. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 317 Skill: Understanding 5. In an electoral system that uses proportional representation, if there are 550 seats in parliament and a party wins 15 percent of the vote, how many seats does it get? A) None, because seats are determined based on which party gets a majority B) It depends on how many districts the party won. C) The party would get just over 80 seats. D) The party would get just over 150 seats. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 9-1, p. 317 Skill: Application 6. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of running under a party label in the United States? A) Built-in support B) Financial assistance C) Logistical assistance D) Instant name recognition E) Resources Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 317–318 Skill: Understanding

7. A presidential candidate acquires his or her party’s nomination by successfully acquiring a majority of A) votes. B) delegates. C) states. D) districts. E) electoral-college votes. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding 8. Virtually all of the primaries and caucuses are held A) during a five-month period in the first half of an election year. B) during a five-month period in the second half of an election year. C) all throughout the election year. D) during the last quarter of the year prior to an election year. E) It depends on the year. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding 9. The first caucus in United States presidential elections is traditionally held in _______, whereas the first primary is held in ________. A) New Hampshire, Iowa B) Iowa, New Hampshire C) Idaho, Vermont D) Vermont, Idaho E) Idaho, Massachusetts Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding 10. Who participates in a caucus? A) All eligible voters in a state B) All registered voters in a state C) Registered members of both parties D) Registered members of the party who is selecting a candidate E) Members of the state government Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding

11. A caucus consists of A) statewide elections. B) nationwide elections. C) closed elections among registered party members. D) small meetings around the state. E) one large meeting in the state. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding 12. Which of the following is conducted just like an election? A) A caucus B) A primary C) Both a caucus and a primary D) Neither a caucus nor a primary E) It depends on the state. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 318 Skill: Understanding 13. A primary in which a voter can participate regardless of his or her party affiliation is called a(n) A) open primary. B) modified open primary. C) closed primary. D) free primary. E) crossover primary. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Understanding 14. In a closed primary A) only party leaders vote. B) only registered members of the party vote. C) only active members of the party vote. D) only certain groups get to vote. E) everyone votes by secret ballot. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Understanding

15. The choice of proportional or winner-take-all allocation in primaries is left up to the A) national government. B) national party. C) party in individual states. D) voters in individual states. E) delegates. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Understanding 16. How do you think the Founding Fathers would feel about the primary system currently in place? A) They would have loved the idea. B) They would have considered it necessary owing to the size of the American population. C) They would have liked it from a practical point of view. D) They would have been very skeptical of this system. E) They would have felt indifferent about it. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Analysis 17. Before 1972, primaries were considered to be a A) farce. B) waste of time. C) beauty contest. D) popularity contest. E) They didn’t exist. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Understanding 18. When presidential candidates ran in primaries prior to 1972, they did so in order to A) win votes for the nomination. B) demonstrate their appeal to party leaders. C) intimidate their opponent. D) practice their campaign strategies. E) There were no primaries. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, p. 320 Skill: Understanding

19. ALL BUT WHICH of the following affected or resulted from the 1968 Democraticnomination campaign? A) Revolutionary campaign strategies B) The antiwar movement C) The assassination of Robert Kennedy D) The reform of the nomination process E) The loss of the presidential election that year Answer: A Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 320–321 Skill: Understanding 20. A brokered convention best fits which of the following categories? A) Direct democracy B) Indirect democracy C) Unilateral democracy D) Hierarchical democracy E) Failed democracy Answer: B Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 321–322 Skill: Analysis 21. The motivations for front-loading have primarily been A) strategic. B) practical. C) financial. D) political. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 9-1, p. 322 Skill: Analysis 22. The first Super Tuesday primary was held in an attempt to A) increase states’ influence over the nomination process. B) maximize efficiency. C) increase financial gains. D) maximize voter interest. E) minimize voting costs. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-1, p. 322 Skill: Analysis

23. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a system of proportional representation? A) It is potentially more representative. B) It requires a more consensual decision-making style. C) It might increase people’s political efficacy. D) It leads to more efficient decision-making. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 24. The plurality rule in elections benefits A) democracy. B) representativeness. C) efficiency. D) third parties. E) voters. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 25. Which of the following is NOT a factor in voting behavior in the primaries? A) Race B) Age C) Socioeconomic status D) Party identification E) Income Answer: D Reference: LO 9-2, p. 325 Skill: Understanding 26. According to The American Voter, at what age do Americans typically adopt the partisan affiliation that is likely to dominate their political attitudes for a very long time? A) Pre-adulthood B) Early adulthood C) Postcollege D) Middle age E) There is no general rule. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-2, p. 325 Skill: Understanding

27. The relatively few panel studies on party identification that have been carried out suggest that party identification is A) constantly changing. B) never changing. C) stable. D) context sensitive. E) time sensitive. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 326–327 Skill: Understanding 28. According to the traditional school of thought A) party identification determines vote choice. B) vote choice determines party identification. C) party identification and vote choice reinforce each other. D) there is no clear relationship between party identification and vote choice. E) it depends on the voter whether there is a relationship between party identification and vote choice. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 326–327 Skill: Understanding 29. Which school of thought tends to argue that party identification and voter choices influence each other? A) Revisionist B) Traditional C) Partisan D) Realist E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 326–327 Skill: Understanding 30. The so-called Reagan Democrats tended to identify with the Republican Party in ________ issues. A) economic B) political C) international D) social E) trade Answer: D Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 326–327 Skill: Understanding

31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about the development of partisan affiliations among Southerners between 1960 and 2008? A) The number of Democrats has declined. B) The number of Republicans has declined. C) The number of independents has decreased. D) The number of Democrats has declined more than the number of independents. E) The number of independents was at its weakest in 2008. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-2, p. 327 (Figure 9-2) Skill: Analysis 32. The data presented in Figure 9-2 proves the _________ school of thought about partisanship. A) traditional B) revisionist C) pluralist D) proportional E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 9-2, p. 327 (Figure 9-2) Skill: Analysis 33. Roughly what percentage of people who identify with a particular party—strongly or otherwise—typically votes for that party in a presidential election? A) More than 90 percent B) Between 70 and 90 percent C) Between 60 and 70 percent D) Between 50 and 60 percent E) Less than 50 percent Answer: B Reference: LO 9-2, p. 328 Skill: Understanding 34. Issue and policy preferences have a(n) ________ effect on voter choice. A) negligible B) very small C) stable D) uncertain E) large Answer: D Reference: LO 9-2, p. 329 Skill: Understanding

35. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are necessary conditions for a voter to engage in issue voting? A) The voter must be aware of the issue. B) The voter must have an opinion on the issue. C) The issue must be very important to most people. D) The voter must be able to identify the candidate’s position on the issue. E) The voter must believe that one candidate represents his or her own position better than any other candidate. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-2, p. 329 Skill: Understanding 36. In his study on issue voting, V.O. Key obtained his most interesting data from A) strong Democrats B) strong Republicans C) independents D) swing voters E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 329–330 Skill: Understanding 37. If voters try to determine how a candidate will perform once in office, this is called A) proactive voting. B) prospective voting. C) retrospective voting. D) potential voting. E) probability voting. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Understanding 38. If citizens vote based on their evaluation of the candidate’s party’s past performance, this is called A) retrospective voting. B) retroactive voting. C) retaliatory voting. D) demonstrative voting. E) punitive voting. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Understanding

39. If a person chose to vote for John McCain in the 2008 presidential election based primarily on his or her assessment of the suitability of both candidates, this is referred to as A) prospective voting. B) conservative voting. C) preference voting. D) retrospective voting. E) visionary voting. Answer: A Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Application 40. If a person chose to vote for Barrack Obama in the 2008 presidential election based primarily on the fact that during the previous eight years unemployment had risen, this is referred to as A) prospective voting. B) retaliatory voting. C) swing voting. D) retrospective voting. E) revisionist voting. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Application 41. Based on the logic behind issue voting presented in the textbook, which of the following issues would you expect to be most important in terms of the strength of opinion people are likely to have about it? A) The war on terror B) Social security C) Abortion D) Trade with China E) Unemployment Answer: C Reference: LO 9-2, p. 332 Skill: Application 42. So-called valence issues are issues that A) are especially controversial. B) people have a wide variety of opinions on. C) virtually everyone agrees on. D) people feel more strongly about than others. E) are of little significance to elections. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-2, p. 332 Skill: Understanding 238 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

43. Relying on data about candidate evaluation and party identification can generate a correct prediction of voter choice roughly ______ of the time. A) 95 to 100 percent B) 90 to 95 percent C) 85 to 90 percent D) 70 to 85 percent E) 50 to 70 percent Answer: C Reference: LO 9-2, p. 333 Skill: Understanding 44. The period before the primaries is also referred to as the A) pseudo-primary. B) imitation primary. C) invisible primary. D) simulated primary. E) bogus primary. Answer: C Reference: LO 9-3, p. 334 Skill: Understanding 45. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about the invisible primary? A) In most cases, the invisible primary produces a clear winner. B) In all but one case, the invisible-primary winner went on to win the nomination. C) No candidate has ever won the nomination without winning the invisible primary. D) Most candidates who decisively win the invisible primary have gone on to win the election. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-3, p. 334 Skill: Understanding 46. Which of the following can we NOT conclude from the results presented in Table 9-1? A) The outcome of the so-called invisible primary is a good indicator of who will ultimately be the nominee. B) In most cases, the front-runner was also able to raise the most money. C) There is a clear correlation between the amount of money raised and the outcome of the nomination process. D) The person who raises the most money tends to win as a result of it. E) All of the above can be concluded. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-3, p. 335 (Table 9-1) Skill: Analysis

47. Which of the following do political scientists NOT generally take into consideration when forecasting presidential-election outcomes? A) Candidate evaluations B) The partisan orientations of the electorate C) The job-approval ratings of the incumbent president D) The performance of the economy during the first half of the election year E) The incumbency of both the individual and the party Answer: A Reference: LO 9-3, p. 336 Skill: Understanding 48. A party that runs a highly visible presidential-election campaign can expect ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) A higher voter turnout among partisans B) More loyalty among partisans C) A large number of defections from the opposing party D) A small number of defections from one’s own party E) Higher vote counts among weak partisans and independents Answer: C Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 340–341 Skill: Analysis 49. Which of the following is NOT an ingredient of a successful campaign mentioned in the textbook? A) Loyalty B) Turnout C) Defections D) Persuasion E) Deceit Answer: E Reference: LO 9-4, p. 341 Skill: Understanding 50. In recent years, the list of so-called battleground states A) has been different every time, depending on the candidates and the context. B) has been relatively stable. C) has been exactly the same. D) used to be the same but now varies. E) All states are battleground states. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-4, p. 343 Skill: Understanding

51. Money used by candidates for activities such as voter-registration drives is referred to as A) hard money. B) soft money. C) public money. D) campaign money. E) special funds. Answer: B Reference: LO 9-4, p. 345 Skill: Understanding 52. Which of the following can we NOT conclude about campaign spending and electoral success? A) Spending and success are highly correlated. B) Spending by the challenger tends to be more significantly related to success than spending by the incumbent. C) Spending can contribute to greater name recognition. D) Higher spending makes candidates more successful. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–350 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Political scientists correctly predicted that George W. Bush would win the 2000 presidential election. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Understanding 2. In the 2000 presidential election, neither candidate managed to receive a majority of the popular vote. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Understanding 3. The rules that govern American elections are very similar to those of most democratic countries around the world. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-1, p. 317 Skill: Understanding

4. In a brokered convention, party members continue to vote until one candidate has a majority of the votes. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 321–322 Skill: Understanding 5. The main consideration in a brokered convention is the electability of the candidate. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 321–322 Skill: Understanding 6. Over the last 30 years, there has been a trend toward more primaries, later in the year. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-1, p. 322 Skill: Understanding 7. One of the advantages of a system of proportional representation is that it tends to lead to more compromises in decision-making. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 8. One of the advantages of a system of proportional representation is that it might increase citizens’ political efficacy. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 9. According to the plurality rule, one candidate merely has to receive more votes than any other candidate in order to be elected, even if she only receives a small share of the vote. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Understanding 10. The traditional school of thought on party identification suggests that party I.D. and voter choice influence each other in a reciprocal relationship. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-2, p. 326 Skill: Understanding

11. Between 1960 and 2008, the number of independents in the South increased, whereas the number of strong Republicans and Democrats declined. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-2, p. 327 (Figure 9-2) Skill: Analysis 12. Changes in partisan attachment tend to be more likely to appear in the strength of the attachment rather than in its direction. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-2, p. 328 Skill: Understanding 13. If a voter cares about a particular issue and identifies a candidate’s position on the issue as being very close to her own, she will vote for that candidate. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 329–330 Skill: Analysis 14. From V.O. Key’s analysis of voting decisions we can conclude that people who are unhappy with their party are likely to switch to another party. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 329–330 Skill: Analysis 15. Based on the data presented in Table 9-1, we can conclude that the person who raises the most money in a presidential election wins as a direct result of it. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-3, p. 335 (Table 9-1) Skill: Analysis 16. The retrospective-voting model is often referred to as the sticks-and-carrots model. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-3, p. 339 Skill: Understanding 17. Candidates use so-called focus groups in order to research the most-effective campaign messages. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, p. 342 Skill: Understanding

18. There is no limit on the so-called coordinated expenditures parties or interest groups can contribute to a political campaign. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-4, p. 346 Skill: Understanding 19. The requirement to agree to a spending limit when accepting public funds is consistent with a Supreme Court decision that declared forced campaign limits unconstitutional. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, p. 347 Skill: Understanding 20. In order for third parties to qualify for full general-election campaign funding, they had to have received at least 25 percent of the vote in the previous presidential election. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, p. 347 Skill: Understanding 21. Challengers in a presidential race tend to have to spend more money on their campaigns than the incumbent president. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Understanding 22. Political scientists have found that how much a candidate spends has a direct causal impact on his or her chances of winning the election. Answer: False Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Understanding 23. One of the problems of expensive campaigns is that they potentially undermine the ability of elected officials to represent all of their constituents fairly. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Analysis 24. Challengers are especially dependent on campaign contributions in order to level the playing field with an incumbent. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Understanding

25. In the case of elections, campaign contributions could be an intervening variable between a candidate’s victory and the true causes for that victory. Answer: True Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Analysis Short-Answer Questions 1. Most models that political scientists use in order to predict electoral outcomes assume that people vote with a retrospective perspective. What does this mean, and what would it have led political scientists to predict for the 2000 presidential election? Similarly, what outcome would this model have predicted for the 2008 presidential election? Why? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Application 2. If political scientists are correct in assuming that people vote retrospectively, what campaign strategies should both Barrack Obama and John McCain have adopted, respectively, for their 2008 presidential campaigns? In other words, what should they have focused on primarily? Why? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Application 3. What are the pros and cons of having closed primaries and caucuses as opposed to open ones? Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Analysis 4. Please explain the tendency toward front-loading in presidential election years. What are the reasons for this tendency, and what are some of the potential consequences? Reference: LO 9-1, p. 322 Skill: Analysis 5. Do you believe that the use of the electoral college is outdated? What speaks for keeping it, and what speaks against keeping it? Reference: LO 9-1, pgs. 323–324 Skill: Evaluation 6. In your opinion, how democratic is the plurality rule in U.S. national elections? In your answer, consider the lowest number a winning candidate can get according to this rule. Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Evaluation

7. Do you think it would be better for U.S. democracy if the president were elected on the basis of the popular vote only? Why or why not? Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Evaluation 8. Please outline how partisan affiliation among Southerners has developed since 1960. What are three potential causes for this development? What are two possible consequences? Reference: LO 9-2, p. 327 Skill: Analysis (Figure 9-2) 9. What is the difference between retrospective voting and prospective voting? Give an example for each. Which do you believe people are more likely to engage in? Why? Reference: LO 9-2, p. 330 Skill: Analysis 10. Please explain the concept of the invisible primary and how it affects presidential elections. In the age of multimedia and the Internet, how has the effect of this invisible primary changed? Reference: LO 9-3, pgs. 334–336 Skill: Analysis 11. What are so-called field operations, how do they work, and what role do they play in presidential campaigns? Please provide examples to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 343–345 Skill: Understanding 12. What are two arguments in favor of campaign spending limits? What are two arguments against them? Which side do you agree with? Why? Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 345–347 Skill: Analysis 13. In your opinion, what is the biggest problem with campaign spending and campaign finance laws right now? How would you change the status quo? Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 345–347 Skill: Evaluation 14. How much does campaign spending matter in terms of procuring victory for a candidate? Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 348–360 Skill: Understanding

15. Writer David Chagall has referred to marketing experts, PR consultants, and media producers as the new kingmakers in the modern presidential election. What was he trying to say? Based on what you have learned about campaigns and elections, do you agree? Reference: LO 9-1, LO 9-3 and LO 9-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. Neither George W. Bush nor Al Gore received a majority of the popular vote in the 2000 presidential election. In your opinion, what questions does this raise about the U.S. electoral system? How would you address these concerns? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 316–317 Skill: Evaluation 2. The American majoritarian system has been hotly debated in the past. Please outline the differences between a winner-take-all system such as the one the United States is using and a proportional system such as the one many European democracies use. In your opinion, what are two positives and two negatives of each system? Would you prefer to see the United States adopt a proportional system? Why or why not? Reference: LO 9-1, p. 319 Skill: Analysis 3. As the textbook states, some local elections in the United States allow for a second round of voting in the form of a runoff between the top two candidates if no candidate receives a majority in the first round. Keeping in mind democratic principles, how would you assess the simple-plurality requirement of most U.S. elections compared with the runoff format of some local elections? In other words, which of the two—if either—is more democratic? Which is more effective? Why? Reference: LO 9-1, p. 324 Skill: Analysis 4. In your opinion, how will partisan identification in this country continue to develop during the next twenty years? What are the reasons for your prediction? What are the consequences for American politics? Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 325–329 Skill: Application 5. How would a person evaluate the two presidential candidates in 2008 if she engaged in retrospective voting, and how would she evaluate them if she engaged in prospective voting? Be sure to address specific issues and concerns such a voter might focus on and why she would. Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 330–331 Skill: Application

6. Based on what you have observed, how much does a presidential candidate’s image affect voters’ evaluation of that candidate? What aspects of a candidate’s image do you consider important? Please provide concrete examples to illustrate your argument. Reference: LO 9-2, pgs. 333–334 Skill: Analysis 7. In what concrete ways do you think the Internet will continue to affect presidential elections during both the primaries and the actual election? Try to be as specific as possible, addressing both the benefits and the possible downsides of these developments. Reference: LO 9-3, pgs. 334–336 Skill: Analysis 8. In your opinion, how well do presidential candidates read the public when it comes to their campaigns? In other words, do you believe that candidates are typically in touch with their audiences? Why or why not? Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 342–343 Skill: Evaluation 9. It is not a secret that presidential campaigns are becoming more and more expensive. What are the current rules that govern campaign financing? Do you agree with these rules? What would you change? Why? Do you believe there should be an absolute limit on how much money any candidate can spend? Why or why not? Reference: LO 9-4, pgs. 345–347 Skill: Evaluation 10. Based on everything you have learned, what types of issues would you advise a presidential candidate to focus on heavily, and what types of issues would you advise him or her to stay away from? Why? What specific messages should a candidate send to the public? Reference: LO 9-1, LO 9-2, and LO 9-3, entire chapter Skill: Application 11. What skills and qualities do you believe a presidential candidate should have? During a presidential campaign, what skills and qualities does a successful candidate actually display? Would you say that campaigns do a good job of showing voters which candidate will be the better leader? Why or why not? Reference: LO 9-1, LO 9-2, and LO 9-4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Ten Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following was NOT among the big television channels that used to dominate news prior to 1980? A) NBC B) ABC C) CBS D) CNN E) All of the above were members of that group. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 354–355 Skill: Understanding 2. The American government owns A) all of the major television outlets. B) most of the major television outlets. C) a majority of the major television outlets. D) at least one of the major television outlets. E) none of the major television outlets. Answer: E Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 355–356 Skill: Understanding 3. According to the textbook, ALL BUT WHICH of the following are true about the American media? A) Reporters and editors try to present all sides completely and fairly. B) Journalists refrain from endorsing particular views. C) Journalists operate independently from the government. D) Journalists refuse to become spokespeople for any one party. E) Journalists occasionally assume an advocacy role. Answer: E Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 356–357 Skill: Understanding

4. Based on the data presented in Figure 10-1, which of the following is the least likely to have partisan media? A) Sweden B) The United States C) Germany D) Italy E) Britain Answer: A Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-1) 5. The burden of proof in cases of prior restraint rests on A) the media. B) the government. C) the courts. D) an independent commission. E) the Federal Communications Commission. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding 6. Most of the major acts that restricted the freedom of the press throughout America’s history were passed A) before the First Amendment to the Constitution. B) during the nineteenth century. C) during major wars. D) during major economic crises. E) seemingly at random, depending on the government’s agenda. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 360–361 Skill: Analysis 7. A false or unsubstantiated attack on someone’s good name and reputation is called A) slander. B) libel. C) defamation. D) gossip. E) calumny. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding

8. Considering the recent developments in where Americans tend to get their daily news, which of the following shows the most improvement? A) News on the Internet B) Nightly network news programs C) Local television news D) National public radio E) Local public radio Answer: A Reference: LO 10-3, p. 365 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-3) 9. In the coverage of presidential elections, reporters tend to assume an important A) mediating role. B) investigative role. C) analytical role. D) objective role. E) interpretive role. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-4, p. 369 Skill: Understanding 10. Roughly what percentage of the government news coverage on the network news focuses on the executive branch? A) 80 percent B) 60 percent C) 50 percent D) 30 percent E) 10 percent Answer: A Reference: LO 10-4, p. 369 Skill: Understanding 11. According to an analysis of media coverage cited in the textbook, news stories __________ between 1993 and 2001. A) became almost exclusively negative B) became more negative C) became more positive D) became more neutral E) did not change much Answer: D Reference: LO 10-4, p. 371 (Table 10-1) Skill: Analysis

12. Which of the following would be considered an example of media bias, given the definition of the media’s objectivity ethic? A) Bill O’Reilly endorsing Obama over Clinton B) The editorial in the New York Times endorsing Clinton over Obama C) CNN endorsing Clinton over Obama D) A blog endorsing Obama over Clinton E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 10-5, p. 372 Skill: Application 13. Presenting news stories that cast a favored politician in a positive light while ignoring negative information on that politician is an example of A) statement bias. B) coverage bias. C) gatekeeping bias. D) political bias. E) reporting bias. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-5, p. 375 Skill: Understanding 14. ALL BUT WHICH of the following limits the media’s influence on public opinion? A) Selective dissonance B) Selective exposure C) Selective perception D) Selective retention E) All of the above limit it. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 377–381 Skill: Understanding 15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary precondition for a message to change someone’s opinion? A) Exposure B) Credibility C) Comprehension D) Receptivity E) They all are preconditions. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-6, p. 381 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. American journalists would generally consider themselves social critics in addition to reporters. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 Skill: Understanding 2. Most of the restrictions on the freedom of press in the United States were introduced during times of economic upheaval. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 360–361 Skill: Analysis 3. Cases of defamation can be appealed endlessly, which makes them so difficult to prove. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 4. If CBS broadcasts the Democratic presidential debates, it is required to also broadcast the Republican debates. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Understanding 5. The advances in satellite technology have contributed to the decline in viewership of network nightly news. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-3, p. 366 Skill: Understanding 6. Blogs are beginning to play an important role in American politics. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-3, p. 368 Skill: Understanding 7. Journalists are less likely than the general public to consider themselves liberal. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-5, p. 372 Skill: Understanding

8. If the media focused most of its coverage in 2002 on the war against terror and if in the same year Americans were most likely to judge George W. Bush on the basis of the war, this is referred to as the priming effect of the media. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-6, p. 377 Skill: Application 9. Selective perception makes people more likely to rate their own party’s candidate’s performance more highly in a debate. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-6, p. 380 Skill: Understanding 10. Changes in opinion are unlikely when media messages do not fit at least somewhat with political predispositions. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-6, p. 382 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following did NOT contribute to President Obama’s failure to successfully take on Fox News after the network harshly criticized his administration? A) Obama’s own declining popularity B) The rise of alternative media C) The influence of the Internet D) The historical tradition of a free press in the United States E) The tremendous influence of the national media over political debates Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 354–355 Skill: Analysis 2. Roger Ailes, one of the creators of Fox News, concentrated Fox News on ________ journalism. A) liberal B) opinion C) objective D) alternative E) political Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 354–355 Skill: Understanding 254 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3. MSNBC was created as an alternative to which of the following channels? A) ABC B) NBC C) Fox News D) CNN E) CBS Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 354–355 Skill: Understanding 4. When the White House tried to exclude Fox News from access to President Obama and his administration in 2009, which of the following came to Fox News’ defense, according to the textbook? A) Republican voters B) White House staff C) Fans of Fox News D) Other networks E) No one Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 354–355 Skill: Understanding 5. Compared to most other countries, the mass media’s position in political life in the United States plays A) a very insignificant role. B) an incredibly important role. C) a very different role in many respects. D) a similar role. E) no role. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 355–356 Skill: Understanding 6. Most European governments own A) all of the major television outlets. B) most of the major television outlets. C) a majority of the major television outlets. D) at least one of the major television outlets. E) none of the major television outlets. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 355–356 Skill: Understanding

7. How important is government funding for public broadcasting in the United States? A) Extremely important: public broadcasting wouldn’t survive without government funds. B) Important: public broadcasting receives a large share of its funds from the government. C) Not very important: only a small share of funds comes from the government. D) Not at all important: the government gives no money to public broadcasting. E) There is a law against the government funding any broadcasting. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, p. 356 Skill: Understanding 8. Government ownership of newspapers is A) highly unusual in industrialized democracies. B) very common in industrialized democracies. C) highly unusual in industrialized democracies but not in the United States. D) very common in industrialized democracies but not in the United States. E) very common in some industrialized democracies and very uncommon in others. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-1, p. 356 Skill: Understanding 9. According to the textbook, which of the following tends to be the most objective and nonpartisan? A) The European media B) The Western European media C) The American media D) B and C E) There is no difference between them. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 356–357 Skill: Understanding

10. When comparing the data presented in Figure 10-1, we can—generally speaking—infer ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The European journalists included here are more likely than American journalists to consider it important to go beyond the information provided by politicians. B) The majority of all American journalists believe in not allowing their own political beliefs to affect their reporting. C) More American than European journalists believe in expressing both sides of a dispute fairly. D) Neither American nor European journalists are very likely to judge which side in a political dispute is better. E) None of the above can be inferred. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-1) 11. Based on the data presented in Figure 10-1, which of the following is the most likely to have partisan media? A) Sweden B) The United States C) Germany D) Italy E) Britain Answer: D Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-1) 12. According to the textbook, the American media often plays a role as ________. A) analyst B) social critic C) watchdog D) voice of conscience E) dissenter Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 358–359 Skill: Understanding 13. The term prior restraint refers to the government’s ability to A) intervene to prevent the publication of materials it finds objectionable. B) punish the publication of material it finds objectionable. C) review and censor material it finds objectionable. D) demand a correction of information that was published and found objectionable. E) pull public funding for a publication. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding 257 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14. In which of the following scenarios is the U.S. government most likely to attempt to exercise prior restraint? A) The publication of a scandal involving the personal life of a high-ranking government official B) A publication that criticizes the government in general C) A publication that reveals details of U.S. security efforts abroad D) A publication that criticizes the government’s economic policies E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Application 15. The U.S. media is subjected to prior restraint A) at all times. B) under certain circumstances. C) all the time but often ignores it. D) all the time but cannot be forced to comply. E) The U.S. media is never subjected to prior restraint. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding 16. The principle of prior restraint grew out of which famous case? A) The Pentagon Papers B) Watergate C) The Iran-Contra affair D) The Pakistani nuclear affair E) The McCarthy incident Answer: A Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding 17. The burden of proof in cases of prior restraint is A) very low. B) low. C) high. D) very high. E) It depends on the case. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding

18. When the New York Times uncovered information about a covert nuclear program in Pakistan that was being guarded by American Special Forces, A) George Bush forced the newspaper to hold the information. B) George Bush used prior restraint against the newspaper. C) the newspaper voluntarily held the information. D) the courts ordered the newspaper to hold the information. E) the newspaper published the information immediately. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-1, p. 359 Skill: Understanding 19. The expansive freedom the American media enjoys was established in the ________ Amendment. A) First B) Third C) Fifth D) Seventh E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 10-2, p. 360 Skill: Understanding 20. The Sedition Act of 1798 A) established the principle of prior restraint. B) effectively criminalized criticism of Congress and the president. C) limited telegraph transmissions. D) allowed reporters to be cited for contempt of court. E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 10-2, p. 360 Skill: Understanding 21. The Sedition Act of 1798 was passed to silence American supporters of which country? A) Britain B) Germany C) France D) Spain E) Portugal Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 360 Skill: Understanding

22. Which of the following criminalized any criticism of Congress and the president? A) The Espionage Act B) The Smith Act C) The Sedition Act D) The Madison Act E) The Prior Restraint Act Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 360 Skill: Understanding 23. Which of the following was passed in order to prevent the weakening of support for a military draft? A) The Espionage Act B) The Smith Act C) The Sedition Act D) The Madison Act E) The Prior Restraint Act Answer: A Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 24. Roughly how many people were convicted in connection with the Espionage Act? A) No one—it was always meant as a deterrent. B) Only a handful of people, to set a precedent C) About fifty, mainly college students D) Around one hundred, mostly newspaper editors E) Close to one thousand Answer: E Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 25. All but which of the following was a major development in the establishment of press freedom between the thirties and seventies? A) Slander and libel were decriminalized. B) The freedom to criticize the government and public officials was expanded. C) The press was guaranteed the right to cover criminal trials. D) The press was given the right to cover individuals’ private lives. E) Prior restraint in cases involving national security was severely limited. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding

26. Cases of defamation are ________ lawsuits that _________ be appealed. A) civil, can B) civil, cannot C) criminal, can D) criminal, cannot E) It depends on the case. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 27. Which of the following could be considered a legitimate case of defamation? A) A reporter called the president a liar, but he or she was misled by an unreliable source. B) A reporter called the president a liar, but he or she has only weak evidence to back this up. C) A reporter called the president a liar without bothering to look for evidence. D) None of the above could be considered legitimate cases of defamation. E) All of the above could be considered legitimate cases of defamation. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Application 28. With regard to the print media, which of the following is correct? A) The government can compel the print media to publish certain information if the public interest is at stake. B) The government can compel the print media to publish certain information if national security is at stake. C) The government can compel the print media to publish certain information but only in times of foreign crises. D) The government can never compel the print media to publish certain information. E) Only the courts can compel the print media to publish certain information. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Understanding 29. The broadcast-media spectrum is considered a A) private asset. B) public asset. C) corporate asset. D) government asset. E) It depends on the network. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Understanding

30. Which of the following could the government potentially compel to publish or broadcast certain information? A) The Washington Post B) CBS C) Time D) All of the above E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Application 31. Which of the following could the government NOT potentially compel to publish or broadcast certain information? A) The Washington Post B) CBS C) Time D) A and C E) None of the above could be compelled. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Application 32. The government regulates the broadcast media through which of the following agencies? A) The State Department B) The Federal Broadcast Committee C) The Federal Communications Commission D) The Government Communications Department E) The Federal Cable Commission Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 362 Skill: Understanding 33. Which of the following requires broadcasters to give the same access to candidates running for office? A) The Fairness Act B) The Nonpartisan Broadcasting Act C) The equal-access policy D) The equal-time provision E) The Fair Broadcasting Act Answer: D Reference: LO 10-2, p. 362 Skill: Understanding

34. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is exempt from the rule-of-equal-time provision? A) News B) Public-affairs programming C) Campaign advertising D) National debates E) None of the above is exempt. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-2, p. 362 Skill: Understanding 35. Laws that grant reporters certain exemptions from having to testify in legal matters are called A) shield laws. B) privacy laws. C) advocacy laws. D) confidentiality laws. E) safeguard laws. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-2, p. 362 Skill: Understanding 36. So-called shield laws—which grant certain exemptions to journalists from having to reveal their sources—have been adopted A) by most states in the same form. B) by most states, but the laws vary in leniency. C) by both state and federal courts in the same form. D) only by the federal courts. E) only by some states. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-2, p. 363 Skill: Understanding 37. According to Reporters Without Borders, how is the United States ranked with regard to press freedom? A) In the top 5 percent B) In the top third C) In the middle third D) In the lower third E) In the lowest 10 percent Answer: B Reference: LO 10-2, p. 363 Skill: Understanding

38. Which of the following did NOT contribute to the decline in newspaper readership in the United States? A) Reading newspapers requires effort. B) Reading newspapers is not as stimulating as watching TV. C) The mass movement of women into the workforce contributed to the decline. D) The quality of newspapers has declined. E) The growth of suburbs contributed to the decline. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 364–365 Skill: Understanding 39. Considering the recent changes in where Americans tend to get their daily news, which of the following shows the most decline? A) News on the Internet B) Nightly network news programs C) Local television news D) National public radio E) Local public radio Answer: B Reference: LO 10-3, p. 365 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-3) 40. ALL BUT WHICH of the following have become more popular sources of information in the past decade? A) Cable network news B) Radio talk shows C) Local television news D) News on the Internet E) All of the above have become more popular. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-3, p. 365 Skill: Analysis (Figure 10-3) 41. Which of the following dominates the talk-radio medium? A) Liberal broadcasters B) Independent broadcasters C) Conservative broadcasters D) Nonpolitical broadcasters E) None of the above dominates. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-3, p. 367 Skill: Understanding

42. Which of the following is NOT an issue of concern for newspaper owners when deciding whether or not to have an online edition? A) Loss of revenue from advertising B) Competitiveness with other papers C) Competitiveness within paper D) Lack of interest from readership E) All of the above are concerns. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 367–368 Skill: Understanding 43. Which of the following does the media mostly focus their attention on? A) The executive B) Congress as a whole C) The Senate D) The House of Representatives E) Political scandal Answer: A Reference: LO 10-4, p. 369 Skill: Understanding 44. In presidential-election coverage, who gets the most airtime? A) The Republican candidate B) The Democratic candidate C) Both candidates D) Reporters E) Political analysts not affiliated with the networks Answer: D Reference: LO 10-4, p. 369 Skill: Understanding 45. Media coverage of politics and government has assumed an increasingly skeptical tone since A) World War II. B) the Korean War. C) the Vietnam War. D) the Iraq war of 1991. E) the Iraq war of 2003. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-4, p. 370 Skill: Understanding

46. According to an analysis of media coverage cited in the textbook, news stories A) overwhelmingly paint politicians and the government in a positive light. B) have a tendency to paint politicians and the government in a positive light. C) are extremely neutral in their portrayal of politicians and the government. D) have a tendency to paint politicians and the government in a negative light. E) overwhelmingly paint politicians and the government in a negative light. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-4, p. 371 (Table 10-1) Skill: Understanding 47. The media’s focus on the so-called horse race during presidential-election campaigns is also referred to as A) substance-frame coverage. B) strategy-frame coverage. C) competition-frame coverage. D) election-frame coverage. E) sensationalism. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-4, p. 371 Skill: Understanding 48. “After announcing Sarah Palin as his vice-presidential candidate, John McCain passed Barack Obama in the polls for the first time in this campaign.” This statement is an example of A) horse-race coverage. B) negative campaign coverage. C) biased coverage. D) competition coverage. E) election-frame coverage. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 371–372 Skill: Application 49. Which of the following is NOT a reason why reporters might prefer to cover so-called horse races rather than focus on the content of candidates’ platforms? A) It is part of their watchdog function. B) It is more entertaining. C) It expresses the cynicism inherent in media coverage. D) Reporters believe they are providing an important service. E) Platforms do not provide enough fodder on a daily basis. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 371–372 Skill: Analysis

50. Which of the following can be considered an example of media bias? A) Rush Limbaugh’s conservative talk-radio show B) Sean Hannity’s conservative television show C) The New York Times’ left-of-center editorial page D) The Wall Street Journal’s editorial page E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 10-5, p. 372 Skill: Understanding 51. Much of the evidence in the debate over media bias in covering politics A) points to a liberal bias. B) points to a conservative bias. C) points to no bias. D) is anecdotal and mixed. E) There is no evidence. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-5, p. 373 Skill: Understanding 52. According to the results of a survey conducted by the American Society of Newspaper Editors, which of the following received overly favorable coverage? A) The military B) The poor C) Labor unions D) Liberal groups E) Gun owners Answer: A Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 373–374 Skill: Understanding 53. According to the results of a survey conducted by the American Society of Newspaper Editors, ALL BUT WHICH of the following received largely unfavorable coverage? A) The poor B) The wealthy C) Labor unions D) Liberal groups E) Gun owners Answer: B Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 373–374 Skill: Understanding

54. If you were to conduct a study on the content bias of the media, you would need to ensure ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) A solid method for identifying themes and categorizing them as liberal, conservative, etc. B) Access to enough data to be able to draw general conclusions C) Exclusion of a zero-net bias D) Information on the personal beliefs of reporters and journalists E) You would need to ensure all of the above. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 374–375 Skill: Application 55. The minimal-effects finding in the early literature concerning the effects of mass media refers to the fact that A) most people did not pay any attention to the media. B) most people considered the media untrustworthy. C) the media typically did not address political issues. D) changes in people’s voting due to mass-media coverage was rare. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 10-6, p. 376 Skill: Understanding 56. The so-called minimal effect of the media on public opinion refers specifically to the media’s ability to influence people’s A) opinions on foreign policy. B) opinions on individual candidates. C) political efficacy. D) voting. E) trust in the government. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-6, p. 376 Skill: Understanding 57. Which of the following is NOT generally considered a way in which the media may exert influence over public opinion? A) Setting the agenda B) Priming C) Manipulating of the masses D) Extensively covering an issue E) Assessing the performance of politicians Answer: C Reference: LO 10-6, p. 377 Skill: Understanding

58. Selective exposure, selective perception, and selective retention are ways in which individuals try to avoid or reduce A) cognitive consistencies. B) cognitive dissonance. C) cognitive correlation. D) cognitive conflict. E) cognitive discord. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 377–381 Skill: Understanding 59. Based on what we know about people’s receptivity to the media, a hard-core Democrat would most likely respond to negative campaign reports on a Democratic candidate by A) ignoring the message or rationalizing it away. B) critically evaluating the message for its truth content. C) changing his or her opinion about the candidate. D) increasing the intensity of an original belief. E) decreasing the intensity of an original belief. Answer: A Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 377–381 Skill: Application 60. If the media covers issues that are known to be important to viewers, this is referred to as A) reverse priming. B) reverse agenda setting. C) selective coverage. D) selective broadcasting. E) good business practice. Answer: B Reference: LO 10-6, p. 378 Skill: Understanding 61. Who are the most likely candidates to be convinced by the media? A) People with low levels of political attentiveness and few predispositions B) People with high levels of political attentiveness and many predispositions C) People with moderate levels of political attentiveness and many predispositions D) People with moderate levels of political attentiveness and a moderate number of predispositions E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 381–382 Skill: Understanding

62. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true? A) In order to detect opinion changes as a result of media effects, one should study those individuals with moderate levels of political attentiveness and a moderate number of political predispositions. B) Opinion changes occur most often when the message is loud. C) One-sided messages are more likely to lead to opinion changes than balanced messages. D) Opinion changes are unlikely when media messages do not fit at least somewhat with political predispositions. E) People tend to filter messages. Answer: D Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 381–383 Skill: Analysis 63. If a media message is very quiet, you should expect opinion change among A) no one. B) everyone. C) those who are very politically attentive. D) those who are moderately politically attentive. E) primarily young people. Answer: C Reference: LO 10-6, p. 384 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The term “mass media” refers to the actual communications media as well as the individuals who are responsible for their content. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-1, p. 355 Skill: Understanding 2. It is very unusual for industrialized countries’ governments to not own at least one major newspaper. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-1, p. 356 Skill: Understanding 3. Of the countries profiled in the textbook, journalists in America are the least likely to take sides in a political dispute. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 (Figure 10-1) Skill: Analysis

4. Of the countries profiled in the textbook, journalists in America are the most likely to dig for the facts behind contending sides’ statements. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 (Figure 10-1) Skill: Analysis 5. One of the aspects of press freedom that was won in the twentieth century was the right to cover people’s private lives. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 6. Most of the expansions in press freedom occurred in the nineteenth century. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 7. The case of a false accusation against someone by a newspaper cannot be considered defamation if there is no malicious intent. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 8. If a reporter falsely accuses the government of being involved in a corruption scandal but the reporter claims that he was misled by what seemed to be a credible source, this can nonetheless be considered defamation. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Application 9. Oftentimes, public figures have to rely on journalists’ integrity to protect them from defamation. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, p. 361 Skill: Understanding 10. In cases where the public interest is at stake, the government can compel the print media to publish certain information. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Understanding

11. If NBC sells a 60-second time slot to Barrack Obama for a presidential campaign ad, NBC has to sell a 60-second time slot for an equal price to John McCain. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–362 Skill: Understanding 12. The Valerie Plame incident revealed a sometimes inherent conflict of interest between the freedom of press and the government’s ability to fulfill its duties. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 362–363 Skill: Analysis 13. The mass movement of women into the workforce has contributed to the decline in newspaper readership. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 364–365 Skill: Understanding 14. Most Americans get their news from cable news networks. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-3, p. 365 (Figure 10-3) Skill: Analysis 15. Viewership of nightly network news broadcasts declined sharply in the last 25 years but has recently made a comeback. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-3, p. 366 (Figure 10-4) Skill: Analysis 16. Publishing online editions of their print newspapers is not in the best interests of editors, but they feel compelled to do it nonetheless. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 366–367 Skill: Understanding 17. In their coverage of politics, the media devote most of their attention to Congress and, second, to the executive. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-4, p. 369 Skill: Understanding

18. Media coverage of President Obama has been much less negative and cynical than coverage of the previous two presidents. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 370–371 Skill: Understanding 19. Most Americans agree that the media tends to favor Democrats and liberals over Republicans and conservatives. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-5, p. 372 Skill: Understanding 20. The way the media handled the situation involving the Jeremiah Wright tapes and President Obama’s campaign clearly illustrates that there is a liberal bias in the media. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-5, p. 373 Skill: Analysis 21. The 1938 radio broadcast of H.G. Wells’s War of the Worlds illustrates the early power of the media over public opinion. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-5, p. 376 Skill: Understanding 22. The media’s agenda-setting ability is largely dependent on its perceived credibility among viewers. Answer: True Reference: LO 10-6, p. 377 Skill: Analysis 23. The findings in News That Matters suggested that media messages have no direct causal effect on viewers’ opinions. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-6, p. 379 Skill: Understanding 24. The so-called cognitive-dissonance theory can help us explain why people often have contradictory views on issues. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-6, p. 381 Skill: Understanding

25. People who pay the most attention to the media’s coverage of politics are most likely to be influenced by that coverage. Answer: False Reference: LO 10-6, p. 382 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. How does the fact that American media outlets tend to be owned by and operate in the private sector—rather than by the government—influence the political coverage? Reference: LO 10-1, pgs. 355–356 Skill: Analysis 2. Do you agree with the notion that American journalists do not consider themselves analysts and social critics but rather report events objectively without comment? Provide evidence for your answer. Reference: LO 10-1, p. 358 Skill: Evaluation 3. Under what circumstances, if any, would you advocate restricting the freedom of the press, and to what degree would you restrict it? Substantiate your answer with logical arguments and/or evidence. Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 361–363 Skill: Evaluation 4. On what charges was Judith Miller of the New York Times indicted in the Valerie Plame case? What happened to her? Do you believe there is a need for legislation that protects journalists in such situations? Why or why not? Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 362–363 Skill: Evaluation 5. What are the positives and negatives of the so-called shield laws that grant reporters exemptions from having to testify in legal matters? Reference: LO 10-2, p. 363 Skill: Evaluation 6. Drawing on your knowledge of the current patterns of media use, outline your own strategy for maximizing the efficiency of political candidates’ election campaigns. Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 363–368 Skill: Application

7. What are the benefits of the rise of the Internet as a source of information for many Americans? What are the potential dangers in this? Do you personally welcome this trend? Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 366–368 Skill: Analysis 8. Internet blogs are becoming more influential in American politics. Do you welcome or oppose this trend? What are arguments that speak for this trend, and what are arguments that speak against it? Reference: LO 10-3, p. 368 Skill: Analysis 9. Do you believe personal blogs should be subjected to government-regulated fairness and ethics standards? What might speak for such legislation, and what speaks against it? Reference: LO 10-3, p. 368 Skill: Evaluation 10. How would you evaluate the major networks’ coverage of presidential elections in this country? Do you believe they are unbiased? If so, what makes you believe that? If not, do you think they should be more objective? Why or why not? Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 369–372 Skill: Evaluation 11. The textbook mentions that “journalists frequently cast politicians in a negative light.” Based on your own experience, provide a recent example that either supports or contradicts this statement (other than the ones provided in the textbook). Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 370–371 Skill: Application 12. How have researchers studied the question of media bias? Do you agree with their methods? What does their evidence suggest? Is the media biased or not? Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 372–375 Skill: Analysis 13. Based on your personal experiences, would you say that the media is biased? Base your assessment on concrete examples. Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 372–375 Skill: Application

14. We know that the people most likely to be convinced by media messages are also the least likely to be exposed to them. In your opinion, what are two other sources of influence for these individuals? Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 381–383 Skill: Analysis 15. Do you believe that your generation’s opinions are more likely to be influenced by the media than older generations’? Why or why not? And what types of media are more likely to affect your generation, as opposed to older generations? Reference: LO 10-3, LO 10-5, and LO 10-6, entire chapter Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. How would you change existing legislation in order to find an acceptable compromise between the freedoms of the press—e.g., freedom of speech, protection of sources—and the ability of the government to perform its duties—e.g., safeguarding national security, prosecuting illegal activities? Reference: LO 10-2, pgs. 358–363 Skill: Application 2. Critically evaluate the effects of the freedom of the Internet on the quality of U.S. media coverage of important events. Provide at least two positive and two negative effects, and give examples whenever possible. On the basis of your evaluation, would you advocate any form of quality control, and how might this be achieved, if at all? Reference: LO 10-3, pgs. 366–368 Skill: Evaluation 3. To what degree do you think the American media is to blame for Americans’ relative lack of knowledge about political issues? Do the media have an obligation to inform the public? Or do individuals themselves have an obligation to go out and find information? Reference: LO 10-4, pgs. 369–372 Skill: Evaluation 4. Illustrate the extent of the bias in American mass media today. What do we know (or don’t we know) about existing biases? What would we consider instances of media bias, and what wouldn’t we regard as such? What are some of the possible consequences of media bias for democracy in the United States? Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 372–375 Skill: Understanding

5. Drawing on the information provided in the textbook and using your own criticalthinking skills, what is the possible connection between the following: media bias, the content of media coverage (e.g., reporting on strategy over substance), and the traditionally low voter turnout in the United States? Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 372–375 Skill: Analysis 6. Assuming that media bias exists, how would you go about reducing the instances of biased coverage? Try to think of at least two different approaches—whether it be legislation, positive or negative incentives, or self-assessment—and explain how they could be implemented. What would be potential obstacles to the realization of your approach? Reference: LO 10-5, pgs. 372–375 Skill: Application 7. How would you explain the results presented in Table 10-2? In particular, what do you supposed explains the difference in the distribution of self-declared liberals, moderates, and conservatives in the general public, the national press, and the local press? Reference: LO 10-5, p. 374 (Table 10-2) Skill: Analysis 8. Based on what you know about what types of messages (i.e., content, format, delivery) are more likely to produce changes of opinion, what strategy would you pursue in your campaign ads if you were a politician running for office? Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 377–384 Skill: Application 9. Based on the information provided in the textbook and your own experiences, what is the most likely causal relationship: (a) public opinion influences media coverage, or (b) media coverage influences public opinion? In your answer, provide solid arguments, evidence, and examples whenever possible to support yourself. Reference: LO 10-6, pgs. 377–384 Skill: Evaluation 10. Do you agree or disagree with the attempts of some celebrities to use their fame—and the fact that they have automatic platforms through mass-media coverage—in order to become active in political matters? In addition, do you believe Americans are likely to be influenced by celebrities’ opinions? Why or why not? Reference: LO 10-1, LO 10-3, and LO 10-6, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Eleven Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The __________ appeared to welcome Joe Lieberman’s decision to become an independent, whereas the __________ did not. A) Republican Party, American people B) Democratic Party, American people C) American people, Democratic Party D) Democratic Party, Republican Party E) None of the above welcomed his decision. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, p. 388 Skill: Analysis 2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following tends to align with the Democratic Party? A) The leadership of labor unions B) Radio talk-show hosts C) Environmental groups D) Teachers E) The blogosphere Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding 3. The power of political parties to nominate candidates for public office can be compared to parties serving as a _________. A) motor B) filter C) catalyst D) spark E) obstacle Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Analysis

4. In the nineteenth century, political parties’ approaches to attracting voters were successful largely owing to A) greater interest within the population. B) more education about politics within the population. C) lack of entertainment options. D) lack of competition for parties. E) the greater legitimacy of political parties. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 393–394 Skill: Understanding 5. Requiring photo identification prior to voting potentially affects which of the following groups negatively? A) African-Americans B) Women C) Young voters D) The elderly E) Immigrants Answer: E Reference: LO 11-1, p. 395 Skill: Understanding 6. The largest percentage of seats that third parties have ever held in Congress is A) 30 percent. B) 20 percent. C) 15 percent. D) 10 percent. E) 5 percent. Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 397–398 Skill: Understanding 7. A two-party system is encouraged by A) plurality rule. B) multimember districts. C) proportional representation. D) third parties. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 11-2, p. 400 Skill: Understanding

8. The two-party system in the United States developed because A) the Constitution set it up that way. B) there is a lack of diversity and therefore no need for multiple parties. C) it likely reflected the political beliefs espoused in the American creed. D) Americans are more practical and more competitive than, say, Europeans. E) third parties were involved in too many scandals. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Analysis 9. Assume that a city is using a preference-voting system with instant-runoff voting and a majority rule. Further assume that the outcome of the vote is as follows: Candidate A received twelve votes total, Candidate B received eight votes, and Candidate C received three votes. Furthermore, of those who voted for A, all twelve selected C as their second choice. Of those who voted for B, all eight selected C as their second choice. Of those who voted for C, one chose A and two chose B as their second choice. Who wins the election? A) Candidate A wins. B) Candidate B wins. C) Candidate C wins. D) No one wins because no candidate received enough votes. E) There would be a new election between candidates A and B. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 404–405 Skill: Application 10. Typically, local party machines were primarily focused on A) local issues only. B) local and state issues. C) local, state, and national issues. D) local and national issues. E) state and national issues. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-3, p. 407 Skill: Understanding

11. Providing incentives for loyalty to the party machine (e.g., in the form of city jobs) was referred to as A) bribery. B) nepotism. C) patronage. D) benefaction. E) patrimony. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-3, p. 408 Skill: Understanding 12. How do parties NOT gather information for party canvassing? A) By calling voters B) By speaking to voters in person C) By reaching out to voters through Internet sites such as Facebook D) Through voter visits to the party’s Web site E) By looking at tax data Answer: E Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 412–413 Skill: Understanding 13. Most of the characteristics the Republican Party identified in its voters appear to correlate closely with A) age. B) gender. C) income. D) race. E) personality. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 412–413 Skill: Analysis 14. During which period did the Whig Party collapse owing to internal divisions over slavery? A) 1800–1828 B) 1828–1860 C) 1860–1896 D) 1896–1932 E) 1932–1968 Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, p. 418 Skill: Understanding

15. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of de-alignment? A) Voters split their tickets. B) Voters are much more likely not to vote. C) Divided control of government is common. D) Voters feel less attachment to parties. E) Voters increasingly identify themselves as independents. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 420–421 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Americans have always been skeptical of political parties. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-1, p. 388 Skill: Understanding 2. Political parties spend most of their time and resources in order to appeal to their loyal base of voters. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 389–390 Skill: Understanding 3. Traditionally, Cuban immigrants were courted by the Democratic Party, whereas German immigrants were courted by Republicans. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 393–394 Skill: Understanding 4. A candidate in a third party has never won a seat in Congress. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-2, p. 396 Skill: Understanding 5. Campaign-finance laws in the United States tend to disadvantage third-party candidates. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Understanding

6. One of the potential benefits of preferential voting is that it increases political efficacy among citizens. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 402–403 Skill: Analysis 7. Analysts calling for the so-called responsible-party model are essentially criticizing the number of factions within large political parties. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, p. 412 Skill: Understanding 8. Republicans in the Northeast tend to be more liberal than Republicans in the Southwest. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, p. 414 Skill: Understanding 9. Based on the textbook definition, the 2008 elections could be considered the beginning of an electoral realignment. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 417–418 Skill: Application 10. So-called microtargeting consists of building huge databases of information about American voters. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 420–423 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The example of senator Joe Lieberman illustrates ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The importance of party support for political candidates B) The lack of a diversity of acceptable opinions in a two-party system C) The power of political parties over elections D) The impossibility of being elected as a third-party member E) The frequent shifts of party coalitions Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, p. 388 Skill: Analysis

2. Which of the following proved to be Joe Lieberman’s undoing among Democratic supporters? A) Being the first to criticize Bill Clinton for his affair with a White House intern B) His views on abortion C) His views on unemployment benefits D) His position on the war in Iraq E) His refusal to support Al Gore in 2000 Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, p. 388 Skill: Understanding 3. Americans’ views of political parties have changed over time from _________ to ________ to ___________. A) fearful, skeptical, supportive B) fearful, supportive, skeptical C) skeptical, fearful, supportive D) skeptical, supportive, fearful E) supportive, fearful, skeptical Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding 4. In his farewell address, President George Washington spoke to Americans about the _______ of political parties. A) usefulness B) ineffectiveness C) immorality D) danger E) benefits Answer: D Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding 5. By when had partisanship become a central aspect of Americans’ identities? By the A) early-eighteenth century. B) late-eighteenth century. C) early-nineteenth century. D) late-nineteenth century. E) early-twentieth century. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding

6. Americans’ pervasive skepticism about political parties stems from the perception that political parties do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? They A) are not powerful enough. B) confuse issues. C) do not stand up for principles. D) are too polarized. E) are too stubborn. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding 7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following tends to align with the Republican Party? A) Radio talk-show hosts B) Major trade associations C) The leadership of labor unions D) Christian organizations E) Veterans Answer: E Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Understanding 8. Political parties are A) political institutions. B) networks. C) social movements. D) belief systems. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 11-1, p. 389 Skill: Analysis 9. Political parties A) fulfill the exact role the Constitution intended for them. B) contribute to a system of electoral politics beyond that specified by the Constitution. C) emerged as a contradiction to the Constitution. D) often oppose the Constitution and try to change it. E) are guardians of the Constitution. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 390 Skill: Understanding

10. Political parties help promising candidates by doing ALL BUT WHICH of the following? They help them A) to establish their own ideology. B) to raise money. C) to deal with the media. D) to develop positions on issues. E) to research opponents. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Understanding 11. Which of the following is considered to be the single most important power political parties have? A) Raising money B) Representing voters C) Nominating candidates D) Directly influencing policy decisions E) Representing democracy Answer: C Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Understanding 12. Political parties are engaged in finding candidates so that A) all Americans can be represented. B) the party can increase its power. C) the party can become more diverse. D) the party can become more efficient. E) the party can become more appealing to voters. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Understanding 13. The party label does ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) It allows voters to exert influence over public officials. B) It allows parties to benefit from the attachment and loyalty of voters. C) It simplifies political realities for voters. D) It ensures the complete representativeness of parties. E) It allows voters to make simple and wide-ranging changes in government personnel. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Analysis

14. Sharing a common brand name does ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) It potentially undermines the separation of powers. B) It creates an incentive to want to help each other. C) It makes the party more effective. D) It provides voters with an easy identification. E) It does all of the above. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 391–392 Skill: Understanding 15. In a unified government A) both parties agree on the most important issues. B) the House of Representatives and Senate act united. C) the president and Congress act together. D) one party controls Congress. E) Congress acts in accordance with the population’s wishes. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-1, p. 392 Skill: Understanding 16. Which of the following is NOT likely to increase the number of laws passed? A) A major war B) An economic crisis C) Revenue shortage D) Terrorist attacks E) A health scare Answer: C Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 392–393 Skill: Understanding 17. ALL BUT WHICH of the following was true about political parties in the nineteenth century? A) They provided entertainment for citizens. B) They educated citizens. C) They had something of a monopoly on information. D) They often staged parades and festivals. E) They had to work much harder than today to remind people of their positions. Answer: E Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 393–394 Skill: Understanding

18. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true? Being contacted by a political party makes A) people much more likely to vote. B) people more likely to say they voted. C) people less likely to vote. D) no difference in people’s likelihood of voting. E) people more likely to vote for the party that contacted them. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 394 Skill: Understanding 19. The fact that people who are contacted by a political party are more likely to say they voted is proof of A) a strong causal relationship. B) a correlation. C) a spurious relationship. D) reverse causation. E) reverse psychology. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 394 Skill: Analysis 20. Political parties have A) an incentive to bring as many new groups into the political process as possible. B) no incentive to bring new groups into the political process. C) an incentive to bring new groups into the political process but are selective about the groups. D) an incentive to bring new groups into the political process but are unable to do so. E) little incentive to bring in new groups because they are unpredictable. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 394–395 Skill: Analysis 21. Which party seemed more open to reaching out to African-Americans in the fifties? A) The Democratic Party B) The Republican Party C) The Green Party D) The Libertarian Party E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 11-1, p. 395 Skill: Understanding

22. In a two-party system A) a political party needs to win the popular vote in order to get a seat in parliament. B) a political party needs to come in first in order to get a seat in parliament. C) no third parties win seats in parliament. D) all the seats are divided between two parties. E) the major parties are Democrats and Republicans. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 396–397 Skill: Understanding 23. Which of the following has never been a major political party in American history? A) The Federalists B) The Democratic Republicans C) The National Republicans D) The Republican Democrats E) The Whigs Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 396–397 Skill: Understanding 24. Third parties in the United States are primarily organized around A) ideology. B) single issues. C) a presidential candidacy. D) major-party defections. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 397–398 Skill: Understanding 25. Third parties in the United States A) have never won a seat in the House of Representatives. B) have never won a state in a presidential election. C) play no significant role in elections. D) used to be stronger than they are now. E) are stronger than they used to be. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 397–398 Skill: Understanding

26. In presidential elections, third parties A) have never played a significant role. B) deliberately seek to spoil the electoral success of major parties’ candidates. C) create weaknesses in the major parties. D) expose weaknesses in the major parties. E) compete exclusively to win. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 397–398 Skill: Understanding 27. The U.S. Constitution A) deliberately created a two-party system to ensure checks and balances. B) deliberately created a two-party system to ensure a limited government. C) tried to prevent a two-party system. D) tried to create a multiparty system. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, p. 399 Skill: Understanding 28. In most American elections, the norm is A) single-member districts. B) two-member districts. C) three-member districts. D) four-member districts. E) There is no norm; it depends. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-2, p. 399 Skill: Understanding 29. What types of features in the American electoral system do NOT reinforce two-party competition? A) Legal B) Structural C) Behavioral D) Voter interests E) Media behavior Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Analysis

30. Anti-fusion laws A) prevent major parties from fusing with each other. B) prevent third parties from fusing with each other. C) prevent major parties from fusing with third parties. D) prevent any party from fusing with another. E) have been declared unconstitutional. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Understanding 31. Anti-fusion laws mainly hurt A) the Democratic Party. B) the Republican Party. C) third parties. D) All of the above E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Analysis 32. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true with regard to the strategy of fusion? A) It benefits third parties. B) It allowed third parties to band together to become stronger. C) It used to be extremely popular. D) It was banned in most states around the turn of the twentieth century. E) It is known in some states as cross-filing. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Understanding 33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Australian ballot? A) It is cast in secret. B) It is printed by the government. C) It is foolproof. D) It lists all candidates for every office. E) It is provided at the polling place. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Understanding

34. What percentage of the vote do parties have to receive in order to be eligible to receive a full share of public financing in the next presidential election? A) 10 percent B) 15 percent C) 20 percent D) 25 percent E) 30 percent Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Understanding 35. Which of the following is geared toward third parties? A) PAC-financing regulations B) Private campaign financing C) Public campaign financing D) 527-committee financing E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Understanding 36. If a third-party presidential candidate receives more than 5 percent of the vote, she will receive her share of public campaign financing A) at the start of the campaign. B) during the primaries. C) during the election. D) after the election is over. E) during the next election. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Understanding 37. Which of the following is NOT a major problem for third parties in the United States? A) Voters’ fears of wasting their votes B) Campaign-finance laws C) Biased media attention D) Nonvoting E) Lack of interest in third-party platforms Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Understanding

38. Assume that a city is using a preference-voting system with instant-runoff voting and a plurality rule. Further assume that the outcome of the vote is as follows: Candidate A received eight votes total, Candidate B received six votes, and Candidate C received four votes. Furthermore, of those who voted for A, all eight selected C as their second choice. Of those who voted for B, all six selected C as their second choice. Of those who voted for C, two chose A and two chose B as their second choice. Who wins the election? A) Candidate A wins. B) Candidate B wins. C) Candidate C wins. D) No one wins because neither candidate received a majority. E) There would be a new election between candidates A and B. Answer: A Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 403–404 Skill: Application 39. Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of introducing preferential voting with instant-runoff voting into the U.S. electoral system? A) It potentially saves time. B) It costs more money. C) It increases political efficacy. D) It potentially increases voter turnout. E) It potentially decreases negative campaigning. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 403–404 Skill: Analysis 40. Imagine an election in which 50 legislative seats are up for grabs. Party A receives 27 percent of the vote. Party B receives 14 percent of the vote, and Party C gets 9 percent. As a result, Party A receives 27 seats, Party B receives 14 seats, and Party C is awarded 9 seats. This is an example of A) preference voting. B) a first-past-the-post system. C) electoral de-alignment. D) electoral realignment. E) proportional representation. Answer: E Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 403–404 Skill: Application

41. Political party organization in the nineteenth century was ___________ than today. A) much more strongly rule based B) much more formal C) more open-minded D) more informal E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 11-3, p. 405 Skill: Understanding 42. After 1920, the local party machine A) became much more powerful. B) became more powerful. C) stayed as powerful as it was. D) became less powerful. E) disappeared. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-3, p. 405 Skill: Understanding 43. Which of the following was NOT a cause of the reform of party organization? A) Party machines struggling with fiscal discipline B) The rise of the middle class C) The system rewarding loyalty rather than competence D) The rise of professions E) Government intervention Answer: E Reference: LO 11-3, p. 406 Skill: Understanding 44. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were reforms introduced by the progressives at the local level in the early-twentieth century? A) Nonpartisan elections B) Hiring of city managers C) At-large elections D) Ward-based elections E) Special governing districts Answer: D Reference: LO 11-3, p. 406 Skill: Understanding

45. As a result of progressive reforms, political parties became more A) disorganized. B) formal. C) informal. D) influential. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 11-3, p. 406 Skill: Analysis 46. Where do delegates pass their party’s principles, goals, and plans? A) The party manifesto B) The party platform C) The caucus D) The primary E) The party meeting Answer: B Reference: LO 11-3, p. 409 Skill: Understanding 47. Party canvassing refers to A) using demographic statistics about voters to microtarget them. B) extracting information about voters for future microtargeting. C) using consumer characteristics about voters to microtarget them. D) using information about other parties to try to sway their members. E) counting party members. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Understanding 48. When was microtargeting first used systematically? A) In 1996 B) In 1998 C) In 2000 D) In 2002 E) In 2004 Answer: D Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Understanding

49. Microtargeting is primarily used for ________ purposes. A) legal B) social C) strategic D) humanitarian E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Analysis 50. The so-called responsible-party model calls for A) the reduction of corruption within political parties. B) campaign-finance reforms. C) a clear, comprehensive platform and its unified implementation. D) better representation of citizens’ wishes. E) more moral decisions by party leaders. Answer: C Reference: LO 11-4, p. 413 Skill: Understanding 51. Issue evolution occurs when A) one support group switches from one party to another. B) one policy position switches from one party to another. C) priorities within a party coalition change. D) demographic makeup of a party coalition changes. E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 414–415 Skill: Understanding 52. How many periods of party competition have there been in American history? A) Ten B) Eight C) Six D) Four E) Two Answer: C Reference: LO 11-4, p. 415 Skill: Understanding

53. During which period was the Democratic-Republican Party split in two? A) 1800–1828 B) 1828–1860 C) 1860–1896 D) 1896–1932 E) 1932–1968 Answer: A Reference: LO 11-4, p. 416 Skill: Understanding 54. During which period did the Democratic Party adopt somewhat populist economic views? A) 1800–1828 B) 1828–1860 C) 1860–1896 D) 1896–1932 E) 1932–1968 Answer: D Reference: LO 11-4, p. 416 Skill: Understanding 55. Which of the following groups was NOT included in the initial Democratic New Deal coalition? A) Agricultural workers B) Protestants C) Unionized labor D) Big-city public officials E) Southern whites Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 416–417 Skill: Understanding 56. Which of the following brought the Republican Party to parity with the Democrats? A) Richard Nixon B) Ronald Reagan C) George Bush Sr. D) George W. Bush E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, p. 417 Skill: Understanding

57. ALL BUT WHICH of the following groups was more likely to vote for George W. Bush in 2004 than for John Kerry? A) Married people with children B) White women C) People living in rural areas D) People who lost their jobs owing to the economy E) Protestants Answer: D Reference: LO 11-4, p. 418 (Table 11-3) Skill: Analysis 58. Which of the following is NOT a typical Democratic position at the national level? A) More taxes for higher-income individuals B) Less government involvement in individual moral decisions C) More government involvement in social and economic policies D) Individual opportunity and freedom E) All of the above are Democratic positions. Answer: D Reference: LO 11-4, p. 421 Skill: Understanding 59. Which of the following is NOT a typical Republican position at the national level? A) Less government involvement in social and economic policies B) Individual opportunity and freedom C) Equality and fairness D) Military force in foreign policy E) More government involvement in individual moral decisions Answer: C Reference: LO 11-4, p. 421 Skill: Understanding 60. The study on the so-called hot-button issues of abortion and gay rights mentioned in the textbook found that A) Americans are sharply divided on these two issues. B) most Americans place themselves to the far left of the scale. C) most Americans place themselves on the far right of the scale. D) most Americans place themselves in the middle of the scale. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding

61. The National Election Study found that the average difference between Democrats and Republicans on a seven-point scale is A) a half-point. B) one point. C) one and a half points. D) two points. E) three points. Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding 62. The National Election Study found that the difference between Democrats and Republicans on a seven-point scale has ___________ since the sixties. A) increased sharply B) increased slightly C) stayed the same D) decreased slightly E) decreased sharply Answer: B Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding 63. The studies cited in the textbook on the difference between Republicans and Democrats suggest that A) Americans are becoming much more polarized. B) Americans have become much less polarized. C) Americans are just as polarized as they always have been. D) people are not dramatically more polarized but their differences are more sharply reflected by political parties. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Analysis True-False Questions 1. The example of Joe Lieberman illustrates the difficulties of third parties in the United States. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 388 Skill: Analysis

2. The most powerful tool political parties have at their disposal is that they get to nominate political candidates. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 390–391 Skill: Understanding 3. Having a brand name provides party members with an incentive to support each other. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, p. 391 Skill: Understanding 4. In a unified government, policy changes are to be expected. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 392–393 Skill: Analysis 5. Political parties have always been selective about which new groups they bring into the political process. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 394–395 Skill: Understanding 6. It is uncommon for one party to be in control of both the U.S. House of Representatives and the U.S. Senate. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-1, p. 396 Skill: Understanding 7. Third parties often introduce issues that the major parties might be avoiding. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 397–398 Skill: Understanding 8. The percentage of U.S. House districts with a minor-party or independent candidate running for office has increased during the last 40 years. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, p. 398 (Figure 11-2) Skill: Analysis

9. The percentage of U.S. House districts with a minor-party or independent candidate running for office has increased during the last ten years. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-2, p. 398 (Figure 11-2) Skill: Analysis 10. Ambitious third-party candidates have an incentive to run for national election under their third-party label. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-2, p. 399 Skill: Understanding 11. The structure of presidential elections benefits third parties with a strong regional appeal while punishing those with a strong national appeal. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 400–401 Skill: Understanding 12. If a third party qualifies for public campaign financing, it will receive that money after the election is over, just like any other party. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Understanding 13. In the twentieth century, the most successful third party in the United States was the Socialist Party. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, p. 403 Skill: Understanding 14. In an approval voting system, voters select all candidates whom they approve of on a ballot. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-2, p. 404 Skill: Understanding 15. The era from 1870 until 1920 was characterized by the downfall of the local party machine. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-3, p. 405 Skill: Understanding

16. Local party machines used to actively discourage mobilization of immigrants for fear of losing influence over the political process. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 405–406 Skill: Understanding 17. Part of the progressive reforms during the early-twentieth century was the introduction of nonpartisan elections. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-3, p. 406 Skill: Understanding 18. In recent years, the national party organizations have become more likely to engage in coordinated campaigns with state party organizations. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-3, p. 411 Skill: Understanding 19. Coalitions within the major parties are notoriously fragile and require a balancing act between competing preferences. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 413–414 Skill: Analysis 20. When the Democratic Party began to represent civil-rights interests in the sixties, this could be considered an example of issue evolution. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 414–415 Skill: Understanding 21. Issue evolution in a political party is often prompted by changing demographics among the American population. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 414–415 Skill: Understanding 22. People who were worried about the impact of the financial crisis were more likely to vote for John McCain in the 2008 presidential election. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-4, p. 418 (Table 11-3) Skill: Analysis

23. People who drive BMWs are more likely to be Republicans than Democrats. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding 24. A study of public opinion about political issues found that, with the exception of partisans, the differences of opinion among any other groups (e.g., old versus young, men versus women) had remained fairly stable since 1972. Answer: True Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding 25. Public opinion in the United States is more dramatically polarized now than it ever was before. Answer: False Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. What—if anything—do you think modern parties can learn from the way parties tried to attract voters in the nineteenth century? Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 393–395 Skill: Application 2. In your opinion, what should political parties do in order to attract more young people? Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 393–395 Skill: Application 3. Under what circumstances do political parties have an incentive to integrate new groups into the political process, and under what circumstances do they not? Apply your insights to the 2008 presidential election. Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 394–395 Skill: Application 4. Given the ballot debacle in Florida during the 2000 presidential election, how would you change the ballots (or the casting method) in order to avoid a repeat? Reference: LO 11-2, p. 401 Skill: Application

5. In what ways is media coverage in the United States problematic for third parties? If you were advising a third party, what would you suggest it does in order to overcome these problems? Reference: LO 11-2, p. 402 Skill: Analysis 6. What are the two voting systems that the textbook proposes in order to overcome the psychology that reinforces the two-party system in the United States? After comparing the two, which one—if either—do you believe is the better option in terms of how effective it is, how democratic, and how likely it is that Americans would accept it? Support your arguments. Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 402–404 Skill: Analysis 7. What speaks for and what speaks against the preference-voting format with instant-runoff elections? Do you think this method of creating a majority for a candidate is democratic? Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 403–404 Skill: Evaluation 8. How were political parties organized at the local level prior to the progressive reforms? What ultimately led to the reforms, and how did they change party organization? In your opinion, what problems exist with the current organization? Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 405–407 Skill: Analysis 9. Please describe the tactic of microtargeting. How do parties use this strategy, and how successful has it been? Do you agree with this approach? Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Analysis 10. How is the strategy of microtargeting likely to affect third parties in this country? Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Analysis 11. In your own words, explain what the authors of the textbook mean when they refer to the “new federalism” of political parties. Provide examples to illustrate your explanations. Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 411–412 Skill: Understanding 12. Explain what the so-called responsible-party model calls for, who supports it, and why they do so. Reference: LO 11-4, p. 413 Skill: Understanding 305 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13. What does the term “issue evolution” refer to? Please provide two examples for such an evolution, and explain why you think it occurred. Reference: LO 11-4, p. 414 Skill: Analysis 14. Outline five different characteristics of people who voted for Barack Obama in the 2008 presidential election, and explain why those characteristics likely made them vote for Obama. Of those five aspects, which one was the most significant? Why? Reference: LO 11-4, p. 418 (Table 11-3) Skill: Analysis 15. What have researchers found with regard to the polarization of the American people in recent years? Based on your own observations, how would you assess the divisions of the country into red and blues states? Is there really a culture war going on, or are such suggestions painting too harsh a picture? Support your answer. Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. In your opinion, what are the advantages and disadvantages of having a unified government? What about having a supermajority in government? Consider your answer in terms of a variety of categories (e.g., effectiveness, democracy, representativeness, etc.). Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 392–393 Skill: Evaluation 2. Please write an essay about the desirability and practicability of introducing a system of proportional representation into American government. Do you believe Americans would generally support or reject such a plan? Why? What about politicians and interest groups? Which groups in American society would stand to gain the most from a switch to a proportional system, and which groups would stand to lose the most? Reference: LO 11-1, pgs. 399–400 Skill: Analysis 3. Based on what you have learned, what are at least three significant obstacles to the electoral success of third-party candidates in the United States? If you were an adviser to a third-party candidate, how would you attempt to overcome these limitations? Be specific in your answer. Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 399–404 Skill: Application

4. Assume that a country has adopted a preference-voting system with instant-runoff voting. In the recent national elections, the outcome presents itself as follows: 40 percent of voters 1. A 2. B 3. C

40 percent of voters 1. B 2. C 3. A

9 percent of voters 1. C 2. A 3. B

11 percent of voters 1. C 2. B 3. A

Based on these results, which party wins the election? Considering people’s first, second, and third choices, is this a good compromise in terms of voter satisfaction? Why or why not? What potential flaw in instant-runoff voting do the above results reveal? Reference: LO 11-2, pgs. 403–404 Skill: Analysis 5. What similarities do you see between political parties’ campaign strategies, such as microtargeting and others, and the strategies of the marketing sector? How are they different? Do you approve of these tactics, or do you find them intrusive? How efficient do you think they are? Reference: LO 11-3, pgs. 410–411 Skill: Analysis 6. Explain the concept of a critical election. Based on what you know, choose three different elections in American history, and explain why you feel they were critical. In addition, address some of the factors that you believe contributed to the outcome of each of these elections. Reference: LO 11-4, p. 415 Skill: Evaluation 7. How polarized are political parties in the United States with regard to their ideologies and their party organizations? Does this reflect the polarization of the American people? Provide concrete examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 11-4, pgs. 422–425 Skill: Analysis 8. In your opinion, have parties done a good job of mobilizing the American public and including them in the political process? Which party, if any, has done a better job in that regard? Reference: LO 11-1 and LO 11-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

9. Over time, have third parties in the United States played a positive role in American politics, or have they merely spoiled elections for major-party candidates? What role do you see for third parties in the next twenty years? Why? Reference: LO 11-1, LO 11-3, and LO 11-4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 10. In your opinion, what has led to the emergence and maintenance of the two-party system in the United States over time? Do you see the potential for this to change? Why or why not? Reference: LO 11-2, LO 11-3, and LO 11-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 11. E.E. Schattschneider once said, “Political parties created democracy, and…modern democracy is unthinkable save in terms of the parties.” Please evaluate this statement based on everything you have learned about political parties. Be specific, and provide examples. Reference: LO 11-1, LO 11-2, LO 11-3, and LO 11-4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Twelve Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The women’s-suffrage movement can be considered an illustration of ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The power of social movements B) The necessity for persistence in American politics C) The strength of American women D) The compassion of American politicians E) The success of the American democratic system Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 430–431 Skill: Analysis 2. Who wrote that the new republic should be able to “break and control the violence of faction”? A) John Adams B) James Madison C) Thomas Jefferson D) Alexander Hamilton E) Benjamin Franklin Answer: B Reference: LO 12-1, p. 432 Skill: Understanding 3. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are criticisms of the pluralist theory? A) Too many groups are harmful to the collective interest. B) The American political system is inherently conservative. C) Political resources are not distributed equally. D) Many important issues are ignored. E) Groups do not form automatically. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 433–439 Skill: Understanding

4. According to critics of pluralism, ALL BUT WHICH of the following groups are unable to take full advantage of the American political system? A) Immigrants B) The middle class C) Children D) Low-income families E) Minorities Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 434–435 Skill: Understanding 5. According to political scientist Jack Walker, which of the following were represented by fewer than 5 percent of the interest groups with a presence in Washington? A) Civil-rights groups B) Minority organizations C) Social-welfare groups D) Groups for the interests of the elderly E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 12-2, p. 435 Skill: Understanding 6. Based on his findings, Matthew Crenson hypothesized that the greater the relative influence of business interests in a community A) the faster that community will respond to its air-pollution problems. B) the slower that community will respond to its air-pollution problems. C) the more efficiently that community will respond to its air-pollution problems. D) It depends on the community. E) There is no relationship between business interests and responses to air pollution. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding 7. Which of the following goods is NOT vulnerable to the so-called free-rider problem? A) National security B) Environmental protection C) Private education D) Public health care E) All of the above are vulnerable. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Application

8. A person who joins Amnesty International because she wants to appear to others as a caring, engaged individual is primarily pursuing ___________ benefits. A) material B) collective C) purposive D) social E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 441 Skill: Application 9. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are likely to have less of a problem with the collective-action problem? A) Small interest groups B) Large interest groups C) Groups for politically charged issues D) Groups for very sensitive issues E) Groups with lots of resources Answer: B Reference: LO 12-3, p. 443 Skill: Understanding 10. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about political action committees (PACs)? A) The number of PACs has decreased significantly over the past decade. B) Most PAC money is used to ensure the reelection of incumbents. C) The amount of money that PACs can contribute indirectly to an individual candidate is not limited by law. D) PACs have been ruled illegal in many states. E) PACs do not engage in lobbying activities. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 444–445 Skill: Understanding 11. What is the aggregate total of campaign donations that a PAC can give to candidates and parties in any given year? A) $108,200 B) $65,500 C) $40,000 D) $42,700 E) There is no limit. Answer: E Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding

12. Volunteer work organized by interest groups can take ALL BUT WHICH of the following forms? A) Driving voters to the polls B) Answering phones C) Helping elderly voters fill out their ballots D) Preparing campaign mailers E) Reminding voters of their civic duty Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 446–447 Skill: Understanding 13. Which do you expect to be more feasible for most interest groups? A) Inside lobbying B) Outside lobbying C) Both are equally difficult. D) Both are equally easy. E) It depends on the issue. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 449–451 Skill: Analysis 14. In its pro-Samuel Alito campaign, Progress for America tried to do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Influence the general climate of opinion B) Counsel Samuel Alito on campaign tactics C) Educate individuals D) Mobilize individuals E) Generate favorable stories and interviews Answer: B Reference: LO 12-4, p. 450 Skill: Understanding 15. Most research finds that PACs A) definitely buy votes. B) most likely buy votes. C) have bought votes in the past. D) do not buy votes. E) The evidence is inconclusive. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-5, pgs. 454–455 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. A crucial issue that pluralists and their critics disagree over is Americans’ opportunities to influence politics. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 434–435 Skill: Understanding 2. A critic of pluralism would argue that an interest group’s socioeconomic background plays a significant role in how successful that group will be in reaching its goals. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-2, p. 436 Skill: Understanding 3. In his study on cities’ responses to air pollution, Matthew Crenson argued that the strong influence of business interests will slow down the communities’ responses to air pollution. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 437–439 Skill: Understanding 4. National defense can be considered an example of a public good. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-2, p. 440 Skill: Application 5. Senator Barrack Obama was allowed to use PAC contributions to pay for part of his 30minute infomercial on prime-time television in 2008. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, p. 446 Skill: Application 6. Lobbyists tend to be very specific when they approach public officials (e.g., asking them for concrete actions or votes on a particular issue). Answer: True Reference: LO 12-4, p. 448 Skill: Understanding 7. Lobbyists almost exclusively focus on the legislative branch in their efforts to influence public policy. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, pgs 449–450 Skill: Understanding 313 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Inside lobbying is much more effective than outside lobbying. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 450–451 Skill: Analysis 9. Lobbyists often endorse candidates or engage in election-issue advocacy. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-5, p. 455 (Table 12-3) Skill: Understanding 10. The causal relationship between PAC contributions and public officials’ voting records is unclear. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-5, p. 456 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. When were the first organizations promoting women’s suffrage founded? After A) the War of Independence. B) the War of 1812. C) the Civil War. D) the Spanish-American War. E) World War I. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, p. 430 Skill: Understanding 2. A good analogy for the early women’s-suffrage movement would be to think of it as A) a snowball rolling down a hill. B) a drop in a bucket. C) a hurricane. D) a vast ocean. E) an uphill battle. Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 430–431 Skill: Analysis

3. The women’s-suffrage movement A) did not make any progress for a long time. B) was off to an extremely slow start. C) gained momentum as it grew at the state level. D) won many impressive victories very early on. E) was an instant success. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 430–431 Skill: Understanding 4. Madison was concerned that factions would be able to exercise their wills through A) nondemocratic means. B) violence. C) ignorance. D) government mechanisms. E) the economy. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-1, p. 432 Skill: Understanding 5. How would James Madison most likely have felt about political pluralism? A) He would have been terrified by the idea. B) He would have been highly skeptical. C) He would have felt indifferent about it. D) He would have welcomed it. E) It depends on the exact nature of political pluralism. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-1, p. 432 Skill: Analysis 6. The theory of pluralism specifically refers to A) cultural pluralism. B) ethnic pluralism. C) national pluralism. D) economic pluralism. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Understanding

7. How did pluralists feel about group struggle? They A) thought it was dangerous and tried to prevent it. B) thought it was dangerous but did not think it was preventable. C) thought it was the essence of politics. D) felt indifferent about it. E) tried to actively promote it. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Understanding 8. Pluralist thinkers believe ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The existence of groups and group struggle are essential components of politics. B) Groups balance each other out in terms of resources and influence. C) Only formally organized interest groups are able to influence politics. D) Interest groups have multiple access points to the political system. E) They believe all of the above. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Understanding 9. Pluralist thinkers believe that A) every group should have equal resources. B) every group should have equal access to the political system. C) groups do not deserve equal access to the political system. D) groups denied access to some political venues can go to other venues. E) A and B Answer: D Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Understanding 10. Which of the following are more likely to want to change the status quo (and to believe that it can be done)? A) Pluralists B) Nationalists C) Conservatives D) Philosophers E) Daydreamers Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 432–434 Skill: Understanding

11. According to critics of pluralism, it is A) easier to change the status quo than to maintain it. B) easier to maintain the status quo than to change it. C) equally difficult to maintain and to change the status quo. D) equally easy to maintain and to change the status quo. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 433–434 Skill: Understanding 12. Once a new policy proposal has made it through the legislative process A) the battle is won. B) it becomes the new status quo. C) it can be challenged in the court system. D) it can be denied funding. E) C and D Answer: E Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 433–434 Skill: Understanding 13. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are ways in which a policy proposal can be denied even after it has become law? It can be A) vetoed by the president. B) denied funding. C) challenged in court. D) watered down by bureaucrats. E) ignored by bureaucrats. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 433–434 Skill: Understanding 14. How would a pluralist most likely explain a lack of political participation? A lack of A) access. B) opportunity. C) political knowledge. D) interest. E) political skills. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-2, p. 434 Skill: Understanding

15. The lack of political participation is most likely the result of a lack of interest among groups. This statement best represents __________ thinking. A) pluralist B) anti-pluralist C) socialist D) conservative E) revisionist Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 434 Skill: Understanding 16. Effective political organization primarily takes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Connections B) Time C) Money D) Education E) Personal relationships Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 434–435 Skill: Understanding 17. Which of the following is the sector best represented by interest groups? A) The citizen sector B) The profit sector C) The nonprofit sector D) The mixed sector E) All of the above are very well represented. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 435 (Figure 12-1) Skill: Understanding 18. Which of the following is the sector worst represented by interest groups? A) The citizen sector B) The profit sector C) The nonprofit sector D) The mixed sector E) All of the above are very well represented. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-2, p. 435 (Figure 12-1) Skill: Understanding

19. According to political scientist Jack Walker, the vast majority of interests groups with a presence in Washington represent A) minority interests. B) social interests. C) foreign interests. D) business interests. E) legal interests. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 435 Skill: Understanding 20. So-called nonevents are A) not important to political science. B) impossible to study. C) an integral part of political scientists’ research. D) notoriously difficult to study. E) This is an oxymoron; the term does not exist. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding 21. Which of the following was NOT a causal factor identified by Matthew Crenson that explained the difference in responses to air pollution in his study of American cities? A) The level of air pollution in those cities B) Industrial interests C) Interest-group activity D) The paralysis of other actors E) The perceived influence of the business community Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding 22. In Power and Powerlessness, John Gaventa explains miners’ failure to take action against poor working conditions with ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The lack of economic inequality B) The powerful economic interests in town C) The powerful political interests in town D) A value system that encouraged submissiveness E) All of the above explain the lack of action. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding

23. According to the textbook, what explains the lack of attention paid to poverty in the United States in the forties and fifties? A) The economic successes during that time B) The distraction of World War II and its aftermath C) A political nondecision on the matter D) People helping themselves with no need for the government E) The government paid attention and instituted major reforms. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Understanding 24. The term “policy agenda” refers to issues that A) interest groups would like to have addressed by the government. B) the government is going to address in the future. C) are important to the American people. D) are actively under consideration by policy-makers. E) have been put on hold. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Understanding 25. When Greenpeace formed in response to U.S. nuclear tests in Alaska, pluralists might explain this by using the A) chaos theory. B) resistance theory. C) social-movement theory. D) disturbance theory. E) rationalist theory. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Application 26. The disturbance theory states that A) interest groups interfere with government effectiveness. B) groups form in response to an upset in social, political, or economic relationships. C) the government tries to minimize the disturbances caused by interest groups. D) interest groups minimize their own effectiveness by competing with each other. E) disagreement in society in inevitable. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Understanding

27. Which scholar argued that rational, self-interested individuals do not act to achieve their common interests? A) Mancur Olson B) Robert Dahl C) E.E. Schattschneider D) John Gaventa E) Matthew Crenson Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Understanding 28. The problem that Mancur Olson points out with regard to the lack of incentives for people to pursue common interests is known as ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Public-goods problem B) Free-rider problem C) Social-capital problem D) Collective-action problem E) Tragedy of the commons Answer: C Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Understanding 29. A crucial aspect of the so-called free-rider problem is the fact that A) once the desired outcome has been achieved, no one can be excluded from it. B) the benefits received depend on the amount of the contribution made by the individual. C) chances for success tend to be very slim. D) individuals are often ignorant about the process of collective action. E) people do not care enough about the outcome. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Analysis 30. The fact that once a public good has been provided no one can be excluded from it creates the so-called A) social-parasite problem. B) free-rider problem. C) welfare problem. D) public-goods problem. E) leech problem. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Understanding

31. One implied consequence of the collective-action problem is that A) no one will take an interest in activism any more. B) if individuals act out of short-term self-interest, all may suffer in the long run. C) the pursuit of self-interest will result in the greatest good for the greatest number. D) public goods will no longer be provided at all. E) there is no cure for selfishness. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Analysis 32. The free-rider problem is largely a result of A) the costs of an action outweighing the benefits. B) the losses that accrue for those who are willing to participate. C) the gains that are shared only by those who participate. D) the gains that are enjoyed only by those who do not participate. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Analysis 33. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are strategies aimed at overcoming the collectiveaction problem? A) Increasing the cost of the public good B) Providing selective benefits C) Providing material benefits D) Individual entrepreneurship E) Outside patronage Answer: A Reference: LO 12-3, pgs. 439–444 Skill: Understanding 34. So-called selective benefits are available to A) everyone in the group. B) everyone in the group who participated. C) everyone who is in a prominent position in the group. D) some member of the group, based on arbitrary rules. E) everyone in and out of a group. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-3, p. 440 Skill: Understanding

35. Which of the following does NOT offer selective benefits? A) AAA B) AARP C) Political parties D) Weight Watchers E) Private health insurance Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 440 Skill: Application 36. Which of the following is NOT an example of a strategy to overcome the collectiveaction problem? A) Privatizing health care B) Highway tolls C) A military draft D) Government subsidies for health care E) Fines for littering Answer: D Reference: LO 12-3, p. 440 Skill: Application 37. Mancur Olson argued that A) individuals join groups primarily to pursue group interests. B) individuals join groups only to receive selective benefits. C) group interests are always a mere by-product of selective benefits. D) individuals join groups for material as well as social benefits. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 12-3, p. 441 Skill: Understanding 38. A person who joins Greenpeace because he or she cares about the environment is primarily pursuing __________ benefits. A) material B) individual C) purposive D) social E) selective Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 441 Skill: Application

39. When group members help achieve collective group interests by pursuing selective interests, this is what Mancur Olson refers to as A) purposive benefits. B) by-products. C) altruistic benefits. D) social benefits. E) accidental products. Answer: B Reference: LO 12-3, p. 441 Skill: Understanding 40. Someone who launches and manages an interest group is considered a(n) A) interest-group organizer. B) problem solver. C) interest-group entrepreneur. D) selective-benefit provider. E) incentive manager. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 441 Skill: Understanding 41. The National Rifle Association’s primary agenda when it was first founded had to do with the A) rights of gun owners. B) protection of civil rights. C) interests of gun manufacturers. D) shooting skills of Union soldiers. E) quality of rifles on the market. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-3, p. 442 Skill: Understanding 42. The interest-group entrepreneurs behind the National Rifle Association were A) two Civil War veterans. B) rifle manufacturers. C) two representatives from New York. D) a group of hunters. E) a couple of actors. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-3, p. 442 Skill: Understanding

43. Who served as the patron to the National Rifle Association? A) The federal government B) A group of rifle manufacturers C) The New York State Legislature D) A group of soldiers E) The U.S. military Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 442 Skill: Understanding 44. Which of the following is NOT true about interest-group patrons? They A) can be individuals with a passion for a certain issue. B) have resources to share. C) can be corporations. D) cannot be government units. E) occasionally help launch an interest group. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-3, pgs. 442–443 Skill: Understanding 45. Which of the following do you think would be LEAST likely to struggle with the collective-action problem? An interest group that deals with A) the environment. B) foreign policy. C) abortion. D) education. E) pollution. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-3, p. 443 Skill: Application 46. The ultimate goal of interest groups is to A) shape public policy. B) raise awareness. C) help people. D) get rich. E) increase political participation. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 Skill: Understanding

47. If the California peace officer’s labor union endorses Arnold Schwarzenegger and contributes to his campaign, the group is engaging in the so-called ___________ strategy. A) interest-group B) decision C) electoral D) partisan E) campaign Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 Skill: Understanding 48. Interest groups are typically more likely to A) engage in electoral strategies. B) engage in decision strategies. C) choose between electoral and decision strategies. D) pursue both electoral and decision strategies simultaneously. E) engage in neither electoral nor decision strategies. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 Skill: Understanding 49. A political action committee (PAC) is funded by _____ people or more. A) 20 B) 50 C) 70 D) 100 E) 500 Answer: B Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 Skill: Understanding 50. How much money total can a political action committee (PAC) give to one federal candidate per election cycle? A) $2,000 B) $4,000 C) $5,000 D) $10,000 E) $15,000 Answer: D Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding

51. Approximately what percentage of the total funds raised by members of Congress during the 2007–2008 election cycle came from PACs? A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent D) 40 percent E) 50 percent Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding 52. Which of the following are explicitly used to advocate the election or defeat of a candidate? A) All PAC contributions B) Independent expenditures C) Dependent expenditures D) 527-committee expenditures E) Campaign contributions Answer: B Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding 53. Which of the following is an example of an independent expenditure? A) A group giving Barack Obama $50,000 for his 30-minute infomercial on primetime television B) A group giving John McCain money to use for a poster campaign C) A group paying money to produce and air a pro-McCain commercial D) A group agreeing to pay Obama’s printing costs for his brochures E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Application 54. Which of the following is NOT a strategy pursued by interest groups? A) Running for office B) Campaign spending C) Endorsements D) Voter mobilization E) Voter education Answer: A Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 446–453 Skill: Understanding

55. When a lobbyist meets face-to-face with a public official to talk about specific issues or legislation, this is called A) outside lobbying. B) grassroots lobbying. C) inside lobbying. D) face-to-face lobbying. E) personal lobbying. Answer: C Reference: LO 12-4, p. 447 Skill: Understanding 56. Which of the following is NOT an example of outside lobbying? A) A group of concerned citizens going to speak with their congressperson B) An interest group encouraging its members to send an e-mail to their congressperson C) An interest group spending money on sending information to voters about a certain issue D) A group organizing a demonstration against a certain issue E) They all are examples of outside lobbying. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 449–451 Skill: Application 57. The activities of Progress for America in 2005 A) ensured victory for Samuel Alito. B) greatly contributed to the victory of Samuel Alito. C) had no effect on the victory of Samuel Alito. D) contributed to the defeat of Samuel Alito. E) We have no basis for assuming any of the above. Answer: E Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 450–451 Skill: Analysis 58. The “Harry and Louise” ad used to promote Bill Clinton’s health-care-reform plan proved to be A) very effective. B) only somewhat effective. C) neither effective nor ineffective. D) somewhat ineffective. E) very ineffective. Answer: A Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 451–452 Skill: Understanding

59. In recent years, there seems to have been a trend toward a rise in interest groups and a decline in political parties. Based on what you have learned about both, which of the following best explains such a trend? A) National parties have adopted issues that are too controversial and thus moved away from general public opinion. B) Political parties have a very hard time recruiting new members. C) It is generally less expensive for an individual to join an interest group than to join a political party. D) Interest groups are better able to focus on specific policy positions. E) Interest groups better represent the general public. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-5, pgs. 453–457 Skill: Analysis 60. Which of the following is NOT true about lobbying techniques and their prevalence? A) Lobbyists seem less likely to lobby the judiciary than the other two branches. B) Lobbyists rarely engage in demonstrations or protests. C) Lobbyists are more likely to contact public officials directly than indirectly. D) Lobbyists often endorse political candidates. E) Lobbyists often testify in congressional hearings. Answer: D Reference: LO 12-5, p. 454 (Table 12-3) Skill: Analysis 61. What can we say about the effect of interest groups and PACs on the political process? A) Interest groups have a large, observable effect on the political decisions of public officials. B) Interest groups have a large, observable effect on the election of public officials. C) PACs “buy” votes for candidates. D) PACs have a much larger effect on the political process than other types of interest groups. E) We do not have conclusive evidence for any of the above. Answer: E Reference: LO 12-5, pgs. 454–455 Skill: Understanding

62. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are examples of private goods that campaign contributions might result in for interest groups, according to the political scientists Richard Hall and Frank Wayman? A) Government contracts B) Bribes C) Prices increases D) Tax breaks E) Earmarked funds Answer: B Reference: LO 12-5, pgs. 455–456 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The success of the women’s-suffrage movement suggests the openness of the American political system to all groups that know how to organize themselves. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 430–431 Skill: Analysis 2. Pluralist thinkers believe that elected officials have an incentive to consider the interests of both formal and potential interest groups. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Understanding 3. Critics of the pluralist theory contend—among other things—that the American political system favors the status quo. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-1, p. 433 Skill: Understanding 4. Pluralists only study groups that have already formed. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-1, p. 433 Skill: Understanding 5. One of the main problems for pluralist theory in proving its assumptions is that nonevents are impossible to study. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding

6. In his study on cities’ responses to air pollution, Matthew Crenson found that the main explanatory variable is the level of pollution. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Understanding 7. When an issue does not make it onto the policy agenda, this is referred to as a nondecision. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Understanding 8. The so-called disturbance theory addresses the potentially fragmenting effects that interest groups have on society. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, p. 438 Skill: Understanding 9. Whether or not a group will form in response to a perceived problem almost exclusively depends on individuals’ willingness to form such a group. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 438–439 Skill: Understanding 10. The so-called free-rider problem is largely explained by the fact that individuals do not believe that the outcome will be achieved. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Understanding 11. Plagiarism is an example of the free-rider problem. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Application 12. Selective benefits are only available to those who participate. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-3, p. 440 Skill: Understanding

13. Political parties offer selective benefits. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-3, p. 440 Skill: Application 14. Interest-group entrepreneurs and patrons serve two completely different functions in the establishment of interest groups. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-3, p. 442 Skill: Analysis 15. The collective-action problem is less likely to occur in small groups with a politically sensitive topic than in a large group with a less emotionally charged topic. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-3, p. 443 Skill: Understanding 16. A political action committee (PAC) is allowed to give $15,000 to a political party per year. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 Skill: Understanding 17. Politicians running for a seat in Congress largely depend on PAC contributions in order to finance their campaigns. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding 18. Independent expenditures can be coordinated with a candidate’s political campaign. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, p. 445 Skill: Understanding 19. Lobbyists often help public officials collect information on an important issue. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 447–448 Skill: Understanding

20. Lobbyists depend on public officials in order to reach their goals, while public officials typically feel annoyed by them. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 448–449 Skill: Understanding 21. If a representative of the Sierra Club meets with a public official to communicate her group’s stance on a particular piece of legislation, this is called grassroots lobbying. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, p. 449 Skill: Understanding 22. When a group of mothers protests against the war in Iraq outside a congressperson’s office, this is an example of outside lobbying. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 449–450 Skill: Application 23. Lobbying efforts for Bill Clinton’s health-care plan focused primarily on undecided Democrats in Congress. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 451–452 Skill: Understanding 24. Lobbyists often do favors for or provide gifts for legislators. Answer: False Reference: LO 12-5, p. 454 (Table 12-3) Skill: Understanding 25. Earmarked funds are an example of so-called private goods that interest groups might receive in return for campaign contributions. Answer: True Reference: LO 12-5, p. 456 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. In your opinion, what makes the women’s-suffrage movement different from the issue of universal health care? Why was one able to succeed when the other wasn’t? Is this the result of the American political system or some other factor? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 430–431 Skill: Analysis

2. If even potential (i.e., unorganized) groups can influence politics, why should anyone bother to expend the time and resources to organize groups? Reference: LO 12-1, pgs. 432–433 Skill: Analysis 3. Proponents and critics of the pluralist theory disagree on the amount of influence that interests groups have on the government. In particular, the question of what kind of group might succeed is hotly debated. Assume that you and your fellow students would like to form an interest group to protest the constantly rising tuition costs. How confident would you be that your quest could be successful? Why? Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 432–439 Skill: Evaluation 4. The authors of the textbook point out that, despite their large number, the poor in America are not represented by an interest group. What are three main reasons for this? And what does this mean for the success of pluralism in the United States? Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 434–435 Skill: Evaluation 5. Explain what caused E.E. Schattschneider to remark that “some issues are organized into politics, while others are organized out.” Provide concrete examples to illustrate your explanations. Reference: LO 12-2, p. 435 Skill: Analysis 6. Why is it so difficult to study so-called nonevents? How important are these events for our understanding of politics? How can they be studied? (Provide an example.) Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Analysis 7. Please analyze in what way national security in the United States could be considered a free-rider problem. What strategy would you propose to overcome this problem? Reference: LO 12-2, p. 439 Skill: Application 8. What are the different types of benefits that individuals receive from joining a group, according to Mancur Olson? What additional benefits do Olson’s critics claim there are? In your opinion, which of these benefits is the most likely explanation for group membership? Why? Reference: LO 12-3, pgs. 440–441 Skill: Understanding

9. If federal law prevents labor unions and corporations from donating money directly to a political candidate or party, but through PACs these organizations can do so nonetheless, do you consider that an example of circumventing the law? Why or why not? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 444–445 Skill: Evaluation 10. What are the different spending options for a group that wants to get around the legal limits on PAC contributions? How do you feel about these options? Why? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 445–446 Skill: Evaluation 11. Briefly explain the difference between inside and grassroots lobbying, providing an example of each. Which one do you believe is more effective? Why? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 447–451 Skill: Analysis 12. Please describe the “Harry and Louise” television ad about the Clinton health-care plan. What was its message, and what was its effect? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 451–452 Skill: Understanding 13. Why do you believe the lobbying efforts in favor of Bill Clinton’s health-care plan failed? What might have been a more effective strategy? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 451–452 Skill: Analysis 14. What are some of the most prevalent lobbying techniques, and what are some of the least prevalent techniques? Does this vary by branch? Why do you suppose that is the case? Reference: LO 12-5, p. 454 (Table 12-3) Skill: Analysis 15. Of the different lobbying techniques outlined in the textbook, which do you object to the most—if any—and why? If you do not have a problem with any technique, explain why you believe they are all acceptable. Reference: LO 12-5, p. 454 (Table 12-3) Skill: Evaluation

Essay Questions 1. Please write an essay on pluralism. Address both the arguments of pluralists and the criticisms of those opposed to this theory. In your opinion, which is correct? Why? Use examples from American politics to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 12-1 and LO 12-2, pgs. 432–439 Skill: Analysis 2. Based on the distribution of resources in the United States, what types of interests do you see represented more strongly than others? Why is that the case, and what are the consequences of this? Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 434–435 Skill: Analysis 3. In your opinion, what is an example of a current nondecision in American politics? In other words, what is an issue that—owing to the nature of American government and interest groups—does not receive the attention it deserves? What explains this deficit, and how would you address it? Reference: LO 12-2, pgs. 436–438 Skill: Application 4. Choose a real-world example not mentioned in the textbook that illustrates the theory behind the collective-action problem. Be specific in matching your example to the theory itself. What might be potential solutions to this problem, and what are the main obstacles you foresee? Reference: LO 12-2 and LO 12-3, pgs. 439–443 Skill: Application 5. Please summarize the campaign-donation limits for individuals and for PACs to various purposes (e.g., candidates, political parties, etc.). Do you believe these limits are reasonable, or would you increase or decrease them? Why? Reference: LO 12-4, p. 444 (Table 12-2) Skill: Evaluation 6. In 2008, senator Barack Obama’s staff sent e-mails to a great number of people who had signed up as Camp Obama supporters, asking each to call five people (the names and numbers were provided) to remind them to vote for Obama as well as to tell them where they can vote early. What type of lobbying is this? Would you consider this effective? Why or why not? Reference: LO 12-4, pgs. 446–450 Skill: Analysis

7. Alexis de Tocqueville considered the United States a “nation of joiners.” He also argued that the “principle of association” is nowhere more evident than in America. Based on what you have learned about interest groups, pluralism, and—previously—American political culture, how would you interpret these statements? What evidence do you see for and against de Tocqueville’s assessment? Reference: LO 12-3 and LO 12-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 8. James Madison was concerned about the influence of factions in American politics. At the same time, he lamented that suppressing the potentially damaging behavior of factions would simultaneously threaten the liberty of Americans. Based on what you have learned about interest groups in this chapter, do you think that the American political system has found an effective way to ensure both? Be specific in your answer, and provide examples. Reference: All LOs, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 9. How has the Internet—and other technological advancements—affected the work and/or influence of interests groups? Provide specific examples. Reference: LO 12-3, LO 12-4, and LO 12-5, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 10. In your opinion, which issue and/or group is currently in need of representation in Washington? Why do you believe this issue and/or group has thus far not been successful in its lobbying techniques (or has not been established at all)? What strategy would you propose to ensure that the issue and/or group is heard? Reference: All LOs, entire chapter Skill: Analysis 11. Do you believe that interest groups in America adequately represent the broader interests of American society? Which issues—if any—do you consider overrepresented, and which do you believe are currently underrepresented? Why? Reference: LO 12-1, LO 12-2, and LO 12-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Thirteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The distribution of funds as part of the State Homeland Security Program passed by Congress in the aftermath of September 11, 2001, illustrates that congressional decisionmaking was largely motivated by A) the lack of proper funding. B) the necessary trade-offs between efficiency and costs. C) rationally assessed levels of risk in each state. D) the perceived pressure from the public to do something. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Analysis 2. Oftentimes, the pressure to please voters leads to A) the best legislation possible. B) the most democratic legislation possible. C) the most-effective legislation possible. D) legislation that is less effective than it could be. E) completely ineffective legislation. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Analysis 3. How many voting representatives does the House of Representatives have? A) 395 B) 405 C) 415 D) 425 E) 435 Answer: E Reference: LO 13-1, p. 461 Skill: Understanding

4. The American public has the most opportunity to evaluate which of the following? A) The executive B) The legislative C) The judiciary D) All of the above E) A and B Answer: B Reference: LO 13-2, p. 463 Skill: Understanding 5. What percentage of Congress members is typically reelected? A) Over 90 percent B) More than 75 percent C) Roughly 50 percent D) About 30 percent E) Less than 20 percent Answer: A Reference: LO 13-2, p. 465 Skill: Understanding 6. Assume that more than 80 percent of citizens in a state are in favor of revised socialsecurity legislation that is appealing but probably difficult to implement and sustain over a long period of time. If that state’s senator, realizing these difficulties, decides to vote against this legislation, this represents the _________ model of representation. A) delegate B) indirect C) trustee D) representative E) independent Answer: C Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 465–466 Skill: Application 7. How well constituents are represented by their members in Congress depends largely on A) the size of their group. B) the needs of their group. C) their minority status. D) their income levels. E) their ability to help the member’s reelection. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 466–467 Skill: Understanding

8. When it is first introduced, members of Congress typically know A) everything there is to know about an issue. B) a lot about an issue. C) just enough about an issue. D) very little about an issue. E) nothing about an issue, and they typically do not care. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 470–471 Skill: Understanding 9. Which of the following are designed to address specific issues over a shorter period of time? A) Standing committees B) Select committees C) Subcommittees D) Joint committees E) Special committees Answer: B Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 10. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Speaker of the House? A) Presiding over the chamber when it is in session B) Setting the legislative agenda C) Unifying the parties D) Communicating with the White House about bills E) Acting as the congressional spokesperson Answer: C Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 475–476 Skill: Understanding 11. What has been the trend in party votes in Congress over the last 50 years? A) Party members are defecting much more often than they used to. B) Party members are voting along party lines much more often than they used to. C) Defections have remained relatively stable. D) Defections have gone up, then down, then up again. E) There is no clear discernible trend. Answer: B Reference: LO 13-4, p. 477 (Figure 13-3) Skill: Analysis

12. The War Powers Resolution of 1973 has A) been effective in curbing the war powers of the president. B) successfully restored the balance of power between the legislature and executive. C) been enacted during every conflict but has been ignored by presidents. D) only once been enforced fully. E) never been enforced fully. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 480–482 Skill: Understanding 13. The process during which committee members rewrite portions of a bill is called a(n) A) markup. B) revision. C) rewriting. D) editing. E) correction. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-5, p. 484 Skill: Understanding 14. Filibustering can be ended by invoking A) closure. B) conclusion. C) conclusiveness. D) cloture. E) clobber. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Understanding 15. The standard rules for regular appropriations are primarily designed to ensure A) frugality. B) efficiency. C) effectiveness. D) oversight. E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 13-6, p. 491 Skill: Analysis

True-False Questions 1. The most populous state received most of the PATRIOT Act’s antiterrorism funding. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Understanding 2. A congressperson’s agenda is determined more by his or her constituents’ interests than by the congressperson’s personal career objectives. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 463–464 Skill: Analysis 3. The total amount spent by interest groups on lobbying Congress has nearly tripled during the last decade. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-2, p. 467 (Figure 13-1) Skill: Understanding 4. Joint committees and standing committees are both permanent, whereas select committees disband once they achieve their goals. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 5. On average, senators serve on more committees than representatives. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, p. 473 Skill: Understanding 6. The two parties today are more polarized than they have ever been. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, p. 478 (Figure 13-4) Skill: Analysis 7. The number of filibustered bills has risen significantly over time. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Understanding

8. Laws with so-called sunset provisions include exceptions to their applicability. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-5, p. 489 Skill: Understanding 9. Earmarks can be seen as challenging the system of checks and balances in American politics. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-6, p. 491 Skill: Analysis 10. Much of the Iraq war has been funded through supplemental appropriations rather than regular ones. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What does the example of distributing homeland-security funds illustrate? A) That funding is determined on the basis of the threat B) That threat levels are difficult to measure when it comes to terrorism C) That antiterrorism is expensive D) That funding decisions are often influenced by congressional politics E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Analysis 2. The PATRIOT Act’s fund-distribution formula could best be described as A) efficient. B) wasteful. C) practical. D) cheap. E) useless. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Analysis

3. One of the main problems illustrated by the example of antiterrorist funding is that members of Congress A) do not know enough about terrorism. B) are not informed about the issues. C) do not care about the issues. D) represent their constituents’ interests. E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Understanding 4. The House of Representatives and the Senate share responsibilities for all but which of the following? A) Approving major presidential appointments B) Overseeing bureaucracy C) Declaring war D) Raising and supporting armies E) Regulating interstate commerce Answer: A Reference: LO 13-1, pgs. 461–462 Skill: Understanding 5. Which of the following is NOT laid out in the constitutional standards for impeaching the president? A) Treason B) Dishonesty C) Bribery D) High crimes E) Misdemeanors Answer: B Reference: LO 13-1, p. 462 Skill: Understanding 6. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about members of the House of Representatives? A) They are elected every two years. B) They tend to maintain a fairly close relationship with their constituents. C) They have relative freedom to exercise their own judgments on policy matters. D) They tend to face a relatively homogeneous group of voters. E) All of the above are true. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-1, p. 462 Skill: Understanding

7. The popular branch James Madison referred to is the A) Senate. B) House of Representatives. C) Congress as a whole. D) executive. E) judiciary. Answer: B Reference: LO 13-1, p. 462 Skill: Understanding 8. In what way is the American upper chamber different from many European upper chambers? A) Senators are elected. B) The upper chamber has fewer people than the lower chamber. C) The upper chamber represents more voters. D) The members of the upper chamber serve longer terms. E) All of the above are similar in the United States and Europe. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-1, pgs. 462–463 Skill: Understanding 9. What is arguably the biggest objective of members of Congress? A) Serving the American people as a whole B) Balancing the executive C) Balancing the judiciary D) Getting reelected E) Implementing policies Answer: D Reference: LO 13-2, p. 463 Skill: Understanding 10. Almost by definition, members of Congress must be able to do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Discern public opinion B) Compromise C) Finance their staffs D) Appeal to their constituents E) Make a name for themselves Answer: C Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 464–465 Skill: Analysis

11. A member of Congress’s agenda is largely determined by ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) National interests B) The economies of their home states C) Their constituents’ demographics D) Their constituents’ values and norms E) Their personal career objectives Answer: A Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 464–465 Skill: Analysis 12. Political scientists have determined that the causal link between members of Congress and their constituents is that A) politicians who already share their constituents’ basic beliefs are more likely to run for office. B) politicians adjust their personal beliefs to match those of their constituents. C) politicians do not necessarily care about and represent their constituents’ beliefs. D) politicians lie about their beliefs, pretending to share those of their constituents. E) although there is a clear link its exact nature is not certain. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 464–465 Skill: Understanding 13. The fact that the vast majority of members of Congress are reelected means that A) they have the trust of the people and are free to use their best judgment. B) they exactly represent their constituents’ views. C) the constituents are happy with them, regardless of what they do. D) they have very good campaign staffs. E) We cannot necessarily conclude any of the above. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-2, p. 465 Skill: Analysis 14. When members of Congress serve their constituents, they A) simultaneously serve the best interests of the nation as a whole. B) tend to do so at the expense of the interests of the nation as a whole. C) may divert resources that could be of better use elsewhere. D) only have their personal interests in mind. E) use their personal resources to do so. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 465–466 Skill: Analysis

15. A majority in a congressional district favor a raise in minimum wages. Their congresswoman has concerns that voting in favor of such legislation in an upcoming House meeting would in the long run prove to be a disservice to her constituents because it is likely to lead to a large number of layoffs at companies due to increased labor costs. Nonetheless, she decides to go with the majority opinion and votes in favor of the proposed bill. This scenario describes the __________ model of representation. A) indirect B) delegate C) trustee D) representative E) independent Answer: B Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 465–466 Skill: Application 16. Which of the two models of representation explains American politics better? A) Both members of the House and the Senate tend to act in accordance with the trustee model. B) Both members of the House and the Senate tend to act in accordance with the delegate model. C) Members of the House act more like delegates, whereas members of the Senate act more like trustees. D) Members of the House act more like trustees, whereas members of the Senate act more like delegates. E) There is no clear trend either way. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 465–466 Skill: Understanding 17. By 2008, how much money was spent on lobbying members of Congress? A) $100 million B) $500 million C) $1 billion D) $2.5 billion E) $3.5 billion Answer: E Reference: LO 13-2, p. 467 Skill: Understanding

18. Of the following, whose total number of representatives in Congress has increased the most since 1950? A) Women B) African-Americans C) Hispanic-Americans D) Immigrants E) Actors Answer: A Reference: LO 13-2, p. 468 (Table 13-2) Skill: Analysis 19. Of the following, whose number of representatives in Congress adequately represents their constituents? A) Women B) African-Americans C) Hispanic-Americans D) All of the above E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 13-2, p. 468 (Table 13-2) Skill: Analysis 20. All of the following pose difficulties for members of Congress working together, except A) collective interests. B) the volume of information. C) access to relevant information. D) collective-action problems. E) cycling. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 470–471 Skill: Understanding 21. The so-called collective-action problem arises from A) individual laziness. B) a disparity between individual and group incentives. C) the unwillingness to cooperate. D) cycling. E) the tendency to ignore problems. Answer: B Reference: LO 13-3, p. 471 Skill: Understanding

22. The ultimate risk of the collective-action problem is A) inaction. B) biased outcomes. C) burden sharing. D) laziness. E) political conflict. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-3, p. 471 Skill: Understanding 23. Committees in Congress are an example of a ________ solution to the collective-action problem. A) social B) political C) structural D) economic E) Committees have nothing to do with the collective-action problem. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 24. The real workhorses of Congress are the so-called A) standing committees. B) select committees. C) joint committees. D) bipartisan committees. E) work committees. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 25. If Congress created a committee to investigate the federal government’s response to the floods in Iowa, this would most likely be a A) standing committee. B) subcommittee. C) select committee. D) Either A or C E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Application

26. The reforms of the committee system in the late sixties and early seventies can best be characterized as the result of A) internal political power plays. B) constitutional changes. C) pressure from the public. D) pressure from the judiciary. E) concerns about efficiency. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-4, p. 475 Skill: Analysis 27. How is the leadership for both the majority and minority parties in Congress determined? A) The party leadership appoints their leader. B) It is assigned based on seniority. C) The whole party elects their leader. D) Each party’s representatives in Congress elect their leader. E) They draw lots. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-4, p. 475 Skill: Understanding 28. Who determines the Speaker of the House? A) All the representatives in the House B) The party with the most seats in the House C) The president D) It is based on seniority within the party with the most seats. E) All of Congress Answer: B Reference: LO 13-4, p. 475 Skill: Understanding 29. What is the relationship between inequality and party polarization? A) Inequality has caused increased polarization. B) Polarization has caused increased inequality. C) The two phenomena are correlated. D) Both have decreased over time. E) There is no relationship. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-4, p. 478 Skill: Understanding

30. The two parties today are A) more polarized than they have been in almost a century. B) less polarized than they have been in almost a century. C) just as polarized as they have been for almost a century. D) more polarized than they have ever been. E) less polarized than they have ever been. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-4, p. 478 (Table 13-4) Skill: Analysis 31. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the framers gave most of the war-making powers to Congress? They A) wanted experts on the matter to make the decision. B) feared absolute monarchs. C) were concerned about personal ambitions. D) wanted to give decision-making power to more than one person. E) wanted the will of the people represented. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 480–482 Skill: Understanding 32. Does the practice of war today appear to follow the principles laid out in the Constitution? A) Yes, absolutely. B) Yes, with a few minor exceptions. C) No, but only on a few issues. D) No, it deviates quite a bit. E) The Constitution is not clear on the matter. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 480–482 Skill: Analysis 33. Who can serve as the sponsor of a bill in Congress? A) The party leaders B) Any member of Congress with at least two years of experience C) Any member of Congress D) Any member of the government E) Any citizen of the United States Answer: C Reference: LO 13-5, p. 483 Skill: Understanding

34. After a sponsor introduces a bill to the House of Representatives, who decides which committee will take up the bill for consideration? A) The sponsor B) The Speaker of the House C) The House decides collectively. D) The minority speaker E) This is regulated in the Constitution. Answer: B Reference: LO 13-5, p. 483 (Figure 13-5) Skill: Understanding 35. When Senators indefinitely debate a bill in order to prevent its passing, this is referred to as A) stalling. B) filibustering. C) gerrymandering. D) delaying. E) freezing. Answer: B Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Understanding 36. Who has the so-called gatekeeping authority when it comes to bills introduced in Congress? A) The Speaker of the House B) The whips C) The committees D) The minority leaders E) The clerks Answer: C Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Understanding 37. Of the bills introduced in Congress A) all become law. B) most become law. C) half become law. D) most fail. E) some fail. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-5, pgs. 485–486 Skill: Understanding

38. The pattern of U.S. presidents’ use of their veto power throughout history indicates that A) the president has become more involved in the legislative process. B) Congress has conceded more legislative power to the president. C) Congress and the president have collaborated a lot more during the legislative process. D) the president has become more detached from the legislative process. E) it depends on the president. There is no clear pattern. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-5, p. 486 Skill: Analysis 39. Which of the following is NOT true about the success rate for bills introduced in Congress since 1981? The number of bills that A) pass the House has steadily increased. B) become law has steadily increased. C) pass the House has steadily decreased. D) become law has steadily decreased. E) None of the above is true. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-5, p. 487 (Figure 13-6) Skill: Analysis 40. The United States has roughly _________ foreign-born residents. A) 60 million B) 30 million C) 10 million D) 5 million E) 2 million Answer: B Reference: LO 13-5, p. 487 Skill: Understanding 41. The proposed Comprehensive Immigration Reform Act of 2007 focused primarily on A) deportation. B) work-visa programs. C) open borders. D) a path to citizenship for illegal immigrants. E) benefits for illegal immigrants. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-5, p. 488 Skill: Understanding

42. ALL BUT WHICH of the following could explain why George W. Bush’s immigration reform failed? A) It lacked popular support. B) Its opposition voiced their opinions more forcefully. C) Many Americans did not feel strongly about the issue. D) Illegal immigrants could not vote. E) American employers opposed the reform plans. Answer: E Reference: LO 13-5, pgs. 488–489 Skill: Analysis 43. Laws with so-called sunset provisions A) include exceptions in their applicability. B) have their implementation delayed for a certain time period. C) must be reauthorized after a specified number of years. D) automatically expire after a specified number of years. E) There are no such provisions. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-5, p. 489 Skill: Understanding 44. One of the most important factors that contributes to the success of legislation is A) popular support. B) the president’s support. C) the costs of the proposed law. D) the majority party’s strength. E) the lack of institutional challenges. Answer: D Reference: LO 13-5, pgs. 489–490 Skill: Analysis 45. The standard features of regular appropriations include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) An enacting clause that designates the fiscal year for which the funds are given B) A breakdown of budget authority by accounts C) Provisions for supplemental appropriations D) General provisions that apply to all of the accounts E) All of the above are included. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-6, p. 491 Skill: Understanding

46. When an agency has more than one account it can A) draw from any of the accounts for the same purposes. B) freely shift funds from one account to another. C) freely reprogram funds by shifting them within one account. D) freely reprogram funds if they are used for procurement. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 13-6, p. 491 Skill: Understanding 47. Appropriations that maintain funding when other appropriations have not been set by the close of the fiscal year are called A) regular appropriations. B) supplemental appropriations. C) continuing resolutions. D) emergency resolutions. E) special appropriations. Answer: C Reference: LO 13-6, pgs. 491 Skill: Understanding 48. Appropriations are A) streamlined so they encounter very few procedural obstacles in Congress. B) basically just a formality and easily agreed upon by Congress. C) subject to endless debate and filibustering in the House and Senate. D) often vetoed by the president, even if Congress passes them. E) almost impossible to enact owing to partisan views. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Understanding 49. Congress and the president _________ abide by the strict appropriations timetable. A) always B) most of the time C) more often than not D) rarely E) never Answer: D Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Understanding

50. The president can A) use his veto—explicitly or implicitly—to block appropriations bills. B) veto the amount of the appropriations but not the purpose. C) only use his line-item veto but cannot block the entire appropriations bill. D) not use his veto on appropriations bills in order to ensure the government is funded. E) not use his veto on anything but supplemental appropriations. Answer: A Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The example of distributing homeland-security funds illustrates that congressional politics plays a larger role than actual need. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 460–461 Skill: Analysis 2. The House of Representatives has 440 voting members. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-1, p. 461 Skill: Understanding 3. Typically, senators have more freedom to exercise their own judgment on policy matters. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-1, pgs. 461–462 Skill: Understanding 4. The legislative branch is the most representative branch of government. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-1, p. 462 Skill: Understanding 5. The basic lesson members of Congress have to learn is this: out of step, out of office. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-2, p. 464 Skill: Understanding

6. House members tend to act more like trustees, whereas members of the Senate act more like delegates. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 465–466 Skill: Understanding 7. Politicians are more likely to represent the interests of the elderly than those of children and young people. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 466–467 Skill: Understanding 8. In the 2007–2008 Congress, virtually every state was represented by senators from the same party. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 468–469 Skill: Understanding 9. The so-called collective-action problem occurs because individual members of Congress would rather have others bear the costs of solving problems. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 470–471 Skill: Understanding 10. Committees in Congress contribute to the division of labor. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 11. The most important legislation is developed and written in select committees. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, p. 472 Skill: Understanding 12. One of the most desirable committees to work on is the Appropriations Committee. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, p. 474 Skill: Understanding 13. The chair of a committee is always the most senior member of the majority party. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 474–475 Skill: Understanding 358 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14. The Democratic gathering at the beginning of each term is called party conference, whereas the Republican gathering is called party caucus. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, p. 476 Skill: Understanding 15. The only position in Congress specifically mentioned in the Constitution is the Speaker of the House. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, p. 476 Skill: Understanding 16. The Speaker of the House plays a less important role than the majority leader in the Senate. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, p. 476 Skill: Understanding 17. Members of the Senate are much more likely to vote along party lines than members of the House. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, p. 478 (Figure 13-3) Skill: Analysis 18. The polarization of political parties is an overarching trend in democracies around the world. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 479–480 Skill: Understanding 19. The War Powers Act has been considered unconstitutional by every president since it was passed, in 1973. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 481–483 Skill: Understanding 20. The Rules Committee can limit the number of amendments Congress can make to a bill once it leaves the committee. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Understanding

21. In order to invoke cloture and end filibustering, the Senate needs 60 votes in favor of it. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-5, p. 486 Skill: Understanding 22. The standard rules for appropriations are one way that Congress retains oversight of various agencies. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-6, pgs. 491–492 Skill: Analysis 23. According to one watchdog group, Congress disclosed earmarks in the amount of $15 billion dollars in the 2008 fiscal year alone. Answer: True Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Understanding 24. Earmarks benefit only the members of Congress who use them to bypass executive agencies. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-6, p. 492 Skill: Analysis 25. There are many procedural obstacles that make passing appropriations bills very difficult. Answer: False Reference: LO 13-6, pgs. 493–494 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. According to David Mayhew, members of Congress are “single-minded seekers of reelection.” Do you agree with this assessment? What are two positive consequences, if this statement were true, and what are two negative consequences? Provide examples to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 13-2, p. 464 Skill: Analysis 2. Compare and contrast the delegate model of representation and trustee model of representation. Which of the two do you consider more democratic? Why? Which better reflects reality? Why? Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 466–467 Skill: Evaluation

3. What have been the trends in the number of interest groups and the amount of money they spent on political campaigns during the last decade? In what ways do you believe these trends have affected American politics? Be specific, and try to give examples. Reference: LO 13-2, p. 468 (Figure 13-1) Skill: Analysis 4. How has the congressional representation of women, African-Americans, and HispanicAmericans developed since 1950? What are two causes that explain this? Reference: LO 13-2, p. 469 (Figure 13-2) Skill: Analysis 5. Briefly explain at least three different reasons for why members of Congress so often disagree with each other. How does this affect congressional decision-making and legislative outcomes? Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 469–470 Skill: Analysis 6. What is the collective-action problem in Congress, what causes it, and how would you suggest preventing it? Please provide an example of such a problem. (One that is not mentioned in the textbook.) Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 471–472 Skill: Analysis 7. How can the division of Congress into committees help overcome the collective-action problem? Which type of committee is particularly suited to this purpose? Why? Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 473–474 Skill: Analysis 8. What are the pros and cons of encouraging Congress members to vote along party lines? Do you think it is a good idea to make voting along party lines mandatory? What specific issues would you exempt from this? Why? Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 476–478 Skill: Evaluation 9. To what degree do you believe that the increased polarization of the two major parties reflects a polarization of public opinion? Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 478–480 Skill: Analysis 10. Who was given war-making powers by the Constitution? How have these war-making powers developed over time? Do you agree or disagree with this development? Why? Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 481–483 Skill: Evaluation 361 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11. What are the pros and cons of assigning an open rule to a bill as opposed to a closed rule? Under what circumstances would you decide to use one rule over the other? Why? Reference: LO 13-5, p. 485 Skill: Analysis 12. George W. Bush suggested that his immigration-reform plan offered reform “without amnesty and without animosity.” What did he mean by that? Do you think the two are reconcilable? Why or why not? Reference: LO 13-5, pgs. 488–490 Skill: Evaluation 13. How do you feel about the ability of Congress to use earmarked funds? What are arguments that speak for it, and what speaks against it? Do you believe we should get rid of such funds? Reference: LO 13-3, p. 492 Skill: Evaluation 14. In many ways, members of Congress can be said to play a two-level game. They are expected to focus on the needs of their constituents but also on those of the nation as a whole. Based on what you have learned, how well does Congress balance these two? Be specific, and include examples from the textbook. Reference: LO 13-2, LO 13-3, and LO 13-6, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 15. Given the 2008 financial crisis and the ever-increasing budget deficit of the government, what areas would you cut financing for—and why—in order to address this problem? How confident are you that members of Congress would approve of these cuts? Why? Reference: LO 13-2, LO 13-3, and LO 13-6, entire chapter Skill: Application Essay Questions 1. It is not a secret that members of Congress want to be reelected. In what ways do incumbents try to ensure their reelection? In your opinion, what are the pros and cons of this intense focus on reelection? Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 464–469 Skill: Analysis

2. In your personal opinion, does the makeup of Congress in terms of the socioeconomic, cultural, racial, and gender backgrounds of members make a difference with regard to representation? In others words, do you believe that women better represent women, African-Americans better represent other African-Americans, and so on? Why or why not? Assuming that it does make a difference, would you favor the introduction of quotas that would ensure a more representative makeup of Congress? Why or why not? Alternatively, what other methods of increasing diversity in Congress would you prefer? Reference: LO 13-2, pgs. 467–469 Skill: Analysis 3. Based on what you know about the difficulties of congressional decision-making, please apply this knowledge to the financial-system bailout proposed by Congress in 2008. While you are not expected to know the details of the bailout plan, you will need to walk through the potential obstacles in decision-making you have learned about and illustrate them on the basis of this real-world example. Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 469–472 Skill: Application 4. When it comes to decision-making, does Congress function as a democratic institution? Why or why not? Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 469–472 Skill: Evaluation 5. Collecting information on an issue is one of the most important but also one of the most difficult tasks members of Congress face. In your opinion, what are two factors that have made this task easier for members of Congress since the fifties, and what are two factors that have made this task more difficult? Be specific, and provide examples. Reference: LO 13-3, pgs. 471–472 Skill: Analysis 6. The textbook suggests that congressional committees represent one way to overcome the collective-action problem. What solution would you suggest (other than committees) in order to make sure everyone contributes his or her share? How would you enforce it? Reference: LO 13-3 and LO 13-4, pgs. 472–473 Skill: Analysis 7. Do you think that the increasing party polarization in the United States is good for American politics or bad? Why? Be specific, and provide examples. Reference: LO 13-4, pgs. 478–480 Skill: Evaluation

8. Do you believe that illegal immigrants should be entitled to representation in Congress when legislation on immigration reform is debated? Why or why not? How would you assess George W. Bush’s 2007 reform plans? What do you like about them, and what would you change? Why? Reference: LO 13-5, pgs. 488–490 Skill: Evaluation 9. Are there any issues you consider important enough to be decided in a public referendum, rather than in Congress? If so, what are these issues, and why would you put them to a popular vote? If not, why do you feel that the congressional decision-making process is good enough? Reference: LO 13-2, LO 13-3, and LO 13-4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 10. Given what you know about the difficulty of reaching an agreement in Congress, do you think it would be preferable if one of the two parties had a supermajority? Why or why not? What would be some specific advantages and some specific disadvantages of such an unlikely, but conceivable, scenario? Reference: LO 13-1, LO 13-2, LO 13-3, and LO 13-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

Chapter Fourteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following does the public think is MOST important for a good president? A) Political savvy and know-how B) Forcefulness C) High ethical standards D) Sound judgment in crises E) Consistency Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure14-1) Skill: Understanding 2. The delegates at the Philadelphia Convention debated ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) How many people should make up the presidency B) How to ensure the accountability of the president C) What specific powers the president should have D) Whether the president should have veto power E) Checks and balances on the presidency Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 498–499 Skill: Understanding 3. Which formal powers does the president NOT share with Congress? A) Approving new legislation B) Receiving foreign ambassadors C) Making treaties D) Appointing judges E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 500 (Table 14-1) Skill: Understanding

4. How were the specific powers of the presidency defined? A) Through practice over time B) In the Constitution C) Through judicial interpretation D) Through public referenda E) By Congress Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, p. 501 Skill: Understanding 5. Abraham Lincoln expanded presidential power by doing ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Launching the first national income tax B) Restricting civil liberties in times of war C) Creating a national army that exceeded the constitutionally approved size D) Setting a precedent for the aggressive use of presidential veto powers E) Helping found the state of West Virginia Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Understanding 6. The information withheld by presidents by invoking executive privilege typically has to do with A) military information. B) discussions in the White House. C) the private discussions of the president. D) discussions with interest groups. E) discussions with foreign dignitaries. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 504 Skill: Understanding 7. If the president spearheaded legislation for the reduction of greenhouse emissions and Congress ultimately approved it, this would illustrate the ________ of the president’s leadership. A) success B) effectiveness C) outcome D) importance E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Application

8. What is the most common measure political scientists use to study presidential leadership success? A) Campaign promises B) State of the Union addresses C) Congressional roll-call votes D) Public approval E) Foreign approval Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 9. Which of the following is NOT true about the public’s expectations of the president? They A) have increased owing to the broadening interpretation of the president’s authority. B) have increased owing to the delegation of authority by Congress. C) have lead to lower approval ratings for presidents. D) can be a burden to the president. E) provide opportunity for leadership. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 509 Skill: Understanding 10. The line-item veto A) can currently be used by presidents. B) can currently be used on certain issues by the president. C) has never been granted to the president, although many have sought it. D) was granted to Bill Clinton in 1996 but has since been declared unconstitutional. E) There has never been such a thing as a line-item veto. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-2, p. 511 Skill: Understanding 11. Which of the following is an example of an executive agreement? A) The president authorizes the deployment of U.S. troops abroad without asking Congress. B) The president makes an agreement with Congress concerning a particular piece of legislation. C) The president makes a trade agreement with the European Union. D) The president vetoes a piece of legislation sent to him by Congress. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 14-2, p. 512 Skill: Application

12. Which of the following can be considered a so-called window of opportunity that provides contextual resources for presidential leadership? A) The Great Depression B) The 1992 riots in Los Angeles C) The September 11 attacks D) The 2008 financial crisis E) All of the above are such windows. Answer: E Reference: LO 14-3, p. 517 Skill: Application 13. What are so-called rally events that tend to influence presidential approval ratings? A) Short-term international events or military actions B) Political-campaign rallies C) Political-party events D) Short-term economic boosts E) National holidays Answer: A Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 518–519 Skill: Understanding 14. In a parliamentary system, the prime minister A) is elected separately from parliament. B) is elected directly by the people. C) has few political powers. D) depends on his peers in parliament for survival. E) can serve even if his party is the minority in parliament. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-3, p. 523 Skill: Understanding 15. If one were to draw concentric rings around the president with regard to his institutional resources, the one closest to the president would be the A) Cabinet. B) Executive Office of the President. C) White House staff. D) vice-president. E) president’s spouse. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-4, p. 527 (Figure 14-6) Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. Less than 50 percent of Americans consider it important to have a president who is willing to compromise. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure 14-1) Skill: Understanding 2. The original intention behind the establishment of the electoral college could be seen as an expression of a distrust of the voting public. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 499 Skill: Analysis 3. If the president spearheaded legislation for the reform of national standardized tests, Congress ultimately approved it, and the legislation contributed to high test scores for students, this would illustrate the effect and outcome of the president’s leadership. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Application 4. As chief legislator, the president himself cannot introduce a bill in Congress. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-2, p. 510 Skill: Understanding 5. Compared to other countries with presidential systems, the American president has moreextensive powers than most. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-2, p. 514 Skill: Understanding 6. Impeachment is a form of checks and balances. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-2, p. 516 Skill: Understanding 7. The Monica Lewinsky scandal led to a decrease in Bill Clinton’s approval ratings. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-3, p. 519 Skill: Understanding

8. President Obama can be said to have received a clear mandate from the American people. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 520–521 Skill: Understanding 9. Barrack Obama was the first president to attempt comprehensive health-care reform in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-3, p. 523 Skill: Understanding 10. Presidents’ use of so-called czars adds to the U.S. government’s system of checks and balances. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-4, p. 528 Skill: Analysis Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. According to the textbook, Americans project their ________ on the president. A) fears B) hopes C) problems D) anxiety E) biases Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 497 Skill: Understanding 2. What are voters primarily concerned with in their expectations of a president? A) Political experience B) Appearance C) Character traits D) Qualifications E) Socioeconomic background Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure 14-1) Skill: Analysis

3. Which of the following does the public think is LEAST essential for a good president? A) Political savvy and know-how B) Experience in Washington C) Forcefulness D) Compassion E) Consistency Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure 14-1) Skill: Understanding 4. Primarily, presidential authority comes from A) judicial review. B) precedents set over time. C) the president’s personality. D) the Constitution. E) Congress. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 Skill: Understanding 5. What did the delegates at the Philadelphia Convention agree on when they first met in 1787? A) The need for a strong executive B) The need for a single individual to be president C) The role of the executive in government D) What powers the president should and shouldn’t have E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 Skill: Understanding 6. The electoral college was originally created for the sake of A) making the process more efficient. B) making the election more legitimate. C) insulating the president from public pressure. D) giving the president more power. E) making the president more dependent on Congress. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 499 Skill: Understanding

7. In almost all cases, members of the electoral college A) use their best judgments. B) voluntarily vote for the candidate who won the popular vote in their state. C) vote for the candidate who won the popular vote nationwide. D) are required by state law to vote for the candidate who won the popular vote in their state. E) vote for the candidate who won the popular vote because that has become tradition. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, p. 499 Skill: Understanding 8. If no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral votes, what would happen? A) There would be a new election. B) The Senate chooses the president. C) The House of Representatives chooses the president. D) The Supreme Court chooses the president. E) There is a coin toss. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 499 Skill: Understanding 9. Which of the following is NOT a formal power granted to the president independently of Congress? The power to A) commission officers in the military. B) appoint ambassadors. C) grant pardons to those convicted of crimes. D) grant preemptive pardons. E) receive foreign ambassadors. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 500 (Table 14-1) Skill: Understanding 10. The Necessary and Expedient Clause validates the president as A) commander-in-chief. B) chief executive. C) significant legislator. D) symbolic leader. E) head of state. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 501 Skill: Understanding

11. When President Ronald Reagan fired air-traffic controllers in 1981 for walking off the job, he was exercising power granted to him by the A) Take Care Clause. B) National Security Clause. C) Necessary and Expedient Clause. D) Commander-in-Chief Clause. E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, p. 501 Skill: Understanding 12. The Take Care Clause in the Constitution gives the president powers concerning which stage of legislation? A) Initiation of laws B) Rewriting of laws C) Evaluation of laws D) Approval of laws E) Implementation of laws Answer: E Reference: LO 14-1, p. 501 Skill: Understanding 13. Over time, the presidency became A) exactly what the framers had intended. B) less powerful than the framers had intended. C) more powerful than the framers had intended. D) a completely different institution than the framers had intended. E) There was no consistent development. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Understanding 14. George Washington’s presidency was instrumental in that he A) expanded the war powers of the president. B) established the symbolic significance of the presidential office. C) expanded the legislative powers of the president. D) emphasized the interdependence of the president and Congress. E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Understanding

15. When did the Constitution require presidents to step down after two terms? A) From the beginning B) After 1812 C) After the Civil War D) In the early-twentieth century E) Not until 1951 Answer: E Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Understanding 16. Who established the use of vetoes as a key tool of presidential power? A) George Washington B) Thomas Jefferson C) Andrew Jackson D) Abraham Lincoln E) George W. Bush Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Understanding 17. President Franklin D. Roosevelt did ALL BUT WHICH of the following when he was president? A) Initiated a large number of federal programs to deal with the Great Depression B) Pushed for term limits for the president C) Declared that the presidency should be the leading political institution in the country D) Declared that he would experiment to reshape the presidency E) Created a set of new institutions in the executive office Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 503 Skill: Understanding 18. What happened to the laws that President Franklin D. Roosevelt pushed through Congress in the context of the Great Depression and World War II? A) They still exist today, contributing to the strength of the presidency. B) They were all overturned shortly thereafter. C) Some of them were declared unconstitutional later. D) They expired, since they were always intended to be temporary. E) Most of them expired, but some continue to exist. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 503 Skill: Understanding

19. When did the U.S. president come to be considered the most powerful person in the world? A) After World War I B) After World War II C) After the Korean War D) After the Vietnam War E) After the Cold War Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 504 Skill: Understanding 20. The notion of executive privilege refers to the A) right of the president to withhold information from Congress. B) ability of the president to make independent decisions in times of crisis. C) necessity of the president making unpopular decisions. D) president’s immunity from legal prosecution. E) president’s entitlement to free room and board at the White House. Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, p. 504 Skill: Understanding 21. The unitary-executive view of the presidency is based on the argument that the president A) is the most powerful individual in the country. B) is in direct hierarchical control of all executive power. C) can act independently from Congress. D) is exempt from judicial review. E) acts alone. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, p. 504 Skill: Understanding 22. ALL BUT WHICH of the following limited the abilities of postwar presidents to exercise their powers? A) The Cold War context B) Budgetary limits C) Established programs and institutions D) Organized interest groups E) Preexisting policy commitments Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, p. 505 Skill: Understanding

23. If the president spearheaded legislation for the reduction of greenhouse emissions, Congress ultimately approved it, and the legislation contributed to lowering emissions, this would illustrate the ________ of the president’s leadership. A) importance B) effectiveness C) outcome D) A and B E) B and C Answer: E Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Application 24. If the president proposed legislation that was intended to lower America’s dependency on oil, which of the following aspects of the legislation would political scientists be most likely to focus on? A) If and how it was passed by Congress B) Whether or not it actually lowered oil dependency C) What ulterior motives the president may have D) How realistic the president’s proposal is E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 25. Why is measuring the effect of a president’s leadership so difficult? A) There may be a time lag between cause and effect. B) Establishing categories for measuring positive or negative effects can be difficult. C) There may be ideological bias in the evaluation. D) Correlation is not causation. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 26. The main focus of outcome-oriented studies of presidential leadership is on A) efficiency. B) persuasion. C) effectiveness. D) public approval. E) cost benefits. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Analysis

27. Presidential victories on roll-call votes tend to correlate with the A) effectiveness of his policies. B) public approval of his policies. C) congressional approval of his policies. D) political makeup of Congress. E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 28. Based on roll-call votes in Congress, President George W. Bush has been a(n) _______ leader. A) unprecedentedly successful B) very successful C) moderately successful D) unsuccessful E) unprecedentedly unsuccessful Answer: B Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 29. What potentially explains President George W. Bush’s high success rate in terms of congressional roll-call votes? A) Congress was largely controlled by the Republican Party. B) George W. Bush was perceived by Congress as a highly capable leader. C) No sensitive issues were voted on. D) The war on terror produced a government that was more unified than usual. E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Analysis 30. Who has the initiative in the federal-budget process? A) Congress has always had it. B) The president has always had it. C) Congress passed it to the president. D) The Senate E) The House of Representatives Answer: C Reference: LO 14-1, p. 509 Skill: Understanding

31. One of the most important formal powers of the president is his A) appointment power. B) legislative power. C) treaty-making power. D) veto power. E) judicial power. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-2, p. 510 Skill: Understanding 32. ALL BUT WHICH of the following can the president appeal to in order to get a bill passed in Congress? A) Courts B) Members of Congress C) The media D) Interest groups E) The public Answer: A Reference: LO 14-2, p. 510 Skill: Understanding 33. When the president does not act on a bill send for approval by Congress, knowing that Congress will adjourn and the bill will be rejected, this is called the A) line-item veto. B) pocket veto. C) presidential veto. D) delay veto. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 14-2, p. 510 Skill: Understanding 34. Today, executive agreements A) can be kept secret by the president. B) have to be revealed to Congress beforehand. C) have to be revealed to Congress immediately after they are made. D) have to be revealed to Congress within 60 days. E) have to be revealed to Congress within 20 days. Answer: E Reference: LO 14-2, p. 512 Skill: Understanding

35. Which of the following is NOT an example of an executive order? An order that A) requires federal use of alternate-fuel vehicles. B) ensures affirmative-action practices at government agencies. C) cuts federal positions. D) protects domestic producers from foreign competition through tariffs. E) All of the above are examples. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-2, p. 512 Skill: Understanding 36. According to the data presented in the textbook, executive agreements have A) steadily increased over time. B) been used less frequently than treaties. C) been used slightly more frequently than treaties. D) steadily decreased over time. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 14-2, p. 513 (Figure 14-3) Skill: Analysis 37. Compared to other countries with presidential systems, the American president’s powers are A) much more extensive. B) somewhat more extensive. C) somewhere in the middle. D) somewhat less extensive. E) much less extensive. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-2, p. 514 Skill: Understanding 38. One of the most important informal powers the president has is the power to A) listen. B) persuade. C) intimidate. D) threaten. E) enforce. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-2, p. 514 Skill: Understanding

39. Looking at the information presented in Figure 14-4, what would you expect to NOT be a potential cause of the particular rally effects illustrated by George W. Bush’s approval ratings? A) The level of the external threat B) The nationalism in response to foreign crises C) The patriotism in response to foreign crises D) The state of the domestic economy E) The perceived need for unity Answer: D Reference: LO 14-3, p. 519 (Figure 14-4) Skill: Analysis 40. A unified government is one in which A) members of the House of Representatives agree with members of the Senate on an issue. B) there is unanimity in both houses of Congress. C) the president’s party has the majority in at least one house of Congress. D) the president’s party has the majority in both houses of Congress. E) the president’s party has an absolute majority in both houses of Congress. Answer: E Reference: LO 14-3, p. 521 Skill: Understanding 41. In a divided government, we can expect the president to A) become much more extreme in his positions and tend to use his veto power. B) become somewhat more extreme in his positions. C) move closer to the middle in his positions. D) not be affected in his positions very much. E) It depends exclusively on the president. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 521–522 Skill: Understanding 42. Which of the following is NOT true about the data presented in Figure 14-5? A) The president has increasingly been able to rely on his own party’s support. B) The president used to be able to rely more on the opposition’s support. C) Politics has become more polarized in Congress. D) During times of crisis, the president has been able to rely more on support from both parties. E) It is rare for a president to get support from more than 50 percent of the opposition party. Answer: A Reference: LO 14-3, p. 522 (Figure 14-5) Skill: Analysis

43. Which of the following does the president arguably have the most influence over? A) Economic policy B) Foreign policy C) Energy policy D) Social policy E) Educational policy Answer: B Reference: LO 14-3, p. 525 Skill: Understanding 44. Nearly all governmental programs are implemented A) in the Cabinet. B) by the Executive Office of the President. C) by the White House staff. D) by the vice-president. E) in Congress. Answer: C Reference: LO 14-4, p. 526 Skill: Understanding 45. The only head of a department who is not called a “secretary” is the leader of the A) State Department. B) Department of Defense. C) Department of Labor. D) Department of Justice. E) Department of Commerce. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-4, p. 526 Skill: Understanding 46. Department secretaries typically A) carry out the will of the president. B) try to communicate their personal views to the president. C) try to communicate their institutional views to the president. D) are fairly autonomous from the president. E) There is no conclusive evidence one way or another. Answer: E Reference: LO 14-4, pgs. 526–528 Skill: Analysis

47. The National Security Council is located in the A) Cabinet. B) Executive Office of the President. C) White House staff. D) vice-president’s office. E) president’s office. Answer: B Reference: LO 14-4, p. 527 (Figure 14-6) Skill: Understanding 48. The main reason why European leaders typically have fewer problems directing their department heads is that A) Europeans are more willing to compromise. B) Europeans are more qualified and professional. C) European leaders choose department heads from their own party. D) European leaders choose their department heads based on personal working relationships. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 14-4, p. 528 Skill: Analysis 49. Which of the following is likely the most important office in the Executive Office of the President? A) The Homeland Security Council B) The Office of Management and Budget C) The Council of Economic Advisers D) The Office of Administration E) The Office of the First Lady Answer: B Reference: LO 14-4, p. 529 Skill: Understanding 50. Most vice-presidents are selected on the basis of their A) political experience. B) personality. C) policy expertise. D) electoral advantages. E) loyalty. Answer: D Reference: LO 14-4, p. 529 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. American voters are very concerned with a president’s previous experience, either in Washington or at the state level. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure 14-1) Skill: Understanding 2. The Virginia Plan called for an executive council instead of a single president. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 Skill: Understanding 3. The council of revisions envisioned in the Virginia Plan was intended to pass laws Congress failed to pass. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 Skill: Understanding 4. Members of the electoral college originally were allowed to use their own best judgment when voting for the president, regardless of the public vote. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 499 Skill: Understanding 5. The specific powers of the presidency were largely defined in the Constitution. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, p. 501 Skill: Understanding 6. It was frequently during times of crisis that the presidency was significantly reshaped. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 501–505 Skill: Analysis 7. One of President Theodore Roosevelt’s strengths was his willingness and ability to communicate with the American public. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 503 Skill: Analysis

8. The first judicial test of executive privilege came during the Korean War. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, p. 504 Skill: Understanding 9. Congress might occasionally give up powers to the president in order to be able to blame him later for not doing a good job. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, p. 505 Skill: Understanding 10. If the president spearheaded legislation for the reform of education policy and Congress ultimately approved it, this would illustrate the effectiveness of the president’s leadership. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Application 11. President George W. Bush’s approval ratings were low for most of his presidency. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 12. Presidential leadership is often difficult to measure owing to a time lag between cause and effect. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Understanding 13. The president’s position as commander-in-chief is clearly spelled out in the Constitution. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-2, pgs. 511–512 Skill: Understanding 14. Executive orders apply to the entire executive branch but cannot affect private organizations. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-2, pgs. 512–513 Skill: Understanding

15. Impeachment refers to the ousting of the president by Congress. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-2, p. 516 Skill: Understanding 16. President Bill Clinton was impeached for his affair with Monica Lewinsky. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-2, p. 516 Skill: Understanding 17. Scandals always depress presidential approval ratings. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-3, p. 519 Skill: Understanding 18. President George W. Bush spent much of his first term governing as if he had received a sizeable mandate from the American people. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 520–521 Skill: Understanding 19. In a presidential system, the head of government is much more independent from the legislature than in a parliamentary system. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-3, p. 523 Skill: Understanding 20. President Obama’s health-care reform has been the first successful health-care reform effort in more than 40 years. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-3, p. 523 Skill: Understanding 21. The concept of two presidencies refers to the fact that the president tends to lead differently in a second term than in a first. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-3, p. 525 Skill: Understanding 22. The head of the Justice Department is called the secretary of justice. Answer: False Reference: LO 14-4, p. 526 Skill: Understanding 385 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

23. It is very unusual for the same department head to serve in a president’s Cabinet for two consecutive terms. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-4, p. 527 Skill: Understanding 24. Recently, presidents have begun appointing so-called czars in order to circumvent the difficulties of having to work with Cabinet secretaries. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-4, p. 528 Skill: Understanding 25. The White House staff serves as a filter for the president. Answer: True Reference: LO 14-4, p. 529 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. Please summarize at least four of the qualities the public considers essential in a president. Why do you believe these qualities are so important to people? What are the top four qualities you are looking for in a president? Why? Reference: LO 14-1, p. 498 (Figure 14-1) Skill: Evaluation 2. Explain in what ways the following presidents contributed to the expansion of presidential power: Abraham Lincoln, Theodore Roosevelt, and Franklin D. Roosevelt. Be specific, and provide examples, if appropriate. Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 501–504 Skill: Understanding 3. How does the public typically evaluate presidential leadership as opposed to political scientists? What explains the discrepancy? How would you define presidential leadership? Why? Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Evaluation 4. Based on the way political scientists primarily measure successful leadership, how would you assess George W. Bush’s record? Is this a complete measure? How well does it show true leadership, in your opinion? Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Analysis

5. Figure 14-2 illustrates the success of President George W. Bush when measured in terms of Congressional roll-call votes. Initially, this success occurred despite an oppositioncontrolled Senate. How would you explain this? Reference: LO 14-1, p. 508 (Figure 14-2) Skill: Analysis 6. Please explain the nature of the so-called pocket veto. Do you agree with this concept? Why or why not? Reference: LO 14-2, p. 510 Skill: Evaluation 7. What are the responsibilities specifically delegated to the president in the Constitution? What are at least two other responsibilities presidents have acquired over time, and how have they done so? Reference: LO 14-2, pgs. 510–514 Skill: Understanding 8. Take a look at Figure 14-3 in the textbook. After briefly outlining the general trends depicted in it, try to explain what might account for those trends. Try to think specifically of the domestic and international context during the key times you identified. Reference: LO 14-2, p. 513 (Figure 14-3) Skill: Analysis 9. How do the American presidents’ formal powers compare to foreign presidents’? Reference: LO 14-2, p. 514 Skill: Understanding 10. Outline the importance of three different rally events for President George W. Bush’s approval ratings. How did each event affect the ratings? Why? What are possible rally events in President Obama’s tenure in the White House? Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 518–519 Skill: Analysis 11. Under what circumstances do you feel the president can claim to have a mandate from the people? What criteria would you establish for such a mandate? Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 520–521 Skill: Evaluation 12. What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a unified as opposed to a divided government? Which is preferable if your goal is effectiveness? What if your goal is representativeness? Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 521–522 Skill: Analysis 387 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13. Please outline the major differences in terms of the relationship between the head of government and the legislature in a presidential as opposed to a parliamentary system. What are the political consequences of this? Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 522–523 Skill: Analysis 14. What largely explains the very high turnover of Cabinet officials during a president’s second term in office? What explains the extremely high turnover during George W. Bush’s second term in particular? Reference: LO 14-4, p. 527 Skill: Application 15. How does a head of government’s relationship with the parliament differ in a parliamentary system compared to a presidential system? Which do you consider better? Why? Reference: LO 14-4, p. 528 Skill: Evaluation Essay Questions 1. How well do you think presidential leadership explains public-approval ratings? In other words, how much does the public care about true leadership, and how much is explained by other factors (and what are they)? Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 497–498 Skill: Analysis 2. Based on what you know, how would you compare the presidential powers of George Washington and George W. Bush? What are some of the most significant changes, and how have they occurred over time? Do you agree with this development? Why or why not? Reference: LO 14-1, p. 502 Skill: Analysis 3. Given the difficulties in evaluating the effect of a president’s leadership, what alternative measures would you recommend? In other words, how would you determine whether or not a president’s leadership has had an effect (positive or negative)? Be specific, and provide examples. Once you are done, compare your approach with what you believe the average American’s approach to assessing effectiveness is. Reference: LO 14-1, pgs. 506–508 Skill: Application

4. Imagine that you are the president of the United States. Think of a new law that you would like to see enacted. Then describe—in its entirety—the process through which your proposed bill would actually become law. In addition to the institutional steps, be sure to include any possible obstacles as well as ways in which you might be able to avoid them. Reference: LO 14-1, p. 509 Skill: Application 5. In connection with the president’s role as commander-in-chief, the issue of military experience is often brought up during presidential elections. In your opinion, should the president be required to have some military experience? In your answer, consider both the practical reality of the president’s role but also the theoretical intentions of the framers. Reference: LO 14-2, pgs. 511–512 Skill: Evaluation 6. What are three ways in which the president can use his power to persuade in order to reach his goals? How important is this power compared with the formal powers of the president? What individual characteristics of the president may contribute to his success in using these strategies? Reference: LO 14-2, pgs. 514–515 Skill: Analysis 7. Would you agree or disagree that George W. Bush received a mandate from the American people in 2000 and 2004? On what basis would you make this judgment? Reference: LO 14-3, pgs. 520–521 Skill: Evaluation 8. The president’s staff, the executive office, and the Cabinet are intended to help the president. In reality, the sheer number of officials who work for the president could pose a problem. Or as President Truman once said, “I cannot even see all of these men, let alone actually study what they are doing.” Based on what you have learned from the textbook, how would you assess the president’s institutional resources for leadership? In what ways are they beneficial, and in what ways might they be a liability? Reference: LO 14-4, pgs. 526–530 Skill: Analysis 9. President Woodrow Wilson once said, “[The president] is the only voice in national affairs. Let him once win the admiration and confidence of the people, and no other single voice will easily overpower him.” Discuss this quotation in the context of what you have learned about the presidency from the textbook. Try to find examples that validate or undercut this assumption. Reference: LO 14-1, LO 14-2, and LO 14-3, entire chapter Skill: Application 389 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

10. The Founding Fathers were clearly concerned about the executive becoming too powerful vis-à-vis the other branches of government. In fact, presidential powers have been expanded significantly since the Philadelphia Convention. In your opinion, what have been two positive consequences of such an expansion, and what have been two negative consequences? Overall, how do you feel about the reversal of the original intent of the Framers? Reference: LO 14-1, LO 14-2, and LO 14-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Fifteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is specifically addressed in the Constitution? A) The establishment of a Supreme Court B) The establishment of inferior courts C) The recognition of a judicial power in the United States D) Some guidelines about the prosecution of cases involving criminal behavior and treason E) Some guidelines about the prosecution of cases involving civil disputes Answer: E Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Understanding 2. How would you assess the development of the United States’ judicial system against the intentions of the Founding Fathers? A) It more or less corresponds to the original intentions. B) It has nothing in common with the original intentions. C) It has fallen short of the original intentions in terms of size and influence. D) It has far surpassed the original intentions in terms of size and influence. E) There were no original intentions; the court system developed on its own. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Analysis 3. How long are the terms that magistrate judges serve? A) Two years B) Four years C) Eight years D) Either two or four years E) Either four or eight years Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding

4. How many U.S. courts of appeal for the federal circuit are there? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: A Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 (Figure 15-1) Skill: Understanding 5. Which of the following countries has a constitutional court in addition to a Supreme Court? A) Germany B) Israel C) France D) Portugal E) Spain Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 Skill: Understanding 6. Who decides the severity of the punishment in a civil-court case? A) The plaintiff B) The jury C) The law D) The judge E) It varies from case to case. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Understanding 7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are examples of criminal-court cases? A) Joe is on trial for presumably killing someone. B) Heather is standing trial for robbing a grocery store. C) Jane is seeking a protective order against her ex-husband. D) Mark is standing trial for shoplifting. E) All of the above are criminal cases. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Application

8. In which of the following is it enough if the evidence points in a certain direction? A) Criminal cases B) Misdemeanor cases C) Felonies D) Civil cases E) Traffic accidents Answer: D Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Understanding 9. What is the rationale for the ripeness doctrine? A) Lower the caseload of courts B) Prevent the courts from having to decide hypothetical cases C) Prevent abuse of the law for personal gain D) None of the above E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Analysis 10. How many cases are typically settled out of court? A) Most cases, both civil and criminal, never make it to court. B) Most civil cases are settled out of court, but far fewer criminal cases are. C) Most criminal cases are settled out of court, but far fewer civil cases are. D) About half of all civil and criminal cases are settled out of court. E) Very few of all civil and criminal cases are settled out of court. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Understanding 11. When judges rely on decisions made in previous cases, this is called A) habeas corpus. B) status quo. C) stare decisis. D) amicus curiae. E) common law. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-4, p. 547 Skill: Understanding

12. What relationship did political scientists find between judges’ ideologies and the decisions they make? A) There is no noticeable relationship. Judges are mostly objective. B) There is a weak relationship. Judges are occasionally influenced by their ideologies but only on sensitive issues such as abortion. C) It depends. Federal judges are less likely to be influenced by their ideologies. D) It depends. Supreme Court justices are less likely to be influenced by their ideologies. E) There is a very strong relationship. Answer: E Reference: LO 15-4, p. 549 Skill: Understanding 13. Accusing the Supreme Court of making a partisan decision in Bush v. Gore best fits with the _________ model of judicial decision-making. A) legal B) attitudinal C) strategic D) political E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Application 14. The Constitution gives the president the power to appoint judges and justices A) as he chooses. B) with the approval of the Senate. C) with the advice and consent of the Senate. D) with the approval of the House of Representatives. E) with the advice and consent of the House of Representatives. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-5, p. 554 Skill: Understanding

15. Which of the following is NOT true about the nomination hearings for Supreme Court nominees? A) They are not open to the public, in order to minimize disturbances. B) Members of the Senate Judiciary Committee directly interrogate the nominee about his or her past decisions. C) Members of the Senate Judiciary Committee can ask the nominee about his or her opinions on sensitive issues such as abortion. D) Nominees occasionally refuse to answer questions. E) All of the above are true. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-5, p. 557 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. The Supreme Court’s 2009 decision to not put a limit on campaign funding from corporations, nonprofit organizations, and labor unions is likely to have the same effect on Democrats and Republicans. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 534 Skill: Understanding 2. An appellate court cannot refuse to take a district-level case that was appealed. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 538 Skill: Understanding 3. A dissenting opinion written by a Supreme Court justice is only important as an element of the final record of the court. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-2, p. 540 Skill: Understanding 4. Judicial review adds to the system of checks and balances in the United States government. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 545 Skill: Analysis 5. The establishment of judicial review transformed the judiciary so as to be on equal footing with the other two branches. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 546 Skill: Understanding 395 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6. Judges are more likely to let their personal ideologies show through in criminal cases than in civil cases. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 547–548 Skill: Understanding 7. The attitudinal model of judicial decision-making would likely explain the Supreme Court’s decision in Bush v. Gore, with the desire of the justices to protect the integrity of the presidential office. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 549–551 Skill: Application 8. The fact that judges tend to decide cases in line with their personal political views means that they are politically motivated. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-4, p. 552 Skill: Understanding 9. Senatorial courtesy applies both to district-court judges and appellate-court judges. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-5, p. 555 Skill: Understanding 10. Typically, no element of a Supreme Court nominee’s personal and professional past is off-limits once the nomination is made public. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 555–556 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which article of the Constitution lays out the powers, resources, and responsibilities of the judiciary? A) Article I B) Article II C) Article III D) Article IV E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Understanding 396 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were functions the Founding Fathers envisioned for the federal judiciary? A) Interpreting the laws that Congress and the president enacted B) Maintaining the balance of power between the three branches C) Issuing rulings over disputes where no previous guiding legislation existed D) Insuring that individuals who violate laws and rulings are punished appropriately E) Compensating the victims of violations Answer: B Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Understanding 3. Which of the following is NOT a possible example of a function the Founding Fathers envisioned for the federal judiciary? A) The Supreme Court deciding the specific duties of the EPA following from the Clean Air Act of 1963 B) Deciding on the punishment for a cybercrime for which no legislation exists yet C) Determining the appropriate sentence for someone who accidentally killed a person in a vehicular accident D) Determining how much money a wrongfully imprisoned person is entitled to from the government E) All of the above are possible examples. Answer: E Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Application 4. Which of the following did Alexander Hamilton consider the least-dangerous branch? A) The judiciary B) The executive C) The legislature D) He considered all of them dangerous. E) He considered none of them dangerous. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Understanding 5. According to the national public-opinion poll referred to in the textbook, which of the following do Americans hold in the highest regard? A) Congress as a whole B) The Senate C) The president D) The Supreme Court E) They are all relatively equal. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-1, p. 536 Skill: Understanding 397 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6. According to the national opinion-poll referred to in the textbook, which of the following do Americans have the least regard for? A) Congress as a whole B) The Senate C) The president D) The Supreme Court E) They are all relatively equal. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-1, p. 536 Skill: Understanding 7. A prospective employee wants to sue the company she interviewed with, claiming that the company’s hiring practices are unconstitutional. Is this typically the kind of case that would be accepted by a federal court? A) No, the federal judiciary only deals with cases that involve the government or state disputes. B) No, federal courts do not deal with employment issues. Any company can hire whomever it wants. C) It depends on whether or not she actually gets the job. D) Yes, but only because she’s a woman and can claim discrimination. E) Yes, because this is a question about the Constitution. Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, p. 536 Skill: Application 8. How many district courts are there in the federal judiciary? A) 24 B) 44 C) 64 D) 94 E) 104 Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, p. 536 Skill: Understanding 9. The number of district courts per state is determined by the A) size of the territory. B) size of the population. C) proximity to Washington, D.C. D) number of large businesses. E) level of crime. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-2, p. 536 Skill: Understanding

10. How are district-court judges selected? They are A) elected by voters. B) appointed by Congress. C) appointed by the president. D) appointed by the Senate. E) elected by their peers. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 536–537 Skill: Understanding 11. For how long do district-court judges serve once they are appointed? A) Four years B) Six years C) Ten years D) As long as the president who appointed them is in power E) For life Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 536–537 Skill: Understanding 12. Of the following, which accepts the lowest number of cases per year? A) District courts B) Appellate courts C) Regional circuit courts D) The Supreme Court E) Other federal courts Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding 13. Which of the following is NOT true about magistrate judges? A) They serve either four- or eight-year terms. B) They are appointed by life-term district judges. C) They hear and decide minor cases. D) They do not participate in major cases. E) They help reduce the caseloads of federal district-court judges. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding

14. Which of the following accepts cases based on subject matter rather than regional location? A) The first circuit only B) The District of Columbia circuit only C) The federal circuit only D) Both the federal and D.C. circuits E) All of them Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding 15. What cases do appellate courts primarily decide? Cases that A) involve the death penalty. B) involve foreign nationals. C) district courts could not agree on. D) have been decided at the district-court level but have been challenged. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding 16. Approximately how many cases does the Supreme Court decide every year? A) Between 1,500 and 2,000 B) Between 1,000 and 1,500 C) Between 500 and 1,000 D) Between 100 and 500 E) Fewer than 100 Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding 17. The Supreme Court’s decision in Gideon v. Wainwright dealt with A) the government’s power to use prior restraint. B) state-mandated segregation. C) legal representation for individuals charged with crimes. D) electoral rules. E) environmental protection. Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding

18. Which tier of federal courts do U.S. bankruptcy courts fall under? A) Federal courts B) Trial courts C) Appellate courts D) The Supreme Court E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 (Figure 15-1) Skill: Understanding 19. How many regional-circuit courts of appeal are there? A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11 E) 12 Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 (Figure 15-1) Skill: Understanding 20. Where do military courts fit into the hierarchy of federal courts? A) They are on the same level as district courts. B) They are comparable to appellate courts. C) They are like regional courts. D) They are similar to the Supreme Court. E) They are not part of the judicial branch at all. Answer: E Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 (Figure 15-1) Skill: Understanding 21. Which of the following is NOT typically a reason why most cases terminate at the district-court level? A) The high costs of litigation B) The amount of time it takes for appeals C) The relatively predictable outcome of appeals D) The very high chance that a higher court will refuse to hear the case E) All of the above are reasons. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 538–539 Skill: Understanding

22. In terms of geographic size, which federal circuit court covers the largest area? A) The ninth B) The seventh C) The fifth D) The third E) The first Answer: A Reference: LO 15-2, p. 539 (Figure 15-2) Skill: Analysis 23. The writ of certiorari A) refers to the verdict handed down by a court. B) guarantees the rights of the defendant. C) means the Supreme Court has agreed to hear a case. D) refers to a presidential pardon for a criminal. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, p. 539 Skill: Understanding 24. How has the number of cases that were appealed to the Supreme Court changed since 1945? It has A) increased sevenfold. B) tripled. C) doubled. D) stayed the same. E) actually decreased. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-2, p. 539 Skill: Understanding 25. When the Supreme Court is the first and last federal court to hear a case, this is referred to as the Supreme Court having ___________ jurisdiction. A) priority B) exclusive C) original D) superior E) primary Answer: C Reference: LO 15-2, p. 540 Skill: Understanding

26. Which of the following is NOT an example of a case in which the U.S. Supreme Court has original jurisdiction? A) A water-right dispute between Colorado and New Mexico B) A legal dispute between Kansas and the federal government C) A dispute over the state boundary between California and Nevada D) A legal argument between the Seminole Indian reservation in Florida and the federal government E) All of the above are examples. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 540–541 Skill: Application 27. The chief justice of the Supreme Court does all but which of the following? He or she A) is the presiding member of the court. B) casts the tiebreaker vote. C) chairs conferences at the court. D) selects justices to write the majority opinion. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-2, p. 541 Skill: Understanding 28. What is the definition of “briefs”? A) Legal arguments that both sides submit in a court case B) Opening statements of lawyers at the beginning of a trial C) Abbreviated versions of court decisions, summarized for easier reading D) Informal meetings between lawyers and the judge prior to a trial E) Recess at court that allows lawyers to gather more information Answer: A Reference: LO 15-2, p. 541 Skill: Understanding 29. The United States uses the ________, whereas France and Germany use the ______. The former is derived from __________, whereas the latter is derived from ________. A) adversarial, inquisitorial, Roman law, English common law B) adversarial, inquisitorial, English common law, Roman law C) inquisitorial, adversarial, Roman law, English common law D) inquisitorial, adversarial, English common law, Roman law E) adversarial, adversarial, English common law, Roman law Answer: B Reference: LO 15-3, p. 542 Skill: Understanding

30. Who decides the severity of the punishment in a criminal-court case? A) The government (i.e., the plaintiff) B) The jury C) The law D) The judge E) It varies from case to case. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Understanding 31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are examples of civil-court cases? A) A customer sues a store after breaking his leg after slipping in an icy parking lot in front of the store. B) During a divorce, a husband takes his wife to court for 50 percent of her income. C) A customer sues a contractor for never finishing the roof of his house. D) A person sues his neighbor for damaging his property by cutting down a tree that was bothering him. E) All of the above are civil cases. Answer: E Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Application 32. In a so-called class-action suit A) an individual sues on behalf of a larger group of people. B) an individual sues a larger group of people. C) a manufacturer sues another manufacturer. D) a group of people who suffered a common injury sues together. E) the government sues on behalf of minority groups. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Understanding 33. Which of the following is an example of a class-action suit? A) Citizens of a town whose water supply was polluted sue the responsible company. B) A group of smokers sues a tobacco company for making cigarettes addictive. C) A group of obese citizens sues a fast-food chain for not stating the fat content in its meals. D) A group of consumers sues the manufacturer of a faulty product that led to personal injuries among all of them. E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 15-3, p. 543 Skill: Application

34. Mr. A. has read in the newspaper that his local grocery chain sold products that contained illegal amounts of potentially harmful chemicals. As a result, several people got sick, though not Mr. A. himself. Is Mr. A. allowed to sue the grocery chain? A) Yes, even though he was not physically affected, he could have been, and that’s good enough to sue for emotional distress. B) Yes, Mr. A. can sue as a concerned citizen who merely wants to set things right (but he cannot sue for personal gain). C) Maybe, but it depends on the severity of the illnesses of those affected. D) No, the ripeness doctrine makes it impossible for him to sue in this case. E) No, unless he actually knows one of the people who got sick personally. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Application 35. Do a plaintiff and defendant in a civil case who decide to settle their disagreement out of court have to disclose the nature of their settlement? A) No, they are not required to disclose the terms. B) No, they are not required to unless the judge orders it. C) Yes, the terms of their settlement are a matter of public record. D) Yes, but only if there is a monetary settlement involved. E) It depends on the nature of the case. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Understanding 36. Which of the following has NOT been a direct consequence of the large increase in federal court cases over the years? A) Prisons have become overcrowded. B) Judges have to read 1,500 to 2,000 new opinions per year to stay up-to-date. C) Judges occasionally lose track even of their own written legal opinions. D) The budget of the judiciary has skyrocketed. E) The amount of money spent on legal services has increased dramatically. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-3, p. 545 Skill: Understanding

37. When no legislation exists and judges develop rules that become binding in the future, this is called A) public law. B) common law. C) Roman law. D) criminal law. E) anarchy. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-4, p. 546 Skill: Understanding 38. The attitudinal model of judicial decision-making claims that A) judges’ decisions depend largely on their moods. B) judges’ decisions are fairly arbitrary. C) judges often try to advance their own policy preferences. D) judges are merely extensions of the political party that nominated them. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 15-4, p. 548 Skill: Understanding 39. “The most basic charge against activist judges has always been that they substitute their own views for those of the elected branches.” This statement was uttered by someone who represents the _________ view of judicial decision-making. A) strategic B) biased C) attitudinal D) legal E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 15-4, p. 549 Skill: Application 40. Are judges sensitive to public opinion in their decision-making? Evidence suggests that judges are A) sensitive to public opinion on an issue. B) occasionally sensitive to public opinion but only on controversial issues such as religion. C) frequently sensitive to public opinion but only in criminal cases. D) never sensitive to public opinion. E) It depends on the type of court. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-4, p. 549 Skill: Understanding

41. The 2000 presidential election was ultimately decided by A) Katherine Harris, the secretary of state of Florida. B) the American voter. C) the Florida Supreme Court. D) the United States Supreme Court. E) Congress. Answer: A Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Understanding 42. In Bush v. Gore, the majority of justices agreed that A) the way the votes were recounted violated the Equal Protection Clause. B) recounting votes in a presidential election was against the law. C) the deadlines for recounting the votes had not been met and the original results were therefore upheld. D) the recount was compromised by the political ideologies of those doing the counting. E) A and C Answer: A Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Understanding 43. The assumption that the Supreme Court’s decision in Bush v. Gore mainly resulted from the justices’ desire to protect the integrity of the presidential office is in line with the ________ model of judicial decision-making. A) legal B) attitudinal C) strategic D) political E) activist Answer: C Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Understanding 44. What is the role of the solicitor general? He or she represents the interests of the A) legislative branch at the Supreme Court. B) executive branch at the Supreme Court. C) public at the Supreme Court. D) Supreme Court in Congress. E) Supreme Court to the executive. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-4, p. 552 Skill: Understanding

45. The practice of amicus curiae allows A) parties involved in the court case to write briefs in support of their case. B) parties involved in the court case to solicit support from others. C) groups with standing to write briefs in support of one side or another. D) groups with no standing to write briefs to express their support or opposition. E) anyone to write letters to protest a judge’s decision. Answer: D Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 552–553 Skill: Understanding 46. In which of the following categories do federal judges differ widely from the rest of the population? A) Political ideology B) Race C) Socioeconomic background D) Values E) A and B Answer: C Reference: LO 15-5, p. 554 Skill: Understanding 47. When making judicial appointments, presidents mainly consider ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The individual’s competence B) The person’s legal expertise C) The individual’s record of accomplishments D) Political strategy E) The individual’s religion Answer: E Reference: LO 15-5, p. 555 Skill: Understanding 48. Which of the following can we conclude from the data presented in Figure 15-3? A) It is always easier for district-judge nominees to be confirmed by Congress. B) Fewer total appellate-judge nominees were confirmed by the 108th Congress than by the 104th Congress. C) More total district-court nominees were confirmed by the 97th Congress than by the 108th Congress. D) The confirmation of nominees is a highly political process. E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 15-5, p. 555 (Figure 15-3) Skill: Analysis

49. When the president grants a recess appointment, he A) can appoint a lifetime judge without having to ask the approval of Congress when Congress is not in session. B) can appoint a judge while Congress is in recess but has to seek approval once Congress is back in session. C) can appoint a judge anytime without having to ask for approval by Congress. D) has to get approval for his appointment from only one of the two chambers. E) calls for an emergency meeting to get approval. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-5, p. 556 Skill: Understanding 50. What is the next step after a president comes up with a potential Supreme Court nominee? A) The nominee faces the public. B) The president asks the FBI to conduct a full background check. C) The president always contacts the American Bar Association. D) Congress votes on the nominee. E) The nominee interviews for the position. Answer: B Reference: LO 15-5, p. 557 Skill: Understanding 51. Approximately what percentage of Supreme Court nominees have been confirmed by the Senate? A) Almost 80 percent B) Almost 60 percent C) Roughly 50 percent D) About 40 percent E) About 30 percent Answer: A Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 557–558 Skill: Analysis True-False Questions 1. The Supreme Court’s 2009 decision not to put a limit on campaign funding from corporations, nonprofit organizations, and labor unions reflects the recent changes in the ideological makeup of the court. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 534 Skill: Analysis

2. From the beginning, judicial proceedings in the United States were intended to enhance people’s respect for and the legitimacy of the American system. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Understanding 3. American courts tend to work quietly in the background. They do not really find themselves the center of public attention very often. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Analysis 4. A large civil suit between a person from Idaho and a person from Texas can be heard only at a district court. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 536–537 Skill: Understanding 5. All appellate courts accept cases based on regional location. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-2, p. 537 Skill: Understanding 6. U.S. tax courts operate outside of the judicial branch. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-2, p. 538 (Figure 15-1) Skill: Understanding 7. The Supreme Court hears only about one percent of the petitions it receives. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-2, p. 539 Skill: Understanding 8. In addition to the majority opinion, all the judges who are members of the majority have to write concurring opinions. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-2, p. 541 Skill: Understanding

9. Supreme Court decisions are generally implemented at both the appellate- and the district-court levels. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-2, p. 541 Skill: Understanding 10. In criminal-court cases, the plaintiff is always the government. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-3, p. 542 Skill: Understanding 11. Ms. B. happens to witness the collapse of a recently built bridge. No one was hurt. In fact, no one else was present to see this. Ms. B. claims that it was clear that the construction company had made a terrible mistake. As the only eyewitness, she wants to sue the company for negligence. The law allows her to do so. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Application 12. The federal caseload has increased significantly since the sixties. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-3, p. 545 Skill: Understanding 13. Compared to citizens of countries like Germany and Britain, Americans are much more likely to bring a case to court. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-3, p. 545 Skill: Understanding 14. Judges in the United States deal with legal issues but cannot influence public policy. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-4, p. 545 Skill: Understanding 15. Cases involving personal injuries typically involve common law. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 545 Skill: Understanding

16. The concept of stare decisis could be said to be more of a conservative principle than a progressive one. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 546 Skill: Analysis 17. Even though most federal judges are members of the party of the president who appointed them, they are typically not very active in those parties. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 547–548 Skill: Understanding 18. The legal model of judicial decision-making would explain the Supreme Court’s decision in Bush v. Gore by referring to the violation of the Equal Protection Clause. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 549–551 Skill: Application 19. The solicitor general is appointed by the president. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 551 Skill: Understanding 20. The solicitor general’s job is to serve as a sort of liaison. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 551 Skill: Analysis 21. A case in which the solicitor general is the petitioning party is more than ten times more likely to be heard by the Supreme Court than any other case. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-4, p. 551 Skill: Understanding 22. When President Franklin D. Roosevelt ordered Japanese-Americans to be placed in internment camps, the Supreme Court intervened because his actions were unconstitutional. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-4, p. 552 Skill: Understanding

23. The case of judge Charles Pickering illustrates the influence of Congress in the confirmation process of federal judges. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-5, p. 555 Skill: Analysis 24. The case of judge Charles Pickering illustrates the weakness of the system of checks and balances in the United States. Answer: False Reference: LO 15-5, p. 555 Skill: Analysis 25. Most Supreme Court nominees are confirmed by the Senate, though fewer than in the case of federal judges. Answer: True Reference: LO 15-5, p. 556 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. Alexander Hamilton considered the judiciary the “least dangerous” branch. Why do you suppose he believed this? Be specific in your analysis. In addition, do you think Hamilton would still hold the same belief today? Why or why not? Again, be specific, and provide examples to illustrate your points. Reference: LO 15-1, p. 535 Skill: Analysis 2. What do you believe are three reasons why a public-opinion poll found that Americans have a much more favorable view of the Supreme Court than any other branch of government? Reference: LO 15-1, p. 536 Skill: Analysis 3. What would you say are the pros and cons of district-court judges being appointed for life by the president? Address at least two pros and two cons. Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 536–537 Skill: Analysis 4. What is the typical sequence of events for a case that is being brought to the Supreme Court, starting with the time when a case is brought to the court’s attention and ending with the implementation of the decision? Reference: LO 15-2, pgs. 538–542 Skill: Understanding 413 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5. Compare and contrast the nature of criminal cases and civil cases, providing an example of each. What kind of evidence does it take in each case for a conviction? Reference: LO 15-3, pgs. 542–543 Skill: Understanding 6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing the two sides to reach a plea bargain in criminal-court cases? Name at least two pros and two cons. Reference: LO 15-3, p. 544 Skill: Analysis 7. Explain the differences between the three judicial decision-making models political scientists have identified. Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 547–548 Skill: Understanding 8. How would a judge who subscribes to the principle of judicial restraint look at the decision of Roe v. Wade as opposed to a judge who believes in judicial activism? Reference: LO 15-4, p. 548 Skill: Application 9. Explain the difference between judicial restraint and judicial activism. Which one do you agree with more? Why? Reference: LO 15-4, p. 548 Skill: Evaluation 10. Of the three judicial decision-making models explained in the textbook, which one do you think best serves the interests of the American people? Which one best serves the interests of the government? Why? Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 548–549 Skill: Analysis 11. Explain how the three different models of judicial decision-making would explain the Supreme Court’s decision in Bush v. Gore. Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Application 12. How do you feel about the idea of Supreme Court justices being elected by the people, like some other judicial positions in this country are? What speaks for and what speaks against this? Reference: LO 15-5, p. 554 Skill: Evaluation

13. Please explain—on the basis of a concrete example—in what ways confirmation hearings for district and federal judges are political? Do you agree or disagree with this? Why? Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 556–557 Skill: Understanding 14. In your own words, outline the process of confirmation for Supreme Court justices. If you could change one thing about this process, what would it be? Why? Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 556–557 Skill: Evaluation 15. Choose two Supreme Court nominees who were considered to be controversial and explain why you think their hearings were as difficult as they were. Do you believe the criticism of those nominees was justified or mostly political? Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 556–558 Skill: Evaluation Essay Questions 1. The authors of the textbook mention the importance of the symbolic imagery of the judiciary. Please write an essay on possible parallels in the presidency and in Congress. In other words, do you see a similar use of such symbolism and imagery in either the executive or legislative branches? If so, what are they, and what purpose do they serve? Are they equally necessary and successful as they are for the judiciary? If you do not see similar uses in the other branches, do you believe it might be a good idea to develop such uses? How would you do that? Reference: LO 15-1, pgs. 535–536 Skill: Application 2. According to the authors of the textbook, rather than “engaging in politics, judges do their utmost to rise above it.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Try to think of specific issues and/or specific decisions that will help you make your case. Reference: LO 15-1, p. 536 Skill: Evaluation 3. Please explain the so-called litigation explosion, using evidence from the textbook. In your opinion, what are the two most likely causes of this development over the years? What have been two of the most significant consequences? Finally, what would you suggest should be done in order to halt or reverse this trend? Reference: LO 15-3, p. 545 Skill: Analysis

4. In what ways are the Supreme Court justices making public-policy decisions? Please provide an example to illustrate your point. Do you agree with this power of the court? Or do you feel that it violates the separation of powers? Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 546–554 Skill: Analysis 5. To what degree, if at all, do Supreme Court decisions reflect public opinion among average Americans? Do you believe that justices are sensitive to major changes in the public mood? Why or why not? Do you think it is desirable that justices take into consideration majority opinions? Why or why not? Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 546–554 Skill: Analysis 6. What are the different approaches judges take within the legal model of decision-making? Which approach do you personally agree with the most? Why? Which do you agree with the least? Why? Be sure to use examples to support your answer. Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 547–548 Skill: Evaluation 7. A majority of federal judges are a member of the party of the president who appointed them. Given the division of powers and the system of checks and balances, do you believe this constitutes a conflict of interest? Support your opinion. Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 548–549 Skill: Evaluation 8. Do you agree with the way the courts—both in Florida and the Supreme Court—decided the case of Bush v. Gore in 2000? If so, why are you satisfied? If not, what should have been different? Do you think this sets a dangerous precedent? Why or why not? Reference: LO 15-4, pgs. 550–552 Skill: Evaluation 9. Do you approve or disapprove of the fact that federal judges and justices are appointed for life? What are arguments that speak for and against this? Reference: LO 15-5, p. 554 Skill: Evaluation 10. How political is the judiciary in the United States, both in terms of appointments and decisions? Do you approve of this? Reference: LO 15-5, pgs. 555–557 Skill: Evaluation

Chapter Sixteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. What happened to the Democratic proposal for a National Office for Combating Terrorism in 2001? A) The president welcomed it, but Republicans refused to support it. B) The White House considered the proposal intrusive and preempted congressional action. C) It did not have enough support within the Democratic Party itself. D) The Supreme Court suggested that it would be unconstitutional, and the proposal was dropped. E) It was adopted by Congress and renamed the Office of Homeland Security. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding 2. When Congress deliberated over the proposed Department of Homeland Security, the main sticking point appeared to be A) congressional versus presidential authority. B) budgetary concerns. C) practical applicability. D) the need for such a department. E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Analysis 3. Bureaucrats _____________ when interpreting and implementing laws. A) follow strict guidelines B) have some flexibility C) have considerable discretion D) have no guidelines E) have no idea what they are doing Answer: C Reference: LO 16-1, p. 567 Skill: Understanding

4. The number of pages included in the Federal Register each year has ________ since 1945. A) decreased dramatically B) decreased slightly C) remained relatively stable D) increased slightly E) increased dramatically Answer: E Reference: LO 16-1, p. 570 (Figure 16-1) Skill: Analysis 5. What was a key element of employment in the federal bureaucracy in the nineteenth century? A) The size and influence of the bureaucracy increased dramatically, which created a great need for civil servants. B) Patronage was a key factor in employment in the federal bureaucracy. C) Congress had very little oversight of the bureaucracy, giving bureaucrats a lot of leeway. D) There was not much need for bureaucrats, so the positions were given only to the best and brightest. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Analysis 6. Roughly how many people currently work within the federal bureaucracy? A) 500,000 B) 1,000,000 C) 1,500,000 D) 2,000,000 E) 2,500,000 Answer: D Reference: LO 16-2, p. 573 Skill: Understanding 7. Independent agencies and commissions are directed by administrators or boards that are A) elected by Congress. B) elected by public officials. C) appointed by the president. D) appointed by Congress. E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 Skill: Understanding

8. Which of the following protects consumers from deceptive and anticompetitive business practices? A) The Federal Trade Commission B) The Securities and Exchange Commission C) The Customer Protection Commission D) The Business Protection Commission E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 16-2, p. 576 (Table 16-2) Skill: Understanding 9. Government corporations can be said to provide A) public goods. B) help to overcome the collective-action problem. C) help for the government to increase its revenue. D) A and B E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 16-2, pgs. 577–578 Skill: Analysis 10. Which of the following relationships is a potential example of a principal-agent problem? A) Landlord and tenant B) Credit-card holder and credit company C) Lawyer and client D) Employer and employee E) All of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Analysis 11. ALL BUT WHICH of the following typically contributes to the inefficiency of the bureaucracy? A) The lack of funding for and the relatively small size of the bureaucracy B) Congress and the president may deliberately appoint individuals to head agencies that are more lax on regulatory enforcement. C) The design of the system of governance in the United States D) Regular elections, multiple principals, and political compromise E) The attempt to promote fairness and equity Answer: A Reference: LO 16-3, p. 581 Skill: Analysis

12. Of the following, which can the president select most freely? A) Secretaries of all Cabinet-level departments B) Heads of independent agencies C) Heads of regulatory commissions D) Heads of government corporations E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 16-4, p. 586 Skill: Understanding 13. In 2006, attorney general Alberto Gonzales was accused of A) circumventing the law. B) tax evasion. C) politicization of the Justice Department. D) bureaucratic inefficiency. E) negligence. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-4, p. 587 Skill: Understanding 14. Which law requires that agency meetings need to be held in public? A) The Sunshine Law B) The Freedom of Information Act C) The Bureaucratic Transparency Act D) The Bureaucratic Oversight Act E) The Full Disclosure Act Answer: A Reference: LO 16-4, p. 590 Skill: Understanding 15. ALL BUT WHICH of the following contributes to the life span of agencies? A) Politics B) Effectiveness C) Budget issues D) Public approval E) Perceived need Answer: D Reference: LO 16-4, p. 591 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. The Department of Homeland Security is designed to oversee the FBI and the CIA. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding 2. Among other things, bureaucrats are charged with translating vague laws into measurable outcomes. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-1, p. 566 Skill: Understanding 3. Bureaucrats assist Congress in judicial and legislative as well as administrative functions. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-1, pgs. 569–571 Skill: Analysis 4. The Pendleton Act quickly reformed the spoils system and paved the way for the meritbased system. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 5. The Administrative Procedures Act led to a rapid rise in regulatory commissions. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 577 Skill: Understanding 6. Governmental interests help prevent bureaucratic drift. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-3, p. 579 Skill: Analysis 7. The bureaucracy is designed for the sake of fairness and equity. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 584–585 Skill: Understanding

8. All American civil servants are subject to the rules of the merit-based guidelines that apply to the bureaucracy. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-3, p. 588 Skill: Understanding 9. Ronald Reagan’s attempts to limit the power of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) failed in part owing to a lack of support from the American public. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 593 Skill: Understanding 10. Deregulation would increase the workload of bureaucrats and potentially make bureaucracies less efficient. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-4, p. 594 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. After the September 11 attacks, observers suspected that the attacks had occurred because A) the federal government did not have enough information to prevent them. B) the government did not have enough resources to gather information. C) turf wars between federal departments prevented effective information sharing. D) the lack of communication channels between federal departments prevented effective information sharing. E) they simply could not have been foreseen. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding 2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are parts of the Department of Homeland Security? A) Border security B) Civilian protection C) Emergency preparedness D) Intelligence E) Weapons of mass destruction Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding

3. Bureaucrats do ALL BUT WHICH of the following? They A) are concerned with the practical application of laws and policies. B) provide the necessary logistics for laws and policies to become reality. C) interpret what laws really mean. D) consult in the law-making process. E) implement laws and policies. Answer: D Reference: LO 16-1, p. 566 Skill: Understanding 4. It falls to the bureaucracy to determine ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) What new laws are needed B) To whom a law specifically applies C) How to translate vague concepts into measurable outcomes D) Under what circumstances laws apply E) How a new law and its implementation fit in with prior laws and objectives Answer: A Reference: LO 16-1, p. 566 Skill: Understanding 5. Which of the following functions of the bureaucracy is arguably the biggest task assigned to bureaucrats? A) Interpretation of laws B) Implementation of laws C) Monitoring of violations D) Punishment of violations E) Justification of laws Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 567 Skill: Understanding 6. One of the principal ways in which bureaucrats flesh out the meaning of legislation is by issuing A) guidelines. B) rules. C) handbooks. D) directives. E) forms. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Understanding

7. Political scientists sometimes refer to rules issued by bureaucrats as A) quasi legislation. B) alternative legislation. C) bureaucratic legislation. D) red tape. E) legislative logistics. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Understanding 8. The FCC’s standard for determining obscene materials includes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) An average person must find that the material as a whole appeals to prurient interests. B) The material must be accessible to the general population. C) The material must be patently offensive. D) The material must lack serious artistic, political, literary, or scientific value. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Understanding 9. How can the FCC NOT punish noncompliance with its rules on obscene materials? It cannot A) issue warnings. B) impose fines. C) revoke station licenses. D) require responsible persons to be fired. E) do all of the above. Answer: D Reference: LO 16-1, p. 569 Skill: Understanding 10. When implementing public policy, bureaucrats rely on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Rules B) Special interests C) Judgments D) Norms E) Organizational cultures Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 569 Skill: Understanding

11. Which of the following is NOT a step in the bureaucratic procedure for issuing rules? A) Rules are first issued as proposals. B) Interested parties are invited to submit their own proposals. C) Interested parties are given the opportunity to express their opinions. D) Agencies respond to public comments. E) Final rules are published in the Federal Register. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 569 Skill: Understanding 12. Members of Congress are ________, whereas bureaucrats are ________. A) policy experts, policy generalists B) policy generalists, policy experts C) policy implementers, policy analysts D) policy analysts, policy implementers E) policy enforcers, policy-makers Answer: B Reference: LO 16-1, p. 569 Skill: Understanding 13. The Government Accountability Office fulfills ALL BUT WHICH of the following functions? It A) investigates policy issues for lawmakers. B) consults with nongovernmental experts. C) reads the relevant scholarship on an issue. D) invites public comments on a policy issue. E) communicates with bureaucratic agencies. Answer: D Reference: LO 16-1, p. 570 Skill: Understanding 14. The Government Accountability Office (GAO) is to Congress what a __________ is to a college professor. A) student B) research assistant C) college dean D) university president E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 16-1, p. 570 Skill: Analysis

15. Most of the federal bureaucracy is located within A) the executive branch. B) the legislative branch. C) the judicial branch. D) state governments. E) The bureaucracy has its own branch. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-2, p. 571 Skill: Understanding 16. In the United States A) the bureaucracy preceded democracy. B) democracy preceded the bureaucracy. C) the bureaucracy and democracy developed hand in hand. D) the bureaucracy hindered the development of democracy. E) democracy hindered the development of the bureaucracy. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-2, p. 571 Skill: Understanding 17. The Founding Fathers’ skepticism of the bureaucracy was a result of the _______ context. A) historical B) social C) economic D) moral E) ideological Answer: A Reference: LO 16-2, p. 571 Skill: Analysis 18. In the nineteenth century, civil servants were hired mainly based on A) experience. B) expertise. C) loyalty. D) need. E) moral character. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding

19. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about the spoils system? It A) served the needs of those in power. B) constituted a way to reward individuals for their political support. C) increased the job security of federal bureaucrats. D) allowed politicians to raise campaign money in exchange for jobs. E) facilitated the passage of favorite laws. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 20. The civil-service system awarded jobs primarily on the basis of A) loyalty. B) morality. C) merit. D) patronage. E) need. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 21. Which of the following events finally caused Congress to reform the bureaucracy? A) The westward expansion B) The Civil War C) President Lincoln’s assassination D) The reconstruction of the South E) President Garfield’s assassination Answer: E Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 22. Since the late-nineteenth century, the number of employees in the federal bureaucracy (excluding defense) has A) remained the same. B) increased slightly. C) doubled. D) quadrupled. E) increased tenfold. Answer: D Reference: LO 16-2, p. 573 (Figure 16-2) Skill: Analysis

23. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about departments? A) They are the largest organizational unit of the federal democracy. B) There are fifteen of them. C) They address very specific areas of government responsibility. D) The head of each department is appointed by the president. E) All of the above are true. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 573 Skill: Understanding 24. Which of the following is NOT a role of the Department of the Treasury? A) It manages the government’s money. B) It prints paper currency. C) It proposes the federal budget every year. D) It mints coins. E) It collects taxes. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 574 (Table 16-1) Skill: Understanding 25. Which department spends the most money annually? A) Veterans Affairs B) Defense C) Health and Human Services D) Transportation E) Treasury Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 (Figure 16-3) Skill: Analysis 26. Which of the following employs the most people? A) Defense and Veterans Affairs B) Transportation C) State D) Health and Human Services E) Agriculture Answer: A Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 Skill: Understanding

27. Which of the following led to a rapid rise in regulatory commissions in the United States? A) The Hatch Act B) The Pendleton Act C) The Wagner Act D) The Administrative Procedures Act E) The Government Protection Act Answer: D Reference: LO 16-2, p. 577 Skill: Understanding 28. Of the following, which is the MOST insulated from governmental control? A) Departments B) Independent agencies C) Regulatory commissions D) Government corporations E) A and C Answer: D Reference: LO 16-2, pgs. 577–578 Skill: Understanding 29. In most cases, the government decides to establish corporations because A) it wants to compete with private corporations. B) it wants to control the market. C) it feels the market is not providing an important service. D) it has money left over. E) members of Congress want to use earmarked funds to satisfy their constituents. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-2, pgs. 577–578 Skill: Understanding 30. Bureaucrats derive most of their power and influence from A) the law. B) their expertise. C) their connections in Congress. D) people’s fear of them. E) They don’t have any power or influence. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-3, p. 578 Skill: Analysis

31. Inefficiencies that result from the diverging interests of the public and bureaucrats are referred to as the A) collective-action problem. B) ineffective-politics problem. C) principal-agent problem. D) agent-structure problem. E) bureaucratic-politics problem. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Understanding 32. The principal-agent problem is largely caused by A) lack of interest. B) asymmetry of information. C) negligence. D) malicious intent to deceive. E) lack of consensus. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Analysis 33. The term “bureaucratic drift” refers to the A) bureaucracy working toward different objectives than the legislature. B) bureaucracy’s inefficiency. C) tendency for red tape to increase over time. D) slow response times of bureaucrats. E) negative public opinion of the bureaucracy. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-3, p. 579 Skill: Understanding 34. The term “slack” refers to the fact that the bureaucracy A) implements the laws the legislature passes. B) has a lot of discretion when implementing and interpreting legislation. C) generates a lot of paperwork. D) does not work as efficiently as Congress would like it to. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 16-3, p. 579 Skill: Understanding

35. ALL BUT WHICH of the following contributes to the potential of the bureaucracy to produce slack? A) The size of the bureaucracy B) People refusing to cooperate with the bureaucracy C) The large number of laws and regulations D) The lack of congressional oversight E) The increase in demands from the general public Answer: B Reference: LO 16-3, p. 579 Skill: Analysis 36. When an agency primarily serves the interests of a nongovernmental group rather than elected officials, this is referred to as agency A) failure. B) capture. C) shortfall. D) corruption. E) slack. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-3, p. 580 Skill: Understanding 37. Agency capture is especially likely when A) there is a big discrepancy between who pays for benefits and who receives them. B) benefits are restricted to a few beneficiaries. C) benefits are extremely large. D) the costs for benefits are very high. E) there is a lot of slack in the bureaucracy. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-3, p. 580 Skill: Analysis 38. The term “red tape” refers to A) the inordinate amount of paperwork required in order to receive agency benefits. B) bureaucratic delay or confusion. C) the principal-agent problem. D) the lack of monitoring of agencies by Congress. E) bureaucrats being captured by special-interest groups. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-3, p. 581 Skill: Understanding

39. Technically, whose responsibility is it to respond first to natural disasters? A) The federal government B) The state government C) The Federal Emergency Management Agency D) Counties and cities E) Individuals on the scene Answer: D Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 582–584 Skill: Understanding 40. In order to make the bureaucracy more efficient, analysts have suggested ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Institutional reforms B) Privatization C) Increased competition D) More bureaucrats E) More congressional oversight Answer: D Reference: LO 16-4, p. 586 Skill: Understanding 41. What do political scientists call the fact that Congress and the president tend to select bureaucratic leaders on the basis of shared worldviews? A) Political bias B) Politicization C) The principal-agent problem D) Partisanship E) Sponsorship Answer: D Reference: LO 16-4, p. 586 Skill: Understanding 42. The so-called politicization of the bureaucracy is one way of solving the A) collective-action problem. B) problem of inefficiency in the bureaucracy. C) problem of political polarization. D) principal-agent problem. E) red-tape problem. Answer: D Reference: LO 16-4, p. 586 Skill: Analysis

43. What happens if the Senate does not confirm one of the president’s bureaucratic appointments? A) He has to appoint a new candidate. B) He can exercise his veto power and instate the candidate anyway. C) He can call for a public referendum. D) He can issue a recess appointment. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 16-4, p. 587 Skill: Understanding 44. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about the Canadian bureaucracy? A) Civil servants tend to serve for life. B) A much smaller percentage of civil-servant employees leave their jobs each year, compared to those in the United States. C) The Canadian bureaucracy is much more effective than the American bureaucracy. D) Career civil servants are nonpartisan. E) All of the above are true. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-4, p. 588 Skill: Understanding 45. Congress’s most influential means for controlling the bureaucracy is ______ in nature. A) diplomatic B) legal C) financial D) ideological E) institutional Answer: A Reference: LO 16-4, pgs. 588–591 Skill: Analysis 46. Congress can use _________ in order to extract the private information that gives the bureaucracy its influence. A) investigative measures B) punitive actions C) hearings D) confessions E) budget cuts Answer: C Reference: LO 16-4, p. 590 Skill: Understanding

47. The case of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) primarily illustrates the consequences of A) drift. B) slack. C) political interference. D) public pressure. E) special interests. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-4, pgs. 592–593 Skill: Analysis 48. When the workload of bureaucrats is reduced in favor of market forces this is called A) centralization. B) deregulation. C) decentralization. D) devolution. E) privatization. Answer: B Reference: LO 16-4, p. 594 Skill: Understanding 49. Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of the deregulation of the bureaucracy? A) Bureaucratic oversight is increased. B) New companies emerge. C) Competition increases. D) Consumers are offered more choices. E) Prices for products drop. Answer: A Reference: LO 16-4, p. 594 Skill: Analysis 50. When the government transfers the management of a hospital to a nongovernmental corporation, this is an example of A) deregulation. B) devolution. C) privatization. D) draft. E) federalism. Answer: C Reference: LO 16-4, p. 594 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. The September 21 proposal for the establishment of a National Office for Combating Terrorism originated in the Republican Party. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding 2. The fate of the 2001 proposal for a National Office for Combating Terrorism primarily illustrates the turf war between the executive and legislative branches. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Analysis 3. Bureaucrats follow strict guidelines when interpreting and implementing laws. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-1, p. 567 Skill: Understanding 4. Among other duties, the Federal Communications Commission is charged with the promotion of the safety of lives. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Understanding 5. The only way explicit material cannot be considered obscene is if it has artistic value. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Understanding 6. The norms bureaucrats rely on when they implement public policy are often closely tied to their organization’s culture. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-1, p. 569 Skill: Understanding 7. The Government Accountability Office primarily advises Congress on budgetary issues. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-1, p. 570 Skill: Understanding

8. The federal bureaucracy is fairly centralized. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-2, p. 571 Skill: Understanding 9. Unlike in the United States, bureaucracy preceded democracy in most of Western Europe. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 571 Skill: Understanding 10. During the nineteenth century, bureaucrats’ careers were relatively short-lived and often dependent on political favor. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 11. The spoils system in the nineteenth-century bureaucracy significantly decreased the level of expertise of bureaucrats. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 572 Skill: Understanding 12. The largest organizational unit in the federal bureaucracy is the Cabinet. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-2, p. 573 Skill: Understanding 13. The original departments under George Washington were the Departments of State, War, and Treasury. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 573 Skill: Understanding 14. The leadership of regulatory commissions is appointed by the president. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 Skill: Understanding 15. Bureaucrats derive most of their power and influence from their expertise. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-3, p. 578 Skill: Analysis

16. In politics, the principal-agent problem defines the relationship between Congress and the president on the one hand and the bureaucracy on the other hand. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Understanding 17. The term “red tape” refers to the principal-agent problem. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-3, p. 581 Skill: Understanding 18. Assigning blame for the government’s failure to respond appropriately to Hurricane Katrina is made easier by the fact that responsibility for natural-disaster response is very well-defined in the U.S. government. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-3, p. 584 Skill: Understanding 19. The practice of politicizing the bureaucracy is essentially about establishing control. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-3, p. 586 Skill: Analysis 20. Congress’s ability to hold hearings is a potential way to address the principal-agent problem. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 589 Skill: Analysis 21. Presidents have often tried to centralize the bureaucracy in order to increase their control. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 590 Skill: Understanding 22. More than half of all agencies created between 1946 and 1997 had been eliminated by 2000. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 591 Skill: Understanding

23. Agencies located within the executive branch have a longer life span than other agencies. Answer: False Reference: LO 16-4, p. 591 Skill: Understanding 24. Several presidents have attempted to decrease the influence of the Environmental Protection Agency in order to protect special interests. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 593 Skill: Understanding 25. The 2008 housing-market crisis due to subprime loans is indirectly the result of government attempts to deregulate the bureaucracy. Answer: True Reference: LO 16-4, p. 594 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. In your own words, describe how the government’s response to the September 11 attacks illustrates various aspects of bureaucracy. Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 564–565 Skill: Understanding 2. In your opinion, do bureaucrats have too much discretion when it comes to interpreting and implementing legislation? Why or why not? Reference: LO 16-1, pgs. 566–568 Skill: Evaluation 3. How has the size of the federal bureaucracy developed since World War II? What were three main causes of this development? Do you think this has been a necessary development? Why or why not? Reference: LO 16-2, pgs. 571–573 Skill: Analysis 4. Of the fifteen departments, which are the two biggest, and which are the two smallest? Roughly how much do they spend? Do you believe the size and budgets of these departments adequately reflect their importance? What would you change? Why? Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 (Figure 16-3) Skill: Evaluation

5. Some scholars have referred to regulatory commissions as the “fourth branch” of government. Do you agree or disagree with this assessment? Why? Reference: LO 16-2, pgs. 575–578 Skill: Analysis 6. Please explain the so-called principal-agent problem. What is it, what causes it, and how can it be solved? Give examples. Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Analysis 7. In what ways has Congress attempted to address the problems of slack and drift in the federal bureaucracy? Reference: LO 16-3, p. 579 Skill: Understanding 8. On the basis of what you know about the September 11 terrorist attacks, what about the institutional design of the federal bureaucracy failed in preventing the attacks? What reforms would you suggest to address the problem? Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 581–585 Skill: Application 9. How would you personally assess the response of the federal bureaucracy to the Hurricane Katrina disaster? Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 582–584 Skill: Evaluation 10. What is the culture of bureaucracy? Outline several aspects of what you consider characteristics of this culture. Where do you think these characteristics stem from, and what are their effects on bureaucratic outcomes? Reference: LO 16-3, p. 585 Skill: Analysis 11. Some political scientists have argued that the bureaucracy is flawed by design and that it is therefore to be expected that it does not work as effectively as it could. What speaks for and what speaks against this assessment? Use examples from the textbook to support your arguments. Reference: LO 16-3, p. 585 Skill: Analysis 12. In your own words, explain the concept of the politicization of the bureaucracy. In your opinion, what are the pros and cons? Which outweighs the other? Reference: LO 16-4, p. 586 Skill: Evaluation 439 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13. Do you believe that privatizing the bureaucracy could help make it more efficient? What is one area you could definitely see being privatized, and what is an area that you would prefer maintains the status quo? Why? Reference: LO 16-4, p. 593 Skill: Application 14. In your opinion, how do most Americans feel about the bureaucracy? Is this perception justified? Reference: LO 16-1, LO 16-2, and LO 16-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation 15. Richard Nixon once said, “Any change is resisted because bureaucrats have a vested interest in the chaos in which they exist.” Do you agree or disagree? Why? In particular, do you believe the bureaucracy is really this resistant to change? Reference: LO 16-1, LO 16-2, and LO 16-3, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation Essay Questions 1. What are political scientists trying to say when they refer to rules issued by bureaucrats as quasi legislation? Provide an example that illustrates this. Do you agree that bureaucrats should have this kind of power? Why or why not? Reference: LO 16-1, p. 568 Skill: Evaluation 2. If you had the ability to make this decision, which department in the federal bureaucracy would you get rid of? Why? Which department would you create? Why? Be careful to base your answer on logical ideas that reflect your knowledge of the American political, social, and/or economic context. Reference: LO 16-2, p. 574 Skill: Application 3. When you look at Figure 16-3, what appear to be the major trends in department spending? If you could, how would you rearrange the budget (i.e., which department would you give more or less money to)? Why? Reference: LO 16-2, p. 575 (Figure 16-3) Skill: Application

4. Some scholars have referred to the relationship between credit-card companies and credit-card holders as a form of the principal-agent problem. What about this relationship reminds you of the principal-agent problem? What causes it? Do you think there is a need for reform in this case? What would you change? Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 578–579 Skill: Application 5. In your own words, please summarize how the example of disaster relief following Hurricane Katrina illustrates the nature of bureaucracy in the United States. Be as specific as possible, and try to concretely connect theoretical concepts to the example. Overall, how would you assess the effectiveness of the bureaucracy based on this example? What changes need to be made as a result of your assessment? Reference: LO 16-3, pgs. 581–583 Skill: Analysis 6. The textbook addresses the issue of the politicization of the bureaucracy. Based on what you have learned about this process, where else in American politics do you see such politicization going on? Explain. Reference: LO 16-4, p. 585 Skill: Application 7. What are the arguments for and against deregulation of the federal bureaucracy? Considering the 2008 financial crisis, how would you—in retrospect—assess the deregulation efforts of the financial-services sector in the seventies and eighties? Be specific, and provide examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 16-4, pgs. 592–593 Skill: Evaluation 8. Some have suggested that one way to address the problems of the bureaucracy is by privatizing certain aspects of it. In 2007, the U.S. government hired private contractors to provide security-related services in Iraq. Why do you think the government chose to do this? Is this privatization of the U.S. military effective? Is it acceptable? Reference: LO 16-4, p. 593 Skill: Analysis 9. Why is the bureaucracy a good way to organize large societies? What are the drawbacks? Do you believe the advantages outweigh the disadvantages or vice versa? Why? Reference: LO 16-1, LO 16-2, LO 16-3, and LO 16-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

10. Choose one instance in which you have been faced with the American bureaucracy. Describe your experience, then relate it to what you have learned about the inner workings of the bureaucratic system. Has what you have learned changed your perspective on the work of bureaucrats? Why or why not? Reference: LO 16-1, LO 16-2, LO 16-3, and LO 16-4, entire chapter Skill: Application

Chapter Seventeen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. One of the basic facts of policy-making is that decisions are made A) more quickly during periods of crisis. B) very efficiently most of the time. C) very inefficiently most of the time. D) by the majority in Congress. E) on the basis of public opinion. Answer: A Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 598–599 Skill: Understanding 2. In order for federal economic and social programs to be enacted, ALL BUT WHICH of the following have to converge? A) A problem warranting a federal response must be identified. B) There must be significant public pressure and consensus. C) A solution to the problem must be presented. D) A focusing event must draw politicians’ attention. E) All of the above are needed. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 599 Skill: Understanding 3. Individuals who link social and economic problems with potential governmental solutions are specifically referred to as A) think-tank analysts. B) problem solvers. C) policy entrepreneurs. D) lobbyists. E) political consultants. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 601 Skill: Understanding

4. ALL BUT WHICH of the following were direct or indirect results of the Great Depression? A) Americans lost their faith in the government. B) The unemployment rate skyrocketed. C) Most state governments closed their banks. D) The Depression gave rise to numerous federal social and economic programs. E) It paved the way for World War II. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Analysis 5. In the context of the 2008 financial crisis, the federal government relied primarily on A) the laissez-faire approach. B) fiscal policy. C) monetary policy. D) social policy. E) B and C Answer: E Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Application 6. The social-security system currently has A) just enough funds to cover its expenses for now. B) just enough funds to cover its expenses for the next ten years. C) not quite enough funds to cover its expenses. D) modest reserves. E) substantial reserves. Answer: E Reference: LO 17-3, p. 607 Skill: Understanding 7. Which of the following is the MOST attractive proposal for social-security reform from the point of view of Congress? A) Reducing the number of benefits B) Basing benefits on demonstrated need C) Raising the age of eligibility D) Excluding certain groups from benefits E) None of the above Answer: E Reference: LO 17-3, p. 608 Skill: Analysis

8. The standard measure the federal government has developed for identifying the poor is the A) average personal income. B) income-to-debt ratio. C) means test. D) poverty level. E) social-injustice measure. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 Skill: Understanding 9. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about the development of poverty in the United States? A) The poverty rate steadily decreased until the sixties. B) The number of people in poverty has increased since the sixties. C) The poverty rate has modestly increased since the sixties. D) More than 10 percent of Americans lived in poverty in 2006. E) All of the above are correct. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 (Figure 17-2) Skill: Analysis 10. Since the nation’s founding, public schools in the United States have been A) locally controlled. B) regionally controlled. C) controlled by states. D) controlled by the federal government. E) run by themselves. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-5, p. 612 Skill: Understanding 11. Thus far, the impact of No Child Left Behind has largely been A) economic. B) social. C) academic. D) political. E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 615–616 Skill: Analysis

12. Critics of the public school system charge that the main source of underperformance is a lack of A) funding. B) competition. C) government oversight. D) qualified teachers. E) parental oversight. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-5, p. 617 Skill: Understanding 13. Private schools appear to lead to test-score advantages primarily for A) women. B) white students. C) African-American students. D) Catholic students. E) all students. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 618–620 Skill: Understanding 14. Roughly what percentage of Americans was considered obese according to a 2005 study? A) 50 percent B) 30 percent C) 20 percent D) 15 percent E) 10 percent Answer: B Reference: LO 17-6, p. 623 Skill: Understanding 15. When debating universal health care, liberals tend to focus on the values of ________, whereas conservatives tend to focus on the values of _________. A) fairness, individualism B) individualism, fairness C) equity, fairness D) fairness, equity E) socialism, communitarianism Answer: A Reference: LO 17-6, p. 625 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. A potential argument in favor of the $700 billion government bailout to prevent economic collapse is that the U.S. economy is too interdependent to allow huge corporations and banks to fail. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 599 Skill: Analysis 2. Based on the American creed, all inequalities in American society are undesirable and warrant government intervention. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Understanding 3. The Social Security program can be thought of as a generational contract. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-3, p. 605 Skill: Analysis 4. Based on current trends, the Social Security program is headed for bankruptcy within the next fifteen years. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-3, p. 607 (Figure 17-1) Skill: Analysis 5. European welfare programs were created out of a fear that the masses would rebel against the government. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-4, p. 611 Skill: Understanding 6. For much of U.S. history, states and municipalities failed to provide a basic education to American children. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, p. 613 Skill: Understanding

7. In an international comparison, American students performed much better in a 2000 test than in a previous comparison in the eighties, suggesting the success of educational reforms. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-5, p. 614 Skill: Understanding 8. The two countries whose students outperformed all others in an international comparison of standardized-test scores were Finland and the Republic of Korea. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, p. 615 (Table 17-1) Skill: Understanding 9. No Child Left Behind introduces a system of rewards and punishments for schools. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 618–620 Skill: Analysis 10. The differences in health among countries can largely be attributed to the differences in their health-care systems. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-6, p. 624 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT true about the 2008 economic crisis in the United States? A) It began with an overextension of bank credit to home buyers. B) It was contributed to by stock-market speculation in home loans. C) It led to severe cuts in public services. D) It was solved by the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act. E) It was contributed to by the lack of transparency in the financial sector. Answer: D Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 598–599 Skill: Analysis

2. Social programs that are designed to address a crisis A) rarely work. B) rarely outlive the original need. C) almost always outlive the crisis they were meant to solve. D) usually do not get passed until long after the crisis is over. E) are typically abandoned halfway through the crisis. Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 598–599 Skill: Understanding 3. ALL BUT WHICH of the following can be said to contribute to economic and social reform? A) Pressing social needs B) Interest-group pressure C) Political competition in Congress D) Periods of economic crisis E) Periods of military crisis Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 599 Skill: Analysis 4. In retrospect, major policy innovations are often created A) after a very long period of consistent pressure from the public or interest groups. B) after a long period of careful deliberation among policy-makers. C) as a result of chance occurrences. D) as the result of only the most extreme need on the part of U.S. citizens. E) by ambitious presidents. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 599 Skill: Understanding 5. What types of problems have the best chance of provoking a government response? Those that A) affect politicians directly. B) affect the most influential segments in society. C) affect the entire world. D) violate the American creed. E) threaten the elderly or children. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Understanding

6. Many social programs funded by the federal government aim to A) level the playing field. B) give some groups an advantage. C) benefit everyone equally. D) get politicians reelected. E) help minorities. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Analysis 7. The government is most likely to intervene in order to promote the equality of A) women. B) outcomes. C) opportunities. D) living standards. E) education. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Understanding 8. Lyndon B. Johnson called on Americans to tackle ALL BUT WHICH of the following problems? A) Racial discrimination B) Environmental degradation C) Poverty D) War E) Urban decay Answer: D Reference: LO 17-1, pgs. 600–601 Skill: Understanding 9. Assume that the American Federation of Teachers (AFT) primarily lobbies for higher pay. Once that goal is reached, the union’s lobbyists are likely to A) disappear because they are no longer needed. B) find a new purpose for the AFT. C) wait for future need before taking action. D) begin work for a different organization. E) retire. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-1, pgs. 601–602 Skill: Understanding

10. Which of the following was the focusing event for FDR’s New Deal? A) The Great Depression B) The oil crisis in the seventies C) The world food crisis in the fifties D) The global financial crisis in the eighties E) World War II Answer: A Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Understanding 11. Hurricane Katrina served as a focusing event for ALL BUT WHICH of the following issues? A) Poverty B) Social inequality C) Education D) Corruption E) Natural-disaster readiness Answer: C Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Understanding 12. September 11 likely served as a focusing event for ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Immigration B) National security C) International education D) Corruption E) Agency information sharing Answer: D Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Analysis 13. Compared to the average over the previous 100 years, the consumer price index in 2007 was A) much higher. B) somewhat higher. C) equal. D) somewhat lower. E) much lower. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-2, p. 603 Skill: Understanding

14. The U.S. gross domestic product (GDP) constitutes roughly _______ of all spending worldwide. A) 30 percent B) 25 percent C) 20 percent D) 15 percent E) 5 percent Answer: C Reference: LO 17-2, p. 603 Skill: Understanding 15. The philosophy of the government doing nothing to intervene in an economic downturn is best expressed by the phrase A) “hair of the dog.” B) “laissez-faire.” C) “C’est la vie.” D) “Win some, lose some.” E) “Das macht nichts.” Answer: B Reference: LO 17-2, p. 603 Skill: Understanding 16. Laissez-faire economics assumes ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Markets tend to benefit everyone. B) Government intervention can do more harm than good. C) Economic downturns are natural. D) Citizens are responsible for their own economic well-being. E) Markets have a way of regulating themselves. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-2, p. 603 Skill: Analysis 17. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are NOT typical approaches the government might take when the economy is ailing? A) To do nothing B) Monetary policy C) Fiscal policy D) To declare a recession E) To borrow money from foreign countries Answer: D Reference: LO 17-2, pgs. 603–604 Skill: Understanding

18. Which of the following is NOT an element of monetary policy? A) Setting interest rates B) Printing money C) Affecting the flow of money D) Taxing E) All of the above are elements. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-2, pgs. 603–604 Skill: Understanding 19. When the government decreases interest rates, this tends to __________ economic activity and __________ inflation rates. A) increase, increase B) decrease, decrease C) increase, decrease D) decrease, increase E) increase, not affect Answer: A Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Analysis 20. When the government directly intervenes in the economy by raising or lowering taxes, this is an example of A) laissez-faire. B) monetary policy. C) fiscal policy. D) social policy. E) deficit spending. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding 21. ALL BUT WHICH of the following have contributed to the reinstatement of government deficits in the last eight years? A) Foreign wars B) Development aid C) Cutting taxes D) A declining economy E) Economic-stimulus packages Answer: B Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding

22. Which of the following refers to the total amount of money the government owes? A) Deficit B) Foreign debt C) Public debt D) Private debt E) Federal debt Answer: C Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding 23. The United States’ public debt for 2010 is projected to be ______ of its GDP. A) more than 90 percent B) 50 percent C) 40 percent D) 30 percent E) 20 percent Answer: A Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding 24. Initially, the Social Security Act was primarily intended for A) the poor. B) single mothers. C) the elderly. D) children. E) immigrants. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-3, p. 605 Skill: Understanding 25. Which of the following is NOT true about social security? A) To qualify, one has to be at least 67 years old or unable to work. B) Checks are cut on a monthly basis. C) It is a pay-as-you-go system. D) The amount of benefits depends on the individual’s established needs. E) Social Security is a generational program. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-3, p. 605 Skill: Understanding

26. Which of the following has NOT contributed to the significant expansion of social security? A) The population growth B) The inclusion of more groups C) Immigration D) Cost of living adjustments (COLAs) E) All of the above have contributed. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-3, p. 606 Skill: Understanding 27. In the next 25 years, social-security reserves are predicted to A) continue to grow substantially. B) continue to grow modestly. C) remain the same. D) decline modestly. E) decline substantially. Answer: E Reference: LO 17-3, p. 607 (Figure 17-1) Skill: Analysis 28. The likely reason why members of Congress shy away from significant social-security cutbacks is A) concerns that cutbacks will not solve the problem. B) concerns about not being reelected. C) disagreements over the necessity of cutbacks. D) the belief that higher taxes are a better option. E) the belief that there is no real problem. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-3, p. 608 Skill: Analysis 29. Social-security benefits are A) selective benefits. B) collective benefits. C) universal benefits. D) welfare benefits. E) automatic benefits. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-3, p. 608 Skill: Analysis

30. Government welfare programs provide those in need with ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Money B) Income subsidies C) Housing D) Food E) Vouchers Answer: B Reference: LO 17-4, pgs. 608–609 Skill: Understanding 31. Since the sixties, the number of Americans living in poverty has A) dramatically increased. B) steadily increased. C) fluctuated wildly. D) not changed significantly. E) steadily decreased. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 (Figure 17-2) Skill: Analysis 32. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is potentially problematic for the measure of poverty used by the federal government? A) Unreported income B) Geographic differences in costs of living C) The assumption that every family has the same needs D) Inflation E) Social-security income Answer: E Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 (Figure 17-2) Skill: Analysis 33. Historically, the most significant effort to help the poor was A) Aid to Families With Dependent Children (AFDC). B) Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF). C) the Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC). D) Supplemental Security Income (SSI). E) the Social Security program. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-4, p. 610 Skill: Understanding

34. Which of the following is NOT true about Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF)? A) It is much more restricted than previous programs. B) It established new work requirements for the parent(s). C) It limited the number of families eligible but provided them with more assistance. D) It led to a drop of 60 percent in people receiving this kind of aid. E) It limited the number of years of eligibility. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-4, p. 610 Skill: Understanding 35. The Supplemental Security Income (SSI) if funded from A) private donations. B) the regular social-security fund. C) private investments. D) general tax revenues. E) member contributions. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-4, p. 610 Skill: Understanding 36. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are characteristics of the Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC)? A) It subsidizes the wages of low-income individuals. B) It reduces the amount of income taxes a person has to pay. C) It has received bipartisan support. D) It ensures that low-income individuals receive a tax refund. E) It has an income floor and ceiling. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-4, p. 610 Skill: Understanding 37. Which of the following did NOT contribute to the establishment of the early welfare systems in Europe? A) The importance of the middle class B) Dramatic socioeconomic changes C) Urbanization D) The rise of factories E) All of the above contributed. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-4, p. 611 Skill: Understanding

38. European governments began to provide welfare assistance primarily owing to ________ reasons. A) social B) economic C) altruistic D) selfish E) religious Answer: D Reference: LO 17-4, p. 611 Skill: Analysis 39. Scholars have argued that all of the following might explain the different social programs in Europe and the United States EXCEPT differences in A) political culture. B) religious attitudes. C) political institutions. D) value systems. E) All of the above explain the differences. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-4, p. 612 Skill: Understanding 40. When the Office of Education was established, in 1870, it primarily A) coordinated the curricula of schools in the same region. B) evaluated the performances of schools. C) gathered descriptive statistics on schools. D) contributed funding to local schools. E) instituted standardized testing. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-5, p. 612 Skill: Understanding 41. Which of the following served as a focusing event for educational reforms in the United States? A) The Great Depression B) The launch of Sputnik 1 C) The race to the moon D) Brown v. Board of Education E) The women’s-rights movement Answer: B Reference: LO 17-5, p. 612 Skill: Application

42. The federal government began to seriously concern itself with educational policy as a result of the perceived link between education and A) economic success. B) poverty. C) global competition. D) national security. E) social justice. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-5, p. 612 Skill: Analysis 43. High-school dropout rates in 2003–2004 were _______ for African-Americans as for white students. A) ten times as high B) seven times as high C) five times as high D) two to three times as high E) as high Answer: D Reference: LO 17-5, p. 614 Skill: Understanding 44. In an international comparison of student achievement, American students A) outperformed their competition. B) did much better on the high-school level than the college level. C) were roughly even with many other industrialized countries. D) were last in seven out of nineteen tests. E) were dead last on most of the tests. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-5, p. 614 Skill: Understanding 45. Which of the following has NOT been an effect of the No Child Left Behind program thus far? A) American students’ rankings in international comparisons have improved somewhat. B) The federal government has become an agenda setter in public education. C) The federal government has become more involved in school curricula. D) It has raised the stakes of standardized testing dramatically. E) All of the above have been effects. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 615–616 Skill: Understanding

46. The following are potential negative consequences of the No Child Left Behind program EXCEPT that it A) is potentially very costly. B) disadvantages some students. C) may not be using a good measure of academic performance. D) may widen the gap between good schools and bad schools. E) offers punishments but no rewards. Answer: B Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 615–616 Skill: Analysis 47. Charter schools would assign more responsibility to A) the schools themselves. B) state governments. C) the federal government. D) independent school boards. E) regulatory commissions. Answer: A Reference: LO 17-5, p. 617 Skill: Analysis 48. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the greater expenses of Medicare over Medicaid? A) The longevity of the elderly B) The cost of prescription drugs C) The program serves more people. D) The type of medical procedures needed E) All of the above contribute. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-6, p. 622 Skill: Understanding 49. If an individual qualifies for both Medicare and Medicaid, that person A) has to choose between the two programs. B) has to draw benefits from Medicare. C) has to draw benefits from Medicaid. D) can draw benefits from both. E) People never qualify for both; they are mutually exclusive. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-6, p. 622 Skill: Understanding

50. Compared to other countries, American health care is A) far superior. B) somewhat superior. C) mediocre at best. D) far inferior. E) not comparable. Answer: C Reference: LO 17-6, p. 623 Skill: Understanding 51. What is NOT a potential problem that results from ranking a nation’s health-care system at least partly on its citizens’ well-being? A) It could reflect cultural factors rather than merely health factors. B) It could reflect economic conditions in the country. C) It does not account for environmental factors. D) It is impossible to measure well-being. E) It does not account for military conflict. Answer: D Reference: LO 17-6, p. 624 Skill: Analysis True-False Questions 1. The 2008 economic recession led to unemployment rates in the United States that were higher than they had ever been since the end of World War II. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, p. 598 Skill: Understanding 2. A potential criticism of the $700 billion government bailout to prevent economic collapse is that it might encourage irresponsible business and investing practices. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, p. 599 Skill: Analysis 3. Lyndon B. Johnson’s ideal of a Great Society was largely defined on the basis of spiritual matters. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Understanding

4. Lyndon B. Johnson helped enact more social-policy programs than any other president since Woodrow Wilson. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-1, p. 601 Skill: Understanding 5. So-called policy entrepreneurs are only active when there is a definite need. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-1, p. 601 Skill: Understanding 6. So-called focusing events are needed in order to instill a sense of urgency in policymakers. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Understanding 7. Before the Great Depression, the government had hardly any responsibility for its citizens’ welfare. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Understanding 8. The measures used to determine the health of the economy are primarily focused on the current status quo. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-2, p. 603 Skill: Analysis 9. Cutting interest rates tends to increase economic activity and lowers the risk of inflation. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding 10. If the government increases its spending in an attempt to curb a financial crisis, it practices fiscal policy. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Understanding

11. The Social Security Act was originally intended to help families with young children. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-3, p. 605 Skill: Understanding 12. By 2030, the ratio of workers to social-security beneficiaries is expected to be two to one. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-3, p. 607 Skill: Understanding 13. Members of Congress are afraid to touch the issue of social-security reform. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-3, p. 608 Skill: Understanding 14. The social-security system is very similar to a pension fund. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-3, p. 608 Skill: Analysis 15. Unreported income and geographic differences are potentially big problems for the measures used to calculate the level of poverty. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 Skill: Analysis 16. The poor represent a random sample of the American people. It can happen to anyone. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-4, p. 610 Skill: Understanding 17. If your family consisted of two people, your income was below the poverty line, and you owned a car and furniture in the amount of roughly $4,000, you would be eligible to receive Supplemental Security Income (SSI). Answer: False Reference: LO 17-4, pgs. 610–611 Skill: Understanding 18. Compared to the United States, most European welfare systems are much younger. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-4, p. 611 Skill: Understanding

19. Based on current data, women are more likely to earn a college degree than men are. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, p. 614 Skill: Understanding 20. The No Child Left Behind program proved to be something of a turning point with regard to the government’s role in public education. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 615–616 Skill: Analysis 21. Charter schools are essentially public private schools. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, p. 617 Skill: Analysis 22. On average, the education of a student at a private school costs much more than the education of a student at a public school. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 618–620 Skill: Understanding 23. The difference in the test performances of students who attend private schools and students who attend public schools appears to depend on the student’s race, according to a study summarized in the textbook. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 618–620 Skill: Understanding 24. Medicaid serves more people in the United States but has lower expenditures than Medicare. Answer: True Reference: LO 17-6, p. 622 Skill: Understanding 25. Even though health care is more expensive in the United States than in most European countries, this also leads to more-advanced technology and better care. Answer: False Reference: LO 17-6, p. 623 Skill: Analysis

Short-Answer Questions 1. What types of inequalities are more likely than others to make the government intervene with social programs? Why do you believe that is? Do you agree with this approach? Reference: LO 17-1, p. 600 Skill: Evaluation 2. In what way could you see each of the following areas being linked to U.S. national security: education, energy, agriculture, and the environment? Reference: LO 17-1, p. 601 Skill: Application 3. What are the main indicators used to determine the health of the economy? Do you agree that these are good measures? Are they complete? If you could add one more measure, what would it be? Why? Reference: LO 17-2, pgs. 602–603 Skill: Analysis 4. How well do you think so-called shots in the arm like George W. Bush’s tax rebates of $600–$1,800 per household in 2008 work to stimulate the economy? Why? What would you suggest as a better alternative? Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Analysis 5. Should social-security benefits be based on demonstrated need? Why or why not? Reference: LO 17-3, p. 605 Skill: Evaluation 6. Based on what you know, who or what is primarily to blame for the problems of the Social Security program? Why? Reference: LO 17-3, pgs. 607–608 Skill: Evaluation 7. Would you consider the calculation of the level of poverty fair? Why or why not? What might be a better measure? Reference: LO 17-4, p. 609 Skill: Evaluation

8. Please compare and contrast the following programs in terms of their cost, their effectiveness, and their potential negative consequences: Aid to Families With Dependent Children, the Food Stamp program, and the Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC). Which approach is better in your opinion? Reference: LO 17-4, pgs. 610–611 Skill: Analysis 9. Please outline three major differences between the European and the American welfare systems. What accounts for these differences? Reference: LO 17-4, pgs. 611–612 Skill: Understanding 10. In your opinion, who should be able to determine such issues as a school’s curriculum, the language of instruction, and the funding of the school? Why? What are the pros and cons of your suggestion? Reference: LO 17-5, p. 612 Skill: Evaluation 11. What are some of the educational inequalities that still exist in the United States based on race and gender? How would you specifically address these issues? What kind of programs and/or incentives do you believe could work? Why? Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 613–620 Skill: Application 12. If you assume that many Asian countries and the United States rely heavily on standardized testing, whereas many European countries do not, how would you interpret the results presented in Table 17-1? Reference: LO 17-5, p. 615 (Table 17-1) Skill: Analysis 13. How does health care and health in the United States compare to other countries? What do you believe accounts for these differences? Would you take this as an incentive to reform health care? Why or why not? Reference: LO 17-6, pgs. 623–624 Skill: Analysis 14. How is it possible that Americans pay more for health care than most Europeans yet receive worse care? Some scholars have suggested that it is due to the high cost of insurance that physicians have to purchase. This, in turn, is caused by the staggering lawsuits against medical providers. Do you agree with this assessment? What—if anything—should be done about this? Reference: LO 17-6, pgs. 623–624 Skill: Evaluation 466 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15. Some have suggested that allowing Americans to purchase prescription drugs from foreign countries (e.g., Canada) could help offset some of the high medical costs in this country. What do you see as the pros and cons of this? Which outweigh which? Reference: LO 17-6, pgs. 623–626 Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. Ralph Nader once said, “The use of solar energy has not been opened up because the oil industry does not own the sun.” Please evaluate his statement on the basis of what you have learned about American politics, specifically with regard to energy-policy reforms. Reference: LO 17-1, pgs. 599–602 Skill: Analysis 2. Lyndon B. Johnson sought to create a Great Society. How did he define such a society, and how does this reflect the context of the times in which he lived? How would you define a Great Society, given our modern context? How close are we to achieving such a society? Reference: LO 17-1, pgs. 600–601 Skill: Evaluation 3. Please provide two examples that illustrate the tendency of presidents to frame government programs in terms of national security. Do you believe this approach is always justified? What are the advantages and disadvantages of heavy reliance on national-security rhetoric? Reference: LO 17-1, p. 601 Skill: Analysis 4. Assuming that the 2008 financial crisis can be considered a focusing event for the government, what long-lasting changes and/or new policy programs do you expect to result from this crisis? Support your answer. Reference: LO 17-1, p. 602 Skill: Application 5. U.S. public debt has surpassed $11 trillion in 2010. Simultaneously, the United States is increasingly dependent on foreign sources of revenue. How do you assess this situation? What are the potential implications for the United States in the near future, both domestically and internationally? Reference: LO 17-2, p. 604 Skill: Analysis

6. How is the program of Social Security set up? Who pays into it, who gets paid from it, and so on? Given that this is a pay-as-you-go program, what potential problems do you foresee in the future, and what causes these problems? Reference: LO 17-3, pgs. 605–608 Skill: Analysis 7. Based on what you know, how would you reform the Social Security program in order to ensure that it does not go bankrupt? Who would be most affected by your reforms? And how confident are you that your reforms would be accepted by politicians and the general public? Reference: LO 17-3, pgs. 605–608 Skill: Application 8. Imagine that the United States adopted a welfare system very similar to that of Europe. How do you think most Americans would react? What would the concrete consequences be for the American economy, for politics, and for society as a whole? Reference: LO 17-4, pgs. 611–612 Skill: Application 9. President Dwight D. Eisenhower once said, “As never before, the security and continued well-being of the United States depend on extension of scientific knowledge.” In what ways could this be said to apply to the United States in the 21st century? What are similarities and what are differences to the context in which Eisenhower said these words? Is scientific knowledge any more important today than it was then? Reference: LO 17-5, pgs. 612–620 Skill: Application 10. In terms of life expectancy, Americans trail virtually all Western European countries, despite comparable levels of development. What do you believe accounts for this? Provide several possible explanations. What should the United States do in order to address this deficiency? How well do you believe President Obama’s health-care reform is suited to achieve better health care for Americans? Reference: LO 17-6, pgs. 623–625 Skill: Analysis

Chapter Eighteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The military plan President Obama’s administration crafted for Afghanistan contained ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) An increase in American troops on the ground B) A focus on counterinsurgency efforts in the south of Afghanistan C) Battling corruption within the Afghan government D) Training Afghan security forces E) Integrating Taliban fighters into civil society Answer: C Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 630–631 Skill: Understanding 2. Until the twentieth century, the United States followed a grand strategy of A) internationalism. B) military expansion. C) defensive realism. D) isolationism. E) multinationalism. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 631 Skill: Understanding 3. A grand strategy of internationalism is largely based on A) human-rights concerns. B) global citizenship. C) national self-interest. D) economic concerns. E) moral concerns. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Analysis

4. The interwar period was characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A) U.S. isolationism. B) the dominance of the League of Nations. C) global economic crises. D) the rise of fascism in Europe. E) civil war in Europe. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 632–633 Skill: Understanding 5. The United States financed the economic reconstruction of Europe for the following reasons EXCEPT A) in order to create new markets for American goods. B) in order to prevent the renewed rise of extremism. C) as a safeguard against a communist invasion. D) in an attempt to create lasting peace in Europe. E) to control Western European governments. Answer: E Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 633–634 Skill: Analysis 6. Which of the following grand strategies is the least likely to be content with the status quo? A) Return to isolationism B) Selective engagement C) Cooperative security D) American primacy E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 636 Skill: Analysis 7. The Cold War can be said to have acted as a(n) _________ for ethnic and civil war. A) catalyst B) incubator C) deterrent D) enticement E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 637 Skill: Analysis

8. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the State Department? A) To represent U.S. interests abroad and in international organizations B) To oversee and coordinate military efforts C) To communicate with foreign governments D) To communicate with foreign publics E) To oversee and coordinate foreign aid Answer: B Reference: LO 18-2, p. 639 Skill: Understanding 9. The most frequent stick employed in U.S. foreign policy is A) the promise of foreign aid. B) military intervention. C) mutually assured destruction. D) economic sanctions. E) diplomatic sanctions. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Understanding 10. What types of countries do you believe economic sanctions will be least effective against? A) Democracies B) Industrialized countries C) Autocracies D) Electoral democracies E) All of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis 11. The Central Intelligence Agency A) has a larger budget than the FBI. B) employs more people than the FBI. C) has a smaller budget than the Department of Defense. D) employs fewer people than the Department of Defense. E) That information is classified. Answer: E Reference: LO 18-2, p. 645 Skill: Understanding

12. The making and breaking of secret codes is called A) encoding. B) decoding. C) cryptography. D) calligraphy. E) code-making. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-2, p. 646 Skill: Understanding 13. Over the last 200 years, the number of executive agreements has A) increased significantly. B) increased slightly. C) remained relatively stable. D) decreased slightly. E) decreased significantly. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-3, p. 650 Skill: Understanding 14. Foreign-policy interest groups typically fall into the following categories EXCEPT A) think tanks. B) ethnic lobbies. C) business groups. D) national lobbies. E) All of the above are categories. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-4, p. 652 Skill: Understanding 15. In order to serve the purpose of a deterrent to open hostility, a country’s nuclear-weapons program has to have A) long-range-delivery capabilities. B) second-strike capabilities. C) multiple warheads. D) A and B. E) all of the above. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Analysis

True-False Questions 1. Initially, the original spirit contained in the Monroe Doctrine was primarily defensive and oriented toward the status quo. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-1, p. 631 Skill: Analysis 2. The counterpart to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization was the Warsaw Pact. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Understanding 3. The first Gulf War of 1991 combined elements of selective engagement and American primacy. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-1, p. 635 Skill: Analysis 4. One of the tasks of the State Department is to coordinate U.S. military efforts overseas. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, p. 638 Skill: Understanding 5. According to Daniel Drezner, economic sanctions work very well as part of a larger pattern of conflict. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 641–643 Skill: Understanding 6. The CIA has played a less important role as an operational foreign-policy tool in recent years. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, p. 645 Skill: Understanding 7. Since its ratification in 1993, NAFTA has had primarily positive effects on the U.S. economy, illustrating the benefits of free trade. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Understanding

8. One of the most influential interest groups in U.S. foreign policy has been the AmericanIsraeli Public Affairs Committee. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-4, p. 651 Skill: Understanding 9. Congress’s decision to exceed the funding request of George W. Bush for his global AIDS program represented a complete turnaround from the previous administration’s experiences, illustrating the power of interest groups. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 653–654 Skill: Analysis 10. The Supreme Court decided against the Bush administration in the case of Hamdi v. Rumsfeld, arguing that suspects had the same civil liberties as American citizens. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-5, p. 659 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The following are reasons that achieving U.S. goals in Afghanistan have been difficult EXCEPT A) corruption in the democratically elected Afghan government. B) not giving more responsibility to Afghan police forces. C) the lack of American public support for the war effort. D) the continued Taliban influence due to the opium trade. E) a flailing Afghan economy. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 630–631 Skill: Understanding 2. The United States’ larger plan for its foreign policy is typically referred to as its A) grand strategy. B) diplomacy. C) paradigm. D) military strategy. E) foreign-policy strategy. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, p. 631 Skill: Understanding

3. The United States’ grand strategy contains ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) A definition of national interests B) An identification of possible threats C) An assessment of the moral implications of policies D) A recommendation for military policies E) A recommendation for diplomatic policies Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 631 Skill: Understanding 4. The notion that the United States should expand westward was expressed in A) the Monroe Doctrine. B) the westward expansion. C) the American creed. D) Manifest Destiny. E) the westward spirit. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Understanding 5. The Monroe Doctrine A) declared that Manifest Destiny had been reached. B) stated the belief in America’s superiority. C) warned European countries not to meddle in the Western Hemisphere. D) declared war against Mexico. E) ended the War of 1812. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Understanding 6. ALL BUT WHICH of the following forced America to reconsider its grand strategy of isolationism? A) Internal pressures B) The need for natural resources C) External pressures D) Industrialization E) International economic ties Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 632–633 Skill: Understanding

7. The United States primarily entered World War I owing to ________ interests. A) geographic B) security C) humanitarian D) economic E) moral Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Understanding 8. Wilson’s Fourteen Points primarily outlined A) a military strategy for the preservation of world peace. B) plans for the payment of reparations by the losers of World War I. C) an idealist vision for peaceful relations among countries. D) the superiority of the United States in world politics. E) the establishment of a complex network of international organizations to serve American economic interests. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Understanding 9. Woodrow Wilson—based on his Fourteen Points—could best be described as a A) realist. B) pragmatist. C) dreamer. D) idealist. E) economist. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Analysis 10. Hitler’s ability to rise to power in Germany can largely be attributed to ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The unique gullibility of the German people B) The economic situation in Europe C) The weakness of democratic institutions in Germany D) The consequences of World War I E) All of the above contributed. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Analysis

11. In the context of pre-World War II Europe, the two main coalitions consisted of _________ on one side and _________ on the other. A) Italy, Germany, and Japan; France, Russia, and Britain B) Britain, Spain, and France; Germany, Russia, and Italy C) Italy, Germany, and Hungary; France, Russia, and America D) Britain, Japan, and America; Germany, Italy, and Russia E) Russia, America, and France; Germany, Austria, and Italy Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Understanding 12. Many Americans did not want to be dragged into World War II because they A) knew war would be costly. B) did not think Hitler could be defeated. C) did not think Hitler was a threat to America. D) felt America had no immediate interests at stake. E) did not realize the magnitude of the situation in Europe. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Analysis 13. The Marshall Plan A) proposed to turn Germany into an agricultural state that could never again threaten the rest of Europe. B) poured billions of dollars into the economic reconstruction of Germany and Europe. C) initiated the establishment of a number of organizations—such as NATO— designed to keep the peace in Europe. D) advocated the occupation and demilitarization of Germany. E) advocated the containment of aggressive Soviet foreign policy. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Understanding 14. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was primarily founded on the basis of A) collective security. B) economic interests. C) diplomacy. D) international trade. E) All of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Analysis

15. Which of the following slogans best describes the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? A) Us versus them. B) One for all, and all for one. C) Until the bitter end. D) The best defense is a good offense. E) Don’t trust them farther than you can throw them. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Analysis 16. The strategy adopted by the United States in the late forties was called A) offensive realism. B) rollback. C) containment. D) anticommunism. E) internationalism. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Understanding 17. In his analysis of the situation, George F. Kennan recommended A) the control and inhibition of aggressive Soviet expansion. B) that the United States should largely ignore the Soviet Union. C) covert military operations in Eastern Europe in order to free some of the countries from communism. D) a retreat into isolationism. E) a so-called policy of détente. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Understanding 18. During the Cold War, the United States focused its attentions in the fight against communism on ALL BUT WHICH of the following regions? A) Eastern Europe B) Western Europe C) Africa D) The Middle East E) Latin America Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 634–635 Skill: Understanding

19. One of the lessons of the Vietnam War was that A) the loss of American lives was too high a cost for the sake of containment. B) the dangers of continued confrontations with the Soviet Union were too high. C) coming out of isolationism was a mistake. D) the United States military was not trained to deal with the new type of warfare encountered in the war. E) All of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, p. 635 Skill: Analysis 20. ALL BUT WHICH of the following likely contributed to the adoption of a policy of détente between the United States and Soviet Union? A) The realization that both countries had reached something of a stalemate B) The extremely high costs of war for the two superpowers C) The worsening economic situation in the Soviet Union D) The genuine desire to improve bilateral relationships E) The acceptance of the current status quo Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 635–636 Skill: Analysis 21. Which of the following was NOT an option brought up by scholars and policy-makers for a post-Cold War grand strategy for the United States? A) Return to isolationism B) Selective engagement C) Cautious disengagement D) Cooperative security E) American primacy Answer: C Reference: LO 18-1, p. 636 Skill: Understanding 22. Which of the following grand strategies is the MOST likely to accept the status quo? A) Return to isolationism B) Selective engagement C) Cooperative security D) American primacy E) A and D Answer: E Reference: LO 18-1, p. 636 Skill: Analysis

23. Which of the following post-Cold War grand strategies is MOST reminiscent of U.S. foreign policy during the Cold War? A) Return to isolationism B) Selective engagement C) Cooperative security D) American primacy E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, p. 636 Skill: Analysis 24. Saddam Hussein’s invasion of Kuwait in 1990 did ALL BUT WHICH of the following? It A) was supported by other Arab nations. B) threatened American national interests. C) prompted a collective response. D) was motivated by oil interests. E) came as a surprise to the international community. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 636–637 Skill: Understanding 25. The following were all elements of the United States’ post-9/11 grand strategy EXCEPT A) preemptive strikes. B) collective security. C) unilateralism. D) a focus on non-state actors. E) instrumental multilateralism. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-1, p. 637 Skill: Understanding 26. How was the United States’ intervention in Afghanistan received by the rest of the world? A) America’s European allies approved of and participated in the intervention. B) The United Nations considered it a legitimate case of self-defense. C) Much of the world was sympathetic to the United States. D) Much of the world was sympathetic but would have preferred a peaceful solution. E) NATO considered it a case of collective security. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 637–638 Skill: Analysis

27. The Bush administration’s arguments in favor of invading Iraq in 2003 included all but which of the following? A) Iraq’s natural resources are important to U.S. national interests. B) Saddam Hussein was trying to acquire weapons of mass destruction. C) Saddam Hussein had ties to Al Qaeda. D) Containment of dictators does not work. E) There was a threat of nuclear proliferation. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-1, p. 638 Skill: Understanding 28. Arguably the most important agency to the president when it comes to foreign-policy decisions is the A) Department of Homeland Security. B) National Security Council. C) CIA and FBI. D) State Department. E) Pentagon. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-2, p. 639 Skill: Understanding 29. By law, the National Security Council must include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) The vice-president B) The national-security adviser C) The secretary of state D) The Speaker of the House E) The Joint Chiefs of Staff Answer: D Reference: LO 18-2, p. 639 Skill: Understanding 30. Through sanctions, the State Department can accomplish ALL BUT WHICH of the following? It can A) help overthrow a government. B) signal its displeasure. C) try to undermine another government. D) try to force a country to comply with its wishes. E) try to avoid military action. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis

31. Research shows that economic sanctions can be successful if goals are A) clear. B) modest. C) important. D) well thought-out. E) shared with other countries. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Understanding 32. When the United States placed economic sanctions against China and India in 2002 A) most Western democracies supported these sanctions. B) the sanctions achieved their goals. C) the World Trade Organization placed sanctions against the United States in return. D) China and India retaliated. E) the United States did not place any sanctions against China and India. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Understanding 33. What is the most likely reason why sanctions tend not to work well? A) Stubbornness B) Globalization C) Lack of enforcement D) Lack of capability to levy sanctions E) B and C Answer: E Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis 34. Based on Daniel Drezner’s arguments, we might conclude that sanctions A) work best when they are used against a country for the first time. B) never work against allies. C) work best as a tool in a larger pattern of conflict. D) work better if they are used repeatedly against the same country. E) never work. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis

35. Over time, the expenditures of the Department of Defense have A) decreased significantly. B) decreased somewhat. C) remained the same. D) increased somewhat. E) increased significantly. Answer: E Reference: LO 18-2, p. 644 (Figure 18-2) Skill: Analysis 36. Which of the following is NOT true about U.S. military spending in 2006? The United States A) spent more than any other country in the world. B) spent more than the next fourteen countries combined. C) accounted for almost half of all military expenditures worldwide. D) had the largest military in the world. E) spent more than during the Cold War. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-2, p. 644 Skill: Understanding 37. When military spending fell dramatically at the end of the Cold War, this was referred to as a(n) A) anomaly. B) cutback. C) peace dividend. D) temporary dip. E) return. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-2, p. 644 Skill: Understanding 38. The key issue in trade policy concerns A) exports. B) imports. C) tariffs. D) sanctions. E) deficits. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-3, p. 647 Skill: Understanding

39. Which has the power to declare war? A) The president B) The Senate C) The House of Representatives D) Congress E) All of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Understanding 40. The War Powers Resolution (1973) as a whole gives more power to A) the president. B) the Senate. C) Congress. D) the American people. E) the courts. Answer: C Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Understanding 41. In practice, the War Powers Resolution (1973) has constrained the president’s warmaking powers _______ Congress had hoped. A) much more than B) more than C) as much as D) less than E) in no way as much as Answer: D Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Understanding 42. The Constitution places the power for treaty-making in the hands of A) the Senate. B) the House of Representatives. C) the president. D) the State Department. E) A and C. Answer: E Reference: LO 18-3, p. 651 Skill: Understanding

43. Either chamber of Congress can convene hearings on topics related to the conduct of foreign policy A) during times of war. B) during times of economic crisis. C) in the area of military policy. D) at any time and on any topic. E) Only the Senate can convene such hearings. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-3, p. 651 Skill: Understanding 44. One analysis, cited in the textbook, suggested that one in ___ jobs relied directly or indirectly on federal defense spending. A) twenty B) fifteen C) ten D) five E) three Answer: C Reference: LO 18-4, p. 653 Skill: Understanding 45. One of the reasons George W. Bush was so successful in securing congressional approval for his 2003 global AIDS program was that the issue had been framed in terms of A) national security. B) moral imperatives. C) self-interest. D) costs and benefits. E) economic incentives. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 654–655 Skill: Understanding 46. Which of the following does NOT currently have nuclear weapons? A) France B) China C) Germany D) The United Kingdom E) Russia Answer: C Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Understanding

47. The possession of second-strike nuclear capabilities by both sides in a conflict is referred to as A) deterrence. B) mutually assured destruction. C) stalemate. D) retaliation capability. E) counterstrike force. Answer: B Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Understanding 48. ALL BUT WHICH of the following provisions is contained in the Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty (NPT)? A) Nuclear-weapons states must have their stockpiles legitimated. B) Nuclear-weapons states may not transfer weapons or know-how to nonnuclear states. C) Nuclear-weapons states must assist nonnuclear states in the development of peaceful nuclear energy. D) Nonnuclear states must enter into safeguard agreements. E) Nonnuclear states must not develop any nuclear programs whatsoever. Answer: E Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Understanding 49. Which of the following arguments is NOT likely to be used by proponents of protectionism? Protectionism is necessary in order to A) maximize government tax revenue. B) protect domestic industries that are strategically important. C) protect domestic industries that are still immature. D) enhance a country’s independence. E) reduce international competition for domestic producers. Answer: A Reference: LO 18-5, p. 658 Skill: Analysis

50. Which of the following was NOT an argument made by the administration’s lawyers in Hamdi v. Rumsfeld? A) The president’s constitutional war powers gave him the right to declare someone an enemy combatant and detain him. B) The president had the authority to exercise all necessary and appropriate force against terrorists. C) National-security concerns dictated the selective use of military detentions. D) The detainees were not U.S. citizens and therefore not protected by the same civil liberties. E) All of the above were arguments made. Answer: D Reference: LO 18-5, pgs. 659–661 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. America’s nineteenth-century grand strategy primarily sought to distance it from European affairs. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 631–632 Skill: Understanding 2. Woodrow Wilson’s “Fourteen Points” speech represents a brief turn toward internationalism in American foreign policy. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Understanding 3. The American public and Congress were reluctant to enter World War II but accepted Franklin D. Roosevelt’s lend-lease program as necessary. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-1, p. 633 Skill: Understanding 4. The Vietnam War caused both the United States and the Soviet Union to reconsider their foreign-policy approaches, ultimately leading to an easing of tensions. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 634–635 Skill: Understanding

5. The post-Cold War grand strategy that is probably the most costly is the strategy of selective engagement. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-1, p. 636 Skill: Analysis 6. One of the jobs the State Department performs is to analyze events abroad and to judge their implications for U.S. foreign interests. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-2, p. 639 Skill: Understanding 7. Promising military aid in exchange for complying with the United States’ wishes is referred to as the sticks approach. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, p. 642 Skill: Understanding 8. One possible explanation for the decreased success of sanctions over time is globalization. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis 9. The responsibilities of the Department of Defense have not increased significantly over time. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, p. 644 Skill: Understanding 10. The United States spends more on the military now than it did during the Cold War. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-2, p. 644 Skill: Understanding 11. The CIA is often unfairly criticized, mainly because its failures are very visible, whereas its successes are not. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-2, p. 646 Skill: Understanding

12. When the Department of Homeland Security was created, it combined a large number of other agencies, including the Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS) and the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). Answer: False Reference: LO 18-2, p. 647 Skill: Understanding 13. The most significant trade agreement in recent history is NAFTA. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-3, p. 647 Skill: Understanding 14. Under the War Powers Act of 1973, the president has 90 days before he has to seek approval for military deployments. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Understanding 15. The Senate typically does NOT reject treaties entered into by the president. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-3, p. 650 Skill: Understanding 16. Presidents can use so-called executive agreements in order to bypass the typically required Senate ratification of international treaties. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-3, p. 650 Skill: Understanding 17. Presidents have used executive agreements very sparingly and typically only in emergency situations. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-3, p. 650 Skill: Understanding 18. Among other methods, Congress can influence foreign policy through oversight (e.g., in the form of hearings on foreign-policy topics). Answer: True Reference: LO 18-3, p. 651 Skill: Understanding

19. All think tanks that advise the government on foreign policy are either centrist or right of center in terms of their political ideology. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 653–654 Skill: Understanding 20. Prior to 2002, the United States had ranked near the top among members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in terms of its foreign-development aid as a percentage of its gross national income. Answer: False Reference: LO 18-4, p. 654 Skill: Understanding 21. The primary use of nuclear weapons lies in their potential to deter military attacks. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Understanding 22. The fact that both the United States and the Soviet Union had second-strike nuclear capabilities contributed greatly to the relative peacefulness of the Cold War. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-5, p. 656 Skill: Understanding 23. North Korea justified its development of nuclear weapons as necessary in the face of U.S. hostility against its country. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-5, p. 657 Skill: Understanding 24. The person most closely identified with the philosophy of free trade was Adam Smith. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-5, p. 658 Skill: Understanding 25. A June 2008 decision by the Supreme Court allowed detainees at Guantánamo Bay to challenge their detainment in civilian courts rather than in front of a military court. Answer: True Reference: LO 18-5, p. 661 Skill: Understanding

Short-Answer Questions 1. Please outline the various factors that paved the way for the rise of fascism in Europe and the onset of World War I. To what degree—of any—do you believe American isolationism can be blamed for what happened? Reference: LO 18-1, p. 632 Skill: Evaluation 2. State Department diplomat George F. Kennan said in the fifties that the Soviet economic system bore within itself the “seeds of its own decay and…the sprouting of those seeds is well advanced.” What did he mean by that? Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Analysis 3. When the American media began to speak of the emergence of an imperial presidency in foreign affairs, what did it mean to imply with this term? What had prompted the media to think of the presidency that way? What were the implications of this perception? Reference: LO 18-1, p. 635 Skill: Application 4. In your own words, please describe the United States’ post-9/11 grand strategy. How successful do you believe this strategy can be? What are the advantages and disadvantages in a globalized world? Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 637–638 Skill: Analysis 5. What would you consider the most important challenge facing U.S. foreign policy in the next few years? How well equipped do you think the United States is to meet this challenge? Reference: LO 18-1, p. 638 Skill: Evaluation 6. What are the pros and cons of using sticks as opposed to carrots in foreign policy? Illustrate your answer by giving examples. Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Analysis 7. Do you think the assassination of foreign leaders is morally acceptable? Under what circumstances would you find this more acceptable? Why? What are the potential dangers associated with adopting such a strategy? Reference: LO 18-2, p. 646 Skill: Evaluation

8. What are so-called symbolic resolutions, and what effects do they have as foreign-policy tools compared to other tools? Provide examples to illustrate your point. Reference: LO 18-3, p. 649 Skill: Evaluation 9. Please explain the controversy surrounding George W. Bush’s U.N. ambassador John Bolton. Do you believe that presidents should be able to make recess appointments like this one? Why or why not? Reference: LO 18-3, p. 650 Skill: Evaluation 10. In his farewell address, President Eisenhower warned against the “acquisition of unwanted influence, whether sought or unsought, by the military-industrial complex.” Based on what you know, how good of a job have governments since then done in obeying his advice? Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 652–654 Skill: Analysis 11. Based on what you know, what role have religious organizations played in U.S. foreign policy? Illustrate your answer on the basis of at least two different examples. What role do you see for such organizations in the next twenty years? Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 652–654 Skill: Application 12. What explains George W. Bush’s success in his request for funds to fight AIDS in fifteen developing countries, especially given Congress’s mixed record of approving such programs? Reference: LO 18-4, pgs. 654–655 Skill: Analysis 13. Based on what you know, how likely is it that the United States and others can prevent the spread of nuclear weapons indefinitely? What speaks for it and what makes this endeavor so difficult? Reference: LO 18-5, pgs. 656–657 Skill: Analysis 14. Please explain the differences between the philosophy behind free trade and that of protectionism. How feasible is the practice of protectionism in a globalized world? Support your answer. Reference: LO 18-5, p. 658 Skill: Evaluation

15. In your own words, describe the debate surrounding the war on terrorism and civil liberties. How far do you think the government should be allowed to go in the name of national security? Reference: LO 18-5, pgs. 659–661 Skill: Evaluation Essay Questions 1. The United States’ grand strategy until the twentieth century was isolationism. How do American history and the context of the domestic and international situation help explain this preference for isolationist foreign policy? What changed in the twentieth century in order to make America become more involved in world politics? Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 631–633 Skill: Analysis 2. What do you think would have happened to Europe had to the United States not contributed to the economic reconstruction of the European economies? Try to be specific, and base your suggestions on a logical analysis of the postwar situation. Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 633–634 Skill: Analysis 3. As part of its strategy of containment, the United States frequently sponsored government coups, funded anticommunist insurgencies, and provided financial and military assistance to rebel groups. Do you believe in this case that the ends justified the means? Why or why not? Reference: LO 18-1, p. 634 Skill: Evaluation 4. If you had to devise your own grand strategy for U.S. foreign policy in the 21st century, what would it look like? In your answer, try to consider the current global and domestic context, the feasibility of your plan, and the potential consequences for the United States. Reference: LO 18-1, pgs. 636–637 Skill: Application 5. Think about the four different post-Cold War grand strategies the textbook introduced. For each of them, how would adopting it affect the U.S. military? What specific changes and reforms would be necessary? Why? Which would be the most costly, and which would be the cheapest? Reference: LO 18-1 and LO 18-2, pgs. 636–637 and pgs. 644–645 Skill: Application

6. How successful have economic sanctions been as a foreign-policy tool? Why? In your opinion, are sanctions morally justifiable? Why or why not? Use real-world examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 642–644 Skill: Evaluation 7. Donald Rumsfeld was quoted as saying that recent changes in military technology have made large armies less important for military victories. What do you believe is most important in this day and age for military success? Be specific, and provide examples to illustrate your arguments. Reference: LO 18-2, pgs. 644–645 Skill: Analysis 8. It is not a secret that presidents often give diplomatic positions such as ambassadorships to loyal friends or party members, often in return for a favor or even a sizeable campaign contribution. Do you believe that this is an acceptable practice? Under what circumstances is this more acceptable? Reference: LO 18-3, pgs. 649–650 Skill: Evaluation 9. Some scholars have suggested that the spread of nuclear capabilities may not be an entirely unwelcome prospect owing to their deterrence potential. In your opinion, how likely is it that a new “mutually assured destruction” situation would develop and deter open hostilities among opponents in much the same way as it did during the Cold War? For instance, what do you think would happen if Iran—Israel’s sworn enemy—were to acquire nuclear weapons? Reference: LO 18-5, pgs. 655–657 Skill: Analysis 10. Please write an essay about U.S. foreign policy in the 21st century. Your answer should include your assessment of some of the most important challenges (and how they could best be met), constraints (domestic and international), and opportunities. In your own opinion, what is the best course of action in U.S. foreign policy for the next five years? Reference: LO 18-1, LO 18-2, LO 18-3, and LO 18-4, entire chapter Skill: Analysis

Chapter Nineteen Reading-Comprehension Quiz Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Differences in state policies concerning illegal immigrants are best understood by looking at A) the size of the state’s immigrant population. B) the politics and personalities of the state’s government. C) the ideological makeup of the state’s legislature. D) its geographic location. E) the country of origin of most of its immigrants. Answer: B Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Understanding 2. How are state policies established? A) By state legislatures B) With the approval of state governors C) Through direct initiatives D) Through referenda E) It depends on the state. Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Analysis 3. As new states formed, they drafted constitutions that had ALL BUT WHICH of the following characteristics? They A) were closely modeled on those of already existing states. B) limited state governments. C) were responses to the Colonial period. D) were largely context dependent. E) clearly defined state powers. Answer: E Reference: LO 19-1, pgs. 668–669 Skill: Analysis

4. Compared to many European and Asian countries, the general attitude toward government in the United States is A) supportive. B) cynical. C) optimistic. D) defensive. E) resigned. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 5. The most common type of local governments are A) townships. B) municipalities. C) special districts. D) counties. E) towns. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 (Table 19-1) Skill: Understanding 6. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are roles the governor fulfills? A) Treaty making B) Agenda setting C) Budgeting D) Making appointments to administrative agencies E) Modifying court actions Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, p. 673 Skill: Understanding 7. The most substantial powers of governors in the judicial system result from their ability to A) pardon criminals. B) appoint the attorney general. C) appoint judges. D) propose the budget. E) Governors do not have any power in the judicial system. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, p. 675 Skill: Understanding

8. State legislatures have seen their powers _________ since the sixties. A) increase significantly B) increase slightly C) neither increase nor decrease D) decrease E) There is no general trend. Answer: D Reference: LO 19-2, p. 676 Skill: Understanding 9. Arguments in favor of term limits include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? They would A) enhance representation. B) avoid the possibility of individuals having monopolies over legislative seats. C) increase the level of expertise in the legislature. D) increase the responsiveness of legislators. E) give more power over the legislature to voters. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 676–677 Skill: Analysis 10. Which of the following is NOT part of the general patterns among local governments? A) Most cities have directly elected mayors. B) Most mayors combine the three branches of government within their positions. C) Towns and villages tend to have mayors elected from among council members. D) Mayors are typically working full-time. E) Elected executives in smaller municipalities are typically working part-time. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, p. 680 Skill: Understanding 11. The shooting incident at Northern Illinois University in 2008 showed that public officials A) had learned the lessons of Virginia Tech, responding as efficiently as could be expected. B) had learned some lessons from Virginia Tech, improving its emergency-response plan and shutting down campus in a very short period of time. C) had learned nothing from Virginia Tech, neither improving the emergencyresponse plan nor trying to prevent such an incident from happening. D) were oblivious to the potential problem and denied any responsibility afterward. E) None of the above Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 682–684 Skill: Analysis

12. Which of the following is the LEAST close to direct democracy? A) The council-manager form of government B) The commission form of government C) Town meetings D) Representative town meetings E) None of the above Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, p. 684 Skill: Analysis 13. Which of the following have limited appeal? A) Municipal courts B) Special courts C) County courts D) State Supreme Courts E) Appeals courts Answer: D Reference: LO 19-3, p. 687 (Figure 19-3) Skill: Understanding 14. In systems in which judges are elected in partisan elections, which of the following is the most likely to influence the judges’ decisions? A) Public opinion B) Party pressure C) Campaign contributions D) The judge’s level of partisanship E) The judge’s personality Answer: C Reference: LO 19-3, pgs. 690–692 Skill: Understanding 15. When governments have to get voter approval to borrow money for a new project, they do so in a so-called ________ referendum. A) bond B) popular C) direct D) advisory E) budget Answer: A Reference: LO 19-4, p. 694 Skill: Understanding

True-False Questions 1. States that are very lenient when it comes to granting residency status to the children of illegal immigrants attract a large number of new immigrants every year. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Understanding 2. The Northwest Ordinance of 1787 required states that wanted to be admitted to the union had to have a certain minimum of free inhabitants and constitutions that were acceptable to Congress. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-1, p. 668 Skill: Understanding 3. According to Dillon’s rule, local governments are creatures of state governments and cannot exist without them. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-1, p. 670 Skill: Analysis 4. Much of the governor’s power and influence is derived from the high visibility of the office. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 671 Skill: Understanding 5. Most of the Supreme Court legislation addressing the imbalance of representation in state legislatures occurred during the sixties. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 674 Skill: Understanding 6. Some state legislatures meet part-time, and legislators receive no salary. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 675 Skill: Understanding 7. Most local government executives are elected in nonpartisan elections. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 678 Skill: Understanding

8. Drug use and drug trafficking are good examples of cases in which dual jurisdiction applies. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-3, p. 683 Skill: Understanding 9. More states have the direct initiative at the local level than at the state level. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-4, p. 686 Skill: Understanding 10. In the majority of states that allow a recall, a public official does not have to have committed a crime or done anything wrong for a recall to occur. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-4, p. 692 Skill: Understanding Chapter Exam Multiple-Choice Questions 1. Do children of illegal immigrants qualify for in-state tuition at state universities? A) No, they could never be eligible, since their parents are illegal. B) No, George W. Bush’s immigration reform has made it impossible to qualify for state-sponsored programs as an illegal. C) Yes, if the university is willing to accept their residency status. D) Yes, they do qualify. E) Yes, if the state government has made such a provision. Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Understanding

2. In 2008, Virginia’s attorney general did all of the following EXCEPT A) tell public officials that children of illegal immigrants are not legal residents of Virginia, even if they were born in the state. B) tell universities that an in-state-tuition ban applied to children of illegal immigrants but that the universities could make exceptions on a case-by-case basis. C) provoke controversy by contradicting a Virginia law that makes children born in Virginia citizens of that state. D) raise eyebrows by making the students’ parents’ status the crucial element. E) base his arguments on clearly defined laws. Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Analysis 3. Allowing illegal immigrants to take advantage of educational opportunities would likely A) raise tuition costs for everyone else. B) be considered highly unfair, since illegal immigrants don’t pay taxes. C) reduce the quality of education for others. D) take away university spots from American students. E) None of the above can be concluded. Answer: E Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Analysis 4. The Northwest Ordinance A) established the division of power between state governments. B) established Manifest Destiny. C) declared the frontier officially closed. D) provided for the admission of new states. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 668 Skill: Understanding 5. The federal Constitution is meant to __________ government, and state constitutions are designed to _________ government. A) empower, limit B) limit, empower C) empower, empower D) limit, limit E) severely limit, somewhat limit Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 668 Skill: Understanding

6. State constitutions included clauses that did all of the following EXCEPT A) limit officials from placing restrictions on the freedom of speech of citizens. B) limit officials from placing restrictions on the right to assemble. C) limit the possibility of revolts. D) prohibit unreasonable searches and seizures. E) prohibit cruel and unusual punishment. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-1, pgs. 668–669 Skill: Understanding 7. The first state constitutions tended to include ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Weak government institutions B) Part-time legislatures C) Short terms for governors D) The equal division of decision-making duties between the different branches E) Largely ceremonial duties for governors Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 8. The Progressive movement began when A) the Northwest Territories reached statehood. B) the western states began to join the Union. C) the southern states rewrote their constitutions after the Civil War. D) all states had already joined. E) Hawaii became a state. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 9. The Progressive movement did ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) It increased indirect democracy. B) It empowered voters. C) It limited the power of state governments. D) It attempted to prevent the emergence of political machines. E) It did all of the above. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding

10. The initiative refers to A) a member of the state legislature proposing a bill. B) the governor proposing a bill. C) citizens putting a proposed law on the ballot. D) the judiciary striking down a law as unconstitutional. E) the judiciary exercising quasi-legislative powers through the judicial review. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 11. The recall refers to a A) law that previously passed being overturned. B) law that had previously been repealed being brought back. C) former official being reinstated into office. D) current public official being removed from office by voters. E) None of the above Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 12. How would the Founding Fathers have felt about the Progressive movement? They would have A) loved it. B) liked it but would have been cautious. C) felt indifferent about it. D) been skeptical about it. E) It depends on the specific element of the movement. Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Analysis 13. Dillon’s rule states that, according to the U.S. Constitution and state constitution of Iowa, ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about local governments? They A) were more independent than state governments. B) did not enjoy sovereignty. C) had no inherent powers. D) did not have to conform to a basic set of characteristics. E) did not have to have separation of powers. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-1, p. 670 Skill: Understanding

14. State governments recognize the existence of local governments by granting them A) constitutions. B) charters. C) deeds. D) licenses. E) bonds. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-1, p. 670 Skill: Understanding 15. States use ________ as basic administrative units for many of their programs. A) counties B) towns C) townships D) municipalities E) cities Answer: A Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 Skill: Understanding 16. Which of the following are typically responsible for emergency services? A) States B) Counties C) Towns D) Townships E) Municipalities Answer: B Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 Skill: Understanding 17. Special districts are typically organized on the basis of A) demographics. B) geography. C) size. D) issues. E) religion. Answer: D Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 Skill: Understanding

18. By 2008, roughly what percentage of U.S. states had passed laws allowing the creation of charter schools? A) All of them B) 80 percent C) 60 percent D) 40 percent E) 20 percent Answer: B Reference: LO 19-1, p. 672 Skill: Understanding 19. The primary role of a governor is to A) serve as a role model. B) arbitrate between different interests. C) set the agenda for state governments. D) balance the legislature. E) appear on television. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 673 Skill: Understanding 20. With regard to the state budget, governors A) typically get most of what they want. B) typically get very few of their original requests. C) tend to propose only very general ideas and allow the legislatures to determine the details. D) tend to propose very detailed budgets, knowing that much will be revised. E) tend to get what they want mainly because they already involve the legislature long before they officially submit their proposals. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 673–674 Skill: Analysis 21. All state governors have A) line-item-veto powers. B) general veto authority. C) package-veto authority. D) B and C. E) all of the above. Answer: D Reference: LO 19-2, p. 674 Skill: Understanding

22. The most common and significant elected agency head in state governments is the A) state controller. B) secretary of state. C) attorney general. D) treasurer. E) lieutenant governor. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 674 Skill: Understanding 23. With regard to convicted criminals, governors have the ability to do all of the following EXCEPT A) pardon criminals. B) reduce the sentences of criminals. C) overturn a conviction. D) commute a sentence. E) parole prisoners. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 675 Skill: Understanding 24. The main reason why state legislatures became increasingly unrepresentative during the first half of the twentieth century has to do with A) women’s rights. B) the urbanization of many states. C) the increase in the number of immigrants. D) the increasing diversity of the population. E) minority rights. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, p. 676 Skill: Understanding 25. The Supreme Court’s decision in Baker v. Carr led to ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) More-representative policy agendas B) Changes in state budgets C) The reorganization of counties D) Changes in legislative actions E) The redrawing of district lines Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 676 Skill: Understanding

26. Compared to 1960, ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true about state legislatures? A) They meet more often. B) There is more committee work on proposed legislation. C) They examine issues in greater depth. D) They attract more professional legislators. E) They have longer term limits. Answer: E Reference: LO 19-2, p. 676 Skill: Understanding 27. Which party controlled the majority of state legislatures between 1952 and 1992? A) The Democratic Party B) The Republican Party C) Third parties D) They were relatively evenly split. E) There was no clear trend. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, p. 678 Skill: Understanding 28. Party control of a state legislature is NOT critical for A) determining chair committees. B) future electoral success. C) agenda setting. D) budgetary decisions. E) legislative advantages. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, p. 678 Skill: Understanding 29. The partisan divide in state legislatures has A) never been as bad as it is in Congress. B) become less pronounced over time. C) become very wide and often bitter. D) not affected effective decision-making. E) often been offset by different majorities in each chamber. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 678 Skill: Understanding

30. Which of the following is NOT true about local government executives? A) Theirs is the most visible position in government. B) They have the opportunity to set the agenda. C) They have powers similar to executives at other levels of government. D) They can serve in a weak or strong mayor system. E) All of the above are true. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 679–680 Skill: Understanding 31. Which of the following tend to best reflect the specific needs of different neighborhoods in a community? A) Nonpartisan elections B) At-large elections C) District-based elections D) Proportional elections E) Partisan elections Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 680 Skill: Understanding 32. Elections in which candidates run to represent the jurisdiction as a whole are called A) nonpartisan elections. B) at-large elections. C) district-based elections. D) proportional elections. E) partisan elections. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, p. 680 Skill: Understanding 33. Which of the following tends to be best for the representation of minority groups? A) Nonpartisan elections B) At-large elections C) District-based elections D) Majoritarian elections E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 680 Skill: Analysis

34. Nowadays, the commission form of government is A) still very popular. B) becoming more popular again. C) not very popular anymore. D) becoming unpopular. E) nonexistent. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 681 Skill: Understanding 35. The task force that reviewed the Virginia Tech shooting incident in 2007 concluded that ALL BUT WHICH of the following were at fault for the inadequate response to the emergency? A) State officials B) University officials C) The school’s emergency-response plan D) Professors E) A lack of communication among public agencies Answer: D Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 681–683 Skill: Understanding 36. A majority of cities with populations between 25,000 and 250,000 have a(n) A) council-manager form of government. B) commission form of government. C) strong-mayor system. D) at-large-election system. E) district-based election system. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-2, p. 683 Skill: Understanding 37. With very few exceptions, school districts follow the model of the A) commission form of government. B) council-manager form of government. C) strong-mayor system. D) at-large-election system. E) district-based election system. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-2, p. 683 Skill: Understanding

38. Which of the following is closest to representing direct democracy? A) The council-manager form of government B) The commission form of government C) Town meetings D) Representative town meetings E) None of the above Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 683 Skill: Analysis 39. In order to be effective, town-hall meetings depend on ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Wide consensus on issues B) Participation C) Voter interest D) Informed citizens E) Willingness to compromise Answer: C Reference: LO 19-2, p. 683 Skill: Analysis 40. Most disputes in state and local courts involve ALL BUT WHICH of the following? A) Federal laws B) Business issues C) Liability and land use D) Family issues E) Traffic citations Answer: A Reference: LO 19-3, p. 685 Skill: Understanding 41. The rule that forces state courts to enforce prevailing federal laws is called A) dual jurisdiction. B) inclusion. C) exclusion. D) federal jurisdiction. E) incorporation. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-3, p. 685 Skill: Understanding

42. The fact that, in some cases, individuals accused of a crime can be brought before a state and federal court is referred to as dual A) sovereignty. B) citizenship. C) jurisdiction. D) jeopardy. E) responsibility. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-3, p. 685 Skill: Understanding 43. When a single judge hears a case without a jury, this is referred to as a(n) A) bench trial. B) solo trial. C) chair trial. D) special trial. E) executive trial. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-3, p. 686 Skill: Understanding 44. Based on the number of states that use it, which method is least frequently used to select state judges and justices? A) Partisan elections B) Nonpartisan elections C) An election by the legislature D) An appointment by the governor E) A merit plan Answer: C Reference: LO 19-3, p. 687 (Table 19-4) Skill: Analysis 45. According to the merit plan for selecting judges and justices, the governor A) selects qualified individuals based in clearly defined criteria. B) compiles a list of qualified nominees from which the voters elect one person. C) appoints a committee that compiles a list of qualified nominees from which the governor chooses someone. After one year, voters decide. D) appoints a committee that compiles a list of qualified nominees. Voters elect someone from that list. E) asks the legislature to suggest qualified nominees, some of which he then chooses to appoint. Answer: C Reference: LO 19-3, pgs. 687–688 Skill: Understanding

46. States that allow the direct initiative are mostly located in the A) West. B) Middle East. C) North. D) South. E) Northeast. Answer: A Reference: LO 19-4, p. 688 Skill: Understanding 47. Overall, research shows that judges elected in partisan elections tend to A) be very biased in their decisions. B) be somewhat biased. C) be very objective in their decisions. D) show some biases in specific cases. E) There is no conclusive evidence. Answer: B Reference: LO 19-3, pgs. 689–691 Skill: Understanding 48. Which of the following is NOT a form of direct democracy at the state and local levels? A) Direct initiative B) Indirect initiative C) Free referendum D) Popular referendum E) Bond referendum Answer: C Reference: LO 19-4, pgs. 691–693 Skill: Understanding 49. Which of the following is the LEAST-frequent form of direct democracy among states? A) Direct initiative B) Indirect initiative C) Recall D) Popular referendum E) Direct referendum Answer: B Reference: LO 19-4, p. 692 (Table 19-5) Skill: Analysis

50. Having forms of direct democracy ___________ political participation. A) significantly increases B) somewhat increases C) does not appear to affect D) somewhat decreases E) significantly decreases Answer: C Reference: LO 19-4, p. 695 Skill: Understanding True-False Questions 1. Many states that allow children of illegal immigrants to qualify for in-state tuition require those students to become U.S. citizens within five years in an attempt to help the economy. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Understanding 2. The size of a state’s immigrant population has a direct effect on how restrictive its laws in that regard are. Answer: False Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Analysis 3. Whether a state is controlled by Democrats or Republicans has no direct effect on how restrictive its laws on illegal immigration are. Answer: True Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Understanding 4. Most state constitutions allowed their governors to veto legislation right from the beginning. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding 5. In some cases, state constitutions include specific protections for special-interest groups. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Understanding

6. Local governments can be thought of as the building blocks of state governments, just as de Tocqueville described in his writings. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-1, p. 670 Skill: Understanding 7. Special districts are typically limited in what they control or provide and in the way they get revenues for their services. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 Skill: Understanding 8. In local governments, the divisions between the legislative and executive branches are not always as clear-cut as they are at the state and federal level. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-1, pgs. 671–672 Skill: Understanding 9. Budget authority passed from state legislative committees to governors in the twentieth century. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 673 Skill: Understanding 10. Most state employees are replaced once a new government takes power. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-2, p. 674 Skill: Understanding 11. Governors can decrease, but not increase, the sentences of convicted criminals. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 675 Skill: Understanding 12. Since 1990, governors have been more likely to be Democrats than Republicans, probably owing to the more optimistic attitude since the end of the Cold War. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-2, p. 676 Skill: Understanding

13. The longest term limit any state has for its legislature is eight terms. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-2, p. 678 (Table 19-2) Skill: Understanding 14. States are often viewed as laboratories for democracy. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-2, p. 680 Skill: Understanding 15. Informal sources of power play a small, if not negligible, role in local government. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-2, p. 685 Skill: Understanding 16. Small towns and rural areas tend to have different types of courts that primarily rely on bench trials. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-3, p. 687 Skill: Understanding 17. The state court structure roughly mirrors that of the federal court system. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-3, p. 687 (Figure 19-3) Skill: Understanding 18. Unlike the U.S. Supreme Court, state supreme courts cannot select the cases they hear. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-3, p. 687 Skill: Understanding 19. The so-called merit plan is a mixture of appointing and electing judges. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-3, pgs. 688–689 Skill: Understanding 20. The geographic concentration of states that allow direct democracy correlates with the establishment of those states in the Progressive era. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-4, p. 689 Skill: Analysis

21. Elected judges seem to act like other elected officials who try to maintain a close relationship to their constituents. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-3, pgs. 690–692 Skill: Understanding 22. The indirect initiative is more frequent in states than the direct initiative. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-4, p. 693 Skill: Understanding 23. The results of a bond referendum are not binding for the government but rather serve as a way to test the waters on certain issues. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-4, p. 694 Skill: Understanding 24. Arnold Schwarzenegger was elected governor on the same ballot by which Governor Davis was recalled. Answer: True Reference: LO 19-4, p. 695 Skill: Understanding 25. Having different forms of direct democracy tends to increase political participation in states. Answer: False Reference: LO 19-4, p. 696 Skill: Understanding Short-Answer Questions 1. Do you think the children of illegal immigrants should be allowed to qualify for in-state tuition and other public programs such as student loans? What speaks for it, and what speaks against it? What about foreign students who are in the country legally? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Evaluation 2. Please describe the basic aspects of the Progressive movement. What about the context in which it arose (both historical and geographic) potentially explains these aspects? Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Analysis

3. In what ways are home-rule powers an essential component of the American governing processes? How do they fit in with the vision of the Founding Fathers, and how do they match up with American political culture? Reference: LO 19-1, p. 671 Skill: Analysis 4. Describe the process through which counties are created top down as opposed to bottom up. Which of the two seems more democratic to you? Why? Reference: LO 19-1, pgs. 671–672 Skill: Evaluation 5. What are the principles that charter schools are based on? Do you believe charter schools are a useful endeavor? What are the potential advantages and disadvantages of such schools? Reference: LO 19-1, p. 672 Skill: Analysis 6. What are the similarities and differences of the offices of presidents and state governors? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 673–676 Skill: Analysis 7. What arguments speak for the public election of the attorney general, and what arguments speak against it? In your opinion, should this be a publicly elected position? Reference: LO 19-2, p. 674 Skill: Evaluation 8. What are the pros and cons of term limits? If you were in charge, would you set term limits? In addition, would you make terms longer, shorter, or keep them the same? Why? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 677–678 Skill: Analysis 9. How do you think having nonpartisan elections for a state legislature (like in Nebraska) affects state politics? Should other states adopt this approach? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 678–679 Skill: Evaluation 10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of drawing district lines to create large blocks of minorities as opposed to spreading them out across districts? Which would you recommend for the greatest effect of minority viewpoints? Why? Reference: LO 19-2, p. 681 Skill: Analysis

11. When you compare the shooting incident at Northern Illinois University with the prior incident at Virginia Tech, what do you believe officials in the former had learned from the latter? In what areas is there still need for improvement? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 682–684 Skill: Analysis 12. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the following types of city-level government: mayor council, commission, and council manager? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 684–685 Skill: Analysis 13. Of the different methods used for electing and selecting state judges and justices, which one strikes you as the best? Why? Be specific, and consider your answer on the basis of different criteria. Reference: LO 19-3, p. 686 Skill: Evaluation 14. Please explain three different forms of direct democracy at the state and local level. Do you think direct democracy is likely to work better, worse, or the same at the state and federal level? Why? Reference: LO 19-4, pgs. 689–696 Skill: Evaluation 15. Of the different forms of direct democracy outlined in the textbook, which one do you consider the best for increasing citizens’ political efficacy? Why? Reference: LO 19-4, pgs. 689–696 Skill: Analysis Essay Questions 1. If it were up to you, what would you base educational opportunities (such as in-state tuition, student loans, scholarships, etc.) on? Would it be the status of the child or the parents? Whether or not they pay taxes? Anything else? Why? What would the likely consequences be if your proposal became the law of the land? Reference: Opening vignette, pgs. 666–667 Skill: Application 2. In your opinion, what factors (historical, political, geographic, cultural, etc.) have contributed to the relative cynicism with which many Americans tend to view government compared to Europeans? Does the same cynicism and caution apply to your generation? Why or why not? Reference: LO 19-1, p. 669 Skill: Analysis 518 Copyright © 2011, 2009, 2007 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3. What types of services should be located at a local level as opposed to a state level? Why? What services are best provided at a state level? Why? In light of this, do you consider the current division of labor in most states adequate? Reference: LO 19-1, pgs. 670–672 Skill: Analysis 4. What are the different ways in which a state governor can influence the judicial system? Do you agree with these powers? Are there any circumstances under which the governor should not be able to use these powers? Why or why not? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 674–676 Skill: Evaluation 5. In your opinion, what are some of the factors that have contributed to more-frequent school shootings? What needs to be done in order to reduce or eliminate such incidents? Whose responsibility is this? Reference: LO 19-2, pgs. 682–684 Skill: Analysis 6. How would you assess the use of town meetings as a form of local government? What are this system’s advantages and disadvantages? Would you personally like to live in a city that uses such a form of governance? Why or why not? What does this style of governance depend upon? Reference: LO 19-2, p. 684 Skill: Analysis 7. If your state relied heavily on forms of direct democracy, would you trust your fellow citizens to make good decisions? Reference: LO 19-4, pgs. 689–696 Skill: Evaluation 8. Given that having more forms of direct democracy does not typically translate into more political participation, is it worth it? Why do you believe citizens do not take advantage of such opportunities? Reference: LO 19-4, pgs. 689–696 Skill: Analysis 9. Given the 2008 housing crisis, which level of government would you consider best suited to deal with these issues: local, state, or federal? Why? Reference: LO 19-2, LO 19-3, and LO 19-4, entire chapter Skill: Application

10. Richard Nixon is reported to have said, “Sure, there are dishonest men in local government. But there are dishonest men in national government too.” Based on what you have learned, would you say that dishonesty in government is any less likely at the local level than at the state and federal levels? Why or why not? Reference: LO 19-1, LO 19-2, LO 19-3, and LO 19-4, entire chapter Skill: Evaluation