Understanding Human Development, 2nd Edition Test Bank by Ace Test Banks

Understanding Human Development, 2nd Edition

By Wendy L. Dunn , Grace J. Craig

Test Item File Wendy L. Dunn Coe College

to accompany

Contents Chapter 1

Introduction to Human Development

Chapter 2

Heredity and Environment

Chapter 3

Prenatal Development and Childbirth

Chapter 4

Infancy and Toddlerhood: Physical, Cognitive, & Language Development

Chapter 5

Infancy and Toddlerhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Chapter 6

Early Childhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development

Chapter 7

Early Childhood: Personality & Sociocultural Development

Chapter 8

Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

Chapter 9

Middle Childhood: Personality & Sociocultural Development

Chapter 10 Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Chapter 11 Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Personality & Sociocultural Development Chapter 12 Young Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Chapter 13 Young Adulthood: Personality & Sociocultural Development Chapter 14 Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Chapter 15 Middle Adulthood: Personality & Psychosocial Development Chapter 16 Older Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Chapter 17 Older Adulthood: Personality & Sociocultural Development Chapter 18 Death and Dying

Name _______________________________ Chapter 1 - Understanding Human Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. A “discrete period of the lifespan during which predictable changes occur” is referred to as a: a. developmental stage b. transitional phase c. developmental epoch d. critical period 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the corporal punishment of children? a. About 80% of parents spank their children at least occasionally. b. The use of corporal punishment has been banned in all public schools in the U.S., although private schools are allowed to determine their own rules for punishment c. Except for the U.S., no other industrialized countries have banned corporal punishment in the public schools. d. All of the three statements provided as answers in this question are true. 3. According to Freud, the part of the human mind that is concerned with following the rules of society and that may experience feelings of guilt when one violates social norms is called the: a. id b. ego c. superego d. libido Conceptual questions: 4. Which of the following statements comes closest to describing the principle central to Darwin’s idea of natural selection? a. Individuals within a species vary, and those with the best adapted characteristics survive to reproduce, thereby passing their genes to future generations. b. Nature selects the particular individuals that have the best characteristics and these individuals are allowed to interbreed with each other, thereby creating the strongest offspring. c. People prefer to mate with the most attractive members of the opposite sex, selecting their mates according to natural factors related to physical attractiveness. d. Humans evolved from the apes. 5. Lev Vygotsky’s views on human development can be best categorized as belonging to which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. biological b. evolutionary c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive 6. The sequential-cohort design combines the longitudinal and cross-sectional designs by: a. testing several age groups at several different times b. testing a single individual in a number of situations c. matching people of different ages or cohorts on a number of relevant factors d. testing a different cohort each year of the sequence Applied questions: 7. Which of the following is the best example of what is meant by the term maturation? a. a first-grader who is learning to do arithmetic problems Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. an infant who babbles “ga-ga-ga-ga” when she is content c. a college student who is working hard to learn to speak Spanish d. a mother who teaches her 2-year-old to control his temper by ignoring him when he has a tantrum 8. Two-year-old Katherine sees a goat for the first time, and calls it a cow because it has four legs and horns. According to Piaget, Katherine’s response is best considered an example of: a. fixation b. re-classification c. accommodation d. assimilation 9. A researcher studies a group of 1-year-olds, 4-year-olds, and 7-year-olds for one day, and compares the different age groups in terms of their independence. What research design is the researcher using? a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. sequential-cohort d. age cohort 10. Suppose you collect data about child abuse and find that mothers who have their first child before age 18 are more likely to be abusive than mothers who are older. However, you also note that young mothers are also more likely to be poor and have less access to prenatal care. Therefore, you cannot draw conclusions about maternal age and child abuse. The reason you cannot draw this conclusion is because your study involved: a. a sequential-cohort design b. a nonrandom sample c. a nonrepresentative sample d. confounding

Name _______________________________ Chapter 1 - Understanding Human Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual Questions: 1. In contrast to earlier previous times, by the end of the Middle Ages, attitudes about children in Western societies had: a. changed for the worse – children were viewed primarily as burdens on the family b. changed for the better – children came to be viewed as experiencing a period of innocence c. changed for the worse – children were viewed as miniature adults with adult responsibilities d. changed for the better – children’s opinions were given much broader responsibilities and had greater obligations for helping the family 2. According to the text, the decade of the 1990s was labeled by President George H. W. Bush as “the decade of ____________.” a. the genome b. evolution c. the brain d. natural selection 3. Which research design tests groups of subjects of different ages, all at the same time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. sequential design d. age cohort design Conceptual Questions: 4. Which of the following is of highest value in a collectivist culture? a. interdependence b. competition c. individuality d. personal achievement 5. Which of the following best describes the difference in Freud’s and Erikson’s views about human development? a. Erikson emphasized the role of unconscious processes; Freud emphasized conscious processes. b. Erikson emphasized the role of conditioning and social learning; Freud emphasized unconscious processes. c. Erikson emphasized the role of conscious processes; Freud emphasized unconscious processes. d. None of the answers are correct because Freud and Erikson emphasized very similar processes as guiding human development. 6. A researcher obtains individuals’ permission before randomly assigning them to the treatment or the control group. She is complying with the basic ethical principle regarding: a. freedom from harm b. informed consent c. use of deception d. maintenance of privacy Applied Questions:

7. In Dr. Arnold’s developmental psychology class, she chooses to organize the course chronologically. This means that: a. the easiest concepts are presented first, followed by harder concepts b. students are given as much time as they need to master the basic concepts covered in the course c. the course begins with prenatal development, then proceeds to cover each age-related developmental period as it unfolds through the lifespan d. she intends to cover the major topics in development one at a time, for example, brain development, cognitive development, social development, and so forth 8. Suppose that Peggy once became ill after eating pizza. Now anytime that she smells pizza she starts to feel queasy. Peggy’s situation has most likely developed as the result of: a. adaptation b. assimilation c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning 9. If you were to explain a particular behavior as being learned according to Vygotsky’s social-cognitive learning theory, you would most likely emphasize which of the following in your explanation of that behavior? a. how children learn from other people b. how reinforcement shapes behavior c. how punishment shapes behavior d. how toilet training affects later personality development 10. A researcher investigating the effect of peer tutoring on reading skills studies two groups of children in remedial reading classes. One group receives peer tutoring three times a week for three months, the other group does not. At the end of the three months, the two groups are tested in reading skills. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. peer tutoring versus no tutoring b. reading skills level at the beginning of the experiment c. reading skills level at the end of the experiment d. the number of children in each group

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 1.1 1. a, p. 2 2. a, p.6 3. c, p. 12 4. a, p. 11 5. d, pp. 17-18 6. a, p. 25 7. b, p. 5 8. d, p. 16 9. b, p. 24 10. d, pp. 24-25 Quick Quiz 1.2 1. b, p. 6 2. c, p. 10 3. a, p. 24 4. a, p. 7 5. c, pp. 12-13 6. b, pp. 29-30 7. c, p. 3 8. c, p. 14 9. a, p. 18 10. c, p. 26

Chapter 1 Understanding Human Development

Multiple Choice questions: Introduction to Development 1.1. The period of development referred to as infancy refers to which of the following? a. conception to 12 months b. birth to 12 months c. birth to 24 months d. 12 to 24 months Answer: c Page: 3 Factual Moderate 1.2. A “discrete period of the lifespan during which predictable changes occur” is referred to as a: a. developmental stage b. transitional phase c. developmental epoch d. critical period Answer: a Page: 2 Factual Easy 1.3. When developmental researchers consider periods of development arranged according to age, they are taking which type of approach? a. traditional b. scientific c. chronological d. transitional Answer: c Page: 3 Factual Easy 1.4. Generalizing from the text, you would expect that culture would have the greatest impact on development during which of the following developmental periods? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. early childhood d. adolescence Answer: d Page: 2-3 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Infants and young children around the world experience development in much the same way because of the limitations imposed by their physical growth and capabilities. Adolescence, however, is a period that is defined

more by cultural expectations than by physical abilities. Thus, culture has a greater impact on this period than earlier periods of development. 1.5. In Dr. Arnold’s developmental psychology class, she chooses to organize the course chronologically. This means that: a. the easiest concepts are presented first, followed by harder concepts b. students are given as much time as they need to master the basic concepts covered in the course c. the course begins with prenatal development, then proceeds to cover each age-related developmental period as it unfolds through the lifespan d. she intends to cover the major topics in development one at a time, for example, brain development, cognitive development, social development, and so forth Answer: c Page: 3 Applied Moderate Rationale: Chronological means arranged according to age. In a developmental psychology class, a chronological organization of content would begin at the beginning of life and proceed year by year (or stage by stage) through the remainder of the lifespan, ending with older adulthood and death. 1.6. Which of the following statements best captures the sense of the term interaction, as it is used in the context of a course focusing on human lifespan development? a. Genes determine most of the important physical characteristics about an individual. b. The environment determines to a large degree how children are treated by their parents and genetic forces are seldom involved. c. Genetic and environmental forces both contribute to how development unfolds and their influences are intertwined. d. Genetic and environmental forces are both important forces that affect human development. Answer: c Page: 3-4 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The term interaction refers to the idea that variables influence each other and that their influence is combined, with all variables playing a role. 1.7. If Jason states that “human development is the result of genetic instructions that influence development in combination with the many environmental experiences an individual has throughout the lifespan,” you should conclude that his answer emphasizes the role of which of the following ideas? a. interaction b. sociocultural c. evolution d. maturation Answer: a Page: 3-4 Applied Moderate Rationale: Jason’s answer stresses that biology and environment both exert influences through a combination of the relative influences. This is the essential meaning of the term interaction. Sociocultural refers to a context that includes social and cultural influences, evolution is the view that species change as the result of adaptation across many generations, and maturation implies that developmental changes are closely linked to biological events. 1.8. Which of the following is generally NOT part of the sociocultural context for a given individual? a. genes b. culture Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. family d. peers Answer: a Page: 5 Factual Easy The Nature of Human Development 1.9. A person experiences a traumatic event during childhood. A developmental psychologist would view the traumatic event as an example of which of the following? a. biological factor b. random factor c. representative factor d. environmental factor Answer: d Page: 4 Applied Easy Rationale: The book defines environmental factors as the specific situations that an individual experiences and that influence behavior and development. A traumatic event is an example of one such specific situation. 1.10. Which of the following is the best example of what is meant by the term maturation? a. a first-grader who is learning to do arithmetic problems b. an infant who babbles “ga-ga-ga-ga” when she is content c. a college student who is working hard to learn to speak Spanish d. a mother who teachers her 2-year-old to control his temper by ignoring him when he has a tantrum Answer: b Page: 5 Applied Difficult Rationale: Maturation refers to those developmental changes that are linked closely to biological events. In this example, the baby’s babbling is the best choice, since it is not the result of reinforcement or learning, but rather is the result of the maturation of the nervous system. The other examples clearly reflect more “environmental” factors. 1.11. The development of breasts and body hair is best considered to be an example of: a. aging b. growth c. maturation d. readiness Answer: c Page: 5 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Maturation refers to developmental changes that are linked closely to biological events. The development of breasts and body hair is an example of one such biological event. 1.12. Which of the following processes is most clearly the result of primarily environmental forces acting on the person? a. learning b. growth c. maturation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. aging Answer: a Page: 5 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Learning refers to developmental changes that are dependent on a person’s interactions with the environment, not on biological processes. 1.13. Which of the following refers to the basic developmental process in the individual that changes as a result of experience or practice? a. maturation b. growth c. learning d. aging Answer: c Page: 5 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Learning is defined in the textbook as developmental changes that are dependent on a person’s interactions with the environment. Experience and practice refer to interactions with the environment. 1.14. Which of the following is the best example of maturation? a. learning algebra in high school b. learning to walk in infancy c. learning to ride a bicycle in middle childhood d. learning to make a cake in early adulthood Answer: b Page: 5 Applied Moderate Rationale: The textbook defines maturation as developmental changes that are linked closely to biological events. Learning to walk in infancy is the event most clearly influenced by biological changes as opposed to a person’s interactions with the environment. 1.15. If Martha believes that childhood should be considered to be “a time of innocence, during which children should have few responsibilities or chores,” she would be describing the view of childhood that was common: a. in ancient Greece b. in ancient Rome c. in modern, industrialized societies like the United States today c. throughout history in Western societies since about 3,000 B. C. Answer: c Page: 6 Applied Moderate Rationale: In both ancient Greece and ancient Rome, children were viewed as little more than material possessions, who were often exploited and treated harshly. Only since about 1500 have children in Western societies been considered as innocents who should not be required to adopt adult roles and responsibilities. 1.16. In contrast to earlier times, by the end of the Middle Ages, attitudes about children in Western societies had: a. changed for the worse – children were viewed primarily as burdens on the family b. changed for the better – children came to be viewed as experiencing a period of innocence c. changed for the worse – children were viewed as miniature adults with adult responsibilities Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. changed for the better – children’s opinions were given much broader responsibilities and had greater obligations for helping the family Answer: b Page: 6 Factual Moderate 1.17. According to the text, about what percent of U. S. parents spank their children, at least occasionally: a. 2-3% b. 10% c. 40% d. 80% Answer: d Page: 6 Factual Moderate 1.18. In the United States today, about what percentage of the states have enacted laws that ban the use of corporal punishment in public schools? a. 98% b. 78% c. 58% d. 38% Answer: c Page: 6 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text states that 29 states have banned corporal punishment, but the rest allow local school districts to decide if they will allow this type of punishment; 29 of 50 states is 58%. 1.19. Which of the following statements is true regarding the corporal punishment of children? a. About 80% of parents spank their children at least occasionally. b. The use of corporal punishment has been banned in all public schools in the U.S., although private schools are allowed to determine their own rules for punishment c. Except for the U.S., no other industrialized countries have banned corporal punishment in the public schools. d. All of the three statements provided as answers in this question are true. Answer: a Page: 6 Factual Moderate 1.20. Cultures in which individuals are encouraged to put time and energy into projects that will help large groups of people in their own society are best described as: a. primitive b. collectivistic c. individualistic d. idealistic Answer: b Page: 7 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy Rationale: Collectivist cultures are defined as cultures in which the group takes precedence over the individual and in which cooperation and group achievement are stressed over competition and individual achievement. 1.21. Cultures in which individuals are encouraged to put time and energy into projects that will benefit only themselves are best described as: a. primitive b. collectivistic c. individualistic d. idealistic Answer: c Page: 7 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As defined in the textbook, individualistic cultures are those in which competition predominates over cooperation and personal achievement is typically valued more highly than group achievement. 1.22. Which of the following is of highest value in a collectivist culture? a. interdependence b. competition c. individuality d. personal achievement Answer: a Page 7 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Collectivist cultures are defined as cultures in which the group takes precedence over the individual and in which cooperation and group achievement are stressed over competition and individual achievement. 1.23. Individuals from collectivist cultures tend to emphasize ______; individuals from individualist cultures tend to emphasize _______. a. competition; cooperation b. individuals; groups c. money; success d. cooperation; competition Answer: d Page: 7 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Individualist cultures are those in which personal achievement is more highly valued than group achievement and competition predominates; collectivist cultures are those in which group achievement and cooperation are stressed. 1.24. Which of the following is the best example of a country that embraces a collectivist culture: a. the U.S. b. Japan c. England d. Australia Answer: b Page: 7 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

1.25. Andre’s teacher organizes activities that are competitive, so that students who are high achievers get most of the rewards. Andre’s classroom would be considered to be an example of the philosophy advanced in: a. classrooms that ban corporal punishment b. collectivist societies c. classrooms with female teachers d. individualistic societies Answer: d Page: 7 Applied Easy Rationale: In individualistic societies, competition and individual achievements are valued above cooperative and collaborative work. Use of corporal punishment is not discussed with respect to its possible effect on creating a competitive environment, and the text draws no conclusions about classrooms taught by male versus female teachers. 1.26. The sociocultural domain is comprised of: a. ethnocentrism and socialization b. enculturation and assimilation c. evolution and accommodation d. socialization and enculturation Answer: d Page: 8 Factual Easy 1.27. Dr. Walton is interested specifically in how the brain changes during the period of infancy and early childhood. As such, his interest falls most clearly into which of the following domains of human development? a. the sociocultural domain b. the physical domain c. the cognitive domain d. the personality domain Answer: b Page: 8 Applied Easy Rationale: The physical domain involves changes in physical shape and size, in addition to changes in brain structures, sensory capabilities, and motor skills. 1.28. A researcher who is most interested in understanding how children develop reasoning and problem-solving skills would be described as having a focus on the: a. physical domain b. sociocultural domain c. personality domain d. cognitive domain Answer: d Page: 8 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the cognitive domain refers to those aspects of development that involve the acquisition of skills in perceiving, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, and language.

1.29. Dr. Muchmore studies how shy children differ from bold children in their adjustment to kindergarten by investigating how differences in their basic dispositions and temperament shape their later behavior. Her research interest falls most clearly into which of the following domains of human development? a. the sociocultural domain b. the physical domain c. the cognitive domain d. the personality domain Answer: d Page: 8 Applied Moderate Rationale: Shyness is usually considered to be a personality characteristic, and therefore it falls most clearly into the personality domain. It is not typically considered a brain-determined function, or a problem-solving style, so it is less closely associated with the physical or cognitive domains, respectively. It also is not thought to be a consequence of the culture or society in which a child develops. 1.30. Dr. Ledder conducts research on intelligence and problem-solving skills of fourth-grade children. His research area best fits into which of the following domains of learning? a. the sociocultural domain b. the physical domain c. the cognitive domain d. the personality domain Answer: c Page: 8 Applied Moderate Rationale: The cognitive domain includes skills involved in perceiving, thinking, reasoning, problem solving, and the development of language. 1.31. Although no one has ever taught Kenna how to behave in church, when she goes there, she seems to understand that it is a place to be quiet, to sit calmly, and to do what other people do. Kenna’s church behavior is best thought of as developing through: a. maturation b. enculturation c. socialization d. individualist cultural immersion Answer: b Page: 8 Applied Difficult Rationale: Enculturation is learning by observing and absorbing rather than being taught, which is what is described in this example. It is different from socialization, which focuses on teaching by parents and others about how to fit in and function in society. Maturation involves an unfolding of biologically based processes. Individualist cultures focus on competition and individual achievement, which is unrelated to the example given. 1.32. Gloria plans to spend a semester abroad in Thailand. She looks forward to learning about the culture by living with a local family. She does not plan to attend any formal classes. Her knowledge of the culture will be gained primarily through which of the following? a. schema formation b. natural selection c. enculturation d. accommodation

Answer: c Page: 8 Applied Moderate Rationale: Enculturation is the process of learning about a culture on our own by observing and absorbing without any formal teaching. Socialization, on the other hand, involves the direct and deliberate teaching by others about how to fit in and function in a society or culture. 1.33. Gloria plans to spend a semester abroad in Thailand. She looks forward to learning about the culture by reading books, studying about the culture and religions, and interviewing people she meets. Her form of learning is best considered to be an example of: a. facilitation b. socialization c. natural selection d. interpretation Answer: b Page: 8 Applied Moderate Rationale: Socialization refers to direct and deliberate teaching by others about how to fit in and function in a society or culture. Enculturation, on the other hand, is the process of learning about a culture on our own by observing and absorbing without any formal teaching. Theoretical Frameworks for Human Development 1.34. “An organized, coherent set of ideas that helps us to understand, to explain, and to make predictions” is known as a: a. scientific law b. domain c. theory d. phenomenon Answer: c Page: 9 Factual Easy 1.35. Dr. Manfred has spent a lifetime developing a detailed explanation for why some children have difficulty learning arithmetic. She has written a book on this topic, which presents her ideas, including a set of assumptions about mathematical thinking, a set of predictions about which children will experience the most difficulty, and an overarching explanation for the entire phenomenon. Using the terms of science, we would conclude that Dr. Manfred’s work represents what would typically be called a(n): a. hypothesis b. theory c. evolution d. maturational determination Answer: b Page: 9 Applied Easy Rationale: A theory is an organized, coherent set of ideas that helps us to understand, to explain, and to make predictions. Thus, Dr. Manfred’s work, since it does these things, could be considered to be an example of a theory. 1.36. The term used to describe the entire arrangement of all human genes is: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. the human genome b. the chromosome complex c. the natural selection of genetics d. the DNA code Answer: a Page: 10 Factual Easy 1.37. According to the text, the decade of the 1990s was labeled by President George H. W. Bush as “the decade of ____________.” a. the genome b. evolution c. the brain d. natural selection Answer: c Page: 10 Factual Moderate 1.38. This field of study attempts to understand how brain function is related to human development: a. sociology b. behaviorism c. developmental neuroscience d. evolutionary psychology Answer: c Page: 11 Factual Easy 1.39. Darwin’s idea of “survival of the fittest” is also referred to as the theory of: a. natural selection b. social learning c. social success d. biological change Answer: a Page: 11 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Natural selection refers to the theory that better-adapted individuals survive to reproduce and thereby transfer their genes to their offspring and future generations. This idea is also referred to as “survival of the fittest.” 1.40. In order to explain how human ancestors moved from living in trees to walking upright, Mary talks about “the survival of the fittest.” Another term of this same idea is: a. generational drift b. natural selection c. neuroscience d. the origin of species Answer: b Page: 11 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: The concept of “survival of the fittest” is described by the evolutionary term natural selection. Natural selection describes situations where better-adapted individuals survive to reproduce, thereby transferring their genes to their offspring and into future generations. Generational drift is not a term introduced in this text, and The Origin of Species was the title of Charles Darwin’s book, in which he described the principles involved in evolution, including natural selection. 1.41. Which of the following statements comes closest to describing the principle central to Darwin’s idea of natural selection? a. Individuals within a species vary, and those with the best adapted characteristics survive to reproduce, thereby passing their genes to future generations. b. Nature selects the particular individuals that have the best characteristics and these individuals are allowed to interbreed with each other, thereby creating the strongest offspring. c. People prefer to mate with the most attractive members of the opposite sex, selecting their mates according to natural factors related to physical attractiveness. d. Humans evolved from the apes. Answer: a Page: 11 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Natural selection refers to the evolutionary idea that better-adapted individuals survive to reproduce, thereby transferring their genes to their offspring and into future generations. 1.42. The main ideas that define the evolutionary perspective can be traced most directly to the writings of which of the following people? a. Charles Darwin b. Lev Vygotsky c Carl Rogers d. Urie Bronfenbrenner Answer: a Page: 11 Factual Easy 1.43. According to Freud, the part of the human mind that is concerned with following the rules of society and that may experience feelings of guilt when one violates social norms is called the: a. id b. ego c. superego d. libido Answer: c Page: 12 Factual Easy 1.44. Sam was going to steal candy from a store but feelings of guilt kept him from doing so. According to Freud, Sam’s internalized sense of right and wrong and his feelings of guilt comes from his: a. id b. ego c. superego d. psychic censor Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 12 Applied Easy Rationale: The superego is the mental process that, according to Freud, triggers an individual’s conscience to feel guilty when social norms are violated. 1.45. Freud viewed this part of the mind as the mediator, resolving conflicts between one’s impulses and one’s ideas about right and wrong. a. id b. ego c. superego d. mediating region Answer: b Page: 12 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The ego is the mental process that, according to Freud, works to resolve conflicts between the id (which motivates an individual to seek pleasure or avoid pain) and the superego (which triggers an individual to feel guilty when social norms are violated). 1.46. Freud viewed this part of the mind as involving a person’s impulsive tendencies, particularly the search for pleasure and the avoidance of pain. a. id b. ego c. superego d. pleasure center Answer: a Page: 12 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As defined in the textbook, the id is the mental process that, according to Freud, motivates an individual to seek pleasure or to avoid pain. 1.47. The research method used most frequently by Sigmund Freud was: a. the experiment b. sequential-cohort study c. cross-sectional study d. case study Answer: d Page: 12, 21 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Freud’s work was based largely on the therapy sessions he provided to his patients. Thus, because his ideas were developed from these in-depth interviews with a relatively small number of individuals, the method he used would best be described as a case study method. He did not examine different cohort groups, making sequential-cohort and cross-sectional methods inaccurate answers. 1.48. What is the correct developmental sequence of Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual stages? a. oral, genital, anal, latency, phallic b. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital c. genital, phallic, latency, anal, oral d. oral, latency, phallic, anal, genital

Answer: b Page: 12 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As presented in the textbook, Freud believed that development involves a progression through five stages, in a predictable order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. 1.49. During the phallic stage, pleasure is focused on what body part? a. anus b. mouth c. genitals d. hands Answer: c Page: 12 Factual Moderate 1.50. Freud’s genital stage begins during: a. infancy b. childhood c. adolescence d. adulthood Answer: c Page: 12 Factual Easy 1.51. According to Freud, children at this stage of development repress sexual interests and instead focus on developing cognitive and interpersonal skills: a. genital b. latency c. phallic d. anal Answer: b Page: 12 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As presented in the textbook, in the latency stage a child represses sexual interests and instead focuses on developing cognitive and interpersonal skills. The genital stage, in contrast, involves a reemergence of sexual impulses. During the anal stage, the focus is on elimination functions, and during the phallic stage, a child’s pleasure focuses on the genitals. 1.52. Emily is 2 years old. In which of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development is she most likely immersed? a. anal b. oral c. latency d. phallic Answer: a Page: 12 Applied Moderate

Rationale: According to Freud, children are in the anal stage of psychosexual development from 18 months until 3 years of age. 1.53. Freud’s genital stage extends from: a. birth to age 18 months b. age 3 to 6 years c. age 6 years to adolescence d. adolescence through adulthood Answer: d Page: 12 Factual Easy 1.54. Which of the following is NOT a term typically used to describe one of the stages in Freud’s psychosexual theory? a. oral b. phallic c. latency d. puberty Answer: d Page: 12 Factual Easy 1.55. Whenever Judy gets nervous, she starts biting her nails. A Freudian psychologist would most likely view Judy’s nail biting as an example of: a. superego stress b. fixation c. psychosexual development d. psychodynamic anxiety Answer: b Page: 12 Applied Moderate Rationale: Fixation is the term Freud used for primitive behavior (for example, nail biting) that results from a developmental stage being carried forward (oral behavior from the oral stage of psychosexual development). 1.56. A high school student who sucks his or her thumb when stressed is an example of: a. Piaget’s notion of accommodation b. Bandura’s notion of social learning c. Darwin’s notion of natural selection d. Freud’s notion of a fixation Answer: d Page: 12 Applied Difficult Rationale: Fixation results in a primitive behavior from that developmental stage being carried into adulthood. In this case, an oral fixation has occurred. None of the other concepts (accommodation, social learning, or natural selection) describe behaviors that are primitive when exhibited during adulthood. 1.57. Which of the following best describes the difference in Freud’s and Erikson’s views about human development? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. Erikson emphasized the role of unconscious processes; Freud emphasized conscious processes. b. Erikson emphasized the role of conditioning and social learning; Freud emphasized unconscious processes. c. Erikson emphasized the role of conscious processes; Freud emphasized unconscious processes. d. None of the answers are correct because Freud and Erikson emphasized very similar processes as guiding human development. Answer: c Page: 12-13 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, Erikson’s theory emphasizes conscious (or ego) forces and the effect of social interactions is shaping personality. Freud’s theory, on the other hand, focuses most heavily on unconscious processes and psychosexual development. 1.58. Which of the following theorists placed the greatest emphasis on developmental events that occur early in life, especially during the first five years? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. B. F. Skinner Answer: a Page: 12 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that Freud believed that adult personality was heavily influenced by events that occurred in early childhood. Erikson’s theory extends throughout the lifespan. Piaget believed that cognitive development continues on through age 12 or so, when the stage of formal operations was reached. B. F. Skinner focused on principles of reinforcement, which can shape behavior at any time during the lifespan. 1.59. Erik Erikson believed that human development proceeds through a series of planned, biologically programmed stages. He referred to this idea as: a. maturational selection b. evolution c. the epigenetic principle d. natural selection Answer: c Page: 13 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, the epigenetic principle is a biological concept that there is a “plan” built into all living organisms that determines or at least sets the stage for development throughout the organism’s lifespan. The concepts of evolution and natural selection are related to evolutionary theory and usually traced to Charles Darwin. 1.60. Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development focus on: a. pleasurable erogenous zones b. a hierarchy of needs c. predictable conflicts throughout the lifespan d. the interactions of the id, ego, and superego Answer: c Page: 13 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Difficult 1.61. According to Erik Erikson, there are ____ stages of human development. a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: d Page: 13 Factual Easy 1.62. What is the positive outcome of Erikson’s stage of “autonomy versus shame and doubt”? a. feelings of trust b. development of a sense of competence c. development of a sense of initiative d. self-sufficiency Answer: d Page: 13 Factual Difficult 1.63. According to Erik Erikson, it is typical for individuals to consider their lives and to judge themselves. If they are satisfied with their lives, they have a sense of integrity. If they are not satisfied with their lives, they may have a sense of despair. At what age are adults most likely to experience this developmental conflict? a. in their 20s b. in their 40s c. in their 50s d. in their 60s or later Answer: d Page: 13 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: This item describes Erikson’s psychosocial stage called integrity versus despair, which, according to the text, applies to individuals 65 years and older. 1.64. This researcher proposed that children between the ages of 3 and 6 years might develop feelings of guilt if they are severely criticized or punished for their own actions. a. Sigmund Freud b. Jean Piaget c. Erik Erikson d. Urie Bronfenbrenner Answer: c Page: 13 Applied Moderate Rationale: The proposal described refers to Erikson’s third psychosocial stage, initiative versus guilt, which applies to children ages 3 years to 6 years.

1.65. A child who is just beginning first grade most likely would be entering which of Erik Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development? a. ego identity vs. ego diffusion b. initiative vs. guilt c. intimacy vs. isolation d. industry vs. inferiority Answer: d Page: 13 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson, children are in the industry versus inferiority stage of psychosocial development between the ages 6 years to 12 years. 1.66. Erik Erikson proposed that a person who was focused on resolving the conflict between developing trust versus mistrust would likely be about how old? a. birth to age 1 year b. age 6-12 years c. age 3-6 years d. age 12-18 years Answer: a Page: 13 Applied Moderate Rationale: Trust vs. mistrust is Erikson’s first stage of psychosocial development. In this stage, infants up to 1 year of age learn about the basic trustworthiness of their environment from their caregivers. 1.67. David states that the appropriate subject matter for students of human development to study is how people act. He argues that scientists have no business studying how people think or feel, because thoughts and feelings cannot be directly observed. David’s ideas are most similar to those advocated by: a. B. F. Skinner and Ivan Pavlov b. Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson c. Lev Vygotsky d. Jean Piaget Answer: a Page: 14-15 Applied Moderate Rationale: The behaviorists, including Skinner and Pavlov, argued that the appropriate focus of psychology should be on observable behavior. Freud was the founder of the psychoanalytic (psychodynamic) perspective; Vygotsky focused on the importance of social contexts in the development of thinking, and hence would be considered a cognitive (or social-cognitive theorist, and Piaget is a cognitive theorist since his work centered on understanding the development of thinking. 1.68. Suppose that Peggy once became ill after eating pizza. Now anytime that she smells pizza she starts to feel queasy. Peggy’s situation has most likely developed as the result of: a. adaptation b. assimilation c. classical conditioning d. operant conditioning Answer: c Page: 14 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: In classical conditioning, a naturally occurring reflex becomes associated with an environmental cue. In this case, the feelings of nausea that accompany illness have become associated with the smell of pizza. The smell of pizza is the environmental cue. 1.69. Jimmy notices that the time is twelve o’clock noon. After looking at his watch, he begins to feel hungry. His hunger response is best thought of as an example of: a. shaping b. classical conditioning c. operant conditioning d. counter conditioning Answer: b Page: 14 Applied Difficult Rationale: In classical conditioning, a naturally occurring reflex becomes associated with an environmental cue. In this case, the feeling of hunger that accompanies not having eaten for several hours has become associated with the time twelve o’clock noon. The time is the environmental cue. 1.70. Three-year-old Kayla has been seeing her pediatrician for checkups every six months and fears the shots she receives each time. Now, even though he does not administer the shots, Kayla cries when the pediatrician enters the room because she associates him with receiving shots. Her behavior is a result of: a. habituation b. social learning c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning Answer: d Page: 14 Applied Difficult Rationale: In classical conditioning, a naturally occurring reflex becomes associated with an environmental cue. In this case, the fear that accompanies an impending shot has become associated with the pediatrician who has administered these shots in the past. The pediatrician is the environmental cue. 1.71. William recalls a time when he was a child when he nearly drowned in a public swimming pool. It was a very frightening experience. Since that time, the smell of chlorine leaves him with feelings of dread. William’s situation can be most easily explained by which of the following? a. classical conditioning b. guided participation c. superego d. social learning theory Answer: a Page: 14 Applied Difficult Rationale: In classical conditioning, a naturally occurring reflex becomes associated with an environmental cue. In this case, the fright that naturally accompanies the experience of having nearly drowned has become associated with the smell of chlorine that was part of the environment at the time that William almost drowned. The smell of chlorine, then, is the environmental cue. 1.72. According the B. F. Skinner, if you would like to get your child to keep his or her room tidy, which of the following is most likely to work? a. having a chat with the child about his or her feelings about cleanliness Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. showing the child how to clean and then the child will learn from observing you c. consistently rewarding the child when the child carries out any cleaning d. create a learned association between dirtiness and feeling physically ill Answer: c Page: 14-15 Applied Moderate Rationale: B. F. Skinner is the psychologist most closely identified with the phenomenon operant conditioning, which refers to a type of learning that occurs when an organism is rewarded or punished. 1.73. Which researcher believed that human behavior could be best understood in terms of how rewards and punishments exert an influence on people’s actions? a. Charles Darwin b. Mary Ainsworth c. Lev Vygotsky d. B. F. Skinner Answer: d Page: 14-15 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, B. F. Skinner is the psychologist most closely identified with the phenomenon operant conditioning, which refers to a type of learning that occurs when an organism is rewarded or punished. 1.74. Which of the following terms would be most closely associated with the field of operant conditioning? a. fixation b. assimilation c. systems d. reward Answer: d Page: 14-15 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Operant conditioning describes how rewards (also called reinforcements) and punishments influence the behavior they follow. Fixation is a Freudian term; assimilation describes cognitive development as it was described by Piaget; and systems is a term used most frequently in the context of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model. 1.75. Which of the following theorists is most closely associated with behavioral theory? a. Sigmund Freud b. Jean Piaget c. B. F. Skinner d. Lev Vygotsky Answer: c Page: 14 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Operant conditioning, a phenomenon with which B. F. Skinner is the psychologist most closely identified, is one of the three general trends within the behaviorist tradition. 1.76. The text describes a study by Albert Bandura in which children watched an adult “beat up” a Bobo doll. The conclusions from this theory are best considered as supporting which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. social learning d. psychosexual processing Answer: c Page: 15-16, 27 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social learning theory is a view that emphasizes the influence of the social behavior of others on learning. In this case, children were influenced by their exposure to adults’ aggressive behavior toward the Bobo doll. 1.77. A child attempts to carry out a stunt involving a skateboard and a ramp that he has seen on television. The child’s knowledge about how to do this stunt was most likely acquired through which of the following processes? a. accommodation b. social learning c. assimilation d. apprenticeship Answer: b Page: 15-16 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social learning theory is a view that emphasizes the influence of the social behavior of others on learning. In this case, the child was influenced by his observation of others’ social behavior (skateboarding) on television. 1.78. Four-year-old Sasha watches carefully how her older brother unlocks the chest where her mother hides special toys. After her brother locks the chest and leaves, Sasha is able to remember the steps he used and she now unlocks the chest. Sasha’s method of learning is best thought of as an example of: a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. social learning d. fixation Answer: c Page: 15-16 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social learning theory emphasizes the influence of the social behavior of others on our learning. Because this example emphasizes that Sasha learned to unlock the chest by watching her brother, it is best considered an example of social learning. Operant conditioning emphasizes reward and punishment. Classical conditioning rests on learning associations between environmental stimuli that come to predict responses. Fixation is a Freudian term that describes how anxiety can cause a person to revert back to behavior characteristic of previous stages of development. 1.79. According to Piaget, a mental category or structure is called a(n): a. schema b. model c. system d. theory Answer: a Page: 16 Factual Moderate 1.80. Two-year-old Katherine sees a goat for the first time, and calls it a cow because it has four legs and horns. According to Piaget, Katherine’s response is best considered an example of: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. fixation b. re-classification c. accommodation d. assimilation Answer: d Page: 16 Applied Difficult Rationale: Assimilation is the process of incorporating new information into existing schemas. In this example, Katherine incorporates what we know as a goat into her schema “cow.” Accommodation, on the other hand, is the process that requires schemas to change when a new object or event does not fit. In the current example, the schema does not change. 1.81. The process by which organisms change to become more successful in their environment is: a. enculturation b. adaptation c. maturation d. socialization Answer: b Page: 16 Factual Moderate 1.82. Sixteen-year-old Dave was an exchange student in Europe for a year. When he returned, he had altered many of his ways of thinking about people, because his new experiences did not fit his old concepts. What Piagetian process was at work? a. fixation b. assimilation c. accommodation d. maturation Answer: c Page: 16 Applied Difficult Rationale: Accommodation is the process that requires schemas to change when a new object or event does not fit. In this example, Dave’s old schemas (i.e., concepts) changed because the new European events/experiences did not fit within these schemas. Assimilation, on the other hand, is the process of incorporating new information into existing schemas. In this example, the new information is not merely incorporated into the old (i.e., existing) schemas. 1.83. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development suggests that children start out in life relying primarily on their senses and bodily motion. This stage is referred to as which of the following? a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor Answer: d Page: 17 Factual Moderate

1.84. If you were to explain a particular behavior as being learned according to Vygotsky’s social-cognitive learning theory, you would most likely emphasize which of the following in your explanation of that behavior? a. how children learn from other people b. how reinforcement shapes behavior c. how punishment shapes behavior d. how toilet training affects later personality development Answer: a Page: 17-18 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Vygotsky’s social-cognitive view emphasizes the significance of learning from others with more advanced knowledge, often through playing and talking with them and learning from these interactions. 1.85. Which of the following situations best exemplifies Vygotsky’s view of development? a. Tommy learned to excel at mathematics by counting his allowance. b. Ellen learned a large vocabulary by reading her spy novels. c. Rudy learned to wash the dishes by helping his father wash them. d. Tina learned to sing by listening to her music tapes. Answer: c Page: 18 Applied Difficult Rationale: Vygotsky’s social-cognitive view emphasizes the significance of learning from others with more advanced knowledge, often through playing and talking with them and learning from these interactions. 1.86. Lev Vygotsky’s views on human development can be best categorized as belonging to which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. biological b. evolutionary c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive Answer: d Page: 17-18 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Vygotsky’s social-cognitive view emphasizes the significance of learning from others with more advanced knowledge, often through playing and talking with them and learning from these interactions. None of the other theorists emphasized the role of learning from more expert people. 1.87. Dr. Matthews believes that children learn by observing and by being guided by older children and adults. Thus, child development is like the apprenticeship that electricians serve as they learn their trade by working with experienced individuals. Dr. Matthews’s view of child development is most similar to that advanced by: a. Jean Piaget b. Lev Vygotsky c. Urie Bronfenbrenner d. Erik Erikson Answer: b Page: 18 Applied Moderate

Rationale: Vygotsky emphasized the social context in which development takes place as playing a significant role. He believed that older children and adults play an especially significant role helping younger children understand complex experiences. Thus, children are like apprentices, who learn by being coached by more experienced people. 1.88. Because in her family older women always do the cooking and younger women wash the dishes, Lucille comes to understand that this is how housework should be done. In Vygotsky’s terms, Lucille has developed a(n): a. bioecological understanding b. assimilated understanding c. shared meaning d. classically conditioned response Answer: c Page: 18 Applied Difficult Rationale: Vygotsky argued that what people learn is transmitted to them through the shared meanings of objects and events, which are passed from generation to generation through observation and language. This example emphasizes the cultural transmission of knowledge, based on experience. 1.89. The idea that people learn by observing and being coached by “experts” stems most directly from the work of: a. Jean Piaget b. Lev Vygotsky c. Erik Erikson d. Sigmund Freud Answer: b Page: 18 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Vygotsky argued that people develop understanding and expertise mainly through apprenticeship with more knowledgeable learners, who serve as “experts” to guide learning. None of the other theorists emphasized the role of learning from more expert people. 1.90. According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model of development, the customs and traditions that are common to one’s culture would most likely be considered a part of that person’s ______. a. microsystem b. macrosystem c. mesosystem d. exosystem Answer: b Page: 19 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The microsystem refers to the activities, roles, and interactions of an individual in that person’s immediate setting. Examples include one’s family, school, church, and neighborhood. 1.91. According to Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, your family, friends, and classmates are part of your: a. exosystem b. macrosystem c. mesosystem d. microsystem Answer: d Page: 19 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Difficult 1.92. Sarah’s parents attend parent-teacher meetings, serve as volunteers for class field trips, and are members of the school board. Sarah’s progress at school is affected positively by her parents’ close involvement with the teachers. According to Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, these connections exemplify the: a. microsystem b. exosystem c. mesosystem d. macrosystem Answer: c Page: 19 Applied Difficult Rationale: The mesosystem refers to the interrelationships among two or more microsystems such as one’s school, neighborhood, and family. 1.93. Margaret argues that understanding human development is most like understanding botany, since in botany you need to learn about various systems, such as respiration, photosynthesis, energy production, and so forth. She states: “It is only by understanding how each system works that it is possible to understand the entire process.” Margaret’s view is most like that described in which theory of human development? a. the bioecological model b. operant conditioning c. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development d. Vygotsky’s view of social-cognitive development Answer: a Page: 19 Applied Difficult Rationale: This question emphasizes the idea of inter-related systems and therefore it best fits into Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, which also emphasizes that development is best understood by focusing on all of the interrelated systems that influence how an individual grows and changes. 1.94. Which model emphasizes that human development is a dynamic, interactive process that begins with an individual’s genetic endowment and unfolds over time as a result of interactions with various levels of the environment? a. natural selection b. psychosexual model c. guided participation approach d. bioecological model Answer: d Page: 19 Factual Easy 1.95. Which of the following is a correct matching of theorist and theoretical perspective? a. Vygotsky – Psychodynamic view b. Erikson – Behavioral view c. Bronfenbrenner – Psychodynamic view d. Piaget – Cognitive view Answer: d Page: 16 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: Vygotsky is a cognitive (social-cognitive) theorist, Erikson’s views are usually considered as being in the psychodynamic tradition, and Bronfenbrenner is associated with the bioecological model, a systems approach. Piaget is correctly associated with the cognitive view. 1.96. Which of the following theorists viewed development as proceeding continuously, without dramatic shifts from one stage of development into another dissimilar stage? a. Jean Piaget b. Sigmund Freud c. Erik Erikson d. Lev Vygotsky Answer: d Page: 18 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, and Erikson’s psychosocial theory all emphasize the predictable progression through discrete stages throughout childhood or the entire lifespan. Vygotsky’s social-cognitive theory, on the other hand, emphasizes continuous learning through interactions with learners who are more knowledgeable. 1.97. Which of the following theorists placed the greatest emphasis on unconscious experience as an important influence in development? a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. Lev Vygotsky Answer: a Page: 12 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Piaget and Vygotsky did not consider the role of unconscious processes as important in human development. Although Erikson believed that unconscious processes played some role in development, it was Freud who emphasized the role of the unconscious mind as a major determinant of development. The Scientific Approach to the Study of Human Development 1.98. A “baby biography” is best considered to be an example of which of the following research methods? a. experiment b. cross-sectional study c. survey d. case study Answer: d Page: 21 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text presents the method used in baby biographies as a precursor to the use of case studies. (They could also be an example of naturalistic observation, since they involve observing infants and recording how and when key development events occur.) They do not, however, involve observing groups of individuals of different ages (the cross-sectional method) or assigning individuals to groups (the experimental method). Since baby biographies are observations of babies, they also cannot fit into the survey method, which involves asking questions and recording responses. 1.99. A researcher conducts extensive, in-depth interviews with a small group of highly gifted Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

children with genius IQs. What type of study is he conducting? a. case study b. naturalistic observation c. experiment d. laboratory observation Answer: a Page: 21 Applied Difficult Rationale: Case studies involve the compilation of detailed information on an individual, a family, or a community through interviews, observations, and formal testing. 1.100. A researcher conducts in-depth interviews and observations of an individual survivor of the war in Afghanistan. What data collection method has she used? a. case study b. correlation c. survey d. naturalistic observation Answer: a Page: 21 Applied Moderate Rationale: Case studies involve the compilation of detailed information on an individual, a family, or a community through interviews, observations, and formal testing. 1.101. Frank and his baby daughter participate in a research study in which they go to a room where they are met by a researcher. Then Frank is asked to leave the room and the researcher observes how his daughter reacts. This study is most similar to the one described as: a. a baby biography b. the strange situation c. a bioecological interview d. a sequential-cohort design Answer: b Page: 22 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text describes the strange situation studies conducted by Mary Ainsworth, which involve the same methodology as that described in this question. Baby biographies are records of when and how babies achieve developmental milestones. The term “bioecological interview” has no particular meaning but is simply two words from the chapter combined. A sequential-cohort study involves the study of several overlapping cohorts of different ages at various points in time. 1.102. A researcher plans to investigate how toddlers interact with each other, starting from the first time they meet. In the planned study, toddlers that do not know one another will be placed in a room with many interesting toys. Parents will be nearby. Researchers will record the toddlers’ interaction and examine the videotapes at a later time. This type of research is best described as which of the following? a. experiment b. laboratory observation c. naturalistic observation d. cross-sectional design Answer: b Page: 22 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: In a laboratory observation, researchers set up controlled situations designed to elicit the behavior of interest, which describes well the scenario in this item. Naturalistic observation is also an observational method, but refers to situations in which researchers go into everyday settings and observe unobtrusively rather than setting up a controlled situation. 1.103. The fact that people do not always remember their own behavior correctly poses the most significant problem for which of the following research methods? a. an experiment b. a psychological test c. a survey d. a correlational study Answer: c Page: 22 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Because a survey always asks people to respond based on their memory or their opinions, memory distortions are especially a problem for this research method. Experiments, tests, and correlational studies can also ask participants about their memory for events. 1.104. Dr. Abboud wants to better understand how college students solve problems involving moral dilemmas. To do so, he passes out questionnaires to students in his developmental psychology class, asking them to respond. In Dr. Abboud’s study, the students in his class would be considered the ________ and all college students would be considered the ___________. a. population; sample b. sample; population c. random sample; representative sample d. representative sample; random sample Answer: b Page: 22 Applied Moderate Rationale: This question centers on understanding that a sample consists of a selection of individuals who participate in a study. Researchers study the characteristics or responses of a sample in order to generalize conclusions to the whole group of interest, defined as the population. The distinction between a random sample (where all members of the population are equally likely to be included in the sample) and a representative sample (where the sample is specifically selected so members represent the population in important ways) is not what this question is asking about. 1.105. Bob and Tim are 16-year-old twins who are contacted every three years and asked to complete a series of psychological tests. The type of research study they most likely are part of is called: a. cross-sectional study b. longitudinal study c. age cohort study d. sequential-cohort study Answer: b Page: 23 Applied Difficult Rationale: In longitudinal studies, the same participants are studied at various points in time to see how they change as they age. Since this example suggests only one cohort that is studied every three years, the sequential-cohort

study is not correct (because there is only one cohort), nor is the cross-sectional study (because participants are studied at more than one point in time). 1.106. Dr. Martinez is interested in how thinking changes in adolescence and early adulthood. She identifies two hundred 18-year-olds and has them respond to a written set of questions. She then waits four years, contacts them all again, and has them respond to a similar set of questions. Finally, she waits another four years, contacts the people again (who are now 26 years old), and asks them one last time to respond to her questions. The study Dr. Martinez has conducted is best considered an example of: a. a longitudinal study b. a cross-sectional study c. a sequential-cohort study d. an age-cohort experiment Answer: a Page: 23 Applied Moderate Rationale: A longitudinal study identifies a cohort of participants and studies them at various points in time to see how they change as they age. That is what Dr. Martinez’s study does. 1.107. Dr. Albert is interested in how thinking changes in adolescence and early adulthood. She indentifies a group of people who are 18 years old, a second group who are 22 years old, and a third group who are 26 years old. She asks participants in all three groups to answer some questions testing their moral reasoning skills. Her research study is best considered an example of: a. a longitudinal study b. a cross-sectional study c. a sequential-cohort study d. an age-cohort experiment Answer: b Page: 24 Applied Moderate Rationale: A cross-sectional study compares people of different ages at one point in time. That is what Dr. Albert has done in this example. 1.108. Which research design tests groups of subjects of different ages, all at the same time? a. cross-sectional design b. longitudinal design c. sequential design d. age cohort design Answer: a Page: 24 Factual Easy 1.109. A researcher interested in studying how friendship changes with age asks students in first-, third-, fifth-, seventh-, ninth-, and eleventh-grades to complete a questionnaire. What type of research design is this researcher using? a. sequential-cohort b. longitudinal c. cross-sectional d. age cohort Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 24 Applied Moderate Rationale: Cross-sectional designs compare individuals of different ages at one point in time. In this example, students of different ages (as signified by their different grades) are compared to one another at one point in time (the time that the questionnaire is completed). 1.110. A researcher studies a group of 1-year-olds, 4-year-olds, and 7-year-olds for one day, and compares the different age groups in terms of their independence. What research design is the researcher using? a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. sequential-cohort d. age cohort Answer: b Page: 24 Applied Moderate Rationale: Cross-sectional designs compare individuals of different ages at one point in time. Since this example suggests only one cohort that is studied on one day, the sequential-cohort study is not correct (because there is only one cohort), nor is the longitudinal study (because participants are studied at only one point in time). 1.111. If a researcher combined the method used in a cross-sectional design with that used in a longitudinal design, the result would be called: a. an experiment b. a mixed design c. a correlational design d. a sequential-cohort design Answer: d Page: 25 Factual Moderate 1.112. The sequential-cohort design combines the longitudinal and cross-sectional designs by: a. testing several age groups at several different times b. testing a single individual in a number of situations c. matching people of different ages or cohorts on a number of relevant factors d. testing a different cohort each year of the sequence Answer: a Page: 25 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In the sequential-cohort design, several overlapping cohorts of different ages are studied longitudinally. 1.113. A researcher collects data on a group of children age 4 and another group age 6. He then waits three years, and collects similar data on these same groups of children, who now are age 7 and 9. His research design is an example of: a. a sequential-cohort design b. a cross-sectional design c. a longitudinal design d. a correlational design Answer: a Page: 25 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: A sequential-cohort design involves the study of two or more overlapping cohorts of different ages that also are studied longitudinally. That is what this researcher’s study does. 1.114. A researcher studies how individuals born during the 1940s compare to individuals born during the 1970s with regard to political participation. The groups of individuals are called: a. reference groups b. alliances c. support groups d. cohorts Answer: d Page: 24 Applied Moderate Rationale: Groups of individuals of different ages studied in cross-sectional and sequential-cohort designs are referred to as cohorts. 1.115. The strength and direction of a relationship between two factors is represented by a statistic called a(n): a. empirical coefficient b. experiment coefficient c. correlation coefficient d. causal coefficient Answer: c Page: 25 Factual Easy 1.116. Suppose a researcher wishes to study the relationship between a high-protein diet and school performance. She asks students to record their eating habits for a week and compares their protein consumption to their grade point average in school. If she finds that students who eat more protein generally get better grades, it would be appropriate to conclude that she has identified a: a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. causal relationship d. “zero order” correlation Answer: a Page: 25 Applied Difficult Rationale: Positive correlations describe relationships where as one variable increases the other variable increases as well. In this example, protein consumption increases as grade point average increases. 1.117. Suppose you find that as children get older, they have larger vocabularies. You have found a _____________ correlation between age and vocabulary size. a. sequential b. confounded c. negative d. positive Answer: d Page: 25 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: A positive correlation is the term used to describe relationships between variables in which, as one variable increases in number, the other variable increases also. Here, age is increasing along with vocabulary, making this a positive correlation. 1.118. A researcher investigating the effect of peer tutoring on reading skills studies two groups of children in remedial reading classes. One group receives peer tutoring three times a week for three months, the other group does not. At the end of the three months, the two groups are tested in reading skills. What is the independent variable in this experiment? a. peer tutoring versus no tutoring b. reading skills level at the beginning of the experiment c. reading skills level at the end of the experiment d. reading skills test itself Answer: a Page: 26 Applied Difficult Rationale: An independent variable is the variable in an experiment that is manipulated in order to observe its effects on the dependent variable. In this example, the researcher manipulates whether children receive peer tutoring or not and observes the effects on reading skills at the end of the experiment. 1.119. A researcher investigating the effect of peer tutoring on reading skills studies two groups of children in remedial reading classes. One group receives peer tutoring three times a week for three months, the other group does not. At the end of the three months, the two groups are tested in reading skills. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. peer tutoring versus no tutoring b. reading skills level at the beginning of the experiment c. reading skills level at the end of the experiment d. the number of children in each group Answer: c Page: 26 Applied Difficult Rationale: The dependent variable is the variable in an experiment that changes as a result of manipulating the independent variable. In this example, the researcher manipulates whether children receive peer tutoring or not and observes the effects on reading skills at the end of the experiment. 1.120. In an experiment testing the effects of a drug on behavior, whether or not a subject receives a drug represents the: a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. control variable d. random variable Answer: b Page: 26 Factual Moderate 1.121. Which of the following statements best describes the role of a dependent variable? a. It is the variable that the researchers manipulate. b. It is the variable that the researchers measure. c. It is the variable also known as the treatment. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. It is a type of variable used in laboratory research, but not applied research. Answer: b Page: 26 Factual Easy 1.122. In an experiment, the variable that the researcher manipulates is called the: a. dependent variable b. independent variable c. controlled variable d. uncontrolled variables Answer: b Page: 26 Factual Easy 1.123. A researcher studies how the scores children receive on a spelling test are affected by the amount of sugar they consumed for breakfast. She identifies a group of children and feeds half of them a high-sugar breakfast and feeds the other half a low-sugar breakfast. She gives them the spelling test three hours later. In this study, what is the independent variable? a. the number of words the children can spell correctly on the spelling test b. the number of children tested in the study c. amount of sugar eaten for breakfast d. the difficulty of the words on the spelling test Answer: c Page: 26 Applied Difficult Rationale: An independent variable is the variable in an experiment that is manipulated in order to observe its effects on the dependent variable. In this example, the researcher looks at how the amount of sugar consumed (independent variable) affects the dependent variable (scores on a spelling test). 1.124. Suppose that Dr. Jones reads about a new study with an interesting result. She decides to repeat the study in her own lab to see if she gets the same result. In this case, Dr. Jones’s study would best be considered a(n): a. validation study b. correlational study c. replication d. independent study Answer: c Page: 27 Applied Easy 1.125. Suppose you collect data about child abuse and find that mothers who have their first child before age 18 are more likely to be abusive than mothers who are older. However, you also note that young mothers are also more likely to be poor and have less access to prenatal care. Therefore, you cannot draw conclusions about maternal age and child abuse. The reason you cannot draw this conclusion is because your study involved: a. a sequential-cohort design b. a nonrandom sample c. a nonrepresentative sample d. confounding

Answer: d Page: 25 Applied Difficult Rationale: Confounding results when differences between cohort groups, in this case younger and older mothers, involve cohort effect. In this case, the cohort effects include differences between the two groups of mothers with respect to poverty and prenatal care. 1.126. Which of the following methods of assigning participants to groups in an experiment is the best example of random sampling? a. putting the girls in one group and the boys in another b. making sure that children are able to select the group to which they want to belong c. putting all children’s names in a hat and drawing names to form the groups, even if this results in having unequal numbers of boys and girls in the groups d. having the teacher assign children to groups in order to best separate friends from each other Answer: c Page: 26 Applied Moderate Rationale: Random sampling involves placing people in groups so that the groups are roughly equivalent. When children self-select their groups, they are likely to be unequal in important ways. Having a teacher assign children, although better than letting children self-select, may also result in a non-random sampling, since the teacher may be placing children with some specific strategy in mind. Random sampling is best done by drawing names because no bias of any sort can enter into this selection method. 1.127. A screening committee rejected a research proposal to study frustration in children because the method involved exposing 5-year-olds to repeated failure on a series of highly difficult tasks. The committee's decision to reject this study reflected their concern about which ethical principle? a. informed consent b. privacy c. beneficial treatments d. protection from harm Answer: d Page: 29 Applied Difficult Rationale: Under certain circumstances, a psychologist may study humans under conditions that involve minimal risk. However, under no circumstances should research be conducted that has the potential for serious or lasting physical or psychological harm. In this example, exposing 5-year-olds to repeated failure might lead these children to doubt their own abilities even after the study ends, suggesting the potential for lasting psychological harm. 1.128. When George agrees to participate in a research study, he is told that he may quit at any point for any reason. The reason for this option of quitting is required by the ethical guideline the text refers to as: a. informed consent b. protection from harm c. beneficial treatments d. privacy and confidentiality Answer: a Page: 29 Applied Moderate

Rationale: The text defines informed consent as involving a statement of the procedures and risks, as well as the obligations of the participants and the researchers. It gives an example of informed consent as the participant’s right to discontinue participation at any point for any reason without fear of punishment. 1.129. According to the text, which ethical principle holds that people should participate voluntarily, should be told fully of the nature and possible consequences of the experiment, and should not be offered excessive rewards to participate? a. privacy b. beneficial treatments c. informed consent d. protection from harm Answer: c Page: 29 Factual Easy 1.130. A researcher obtains individuals’ permission before randomly assigning them to the treatment or the control group. She is complying with the basic ethical principle regarding: a. freedom from harm b. informed consent c. use of deception d. maintenance of privacy Answer: b Page: 29 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Informed consent refers to the ethical principle that people should participate in research voluntarily, be fully informed of the nature and possible consequences of the research, and not be coerced in any way. In this situation, the researcher is ensuring that informed consent exists. Changing Perspectives: Children and War 1.31. Eighteen-year-old Trisha is experiencing the following symptoms: frequent sleep disturbances, the inability to feel normal emotions, problems controlling her impulses, and difficulty concentrating. She walks around much of the time in a “daze,” and she often complains of pain in her neck and of feeling generally “ill.” Based on information presented in the text, you would conclude that Trisha may be suffering from: a. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) b. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. childhood onset schizophrenia d. a low IQ Answer: a Page: 7 Applied Easy Rationale: The symptoms mentioned in this question are exactly those listed in the text for PTSD, which is discussed in the context of the trauma associated with war. HIV, schizophrenia, and low IQ are not discussed in this chapter and they do not have symptom patterns that would correspond to those of PTSD. 1.32. According to the text, the children who fare best in times of war are those who: a. have rigid and concrete ways of thinking about the world around them b. use a single coping strategy, rather than a range of coping strategies c. who have loving parents and good peer relationships d. who have few friends, so they experience a lesser sense of loss Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 7 Factual Moderate 1.33. According to the text, in the 1990s, there were 50 regions in the world at war. In about how many of these regions were children involved as soldiers? a. 2 regions b. 6 regions c. about 14 regions d. about 34 regions Answer: d Page: 7 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that of the 50 regions of the world at war in the 1990s, about two-thirds involved underage soldiers in their conflicts. Current Issues: Fragile Families and Child Well-Being 1.134. The participants in the “Fragile Families and Child Well-Being Study” were: a. children born with birth defects b. children born to single-parent, economically poor mothers or fathers c. married and unmarried couples who had just had their first baby d. teachers working in school districts where most of the children were defined as “at risk” Answer: c Page: 24 Factual Difficult 1.135. The original phase of the “Fragile Families and Child Well-Being Study” assessed children at which of the following ages? a. at birth and at age 5, when they entered school b. at birth, and at 12, 30, and 48 months of age c. at birth, at age 10, and at age 18 d. at birth and at age 16 Answer: b Page: 24 Factual Moderate 1.136. What was the primary purpose of the “Fragile Families and Child Well-Being Study?” a. to determine health risks for children exposed to drugs and alcohol during the prenatal period b. to identify characteristics associated with fathers who were most likely to abandon their children c. to evaluate the impact of child welfare legislation that provided benefits for unwed mothers d. to evaluate the impact of poverty and environmental stress on the development of young children Answer: d Page: 24 Factual Easy

True/False questions: Introduction to Development 1.137. Developmental psychologists generally focus their study on the unusual individuals in order to learn about the extremes of human development. Answer: False Page: 2 Rationale: Developmental psychologists usually focus on typical individuals, because they hope to better understand developmental processes that are common to nearly all normal individuals. Psychologists interested in the study of abnormal psychology or individual differences would be more likely to study unusual individuals as a method of understanding deviation. The Nature of Human Development 1.138. Learning to talk in infancy is a good example of maturation because it is closely linked to the development of the brain and the increasing ability to coordinate motor control. Answer: True Page: 5 1.139. In the United States, the use of corporal punishment has been completely banned in public schools. Answer: False Page: 6 Rationale: In 2008 in the United States, 29 states have banned corporal punishment in the public schools, but the rest allow local school districts to decide if they will allow this type of punishment. 1.140. In collectivist cultures, competition is stressed over cooperation. Answer: False Page: 7 Rationale: Cultures that stress competition over cooperation are referred to as individualist cultures. Collectivist cultures emphasis the good of the group over the achievements of an individual, and they stress cooperation over competition. Theoretical Frameworks for Human Development 1.141. Developmental psychology is considered to be a science. Answer: True Page: 9, 20 1.142. The entire arrangement of all human genes has been successfully mapped. Answer: True Page: 10 1.143. Evolution refers in general to the process through which species change across generations. Answer: True Page: 11 1.144. Freud’s theory of human development emphasizes how logical reasoning develops during childhood. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 12 Rationale: Freud’s view focused on psychosexual development and on the development of personality, not cognition. Piaget and Vygotsky are more closely identified with the developing of cognitive processes, including logical reasoning. 1.145. Erik Erikson’s view of development, like Freud’s, emphasized the idea that the most important aspects of human development are completed in the first five years of life. Answer: False Page: 13 Erikson’s theory emphasized that development occurs throughout the lifespan. Although Erikson did believe that developmental processes during the first five years set the stage for later development, he included three additional stages that describe continuing developmental issues that unfold throughout adolescence and adulthood. 1.146. Jean Piaget viewed children as “little scientists” who interact with the physical environment and develops complex thought strategies as the result. Answer: True Page: 17 1.147. Lev Vygotsky’s view of development emphasized the role of biological factors, and especially evolutionary forces, on development. Answer: False Page: 18 Rationale: Vygotsky emphasized social forces, such as learning by being mentored by an older person, as the primary means by which development unfolds. The Scientific Approach to the Study of Human Development 1.148. In a naturalistic observation, the researcher watches individuals as they act in real life, rather than in a laboratory. Answer: True Page: 21 1.149. Suppose you eat lobster for the first time, then get the flu and become ill. Now, the thought of eating lobster leaves you with a queasy feeling in your stomach. The mechanism that best describes how you learned the “lobster – sick” association is classical conditioning. Answer: True Page: 14 1.150. Suppose little Maria has a good schema developed for “dogs.” When she sees her neighbor’s new dog, she correctly says, “Dog.” Piaget would explain Maria’s ability to incorporate a new instance of the “dog” category as an example of accommodation. Answer: False Page: 16 Rationale: Incorporating new information into an existing schema is referred to as assimilation. Accommodation involves changing a schema in order to fit a new instance into it. 1.151. Systems theories provide explanations that are general, in the sense that they incorporate a very broad focus on development. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: True Page: 19 1.152. In a case study, people typically are observed in their everyday lives, often without their knowledge. Answer: False Page: 21 Rationale: The case study method involves conducting an in-depth interview with an individual, who is fully aware that his or her responses are being recorded. 1.153. If a researcher selected a sample by selecting every fifth person on an alphabetical list of possible participants, this would be a good example of the technique of representative sampling. Answer: False Page: 22, 26 Rationale: Choosing every fifth person from a population of interest is a good example of random sampling. Representative sampling involves matching the characteristics of the sample to those of the population on variable of interest, such as gender, age, and so forth. 1.154. Longitudinal studies are more likely to include cohort effects than are cross-sectional studies. Answer: False Page: 26-27 Rationale: Cohort effects refer to differences between groups of individuals. Because longitudinal studies follow a single group of participants across time, cohort effects are not involved. Cohort effects are an issue in crosssectional studies, since these compare different groups of people. 1.155. When a researcher finds a positive correlation between the amount of violent TV watched by school children and the number of violent outbursts by these same children, the researcher can safely conclude that TV viewing directly caused the violent outbursts. Answer: False Page: 25 Rationale: The results of correlational studies do not allow researchers to make cause-and-effect conclusions. Rather, correlational studies simply allow the researchers to conclude that the variables under study are related to each other. 1.156. In Albert Bandura’s “Bobo doll” study, the independent variable was the consequences for the adult model who behaved aggressively against the doll. Answer: True Page: 27 1.157. The major responsibility of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) is to evaluate research projects to determine if they might pose potential harm to participants. Answer: True Page: 29

1.158. In your own words, describe what it means to state: “development occurs within a sociocultural context.” Page: 5 1.159. What is the essential difference between “maturation” and “learning”? Page: 5 1.160. Describe two important differences between collectivist and individualist cultures. Page: 7 1.161. Give an example of a developmental question that would appropriately fit into each of the following domains: the physical domain, the cognitive domain, the personality domain, and the sociocultural domain. Page: 8 Theoretical Frameworks for Human Development 1.162. Identify the primary functions of the id, the ego, and the superego, according to Freud’s theory. Page: 12 1.163. Give an example of something that is learned as the result of classical conditioning, something learned through operant conditioning, and something learned primarily as the result of social learning. Page: 14-16 1.164. Define Piaget’s concepts of assimilation and accommodation and give an example of each. Page: 16 1.165. Cite a major way in which Vygotsky’s theory differs from that proposed by Piaget. Page: 18 1.166. Describe why Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model is a good example of systems theories. Page: 19 The Scientific Approach to the Study of Human Development 1.167. State why developmental psychology is considered to be a science. Page: 20 1.168. What is the major difference between naturalistic observation methods and laboratory observation methods? When is each most likely to be used? Page: 21-22 1.169. Contrast the longitudinal and cross-sectional research designs. Identify advantages and disadvantages of each. Page: 23-24 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

1.170. What are the most important advantages and disadvantages of correlation as a research method for studying human development? Page: 25 1.171. In your own words, explain why researchers value replications of studies or experiments. Page: 27 1.172. Described what the ethical principle of “informed consent” requires researchers to do. Page: 29

Essay questions: Introduction to Development 1.173. In your own words, describe what is meant by the term “interaction” and give an example of how biological and environmental forces interact to influence human development. Page: 4 The Nature of Human Development 1.174. The nature-nurture debate has received a great deal of attention in developmental psychology. In your own words, explain this debate. Provide one example of an influence on development that represents “nature” and one that represents “nurture.” Page: 4-5 1.175. Describe how attitudes toward children in Western civilization have changed since the time of ancient Greece. Page: 6 1.176. Describe an activity assigned to grade school children that would reflect the values inherent in a collectivist society and another activity that would reflect values inherent in an individualist culture. Then identify the significant ways in which these two types of activities differ, and discuss why those differences are reflective of the cultures they represent. Page: 7 Theoretical Frameworks for Human Development 1.177. Describe two ways in which an understanding of developmental neuroscience helps researchers studying cognitive development, and those studying personality development, better explain human behavior. Page: 10-11 1.178. In your own words, describe the process of natural selection, emphasizing how this theory explains how species change across large numbers of generations. Page: 11

1.179. Compare Freud’s and Erikson’s theories of human development by explaining at least one feature they have in common and at least two ways in which they differ. Page: 11-14 1.180. Describe at least two important ways that psychodynamic views of development differ from behavioral views. Page: 11-16 1.181. Suppose that a child has a schema for “shapes” that includes a circle, a square, and a triangle. Now, the child is shown an irregular four-sided shape, one that looks like a lopsided rectangle. Using Piaget’s concepts of “assimilation” and “accommodation,” suggest how the child would respond to the new shape if she attempted to assimilate it, and if she attempted to accommodate it. Page: 16 1.182. Consider the views of Lev Vygotsky and Jean Piaget on cognitive development. How are they alike? How do they differ? Page: 16-18 The Scientific Approach to the Study of Human Development 1.183. Identify a research topic in the field of human development that would best be examined using a case study method, a survey method, and an experimental method. Page: 21-26 1.184. Describe how you might conduct a sequential-cohort design study to explore the question: How do adults in early adulthood, middle adulthood, and older adulthood react to the death of their spouse? Page: 25 1.185. Describe how you might conduct an experiment to study this question: Does learning a second language in third grade improve scores on reading tests given in sixth grade? Page: 26-27 1.186. What is involved in conducting a “replication” of a study? Why is replication an important component in a scientific approach for understanding human development? Page: 27 1.187. Explain the role of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) in ensuring that research is conducted in such a way that research participants are not harmed. Describe three different questions that IRBs must ask as they evaluate a proposed study. Page: 29

Name _______________________________ Chapter 2 - Heredity and Environment - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. If you were to compare the DNA of any two unrelated people, about what percent of their DNA would be identical? a. 25% b. 50% c. 99.9% d. 100% 2. Which of the following disorders occurs only when the gene involved is inherited from the mother and not the father? a. Prader-Willi syndrome b. Angelman syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome 3. Operant conditioning is especially likely to be involved in the development of: a. phobias b. excessive salivation c. habituation d. habits Conceptual questions: 4. Suppose that a human female is accidentally exposed to a poison at one of four different points in development. If the effect of the poison is that it interferes with meisosis, at which point in the lifespan would we expect it to have the most disruptive effect? a. in the prenatal period, since this is when ova are forming b. in the first year after birth, since this is when brain growth is most rapid c. during early adulthood, since this is when conception of a child is most likely to happen d. in older adulthood, since body cells are most vulnerable at the end of the lifespan 5. If different members of the family experience quite different environments, this would be reflected in: a. a larger shared environment b. a larger nonshared environment c. a harsher developmental niche d. a challenge for self-concept development 6. Which of the following is MOST likely to be experienced as a normative influence? a. retirement b. career change c. illness d. moving to a new community Applied questions: 7. Suppose that a disease is inherited. Your mother has the disease, your father does not, and you have a very minor case of the disease which lies somewhere in between your mother’s and father’s situation. In this case, we would know that the alleles that determine this trait: a. are recessive b. are dominant c. are codominant Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. are heterozygous 8. Workers in Dr. Garcia’s lab first obtain tumor cells from patients with cancer. They then remove the DNA from the tumor cell nuclei and use enzymes to segment the DNA strands into sections. Finally, they insert the DNA sections in which they are interested into “host” bacteria cells, where the DNA can be reproduced for later use. Dr. Garcia’s lab is engaged in work involving: a. behavior genetics b. recombinant technology c. cryogenics d. autosomal transmission 9. Dr. Smith studies a group of 1,000 people who have schizophrenia and who also have identical twins. He finds that 47% of the identical twins also develop this disease. The type of statistical information Dr. Smith’s study reveals is called: a. concordance b. an H-E (Heredity-Environment) Index c. a genetic-based percentage d. analysis of variance 10. Patty doesn’t want to hang around with people from the other side of town because she says they are “weird.” Patty’s behavior best reflects the concept involved in: a. ethnocentrism b. self-efficacy c. normative age-graded influences d. normative history-graded influences

Name _______________________________ Chapter 2 - Heredity and Environment - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. The term used to describe alternate versions of the same gene is: a. alleles b. chromosomes c. autosomes d. gametes 2. The extent to which a trait is inherited versus acquired through interactions with the environment defines the concept of: a. heritability b. genetic predisposition c. genetic engineering d. concordance 3. The tendency to assume that one’s own cultural beliefs are normal and those of others are abnormal is referred to as: a. cohesion b. socialization c. ethnocentrism d. indoctrination Conceptual questions: 4. Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. As such, if a child is color blind, we can be assured that the child’s genotype includes: a. a recessive gene on the X chromosome inherited from his mother b. a dominant gene on the X chromosome inherited from his mother c. a recessive gene on the Y chromosome inherited from his father d. a dominant gene on the X chromosome inherited from his father 5. Which of the following syndromes occurs only in females? a. Down syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome 6. The key to understanding how classical conditioning works is to recognize that it involves the _________ of what will come. a. reinforcement b. punishment c. prediction d. repression Applied questions: 7. Anne mentions that her cousin has a congenital anomaly. You would know that this is sometimes also referred to as: a. a sex-linked trait b. a birth defect c. an autosomal disorder Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. a heterozygous trait 8. Olaf has been diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome. What is his chromosomal pattern? a. XO b. XY c. XXY d. XYY 9. While sitting in a quiet waiting room, Ronnie at first is quite distracted by the clicking sound made by an old clock ticking away the seconds. However, after a few minutes, he no longer notices the ticking. This example best highlights the concept involved in: a. concordance b. classical conditioning c. habituation c. social learning 10. Many individuals who grew up during the Great Depression were so devastated by the collapse of the economy that they became distrustful of depositing large sums of money in banks. The Great Depression would best be considered a: a. normative, age-graded influence b. normative, history-graded influence c. nonnormative influence d. normative, economic-graded influence

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 2.1 1. c, p. 36 2. a, p. 44 3. d, pp. 50-51 4. a, p. 38 5. b, p. 52 6. a, p. 55 7. c, p. 40 8. b, pp. 45-46 9. a, p. 46 10. a, p. 53 Quick Quiz 2.2 1. a, pp. 38-39 2. a, p. 46 3. c, p. 53 4. a, p. 40 5. b, p. 42 6. c, p. 50 7. b, p. 41 8. c, p. 42 9. c, p. 50 10. b, p. 55

Chapter 2 Heredity and Environment

Multiple Choice questions Molecular Genetics 2.1. Suppose you get into an argument about how similar humans and chimpanzees are. One point to consider is that these species share about ___ % of their genes. a. 50 b. 65 c. 85 d. 98 Answer: d Page: 36 Applied Moderate Rationale: We share about 98% of our genes with chimpanzees; between two unrelated humans, there is only one tenth of 1% difference in the genes. 2.2. According to the text, the human body contains about how many different types of cells? a. 16 b. 50 c. 200 d. several thousand Answer: c Page: 34 Factual Moderate 2.3. Which of the following parts of the cell provides most of its energy? a. Golgi bodies b. mitochondria c. cytoplasm d. the nucleus Answer: b Page: 35 Factual Easy 2.4. If a researcher wanted to extract the DNA from a cell, she should look for it in the cell’s: a. nucleus b. mitochondria c. cytoplasm d. cell membrane Answer: a Page: 35 Applied Moderate Rationale: The cell’s nucleus, which also is surrounded by a porous membrane, contains most of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which contains the genetic instructions that direct growth and development. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.5. In building a house, carpenters look for instructions on a blueprint, which includes all of the information needed to construct the house. Comparing a house to a human cell, the part of the cell that contains the “blueprint” would be: a. the Golgi bodies b. the cell membrane c. the mitochondria d. the nucleus Answer: d Page: 35 Applied Moderate Rationale: The cell’s nucleus, which also is surrounded by a porous membrane, contains most of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which contains the genetic instructions that direct growth and development. 2.6. DNA refers to: a. di-nucleic antibody b. duonucleic acid c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. dynonucleic antigen Answer: c Page: 35 Factual Easy 2.7. The structure of DNA consists of a long molecule that looks somewhat like a ladder that has been “twisted.” The shape of the DNA molecule is referred to as: a. the double rope b. the twisted rope c. the double helix d. the Golgi apparatus Answer: c Page: 35 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: DNA is a highly complex macromolecule: It is made up of many smaller molecules that are arranged in the shape of a twisted ladder called a double helix. 2.8. Which of the following statements about DNA is true? a. The DNA molecule is circular, with the nucleotide bases located in the center of the circle. b. The DNA molecule contains only four different types of bases, regardless of what species is involved. c. The DNA molecule is identical for every known species, and species differences are coded on molecules that lay alongside the DNA. d. The pairing of adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine follows a random sequence, with all four base pairs combining with each other an equal percentage of times. Answer: b Page: 35-36 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The DNA molecule is elegant in that, regardless of the species, it contains only four types of bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).

2.9. Which of the following is NOT contained in a nucleotide? a. a base molecule b. an enzyme c. a phosphate molecule d. a sugar molecule Answer: b Page: 35-36 Factual Moderate 2.10. If you were to compare the DNA of any two unrelated people, about what percent of their DNA would be identical? a. 25% b. 50% c. 99.9% d. 100% Answer: c Page: 36 Conceptual Moderate 2.11. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways by which nucleotide bases determine the specific traits contained in the genetic code? a. which side of the ladder the base is on b. the order in which the base pairs are arranged on the ladder c. the total number of base pairs on the ladder d. whether adenine combines with thymine, cytosine, or guanine in the particular DNA strand Answer: d Page: 35-36 Factual Difficult 2.12. According to research presented in the text, the genetic locations that are responsible for determining a person’s race: a. are located on chromosome number 18 b. are located on the X chromosome c. are located on many genes, including those in chromosomes 18, 19, and 20 d. are probably unique to each individual, and therefore “race” is not a meaningful concept in a genetic sense Answer: d Page: 36 Factual Moderate 2.13. The text suggests that, from a genetic point of view, the concept of race is: a. very important, since there are many genes in the human genome that determine specific race-related traits (such as hair color and eyelid shape) b. largely meaningless, and a better way of thinking about race differences is to consider them as cultural or ethnic differences c. very important, since in humans there are only a handful of genes that code for “race” in our DNA (each corresponding to a difference racial group) d. of some importance, since genes that code for racial characteristics also code for intelligence Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: b Page: 36 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The concept of race is often used to categorize people into groups but this categorization becomes largely meaningless when considered from a genetic reference point. Although genes do control the development of characteristics frequently associated with race (e.g., skin color, eye shape, hair color and texture), these traits do not occur as “either–or” features; rather, they are distributed continuously throughout the human population. 2.14. Dr. Johnson corrects a student who talks about “genetic racial differences” and suggests that a better term to use when talking about genetic differences among defined groups of people would be: a. ethnicity b. genetic physical differences c. nucleotide disparities among individuals d. shared genes Answer: a Page: 36 Applied Difficult Rationale: The usage of the term race should be questioned if it suggests that an individual belongs to a genetically defined group. A more appropriate term in a context such as this is ethnicity, which avoids the genetic connotation that race often mistakenly implies and focuses instead on the shared cultural experiences of groups that define their members as similar. 2.15. A gene is best defined as: a. a nucleotide b. a nucleotide base pair c. a specific segment of DNA d. all of the DNA contained on a specific chromosome Answer: c Page: 36 Factual Moderate 2.16. Current estimates note that the human genome contains about how many genes? a. about 5,000 b. about 25,000 c. about 85,000 d. over a million Answer: b Page: 36 Factual Easy 2.17. Compared to earlier estimates about the total number of genes in the human genome, it now appears that there are: a. about 10 times more genes than previously thought b. about twice as many genes as previously thought c. about the same number of genes as was predicted by Watson and Crick in 1954 d. somewhat fewer genes than previously thought Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 36 Factual Moderate 2.18. A single human gene is composed of about how many base pairs? a. anywhere from one to several dozen b. anywhere from several dozen to 100 c. anywhere from 100 to 1000 d. anywhere from several hundred to several million Answer: d Page: 36 Factual Moderate 2.19. According to the text, the most significant thing that genes do is: a. determine how the brain will be constructed b. build proteins c. keep the organism alive by regulating physiological processes d. produce sperm and ova so organisms can reproduce Answer: b Page: 37 Factual Moderate 2.20. About how many different proteins have been identified in the human body? a. 200 b. 2,000 c. 20,000 d. 200,000 Answer: d Page: 37 Factual Difficult 2.21. Protecting the body from disease is the primary function of this type of protein: a. collagen b. antibody c. enzyme d. insulin Answer: b Page: 37 Factual Difficult Genes, Chromosomes, and Cell Division 2.22. How many PAIRS of chromosomes are in a normal human liver cell? a. 12 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92

Answer: b Page: 37 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In normal humans, all cells except sperm and eggs contain exactly 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs. 2.23. The chromosomes of a cell, excluding those that determine sex, are called: a. gametes b. alleles c. autosomes d. enzymes Answer: c Page: 37 Factual Easy 2.24. Sarah states, “All normal human skin cells contain 46 genes.” To make Sarah’s statement correct, you would need to: a. change the word “genes” to “chromosomes” b. change the word “skin” to “blood” c. change the number “46” to “23” d. make all of the changes noted in the other three answer choices Answer: a Page: 37 Applied Moderate Rationale: In normal humans, all cells except sperm and eggs contain exactly 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs. 2.25. Julie and David are excited because Julie has undergone some prenatal testing and today they will see a picture of their unborn baby’s chromosomes. Such a picture is called: a. a genetic blueprint b. a karyotype c. a nucleotide d. an autosomal map Answer: b Page: 38 Applied Moderate Rationale: A karyotype is a photograph of a cell’s chromosomes arranged in pairs according to size. 2.26. A photograph of a cell’s chromosomes arranged in pairs according to size is referred to as a: a. phenotype b. karyotype c. chromotype d. genotype Answer: b Page: 38 Factual Moderate 2.27. The two ways in which cells can divide are called: a. meiosis and mitosis Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. autosomes and gametes c. gametes and polarization d. genotype and phenotype Answer: a Page: 38 Factual Easy 2.28. The type of cell division that occurs in autosomes is called: a. mutation b. codominant reproduction c. meiosis d. mitosis Answer: d Page: 38 Factual Easy 2.29. Which chromosomal pair determines the sex of an individual? a. 19th b. 20th c. 22nd d. 23rd Answer: d Page: 37 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The 23rd chromosome pair is composed of sex chromosomes, which are labeled XX in females and XY in males. 2.30. If you were to examine a variety of human body cells under the microscope and look at the number of chromosomes contained in each, you would expect to see 46 chromosomes in all of the following cells EXCEPT: a. a sperm cell b. a liver cell c. a neuron d. a white blood cell Answer: a Page: 37 Applied Moderate Rationale: In normal humans, all cells except sperm and eggs contain exactly 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs. 2.31. Sperm and egg cells are called: a. autosomes b. genosomes c. gametes d. Golgi bodies Answer: c Page: 38 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.32. Thomas (a man) knows that in his body, meiosis occurs in: a. only his brain b. only his white blood cells c. only his testes d. every cell in his body Answer: c Page: 38 Applied Easy Rationale: Meiosis is the process of cell division that yields sperm and ova, each including one half of a full set of chromosomes. In males, meiosis occurs in the texts. 2.33. Suppose that a human female is accidentally exposed to a poison at one of four different points in development. If the effect of the poison is that it interferes with meisosis, at which point in the lifespan would we expect it to have the most disruptive effect? a. in the prenatal period, since this is when ova are forming b. in the first year after birth, since this is when brain growth is most rapid c. during early adulthood, since this is when conception of a child is most likely to happen d. in older adulthood, since body cells are most vulnerable at the end of the lifespan Answer: a Page: 38 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Meiosis in females begins in the ovaries well before birth, where all of the roughly 400,000 ova a woman will ever have begin their development. The final cell division that produces the ovum does not occur until the female enters puberty. The most disruptive effect would be in the prenatal period, since interference at this stage would inhibit ova from even beginning to form. 2.34. In women, ova are formed: a. about one every day after reaching puberty b. about one or two a month, every month after reaching puberty c. about 100 every day after reaching puberty d. during the prenatal period Answer: d Page: 38 Factual Moderate 2.35. Which of the following results from the process of meiosis? a. fertilized ovum b. alleles c. gametes d. proteins Answer: c Page: 38 Factual Moderate 2.36. Another term used to refer to either ova or sperm is: a. alleles b. gametes Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. phenotypes d. proteins Answer: b Page: 38 Factual Easy 2.37. The cell division process that results in the formation of gametes is called: a. meiosis b. gene imprinting c. transcription d. mitosis Answer: a Page: 38 Factual Moderate 2.38. The term used to describe alternate versions of the same gene is: a. alleles b. chromosomes c. autosomes d. gametes Answer: a Page: 38-39 Factual Easy 2.39. The term that refers to an individual’s genetic make-up is __________; the term that refers to the physical characteristics that result from that genetic make-up is __________: a. autosomes; gametes b. gametes; autosomes c. phenotype; genotype d. genotype; phenotype Answer: d Page: 39 Factual Moderate 2.40. Suppose that the gene that determines how many fingers a person has is coded such that having 5 fingers is dominant and having 6 fingers is recessive. If a person’s mother has 5 fingers and his father has 6 fingers, what is the probability that he will be born with 6 fingers? a. 0 % b. 50 % c. 100 % d. the percent cannot be determined because we do not know if his mother is homozygous or heterozygous for this trait Answer: d Page: 39 Applied Difficult

Rationale: Normally, recessive traits are only expressed when a person has inherited two recessive genes. In this example, if the person’s mother is heterozygous for the trait, then the person would have a 50% chance of being born with 6 fingers. In this case, the father would contribute the recessive gene and there would be a 50% chance that the mother would contribute the recessive gene. As a result, there would be an overall 50% chance that the person would inherit both recessive genes and be born with 6 fingers. However, if the mother is homozygous for the trait, she will contribute the dominant gene which, even when combined with the recessive gene from the father, would never result in the presentation of the recessive trait of having 6 fingers. Thus, determining a precise probability would require that we know whether the mother is heterozygous or homozygous for the trait. 2.41. If the gene for blue eyes is recessive, and if John’s mother and father both have blue eyes, we know that John: a. will be homozygous on the eye color trait b. will be heterozygous on the eye color trait c. will have a 50% chance of having blue eyes d. will have a 25% chance of having blue eyes Answer: a Page: 39 Applied Moderate Rationale: Normally, recessive traits are only expressed when a person has inherited two recessive genes. In this example, one should assume that both the mother and father, having blue eyes, have two recessive genes. It follows that each would have had to contribute a recessive gene, resulting in John being homozygous on the eye color trait. 2.42. Suppose that Shelly’s mother has brown eyes and her father has blue eyes. Shelly has brown eyes. In this example we would ______ Shelly’s phenotype for eye color and would _________ Shelly’s genotype for eye color. a. know; not know b. not know; know c. know; know d. not know; not know Answer: c Page: 39 Applied Difficult Rationale: In genetics, the phenotype refers to those traits that are expressed in the individual. Thus, we know the phenotype: Shelly has brown eyes. The genotype refers to the genetic code of a given individual. Because the gene for brown eyes is dominant, Shelly would have brown eyes whether she inherited a recessive gene from her father and a dominant gene from her mother or whether she inherited dominant genes from both parents. Thus, we cannot determine Shelly’s genotype from the information provided. 2.43. Suppose that hair color is a single-gene trait and that dark hair is dominant and blonde hair is recessive. Also, suppose that Terry’s mother has dark hair and his father has blonde hair. If Terry has blonde hair, we would ______ Terry’s phenotype for hair color and would ________ Terry’s genotype for hair color. a. know; not know b. not know; know c. know; know d. not know; not know Answer: c Page: 39 Applied Difficult Rationale: In genetics, the phenotype refers to those traits that are expressed in the individual. Thus, we know the phenotype: Terry has blonde hair. The genotype refers to the genetic code of a given individual. Because blonde hair is recessive, we can determine Terry’s genotype: he would have to have inherited recessive genes from both his parents. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.44. Suppose that eye color is a single gene trait and that brown eyes is a dominant allele and blue eyes is a recessive allele. If Mark has brown eyes, we would know: a. that Mark is heterozygous for the eye color trait b. that Mark is homozygous for the eye color trait c. Mark’s genotype d. Mark’s phenotype Answer: d Page: 39 Applied Moderate Rationale: In genetics, the phenotype refers to those traits that are expressed in the individual. Thus, we know the phenotype: Mark has brown eyes. 2.45. Assume that eye color is a single gene trait and that brown eyes is a dominant allele and blue eyes is a recessive allele. If Harry’s mother and father both have brown eyes and are both heterozygous on this trait, what is the probably that he will have brown eyes, too? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% c. 25% Answer: b Page: 39 Applied Difficult Rationale: Heterozygous refers to the arrangement in which the two alleles for a simple dominant–recessive trait differ. One possibility is that Harry could inherit a recessive allele from his father and a recessive allele from his mother, which would result in blue eyes. Alternatively, he could inherit a recessive allele from his father and a dominant allele from his mother, a dominant allele from his father and a recessive allele from his mother, or dominant alleles from both parents – all circumstances that would result in Harry having brown eyes.

2.46. A mother and a father have four children (biological not adopted). All four children have blue eyes. Assuming that brown eyes is a dominant trait and blue eyes is a recessive trait, which of the following statements must be true? a. The parents may have brown or blue eyes, but both must have at least one allele for blue eyes. b. The parents may have brown or blue eyes, but both must have at least one allele for brown eyes. c. At least one of the parents must have blue eyes. d. Both of the parents must have blue eyes. Answer: a Page: 39 Applied Difficult Rationale: For a recessive trait to be expressed, a child must inherit two recessive alleles. Thus, for a child to have blue eyes, both parents must have at least one recessive allele (i.e., allele for blue eyes). 2.47. The term “polygenic inheritance” refers to which of the following? a. a trait that is determined by a single gene pair b. the idea that half of our genes come from each of our parents c. a trait that is present in the individual’s phenotype d. a trait caused by an interaction of several genes or gene pairs Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 40 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In polygenic inheritance, the inheritance of a trait is determined by multiple genes. 2.48. Dr. Ramley states that intelligence is determined by the action of hundreds of different genes. She has just defined intelligence as a _________ trait. a. dominant b. recessive c. polygenic d. heterozygous Answer: c Page: 40 Applied Moderate Rationale: Polygenic inheritance is defined as the inheritance of a trait that is determined by multiple genes. 2.49. Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. As such, if a child is color blind, we can be assured that the child’s genotype includes: a. a recessive gene on the X chromosome inherited from his mother b. a dominant gene on the X chromosome inherited from his mother c. a recessive gene on the Y chromosome inherited from his father d. a dominant gene on the X chromosome inherited from his father Answer: a Page: 40 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Sex-linked traits are those that are determined by genes on the 23rd chromosome pair. If a normally recessive allele appears on the male’s X chromosome, there often is no allele on the Y chromosome to offset it, and the recessive trait will be expressed as the individual’s phenotype. In contrast, in females, the recessive trait will be expressed only if it occurs on both X chromosomes. Regardless of whether the child is male or female, the mother must contribute a recessive gene on the X chromosome in order for the trait to be expressed. 2.50. Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder that is best considered an example of: a. dominance b. incomplete dominance c. recessive alleles d. codominance Answer: b Page: 40 Factual Difficult 2.51. The AB blood type is an example of a condition that results from: a. dominance b. incomplete dominance c. recessive alleles d. codominance Answer: d Page: 40 Factual Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.52. Suppose that a disease is inherited. Your mother has the disease, your father does not, and you have a very minor case of the disease which lies somewhere in between your mother’s and father’s situation. In this case, we would know that the alleles that determine this trait: a. are recessive b. are dominant c. are codominant d. are heterozygous Answer: c Page: 40 Applied Difficult Rationale: Codominance refers to a situation in which neither allele is dominant over the other. When codominant traits are inherited, the result is a phenotype that is a blend. 2.53. An example of a trait that results from incomplete dominance is ________; a trait that results from codominant alleles is __________: a. sickle-cell anemia; blood type b. leukemia; breast cancer c. heart disease; liver cancer d. multiple sclerosis; Lou Gehrig’s disease Answer: a Page: 40 Factual Difficult 2.54. The blood clotting disease, hemophilia, occurs much more frequently in males because it is caused by a recessive gene carried on the sex chromosomes. As such, it would be referred to as: a. a heterozygous trait b. a homozygous trait c. a sex-linked trait d. a codominant trait Answer: c Page: 40 Applied Moderate Rationale: Sex-linked traits are, by definition, those that are determined by genes on the 23rd chromosome pair (the sex chromosomes). Sex-linked traits are not, by definition, heterozygous or homozygous. If a normally recessive allele appears on the male’s X chromosome, there often is no allele on the Y chromosome to offset it, and the recessive trait will be expressed as the individual’s phenotype. In contrast, in females, the recessive trait will be expressed only if it occurs on both X chromosomes. 2.55. The last stage of meiotic division, in which chance determines which half of each chromosome pair will go into which sperm or ovum, involves the process called: a. mitosis b. independent assortment c. recombination d. codominant configuration Answer: b Page: 40-41 Factual Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.56. Mr. Martin is worried that, if he has a child, the child might be “unlucky” and get the “bad half” of his chromosome pairs. Mr. Martin’s worry would technically be referred to as an issue involving: a. recombinant alleles b. independent assortment c. codominance in allele pairs c. mutation Answer: b Page: 40-41 Applied Difficult Rationale: Independent assortment refers to the final stage of meiotic division, in which chance determines which half of the chromosome pairs will go into which sperm or ovum. 2.57. If all cells in a person’s body have a particular mutation present, we can conclude that the mutation most likely occurred: a. during mitosis b. during meiosis c. shortly after birth d. sometime after puberty Answer: b Page: 41 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: At the molecular level, a mutation is an alteration in the DNA that typically occurs during mitosis or meiosis. A small number of mutations are viable—the mutated cell survives. In mitotic cell division, if a viable mutation occurs early in development, it will then be passed along to all the cells replicated in subsequent divisions of that cell. When mutation occurs during meiosis, on the other hand, it is incorporated into the genetic code passed along to offspring in the sperm or ova. Genetic and Chromosomal Disorders 2.58. What percent of babies born today in the United States are healthy and normal? a. 60% b. 73% c. 87% d. 97% Answer: d Page: 41 Factual Moderate 2.59. Anne mentions that her cousin has a congenital anomaly. You would know that this is sometimes also referred to as: a. a sex-linked trait b. a birth defect c. an autosomal disorder d. a heterozygous trait Answer: b Page: 41 Applied Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Congenital anomalies are abnormalities that result from genetic and chromosomal problems as well as from exposure to toxins, disease, and such during the prenatal period. These anomalies are still often referred to as birth defects. 2.60. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked disorder? a. Down syndrome b. hemophilia c. Fragile X syndrome d. color blindness Answer: a Page: 42-43 Factual Easy 2.61. Which of the following sex-linked disorders occurs most frequently? a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. hemophilia d. color blindness Answer: d Page: 42 Factual Moderate 2.62. Which of the following inherited disorders results in problems with blood clotting? a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. hemophilia d. color blindness Answer: c Page: 42 Factual Easy 2.63. Which of the following syndromes occurs only in females? a. Down syndrome b. Turner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter's syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome Answer: b Page: 42 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Both Down syndrome and Fragile X occur in both males and females. Klinefelter’s syndrome appears in only males. Turner’s syndrome appears in only females and occurs when one of the X chromosomes is missing or inactive. 2.64. Todd is mentally retarded, sterile, and has small external genitalia, undescended testicles, and breast enlargement. His chromosome pattern is XXY. Since puberty, he has received hormone replacement therapy in order to maintain his secondary-sex characteristics. What sex-linked abnormality does Todd most likely have? a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Down syndrome Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. Turner's syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome Answer: a Page: 42 Applied Moderate Rationale: Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs in about 1 of 1,000 males and involves the characteristics described: sterility, small external genitalia, undescended testicles, and breast enlargement. 2.65. Olaf has been diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome. What is his chromosomal pattern? a. XO b. XY c. XXY d. XYY Answer: c Page: 42 Applied Moderate Rationale: Klinefelter’s syndrome can result from any of the following chromosomal patterns: XXY,XXXY,XXXXY 2.66. Which of the following conditions is a sex-linked abnormality that can occur in both males and females? a. Fragile X syndrome b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Turner's syndrome d. Down syndrome Answer: a Page: 42-43 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs only in males and Turner’s syndrome occurs only in females. Down syndrome can occur in both males and females, but results from a variation on the 21st chromosome pair rather than on the 23rd chromosome pair (i.e., sex chromosomes). 2.67. Individuals with this syndrome have a functional X chromosome, but either a missing or inactive second X chromosome. a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Fragile X syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome Answer: d Page: 42 Factual Moderate 2.68. Melissa has a single X chromosome and no Y chromosome, an immature female appearance, and lacks internal reproductive organs. What is the most appropriate diagnosis of her condition? a. Down syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer: b Page: 42 Applied Moderate Rationale: Turner syndrome occurs in about 1 of 10,000 females. One of the X chromosomes is either missing or inactive. The characteristics of Turner syndrome match Melissa’s: Individuals with Turner syndrome usually have an immature female appearance—they do not develop secondary sex characteristics. They also lack internal reproductive organs. These females may be abnormally short, and some are mentally retarded. The disorder is usually discovered at puberty, and hormone replacement therapy can help with a more normal appearance. 2.69. Andre is a hemophiliac, which means that he has problems with: a. blood clotting b. exocrine glands c. amino acid metabolism d. muscle control Answer: a Page: 42 Applied Easy Rationale: Hemophilia A and B are disorders that interfere with normal blood clotting and occur at different loci on the X chromosome. Hemophilia A is usually accompanied by color blindness. 2.70. If Margaret (a woman) is becoming bald as the result of a genetic trait called pattern baldness, we would know that she inherited a _______ allele for this trait from her mother and a ___________ allele from her father: a. dominant; recessive b. recessive; dominant c. dominant; dominant d. recessive; recessive Answer: d Page: 42 Applied Moderate Rationale: Pattern baldness, which can include a receding hairline, loss of hair on the top of the head, or overall hair thinning, is a common example of a sex-linked disorder. Many men inherit the recessive allele and some display pattern baldness as early as in their teens. Many women carry the recessive allele as well, but a dominant allele on the other X chromosome prevents pattern baldness from being displayed. Unless a woman inherits a recessive allele from both parents, she is unlikely to display this genetic trait. 2.71. The primary reason that sex-linked traits are observed more frequently in men than in women is that: a. mutations are much more common in male offspring b. male babies are weaker so are more likely to be spontaneously aborted if any developmental process is compromised c. the Y chromosome is much smaller and has fewer genes than the X chromosome d. women generally do not talk about sex-related behavior as much as do men Answer: c Page: 42 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Sex-linked traits are, by definition, those that are determined by genes on the 23rd chromosome pair (the sex chromosomes). If a normally recessive allele appears on the male’s X chromosome, there often is no allele on the Y chromosome to offset it, and the recessive trait will be expressed as the individual’s phenotype. In contrast, in females, the recessive trait will be expressed only if it occurs on both X chromosomes. Because a trait will be expressed in males when two recessive alleles are inherited or when a recessive allele is inherited from the mother Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

and no allele appears on the Y chromosome to offset it, sex-linked traits are more frequently observed in men than in women. 2.72. If we know that a disease results from a sex-linked recessive trait, we would expect that it would: a. be more common among men than women b. be more common among women than men c. develop earlier in life for boys than girls d. develop earlier in life for girls than boys Answer: a Page: 42 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Traits that are controlled by the sex chromosomes (X and Y) are called sex-linked traits. Because the males’ Y chromosome is smaller than the females’ second X, men are more likely to display recessive sex-linked traits in their phenotype. 2.73. Having an African American ancestry puts individuals at higher risk for developing which of the following genetic disorders? a. sickle-cell trait and sickle-cell anemia b. cystic fibrosis c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Down syndrome Answer: a Page: 43 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Sickle-cell trait occurs in about 1 of 12 U.S. African Americans; sickle-cell anemia occurs in about 1 of 500. Other groups whose ancestors lived in low-lying malarial wetlands show high rates as well. 2.74. Which recessive genetic disorder occurs primarily among people of European Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry, resulting in early death in those children afflicted with it? a. cystic fibrosis b. Tay-Sachs disease c. phenylketonuria d. sickle-cell anemia Answer: b Page: 43 Factual Easy 2.75. At birth, Debbie was given a mandatory screening test and tested positive for a disorder that required her to be placed immediately on a restricted diet to control her symptoms. Which of the following is mostly likely the condition for which she is being treated? a. sickle-cell anemia b. Huntington’s disease c. cystic fibrosis d. phenylketonuria Answer: d Page: 43 Applied Difficult

2.76. Which of the following disorders occurs only when the gene involved is inherited from the mother and not the father? a. Prader-Willi syndrome b. Angelman syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome Answer: a Page: 44 Factual Difficult 2.77. If a child has mutated genes on chromosome 15 contributed by the mother, he or she will be at risk for developing _____; if the mutated genes are from the father, he or she will be at risk for developing _____. a. Angelman syndrome; Prader-Willi syndrome b. Prader-Willi syndrome; Angelman syndrome c. Turner’s syndrome; Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Klinefelter’s syndrome; Turner’s syndrome Answer: b Page: 44 Factual Moderate 2.78. Rene has Down syndrome, which means that she has an extra chromosome on which chromosome pair? a. the 7th pair b. the 18th pair c. the 21st pair d. the 23rd pair Answer: c Page: 43-44 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the most frequent type of Down syndrome is trisomy-21, in which an extra chromosome is attached to the 21st pair. 2.79. Which of the following genetic disorders is the result from a problem associated with the autosomes? a. Fragile X syndrome b. Turner's syndrome c. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Down syndrome Answer: d Page: 43-44 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Fragile X syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome are all sex-linked disorders. Down syndrome is not a sex-linked disorder, rather it involves an extra chromosome being attached to the 21st pair. 2.80. Down syndrome has been shown to be related to which of the following? a. father’s age b. mother’s age c. parents’ ethnic background d. mother’s diet during pregnancy

Answer: b Page: 44 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, Down syndrome occurs about once in every 1,000 live births for mothers under age 35, and the incidence steadily increases as the age of the mother increases. 2.81. George’s younger brother is diagnosed at birth with “trisomy-21.” Another term for this condition is: a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Supermale syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome Answer: d Page: 44 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, The most frequent type of Down syndrome is trisomy-21, in which an extra chromosome is attached to the 21st pair. 2.82. Suppose researchers identify a genetic disorder that has negative consequences if the gene is inherited from the mother, but no consequences at all if it is inherited from the father. According to the text, this situation would be: a. impossible b. an example of gene imprinting c. an example of a sex-linked trait d. an example of an autosomal disorder Answer: b Page: 44 Applied Difficult Rationale: Gene imprinting refers to a phenomenon in which gene expression and phenotype depend on which parent the genes come from. 2.83. According to the text, most individuals harbor about ______ potentially lethal recessive genes: a. none or 1 b. 5 to 8 c. 50 to 75 d. hundreds Answer: b Page: 45 Factual Difficult 2.84. In his professional career, Andy wants to study the risk factors associated with genetic disorders and to provide information and support to parents whose risk factors are high. Andy wants to enter the field called: a. genetic counseling b. pediatric social work c. prenatology d. bioethical statistics Answer: a Page: 45 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy Rationale: Genetic counseling refers to a widely available resource that can help potential parents evaluate genetic risk factors in childbearing and enable them to make choices that reflect their values and circumstances. 2.85. Which of the following types of information would be of LEAST interest to a genetic counselor? a. parents’ ages b. parents’ illnesses c. parents’ ethnic background d. parents’ income Answer: d Page: 45 Applied Moderate Rationale: Genetic counseling often includes the analysis of parental medical records and family histories to construct a genetic “pedigree,” which identifies previous instances where congenital anomalies have occurred. Other techniques, such as parental blood analysis or prenatal screening, can detect many chromosomal or genetic anomalies. Parents’ income does not provide information in helping the counselor construct a person’s genetic “pedigree.” 2.86. Workers in Dr. Garcia’s lab first obtain tumor cells from patients with cancer. They then remove the DNA from the tumor cell nuclei and use enzymes to segment the DNA strands into sections. Finally, they insert the DNA sections in which they are interested into “host” bacteria cells, where the DNA can be reproduced for later use. Dr. Garcia’s lab is engaged in work involving: a. behavior genetics b. recombinant technology c. cryogenics d. autosomal transmission Answer: b Page: 45-46 Applied Moderate Rationale: As defined in the textbook, recombinant DNA technology refers to an assortment of highly sophisticated procedures in which DNA is extracted from cell nuclei and cut into segments; the resulting fragments are then joined to self-replicating elements, in essence forming functional gene clones. These are then placed in host bacterial cells to be maintained and cultured. 2.87. Which of the following is the best summary of the current state of gene therapies, such as the use of retroviruses? a. The theoretical work about how such processes might work is still incomplete. b. Gene therapies have been developed but ethical concerns have prevented their use in humans at the present time. c. Gene therapies have been developed and tried, but with limited success so far. d. Gene therapies are used routinely with very good success in treating a number of genetic diseases. Answer: c Page: 45-46 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, a gene therapy approach that involves reinserting genetically altered cells into the person from whom they were harvested has been tried with various genetic disorders but with limited success thus far. Additionally, the retrovirus approach also has experienced only limited success; however, it holds great promise for the future if certain technical obstacles can be overcome.

2.88. Viruses used in gene therapy that are capable of penetrating cells and inserting modified DNA into them are called: a. recombinant viruses b. re-engineered viruses c. retroviruses d. macroviruses Answer: c Page: 46 Factual Moderate Behavior Genetics 2.89. The field of behavior genetics relies most heavily on data gathered from: a. chromosomes b. diseased tissue c. psychological tests and interviews d. viruses Answer: c Page: 46 Factual Moderate 2.90. If it were possible to know exactly what genetic information was contained in an individual’s genes, would the field of behavioral genetics have any usefulness? a. No b. Yes, because some genes are recessive c. Yes, because some traits are polygenic d. Yes, because the way traits are expressed is often dependent on the environment Answer: d Page: 46 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Even if we had complete knowledge of an individual’s genome, this would provide only a partial explanation for how that person’s traits would be expressed within an interactive environmental context. Understanding how genetic characteristics operate within particular environmental settings is the focus of behavior genetics. 2.91. The extent to which biologically related people show similar characteristics is measured by a technique called: a. genetic engineering b. recombinant technology c. concordance d. behavioral genetics Answer: c Page: 46 Factual Moderate 2.92. Dr. Smith studies a group of 1,000 people who have schizophrenia and who also have identical twins. He finds that 47% of the identical twins also develop this disease. The type of statistical information Dr. Smith’s study reveals is called: a. concordance Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. an H-E (Heredity-Environment) Index c. a genetic-based percentage d. analysis of variance Answer: a Page: 46 Applied Moderate Rationale: The primary tool of behavior genetics is the statistical technique of correlation, which measures concordance: the extent to which biologically related people show similar characteristics. 2.93. Doug believes that a person’s intelligence is about half inherited and half dependent on how the person grows up. Doug’s statement best reflects a concept that researchers would call: a. codominance b. a genetic predisposition c. heritability d. a heterozygous trait Answer: c Page: 46 Applied Moderate Rationale: Heritability is the proportion of a trait, such as intelligence, that is thought to result from inherited, genetic factors. 2.94. The extent to which a trait is inherited versus acquired through interactions with the environment defines the concept of: a. heritability b. genetic predisposition c. genetic engineering d. concordance Answer: a Page: 46 Factual Easy 2.95. If a particular trait is highly heritable, we would expect to see the highest concordance rates among: a. identical twins b. fraternal twins c. parents and children d. unrelated individuals of the same age Answer: a Page: 46 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Heritability refers to the extent to which a trait is inherited versus acquired, thus presuming a genetic basis. In this example, the trait is highly heritable, so we presume a strong genetic basis. Because identical twins are genetically identical (share 100% of their genetic makeup) we would expect them to show the most similar characteristics. 2.96. If the heritability of a trait was .50, we would expect to see the highest concordance rates among: a. identical twins raised together in the same home b. identical twins raised in different homes c. fraternal twins raised in different homes Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. unrelated individuals Answer: a Page: 46 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Concordance refers to the extent to which biologically related people show similar characteristics. A heritability of .50 suggests that genetics and environment contribute relatively equally to the expression of the trait. Thus, the individuals who share both the highest genetic makeup and share an environment would be expected to show the most similar characteristics. 2.97. If the heritability of a trait is greater than 0 but less than 100%, this would mean that: a. heredity was a larger influence on the trait than environment b. environment was a larger influence on the trait than heredity c. both heredity and environment influence the trait d. heredity and environment do not interact in their influence on this trait Answer: c Page: 46 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Heritability refers to the proportion of a trait, such as intelligence, that is thought to result from inherited, genetic factors. A proportion less than 100% but more than zero would indicate that there is some genetic basis to the trait, the remainder of which is explained by environmental factors. 2.98. Which of the following results is consistent with a trait that has a high heritability? a. identical twins are less alike than fraternal twins b. adopted children resemble their biological parents more than their adoptive parents c. unrelated children are as much alike as are brothers and sisters d. brothers are more alike than are sisters Answer: b Page: 47 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Heritability refers to the proportion of a trait, such as intelligence, that is thought to result from inherited, genetic factors. If a trait is highly heritable, we would expect persons who are more genetically similar to one another to show more similarity on a trait than persons who are less genetically similar to one another. In this example, adopted children share more genes with their biological parents than with their adoptive parents, so should resemble the biological parents more. 2.99. Based on the heritability studies cited in the text, the appropriate conclusion to draw is that: a. genes are important in physical development, but not in cognitive and personality development b. genes are important in physical and cognitive development but not in personality development c. genes play only a minor role in human development, regardless of the domain in question d. genes play a significant role in human development of a wide range of human traits and behaviors Answer: d Page: 48 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Overall the research presented in the book indicates that genes play a significant role across a variety of traits and behaviors. For example, the book mentions a recent meta-analytic study of over 400 individual studies of the heritability of traits—including intelligence, language ability, psychiatric disorders including anxiety and depression, personality traits, and antisocial problems—that suggests that 41% of human behavior is genetically influenced (Malouff, Rooke, & Schutte, 2008). Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.100. According to research presented in the text, you should conclude that, under normal circumstances, about what percent of a person’s intelligence is the result of environmental, rather than genetic, factors? a. nearly 100% b. about half c. a small but measurable percent d. virtually zero percent Answer: b Page: 48 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, looking across a variety of studies, a consistent estimate is that genetics contributes about 50% to intelligence. 2.101. According to research presented in the text, you should conclude that, under normal circumstances, about what percent of a person’s personality is the result of genetic factors? a. nearly 100% b. about a third to a half c. about 2 to 5% d. virtually zero percent Answer: b Page: 48 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Studies estimate a genetic contribution to personality of about 40% (Bouchard, 1999), perhaps ranging from 20 to 50% depending on the situation (Rushton, Bons, & Hur, 2008; Segal, 2000). 2.102. Research suggests that a portion of intelligence is inherited. What percentage of an individual’s intelligence is generally believed to be due to inherited factors? a. 10% or less b. around 50% c. around 75% d. over 90% Answer: b Page: 48 Factual Moderate Environmental Influences and Contexts 2.103. While sitting in a quiet waiting room, Ronnie at first is quite distracted by the clicking sound made by an old clock ticking away the seconds. However, after a few minutes, he no longer notices the ticking. This example best highlights the concept involved in: a. concordance b. classical conditioning c. habituation c. social learning Answer: c Page: 50 Applied Moderate Rationale: In habituation, a person ceases to attend or respond to repetitive stimulation. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.104. A researcher records the number of “sucks” a baby takes on her pacifier as she is shown pictures of adult faces. The researcher notes that when her mother’s face is shown, the baby stops sucking entirely. This experimental method relies most directly on an understanding of which of the following learning processes? a. habituation b. operant conditioning c. reinforcement d. self-efficacy Answer: a Page: 50 Applied Difficult Rationale: In habituation, a person ceases to attend or respond to repetitive stimulation. In this case, the researcher knows that the baby demonstrates habituation to the mother’s face because the face is familiar (in other words, it is an example of repetitive stimulation). 2.105. While taking a test, suppose you are distracted by the student next to you who is smacking her gum as she chews it. However, after a few minutes, you no longer attend to the smacking, even though your neighbor keeps doing this. Your response in this situation is best considered to be the result of: a. reinforcement b. punishment c. classical conditioning d. habituation Answer: d Page: 50 Applied Moderate Rationale: In habituation, a person ceases to attend or respond to repetitive stimulation. 2.106. When a person repeatedly experiences the same stimulus, he or she typically will tend to respond to it less and less with each repetition. This process is referred to as: a. classical conditioning b. punishment c. operant conditioning d. habituation Answer: d Page: 50 Applied Easy Rationale: In habituation, a person ceases to attend or respond to repetitive stimulation. 2.107. The key to understanding how classical conditioning works is to recognize that it involves the _________ of what will come. a. reinforcement b. punishment c. prediction d. repression Answer: c Page: 50 Conceptual Difficult

Rationale: In classical conditioning, learning occurs when, through repeated trials, we learn to associate one stimulus with another naturally occurring stimulus–response sequence. In other words, we learn that a stimulus predict that a sequence of events will occur. 2.108. Three-year-old Kayla has been seeing her pediatrician for checkups every six months and fears the shots she receives each time. Now, even though he does not administer the shots, Kayla cries when the pediatrician enters the room because she associates him with receiving shots. The pediatrician has become a(n): a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response Answer: a Page: 50 Applied Moderate Rationale: In classical conditioning, a naturally occurring reflex becomes associated with an environmental cue. In this case, the fear that accompanies an impending shot has become associated with the pediatrician who has administered these shots in the past. The pediatrician is the environmental cue. 2.109. An unreasonable fear of an object or a situation is referred to as a: a. phobia b. conditioning c. habituation d. reinforcer Answer: a Page: 50 Factual Easy 2.110. Classical conditioning is most likely to be involved in which of the involving situations? a. Brian won’t work unless he gets paid. b. Alex trains his dog to “roll over” by offering food rewards. c. Rick feels nervous and sick to his stomach when he sees a black cat, but doesn’t know why. d. John loses weight by buying tickets to see his favorite team play whenever he drops five more pounds. Answer: c Page: 50 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, emotional responses, in particular, are often established through classical conditioning. The other examples are directly tied to operant conditioning procedures. 2.111. If Wesley is afraid to enter tall buildings because he worries that they will be attacked by terrorists, psychologists would say his fear is most likely the result of: a. habituation b. a phobia c. heritability d. poor self-efficacy Answer: b Page: 50 Applied Easy

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, unreasonable fears of objects or situations are called phobias; phobias—such as fear of the dark, fear of being in a closely confined space, and so forth—often are established through classical conditioning. 2.112. For as long as Brian can remember, he has been fearful of being in high places. Just the idea of climbing stairs or riding in an elevator causes him to be overcome with uncontrollable fear. Brian likely suffers from: a. a phobia b. negative conditioning c. habituation d. reinforcement failure Answer: a Page: 50 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, unreasonable fears of objects or situations are called phobias. 2.113. Operant conditioning is especially likely to be involved in the development of: a. phobias b. excessive salivation c. habituation d. habits Answer: d Page: 50-51 Factual Moderate 2.114. Operant conditioning is most closely associated with which of the following? a. production of reflexive responses, such as salivation b. production of emotional responses, such as fearfulness c. the ability to screen meaningless repetitive stimuli out of consciousness d. understanding the effect of consequences that follow a particular behavior Answer: d Page: 50-51 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Operant conditioning involves the application or removal of rewards (called reinforcements) and punishments to encourage or discourage us from acting in certain ways. Both reinforcements and punishments constitute consequences that follow a particular behavior. 2.115. Which of the following is the best example of a partial schedule of reinforcement? a. Every time he cries, Robert’s mother picks him up. b. Vickie has a tantrum every time her mother takes her to the grocery store because once or twice in the past her mother has given in and bought her candy to quiet her down. c. Julie has come to expect that she will be paid for babysitting her little brother because this is what parents always do. d. Jake has a terrible fear of spiders that his therapist has now diagnosed as a phobia. Answer: b Page: 51 Applied Difficult Rationale: In a partial schedule of reinforcement, reinforcements occur only occasionally, not every time a behavior occurs. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.116. A consequence that decreases the probability that a behavior will be repeated is a technical definition of the term: a. punishment b. threat c. self-efficacy d. partial schedule Answer: a Page: 51 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, punishments decrease the probability that a behavior will be repeated. 2.117. Systematically reinforcing successive approximations to a desired act defines: a. shaping b. counterconditioning c. stimulus generalization d. systematic desensitization Answer: a Page: 51 Factual Easy 2.118. Suppose Sandra has difficulty in concentrating while doing her homework. She decides to reward herself for reading 5 minutes without letting her mind wander. After a week of this, she decides to reward herself only when she reads for 10 minutes without distraction. Finally, she is able to concentrate for 15 minutes at a time without distraction. Sandra’s ability to improve her study behavior is best considered an example of: a. shaping b. classical conditioning c. habituation d. punishment Answer: a Page: 51 Applied Moderate Rationale: Shaping involves systematically reinforcing successive approximations to a desired behavior. In this case, Sandra reinforces her successive approximations (studying for 5 minutes) of the desired behavior (studying for 15 minutes without distraction). 2.119. Learning through the method of “successive approximation” is at the heart of the concept called: a. self-efficacy b. classical conditioning c. partial schedules of reinforcement d. shaping Answer: d Page: 51 Factual Easy 2.120. Rex decides that the only way he will ever be able to work hard enough to pass his chemistry class is to give himself a reward after every chapter he reads and every lab report he turns in on time. His approach to studying is best thought of as an example of: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. classical conditioning b. behavior modification c. habituation d. normative age-graded influences Answer: b Page: 51 Applied Moderate Rationale: Behavior modification is a method that uses conditioning procedures—such as reinforcement, reward, and shaping—to change behavior. 2.121. Whitney believes that she is a capable, confident person who can usually succeed in whatever she tries to do. Psychologists would be most likely to conclude that she has: a. a phobia b. a strong sense of self-efficacy c. a comfortable developmental niche d. established a codominant relationship with her parents Answer: b Page: 52 Applied Easy Rationale: Self-efficacy refers to what a person believes he or she is capable of doing in a given situation. Environment in a Broader Context: Family and Culture 2.122. The unique world experienced by each individual is called that person’s: a. developmental niche b. personal space c. family system d. normative space Answer: a Page: 52 Factual Easy 2.123. If different members of the family experience quite different environments, this would be reflected in: a. a larger shared environment b. a larger nonshared environment c. a harsher developmental niche d. a challenge for self-concept development Answer: b Page: 52 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Nonshared environment refers to those experiences and relationships that persons do not share. 2.124. The tendency to assume that one’s own cultural beliefs are normal and those of others are abnormal is referred to as: a. cohesion b. socialization c. ethnocentrism d. indoctrination Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 53 Factual Easy 2.125. Patty doesn’t want to hang around with people from the other side of town because she says they are “weird.” Patty’s behavior best reflects the concept involved in: a. ethnocentrism b. self-efficacy c. normative age-graded influences d. normative history-graded influences Answer: a Page: 53 Applied Moderate Rationale: Ethnocentrism is the tendency to assume that our own beliefs, perceptions, customs, and values are correct or normal and that those of others are inferior or abnormal. 2.126. Little Timmy says, “Boys are cool and girls are stupid.” Timmy’s statement reflects the heart of what is meant by the term: a. normative age-graded influences b. nonnormative influences c. self-efficacy d. ethnocentrism Answer: d Page: 53 Applied Moderate Rationale: Ethnocentrism is the tendency to assume that our own beliefs, perceptions, customs, and values are correct or normal and that those of others are inferior or abnormal. 2.127. Which of the following is an example of a normative history-graded influence on development? a. retirement b. career change c. economic depression d. unemployment Answer: c Page: 55 Factual Easy 2.128. At age 65, Reggie retired from high school teaching. This change most likely reflects a: a. normative, age-graded influence b. normative, history-graded influence c. nonnormative influence d. normative, gender-graded influence Answer: a Page: 55 Applied Moderate

Rationale: Normative, age-graded influences refer to the biological and social changes that normally happen at predictable ages (e.g., puberty, menopause, entering school). Most people retire around age 65. 2.129. Many individuals who grew up during the Great Depression were so devastated by the collapse of the economy that they became distrustful of depositing large sums of money in banks. The Great Depression would best be considered a: a. normative, age-graded influence b. normative, history-graded influence c. nonnormative influence d. normative, economic-graded influence Answer: b Page: 55 Applied Moderate Rationale: Normative, history-graded influences refer to the historical events that affect large numbers of individuals at the same time (e.g., wars, depressions, epidemics). The Great Depression is one such example. 2.130. After Bill's parents’ divorce, he and his mother were forced to move into an apartment and he had to switch schools. The losses Bill experienced following the divorce marked a turning point in his life, because from then on, he did poorly in school. His parents' divorce would be considered a: a. normative, age-graded influence b. normative, history-graded influence c. nonnormative influence d. normative, gender-graded influence Answer: c Page: 55 Applied Difficult Rationale: Nonnormative influences refer to the individual environmental factors that do not occur at any predictable time in a person’s life (e.g., divorce, unemployment, career changes). Experiencing one’s parents’ divorce is not an event that can be predicted to occur at a predictable time in a person’s life, if at all. 2.131. Which of the following is NOT an example of a normative history-graded influence? a. a world-wide disease epidemic b. war c. menopause d. economic depression Answer: c Page: 55 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Normative, history-graded influences refer to the historical events that affect large numbers of individuals at the same time (e.g., wars, depressions, epidemics). Menopause is an example of a normative, age-graded influence. 2.132. Which of the following is NOT an example of a normative age-graded influence? a. having children b. puberty c. divorce d. menopause Answer: c Page: 55 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Normative, age-graded influences refer to the biological and social changes that normally happen at predictable ages (e.g., puberty, menopause, entering school). Divorce does not occur at a predictable age, if at all. 2.133. Which of the following is MOST likely to be experienced as a normative influence? a. retirement b. career change c. illness d. moving to a new community Answer: a Page: 55 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Normative influences occur at a predictable time or have a predictable effect on large numbers of people. Most people retire, predictably, around age 65. 2.134. In general, the impact of nonnormative influences are greatest at which of the following periods of the lifespan: a. in the prenatal period and in infancy b. in early and middle childhood c. in adolescence and early adulthood d. in later adulthood and old age Answer: d Page: 55-56 Factual Moderate Changing Perspectives: Genetic Engineering and Cloning 2.135. If a scientist were to clone a rat, the genetic code in the new rat produced would share what percentage of its genetic code with its parent(s)? a. it would share 50% of its genes with its mother and 50% with its father b. it would share 50% with its mother, but 0% with its father c. it would share 50% with its father, but 0% with its mother d. it would have only one “parent” and would share 100% of its genetic code with it Answer: d Page: 47 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: To clone something means to duplicate it exactly. In the context of genetic engineering, cloning can refer to the replication of DNA segments used to produce drugs like insulin or to the exact duplication of an entire living organism. In the cloning of an animal, the new animal would be an exact duplication of a parent. 2.136. In agriculture, the traditional practice of genetic engineering is called: a. green engineering b. selective breeding c. cloning d. genetic replication Answer: b Page: 47 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 2.137. Generalizing from the text, you should conclude that the primary problem with cloning human beings has to do with: a. ethical issues b. the much greater complexity of the human brain as compared to animal brains c. the financial costs involved d. the long prenatal period that humans experience compared to animals Answer: a Page: 47 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As an example of an ethical concern, some groups are concerned that even those cloning techniques that stop far short of human replication intrude into what they consider to be the sanctity of life. Current Issues: The New Baby and the Extended Family System 2.138. Research presented in the text noted that, in comparison to young mothers with ill or premature infants who lived away from their extended family, those who lived with their extended family: a. were less likely to complete their education b. were less likely to keep the job they had before the baby was born c. were less likely to have good parenting skills d. had more self-confidence in their ability to be a good parent Answer: c Page: 54 Factual Difficult 2.139. Which of the following is the best example of what is usually meant by the term “nuclear family”: a. a mother, father, and children b. grandparents, parents, and children c. any family whose primary breadwinner is the father d. any family with three or more children Answer: a Page: 54 Factual Easy

True/False questions: Molecular Genetics 2.140. To say that genetics and environment interact means that these forces influence each other. Answer: True Page: 34 2.141. We share about 98% of our genes with chimpanzees. Answer: True Page: 36

2.142. In the human body, there are approximately 20 different kinds of cells, which are arranged in different ways to create different tissues and organs. Answer: False Page: 34 Rationale: The human body is comprised of over 200 different kinds of cells. 2.143. Mitochondria are the “powerhouses” of a cell. Answer: True Page: 35 2.144. Scientists have been able to identify markers in the human DNA that distinguishes different races of people. Answer: False Page: 36 Rationale: Traits that are associated with different race-based features, such as skin color, are distributed continuously through the population and there are no “either-or” traits that differentiate different racial groups. Instead, the concept of race is better thought of as a social construct, more closely related to ethnicity than a particular genetic code. 2.145. There are about one million genes in the human genome. Answer: False Page: 36 Rationale: There are about 20,000 to 25,000 genes in the human genome. 2.146. The primary function of proteins called antibodies is to speed up the chemical reactions within cells. Answer: False Page: 36 Rationale: The primary function of antibodies is to protect the body from disease. Genes, Chromosomes, and Cell Division 2.147. Most cells in the human body divide according to the process of mitosis; however the gametes divide in a process called meiosis. Answer: True Page: 38 2.148. Normal adults have 46 chromosomes contained within each of their body cells. Thus, when a couple’s sperm and ovum unite, the resulting baby will have 92 chromosomes in each body cell. Answer: False Page: 38 Rationale: Normal body cells have 46 chromosomes, except for sperm and egg cell, which have one-half of a normal complement of chromosomes. Thus, when sperm and egg unite, each contributes 23 chromosomes, which join together to make 23 pair, or 46, chromosomes. 2.149. Most human traits involve polygenic inheritance (multiple genes) rather than a single gene. Answer: True Page: 39-40 2.150. Blood type is a good example of a sex-linked trait, which means that certain blood types are more common in males than in females. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 40 Rationale: Blood type is an example of a trait that is codominant, meaning that individuals who carry different alleles inherit the phenotype that is a blending of the two traits carried by parents. 2.151. Sometimes in the process of meiosis genetic material crosses over from one allele in a chromosome to another. This process results in unique new recombinant alleles. Answer: True Page: 40-41 2.152. Because there are so many possibilities for how genes can combine in the process of human reproduction, two human parents theoretically could produce hundreds of trillions of genetically unique children. Answer: True Page: 41 2.153. Although it was earlier thought that cell mutations were quite rare, more recent research has found that they actually occur quite frequently. Answer: True Page: 41 Genetic and Chromosomal Disorders 2.154. Each year in the United States congenital anomalies (or birth defects) affect between 10% and 15% of all births. Answer: False Page: 41 Rationale: Congenital anomalies affect about 3% of the infants born in the United States today. 2.155. Sex-linked traits occur when the autosomes do not replicate correctly. Answer: False Page: 42 Rationale: Sex-linked traits occur when the gametes do not replicate correctly. 2.156. Hemophilia and color blindness are examples of abnormalities associated with genes on the sex chromosomes. Answer: True Page: 42 2.157. Because the genes that code for Fragile X disorder are on the X chromosome, females are affected much more often and more seriously than males. Answer: False Page: 42-43 Rationale: Fragile X syndrome is a trait carried on the X chromosome, but it is more commonly diagnosed in males, since they do not have the corresponding chromosome site on the Y-chromosome that could carry a dominant version of this allele. 2.158. Down syndrome is an example of an autosomal disorder. Answer: True Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 43-44 2.159. Gene imprinting results in the situation in which an extra chromosome or piece of chromosome is included in a person’s genotype. Answer: False Page: 44 Rationale: Gene imprinting is a phenomenon in which a person’s phenotype depends not on which genes are inherited, but rather on whether the genes for a trait come from the mother versus the father. 2.160. Something that recombinant gene technologies have in common is that they involve extracting some genetic material from cells and reintroducing it into different cells. Answer: True Page: 45-46 Behavior Genetics 2.161. Once the human genome is completely mapped, the field of behavior genetics will no longer be useful. Answer: False Page: 46 Rationale: Behavior genetics will always be useful because it considers not only the person’s genes but also how the environment modifies their action. 2.162. If a trait has a heritability that is greater than zero, then the concordance rate for identical twins will be greater than for fraternal twins. Answer: True Page: 46-48 Environmental Influences and Contexts 2.163. Habituation is the learning process that is usually associated with the learning of emotional responses, including phobias. Answer: False Page: 50 Rationale: Phobias and other emotional responses are typically learned through classical conditioning processes, not habituation. 2.164. When behavior modification programs involve a slow, progressive set of expectations that become more demanding over time, this is called shaping. Answer: True Page: 51 Environment in a Broader Context: Family and Culture 2.165. The nonshared environment for identical twins raised in the same home would be zero. Answer: False Page: 52 Rationale: Even identical twins do not experience the same environment, thus they do experience at least some nonshared environmental circumstances unique to each individual.

2.166. Only the most primitive cultures exhibit ethnocentrism, which is the working assumption that one’s own beliefs, perceptions, customs, and values are correct and that those of others are inferior. Answer: False Page: 53 Rationale: Ethnocentrism, which is correctly defined in this question, is present to some degree in all cultures. 2.167. The Great Depression is a good example of a nonnormative, history-graded influence. Answer: False Page: 55 Rationale: The Great Depression was an event that was common to all people living at that period of time. Therefore it is a good example of a normative history-graded influence on development. 2.168. Graduating from high school is a good example of a normative age-graded influence. Answer: True Page: 55

Short Answer questions: Molecular Genetics 2.169. What are the three different ways that nucleotides in the DNA molecule can determine the particular way that individuals differ from each other? Page: 35-36 Genes, Chromosomes, and Cell Division 2.170. In your own words, explain the difference between a gene and a chromosome. Page: 35-37 2.171. Identify two ways that the processes of mitosis and meiosis differ. Page: 38 2.172. Give an example of the three genotypes that could exist for a single-gene trait, such as eye color. What phenotype is associated with each of these three genotypes? Page: 39 2.173. How does a trait governed by polygenic inheritance differ from one governed by a single gene? Give an example of a trait determined by each of these processes. Page: 39-40 2.174. Define what is meant by “independent assortment” as this term is applied to how meiosis occurs. Page: 40-41 Genetic and Chromosomal Disorders 2.175. Explain why sex-linked traits are more common among males than females. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 42 2.176. Suggest two ways in which genetics counselors can be of use to couples who are thinking about having a baby. Page: 45 2.177. Describe how retroviruses are useful in gene therapy. Page: 46

Behavior Genetics 2.178. Why will the field of behavioral genetics always be of use, even if the human genome is completely mapped? Page: 46 2.179. Suppose that a particular trait results from the interaction of hereditary and environmental forces. Describe the expected results from a typical adoption study of the heritability of this trait. Page: 47-48 Environmental Influences and Contexts 2.180. Give an original example that portrays the kind of learning called habituation. Page: 50 2.181. What is the primary difference between a reinforcer and a punishment, according to operant conditioning theory? Page: 50-51 2.182. Give an example of a behavior that is learned or maintained according to a partial schedule of reinforcement. Page: 51 Environmental Influences and Contexts 2.183. Give an example of a statement that reflects an ethnocentric viewpoint. Page: 53 2.184. Give an example of a normative age-graded influence, an example of a normative history-graded influence, and an example of a nonnormative influence in human development. Page: 55

Essay questions: Molecular Genetics

2.185. Describe the structure of the DNA molecule and explain how the entire genetic code is constructed with only four different bases: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine. Page: 35-36 2.186. Discuss how the concept of “race” is typically considered from a genetic point of view. In your discussion, answer the questions: Are there “racial” differences that are coded in the genes? Page: 36 Genes, Chromosomes, and Cell Division 2.187. Describe what a karyotype of the chromosomes of a typical person looks like. Include in your answer an explanation of the distinction between the autosomes and the sex chromosomes. Page: 37-38 2.188. What occurs during the process of mitosis and the process of meiosis? How do the processes of mitosis and meiosis differ? Page: 38 2.189. Define the concept of “allele” and suggest the allele configuration of a homozygous versus a heterozygous trait. Page: 38-39 2.190. Give an example of a sex-linked trait and describe why such traits are more frequently observed in males than females. Page: 40 Genetic and Chromosomal Disorders 2.191. Describe what services are offered by genetics counselors and suggest why a couple might choose to seek out these services. Page: 45 2.192. Explain how recombinant technology can be used as part of a gene therapy program. Page: 45-46 Behavior Genetics 2.193. Define what is meant by “concordance” and describe how a concordance study would be conducted using twins. Page: 46 2.194. Explain the rationale for using adoption studies and twin studies in learning about genetic influences on behavior. Page: 47-48 Environmental Influences and Contexts Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

2.195. Describe how a phobia would be explained, using a classical conditioning model. Page: 50 2.196. Suppose you want to improve your study habits. Describe how a behavior modification program based on shaping could be used to help you accomplish this goal. Page: 51 2.197. Explain the difference between the terms self-concept and self-efficacy. Page: 52 Environment in a Broader Context: Family and Culture 2.198. Give an example of ethnocentric thinking and explain why researchers in the area of human development must be especially aware of its influence as they formulate theories. Page: 53 2.199. Distinguish between normative age-graded influences and normative history-graded influences and give an example of each. Page: 55 2.200. Describe how normative age-graded influence, normative history-graded influences, and nonnormative events change in their relative influence on development across the lifespan. Which are most important in early life? Which are most important in later life? Page: 55-56

Name _______________________________ Chapter 3 - Prenatal Development and Childbirth - Quick Quiz 1

Factual questions: 1. According to the text, about what percent of fertilized eggs are lost within the first two weeks following conception? a. 2-3% b. 5-9% c. 25% d. 50-70% 2. When infants reach the age of viability at 24 weeks, they have about a ______ % chance of surviving outside of the uterus if given high-quality medical treatment. a. 90 b. 70 c. 50 d. 10 3. The sequence of growth in which development proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as: a. gross-to-specific trend b. proximodistal trend c. cephalocaudal trend d. differentiated-to-integrated trend Conceptual questions: 4. If a baby were born with no bowel and with complications involving the small intestines as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the: a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. placenta 5. If a teratogen interferes with prenatal development only during a particular period of time, the period of development in which the teratogen can exert its effect is called: a. a teratogenic period b. a teratogenic stage c. a critical period d. a high-risk – low-reward stage 6. In prepared childbirth, the primary function of the relaxation and breathing techniques used is to: a. increase the supply of oxygen to the baby during delivery b. increase the Apgar score of the baby at the time of delivery c. help the mother cope more effectively with the pain of delivery d. reduce the carbon dioxide content of the mother’s blood 7. When a neonate’s hand is stimulated by an object such as a finger or a pencil, the infant’s fingers will close tightly in a grasp. This behavior is best considered to be an example of: a. the plantar reflex b. the palmar grasp reflex c. the Moro reflex d. the Babinski reflex

Applied questions: 8. Suppose that Judy’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of July. On which day should she expect that ovulation will occur? a. July 1 b. July 10 c. July 14 d. July 28 9. Which of the following mothers is at the greatest risk of having a miscarriage? a. Anne, who is 20 b. Judy, who is 28 c. Lucretia, who is 35 d. Mary, who is 42 10. An excited father who is watching his daughter be born exclaims with excitement, “I can see her head!” Technically, this would be referred to as: a. “showing” b. “crowning” c. an Apgar of 1 d. traditional childbirth

Name _______________________________ Chapter 3 - Prenatal Development and Childbirth - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. When does ovulation typically occur? a. during menstruation b. the day before the onset of menstruation c. the 14th day after the onset of menstruation d. the day after menstruation has ceased 2. The digestive system, lungs, and some other internal organs develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo? a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. zygoderm 3. According to the text, traditional childbirth is typically done: a. in a birthing center b. in a hospital c. at home d. anywhere, including in a birthing center, in a hospital, or at home Conceptual questions: 4. If a pregnancy test can detect pregnancy within two weeks after fertilization, it most likely works by: a. detecting the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin in the woman’s urine b. detecting a rise in the woman’s body temperature from 98.6 to about 99.3 c. detecting the presence of a much higher percentage of alpha brain waves during the woman’s sleep cycles d. detecting a dramatic increase in the acidity of the woman’s urine 5. Doug is told that his wife should not visit his office during the second and third month of her pregnancy because chemicals there could negatively affect the development of their baby. However, he is also told that it would be safe for her to visit after the fourth month, since the chemicals would not affect fetal development. This example highlights the concept of: a. critical period b. gross-to-specific trend c. fetal development d. ectopic pregnancy risk 6. Heart defects are especially common when pregnant mothers are exposed to a teratogen during which prenatal period? a. the germinal period b. the embryonic period c. the fetal period d. the last two weeks before birth 7. Suppose a baby is born whose Apgar score is 3. What would such a score most likely indicate? a. All vital signs are perfect. b. All vital signs are normal. c. Some of the baby’s bodily processes are not functioning fully. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. Immediate emergency measures are required. Applied questions: 8. Suppose Dr. Barnes is a fertility specialist who studies the sex of recently fertilized ova. If her research population included all fertilized ova conceived in a population, and if she found that 1,000 of these zygotes were female, she should expect that the population would also include _____ male zygotes. a. 960 b. 1,000 c. 1,040 d. 1,250 9. Maria is in her ninth month of pregnancy. She begins to feel contractions, but when she gets up and walks around, the contractions go away. Most likely, she has experienced which of the following? a. showing b. the first stage of labor c. the second stage of labor d. Braxton-Hicks contractions 10. Jackie is a new mother who says, “I just can’t stand to be away from my baby. I feel so close to him emotionally that I just love him.” Jackie’s comments reflect the core principle involved in: a. crowning b. attachment c. the Moro reflex d. the Babinski reflex Answer: b

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 3.1 1. d, p. 63 2. c, p. 64 3. c, p. 67 4. b, p. 63 5. c, p. 69 6. c, p. 77 7. b, p. 86 8. c, p. 61 9. d, pp. 67-68 10. b, p. 75 Quick Quiz 3.2 1. c, pp. 61-62 2. c, pp. 63-64 3. b, p. 77 4. a, p. 63 5. a, p. 69 6. b, pp. 69-70 7. d, p. 81 8. d, p. 64 9. d, p. 75 10. b, p. 87

Chapter 3 Prenatal Development and Childbirth

Multiple Choice questions: Prenatal Growth and Development 3.1. Nancy is 15 years old and has just found out she is pregnant. Although the pregnancy is unintended, Nancy may take some comfort in knowing that unintended pregnancies comprise about what percent of all teen pregnancies in the United States today? a. two-thirds b. half c. one-third d. 10% Answer: a Page: 61 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, 50% of all U.S. pregnancies are unintended. For teens, however, the percentage of unintended pregnancies is even higher—about 66%. 3.2. Lacy is 38 years old and has just found out she is pregnant. Although the pregnancy is unintended, Lacy may take some comfort in knowing that unintended pregnancies comprise about what percent of all pregnancies in the United States today? a. two-thirds b. half c. one-third d. 10% Answer: b Page: 61 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, 50% of all U.S. pregnancies are unintended. 3.3. Which type of genetic information is NOT included in a one-celled fertilized egg? a. genetic instructions for whether the sex of the child will be male or female b. genetic instructions for how tall the child will likely be at adulthood c. genetic instructions for eye color d. All genetic instructions are present from the point of fertilization on. Answer: d Page: 61 Conceptual Easy Rationale: At the time of fertilization, the genetic material of two individuals “fuses” and is translated into a new living entity called a zygote. All of the genetic instructions are present from this point on. 3.4. In a typical normal pregnancy, which of the following statements about the length of trimesters is correct? a. The first trimester is the longest. b. The second trimester is the longest. c. The third trimester is the longest. d. All trimesters are about the same length.

Answer: d Page: 61 Factual Easy 3.5. What is the correct developmental sequence of the periods of prenatal development? a. germinal, embryonic, fetal b. embryonic, fetal, germinal c. fetal, germinal, embryonic d. germinal, fetal, embryonic Answer: a Page: 61 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The germinal period lasts from conception through 2 weeks, the embryonic period spans weeks 2 through 8, and the fetal period spans weeks 9 through 38. 3.6. The germinal period of prenatal development begins with conception and ends about ___ later. a. one trimester b. two weeks c. one month d. 12 weeks Answer: b Page: 61 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The germinal period ends when implantation is complete, about two weeks after conception. 3.7. What is the release of the ovum from the ovary called? a. ovulation b. fertilization c. implantation d. menstruation Answer: a Page: 61-62 Factual Easy 3.8. When does ovulation typically occur? a. during menstruation b. the day before the onset of menstruation c. the 14th day after the onset of menstruation d. the day after menstruation has ceased Answer: c Page: 61-62 Factual Easy 3.9. After studying human prenatal development, Rita should know that one (or more) of her ova will begin to undergo the final stage of meiosis at about what point in each of her menstrual cycles? a. on the first or second day of a regular menstrual period b. on about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. about two weeks after the start of a regular menstrual period d. on about the 28th day after the start of a regular menstrual period Answer: b Page 61 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text, at about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period, stimulated by hormones, an ovum enters the final stage of meiosis. 3.10. Suppose that Judy’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of July. On which day should she expect that ovulation will occur? a. July 1 b. July 10 c. July 14 d. July 28 Answer: c Page: 61 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, at about the 10th day after the start of a regular menstrual period, stimulated by hormones, an ovum enters the final stage of meiosis. By the end of the 13th or 14th day of this growth, the follicle (sac) surrounding the ovum breaks, releasing the mature ovum: This process is called ovulation. 3.11. Suppose that Latisha’s menstrual cycle begins on the first day of January. If she is planning on having sexual intercourse but does not want to become pregnant, she should be most concerned about using contraception (or abstaining from intercourse) during which of the following dates? a. January 2-7 b. January 10-15 c. January 20-26 d. January 27-31 Answer: b Page: 61-62 Applied Moderate Rationale: By the end of the 13th or 14th day of this growth, the follicle (sac) surrounding the ovum breaks, releasing the mature ovum: This process is called ovulation. The ovum can survive for 3 to 5 days. Sperm can survive 2 to 3 days once deposited in the vagina. Thus, Latisha should be most concerned about becoming pregnant from January 10 to January 15. 3.12. Fertilization normally takes place: a. in the uterus b. in the vagina c. in the ovary from which the egg is released d. in the fallopian tube Answer: d Page: 62 Factual Moderate 3.13. The attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall is called: a. ovulation b. menstruation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. fertilization d. implantation Answer: d Page: 62-63 Factual Easy 3.14. The germinal period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)? a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the third trimester d. the second and third trimesters Answer: a Page: 61-63 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The germinal period lasts from conception through the second week; the first trimester spans weeks 1 through 13. 3.15. The embryonic period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)? a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the third trimester d. the second and third trimesters Answer: a Page: 61, 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The embryonic period lasts from the second through the eighth week; the second trimester spans weeks 13 through 25. 3.16. The fetal period of prenatal development occurs during which trimester(s)? a. the first trimester b. the second trimester c. the third trimester d. the second and third trimesters Answer: d Page: 61, 64 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The fetal period lasts from the ninth through the 38th week; the third trimester spans weeks 26 through 38. 3.17. Normally, sperm can survive and be viable for about how long following ejaculation? a. 2-3 hours b. 24-36 hours c. 1-2 days d. 2-3 days Answer: d Page: 62 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 3.18. The number of sperm contained in each ejaculation is approximately: a. 300 b. 30,000 c. 300,000 d. 30,000,000 Answer: c Page: 62 Factual Moderate 3.19. If George and his wife wish to increase the chances of becoming pregnant, they should know that George’s sperm can survive about how long following ejaculation? a. 2-3 hours b. 6-12 hours c. 24-36 hours d. 2-3 days Answer: d Page: 62 Applied Moderate Rationale: After sperm are deposited in the vagina during sexual intercourse, they can survive there for 2-3 days. 3.20. The union of an ovum and sperm creates a(n): a. gamete b. embryo c. amnion d. zygote Answer: d Page: 62 Conceptual Easy Rationale: A zygote, by definition, is a fertilized ovum It is the first cell of a human being that occurs as a result of fertilization. 3.21. Implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterine wall typically occurs: a. within 1 to 2 hours following fertilization b. within 12 to 24 hours following fertilization c. within 2 to 3 days following fertilization d. about one week following fertilization Answer: d Page: 62-63 Factual Moderate 3.22. If Susanna was worried that she has just become pregnant as the result of intercourse last night, and she wants to take a drug to make sure that implantation of the fertilized ovum does not occur, she should be sure to take this drug: a. immediately, because implantation occurs in the first day after fertilization b. within 24 hours, because implantation occurs in the first 24 to 36 hours after fertilization c. within 2 days, because implantation occurs about 3 days following fertilization Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. within 5-6 days, because implantation occurs about 1 week following fertilization Answer: d Page: 62-63 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, toward the end of the first week the dividing cells have developed into a blastula—a ball of cells around a fluid-filled center—that has made its way to the uterus. Once formed, the blastula starts to burrow into the lining of the uterus, breaking tiny blood vessels to obtain nutrients. The cells begin the process of differentiation, and within a few days, if all goes well, the blastula is implanted in the uterine wall. 3.23. If Jacob was going to draw a picture of a blastula, the shape he would produce would be most like which of the following? a. a straight line b. a square c. a circle d. a “glob” that looks like the shape of Lake Michigan Answer: c Page: 62 Applied Moderate Rationale: The book describes the blastula as a hollow, fluid-filled sphere of cells that forms soon after conception. 3.24. If a pregnancy test can detect pregnancy within two weeks after fertilization, it most likely works by: a. detecting the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin in the woman’s urine b. detecting a rise in the woman’s body temperature from 98.6 to about 99.3 c. detecting the presence of a much higher percentage of alpha brain waves during the woman’s sleep cycles d. detecting a dramatic increase in the acidity of the woman’s urine Answer: a Page: 63 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As noted in the textbook, cell differentiation is the point at which home urine tests can assess pregnancy: The cells of the supportive structures begin secreting a detectable hormone called human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg), which shuts down further ovulation and prevents the next menstrual period. 3.25. According to the text, about what percent of fertilized eggs are lost within the first two weeks following conception: a. 2-3% b. 5-9% c. 25% d. 50-70% Answer: d Page: 63 Factual Moderate 3.26. Janae wants to become pregnant and believes that fertilization has taken place. However, she does not want to get her hopes up too quickly because she knows that about _______ of fertilized ova are lost during the first two weeks of pregnancy. a. 5% b. 10-15% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. a third d. 50 to 70% Answer: d Page: 63 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, an estimated 50 to 70% of all fertilized eggs may be lost within the first 2 weeks, some because they are incompletely formed and others because the uterine environment is inhospitable. 3.27. Combining the percentage of fertilized eggs that are lost within the first two weeks with the percent that are aborted or lost due to miscarriage in the remaining months of pregnancy, you should conclude that about ________ of all fertilized eggs eventually result in the birth of a baby. a. 20% b. half c. two-thirds d. almost 90% Answer: a Page: 63 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: An estimated 50-70% of all fertilized eggs may be lost within the first two weeks. Another 19% are aborted and 17 % are lost through miscarriage. Thus, of the choices provided, 20% is the best estimate of the number of fertilized eggs that eventually result in the birth of a baby. 3.28. Dr. Shepard is an advocate for laws that would prohibit abortion under all circumstances. To make her case, she argues that, of pregnancies that survive the first few weeks, over half are terminated by an abortion. You know that Dr. Shepard’s argument is false because the percentage of pregnancies that are terminated by abortion after the first few weeks is actually: a. 2% b. 6% c. 19% d. 36% Answer: c Page: 63 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the National Center for Health Statistics (2008), in the United States, of those pregnancies that survive the first few weeks, 19% are aborted. 3.29. Suppose that prior to implantation, Janetha’s fertilized egg divides into two cells, and these cells then split entirely. If Janetha’s pregnancy results in a healthy birth, you would know that she would have: a. a girl b. a boy c. a girl and a boy d. twins with identical genetic characteristics Answer: d Page: 63 Applied Moderate Rationale: Sometimes in the first few divisions of the zygote, the two identical cells or small groups of cells separate and develop into two (or more) embryos. The result is monozygotic (identical) twins.

3.30. The similarity of genetic traits carried by two individuals who are dizygotic twins would be most comparable to which of the following pairs of individuals? a. their mother and father b. any two siblings, regardless of gender c. two clones of the same person d. two unrelated individuals Answer: b Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes. 3.31. John (a boy) and Jill (a girl) claim that they are twins. You would know for certain that: a. if they are twins, they are monozygotic twins b. if they are twins, they are dizygotic twins c. if they are twins, John was born first and Jill was born second d. they could not possibly be twins Answer: b Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes. 3.32. Jane and Jill are monozygotic twins. Therefore, they: a. share the same physical traits b. are no more alike than any other two siblings c. developed from two separate ova fertilized by two separate sperm d. have been raised in different environments Answer: a Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Because monozygotic twins develop from the same fertilized zygote, they have the same genes: Identical twins are always the same sex and share the same physical traits. 3.33. Tom and Forrest are dizygotic twins. Therefore, they: a. share the same physical traits b. resulted from the division of a single fertilized ovum c. are no more alike than any other two siblings d. have been raised in different environments Answer: c Page: 63 Applied Moderate Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings.

3.34. When a woman becomes pregnant from the fertilization of two separate ova by two separate sperm, these twins are called _________ twins: a. dizygotic b. monozygotic c. identical d. nonfraternal Answer: a Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, when two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. 3.35. Which of the following statements regarding fraternal twins is FALSE? a. They are produced when two ova are released and each unites with a sperm. b. They may be of the same or opposite sex. c. The twins develop from the same zygote. d. The genetic traits of the two twins can be as different or as similar as those of any other two siblings. Answer: c Page: 63 Applied Moderate Rationale: When two ova are released simultaneously and each unites with a different sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins are produced. The genetic traits inherited by fraternal twins can be as similar or as different as those of any two siblings: Fraternal twins may be of the same sex or different sexes. 3.36. Suppose that Maddie has difficulty becoming pregnant and decides to use reproductive technologies to increase her chances of having a baby. According to the text, one side effect of this technology that she should be aware of is that it: a. increases the risk of miscarriage by about 50% b. increases her chances of getting a divorce by nearly 90% c. increases her chances of having twins by about 50% d. increases her likelihood of experiencing postpartum depression by over 50% Answer: c Page: 63 Applied Easy Rationale: More than half (54%) of infants born as the result of assisted reproductive technologies were born in multiple-birth deliveries. 3.37. Which of the following develops from the embryonic disk? a. the placenta b. the baby c. the amniotic sac d. the amniotic fluid Answer: b Page: 63 Factual Easy 3.38. Which of the following structures is most similar in function to a filtering system in the engine of a car that moves gas from the gas tank, filters impurities out of it, and delivers it to the carburetor? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. the amniotic fluid b. the amniotic sac c. the placenta d. the embryonic disk Answer: c Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The placenta permits the exchange of nutritive and waste materials by diffusion across cell membranes, normally without any exchange of blood cells. Thus, the placenta serves as a filter. The placenta’s role can be considered analogous to the role of a filtering system in the engine of a car. 3.39. A fluid-filled membrane that encloses the developing embryo or fetus is called the: a. amniotic sac b. embryonic disk c. fallopian tube d. placenta Answer: a Page: 63 Factual Easy 3.40. The disk-shaped structure that nourishes the embryo and fetus is called the: a. amniotic sac b. umbilical disk c. embryonic disk d. placenta Answer: d Page: 63 Factual Easy 3.41. During which period of prenatal development do most major structures, such as the heart, develop in rudimentary form? a. embryonic period b. fetal period c. germinal period d. zygotic period Answer: a Page: 63-64 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The embryonic period is the second prenatal period, which lasts from implantation to the end of the second month after conception; all the major structures and organs of the individual are formed at this time. 3.42. The digestive system, lungs, and some other internal organs develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo? a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. zygoderm

Answer: c Page: 63-64 Factual Moderate 3.43. The skin, sense organs, and the brain develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo? a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. zygoderm Answer: a Page: 63 Factual Moderate 3.44. The muscles, blood, and the excretory system develop from which of the following layers of cells present in the embryo? a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. zygoderm Answer: b Page: 63 Factual Moderate 3.45. If a baby were born with malformed eyes and ears as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the: a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. placenta Answer: a Page: 63 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers. The outer layer, known as the ectoderm, will become the skin, the sense organs, and the brain and nervous system. 3.46. If a baby were born with no bowel and with complications involving the small intestines as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the: a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. placenta Answer: b Page: 63 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers. The middle layer, known as the mesoderm, will become muscles, blood, and the excretory system. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3.47. If a baby were born with an incompletely formed digestive system and lung problems as the result of a problem very early in development, the most likely cause would be with the development of the: a. ectoderm b. mesoderm c. endoderm d. placenta Answer: c Page: 63 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Immediately after implantation, the embryonic disk develops into three distinct layers, The inner layer, known as the endoderm, will become the digestive system, lungs, thyroid, thymus, and other organs. 3.48. Which of the following developmental events occurs earliest in the prenatal period? a. the baby is able to hear b. the baby is able to see c. the heart starts beating d. the neural tube develops into a three-part brain Answer: c Page: 63 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: By the end of the fourth week after conception, the heart is beating. 3.49. An advertising campaign urges pregnant women to get good prenatal care by saying that all of the structures that we recognize as human (including arms, legs, eyes, internal organs, and a beating heart) have already developed early in pregnancy. Having studied prenatal development, you know that the most accurate statement is that these structures are present, at least in rudimentary form, by: a. the end of the second week of pregnancy b. the end of the second month of pregnancy c. the end of the fourth week of pregnancy d. the end of the fourth month of pregnancy Answer: b Page: 63-64 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the textbook, by the end of the embryonic period, the embryo has developed arms, legs, fingers, toes, a face, a heart that beats, a brain, lungs, and all of the major organ systems. The embryonic period lasts through the eighth week (i.e., end of the second month). 3.50. Suppose a friend calls you and tells you that she has had a miscarriage during the fourth month of her pregnancy. Technically, her miscarriage would be termed: a. spontaneous abortion b. term abortion c. mid-term abortion d. developmental abortion Answer: a Page: 64 Applied Easy

Rationale: Miscarriages are, in technical terms, known as spontaneous abortions and defined as a naturally triggered expulsion of the developing child before it is viable. 3.51. Suppose Naomi is in her third trimester of pregnancy. If Naomi is worried that her pregnancy might end with a spontaneous abortion, you might be able to provide some comfort to her by stating that _____ of spontaneous abortions occur in the first trimester. a. about half b. about two-thirds c. about 90% d. about 99.9% Answer: c Page: 64 Applied Moderate Rationale: Miscarriages occur primarily during the first trimester; almost 90% occur by 12 or 13 weeks, and miscarriages beyond 20 weeks are rare. 3.52. Which of the following groups would be expected to have the highest rate of miscarriage? a. babies whose fathers are younger than 20 b. babies whose fathers are between 20 and 30 years of age c. babies whose fathers are between 30 and 40 years of age d. babies whose fathers are older than 40 Answer: d Page: 64 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The miscarriage rate for pregnancies conceived by fathers over 40 years of age is nearly three times higher than those of fathers under age 25. 3.53. Suppose Paul is working in a hospital. For every 100 female babies born, he should expect that about ____ male babies will be born. a. 94 b. 100 c. 105 d. 125 Answer: c Page: 64 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although there are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived, at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period. 3.54. Suppose Dr. Barnes is a fertility specialist who studies the sex of recently fertilized ova. If her research population included all fertilized ova conceived in a population, and if she found that 1,000 of these zygotes were female, she should expect that the population would also include _____ male zygotes. a. 960 b. 1,000 c. 1,040 d. 1,250 Answer: d Page: 64 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: There are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived. It should be noted, however, that at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period 3.55. Generalizing from data presented in the text, you should conclude that ______ embryos are more vulnerable during the prenatal period and _______ are more vulnerable during the first two years of life. a. male; male b. female; female c. male; female d. female; male Answer: a Page: 64 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Despite the fact that there are about 125 male conceptions for every 100 females conceived, at birth this ratio falls to about 105 to 100. These data reflect both the greater likelihood of the sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome to fertilize the egg and the greater vulnerability of the male during the prenatal period. The book also notes that males continue to be more vulnerable throughout childhood. 3.56. Rex describes a period of the lifespan as “the time when primitive organ systems mature and become functional.” The period he is describing would correctly be identified as: a. the germinal period b. the fetal period c. the embryonic period d. the viability period Answer: b Page: 64 Applied Moderate Rationale: During the fetal period the organs and systems mature and become functional, although different systems develop at different points throughout this period. 3.57. Dr. Peters tells a pregnant woman that she is now at the point in her pregnancy where her baby would have a 50% chance of surviving if it were born today. At what point in pregnancy is this woman? a. 24 weeks b. 29 weeks c. 32 weeks d. 35 weeks Answer: a Page: 64 Applied Moderate Rationale: At 24 weeks, a healthy fetus reaches the age of viability, meaning it now has about a 50% chance of surviving outside the uterus if given high-quality intensive care, although currently over half of the surviving fetuses born at 24 weeks have serious anomalies. 3.58. When infants reach the age of viability at 24 weeks, they have about a ______ % chance of surviving outside of the uterus if given high-quality medical treatment. a. 90 b. 70 c. 50 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 10 Answer: c Page: 64 Factual Easy 3.59. A healthy fetus reaches the age of viability at: a. 30 weeks b. 24 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 16 weeks Answer: b Page: 64 Factual Moderate 3.60. Dr. Buresh tells a pregnant woman that she is now at the point in her pregnancy where her baby would have a 50% chance of surviving if it were born. This point is termed: a. the age of viability b. the beginning of the fetal period c. the beginning of the embryonic period d. the end of the embryonic period Answer: a Page: 64 Applied Easy Rationale: At 24 weeks, a healthy fetus reaches the age of viability, meaning it now has about a 50% chance of surviving outside the uterus if given high-quality intensive care, although currently over half of the surviving fetuses born at 24 weeks have serious anomalies. 3.61. Suppose that Winnie is ill and should deliver her baby as soon as it develops to the point at which it will have a 90% chance of surviving. Willie should expect to deliver her baby at what point? a. at 24 weeks b. at 25 weeks c. at 28 weeks d. at 33 weeks Answer: c Page: 64 Applied Difficult Rationale: At 28 weeks, over 90% of babies survive with a good outcome, provided that they receive quality intensive care. 3.62. If prenatal care was very poor in a particular country, you would expect that the age of viability in that location would be ______ the age of viability in the United States today. a. lower than b. higher than c. about the same as d. unrelated to Answer: b Page: 64 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The age of viability refers to the age at which the fetus has a 50% chance of surviving outside the womb, provided quality intensive care is available. If such care was not available, we would expect the age of viability to be higher. 3.63. According to the text, which of the following most correctly describes the relationship between the father’s age at conception and the probability that his conceived child will be miscarried? a. There is no relationship between paternal age and risk of miscarriage. b. Fathers over age 40 have 3 times the risk for miscarriage. c. Fathers under age 25 have 3 times the risk for miscarriage. d. Fathers over age 40 and fathers under age 25 have half the risk of having their child miscarried as do fathers age 25-40. Answer: b Page: 64 Factual Moderate 3.64. The fetal period of prenatal development begins at ________ and ends at _______: a. conception; birth b. conception; the end of the 2nd month c. the end of the 1st month; birth d. the end of the 2nd month; birth Answer: d Page: 64 Factual Moderate 3.65. If the director of a prenatal care clinic had a goal that the percentage of women in the geographic area served by the clinic reached the U.S. national average for prenatal care, the clinic’s goal would be to provide prenatal care to ____ % of the local population. a. 50 b. 62 c. 71 d. 84 Answer: d Page: 64 Applied Difficult Rationale: In 2005, the percentage of U.S. women who began prenatal care in the first trimester was about 84%. 3.66. There is a tendency for an infant to react to a stimulus with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with responses becoming more specific and refined later. This trend is referred to as which of the following? a. body-in-total trend b. cephalocaudal trend c. proximodistal trend d. gross-to-specific trend Answer: d Page: 67 Factual Moderate

3.67. The sequence of growth in which development proceeds from the head toward the feet is known as: a. gross-to-specific trend b. proximodistal trend c. cephalocaudal trend d. differentiated-to-integrated trend Answer: c Page: 67 Factual Easy 3.68. When 2-year-old Nicholas was first learning to draw, he often moved his whole body, even his tongue. Only later did he confine the action to his fingers, hand, and slight arm motion. This tendency is called the: a. gross-to-specific trend b. proximodistal trend c. cephalocaudal trend d. differentiated-to-integrated trend Answer: a Page: 67 Applied Moderate Rationale: The gross-to-specific trend refers to the tendency to react to body stimuli with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with these responses becoming more local and specific later. 3.69. Developing the ability to grab with the full hand before the ability to pick up something with a finger and thumb is best considered to be an example of the: a. gross-to-specific trend b. proximodistal trend c. cephalocaudal trend d. differentiated-to-integrated trend Answer: b Page: 67 Factual Moderate 3.70. Marty notices that her baby develops arm coordination well in advance of leg coordination. This finding is best considered an example of which of the following growth trends? a. the gross-to-specific trend b. the proximodistal trend c. the cephalocaudal trend d. the specific-to-gross trend Answer: c Page: 67 Applied Moderate Rationale: The cephalocaudal trend refers to the sequence of growth that occurs first in the head and progresses downward. 3.71. Dan notices that his son develops the ability to manipulate his hands and arms long before he can coordinate the movements of his fingers. This finding is best considered an example of which of the following growth trends? a. the patterned-response trend b. the proximodistal trend c. the differentiated-to-integrated trend Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. the specific-to-gross trend Answer: b Page: 67 Applied Moderate Rationale: The proximodistal trend refers to the sequence of growth that occurs first at the body’s center (in this case the arms, then the hands) and progresses downward outward (in this case to the fingers). This finding could also be considered an example of the gross-to-specific trend, but this is not one of the options provided. 3.72. At 6 months of age, Alexandra could reach out and grab a toy with her hand, but was unable to pick up a small toy with her finger and thumb until she was 9 months of age. This illustrates what developmental trend? a. patterned-response trend b. gross-to-specific trend c. cephalocaudal trend d. differentiated-to-integrated trend Answer: b Page: 67 Applied Moderate Rationale: The gross-to-specific trend refers to the tendency to react to body stimuli with generalized, whole-body movements at first, with these responses becoming more local and specific later. Prenatal Environmental Influences 3.73. According to statistics presented in the text, about what percent of babies born in the United States today are born early or in need of special care? a. 1-2% b. 3-4% c. 8% d. 14% Answer: c Page: 67 Factual Moderate 3.74. If your friend were interested in having a baby at the age where risks to the baby were the lowest, you should advise her that she should consider having her baby at which of the following ages? a. age 16 b. age 22 c. age 33 d. age 40 Answer: b Page: 67-68 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, mothers in their 20s experience the lowest risk of miscarriages, stillbirths, or births of children with congenital anomalies. 3.75. Which of the following individuals has the lowest risk for a miscarriage? a. a woman over the age of 40 b. a woman between 20 and 24 c. a teenager Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. None of the other choices is correct because age is not a risk factor for miscarriage. Answer: b Page: 67-68 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, mothers in their 20s experience the lowest risk of miscarriages, stillbirths, or births of children with congenital anomalies. 3.76. Which of the following mothers is at the greatest risk of having a miscarriage? a. Anne, who is 20 b. Judy, who is 28 c. Lucretia, who is 35 d. Mary, who is 42 Answer: d Page: 67-68 Applied Easy Rationale: Older mothers are also at greater risk for miscarriage and for some congenital anomalies. One study of over 1.2 million pregnancies in Denmark indicated that the miscarriage rate was over 50% for women over age 40 and 75% for women over 45. The miscarriage rate for mothers age 20 to 24 was 9% by comparison. 3.77. Suppose Ann and her sister are both going to have a baby. Ann is age 28; her sister is age 45. Generalizing from statistics noted in the text, you would know that Ann’s probability of having a child with Down syndrome are: a. about the same as her sister’s b. slightly greater than her sister’s c. slightly less than her sister’s d. more than 10 times less than her sister’s Answer: d Page: 68 Applied Difficult Rationale: Down syndrome increases from about 1 in 800 births for mothers under age 35 to about 1 in 25 for mothers age 45 or older. 3.78. If a woman is age 25, her risk of having a child with Down syndrome is about 1 in ____; if she is age 45, her risk is about 1 in ____. a. 1000; 500 b. 500; 1000 c. 800; 25 d. 500; 10 Answer: c Page: 68 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As noted in the textbook, Down syndrome increases from about 1 in 800 births for mothers under age 35 to about 1 in 25 for mothers age 45 or older. 3.79. If Lorraine, who is going to have a baby, gets good prenatal care, you would expect her physician would recommend that she gain about how many pounds during her pregnancy: a. 18 pounds b. 24 pounds c. 30 pounds Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 40 pounds Answer: c Page: 68 Applied Moderate Rationale: Regardless of age, mothers who begin pregnancy fit and in good health, eat a balanced diet rich in protein and calcium, and gain about 25 to 35 pounds (11 to 16 kilograms) are more likely to give birth to healthy babies. 3.80. Malnutrition during pregnancy is especially problematic for the baby if it is: a. of long duration b. the result of eating too little sodium c. the result of eating too little sugar d. the result of eating too little meat Answer: a Page: 68 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Malnutrition is especially problematic when it occurs over a long period of time. Research with animals has shown that the mother protects the fetus from the effects of short-term malnutrition by drawing on her own stored reserves. Therefore, if previously well-nourished mothers go through a temporary period of malnutrition during pregnancy, but the baby has a good diet and responsive caregivers after birth, there likely will be few longlasting effects. 3.81. The text discusses a study in which malnourished children in Guatemala were given food supplements to counteract the effects of poor diets. In particular, the effects were positive when the diets were rich in: a. minerals b. complex sugars such as fructose and sucrose c. complex starches from vegetables such as corn and beans d. protein Answer: d Page: 68 Factual Moderate 3.82. The text discusses a study in which malnourished children in Guatemala were given food supplements to counteract the effects of poor diets. In particular, the effects were most positive for: a. boys b. girls c. children who received the food during puberty d. children who were raised in single-parent families Answer: b Page: 68 Factual Difficult 3.83. Doug is told that his wife should not visit his office during the second and third month of her pregnancy because chemicals there could negatively affect the development of their baby. However, he is also told that it would be safe for her to visit after the fourth month, since the chemicals would not affect fetal development. This example highlights the concept of: a. critical period b. gross-to-specific trend c. fetal development Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. ectopic pregnancy risk Answer: a Page: 69 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child. 3.84. Exposure to toxins during weeks 3 to 5 during a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs? a. the brain b. the ears c. the heart d. the genitalia (sexual organs) Answer: c Page: 69 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As shown on the chart on page 69, the heart is susceptible to teratogens during weeks 3 to 5. The brain, ears, and genitalia are not generally susceptible until later in the prenatal period. 3.85. If a teratogen interferes with prenatal development only during a particular period of time, the period of development in which the teratogen can exert its effect is called: a. a teratogenic period b. a teratogenic stage c. a critical period d. a high-risk – low-reward stage Answer: c Page: 69 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child. 3.86. To state that a particular teratogen has an effect during a “critical period” means that it: a. can affect organ systems that are critical for sustaining life b. can cause the mother to become critically ill and perhaps die c. exerts its effect on development only during a particular stage of development d. will require the mother to be hospitalized, most likely in a critical care unit Answer: c Page: 69 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Critical period refers to the period of development during which the effect of a teratogen occurs. A teratogen is a toxic agent of any kind (including chemicals) that potentially causes abnormalities in the developing child. 3.87. Exposure to toxins during weeks 20 to 36 during a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs? a. the brain Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. the ears c. the heart d. the genitalia (sex organs) Answer: a Page: 69 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As shown on the chart on page 69 of the text, the brain is susceptible to teratogens during the weeks 20 to 36. The ears, heart, and genitalia are susceptible at earlier periods in the prenatal stage of development. 3.88. Exposure to toxins during the 12th week of a pregnancy would be most likely to result in defects in which of the body’s organs? a. the brain b. the ears c. the heart d. the genitalia (sex organs) Answer: d Page: 69 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As shown on the chart on page 69 of the text, external genitalia are susceptible to teratogens during the 12th week of pregnancy. The heart and ears are susceptible earlier, and the brain is susceptible later. 3.89. Thalidomide was prescribed in the late 1950s and early 1960s for the treatment of which of the following? a. migraine b. anxiety c. morning sickness d. cancer Answer: c Page: 69 Factual Easy 3.90. A toxic agent of any kind that potentially causes abnormalities in a developing child is called a: a. teratogen b. karyotype c. protein d. critical agent Answer: a Page: 69 Factual Easy 3.91. A developing fetus is at greater risk for which of the follow abnormalities if the mother becomes ill with rubella during pregnancy? a. heart abnormality b. deafness c. limb deformities d. All of these abnormalities can be associated with rubella. Answer: d Page: 69 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Difficult 3.92. Newborns are routinely treated with silver nitrate eye drops as a preventative treatment for which of the following? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. rubella d. HIV Answer: b Page: 70 Factual Difficult 3.93. Andrew has AIDS and is receiving HAART therapy. This means that he is: a. having frequent blood transfusion b. is taking a “cocktail” of several medications c. should not conceive a child because he is at high risk for passing the AIDS virus on to the child he would have d. should drastically reduce his intake of dairy products Answer: b Page: 70 Applied Easy Rationale: At present, there is no vaccine to halt completely the transmission of the AIDS virus, but new therapies that involve combinations of drugs, called HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapies) or “drug cocktails,” have dramatically reduced AIDS-related deaths and mother-to-infant transmission of the virus. 3.94. According to the text, at present about ____ % of the children with AIDS live in Africa: a. one-fourth b. one-half c. two-thirds d. 90% Answer: d Page: 70 Factual Moderate 3.95. If a woman with AIDS found out she was pregnant, her treatment would most likely consist of: a. bed rest while she stops taking her AIDS drugs during the last 3 months of pregnancy b. bed rest while she stops taking her AIDS drugs during the second trimester of pregnancy c. treatment with retroviral drugs and having a caesarian section delivery method d. abstaining from sexual intercourse during her entire pregnancy Answer: c Page: 70 Conceptual Easy Rationale: By using a combination of HAART therapy to keep mothers’ viral counts low and cesarean section delivery methods when possible, it now appears that mother-to-infant HIV transmission can be reduced to near-zero. 3.96. Suppose 3 mothers were accidentally exposed to a teratogen during their pregnancies. Which would have the lowest risk for having a child with some sort of birth defect? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. Abbey, who is exposed during the germinal period of prenatal development b. Brittany, who is exposed during the embryonic period of prenatal development c. Whitney, who is exposed during the fetal period of prenatal development d. All 3 women would have approximately equal chances of having a child affected by the teratogen. Answer: a Page: 69, 72-73 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: During the germinal period, teratogens rarely have an effect, because implantation has not yet occurred; therefore, chemicals and diseases are not easily transmitted to the zygote. 3.97. Heart defects are especially common when pregnant mothers are exposed to a teratogen during which prenatal period? a. the germinal period b. the embryonic period c. the fetal period d. the last two weeks before birth Answer: b Page: 69, 70 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The heart is typically susceptible to teratogens during weeks 3 to 5, which fall in the embryonic period (weeks 3-8). 3.98. The drug tetracycline, which is a frequently prescribed antibiotic, has been shown to have a teratogenic effect on: a. the development of the eyes and ears b. the development of limbs c. the development of the heart d. the development of teeth and bones Answer: d Page: 71 Factual Moderate 3.99. If a woman were to continue to take birth control pills throughout her pregnancy, her baby would have a higher risk for which of the following: a. heart deformities b. cancer c. malformation of the sex organs d. limb deformities Answer: c Page: 72 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, oral contraceptives may cause malformation of the fetal sexual organs. 3.100. According to statistics cited in the text, about what percent of U. S. women who know they are pregnant report “risk drinking” of alcohol? a. 25% b. 15% c. 10% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 3% Answer: d Page: 73 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: One of every thirty women (about 3%) that knows she is pregnant reports risk drinking, which is defined as seven or more drinks per week or five or more drinks on any one occasion. 3.101. Research suggests that fetal alcohol syndrome is most closely associated with which of the following conditions? a. newborns being born overweight b. facial abnormalities c. heart defects d. hyperactivity Answer: b Page: 73 Factual Moderate 3.102. The position of the Surgeon General of the United States is that women who are pregnant should drink no more than what amount of alcohol per week during pregnancy? a. no more than 3 drinks per week, and never more than one drink per day b. no more than 2 drinks per week c. no more than 1 drink per week d. No alcohol whatsoever should be consumed during pregnancy. Answer: d Page: 73 Factual Easy 3.103. Research cited in the text suggests that cigarette smoking during pregnancy interferes with prenatal development primarily because: a. oxygen flow is reduced to the fetus b. cigarette smoke includes teratogens that can cross the placental barrier c. women who smoke cigarettes are more likely to also use alcohol d. women who smoke are more likely to have poor nutrition Answer: a Page: 74 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research suggests the smoking damages fetuses through damage to the placenta and constriction of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to a reduced flow of nutrients and oxygen. 3.104. According to the text, marijuana exposure during the prenatal period leads to: a. a greater likelihood that the child will be born with an addiction b. a greater likelihood that the child will develop an addiction later in life c. low birth weight and a higher risk of stillbirth d. disruptions in the brain and other organ systems Answer: d Page: 74 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 3.105. The addictive drug that is most closely tied to an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, a higher risk of premature birth, greater complications during labor, and increased risk of developing attention deficit disorder and learning disabilities during childhood is: a. alcohol b. marijuana c. cocaine d. nicotine Answer: c Page: 74 Factual Moderate Childbirth 3.106. Which of the following stages is NOT one of the stages of childbirth? a. afterbirth b. initial labor c. delivery d. Braxton-Hicks contractions Answer: d Page: 75 Factual Easy 3.107. When initial labor begins, mild uterine contractions usually are about ______ minutes apart: a. 60 b. 10 c. 15 to 20 d. 1 to 2 Answer: c Page: 75 Factual Moderate 3.108. The typical length of initial labor ranges from between a few minutes to as many as ____ hours. a. 100 b. 60 c. 30 d. 2 Answer: c Page: 75 Factual Moderate 3.109. When Braxton-Hicks contractions occur, they are considered to be part of: a. false labor b. initial labor c. delivery d. afterbirth

Answer: a Page: 75 Factual Easy 3.110. Suppose that your pregnant friend calls to tell you that she has just experienced “showing.” You should know that showing: a. occurs as the amniotic sac ruptures and fluid is released b. involves the release of the mucous plug that covers the cervix c. involves the baby’s descent into the birth canal, where its body features can now be distinguished more clearly d. she is having Braxton-Hicks contractions Answer: b Page: 75 Applied Moderate Rationale: One event that may occur during initial labor is called showing, in which a mucus plug that covers the cervix is released; some bleeding may also occur during showing. 3.111. Maria is in her ninth month of pregnancy. She begins to feel contractions, but when she gets up and walks around, the contractions go away. Most likely, she has experienced which of the following? a. showing b. the first stage of labor c. the second stage of labor d. Braxton-Hicks contractions Answer: d Page: 75 Applied Easy Rationale: False labor, also called Braxton–Hicks contractions, refer to contractions that generally diminish if the mother walks. 3.112. One method of determining whether contractions are part of false labor is to see if they go away or diminish: a. when the mother breathes deeply b. after 10 minutes c. when the mother walks d. after several minutes of abdominal massage Answer: c Page: 75 Factual Moderate 3.113. When a mother’s water breaks, this is the result of which of the following? a. the mucus plug that covers the cervix is released b. the mother urinates uncontrollably c. the amniotic sac ruptures and amniotic fluid is expelled d. the placenta is expelled Answer: c Page: 75 Conceptual Easy

Rationale: During initial labor, the amniotic sac may break and amniotic fluid may rush forth. When this happens we say that the mother’s “water breaks.” 3.114. In comparison to having her first child, a mother having her third child should expect that: a. this child will be more likely to be a boy b. this child will be more likely to be a girl c. her labor and delivery will take longer d. her labor and delivery will take a shorter amount of time Answer: d Page: 75 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, labor and delivery usually takes from 10 to 40 minutes and tends to be shorter with succeeding births. 3.115. An excited father who is watching his daughter be born exclaims with excitement, “I can see her head!” Technically, this would be referred to as: a. “showing” b. “crowning” c. an Apgar of 1 d. traditional childbirth Answer: b Page: 75 Applied Moderate Rationale: Normally, the first part of the baby to emerge from the birth canal is the head. First it “crowns,” or becomes visible, then it emerges farther with each contraction. 3.116. Sometimes physicians make an incision during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. Such a procedure is called: a. caesarean section b. amniocentesis c. episiotomy d. chorionic villus sampling Answer: c Page: 75 Conceptual Easy Rationale: During birth, the tissue of the mother’s perineum (the region between the vagina and the rectum) must stretch considerably to allow the baby’s head to emerge. In U.S. hospitals, the attending physician often makes an incision called an episiotomy to enlarge the vaginal opening. 3.117. In most cases, why would an episiotomy be performed? a. because the baby needs to be born faster, due to complications b. because the baby’s Apgar score is very low c. because the mother is unable to deliver the baby without pain killing medication d. because the baby’s head is so large that the vaginal opening might tear Answer: d Page: 75 Conceptual Moderate

Rationale: During birth, the tissue of the mother’s perineum (the region between the vagina and the rectum) must stretch considerably to allow the baby’s head to emerge. In U.S. hospitals, the attending physician often makes an incision called an episiotomy to enlarge the vaginal opening. It is believed that an incision will heal more neatly than the jagged tear that might otherwise occur. 3.118. Which of the following positions of the child during birth is considered most typical? a. head first, face down b. head first, face up c. buttocks first, face down d. buttocks first, face up Answer: a Page: 75 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the first part of the baby to emerge from the birth canal is normally the head. In most normal births, the baby is born in a face-down position. 3.119. Which of the following stages of labor is typically least painful for the mother? a. initial labor b. the second stage of labor c. the birth itself d. the afterbirth Answer: d Page: 76 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The expulsion of the placenta, the umbilical cord, and related tissues marks the third stage of childbirth, called afterbirth. This stage is virtually painless and typically occurs within 20 minutes after the delivery. 3.120. During the process of labor and delivery, when is the afterbirth typically delivered? a. just before the infant is born b. at the same time that the infant is born c. about 1 to 2 hours after the infant is born d. about 20 minutes after the infant is born Answer: d Page: 76 Factual Moderate 3.121. According to the text, traditional childbirth is typically done: a. in a birthing center b. in a hospital c. at home d. anywhere, including in a birthing center, in a hospital, or at home Answer: b Page: 77 Factual Easy 3.122. If a mother wanted a midwife to deliver her baby, the type of childbirth method most likely involved would be: a. traditional childbirth Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. Caesarean section c. natural childbirth d. premature childbirth Answer: c Page: 77 Conceptual Easy Rationale: A midwife is a woman who is experienced in childbirth, with or without training, who assists with home delivery. 3.123. In prepared childbirth, the primary function of the relaxation and breathing techniques used is to: a. increase the supply of oxygen to the baby during delivery b. increase the Apgar score of the baby at the time of delivery c. help the mother cope more effectively with the pain of delivery d. reduce the carbon dioxide content of the mother’s blood Answer: c Page: 77 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, the relaxation exercises help reduce the pain of labor and delivery; the breathing and other techniques help distract the mother from any discomfort she may be feeling. 3.124. Which of the following is generally true, regarding the use and philosophy of birthing centers? a. Usually mothers stay for a least a week in a birthing center following delivery. b. Fathers are usually excluded from the birthing center except during delivery, so the baby has a better chance of becoming attached to the mother. c. Usually babies are removed from the birthing center and cared for by experienced nurses, so that the exhausted mother can get some much-needed rest. d. The entire labor and delivery occurs in the same room. Answer: d Page: 77-78 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Birthing centers (or suites) are designed to accommodate the entire childbirth process from labor through delivery and recovery; thus, they attempt to combine the privacy and intimacy of a home birth with the safety and backup of medical technology. Mothers are encouraged to spend lots of time with baby to encourage early attachment. 3.125. Suppose Janet is 12 weeks pregnant and is concerned that she may be carrying twins or triplets. She goes in for diagnostic testing, which most likely would consist of: a. amniocentesis b. chorionic villus sampling c. an ultrasound d. fetal monitoring Answer: c Page: 78-79 Applied Easy Rationale: Ultrasound is typically done around the 15th week, but with high-resolution scanning, can now be done earlier. It is the least invasive and most widely used method to provide information about the growth and health of the fetus.

3.126. Which of the following methods of providing information about the growth and health of the fetus is the least invasive and most widely used? a. amniocentesis b. fetoscopy c. CVS d. ultrasound Answer: d Page: 78-79 Factual Moderate 3.127. Suppose that Aletha is in her first trimester of pregnancy and she begins to experience some vaginal bleeding. Her doctor suspects an ectopic pregnancy, so most likely the doctor will do which of the following procedures? a. amniocentesis b. chorionic villus sampling c. an ultrasound d. fetal monitoring Answer: c Page: 79 Applied Moderate Rationale: Ultrasound is typically done around the 15th week, but with high-resolution scanning, can now be done earlier. It is the least invasive and most widely used method to provide information about the growth and health of the fetus. 3.128. Amniocentesis is typically performed at about which week of pregnancy? a. 16th week b. 21th week c. 25th week d. 32nd week Answer: a Page: 79 Factual Difficult 3.129. Chorionic villus sampling is: a. done much later in a pregnancy than amniocentesis b. done earlier in a pregnancy than amniocentesis c. is another name for amniocentesis d. is only done when amniocentesis cannot be done Answer: b Page: 79 Factual Moderate 3.130. Which of the following techniques results in a karyotype picture of the baby’s chromosomes? a. ultrasound b. fetal monitoring c. chorionic villus sampling d. an Apgar test

Answer: c Page: 79 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) refers to the withdrawal and analysis of cells from the membranes that surround the fetus, either with a syringe or with a catheter. Both amniocentesis and CVS involve the collection of cells for karyotyping, but because more cells are collected in this procedure than in amniocentesis, the test can be completed more quickly. 3.131. Why is fetal monitoring generally used only with high-risk deliveries? a. because it is dangerous, and can cause a miscarriage b. because it reduces the supply of oxygen available to the baby during the birth process c. because it is quite painful for the mother d. because its use is associated with a significantly higher use of unnecessary caesarean sections Answer: d Page: 80 Factual Moderate 3.132. If a baby is positioned so that it will be born face up, this is called a _________ presentation; if the baby is positioned so that it will be born buttocks first, this is called a _____________ presentation. a. normal; breech b. breech; normal c. breech; posterior d. posterior; breech Answer: d Page: 80 Factual Moderate 3.133. Sondra finds out that her baby will be born head first, face up. This birthing situation would be correctly described as which of the following? a. posterior presentation b. breech presentation c. posterior breech presentation d. normal Answer: a Page: 80 Application Moderate Rationale: Posterior presentation refers to a situation in which the baby is facing the mother’s abdomen rather than her back; In this situation, a more difficult birth process often results. 3.134. While observing the birth of his daughter, Mr. Johnson sees that she will be born buttocks first. He would correctly describe this type of birth as: a. posterior presentation b. breech presentation c. normal presentation d. Apgar presentation Answer: b Page: 80 Application Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: Breech presentation refers to a position of the baby in the uterus in which the head will emerge last. In this situation, assistance is sometimes needed in such cases to prevent injury to the infant. 3.135. What is a perfect Apgar score? a. 0 b. 1 c. 7 d. 10 Answer: d Page: 81 Factual Easy 3.136. Suppose a baby is born whose Apgar score is 3. What would such a score most likely indicate? a. All vital signs are perfect. b. All vital signs are normal. c. Some of the baby’s bodily processes are not functioning fully. d. Immediate emergency measures are required. Answer: d Page: 81 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A perfect Apgar score is 10 points, with a score of 7 or more considered normal. Scores below 7 indicate that some bodily processes are not functioning fully and may require special procedures. Babies with a score of 4 or less require immediate emergency measures. 3.137. Mary's newborn son was given the Apgar test at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth. If he received a perfect score both times, what would the first and second Apgar scores be, respectively: a. 0 and 10 b. 5 and 10 c. 10 and 10 d. 10 and 20 Answer: c Page: 81 Applied Easy Rationale: A perfect Apgar score is 10 points, with a score of 7 or more considered normal. The scale does not change between first and second administrations of the test. 3.138. Baby Doe is born at 38 weeks and weighs just 4 pounds. He would be considered: a. premature b. preterm c. small-for-date d. malnourished Answer: c Page: 81 Applied Difficult Rationale: A small-for-date newborn is a full-term newborn who weighs less than 5 pounds 8 ounces. Since Baby Doe was born at 38 weeks (full-term) he is neither premature nor preterm.

The Evolving Family 3.139. A baby who is between 0 and 1 month of age is referred to as a(n): a. embryo b. neonate c. fetus d. zygote Answer: b Page: 84 Factual Easy 3.140. In the last few moments before birth, infants experience a major surge of: a. adrenaline and noradrenalin b. oxygen c. carbon dioxide d. protein Answer: a Page: 84 Factual Moderate 3.141. A new mother is surprised to see that her newborn looks like he is covered with cottage cheese. The substance she is noticing is called: a. vernix caseosa b. noradrenalin c. lanugo d. molding Answer: a Page: 85 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, the body of a newborn may be covered with remnants of the vernix caseosa, a cheesy-looking protective coating. 3.142. A new mother is surprised to see that her newborn looks “furry” like he is covered with a coat of hair. The “fur” she notices is called: a. vernix caseosa b. lanugo c. molding d. crowning Answer: b Page: 85 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the body of a newborn may be covered with lanugo hair, which should disappear during the first month. 3.143. When baby Rex is bounced gently on his father’s knee, his father can see the skin on the top of Rex’s head move up and down, sort of like the skin is covering a bowl of jello. This is because: a. Rex’s brain has not yet solidified and is a soft mass of tissue b. the fontanels in Rex’s head have not yet fused into bone Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. Rex must have some sort of bone disease that has prevented his skull from forming correctly d. Rex probably has Down syndrome Answer: b Page: 85 Applied Difficult Rationale: At the time of birth, the soft, bony plates of the skull—called fontanels—are connected only by cartilage areas, which are squeezed together in the birth canal to allow the baby’s head to pass through, giving the newborn a “cone-head” appearance. Fontanels do not fully harden and fuse until late in infancy, which is why an infant’s or young toddler’s head must be protected from bumps; otherwise, there is a risk of concussion. 3.144. Which of the following is NOT an example of a survival response? a. palmar grasp b. sucking c. rooting d. breathing Answer: a Page: 85 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Survival reflexes are just that: reflexes necessary for adaptation and survival, especially during the first days or weeks before the higher brain centers begin to take control. Primitive reflexes are not necessary for survival now, but may have been important at some stage in our evolutionary history. The palmar grasp is a primitive reflex: When an infant’s palm is stimulated, the infant will grasp tightly and increase the strength of the grasp if the stimulus is pulled away. 3.145. When a neonate’s hand is stimulated by an object such as a finger or a pencil, the infant’s fingers will close tightly in a grasp. This behavior is best considered to be an example of: a. the plantar reflex b. the palmar grasp reflex c. the Moro reflex d. the Babinski reflex Answer: b Page: 86 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The palmar grasp is a primitive reflex. As noted in the textbook this reflex refers to the finding that when an infant’s palm is stimulated, the infant will grasp tightly and increase the strength of the grasp if the stimulus is pulled away. 3.146. When infants are held upright with their feet against a surface and are moved forward, they appear to walk in a coordinated way. This reflex is referred to as: a. palmar reflex b. stepping reflex c. Babinski reflex d. walking reflex Answer: b Page: 86 Conceptual Difficult

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, when infants are held upright with their feet against a flat surface and are moved forward, they appear to walk in a coordinated way – a reflex known as the stepping reflex. This reflex disappears after 2 or 3 months. 3.147. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a survival reflex present in newborns? a. breathing b. rooting c. sucking d. kicking Answer: d Page: 85-86 Factual Moderate 3.148. Jackie is a new mother who says, “I just can’t stand to be away from my baby. I feel so close to him emotionally that I just love him.” Jackie’s comments reflect the core principle involved in: a. crowning b. attachment c. the Moro reflex d. the Babinski reflex Answer: b Page: 87 Applied Moderate Rationale: Attachment refers to the reciprocal emotional bond that develops between a child and caregivers. 3.149. When her baby is born, Cynthia refuses to look at him or hold him. She feels no emotional connection with him at all and won’t give him a name. Cynthia’s reaction demonstrates a problem with the concept referred to as: a. attachment b. primitive reflexes c. advanced reflexes d. the Moro reflex Answer: a Page: 87 Applied Moderate Rationale: Attachment refers to the reciprocal emotional bond that develops between a child and caregivers. Changing Perspectives: Nurse-Family Partnerships: An Early Intervention Program That Works 3.150. Which of the following is NOT one of the outcomes associated with the Nurse-Family Partnership program described in the text? a. much lower rates of child abuse and neglect b. much lower rates of arrest of teenagers raised in the program c. considerably higher rates of participation in welfare programs d. much lower rates of behavioral and intellectual problems for children raised in the program Answer: c Page: 76 Factual Moderate

3.151. According to the text, the cost of the Nurse-Family Partnership program described is about __________ per family served and the benefit to society is about _________ per family served. a. $10,000; $34,000 b. $34,000; $10,000 c. $50,000; $60,000 d. $80,000; $250,000 Answer: a Page: 76 Factual Difficult 3.152. The major cost savings that result from providing Nurse-Family Partnership programs to at-risk families is achieved primarily through: a. private donations that are given to fund the program b. fewer doctor visits required for babies and children since these are covered by the nurse c. fewer emergency room calls d. less use of welfare programs Answer: d Page: 76 Factual Moderate 3.153. The text describes a Nurse-Family Partnership program that aims to improve outcomes for newborns. Which of the following statements is the best description for what this program involves? a. Food supplements are delivered by nurses to low-income mothers beginning at the 3rd month and continuing on for 3 years after birth. b. Nurses provide counseling to at-risk mothers beginning in the prenatal period and continuing on for 2 years after birth. c. Nurses in the labor and delivery room with low-income mothers continue to visit them in their homes for 6 to 12 months to give advice on childrearing. d. Students in nursing school are paired with pregnant women so that they learn more about the psychological and social aspects of pregnancy and parenting. Answer: b Page: 76 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the Nurse–Family Partnership begins when the mother is 20 to 28 weeks into her first pregnancy and focuses on addressing substance abuse issues and other behaviors that contribute to family poverty, subsequent pregnancies, poor maternal and infant outcomes, and poor child-care opportunities. Each mother enrolled in the program is matched with a highly trained public health nurse, who visits her every 1 to 2 weeks for the next 30 months, until the infant is about age 2. 3.154. Which of the following was NOT stated as an outcome for the Nurse-Family Partnership program described in the text? a. substantially lower rates of child abuse and neglect b. substantially fewer criminal convictions of children served when they grew to age 15 c. less time for the family spent on welfare d. substantially fewer divorces among parents in the families served by the program Answer: d Page: 76 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The textbook notes that research has yielded each of the findings above except the finding regarding divorce. Current Issues: Kangaroo Care for Low-Birth-Weight Infants: An Experimental Approach Being Tried in Countries Around the World 3.155. Kangaroo care is generally recommended when: a. the infant has no biological mother to care for it b. the mother is addicted to drugs c. the baby is born with HIV d. the baby is low birth weight Answer: d Page: 83 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Kangaroo care is aimed at calming and stabilizing fragile, low-birth-weight babies. 3.156. The primary feature of a “kangaroo care” environment is that it: a. involves a quiet and calming environment b. utilizes the skills of many different types of caregivers c. always is done within a hospital environment so appropriate medical intervention is available if needed d. is supported by Title 19 so that mothers do not have to pay for these services Answer: a Page: 83 Factual Moderate

True-False questions: Prenatal Growth and Development 3.157. In the United States, fewer than 30% of all pregnancies are unplanned. Answer: False Page: 61 Rationale: In the U. S. about 50% of all pregnancies are unintended; for teens the percentage is about 66%. 3.158. A trimester is a period of time during pregnancy equal to about 3 months. Answer: True Page: 61 3.159. Ovulation in the female typically occurs approximately 14 days after menstruation. Answer: True Page: 61 3.160. Sperm can only survive in the vagina for 24 hours. Answer: False Page: 61-62 Rationale: Sperm can survive about 2 to 3 days in the vagina.

3.161. Fertilization takes place in the uterus. Answer: False Page: 62 Rationale: Fertilization usually takes place in the fallopian tubes. 3.162. Implantation of the zygote in the uterus occurs after it has formed into a blastula, but before the cells begin to differentiate. Answer: True Page: 62-63 3.163. Dizygotic twins have identical DNA. Answer: False Page: 63 Rationale: Dizygotic twins are formed when two different ova are fertilized by two different sperm. Therefore, genetically dizygotic twins are as similar as any sibling pair. Monozygotic twins are formed when a single fertilized ovum divides into two identical zygotes. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical. 3.164. The layer of cells in the ectoderm will eventually differentiate to become the skin, the sense organs, and the brain and nervous system. Answer: True Page: 63 3.165. For every 100 males conceived, there are about 110 females conceived. Answer: False Page: 64 Rationale: For every 100 females conceived, about 125 males are conceived. 3.166. Currently in the U. S., the age of viability is 24 weeks, but just 3 weeks later the survival rate increased to about 90%. Answer: True Page: 64 3.167. All of the structures that we recognize as human, such as arms, legs, and eyes, develop during the first 2 weeks of pregnancy. Answer: False Page: 63 Rationale: The structures we recognize as human develop during the second month of pregnancy. 3.168. In most parts of the world, the infant mortality rate has been declining. Answer: True Page: 65 Prenatal Environmental Influences 3.169. The lowest risk for miscarriage and congenital anomalies is observed for mothers under 20 years of age. Answer: False Page: 67 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The lowest risk for miscarriage and congenital anomalies is observed for mothers in their 20s. 3.170. Today, most doctors recommend that a healthy pregnant woman who is carrying one child should gain about 18 pounds during pregnancy. Answer: False Page: 68 Rationale: The text states that a woman should gain between 25 and 35 pounds during pregnancy. 3.171. The effects of prenatal malnutrition are usually least when the malnutrition is of short duration. Answer: True Page: 68 3.172. Research has demonstrated that providing prenatal education to expectant mothers who otherwise would not receive it can reduce infant mortality rates and premature-birth rates. Answer: True Page: 68-69 3.173. The specific effect that a teratogen such as thalidomide has depends on when the exposure to the teratogen takes place. This concept is referred to as a “critical period” in development. Answer: True Page: 69 3.174. Bacterial infections experienced by the mother during pregnancy typically have little or no impact on the developing fetus because bacteria cannot cross the placental barrier. Answer: True Page: 70 3.175. In Africa, the fastest growing group of those affected by HIV are young homosexual men. Answer: False Page: 70 Rationale: The fastest growing group of people affected by HIV in Africa are young women. 3.176. Oral contraceptives (also known as the birth control pill) can cause abnormalities in the developing fetus if taken during pregnancy. Answer: True Page: 72 3.177. According to research cited in the text, even small amounts of alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to abnormalities in the fetus. Answer: True Page: 73 3.178. To date, there have been no known birth defects associated with the mother’s use of marijuana during pregnancy. Answer: False Page: 74

Rationale: Smoking cannabis (marijuana) is linked to birth defects in the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems, and to certain structural defects. It also is linked to general cognitive deficiencies, including increased impulsiveness and problems paying attention and to deficits in learning and memory. Childbirth 3.179. During childbirth, when the mother’s “water breaks,” urine is involuntarily released. Answer: False Page: 75 Rationale: When the mother’s water breaks, this results from a rupture in the amniotic sac, which allows the amniotic fluid to be released. 3.180. An episiotomy is a surgical procedure in which the mother’s skin is cut in order to increase the size of the vaginal opening and prevent tearing during the birth process. Answer: True Page: 75 3.181. The most widely used diagnostic procedure used to provide information about the developing fetus is amniocentesis. Answer: False Page: 78 Rationale: Ultrasound is the most widely used procedure. 3.182. Physicians routinely recommend that expectant mothers over the age of 35 consider amniocentesis in order to test for genetic abnormalities in the fetus. Answer: True Page: 79 3.183. Physicians generally use fetal monitors only in high-risk pregnancies because they pose an increased risk for infection for the mother. Answer: False Page: 80 Rationale: Fetal monitors are usually used only for high-risk pregnancies because their use is linked to a higher than necessary rate of caesarean deliveries. 3.184. The most desirable score on the Apgar scale is a 5. Answer: False Page: 81 Rationale: The Apgar scale runs from 1 to 10, with high scores indicating better health at the time of birth. Thus, the most desirable score would be a 10. 3.185. Infants who are born prematurely are at higher risk for having learning disabilities and hyperactivity. Answer: True Page: 81 3.186. If a child is born early, it is referred to as having preterm status. If it is born early and it weighs less than 5 pounds 8 ounces, it is termed small-for-date. Answer: False Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 81 Rationale: If a child is born before 35 weeks of gestation, it is referred to as having preterm status. However, to be termed small-for-date, the baby must weigh less than 5 pounds 8 ounces and also be full term. The Evolving Family 3.187. Although Freud viewed birth as a traumatic experience for the newborn, modern psychologists do not believe that the process of birth places stress on the infant. Answer: False Page 84 Rationale: The birth process requires enormous changes for the newborn and is a very stressful time. 3.188. At birth, newborns do not possess any survival reflexes; rather, these reflexes emerge gradually during the two weeks following birth. Answer: False Page: 85 Rationale: The survival reflexes are present at birth and they help the newborn adjust to life outside its mother’s body. 3.189. Attachment is a term psychologists use to refer to the reciprocal bonds of affection and emotional closeness that form between an infant and its parents or caregivers. Answer: True Page: 87

Short Answer questions: Prenatal Growth and Development 3.190. Describe how the three periods of prenatal development (germinal, embryonic, and fetal) overlap with the three trimesters of pregnancy. Page: 61 3.191. Explain the process by which monozygotic and dizygotic twins occur, explaining why monozygotic twins are more similar to each other than are dizygotic twins. Page: 63 3.192. What are the most important developmental events that occur in the germinal period? Page: 61-63 3.193. Identify two body structures that develop from each of the following parts of the embryonic disk: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Page: 63-64 3.194. How does the development of the body’s structures differ in the embryonic period from that which occurs in the fetal period? Page: 63-64

3.195. Suggest two reasons why males are more vulnerable in early life than are females. Page: 64 3.196. Give a clear example of each of the following developmental trends: cephalocaudal trend, proximodistal trend, and gross-to-specific trend. Page: 67 Prenatal Environmental Influences 3.197. Suggest two reasons that might explain why older mothers have higher risks for miscarriage and for some congenital anomalies. Page: 67-68 3.198. Describe the results of the malnutrition research described in the text, noting the outcomes of programs that attempt to remediate malnutrition by providing food supplements in infancy. Page: 68 3.199. Define the term “critical period” as it is used in studies of how teratogens exert their effects. Page: 69 3.200. Describe three different ways a teratogen can be passed along to the developing embryo or fetus, and provide an example of a teratogen that is passed along in each of these three methods. Page: 70 3.201. What are two things that can be done to prevent the HIV virus from being passed from mother to fetus? Page: 70 3.202. Describe the symptoms associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Page: 73 3.203. Identify three different risk factors for a baby that are associated with the mother’s use of cocaine or other amphetamines during pregnancy. Page: 74 Childbirth 3.204. What is an episiotomy and why is it sometimes performed? Page: 75 3.205. Why might a woman choose to have her baby in a birthing center rather than a traditional hospital room? Page: 77-78 3.206. Describe what ultrasound does and why it is often used during pregnancy. Page: 78-79 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3.207. Why did the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend that fetal monitors be used only in high-risk pregnancies? Page: 80 3.208. Distinguish between a premature baby that is preterm and one that is small-for-date. Page: 81 The Evolving Family 3.209. Give an example of how culture can influence the experience of childbirth. Page: 82, 84 3.210. Describe why a neonate’s head can be cone-shaped for a few days immediately following birth. Page: 85 3.211. Name and describe three survival reflexes that are observed in neonates. Page: 85, 86 3.212. Define attachment and provide an example that demonstrates why psychologists describe it as a reciprocal process between caregiver and infant. Page: 87

Essay questions: Prenatal Growth and Development 3.213. Explain how fertilization occurs, noting when and where each step in the process takes place. Page: 62 3.214. Suppose a couple wants to become pregnant. During which days in the woman’s monthly menstrual cycle is conception likely to occur? As part of your answer, be sure to describe the timing of ovulation and the life expectancy of sperm. Page: 62-63 3.215. Describe in detail how the zygote becomes a blastula and how the blastula differentiates into the embryonic disk and supportive structures. Page: 62-63

3.216. Suggest three different reasons why infant mortality rates generally have declined in the United States over the past five decades. Page: 64-65 Prenatal Environmental Influences Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

3.217. What prenatal risks are associated with malnutrition? What kinds of intervention programs can most effectively reduce these risks? Page: 68 3.218. Give an example of how a teratogen can have different effects on the developing embryo or fetus, depending on what stage of development is involved. Use this example to explain what is meant by the term, “critical period” of development. Page: 69-70 3.219. Describe three different ways by which a disease present in the mother may be passed to the fetus or newborn infant. Page: 72-73 3.220. Summarize the evidence that supports the Surgeon General’s statement on women’s consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. Is drinking alcohol safe? Page: 73 Childbirth 3.221. Describe how a typical labor and delivery would proceed, noting the major events associated with each of the three stages of childbirth. Page: 75-76 3.222. Describe the major events that occur in each of the three stages of childbirth: initial labor, labor and delivery, and afterbirth Page: 75-76 3.223. How does natural (or prepared) childbirth differ from traditional childbirth? Page: 77-78 3.224. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages associated with both traditional childbirth procedures and natural childbirth procedures. If your best friend were having a baby, which would you recommend to her, and why would you make this choice? Page: 77-78 3.225. Describe three diagnostic procedures that can be used to monitor the health of the unborn child during pregnancy: ultrasound, amniocentesis, and chorionic villus sampling. What kinds of health problems does each method help diagnose? Page: 78-79 3.226. Describe the differences between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling and discuss when and why each might be preferred over the other. Page: 79

3.227. What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with the use of caesarian section procedures for childbirth? Page: 80-81 3.228. What is the Apgar Scoring System? How are scores computed? What factors are related to an infant receiving a “good” score versus a “bad” score? Page: 81 3.229. What special risks are associated with premature childbirth? How might a preterm infant pose different problems than a small-for-date infant? Page: 81-82 The Evolving Family 3.230. Describe two major concerns about becoming a parent that typically are identified among mothers and two concerns that are identified among fathers. How might these concerns reflect cultural and family forces? Page: 82-84 3.231. What roles do the survival reflexes play in helping the neonate adjust to life outside the womb? Page: 85 3.232. How do the primitive reflexes differ from the survival reflexes? Give an example of each reflex type to support your answer. Page: 85-86 3.233. Define in your own words what is meant by the term “attachment.” Give an example that demonstrates how attachment develops in a reciprocal fashion between infant and caregiver. Page: 87

Name _______________________________ Chapter 4 - Infancy and Toddlerhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. Which of the following was NOT one of the six arousal states identified in newborns by Peter Wolff? a. crying b. thinking c. regular sleep d. irregular sleep 2. The type of malnutrition that is caused by an insufficient total quantity of food and in which muscles waste away and stored fat is depleted is: a. anemia b. marasmus c. kwashiorkor d. stunting 3. The basic units of meaning in a language are referred to as: a. semantics b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Conceptual questions: 4. At about what age do most children learn to use the “pincer grasp,” which allows them to use their thumb and forefinger to “pinch” a small object to pick it up? a. 6 months of age b. 12 months of age c. 18 months of age d. 24 months of age 5. A researcher studies whether infants remember objects by observing their facial expressions and measuring changes in their breathing and heartbeat when a ball appears and disappears. What research paradigm is the researcher using? a. novelty paradigm b. surprise paradigm c. classical conditioning paradigm d. instrumental conditioning paradigm 6. Which of the following abilities is the newborn infant capable of performing as early as the first week of life? a. making most of the sounds of the language in which he or she has heard prenatally b. distinguishing the smell of his or her mother from that of other women c. being able to grasp small objects by using the thumb and forefinger d. being able to see through closed eyelids how objects move about in this “dim” environment 7. When a child produces a single word, such as bottle, it may mean a variety of things, such as “I want the bottle” or “there’s the bottle” or “I like the bottle.” This type of usage is referred to as: a. an adaptation b. holophrastic speech c. an overextension d. telegraphic speech Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied questions: 8. Jake suffered a head injury at the age of 2. In spite of his injury, Jake was able to recover most of the abilities that he had before the injury. Which of the following terms is most directly related to Jake’s ability to regain these lost functions? a. the brain growth spurt b. neural pruning c. brain plasticity d. habituation training 9. Suppose you see a grandparent at the toy store buying a set of 5 “stacking” blocks, a box of large-size crayons, and a toy telephone. Based on this selection of toys, your best guess is that the child these toys are intended for is about how old? a. age 6 months b. age 12 months c. age 18 months d. age 24 months 10. Suppose you observe a researcher interacting with an infant by shaking a rattle while the baby is watching, and then placing the rattle underneath a pillow. The researcher then records whether or not the baby can find the rattle under the pillow. The concept this researcher is studying is most likely: a. assimilation b. accommodation c. object permanence d. deferred imitation

Name _______________________________ Chapter 4 - Infancy and Toddlerhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. In adulthood, a typical person’s head is about one-tenth of the person’s total body length. At age 4 months, the head is about _________ of the 4-month-old’s total body length. a. one-half b. one-third c. one-fourth d. one-sixth 2. Kwashiorkor results when a person’s diet contains too little: a. vitamin A b. calcium c. vitamin D d. protein 3. The basic sounds in a language are referred to as: a. semantics b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Conceptual questions: 4. In contrast to how scientists working in earlier decades have conceptualized the neonatal period, scientists today understand that: a. how the infant “attaches” to its primary caregiver is of limited significance b. there is much more stress involved in the birth process than previously thought c. newborns are much more capable than had previously been thought d. newborn behaviors are controlled to a much greater degree by genetics than was previously thought 5. Which of the following activities would an 8-month-old be LEAST likely to be able to do? a. pick up a quarter with one hand b. point at a nearby object c. pick up a stuffed toy d. clap two hands together 6. Suppose you visit a child development laboratory and observe a researcher working with an 8-month-old baby. The baby is sitting on top of a piece of Plexiglas, which rests partly over a table top and then extends out over the end of the table. The apparatus being used in this experiment is typically called a: a. visual cliff b. binocular challenge c. visually guided grid d. perceptual challenge map 7. When a child produces a single word, such as bottle, it may mean a variety of things, such as “I want the bottle” or “there’s the bottle” or “I like the bottle.” This type of usage is referred to as: a. an adaptation b. holophrastic speech c. an overextension d. telegraphic speech Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied questions: 8. Frank argues that early experiences are very important because these “early lessons” shape the way the brain develops. Frank’s view that experience influences brain development is the central idea behind the concept of: a. synaptic transmission b. neuromodulation c. habituation d. brain plasticity 9. Suppose you show a newborn infant four photographs, one of his mother smiling, one of his mother making a fearful face, one of a stranger smiling, and one of a stranger making a fearful face. Which photograph should you expect the newborn to look at for the longest time? a. the smiling mother b. the fearful mother c. the smiling stranger d. the fearful stranger 10. When 16-month-old Simon was visiting his relatives, he observed his older cousin stomp his foot to the beat of music, something Simon had never seen before. The next day, when Simon heard music on the radio, he stomped his foot to the beat. Simon’s “foot stomping” behavior would best be considered an example of: a. object permanence b. mirror imaging c. symbolic representation d. deferred imitation

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 4.1 1. b, p. 93 2. b, p. 100 3. b, p. 112 4. b, p. 99 5. b, p. 104 6. b, p. 106 7. b, p. 113 8. c, p. 92 9. c, p. 99 10. c, p. 109 Quick Quiz 4.2 1. c, pp. 95-96 2. d, p. 100 3. d, p. 112 4. c, p. 92 5. a, p. 99 6. a, p. 105 7. b, p. 113 8. d, p. 92 9. a, p. 104 10. d, p. 109

Chapter 4 Infancy and Toddlerhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development

Multiple Choice questions: The Developing Brain 4.1. According to the text, individuals experience the most rapid and dramatic developmental change during which 2-year period of the lifespan? a. birth to age 2 b. age 4 to 6 c. age 11-13 d. age 16-18 Answer: a Page: 91 Factual Easy 4.2. About how many neurons are in the typical human brain? a. 10 million b. 100 million c. 10 billion d. 100 billion Answer: d Page: 91 Factual Moderate 4.3. The connections that exists between the neurons in the brain are called: a. glial cells b. plastic links c. nueromodulators d. synapses Answer: d Page: 91 Factual Easy 4.4. The primary functions of glial cells are to: a. convey information from the sense organs to the brain b. convey information from the brain to the sense organs c. limit the activity of the brain so that it doesn’t become overloaded d. nourish and support the neurons Answer: d Page: 91 Factual Moderate 4.5. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The number of glial cells increases rapidly throughout the first 2 years of life. b. The number of neurons increases rapidly throughout the first 2 years of life. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. During the brain growth spurt in infancy, the complexity of neural branching increases. d. During the brain growth spurt in infancy, unused connections are often pruned away. Answer: b Page: 91-92 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Most of the neurons an individual will have throughout a person’s lifetime developed during the prenatal stage of development. Neural development after birth is characterized not by an increase in the number of neurons, but rather by increases in the size of neurons and particularly an increase in the complexity of their interconnections. Glial cells are added during the first 2 years after birth, however. 4.6. Which of the following experiences the least amount of change during the period of infancy and toddlerhood: a. the number of glial cells b. the number of interconnections between neurons c. the number of neurons d. the size of neurons Answer: c Page: 91-92 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Most of the neurons an individual will have throughout a person’s lifetime developed during the prenatal stage of development. Neural development after birth is characterized not by an increase in the number of neurons, but rather by increases in the size of neurons and particularly an increase in the complexity of their interconnections. Glial cells are added during the first 2 years after birth, however. 4.7. If a normal adult human brain weighs about 3 pounds, about how much would a normal baby’s brain weigh at the time of birth? a. a little less than 1 pound b. about 1 ½ pounds c. about 3 pounds d. about 4 pounds Answer: a Page: 92 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: At birth, an infant’s brain weighs about 30% of its adult weight. 4.8. If a normal adult human brain weighs 3 pounds, about how much would a normal 1-year-old’s brain weigh? a. a little less than 1/2 pound b. about 1 pound c. about 2 pounds d. a little more than 3 pounds Answer: c Page: 92 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: At age 1, an infant’s brain has reached about 70% of its adult weight. 4.9. Frank argues that early experiences are very important because these “early lessons” shape the way the brain develops. Frank’s view that experience influences brain development is the central idea behind the concept of: a. synaptic transmission b. neuromodulation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. habituation d. brain plasticity Answer: d Page: 92 Applied Moderate Rationale: The brain’s plasticity in infancy and early childhood makes it susceptible to environmental influences. The textbook describes, for example, a research study (Rosenweig, 1969) in which rats showed brain differences as a result of being raised in either an enriched or impoverished environment. 4.10. Jake suffered a head injury at the age of 2. In spite of his injury, Jake was able to recover most of the abilities that he had before the injury. Which of the following terms is most directly related to Jake’s ability to regain these lost functions? a. the brain growth spurt b. neural pruning c. brain plasticity d. habituation training Answer: c Page: 92 Applied Easy Rationale: Plasticity is the word used to describe the brain’s flexibility in reassigning functions to different regions. When injury occurs early in life – the time of maximum plasticity – control over functions lost due to injury can often be reassigned to different brain regions and functions can be relearned. 4.11. Mark Rosenzweig’s famous study of rats that were raised in either “enriched” or “impoverished” environments demonstrated that rats raised in enriched environments: a. lived longer b. gained more weight c. had heavier, more complex brains d. had more difficult mating with other rats when they reached maturity Answer: c Page: 92 Factual Easy 4.12. If the results of Rosenzweig’s study of rats raised in enriched environments were to be generalized to children, this would imply that we should be most concerned about which of the following? a. raising children in environments that did not allow for exploration and play b. raising children in environments in which they had to care for younger children c. placing children in day-care centers, even if the centers were well run d. making sure that children get 100% of their daily doses of all important vitamins Answer: a Page: 92 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Rosenzweig (1969) assigned infant rats to one of two conditions. Some were placed in standard cages where there were few options for their activities. Others, however, were assigned to “enriched” environments where there were running wheels, levers to press, steps to climb, and other “rat toys” to play with. Rats raised in the enriched environments developed brains that were not only heavier but also had thicker layers of cortex cells and more neurochemical activity at synapses. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.13. The major conclusion to be drawn from Rosenzweig’s study of the brains of rats raised in an enriched environment is that: a. early experience shapes the way in which the brain develops b. genes exert their greatest influence in guiding neural development during the prenatal period c. too much “privilege” can cause the development of selfishness that cannot be undone through later training d. neural development is for the most part determined by genes, and especially by those carried on the sex chromosomes Answer: a Page: 92 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Rosenzweig (1969) assigned infant rats to one of two conditions. Some were placed in standard cages where there were few options for their activities. Others, however, were assigned to “enriched” environments where there were running wheels, levers to press, steps to climb, and other “rat toys” to play with. Rats raised in the enriched environments developed brains that were not only heavier but also had thicker layers of cortex cells and more neurochemical activity at synapses, demonstrating that early experience shapes the way in which the brain develops. 4.14. The neural “pruning” that takes place during infancy and toddlerhood results in: a. a loss of about 10% in the weight of the typical brain b. a loss of many of the neural connections that were present at birth c. severing the connection between left and right hemispheres that was present during the prenatal period of development d. the near-total separation of the brain’s cortex and other brain structures that lie below it Answer: b Page: 92 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Growth and “pruning” occur where, as the result of each child’s unique experiences, some synaptic connections develop and others are eliminated, or pruned away. According to Alison Gopnik and her colleagues (Gopnik, Meltzoff, & Kuhl, 1999, 2008), neurons in the brain of a newborn average about 2,500 synapses, increasing to a peak of about 15,000 synapses by age 2 or 3—many more than are present in an adult brain. 4.15. According to the text, neurons in a newborn’s brain have on average about __________ synapses. By age 2 or 3, the number is about __________ synapses. a. 100,000; one million b. one million, 100 billion c. 2,500; 15,000 d. 15,000; 2,500 Answer: c Page: 92 Factual Difficult 4.16. Which of the following individuals would have the largest number of average synapses in the neurons of their brain? a. Rita, who is a newborn b. Alan, who is 1 year old c. Matty, who is 2 ½ years old d. Rex, who is 25 years old Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 92 Applied Difficult Rationale: The neurons in the brain of a newborn average about 2,500 synapses, which increases to a peak of about 15,000 synapses by the age of 2 or 3. In comparison to a 3-year-old’s brain, an adult’s brain has many fewer synapses. The Neonatal Period 4.17. The neonatal period refers to which of the following periods? a. the month prior to an infant’s birth b. the first month after birth c. the 3 months prior to birth d. the 3 months after birth Answer: b Page: 92 Factual Easy 4.18. In contrast to how scientists working in earlier decades have conceptualized the neonatal period, scientists today understand that: a. how the infant “attaches” to its primary caregiver is of limited significance b. there is much more stress involved in the birth process than previously thought c. newborns are much more capable than had previously been thought d. newborn behaviors are controlled to a much greater degree by genetics than was previously thought Answer: c Page: 92 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Until the 1960s, it was thought that neonates were largely incapable of organized, self-directed behavior. Later research has shown that newborns’ capabilities had been grossly underestimated. We now know that neonates are capable of organized, predictable responses and of more complex cognitive activity than was once thought. 4.19. According to research conducted by Peter Wolff on arousal states in newborns, as newborns adjust to their new environment following birth, their arousal states become: a. more dramatic, with larger swings of energy between high and low states b. less positive and more negative c. more regular and predictable d. more irregular and dictated by specific environmental occurrences Answer: c Page: 93 Factual Moderate 4.20. Which of the following was NOT one of the six arousal states identified in newborns by Peter Wolff? a. crying b. thinking c. regular sleep d. irregular sleep Answer: b Page: 93 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 4.21. Which of the following is NOT one of the arousal states of the infant described by Wolff (1966)? a. crying b. urinating c. drowsiness d. waking Answer: b Page 93 Factual Easy 4.22. In comparison to a newborn, a 4-month-old infant spends ____ time sleeping and ____ time in alert activity. a. less; more b. less; about the same amount of c. about the same amount of; less d. more; less Answer: a Page: 93 Factual Easy 4.23. Habituation is a form of: a. walking b. learning c. sleeping d. sensing Answer: b Page: 93 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Habituation is defined as a simple form of learning which allows people to ignore meaningless, repetitive stimuli in the environment. 4.24. While a carpenter was doing some remodeling in Kate's kitchen, her infant son cried from the hammering noise at first, but stopped responding to the noise after he got used to it. The son’s response is best thought of as an example of: a. habituation b. shaping c. stimulus generalization d. symbolic representation Answer: a Page: 93 Applied Moderate Rationale: Habituation is defined as a simple form of learning which allows infants to ignore meaningless, repetitive stimuli in the environment. 4.25. Many students study in a room with a TV on or an iPod playing, completely tuned out to the sound of the music and voices. However, if their favorite artist’s name is mentioned, their attention shifts from their reading to the TV or iPod. This phenomenon is best considered to be an example of the basic principles that underlie: a. classical conditioning Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. telegraphic thought c. overextension d. habituation Answer: d Page: 93 Applied Moderate Rationale: Habituation is defined as a simple form of learning which allows people to ignore meaningless, repetitive stimuli in the environment. 4.26. What is the adaptive function of habituation? a. to associate the consequences of behavior with the responses they follow b. to enhance memory for new stimuli c. to ignore nonmeaningful stimuli d. to reduce anxiety in stressful situations Answer: c Page: 93 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Habituation is defined as a simple form of learning that allows people to ignore meaningless, repetitive stimuli in the environment. 4.27. Suppose that an experiment involves having neonates listen to tape recordings of their own mothers reading a story to them while they are sucking on a pacifier. At one point, the mother’s voice is changed to the voice of a stranger. Researchers look to see if the sucking pattern changes when the voice change occurs. The method used in this study is best considered to be an example of: a. the classical conditioning method b. the correlational method c. the habituation method d. the method of overextension Answer: c Page: 94 Applied Moderate Rationale: In the habituation method, researchers study infant perceptual capabilities by habituating infants to certain stimuli, and then changing the stimuli and observing the infant’s response. 4.28. The Neonatal Behavioral Observation system is used to assess which of the following? a. general health and adjustment to the environment b. intelligence of infants and very young children c. the degree of attachment an infant has with the caregiver d. they style of attachment an infant has with the caregiver Answer: a Page: 94 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the Neonatal Behavioral Observation system is a scale used to assess neurological functioning, behavioral capabilities, and social responsiveness of newborns. 4.29. Which of the following is NOT evaluated on the Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale? a. response to stress b. quality of motor tone and activity level Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. blood pressure and blood sugar d. capacity to habituate to external light and sound stimuli Answer: c Page: 94 Factual Moderate Physical and Motor Development 4.30. Suppose that you observe 1000 young children, recording the age at which each is first able to pick up a rattle and shake it. You now compute an average age at which this developmental milestone is reached by the “typical” child. Your work would be most similar to the work that is summarized in which of the following? a. the Newborn Behavioral Observation system b. the Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale c. the Visual Cliff norms d. the Gesell Scales Answer: d Page: 95 Applied Difficult Rationale: Gesell observed hundreds of infants and children, recording the details of when and how certain behaviors emerged, such as crawling, walking, running, picking up a small pellet, cutting with scissors, managing a pencil, or drawing human figures. On the basis of the resulting data, he compiled the first detailed reports of the capabilities of average children at different ages—the Gesell Scales. 4.31. If you argued that children all develop according to the same basic, biological schedule, you would be emphasizing the significance of which of the following concepts in guiding development? a. maturation b. assimilation c. accommodation d. equilibration Answer: a Page: 95 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Maturation is defined as developmental changes that are linked closely to biological events. Gesell observed that by knowing the age of a child, he could predict not only the child’s approximate height and weight but also what the child knew or could do. Consequently, Gesell concluded that most of a child’s achievements result from an internal biological timetable. Behavior, thus, emerges as a function of maturation. 4.32. The text discusses a study of Guatemalan infants, who were poorly nourished and not provided with much opportunity for interaction with adults. These infants were also observed to learn to walk at later ages than lessdeprived children from other cultures. With respect to the concept of maturation, which of the following conclusions does this study support? a. Maturation is a biologically driven process. b. Maturation depends heavily on brain development. c. Maturation is somewhat dependent on environmental circumstances. d. Maturation has much more to do with culture than with biology. Answer: c Page: 95 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rational: Gesell observed that by knowing the age of a child, he could predict not only the child’s approximate height and weight but also what the child knew or could do. Based on his research, Gesell concluded that most of a child’s achievements result from an internal biological timetable. Behavior, thus, emerges as a function of maturation. The finding that predictable differences were observed between the Guatemalan infants and lessdeprived children suggests, however, that maturation is somewhat dependent on environmental circumstances. 4.33. A psychologist notes that brain development depends on having certain experiences, but also that brain development limits the type of experiences a child can have. This comment points out the basic idea behind the term: a. maturation b. interaction c. schema d. accommodation Answer: b Page: 95 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As described in Chapter 1, most development throughout the lifespan is a result of successive interactions between biology and experience. In general, it is not possible to categorize development as primarily biological or environmental; rather, it involves an ongoing, dynamic interplay between these two basic sets of causes. 4.34. If Andrew is a normal, healthy baby who weighed 8 pounds at birth, about how much would you expect him to weigh at age 4 months: a. 10 pounds b. 13 pounds c. 16 pounds d. 21 pounds Answer: c Page: 95 Applied Difficult Rationale: By age 4 months, the typical infant weighs about twice as much as at birth. 4.35. In adulthood, a typical person’s head is about one-tenth of the person’s total body length. At age 4 months, the head is about _________ of the 4-month-old’s total body length. a. one-half b. one-third c. one-fourth d. one-sixth Answer: c Page: 95-96 Factual Moderate 4.36. All of the following behaviors are likely to be in place by the age of 4 months of age EXCEPT: a. smiling b. the visually guided reach c. the ability to visually focus on an object in the field of vision d. the ability to discriminate between the mother’s face and a stranger’s face Answer: b Page: 95-96, 103-104 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: The visually guided reach develops at about 5 to 6 months of age. Smiling is present by 4 months. By 3 to 4 months of age, babies can focus their eyes nearly as well as adults. Infants can discriminate between their mother’s face and a stranger’s face by as early as 2 weeks of age. 4.37. Suppose that the average weight of a 12-month-old baby is 23 pounds and 80% of 12-month-old babies weigh between 21 and 25 pounds. If the average weight of a 24-month-old baby is 33 pounds, between what weights should you expect 80% of 24-month-old babies to fall? a. between 32 and 34 pounds b. between 31 and 35 pounds c. between 30 and 36 pounds d. The answer cannot be determined from the information given in this question. Answer: c Page: 96 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As children get older, they become more variable in their growth patterns. Therefore the range of weights of 80% of the children will be wider at age 24 months than at age 12 months. 4.38. When an infant learns to coordinate looking at an object, grasping the object, and putting the object in her mouth, this process is called: a. accommodation b. assimilation c. maturation d. the visually guided reach Answer: d Page: 97 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Visually guided reach is a developmental milestone that occurs at about 5 to 6 months of age in which infants can combine reaching, grasping, mouthing, and perceiving into a smooth sequence. 4.39. According to the text, which of the following is “the greatest achievement in infancy?” a. learning to recognize the mother’s face b. learning to move from one place to another c. learning to smile in response to pleasurable events d. completion of toilet training Answer: b Page: 97 Factual Moderate 4.40. In the United States, at about what age is the average child first able to sit without support, if placed in this position? a. age 5 months b. age 8 months c. age 10 months d. age 12 months Answer: b Page: 97 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.41. In the United States, about what percent of 1-year-old infants are able to stand by themselves and take their first step? a. about 20% b. about 50% c. about 75% d. nearly 100% Answer: b Page: 97 Factual Moderate 4.42. Generalizing from research conducted by Karen Adolph, if you observed an 8-month-old infant and a 14month-old infant attempt a somewhat dangerous motor task (such as climbing up a stair), which of these two infants should you expect to be more cautious and more aware of the risk? a. the 8-month-old infant would be more cautious b. the 14-month-old infant would be more cautious c. These two infants would be equally cautious, but the 8-month-old would be more aware of the risks involved. d. These two infants would be equally cautious, but the 14-month-old would be more aware of the risks involved. Answer: b Page: 98 Applied Difficult Rationale: Adolph and her colleagues (e.g., Adolph et al., 2008) observed the capabilities of infants as they crawled or walked up and down “slopes” at varying angles. At age 8 1⁄2 months, infants typically charged up steep slopes, crawling without hesitation. Then, perhaps after surveying the downward side, they continued on headfirst, where most got into trouble and needed to be rescued by the experimenters. In contrast, 14-month-old “walkers” were better judges of risk; after walking up the steep slope, they changed strategies and carefully and safely slid down. The 14-month-olds were more cautious than the 8-month-olds. 4.43. Suppose that your friend’s child is typical. If he asks you when he should expect that his child will learn to ascend and descend stairs, you should note that most children in the United States learn to crawl up stairs at about age ___ and learn to crawl down stairs at about age ___. a. 11 months; 13 months b. 13 months; 11 months c. 12 months; 12 months d. 14 months; 10 months Answer: a Page: 98 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although children learn to ascend and descend stairs at somewhat varying ages, they learn to crawl up stairs before they learn to crawl down. 4.44. You notice that little Charlie can now use his thumb and index finger to pick up small objects like marbles and cereal flakes. This ability is called the development of: a. the pincer grasp b. the visually guided reach c. the fundamental flexion reflex d. dynamic reach Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 99 Applied Easy Rationale: The pincer grasp refers to a fine motor skill that involves using the thumb and forefinger to “pinch” a small object. 4.45. At about what age do most children learn to use the “pincer grasp,” which allows them to use their thumb and forefinger to “pinch” a small object to pick it up? a. 6 months of age b. 12 months of age c. 18 months of age d. 24 months of age Answer: b Page: 99 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, the pincer grasp develops at about 12 months of age and refers to a fine motor skill that involves using the thumb and forefinger to “pinch” a small object. 4.46. Which of the following activities would an 8-month-old be LEAST likely to be able to do? a. pick up a quarter with one hand b. point at a nearby object c. pick up a stuffed toy d. clap two hands together Answer: a Page: 99 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Picking up a quarter involves the ability to use the pincer grasp, which emerges at about 12 months of age. All other tasks involve simpler motor skills that are in place by age 8 months. 4.47. Suppose you see a grandparent at the toy store buying a set of 5 “stacking” blocks, a box of large-size crayons, and a toy telephone. Based on this selection of toys, your best guess is that the child these toys are intended for is about how old? a. age 6 months b. age 12 months c. age 18 months d. age 24 months Answer: c Page: 99 Applied Moderate Rationale: At 18 months, children may be stacking two to four cubes or blocks to build a tower, and they often manage to scribble with a crayon or a pencil. Their ability to feed themselves has improved considerably, and they may be able to partly undress themselves. Many of their actions imitate what they see others doing—“reading” a book, “sweeping” the floor, or where applicable, “chatting” on a toy telephone. 4.48. If Emily weighed 8 pounds at birth, about how much would you expect her to weigh at age 24 months? a. 32 pounds b. 40 pounds c. 60 pounds d. 72 pounds Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 99 Applied Easy Rationale: Typically, 2-year-olds weigh about 4 times what they did at birth. Since Emily was of average weight at birth, you would expect her to weigh four times her birth weight at age 2 years. 4.49. The child’s ability to categorize objects into groups that are similar (round shapes, square shapes, triangles, and so forth) begins to emerge at about what age? a. 1 year b. 18 months c. 2 years d. 3 years Answer: c Page: 99 Factual Moderate 4.50. According to the text, the two nutritional deficiencies that are most common among children in the United States are deficiencies of: a. vitamin A and vitamin D b. vitamin D and calcium c. calcium and protein d. protein and iron Answer: d Page: 99 Factual Moderate 4.51. The text cites statistics from a 1994 study that evaluated the nutrition of low-income families in the U.S. According to this research, about what percent of infants suffered from iron deficiency anemia? a. about 1% b. 10 to 12% c. 20 to 24% d. 50 to 60% Answer: c Page: 99 Factual Moderate 4.52. Around the world, about what percent of people suffer from either stunting or malnutrition? a. about 10% b. about 20% c. about 30% d. about 50% Answer: c Page: 100 Factual Moderate

4.53. Suppose an anthropologist studies a culture in which adults have very poor diets and consequently are considerably shorter than would be expected. The word that describes this condition is: a. anorexia b. anemia c. kwashiorkor d. stunting Answer: d Page: 100 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Stunting refers to a failure to achieve full adult height due to malnutrition in childhood. 4.54. The term used to refer to a failure to achieve full adult height due to malnutrition during childhood is: a. plasticity b. marasmus c. kwashiorkor d. stunting Answer: d Page: 100 Factual Moderate 4.55. The type of malnutrition that is caused by an insufficient total quantity of food and in which muscles waste away and stored fat is depleted is: a. anemia b. marasmus c. kwashiorkor d. stunting Answer: b Page: 100 Factual Easy 4.56. Children with marasmus most often have a diet that is deficient in: a. fats and carbohydrates b. carbohydrates and vitamin A c. protein and total calories d. iodine and other “trace” nutrients Answer: c Page: 100 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Marasmus refers to a type of malnutrition caused by an insufficient total quantity of food causing deficiencies in protein and in total calorie intake and eventually leading to muscles wasting away and stored fat being depleted. 4.57. Suppose that children raised in an orphanage in a war-torn region of the world have had far too little food to eat. As a consequence, they have little body fat and are very weak. This condition would best be described as an example of: a. marasmus b. stunting c. kwashiorkor Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. anemia Answer: a Page: 100 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Marasmus refers to a type of malnutrition caused by an insufficient total quantity of food causing deficiencies in protein and in total calorie intake and eventually leading to muscles wasting away and stored fat being depleted. 4.58. Kwashiorkor results when a person’s diet contains too little: a. vitamin A b. calcium c. vitamin D d. protein Answer: d Page: 100 Factual Easy 4.59. The type of malnutrition that is caused by an insufficient amount of protein is called: a. anemia b. marasmus c. kwashiorkor d. stunting Answer: c Page: 100 Factual Moderate 4.60. If blindness or severe visual impairment is the result of a nutritional deficiency, the most likely cause is a deficiency of: a. iron b. protein c. vitamin A d. iodine Answer: c Page: 100 Factual Moderate 4.61. Goiter, a condition in which the thyroid gland is enlarged, is most often associated a deficiency of which of the following nutrients? a. iron b. protein c. vitamin A d. iodine Answer: d Page 100 Factual Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.62. Generalizing from the text’s discussion of malnutrition, you should conclude the most detrimental effect of starvation or severe malnutrition is on which of the following organs or organ systems? a. the gastrointestinal system b. the respiratory system c. the heart d. the brain Answer: d Page: 100 Conceptual Easy Rationale: If the duration of marasmus is short, no long-term negative effects result. In the first 3 years of life, the effects of kwashiorkor, however, can be highly damaging because brain development is directly affected. 4.63. A common result found in studies that investigate the effects of long-term malnutrition is that children often exhibit symptoms of __________ and parents often exhibit symptoms of ___________. a. depression; anxiety b. impulsiveness; depression c. depression; heart disease d. respiratory disease; heart disease Answer: b Page: 101 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In one study, for example, children in Barbados who were healthy at birth but malnourished during the first year of life were followed until age 11, at which time they showed a substantial academic deficit (Galler, 1984). What went wrong? In a careful follow-up study that used parent interviews, teacher reports, and observation of the children, two findings emerged: the children’s behavior was characterized by impulsiveness and attention deficit and their parents, most of whom had also been through periods of protein malnutrition, had low energy and symptoms of depression. 4.64. The process of shifting the infant’s diet from breast- or bottle-feeding to eating and drinking a wider variety of foods is referred to as: a. solidifying b. marasmus c. de-breasting d. weaning Answer: d Page: 102 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The textbook describes weaning as the process of shifting an infant’s diet from exclusively breast- or bottle-feeding to eating and drinking a wider variety of foods. 4.65. In comparison to breastfeeding rates in 1996, the proportion of women in the developing world who breastfed their infants in 2006: a. decreased substantially, falling by nearly 50% b. decreased slightly, falling about 5% c. remained approximately the same d. increased substantially, nearly doubling during this period of time Answer: d Page: 101 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 4.66. Breastfeeding, rather than bottle-feeding, improves infant mortality rates in: a. both developing and developed nations b. developing nations but not in developed nations c. developed nations but not in developing nations d. neither developing nor developed nations Answer: a Page: 101 Factual Easy 4.67. According to the text, the most typical age at which foods other than milk are introduced into a child’s diet is: a. 3 to 4 months of age b. 8 to 9 months of age c. about age 1 year d. about 18 months of age Answer: a Page: 102 Factual Easy 4.68. Marcy comments that her son is having a hard time shifting from being breastfed to eating a wider array of strained and solid foods. The technical term for this shift is: a. marasmus b. dietary transition c. dietary assimilation d. weaning Answer: d Page: 101 Applied Easy Rationale: The textbook describes weaning as the process of shifting an infant’s diet from exclusively breast- or bottle-feeding to eating and drinking a wider variety of foods. Sensory and Perceptual Development 4.69. The process of converting information from the environment into neural impulses is called __________; the process of associating meaning with this information is called __________. a. perception; sensation b. sensation; perception c. translation; transduction d. transduction; sensation Answer: b Page: 103 Factual Easy 4.70. The complex process by which the mind interprets sensory input is the text’s definition of: a. perception b. adaptation c. sensation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. habituation Answer: a Page: 103 Factual Easy 4.71. Newborns focus best on objects at what distance? a. 1 to 2 inches away b. 7 to 10 inches away c. 24 to 30 inches away d. 36 to 48 inches away Answer: b Page: 103 Factual Easy 4.72. Immediately after birth, newborns focus most clearly on objects that are about how far away from their face? a. about 1 to 2 inches b. about 7 to 10 inches c. about 2 to 3 feet d. about 5 to 6 feet Answer: b Page: 103 Factual Easy 4.73. Which of the following is true regarding the visual processes of a typical newborn? a. Newborns can’t see any color, so they see only in black and white. b. Newborns prefer to look at faces more than at complex, abstract pictures. c. Newborns cannot focus clearly on any object nearer to them than about 2 feet but their vision for distant objects is nearly as good as an adult’s would be. d. Newborns can see out of only one eye at a time, so their attention shifts between eyes. Answer: b Page: 103-104 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The textbook notes that classic research indicates that newborns prefer to look at patterns of moderate complexity. The textbook also presents research supporting the idea that infants are especially attentive to images of the human face. 4.74. Suppose you show a newborn infant a sequence of 3 cards, each with an image printed on it. The first card consists of a very simple image of a black circle. The second card contains an image of moderate complexity, showing two circles and two squares. The third card contains a highly complex image of several different objects of various shapes, each overlapping the others. Which of these three cards would you expect a newborn to pay attention to for the longest period of time? a. You should expect that the newborn will pay an equal amount of attention to each of the 3 cards. b. The newborn will pay most attention to the simple image. c. The newborn will pay most attention to image of moderate complexity. d. The newborn will pay most attention to the image of the greatest complexity. Answer: c Page: 104 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: Research demonstrates that newborns prefer images of moderate complexity over those that are simple or complex. Thus, the newborn would be expected to look longest at the second card with the moderately complex image. 4.75. Suppose you show a newborn infant four photographs, one of his mother smiling, one of his mother making a fearful face, one of a stranger smiling, and one of a stranger making a fearful face. Which photograph should you expect the newborn to look at for the longest time? a. the smiling mother b. the fearful mother c. the smiling stranger d. the fearful stranger Answer: a Page: 104 Applied Moderate Rationale: In one research study, when presented with pictures of their mother and an unfamiliar woman, even infants as young as 2 weeks of age preferred to look at their mother’s photo, and they sometimes turned completely away from the image of the stranger. Other research demonstrated that when newborns only a few days old were presented with pictures of a happy face and a fearful face, they looked longer at the happy face. Combining these findings, one would expect the newborn to look longest at the smiling mother. 4.76. If three babies of different ages were shown the same picture of a human face, you would expect that the 2month-old baby would look longest at __________; the 5-month-old baby would look longest at the ___________; and the 8-month-old baby would look longest at ___________. a. the nose; the mouth; the eyes b. the entire face; the eyes; the eyebrows c. the mouth; the nose; the eyes d. the eyes; the mouth; the entire face Answer: d Page: 104 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Research demonstrates that at 2 months, infants look at internal features of the face, such as the eyes. By 5 months, they more often look at the mouth of a person who is talking, and by 6 to 7 months, they respond to whole facial expressions and can discriminate differing expressions, such as “happy” versus “fearful” (C. A. Nelson & de Haan, 1996). 4.77. A researcher studies whether infants remember objects by observing their facial expressions and measuring changes in their breathing and heartbeat when a ball appears and disappears. What research paradigm is the researcher using? a. novelty paradigm b. surprise paradigm c. classical conditioning paradigm d. instrumental conditioning paradigm Answer: b Page: 104 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The surprise paradigm measures the infant’s reaction (both behavioral and physiological changes) when an unexpected situation is encountered. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.78. The finding that newborns prefer to look at pictures of their mother’s face over pictures of strangers’ faces suggests that these behaviors may be linked to the development of: a. stranger anxiety b. attachment c. visual perception d. visual sensation Answer: b Page: 104 Factual Moderate 4.79. Research suggests that newborn infants have difficulty in focusing both of their eyes on a single object. This inability to use both eyes would imply that newborns would also be limited in their ability to: a. process depth perception using monocular vision b. process depth perception using binocular vision c. perceive color d. perceive different shapes Answer: b Page: 105 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Binocular vision requires that both eyes focus on the same object. Because our eyes are in slightly different locations in our head, each eye sees the object from a slightly different perspective. Binocular vision involves processing this visual disparity in such a way that depth (or distance) is perceived. Monocular vision requires cues from only one eye, so the inability to focus both eyes at once would not be so much involved in perceiving depth. Color and different shape perception would not depend on using two eyes. 4.80. The visual cliff is used to test infants': a. memory b. habituation c. color discrimination d. depth perception Answer: d Page: 105 Conceptual Easy Rationale: A classic approach to assessing infants’ depth perception uses the “visual cliff” created by Eleanor Gibson and her colleagues (e.g., Gibson & Walk, 1960) to simulate depth. On one side of the horizontal surface, a heavy piece of glass covers a solid surface. On the other side, the glass is well above the floor, simulating a cliff. 4.81. Suppose you visit a child development laboratory and observe a researcher working with an 8-month-old baby. The baby is sitting on top of a piece of Plexiglas, which rests partly over a table top and then extends out over the end of the table. The apparatus being used in this experiment is typically called a: a. visual cliff b. binocular challenge c. visually guided grid d. perceptual challenge map Answer: a Page: 105 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: A classic approach to assessing infants’ depth perception uses the “visual cliff” created by Eleanor Gibson and her colleagues (e.g., Gibson & Walk, 1960) to simulate depth. On one side of the horizontal surface, a heavy piece of glass covers a solid surface. On the other side, the glass is well above the floor, simulating a cliff 4.82. During the first few weeks of life, hearing is believed to be muffled because of: a. excess fluid and tissue in the middle ear b. an underdeveloped ear drum c. a lack of cartilage in the inner ear d. a lack of cartilage in the outer ear Answer: a Page: 106 Factual Easy 4.83. The way in which a newborn hears probably would be most like which of the following? a. a deaf adult who reads lips b. a deaf adult who uses sign language c. a hearing adult who has a bad head cold d. a hearing adult who is blind Answer: c Page: 106 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: For the first few weeks, there is excess fluid and tissue in the middle ear, and hearing is believed to be muffled—similar to the way you hear if you have a head cold. 4.84. Which of the following abilities is the newborn infant capable of performing as early as the first week of life? a. making most of the sounds of the language in which he or she has heard prenatally b. distinguishing the smell of his or her mother from that of other women c. being able to grasp small objects by using the thumb and forefinger d. being able to see through closed eyelids how objects move about in this “dim” environment Answer: b Page: 106 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research shows that as early as 4 days of age, infants can distinguish the smell of their mother from that of another woman, and they prefer her familiar scent. 4.85. Suppose you perform an experiment in which you allow a group of babies to suck on one of two different pacifiers. Some babies sucked on the one that was smooth and round and other babies sucked on the pacifier that had ridges on it and was oblong. Later, you show both pacifiers to the babies. Generalizing from similar research reported in the text, you would expect that the babies would look: a. longer at the pacifier that they had sucked on b. longer at the pacifier that was “new” c. equally long at both pacifiers d. at neither pacifier, since sucking on a “weird” pacifier was unpleasant for them Answer: a Page: 106 Applied Difficult Rationale: The situation described in this question is essentially a replication of the experiment cited in the text by Meltzoff and Borton, 1979. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.86. Suppose you perform an experiment in which you allow a group of babies to suck on one of two different pacifiers. Some babies sucked on the one that was smooth and round and other babies sucked on the pacifier that had ridges on it and was oblong. Later, you show both pacifiers to the babies and observe how long they look at each. An experiment such as this would most likely be performed to study which of the following topics? a. sensory integration b. classical conditioning c. habituation d. operant conditioning Answer: a Page: 106 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Sensory adaptation refers to combining the information gathered from different sensory channels—such as vision and touch—into coordinated perceptions. Cognitive Development 4.87. According to the text, the processes that include thinking, learning, perceiving, remembering, and understanding are together referred to as: a. metacognition b. cognition c. perception d. accommodation Answer: b Page: 107 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As defined, cognition is a set of interrelated processes through which we gain and use knowledge about our world. It includes thinking, learning, perceiving, remembering, and understanding—all processes central to our understanding of human nature. 4.88. According to Piaget, a mental category is called a: a. metacognition b. metacategory c. adapted category d. schema Answer: d Page: 107 Factual Easy 4.89. According to Piaget, an infant’s first schemes are built around: a. the basic reflexes present at birth b. sensory experiences early in life, such as hearing the mother’s voice c. concepts involving voluntary movement, such as picking up a rattle d. the infant’s production of language sounds, such as cooing and babbling Answer: a Page: 108 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.90. Piaget's first period of cognitive development is usually called the: a. sensorimotor period b. concrete operational period c. formal operational period d. preoperational period Answer: a Page: 108 Factual Easy 4.91. In Piaget's theory, the general process by which infant schemas are elaborated, modified, and developed is called: a. adaptation b. organization c. symbolic representation d. iteration Answer: a Page: 108 Factual Moderate 4.92. If an infant has learned to push buttons on a toy to get it to make funny sounds, and now the toy is changed so that she must turn the buttons to the left or right to hear the sounds, the learning this requires would best be considered an example of: a. metacognition b. assimilation c. equilibration d. accommodation Answer: d Page: 108 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In Piaget’s theory, accommodation requires us to modify a schema in order to incorporate the new information. In this example, the infant must modify her schema for the toy in order to hear the sounds. 4.93. An infant is shown an interesting rattle and appears to like it. Then the mother places the rattle under a blanket. The infant appears to forget about the rattle completely. Which of the following is most likely true? a. The infant probably is older than 8 months. b. The infant probably is younger than 8 months. c. The infant had habituated to the rattle. d. The infant had not habituated to the rattle. Answer: b Page: 109 Applied Moderate Rationale: Object permanence, according to Piaget, is the realization by infants beginning at about 8 months that objects continue to exist when they are out of sight. 4.94. Suppose you observe a researcher interacting with an infant by shaking a rattle while the baby is watching, and then placing the rattle underneath a pillow. The researcher then records whether or not the baby can find the rattle under the pillow. The concept this researcher is studying is most likely: a. assimilation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. accommodation c. object permanence d. deferred imitation Answer: c Page: 109 Applied Moderate Rationale: Object permanence, according to Piaget, is the realization by infants beginning at about 8 months that objects continue to exist when they are out of sight. 4.95. When 16-month-old Simon was visiting his relatives, he observed his older cousin stomp his foot to the beat of music, something Simon had never seen before. The next day, when Simon heard music on the radio, he stomped his foot to the beat. Simon’s “foot stomping” behavior would best be considered an example of: a. object permanence b. mirror imaging c. symbolic representation d. deferred imitation Answer: d Page: 109 Applied Moderate Rationale: Deferred imitation refers to imitating something that happened hours or even days earlier. 4.96. If Kelly sings into with a ketchup bottle, pretending it is a microphone, we would know that she is engaging in: a. assimilation b. accommodation c. overextension d. deferred imitation Answer: d Page: 110 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Deferred imitation refers to imitating something that happened hours or even days earlier. 4.97. Twenty-month-old Hannah pretended to drive a car by sitting in a clothes basket and making steering motions with her hands. Her behavior is best considered an example of: a. assimilation b. accommodation c. object permanence d. symbolic representation Answer: d Page: 110 Applied Moderate Rationale: Symbolic representation refers to the use of a word, picture, gesture, or other sign to represent past and present events, experiences, and concepts. 4.98. According to the text, most researchers today believe that Piaget’s view of infant development was inaccurate in that young children are ______ competent than Piaget believed and they develop _______ than he thought. a. more; earlier b. more; later Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. less; earlier d. less; later Answer: a Page: 110 Factual Difficult 4.99. The basic sounds in a language are referred to as: a. semantics b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Answer: d Page: 111-112 Factual Moderate 4.100. Fiona is 12 months old. Although she is not yet producing words, she appears to understand some of the sentences that her parents say to her. Fiona is displaying ability in which of the following? a. productive language b. receptive language c. holophrastic speech d. overextension Answer: b Page: 111 Applied Moderate Rationale: Receptive language refers to the repertoire of words and commands that a child understands, even though she or he may not be able to use them. 4.101. A child's understanding of the spoken or written word is called: a. receptive language b. productive language c. structural language d. referential language Answer: a Page: 111 Factual Easy 4.102. All of the following terms refer to basic units of language EXCEPT: a. schemas b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Answer: a Page: 112 Factual Easy 4.103. The basic units of meaning in a language are referred to as: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. semantics b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Answer: b Page: 112 Factual Moderate 4.104. This term refers to how meaning is derived from words and sentences: a. semantics b. morphemes c. syntax d. phonemes Answer: a Page: 112 Factual Moderate 4.105. This term is used to describe the system of language involving phonemes, morphemes, semantics, and syntax: a. receptive language b. grammar c. productive language d. schemes Answer: b Page: 112 Factual Moderate 4.106. Infants begin cooing at approximately what age? a. 12 weeks b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 24 months Answer: a Page: 112 Factual Moderate 4.107. A child typically has a vocabulary of about 50 words at which of the following ages? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 24 months Answer: c Page: 112-113 Factual Moderate 4.108. The typical child begins to produce repeated syllables, such as “ga-ga-ga,” at about what age? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. 6 weeks b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months Answer: c Page: 112 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The repetition of meaningless syllables, such as “ga-ga-ga,” is called babbling, and this emerges in the typical infant about age 6 months. 4.109. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description about babbling when infants are deaf? a. Deaf infants do not babble. b. Deaf infants babble early in infancy, but their babbling lessens significantly after about 6 months of age. c. Deaf infants babble, but their babbling begins much later than does babbling in babies who can hear at birth. d. Deaf infants babble in the same ways and at the same ages as do babies who can hear at birth. Answer: b Page: 113 Factual Difficult 4.110. When a child produces a single word, such as bottle, it may mean a variety of things, such as “I want the bottle” or “there’s the bottle” or “I like the bottle.” This type of usage is referred to as: a. an adaptation b. holophrastic speech c. an overextension d. telegraphic speech Answer: b Page: 113 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Holophrastic speech occurs in the early stages of language acquisition and refers to the young child’s use of single words to convey complete thought. 4.111. Around the world, which of the following words would be most likely to be among the first words that infants would learn (translated into their own language, of course)? a. “TV” b. “UhOh” c. “Perfect” d. “Yes” Answer: b Page: 113 Factual Moderate 4.112. When Sharma learns to speak, she uses the word “Puffie” to describe not only her own cat (whose name is Puffie) but also every cat she sees, including tigers at the zoo. Sharma’s language in this case demonstrates the principle of: a. overextension b. holophrasic speech c. telegraphic speech Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. deferred imitation Answer: a Page: 114 Applied Moderate Rationale: Overextension refers to the young child’s tendency to overgeneralize specific words, as when a child uses “Lassie” as the term for all dogs. 4.113. According to the text, the “language explosion” begins at about what age? a. 12 months b. 15 months c. 18 months d. 21 months Answer: d Page: 114 Factual Moderate 4.114. Noam Chomsky’s term for an innate set of mental structures that aid children in language learning is: a. plasticity b. receptive language c. overextension d. language acquisition device Answer: d Page: 115 Factual Easy 4.115. Dr. Franklin believes that all humans are born with a biological predisposition to develop language, and that a specific region in the brain is highly adapted for language learning. In this respect, Dr. Franklin’s view would emphasize the same central feature as which of the following concepts? a. deferred imitation b. language acquisition device c. overextension d. telegraphic speech Answer: b Page: 115 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Chomsky (1959), children are preprogrammed to learn language because they are born with a cognitive structure, called a language acquisition device, especially developed for this task. This structure enables children to process linguistic information and “extract” rules with which they create language; that is, when children hear people talk, their brains are prewired to acquire the words and rules of the language to which they are exposed. 4.116. The fact that sometimes deaf children begin to “babble” with their hands, making up a sign language even if they have not been taught to do so, emphasizes the basic idea advanced in: a. deferred imitation b. assimilation c. overextension d. language acquisition device Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 115 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to Chomsky (1959), children are preprogrammed to learn language because they are born with a cognitive structure, called a language acquisition device (LAD), especially developed for this task. This structure enables children to process linguistic information and “extract” rules with which they create language; that is, when children hear people talk, their brains are prewired to acquire the words and rules of the language to which they are exposed. In early development, deaf babies babble just like hearing babies do, indicating that babbling is not the result of imitation or reinforcement but rather is biologically programmed. 4.117. According to the text, what does the FOXP2 gene appear to do? a. It allows people to hear “tonal” differences that are important in some languages, such as Chinese and Japanese. b. It causes developmental speech and language disorders in humans. c. It produces an acceleration in the rate at which some people can learn vocabulary. d. It causes deafness. Answer: b Page: 116 Factual Difficult 4.118. According to research presented in the text, if you compared the language acquisition patterns of children raised in poverty to those of children raised by middle-income parents, you would expect that the children raised in poverty would: a. have smaller vocabularies b. babble about 3 months later c. utter their first words about 3 months later d. be much more likely to use telegraphic speech, and for a longer period of time Answer: a Page: 116-117 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research cited in the text found that compared to children from middle-income professional families, children from families on welfare were found to develop basic language skills and structures in much the same way and at the same time. However, children from middle-income homes had much larger vocabularies as the result of their parents spending almost twice as much time talking to them. Changing Perspectives: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome and Shaken Baby Syndrome 4.119. In Europe and the United States today, the infant mortality rate is about: a. 3.7% b. 1. 7% c. 0.7% d. 0.07% Answer: c Page: 98 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text notes that the infant mortality rate in Europe and the United States today is about 7 in every 1000 live births, which yields a mortality rate of 0.7%. 4.120. The leading cause of deaths in infants between the ages of 1 month and 1 year of age in the United States is: a. shaken baby syndrome Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. protein deficiency c. respiratory problems d. sudden infant death syndrome Answer: d Page: 98 Factual Easy 4.121. The text notes that the rate of infant deaths from sudden infant death syndrome is higher in the winter months than the summer months, suggesting that SIDS may be the result of: a. problems in regulating body temperature among vulnerable infants b. infections c. child abuse, which is also higher during winter months d. a genetic defect Answer: b Page: 98 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Infections may play a role in SIDS deaths. A disproportionately large number of SIDS babies have infections just prior to their deaths, and more SIDS deaths are reported in the winter months when infections are more common. 4.122 According to the text, if your goal were to minimize the risk of sudden infant death syndrome, you would advise caregivers to put their infants to sleep in which of the following positions? a. on their stomach b. on their back c. on their right side d. propped in a slightly “sitting up” position with the head elevated above the feet Answer: a Page: 98 Factual Moderate 4.123 The most severe effects from shaken baby syndrome typically result from injury to: a. the spinal cord b. the brain c. the lungs d. the heart Answer: b Page: 98 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Death or, in less severe cases, brain injury results when an infant is shaken with enough force that the baby’s brain bounces against the skull, causing it to swell, bruise, and bleed. Current Issues: Cats, Horses and Tight Fits – Is Language Involved in Category Formation? 4.124 The text describes a study in which infants were shown pictures of several different horses. Then they were shown a picture of a different horse and a picture of a different animal, such as a giraffe. What were the results of this study? a. The infants learned the word “horse” faster than they learned the word “giraffe.” b. The infants learned the word “giraffe” faster than they learned the word “horse.” Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. The infants looked longer at the picture of the horse than the picture of the giraffe. d. The infants looked longer at the picture of the giraffe than the picture of the horse. Answer: d Page: 116 Factual Difficult 4.125 The text describes a study in which infants were shown pictures of several different horses. Then they were shown a picture of a horse and a picture of a different animal, such as a giraffe. What research technique did this study employ to determine how infants learn to categorize objects? a. classical conditioning b. reinforcement c. habituation d. punishment Answer: c Page 116 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In the habituation method, researchers study infant perceptual capabilities by habituating infants to certain stimuli, and then changing the stimuli and observing the infant’s response. In this study, the question was whether the infant would spend more time looking at the horse or the “new” animal to determine if the infants had formed a category of horses. If the infants had formed the horse category, the researchers reasoned that habituation would have occurred through the six previous trials; therefore, the infants’ attention would be drawn to the new kind of animal. 4.126. An experiment was described in the text in which English and Korean babies and adults learned to distinguish between a “loose-fitting” and a “tight-fitting” cylinder and between cylinders that were placed “inside” or “on top of” each other. The results of this study were that: a. adults learned both distinctions much faster than babies learned them b. babies learned both distinctions much faster than adults learned them c. English-speaking adults learned the unfamiliar “loose-fitting” versus “tight-fitting” distinction more easily than babies d. babies from both cultures learned the “loose-fitting” versus “tight-fitting” distinction more easily than English-speaking adults who were unfamiliar with this distinction Answer: d Page: 116 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: This experiment was presented to demonstrate the idea that infants are busy finding the regularities in their perceptual world and forming concepts long before they learn the labels that language provides. Thus, the task was hardest for the adults who had to learn this distinction, which is common in Korean languages but unfamiliar to English-speaking adults.

True-False questions: The Developing Brain 4.127. The size of the human brain does not change across the lifespan; the size of one’s brain at birth is the size that his or her brain will be as an adult. Answer: False Page: 92 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: At birth, the human brain weighs about 25% of its adult weight. By age 1, it has grown to about 70% of its adult weight; by age 3, the brain has grown to 90% of its adult weight. 4.128. In Mark Rosenzweig’s study of rats raised in enriched versus impoverished environments, the results suggest that environmental stimulation is important to healthy brain development. Answer: True Page: 92 The Neonatal Period 4.129. Suppose an infant is shown the same picture of a cow over and over again. Eventually the infant grows tired of looking at the picture. Now, the infant is shown a picture of an elephant, and she stares intently at this “new” picture. The procedure used in this demonstration would best be considered to be an example of classical conditioning. Answer: False Page: 94 Rationale: This situation is a good example of how habituation studies are performed. This is not an example of classical conditioning, since there is no unconditioned stimulus (reflex) that produces an unconditioned response. 4.130. The Newborn Behavioral Observation system is usually used to assess the health of a newborn child. Answer: True Page: 94 Physical and Motor Development 4.131. To say that a developmental process is heavily influenced by maturation means that it is heavily influenced by environmental circumstances. Answer: False Page: 95 Rationale: Maturational processes are biologically driven. Although environmental circumstances can influence maturational processes, the major force behind these changes is biological growth and development. 4.132. The harm done to babies who are subjected to shaken baby syndrome usually results from injury to the lungs and the kidneys. Answer: False Page: 96 Rationale: Shaken baby syndrome usually involves injury to the brain and the spinal cord, since the baby’s muscles are not yet well developed and even moderate shaking can produce injury to these organs. 4.133. Suppose you observe a baby focus his eyes on a rattle being held in front of him, and then he moves his arm and hand out and grasps the rattle, taking it from the person holding it. This series of actions is a good example of the visually guided reach. Answer: True Page: 97 4.134. By their 2nd birthday, typical toddlers will weigh about 8 times what they weighed at birth. Answer: False Page: 99 Rationale: At age 2, the typical child weighs about 4 times the birth weight. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.135. In developing nations around the world, malnutrition affects about 50% of children under the age of 5 but only about 10% of adults. Answer: False Page: 100 Rationale: According to studies by the United Nations Children’s Fund, nearly a third of these children experience stunting as the result of being malnourished, and the World Health Organization estimates that nearly 30% of people of all ages suffer from one or more forms of malnutrition. Better estimates are that about a third of the world’s population living in developing nations is subject to malnutrition. 4.136. In developing nations around the world, about 50 percent of the deaths of children under the age of 5 are associated with malnutrition. Answer: True Page: 100 4.137. Several world health organizations and the Surgeon General of the United States all recommend that women breastfeed their infants if possible. Answer: True Page: 101 4.138. In Western nations, most mothers begin weaning their babies at about 8 to 9 months of age. Answer: False Page: 102 Rationale: According to the text, the age at which infants in Western settings begin to be fed strained foods is about age 4 months, although some women do continue to breastfeed for a much longer period. Sensory and Perceptual Development 4.139. At birth, the newborn’s ability to see colors is equal to that of an adult. Answer: False Page: 104 Rationale: Although newborns can discriminate some bright colors at birth, by 2 months they can discriminate among most colors. Their color vision appears to be similar to adult color vision by about age 6 months. 4.140. As early as 2 weeks of age, infants show a preference for looking at a photo of their mother as opposed to looking at a photo of a stranger. Answer: True Page: 104 4.141. Research demonstrates that shortly after birth, newborns are able to imitate the facial expressions of adults, such as sticking out the tongue, pursing the lips, opening the mouth. Answer: True Page: 105 4.142. Although infants have no sense of taste and smell at birth, by age 2 months these senses are functioning at the adult level. Answer: False Page: 106 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: According to the text, the senses of taste and smell are fully operational at birth. 4.143. At birth, newborns are unable to feel pain, which makes procedures like circumcision painless to the child. Answer: False Page: 106 Rationale: Newborns do feel pain, causing some parents and physicians to question the wisdom of pain-inducing practices like circumcision. 4.144. By studying the results of experiments such as those that use the visual cliff apparatus, scientists generally conclude that children’s perceptual abilities develop somewhat in advance of their understanding of risks associated with certain actions. For example, a child typically develops the ability to perceive depth before she understands that crawling out on the “cliff” side of the visual cliff is dangerous. Answer: True Page: 106-107 Cognitive Development 4.145. According to Piaget, a schema is a mental structure much like a category. Answer: True Page: 107 4.146. Adaptation is much more effective if it consists of accommodation, rather than assimilation. Answer: False Page: 108 Rationale: Adaptation advances when there is a balance between assimilation and adaptation. 4.147. Suppose you wave an attractive rattle in front of an infant. The infant reaches out to grasp the rattle, but instead you “hide” it under a pillow sitting in front of the infant. Now the infant acts as if the rattle no longer exists. This example demonstrates the concept Piaget called object permanence. Answer: True Page: 109 4.148. According to Piaget, the process of imitation requires the infant to have achieved a symbolic level of representation. Answer: True Page: 110 4.149. Most researchers today believe that Piaget was too optimistic about the speed with which infants develop, since many developmental processes, such as object permanence and symbolic representation, appear to emerge at ages considerable later than Piaget prescribed. Answer: False Page: 110 Rationale: Most researchers today believe that children actually develop earlier than Piaget described. Language Development 4.150. All human languages have the same basic set of sounds, or phonemes, which are arranged in various ways to form words. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 111 Rationale: All languages have phonemes, which are the basic sounds of the language, but different languages contain somewhat different phonemes. 4.151. Before children can produce a complex sentence, they are likely to be able to understand complex sentences. Answer: True Page: 111-112 4.152. Although language development ultimately ends with the ability to produce and understand language, children raised in different cultures proceed through the stages of language development is widely varying sequences. For example, English-speaking children learn to coo before they babble, but children raised in China babble before they coo. Answer: False Page: 112-113 Rationale: Although culture can influence the pace of language development, the basic stages of language development are invariant. All children learn to coo before they learn to babble. 4.153. Infants who are deaf do not engage in the vocalizations referred to as babbling, making it very difficult for them to learn sign language. Answer: False Page: 113 Rationale: Deaf babies babble vocally the same way that hearing babies babble in the early months of life; however, vocal babbling usually lessens significantly beginning at about 6 months of age. 4.154. Research demonstrates that many of the first words children learn are quite consistent from one culture to another, even though languages children use differ. Answer: True Page: 113 4.155. When a child says something like “I have two foots” (rather than feet), this is called telegraphic speech. Answer: False Page: 114 Rationale: This is an example of overgeneralization of rules to specific examples. Telegraphic speech refers to the young child’s use of only a few words to convey a more complex meaning. An example would be: “Mommy do!” to indicate that the child would like his mother to help him put on his shoes. 4.156. In studies that compare children raised in middle-income homes with those raised in families on welfare, the typical result is that middle-income children learn language in the same way, but have a larger vocabulary. Answer: True Page: 116-117

Short Answer questions: The Developing Brain 4.157. Define the term “plasticity” as it refer to the development of the nervous system. Page: 92 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.158. Mark Rosenzweig conducted an experiment in which rats were raised in either an enriched or an impoverished environment. Briefly describe the results of this study. Page: 92 4.159. How does the number of synapses in the brain compare at age 2 or 3 to the number present in adulthood? What does this difference imply about how the brain develops? Page: 92 The Neonatal Period 4.160. Give an example of what is meant by the term “habituation” and suggest how researchers can use this type of early learning to study developmental abilities present in the newborn. Page: 93-94 4.161. Identify 4 different abilities that are assessed by the Newborn Behavioral Observation system and briefly describe each of these, indicating what they involve. Page: 94 Physical and Motor Development 4.162. Define the term “maturation” and give an example of a developmental process that is heavily influenced by maturation. Page: 95 4.163. Identify 2 changes that occur in body shape and proportion that occur between the ages of 4 months and 24 months of age. Page: 95-99 4.164. Why is it that babies are more likely to suffer muscle injuries than broken bones during their first year of life? Page: 96 4.165. Give an example of how an infant would use the visually guided reach and another example for how she would use the pincer grasp. Page: 97 4.166. Describe 3 motor behaviors that the typical 18-month-old child can do that a 12-month-old child most likely cannot do. Page: 97-99 4.167. What kind of malnutrition is probably most common in the United States today? Page: 99 4.168. Identify 3 advantages associated with breastfeeding as opposed to bottle-feeding. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 101-102 Sensory and Perceptual Development 4.169. What is the fundamental difference between sensation and perception? Page: 103 4.170. Describe 3 ways that the vision experienced by a 4-month-old differs from that of a newborn. Page: 103-106 4.171. Suppose you show a photograph of a human face to 3 infants: one is 2 months old, one is 5 months old, and the third is 8 months old. What part of the photograph would you expect each child to look at for the longest periods of time? Page: 104 4.172. Define the term “sensory integration” and give an example of what is meant by this term. Page: 106-107 Cognitive Development 4.173. Define the term “schema” (or “scheme”) as Piaget used this concept. Page: 107 4.174. Suppose a child has a well-developed schema for “cats.” Now you show the child a picture of a tiger. If the child assimilates the instance of the tiger into his schema for cats, how will he categorize the tiger? How would the child’s response differ if the process of accommodation was used? Page: 108 4.175. Give an example of behavior that would demonstrate that a child had not yet acquired the concept of object permanence. Page: 108-109 4.176. Give two example of the concept of symbolic representation, as Piaget used this term to describe cognitive development. Page: 110 Language Development 4.177. Give an example of receptive language and an example of productive language. Which usually develops first? Page: 111 4.178. Describe babbling, telegraphic speech, and cooing, and identify the order in which these three language abilities develop. Page: 112-113 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.179. Give an example of holophrastic speech and suggest what the existence of this type of speech suggests about how language and thought are related to each other. Page: 113 4.180. Give an example of an overextension in children’s speech and suggest what the existence of this type of speech suggests about language development. Page: 113-114 4.181. What is the “language explosion” and when does it typically occur? Page: 114 4.182. Give an example of how imitation and reinforcement play a role in language acquisition. Page: 114-115 4.183. Give an example that demonstrates that language acquisition is more complex than simple imitation and reinforcement would imply. Page: 115-116 4.184. What is the language acquisition device (LAD)? What evidence suggests that language learning is tied to brain development? Page: 115-116

Essay questions: The Developing Brain 4.185. Describe how the brain changes from birth to age 2 years. What changes occur in the size of the brain, in the number of neurons, and in the interconnections among neurons? Page: 91-92 4.186. Define the term “plasticity” as it related to brain development and suggest how this concept helps explain why young children often experience good recovery from even catastrophic brain injuries. Page: 92 4.187. Generalizing from studies with animals, how would you expect the brain of a 4-year-old raised in a middleincome home to differ from a 4-year-old raised in a war-torn, impoverished region of the world where attention from parents or caregivers was mostly absent? Page: 92 The Neonatal Period 4.188. Describe how the states of arousal experienced by a newborn change as the newborn develops over the first 6 months of life. Page: 93 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.189. Describe how the habituation method could be used to study whether an infant prefers to look at black-andwhite photographs or color photographs. Page: 94 4.190. Describe the Newborn Behavioral Observation system and describe how and why it might be used. Page: 94 Physical and Motor Development 4.191. Are maturational processes influenced by environmental circumstances? Provide an example to demonstrate your answer. Page: 95 4.192. Why is the visually guided reach often considered one of the developmental milestones achieved in the period of infancy? Why is this behavior important in a developmental sense? Page: 97 4.193. Karen Adolph and her colleagues investigated the capabilities of infants as they crawled or walked up and down “slopes” of various angles. Describe the differences these researchers identified in the behavior of 8 ½month-olds versus 14-month-olds, and suggest what these results tell us about how motor development may contribute to cognitive development. Page: 98 4.194. The text describes a study of children in Barbados who were healthy at birth but subjected to malnutrition in childhood. What two forces appeared to account for the poorer academic performance of these children in school when they were age 11? Page: 100-101 4.195. Why is breastfeeding typically the recommendation that most mothers receive with respect to feeding their newborn? Suggest two different reasons why mothers might prefer to bottle-feed their infant instead of breastfeed. Page: 101-102 Sensory and Perceptual Development 4.196. What types of visual stimuli do newborns seem to prefer? What does research on this topic suggest about the biological nature of attachment to caregivers? Page: 103-105 4.197. Describe the apparatus used in “visual cliff” experiments and describe the typical method used to study depth perception using this apparatus. Page: 105-106 4.198. Which of the senses appear to be especially well developed at birth? Which appear to be relatively underdeveloped? What might this suggest about the role that experience plays in the development of sensation and perception? Page: 105-106 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

4.199. Describe how you might conduct an experiment aimed at discovering whether or not infants are capable of sensory integration. What method would you use? What results would you expect? Page: 106-107 Cognitive Development 4.200. Suppose you observe a 2-year old sorting blocks into piles of different shapes – circles, squares, and triangles. Now you present the child with a group of blocks that have one side that looks like one shape (say, a circle) but the other side that looks like a different shape (say, a triangle). You observe to see what the child does with the new blocks. What would you expect the child to do if she engages in assimilation? What would she do if she accommodated her scheme to fit the new blocks? Page: 108 4.201. Give an example of what Piaget referred to as the development of “object permanence.” Comment on how the development of this concept might likely be tied to the development of memory capabilities. Page: 108-109 4.202. Describe how you might perform an experiment to determine if 10-month-old infants were capable of deferred imitation. Page: 109-110 4.203. Suggest the relationship between symbolic representation, deferred imitation, and the development of pretend play. Page: 109-110 4.204. In contrast to Piaget’s description of cognitive development in infancy and toddlerhood, describe 3 ways in which modern researchers might view development differently from Piaget. Page: 110-111 Language Development 4.205. What does research on the babbling of deaf babies tell researchers about the importance of biological and environmental forces in language development? Page: 112-113 4.206. Children’s early speech is sometimes characterized as being “economical” in that children use a few words to convey complex meaning. What implications might this suggest for researchers who are considering the development of thought and language? Page: 113-116 4.207. Children’s speech sometimes includes the use of overextension. Give an example of a language overextension and suggest what these types of speech errors tell researchers about the role that biology plays in language development. Page: 113-114

4.208. Suppose you were studying two groups of young children, one group raised in upper-middle-income homes where the mother did not work outside the home and one raised in poverty where child care was provided in a large, underfunded childcare center. Generalizing from research presented in the text, describe how you would expect these two groups of children to develop their language skills. Where would you expect to see differences between the groups? Where would you expect to see no differences? Page: 116-117

Name _______________________ Chapter 5 - Infancy and Toddlerhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. According to Erik Erikson, which of the following is the first critical developmental issue that is resolved in the first year of life? a. trust versus mistrust b. attachment versus misalignment c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. oral fixation versus anal fixation 2. Emotional signals, usually from a child’s parents, that influence the child's behavior are referred to as: a. social adaptation cues b. social referencing c. synchrony d. scaffolding 3. According to research presented in the text, younger fathers are more likely to behave like ____________ when they play with their children whereas older fathers are more likely to behave like ___________. a. traditional fathers; traditional mothers b. traditional mothers; traditional fathers c. traditional fathers; grandfathers d. older brothers; grandfathers Conceptual questions: 4. According to research presented in the text, which of the following ages is correctly paired with the developmental milestone associated with it? a. birth to 3 months: falling in love b. by 5 months: becoming calm, attentive, and interested in the world c. by 9 months: becoming a two-way communicator d. by 48 months: solving problems and forming an organized sense of self 5. According to the results of Mary Ainsworth’s studies, about what percent of children raised in the United States experience insecure attachment relationships with their caregivers? a. 5-10% b. 10-20% c. 30-40% d. 50-60% 6. According to the text, when a second child is born, parents can best help the older child adjust successfully by: a. not allowing the older child to interact much with the baby, “pretending” she doesn’t exist b. encouraging the older child to spend as much time as possible with the new baby, “pretending” to be his mother or father c. setting aside some time to be with only the older child, giving her all of their attention d. seldom allowing the older child time to be alone with the parents, so that she understands that the baby is a permanent member of the family 7. Which of the following patterns of parental discipline will be most likely to lead to a positive resolution of conflict between developing autonomy versus shame and doubt? a. discipline that is involves many limits on the child’s behavior b. discipline that places few limits on the child’s behavior c. discipline that places an intermediate amount of limits on the child’s behavior

d. There is no clear and consistent relationship between parental discipline practices and the development of autonomy. Applied questions: 8. Dr. Barnes decides to offer a course that will examine the patterns of how humans interact with others, focusing on issues related to an individual’s characteristic beliefs and attitudes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this course? a. Temperament b. Attachment c. Personality d. Individual Differences 9. Baby Chuck is picked up by a stranger. He immediately looks at his mother’s face, and judges his reaction based on whether she expresses pleasure or concern. Chuck’s reliance on cues from his mother in forming his own reaction is best considered an example of: a. stranger anxiety b. separation anxiety c. prosocial behavior d. social referencing 10. Robin’s parents are drug addicts and therefore are unresponsive to her needs. Although they provide enough food for her to eat, they pay little attention to her and she spends most of her time unattended and alone. When Robin goes to kindergarten, the teacher is concerned because she is so small and thin, and she has trouble eating the school lunch without vomiting. The most likely diagnosis for Robin’s condition is: a. anemia b. failure-to-thrive syndrome c. malnutrition d. stunting

Name _____________________________ Chapter 5 - Infancy and Toddlerhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to Freud, the first year of life is centered mostly on how the child’s ______ needs are satisfied: a. oral b. latent c. anal d. communication 2. According to research presented in the text, mothers are more likely to hold infants for , whereas fathers are more likely to hold infants for ______. a. play; caretaking b. caretaking; play c. social acceptance; self-gratification d. self-gratification; social acceptance 3. About ____ of mothers who work outside the home rely on family members to provide childcare for their children and about ____ of such mothers rely on nonfamily-based childcare services. a. 25%; 75% b. 75%; 25% c. 50%; 50% d. 10%; 90% Conceptual questions: 4. According to research presented in the text, which of the following ages is NOT correctly paired with the developmental milestone associated with it? a. birth to 3 months: becoming calm, attentive, and interested in the world b. by 5 months: falling in love c. by 9 months: becoming a two-way communicator d. by 14 to 18 months: developing a world of ideas 5. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment in which a strong emotional bond between a child and caregiver develops because of responsive caregiving is called: a. avoidant attachment b. secure attachment c. resistant attachment d. dependent attachment 6. Which of the following children would likely have the easiest time developing a healthy sense of autonomy? a. Jim, who is experiencing a high level of stranger anxiety b. Bob, who is very securely attached to his mother c. Rex, who is not securely attached to his mother d. Tom, who has learned to be mistrustful of his caregivers 7. The key word in the text’s distinction between child abuse and child neglect is: a. physical b. emotional c. intentional d. psychological Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Suppose you observe a father and his infant daughter in a laboratory and they are playing together. At some point, the father stops responding to his daughter and the experimenter records how the child reacts. The term for an experiment of this type is: a. a habituation experiment b. a still-face experiment c. a classical conditioning experiment d. a visual cliff experiment 9. At the daycare center, Maria sees another child crying so she breaks her own cookie in half and offers a piece to the crying child. Maria’s behavior is best considered as a demonstration of the principle of: a. social referencing b. imprinting c. synchrony d. prosocial behavior 10. Lacy says she “hates” her little brother because he gets all the attention and causes all the trouble. Lacy’s response is consistent with the basic idea behind the development of: a. autonomy b. empathy c. the discrepancy hypothesis d. sibling rivalry

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 5.1 1. a, p. 124 2. b, p. 131 3. a, p. 135 4. c, p. 122 5. c, p. 126 6. c, pp. 136-137 7. c, pp. 132, 134 8. c, p. 121 9. d, p. 131 10. b, p. 142 Quick Quiz 5.2 1. a, p. 124 2. b, p. 135 3. c, p. 138 4. d, p. 122 5. b, p. 126 6. b, p. 131 7. c, p. 141 8. b, p. 121 9. d, p. 132 10. d, p. 136

Chapter 5 Infancy and Toddlerhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Multiple Choice questions: The Foundations of Personality and Social Development 5.1. The characteristic beliefs, attitudes, and ways of interacting with others is referred to as one’s: a. temperament b. trust c. personality d. orientation Answer: c Page: 121 Factual Easy 5.2. Dr. Barnes decides to offer a course that will examine the patterns of how humans interact with others, focusing on issues related to an individual’s characteristic beliefs and attitudes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this course? a. Temperament b. Attachment c. Personality d. Individual Differences Answer: c Page: 121 Applied Moderate Rationale: Personality is defined in the text as “the charactersic beliefs, attitudes, and ways of interacting with others.” Thus, since this is the exact content of Dr. Barnes’s course, the title “Personality” would be the most accurate choice. 5.3. According to the text, the period defined as “Infancy and Toddlerhood” begins at birth and extends through age: a. 12 months b. 18 months c. 24 months d. 36 months Answer: c Page: 121 Factual Easy 5.4. During the first 2 years of life, children’s emotions become more: a. positive b. negative c. complex d. selfish Answer: c Page: 121 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy Rationale: As infants develop, their emotional states become more complex. Babies focus first on managing distress and comfort, then learn to exchange signals, sounds, and smiles with a responsive caregiver. Over the first year, basic emotions emerge, and in the second year socially oriented emotions emerge. 5.5. Another word for “emotional” is: a. affective b. personality-based c. temperamental d. unstable Answer: a Page: 121 Conceptual Easy Rationale: “Affective” means essentially the same thing as “emotional.” 5.6. Suppose you observe a father and his infant daughter in a laboratory and they are playing together. At some point, the father stops responding to his daughter and the experimenter records how the child reacts. The term for an experiment of this type is: a. a habituation experiment b. a still-face experiment c. a classical conditioning experiment d. a visual cliff experiment Answer: b Page: 121-122 Applied Moderate Rationale: The book describes a still-face experiment, in which parents were first asked to sit and play with their infants and then, after 3 minutes, to stop communicating with their babies by putting on a blank, still face. Babies first responded with surprise but their behavior soon began to deteriorate. This research demonstrated the importance of the reciprocal two-way parent-child communication system. 5.7. Suppose you watch a mother and her infant son playing “peek-a-boo.” Now the mother stops playing and breaks off all communication with the little boy, looking away and not responding to his actions. If this infant responds in a typical way, what will he most likely do? a. sit calmly, maintaining eye contact, and wait for the mother to “re-engage” with him b. become “happier” and more energetic in an attempt to win back the mother’s attention c. fall asleep d. look away and become upset Answer: d Page: 121-122 Applied Moderate Rationale: The book describes a still-face experiment, in which parents were first asked to sit and play with their infants and then, after 3 minutes, to stop communicating with their babies by putting on a blank, still face. Babies first responded with surprise but their behavior soon began to deteriorate. This example in this question is analogous to a still-face experiment. 5.8. According to research presented in the text, which of the following ages is correctly paired with the developmental milestone associated with it? a. birth to 3 months: falling in love b. by 5 months: becoming calm, attentive, and interested in the world c. by 9 months: becoming a two-way communicator Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. by 48 months: solving problems and forming an organized sense of self Answer: c Page: 122 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The milestone reached by 9 months is becoming a two-way communicator. Falling in love is the milestone reached by 5 months, becoming calm and attentive is the milestone reached by 3 months, and problem solving is the milestone reached by 14 to 18 months. 5.9. According to research presented in the text, which of the following ages is NOT correctly paired with the developmental milestone associated with it? a. birth to 3 months: becoming calm, attentive, and interested in the world b. by 5 months: falling in love c. by 9 months: becoming a two-way communicator d. by 14 to 18 months: developing a world of ideas Answer: d Page: 122 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Developing a world of ideas is the milestone reached by 24 to 30 months. The rest of the milestones are matched with the correct age range. 5.10. According to research presented in the text, which of the following developmental milestones occurs between birth and 3 months? a. building bridges between ideas b. falling in love c. being attentive and interested in the world d. solving problems and forming a sense of self Answer: c Page: 122 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Being calm, attentive, and interested in the world is the milestone reached by 3 months. The other milestones occur at later age periods. 5.11. The term developmentalists use to describe the characteristic way that infants interact with the world around them is: a. personality b. temperament c. affective engagement d. attachment Answer: b Page: 122 Factual Easy 5.12. All of the following are styles of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess EXCEPT: a. anxious b. easy c. difficult d. slow-to-warm-up

Answer: a Page: 123 Factual Moderate 5.13. Betty’s infant daughter cries often and is routinely in negative moods. She reacts to change with difficulty and slowness. According to research conducted by Thomas and Chess, this baby most likely has which of the following types of temperaments? a. anxious b. easy c. difficult d. slow-to-warm-up Answer: c Page: 123 Applied Moderate Rationale: 5.14. Robert’s infant daughter rarely expresses extremely negative moods. She adapts easily to change, new places, and new people. According to research conducted by Thomas and Chess, this baby most likely has which of the following types of temperaments? a. anxious b. easy c. difficult d. slow-to-warm-up Answer: b Page: 123 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Thomas and Chess, the easy baby adapts easily to new situations and usually has positive moods. Slow-to-warm-up babies react negatively to new people and situations initially but successfully adjust over a period of time and difficult babies react to change with difficulty and slowness. 5.15. Bianca’s infant daughter reacts negatively to new places and new people, but successfully adjusts after some time. According to research conducted by Thomas and Chess, this baby most likely has which of the following types of temperaments? a. anxious b. easy c. difficult d. slow-to-warm-up Answer: d Page: 123 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Thomas and Chess, the slow-to-warm-up baby reacts negatively to new people and situations initially but successfully adjusts over a period of time. Easy babies adapt easily and difficult babies react to change with difficulty and slowness. 5.16. Which of the following is NOT one of the broad dimensions of temperament, according to Mary Rothbart? a. extroversion b. effortful control c. slow-to-warm-up style d. negative affectivity Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 123 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The term “slow-to-warm-up” is a term in Thomas and Chess’s description of different styles of temperament, along with “easy” and “difficult” styles. Mary Rothbart does not discuss different types of temperamental styles, but rather focuses on the core dimensions of temperament, which include the degree to which individuals possess effortful control, negative affectivity, and extroversion. 5.17. Dr. Barker observes children and rates them on a scale according to how frustrated they get when they cannot get what they want, at how they react when they are overstimulated by too much activity in their environment, and how easily they are comforted by their parent when they are upset. The scale that Dr. Barker is using would best be considered a measure of which of Mary Rothbart’s basic dimensions of temperament? a. extroversion b. effortful control c. difficulty d. negative affectivity Answer: d Page: 123 Applied Difficult Rationale: These descriptors pertain to Rothbart’s dimension of negative affectivity. Difficulty is not one of Rothbart’s basic dimensions of temperament, but rather is a term used by Thomas and Chess to describe one of three basic styles of temperament. The Development of Trust 5.18. According to Erik Erikson, which of the following is the first critical developmental issue that is resolved in the first year of life? a. trust versus mistrust b. attachment versus misalignment c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. oral fixation versus anal fixation Answer: a Page: 124 Factual Easy 5.19. According to Sigmund Freud and others, which of the following activities seems to be especially important in establishing a sense of trust in early infancy? a. toilet training b. reciprocal smiling c. reciprocal communication d. feeding Answer: d Page: 124 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Researchers who study the development of trust often focus on how feeding fits into the overall pattern of nurturing. All theories of human development acknowledge the important early socialization associated with feeding. Foremost among these is Sigmund Freud’s view, which argued that the first year of life is characterized by a focus on oral stimulation that is associated most closely with the feeding rituals established by the mother. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5.20. According to Freud, the first year of life is centered mostly on how the child’s ______ needs are satisfied: a. oral b. latent c. anal d. communication Answer: a Page: 124 Factual Easy 5.21. Dr. Jamison argues that the most critical part of parenting during the first year depends on how the infant is fed. She argues that if the feeding ritual is disturbing to the infant in any way, the infant will develop a personality that focuses on oral habits, such as nail-biting and cigarette smoking. Dr. Jamison’s views are closest to those espoused by: a. Erik Erikson b. Mary Ainsworth c. John Bowlby d. Sigmund Freud Answer: d Page: 124 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: All theories of human development acknowledge the important early socialization associated with feeding. Sigmund Freud’s view, in particular, argues that the first year of life is characterized by a focus on oral stimulation that is associated most closely with the feeding rituals established by the mother. According to Freud, much of later personality development depends on how the child’s oral needs are gratified in this first year of life. 5.22. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the relationship between feeding and comforting behaviors and the development of trusting relationships in infancy? a. Cultural differences in feeding and comforting are quite wide, but children in all cultures can develop trusting relationships with parents. b. There are almost no differences among cultures in how competent adults feed and comfort infants, although differences in child-care techniques do emerge during the infant’s second year of life. c. In cultures in which children are weaned late and they are treated as helpless infants for an extended period of time, children are more likely to develop trusting relationships with adults. d. In cultures in which children are weaned early and they are expected to be independent at early ages, children are more likely to develop trusting relationships with adults. Answer: a Page: 124 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As the book notes, cultures differ dramatically in their customs regarding feeding and comforting. However, in all cultures, attachment and trusting relationships between infants and caregivers occur. The book notes that this is the case even within the seemingly cruel teasing atmosphere of Italian family culture. 5.23. The text describes a study in Italy in which mothers and other family members were observed as they cared for infants. In particular, the authors noted that Italian children were often teased by family members. The point of describing this study was that: a. teasing causes lasting harm to the positive emotional development of children b. teasing should be considered a form of child abuse c. children seem to develop normal trusting relationships with adults, even when they are teased, so long as they are well cared for in other ways Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. Italian mothers perform very few of the child-care duties assigned to mothers in the United States, and their children therefore grow up to be much more independent Answer: c Page: 124 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As the book notes, cultures differ dramatically in their customs regarding feeding and comforting. However, in all cultures, attachment and trusting relationships between infants and caregivers occur. The book notes that this is the case even within the seemingly cruel teasing atmosphere of Italian family culture. Healthy adjustment requires a balance in the development of trust (which allows infants to form secure relationships with others) and mistrust (which teaches them to protect themselves when conditions are threatening). 5.24. Which of the following is most likely to provide the most positive outcome for young children? a. when they experience almost no distrust in their early relationships with adults b. when they experience both trust and distrust in early relationships, but trust predominates c. when they experience both trust and distrust in early relationships, but distrust predominates d. when they experience an almost equal balance of trust and distrust in their early relationships with adults Answer: b Page: 125 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Healthy adjustment requires a balance in the development of trust (which allows infants to form secure relationships with others) and mistrust (which teaches them to protect themselves when conditions are threatening). Trust, however, must predominate in early relationships or the infant may have difficulty establishing successful relationships throughout life. Attachment 5.25. Dr. Arquette is concerned that an infant he is treating does not appear to have established any emotional bonds between herself and the adults who care for her. She shows no affection toward her mother, she stiffens up whenever her mother picks her up or sings to her, and she does not show any interest in looking at her mother’s face. Dr. Arquette’s concern relates to this little girl’s development of: a. personality b. emotionality c. temperament d. attachment Answer: d Page: 125 Applied Easy Rationale: Attachment is defined as the emotional bond between infants and their parents or other primary caregivers. 5.26. At about what age would you expect to first observe attachment relationships between infants and their caregivers? a. about age 1-2 months b. about age 3-4 months c. about age 6-7 months d. about age 8-9 months Answer: d Page: 125 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 5.27. Rex notices that his daughter has started to protest when she is picked up by a stranger and that she only can be comforted by his taking her and holding her himself. About what age would you expect Rex’s daughter to be, given this recent development of attachment to her father? a. age 2 months b. age 5 months c. age 9 months d. age 19 months Answer: c Page: 125 Applied Difficult Rationale: Attachment with primary caregivers typically develops at about 8 to 9 months of age. 5.28. Suppose you read about a research study in which babies are taken by their mothers to a waiting room, where they are met by a stranger. After the baby has begun to play with some toys on the floor, the mother leaves the room, and the stranger observes how the baby responds. This situation describes the research technique called: a. the strange-situation test b. the still-face test c. the loneliness scenario d. the attachment dilemma Answer: a Page: 126 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: This procedure basically describes Ainsworth’s strange-situation test, which is often used to assess the quality of infant attachment to the primary caregiver. 5.29. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment in which a strong emotional bond between a child and caregiver develops because of responsive caregiving is called: a. avoidant attachment b. secure attachment c. resistant attachment d. dependent attachment Answer: b Page: 126 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Using the strange-situation test, Ainsworth found two basic types of attachment. Between 60 and 70% of U.S. middle-class babies displayed the first type of attachment, which is called secure attachment, where a strong emotional bond between a child and a caregiver develops because of responsive caregiving. The remaining babies—about 30 to 40%—displayed insecure attachment, which results from inconsistent or unresponsive caregiving. 5.30. According to the results of Mary Ainsworth’s studies, about what percent of children raised in the United States experience secure attachment relationships with their caregivers? a. 20-30% b. 40-50% c. 60-70% d. 80-90% Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 126 Factual Moderate 5.31. According to the results of Mary Ainsworth’s studies, about what percent of children raised in the United States experience insecure attachment relationships with their caregivers? a. 5-10% b. 10-20% c. 30-40% d. 50-60% Answer: c Page: 126 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Using the strange-situation test, Ainsworth found two basic types of attachment. Between 60 and 70% of U.S. middle-class babies displayed the first type of attachment, which is called secure attachment, where a strong emotional bond between a child and a caregiver develops because of responsive caregiving. The remaining babies—about 30 to 40%—displayed insecure attachment, which results from inconsistent or unresponsive caregiving. 5.32. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment which typically results from inconsistent or unresponsive caregiving is called: a. difficult attachment b. insecure attachment c. anxious attachment d. dependent attachment Answer: b Page: 126 Factual Moderate 5.33. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment in which a child becomes angry when the mother leaves and avoids her when she returns is called: a. avoidant attachment b. secure attachment c. resistant attachment d. dependent attachment Answer: c Page: 126-127 Factual Moderate 5.34. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment in which a child is ambivalent toward the mother is called: a. avoidant attachment b. secure attachment c. resistant attachment d. dependent attachment Answer: a Page: 127 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5.35. According to the views of Mary Ainsworth, the form of attachment in which a child displays contradictory behavior towards the mother is called: a. avoidant attachment b. secure attachment c. resistant attachment d. disorganized/disoriented attachment Answer: d Page: 127 Factual Moderate 5.36. In comparison to children who do not form secure attachments in infancy, you would expect that children who are securely attached would be more likely to: a. experience difficulty with social relationships with peers in kindergarten b. engage in routine play rather than imaginative play c. work less hard at learning new skills d. have more highly developed social skills for interacting with adults Answer: d Page: 127 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research cited in the text found that children who have experienced secure attachment during infancy exhibit more highly developed social skills in interacting with adults and peers. 5.37. Insecure attachment appear to put a child at higher risk for all of the following EXCEPT: a. hyperactivity b. chronic stress reactions c. problems with their social behaviors d. diabetes Answer: d Page: 127 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Research studies cited in the text found that insecurely attached children are more likely to be hyperactive, have chronic stress reactions, and to have behavioral problems. 5.38. The formation of a bond between some newborn animals (especially birds) and their mothers is called: a. flocking b. connecting c. synchrony d. imprinting Answer: d Page: 128 Factual Moderate 5.39. Newly hatched goslings will treat the first moving thing they see upon hatching as their mother. This is a striking example of: a. imprinting b. disorganized attachment c. synchrony Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. social ecology Answer: a Page: 128 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Imprinting is the formation of a bond between some newborn animals (especially birds) and their mothers that appears to be present at birth and is therefore viewed as the result of biological programming rather than learning. In now-classic research, Konrad Lorenz noted that newly hatched goslings, which normally imprint on their mothers, would imprint on any moving object— the family dog or even Lorenz himself—if that object, rather than the mother goose, were present when the goslings hatched. 5.40. Harry Harlow studied the early development of infant monkeys who were placed in cages with two surrogate mothers, one made of metal that was a milk source and one that had no milk but was made of soft terrycloth. Harlow found that that these infant monkeys developed attachments with: a. the wire surrogate with the milk supply b. the terrycloth surrogate without the milk supply c. neither of these surrogate mothers d. both of these surrogate mothers Answer: b Page: 128 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The results of Harlow’s study were that the infant monkeys showed a distinct preference for the surrogate made of terrycloth. They spent more time clinging and vocalizing to it, and they ran to it when they were frightened. Apparently, attachment requires more from the mother than mere physical presence or the provision of food. 5.41. Harry Harlow's research on the development of attachment in monkeys with surrogate mothers demonstrated the importance of which of the following factors? a. contact comfort b. eye contact c. drive-reduction functions d. hunger and feeding Answer: a Page: 128 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The results of Harlow’s study were that infant monkeys showed a distinct preference for a surrogate made of terrycloth over a wire surrogate that provided a milk supply. They spent more time clinging and vocalizing to it, and they ran to it when they were frightened. Apparently, attachment requires more from the mother than mere physical presence or the provision of food -- it requires a quality mother-infant bond and the comfort that comes from physical contact. 5.42. In Harry Harlow’s early work with infant monkeys, he noticed that when they were raised with adequate food but without any attention from or contact with their mothers or other adult monkeys, they usually: a. developed maladapted behaviors and sometimes died b. lost all their fur c. spent all of their time playing with other infant monkeys d. failed to learn to walk upright Answer: a Page: 128 Conceptual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Harry Harlow (1959) noted that when monkeys in his lab were raised without their mothers, they often developed maladapted behaviors. They were easily frightened, irritable, and reluctant to eat or play, despite the fact that they had a nutritious diet and were otherwise well cared for. Some monkeys even died. Obviously, these baby monkeys needed something more than regular feeding to thrive and develop. 5.43. According to John Bowlby, which of the following theories provides the best explanation for the development of attachment? a. evolutionary theory b. psychoanalytic theory c. drive-reduction theory d. behavioral theory, and especially reinforcement theory Answer: a Page: 128-129 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Bowlby takes an evolutionary perspective in arguing that biologically preprogrammed behaviors, which serve to enhance the prospect of infant survival and normal development, occur in both the infant and the caregiver. As development proceeds, early biologically programmed behaviors are displayed and reinforced. 5.44. Molly and her infant son often engage each other in a “love-stare” in which each looks and smiles at the other for extended periods of time. The word that best describes this back-and-forth relationship would be: a. social referencing b. synchrony c. imprinting d, empathy Answer: b Page: 128-129 Applied Moderate Rationale: Synchrony is defined as the back-and-forth interactions between an infant and a caregiver. 5.45. Which of the following phrases best captures the essence of what is meant by the term synchrony? a. two-way b. kind c. generous d. evolutionary Answer: a Page: 128-129 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Synchrony is defined as the back-and-forth (that is, two-way) interactions between an infant and a caregiver. 5.46. Suppose you study two mothers who have new babies but who have different attitudes about how to care for a crying baby. Ruthie believes that every time her baby cries, she should be picked up and comforted. Glenda believes that picking up a crying baby will reinforce the crying and the child will become harder to care for. Research on this topic suggests that whose child is likely to cry less at age 1 year? a. Ruthie’s baby will probably cry less, due to a stronger development of trust and attachment. b. Glenda’s baby will probably cry less, due to a stronger development of reality and responsibility. c. Glenda’s baby will probably cry less, because she will learn that crying does not lead to reward. d. Ruthie’s and Glenda’s babies will probably cry about the same amount, regardless of how their mothers attend to their crying.

Answer: a Page: 129 Applied Difficult Rationale: Research has shown that, contrary to what reinforcement theory would predict, mothers who quickly and consistently respond to their infants’ crying over the first few months are more likely to have infants who cry less by the end of the first year. 5.47. According to Erik Erikson, securely attached infants are able to develop: a. initiative b. independence c. self-confidence d. trust Answer: d Page: 130 Factual Easy Separating from the Caregiver 5.48. Little Susie has been a very easy baby to love, since she smiles at everyone who holds her and engages them with eye contact. Recently, however, Susie has become anxious when anyone other than her mother or father hold her, and she wails whenever she is picked up by a stranger. Based on a knowledge of child development, your best guess is that Susie is about how old: a. 4 months old b. 7 months old c. 13 months old d. 22 months old Answer: b Page: 130 Applied Difficult Rationale: Susie’s change in behavior most likely results from the development of stranger anxiety or separation anxiety, a normal developmental change that occurs in all normal children. Stranger anxiety begins to develop at about 7 months of age. 5.49. Stranger anxiety is tied most closely to: a. being dropped by a caregiver and developing a phobia about security b. the newly developed ability to distinguish between caregivers and strangers c. child abuse, especially when it results from the father’s or step-father’s behavior d. growing up in an unresponsive environment in which basic needs are sometimes not met Answer: b Page: 130 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Most developmental psychologists see stranger and separation anxiety as being closely tied to the infant’s cognitive development. As cognitive processes mature, infants develop schemas for what is familiar, and they notice anything that is new and strange. Once such schemas develop, infants can distinguish caregivers from strangers, and they often become keenly aware when the primary caregiver is absent. 5.50. The discrepancy hypothesis explains: a. attachment b. synchrony Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. social referencing d. stranger and separation anxiety Answer: d Page: 131 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the discrepancy hypothesis, separation anxiety results when infants become capable of detecting departures from the known or the expected. 5.51. Baby Chuck is picked up by a stranger. He immediately looks at his mother’s face, and judges his reaction based on whether she expresses pleasure or concern. Chuck’s reliance on cues from his mother in forming his own reaction is best considered an example of: a. stranger anxiety b. separation anxiety c. prosocial behavior d. social referencing Answer: d Page: 131 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social referencing refers to the subtle emotional signals, usually from the parent, that influence the infant’s behavior. 5.52. Cultural values are transmitted from parents to children through many processes. Which of the following concepts is most closely tied to this cultural transmission across the generations? a. development of shame and doubt b. social referencing c. stranger anxiety d. separation anxiety Answer: b Page: 131 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Social referencing refers to the subtle emotional signals, usually from the parent, that influence the infant’s behavior, and is thus a cultural phenomenon. The other choices refer to maturational processes. 5.53. Diana's mother greets a stranger with a smiling face and a cheery "Hello." Consequently, Diana is more positive toward the stranger. The term that best describes this situation is: a. synchrony b. social adaptation c. social referencing d. guided participation Answer: c Page: 131 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social referencing refers to the subtle emotional signals, usually from the parent, that influence the infant’s behavior, and is thus a cultural phenomenon. 5.54. Emotional signals, usually from a child’s parents, that influence the child's behavior are referred to as: a. social adaptation cues b. social referencing Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. synchrony d. scaffolding Answer: b Page: 131 Factual Easy 5.55. A toddler bumps his head on a table and then looks at the mother’s reaction before getting upset. This example best demonstrates the principle of: a. social referencing b. autonomy c. overdependence d. prosocial behavior Answer: a Page: 131 Applied Difficult Rationale: Social referencing refers to the subtle emotional signals, usually from the parent, that influence the infant’s behavior, and is thus a cultural phenomenon. 5.56. Studies of the !Kung San culture described in the text showed that parents in this culture pay a great deal of attention to their infants’ sharing of objects, but pay very little attention to their infants’ exploration of objects. This study is cited to demonstrate the point that: a. synchrony develops naturally in every culture b. collectivist cultures emphasize the development of sharing over self-oriented behaviors c. attachment is significantly influenced by how children are punished and rewarded d. the development of autonomy occurs earlier in collectivist cultures Answer: b Page: 131 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: For the !Kung San, sharing is highly valued (collectivist culture). When cultural anthropologists looked at mothers and their 10- to 12-month-old infants, they were surprised to find that, in contrast to many U.S. parents (individualistic culture), the !Kung San parents seemed to pay no attention to the infant’s exploration of objects and paid close attention to the sharing of objects, reflecting their collectivist cultural values. 5.57. Erik Erikson believed that the second critical developmental challenge experienced by toddlers centers on the development of: a. autonomy vs. shame and doubt b. trust vs. mistrust c. inferiority vs. superiority d. integrity vs. despair Answer: a Page: 131 Factual Easy 5.58. A mother lets her toddler pick out which shirt he wants to wear to the playground, rather than insisting that he wear a particular shirt she chooses for him. This type of behavior encourages the development of: a. empathy b. autonomy c. narcissism Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. shame and doubt Answer: b Page: 131 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Although they continue to rely on their caregivers for emotional support, toddlers in their second year begin to reach out on their own in their quest for autonomy— their need to be independent and separate from their caregivers. 5.59. When 2-year-old Shania says to her father, “Me do it!” she is expressing the sense of which of the following developmental processes? a. development of stranger anxiety b. development of trust c. development of mistrust d. development of autonomy Answer: d Page: 131 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although they continue to rely on their caregivers for emotional support, toddlers in their second year begin to reach out on their own in their quest for autonomy— their need to be independent and separate from their caregivers. 5.60. According to Erik Erikson’s view of child development, which of the following children would most likely have recently resolved their initial developmental conflict between autonomy and shame and doubt: a. Alex, who is 18 months old b. Julia, who is 2 ½ years old c. Marc, who just had his 4th birthday d. Devon, who is age 6 Answer: b Page: 131 Applied Easy Rationale: Although they continue to rely on their caregivers for emotional support, toddlers in their second year begin to reach out on their own in their quest for autonomy— their need to be independent and separate from their caregivers. This pattern of separating from one’s caregivers is known as Erikson’s stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt, which is resolved in the second and third years of a child’s life. 5.61. Which of the following children would likely have the easiest time developing a healthy sense of autonomy? a. Jim, who is experiencing a high level of stranger anxiety b. Bob, who is very securely attached to his mother c. Rex, who is not securely attached to his mother d. Tom, who has learned to be mistrustful of his caregivers Answer: b Page: 131 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, children who have developed a trusting relationship with their caregivers during the first year of life, thereby developing a healthy autonomy from their caregivers, are better prepared to take the first steps toward independence than those who are insecurely attached. Toddlers who have failed to form secure attachments, however, are likely to have a more difficult time.

5.62. According to Freud, if toilet training is begun too early or is too strict, the child is at greater risk for developing: a. an Oedipal complex b. phobias c. an anal fixation d. an introverted personality Answer: c Page: 132 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Freud believed that toilet training that was begun too early or that was too strict could produce an anal fixation that would be carried forward in development, interfering with normal development later in life. Similarly, a too lax approach to toilet training could cause other problems to develop. 5.63. Two-year-old Eleanor helped to put all the toys away after playing at a friend’s house. This behavior is a good example of the concept called: a. reciprocity b. deferred imitation c. synchrony d. prosocial behavior Answer: d Page: 132 Applied Moderate Rationale: Prosocial behaviors are helping, sharing, or cooperative actions that are intended to benefit others. 5.64. At the daycare center, Maria sees another child crying so she breaks her own cookie in half and offers a piece to the crying child. Maria’s behavior is best considered as a demonstration of the principle of: a. social referencing b. imprinting c. synchrony d. prosocial behavior Answer: d Page: 132 Applied Moderate Rationale: Prosocial behaviors are helping, sharing, or cooperative actions that are intended to benefit others. 5.65. Prosocial behaviors are behaviors that are intended to: a. benefit others b. gain attention from caregivers c. gain positive rewards from caregivers d. teach children the rules the define a particular culture Answer: a Page: 132 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Prosocial behaviors are defined as helping, sharing, or cooperative actions that are intended to benefit others. 5.66. The ability to understand how another person is feeling and what another person is thinking is the core concept involved in: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. synchrony b. empathy c. autonomy d. social referencing Answer: b Page: 132-133 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Empathy is defined by the textbook as the ability to understand another’s feelings and perspective. 5.67. When a toddler grabs a toy away from another child and says, “Mine!” this most clearly demonstrates the development of: a. separation anxiety b. mistrust c. shame and doubt d. self Answer: d Page: 133 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Reflective of their growing self-awareness, by the end of the second year, children’s language is filled with references to themselves. The words me and mine take on new significance, and the concept of ownership is clearly and strongly acted out. 5.68. Suppose you observe a baby sitting in front of a mirror. You now place a dot of rouge on the baby’s nose. You see the baby look at the mirror, and then he crawls around the mirror to find the baby on the other side. Your best guess is that this baby is about how old? a. about 6 months of age b. about 12 months of age c. about 18 months of age d. 24 months of age Answer: b Page: 133 Applied Easy Rationale: Previous research has shown that between 8 and 16 months of age, babies will sometimes crawl around the mirror to try to find the other baby. If a researcher puts a dot of red rouge on the baby’s nose, the baby notices it but points to the nose in the mirror and not to his or her own nose. 5.69. Suppose you observe a baby sitting in front of a mirror. You now place a dot of rouge on the baby’s nose. You see the baby look at the mirror, and then reach out to the touch the nose of the baby in the mirror. Your best guess is that this baby is about how old? a. about 6 months of age b. about 12 months of age c. about 18 months of age d. 24 months of age Answer: b Page: 133 Applied Easy

Rationale: Previous research has shown that between 8 and 16 months of age, babies will sometimes crawl around the mirror to try to find the other baby. If a researcher puts a dot of red rouge on the baby’s nose, the baby notices it but points to the nose in the mirror and not to his or her own nose. 5.70. Suppose you observe a baby sitting in front of a mirror. You now place a dot of rouge on the baby’s nose. You see the baby look at the mirror, and then touch her own nose to feel why it is red. Your best guess is that this baby is about how old? a. about 6 months of age b. about 12 months of age c. about 18 months of age d. 36 months of age Answer: c Page: 133 Applied Easy Rationale: Previous research has shown that at about 18 months of age, babies recognize that the image in the mirror is their own image. If the researcher now puts a dot of red rouge on the toddler’s nose, there is a classic reaction. The toddler points to her own nose, turns her head away from the mirror, drops her eyes, smiles, and looks embarrassed. 5.71. Suppose you observe a baby sitting in front of a mirror. You now place a dot of rouge on the baby’s nose. You see the baby look at the mirror, but rather than focusing on the red nose, the baby appears to be looking at many aspects of her appearance. In fact, she begins to sing and do hand movements to her favorite song as if she is performing for her own enjoyment. Your best guess is that this baby is about how old? a. about 6 months of age b. about 12 months of age c. about 18 months of age d. 36 months of age Answer: d Page: 133 Applied Easy Rationale: By 2 years of age, self-knowledge expands to include awareness of activities as well as appearance. A 2year-old who preens in front of a mirror is engaging in a self-admiring activity. 5.72. At about age 2, which words begin to take on especially important significance to toddlers? a. “me” and “mine” b. “you” and “yours” c. “yes” and “no” d. “open” and “shut” Answer: a Page: 133 Factual Easy 5.73. Patricia’s mother notices that Patricia recently has become very selfish with her toys, and uses the words “me” and “mine” far more frequently than in the past. Patricia is probably about how old? a. 12 months old b. 15 months old c. 18 months old d. 24 months old Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 133 Applied Moderate Rationale: Reflective of their growing self-awareness, by the end of the second year, children’s language is filled with references to themselves. The words me and mine take on new significance, and the concept of ownership is clearly and strongly acted out. 5.74. Which of the following patterns of parental discipline will be most likely to lead to a positive resolution of conflict between developing autonomy versus shame and doubt? a. discipline that is involves many limits on the child’s behavior b. discipline that places few limits on the child’s behavior c. discipline that places an intermediate amount of limits on the child’s behavior d. There is no clear and consistent relationship between parental discipline practices and the development of autonomy. Answer: c Page 132, 134 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Children who have a strong attachment relationship and whose needs are met through loving interaction with an adult are neither spoiled by attention nor frightened or threatened by reasonable limits. They are stronger and more confident because they have a secure base from which to venture forth into independent activities. The Family System: A Broader Context 5.75. According to the text, which of the following is the most accurate statement about typical fathers in contemporary Western cultures? a. Fathers are playing increasingly smaller roles in child care, as more children are being cared for in daycare environments. b. Fathers can be as responsive to their infant’s cues as can mothers. c. Fathers are as loving as mothers, but infants have a harder time forming attachments to their fathers regardless of their father’s parenting style. d. Infants generally experience considerably more separation anxiety when they are cared for by their fathers. Answer: b Page: 134 Factual Moderate 5.76. According to research presented in the text, mothers are more likely to hold infants for , whereas fathers are more likely to hold infants for ______. a. play; caretaking b. caretaking; play c. social acceptance; self-gratification d. self-gratification; social acceptance Answer: b Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.77. Generalizing from research presented in the text comparing fathers to mothers, when fathers in contemporary Western cultures hold infants, it is most often for what purpose: a. feeding b. playing Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. changing diapers d. bathing Answer: b Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.78. In comparison to mothers’ play with children, fathers’ play is _______ conventional and __________ physical. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: c Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.79. According to the text, when a father is the sole caretaker, his parenting role become more: a. authoritarian b. permissive c. like that of a grandparent d. like that of a mother Answer: d Page: 135 Factual Easy 5.80. According to research presented in the text, younger fathers are more likely to behave like ____________ when they play with their children, whereas older fathers are more likely to behave like ___________. a. traditional fathers; traditional mothers b. traditional mothers; traditional fathers c. traditional fathers; grandfathers d. older brothers; grandfathers Answer: a Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.81. Frank had two children when he was in his early 20s. Now, in his early 50s, he remarries and has another child. In comparison to how he interacted with his first two children, research suggests he would respond to his new baby more like: a. an older brother b. a grandfather c. an uncle d. a traditional mother Answer: d Page: 135 Applied Difficult

Rationale: Recent research suggests that older fathers are more likely to behave like traditional mothers when playing with their children, whereas younger fathers are more likely to conform to the traditional father role. 5.82. Suppose that Jim has a 2-year-child when his wife dies, leaving Jim to raise the child as a single father. In comparison to his former relationship with his child, his future role will likely become more like that of: a. a grandfather b. a grandmother c. a traditional mother d. an older brother Answer: c Page: 135 Applied Difficult Rationale: Research has found that when the father is the primary or sole caregiver of the infant or toddler he acts more like a traditional mother. 5.83. According to the text, as children grow older, father-child interactions typically become: a. less frequent b. more frequent c. less satisfying for the father, but more satisfying for the child d. more satisfying for the father, but less satisfying for the child Answer: b Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.84. John wants to be closely involved in his children’s lives, knowing that his involvement is likely to have a positive impact in reducing __________ problems of his sons and in reducing _________ problems of his daughters. a. behavioral; behavioral b. psychological; psychological c. psychological; behavioral d. behavioral; psychological Answer: d Page: 136 Applied Moderate Rationale: Research has found that father involvement seems to reduce the occurrence of behavioral problems in boys and of psychological problems in young women, while enhancing the cognitive development for children of both genders. 5.85. Strife and competition among children in the same family for parental attention is referred to as: a. autonomy b. antisocial behavior c. sibling rivalry d. the discrepancy hypothesis Answer: c Page: 136 Factual Easy 5.86. Lacy says she “hates” her little brother because he gets all the attention and causes all the trouble. Lacy’s response is consistent with the basic idea behind the development of: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. autonomy b. empathy c. the discrepancy hypothesis d. sibling rivalry Answer: d Page: 136 Applied Easy Rationale: The textbook defines sibling rivalry as strife and competition between siblings, such as for parental attention. 5.87. Marcus wears himself out trying to out-compete his older brother, who is a talented athlete. Marcus’s behavior is best understood as an example of: a. sibling rivalry b. imprinting c. synchrony d. the discrepancy hypothesis Answer: a Page: 136 Applied Easy Rationale: The textbook defines sibling rivalry as strife and competition between siblings, such as for parental attention. 5.88. According to the text, when a second child is born, parents can best help the older child adjust successfully by: a. not allowing the older child to interact much with the baby, “pretending” she doesn’t exist b. encouraging the older child to spend as much time as possible with the new baby, “pretending” to be his mother or father c. setting aside some time to be with only the older child, giving her all of their attention d. seldom allowing the older child time to be alone with the parents, so that she understands that the baby is a permanent member of the family Answer: c Page: 136-137 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In general, if parents set aside special time for the first child after the birth of a second child, it is more likely that the firstborn child will feel special rather than disregarded. 5.89. According to statistics cited in the text, today in the United States about what percent of children under the age of 18 live in single-parent homes? a. 33% b. 50% c. 67% d. 80% Answer: a Page: 137 Factual Easy 5.90. The term “social ecology of child care” refers to which of the following? a. the overall environment in which child care occurs b. the government’s role in providing child care through federally funded programs Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. the degree to which child care arrangements are directed toward the development of “social” skills rather than “cognitive” skills d. the goal of providing the best quality of child care for the lowest possible cost Answer: a Page: 137 Factual Moderate 5.91. In 2005, the percentage of women with children under age 3 who were in the U. S. workforce was closest to that in which of the following previous years? a. 1955 b. 1975 c. 1985 d. 1995 Answer: d Page: 137 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Figure 5-1 notes that the percentage of women with children under age 3 who were in the workforce in 1975 was 34.5%, in 1985 was 49.5%, in 1995 was 58.7%, and in 2005 was 58.9%. Although the text does not specifically cite statistics from 1955, it does note that the percentage of women with young children who also are in the labor force has been increasing throughout the past several decades. 5.92. According to research about child care in Sweden presented in the text, about what percent of mothers with children under school age work part time or full time outside the home? a. 30% b. 55% c. 70% d. 85% Answer: d Page: 137 Factual Moderate 5.93. According to research about child care in Sweden presented in the text, the majority of the need for child care for Swedish children is met by: a. paying mothers to stay at home until the child is ready to attend public schools b. extended families c. private for-profit businesses which are paid for through employment taxes d. a publicly funded child-care system Answer: d Page: 137 Factual Moderate 5.94. In the United States today, about what percent of mothers of infants and toddlers work outside of the home: a. 35-40% b. 45-50% c. 60% d. 75% Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 139 Factual Moderate 5.95. The percentage of U.S. mothers with children under 3 years who work outside the home today is about: a. 33% b. 50% c. 60% d. 85% Answer: c Page: 139 Factual Moderate 5.96. In comparison with child care in Sweden, child care in the United States is: a. of much higher quality b. much cheaper c. less likely to be supported by government funding d. much more likely to be provided in the child’s home Answer: c Page: 137-138 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In Sweden there is a publicly funded child-care system in which every child is guaranteed a place in preschool at age 18 months; all centers are licensed and regulated. There is also a system of open preschools where mothers or day mothers may take children to play with other children and receive advice and support. By comparison, parents in the United States receive little public support. Infants and Toddlers With Special Needs 5.97. Infants who are born with no sight have a particularly hard time with which of the following developmental tasks? a. developing trust b. establishing a synchronous relationship with caregivers c. developing autonomy d. developing empathy Answer: b Page: 140 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: A problem that can develop with an infant with visual impairments is that the caregiver may feel the infant is unresponsive. For example, blind infants usually do not develop a selective, responsive smile as early as sighted children, they do not smile as often or as ecstatically, and they have fewer facial expressions. Despite this, it is essential that the parents and the unseeing child establish a synchronous communication system that compensates for the child’s disability. 5.98. According to the text, parents of children who cannot see are encouraged to: a. sing and talk to their child as much as possible b. try to establish a “quiet” environment for the child so there is less chance of overstimulation c. not look at their child, in order to encourage synchrony d. place their child in a special school for children with visual impairments at as early an age as possible Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 140 Factual Easy 5.99. According to the text, one of the things that parents of a child who cannot hear should watch for and encourage is: a. signs of early vocalizations, such as cooing and babbling b. walking at an early age c. a tendency to lie on the back, rather than the stomach, so the child can see more of the surroundings d. early use of hand signals as a means of communication Answer: d Page: 140 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Training parents and caregivers to watch for and interpret hand signals of children who cannot hear greatly enhances parent–child interaction, attachment formation, and subsequent socialization, as do other homebased interventions with parents and caregivers. 5.100. If a child’s hearing impairment is not detected until about age 1, the first indication is often noticed when the child: a. begins to use hand gestures b. begins to rock back and forth while sitting up c. frequently seems startled when people approach d. displays a strong interest in toys that vibrate Answer: c Page: 140 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As the textbook notes, the first indications of hearing impairment in 1-year-olds oftentimes appears to be their disobedience, or “startle” reactions when people approach, the child simply does not hear them coming. 5.101. If a severe hearing impairment is not diagnosed until a child is about 2 years of age, what is most likely to be the first sign of this disability? a. seeming disobedience b. unresponsiveness to touch c. slurred speech d. speaking too loudly Answer: a Page: 140 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The first signs of hearing impairment in 2-year-olds often include temper tantrums and frequent disobedience owing to failure to hear what the parents want. This may be accompanied by the toddler’s overall failure to develop normal expectations about the world. 5.102. The unintentional failure of a caregiver to respond to or care for a child is one definition of: a. child abuse b. child neglect c. impaired parenting d. parental abnormality Answer: b Page: 141 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Easy 5.103. The key word in the text’s distinction between child abuse and child neglect is: a. physical b. emotional c. intentional d. psychological Answer: c Page: 141 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Child abuse involves physical, emotional, and psychological harm, but these can also be the result of child neglect. Thus, the thing that distinguishes child abuse from child neglect is that it is intentional, rather than the result of unintentional mistreatment of a child. 5.104. The primary reason that child abuse or neglect is especially damaging when it occurs during the first year of life is that it so often interferes with which of the following developmental events? a. development of autonomy b. development of shame c. development of empathy d. development of attachment Answer: d Page: 141 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Child neglect, which is often unintentional, involves the failure of a caregiver to respond to or care for a child. As the book notes, early infant–caregiver attachment is critical to later development and child abuse and neglect interfere with attachment. 5.105. Two-year-old Tommy is referred to a pediatrician because he is small and scrawny and he has trouble digesting food. If Tommy’s condition is not the result of malnutrition but rather is linked to child neglect, the most likely diagnosis is: a. kwashiorkor b. stunting c. anemia d. failure-to-thrive syndrome Answer: d Page: 142 Applied Easy Rationale: In failure-to-thrive syndrome, infants are small for their age and emaciated, they appear sick, and they are unable to digest food properly. Failure-to-thrive can occur as a result of malnutrition, which can be associated with other health concerns. In many cases, however, it appears to be linked to a lack of affection and attention, including poor-quality or nonexistent attachment. 5.106. Robin’s parents are drug addicts and therefore are unresponsive to her needs. Although they provide enough food for her to eat, they pay little attention to her and she spends most of her time unattended and alone. When Robin goes to kindergarten, the teacher is concerned because she is so small and thin, and she has trouble eating the school lunch without vomiting. The most likely diagnosis for Robin’s condition is: a. anemia b. failure-to-thrive syndrome c. malnutrition Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. stunting Answer: b Page: 142 Applied Moderate Rationale: In failure-to-thrive syndrome, infants are small for their age and emaciated, they appear sick, and they are unable to digest food properly. Failure-to-thrive can occur as a result of malnutrition, which can be associated with other health concerns. In many cases, however, it appears to be linked to a lack of affection and attention, including poor-quality or nonexistent attachment. 5.107. Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with children diagnosed with failure-to-thrive syndrome? a. hyperactivity b. low body weight for age c. poor eye contact with others d. digestive problems Answer: a Page: 142 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In failure-to-thrive syndrome, infants are small for their age and emaciated, they appear sick, and they are unable to digest food properly. Such infants typically avoid eye contact by staring in a wide-eyed gaze, turning away, or covering their face or eyes. Changing Perspectives: Fatherhood in the Changing American Family – What Matters? 5.108. According to the text, which of the following social conditions has had the most dramatic effect on fathers’ roles? a. the downturn of the U.S. economy b. the passage of the Civil Rights Act c. the passage of the Family and Medical Leave Act d. the increase in women’s participation in the labor force Answer: d Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.109. In comparison to the amount of time mothers in typical U.S. two-parent households today spend with their children during the work week, the typical father spends about ___ as much time. a. 33% b. 50% c. 67% d. nearly 100% Answer: c Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.110. In comparison to the amount of time mothers in typical U.S. two-parent households today spend with their children during the weekend, the typical father spends about ___ as much time. a. 27% b. 47% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. 67% d. 87% Answer: d Page: 135 Factual Moderate 5.111. Which of the following is NOT one of the “big three” elements of effective fatherhood: a. income b. accessibility c. engagement d. responsibility Answer: a Page: 135 Factual Easy Current Issues: Infant and Toddler Child Care 5.112. In the United States today, about what percent of children currently receive child care from someone other than their parents? a. about 50% b. about 63% c. about 70% d. about 77% Answer: d Page: 138 Factual Moderate 5.113. About ____ of mothers who work outside the home rely on family members to provide childcare for their children and about ____ of such mothers rely on nonfamily based childcare services. a. 25%; 75% b. 75%; 25% c. 50%; 50% d. 10%; 90% Answer: c Page: 138 Factual Moderate 5.114. Suppose your friend has a baby and expects to return to work. If she asks how much she should plan on spending for childcare, you should note that the typical expense in the United States is about: a. $100 per month b. $200 per month c. $400 per month d. $800 per month Answer: c Page: 138 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The text notes that in 2005 the typical expenditure for child care in the United States was $107 per week. This equates to about $400 per month. 5.115. According to the results of the Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development, which of the following is NOT a result typically associated with children who spend time in high-quality child care during early childhood? a. they are more ready to begin school at age 4 ½ b. they are less aggressive with other children when they enter school c. they have better language skills at age 3 d. they have more positive interactions with other children at age 3 Answer: b Page: 138 Factual Moderate 5.116. Suppose your friend is going to place her infant in a high-quality child-care center. She asks you what, if any, negative results might be associated with this arrangement. Based on the results of the Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development, you suggest that the negative result most likely to occur is that her child may: a. be delayed in learning to read b. be delayed in learning to do arithmetic c. less ready to enter kindergarten when the time comes d. be more aggressive and disobedient when entering kindergarten Answer: d Page: 138 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development, children who spend significant time in child care generally demonstrated more “externalizing problems,” such as disobedience and aggressiveness to other children, when they entered school. On the other hand, higher-quality child care predicted greater school readiness at age 41⁄2 as reflected in standardized tests of number skills and language skills. 5.117. If you were concerned that your child would display behavioral problems in later childhood or early adolescence, you might want to select a child care arrangement that did not include: a. an institutional care setting b. care provided by grandparents c. care provided by the child’s father d. care provided by a babysitter in the child’s own home Answer: a Page: 130 Conceptual moderate Rationale: Among fifth and sixth graders followed in the NICHD study, those who were cared for by relatives or in home-based settings appear to experience no greater aggressiveness or social problems than do children cared for by their mothers.

True-False questions: The Foundations of Personality and Social Development 5.118. The typical behavior of a child participating in the still-face experiment is to become distressed. Answer: True Page: 121 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5.119. The still-face experiment is typically used to investigate the development of child abuse. Answer: False Page: 121-122 Rationale: The still-face experiment is usually used to investigate early parent-child emotional development, which leads to the development of attachment. 5.120. A child with a slow-to-warm-up temperament has both positive and negative moods, which are usually mild. Answer: True Page: 123 5.121. All infants are born with basically the same temperament style. Answer: False Page: 123 Rationale: According to research conducted by Thomas and Chess, most children could be placed into one of three different groups, according to their basic style of temperament: easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm-up. 5.122. Mary Rothbart identified 3 broad dimensions of temperament: hyperactivity, security, and assertiveness. Answer: False Page: 123-124 Rationale: Rothbart did identify 3 dimensions of temperament, but she labeled these as effortful control, negative affectivity, and extroversion. 5. 123. Parents should try to create an environment that works with, rather than against, the basic temperament style of the infant. Answer: True Page: 124 The Development of Trust 5.124. According to most theorists, the most important developmental challenge in the first year of life is toilet training. Answer: False Page: 124 Rationale: Most theorists view feeding to be the most important developmental challenge in the first year of life. 5.125. According to Erik Erikson, children in the first year of life deal with resolving the issue involved in autonomy vs. shame and doubt. Answer: False Page: 124 Rationale: According to Erikson, the developmental challenge in the first year is to resolve the issue of establishing trust versus mistrust. 5.126. Although cultures vary considerably in feeding and comforting customs, despite these differences children are able to develop trusting relationships with their caregivers. Answer: True Page: 124

Attachment 5.127. The term attachment generally refers to an emotional bond that develops between infants and their caregivers, beginning early in life. Answer: True Page: 125 5.128. In the United States today, most infants develop attachments with a wide variety of caregivers, whereas in other nations around the world, attachments are much more likely to develop with only a single adult. Answer: False Page: 126 Rationale: Attachment relationships are more likely to develop between an infant and a single primary caregiver (usually the mother) in the United States and other Western nations. In other countries, infant-caregiver attachments are more likely to extend beyond the mother to other family members and neighbors. 5.129. In the strange-situation paradigm, the infant is placed in a strange situation, which is defined as a room or setting which the infant has never seen before. Answer: False Page: 126 Rationale: The strange-situation paradigm involves the infant and mother entering a room in which a stranger is present. When the mother leaves the room, the behavior of the infant is observed. 5.130. Suppose an infant in the strange situation is observed to respond to the mother’s departure by displaying little concern and emotion, and to respond to her return with ambivalence, both clinging to the mother and appearing to reject her affection. This infant most likely would be labeled as having a resistant attachment. Answer: False Page: 127 Rationale: The behavior described most likely would be labeled as an example of avoidant attachment. 5.131. Infants who are able to form secure attachments with caregivers during the first year are less likely to experience behavioral problems in later life. Answer: True Page: 127 5.132. In Harry Harlow’s research with monkeys raised with surrogate mothers, the infant monkeys were given a choice of being raised in either a cage with a metal surrogate mother that had a source of milk or being raised in a cage with a soft terrycloth surrogate that had no milk supply. Answer: False Page: 128 Rationale: Harlow’s research involved raising infant monkeys in which two surrogates were placed, one with milk made of metal and one without milk made of soft terrycloth. The results was that the infant monkeys spent more time with the soft, nonnutritive surrogate and became more attached to it, even though it provided no food. 5.133. To say that attachment is synchronous means that it develops at the proper time in the developmental sequence of events. Answer: False Page: 128-129 Rationale: The term synchrony refers to the back-and-forth exchange of responses between and infant and caregiver. The essence of the term refers to the reciprocity and two-way exchange of behavior. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

5.134. According to Erik Erikson, secure attachments provide infants with the opportunity to develop relationships centered on trust. Answer: True Page: 130 Separating from the Caregiver 5.135. The development of stranger anxiety emerges at about 7 months of age, most likely because the infant’s cognitive development has proceeded to the point where now the infant can tell the difference between a familiar adult and a stranger. Answer: True Page: 130-131 5.136. The discrepancy hypothesis has been proposed as a way of explaining why infants sometimes develop a secure attachment and sometimes develop an insecure attachment. Answer: False Page: 130-131 Rationale: The discrepancy hypothesis explains why stranger anxiety emerges. This view suggests that stranger anxiety results when infants learn to distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar adults. 5.137. If a child falls and scrapes his knee, and immediately looks to his father to see whether or not he should be upset, this is a good example of social referencing. Answer: True Page: 131 5.138. According to Erik Erikson, the development of autonomy during the infant’s first year sets the stage for the development of trusting relationships in the second year of life. Answer: False Page: 131 Rationale: Erikson believed that the development of trust occurs during the first year, setting the stage for the develop of autonomy during the second year of life. 5. 139. If a child fails at becoming autonomous, this results in feeling of mistrust of others. Answer: False Page: 131 Rationale: According to Erikson, if the child fails to develop autonomy, the result is development of feelings of shame and doubt. Mistrust results if the child fails to develop trusting relationships with caregiver, and it is the key developmental challenge for infants during the first year of life. 5.140. To describe a person as “empathetic” implies that he or she is capable of understanding another person’s feelings and perspectives. Answer: True Page: 132-133 The Family System: A Broader Context 5.141. In comparison to fifty years ago, fathers in the United States today play a much larger role in caring for their infant children. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: True Page: 134 5.142. In the United States today, about half of all infant care is done by fathers and half is done by mothers. Answer: False Page: 134-135 Rationale: Most fathers today do not take primary responsibility for infant care and they spend less time with infants than do mothers. 5.143. The major difference in parenting styles between younger father and older fathers is that younger fathers spend more time playing with their infants and older father spend more time feeding their infants. Answer: False Page: 135 Rationale: The research cited in the text about older and younger fathers makes the point that younger fathers typically are more likely to conform to the traditional “father” role when engaging their infants in play, whereas older fathers are more likely to behave like traditional mothers. 5.144. The best way to reduce sibling rivalry when a new baby is born is to always involve all children in the family in all family activities. Answer: False Page: 136-137 Rationale: Although it often helps to involve older children in some of the care of the new baby, it also is important to spend time with only the older child so that he or she does not feel that the parent’s attention must always be shared as the result of having a new sibling. 5.145. In comparison with parents living in Sweden, parents in the United States receive considerably more government support to help with child care. Answer: False Page: 137, 139 Rationale: Swedish parents receive considerably more government support than do parents in the U. S., both in terms of having government-run child-care facilities available and in helping the family afford high-quality child care. Infants and Toddlers With Special Needs 5.146. Unless there are other impairments, blind children typically develop a responsive smile as early in life as do sighted children. Answer: False Page: 140 Rationale: Blind children do not develop a responsive smile as early as sighted children, and they also do not smile as often or as ecstatically. 5.147. It is quite common for deafness to remain undiagnosed into the second year of life. Answer: True Page: 140 5.148. Grandparents with higher education levels interact more positively with grandchildren with disabilities compared to grandparents with lower education levels.

Answer: True Page: 141 5.149. Both child abuse and child neglect are always intentional. Answer: False Page: 141 Rationale: Although child abuse is intention, child neglect may not be, since some parents are ignorant about how their child needs to be cared for and some are simply unable to provide adequate care, perhaps because of their own addiction disorders or mental illness. 5.150. If a parent hits a child, this would be an example of child neglect. Answer: False Page: 141 Rationale: Hitting is an intentional act of harm, and therefore would better be considered to be an example of child abuse rather than child neglect. 5.151. The primary symptom associated with failure-to-thrive syndrome is extreme hyperactivity. Answer: False Page: 142 Rationale: Failure-to-thrive syndrome is characterized by small size, emaciation, the appearance of sickness, problems with digestion, listlessness, and emotional withdrawal. Hyperactivity is not typically seen in such cases.

Short Answer questions: The Foundations of Personality and Social Development 5.152. Describe the procedure used in the classic still-face experiment. Page: 121 5.153. What does it mean to say that attachment is “reciprocal”? Page: 121-122 5.154. List and define each of Mary Rothbart’s three broad dimensions of temperament. Page: 123 5.155. What is the Rothbart’s Scale of Infant Temperament designed to assess? Page: 123 The Development of Trust 5.156. Why are feeding practices thought to be important to the development of trust? Page: 124 Attachment 5.157. How do attachment patterns in the United States differ from those that develop between infants and their caregivers in other parts of the world? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 125-126 5.158. How would a securely attached infant’s behavior differ from that of an insecurely attached infant when both are placed in the strange situation? Page: 126-127 5.159. Define and give an example of what is meant by the term “synchronous attachment.” Page: 128-129 5.160. Define and give an example of imprinting. Page: 128 5.161. Suppose a friend with a new baby asked you whether or not she should pick up her baby whenever he cried or should let him “cry it out” so that he would learn that crying would not be reinforced. What advice would you give her, and why would you give this advice? Page: 129 Separating from the Caregiver 5.162. Give an example of what is meant by separation, or stranger, anxiety. Page: 130 5.163. How does the discrepancy hypothesis explain why separation anxiety develops? Page: 131 5.164. Suppose a child is at a party and another child squirts water on him with a squirt gun. How might the first child use social referencing to figure out how to respond? Answer: 131 5.165. According to Erik Erikson, how would an abusive parent likely influence a 2-year-old’s development of autonomy? Give an example to support your answer. Page: 131 5.166. Describe how the development of empathy contributes to a child’s ability to engage in prosocial behavior and give an example to demonstrate your point. Page: 132-133 The Family System: A Broader Context 5.167. How do mothers’ roles typically differ from fathers’ roles with respect to caring for and playing with young children? Page: 135 5.168. How do younger fathers typically differ from older fathers in the way they interact with their children?

Page: 135 5.169. Give a clear example of sibling rivalry and suggest two things that parents can do to encourage their children to get along with each other. Page: 136-137 5.170. Under what types of circumstances would you expect young children to become securely attached to their grandparents? Page: 137 5.171. Suppose your friend asks for your help in finding a child-care center in which to enroll her newborn daughter. List the 5 most important things that you believe she should look for that would indicate that a center provided a high quality of care. Page: 139 Infants and Toddlers With Special Needs 5.172. Describe 3 things that parents of a child who cannot see from birth can do to help the child develop a secure attachment to them. Page: 140 5.173. Describe 3 things that parents of a child who cannot hear from birth do to help the child develop a secure attachment to them. Page: 140-141 5.174. Why is the diagnosis of blindness usually made earlier in the developmental process than is the diagnosis of deafness? Page: 140 5.175. Define the terms child abuse and child neglect and describe the two ways in which they differ from each other. Page: 141 5.176. Describe why a physician might suspect parents of child abuse or child neglect when the child presents symptoms consistent with failure-to-thrive syndrome. Page: 142

Essay questions: The Foundations of Personality and Social Development 5.177. How does the concept of temperament differ from that of personality? Page: 121-123 5.178. Describe the behavior you would expect from an easy child, a difficult child, and a slow-to-warm-up child the first time they were fed a strained food rather than milk. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 123 5.179. How does Mary Rothbart’s approach to the study of temperament differ from the approach taken by Thomas and Chess? What is the central focus of each of these approaches? Page: 123 The Development of Trust 5.180. Describe how the development of trust is encouraged when infants and caregivers establish a secure attachment relationship. Page: 124-126, 130 5.181. Should parents attempt to prevent their infants from experiencing any amount of mistrust in their environment? Why or why not? Page: 125 Attachment 5.182. Describe in detail the strange-situation paradigm used by Mary Ainsworth. How did Ainsworth use this paradigm to explore the concept of attachment? Page: 126-127 5.183. Describe three ways in which you would expect a securely attached child to develop differently from an insecurely attached child. Page: 127-128 5.184. What does imprinting suggest about the evolutionary significance of the development of attachment in humans? Page: 128-129 5.185. Describe the critical features of Harry Harlow’s experiment in which he studied how infant monkeys responded to different types of surrogate mothers. What do the results of this experiment suggest about the nature of human mother-infant attachment relationships? Page: 128 5.186. Considering the results of Harry Harlow’s experiment with infant monkeys, why do many theorists still maintain their view that feeding is an especially important influence on the development of early attachment. Page: 128 Separating from the Caregiver 5.187. How does the negotiation of a balance between trust and mistrust set the stage for the development of autonomy? What are the ideal developmental outcomes of these two stages of early development? Page: 131-132

5.188. What role does parental feedback, in the form of effective discipline, play in a child’s development of autonomy? Describe why punishment that is too harsh or frequent can interfere with positive development and why punishment that is too lax or absent can also interfere. Page: 131-132 5.189. Describe how a baby typically would respond to her image in a mirror at the ages of 6 months, 12 months, 18 months, and 36 months. How would this baby’s responses represent the development of her own self-concept? Page: 133 The Family System: A Broader Context 5.190. How is the role that fathers play in their children’s lives changing in the United States, as we move into the 21st century? What social forces are propelling these changes? Page: 135-136 5.191. Suggest two social changes that have occurred, or are occurring, in the United States that are presently affecting the social ecology of child care. Suggest what impact you believe these changes will have on the families of tomorrow. Page: 138-139 Infants and Toddlers With Special Needs 5.192. During the first 6 months of an infant’s life, which do you believe would be the more challenging disability for parents to cope with: blindness or deafness? Explain your answer, noting the challenges associated with providing care for children with each of these disabilities. Page: 140-141 5.193. How might the study of attachment provide a partial explanation for the finding that people who were abused as children are more likely to become abusive parents themselves? Page: 142

Name____________________________________ Chapter 6 - Early Childhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. Handedness is especially interesting to developmentalists because it is intimately linked to: a. physical size at maturity b. homosexuality c. language lateralization d. intelligence as measured on an IQ test 2. According to the text, the most dramatic cognitive difference between infants and 2-year-olds is in their use of: a. animism b. reification c. automaticity d. symbolic representation 3. The social and cultural aspects of language use are referred to by the term: a. grammar acquisition b. communication c. pragmatics d. cultural linguistics Conceptual questions: 4. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to experience the most severe and permanent disruptions in language abilities following a brain injury? a. an adult whose injury is to the left hemisphere of the brain b. an adult whose injury is to the right hemisphere of the brain c. a child whose injury is to the left hemisphere of the brain d. a child whose injury is to the right hemisphere of the brain 5. A child who climbs to the top of a staircase for the challenge and fun of the activity has what type of motivation? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. egocentric d. “out” directed 6. When a young child learns to help fold laundry and put clothes away, cultural information is being transmitted. According to Vygotsky’s view, this is best considered to be an example of: a. scaffolding b. guided participation c. social referencing d. synchrony 7. Which of the following is the best example of overregularization? a. “I am a big, big girl!” b. “No!” c. “I breaked the cup.” d. “I love my momma.” Applied questions:

8. Suppose that Bob is a typical 3-year-old child. By age 6, you should expect that his height will have increased by about how many inches? a. about 4 inches b. about 6 inches c. about 9 inches d. about12 inches 9. When he was younger, Tommy stacked blocks for the sheer joy of doing so. Now, Tommy only stacks blocks when he is trying to build something or when he is playing a game. The term that best describes Tommy’s development is: a. interaction b. automaticity c. extrinsically motivated behavior d. functional subordination 10. Laura and Ted like to play “house,” a game they invented in which Laura pretends to be the “mother” and Ted the “father.” In this game, Laura cooks the food on a pretend stove and Ted takes out the pretend garbage. The ability to play this game relies most directly on which cognitive ability? a. egocentrism b. conservation c. reversibility d. symbolic representation

Name____________________________________ Chapter 6 - Early Childhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. The process by which soft tissue or cartilage is transformed into bone is called: a. calcification b. grafting c. cartilogenesis d. ossification 2. A child who believes that objects and people in their thoughts and dreams are real is displaying what? a. animism b. reification c. egocentrism d. paranormal cognition 3. Research presented in the text suggests that playing with which of the following types of toys appears to encourage the language development the most? a. with dolls b. with trucks c. with blocks d. with guns Conceptual questions: 4. Suppose you examine an ultrasound image of a fetus, who is sucking her left thumb. Generalizing from research presented in the text, what is the probability that this fetus will be left-handed at age 15? a. about 50% b. about 67% c. about 85 % d. about 100% 5. Generalizing from research presented in the text, which of the following memory strategies would most likely lead a young child to the best recall of a group of common household items: a. remembering that the items are all stored in the same place (e.g., in the junk drawer) b. remembering that the items all begin with the same letter (e.g., the letter “b”) c. remembering that the items are all about the same size (e.g., all the size of a baseball) d. remembering that the items are all used for the same purpose (e.g., that they are all containers that hold things) 6. Generalizing from research conclusions presented in the text, if given the choice, would you recommend that children be raised in bilingual environment? a. Yes b. No, because this will limit the size of their vocabulary c. No, because this will delay their learning to talk d. No, because this will make them more likely to develop reading problems 7. Generalizing from research presented in the text, if a 4-year-old was observed speaking to a 2-year-old, what kind of speech would the 4-year-old be most likely to use: a. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his mother b. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his older brother c. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his preschool teacher d. a simpler version of his normal speech Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied questions: 8. Dr. Jacobs is describing a process by which neurons become insulated so that they can conduct neural impulses more efficiently. The process he is describing would be called: a. lateralization b. myelination c. ossification d. automation 9. At first, Mike has to concentrate very hard when typing, thinking where each letter on the keyboard is. However, after practicing a great deal, he now types without even thinking about how his fingers are moving. The concept that best describes Mike’s development is: a. automaticity b. lateralization c. functional subordination d. readiness 10. Dr. Larsen states that he likes to give his students just enough “hints” so that they can figure out how to solve a difficult problem with a minimum of guidance. Dr. Larsen’s approach best demonstrates the concept of: a. automaticity b. symbolic representation c. conservation d. scaffolding

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 6.1 1. c, p. 149 2. d, pp. 155-156 3. c, p. 163 4. a, pp. 148-149 5. a, p. 153 6. b, p. 159 7. c, pp. 161-162 8. c, p. 147 9. d, p. 151 10. d, pp. 155-156

Quick Quiz 6.2 1. d, p. 147 2. b, p. 154 3. a, p. 164 4. b, p. 149 5. a, p. 160 6. a, p. 164 7. d, p. 167 8. b, p. 148 9. a, p. 151 10. d, p. 159

Chapter 6 Early Childhood: Physical, Cognitive, and Language Development

Multiple Choice questions: Physical Development 6.1. Early childhood is the span of time from: a. birth to 2 years b. 2 to 6 years c. 1 to 7 years d. 3 to 8 years Answer: b Page: 147 Factual Easy 6.2. Between the ages of 2 and 6 years, a child is in which period of childhood? a. early childhood b. early toddlerhood c. late childhood d. late toddlerhood Answer: a Page: 147 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to the text, the period of early childhood spans the ages of 2 to 6 years. 6.3. During the period of early childhood, the typical child would grow an average of a. one-half inch b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. 3 inches

per year.

Answer: d Page: 147 Factual Moderate 6.4. Suppose that Bob is a typical 3-year-old child. By age 6, you should expect that his height will have increased by about how many inches? a. about 4 inches b. about 6 inches c. about 9 inches d. about12 inches Answer: c Page: 147 Applied Difficult Rationale: Children grow about 3 inches per year during early childhood, so over 3 years (from age 3 to age 6), Bob should grow about 9 inches.

6.5. Leon is in his preschool years. What will his average weight gain be per year? a. 1 pound b. 2½ pounds c. 4½ pounds d. 6 pounds Answer: c Page: 147 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text., during early childhood, young children typically gain an average of 4 pounds 8 ounces (2 kilograms), and they grow almost 3 inches (7.6 centimeters) taller, each year. 6.6. The process by which soft tissue or cartilage is transformed into bone is called: a. calcification b. grafting c. cartilogenesis d. ossification Answer: d Page: 147 Factual Easy 6.7. Ossification refers to the process by which: a. baby teeth are replaced by permanent teeth b. children grow rapidly, usually experiencing growing pains c. soft tissue or cartilage is transformed into bone d. baby hair falls out and is replaced by adult-like hair Answer: c Page: 147 Factual Moderate 6.8. Dr. Bemus is describing how bones develop and harden during the period of early childhood. The process he is describing is called: a. lateralization b. myelination c. osteoporosis d. ossification Answer: d Page: 147 Applied Moderate Rationale: Throughout the early childhood period, bones develop and harden through ossification, in which soft tissue or cartilage is transformed into bone. 6.9. Mary notices that her 3-year-old seems to have difficulty when he tries to stop running. When coming to a quick stop, he often tips forward, nearly falling on his face. From a developmental perspective, this boy’s difficulty most likely stems from having: a. a higher center of gravity than an older child would have b. weaker leg muscles than an older child would have c. poorer peripheral vision than an older child would have d. an underdeveloped inner ear, which will develop more fully by age 6 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 148 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, young children carry a greater proportion of their weight in their upper body than do adults, which gives them a higher center of gravity. Being top-heavy makes it more difficult to control body movements. In early childhood, children lose their balance more easily and have difficulty coming to a quick stop without tipping forward. They also have difficulty catching a large ball without falling backward. 6.10. Dr. Jacobs is describing a process by which neurons become insulated so that they can conduct neural impulses more efficiently. The process he is describing would be called: a. lateralization b. myelination c. ossification d. automation Answer: b Page: 148 Applied Easy Rationale: Maturation of the brain and the central nervous system includes myelination, which is the formation of sheathing cells that insulate the neurons and make transmission of neural impulses much more efficient. 6.11. The formation of sheathing cells to insulate neurons is called : a. myelination b. ossification c. assimilation d. lateralization Answer: a Page: 148 Factual Easy 6.12. Which of the following systems is the first to become myelinated during development? a. the system involved with vision b. the system controlling complex motor coordination c. the system involving in controlling hand-eye coordination d. the system involved in memory and attention span Answer: a Page: 148 Factual Difficult 6.13. The ability of the brain to adapt during childhood is referred to as: a. lateralization b. myelination c. plasticity d. elasticity Answer: c Page: 148 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.14. Brain lateralization refers to which of the following? a. The brain develops sequentially, with development proceeding from back to front. b. The brain develops sequentially, with development proceeding from bottom to top. c. The brain develops so that different skills are performed by the left and right hemispheres. d. The brain undergoes neural pruning, as well as growth, during infancy. Answer: c Page: 148-149 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Lateralization refers to the process where specific skills and competencies become localized in either the left or right cerebral hemisphere. 6.15. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to experience the most severe and permanent disruptions in language abilities following a brain injury? a. an adult whose injury is to the left hemisphere of the brain b. an adult whose injury is to the right hemisphere of the brain c. a child whose injury is to the left hemisphere of the brain d. a child whose injury is to the right hemisphere of the brain Answer: a Page: 148-149 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: For most people, and for nearly all right-handed people, language is heavily lateralized in the left hemisphere. Consequently, damage to this region of the brain often results in a severe and sometimes complete inability to speak or understand language, especially if the damage occurs in adulthood, when the brain has lost most of its plasticity. 6.16. For most people (and nearly all right-handed people), language is heavily lateralized in which hemisphere of the brain? a. right b. left c. longitudinal d. lateral Answer: b Page: 148-149 Factual Moderate 6.17. If you were to use a brain imaging device to observe the brain activity of children as they were drawing and putting puzzles together, you would expect to see the most neural activity in which region of the brain? a. in the right hemisphere b. in the left hemisphere c. in both left and right hemispheres, in roughly equal amounts d. in neither the left nor right hemisphere, since visual tasks are coordinated by the cerebellum Answer: a Page: 149 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The left hemisphere generally is lateralized for skills that involve logical and sequential operations, such as writing, scientific reasoning, and quantitative logic. For most people, the right hemisphere is lateralized for spatial

processing and for the more artistic and creative kinds of thought. Because drawing requires artistic and creative thought and putting puzzles together requires social processing, the correct answer is the right hemisphere. 6.18. According to the text, about what percent of the population is left-handed? a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 25% Answer: c Page: 149 Factual Easy 6.19. According to the text, about what percent of the population is right-handed? a. 10% b. 50% c. 90% d. 75% Answer: c Page: 149 Factual Easy 6.20. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Younger children are more likely to be right-handed than older children. b. Women are more likely to be right-handed than men. c. Men are more likely to be right-handed than women. d. About equal numbers of 2-year-olds are right- versus left-handed. Answer: b Page: 149 Factual Moderate 6.21. Suppose you examine an ultrasound image of a fetus, who is sucking her right thumb. Generalizing from research presented in the text, what is the probability that this fetus will be right-handed at age 15? a. about 50% b. about 67% c. about 85 % d. about 100% Answer: d Page: 149 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research has shown that handedness may develop very early. Using ultrasound, fetuses were observed sucking their thumbs, and they were 8 times more likely to be sucking the thumb on their right hand (Hepper, Wells, & Lynch, 2005). When these fetuses were followed to ages 10 to 12 years, all 60 of the “right-thumb” fetuses were right-handed. 6.22. Suppose you examine an ultrasound image of a fetus, who is sucking her left thumb. Generalizing from research presented in the text, what is the probability that this fetus will be left-handed at age 15? a. about 50% b. about 67% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. about 85 % d. about 100% Answer: b Page: 149 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Research has shown that handedness may develop very early. Using ultrasound, fetuses were observed sucking their thumbs, and they were 8 times more likely to be sucking the thumb on their right hand (Hepper, Wells, & Lynch, 2005). When these fetuses were followed to ages 10 to 12 years, of the 15 “left-thumb” fetuses, 5 had become right-handed. 6.23. Research suggests that a person’s preference for right- versus left-handedness develops at about what age? a. prenatally b. at about 1 year of age c. at about 2 ½ years of age d. at about 4 years of age, as the child is learning to draw Answer: a Page: 149 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Research has shown that handedness may develop prenatally. Using ultrasound, fetuses were observed sucking their thumbs, and they were 8 times more likely to be sucking the thumb on their right hand (Hepper, Wells, & Lynch, 2005). When these fetuses were followed to ages 10 to 12 years, all 60 of the “right-thumb” fetuses were right-handed, but of the 15 “left-thumb” fetuses, 5 had become right-handed. Thus, early hand preferences seem more predictive for later development among right-handers. 6.24. For people who are right-handed, language functions are generally found in _____ hemisphere(s) of the brain; for people who are left-handed, language functions are generally found in _____ hemisphere(s) of the brain. a. the right; the left b. the left; the right c. both; the left d. the left; both Answer: d Page: 149 Factual Difficult 6.25. If Joshua is left-handed, your best guess would be that his language abilities are localized in which part of his brain? a. the left hemisphere b. the right hemisphere c. both the left and right hemisphere d. in neither the left nor the right hemisphere Answer: c Page: 149 Applied Moderate Rationale: For the 10% or so of the population who are left-handed, language is often shared by the two sides of the brain. This finding suggests that the brains of left-handed people may be less lateralized, in general, than the brains of right-handed people.

6.26. If Mary Ann is right-handed, your best guess would be that her language abilities are localized in which part of her brain? a. the left hemisphere b. the right hemisphere c. both the left and right hemisphere d. in neither the left nor the right hemisphere Answer: a Page: 149 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, for the large majority of right-handed people, language is highly localized in areas of the left hemisphere. 6.27. Handedness is especially interesting to developmentalists because it is intimately linked to: a. physical size at maturity b. homosexuality c. language lateralization d. intelligence as measured on an IQ test Answer: c Page: 149 Factual Moderate 6.28. Suppose that you can place a child with developmental disabilities into one of four programs. Which of these would you choose because it would likely produce the best outcome for the child? a. a program that begins in infancy and focuses broadly, addressing both cognitive and health-related needs b. a program that begins at age 4 and focuses broadly, addressing both cognitive and health-related needs c. a program that begins in infancy and focuses narrowly and directly on cognitive development d. a program that begins at age 4 and focuses narrowly and directly on cognitive development Answer: a Page: 149-150 Applied Moderate Rationale: Other things being equal, those educational programs and intervention projects that enroll high-risk children in early infancy generally have a much greater impact than those that are begun later in life (Burchinal et al., 2000; Ramey & Ramey, 2007). Of course, the quality of the program also matters. Day-care programs that emphasize a comprehensive approach and therefore address broad issues—such as nutritional needs, other health needs, social development, cognitive development, family functioning, as well as child functioning—are more likely to produce positive results (NICHD, 2009). 6.29. Dr. Lansing emphasizes that just as the environment influences the child’s development, the child also acts on the environment, changing it. The concept that best describes this two-way interchange is: a. lateralization b. egocentrism c. interaction d. pragmatics Answer: c Page: 150 Applied Easy

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, it is important to emphasize that brain development and other aspects of development interact; that is, they influence each other and, in turn, are influenced by each other. Likewise, the various aspects of a child’s development act on the environment and vise versa. Motor Skills Development 6.30. Which of the following is the best example of a gross motor skill? a. writing b. handling a fork and spoon c. drawing d. running Answer: d Page: 150-151 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the textbook, gross motor skills include skills such as running, hopping, and throwing. 6.31. The ability to perform motor behaviors without consciously thinking about them is called a. telepathy b. automaticity c. self-efficacy d. ossification Answer: b Page: 151 Factual Easy 6.32. A child who is running and kicking a soccer ball is making use of what set of skills? a. intuitive skills b. animism skills c. fine motor skills d. gross motor skills Answer: d Page: 150-151 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the textbook, gross motor skills include skills such as running, hopping, and throwing. 6.33. At first, Mike has to concentrate very hard when typing, thinking where each letter on the keyboard is. However, after practicing a great deal, he now types without even thinking about how his fingers are moving. The concept that best describes Mike’s development is: a. automaticity b. lateralization c. functional subordination d. readiness Answer: a Page: 151 Applied Moderate Rationale: Automaticity refers to the ability to perform motor behaviors without consciously thinking about them. 6.34. According to the text, at what age do children’s overall activity levels peak? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. about age 1 b. about age 2 ½ c. about age 4 d. about age 6 Answer: b Page: 151 Factual Moderate 6.35. Generalizing from information in the text about the age at which children’s activity levels peak, which of the following children would you expect to be most active? a. Fred, who is 1 year old b. Tom, who is 2 ½ years old c. Nelson, who is 4 years old d. Bennett, who is 6 years old Answer: b Page: 151 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, children’s activity levels peak at age 2 or 3. 6.36. Which of the following children would you expect to have the highest activity level and consequently the hardest time sitting still? a. Judy (a girl) who is 3 years old b. Janice (a girl) who is 6 years old c. Renaldo (a boy) who is 3 years old d. Jose (a boy) who is 6 years old Answer: c Page: 151 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, children’s activity levels peak at age 2 or 3, but activity level declines earlier for girls than boys. 6.37. When he was younger, Tommy stacked blocks for the sheer joy of doing so. Now, Tommy only stacks blocks when he is trying to build something or when he is playing a game. The term that best describes Tommy’s development is: a. interaction b. automaticity c. extrinsically motivated behavior d. functional subordination Answer: d Page: 151 Applied Difficult Rationale: Functional subordination is the integration of a number of separate, simple actions or schemas into a more complex pattern of behavior. Actions that are initially performed for their own sake later become integrated into more complex, purposeful skills. For example, when a child first learns to hop, hopping is an end in itself; later, hopping becomes part of a dance or game as it is functionally subordinated to more complex sports skills. 6.38. Skipping would best be considered an example of which type of motor skill: a. fine motor skill Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. gross motor skill c. intrinsic motor skill d. extrinsic motor skill Answer: b Page: 151 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Gross motor skills involve movements of the major muscles of the body in activities such as running and jumping. Skipping is a similar skill. Fine motor skills are those that require the coordinated and dexterous use of hand, fingers, and thumb. The terms intrinsic and extrinsic refer to motivation, not to motor skills. 6.39. Lateefah can vary the rhythm of her running, skip awkwardly, and jump. However, she cannot tie her shoes or completely dress herself. If her motor development is typical for children her age, how old would she be? a. 2 years old b. 3 years old c. 4 years old d. 5 years old Answer: c Page: 151 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, by age 4, children can vary the rhythm of their running. Many 4-year-olds can skip, although awkwardly, and they can execute a running jump or a standing broad jump. A 3- to 4-year-old child can fasten and unfasten items of clothing and independently serve food, although children of this age sometimes make a mess while doing so. 6.40. Cutting with scissors would best be considered an example of which type of motor skill? a. fine motor skill b. gross motor skill c. intrinsic motor skill d. extrinsic motor skill Answer: a Page: 151-152 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Fine motor skills are those that require the coordinated and dexterous use of hand, fingers, and thumb. These are the skills involved in cutting with scissors. The terms intrinsic and extrinsic refer to motivation, not to motor skills. Gross motor skills involve movements of the major muscles of the body in activities such as running and jumping. 6.41. When William is handed a cracker, he extends both of his hands to receive it. If his motor development is typical for children his age, how old would he be: a. 2 years old b. 3 years old c. 4 years old d. 5 years old Answer: a Page: 150 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the textbook, toddlers also tend to use both arms (or legs) when only one is necessary. When handed a cookie, for example, a 2-year-old is likely to extend both hands. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.42. Maria can tie her own shoes. What type of skill is this? a. fine motor skill b. gross motor skill c. adaptive motor skill d. functional motor skill Answer: a Page: 151-152 Applied Moderate Rationale: Fine motor skills often require the coordinated and dexterous use of hand, fingers, and thumb, all of which are required of tying one’s shoes. 6.43. According to the text, at about what age, on average, do most children learn to tie their own shoe laces? a. age 2-3 b. age 3-4 c. age 4-5 d. age 5-6 Answer: d Page: 152 Factual Difficult 6.44. Which of the following behaviors would likely be the hardest for a young child to perform and consequently the last to develop? a. skipping b. running c. tying shoe laces on tennis shoes d. hanging from a bar by both hands Answer: c Page: 152 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Six-year-olds who wear shoes with laces usually can tie them, although many still find it difficult and may ask for help instead. Skipping and running skills tend to be present by age 4, and children as young as age 2 can hang from a bar with both hands. 6.45. Mr. Williams argues that there is no use trying to teach a 3-year-old to read because children of this age have not yet developed neural structures adequate for this task. Instead, he says that children will learn to read much faster and with less effort when they are 5 years old. His argument is based on the concept of: a. practice b. functional subordination c. automaticity d. readiness Answer: d Page: 152 Applied Moderate Rationale: Learning any new skill—whether motor or cognitive—is easiest if the child is ready to learn. Readiness implies that a certain level of maturation has been achieved and that the necessary prerequisite skills are in place so that the child can profit from training

6.46. According to information presented in the text, what is the best indication of when a child has reached the point of optimal readiness? a. when the child has acquired gross motor skills needed for the task b. when the child develops extrinsic motivation c. when the child begins to imitate simple skills involved in the task d. when the child demonstrates functional subordination of the skills involved Answer: c Page: 152 Factual Moderate 6.47. Elizabeth spends a lot of time sitting at the piano, picking out melodies by trial and error. Her parents decide that they should probably provide her with piano lessons. Elizabeth’s behavior is best considered an example of which of the following developmental concepts? a. readiness b. lateralization c. egocentrism d. functional subordination Answer: a Page: 152 Applied Moderate Rationale: Learning any new skill—whether motor or cognitive—is easiest if the child is ready to learn. Readiness implies that a certain level of maturation has been achieved and that the necessary prerequisite skills are in place so that the child can profit from training. 6.48. A child who climbs to the top of a staircase for the challenge and fun of the activity has what type of motivation? a. intrinsic b. extrinsic c. egocentric d. “out” directed Answer: a Page: 153 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Intrinsically motivated behavior is behavior performed for its own sake, with no particular goal or explicit reward. 6.49. Roberto is “motivated” to practice the piano because his parents pay him $5 for every half-hour he plays. This type of motivation would best be considered as: a. intrinsic motivation b. extrinsic motivation c. egocentric motivation d. functional subordination Answer: b Page: 153 Applied Moderate Rationale: Extrinsically motivated behavior is behavior performed to obtain explicit rewards or to avoid explicit adverse events.

6.50. Martha plays with a basketball and makes baskets to receive praise from her father. This best reflects what type of motivation: a. responsive motivation b. directive motivation c. intrinsic motivation d. extrinsic motivation Answer: d Page: 153 Applied Moderate Rationale: Extrinsically motivated behavior is behavior performed to obtain explicit rewards or to avoid explicit adverse events. 6.51. Jeff loves to practice the piano. His parents never need to tell him to practice or offer rewards for him to play. Jeff’s behavior is best considered an example of: a. automaticity b. functional subordination c. intrinsic motivation d. extrinsic motivation Answer: c Page: 153 Applied Moderate Rationale: Intrinsically motivated behavior is behavior performed for its own sake, with no particular goal or explicit reward. Cognitive Development 6.52. According to Piaget, when children encounter something familiar, they ________ it; when they encounter something new, they ___________ it. a. accommodate; animate b. animate; assimilate c. assimilate; accommodate d. symbolize; animate Answer: c Page: 154 Factual Moderate 6.53. The use of actions, images, words, or other signs to represent past and present events, experiences, and concepts is the definition of: a. symbolic representation b. concrete operations c. egocentrism d. reification Answer: a Page: 154, 155-156 Factual Moderate 6.54. Preoperational children are concerned with the here and now and with physical things they can represent easily. This means that their thinking is: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. concrete b. intuitive c. abstract d. formal Answer: a Page: 154, 156 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One limitation of preoperational thinking is that it is concrete: the preoperational child has the tendency to think in terms of what can be directly experienced. 6.55. When 4-year-old Kayla is asked if she has a brother, she says, "Yes." When she is asked if her brother has a sister, she says, "No." Kayla’s response is best considered an example of: a. centration b. irreversibility c. egocentricity d. animism Answer: b Page: 154, 158 Applied Moderate Rationale: Children at the preoperational stage of cognitive development show irreversibility: an inability to think backwards, or to see how an event can be reversed. 6.56. What is Piaget's second stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preoperational Answer: d Page: 154 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations. 6.57. Piaget’s preoperational period extends from: a. birth to age 2 b. age 2 to 7 c. age 8 to 12 d. age 13 to 18 Answer: b Page: 154 Factual Easy 6.58. Which of the following children would most likely exhibit the logic that characterizes Piaget’s preoperational period? a. Amy, who is 18 months old b. Lindsay, who is 4 years old c. Jane, who is 8 years old d. Martha, who is 14 years old Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: b Page: 154 Applied Easy Rationale: Piaget’s preoperational period is generally thought to characterize the thinking of children between the ages of 2 and 7. 6.59. Which of Piaget’s developmental periods is divided into the preconceptual stage and the intuitive stage? a. sensorimotor period b. concrete operational period c. formal operational period d. preoperational period Answer: d Page: 154 Factual Easy 6.60. Kayla hugged her doll because she said that her doll was "crying." Her belief that her doll is alive illustrates the concept of: a. animism b. egocentrism c. artificialism d. centration Answer: a Page: 154 Applied Moderate Rationale: Animism is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which all things that move are assumed to be alive and have human characteristics. 6.61. Jackie believes that her Teddy bears are really alive and that they can talk to her. This characteristic of her thought is best considered to be an example of Piaget’s concept of: a. egocentrism b. reification c. accommodation d. adaptation Answer: b Page: 154 Applied Moderate Rationale: Reification is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child believes that people and objects in stories and dreams are real. 62. Robbie has a dream about a robot that hides under his bed and might eat him alive while he sleeps. Even though his father explains over and over that robots are not real, Robbie is still afraid and insists the robot might be real. Robbie’s thinking is best considered an example of: a. reification b. assimilation c. accommodation d. egocentrism Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 154 Applied Moderate Rationale: Reification is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child believes that people and objects in stories and dreams are real. 6.63. A child who believes that objects and people in their thoughts and dreams are real is displaying what? a. animism b. reification c. egocentrism d. paranormal cognition Answer: b Page: 154 Factual Moderate 6.64. Molly is watching TV. She doesn’t understand that a child standing behind the TV set cannot see what is on the screen, because she assumes that the other child sees the same thing she does. Molly’s thinking is best considered an example of: a. reification b. animism c. symbolic representation d. egocentrism Answer: d Page: 154 Applied Moderate Rationale: Egocentrism is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child views everything from a personal point of view rather than objectively. 6.65. Mr. Phillips assumes that everyone thinks about politics the same way he does. When people disagree with his views, he thinks they are just trying to make him angry. Even though he is an adult, Mr. Phillips’s thinking still is hampered by which of the following? a. symbolic representation b. animism c. egocentrism d. automaticity Answer: c Page: 154 Applied Difficult Rationale: Egocentrism is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child views everything from a personal point of view rather than objectively. 6.66. Four-year-old Rose views everything in relation to herself. Her failure to understand another person’s perspective is best thought of as a consequence of: a. animism b. centration c. irreversibility d. egocentrism Answer: d Page: 154 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: Egocentrism is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child views everything from a personal point of view rather than objectively. 6.67. The “mountain problem” described in the text is most often used to demonstrate the concept of: a. symbolic representation b. conservation of number c. conservation of volume d. egocentrism Answer: d Page: 154 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Egocentrism is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which a child views everything from a personal point of view rather than objectively. In the three-dimensional mountain problem, the preoperational child typically is unable to imagine how the mountains would appear from another perspective, for example, to a person sitting across the table. 6.68. Which of the following statements about the progress of development is correct? a. The intuitive stage occurs before the sensorimotor period. b. The intuitive stage occurs before the preconceptual stage. c. The preconceptual stage occurs before the sensorimotor period. d. The preconceptual stage occurs before the period of concrete operations. Answer: d Page: 154 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development is: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations. Within the preoperational stage, the preconceptual stage develops first, followed by the intuitive stage. 6.69. Which of the following is a correct statement of how children in the preconceptual stage are different from those in the intuitive stage? a. Children in the preconceptual stage are more egocentric. b. Children in the preconceptual stage are more likely to display animism in their thinking. c. Children in the preconceptual stage are more likely to display reification in their thinking. d. Children in the preconceptual stage are more likely to correctly solve the “mountain problem.” Answer: d Page: 154 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Piaget observed that preconceptual children still have difficulty with major categories of reality and display animism, reification, and egocentrism (in the “mountain problem” for example). In the intuitive (or transitional) period, Egocentrism eases somewhat, and intuitive children often can understand multiple points of view and how things relate to each other, although sometimes in an inconsistent and incomplete way. 6.70. According to the text, the most dramatic cognitive difference between infants and 2-year-olds is in their use of: a. animism b. reification c. automaticity d. symbolic representation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 155-156 Factual Moderate 6.71. Jose has just begun to understand that numbers, such as “1, 2, 3,” are connected conceptually to the number of objects on a table. Now when he is asked how old he is, he holds up three fingers. Jose’s thinking in this instance is best considered an example of: a. symbolic representation b. reification c. egocentrism d. accommodation Answer: a Page: 155-156 Applied Moderate Rationale: Symbolic representation refers to the use of actions, images, words, or other signs to represent past and present events, experiences, and concepts; it marks the emergence of the preoperational period. 6.72. Laura and Ted like to play “house,” a game they invented in which Laura pretends to be the “mother” and Ted the “father.” In this game, Laura cooks the food on a pretend stove and Ted takes out the pretend garbage. The ability to play this game relies most directly on which cognitive ability? a. egocentrism b. conservation c. reversibility d. symbolic representation Answer: d Page: 155-156 Applied Difficult Rationale: Symbolic representation refers to the use of actions, images, words, or other signs to represent past and present events, experiences, and concepts; it marks the emergence of the preoperational period. 6.73. At which of the following ages are children typically the best at tasks involving symbolic representation? a. age 3 b. age 4 c. age 5 d. age 6 Answer: d Page: 156 Factual Easy 6.74. The term “sociocentric” is best thought of as the opposite of the term: a. egocentric b. collectivist c. individualist d. symbolic Answer: a Page: 156 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy Rationale: The development of symbolic thought helps children in interactions by allowing them to become more sensitive to the feelings and viewpoints of others. This sensitivity, in turn, helps them make the transition to less egocentric and more sociocentric thinking. 6.75. Suppose that a child is shown two rows of 8 pennies each. In one row the pennies are laid next to each other; in the other the pennies are spread out with more space between them. Now the child is asked to count the number of pennies in each row and then respond to the question, “Which row has more pennies?” This demonstration is most likely to be used to test the child’s: a. egocentrism b. symbolic representation skills c. conservation ability d. automaticity Answer: c Page: 157 Applied Easy Rationale: The term conservation refers to understanding that changing the shape or appearance of objects and materials does not change their mass, volume, number, and so forth. 6.76. Suppose a child is shown a set of glass marbles that includes 5 red marbles and 8 green marbles. The child is asked to count the red marbles, then the green marbles, and then all the marbles, which she can do. Although she can answer the question, “Are there more red or green marbles?” she cannot correctly answer the question, “Are there more red marbles than glass marbles?” This situation most clearly demonstrates which of the following concepts? a. irreversibility b. egocentrism c. centration d. symbolic representation Answer: c Page: 157-158 Applied Difficult Rationale: Centration is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which children display an inability to focus on more than one aspect of a situation at a time. 6.77. A child is presented with two identical balls of clay. As the child watches, one ball is rolled into a sausage, while the other remains untouched. The child is asked which has more clay, the sausage shape or the untouched ball of clay. This experiment most likely is testing which of the following concepts? a. seriation b. conservation c. egocentrism d. classification Answer: b Page: 157 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The term conservation refers to understanding that changing the shape or appearance of objects and materials does not change their mass, volume, number, and so forth. 6.78. According to the text, one reason that young children often fail to correctly solve conservation problems is that they do not see them as logical problems; rather they see them as: a. perceptual problems Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. social problems c. personal problems d. emotional problems Answer: a Page: 158 Factual Moderate 6.79. Mark can describe to his teacher how he walks from his house to the playground, where a bus picks him up, but he cannot describe how he would walk from the playground back to his house, because he has never done this. Mark’s thinking is best considered to be an example of: a. conservation of space b. irreversibility c. centration d. reification Answer: b Page: 158 Applied Difficult Rationale: Irreversibility is a characteristic of preoperational thought in which children have an inability to think backwards, or to see how an event can be reversed. 6.80. The evaluation of Piaget’s theory presented in the text suggests that which of the following appears to be the most significant error in Piaget’s perspective? a. Piaget underestimated the competence of young children. b. Piaget overemphasized the emotional unsteadiness of young children. c. Piaget failed to differentiate between children who were given formal instruction and those who were not. d. Piaget did not appreciate the rather large gender differences that exist in children’s cognitive processes. Answer: a Page: 158 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The textbook notes that although Piaget’s general views have been supported, subsequent research has pointed out that children are probably more competent and their thinking is not as limited as his view suggests. 6.81. According to Lev Vygotsky, the process by which more experienced people transmit cultural information to children is called: a. scaffolding b. synchrony c. guided participation d. social referencing Answer: c Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.82. When a young child learns to help fold laundry and put clothes away, cultural information is being transmitted. According to Vygotsky’s view, this is best considered to be an example of: a. scaffolding b. guided participation c. social referencing Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. synchrony Answer: b Page: 159 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Most theorists today believe that the child’s understanding of the world is embedded in cultural knowledge. All cultures initiate children into activities through guided participation, and such interactions with others provide important information and guidance for children as they develop their cognitive abilities. Vygotsky emphasized that much of children’s cognitive growth takes place through guided participation, in what is called the zone of proximal development. 6.83. The difference between the child's actual developmental level and that child’s potential level of development if guided by adults or older peers is called the: a. intelligence quotient b. intellectual gap c. zone of potential development d. zone of proximal development Answer: d Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.84. In comparison to Piaget’s view of cognitive development, Lev Vygotsky’s view put more emphasis on: a. gender differences between boys and girls b. whether children were raised in one-parent versus two-parent families c. social factors involved in learning d. egocentrism Answer: c Page: 159 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, a limitation of Piaget’s perspective is its rather narrow focus on the problem-solving aspects of cognitive development. Many contemporary theorists view cognitive developmental processes as also being social in nature, and they emphasize the important ways in which others in the child’s environment influence the development of the child’s thought processes. According to Vygotsky, children’s thinking and social skills develop by participating in activities that are slightly beyond their competence, provided they are given the assistance of others who are more skilled and knowledgeable. 6.85. One way of describing Piaget’s and Vygotsky’s views of childhood would be to note that Piaget saw children as ___________ whereas Vygotsky saw them as ____________. a. competent; incompetent b. little scientists; apprentices c. egocentric; sociocentric d. preoperational; postoperational Answer: b Page: 159 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Piaget viewed children as “little scientists,” learning through interactions with their physical environment. According to Vygotsky, children’s thinking and social skills develop by participating in activities that are slightly beyond their competence, provided they are given the assistance of others who are more skilled and knowledgeable. In other words, Vygotsky saw children as learning through apprenticeships with more skilled others. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.86. Which of the following would define the lowest point in a child’s zone of proximal development, according to Vygotsky? a. the problem is too hard for the child to solve, even with help b. the child can solve the problem with no help from anyone c. the child can solve the problem, but only if someone helps with the solution d. the child can solve the problem without help 50% of the time Answer: b Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.87. Which of the following would define the highest point in a child’s zone of proximal development, according to Vygotsky? a. The problem is too hard for the child to solve, even with help. b. The child can solve the problem with no help from anyone. c. The child can solve the problem, but only if someone helps with the solution. d. The child can solve the problem without help 50% of the time. Answer: c Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.88. Dr. Larsen states that he likes to give his students just enough “hints” so that they can figure out how to solve a difficult problem with a minimum of guidance. Dr. Larsen’s approach best demonstrates the concept of: a. automaticity b. symbolic representation c. conservation d. scaffolding Answer: d Page: 159 Applied Moderate Rationale: Scaffolding refers to the progressive structuring of tasks by parents or others so that the level of task difficulty is appropriate. 6.89. Rickie can’t figure out how to solve a math problem. His teacher gives Rickie a “hint” that helps him think a little differently about the problem, and now he solves it. Rickie’s teacher has used a technique best described as: a. scaffolding b. proximal development c. conservation d. symbolic representation Answer: a Page: 159 Applied Moderate Rationale: Scaffolding refers to the progressive structuring of tasks by parents or others so that the level of task difficulty is appropriate. 6.90. According to the text, by about what age do a child’s memory capabilities reach those of the typical adult? a. age 2 years b. age 5 years Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. age 7 years d. age 10 years Answer: c Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.91. According to the information-processing view of memory, human memory operates much like: a. a television camera b. a telephone c. a computer d. a refrigerator Answer: c Page: 159 Factual Easy 6.92. According to the information-processing theory of memory, when a person is actively thinking about a problem, what part of the memory system is at work? a. the encoding mechanism b. the short-term memory c. the long-term memory d. the synaptic memory Answer: b Page: 159 Factual Moderate 6.93. If Lark is asked to tell her teacher what she had for breakfast that morning, this task would best be considered an example of: a. creative recollection b. recall c. recognition d. encoding Answer: b Page: 160 Applied Easy Rationale: Recall refers to the ability to retrieve stored information and memories with or without cues or prompts. 6.94. The best example of a recognition task would be: a. an essay test question b. a short-answer test question c. a multiple-choice test question d. remembering to write one’s name on the top of a test Answer: c Page: 160 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Recognition refers to the ability to correctly identify objects or situations previously experienced when they appear again. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.95. The best example of a recognition task would be: a. remembering what one had from breakfast b. remembering one’s phone number c. choosing the same tie from the closet that one wore yesterday d. reciting the Pledge of Allegiance without making a mistake Answer: c Page: 160 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Recognition refers to the ability to correctly identify objects or situations previously experienced when they appear again. 6.96. The best example of a recall task would be: a. selecting the same type of pizza that you ordered the last time you had pizza b. answering a multiple choice question like this one c. looking at a picture and identifying the people who you had met at a party and those who were not there d. remembering where you parked your car in the parking lot at the shopping center Answer: d Page: 160 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Recall refers to the ability to retrieve stored information and memories with or without cues or prompts. 6.97. If you are presented with a series of photos and asked to select the photos of only those people who were in your high school graduating class, this task would primarily involve: a. recall b. relearning c. recognition d. functional subordination Answer: c Page: 160 Applied Difficult Rationale: Recognition refers to the ability to correctly identify objects or situations previously experienced when they appear again. 6.98. If you gave children a recall test and a recognition test, which group of children would probably perform the worst? a. younger children who had a recall test b. younger children who had a recognition test c. older children who had a recall test d. older children who had a recognition test Answer: a Page: 160 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In one classic study that compared recall versus recognition performance of younger and older children, in the recognition task where many objects were shown only once to children between the ages of 2 and 5, even the youngest children could correctly point to 81% of the objects as having been seen before; the older children recognized 92% of the objects. However, when children between the ages of 2 and 4 were asked to recall objects by naming them, 3-year-olds could name only 22% of the items and 4-year-olds only 40% (W. Schneider & Bjorklund, Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

1998). Subsequent research also has shown that younger children can be more easily lured away from correct recognitions by misleading questions. 6.99. If you gave children a recall test and a recognition test, which group of children would probably perform the best? a. younger children who had a recall test b. younger children who had a recognition test c. older children who had a recall test d. older children who had a recognition test Answer: d Page: 160 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In one classic study that compared recall versus recognition performance of younger and older children, in the recognition task where many objects were shown only once to children between the ages of 2 and 5, even the youngest children could correctly point to 81% of the objects as having been seen before; the older children recognized 92% of the objects. However, when children between the ages of 2 and 4 were asked to recall objects by naming them, 3-year-olds could name only 22% of the items and 4-year-olds only 40% (W. Schneider & Bjorklund, 1998). Subsequent research also has shown that younger children can be more easily lured away from correct recognitions by misleading questions. 6.100. Generalizing from research presented in the text, which of the following memory strategies would most likely lead a young child to the best recall of a group of common household items? a. remembering that the items are all stored in the same place (e.g., in the junk drawer) b. remembering that the items all begin with the same letter (e.g., the letter “b”) c. remembering that the items are all about the same size (e.g., all the size of a baseball) d. remembering that the items are all used for the same purpose (e.g., that they are all containers that hold things) Answer: a Page: 160 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text, learning strategies that do appear to enhance children’s ability to remember often involve organizing information according to spatial, rather than concept-related, cues. 6.101. Which of the following is the best example of a script? a. listing items in alphabetic order b. arranging a set of items from largest to smallest in size c. recalling the order of tasks involved in starting a car d. drawing a picture of what a dog looks like Answer: c Page: 160-161 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: It appears that children develop scripts for routine events, such as what happens at dinner time, what happens when they go to preschool, and so forth. These scripts, which serve as lists for what happens first, second, and so forth, provide a useful schema for remembering time-sequenced events. 6.102. Little Jason describes his morning routine: first he gets up, then he gets dressed, then he eats breakfast, and then he brushes his teeth. Jason’s memory of his morning activities is best considered to be an example of: a. a script b. encoding c. a recognition task Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. egocentrism Answer: a Page: 160-161 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, scripts serve as lists for what happens first, second, and so forth, provide a useful schema for remembering time-sequenced events. Language Development 6.103. By age 6, most children have a working vocabulary of _____ words, and can understand more than ______ words. a. 250; 5,000 b. 1,100; 13,000 c. 2,600; 20,000 d. 10,000; 45,000 Answer: c Page: 161 Factual Difficult 6.104. If Cathy is a typical 18-month-old child, her parents should expect that for the next several months she will learn about how many new words a day? a. 2 b. 9 c. 50 d. 85 Answer: b Page: 161 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, beginning at about 18 months of age, children learn an average of about 9 new words a day. 6.105. Suppose that Jalla is 3 years old. She understands the concept of “empty,” but not of “full.” Based on information presented in the text, your best conclusion about Jalla is that: a. she probably has a mild hearing problem b. she has mild mental retardation c. she is at increased risk for developing dyslexia d. she is normal Answer: d Page: 161 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text, young children’s understanding of concepts is often incomplete. For example, they often understand one concept, such as more, much earlier than they know the word or the concept that contrasts with it, such as less. 6.106. Parker says, “I goed to the playground” instead of “I went to the playground.” This speech error is best considered an example of: a. automaticity b. functional subordination Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. egocentrism d. overregularization Answer: d Page: 161-162 Applied Moderate Rationale: Overregularization refers to children’s tendency to incorrectly generalize language rules to cases that are exceptions. This is typically done by preschool children who are rapidly expanding their vocabularies. 6.107. Which of the following is the best example of overregularization? a. “I am a big, big girl!” b. “No!” c. “I breaked the cup.” d. “I love my momma.” Answer: c Page: 161-162 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Overregularization refers to children’s tendency to incorrectly generalize language rules to cases that are exceptions. This is typically done by preschool children who are rapidly expanding their vocabularies. Here the “-ed” means the past action rule is generalized to a situation in which it does not apply. 6.108. What is the term used to refer to the language we use when we talk to ourselves? a. babbling b. recall c. collective monologue d. private speech Answer: d Page: 162 Factual Easy 6.109. Children’s conversations that include taking turns talking, but during which children to do not necessarily talk about the same topic, are called: a. private speech b. individual monologues c. collective monologues d. dialogues Answer: c Page: 163 Factual Moderate 6.110. Sam and Marty are having a conversation. Sam says that he just saw a big truck. Marty replies that his father is a doctor. Sam and Marty are engaging in a: a. collective monologue b. private conversation c. dialogue d. meaningful communication Answer: a Page: 163 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Easy Rationale: Very young children’s conversations are often collective monologues—two children appear to take turns speaking to each other, but they may be talking about entirely different, unrelated subjects. 6.111. When a child learns to speak in a hushed, quiet voice in church or at the library, what aspect of language is he learning? a. syntax b. semantics c. phonology d. pragmatics Answer: d Page: 163 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. 6.112. When Madeline is in school, she knows that she should raise her hand and be called on by the teacher before speaking. Madeline has learned about the rules of: a. syntax b. phonology c. pragmatics d. semantics Answer: c Page: 163 Applied Moderate Rationale: Pragmatics refers to the social and cultural aspects of language use. 6.113. The social and cultural aspects of language use are referred to by the term: a. grammar acquisition b. communication c. pragmatics d. cultural linguistics Answer: c Page: 163 Factual Moderate 6.114. Research presented in the text suggests that playing with which of the following types of toys appears to encourage the language development the most? a. with dolls b. with trucks c. with blocks d. with guns Answer: a Page: 164 Factual Moderate 6.115. Generalizing from the text, being bilingual is probably viewed most negatively by people in which of the following countries? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. India b. France c. Japan d. the United States Answer: d Page: 164 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that bilingualism is usually considered an advantage in cultures that value knowing more than one language, for example, when it is associated with being a well-educated person. It is usually undervalued in societies where it is associated with immigrant status. The example given was how bilingualisms is associated with status and prestige in Europe, but not in the U. S. where immigrants are more common. This question calls on students to generalize from their knowledge of other areas of the world, where knowing English in particular is seen as a socially desirable ability. 6.116. The text reports a study that found that bilingual children in the U.S. and the U.K. scored lower on standardized tests than did monolingual English-speaking children. However, this result was suspect because: a. the study did not take into account the socioeconomic level of the children’s families b. the children were highly intelligent to begin with c. the second language was Japanese, which is a very difficult language for English-speakers to learn d. the bilingual children were older than the children who learned only English Answer: a Page: 164 Factual Difficult 6.117. Generalizing from research conclusions presented in the text, if given the choice, would you recommend that children be raised in bilingual environment? a. Yes b. No, because this will limit the size of their vocabulary c. No, because this will delay their learning to talk d. No, because this will make them more likely to develop reading problems Answer: a Page: 164 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Most research today supports the conclusion that linguistically, culturally, and probably cognitively, it is often an advantage to grow up bilingual. 6.118. According to the text, most research supports the conclusion that growing up bilingual: a. causes students to fall behind in their school work b. has many advantages for the student c. places unnecessary burdens on children d. causes serious learning disabilities Answer: b Page: 164 Factual Easy Play and Learning 6.119. According to Piaget, what is the child’s “work”: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. conservation b. symbolic representation c. elimination of egocentrism d. play Answer: d Page: 165 Factual Easy 6.120. When Elizabeth and Hannah bang pots and pans together to experience new sounds, they are engaging in what type of play? a. rough-and-tumble b. dramatic c. sensory pleasure d. constructive Answer: c Page: 166 Applied Difficult Rationale: Sensory pleasure refers to a type of play in which sensory experience is the goal in and of itself. This type of play teaches children essential facts about their bodies and the environment. 6.121. According to the text, what type of play is a child engaged in who splashes water in a birdbath? a. ritual play b. sensory pleasure play c. dramatic play d. play with motion Answer: b Page: 166 Applied Difficult Rationale: Sensory pleasure refers to a type of play in which sensory experience is the goal in and of itself. This type of play teaches children essential facts about their bodies and the environment. 6.122. Running, jumping, and skipping are best considered to be examples of: a. sensory pleasure b. play with motion c. rough-and-tumble play d. play with language Answer: b Page: 166 Factual Easy 6.123. According to the text, rough-and-tumble play appears to: a. promote impulse control b. lessen the distinction that children make between “pretend” and “real” c. be used equally by boys and girls d. increase aggressiveness Answer: a Page: 166 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, rough-and-tumble play provides exercise and release of energy, helps children learn how to handle their feelings, control impulses, and distinguish between pretend and real; it is more common in boys than girls. 6.124. Suppose you observe two children, sitting together and occasionally looking at each other, but not really interacting. Each is playing with her own toy. This type of play is called: a. symbolic play b. parallel play c. oppositional play d. independent play Answer: b Page: 166 Applied Moderate Rationale: Parallel play refers to the play typically engaged in by 2-year-olds, which is characterized by each child playing independently, although in proximity to each other. 6.125. Suppose you observe two children, sitting together and occasionally looking at each other, but not really interacting. Each is playing with her own toy. If these children are typical for their age, about how old are they? a. one girl is probably 2 and the other much older, perhaps age 6 b. both girls are probably about 2 years old c. both girls are probably about 4 years old d. both girls are probably about 7 years old Answer: b Page: 166 Applied Moderate Rationale: Parallel play refers to the play typically engaged in by 2-year-olds, which is characterized by each child playing independently, although in proximity to each other. 6.126. Generalizing from research presented in the text, if a 4-year-old was observed speaking to a 2-year-old, what kind of speech would the 4-year-old be most likely to use? a. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his mother b. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his older brother c. the same kind of speech he uses when talking to his preschool teacher d. a simpler version of his normal speech Answer: d Page: 167 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In one early study (M. Shatz & Gelman, 1973) researchers asked 4-year-olds to describe to 2-year-olds how a specific toy worked. Even 4-year-olds understood the need to address younger children in simpler terms. The researchers found that 4-year-olds spoke slowly; they used short sentences; they employed many attention-getting words, such as look and here; and they frequently repeated the child’s name. Four-year-olds did not speak to older children or adults in the same manner, indicating that they were able to understand the differing perspectives of others. 6.127. Parallel play is most likely to be displayed by which of the following children? a. a 2-year-old b. a 4-year-old c. a 6-year-old Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. an 8-year-old Answer: a Page: 167 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, parallel play is typically engaged in by 2-year-olds, which is characterized by each child playing independently, although in proximity to each other 6.128. Which of the types of play is most directly linked to advancing the child’s skills with symbolic representation? a. dramatic play b. solitary play c. parallel play d. sensory play Answer: a Page: 167 Factual Easy 6.129. According to the text, dramatic play begins to be displayed in earnest at which of the following ages? a. age 2 b. age 4 c. age 6 d. age 8 Answer: b Page: 167 Factual Moderate 6.130. Which of the following is not a good example of dramatic play? a. imitation of a parent’s behavior b. reading a book c. pretending to be a clown d. role playing the role of “teacher” Answer: b Page: 167 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Dramatic play develops at about age 3 or 4 and is characterized by meaningful interactions among children, often including imitation, pretending, and role playing. 6.131. Sara and James are 2 years old and are playing near each other. Sara is pretending to be a princess, while James is pretending to be a fireman. According to the text, what type of play are they engaging in? a. dramatic play b. selfish play c. cooperative play d. egocentric play Answer: a Page: 167 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Dramatic play develops at about age 3 or 4 and is characterized by meaningful interactions among children, often including imitation, pretending, and role playing. 6.132. The text suggests that children benefit from playing with other children who are older and younger than they are. Why? a. Older children can model for younger children, providing scaffolding. b. Older children teach rules of discipline better than same-age children. c. Younger children allow children to escape reality, thereby fostering dramatic play. d. Younger children help older children practice their language skills better than same-age children. Answer: a Page: 168 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, mixed-age peer groups can offer older children the opportunity to practice teaching and child care with younger children, and younger children can imitate and practice role relations with older children. As noted earlier in the chapter, the most effective instruction involves scaffolding, which is the progressive structuring of tasks by parents or others so that the level of task difficulty is appropriate. This finding makes clear the significance of having older children as role models for those who are younger. Current Issues: A Theory of Mind 6.133. The text describes an experiment where 3- and 5-year-old children were shown two objects that were identical except one was red and the other was blue. The children were then given one of the objects that was inside a tube so the child could feel, but not see, it. This experiment is one that was devised to test the concept of: a. animism b. the mountain problem c. the theory of mind d. automaticity Answer: c Page: 155 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: This is a theory of mind problem because it focuses on how children’s cognitive processes change as they age. 6.134. Suppose that young children are asked what is most likely to be inside a small dog cage. They say “a dog.” When they look inside, they see a chicken. To test the children’s theory of mind, what would they likely be asked next? a. What color is a chicken? b. What do chickens and dogs have in common? c. If your friend came in the room and was asked what was in the dog cage, what would he guess? d. Which would make a better pet, a dog or a chicken? Answer: c Page: 155 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: False belief tasks are often used to study the limits of children’s thinking. A very similar example of a false belief task was described on page 155 of the text. It takes awhile for children to understand that we have beliefs based on our experience, and that sometimes those beliefs are false because we do not have enough evidence. 6.135. According to the text, which of the following groups of 3- to 5-year-old children would be most likely to have difficulty solving theory of mind problems? a. children who were raised in collectivist cultures, such as Japan Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. children who were raised in individualist cultures, such as the United States c. children with schizophrenia d. children who had not attended preschool Answer: c Page: 155 Factual Moderate Changing Perspectives: Bilingual Kindergarten and Play 6.136. Juan and Maria move to the United States from Mexico, where they begin school. From their first day, they are placed in an English-speaking classroom in which no Spanish is spoken. This method of teaching a second language would best exemplify which of the following models? a. immersion b. English as a Second Language c. two-way bilingual education d. trial-by-fire language learning Answer: a Page: 166-167 Applied Moderate Rationale: One bilingual education model, which often is called an inclusion or immersion model, involves classes taught exclusively in English. In this model, non-English-speaking children are immersed in the majority language, with the idea that they will eventually learn it out of necessity. 6.137. Jack’s family moves to Japan, where he attends a school in which most of the instruction is done in both English and Japanese, which he learns to use as he plays with other children. This type of instruction is best thought of as an example of: a. immersion language learning b. two-way bilingual education c. the “English as a Second Language” approach d. the symbolic-social pyramid approach Answer: b Page: 166-167 Applied Moderate Rationale: In the two-way bilingual education model, children are taught in their own language but ample opportunities are created for different language groups to interact, which requires all members of the class to learn a second language.

True-False questions: Physical Development 6.138. Young children typically gain an average of 4 ½ pounds and almost 3 inches per year during early childhood. Answer: True Page: 147 6.139. During the brain growth spurt of early childhood, new neural connections are established and unneeded neural connections are pruned away.

Answer: True Page: 148 6.140. In the United States about 90% of children are right-handed, but in less developed countries this percentage is considerably less. Answer: False Page: 149 Rationale: Around the world, the percentage of children who are right-handed is about 90%. 6.141. Handedness is of special significance to developmentalists because it is directly tied to how rapidly a child’s vocabulary develops. Answer: False Page: 149 Rationale: Handedness is of interest because it is tied to brain lateralization. Lateralization is linked to language, in that language appears to be a lateralized function, especially for right-handed people. However, lateralization is not linked to the speed with which vocabulary develops. Motor Skills Development 6.142. Automaticity in motor development is achieved when the child can perform an action without consciously thinking about it. Answer: True Page: 151 6.143. Functional subordination refers to the idea that gross motor skills are acquired before fine motor skills are learned. Answer: False Page: 151 Rationale: Functional subordination is the integration of a number of separate, simple actions or schemas into a more complex pattern of behavior. 6.144. Fine motor skills include such tasks as writing and handling eating utensils. Answer: True Page: 151-152 6.145. By 5 years of age, a typical child can throw a ball “overhanded.” Answer: True Page: 152 6.146. Four-year-old Angela knows the alphabet and the sounds that correspond to many of the letters. She has begun to sit with a book and “pretends” to read by telling the story that goes with each page. The term that describes Angela’s current state is “readiness.” Answer: True Page: 152 6.147. When a child attempts to accomplish a task in order to receive praise from her teacher or parent, this is an example of intrinsic motivation. Answer: False Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 153 Rationale: Working for praise, which is a reward, is an example of extrinsic, not intrinsic, motivation. Cognitive Development 6.148. Piaget’s preoperational period involves development first through the intuitive period and then the preconceptual period. Answer: False Page: 154 Rationale: In the preoperational stage, the child first enters the preconceptual period (from about age 2 to 4 or 5) and then moves into the intuitive period (age 4 or 5 to age 7). 6.149. When a child finds it difficult to understand another person’s feelings or perceptions, this is a good example of Piaget’s concept called concrete operations. Answer: False Page: 154 Rationale: The inability to take another’s point of view defines egocentrism. 6.150. The development of symbolic representation marks the emergence of the preoperational period. Answer: True Page: 155-156 6.151. When a child cannot correctly answer the question, “Are there more boys or more children in this classroom?” this is a good example of the limits of egocentric thinking. Answer: False Page: 154, 157 Rationale: The problem noted is a classic problem related to the development of conservation, not egocentrism. Egocentrism refers to the child’s inability to understand another person’s perspective. 6.152. Critics of Piaget’s theory note that children depend more on social perspectives than Piaget thought and that children are less competent and more immature than Piaget believed. Answer: False Page: 158 Rationale: Critics of Piaget do note that he underestimated the significance of social perspectives, but also note that he probably underestimated the competence of children. 6.153. The lower limit of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development is determined by a child’s competence when solving the problem alone. Answer: True Page: 159 6.154. The progressive structuring of tasks so that their difficulty is appropriate for a child is called scaffolding. Answer: True Page: 159 6.155. The information-processing perspective conceptualizes memory as operating like a computer. Answer: True Page: 159 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.156. Working memory is also sometimes called long-term memory. Answer: False Page: 159 Rationale: Working memory is also called short-term memory. 6.157. Multiple choice test questions are a good example of a task that requires recall. Answer: False Page: 160 Rationale: Multiple choice questions involve recognition, not recall, because the correct answer is presented and need only be selected. The person does not need to recall the correct answer; only find it. 6.158. Young children have special difficulty remembering information that is organized temporally (in a timebased sequence). Answer: False Page: 160 Rationale: Young children find it easier to remember events when they are organized by time-based scripts, in which events are recalled in the order in which they occur. Language Development 6.159. Beginning at age 18 months, children learn an average of 25 new words a day. Answer: False Page: 161 Rationale: At this age, children are learning an average of about 9 new words a day. 6.160. When a child talks in simple 2- or 3-word sentences, such as “Me do it!” this is referred to as overregularization. Answer: False Page: 161-162 Rationale: Speaking in short, abbreviated sentences is called “telegraphic speech.” Overregularization refers to the application of rules to speech, with exceptions to rules being learned later. An example would be a young child saying “I goed there” instead of “I went there.” 6.161. If a young child is seen to be talking to himself, this is an example of private speech. Answer: True Page: 162 6.162. If two children are playing together and one says, “I think this doll is hungry” and the other responds, “I want to wear a hat,” this is a good demonstration of what is meant by the term collective monologue. Answer: True Page: 163 6.163. Research presented in the text suggests that one reason that girls may develop language abilities earlier than boys is that their play is more language-rich. Answer: True Page: 164

6.164. It seems likely that, even if socioeconomic conditions are similar, children who grow up in a bilingual environment still suffer from slower language development. Answer: False Page: 164 Rationale: Although studies sometimes show that bilingual children develop language more slowly, the text suggests that this is due to uncontrolled socioeconomic differences between bilingual children and children raised in a monolingual setting. The text concludes that it is probably an advantage for children to grow up in a bilingual environment. Play and Learning 6.165. Children generally develop a preference for dramatic play before they are able to engage in parallel play to any great degree. Answer: False Page: 166-167 Rationale: Parallel play, in which children play by themselves while in proximity to another child, develops before dramatic play does. 6.166. The development of dramatic play is directly linked to the child’s ability to understand problems involving conservation. Answer: False Page: 167-168 Rationale: Dramatic play is directly tied to the child’s understanding of symbolic representation, since it involves the ability to pretend. Conservation tasks, while they develop as a consequence of the child’s increasing cognitive abilities, do not directly limit or contribute to the development of dramatic play. 6.167. Role playing encourages cognitive development because it allows a child to experiment with a variety of behaviors and experience the consequences and emotions that come with them. Answer: True Page: 167-168

Short Answer questions: Physical Development 6.168. Describe the two processes that occur during the brain growth spurt during early childhood. Page: 148 6.169. What is meant by the term “lateralization” when it is used to describe brain development. Give an example of a function that is lateralized. Page: 148-149 6.170. Describe what it means to state that brain development and cognitive development interact. Give an example of what is meant by the term “interaction” in this context. Page: 150 Motor Skills Development

6.171. Distinguish between gross motor skills and fine motor skills and give an example of each. Page: 150-152 6.172. Define the concept of automaticity and give an example that demonstrates this ability. Page: 151 6.173. Give an example of what is meant by the term “functional subordination.” Page: 151 6.174. Identify three ways in which a 2-year-old’s motor abilities are different from those of a 6-year-old child. Page: 150-152 6.175. Define the term “readiness” and give an example of this concept. Page: 152 6.176. Differentiate between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and give an example of each. Page: 153 Cognitive Development 6.177. Differentiate between animism and reification and give an example of each. Page: 154 6.178. Describe the “mountain problem” and suggest how egocentrism limits the child’s ability to correctly solve this problem. Page: 154 6.179. Define what is meant by the term “theory of mind.” Page: 154, 155 6.180. Describe a typical conservation problem and suggest how a child in Piaget’s preoperational stage would solve this differently than would an older child. Page: 157-158 6.181. Give an example of what the problem of “irreversibility” involves. Page: 158 6.182. Define the term “scaffolding” and give an example of how parents can provide scaffolding assistance to their children as the children learn new complex tasks. Page: 159 6.183. What did Vygotsky mean when he argued that children learn through guided participation? Page: 160 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.184. Give an example of a recognition task and an example of a recall task. What is the essential difference between these two types of tasks? Page: 160 6.185. What type of scripts do young children find most helpful when they are trying to learn about events? Give an example of how a child might use this type of script. Page: 160-161 Language Development 186. Define “overregularization” and give an example of this type of speech. Page: 161 6.187. Young children engage in two types of speaking behavior: 1) private speech and 2) collective monologues. What are the characteristics of these two types of behaviors? Page: 162-163 6.188. Define the term “pragmatics” as it is used to describe speech. Give two examples of how pragmatics influences how speech develops. Page: 163 6.189. Suggest how cultural differences between nations might influence how bilingual children are viewed. Page: 164 Play and Learning 6.190. Describe the differences between parallel play and dramatic play. Page: 166-167 6.191. What advantages are associated with children’s play groups that include children of different ages, as opposed to those that are age-segregated? Page: 168

Essay questions: Physical Development 6.192. Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: “Bob is left-brained and that is why he is so good at solving math problems, whereas Linda is right-brained, so she is good at artistic pursuits.” Page: 148-149 6.193. Why are left-handed people more likely to be ambidextrous than right-handed people? Page: 149

6.194. Describe the research that looks at prenatal thumb-sucking as a precursor to the development of handedness. What conclusions should be drawn from this research? Page: 149 6.195. Why would it be desirable to begin interventions programs for at-risk children earlier, rather than later, in development? Page: 149-150 Motor Skills Development 6.196. Define the term “automaticity” and describe how a 2-year-old is different with respect to this trait than a 6year-old. Page: 151 6.197. Give two examples of functional subordination, one that involves gross motor skills and one that involves fine motor skills. Page: 151-152 6.198. Discuss what is meant by the concept of “readiness” and suggest how a parent can become aware of when a child is “ready” to learn something new. Give an example that demonstrates the points you make in your answer. Page: 152 6.199. List and describe four conditions that are involved in learning motor skills and give an example of each. Page: 152-153 6.200. Suggest how both intrinsic and extrinsic motivation contribute to the development of a child’s motor skills. Be sure to distinguish clearly what is meant by each of these types of motivation. Page: 153 Cognitive Development 6.201. Describe how a child moves through the preconceptual and intuitive periods within Piaget’s preoperational stage, suggesting how cognitive processes change as the child moves from the first to the second period in this stage. Page: 154-156 6.202. How does egocentrism limit a child’s thought? Page: 154-155 6.203. Describe how the child’s development of symbolic representation contributes to the development of language and to the development of dramatic play. Page: 155-156 6.204. Define the terms “centration” and “irreversibility” and suggest how each limits the child when solving a conservation problem. Page: 156-158 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.205. The text makes the point that younger children view conservation problems as perceptual problems, whereas older children see them as logical problems. What does this mean? Use a standard conservation problem to illustrate your answer. Page: 157-158 6.206. What two criticisms are most often raised with regard to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development? Do you think these criticism have merit? Why or why not? Page: 158 6.207. Define what Vygotsky meant when he suggested that children’s cognitive growth takes place within a zone of proximal development. How would a parent know what the lower range of the child’s zone is? How would the parent know what the upper limit of the child’s zone is? Page: 159 6.208. Describe two differences between the way that Piaget conceptualized early childhood and the way Vygotsky viewed this period of development. Page: 158-159 6.209. Describe how children use scripts as a memory strategy during early childhood. What kinds of scripts do they find especially helpful? Give an example to illustrate your answer. Page: 160-161 Language Development 6.210. Comment on the statement, “Children learn the rules of language before they learn the exceptions to the rules.” Use an example of overregularization to support your answer. Page: 161-162 6.211. Is private speech something that parents of young children should try to encourage or discourage? Explain your answer. Page: 162-163 6.212. Generalizing from research presented in the text about how children’s play influences their language development, how might parents encourage play behaviors that will facilitate the development of their child’s language abilities? Page: 163-164 6.213. Does being raised in a bilingual culture provide advantages or disadvantages for a child? Describe research that supports your answer. Page: 164-165 Play and Learning 6.214. What does it mean to say that play both mirrors and encourages cognitive development? Page: 165-168 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

6.215. Describe how children’s egocentrism is linked to the type of play that they prefer. Page: 165-166 6.216. How would a child’s skills of symbolic representation contribute to, or limit, the types of play activities in which the child engaged? Page: 167-168 6.217. Provide two examples of how a child’s level of cognitive development is linked to the kind of play activities in which that child engages. Page: 165-168

Name____________________________________ Chapter 7 - Early Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. When children are younger, they are more likely to engage in ________ aggression; as they grow older they are more likely to engage in __________ aggression. a. physical; verbal b. verbal; physical c. instrumental; hostile d. instrumental; intentional 2. Compared to children who don’t have imaginary companions, those who do: a. are less sociable b. are more shy c. have more friends d. are less creative 3. The text describes a study in which young children watched a puppet show in which a puppet was described as either a friend or an acquaintance who gets in trouble. The children responded with more empathy when the person in trouble was __________ and showed a greater willingness to help ________. a. a friend; an acquaintance b. an acquaintance; a friend c. an acquaintance; an acquaintance d. a friend; a friend Conceptual questions: 4. The major way that anxiety is different from fear is that anxiety is: a. much more intense emotionally b. processed in the brain, whereas fear is processed in the spinal cord c. more generalized and vague d. innate, rather than learned 5. As children grow older, they gain a greater ability to empathize. As a consequence, their tendency to behave aggressively: a. first increases, but then decreases b. first decreases, but then increases c. generally decreases d. generally increases 6. The text reports a study in which female college students interacted with a 6-month-old infant who was either a boy or a girl, and who was dressed as either a boy or a girl. (For example, sometimes a boy was dressed as a boy, sometimes he was dressed as a girl.) Results demonstrate the importance of which of the following factors in the development of gender identity? a. genetic forces, especially those coded on the X and Y chromosomes b. brain development, which proceeds either in a “male” or “female” pattern c. socialization d. androgyny 7. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the relationship between socioeconomic status and child maltreatment? a. Children in low-income families are least likely to be abused because these families are most likely to be headed by women. b. Children in high-income families are most likely to be abused, but the abuse is less likely to be reported Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

due to the high social status of the parents. c. Children in low-income families are most likely to be abused because poverty and unemployment involve stress and heighten risk for abuse. d. Children in middle-class homes are most likely to be abused, but the abuse is less likely to be reported because one parent usually covers up the abuse for the other parent. Applied questions: 8. Based on research cited in the text, you would expect that 5-year-old Robby is most likely to fear: a. monsters b. strangers c. falling d. loud noises 9. A 6-year-old child says, “I did this REALLY WELL! I am a SMART girl!” These statements best reflect Erik Erikson’s concept of: a. autonomy b. trust c. initiative d. independence 10. Leo and Mary use firm control with their children but encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. Their parenting style would best be described as: a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent

Name____________________________________ Chapter 7 - Early Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. The text reports a study in which parents of Navajo children and parents of white children raised in Montana were asked about what the children were afraid of. The major finding of this study was that? a. children in Montana were much better adjusted than the Navajo children b. Navajo children were much better adjusted than the children in Montana c. children in Montana were afraid of many more things, including imaginary things like supernatural beings d. Navajo children were afraid of many more things, including imaginary things like supernatural beings 2. Which of the following factors is positively related to being popular in childhood: a. having been the victim of child abuse b. being aggressive c. being “different” from peers in some significant way d. being given lots of opportunities to play with other children 3. ________ is genetically determined and biological, whereas _______ is culturally based and acquired. a. Sex, gender b. Gender, sex c. Masculinity, femininity d. Femininity, masculinity Conceptual questions: 4. A theorist who emphasizes the child's feelings, drives, and developmental conflicts in the study of development would most likely subscribe to which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. social-learning perspective b. cognitive development perspective c. psychoanalytic perspective d. family systems perspective 5. Megan sees her mother feeling and looking sad. This in turn makes Megan sad. She is experiencing which phenomenon? a. empathy b. frustration c. assertiveness d. egocentrism 6. According to the views of Erik Erikson, which of the following statements best reflects the developmental crisis for 2-year-old Tommy? a. Who am I? b. I want to do it MYSELF! c. Why NOT? d. I’m SCARED! 7. The various parenting styles that are discussed in the text are distinguished from each other primarily according to the degree that parents exhibit: a. warmth and control b. punishment and reinforcement c. androgen versus gender-role stereotypes d. love and liking

Applied questions: 8. If Maria’s parents are concerned that her inability to cope with one of her emotions is disrupting her sense of identity, the emotion that is most likely to be involved would be: a. guilt b. anxiety c. shame d. fear 9. Mike and Molly are playing together. Their play involves each playing alone, without interacting with each other, but both children are in the same room, using toys from the same toy box. This type of play would best be described as: a. associative play b. cooperative play c. parallel play d. onlooker play 10. Suppose that 6-year-old Samantha (a girl) is sexually abused. Generalizing from statistics, which of the following people would be most likely to have committed this abuse? a. Samantha’s father b. Samantha’s stepfather c. Samantha’s mother d. a male neighbor who is gay

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 7.1 1. a, p. 177 2. c, p. 183 3. d, p.187 4. c, p. 173 5. c, p. 180 6. c, p. 189-190 7. c, p. 197 8. a, p. 174 9. c, p. 182 10. b, pp. 191-192

Quick Quiz 7.2 1. d, p. 174 2. d, p. 185 3. a, p. 188 4. c, p. 172 5. a, p. 180 6. b, p. 182 7. a, p. 191 8. c, p. 176 9. c, p. 184 10. b, p. 196

Chapter 7 Early Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Multiple Choice questions: Coping With Feelings and Emotions 7.1. The period of early childhood is typically assigned to children between the ages of: a. 2 and 6 b. 3 and 7 c. 3 and 8 d. 4 and 6 Answer: a Page: 172 Factual Easy 7.2. Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing of a theorist with the appropriate theoretical perspective? a. Freud: social learning b. Piaget: cognitive development c. Erikson: psychodynamic d. Vygotsky: cognitive-development Answer: a Page: 172 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Freud is associated with the psychodynamic perspective, not the social learning perspective. 7.3. A theorist who emphasizes the child's feelings, drives, and developmental conflicts in the study of development would most likely subscribe to which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. social learning perspective b. cognitive-development perspective c. psychoanalytic perspective d. family systems perspective Answer: c Page: 172 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The psychoanalytic (or psychodynamic) perspective emphasizes the child’s feelings, drives, and developmental conflicts. According to this perspective, young children must learn to cope with powerful emotions, such as anxiety, in socially acceptable ways. 7.4. Which theoretical perspective emphasizes the link between cognition, behavior, and the environment? a. psychodynamic perspective b. cognitive-development perspective c. sociallearning perspective d. family systems perspective Answer: c Page: 172 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.5. If you believe that children's thoughts and concepts organize their social behavior, you adhere to the: a. social learning perspective b. cognitive-development perspective c. psychodynamic perspective d. family systems perspective Answer: b Page: 172 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The cognitive-developmental view emphasizes children’s thoughts and concepts as the organizers of their social behavior. 7.6. Albert Bandura, who studied how children learn and display aggression, is a theorist who is most closely associated with which theoretical perspective? a. social learning perspective b. cognitive-development perspective c. psychodynamic perspective d. family systems perspective Answer: a Page: 172 Factual Moderate 7.7. Which of the following theorists is typically associated with a psychoanalytic perspective? a. Lev Vygotsky b. Jean Piaget c. Erik Erikson d. Albert Bandura Answer: c Page: 172 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Erikson’s view emphasizes how individuals reconcile various developmental conflicts, such as establishing trust and a sense of identity. As such, his focus was on emotional development, which is consistent with a psychoanalytic perspective. 7.8. Which of the following theorists is typically associated with the cognitive-development perspective? a. Lev Vygotsky b. Sigmund Freud c. Erik Erikson d. Albert Bandura Answer: a Page: 172 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Vygotsky’s theory was one of cognitive development: he emphasized that much of children’s cognitive growth takes place through guided participation, in what he called the zone of proximal development. 7.9. A feeling of uneasiness, apprehension, or fear that has a vague or unknown source is a definition of: a. anxiety b. emotion regulation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. jealousy d. frustration Answer: a Page: 173 Factual Easy 7.10. Maria has a feeling of uneasiness, but doesn't know the source of her apprehension. Which of the following terms best describes Maria’s state? a. arousal b. defensiveness c. fear d. anxiety Answer: d Page: 173 Applied Easy Rationale: Anxiety is defined as a generalized emotional state that produces a feeling of uneasiness, apprehension, or fear that stems from a vague or unknown source. 7.11. The major way that anxiety is different from fear is that anxiety is: a. much more intense emotionally b. processed in the brain, whereas fear is processed in the spinal cord c. more generalized and vague d. innate, rather than learned Answer: c Page: 173 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Fear is a state of arousal, tension, or apprehension caused by a specific, identifiable stimulus or situation. For example, a child may fear the dark, or lightning and thunder, or the child may have a phobia (an irrational fear) of big dogs or high places. In contrast, anxiety is a generalized emotional state that produces a feeling of uneasiness, apprehension, or fear that stems from a vague or unknown source. 7.12. According to research cited in the text, Navajo parents believe that a child that has no fear is: a. the ideal child b. a foolhardy child c. a typical child d. a joyous child Answer: b Page: 174 Factual Moderate 7.13. In a study of children’s fears, white parents in Montana reported that their children had on average ___ different fears, whereas Navajo parents reported that their children had on average ___ different fears. a. 20; 60 b. 60; 20 c. 22; 4 d. 4; 22 Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 174 Factual Moderate 7.14. The text reports a study in which parents of Navajo children and parents of white children raised in Montana were asked about what the children were afraid of. The major finding of this study was that: a. children in Montana were much better adjusted than the Navajo children b. Navajo children were much better adjusted than the children in Montana c. children in Montana were afraid of many more things, including imaginary things like supernatural beings d. Navajo children were afraid of many more things, including imaginary things like supernatural beings Answer: d Page: 174 Factual Moderate 7.15. The text reports a study in which parents of Navajo children and parents of white children raised in Montana were asked about what the children were afraid of. The major finding of this study suggests that: a. fears are biologically wired into human beings b. fears are present from birth on c. fears are influenced by culture d. fears are seldom seen in children younger than 3 years of age, although anxiety is present from birth Answer: c Page: 174 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In contemporary Western culture, showing fear is generally frowned upon. In contrast, traditional Navajo parents believe that it is healthy and normal for a child to be afraid. In one study, Navajo parents reported an average of 22 fears in their children, including fears of supernatural beings. In contrast, a group of white parents from rural Montana reported an average of only 4 fears in their children. 7.16. Suppose that Dan’s parents believe that it is normal and healthy for young children to have many fears. David’s parents, on the other hand, believe that a fearful child is unhealthy and that parents should worry if their child expresses many fears. Generalizing from research cited in the text, you would expect that: a. Dan would express more fears than David b. David would express more fears than Dan c. Dan would be happier than David d. David would be happier than Dan Answer: a Page: 174 Applied Difficult Rationale: In a study of Navajo parents and white parents from Montana, Navajo parents reported that their children had on average 22 fears, whereas white parents reported that their children had on average 4 fears. Navajo believe that it is normal and healthy for children to be fearful, whereas the white parents believe children should be brave and not fearful. No differences were reported with respect to children’s happiness. 7.17. Jersild and Holmes’ classic study of children's fears found that, in comparison to older children, younger children are more likely to be afraid of: a. specific things, such as strangers b. imaginary things, such as monsters c. abstract things, such as prejudice d. general things, such as death Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 174 Factual Moderate 7.18. Linda is afraid of spiders, doctors, and snakes. Lauren is afraid of ghosts, of being alone, and of being teased. Generalizing from the results of a classic study described in the text, your best guess is that: a. Linda is a Navajo child and Lauren is a white Midwestern child b. Lauren is a Navajo child and Linda is a white Midwestern child c. Linda is older than Lauren d. Lauren is older than Linda Answer: d Page: 174 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: A classic study of children’s fears (Jersild & Holmes, 1935) found that younger children were most likely to be afraid of specific objects or situations, such as strangers, unfamiliar things, the dark, loud noises, or falling. In contrast, children age 5 or 6 were more likely to fear imaginary or abstract things, such as monsters, robbers, death, being alone, or being ridiculed. 7.19. In contrast to older children, research would suggest that younger children would be more likely to be afraid of which of the following? a. ghosts b. monsters c. the dark d. death Answer: c Page: 174 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Jersild and Holms (1935) demonstrated that younger children were most likely to be afraid of specific objects or situations, such as strangers, unfamiliar things, the dark, loud noises, or falling. Older children were more likely to fear imaginary or abstract things, such as monsters, robbers, death, being alone, or being ridiculed. 7.20. In contrast to younger children, research would suggest that older children would be more likely to be afraid of which of the following? a. death b. the dark c. loud noises d. strangers Answer: a Page: 174 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Jersild and Holms (1935) demonstrated that younger children were most likely to be afraid of specific objects or situations, such as strangers, unfamiliar things, the dark, loud noises, or falling. Older children were more likely to fear imaginary or abstract things, such as monsters, robbers, death, being alone, or being ridiculed. 7.21. Based on research cited in the text, you would expect that 5-year-old Robby is most likely to fear: a. monsters b. strangers c. falling Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. loud noises Answer: a Page: 174 Applied Difficult Rationale: A classic study of children’s fears (Jersild & Holmes, 1935) found that younger children were most likely to be afraid of specific objects or situations, such as strangers, unfamiliar things, the dark, loud noises, or falling. In contrast, children age 5 or 6 were more likely to fear imaginary or abstract things, such as monsters, robbers, death, being alone, or being ridiculed. 7.22. If Betsy is afraid of monsters under her bed at bedtime, what is most likely the best way her parents can help her overcome her fear? a. They should look under the bed with Betsy watching and have her look with them. b. They should assure her that nothing will happen to her and tell her to “be brave.” c. They should ignore her fear and refuse to talk about monsters with her. d. They should mildly punish her when she expresses the fear. Answer: a Page: 174 Applied Moderate Rationale: When their fears are mild, children can be gently and sympathetically encouraged to confront and overcome them. Parents can help by demonstrating that there is little to fear. 7.23. Suppose that 5-year-old Mike’s parents are concerned that he is too fearful. To help him better cope with his fears, Mike’s parents would be advised to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. punish him when he expresses fear b. prevent him from watching violent TV shows c. make sure that he is not being teased by siblings or friends d. make his daily routine more predictable Answer: a Page: 174 Applied Moderate Rationale: As the textbook notes, often the best way to help children cope with anxiety is to reduce unnecessary stress in their lives. When children show unusually high levels of tension or have frequent temper tantrums, it is often helpful to simplify their lives by maintaining daily routines; specifying clearly what is expected of them; and helping them anticipate special events, such as visits from friends and relatives. Other helpful strategies include reducing their exposure to parental fighting or violent television programs and protecting them from being teased or tormented by siblings or neighborhood bullies or gangs. 7.24. Suppose that a 3-year-old begins to ask his mother to check under the bad for wolves every night at bedtime. Generalizing from information presented in the text, the best response from the parent would be: a. to refuse to do this checking, since it will likely lead to the development of a phobia about wolves b. to refuse to do this checking, since it is irrational and might lead to the development of defense mechanisms c. to refuse to do this checking, but instead to tell the child that there is no way a wolf could get into the house d. to check under the bed every night so that the child can better deal with the anxiety he feels about going to bed Answer: d Page: 174 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: When their fears are mild, children can be gently and sympathetically encouraged to confront and overcome them. Parents can help by demonstrating that there is little to fear. 7.25. The primary goal of a defense mechanism is to: a. reduce aggression b. develop self-regulation c. reduce anxiety d. enhance prosocial behavior Answer: c Page: 174 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, parents should understand that children sometimes rely on defense mechanisms, which are the psychodynamic tricks and behaviors used by individuals to disguise or reduce tensions that lead to fear or anxiety. 7.26. Five-year-old Jenny told her mother, "Kate doesn't like me," when in actuality, Jenny doesn't like Kate. What defense mechanism is Jenny using? a. projection b. reaction formation c. denial d. identification Answer: a Page: 175 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Projection refers to the process of attributing undesirable thoughts or actions to someone else and, in the process, distorting reality; “She did it, not me” is a projective statement. “He wants to hurt me” may seem more acceptable than “I want to hurt him.” Projection thus sets the stage for a distorted form of self-defense; for example, “If he wants to hurt me, I’d better do it to him first.” 7.27. Tyler was angry with his baby sister, but he could not hit her, so he went outside and kicked a ball instead. This illustrates the use of the defense mechanism called: a. denial b. regression c. displacement d. projection Answer: c Page: 175 Applied Difficult Rationale: Displacement is defined as substituting something or someone else for the real source of anger or fear; for example, a child may be angry with his baby sister, but he cannot hit her. Perhaps he cannot even admit to himself that he wants to hit her, so he torments the family dog or cat instead. 7.28. After Amy's dog died, she pretended that it was still alive and called out for it by name and pretended to play with it outside. What defense mechanism is Amy using? a. denial b. displacement c. regression d. identification

Answer: a Page: 175 Applied Difficult Rationale: Denial entails refusing to admit that a situation exists or that an event happened; for example, children may react to an upsetting situation such as the death of a pet by pretending that the pet is still living in the house and sleeping with them at night. 7.29. Jake was involved in a fight but he cannot remember any of it. This defense mechanism, in which he completely erased the fight from consciousness, is called: a. regression b. displacement c. reaction formation d. repression Answer: d Page: 175 Applied Difficult Rationale: Repression is an extreme form of denial in which the person unconsciously erases a frightening event or circumstance from awareness; there is no need to rely on fantasy because the child literally does not consciously remember that the event ever occurred. 7.30. Seven-year-old Andy reacted to his newborn sister’s birth by sucking his thumb, a behavior he had quit long ago. His way of coping with his anxiety is in the form of what defense mechanism? a. displacement b. identification c. regression d. repression Answer: c Page: 175 Applied Moderate Rationale: Regression is defined as returning to an earlier or more infantile form of behavior as a way of coping with a stressful situation; for example, a frustrated 8-year-old suddenly reverts to sucking her thumb and carrying around her blanket, regressing to behaviors that were given up years before. 7.31. Bridget is very anxious about being independent from her parents. Although she would like to be with them, instead she pushes them away and behaves with exaggerated independence. What defense mechanism is she using? a. displacement b. repression c. projection d. reaction formation Answer: d Page: 175 Applied Difficult Rationale: Reaction formation refers to behaving in ways opposite to your inclinations; when children have thoughts or desires that make them anxious, they may react by behaving in a contradictory way. For example, they might like to cling to their parents, but instead they push them away and behave with exaggerated independence and assertiveness. 7.32. The process of dealing with emotions in socially acceptable ways is called: a. compliance Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. emotion regulation c. self-regulation d. prosocial behavior Answer: b Page: 175 Factual Easy 7.33. Alex’s parents are working very hard to help him learn to manage his feelings so that they don’t overwhelm him. In particular, they are helping him cope with the anxiety he feels when he is left alone. The term that best describes what Alex’s parents are trying to do is: a. repression b. displacement c. emotion regulation d. rationalization Answer: c Page: 175 Applied Moderate Rationale: Emotional development requires that children learn to deal with a wide range of emotions, not just fear and anxiety, in socially acceptable ways—a process called emotion regulation. 7.34. According to the text, the emotion regulation of which of the following feelings is especially important during early childhood? a. fear b. shame and guilt c. anxiety d. happiness Answer: b Page: 175-176 Factual Moderate 7.35. If Maria’s parents are concerned that her inability to cope with one of her emotions is disrupting her sense of identity, the emotion that is most likely to be involved would be: a. guilt b. anxiety c. shame d. fear Answer: c Page: 176 Applied Difficult Rationale: Shame reflects negatively on one’s identity and is associated with the desire to undo aspects of the self. Guilt, on the other hand, is focus on changing behavior, rather than changing oneself. Anxiety and fear do not have a major impact on the person’s conception of their self. They might lead to the child’s development of shame if the child is embarrassed about being fearful or anxious, but in themselves they do not impact the self concept. 7.36. According to the text, which of the following would NOT be advised as a means of helping a child cope with stress? a. providing a warm, secure base to help the child become more confident b. preventing the child from retreating to immature behavior by discouraging such things as thumb sucking Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

or cuddling a blanket c. allowing the child to discuss feelings and share fears with others d. providing the child with explanations for the events that are causing stress Answer: b Page: 176 Factual Moderate 7.37. The text reports the results of studies that track children who were still having temper tantrums at age 10 into adulthood. The major finding of these studies was that children who failed to learn to control their temper: a. made a lot more money because they were more aggressive in business settings b. were much less likely to be gay or lesbian c. were much less likely to be divorced because they refused to allow their spouse to express negative emotions d. were more likely to have trouble holding a job Answer: d Page: 176 Factual Moderate 7.38. Generalizing from research cited in the text, if Tom was 12 years old and was still having frequent temper tantrums, as an adult you would expect that he would be at higher than normal risk for: a. getting divorced b. being elected to public office c. marrying a younger woman d. marrying an older woman Answer: a Page: 176 Applied Moderate Rationale: In one longitudinal study, children who were still having temper tantrums at age 10 were tracked into adulthood (Caspi, 1998). The researchers found that these children tended to be unsuccessful as adults as a result of their continuing outbursts of anger. They had difficulty holding jobs, and their marriages often ended in divorce. 7.39. According to the text, at about what age do children begin to show a fascination with their genital regions of their bodies? a. age 2 b. age 3-4 c. age 5-6 d. age 7-8 Answer: b Page: 176 Factual Moderate 7.40. Recently, Janine has become very curious about her genitals and she has begun asking lots of questions about the “differences” between girls and boys. Generalizing from information presented in the text, your best guess is that Janine is about how old? a. 2-3 years old b. 3-4 years old c. 4-5 years old d. 5-6 years old Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: b Page: 176 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text states that fascination with the genital regions usually develops at about age 3 or 4, and that masturbation and curiosity about sex-related topics is common at this age. 7.41. Parents should expect that their children will develop a curiosity about their bodies and their sex organs, and may begin to masturbate, at about which of the following ages? a. 2-3 years old b. 3-4 years old c. 4-5 years old d. 5-6 years old Answer: b Page: 176 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that fascination with the genital regions usually develops at about age 3 or 4, and that masturbation and curiosity about sex-related topics is common at this age. Aggression and Prosocial Behavior 7.42. Behavior that is intended to injure defines: a. hostile aggression b. assertive behavior c. antisocial behavior d. instrumental aggression Answer: a Page: 177 Factual Moderate 7.43. Assertive behavior involves: a. an intent to injure someone b. blocking a goal c. socially inappropriate activity d. standing up for one’s rights Answer: d Page: 177 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Assertiveness is defined as standing up for one’s rights. For example, a child who tells his teacher that another child has taken one of his possessions is displaying assertive behavior. 7.44. Stating your rights is an example of: a. prosocial behavior b. aggression c. assertive behavior d. egocentrism Answer: c Page: 177 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Assertiveness is defined as standing up for one’s rights. For example, a child who tells his teacher that another child has taken one of his possessions is displaying assertive behavior. 7.45. A child who accidentally hurts another child while playing is exhibiting which type of aggression? a. frustration-aggression b. hostile aggression c. instrumental aggression d. assertiveness Answer: c Page: 177 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Instrumental aggression is behavior that is not intended to hurt another but does so accidentally. For example, a child who runs to get a toy and accidentally knocks another child down is displaying instrumental aggression. 7.46. Suppose that James works for several hours trying to put a puzzle together. However, the puzzle is too hard, and finally James tips the table over, sending pieces all over the floor. James’s response is best considered to reflect the concept of: a. instrumental aggression b. modeling c. punishment d. frustration Answer: d Page: 177 Applied Easy Rationale: Frustration, which occurs when goals are blocked, can also give rise to physically aggressive responses. 7.47. Jaliah wants to play with a certain toy, but every time she tries to reach for it, another child pushes her away. This situation, in which Jaliah’s goal is blocked, would best be considered an example of: a. instrumental aggression b. modeling c. frustration d. assertiveness Answer: c Page: 177 Applied Moderate Rationale: Frustration, which occurs when goals are blocked, can also give rise to physically aggressive responses. 7.48. When children are younger, they are more likely to engage in ________ aggression; as they grow older they are more likely to engage in __________ aggression. a. physical; verbal b. verbal; physical c. instrumental; hostile d. instrumental; intentional Answer: a Page: 177 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 7.49. As children grow older, they become ____ egocentric and they engage in ____ physical aggression. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: b Page: 177 Factual Moderate 7.50. Generalizing from the text, a child who is frequently punished at home is likely to develop a tendency to become: a. more aggressive b. less aggressive c. more egocentric d. envious Answer: a Page: 178 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Punishment can create a tendency to behave aggressively—especially if the punishment is harsh and frequent. If children are punished for aggressive acts, they usually avoid those behaviors that lead to punishment—at least in the presence of the person who has punished them. Ironically, however, children who are frequently punished typically become more aggressive. For example, their aggression at home may decrease, but they may become more aggressive at school. 7.51. In general, when children are physically punished on a regular basis, they usually: a. become much more empathetic to other children who also are physically punished b. become more egocentric c. become less assertive d. become more aggressive themselves Answer: d Page: 178 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Punishment can create a tendency to behave aggressively—especially if the punishment is harsh and frequent. If children are punished for aggressive acts, they usually avoid those behaviors that lead to punishment—at least in the presence of the person who has punished them. Ironically, however, children who are frequently punished typically become more aggressive. For example, their aggression at home may decrease, but they may become more aggressive at school. 7.52. According to data cited in the text, about how many hours of television are U.S. children likely to watch before they enter formal schooling? a. 1,000 hours b. 2,000 hours c. 4,000 hours d. 6,000 hours Answer: c Page: 178 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 7.53. According to research cited in the text, the typical young child in the United States spends about how much time per day using screen media, such as TV or the Internet? a. about 30 minutes b. about 1 hour c. about 2 hours d. about 3 ½ hours Answer: c Page: 178 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As shown in Figure 7-1 on page 178, children between the ages of 0 and 6 spend about 2 hours per day using screen media, roughly the same amount of time that they spend playing outside. 7.54. In which of the following activities does the typical young child in the United States spend the most time? a. playing outside b. reading or being read to c. listening to music d. using screen media, such as TV Answer: d Page: 178 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to a study reported in the text, U. S. children age 0-6 spend on average 48 minutes reading or being read to, 58 minutes listening to music, 1 hour 51 minutes playing outside, and 1 hour 57 minutes using screen media. 7.55. Four-year-old Luke watches his father yell at the TV repairman when he learns his TV cannot be fixed. Luke learns to yell like his father when he gets bad news. The term used to describe Luke’s behavior is: a. instrumental aggression b. modeling c. prosocial behavior d. egocentrism Answer: b Page: 178 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, adults who use physical punishment to curb a child’s aggression are modeling aggressive behavior. 7.56. According to the text, what is the purpose of a “V-chip”? a. It provides ratings for parents to use as they consider which TV shows their children should be allowed to watch. b. It can be programmed to block certain TV shows from being shown on the TV. c. It can be installed in a child’s computer so no violent programming can be downloaded. d. It can be installed in a child’s computer so parents can monitor the amount of time the child spends playing games. Answer: b Page: 179 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.57. Barbie sees another child crying so she walks over and offers the child her cookie. Barbie’s behavior is best thought of as an example of: a. modeling b. egocentrism c. assertiveness d. prosocial behavior Answer: d Page: 180 Applied Moderate Rationale: Prosocial behaviors are actions intended to benefit others (Eisenberg, Fabes, & Spinrad, 2006). These actions include comforting, sympathizing, assisting, sharing, cooperating, rescuing, protecting, and defending. Prosocial behavior is not just a set of social skills, however. When fully developed, it is accompanied by feelings of friendship, caring, and warmth—including empathy, which is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. 7.58. Lanny sees another child crying and he begins to feel sad too. Lanny’s response is best considered to be an example of: a. prosocial behavior b. empathy c. modeling d. egocentrism Answer: b Page: 180 Applied Moderate Rationale: Empathy is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. For example, if a child watches a person who is sad and the child consequently also feels sad, the child is experiencing empathy. We are more likely to act generously to others when we understand their feelings and needs. 7.59. The ability to understand the feelings and points of view of others is called: a. egocentrism b. empathy c. interpersonalism d. conscientiousness Answer: b Page: 180 Factual Easy 7.60. Prosocial behavior is behavior that is intended to: a. help young children learn the rules of their culture b. benefit oneself c. benefit others without the anticipation of an external reward d. injure others without regard for the consequences Answer: c Page: 180 Factual Easy 7.61. Suppose that Tom was raised in an individualist culture, like that of the United States. Hank was raised in a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

collectivist culture, like that of Japan. As both children grow older, you would expect that Tom would become ____ competitive and Hank would become ____ competitive. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less Answer: a Page: 180 Applied Moderate Rationale: In the United States, competitiveness is highly valued, and U.S. children typically become less cooperative and more competitive as they grow older. For instance, when playing a game that can be won only if the two players cooperate, 4- and 5-year-olds often cooperated. Older children, however, tended to compete with each other; as a result, neither player won (Madsen, 1971). In studies of Mexican children and children raised in Israeli kibbutzim, however, researchers found that older children were more likely to cooperate, presumably because their cultures emphasize group goals more than individual achievement (Eisenberg & Fabes, 1999). 7.62. Suppose that Patricia watches another child break off half of his cookie and give it to a child who has none. Patricia then breaks off a part of her cookie and gives it to the child also. Patricia’s response is best thought as demonstrating the principle of: a. empathy b. rationalization c. assertiveness d. egocentrism Answer: a Page: 180 Applied Moderate Rationale: Empathy is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. For example, if a child watches a person who is sad and the child consequently also feels sad, the child is experiencing empathy. We are more likely to act generously to others when we understand their feelings and needs. 7.63. As Derrek has grown older, he has gained a better understanding of how other children feel. Psychologists would say that Derrek’s development is characterized by a greater sense of: a. empathy b. egocentrism c. prosocial behavior d. assertiveness Answer: a Page: 180 Applied Moderate Rationale: Empathy is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. For example, if a child watches a person who is sad and the child consequently also feels sad, the child is experiencing empathy. 7.64. Megan sees her mother feeling and looking sad. This in turn makes Megan sad. She is experiencing which phenomenon? a. empathy b. frustration c. assertiveness d. egocentrism Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 180 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Empathy is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. For example, if a child watches a person who is sad and the child consequently also feels sad, the child is experiencing empathy. 7.65. As children grow older, they gain a greater ability to empathize. As a consequence, their tendency to behave aggressively: a. first increases, but then decreases b. first decreases, but then increases c. generally decreases d. generally increases Answer: c Page: 180 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Empathy is the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. For example, if a child watches a person who is sad and the child consequently also feels sad, the child is experiencing empathy. We are more likely to act generously to others when we understand their feelings and needs. 7.66. Alliya’s mother wants her to be more generous with her toys, so she instructs Alliya to act out how she would behave if another child gave her one of his toys to play with. Alliya’s mother is using the technique called: a. instrumental behavior b. classical conditioning c. role playing d. empathetic understanding Answer: c Page: 181 Applied Easy Rationale: When children role play, they act out how another person might behave. Role playing serves to help children gain a better understanding of another person’s point of view and feelings, thereby encouraging empathy. 7.67. Role playing encourages the development of: a. instrumental aggression b. empathy c. egocentrism d. frustration Answer: b Page: 181 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: When children are encouraged to put themselves into another child’s situation, which is what role playing involves, they are more likely to understand how the other child would react. This encourages the development of their empathy, which is the ability to understand how another person feels and thinks. Developmental Conflicts 7.68. According to Erik Erikson, the challenge for 2-year-olds is to develop as sense of: a. autonomy b. trust c. identity Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. ego integrity Answer: a Page: 182 Factual Moderate 7.69. According to the views of Erik Erikson, which of the following statements best reflects the developmental crisis for 2-year-old Tommy? a. Who am I? b. I want to do it MYSELF! c. Why NOT? d. I’m SCARED! Answer: b Page: 182 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Erikson saw the central conflict for 2-year-olds as developing a sense of autonomy without triggering feelings of shame and doubt. The statement, “I want to do it MYSELF,” represents the 2-year-old’s development of autonomy and independence. 7.70. According to the views of Erik Erickson, which of the following statements best reflects the negative side of the developmental crisis experienced by typical 2-year-olds? a. I can’t do anything myself without failing. b. I don’t know who I am. c. I am afraid my parents don’t love me. d. I don’t feel like I can depend on anyone but myself. Answer: a Page: 182 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Erikson saw the central conflict for 2-year-olds as developing a sense of autonomy without triggering feelings of shame and doubt. The statement, “I can’t do anything myself without failing,” reflects the feelings of shame and doubt that can result when the child fails to develop a sense of autonomy and independence. 7.71. The “terrible twos” result because 2-year-old children typically experience a conflict between: a. wanting to trust their caregiver but fearing that the caregiver will let them down b. wanting to be independent but also needing to rely on caregivers for support c. wanting to love and to hate their caregivers at the same time d. wanting others to like them but also wanting to be selfish and have everything their own way Answer: b Page: 182 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Erik Erikson, the challenge for the 2-year-old is to develop a sense of autonomy without triggering feelings of shame and doubt. As noted in the text, this conflict between opposing needs (independence versus reliance on caregivers) often results in children becoming uncooperative and defiant, and temper tantrums become common. 7.72. According to Erikson, what is the primary developmental conflict of the years from 3 to 6? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. trust versus mistrust c. initiative versus guilt Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. industry versus inferiority Answer: c Page: 182 Factual Moderate 7.73. According to Erik Erikson, most 3-year-olds have developed a sense of autonomy and then can begin to focus on the conflict between: a. initiative versus guilt b. love and empathy c. trust and mistrust d. ego integrity and despair Answer: a Page: 182 Factual Moderate 7.74. According to Erik Erikson, the developmental challenge faced by 3- to 6-year olds is one of: a. integrity versus despair b. trust versus mistrust c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. initiative versus guilt Answer: d Page: 182 Factual Moderate 7.75. Which of the words below best captures the developmental challenge for the typical 3- to 6-year-old child? a. competence b. autonomy c. trust d. love Answer: a Page: 182 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Erikson saw the developmental challenge of early childhood to be the reconciliation of initiative versus guilt. Thus, children in this stage focus on developing a sense of their own mastery and competence. 7.76. The internal guide that alerts us when we violate moral rules or standards is called: a. conscience b. conscious c. ego d. id Answer: a Page: 182 Factual Moderate 7.77. When people’s behavior violates the moral standards they believe in, this triggers their _________ to make them feel ___________. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. ego; empathetic b. conscience; guilty c. id; responsible d. autonomous self; incompetent Answer: b Page: 182 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to Erikson, for children between the ages of 3 and 6, guilt is triggered by the child’s newly emerging conscience, which is an internal guide that matches the child’s behavior to accepted moral standards. 7.78. A 6-year-old child says, “I did this REALLY WELL! I am a SMART girl!” These statements best reflect Erik Erikson’s concept of: a. autonomy b. trust c. initiative d. independence Answer: c Page: 182 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson’s theory, initiative versus guilt refers to 3- to 6-year-old children’s primary developmental conflict, which focuses on the development of mastery and competence. According to this theory, the key to healthy development in young children is to achieve a balance between initiative and guilt. 7.79. Jeanette misbehaves a lot because she has no real sense of the difference between right and wrong behavior. Psychologists would say that she has failed to develop: a. autonomy b. a conscience c. initiative d. empathy Answer: b Page: 182 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson, for children between the ages of 3 and 6, guilt is triggered by the child’s newly emerging conscience, which is an internal guide that matches the child’s behavior to accepted moral standards. 7.80. According to Erikson, the healthiest development results from which of the following situations? a. strong feelings of initiative with no feelings of guilt b. strong feelings of initiative with small and occasional feelings of guilt c. a balance between feelings of initiative and guilt d. few feelings of initiative so that guilt will not be triggered Answer: c Page: 182-183 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Erikson believed that a balance between initiative and guilt was best for development. Excessive guilt can dampen the child’s initiative, but parents who do not correct their child’s bad behavior lead them to develop unrealistic expectations and a clear sense of appropriate behavior. 7.81. Ronnie’s favorite statement is “I can do it MYSELF!” Lanny’s favorite statement is “I can do it WELL!” Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Based on only this information you should infer that Ronnie is about __ years old and Lanny is about __ years old. a. 4; 6 b. 6; 4 c. 4; 2 d. 2; 4 Answer: d Page: 182-183 Applied Difficult Rationale: Two-year-olds focus on developing a sense of autonomy or independence, whereas 3- to 6-year-olds focus on developing a sense of initiative or competence. Peers, Play, and the Development of Social Competence 7.82. If a child were compared to an adult, the adult’s work would correspond with the child’s: a. caregivers b. temper tantrums c. play d. sleep Answer: c Page 183 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that play is the work of children. 7.83. The dramatic play that children around the age of 4 begin to engage in is referred to as what? a. parallel play b. theatrical c. social pretend play d. dynamic play Answer: c Page: 183 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Beginning about age 4, children begin to engage in a form of dramatic play referred to as social pretend play, which involves imagination and the sharing of fantasies in accordance with agreed-upon rules. 7.84. Mike and Molly are playing together. Their play involves each playing alone, without interacting with each other, but both children are in the same room, using toys from the same toy box. This type of play would best be described as: a. associative play b. cooperative play c. parallel play d. onlooker play Answer: c Page: 184 Applied Moderate Rationale: Parallel play is defined by children playing alongside each other but they do not interact. 7.85. Sally and Beth are playing together, both taking toys from the same toy box. Sometimes they hand different toys back and forth to each other, but they don’t coordinate their activities. Their play would best be called: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. associative play b. cooperative play c. solitary play d. onlooker play Answer: a Page: 184 Applied Moderate Rationale: Associative play occurs when children share materials but do not coordinate their activities. 7.86. Bob and Mark are “playing astronauts.” They interact with each other, sharing both toys and a story line that describes a scenario in which their space ship is trying to land on the moon. This type of play is best described as: a. associative play b. cooperative play c. parallel play d. onlooker play Answer: b Page: 184 Applied Moderate Rationale: Cooperative play occurs when children engage in a single activity together. 7.87. Which of the following types of play is the last to emerge in childhood? a. onlooker play b. associative play c. solitary play d. cooperative play Answer: d Page: 184 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Cooperative play emerges at about age 5 or 6, making it the last type of play to develop. Onlooker play emerges at about age 3; associate play at about age 4, and solitary play is typical of 2-year-old children. 7.88. Miriam has just begun to use her imagination when she is playing with her playmates. Now she is able to imagine that she is baking cookies, or driving a fire truck, and her play reflects her ability to take on these roles. This type of play is called _____________ and it usually begins at about age ___. a. social pretend play; 4 b. cooperative play; 6 c. associative play; 3 d. onlooker play; 5 Answer: a Page: 184 Applied Moderate Rationale: Beginning about age 4, children begin to engage in a form of dramatic play referred to as social pretend play, which involves imagination and the sharing of fantasies in accordance with agreed-upon rules. 7.89. According to the text, about what percent of young children have at least one imaginary companion? a. about 10% b. about one-fourth c. about half Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. about two-thirds Answer: d Page: 183 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text cites research that indicates that as many as 65% of young children have imaginary companions. 7.90. Compared to children who don’t have imaginary companions, those who do: a. are less sociable b. are more shy c. have more friends d. are less creative Answer: c Page: 183 Factual Moderate 7.91. If you were the parent of a 4-year-old, and your child began to talk to her “imaginary friend,” whom she described as a boy who was a clown and who had red hair, which of the following responses should you make? a. You should probably have her evaluated by a psychologist for an early-onset mental disorder. b. You should take her to your family doctor, to have her evaluated for a vitamin deficiency. c. You should encourage her to continue to play with her “friend.” d. You should discourage her from playing with her friends, and continue to tell her that he does not really exist. Answer: c Page: 183 Applied Moderate Rationale: Having imaginary friends in childhood is associated with positive personality characteristics, so the parent should encourage the child to have such a friend. 7.92. Which of the following outcomes is associated with having an imaginary friend in childhood? a. having a higher incidence of mental disorders in adolescence and adulthood b. being very shy and not very sociable with other children c. having a harder time mastering symbolic representation and lacking creativity d. participating more in family activities Answer: d Page: 183 Factual Moderate 7.93. If your child invented an imaginary companion that he talked to, played with, and slept with, how should you react? a. You should punish the child when he mentioned his “friend.” b. You should encourage the child to play with his “friend.” c. You should refuse to acknowledge the friend and ignore your child when the “friend” was mentioned. d. You should take your child to a doctor for a health evaluation. Answer: b Page: 183 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Positive outcomes are associated with having an imaginary friend during childhood, so a parent should encourage a child to have such a friend. 7.94. If you observed a society that was at war with neighboring tribes, you would expect to find that children in this society would engage in which of the following types of play? a. They would not play at all. b. They would most likely play at “war” games, perhaps involving spear-throwing or hiding. c. They would most likely invent games, such as playing house that would distract them from thinking about the war. d. They would probably play only with their parents, and not with other children. Answer: b Page: 183 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Children’s games usually reflect the most important aspects of the culture in which they are raised. If the child’s society is at war, the games selected will most likely reflect this “war” theme. 7.95. The ability to initiate and maintain satisfying reciprocal relationships with peers is referred to as: a. emotional regulation b. social competence c. empathy d. role satisfaction Answer: b Page: 185 Factual Easy 7.96. Bonnie is described as a child who makes friends easily, who is popular with her peers, who has satisfying relationships with the adults in her life, and who is socially skilled. Psychologists would use which of the following terms to describe her: a. egocentric b. empathetic c. autonomous d. socially competent Answer: d Page: 185 Applied Easy Rationale: Social competence is the ability to initiate and maintain satisfying reciprocal relationships with peers. Socially competent children are more popular with their peers, can make and maintain friendships more easily, and can have satisfying relationships with adults. 7.97. Which of the following aspects of social competence seems especially important to its development? a. emotional regulation b. social knowledge c. social skills d. social disposition Answer: a Page: 185 Factual Moderate

7.98. Which of the following factors is positively related to being popular in childhood? a. having been the victim of child abuse b. being aggressive c. being “different” from peers in some significant way d. being given lots of opportunities to play with other children Answer: d Page: 185 Factual Easy 7.99. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of popular children in kindergarten? a. shows helpful behavior b. is responsive to other children’s suggestions c. is aggressive d. is content playing alongside others Answer: c Page: 185 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, unpopular, rejected children often are either more aggressive or more withdrawn. 7.100. Generalizing from research reported in the text, you would expect that a shy child would be most likely to also be popular if that child were being raised in which of the following countries? a. China b. the United States c. England d. Canada Answer: a Page: 185 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text cites a study in which shy and quiet Chinese Canadian children and European Canadian children were compared. The shy and quiet children’s development was more strongly linked to positive responses among children in the Chinese culture than the European culture. Collectivist cultures view shyness and quietness as more positive traits than do individualist cultures, such as those in Europe and other Western cultures. Understanding Self and Others 7.101. Mr. Smith describes his niece as a child who has learned to incorporate her family’s values and moral standards, as well as those embraced by her society, into her self-concept and understanding of herself. The best term that could be used to describe the niece’s ability is: a. empathy b. role playing c. social competence d. internalization Answer: d Page: 186-187 Applied Moderate Rationale: Internalization refers to the process of incorporating the values and moral standards of one’s society into one’s self-concept, or understanding of oneself.

7.102. According to the text, which of the following is likely to be a first step in the internalization of social rules? a. saying "no" to oneself while continuing to violate a rule b. saying "no" to oneself to stop violation of a rule c. regulating one's own behavior and controlling impulses d. regulating the behavior of others with one's verbalizations Answer: a Page: 187 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In learning internalization of social rules, children initially may simply imitate verbal patterns: A 2-yearold says “No, no, no!” as she marks on the wall with crayons. She continues doing what she wants to do; however, at the same time, she shows the beginnings of self-restraint by telling herself that she should not be doing it. 7.103. The process by which one incorporates the moral standards and values of one’s society into one’s selfconcept or understanding is called; a. generalization b. ingestion c. internalization d. sensitization Answer: c Page: 187 Factual Easy 7.104. The text describes a study in which young children watched a puppet show in which a puppet was described as either a friend or an acquaintance who gets in trouble. The children responded with more empathy when the person in trouble was __________ and showed a greater willingness to help ________. a. a friend; an acquaintance b. an acquaintance; a friend c. an acquaintance; an acquaintance d. a friend; a friend Answer: d Page: 187 Factual Difficult 7.105. The cognitive “theories” that children construct about themselves to help them understand how they should behave are called: a. personal scripts b. social maps c. gender roles d. social self-concepts Answer: a Page: 187 Factual Moderate 7.106. Judy believes that being a “girl” means that a person wears pink clothing, doesn’t get dirty, plays with dolls but not with trucks, and tries to be like her mother but not her father. Judy’s belief system and knowledge about what a “girl” is would best be considered an example of what psychologists would call: a. gender identity b. an androgynous personality Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. a gender-typed personality d. gender-based social competence Answer: a Page: 188 Applied Moderate Rationale: Gender identity refers to our conceptualization of what it means to be male or female. 7.107. Little Jeffrey has a firm understanding that he is a boy, that he will never be a girl, and that he will grow up to be a man, not a woman. Jeffrey’s understanding best reflects the concept of: a. sex b. gender role c. androgyny d. gender identity Answer: d Page: 188 Applied Moderate Rationale: Gender identity refers to our conceptualization of what it means to be male or female. 7.108. ________ is genetically determined and biological, whereas _______ is culturally based and acquired. a. Sex, gender b. Gender, sex c. Masculinity, femininity d. Femininity, masculinity Answer: a Page: 188 Factual Moderate 7.109. Jason states, “Boys should play with trucks and guns because they are the ones who have to take care of their families.” Jason’s statement reflects his understanding of: a. gender roles b. androgyny c. sex differences d. self-concept Answer: a Page: 188 Applied Moderate Rationale: Gender roles reflect cultural definitions and expectations about being male or female. 7.110. Research cited in the text suggests that gender differences in the United States appear to be: a. widening b. shrinking c. changing focus so that gender differences are thought to be more important d. staying the same Answer: b Page: 188 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.111. Tommy believes that both men and woman can have masculine traits such as aggressiveness and both can have feminine traits such as compassion. Tommy’s belief reflects the core idea of the concept called: a. empathy b. socialization c. enculturation d. androgyny Answer: d Page: 188 Applied Easy Rationale: Androgyny refers to the view that all people, whether male or female, are capable of developing a wide range of traits. This view suggests that feminine and masculine are not opposite ends of a single dimension; instead, they are viewed as two separate dimensions, which means that it is possible for a person to be high or low on either or both. 7.112. The view that both men and women are capable of developing a wide range of traits – both masculine and feminine – is the idea reflected by the term: a. empathy b. socialization c. gender identity d. androgyny Answer: d Page: 188 Factual Moderate 7.113. Young children typically see “feminine” and “masculine” as two distinct and mutually exclusive categories. This situation is in direct conflict with the basic idea of: a. gender identity b. gender-role stereotyping c. androgyny d. self-socialization Answer: c Page: 188 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Androgyny refers to the view that all people, whether male or female, are capable of developing a wide range of traits. This view suggests that feminine and masculine are not opposite ends of a single dimension; instead, they are viewed as two separate dimensions, which means that it is possible for a person to be high or low on either or both. 7.114. Many people believe that girls are more social and less achievement-oriented than boys, despite research that suggests this is not true. The belief in gender-specific differences is usually referred to as: a. gender identity b. gender role development c. gender stereotyping d. sexual identity Answer: c Page: 189 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Gender role stereotypes refer to rigid and fixed ideas about what is appropriate male or female behavior. 7.115. James knows that he is a boy, but he is unsure about whether or not he will grow up to be a father or a mother. His confusion suggests that he has not yet developed: a. self-socialization b. a gender-role stereotype c. androgyny d. gender constancy Answer: d Page: 189 Applied Moderate Rationale: Gender constancy refers to the older child’s understanding that a person’s gender is stable and stays the same despite changes in superficial appearance. 7.116. By what age can a child typically answer the question, "Are you a boy or a girl": a. 2½ b. 3½ c. 4½ d. 5½ Answer: a Page: 189 Factual Easy 7.117. At what age do children typically acquire gender constancy? a. between 2 and 4 years of age b. between 3 and 5 years of age c. between 4 and 6 years of age d. between 5 and 7 years of age Answer: d Page: 189 Factual Moderate 7.118. A child’s concept of gender is called: a. gender role b. gender scheme c. gender constancy d. sexual identity Answer: b Page: 189 Factual Moderate 7.119. The view that children are intrinsically motivated to acquire values, interests, and behaviors consistent with their gender describes the process called: a. self-socialization b. gender reflection c. gender stereotyping d. gender constancy

Answer: a Page: 189 Factual Moderate 7.120. The text reports a study in which female college students interacted with a 6-month-old infant who was either a boy or a girl, and who was dressed as either a boy or a girl. (For example, sometimes a boy was dressed as a boy, sometimes he was dressed as a girl.) Results showed that the college students were more likely to treat a baby as a boy when: a. the child was a boy, regardless of how he was dressed b. the child was a girl, regardless of how she was dressed c. the child was dressed as a boy, regardless of the child’s real sex d. the child was dressed as a girl, regardless of the child’s real sex Answer: c Page: 189-190 Factual Moderate 7.121. The text reports a study in which female college students interacted with a 6-month-old infant who was either a boy or a girl, and who was dressed as either a boy or a girl. (For example, sometimes a boy was dressed as a boy, sometimes he was dressed as a girl.) Results demonstrate the importance of which of the following factors in the development of gender identity? a. genetic forces, especially those coded on the X and Y chromosomes b. brain development, which proceeds either in a “male” or “female” pattern c. socialization d. androgyny Answer: c Page: 189-190 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As children progressively become more capable of understanding what it means to be a girl or a boy, their ideas about culturally appropriate behavior for females and males become clearer, they become socialized. In the study by Smith and Lloyd (1978) described in this question, the college students treated the baby differently depending upon the child’s assumed sex, conveying signals as to what is culturally appropriate male behavior and culturally appropriate female behavior. 7.122. According to the text, which parent is more important in establishing how children’s ideas about gender develop? a. Fathers are usually more important. b. Mothers are usually more important. c. Fathers and mothers are usually equally important. d. Neither fathers nor mothers are very important since ideas about gender are biologically programmed and do not depend on learning or socialization to any great degree. Answer: a Page: 190 Factual Moderate Family Dynamics 7.123. The amount of affection and approval Mike gives to his son is a good example of the concept called parental: a. control b. referencing Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. affect d. warmth Answer: d Page: 191 Applied Moderate Rationale: Parental warmth refers to the amount of affection and approval the parents display. Warm, nurturing parents smile at their children frequently and give praise and encouragement. They limit criticism, punishment, and signs of disapproval. 7.124. The various parenting styles that are discussed in the text are distinguished from each other primarily according to the degree that parents exhibit: a. warmth and control b. punishment and reinforcement c. androgen versus gender-role stereotypes d. love and liking Answer: a Page: 191 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, two dimensions of parenting that are especially important in characterizing parenting styles are control and warmth. Parental control refers to how restrictive the parents are. Parental warmth refers to the amount of affection and approval the parents display. 7.125. In her original work, Diana Baumrind identified three of the following types of parenting styles. Which style was added later to Baumrind’s original three styles? a. permissive parenting b. authoritative parenting c. authoritarian parenting d. indifferent parenting Answer: d Page: 191 Factual Moderate 7.126. Karen's parents have adopted the authoritative parenting style, which means that they show a. high control and high warmth b. high control and low warmth c. low control and high warmth d. low control and low warmth Answer: a Page: 191-192 Applied Difficult Rationale: Authoritative parents are those who combine a high degree of warmth, acceptance, and encouragement of autonomy with firm but flexible control. They encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. 7.127. A pattern of parenting in which parents are not interested in their role as parents or in their children is called: a. permissive b. authoritative Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: d Page: 191-192 Factual Moderate 7.128. Permissive parents show: a. high control and high warmth b. high control and low warmth c. low control and high warmth d. low control and low warmth Answer: c Page: 191-192 Factual Easy 7.129. Parents who are low in control and also low in warmth are referred to as: a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: d Page: 191-192 Factual Easy 7.130. Children who are withdrawn, fearful, moody, and lack independence tend to have parents who are: a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: c Page: 191-192 Factual Moderate 7.131. Which parenting style has been found to produce the most self-confident children? a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: b Page: 191-192 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Children raised with authoritative parenting have been found to be the best adjusted—most self-reliant, self-controlled, and socially competent. These children have better school performance and higher self-esteem. 7.132. Leo and Mary use firm control with their children but encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. Their parenting style would best be described as: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: b Page: 191-192 Applied Moderate Rationale: Authoritative parents are those who combine a high degree of warmth, acceptance, and encouragement of autonomy with firm but flexible control. They encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. 7.133. Martha wanted to stay up late to watch a television program on a school night. Her parents asked her what her reasons were, what the show was about, and whether it would prevent her from getting enough sleep for school the next day. Martha’s parents’ style of parenting would best be described as: a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: b Page: 191-192 Applied Moderate Rationale: Authoritative parents are those who combine a high degree of warmth, acceptance, and encouragement of autonomy with firm but flexible control. They encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. 7.134. When Ted asked his parents if he could skip a family dinner even though it was a family rule to always be present, they refused, saying "A rule is a rule." Ted’s parents’ response demonstrates a parenting approach best described as: a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: c Page: 191-192 Applied Moderate Rationale: Authoritarian parents are those parents who are highly controlling, show little warmth, and adhere to rigid rules. In families headed by authoritarian parents, children contribute little to the family’s decision-making process. 7.135. Jackie's parents are controlling and adhere rigidly to rules without explaining their reasons. Baumrind most likely would classify Jackie's parents as: a. indifferent b. authoritarian c. permissive d. authoritative Answer: b Page: 191-192 Applied Moderate Rationale: Authoritarian parents are those parents who are highly controlling, show little warmth, and adhere to rigid Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

rules. In families headed by authoritarian parents, children contribute little to the family’s decision-making process. 7.136. Children who are self-reliant, self-controlled, and socially competent have parents who have most likely adopted what parenting style? a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: b Page: 191-192 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Children raised with authoritative parenting have been found to be the best adjusted—most self-reliant, self-controlled, and socially competent. These children have better school performance and higher self-esteem. 7.137. Which parenting style generally produces the worst outcome in children? a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. indifferent Answer: d Page: 192 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The worst outcome is often found in children of indifferent parents. When hostility and lack of warmth accompany permissiveness, children tend to show high expression of destructive impulses as well as delinquent behavior. 7.138. Which of the following is not part of the most productive disciplinary technique? a. setting rules that are fairly enforced b. establishing a caring environment c. giving children freedom from punishment d. keeping two-way communication open Answer: c Page: 193 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Regardless of culture, the most productive disciplinary technique usually involves setting reasonable rules that are enforced fairly; establishing a warm, caring, and consistent environment; and keeping twoway communication as open as possible—a recipe for creating an authoritative style of parenting. 7.139. According to a study described in the text, when parents were able to teach their children how to cope emotionally, their children had all of the following EXCEPT: a. longer attention spans b. faster heart rates c. higher scores on reading tests d. fewer behavioral problems Answer: b Page: 193 Factual Difficult

7.140. Janet’s parents have clear expectations for all family members that dinner will be eaten in the dining room, with no TV on, and it will begin with a prayer. Everyone in the family understands how dinners will occur, and everyone seems to enjoy this routine. Therefore, it would best be considered an example of the concept of: a. prosocial behavior b. social competence c. rationalization of goals d. shared goals Answer: d Page: 193-194 Applied Moderate Rationale: Shared goals involve a common understanding of how family interactions will be conducted and what their outcomes will be. The result is a harmonious atmosphere in which decisions are reached without much struggle for control. 7.141. According to the text, if a family does not have a set of shared goals, which of the following is likely to result? a. Every decision must be negotiated. b. Parents will become increasingly authoritarian. c. Parents will become increasingly permissive. d. Discipline will suffer and child will become unruly. Answer: a Page: 194 Factual Moderate 7.142. In families where there are several children, the typical finding is that the personalities of the various children are ___________ and environmental effects on children are _________________. a. very much alike; very much the same for all children b. very much alike; very different for each child in the family c. quite different from each other; very much the same for all children d. quite different from each other; very different for each child in the family Answer: d Page: 194 Factual Moderate 7.143. Which of the following statements regarding the effects of birth order on children is generally true? a. Oldest children tend to be more anxious than younger children. b. Middle children tend to be less competent than either oldest or youngest children. c. Youngest children tend to be underachievers. d. Oldest children tend to have higher IQs. Answer: d Page: 194 Factual Moderate 7.144. Suppose you are studying the relationship between IQ and being a first born child. If you looked at two different groups – children born to middle-class families in the suburbs of Chicago and children raised in a communal setting in South America – which of the following differences would you expect to find? a. The benefits of being first born would be greater in the suburban setting. b. The benefits of being first born would be greater in the communal setting. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. The disadvantages of being first born would be greater in the suburban setting. d. The disadvantages of being first born would be greater in the communal setting. Answer: a Page: 194 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Any effects in intellectual ability or achievement associated with being a firstborn child are most likely associated with the child’s role in the family. Simply put, the firstborn child benefits from all of the parent’s attention, whereas subsequent children must share. This explanation is supported by cross-cultural research (Murray, et al., 2008). The firstborn child in a U.S. family usually is at least temporarily the only child in the home and has his or her own room and possessions, with liberal access to parents for conversation and games. In contrast, firstborn children in agriculture-based cultures, such as those studied in Kenya (LeVine, 1990), often involve communal living quarters, with the child living with older children from other families who function much like older siblings. As a result, the benefits associated with being firstborn are markedly less. 7.145. According to research presented in the text, the more children there are in the family, the ____ their IQs tend to be and the _____ are their chances from graduating from high school. a. higher; greater b. higher; lower c. lower; greater d. lower; lower Answer: d Page 194 Factual Moderate 7.146. What relationship appears to exist between strong public support for child care and the impact that large families have on IQ? a. When support for child care is strong, the negative effect of growing up in a large family is lessened. b. When support for child care is strong, the positive effect of growing up in a large family is every greater. c. When support for child care is strong, large family size has no effect on IQ. d. There is no relationship between child care support and the impact of large family size on IQ. Answer: a Page: 194 Factual Difficult 7.147. According to data presented in the text, which form of child maltreatment is most common in the United States? a. sexual abuse b. child neglect c. physical abuse d. emotional abuse Answer: d Page: 195 Factual Moderate 7.148. In general, which of the following groups is the most likely to maltreat children? a. fathers b. mothers c. brothers Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. non-family members such as teachers and neighbors Answer: b Page: 195 Factual Difficult 7.149. According to data collected by the U. S. Department of Health and Human Services, about what percent of all cases of child maltreatment involved abuse by the child’s parent or parents? a. about 50% b. about 65% c. about 74% d. about 83% Answer: d Page: 195 Factual Difficult 7.150. Statistically, _______ children are more likely to be abused and _______ children are likely to sustain more serious injuries when abuse does occur. a. older; older b. older; younger c. younger; older d. younger; younger Answer: d Page: 196 Factual Moderate 7.151. Statistically speaking, the sexual abuse of a girl is most likely to be committed by the girl's: a. father b. mother c. stepfather d. brother Answer: c Page: 196 Factual Easy 7.152. Suppose that 6-year-old Samantha (a girl) is sexually abused. Generalizing from statistics, which of the following people would be most likely to have committed this abuse? a. Samantha’s father b. Samantha’s stepfather c. Samantha’s mother d. a male neighbor who is gay Answer: b Page: 196 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although research shows that 95% of sexual abuse is committed by men, when little girls are involved, the child’s biological father usually does not commit the abuse. Stepfathers are 5 times more likely to abuse female children than are biological fathers. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.153. As a child, Tanya was forced to witness her father beating up her brother. This form of psychological abuse would best be considered as an example of: a. degradation b. terrorization c. exploitation d. rejection Answer: b Page: 196 Applied Difficult Rationale: Terrorization is a form of psychological child maltreatment in which a child is forced to witness the abuse of a loved one or is threatened with personal abuse. 7.154. Suppose that 5-year-old Randy tries to be affectionate with his mother, but she responds with coldness and she ignores him. If the mother’s behavior is serious enough to be considered child maltreatment, what type of psychological abuse is this? a. degradation b. terrorization c. rejection d. denial of emotional responsiveness Answer: d Page: 196 Applied Moderate Rationale: Denial of emotional responsiveness is a form of psychological child maltreatment in which there is a passive withholding of affection that involves behaviors such as coldness or failing to respond to the child’s attempts to communicate. 7.155. When Stacey asked her mother, "What's 2 plus 2?" her mother replied, "Four, you dummy!" This is an example of what form of psychological abuse? a. degradation b. terrorization c. isolation d. exploitation Answer: a Page: 196 Applied Moderate Rationale: Degradation is a form of psychological child maltreatment that involves humiliating children in public or calling them names like “Dummy.” As a result, children’s self-esteem is lowered by frequent assaults on their dignity or intelligence. 7.156. When Charlie and his brother started arguing in a grocery store, their father shouted at them, "If you don't behave, I'll break every bone in your body!" This is best considered to be an example of what form of psychological abuse? a. degradation b. terrorization c. isolation d. exploitation Answer: b Page: 196 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: Terrorization is a form of psychological child maltreatment in which a child is forced to witness the abuse of a loved one or is threatened with personal abuse. 7.157. Rejection, degradation, and terrorization are examples of which of the following types of child maltreatment? a. physical abuse b. sexual abuse c. psychological abuse d. child neglect Answer: c Page: 196 Factual Easy 7.158. According to research presented in the text, when children who were abused in their first 5 years were followed to age 21, they were more likely than nonabused children to experience all of the following EXCEPT: a. abused children were at greater risk for juvenile delinquency b. abused children married at later ages and had fewer children of their own c. abused children were more likely to drop out of school d. abused children were more likely to have problems holding a job Answer: b Page: 196-197 Factual Moderate 7.159. Suppose that Frank was abused as a small child. Generalizing from research presented in the text, you would expect that consequently he would be: a. less likely to become a juvenile delinquent b. more likely to drop out of school c. less likely to become a teenage parent d. more likely to hold one job for his entire career Answer: b Page: 196-197 Applied Moderate Rationale: When followed to age 21, children who were physically abused in their first 5 years were at greater risk for arrest, juvenile delinquency, and dropping out of school and were more likely to become a teenage parent and have difficulty holding a job (Lansford et al., 2007). These findings pertain to both abused boys and abused girls. 7.160. Which of the following theorists would be most likely to provide the most useful perspective on understanding child maltreatment? a. Dr. Jones, who advocates a psychoanalytic approach b. Dr. Abdulla, who advocates an ecological approach c. Dr. Marcia, who advocates a biological approach d. Dr. Julstrom, who advocates a cognitive-development approach Answer: b Page: 197 Applied Moderate Rationale: The ecological approach is an especially useful model in understanding child maltreatment because it Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

recognizes the complex and multi-faceted nature of this social phenomenon. 7.161. According to information presented in the text, about what percent of abusive parents were abused themselves as children? a. nearly 100% b. about 90% c. about 75% d. less than half Answer: d Page: 197 Factual Moderate 7.162. Generalizing from information presented in the text, which of the following children would be the least likely to be abused? a. Tommy, who is an infant b. Robbie, who is a toddler c. Jamie, who has a physical disability d. Sammy, who is 12 years old Answer: d Page: 197 Applied Difficult Rationale: Infants and young children are at higher risk for abuse than are older children. Children with physical disabilities, difficult temperaments, or mental disorders are also at higher risk for abuse. 7.163. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the relationship between socioeconomic status and child maltreatment? a. Children in low-income families are least likely to be abused because these families are most likely to be headed by women. b. Children in high-income families are most likely to be abused, but the abuse is less likely to be reported due to the high social status of the parents. c. Children in low-income families are most likely to be abused because poverty and unemployment involve stress and heighten risk for abuse. d. Children in middle-class homes are most likely to be abused, but the abuse is less likely to be reported because one parent usually covers up the abuse for the other parent. Answer: c Page: 197 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: While physical abuse is found at all socioeconomic levels, it is more likely to occur in poverty-stricken homes. This may be partly because abuse in middle-class homes is less likely to come to the attention of authorities. It is also true, however, that general family stresses, such as those associated with poverty, increase the risk of child abuse. Unemployment, for example, is another risk factor. In addition to creating financial problems, unemployment lowers the parent’s social status and self-esteem. An unemployed parent may try to compensate by wielding authority at home through physical domination. 7.164. According to statistics presented in the text, which of the following statements is the most accurate summary of how the prevalence of child abuse has changed over the past decade or two? a. Child abuse is much more common now than in the mid-1990s. b. Child abuse is slightly more common now than in the mid-1990s. c. The prevalence of child abuse has not changed significantly since the mid-1990s. d. Child abuse is much less common now than in the mid-1990s. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 197 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In recent years, various forms of child maltreatment have shown a dramatic decline in the United States. Compared to the peak in 1993, by 2004 there were 20% fewer cases of abuse and neglect reported; during the same period, statistics suggest a 40 to 70% decline in cases of physical and sexual abuse (Finkelhor & Jones, 2006; Jones, Finkelhor, & Halter, 2006). 7.165. According to statistics presented in the text, compared to child abuse rates in 1993, in 2004 there were ________ of abuse and neglect reported and _______ of physical and sexual abuse reported. a. 20% fewer cases; about 50% more cases b. 20% more cases; about 50% more cases c. 20% fewer cases; about 50% fewer cases d. 20% more cases; about 50% fewer cases Answer: c Page: 197 Factual Moderate 7.166. The text suggests three reasons for why rates of child maltreatment have changed over the past two decades. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons? a. a stronger national economy b. increased availability and use of drug treatments for mental illness c . the No Child Left Behind federal program to strengthen schools d. increased and more effective efforts to prevent child abuse Answer: c Page: 197 Factual Difficult Changing Perspectives: Electronic Media: Is It Changing the Way That Children Grow Up? 7.167. According to research cited in the text, about what percent of U. S. children under age 6 have a TV in their bedroom? a. 6% b. 12% c. 24% d. 33% Answer: d Page: 179 Factual Moderate 7.168. Which of the following health conditions appears to be most closely associated with children’s TV viewing habits? a. asthma b. obesity c. depression d. anxiety disorders Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 179 Factual Easy 7.169. To say that “brain plasticity is high in childhood” means that: a. brain development is modified by the environmental experiences the child has b. the brain undergoes a “growth spurt” in the number of neurons the develop during childhood c. the brain is very vulnerable and easily damaged during childhood d. children have to work very hard to learn new things during this developmental period Answer: a Page: 179 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Brain development is rapid in early childhood and plasticity is high, meaning that the brain wires itself partly in response to environmental experiences. 7.170. According to the view suggested by the idea behind “iBrain,” parents should be concerned about their children’s TV viewing because: a. watching TV can cause the visual part of the brain to shrink b. heavy media use might change the course of brain development so children have diminished social skills c. children may become so sophisticated about technology that they will not be able to learn to read d. children may become so interested in technology that they won’t want to engage in physical activity, which is important for brain development Answer: b Page: 179 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Brain development is rapid in early childhood and plasticity is high, meaning that the brain wires itself partly in response to environmental experiences. If young children spend more time on technology-related tasks and less time interacting with other people in playtime and through other social activities, this may shift the way the brain develops in early childhood, creating what neuroscientist Gary Small calls the “iBrain.” Current Issues: One Pathway to Social Competence 7.171. Ralph comes from a home in which there is no television, in which the only toys are guns, and in which conversation about “modern” topics such as news, fashion, and media is discouraged. If Ralph experiences difficulty in developing social competence as the result of his upbringing, this problem would most likely be described as a lack of: a. social knowledge b. social disposition c. emotion regulation d. empathy Answer: a Page: 186 Applied Moderate Rationale: Socially competent children have a better understanding of social knowledge: They are aware of the behaviors that are considered appropriate and inappropriate. 7.172. According to research by Susan Denham and her colleagues, which of the following appears to be the most important factor in the development of social competence? a. social knowledge b. empathy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. emotional competence d. social skills Answer: c Page: 186 Factual Moderate

True-False questions: Coping With Feelings and Emotions 7.173. A child who experiences a continuous sense of apprehension for no particular reason is experiencing the emotion that researchers label as fear. Answer: False Page: 173 Rationale: Fear is a state of arousal caused by a specific and identifiable stimulus or situation. Anxiety is a feeling of uneasiness that has a vague or unknown source. Thus, this example would be labeled anxiety rather than fear. 7.174. Culture plays an important role in shaping children’s fears. When adults view fear as a natural and healthy state, children express a much smaller number of fears. Answer: False Page: 174 Rationale: A study of Navajo parents, who view fearful children as healthy children, and white parents from Montana, who emphasize braveness as a positive value, demonstrated that when fear is seen as normal and healthy, children are more likely to express fear. Parents of Navajo children reported 22 fears on average, whereas the while parents from Montana reported that their children had on average only 4 fears. 7.175. One of the most effective methods of helping a child cope with anxiety is to reduce the unnecessary stress in his life. Answer: True Page: 174 7.176. Little Roxie really hates her baby brother, but she copes by being extraordinarily loving and kind to him. This is an example of the defense mechanism called rationalization. Answer: False Page: 174-175 Rationale: This example involves the defense mechanism of reaction formation, in which the child behaves in a way opposite to what their feelings would suggest. Rationalization involves making up reasonable, but false, explanations or excuses for one’s actions or feelings. 7.177. Contemporary developmentalists believe guilt is a more painful and intense emotion than shame. Answer: False Page: 176 Rationale: Shame is more painful and intense than guilt because shame involves a negative reflection on the self and challenges one’s basic identity. Guilt focuses on behavior that can be changed, and therefore is less damaging. 7.178. Around the age of 5, children usually develop a fascination with their genital regions. Answer: False Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 176-177 Rationale: Children typically develop a fascination with their genital regions at about 3 to 4 years of age (during the phallic stage of psychosexual development, according to Freud). Aggression and Prosocial Behavior 7.179. When a person does not intend to hurt another, but an injury results anyway, this would be considered an example of assertiveness. Answer: False Page: 177 Rationale: This is an example of instrumental aggression. Assertiveness involves standing up for one’s rights. 7.180. A good way of describing what modeling is would be to think of it as copying someone else’s behavior. Answer: True Page: 178 7.181. U.S. children under the age of 6 spend on average more time using screen media than in any other activity except sleeping. Answer: True Page: 178 7.182. Generally speaking, parents should feel comfortable allowing even young children to watch cartoons on television, because they contain little violence or stereotyped images. Answer: False Page: 178 Rationale: Cartoons typically are very violent. They also often contain stereotyped images. Parents may choose to allow children to watch cartoons, but they should not do so because they believe that cartoons contain little violence. 7.183. The term empathy refers to a person’s interest in helping other people. Answer: False Page: 180 Rationale: Although empathy is likely to be linked to helping behavior, empathy is defined as the ability to understand the feelings and perspectives of others. It is not directly tied to helping others. A person can understand another person’s feelings but choose not to help them. 7.184. Prosocial behavior is seen in people in every culture and country in the world, thereby suggesting that it involves an innate, biological mechanism. Answer: True Page: 180 7.185. Studies have shown that when children watch an adult perform a generous act, they are more likely to be generous as the result. This is a good example of role playing. Answer: False Page: 181 Rationale: This example is one that demonstrates modeling, rather than role playing. Role playing involves acting out a scene in which the child pretends to be another person. Both modeling and role playing can contribute to the child’s development of empathy. Developmental Conflicts Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.186. Two developmental conflicts occur during early childhood. The first involves the need to become autonomous and independent from parents and the second involves the need to develop initiative and a sense of competence. Answer: True Page: 182 7.187. When a child’s conscience is violated, feelings of guilt result. Answer: True Page: 182 7.188. Children who are not allowed to develop a sense of initiative often become passive and in many cases fall behind in school because they assume that they will not be successful there. Answer: True Page: 183 Peers, Play, and the Development of Social Competence 7.189. Play is a primary means for practicing the values, behaviors, and roles of society. Answer: True Page: 183 7.190. Between the ages of about 2 and 6, children first engage in associative play, then parallel play, then cooperative play, and finally solitary play. Answer: False Page: 183-184 Rationale: The correct sequence of play development is: solitary play (age 2), parallel play (age 3), associative play (age 4), and cooperative play (age 5). 7.191. Very few children develop imaginary companions, and when a child does, the parents should be concerned. Answer: False Page: 183 Rationale: Research indicates that about 65% of young children have imaginary companions and that these companions are associated with positive developmental outcomes and adjustment. 7.192. Unpopular children are likely to be more aggressive or more withdrawn than popular children. Answer: True Page: 185 7.193. Children who are shy or quiet are more likely to be popular if their culture values these traits. Answer: True Page: 185 Understanding Self and Others 7.194. According to the text, the process by which children learn to incorporate the values and moral standards of their society into their understanding of themselves is called rationalization.

Answer: False Page: 186-187 Rationale: This process is called internalization. Rationalization involves making up good, but false, reasons to explain one’s behavior and it is a defense mechanism. 7.195. If a person is referring to the biology of a person, the appropriate term to use would be “gender” whereas if the reference is to the person’s conceptual understanding, the term that should be used is “sex.” Answer: False Page: 188 Rationale: Sex is the term used to refer to biologically based distinctions, and gender is the term to use when the reference is to the person’s conceptual understanding. 7.196. On average, when born, males tend to be slightly longer and heavier, but females have slightly more mature skeletons. Answer: True Page: 188 7.197. Research indicates that many stereotyped gender roles (such as boys being more achievement-oriented, or girls being more social) do exist. Answer: False Page: 188 Rationale: Although some gender differences do exist, in general these are few and unimportant, especially considering that even when such average differences do occur, many individuals do not conform to the typical expectations. (For example, even though boys do outperform girls on mathematics ability tests on average, there are many girls who outperform many boys.) 7.198. If one accepts an androgynous view of sexuality, this means that one sees homosexuality as a normal gender preference. Answer: False Page: 188 Rationale: Androgyny refers to the idea that all people, males and females, possess both masculine and feminine personality traits. The concept of androgeny is not directly related to issues regarding homosexuality. 7.199. Children generally learn first that they are a “boy” or a “girl” and only later learn that their gender is stable and will not change as they grow older. Answer: True Page: 189 Family Dynamics 7.200. According to Diana Baumrind’s classification of parenting styles, authoritarian parents are high on both warmth and control. Answer: False Page: 191-192 Rationale: Authoritative parents are high on both warmth and control, but authoritarian parents are high on control but low on warmth. 7.201. Generally speaking, children with indifferent parents typically experience worse outcomes than do children with parents that adopt other parenting styles.

Answer: True Page: 192 7.202. Rewards that follow positive behaviors from children are generally effective in establishing discipline, but bribes, which offer rewards before the good behavior occurs, should generally be avoided as a means of discipline. Answer: True Page: 193 7.203. Research generally shows that children raised in the same family have similar personalities because the family environment is very much the same for every child. Answer: False Page: 194 Rationale: Siblings raised in the same family usually have unique personalities. One reason for this is that each child experiences family life is quite different ways, and environmental effects are largely specific to each child. 7.204. On average, first born children tend to have slightly higher IQs than children born later in the family. Answer: True Page: 194 7.205. Of the various forms that child maltreatment can take, child neglect is the most common. Answer: False Page: 195 Rationale: Emotional abuse is the most common form of child maltreatment, affecting about 75% of children who are maltreated. A comparable statistic for child neglect would be 22% of maltreated children. 7.206. Although mothers are most often the person involved in child maltreatment, when abuse is defined as physical abuse, fathers are most often the perpetrator. Answer: True Page: 195-196 7.107. Young children who are maltreated by their caregivers are more likely to be rejected by their peers. Answer: True Page: 196 7.208. Reported cases of child abuse have been increasing dramatically in the United States during the past two decades. Answer: False Page: 197 Rationale: Compared to 1993 statistics, by 2004 there were 20% fewer cases of child abuse and neglect reported, and a 40-70% decline in reported cases of physical and sexual abuse.

Short Answer questions: Coping With Feelings and Emotions 7.209. In what ways are fear and anxiety alike? In what ways are these two concepts different from each other? Page: 173-174 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

7.210. What is the overall goal for all of the defense mechanisms? Choose one of the defense mechanisms noted in the text and explain how this defense mechanism addresses that goal. Page: 174-175 7.211. Explain what rationalization is and give an example of it. Page: 174-175 7..212. In your own words, explain the difference between the defense mechanisms of regression and withdrawal. Page: 175 7.213. What do guilt and shame have in common? How are they different from each other? Page: 176

Aggression and Prosocial Behavior 7.214. Define the terms hostile aggression, instrumental aggression, and assertiveness and give an example of each. Page: 177 7.215. Suggest three reasons why parents should consider limiting the time their children spend using or watching electronic media. Page: 178-180 7.216. Define the term “prosocial behavior” and give an example of it. Page: 180 Developmental Conflicts 7.217. Explain the developmental conflict Erik Erikson believed was central for 2-year-olds to solve and give an example of how a child could resolve this conflict in a positive way. Then give a second example of how a child could resolve this conflict in a negative way. Page: 182 7.218. Explain the developmental conflict Erik Erikson believes was central for a 4-year-old to solve and give an example of how a child could resolve this conflict in a positive way. Then give a second example of how a child could resolve this conflict in a negative way. Page: 182-183 Peers, Play, and the Development of Social Competence 7.219. If a parent asked you for advice about how to deal with a young child who created an imaginary companion, what advice would you give, based on the text’s discussion of this situation? Page: 183 7.220. Provide two examples that demonstrate how children’s play is reflective of culture. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 184 7.221. Define the term “social competence” and give an example of how the development of social competence in childhood enhances development. Page: 185 Understanding Self and Others 7.222. Define the term “internalization” and give an example of how children learn to internalize the values and moral standards of their society. Page: 186-187 7.223. How can the way a child is treated by other children become incorporated in that child’s personal script? Provide an example to demonstrate your answer. Page: 187 7.224. How have the terms sex and gender come to be used in psychology? Page: 188 7.225. Do gender differences exist between boys and girls? If so, are such differences larger or smaller than most people have thought? Page: 188 7.226. How can the concept of androgyny be used to explain how boys and girls differ from each other? Page: 188 7.227. What is meant by the term “gender constancy” and how is this trait acquired in childhood? Page: 189 Family Dynamics 7.228. Compare and contrast authoritative parenting and authoritarian parenting. Page: 191-192 7.229. Suggest 3 things that parents can do to establish effective rules of discipline for their children. Suggest 2 things that parents should not do to establish discipline. Page: 193 7.230. Why is the negotiation of shared goals between parents and children a helpful means of promoting healthy development for children? Page: 193-194 7.231. Why do first born child have, on average, higher IQs than children born later in a family? Suggest two possible reasons.

Page: 194 7.232. Identify the key difference between child abuse and child neglect. Page: 195 7.233. Identify 4 different ways in which parents can psychologically abuse their children, and define each by giving an example. Page: 195 7.234. Why are ecological models often the most useful theories to explain the causes of child abuse? Page: 196

Essay questions: Coping With Feelings and Emotions 7.235. Describe how a typical 2-year-old’s expression of emotion differs from that of a typical 6-year-old child. Page: 173-174 7.236. Suppose that Nancy is a child who is very fearful and Brittany is a child who is very anxious. Would it be easier to help Nancy overcome her fears or to help Brittany overcome her anxiety, do you think? Explain your answer: Page: 173-175 7.237. How do history and culture affect what children fear? Cite examples from the text to support your answer. Page: 174 7.238. Explain why shame is usually considered to be a more negative emotion than guilt. Page: 176 7.239. Why is learning to control emotions such an important developmental event in early childhood? Page: 176 7.240. Considering a 3-year-old’s natural curiosity about the genital region, suggest how a parent’s response to a child’s masturbation might affect that child’s development of initiative versus guilt. Page: 176-177 Aggression and Prosocial Behavior 7.241. How is frustration linked to aggressive behavior in childhood? Page: 177 7.242. Describe how modeling can contribute to a child’s development of aggressive behavior and how it can be used to help a child control aggressive urges.

Page: 178 7.243. Why is punishment an inadvisable method of limiting a child’s aggressive behavior? Page: 178 7.244. Why would younger children be especially vulnerable to violent images and themes in the media? Page: 178-180 7.245. Do TV shows, movies, and other media have a negative or positive impact on the development of today’s generation of young children? Support your answer with evidence from research studies on this topic. Page: 178-180 7.246. Explain why many parents are concerned about the kinds of programming offered on television and in video games. What would they likely object to? How is the media industry responding? Is the media industry doing enough, do you think? Page: 178-180 7.247. How does culture influence the development of prosocial behavior? Provide an example to support your answer. Page: 180-181 7.248. Explain how role playing can help young children develop empathy. Page: 181 Developmental Conflicts 7.249. Describe the two central developmental conflicts that young children must resolve in early childhood. Page: 182 7.250. Distinguish between shame and guilt and explain why the development of competence helps a young child deal with these negative emotions. Page: 182 Peers, Play, and the Development of Social Competence 7.251. Describe how play develops, beginning with solitary play and ending with cooperative play. How does the development of play reflect the broader development of cognitive skills in early childhood? Be sure to include in your answer a discussion of egocentrism and of empathy. Page: 183-184 7.252. Does having an imaginary companion bode well or ill for normal development in early childhood? Cite research evidence to support your answer. Page: 183 7.253. What is social competence? In what ways is social competence related to children’s popularity among other children? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 185 Understanding Self and Others 7.254. Describe how the process of internalization helps the young child develop greater social competence. Page: 186-187 7.255. How does the development of a personal script help young children develop their self-concept? Page: 187 7.256. How does the development of gender schemes and the development of gender constancy demonstrate different points in cognitive development? Page: 189 7.257. How do children come to understand the concept of gender? As part of your answer, discuss the development of gender identity, gender constancy, and gender schemes. Page: 189 7.258. How does an understanding of the concept of androgyny help explain findings regarding the gender differences that exist between boys and girls? Page: 188-189 7.259. The text describes a study in which college girls cared for male or female children that were either dressed in gender-appropriate or gender-inappropriate clothing. What were the results of this study? What do the results suggest about how culture affects how children learn appropriate gender roles? Page: 189-190 Family Dynamics 7.260. Define and give an example of parental warmth and of parental control. Then describe how each of the four parenting styles proposed by Diana Baumrind reflects the levels of warmth and control that parents use with their children. Page: 191 7.261. Using Diana Baumrind’s view of four parenting styles, discuss which of these styles lead to the healthiest adjustments for children. Which styles lead to negative outcomes for children? Page: 191-192 7.262. How does an authoritative parenting style contribute to the development of prosocial behavior in children? Page: 191-192 7.263. Why do authoritative parenting behaviors usually produce the best outcomes for child development? Page: 192 7.264. Discuss why parents should be cautious about using punishment to discipline their children. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 192-193 7.265. How can having shared goals within a family facilitate the development of social competence among children? Page: 193-194 7.266. Discuss two reasons why brothers and sisters raised in the same family often have quite different personalities. Page: 194 7.267. Define three different types of child maltreatment and present research about who is most likely to be the abuser in each of these three cases. Page: 195-197 7.268. Discuss the likely effects that child abuse would have on the child’s development of the ability to successfully regulate emotions? Page: 196-197

Name: __________________________ Chapter 8 - Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. At what age does the human brain reach 95% of its adult size? a. age 4 b. age 6 c. age 9 d. age 14 2. Control processes are strategies and techniques that enhance __________. a. memory b. self-control c. empathy d. overall intelligence 3. In a study investigating the time public school teachers spend in various classroom activities, teachers were found to spend about ____ % of the time in a 30-minute lesson on academic work. a. 10-15 b. 30-40 c. 55-70 d. 85-90 Conceptual questions: 4. Generalizing from data presented in the text, which of the following children would have the greatest chance of suffering from asthma? a. Linnea, a middle-class white girl who lives in northern Minnesota b. Rollin, a poor African American boy who lives in St. Louis, Missouri c. Jose, a Hispanic middle-class Hispanic boy who lives in rural California d. Jeff, a poor white boy who lives on a farm in New York state 5. The text discusses research about Southeast Asian immigrant families. The results of this study suggest that which of the following factors is important in determining children’s IQs? a. race and skin color b. ethnicity and first language learned c. how long the family has lived in the U. S. d. family emphasis on education and success 6. According to Carol Dweck, which of the following statements represents the most effective way to praise a child? a. “You are a very, very smart little girl.” b. “You are so cute, who could think you wouldn’t do well in school?” c. “You have a natural ability in mathematics; no wonder you do so well.” d. “You did a nice job in writing that story. I especially like the way you described the clown.” 7. According to the text, why are there fewer children diagnosed with mental retardation today than there were in 1974? a. Schools are providing a much healthier diet and children are getting better nutrition. b. Much better prenatal care is available to mothers and so fewer birth defects are occurring. c. Diagnostic accuracy has improved and many children who would have been classified as having mental retardation today are being diagnosed as having learning disabilities. d. Vaccines are much more available today so many cases of mental retardation can be prevented.

Applied questions: 8. If you were to look at a boy and a girl of average size in two different age groups, age 8 and age 10, who would you expect to be taller in each age group? a. The 8-year-old girl would be taller than the 8-year-old boy, but the 10-year-old boy would be taller than the 10-year-old girl. b. The 8-year-old boy would be taller than the 8-year-old girl, but the 10-year-old girl would be taller than the 10-year-old boy. c. The boys would be taller than the girls at both 8 and 10 years of age. d. The girls would be taller than the boys at both 8 and 10 years of age. 9. If a 5-year-old girl watches an adult pour juice from a tall, thin glass into a short, wide glass, and then she is asked, “Which glass has more juice?” she would typically: a. conclude that either the short, wide glass has more juice or that the tall, thin glass has more juice b. conclude that since no juice was spilled, the glasses have the same amount of juice c. become very confused and ask to see the juice poured again and again d. not be able to answer the question because she would be confused about why the adult was asking such an obvious question 10. Suppose you conducted a study of pairs of identical twins, one of whom was diagnosed with ADHD. Now you examine whether or not the other twins in each pair also have ADHD. In comparison to pairs of unrelated children, you would expect that the other twin in your study would be _______ likely to also be diagnosed with ADHD. a. much less b. somewhat less c. equally d. more

Name: __________________________ Chapter 8 - Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. Which of the following disorders has the highest rate of prevalence in the U. S. population of children? a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder d. depression 2. The original purpose for developing the first intelligence tests in the early part of the twentieth century was: a. to identify children who would not do well in school b. to provide a reason to discriminate against children from African descent c. to give the French government a means of selecting especially talented children for placement in statefunded educational programs for the gifted d. to study how physical health and intelligence were related 3. Which of the following is the primary goal of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEIA)? a. to train teachers to deal with children who have mental retardation and behavioral disorders b. to fund special schools that provide education to children with disabilities c. to raise the public’s awareness of the unfairness being done to individuals with disabilities d. to provide all children with a free and appropriate education Conceptual questions: 4. Suppose you learn that two children, a 10-year-old boy and a 10-year-old girl, have brains of quite different sizes, with the boy’s brain being about 40% larger than the girl’s brain. Which of the following conclusions would be the best to draw from this data? a. The girl most likely has something wrong with her brain, because it should be at least 10% larger than the boy’s brain. b. The girl’s brain most likely has something wrong with it, because it should be very close to the same size as the boy’s brain at this age. c. The girl most likely was malnourished in early childhood, giving rise to a smaller-than-average brain. d. There is no reason for concern, since children’s brain sizes can vary by as much as 50% without any appreciable difference in cognitive skills. 5. Addition and subtraction math problems rely on a child’s ability to understand which of the following Piagetian concepts? a. formal operations b. reversibility c. metacognition d. scripts 6. Tommy appears to not care at all about the quality of the school work he does. When asked, he says things like: “School is stupid. No one should try hard. Learning is useless.” Using the terms identified by David McClelland, you would conclude that Tommy has: a. very low achievement motivation b. very high need for excellence c. very low autonomy d. a low “pride” quotient

7. The text states that there has been a gradual evolution in how mental retardation is regarded. In general, what change is at the center of that evolution in thinking? a. Today, each person is considered to be more an individual with specific needs for accommodations. b. Today, mental retardation is considered to be a biological, rather than a psychological, disability. c. Today, mental retardation is diagnosed according to a person’s IQ score, rather than to an assessment of that person’s abilities. d. Today, people understand that individuals with mental retardation cannot be expected to achieve at the same levels as people who do not have intellectual disabilities. Applied questions: 8. Which of the following people would be most likely to get an erroneous estimate of obesity when using the BMI method of calculation? a. Susie, an overweight 12-year-old girl who is African American b. Barbara, an underweight 12-year-old girl who has not yet hit the adolescent growth spurt c. Mike, an overweight 16-year-old boy who gets very little exercise d. Jeremy, a competitive athlete with very large muscles 9. Heidi has a series of events that she follows every morning: she takes a shower, dresses, eats breakfast, and rides the bus to school. Her memory of this sequence of events would most likely be organized in the form of: a. a series of retrieval cues b. a script for “morning events” c. a series of mental images d. semantic elaboration of common events 10. Lynn tells the teacher, “I don’t care if I learn anything; I just want to get an A.” According to research conducted by Carol Dweck, you should conclude that Lynn has what type of motivation? a. learning motivation b. performance motivation c. social motivation d. anti-learning motivation

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 8.1 1. b, p. 204 2. a, p. 212 3. a, p. 219 4. b, p. 205-206 5. d, p. 218 6. d, p. 221 7. c, p. 223 8. b, p. 203 9. a, p. 210 10. d, p. 227 Quick Quiz 8.2 1. d, p. 209 2. a, p. 214 3. d, p. 222 4. d, p. 204 5. b, pp. 211-212 6. a, p. 220 7. a, p. 223-224 8. d, p. 207 9. b, p. 212 10. b, p. 221

Chapter 8 Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

Multiple Choice questions:

Physical and Motor Development 8.1. According to the text, in Western nations, middle childhood extends from about age: a. 4 to 8 years b. 5 to 10 years c. 6 to 12 years d. 8 to 12 years Answer: c Page: 203 Factual Easy 8.2. Compared to the first two years of life, growth during middle childhood is: a. faster and steadier b. slower, but more erratic c. faster, but more erratic d. slower and steadier Answer: d Page: 203 Factual Moderate 8.3 Which of the following children would you expect to grow the least during a 6-month period of time? a. Renee, who is an 8-month-old girl b. Rex, who is an 8-month old boy c. Sara, who is a 2-year old girl d. Babette, who is a 7-year-old girl Answer: d Page 203 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Growth is slower during middle childhood than earlier in life, so Babette would be expected to grow the least. The distinction between Renee and Rex is not important, since 8 months of age is a fast growth period compared with middle childhood. 8.4. If you were to look at a boy and a girl of average size in two different age groups, age 8 and age 10, who would you expect to be taller in each age group? a. The 8-year-old girl would be taller than the 8-year-old boy, but the 10-year-old boy would be taller than the 10-year-old girl. b. The 8-year-old boy would be taller than the 8-year-old girl, but the 10-year-old girl would be taller than the 10-year-old boy. c. The boys would be taller than the girls at both 8 and 10 years of age. d. The girls would be taller than the boys at both 8 and 10 years of age. Answer: b Page: 203 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: Boys are slightly taller and heavier than girls until about age 9, when girls typically experience an adolescent growth spurt and grow faster than boys. Boys catch up and go on to exceed girl’s size when they hit their adolescent growth spurt at about age 11. 8.5 At what age does the human brain reach 95% of its adult size? a. age 4 b. age 6 c. age 9 d. age 14 Answer: b Page: 204 Factual Moderate 8.6 Based on information presented in the text, which of the following individuals would you expect to have the largest brain, as measured by brain size (or volume)? a. Jackie, a 6-year old girl b. Lucille, an 11-year-old girl c. Andrea, a 27-year-old woman d. Margaret, a 54-year-old woman Answer: b Page: 204 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Brain mass peaks at age 10 ½ for girls and at age 14 ½ for boys, and brain size continues to diminish after those ages. Although male brains are about 10% larger, all of the people in this example are women. 8.7 The process in which specific functions, such as speech, develop in specific regions of the brain is called: a. neural integration b. differentiation c. functional fixation d. lateralization Answer: d Page: 204 Factual Moderate 8.8. If you were to observe a sample of brain tissue that was mostly composed of myelin and contained relatively few cell bodies, you would refer to this type of brain tissue as: a. white matter b. gray matter c. cell body mass extract d. pruned excess Answer: a Page: 204 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Gray matter differs from white matter in that white matter is comprised mostly of fatty myelin that surrounds axons whereas gray matter has little white myelin and instead is mostly cell bodies. “Cell body mass extract” and “pruned excess” are meaningless terms that are not mentioned in the text, but that do vaguely refer to Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

neural concepts and may seem like correct answers to students who do not know the basic definitions of gray and white matter. 8.9 Higher level cognitive functions, such as attention, emotion, language, and memory, are thought to be associated most closely to activity in: a. the myelin surrounding axons b. the cell axons themselves, but not the cell bodies c. the gray matter of the brain d. the white matter in the left cerebral hemisphere Answer: c Page: 204 Factual Moderate 8.10. Suppose you learn that two children, a 10-year boy and a 10-year old girl, have brains of quite different sizes, with the boy’s brain being about 40% larger than that girl’s brain. Which of the following conclusions would be the best to draw from this data? a. The girl most likely has something wrong with her brain, because it should be at least 10% larger than the boy’s brain. b. The girl’s brain most likely has something wrong with it, because it should be very close to the same size as the boy’s brain at this age. c. The girl most likely was malnourished in early childhood, giving rise to a smaller-than-average brain. d. There is no reason for concern, since children’s brain sizes can vary by as much as 50% without any appreciable difference in cognitive skills. Answer: d Page 204 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Although male brains are on average about 10% larger than female brains throughout childhood and adulthood, brain volumes vary considerably among healthy individuals. A volume difference of 50%, while it seems large and significant, is not generally accompanied by different levels of cognitive abilities. Therefore, a size difference of 30% is within the normal range of brain size differentials. 8.11 During adolescence and adulthood, cognitive functions such as memory and judgment generally become more complex. According to the text, the neurological event most closely associated with such changes is: a. an increase in the number of neurons in the brain b. an increase in the overall size of the neurons in the cortex of the brain c. a decrease in the amount of myelin present in the brain d. a decline in gray matter that occurs after childhood Answer: d Page: 204 Factual Difficult 8.12. If you were babysitting for a 9-year-old child who complained of “growing pains” in his legs, what would be the appropriate thing to do: a. give him an aspirin and tell his parents when they return b. call an ambulance c. massage the sore area and apply a heating pad d. tell him that the pains are not real and are “all in his head” Answer: c Page: 204 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: Growing pains are normal for children and adolescents and can best be addressed by applying massage and gentle heat. 8.13. At what age do children typically begin to lose their primary teeth? a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 Answer: b Page: 204 Factual Easy 8.14. According to the text, many studies find that boys are more athletic than girls during middle childhood. Research suggests that the major reason for this difference is: a. much greater muscle mass in boys than girls, even before puberty b. the male growth spurt occurs a few years earlier for boys than girls, giving them greater strength as well as size c. opportunity and expectations about athletic activities are greater for boys than girls d. brain growth occurs much earlier for boys, giving them much better fine and gross motor control than girls during middle childhood Answer: c Page: 205 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that the sex difference is largely the result of greater expectations placed on boys. Furthermore, girls do not have less muscle mass before puberty, the male growth spurt occurs later than the female, and brain development is earlier for girls than boys; thus making the other answer choices all incorrect. 8.15. According to the text, most of the fine motor skills required for writing develop between the ages of: a. 3 and 4 b. 4 and 5 c. 5 and 6 d. 6 and 7 Answer: d Page: 205 Factual Moderate 8.16. Suppose you are playing with a 6-year-old child and you ask the child to draw three different shapes: a triangle, a circle, and a square. Which shape would you expect the child to have the most difficulty drawing? a. the triangle b. the circle c. the square d. A 6-year-old can easily draw them all. Answer: a Page: 205 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that complex fine motor skills develop sequentially in middle childhood and that the circle is the easiest, and first, shape a child can draw, followed by a square, and then a triangle. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8.17. Suppose you walk into a typical 6th grade classroom in a predominantly White, middle-class, suburban school in the United States. If the children there are typical, about what percent would you expect to be wearing glasses or contact lenses to improve their vision? a. 75% b. 50% c. 33% d. 25% Answer: d Page: 205 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that about 25% of White middle-class 6th graders have been fitted with glasses or contact lenses; generalizing from that figure, 25% is the best of the answer choices presented. 8.18. The most prevalent chronic disease among children living in the United States is ___________; and the percentage of children affected by this disease is ____________. a. diabetes; increasing b. diabetes; decreasing c. asthma; increasing d. asthma; decreasing Answer: c Page: 205 Factual Easy 8.19. Which of the following statements about asthma is false: a. Asthma affects more African American than Hispanic or White children. b. Asthma can be severe enough to cause death. c. Asthma affects more boys than girls. d. Children with asthma are less likely to suffer from other childhood diseases. Answer: d Page: 205-206 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Foils a, b, and c are correct, but children with asthma are more likely to suffer from other childhood diseases, making d the false statement. 8.20 Generalizing from data presented in the text, which of the following children would have the greatest chance of suffering from asthma? a. Linnea, a middle-class white girl who lives in northern Minnesota b. Rollin, a poor African American boy who lives in St. Louis, Missouri c. Jose, a middle-class Hispanic boy who lives in rural California d. Jeff, a poor white boy who lives on a farm in New York state Answer: b Page 205-206 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Asthma is more common among African Americans, those who live in the South or Midwest regions in the U.S., those raised in poverty, and those in urban areas.

8.21. Mr. Martinez teaches third-grade physical education. To meet national health objectives, he should try to engage students in active physical exercise for at least what percent of their time in his physical education class? a. 30% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% Answer: b Page: 206 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text states that national health objectives call for physical education classes to meet every day and for 50% of that time to be spent in active physical exercise. 8.22. What is the term used to refer to children who must care for themselves after school? a. latchkey children b. “children-without-a-place-to-go” c. home-neglected children d. parent-absent children Answer: a Page: 206 Factual Easy 8.23. Currently about what percent of school-age children in the United States are obese? a. 5 percent b. 17 percent c. 31 percent d. 48 percent Answer: b Page: 206 Factual Moderate 8.24 Of the children who are obese at ages 10 to 13, about what percent will go on to become seriously overweight as adults? a. 33% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90% Answer: c Page 207 Factual Moderate 8.25 What two factors are considered in computing a child’s BMI (Body Mass Index)? a. age and weight b. gender and age c. gender and percent body fat d. weight and height Answer: d Page: 207 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: BMI is computed as a person’s weight in pounds, divided by square of that person’s height in inches, multiplied by 703. It is computed the same way for all individuals, regardless of age. 8.26. Which of the following people would be most likely to get an erroneous estimate of obesity when using the BMI method of calculation? a. Susie, an overweight 12-year-old girl who is African American b. Barbara, an underweight 12-year-old girl who has not yet hit the adolescent growth spurt c. Mike, an overweight 16-year-old boy who gets very little exercise d. Jeremy, a competitive athlete with very large muscles Answer: d Page: 207 Applied Moderate Rationale: The BMI method does not consider the proportion of body weight due to fat versus muscle. Because muscle is very dense and therefore heavy tissue, when a person is highly muscular, this high proportion of muscleto-fat can put the person in an overweight category according to BMI calculations, even though the person does not have much body fat. The BMI index is not biased according to ethnicity, gender, or age, so answers a, b, and c would not lead to faulty calculations. 8.27. What is the number one cause of death in middle childhood? a. pneumonia or influenza b. accidents c. birth defects d. cancer Answer: b Page: 207 Factual Easy 8.28. According to the Surgeon General’s report, about what percent of children and adolescents age 9 to 17 are estimated to have mental disorders with at least mild functional impairment? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20% Answer: d Page 208 Factual Moderate 8.29. Of the children in the United States who have a mental disorder, about what percent receive appropriate diagnosis and treatment? a. 20% b. 50% c. 75% d. over 95% Answer: a Page: 208 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The text states that only 1 in 5 U.S. children with mental illness disorders receives treatment. 8.30. Luke’s parents are concerned about him because, beginning at about age 2, he began to show little affection toward other people, his speech became very limited to the point where he seldom talked, and he began to engage in repetitive behavior, such as spinning his crayons and rocking back and forth. If you were to guess what Luke’s diagnosis might be, the best choice would be: a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder b. childhood depression c. autism d. child-onset schizophrenia Answer: c Page: 208 Applied Moderate Rationale: The symptoms of autism include general aloofness and detachment from caregivers and others, little need for contact with others, limited affection, limited verbal communication, and engagement in repetitive actions. The other disorders do not show this pattern of symptoms. 8.31. Which of the following disorders has the highest rate of prevalence in the U. S. population of children? a. schizophrenia b. bipolar disorder c. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder d. depression Answer: d Page: 209 Factual Moderate

Cognitive Development 8.32. In Piaget’s terms, the type of thought that is characteristic of children during the elementary school years is called: a. formal operational thought b. preoperational thought c. sensorimotor thought d. concrete operational thought Answer: d Page: 210 Factual Easy 8.33. If all you know about Rashon is that he is a typical 6-year-old, you would guess that his thinking is undergoing a transition between which of Piaget’s stages? a. preoperational to concrete operational thought b. concrete operational to preoperational thought c. concrete operational to formal operational thought d. preoperational to formal operational thought Answer: a Page: 210 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The transition from preoperational to concrete operations thought typically occurs between the ages of 5 and 7. 8.34. If a 5-year-old girl watches an adult pour juice from a tall, thin glass into a short, wide glass, and then she is asked, “Which glass has more juice?” she would typically: a. conclude that either the short, wide glass has more juice or that the tall, thin glass has more juice b. conclude that since no juice was spilled, the glasses have the same amount of juice c. become very confused and ask to see the juice poured again and again d. not be able to answer the question because she would be confused about why the adult was asking such an obvious question Answer: a Page: 210 Applied Moderate Rationale: At 5 years of age, the child is in Piaget’s sensorimotor stage and would therefore see this problem as a perceptual problem. As such, since the two glasses are not filled with juice at the same time, and since the child cannot reverse her thinking, she usually will focus on either the height of the juice (and judge the tall, thin glass as having more) or the width of the juice (and judge the short, wide glass as having more). 8.35. Suppose you line up two rows of marbles, each of which has 6 marbles in it. In Row A, the marbles are spaced closely together; in Row B, the marbles are spread out farther apart. If you asked a 5-year-old and an 8-yearold, “Which row has more marbles?” you should expect the 5-year-old to say __________ and the 8-year-old to say _____________. a. Row A; Row B b. Row B; Row A c. Row B; they are the same d. they are the same; they are the same Answer: c Page: 211 Applied Moderate Rationale: This problem is like Piaget’s matchstick problem. The child in the preoperational stage will focus on the perceptual aspects of the problem, and conclude that the row that takes up the most space has more marbles. The child in the stage of formal operations will correctly understand that space is unrelated to number and will correctly conclude that there are the same number of marbles in each row. 8.36. Which of the following changes is characteristic of the transition from Piaget’s preoperational stage into the stage of concrete operations? a. thinking becomes more egocentric b. thinking becomes more logical and less focused on perception of objects c. thinking becomes less reversible d. thinking becomes less focused on the future and more focused on the present Answer: b Page: 211 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As children move into the stage of concrete operations, their thinking becomes less bound by their perception of objects and they begin to think more flexibly, thus they focus less on the “here and now” and less on the perceptual characteristics of objects. Their use of logic to solve problems increases, they become capable of thinking “backwards” (reversibility). They also become less egocentric. 8.37. According to Piaget, what would be the best way to teach children in kindergarten about the mathematical concept of addition: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. Explain to them in words how addition problems should be solved and then ask them to explain back to you in their own words. b. Give them objects, such as blocks, to manipulate so they can see how moving blocks from one pile to another represents changes in number (e.g., addition). c. Read stories about math problems to them to enhance their motivation to learn mathematical concepts. d. There is no good way to teach children in the preoperational stage about mathematics because this topic requires the ability to understand reversibility, which develops later. Answer: b Page: 211-212 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Because Piaget believed that young children’s thought is closely tied to concrete experiences, he believed that their understanding of concepts such as addition is best taught by having them manipulate objects they can see and touch. Describing abstract concepts in words would not be useful. Motivation is not a limiting factor in most cases. Although children acquire the ability to reverse order gradually as then enter the stage of concrete operations, when objects manipulation is involved, they can see how objects move and are able to understand the transfer operations that addition requires. 8.38. Addition and subtraction math problems rely on a child’s ability to understand which of the following Piagetian concepts? a. formal operations b. reversibility c. metacognition d. scripts Answer: b Page: 211-212 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Addition and subtraction do not require the use of formal, hypothetical logic but they do require that the child understands reversibility – the ability to mentally reverse the order of operations and think “backwards.” Metacognition refers to self-monitoring of thought, which also is not required. Scripts involve remembering sequences of common events and also are not required for understanding simple mathematics. 8.39. Piaget's theory of cognitive development suggests that elementary school education should: a. allow children to discover principles by doing rather than by being shown b. spend more of the class day on math and science instruction and less on free play activities c. not be expected to learn mathematics or science until about the 3rd or 4th grade d. emphasize the use of verbal rewards such as praise in order to increase motivation for learning Answer: a Page: 212 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Piaget emphasized that children are active, motivated learners who learn best by experimenting and discovering knowledge through their own inquiries. He thought free play was very valuable, that mathematical concepts could be learned by even young children if object manipulation was used, and that children were intrinsically motivated to learn, making teachers’ praise unnecessary and even counterproductive in some instances. 8.40. Control processes are strategies and techniques that enhance __________. a. memory b. self-control c. empathy d. overall intelligence

Answer: a Page: 212 Factual Moderate 8.41. Strategies, such as mental imagery and scripts, that elementary schoolchildren use to help them remember things are called: a. metacognition b. reconstructions c. reviews d. control processes Answer: d Page: 212 Factual Moderate 8.42. Remembering the details about a family dinner, such as helping set the table, washing hands before eating, saying grace at the dinner table, eating the food, and clearing off the dishes, best illustrates what memory control process? a. mental imagery b. the use of a script c. semantic elaboration d. organization Answer: b Page: 212 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A script is a standard sequence of events that comprise a familiar event. Because this example clearly emphasizes the events associated with “family dinners,” it would be considered a good example of a script, even though other control processes might be involved. 8.43. Memory for routine events, such as getting ready for bed, is most likely to be organized by using: a. mental imagery b. rehearsal c. scripts d. semantic elaboration Answer: c Page: 212 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Scripts are standard sequences of events that comprise a familiar event, such as getting ready for bed. Although other memory strategies can be employed in remembering routine events, because the question emphasizes the memory for routine events and it gives an example that would involve a script, the choice of scripts is the best answer for this question. 8.44. Heidi has a series of events that she follows every morning: she takes a shower, dresses, eats breakfast, and rides the bus to school. Her memory of this sequence of events would most likely be organized in the form of: a. a series of retrieval cues b. a script for “morning events” c. a series of mental images d. semantic elaboration of common events Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 212 Applied Moderate Rationale: A script is a standard sequence of events that comprise a familiar event. Because this example clearly emphasizes the events associated with “morning events before school,” it would be considered a good example of a script, even though other control processes might be involved. 8.45 The intellectual process that allows people to monitor their own thoughts and thinking processes is called: a. a control process b. metacognition c. mental elaboration d. a personal script Answer: b Page: 212 Factual Easy 8.46. Maria is asked to create and tell a story about how a lost dog was able to find its home. She talks and talks about the dog, and about its home, but is never able to figure out how to end the story or what would be required to make the story complete. In terms of her control processes, her problem in finishing her work would be described as a failure of: a. motivation b. retrieval c. metacognition d. rehearsal Answer: c Page: 212 Applied Difficult Rationale: This example points to Maria’s lack of awareness about what the problem involves and what a correct solution requires. Thus, she in not able to “think about her thinking,” which is the essence of metacognition. Motivation is not a problem, as evidenced by her continued effort. The example does not indicate that she has trouble remembering (retrieval) or repeating relevant details (rehearsal). 8.47. Restructuring the material to be learned so that it is arranged categorically is the major feature of the control process called: a. scripts b. organization c. mental imagery d. semantic elaboration Answer: b Page: 212 Factual Easy 8.48. Nine-year-old Kimberly is presented with a list of words to memorize. She groups the words by common features. For instance, she groups the words “dog,” “cat,” and “horse” as animals. What strategy does she use to help her remember the list? a. organization b. mental imagery c. scripts d. semantic elaboration

Answer: a Page: 213 Applied Moderate Rationale: Organization typically involves categorization of similar items, which is what this example describes. Mental imagery involves imagination, scripts rely on memory of common events, and semantic elaboration involves logical inferences about things that would have occurred, even if such things were not experienced directly. 8.49. Samuel tells his little brother an elaborate story about imaginary creatures with three heads and sharp tails who can fly like helicopters by rotating a huge wing that comes out of their back. Samuel’s ability to imagine these creatures and describe them to his brother is a good example of which of the following control processes? a. mental imagery b. semantic elaboration c. organization d. scripts Answer: a Page: 213 Applied Difficult Rationale: The best answer is mental imagery, since this example emphasizes Samuel’s ability to construct a mental image of an imaginary object. Semantic elaboration emphasizes the use of logical inferences, and Samuel’s memory does not rely on logic about missing information. Samuel’s ability to describe an imaginary creature also does not emphasize the organization of his memory, nor does it emphasize common events associated with a particular event, which is the core concept associated with memory scripts. 8.50. Jude learns the concept of subtraction by forming a picture in his mind of removing blocks from one stack and adding them to another stack. His memory strategy is best considered an example of the use of: a. mental imagery b. rehearsal c. organization d. semantic elaboration Answer: a Page: 213 Applied Moderate Rationale: Mental imagery involves the ability to construct mental images, which is what this example emphasizes. Rehearsal involves repetition of to-be-remembered events; organization emphasizes categorization of information into meaningful units; and semantic elaboration the ability to make logical inferences about missing information. 8.51. Eleven-year-old Susan overheard her father say, "I drove to the store." She is able to infer the presence of a car even though he never mentioned the word. This example best illustrates what memory strategy? a. retrieval b. mental imagery c. organization d. semantic elaboration Answer: d Page: 213 Applied Difficult Rationale: Although retrieval of information is involved in any memory problem, it is not the central event here, nor is organization (since categorization is not the central aspect of this problem). Mental imagery is involved, since Susan must be able to create a mental image of driving to the store, but the example focuses not only on her ability

to imagine the scene but also on her ability to logically infer that there was a car involved. Thus, because the central point of the example pertains to logical inference, semantic elaboration is the best answer to this question. 8.52. The term literacy refers to: a. the use of control processes in thinking and problem solving b. the skills involved in reading and writing c. the percentage of people in a group who can read at least at the 4th-grade level d. the ability to monitor and understand one’s own thoughts and thinking processes Answer: b Page: 213 Factual Easy 8.53. Whole-language theorists focus on the concept of: a. metacognition b. emergent literacy c. logical inference d. cooperative learning Answer: b Page: 213 Factual Moderate 8.54. According to whole-language theory, the skills associated with oral and written language acquisition develop over a period of years, beginning in: a. infancy b. the preschool years c. about 1st grade d. about 3rd grade Answer: a Page: 213 Factual Easy 8.55. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the whole-language viewpoint about literacy? a. Children must learn to read correctly before they can learn to speak correctly. b. Children must learn to read short sentences before they can learn to read long sentences. c. Children can only learn to read when they are “ready” from a biological point of view. d. Early language skills like listening form the basis for later language skills like reading. Answer: d Page: 213 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The whole-language view is based on the idea that literacy skills begin in infancy with understanding of spoken language, and these early skills are modified through experience with language to become more complex and to transition into speaking and writing. This view also emphasizes that language learning occurs in a sociocultural context and that language learning occurs naturally, without the need of formal expectations or rewards. 8.56. The essential idea encompassed by the term emergent literacy is that: a. language learning is best done in the home, rather than in school b. learning to read “emerges” when the child is “ready” to learn c. learning to read is an entirely different process than learning to speak Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. language learning is a continuous and gradual process Answer: d Page: 213 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the concept of emergent literacy, the skills associated with oral and written language acquisition begin to develop in infancy and gradually improve over a period of years. 8.57. Suppose that 7-year-old Anna is having trouble learning to read in school. Her teacher investigates how her family encourages reading, how her friends interact with her during play, and how she uses oral language to communicate. The teacher concludes that her reading will likely develop in its own time, and encourages Anna to continue to interact verbally. The teacher’s approach would be very compatible with which of the following points of view? a. the metacognitive viewpoint b. the whole-language viewpoint c. the preoperational viewpoint d. the formal operational viewpoint Answer: b Page 213 Applied Moderate Rationale: The whole-language viewpoint emphasizes the role of social interactions in developing literacy, and also suggests that reading emerges from earlier language skills of speaking and understanding. The metacognitive, preoperational, and formal operational “viewpoints” are not meaningful in this context, since they do not pertain directly to literacy. 8.58. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to contribute positively to the development of literacy? a. enrolling a child in a formal program of reading and writing in which they are drilled on correct techniques and rewarded when they succeed b. reading to children and talking with them about what was read c. having children play together and make up stories and plays d. allowing children a lot of pressure-free time to draw, even if their work is no more than scribbling on paper Answer: a Page: 213-214 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Several factors contribute to the development of literacy, but a common feature is that the child is able to progress at his or her own speed and without formal expectations or pressure to perform in a particular way. 8.59. The first tests of intelligence were developed in France by: a. Louis Terman and his colleagues b. Robert Sternberg c. Alfred Binet d. Jean Piaget Answer: c Page: 214 Factual Easy 8.60. The original purpose for developing the first intelligence tests in the early part of the twentieth century was: a. to identify children who would not do well in school Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. to provide a reason to discriminate against children from African descent c. to give the French government a means of selecting especially talented children for placement in statefunded educational programs for the gifted d. to study how physical health and intelligence were related Answer: a Page 214 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Although intelligence tests have served to select gifted children, they have been used to support discriminatory policies and practices, and they do help researchers understand the relationships between intelligence and wide range of other variables, their original purpose in France was to allow the government to select children who would be less likely to benefit from formal education. 8.61. Suppose that Lucy is 6 years old and she is answers the same number of questions on an intelligence test as the average 8-year-old. Her mental age would be: a. 6 years b. 7 years c. 8 years d. none of the above, since there is not enough information given to determine it Answer: c Page 214-215 Applied Moderate Rationale: Mental age is determined according to the number of questions a person answers correctly and has nothing to do with a person’s chronological age. If a person answers the same number of questions correctly as the average 8-year-old, that person’s mental age is 8 years, irrespective of how old the person is. 8.62. If Greg is 10 years old, and if he answers the same number of intelligence test questions correctly as the average 9-year-old, his computed IQ would be: a. 111 b. 100 c. 90 d. An answer can not be determined because not enough information is given to compute his IQ. Answer: c Page: 215 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: IQ is defined as mental age divided by chronological age multiplied by 100. In this case, 9 divided by 10 multiplied by 100 is equal to 90. 8.63. The major advantage of using the ratio method of computing IQ, rather than reporting only a child’s mental age, is which of the following? a. The ratio method provides a more accurate method of measuring mental age. b. The ratio method allows for children of different chronological ages to be compared more meaningfully. c. The ratio method provides a less racially biased method of measuring mental age. d. The ratio method provides a less racially biased method of computing IQ. Answer: b Page 215 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Reporting only mental age does not provide any information about chronological age, thus there is no basis for comparing a child to same-age peers. For example, two children who have a mental age of 9 might be the Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

same age or might be of very different ages. The IQ method converts mental age by dividing it by chronological age. Therefore, IQ allows for comparisons of same-age children with respect to intelligence (as measured by their mental ages). For example, if two 9-year-olds have IQs of 90 and 100, respectively, we know that the child with the higher IQ scored higher relative to his age-peers than did the child with the IQ of 90. 8.64. The average 10-year-old child has an IQ of ______; and the average 50-year-old adult has an IQ of_______: a. 80; 100 b. 90; 100 c. 100; 100 d. 100; 150 Answer: c Page: 215 Conceptual Easy Rationale: By definition, the average IQ for people of any age is 100. IQ averages do not vary by age. 8.65. Why has the ratio method of computing IQ been replaced by the deviation method? a. The deviation method accommodates the fact intelligence does not keep increasing at the same rate as chronological age throughout adulthood. b. The deviation method is less culturally biased than is the ratio method. c. Newer tests have made the ratio method of computing IQ obsolete, since the number of questions answered correctly is no longer an important consideration in determining a person’s intelligence. d. Computers can now automatically score tests so the computation of mental age can be done much faster. Answer: a Page 215 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The problem with using the ratio method of IQ is that intelligence levels off in adulthood (e.g., an average 30-year-old would perform about the same as an average 50-year-old). If mental age remains the same, but is divided by increasingly large chronological age, IQ becomes smaller, even though the adult does not become less intelligent with age. (For example, if the people above both have a mental age of 30, the 30-year-old’s ratio IQ would be 100; the 50-year-old’s ratio IQ would be 60.) As intelligence testing became useful for adults, a different method of computing IQ needed to be developed. 8.66. About what percent of the U. S. population would have IQ scores that would fall between 85 and 115? a. 55% b. 75% c. 67% d. 95% Answer: c Page 215-216 Factual Moderate 8.67. About 96% of the general U.S. population score between IQs of: a. 2 and 98 b. 4and 96 c. 85 and 115 d. 70 and 130 Answer: d Page: 215-216 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 8.68. If Paul tells you that he is 15 years old and that his measured IQ is 150, which of the following should you conclude? a. Paul is highly intelligent, according to this test. b. Paul is of slightly above-average intelligence, according to this test. c. Paul is of average intelligence, according to this test. d. Paul is of below-average intelligence, according to this test. Answer: a Page: 215-216 Applied Easy Rationale: Most IQ tests set the average IQ at 100, and only about 2% of the population score above an IQ of 130. Thus, Paul’s IQ of 150 is very high. Paul’s chronological age of 15 years is irrelevant to his IQ calculation, since 150 is not his mental age; rather it is his IQ score. 8.69. Generalizing from the text’s discussion about the distribution of intelligence in the population, about what percept of the population would you expect to be diagnosed as having mental retardation? a. about 10% b. about 5% c. about 2% c. about one-tenth of 1% Answer: c Page 216 Factual Moderate 8.70. One goal for constructing an intelligence test is to write the test such that if a person took it multiple times, that person’s score would always be the same. This goal represents the concept of test: a. reliability b. bias c. potential d. deviation IQ Answer: a Page: 216 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Test reliability refers to the consistency with which the test measures. If a test were perfectly reliable, a person would always get the same test score every time he or she took the test. No test is perfectly reliable (that is, there is always some error in testing); however, test reliability is an important goal for test construction. 8.71. Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner’s eight types of intelligence? a. charismatic b. intrapersonal c. linguistic d. spatial Answer: a Page: 216 Factual Moderate

8.72 Who proposed a theory of intelligence that identified eight distinct intelligences, including linguistic intelligence and logical-mathematical intelligence? a. Alfred Binet b. Jean Piaget c. Robert Sternberg d. Howard Gardner Answer: d Page: 216 Factual Moderate 8.73. Who proposed the triarchic concept of intelligence? a. Robert Sternberg b. Howard Gardner c. Alfred Binet d. Jean Piaget Answer: a Page: 216 Factual Moderate 8.74. Which of the following is NOT a type of intelligence as defined by Sternberg's three-part theory of intelligence? a. spatial intelligence b. contextual intelligence c. componential intelligence d. experiential intelligence Answer: a Page: 216 Factual Moderate 8.75. In Sternberg’s model, the type of intelligence measured by typical IQ tests is called: a. practical intelligence b. contextual intelligence c. componential intelligence d. experiential intelligence Answer: c Page: 216 Factual Difficult 8.76. According to Sternberg’s model, the capacity to adapt to the environment is called: a. logico-mathematical intelligence b. contextual intelligence c. componential intelligence d. experiential intelligence Answer: b Page: 216 Factual Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8.77 Which of the following types of intelligence did Robert Sternberg view as being particularly important? a. logico-mathematical intelligence b. spatial intelligence c. practical intelligence d. psychomotor intelligence Answer: c Page: 216-217 Factual Moderate 8.78. Which of the following abilities would Robert Sternberg view as being especially important? a. the ability to solve complex mathematical problems correctly b. the ability to solve complex mathematical problems quickly c. the ability to read quickly d. the ability to deal effectively with the practical problems in everyday life Answer: d Page: 216-217 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Sternberg emphasized the role of practical intelligence over the other skills, which all fit into his concept of componential intelligence – what is typically measured in an intelligence test. 8.79. The text discusses a study in which African American families in poor neighborhoods were given a chance to move to a better neighborhood. In comparison to children whose families moved instead to another poor neighborhood, the children in families who moved to a better neighborhood: a. were more likely to have poorer attendance b. were more likely to get into more “race-based” school fights c. were more likely to have difficulty in forming a secure ethnic identity d. had higher achievement test scores Answer: d Page: 218 Factual Moderate 8.80. The text discusses a study in which African American families in poor neighborhoods were given a chance to move to a better neighborhood. The results of this study emphasize the importance of what factor(s) as a determinant of school achievement and test performance? a. socioeconomic factors b. racial factors c. one-parent versus two-parent families d. teacher preparation for handling issues of diversity Answer: a Page: 218 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The results of this study demonstrate that moving to a better neighborhood with better schools led to students’ improvement in completing homework, attendance, and achievement test scores. Thus, socioeconomic factors do make a difference. No discussion of racial factors, one- versus two-parent families, or teacher preparation was presented in the context of this study.

8.81. The text discusses research about Southeast Asian immigrant families. The results of this study suggest that which of the following factors is important in determining children’s IQs? a. race and skin color b. ethnicity and first language learned c. how long the family has lived in the U. S. d. family emphasis on education and success Answer: d Page: 218 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Despite poor economic circumstances, problems with language, ethnic status, and substandard educational opportunities, children in these families performed well in school and on standardized tests. The most likely explanation is that the families emphasized educational achievement and success and made accommodations so children would spend time on school work. 8.82. The best way of understanding the relationship between genetic and environmental influences on the development of intelligence is to conclude that: a. genes are much more important than environment b. the environment is much more important than genes c. genetic and environmental factors interact and influence each other d. genetic and environmental factors operate independently, but both influence intelligence development Answer: c Page 218 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Genetic and environmental factors interact, which is to say they influence each other. There is no clear evidence that either is much more important than the other in determining intelligence, although in a particular individual’s case, one might be especially important. The question asks about a general conclusion, not the case of a specific individual.

Learning and Thinking in School 8.83. In a study investigating the time public school teachers spend in various classroom activities, teachers were found to spend about ____ % of the time in a 30-minute lesson on academic work. a. 10-15 b. 30-40 c. 55-70 d. 85-90 Answer: a Page: 219 Factual Difficult 8.84. Generalizing from conclusions drawn in the text, if you were to advise a new elementary school teacher about how she would spend her time, you would suggest that she try to ________ her time spent on classroom management and __________ her time spent on teaching and learning activities. a. maximize; maximize b. minimize; minimize c. maximize; minimize d. minimize; maximize Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 219 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that children learn more in classes where the time spent on teaching and learning activities is maximized and the times spent on classroom management is minimized. 8.85. The text concludes that group learning has been found to positively affect students’ self-esteem, especially when the students are: a. boys b. girls c. younger d. older Answer: b Page: 219-220 Factual Difficult 8.86. If you were interested in increasing the self-esteem of grade school students, and you wanted to promote effective learning, you should recommend using all of the following techniques EXCEPT: a. creating a highly competitive environment, so that children had to perform or they would fail b. using cooperative learning strategies, where students had to work together c. assigning small-group projects and activities d. assigning projects that require in-depth inquiry, where students have to persist in the learning task in order to complete it successfully Answer: a Page: 220 Applied Moderate Rationale: When children are placed in a competitive environment, their self-esteem sometimes suffers. Also, critical thinking skills are best advanced when cooperative, group learning projects are assigned and when these projects require in-depth inquiry. 8.87. According to David McClelland, all children seek to be successful. He referred to this need for success and excellence as: a. excellence orientation b. achievement motivation c. persistence motivation d. the need for success Answer: b Page 220 Factual Moderate 8.88. Tommy appears to not care at all about the quality of the school work he does. When asked, he says things like: “School is stupid. No one should try hard. Learning is useless.” Using the terms identified by David McClelland, you would conclude that Tommy has: a. very low achievement motivation b. very high need for excellence c. very low autonomy d. a low “pride” quotient Answer: a Page: 220 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: According to McClelland, the basic concept involved in achievement motivation is the desire for success and excellence. Tommy’s comments reflect the lack of achievement motivation. 8.89. Which of the following statements best summarizes the findings about gender differences in school success: a. Girls outperform boys in quantitative and spatial tasks; boys outperform girls in verbal skills. b. Girls outperform boys in verbal skills and boys outperform girls in quantitative and spatial tasks. c. Girls outperform boys in verbal skills and quantitative and spatial tasks. d. Boys outperform girls in verbal skills and quantitative and spatial tasks. Answer: b Page: 220 Factual Moderate 8.90. Generalizing from research cited in the text, if a high-achieving child suddenly began to focus on social popularity rather than academic achievement, the best guess is that this child was: a. a second grade boy b. a second grade girl c. a sixth grade boy d. a sixth grade girl Answer: d Page: 220 Applied Easy Rationale: Fitting in socially becomes an especially important goal for girls during the preadolescent and adolescent years. 8.91. Based on average school performance of boys and girls, if you knew that a student was especially interested and talented in mathematics, you would conclude that this student is more likely to be a _______; if you knew that a student was especially interested and talented in literature and language, you would conclude that this student is more likely to be a ________. a. boy; girl b. girl; boy c. boy; boy d. girl; girl Answer: a Page: 220 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Although it is not possible to generalize group findings to individual students, in general boys do better and are more interested in mathematics; girls do better and are more interested in literature and language. Because this question gives no information about the specific individuals described, the best answer is to generalize from group data, in which the gender differences noted are obtained. 8.92. Suppose that a friend tells you that he is concerned about “gender bias” in his daughter’s classroom. Which of the following is the best description of what is typically meant by this term: a. Boys and girls are treated too much the same, and real gender differences are being ignored. b. Too many of the teachers are of one gender (in grade school, usually there are more women teachers). c. School policies encourage too much segregation based on gender, with groups usually divided into “girls” and “boys.”

d. Boys and girls are treated differently, oftentimes with different expectations placed on boys compare to girls. Answer: d Page: 220-221 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The term gender bias typically refers to the concern that children are treated differently, based on their gender. Thus, girls are treated differently than are boys, and oftentimes different types of expectations are placed on girls as compared to boys. 8.93. According to research conducted by Carol Dweck, boys are more motivated by an orientation that emphasizes __________, whereas girls are more motivated by an orientation that emphasizes _________. a. achievement; learning b. learning; performance c. performance; learning d. social success; academic success Answer: b Page: 221 Factual Moderate 8.94. Lynn tells the teacher, “I don’t care if I learn anything; I just want to get an A.” According to research conducted by Carol Dweck, you should conclude that Lynn has what type of motivation: a. learning motivation b. performance motivation c. social motivation d. anti-learning motivation Answer: b Page: 221 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Dweck, a performance motivation involves the emphasis of success (performance) over learning. A learning motivation emphasizes learning over performance. Dweck does not discuss either a “social” motivation or an “anti-learning” motivation. 8.95. If a child has a performance motivation and fails at a task, what is the most likely result, according to Carol Dweck: a. The child will persist until success is achieved. b. The child will become emotionally unstable and probably have a tantrum. c. The child will quit trying and self-esteem will suffer. d. The child will persist, even when persistence continues to result in failure. Answer: c Page: 221 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A child with a performance orientation values success over learning. When the child is not successful, the most likely result is that the child will quit trying, and oftentimes the child’s self-esteem suffers. Self-esteem is at risk because the child comes to believe that he or she can’t perform successfully. 8.96. Little Maria believes that if she just works hard enough, she can learn anything she sets her mind to. According to Carol Dweck, Maria has: a. low self-efficacy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. an unrealistic self-concept c. a learning orientation d. a performance orientation Answer: c Page: 221 Applied Moderate Rationale: Children with a learning orientation view their lack of success as the result of too little effort. Thus, when they fail, they respond by trying harder. Children with a performance orientation view their lack of success as the result of too little ability. Because they view ability as a fixed characteristic, they oftentimes give up trying when they fail at a task. 8.97. Joshua tries to learn to solve a mathematics problem, but he does not get the correct answer on his first attempt. He tells his teacher, “I just can’t do math. Can I go play now?” According to Carol Dweck, Joshua has: a. a performance orientation b. a learning orientation c. high self-efficacy d. a strong defense mechanism Answer: a Page: 221 Applied Moderate Rationale: Children with a learning orientation view their lack of success as the result of too little effort. Thus, when they fail, they respond by trying harder. Children with a performance orientation view their lack of success as the result of too little ability. Because they view ability as a fixed characteristic, they oftentimes give up trying when they fail at a task. 8.98. According to Carol Dweck, which of the following statements represents the LEAST effective way to praise a child: a. “You are very, very smart child.” b. “You worked very hard on that project and it turned out very well.” c. “That problem was difficult and even though you didn’t solve it the first time, you learned a lot.” d. “You did a good job picking up your toys.” Answer: a Page: 221 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Dweck argues that praise should be given for performance and persistence, not for having an innate ability that the child cannot change. Thus, she would argue that praising a child for intelligence is less effective, making “a” the correct answer. Dweck also argues that praise should be specific and directed to a particular achievement, not be general and global. 8.99. According to Carol Dweck, which of the following statements represents the MOST effective way to praise a child: a. “You are a very, very smart little girl.” b. “You are so cute, who could think you wouldn’t do well in school?” c. “You have a natural ability in mathematics; no wonder you do so well.” d. “You did a nice job in writing that story. I especially like the way you described the clown.” Answer: d Page: 221 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Dweck argues that praise should be given for performance and persistence, not for having an innate ability that the child cannot change. She also argues that praise should be specific and directed to a particular achievement, not be general and global.

Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities 8.100. Which of the following is the primary goal of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (IDEIA): a. to train teachers to deal with children who have mental retardation and behavioral disorders b. to fund special schools that provide education to children with disabilities c. to raise the public’s awareness of the unfairness being done to individuals with disabilities d. to provide all children with a free and appropriate education Answer: d Page: 222 Factual Moderate 8.101. What is an “IEP”: a. an “incentive for excellent performance” program that rewards individual teachers who spend extra time with disabled children for extra pay b. an “incentive for excellent performance” program that rewards schools or school districts who devote extra resources to educating disabled students c. an “individual education plan” that specifies the type of instruction a particular child should receive d. an “individual education plan” that sets goals for individual school districts about how much money they must devote to the instruction of disabled students Answer: c Page 222 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: An IEP is an “individual education plan.” IDEIA requires that schools develop an IEP for every disabled student which identifies appropriate learning goals for that student and notes support services that will be provided to have that students meet these learning goals. 8.102. The IDEIA requires that school districts include children with special needs in regular classrooms and activities as much as is possible. The term used to describe this policy is: a. individual education plan b. least restrictive environment c. most open programming d. best case instruction Answer: b Page: 222-223 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The “least restrictive environment” provision of the IDEIA requires that school districts include children with special needs in regular classrooms and activities as much as is possible. This is the specific term used to describe this mandate. 8.103. In comparison to the percent of children diagnosed in 1974, today there are ______ children diagnosed with “mental retardation” and ________ children diagnosed with “learning disabilities.” a. more; more b. fewer; fewer c. more; fewer Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. fewer; more Answer: d Page: 223 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In 1974, about 20% of children were diagnosed with mental retardation and about 1-2% were diagnosed with learning disabilities. Today, the comparable percentages are 1-2% for mental retardation and 6% for learning disabilities. 8.104. According to the text, why are there fewer children diagnosed with mental retardation today than there were in 1974? a. Schools are providing a much healthier diet and children are getting better nutrition. b. Much better prenatal care is available to mothers and so fewer birth defects are occurring. c. Diagnostic accuracy has improved and many children who would have been classified as having mental retardation today are being diagnosed as having learning disabilities. d. Vaccines are much more available today so many cases of mental retardation can be prevented. Answer: c Page: 223 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Although better nutrition, prenatal care, and health care may contribute in small ways to reducing the number of children who are diagnosed with mental retardation, by far the major reason for the dramatic reduction in diagnosis (from 20% in 1974 to about 1-2% today) is that many cases that would formerly been diagnosed as mental retardation today are more accurately diagnosed as specific learning disabilities. 8.105. About what percent of U. S. school children today are receiving some sort of special educational service? a. 1-2% b. 5% c. 12% d. 27% Answer: c Page: 223 Factual Moderate 8.106. Today, the term most often used instead of “mental retardation” is: a. learning disability b. intellectual disability c. intellectual educational personality d. failure to thrive syndrome Answer: b Page: 223 Factual Easy 8.107. The cause that produces an intellectual disability can be determined in about what percent of such cases? a. 25% b. 50-60% c. 75-80% d. more than 90% Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 223 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that the causes of mental retardation cannot be identified in about 40-50% of cases. Thus, in about 50-60% of cases, the cause is known. 8.108. Which of the following is NOT one of the three factors considered in making a diagnosis of intellectual disability? a. the person’s IQ score b. the person’s score on an assessment of adaptive behavior c. an assessment of the cultural factors that might be involved d. the person’s age Answer: d Page: 223-224 Factual Easy 8.109. The text states that there has been a gradual evolution in how mental retardation is regarded. In general, what change is at the center of that evolution in thinking? a. Today, each person is considered to be more an individual with specific needs for accommodations. b. Today, mental retardation is considered to be a biological, rather than a psychological, disability. c. Today, mental retardation is diagnosed according to a person’s IQ score, rather than to an assessment of that person’s abilities. d. Today, people understand that individuals with mental retardation cannot be expected to achieve at the same levels as people who do not have intellectual disabilities. Answer: a Page: 223-224 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The major changes in thinking over the past few decades are to view those diagnosed with mental retardation to be unique individuals, who will benefit best from individualized accommodations. Also, people today recognize that intellectual disabilities can be quite specific, and an individual may need considerable support in some areas of functioning, but little support in others. 8.110. Ben has an IQ of 20, which most likely would place him in which category of retardation? a. mild b. moderate c. severe d. profound Answer: d Page: 224 Applied Moderate Rationale: The IQ range of “below 25” is typically associated with the level of mental retardation defined as “profound.” 8.111. Which of the following categories of mental retardation would include the largest number of individuals? a. profound retardation b. mild retardation c. moderate retardation d. severe retardation Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 224 Conceptual Easy Rationale: There are many more people at the highest level of functioning, which in the categorization scheme presented in the text would be labeled “mild retardation.” 8.112. Robert is in 5th grade. He scores at the average on a test of intelligence, is doing math problems at the 7th grade level, but is reading at the 1st grade level, despite his efforts to learn. Robert would most likely qualify for a diagnosis of: a. intellectual disability b. mental retardation c. reading unreadiness d. learning disability Answer: d Page: 224-225 Applied Easy Rationale: Both intellectual disability and mental retardation refer to general learning problems. Because Robert has difficulty in only one area of intellectual functioning, his likely diagnosis would be learning disability. Reading unreadiness is not a diagnostic term. 8.113. For reasons that remain unclear, up to 80% of children with learning disorders are _____. a. male b. female c. from low socioeconomic backgrounds d. from high socioeconomic backgrounds Answer: a Page: 225 Factual Easy 8.114. Psychologist Mel Levine points out that older children who have learning disabilities are at higher than normal risk for: a. developing heart arrhythmias and other heart problems b. mental retardation c. dropping out of school d. developing depression Answer: c Page: 225-226 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The school drop-out rate is higher for older children with learning disabilities than for children who do not have learning disabilities. The text does not discuss relationships between having a learning disability and heart problems or depression, and learning disabilities are clearly distinguished from mental retardation in the text’s treatment of these subjects. 8.115. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main learning disorders recognized in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders? a. mathematics disorder b. reading disorder c. disorder of written expression d. speech disorder

Answer: d Page: 226 Factual Moderate 8.116. Ron remains stuck in the early stages of reading, making errors such as confusing the letters "b" and "d." What learning disability does he most likely have? a. dyslexia b. dysgraphia c. dyscalculia d. attention-deficit disorder Answer: a Page: 226 Applied Easy Rationale: The term used for the reading disorder in which children incorrectly perceive letters is dyslexia. 8.117. Based on information presented in the text, which of the following is the best explanation for the cause of dyslexia? a. being left-handed along with having stronger vision in one eye than the other b. poor coordination of the brain regions involved in visual perception c. difficulties in the way the brain processes speech sounds d. low levels of motivation for learning along with poor eyesight Answer: c Page: 226 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text outlines several findings about children with dyslexia, including that they have broader problems with language, they are often delayed in learning to speak, they have trouble naming letters and written words, they are slower in recalling words, and they may have trouble hearing the difference between similar sounds. Thus, the problem seems not to be in the way vision works, but rather in the way the brain processes speech. 8.118. Children with dyslexia have difficulty: a. learning how to read b. with writing c. with math d. with focusing attention on anything long enough to learn it Answer: a Page: 226 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Dyslexia is a learning disability characterized generally by problems with reading. 8.119. Many children with attention-deficit disorder are also: a. dyslexic b. mentally retarded at a mild level c. right handed d. hyperactive Answer: d Page: 226 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8.120. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom typically associated with ADHD? a. hyperactivity b. difficulty paying attention c. impulsivity d. difficulty hearing all of the sounds of speech Answer: d Page: 227 Factual Easy 8.121. Jill is extremely inattentive, has poor impulse control, and is highly active. Based on these symptoms, what developmental disorder might Jill have? a. autism b. schizophrenia – childhood onset c. ADHD d. dyslexia Answer: c Page: 227 Applied Easy Rationale: Jill’s symptoms are those that define attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) 8.122. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder has been linked to irregularities in the way which of the following neurotransmitters operates in the brain? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. GABA Answer: a Page 227 Factual Difficult 8.123. Suppose you conducted a study of pairs of identical twins, one of whom was diagnosed with ADHD. Now you examine whether or not the other twins in each pair also have ADHD. In comparison to pairs of unrelated children, you would expect that the other twin in your study would be _______ likely to also be diagnosed with ADHD. a. much less b. somewhat less c. equally d. more Answer: d Page: 227 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: ADHD has a genetic component, making it more likely for individuals whose identical twin was diagnosed with ADHD to also have this diagnosis. 8.124. If a child who is diagnosed with ADHD is put on prescription drugs, these drugs would most likely belong to the category of: a. anti-depressants Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. stimulants c. anti-anxiety medicines d. tranquilizers Answer: b Page: 227 Applied Moderate Rationale: The typical drug treatment for ADHD is to prescribe stimulant, amphetamine-type drugs, including drugs such as Ritalin, Adderol, and Strattera. This seems counterintuitive, since these drugs speed up neural activity and one of the primary symptoms of ADHD is overactivity in behavior. However, the stimulant drugs typically act to quiet a child with ADHD. 8.125. The fact that stimulant drugs are often effective in calming children diagnosed with ADHD suggests that this disorder may involve: a. a chronic understimulation in the child’s nervous system b. problems in the brain pathways that regulate attachment behavior c. a hypersensitivity to the presence of sugar in the bloodstream d. too much activity in the parts of the brain that control behavior Answer: a Page: 227 Factual Difficult Current Issues: Obesity in Childhood – An Outcome of Our Changing Lifestyle? 8.126. Todd's father is at his ideal weight, but his mother is obese. Generalizing from research presented in the text, what chance does Todd have of becoming obese? a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 80% Answer: c Page: 208 Applied Moderate Rationale: Research cited in the text suggests that a child with one obese parent has a 40% chance of becoming obese; a child with two obese parents has an 80% chance of becoming obese. 8.127. Gina's mother and father are both obese. Generalizing from research presented in the text, what chance does Gina have of becoming obese? a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 80% Answer: d Page: 208 Applied Moderate Rationale: Research cited in the text suggests that a child with one obese parent has a 40% chance of becoming obese; a child with two obese parents has an 80% chance of becoming obese.

8.128. The “ditch the fizz” campaign discussed in the text helped overweight children lose weight by: a. using an advertising campaign that encouraged children in school to reduce their use of carbonated beverages b. placing smaller portions of food on their lunch trays, and donating the unused food to a low-income food program in the community c. changing the curriculum so that all children spent at least 1 hour per day in physical education programs that emphasized active sports d. substituting healthier foods for those rich in carbohydrates and fat in the school lunch program Answer: a Page: 208 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The “ditch the fizz” campaign was part of a British study of 7- to-11-year-old children who were exposed to an advertising campaign in their school aimed at encouraging children to restrict their intake of carbonated beverages. Changing Perspectives: Early Experience – Do Adverse Environments Cause Permanent Effects? 8.129. In a study of severely impoverished Romanian children who were adopted into British families, the group that showed the least amount of improvement was the group that was: a. youngest at the time of adoption b. oldest at the time of adoption c. adopted by older parents d. adopted by younger parents. Answer: b Page: 225 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The children who were adopted at younger ages fared better than those adopted at older ages. The study did not consider the age of parents who adopted the Romanian children. 1.130 In a study of severely impoverished Romanian children who were adopted into British families, a particular adjustment problem was seen among several of the children. This problem centered on the Romanian children’s difficulties with: a. learning mathematics b. learning to read English c. learning to speak in full sentences d. forming secure attachments to the adoptive parents Answer: d Page 225 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Although there was generally some cognitive impairment among some of the Romanian adoptees, the impairment was not specific to one academic area. Rather, the specific impairment was in the adoptees’ social and emotional functioning; in particular, some of the adoptees had a problem in forming a secure attachment to the adoptive parents. It should be noted that not all adoptees experienced this problem.

True-False Questions:

8.131. By age 6, the brain has typically reached about 50% of its maximum size. Answer: False Page: 204 Rationale: By age 6, the brain has typically reaches about 95% of its maximum size. 8.132. Physical pain associated with rapid growth is both common and normal in middle childhood and adolescence. Answer: True Page: 204 8.133. Because of the way that Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated, highly muscular athletes will necessarily have a low BMI. Answer: False Page: 207 Rationale: Because muscle is denser, and hence heavier than fat, muscular athletes may have a higher-thanexpected BMI, even though they do not have an excess of fat in their bodies. 8.134. The leading cause of death in childhood is asthma. Answer: False Page: 207 Rationale: The leading cause of death in childhood is accidents.

Cognitive Development 8.135. Children make the transition from Piaget’s preoperational stage to the stage of concrete operations about age 5 to 7. Answer: True Page: 201 8.136. Piaget believed that schools should be highly structured and children should be encouraged to advance as quickly as possible through the stages of cognitive development. Answer: False Page: 211-212 Rationale: Piaget believed that children should be allowed to explore in largely unstructured environments, learning at their own speed. He noted that development is best when children develop at their own rate, without being pushed to develop faster. 8.137. The terms that describes a person’s ability to monitor his or her own thinking is called metacognition. Answer: True Page: 212 8.138. The whole-language approach to literacy emphasizes that learning to read is an entirely different task than learning to speak. Answer: False Page: 213

Rationale: Whole-language theorists view the development of literacy as a continuum, where early language skills learned in infancy undergo progressive elaboration as children learn to speak, and then to read and write. 8.139. Most researchers today believe that IQ tests measure an individual’s intellectual potential – thereby they can predict which children will be more successful in school in the future. Answer: False Page: 216 Rationale: Most researchers today believe that IQ tests measure current intellectual functioning, and they recognize that IQ scores can change, sometimes substantially, depending on the environment in which a child is raised. 8.140. Even when social and economic disparities are taken into account, there still is a large difference in the average IQ scores of minority and majority groups. Answer: False Page: 217-218 Rationale: When factors such as social and economic circumstances are taken into account, IQ score difference between minority and majority groups all but disappear.

Learning and Thinking in School 8.141. It is not unusual for a teacher to spend only 10 to 15% of a 30-minute class period on academic work. Answer: True Page: 219 8.142. Although in earlier decades, it was true that boys did better at quantitative and spatial tasks and girls did better at tasks involving verbal skills, today these gender differences have disappeared. Answer: False Page: 220 Rationale: These gender differences have gotten smaller over recent decades, but they still exist. 8.143. According to Carol Dweck, children with a “performance” motivation generally persist longer at difficult tasks. Answer: False Page: 221 Rationale: Dweck noted that children with “learning” motivation persisted longer, because they viewed their failures as the result of lack of effort, rather than the lack of ability.

Intellectual and Developmental Disorders 8.144. Most people with mental retardation fall into the category of mild retardation. Answer: True Page: 224 8.145. Sometimes mental retardation is not identified until the child enters formal education. Answer: True Page: 224 8.146. Children with learning disorders tend to have below-average general intellectual ability. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 224-225 Rationale: Children with learning disorders may have average or above-average general intellectual ability, since learning disabilities are specific to certain academic skills but not others. 8.147. Most children with dyslexia have problems with their visual system. Answer: False Page: 226 Rationale: Most children with dyslexia do not have problems with their visual system, although a few do. Dyslexia appears to be caused by problems in how the language centers in the brain process speech sounds. 8.148. Children with learning disorders often have difficulty with social skills as well as with academic skills. Answer: True Page: 226-227 8.149. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder is sometimes treated with medication that slows down the activity of the child’s nervous system. Answer: False Page 227 Rationale: When medication is used to treat ADHD, the typical choice is to give a stimulant drug, which increases activity in the nervous system.

Short Answer Questions:

Physical and Motor Development 8.150. Briefly describe the changes that occur during middle childhood in the brain’s corpus callosum, its “white matter” and its “gray matter.” Page: 204 8.151. Give an example of how a child’s fine motor skills develop during the period of middle childhood. Page: 205 8.152. Suggest at least two different reasons for why asthma is becoming increasingly common among U. S. children. Page: 206 8.153. Suggest at least three different reasons for why childhood obesity is becoming increasingly common in the U. S. and other developed nations. Page: 207 8.154. What are the primary symptoms associated with autism? Page: 208

Cognitive Development 8.155. Describe a “conservation” problem (such as the matchstick problem) and discuss how a child in the preoperational stage would solve this problem different from a child in the stage of concrete operations. Page. 210-211 8.156. Describe how a classroom would be conducted from a Piagetian point of view. What types of activities would children engage in? What learning goals would be of highest priority? Page: 211-212 8.157. Describe how the control processes associated with memory develop during the period of middle childhood, using one particular control process (such as scripts, organization, or mental imagery) as an example. Page: 212-213 8.158. Identify the core idea behind the concept of emergent literacy and describe how this perspective helps us understand how language and literacy skills develop in middle childhood. Page: 213-214 8.159. State the major difference between the ratio method and the deviation method for computing IQ and comment on why the shift was made to adopt the deviation method. Page: 214-215 8.160. Consider Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences and Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence and identify the main idea that these theories have in common. Page: 216-217.

Learning and Thinking in School 8.161. State three major adjustments that children must make when they enter school and describe how these adjustments are related to the concept of autonomy. Page: 218-219 8.162. Describe three different reasons that could account for the gender differences typically observed in school success and identify whether each is the product of biological forces, social forces, or both. Page: 220-221 8.163. Describe the distinction Carol Dweck makes between a “learning” orientation and a “performance” orientation and suggest which contributes most favorably to learning. Page: 221 8.164. Give an example of ineffective praise and an example of effective praise and describe how these two statements differ. Page: 221

Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities 8.165. Describe the main idea behind the passage of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act. Page: 222 8.166. Describe how mental retardation is diagnosed today. Page: 223-224 8.167. Describe the major differences between mental retardation and a learning disorder. p. 224-225 8.168. What is the best explanation for the cause of dyslexia? Page: 226 8.169. Suggest two different ways in which stimulants might act to relieve the symptoms of attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Page: 227

Essay Questions:

Physical and Motor Development 8.170. Describe the major changes in brain growth and development that occur during middle childhood. Page: 204 8.171. Several social changes are contributing to increases in the prevalence of both asthma and obesity. Identify three such changes and suggest how they may be leading to an increase in these conditions. Page: 205-207

Cognitive Development 8.172. The text suggests that, when solving a conservation problem, children in Piaget’s preoperational stage focus on its perceptual qualities, whereas children in the stage of concrete operations focus on the logical problem implied. Using the matchstick problem as an example, explain the distinction between perceptual and logical orientations. Page: 210-211 8.173. Describe how children’s metacognitive understanding develops as they move through middle childhood. Page: 212-213 8.174. How might a 3rd grade classroom in a school that advocates a whole-language approach to literacy differ from one in which the whole-language approach was not used? Page: 213-214

8.175. Why was the ratio method of computing IQ replaced by the deviation method? What advantage does the deviation method have? Page: 215 8.176. Identify two ways in which Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence is similar to Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence. State two ways in which they differ. Page: 216-217 8.177. Describe two different factors that might explain why there is a disparity in the average intelligence test scores between majority and minority groups in the U. S. today. Page: 217-218

Learning and Thinking in School 8.178. What challenges does entering school imply for the young child’s developing autonomy and independence? Give examples to support your answer. Page: 218-219 8.179. Why are small-group projects and activities an effective way to encourage critical thinking? Page: 219-220 8.180. How is a child's academic success in school related to that child’s developing self-concept? What can teachers do to ensure that the relationship between these variables is a positive one? Page: 220-222 8.181. What is the essential distinction between effective and ineffective praise, according to Carol Dweck? How does effective praise lead the child to develop a learning, rather than a performance, orientation? Page: 221

Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities 8.182. Describe the purpose of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEIA) and state three specific ways in which schools have adjusted to comply with this act. Page: 222-223 8.183. Describe how the diagnosis of mental retardation has changed in recent decades and how these changes have led to a different way of treating those with intellectual disabilities. Page: 223-224 8.184. How does a learning disability differ from mental retardation? How would schools typically accommodate individuals with each of these disabilities? Page: 224-226

8.185. Describe three different treatments for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and suggest how each can be effective. Page: 227-228

Name____________________________________ Chapter 9 - Middle Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. What component of social cognition refers to the customs and conventions used in a social setting or group? a. social regulations b. social inference c. social relationships d. social realism 2. According to the text, when does ethnic awareness begin to develop? a. in infancy b. in early childhood c. during the elementary school years d. during adolescence 3. In 1948, about ___ percent of mothers of school-aged children worked outside the home; today about ___ percent of these mothers work. a. 13; 26 b. 26; 52 c. 26; 71 d. 52; 71 Conceptual questions: 4. The major difference between the terms self-concept and self-esteem is that self-esteem includes which of the following? a. a sense of who you are b. a sense of how good (or bad) you are c. a sense of where you came from d. a sense of what you can do 5. Which of the following most accurately expresses the relative emphasis given to moral attitudes versus moral behavior in Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining moral attitudes, but not moral behavior. b. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining moral behavior, but not moral attitudes. c. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining both moral attitudes and moral behavior. d. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining theoretical ethics, not moral attitudes or behavior. 6. Selman’s view of how friendships develop in middle childhood would be most consistent with which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. the psychoanalytic perspective b. the behavioral perspective c. the social-behavioral perspective d. the cognitive perspective 7. Children who are able to overcome difficult environments and lead socially competent lives are described by psychologists with which of the following terms? a. self-regulation b. coregulation c. resilient d. self-monitoring Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Melanie is always commenting on how she is not as smart as other people and how she is not good at anything in particular. Melanie likely suffers from which of the following? a. moral realism b. low self-esteem c. moral relativism d. high self-concept 9. Lorraine says, “I don’t like those people because they are different from me and my friends.” Using psychological terminology, Lorraine’s comment has identified the people she doesn’t like as: a. an in-group b. an out-group c. a side-group d. a dumped group 10. When Jeremy learns to direct his own behavior, rather than behave in strict accordance with the directions of his parents and teachers, psychologists would say he has developed: a. coregulation b. peer status c. self-regulated behavior d. self-monitoring

Name____________________________________ Chapter 9 - Middle Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2

Factual questions: 1. Erik Erikson defined the period of middle childhood as revolving around which of the following developmental crises? a. trust versus mistrust b. generativity versus stagnation c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority 2. According to Selman, the primary force behind developmental changes in children’s friendships is which of the following? a. the child’s age b. the child’s intelligence level c. the child’s ability to understand the difference between right and wrong d. the child’s ability to take another person’s perspective 3. Today, in comparison with women who do not have children, women with school-age children are: a. much less likely to work outside the home b. slightly less likely to work outside the home c. about equally likely to work outside the home d. more likely to work outside the home Conceptual questions: 4. Some critics suggest that teachers who provide too much praise create children: a. with negative self-images b. who are critical of others and lack empathy c. who have no sense of boundaries d. who do not have a realistic sense of their own strengths and weaknesses 5. Which of the following statements is most likely to have been made by a boy, rather than a girl? a. She broke the rules and she got what she deserved. b. The punishment should be lenient because she has to take care of her children. c. She should not be punished because she was trying to help. d. She should be punished because she didn’t care about what happened to the other people. 6. As children move from early to middle childhood, their peer groups generally become: a. less formal, with members moving in and out of the group frequently b. less structured, with fewer rules for group membership c. less gender segregated, with most groups having both boys and girls d. more conformist, with stricter expectations about how group members should behave 7. Which of the following best describes the relationship between age and a child’s likelihood of having friends from a different racial or ethic group? a. Older children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups. b. Younger children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups. c. 7-year-old children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups than are children who are older or younger. d. Age is unrelated to the likelihood of having friends from different racial/ethnic groups.

Applied questions: 8. Dean realizes that rules are agreements that may be changed if necessary. He is in which of Piaget’s stages of moral reasoning? a. moral realism b. moral relativism c. preconventional stage d. conventional stage 9. George and Ramona want to help their son develop self-regulated behavior. They will be most successful if they: a. gradually increase the child's involvement in family decisions b. gradually decrease the child's involvement in family decisions c. use power-assertive socialization d. allow the child to set his own behavior limits and experience the consequences 10. If you know that Bob is a highly resilient child, even though he has grown up under stressful circumstances, your best guess is that his early life was characterized by: a. insecure attachment to his mother b. insecure attachment to his father c. difficult temperament d. easy temperament

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 6.1 1. a, p. 235 2. b, pp. 242-243 3. c, p. 246 4. b, pp. 233-234 5. a, p. 237 6. d, pp. 232, 239-240 7. c, p. 248 8. b, p. 233 9. b, p. 242 10. c, p. 245

Quick Quiz 6.2 1. d, p. 233 2. d, p. 239 3. d, p. 246 4. d, p. 234 5. a, p. 238 6. d, p. 240 7. b, p. 243 8. b, p. 236 9. a, p. 246 10. d, p. 248

Chapter 9 Middle Childhood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Multiple Choice questions:

Personality Development in an Expanding Social World 9.1. If you believe that children develop morality as a defense against anxiety, guilt, and shame, your views most closely match those of: a. social-learning theory b. psychodynamic theory c. cognitive theory d. information-processing theory Answer: b Page: 232 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the psychodynamic view, children must learn to cope with powerful emotions, such as anxiety, in socially acceptable ways. In middle childhood, children turn their emotional energies toward peers, creative efforts, and learning the culturally prescribed tasks of the school and community. 9.2. This perspective on middle childhood emphasizes children’s habits and attitudes obtained by observing and imitating others. a. cognitive-developmental view b. social-learning view c. psychodynamic view d. all of the above Answer: b Page: 232 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to the social-learning view, children in middle childhood develop habits and attitudes through observing and imitating models; these models are often peers. 9.3. If Margie views development in the period of middle childhood as being importantly influenced by role models, by reinforcement of the behavior parents want to encourage, and by learning by imitating others, Margie’s view would fit best with which of the following theoretical orientations? a. psychodynamic view b. cognitive-development view c. social-learning view d. latency view Answer: c Page: 232 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the social-learning view, children in middle childhood develop habits and attitudes through observing and imitating models. Reinforcement is an important influence on how children behave, although parental control often weakens, being replaced by the need for social approval of peers, teachers, and coaches. 9.4. If a psychologist states, “Middle childhood centers on changes in how children think about themselves and the world around them,” she is most likely a proponent of which of the following theoretical views? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. psychodynamic view b. cognitive-development view c. social-learning view d. latency view Answer: b Page: 232 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the cognitive-development view, the emphasis during middle childhood is on the development of self-concept—how children think about themselves and how they establish their attitudes and values in the context of their society. 9.5. Your ability to see yourself as someone with positive characteristics defines: a. self-esteem b. self-image c. self-confidence d. self-concept Answer: a Page: 233 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Self-esteem refers to whether people see themselves positively (high self-esteem), negatively (low selfesteem), or somewhere in between. For example, when people have high self-esteem this means that they basically like themselves and typically feel competent in their social skills as well as in their other skills. 9.6. As children move through middle childhood, their definitions of “self” generally become more: a. optimistic b. realistic c. simplified d. concrete Answer: b Page: 233 Factual Moderate 9.7. Seven-year-old John has an overly optimistic idea about how good he is at soccer. As be grows older, his selfperception will likely become: a. more realistic b. even more optimistic, but only if his parents reinforce his positive self-view c. even more optimistic, but only if he actually gets better d. even more optimistic, but only if he plays on a team that includes both boys and girls Answer: a Page: 233 Applied Moderate Rationale: During the period of middle childhood, children form increasingly stable pictures of themselves, and selfconcept becomes more realistic. Children also come to understand their skills and limitations more accurately, and their understanding of themselves organizes and orients their behavior. 9.8. Jeffrey is writing a paper in which he wishes to use a word to describe “stable personality characteristics.” According to the text, the word he should use is: a. personality loci Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. qualities c. attributes d. traits Answer: d Page: 233 Applied Easy Rationale: The book defines traits as stable personality characteristics. 9.9. Erik Erikson defined the period of middle childhood as revolving around which of the following developmental crises? a. trust versus mistrust b. generativity versus stagnation c. initiative versus guilt d. industry versus inferiority Answer: d Page: 233 Factual Easy 9.10. According to Erikson’s view, middle childhood centers on the concept of: a. trust b. success c. intimacy d. dependability Answer: b Page: 233 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson’s theory, in middle childhood children are faced with the crisis called industry versus inferiority. In this third stage of development, according to Erikson, the child attempts to establish a sense of personal competence and mastery (i.e., success). 9.11. If a child experiences repeated failures during the period of middle childhood, Erikson believes that the likely consequence would be the development of a sense of: a. mistrust b. stagnation c. loneliness d. inferiority Answer: d Page: 233 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson’s theory, in middle childhood children are faced with the crisis called industry versus inferiority. In this third stage of development, according to Erikson, the child attempts to establish a sense of personal competence and mastery (i.e., success). Children who do not establish a sense of competence are likely to feel inferior compared to their peers. 9.12. Andy is in his middle childhood years. Despite his efforts to do well in school, he failed two subjects and was held back a year. According to Erikson, if Andy is allowed to continue to fail, he is at risk for developing a sense of: a. shame and doubt b. stagnation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. isolation d. inferiority Answer: d Page: 233 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson’s theory, in middle childhood children are faced with the crisis called industry versus inferiority. In this third stage of development, according to Erikson, the child attempts to establish a sense of personal competence and mastery (i.e., success). Children who do not establish a sense of competence are likely to feel inferior compared to their peers. 9.13. Which of the following psychologists viewed middle childhood as involving a conflict between industry vs. inferiority? a. Piaget b. Kohlberg c. Erikson d. Freud Answer: c Page: 233 Factual Easy 9.14. According to Erikson, what is the psychosocial conflict of middle childhood? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. trust versus mistrust d. identity versus identity confusion Answer: b Page: 233 Factual Easy 9.15. Melanie is always commenting on how she is not as smart as other people and how she is not good at anything in particular. Melanie likely suffers from which of the following? a. moral realism b. low self-esteem c. moral relativism d. high self-concept Answer: b Page: 233 Applied Easy Rationale: Self-esteem refers to whether people see themselves positively (high self-esteem), negatively (low selfesteem), or somewhere in between. For example, when people have high self-esteem this means that they basically like themselves and typically feel competent in their social skills as well as in their other skills.

9.16. Keesha views herself as having many fine qualities and she likes who she is. Psychologists would describe her as having: a. a sense of industry b. a positive self-concept c. unconditional positive regard Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. conditional positive regard Answer: b Page: 233 Applied Moderate Rationale: Self-concept is defined as the way in which children think about themselves and how they establish their attitudes and values in the context of their society. 9.17. The major difference between the terms self-concept and self-esteem is that self-esteem includes which of the following? a. a sense of who you are b. a sense of how good (or bad) you are c. a sense of where you came from d. a sense of what you can do Answer: b Page: 233-234 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Self-concept is defined as the way in which children think about themselves and how they establish their attitudes and values in the context of their society. Self-esteem, on the other hand, refers to whether people see themselves positively (high self-esteem), negatively (low self-esteem), or somewhere in between. For example, when people have high self-esteem this means that they basically like themselves and typically feel competent in their social skills as well as in their other skills. 9.18. Luke views himself negatively, believing that he is not very smart, that he is not good at sports or music, and that other children don’t like to play with him. Psychologists would describe Luke as having: a. low self-esteem b. a poor sense of industry c. a “type B” personality d. depression Answer: a Page: 233-234 Applied Easy Rationale: Self-esteem refers to whether people see themselves positively (high self-esteem), negatively (low selfesteem), or somewhere in between. For example, when people have high self-esteem this means that they basically like themselves and typically feel competent in their social skills as well as in their other skills. 9.19. Laurie is a child whose self-esteem develops as follows: the better she does, the more positively she thinks about herself, which leads her to try harder and do even better. Laurie’s self-esteem development highlights which of the following characteristics about self-esteem development? a. It is easier for girls than boys. b. It is a reciprocal process. c. It depends on context. d. It becomes more complex as children grow older. Answer: b Page: 234 Applied Moderate Rationale: For better or worse, development of self-esteem is a reciprocal process. Children tend to do well when they are confident in their own abilities; their success then bolsters and increases their self-esteem. In the same way,

when children perform poorly, their confidence in their own ability decreases; their failures then tend to decrease their self-esteem still further. 9.20. If a child is having a great deal of trouble learning to read, and if you wanted to encourage him in the development of positive self-esteem, the best way you might do this is to: a. punish him when he makes reading mistakes b. make sure he works on his reading homework before he is allowed to do something more fun c. keep telling him he is a good reader, even though he isn’t d. have him get involved in something he is good at, such as music or sports Answer: d Page: 234 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text, one thing parents can do to encourage the development of positive self-esteem is to seek out activities in which their children can be successful. 9.21. In using praise to help a child develop a positive self-esteem, it is important to remember that praise must be: a. verbal, meaning that you must tell the child he or she has done well b. physical, meaning that you must hug the child when he or she has done well c. realistic, meaning that it should be given only when it is deserved d. consistent, meaning that it should be given regardless of how well the child does, so long as he or she has tried hard Answer: c Page: 234 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Praise can help to build self-esteem. Used in moderation, and given for legitimate accomplishments, praise can be quite effective. Praise, however, also can be a double-edged sword. Too much praise or praise that does not reflect real accomplishments can prevent children from developing an accurate sense of their weaknesses as well as their strengths. 9.22. When a child is praised excessively, this is linked to the development of all of the following EXCEPT: a. unrealistically high expectations b. confusion about what is right and what is wrong c. frustration and demoralization d. a much stronger self-concept and positive sense of self-esteem Answer: d Page: 234 Factual Moderate 9.23. Some critics suggest that teachers who provide too much praise create children: a. with negative self-images b. who are critical of others and lack empathy c. who have no sense of boundaries d. who do not have a realistic sense of their own strengths and weaknesses Answer: d Page: 234 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Praise can help to build self-esteem. Used in moderation, and given for legitimate accomplishments, praise can be quite effective. Praise, however, also can be a double-edged sword. Too much praise or praise that Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

does not reflect real accomplishments can prevent children from developing an accurate sense of their weaknesses as well as their strengths. Social Knowledge and Reasoning 9.24. Which one of the following concepts is made up from the combination of the other three? a. social cognition b. social responsibility c. social regulations d. social inferences Answer: a Page: 235 Factual Easy 9.25. Betty wants to describe how a person’s knowledge and understanding of the social world influences development. The term that she should use to express this idea is: a. social inference b. social cognition c. social responsibility d. social regulations Answer: b Page: 235 Applied Moderate Rationale: By definition, social cognition includes a person’s knowledge and understanding of the social world. 9.26. According to the text, one’s obligations to family, friends, and society at large is termed: a. social inference b. social self-esteem c. social responsibility d. self-regulation Answer: c Page: 235 Factual Easy 9.27. Making assumptions about what a friend is feeling illustrates the concept called: a. social inference b. social cognition c. social regulation d. self-regulated behavior Answer: a Page: 235 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Social inference involves guesses and assumptions about what another person is feeling, thinking, or intending. 9.28. When 10-year-old Emily overheard two girls laughing and whispering to each other, she assumed that they were talking about her. Emily’s assumption represents the concept called: a. social regulations Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. social relationship c. social inference d. social regulation Answer: c Page: 235 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social inference involves guesses and assumptions about what another person is feeling, thinking, or intending. 9.29. What component of social cognition refers to the customs and conventions used in a social setting or group? a. social regulations b. social inference c. social relationships d. social realism Answer: a Page: 235 Factual Easy 9.30. Customs, such as raising your hand to speak in class, are called: a. social laws b. self-regulated behaviors c. social regulations d. standards Answer: c Page: 235 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Social regulations refer to the customs and conventions that govern social interactions. 9.31. When meeting a person for the first time in the work place, it is customary to shake hands. Shaking hands in this context is an example of a: a. social law b. self-regulated behavior c. social regulation d. cognitive standard Answer: c Page: 235 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social regulations refer to the customs and conventions that govern social interactions. 9.32. An individual’s ideas about right and wrong are described by the term: a. cognitive dissonance b. social inferences c. morality d. social responsibility Answer: c Page: 235-236 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 9.33. Piaget's view of morality is based in: a. social learning theory b. psychodynamic theory c. cognitive-developmental theory d. information-processing theory Answer: c Page: 236 Factual Easy 9.34. Which of the following theorists held that children's morality develops in two stages: moral realism and moral relativism? a. Piaget b. Selman c. Freud d. Kohlberg Answer: a Page: 236 Factual Easy 9.35. According to Piaget’s view of moral development, during which of the following stages do children think that all rules must be obeyed as if they were written in stone? a. moral relativism b. moral regulation c. moral realism d. social responsibility Answer: c Page: 236 Factual Moderate 9.36. According to Piaget’s view of moral development, during which of the following stages do children come to realize that rules are created and agreed upon cooperatively by individuals and can change if necessary? a. moral relativism b. cooperative morality c. moral realism d. social morality Answer: a Page: 236 Factual Easy 9.37. A child who believes in rules as real, indestructible things is in what Piagetian stage of morality? a. conventional b. preconventional c. moral realism d. moral relativism

Answer: c Page: 236 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Piaget, moral development occurs across two stages. The first stage, called moral realism, emerges in early middle childhood. In this stage children think that all rules must be obeyed as if they were written in stone. 9.38. Dean realizes that rules are agreements that may be changed if necessary. He is in which of Piaget’s stages of moral reasoning? a. moral realism b. moral relativism c. preconventional stage d. conventional stage Answer: b Page: 236 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Piaget, moral development occurs across two stages: the second is called moral relativism. During this stage, children understand that rules are created and agreed upon cooperatively by individuals and that they can be changed if necessary. 9.39. Jason was hit by a baseball thrown by Rick. Jason understands that Rick didn't intentionally hit him, and doesn't blame him for his injury. According to Piaget’s view, Jason’s reaction would be considered typical of the stage of: a. moral realism b. moral relativism c. preconventional morality d. postconventional morality Answer: b Page: 236 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Piaget, moral development occurs across two stages: the second is called moral relativism. During this stage, children understand that rules are created and agreed upon cooperatively by individuals and that they can be changed if necessary. 9.40. Which of the following researchers wrote most extensively about the development of moral reasoning? a. Erikson and Freud b. Selman and Hetherington c. Piaget and Kohlberg d. Gilligan and Selman Answer: c Page: 236-237 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Piaget described moral development as occurring across two stages: moral realism and moral relativism. Piaget’s two-stage theory of moral development was expanded by Lawrence Kohlberg. 9.41. If you were asked to solve one of Kohlberg’s “moral dilemmas,” this would involve: a. answering questions about your own moral (or immoral) behavior b. judging a logical argument to determine if a moral principle is being correctly described c. determining how a misbehaving child should be punished Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. reading a story and judging whether the characters’ actions are moral or immoral Answer: d Page: 236 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In developing his now-classic theory, Kohlberg (1969) asked individuals (children, adolescents, and adults) to read stories involving moral dilemmas and then asked them questions about whether a central character’s behavior was moral or immoral. 9.42. Suppose that children participating in a research study were asked to answer the following question: If a child sees a classmate cheating on a test, should the child tell the teacher, or not? This study is employing a technique referred to as: a. a moral dilemma b. moral ambiguity c. moral absolutism d. egocentric thinking Answer: a Page: 236 Applied Moderate Rationale: Within the context of Kohlberg’s research, moral dilemmas are stories in which individuals are asked to judge whether a character’s behavior was moral or immoral. 9.43. According to Kohlberg, as children develop, their moral reasoning becomes ______ abstract and ________ tied to the consequences of their behavior. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: b Page: 237 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Kohlberg identified two ways in which moral reasoning develops in middle childhood. First, as development proceeds, moral decisions increasingly become based on internalized moral principles rather than on external consequences, such as getting caught. Second, moral judgments become less concrete and more abstract as children develop. 9.44. Kohlberg proposed that there are ___ broad levels of moral development, each of which can be broken into ___ substages, for a total of ____ stages. a. 4; 2; 8 b. 3; 3; 9 c. 3; 2; 6 d. 2; 3; 6 Answer: c Page: 236, 237 Factual Difficult 9.45. According to Kohlberg’s view of moral development, if Marty decides a behavior is right or wrong on the basis of whether it is rewarded or punished, he is using reasoning that is typical of which of the following? a. the conventional level of moral reasoning Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. the individual principles stage of moral reasoning c. the social conformity stage of moral reasoning d. the preconventional level of moral reasoning Answer: d Page: 236, 237 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Kohlberg’s theory, preconventional reasoning is defined as obeying rules to avoid punishments or to obtain rewards. 9.46. Which of the following most accurately expresses the relative emphasis given to moral attitudes versus moral behavior in Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining moral attitudes, but not moral behavior. b. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining moral behavior, but not moral attitudes. c. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining both moral attitudes and moral behavior. d. Kohlberg’s theory focuses on explaining theoretical ethics, not moral attitudes or behavior. Answer: a Page: 237 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A critique of Kohlberg’s theory is that his research assesses moral attitudes, not moral behavior; there can be a substantial difference between thinking about moral questions and behaving morally. 9.47. Dr. Ramirez is critical of Kohlberg’s theory because it emphasizes a Western view of moral values. His criticism suggests that Kohlberg’s theory is too heavily influenced by: a. moral absolutism b. conventional morality c. postconventional morality d. moral dilemma Answer: a Page: 237 Applied Moderate Rationale: Moral absolutism refers to any theory of morality that disregards cultural differences in moral beliefs. 9.48. Which of Kohlberg’s stages is most vulnerable to criticisms involving moral absolutism? a. preconventional stage b. conventional stage c. postconventional stage d. moral relativism stage Answer: c Page: 237-238 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Moral absolutism refers to any theory of morality that disregards cultural differences in moral beliefs. Kohlberg himself acknowledged that his sixth stage (postconventional level) of moral development may not apply to all people in all cultures, but rather may reflect Western values. 9.49. Suppose that researchers in China and researchers in England find that children in these two countries view moral decisions in very different ways. These findings would best demonstrate the meaning of the term: a. postconventional morality b. moral realism Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. moral dilemma d. moral absolutism Answer: d Page: 237-238 Applied Difficult Rationale: Moral absolutism refers to any theory of morality that disregards cultural differences in moral beliefs. 9.50. Carol Gilligan challenged the theory of moral development advanced by Lawrence Kohlberg because it was based on: a. moral reasoning, not moral behavior b. research conducted only with men, and not women c. a non-Christian understanding of morality and moral principles d. legal, rather than ethical, principles defining right and wrong Answer: b Page: 238 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Carol Gilligan and her colleagues challenged Kohlberg’s theory on the grounds of gender bias, noting that females’ responses to Kohlberg’s moral dilemmas often placed them at lower levels in his stage-based model (e.g., Gilligan, 1993; 1994). According to Gilligan, these gender differences arise because males and females use different criteria in making moral judgments. 9.51. According to Carol Gilligan, boys are more likely to base moral reasoning on principles involving ________, whereas girls are more likely to rely on principles emphasizing ________. a. punishment; reward b. reward; punishment c. justice; caring d. caring; justice Answer: c Page: 238 Factual Moderate 9.52. Which of the following statements is most likely to have been made by a boy, rather than a girl? a. She broke the rules and she got what she deserved. b. The punishment should be lenient because she has to take care of her children. c. She should not be punished because she was trying to help. d. She should be punished because she didn’t care about what happened to the other people. Answer: a Page: 238 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Based on her research of women’s moral judgments, Gilligan proposed that there are two distinct types of moral reasoning, neither of which is superior to the other. One is based primarily on the concept of justice, the other primarily on human relationships and caring. As a consequence of early gender-specific experiences, the justice perspective becomes characteristic of traditional masculine thinking; caring for others is more common in traditionally feminine thought. 9.53. Which of the following statements is most likely to have been made by a girl, rather than a boy? a. He knew what the rule was and he broke it, so he should be punished. b. If everyone was excused for bad behavior, all we would have is bad behavior. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. He was trying to the right thing, so he should receive no punishment. d. He is usually right, so he is probably right this time too. Answer: c Page: 238 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Based on her research of women’s moral judgments, Gilligan proposed that there are two distinct types of moral reasoning, neither of which is superior to the other. One is based primarily on the concept of justice, the other primarily on human relationships and caring. As a consequence of early gender-specific experiences, the justice perspective becomes characteristic of traditional masculine thinking; caring for others is more common in traditionally feminine thought. 9.54. According to the text, gender differences in moral reasoning begin to emerge: a. in the first year of life b. when children first enter school and have to contend with discipline c. at about age 9 to 12 d. only after they reach the postconventional stage of moral reasoning Answer: c Page: 238 Factual Moderate 9.55. In evaluating Carol Gilligan’s contributions to theories that explain moral development, it would be most accurate to note that her primary contribution was to emphasize the role of: a. punishment b. reward c. parents d. culture Answer: d Page: 238 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Based on her research of women’s moral judgments, Gilligan proposed that there are two distinct types of moral reasoning: justice and caring. As a consequence of early gender-specific experiences, the justice perspective becomes characteristic of traditional masculine thinking; caring for others is more common in traditionally feminine thought. Gilligan’s work points out the important role that culture plays in shaping how individuals form their value systems. Peer Relationships 9.56. As children move from early childhood into middle childhood, they become _____ likely to share secrets with parents and ______ likely to share secrets with friends. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less Answer: b Page: 239 Factual Easy 9.57. What research method did Robert Selman use to study the friendships of children? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. case studies of children with no friends b. case studies of children with lots of friends c. questionnaires asking children to respond to stories about relationships d. naturalistic observation Answer: c Page: 239 Factual Easy 9.58. The research method used by Robert Selman in his study of friendship development was most similar to that used by which of the following people? a. Jean Piaget b. Sigmund Freud c. Mary Ainsworth d. Lawrence Kohlberg Answer: d Page: 236, 239 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Selman’s approach was similar to the method used in Kohlberg’s studies of moral development: Tell children stories involving a “relationship” dilemma, then ask them questions to assess their concepts of other people, their self-awareness and ability to reflect, their concepts of personality, and their ideas about friendship. 9.59. According to Robert Selman's theory of friendship development, the first stage of friendship is based on: a. trust b. reciprocity c. give-and-take d. physical or geographical considerations Answer: d Page: 239-240 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In Selman’s first stage (ages 6 and under), a friend is just a playmate—someone who lives nearby, goes to the same school, or has desirable toys. 9.60. According to Robert Selman's stage view of friendship development, children in which stage are most likely to define their friends based on geographical considerations? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Answer: a Page: 239-240 Factual Moderate 9.61. Roger's friend lives next door and is a good playmate who goes to the same school and has great toys that they play with together. This example best illustrates what stage of friendship? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 239-240 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Selman’s first stage (ages 6 and under), a friend is just a playmate—someone who lives nearby, goes to the same school, or has desirable toys. 9.62. The idea of reciprocity and an awareness of another person's feelings begin to form during which of Robert Selman’s stages of friendship? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Answer: b Page: 239-240 Factual Difficult 9.63. According to Robert Selman, the concept of trust appears for the first time during friendships among children of about what age? a. 6 years old b. 8 years old c. 10 years old d. 13 years old Answer: c Page: 239-240 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In Selman’s third stage (ages 9 to 12), friends are seen as people who help each other, and the concept of trust appears. 9.64. Debbie and Jackie are both 10 years old. Their friendship is based on give-and-take. According to Robert Selman, Debbie and Jackie’s friendship is characteristic of which stage of friendship? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 Answer: c Page: 239-240 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Selman’s third stage (ages 9 to 12), friends are seen as people who help each other, and the concept of trust appears. 9.65. Shauna’s friends are all children she interacts with on a regular basis. When asked what a friend is, she says, “A friend is someone who will play a game with me that I want to play.” Based on Selman’s view of friendship development, your best guess is that Shauna is about ___ years old and is in Stage ___ of Selman’s theory. a. 5; 1 b. 9; 3 c. 4; 5 d. 10; 2

Answer: a Page: 239-240 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Selman’s first stage (ages 6 and under), a friend is just a playmate—someone who lives nearby, goes to the same school, or has desirable toys. 9.66. Marcus defines a friend as “someone you can trust with your secrets and who will help you out when you need support.” He understands that to have friends, one also needs to be a good friend to others. Based on Selman’s view of friendship development, your best guess is that Marcus is about ___ years old and is in Stage ___ of Selman’s theory. a. 6; 3 b. 11; 3 c. 16; 6 d. 9; 6 Answer: b Page: 239-240 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Selman’s third stage (ages 9 to 12), friends are seen as people who help each other, and the concept of trust appears. 9.67. Which of the following children is probably the oldest, based on how their definitions of what a friend is fit into Selman’s view of friendship development? a. Yvonne, who says “a friend it the person you play with” b. Greg, who says “a friend is someone who you can help you build things” c. Mike, who says “a friend is someone who you can trust and depend on” d. Gloria, who says “a friend is the person you spend the most time with” Answer: c Page: 239-240 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In Selman’s first stage (ages 6 and under), a friend is just a playmate—someone who lives nearby, goes to the same school, or has desirable toys. Yvonne, Greg, and Gloria all appear to be in this stage. In Selman’s third stage (ages 9 to 12), friends are seen as people who help each other, and the concept of trust appears. 9.68. According to Selman, the primary force behind developmental changes in children’s friendships is which of the following? a. the child’s age b. the child’s intelligence level c. the child’s ability to understand the difference between right and wrong d. the child’s ability to take another person’s perspective Answer: d Page: 239 Factual Moderate 9.69. Selman’s view of how friendships develop in middle childhood would be most consistent with which of the following theoretical perspectives? a. the psychoanalytic perspective b. the behavioral perspective c. the social-behavioral perspective d. the cognitive perspective Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 232, 239-240 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Selman proposed a means for understanding how cognitive advances set the stage for social and personality development. Thus, his view is most consistent with the cognitive perspective. 9.70. A group of two or more people of similar status who interact with each other and who share norms and goals is the text’s definition of: a. clique b. peer group c. reference group d. marginal group Answer: b Page: 240 Factual Easy 9.71. Cindy’s peer group would be considered very informal, and its members change quite frequently. Although the group plays games like soccer that involve specific rules, the group itself operates with few rules that define its membership. Cindy is most likely about how old? a. 8 years old b. 10 years old c. 12 years old d. 14 years old Answer: a Page: 240 Applied Moderate Rationale: In early middle childhood, peer groups are relatively informal. The peer group takes on greater significance for its members when they reach the ages of 10 to 12, and peer groups typically develop a more formal structure during this period. 9.72. Which of the following features is most likely to characterize peer groups of children who are ages 10 to 12? a. informal group structure b. having few operating rules c. a rapid turnover in membership d. strong conformity to group norms Answer: d Page: 240 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In later middle childhood, peer pressure becomes an important force, and conformity to group norms becomes extremely important. The strict attitudes about rules, conformity, and sex segregation that are characteristic of many peer groups composed of 10- to 12-year-olds usually do not diminish until mid-adolescence. 9.73. Children in which of the following age groups are most likely to have peer groups that consist of only children of their same gender? a. children age 4-6 b. children age 7-9 c. children age 10-12 d. children age 13-15 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 240 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: When children reach the age of 10 to 12, separation of the sexes becomes especially noticeable. Peer groups are now almost invariably composed of one sex, and boy groups and girl groups maintain different interests, activities, and styles of interaction. 9.74. As children move from early to middle childhood, their peer groups generally become: a. less formal, with members moving in and out of the group frequently b. less structured, with fewer rules for group membership c. less gender segregated, with most groups having both boys and girls d. more conformist, with stricter expectations about how group members should behave Answer: d Page: 240 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In later middle childhood, peer pressure becomes an important force, and conformity to group norms becomes extremely important. The strict attitudes about rules, conformity, and sex segregation that are characteristic of many peer groups composed of 10- to 12-year-olds usually do not diminish until mid-adolescence. 9.75. According to a study cited in the text, when aggressive children in fourth to sixth grade were asked to nominate the “coolest” children in their class, they most frequently mentioned children who were: a. aggressive b. physically attractive c. intelligent d. older Answer: a Page: 242 Factual Moderate 9.76. Suppose you selected a group of highly aggressive fifth grade boys and girls and asked them who the “coolest” person in their class is. Generalizing from research cited in the text, you would expect them to choose: a. Sam, who is very attractive physically b. Matthew, who is very smart c. Les, who is very aggressive d. Rob, who is very tall Answer: c Page: 242 Applied Moderate Rationale: In one study of fourth- to sixth-graders, aggressive children were often nominated as the “coolest” members of their class by other aggressive children, and this was true for girls as well as boys (Rodkin, Farmer, Pearl, & Van Aker, 2006). 9.77. According to the text, the term “prejudice” should be considered to be _________ and the term “discrimination” should be considered to be ____________. a. a positive behavior; a negative behavior b. behavior directed at in-group members; behavior directed at out-group members c. an attitude; behavior d. socially acceptable; socially unacceptable Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 242 Factual Moderate 9.78. Lorraine says, “I don’t like those people because they are different from me and my friends.” Using psychological terminology, Lorraine’s comment has identified the people she doesn’t like as: a. an in-group b. an out-group c. a side-group d. a dumped group Answer: b Page: 242 Applied Moderate Rationale: As defined, an out-group includes people who are perceived to be different and therefore undesirable. 9.79. Barbara holds negative attitudes about people who belong to groups that differ from her according to some noticeable attributes such as race, religion, or ethnicity. Psychologists would define Barbara’s situation as an example of what is meant by the term: a. racial/ethnic identity b. ethnic awareness c. discrimination d. prejudice Answer: d Page: 242 Applied Moderate Rationale: Prejudice is defined as a negative attitude formed without adequate reason and usually directed toward people because of their membership in a certain group. 9.80. Excluding or teasing members of a particular group are best thought of as examples of which of the following? a. discrimination b. prejudice c. both discrimination and prejudice d. neither discrimination nor prejudice Answer: a Page: 242 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Discrimination is defined as treating others in a prejudiced manner. 9.81. If all of Jane’s friends like each other and see themselves as being quite similar to each other, a psychologist would most likely describe this group as: a. an in-group b. an out-group c. a side-group d. a popular group Answer: a Page: 242 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: An in-group is a group of people who we view as being similar to us and as possessing desirable characteristics. 9.82. According to the text, when does ethnic awareness begin to develop? a. in infancy b. in early childhood c. during the elementary school years d. during adolescence Answer: b Page: 242-243 Factual Moderate 9.83. From a developmental perspective, which of the following is the first step to occur when developing an ethnic identity? a. learning which ethnic group one belongs to b. learning who the leaders of one’s ethnic group are c. learning the rules of group membership for one’s ethnic group d. learning to behave in a manner that doesn’t violate the rules of one’s ethnic group Answer: a Page: 242 Factual Moderate 9.84. Suppose that Germaine, who is African American, attends a school where about half the students are African American and half are white. Generalizing from research reported in the text, in which of the following grades should you expect Germaine to be least likely to have a white friend? a. 4th grade b. 5th grade c. 6th grade d. 7th grade Answer: d Page: 243 Applied Difficult Rationale: A study in a California town in which the schools were about half African American and half White found that older children actually were less likely than younger ones to have a friend of a different ethnicity: Interethnic friendships declined steadily from the fourth through the seventh grade. 9.85. Which of the following best describes the relationship between age and a child’s likelihood of having friends from a different racial or ethic group? a. Older children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups. b. Younger children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups. c. 7-year-old children are more likely to have friends from different racial/ethnic groups than are children who are older or younger. d. Age is unrelated to the likelihood of having friends from different racial/ethnic groups. Answer: b Page: 243 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: A study in a California town in which the schools were about half African American and half white found that older children actually were less likely than younger ones to have a friend of a different ethnicity. Interethnic friendships declined steadily from the fourth through the seventh grade. The researchers concluded that as children grow older, ethnic or racial similarity becomes an increasingly powerful basis for friendship (Ocampo, Knight, & Bernal, 1997). 9.86. Which of the following children is least likely to be popular with friends? a. Albert, who is of above-average intelligence b. Alex, who is a very good student and earns good grades c. Allen, who is aggressive on the playground d. Abe, who is very good at sports Answer: c Page: 244 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Once children enter school, academic performance and athletic ability are particularly important predictors of popularity. Few children like a bully, so the overly aggressive child is shunned. 9.87. Which of the following children is most likely to be popular with friends: a. Meg, who is a very good student b. Molly, who is shy c. Middie, who is aggressive d. Matty, who is below average in intelligence Answer: a Page: 244 Conceptual Easy Rationale:. Once children enter school, academic performance and athletic ability are particularly important predictors of popularity. Few children like a bully, so the overly aggressive child is shunned.. Timid children often suffer the most from peer rejection, at least in the U.S. majority culture. 9.88. Generalizing from the text, which of the following children would be most likely to suffer from peer rejection in the United States? a. a child who is very bright b. a child who is very aggressive c. a child who is a very good athlete d. a child who is very timid Answer: d Page: 244 Factual Moderate Family Influences in Middle Childhood 9.89. According to the text, during middle childhood the most important socializing influence on children is: a. the peer group b. the child’s best friend c. the child’s teachers d. the family Answer: a Page: 245 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy 9.90. According to the text, as Abbey moves through middle childhood, her parents would be expected to become less concerned with her ____________ and more concerned with her _____________. a. industry; trust b. industry; intimacy needs c. achievement; autonomy d. autonomy; achievement Answer: d Page: 245 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, when children begin their formal education, parents become less concerned with promoting autonomy and establishing daily routines and more concerned with their children’s work habits and achievement. 9.91. When Jeremy learns to direct his own behavior, rather than behave in strict accordance with the directions of his parents and teachers, psychologists would say he has developed: a. coregulation b. peer status c. self-regulated behavior d. self-monitoring Answer: c Page: 245 Applied Easy Rationale: Self-regulated behavior is defined as children’s ability to control and direct their own behavior and to meet the requirements that parents and others impose upon them. 9.92. Self-regulated behavior is best encouraged when parents: a. use mild, but never harsh, physical punishment b. use verbal reasoning to discipline the child c. set strict rules and make few, if any, exceptions d. allow the child to learn by trial and error, with little guidance Answer: b Page: 245-246 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, self-regulation is encouraged when parents use verbal reasoning and suggestion rather than strict approaches to discipline. 9.93. When parents use a reasoning-based set of parenting skills to discipline their child, this encourages all of the following EXCEPT: a. better self-regulation for the child b. more prosocial behavior from the child c. better compliance with the rules that are set d. lesser popularity with other children in the peer group Answer: d Page: 245-246 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, a reasoning-based approach leads to more prosocial behavior Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

and to better compliance with social rules. Also, parents who remind their children of the effects of their actions on others tend to have children who are more popular and whose moral standards are internalized more fully. Selfregulation is also encouraged when parents use verbal reasoning and suggestion rather than strict approaches to discipline. 9.94. Suppose that Mary and Dave want to increase their son's self-regulated behavior. Which of the following discipline practices is most closely linked to this outcome? a. authoritarian practices b. indifferent practices c. permissive practices d. authoritative practices Answer: d Page: 245-246 Applied Moderate Rationale: Self-regulation is encouraged when parents use verbal reasoning and suggestion rather than strict approaches to discipline. Authoritative parents use such tactics: They encourage communication and negotiation in rule setting within the family. 9.95. As Greta grows older, her parents gradually increase her involvement in family decisions, such as where to go on vacation and how to spend the weekends together. Her parents are developing Greta’s: a. scaffolding behaviors b. power-assertive socialization skills c. other-oriented induction skills d. self-regulated behaviors Answer: d Page: 245-246 Applied Moderate Rationale: Self-regulation is encouraged when parents use verbal reasoning and suggestion rather than strict approaches to discipline. 9.96. The development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and their children defines the concept of: a. self-monitoring b. coregulation c. self-regulation d. reciprocity Answer: b Page: 246 Factual Easy 9.97. When parents develop a sense of shared responsibility with their children, the term used to describe this activity is: a. coadministration b. cooperation c. codirection d. coregulation Answer: d Page: 246 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Coregulation is defined as the development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and their children. 9.98. George and Ramona want to help their son develop self-regulated behavior. They will be most successful if they: a. gradually increase the child's involvement in family decisions b. gradually decrease the child's involvement in family decisions c. use power-assertive socialization d. allow the child to set his own behavior limits and experience the consequences Answer: a Page: 246 Applied Moderate Rationale: One way that parents can encourage self-regulated behavior is to gradually increase the child’s involvement in family decisions. By engaging in frequent discussions and negotiations with their children, parents can encourage greater independence while still providing support and guidance. 9.99. Development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and children, such as negotiating a curfew, is called a. scaffolding b. coregulation c. moral relativism d. moral absolutism Answer: b Page: 246 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Coregulation involves the development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and their children. 9.100. When planning a family vacation, Emma and her parents shared responsibility and cooperated together on the details. Psychologists would generally refer to practices such as this by using the term: a. coregulation b. scaffolding c. social regulation d. self-regulation Answer: a Page: 246 Applied Moderate Rationale: Coregulation involves the development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and their children. 9.101. Jill’s parents want her to become more responsible, so they buy her the puppy she wants and they expect her to perform simple care-taking tasks, like putting its food in its bowl. By asking Jill to perform tasks that are difficult for her, but providing her advice and support to make sure she learns these tasks, Jill’s parents are: a. engaging in coregulation b. teaching Jill autonomy c. using scaffolding d. teaching Jill to self-monitor Answer: c Page: 246 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: Scaffolding involves the concept of presenting children with tasks just beyond their level of competence and then providing support and assistance that allows them to accomplish these tasks. 9.102. In 2006, about what percent of children born in the United States were born to unmarried mothers? a. 9% b. 16% c. 24% d. 39% Answer: d Page: 246 Factual Moderate 9.103. Over the past 25 years, how has the percent of children born to unmarried mothers changed? a. There are about half as many children born to unmarried mothers today as in 1985. b. There are about the same number of children born to unmarried mothers today as in 1985. c. There are slightly more children born to unmarried mothers today compared to 1985. d. There are many more children born to unmarried mothers today compared to 1985. Answer: d Page: 246 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In 2006, nearly 40% of children born were born to unmarried mothers, an increase of nearly 60% since 1985. 9.104. In 1948, about ___ % of mothers of school-aged children worked outside the home; today about ___ % of these mothers work. a. 13; 26 b. 26; 52 c. 26; 71 d. 52; 71 Answer: c Page: 246 Factual Moderate 9.105. In the United States in 2007, what percent of mothers with school-aged children worked outside the home? a. 26% b. 51% c. 71% d. 89% Answer: c Page: 246 Factual Moderate 9.106. Today, in comparison with women who do not have children, women with school-age children are: a. much less likely to work outside the home b. slightly less likely to work outside the home c. about equally likely to work outside the home Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. more likely to work outside the home Answer: d Page: 246 Factual Moderate 9.107. In the United States today, in about _____ of two-parent families, both parents work outside the home. a. one-quarter b. one-third c. one-half d. two-thirds Answer: d Page: 247 Factual Moderate 9.108. Which of the following women is most likely to work outside the home? a. Mary, who is a single mother b. Judy, who is a mother who is married c. Linda, who is a mother and who is widowed d. Mary, Judy, and Linda are equally likely to work outside the home Answer: c Page: 246-247 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, in 2008, 71% of single mothers, 70% of married mothers with husbands present, and 80% of divorced, separated, or widowed mothers were in the labor force. 9.109. Suppose the Jillian has been living in a situation characterized by a high level of chronic and severe stress. Which of the following behaviors would Jillian be LEAST likely to express? a. blunted emotions b. difficulty developing affections for others c. extremely docile, unaggressive behavior d. depression Answer: c Page: 247 Applied Difficult Rationale: Young children who live with the chronic stress and severe stress associated with constant violence tend to be fearful, depressed, and anxious. Many have trouble concentrating in school and suffer other school-related problems. Children may fear being abandoned and may become overly aggressive and insolent to disguise their fears. Many children develop blunted emotions—they are afraid to develop affection for people who may be killed or who may abandon them. 9.110. According to the text, if a child experiences a high level of chronic and severe stress, that child is at risk for developing: a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. antisocial personality disorder d. overly secure attachments with caregivers Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 247 Factual Easy 9.111. The text describes a study in which children in stressful environments in Hawaii were studied. Those who were resilient were more likely than others to: a. have difficult temperaments b. have slow-to-warm-up temperaments c. have insecure attachment to their mothers but secure attachment to their fathers d. shift attachments if the parent or grandparent was no longer available Answer: d Page: 248 Factual Moderate 9.112. According to a study of resilient Hawaiian children reported in the text, children who coped well even in stressful circumstances were more likely to have been temperamentally "easy" babies and to have: a. grown up in a two-parent family b. had at least one sibling of each sex c. had a close attachment to a parent or grandparent in the first year of life d. been separated in age by at least two years from other children in the family Answer: c Page: 248 Factual Moderate 9.113. Children who are able to overcome difficult environments and lead socially competent lives are described by psychologists with which of the following terms? a. self-regulation b. coregulation c. resilient d. self-monitoring Answer: c Page: 248 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Resilient children are children who are able to overcome difficult environments to lead socially competent lives. 9.114. If you know that Bob is a highly resilient child, even though he has grown up under stressful circumstances, your best guess is that his early life was characterized by: a. insecure attachment to his mother b. insecure attachment to his father c. difficult temperament d. easy temperament Answer: d Page: 248 Applied Difficult Rationale: In one study of Hawaiian children, those who had overcome difficult environments to lead socially competent lives (i.e., resilient children), shared certain characteristics. As babies, they had been temperamentally “easy” and had developed secure attachments to a parent or grandparent in the first year of life. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

9.115. Ricca had an extremely stressful childhood, having been raised in a series of foster homes, one of which involved child abuse. Yet, Ricca is a confident, well-adjusted teenager. Psychologists would describe Ricca by saying that she was: a. high in self-monitoring b. high in coregulation c. resilient d. egocentric Answer: c Page: 248 Applied Easy Rationale: Resilient children are children who are able to overcome difficult environments to lead socially competent lives. 9.116. Of all single-parent families in the United States today, about ______ are headed by men. a. 1% b. 4% c. 12% d. 19% Answer: c Page: 248 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that in 2007, women headed about 88% of single-parent families. Thus, we would estimate that 12% of single-parent families are headed by men. 9.117. What percent of single-parent families headed by mothers live in poverty? a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 65% Answer: c Page: 248 Factual Moderate 9.118. According to the text, which of the following statements about how girls and boys benefit from their mothers’ working outside the home is most accurate? a. Boys generally benefit more than girls. b. Girls generally benefit more than boys. c. Boys and girls both generally benefit, and in about the same amount. d. Neither boys nor girls benefit, and all children suffer when their mothers have to work. Answer: b Page: 249 Factual Moderate 9.119. According to the text, about what proportion of marriages in the United States end in divorce? a. about one-third b. about 40% c. about one-half Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. about 60% Answer: c Page: 249 Factual Easy 9.120. Based on general trends, which of the following children is likely to experience the least amount of disruption as the result of her parents’ divorce? a. Ellen, who is sent to live with her grandparents in a different state b. Julia, whose mother just “leaves” and disappears from the family c. Jackie, whose father just “leaves” and disappears from the family d. Lucy, who continues to live with her mother in her same home, and whose father stays in contact with the family Answer: d Page: 249-250 Applied Moderate Rationale: The consequences of divorce for children are more problematic when the divorce involves major changes in the child’s living arrangements and when one or both parents fail to maintain strong emotional attachments and stay involved in their children’s lives. 9.121. A family in which a mother or father with children has remarried is referred to as what type of family? a. nuclear family b. reconstituted family c. extended family d. double-parent family Answer: b Page: 250 Applied Moderate Rationale: A reconstituted family, also known as stepfamily, is a family where a mother or a father with children has remarried to produce a new family. 9.122. Mae’s mother recently married a man with two children. Her family’s situation is best described as which of the following? a. double-parented b. reconstituted c. extended d. foster Answer: b Page: 250 Applied Easy Rationale: A reconstituted family, also known as stepfamily, is a family where a mother or a father with children has remarried to produce a new family. Current Issues: Friends and Enemies, Bullies and Victims – The Social Life of School 9.123. Jude states that he “hates Mark and doesn’t want to play with him.” Jude’s comment reflects the psychology concept that researchers would label: a. antipathy b. social learning Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. provocation d. normative behavior Answer: a Page: 241 Applied Easy Rationale: Antipathy refers to the broad category of relationships rooted in dislike and aversion in which two peers reciprocally dislike each other. 9.124. According to research cited in the text, which of the following children would be most likely to be bullied via physical aggression? a. a 7-year-old girl b. a 7-year-old boy c. an 11-year-old girl d. an 11-year old boy Answer: b Page: 241 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to research cited in the text, about one-half of school-age children report that they have been teased or bullied in the past month, and younger children report bullying more often than do older children. Girls and boys both report teasing, taunting, and other forms of physical abuse, although physical bullying is more common among boys. 9.125. According to research cited in the text, which of the following children would be most likely to be bullied by being physically pushed around or hit? a. a 7-year-old girl b. a 7-year-old boy c. an 11-year-old girl d. an 11-year old boy Answer: b Page: 241 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to research cited in the text, about one-half of school-age children report that they have been teased or bullied in the past month, and younger children report bullying more often than do older children. Girls and boys both report teasing, taunting, and other forms of physical abuse, although physical bullying is more common among boys. 9.126. According to research cited in the text, when children age 8 to 11 years were asked to give a reason why they might bully another child, which of the following reasons was given most often? a. “to show how tough I am” b. “because that child is a wimp” c. “because everyone else was doing it” d. “because that person annoyed me” Answer: d Page: 241 Factual Moderate Changing Perspectives: Families Coping in Difficult Circumstances

9.127. Based on results from a study of 419 families in Milwaukee, Wisconsin, you would predict that as the economic pressure felt by parents increased, which of the following was likely to result? a. parents used less punishment when their children misbehaved b. parents turned to their children for support, becoming more affectionate c. children turned to other children for support, becoming more prosocial in their play d. teachers rated children as having higher levels of behavioral problems Answer: d Page: 249 Factual Moderate 9.128. Based on research presented in the text, you would expect that an economic recession might be linked to which of the following? a. higher school performance among children b. more affection being shown between parents and children c. more behavioral problems in the schools d. less use of physical punishment by parents to discipline children Answer: c Page: 249 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Results of a research study cited in the text showed that when economic pressure mounted, parents became more distressed. Their stress then contributed to a more punishment-oriented style of discipline and to a less affectionate relationship with their children. Less than optimal parenting, in turn, was linked to lower teacher ratings of the children’s prosocial behavior and to higher ratings of their behavioral problems (Mistry et al., 2002).

True-False questions: Personality Development in an Expanding Social World 9.129. The social-learning view sees the period of middle childhood as a period of latency, during which children turn their emotional energies toward peers, creative efforts, and learning the culturally prescribed tasks of the school and community. Answer: False Page: 232 Rationale: This description is consistent with the psychodynamic view, not the social-learning view. The social learning view sees middle childhood as a time when children develop habits and attitudes through observing and imitating models, who often are peers. 9.130. A child’s gender identity and gender stereotypes typically emerge during the period of middle childhood. Answer: True Page: 233 9.131. Erik Erikson viewed the period of middle childhood as involving the crisis of establishing autonomy versus shame and doubt. Answer: False Page: 233 Rationale: In Erikson’s view, the central crisis of middle childhood is between industry versus inferiority. 9.132. A child who feels generally unable to perform most important tasks well is likely to have low self-esteem. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: True Page: 233-234 9.133. Used in excess, praise can be quite effective at building realistic self-esteem. Answer: False Page: 234 Rationale: When used in excess, praise usually has negative effects, since it prevents children from developing a realistic sense of their weaknesses and strengths. Social Knowledge and Social Reasoning 9.134. The term social inference refers to the child’s ability to understand his or her own feelings, thoughts, and knowledge about the world. Answer: False Page: 235 Rationale: This is a definition of social cognition. Social inference refers to the individual’s guesses and assumptions about what another person is felling, thinking, or intending. 9.135. According to Jean Piaget, moral development occurs in two stages, moral realism and moral relativism. Answer: True Page: 236 9.136. If a child is judging the wrongness of an action according to whether the actor intended to do harm or was simply involved in an accident, this would be an example of what Piaget meant by moral realism. Answer: False Page: 236 Rationale: When children judge actions according to intentions rather than outcomes, their thinking displays what Piaget termed as moral relativism. 9.137. Kohlberg’s research method involved watching children act to see if they behaved morally and truthfully. Answer: False Page: 236 Rationale: Kohlberg presented children with stories involving moral dilemmas and asked children to explain what the characters in the story should do and why they should act that way. 9.138. According to Kohlberg, as children move through childhood, they first are in a preconventional stage, then a conventional stage, and finally a postconventional stage of moral reasoning. Answer: True Page: 236-237 9.139. Kohlberg himself concluded that his sixth stage of moral development may not apply to all people in all cultures, but merely reflect Western values. Answer: True Page: 237 9.140. According to Carol Gilligan, in making moral decisions, traditional U.S. culture teaches boys to strive for a perspective of justice, while caring for others is taught to girls.

Answer: True Page: 238 Peer Relationships 9.141. During middle childhood, most children have more friends of the opposite gender than of their same gender. Answer: False Page: 239 Rationale: During middle childhood, most of children’s friends are of their same gender. 9.142. According to Robert Selman, children between the ages of 9 and 12 develop friendships that are based on genuine give-and-take. Answer: True Page: 239-240 9.143. The research method used by Robert Selman had much more in common with that used by Jean Piaget than that used by Lawrence Kohlberg. Answer: False Page: 236, 239 Rationale: Selman used a “relationship” dilemma approach in his research that was very similar to the moral dilemma approach taken by Kohlberg. Piaget’s work was based mostly on case study and naturalistic observation, for the most part of his own children. 9.144. Today, most researchers studying friendship development view Robert Selman’s theory as much too complex. Answer: False Page: 239-240 Rationale: Most researchers today view friendship development as a more complex process than the one Selman described. In particular, Selman dealt more with cognitive aspects of friendship development, and today researchers recognize the important role that emotional development also plays. 9.145. Children who are high on the trait called self-monitoring are more likely to conform to the expectations of the peer group than are those who are lower on this trait. Answer: True Page: 242 9.146. Discrimination is a word that describes the negative attitudes that some people hold against others because of their group membership; prejudice describes negative behaviors that are the result of discrimination. Answer: False Page: 242 Rationale: Prejudice refers to negative attitudes, whereas discrimination involves the actual behavior that is based in prejudice. 9.147. The first step in acquiring an ethnic identity is to learn which group one belongs to. Answer: True Page: 242 9.148. Children usually do not become aware of their ethnic identity until after the age of 12.

Answer: False Page: 243 Rationale: Ethnic identity begins to develop in early childhood, as children become aware that they belong to a group defined by ethnicity. 9.149. Because children develop increasingly more complex cognitive abilities as they move through middle childhood, older children are more likely to have friends of ethnicities different from their own than are younger children. Answer: False Page: 243 Rationale: Older children are more subject to conformity pressure, which is often based on ethnic prejudice. Thus, even though they can think with more complexity, they actually are less likely to have friends of different ethnicities than are younger children. 9.150. A challenge that some African American students face is that some members of their ethnic group may view any academic achievement as being disloyal to the group, because school is seen as a white institution. Answer: True Page: 243 9.151. Popularity in middle childhood is often linked to both academic and athletic ability, with good athletes being more popular than other children but good students being less popular than others. Answer: False Page: 244 Rationale: Both academic and athletic ability are positively related to popularity in middle childhood. 9.152. Unpopular children are usually different in some way from other members of their peer group. Answer: True Page: 244 Family Influences in Middle Childhood 9.153. During the period of middle childhood, most parents stress the development of autonomy over the development of initiative. Answer: False Page: 245 Rationale: In middle childhood, parents generally become less concerned with autonomy and more concerned with helping their child develop a sense of initiative and achievement. 9.154. When children develop the ability to control their own behavior, this is called coregulation. Answer: False Page: 245 Rationale: The development of behavioral control is called self-regulation. Coregulation refers to the development of a sense of shared responsibility between parents and their children. 9.155. Single parenthood has become much more common in the United States in the past 25 years. Answer: True Page: 246 9.156. Most children whose parents both work felt that their parents gave too much priority to their work. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 247 Rationale: Research suggests that children whose parents work are often pleased and proud of their parents’ accomplishments. This is especially true for girls. 9.157. In severe cases, children who live with constant violence may develop posttraumatic stress disorder. Answer: True Page: 247 9.158. All children with high self-esteem will also be resilient. Answer: False Page: 248 Rationale: Although high self-esteem is associated with resilience, not all children with high self-esteem will be resilient. Resilience is associated with having an easy temperament and secure attachments to parents or grandparents in the first year of life. 9.159. Nearly 90 percent of single-parent households are headed by women. Answer: True Page: 248 9.160. If a mother treats her children harshly when she is stressed and then they behave badly, causing her more stress, and this leads to even harsher treatment, this situation would be thought of as involving an interaction among forces. Answer: True Page: 248 9.161. Divorce usually is harder for children whose parents express a great deal of hostility toward each other. Answer: True Page: 249 Short Answer questions: Personality Development in an Expanding Social World 9.162. What do psychologists mean when they use the term self-concept? Page: 233 9.163. Explain the difference between industry and inferiority and suggest two circumstances that might help a child develop a sense of industry. Page: 233 9.164. How does self-esteem differ from self-concept? Page: 233-234 9.165. How might parents of a child who is having trouble succeeding academically help that child develop positive self-esteem?

Page: 234 Social Knowledge and Reasoning 9.166. Explain the difference between social inferences and social regulations and describe how they both contribute to the development of social cognition. Page: 235 9.167. How are the concepts of social inferences, social responsibility, social regulations, and social cognition related to each other? Page: 235 9.168. Explain the difference between moral realism and moral relativism and suggest which develops first. Page: 236 9.169. Describe how a child in Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development would determine whether taking candy from a dish was morally right or wrong. What reasoning would this child most likely use? Page: 236-237 9.170. What is a moral dilemma and how did Kohlberg employ moral dilemmas in his study of moral development? Page: 236-237 9.171. What is moral absolutism and why is this charge sometimes made against Kohlberg’s research on moral development? Page: 237-238 9.172. Briefly suggest how boys and girls differ in how they make moral judgments. Page: 238 Peer Relationships 9.173. Describe the method Robert Selman used to investigate how children move through the stages of friendship development. Page: 239 9.174. Describe the main feature associated with each of Selman’s four stages of friendship development. Page: 239-240 9.175. Identify two ways that children’s peer groups usually change as they move from early childhood into middle childhood. Page: 240 9.176. Explain how peer group conformity changes as children move through middle childhood. Page: 240

9.177. Explain the difference between prejudice and discrimination. Page: 242 9.178. Briefly describe how a child comes to develop a sense of ethnic identity. Page: 242-243 9.179. Identify three factors that contribute to a child’s popularity during the period of middle childhood. Page: 244 9.180. Describe how a teacher’s behavior in the classroom can improve the popularity for an aggressive child and for a timid child. What things might the teacher do in each of these cases? Page: 244 Family Influences in Middle Childhood 9.181. Explain the difference between self-regulated behavior and coregulation. Page: 245-246 9.182. Note two important ways that family structure in the United States has changed over the past three decades. Page: 246 9.183. Suggest three outcomes that are commonly associated when children live in a chronic and highly stressful environment. Page: 247 9.184. Based on findings from a study of resilient children growing up in Hawaii, identify the two characteristics that contribute most to the development of resilience in children. Page: 248 9.185. List five guidelines for parents to follow to improve their effectiveness as parents. Page: 248 9.186. Indentify three important factors that strongly influence how children react to divorce and suggest how parents can minimize the negative impact of divorce on their children. Page: 249-250 9.187. What is a reconstituted family? Page: 250-251

Essay questions: Personality Development in an Expanding Social World 9.188. Describe three ways in which children’s self-concepts are likely to change as they move from early Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

childhood through middle childhood. Page: 233 9.189. How might a child’s experiences in kindergarten affect how she negotiates the crisis of industry versus inferiority? What sorts of things might lead to the development of a sense of industry? Which could lead to a sense of inferiority? Page: 233 9.190. In what ways might children who belong to disadvantaged ethnic groups have more difficulty developing a positive sense of self-esteem than children in the majority culture? How can parents of minority children help them develop a strong sense of self-worth and self-esteem? Page: 233-234 9.191. Describe in detail how excessive praise might influence child development in negative ways. Page: 234 Social Knowledge and Reasoning 9.192. Describe how the child’s ability to use social inferences and understand social responsibilities change as that child moves through middle childhood. Page: 235 9.193. Describe the transition from moral realism to moral relativism, as outlined in Piaget’s view of moral development. Page: 236 9.194. Suggest two ways that Piaget’s and Kohlberg’s view of moral development are similar to each other. How do these theories differ? Page: 236-238 9.195. Distinguish among the preconventional, conventional, and postconventional levels of moral reasoning. Provide a clear example of behavior that typifies each of these three stages. Page: 236-237 9.196. What is a moral dilemma, as defined by research conducted by Lawrence Kohlberg? How did Kohlberg use moral dilemmas to investigate the development of moral reasoning? Page: 236-237 9.197. Referring to Kohlberg’s theory, distinguish between moral attitudes and moral behavior. Page: 237 9.198. Define moral absolutism and suggest how Carol Gilligan’s critique of Kohlberg’s theory was centered on this issue. How did Gilligan’s work expand Kohlberg’s view to reduce the concern about moral absolutism? Page: 237-238

9.199. Using the research on gender differences in the development of moral reasoning as an example, suggest how culture can influence the development of moral reasoning. Page: 238 Peer Relationships 9.200. Outline the basic features of Robert Selman’s view of friendship development and suggest what changes are associated with each of the following age groups: age 6 and under; age 7 to 9; age 9 to 12; age 12 and older. Page: 239-240 9.201. Does Selman’s view of friendship development reflect more a cognitive, a psychodynamic, or a sociallearning perspective? Present evidence to support your answer. Page: 239-240 9.202. Define what is meant by the term “peer group” and suggest three ways that peer groups usually change as children move through middle childhood. Page: 240 9.203. How can peer group conformity be viewed as the result of children’s increasing social cognition? Provide an example to demonstrate your explanation. Page: 240, 242 9.204. Provide an example that demonstrates how a person can exhibit prejudice without discrimination. Is it possible to discriminate without being prejudiced? Explain your answer. Page: 242 9.205. How does a child come to develop a sense of ethnic identity? Page: 242-243 9.206. Discuss how a child who is a member of a disadvantaged minority group might be discouraged from succeeding in a majority-based setting, such as college. How can such children be encouraged to succeed? Page: 243-244 9.207. What factors contribute to popularity during middle childhood? What can parents and teachers do to enhance the popularity of children who other children do not like? Page: 244 Family Influences in Middle Childhood 9.208. How does coregulation encourage self-regulated behavior? Provide an example of how parents can establish this relationship. Page: 245-246 9.209. How might a child’s temperament and early relationships with caregivers be linked to that child’s later resilience?

Page: 247 9.210. How would you respond to the following statement: “Women should not work outside the home until their children are in high school because the children suffer.” Cite evidence presented in the text as part of your response. Page: 247-249 9.211. What are the typical effects of chronic and extreme stress on children? Suggest at least four possible outcomes associated with such circumstances. Page: 247-248 9.212. Suggest five things that parents can do to help their children better adjust to an impending divorce. Page: 249-251

Name____________________________________ Chapter 10 - Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 1

Factual questions: 1. According to the text, the rite of passage into adulthood that typically occurs in primitive societies is generally followed immediately by: a. marriage and full status as an adult b. a one- or two-year apprenticeship to gain full adult status c. a period of six or eight years during which the adult roles and norms are learned d. economic, but not social, independence from the family 2. As compared to females, males’ bodies typically produce more: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. secondary trophic hormones d. androgenic hormones 3. According to the text, more U. S. adolescent girls become pregnant than adolescent girls from Western European countries because U. S. adolescent girls: a. are more sexually active b. will experience more social stigma for an illegitimate birth c. are less likely to use contraception d. experience too much affection at home Conceptual questions: 4. If Jason were looking for terms to describe the typical qualities of adolescents and emerging adults in the United States today, he would be correct in using all of the following EXCEPT: a. age-segregated b. economically dependent c. nonconforming d. vulnerable-to-crisis 5. Which of the following dates would represent the year in which the sexual revolution in the United States was at its highest point? a. 1957 b. 1963 c. 1978 d. 1995 6. According to the text, the development of fMRI techniques has allowed developmental researchers to investigate brain development more effectively because this technology allows them to perform which of the following types of research? a. cross-sectional research b. longitudinal research c. experimental research d. correlational research Applied questions: 7. Natalie matured at the same time as most of her male peers and shares their interests and dating activities. She is most likely a(n): a. early maturer Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. average maturer c. late maturer d. prepubescent maturer 8. Suppose you interview a group of people who were 9th graders in 2007. If you believe they represent a “typical” population of people growing up in the United States at this time, you would expect that about ____ of these students would have had sexual intercourse. a. 5% b. 15% c. 33% d. 50% 9. When 17-year-old Paul was discussing his future with his father, Paul said, "Let's just suppose for the sake of discussion that I don't attend college right away. What if I volunteered overseas instead?" Paul's ability to think in these terms is characteristic of: a. sensorimotor thought b. preoperational thought c. formal operational thought d. concrete operational thought 10. Even though John has seen other people get into car accidents, he does not believe that such an accident will ever happen to himself. John’s perception of personal invulnerability is best considered to be an example of: a. shared negotiation b. a personal fable c. conventional moral reasoning d. the imaginary audience

Name____________________________________ Chapter 10 - Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. The term used to refer to a symbolic event or ritual that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood is called a(n): a. growth rite b. puberty rite c. initiation rite d. rite of passage 2. Typically, girls experience the adolescent growth spurt about: a. one year before boys b. two years before boys c. the same time as boys d. two years after boys 3. About what percent of teenage girls in the U. S. become pregnant? a. 1% b. 8% c. 16% d. 25% Conceptual questions: 4. In contemporary U.S. society, the term “emerging adulthood” would be used most accurately when describing individuals in which of the following age groups? a. ages 14-18 b. ages 16-18 c. ages 16-22 d. ages 18-24 5. If you were to explain how sexual attitudes and practices have changed in the United States during the past century, you might want to note the point at which, for the first time, the majority of adolescents no longer believed that premarital sex was neither right nor wrong but rather should be judged based on the couple’s relationship. You should associate this change in cultural attitudes with which of the following dates? a. 1947 b. 1959 c. 1973 d. 1996 6. The two words that best describe how the brain changes during adolescence are: a. pruning and myelination b. birth and death c. expansion and growth d. little or none Applied questions: 7. Which of the following girls would be expected to have her first menstrual period at the youngest age? a. a girl raised in the Czech Republic b. a girl raised in the United States c. a girl raised in the Kikuyu tribe in Africa d. a girl raised in the Bindi tribe in New Guinea Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Suppose you conduct a survey of 9th- and 12th-grade boys and girls. If the students in your survey respond in the same way as did students in 2007, you would expect that, in comparison to girls, boys in 9th grade reported ______ levels of sexual activity and boys in 12th grade reported _____ levels of sexual activity. a. higher; about the same b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. about the same; higher 9. Vicki believes that she is constantly being watched and judged by her friends. According to the view advanced by David Elkind, Vicki is experiencing the: a. imaginary audience b. personal fable c. ascribed identity d. foundling fantasy 10. Joshua’s friends tease him because he always tries to conform his behavior to what he believes his friends are doing. In this sense, the stage of moral development that most likely characterizes his behavior would be: a. premoral b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 10.1 1. b, p. 255 2. d, p. 259 3. c, p. 266 4. c, pp. 256-257 5. c, p. 264 6. b, p. 268 7. c, p. 263 8. c, p. 265 9. c, p. 271 10. b, p. 274 Quick Quiz 10.2 1. d, p. 255 2. b, p. 258 3. b, p. 266 4. d, p. 256 5. c, p. 264 6. a, p. 270 7. b, p. 261 8. a, p. 265 9. a, p. 274 10. c, p. 275

Chapter 10 Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

Multiple Choice questions: Adolescent Development in a Cultural and Historical Context 10.1. Adolescence in most undeveloped, agriculturally based cultures typically begins when children enter: a. the work force b. industrialized society c. their reproductive years d. school Answer: c Page: 255 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, adolescence in many agriculturally based cultures and hunter–gatherer societies begins when children enter their reproductive years. 10.2. In which of the following societies would you expect the period called “adolescence” to be the longest? a. the United States during the early 1800s b. the United States today c. a hunter-gatherer society in rural South America in the early 1800s d. a hunter-gatherer society in rural South America today Answer: b Page: 255 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In contemporary U.S. culture, the developmental period between the end of childhood and the beginning of adulthood has become not only longer in years but also considerably more complex in terms of the choices and transitions adolescents experience. 10.3. For children in which of the following groups would you expect the period called “adolescence” to be the shortest? a. children raised in a hunter-gatherer society in rural South America today b. children in very wealthy families in the United States today c. children in upper-middle-class families in the United States today d. children in upper-middle-class families in Japan today Answer: a Page: 255 Applied Moderate Rationale: Even today in many less industrialized countries adolescence describes a relatively brief period of the lifespan. For example, adolescence in many agriculturally based cultures and hunter–gatherer societies begins when children enter their reproductive years, at which time there is often a transition ritual called a rite of passage, followed by 1-2 years apprenticeship, then achievement of full adulthood. 10.4. The term used to refer to a symbolic event or ritual that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood is called a(n): a. growth rite b. puberty rite Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. initiation rite d. rite of passage Answer: d Page: 255 Factual Easy 10.5. In Jeremy’s family, when each child reaches the age of 15, the family has a huge party at which the child is “introduced” as an adult. From that point forward, the child is expected to take on greater responsibilities for supporting the family, and is called by his or her middle name by family members, as a sign of this new status within the family. The term that best describes this transition is: a. puberty b. menarche c. the secular trend d. rite of passage Answer: d Page: 255 Applied Moderate Rationale: Rites of passage are symbolic events or rituals to mark life transitions, such as from childhood to adult status. Such a transition ritual may include a ceremony, name change, or physical challenge. 10.6. Historically, rites of passage served to: a. control the speed of social development b. indicate that the child has graduated from high school c. limit the amount of work that parents could expect a child to perform for the family d. mark a change in status from child to adult Answer: d Page: 255 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Rites of passage are defined as symbolic events or rituals that mark life transitions, such as from childhood to adult status. 10.7. According to the text, the rite of passage into adulthood that typically occurs in primitive societies is generally followed immediately by: a. marriage and full status as an adult b. a one- or two-year apprenticeship to gain full adult status c. a period of six or eight years during which the adult roles and norms are learned d. economic, but not social, independence from the family Answer: b Page: 255 Factual Moderate 10.8. According to the text, which of the following is the typical order of how the children in many agriculturally based cultures become adults? a. first there is a rite of passage, followed by an apprenticeship, followed by becoming an adult b. first there is an apprenticeship, followed by a rite of passage, followed by becoming an adult c. first there is an apprenticeship, followed by becoming an adult, followed by a rite of passage d. becoming an adult, holding an apprenticeship, and having a rite of passage all occur at the same time

Answer: a Page: 255 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Adolescence in many agriculturally based cultures and hunter–gatherer societies begins when children enter their reproductive years, at which time there is often a transition ritual called a rite of passage, followed by 1-2 years apprenticeship, then achievement of full adulthood. 10.9. In a particular African tribe, when adolescent girls reach menarche, there is a ceremony in which they cover themselves in white ashes, and walk through the village singing a song about becoming an adult. This ceremony is a good example of which of the following? a. an apprenticeship b. a rite of passage c. a secular trend d. a personal fable Answer: b Page: 255 Applied Moderate Rationale: Rites of passage are symbolic events or rituals to mark life transitions, such as from childhood to adult status. Such a transition ritual may include a ceremony, name change, or physical challenge. 10.10. In comparison to the late 1800s in the United States, today the period of adolescence is ___________ and it is _________ complex. a. shorter; more b. shorter; less c. longer; more d. longer; less Answer: c Page: 255 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to the text, in contemporary U.S. culture, the developmental period between the end of childhood and the beginning of adulthood has become not only longer in years but also considerably more complex in terms of the choices and transitions adolescents experience. 10.11. According to the text, for people in the United States, the portion of the lifespan from age 14 to 18 is best considered to be the period of: a. early adolescence b. middle adolescence c. later adolescence d. emerging adulthood Answer: c Page: 255 Factual Moderate 10.12. Suppose you asked people in four different age groups to answer the question: “Do you feel that you have reached adulthood?” The age groups are as follows: Group 1: Ages 12-17 years Group 2: Ages 18-25 years Group 3: Ages 26-35 years Group 4: Ages 35-55 years Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

In which of these groups would you expect more than 10% of the people to answer “no” to this question? a. only those in Group 1 b. those is Groups 1 and 2 c. those in Groups 1, 2, and 3 d. those in Groups 1, 2, 3, and 4 Answer: a Page: 255-256 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 10-1 shows age differences in response to the question, “Do you feel that you have reached adulthood?” As shown in the figure, in the 12- to 17-year-old age group, just under 40% of the respondents reported that they did not feel that they had reached adulthood. In each of other age groups, the percentage was below 10%. 10.13. In contemporary U.S. society, the term “emerging adulthood” would be used most accurately when describing individuals in which of the following age groups? a. ages 14-18 b. ages 16-18 c. ages 16-22 d. ages 18-24 Answer: d Page: 256 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The period of emerging adulthood is discussed as the period between the end of high school, which usually is at about age 18, until the adoption of adult roles and responsibilities, which is usually several years later. The definition of this term suggests the age range of 18-25. Both of these statements imply that choice d above is the best answer. 10.14. To conclude that the period of emerging adulthood is “age-segregated” means that: a. this developmental period begins and ends at the same age for all people in a society b. this developmental period is thought by younger and older people to be undesirable and difficult c. emerging adults hold more ageist prejudices than do younger or older people d. emerging adults interact mostly with members of their own age group Answer: d Page: 256 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, the idea that in the United States, adolescents and emerging adults are largely agesegregated means that they interact mostly with other people of their same age and much less with younger children or adults. 10.15. If Jason were looking for terms to describe the typical qualities of adolescents and emerging adults in the United States today, he would be correct in using all of the following EXCEPT: a. age-segregated b. economically dependent c. nonconforming d. vulnerable-to-crisis Answer: c Page: 256-257 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: In the text, adolescence is characterized as a time when individuals interact mostly with people of their own age (age-segregated), as a time of prolonged economic dependence, and as a time when adolescents are deeply affected by the events and crises of the time in which they live (vulnerable-to-crisis). 10.16. In comparison to adults in their later-20s, emerging adults in their early 20s generally are _______ agesegregated, ________ economically dependent, and _______ affected by world crises and social issues. a. more; more; more b. less; more; less c. less; more; more d. more; more; less Answer: a Page: 257 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In the text, adolescence is characterized as a time when individuals interact mostly with people of their own age (age-segregated), as a time of prolonged economic dependence, and as a time when adolescents are deeply affected by the events and crises of the time in which they live (vulnerable-to-crisis). 10.17. Erikson's view of the period of adolescence is best described as a time of a. storm and stress b. exploration and experimentation with roles before taking on adult responsibilities c. prolonged dependence on parents, accompanied by frustration and restlessness d. great stability and constancy Answer: b Page: 257 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Erikson takes a positive view of adolescence, seeing it as a time when individuals are allowed to explore and experiment with various roles before taking on the responsibilities of the adult world. 10.18. Which of the following typically is NOT a characteristic associated with the period of emerging adulthood? a. instability in their personal life b. “other”-focused perspective, which helps them avoid thinking about themselves c. feelings of being “in-between” adolescence and adulthood d. high hopes and expectations about the future Answer: b Page: 257 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 10-1 lists the characteristics of emerging adulthood: identity exploration, instability, self-focused perspective, feelings of “in-between,” and being in an “age of possibilities,” which reflects high hopes and expectations and optimism about the future. Physical Development and Adaptation 10.19. Which of the following is NOT a secondary sex characteristic? a. body hair b. increased fat and muscle c. maturation of genitalia d. production of sperm Answer: d Page: 258 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Easy 10.20. Which of the following is NOT one of the major sex hormones? a. progesterone b. testosterone c. estrogen d. acetylcholine Answer: d Page: 259 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Testosterone is a male sex hormone; progesterone and estrogen are female sex hormones. 10.21. According to the text, hormones are secreted into the bloodstream by: a. both frontal lobes of the brain b. capillaries in the circulatory system c. endocrine glands d. the liver Answer: c Page: 259 Factual Easy 10.22. According to the text, the greatly expanded production of growth hormones occurs at about age ____ for U.S. girls and about age ____ for U.S. boys. a. 12; 14 b. 13; 13 c. 10; 9 d. 10; 12 Answer: d Page: 258 Factual Moderate 10.23. Mark, who is 14 years old, notices that recently he has become much clumsier. One reason the text suggests for this clumsiness is that the adolescent growth spurt is often accompanied by: a. asymmetrical growth in legs, feet, arms, and hands b. excess body fat is being deposited in the breasts, which will later disappear c. a short-term reduction in the size of the motor cortex in the brain d. the overproduction of red blood cells that provide excess energy in the muscles Answer: a Page: 258 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although the adolescent growth spurt is accompanied by the depositing of fat in the breasts and the production of red blood cells in boys, these are not related to clumsiness. The brain does not shrink in size during adolescence. But growth in body parts is often asymmetrical, giving rise to clumsiness. It is not uncommon for adolescents to notice that one hand is temporarily larger than the other, or that one leg is longer.

size and strength that occur during adolescence? a. pubescent jump b. massa intermedia c. growth spurt d. secondary growth Answer: c Page: 258 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The text defines the adolescent growth spurt as a period of rapid growth in physical size and strength, accompanied by changes in body proportions, that occurs with the entrance into puberty. 10.25. Sheila (a girl) and Brian (a boy) are fraternal twins and are 8 years old. If their development is typical, their parents should expect that they will experience the adolescent growth spurt in which of the following patterns? a. Sheila and Brian will both experience the growth spurt at about the same time. b. Sheila will experience the growth spurt about 2 years before Brian does. c. Sheila will experience the growth spurt about 1 year after Brian does. d. Sheila will experience the growth spurt about 2 years after Brian does. Answer: b Page: 258 Applied Moderate Rationale: Figure 10-2 shows growth rates for boys and girls during puberty, including the point of most rapid growth for boys and girls. As the graph indicates, this occurs at around age 12 for girls and at around age 14 for boys. 10.26. Maria (a girl) and Jose (a boy) are fraternal twins and are 10 years old. If their development is typical, Maria should experience the adolescent growth spurt in about ___ more years, and Jose should experience his adolescent growth spurt in about ____ more years. a. 2; 4 b. 2; 2 c. 1; 3 d. 3; 4 Answer: a Page: 258 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 10-2 shows growth rates for boys and girls during puberty, including the point of most rapid growth for boys and girls. As the graph indicates, this occurs at around age 12 for girls and at around age 14 for boys. Maria will be 12 in 2 more years and Jose will be 14 in 4 more years. 10.27. Typically, girls experience the adolescent growth spurt about: a. 1 year before boys b. 2 years before boys c. the same time as boys d. 2 years after boys Answer: b Page: 258 Factual Easy

10.28. Assume that Barbara (a girl) and Brandon (a boy) are typical children growing up in the United States today. You should expect that they will experience the most rapid growth in their height at which of the following ages? a. Barbara at age 10 and Brandon at age 12 b. Barbara at age 12 and Brandon at age 14 c. Barbara at age 14 and Brandon at age 16 d. Barbara and Brandon both at age 14 Answer: b Page: 258 Applied Moderate Rationale: The peak of the height spurt for U. S. children today occurs on average at age 12 for girls and at age 14 for boys. 10.29. The text uses which of the following terms to refer to the attainment of sexual maturity in both males and females? a. puberty b. menarche c. the growth spurt d. the climacteric Answer: a Page: 258 Factual Easy 10.30. Which of the following is typically the first indication that girls have entered puberty? a. the peak of the growth spurt b. the development of breast buds c. ovulation d. menarche Answer: b Page: 258 Factual Moderate 10.31. Which of the following are most closely involved in regulating the balance in the production of hormones? a. the endocrine glands and the pituitary gland b. the endocrine glands and the hypothalamus c. the pituitary gland and the occipital cortex of the brain d. the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus Answer: d Page: 259 Factual Moderate 10.32. In comparison to hormones typically found in men, which of the following are hormones that are found in greater quantities in women? a. estrogen and progesterone b. estrogen and testosterone c. testosterone and progesterone d. androgen and progesterone Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 258-259 Factual Easy 10.33. As compared to females, males’ bodies typically produce more: a. estrogen b. progesterone c. secondary trophic hormones d. androgenic hormones Answer: d Page: 259 Factual Moderate 10.34. Each hormone influences a certain set of targets. For example, estrogen causes: a. the uterus and the breasts to grow b. the penis to grow c. the shoulders to broaden d. hair to grow in the genital area and on the face Answer: a Page: 259 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During adolescence, estrogen causes the uterus and breasts to grow and the hips to broaden. 10.35. The primary function of the sex glands is to: a. control sexual excitement in both males and females b. produce sperm or eggs and to secrete androgens or estrogens c. control the development of sexual characteristics in both males and females d. secrete a fluid that changes the chemical balance in the uterus during intercourse Answer: b Page: 259 Factual Easy 10.36. Which of the following terms describes the onset of menstrual cycles in females? a. ovariogenesis b. ovulation c. female rite of passage d. menarche Answer: d Page: 259 Factual Moderate 10.37. Which of the following terms is used to refer to the time of onset of the first menstrual period? a. classical menorrhea b. menarche c. amenorrhea d. secular menorrhea Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 259 Factual Easy 10.38. In males, which of the following is typically the first sign that a boy has entered puberty? a. voice change b. appearance of pubic hair c. growth in the size of the testes and scrotum d. growth in the size of the penis Answer: c Page: 258, 260 Factual Moderate 10.39. According to the text, the first indication of puberty for males is which of the following? a. growth of pubic hair b. accelerating growth in the testes and scrotum c. accelerating growth of the penis d. production of semen with viable sperm Answer: b Page: 258, 260 Factual Moderate 10.40. The historical trend toward earlier sexual maturation of adolescents is referred to as: a. monarchical regression b. pubertal regression c. the secular trend d. classical menarche Answer: c Page: 261 Factual Moderate 10.41. Suppose that Megan is researching her family tree and comes across her great-great-great grandmother’s diary. She notes that the diary for the year 1840 describes that age at which her ancestor reached menarche. If her grandmother was typical, the diary would note that this ancestor would have been how old? a. 10 years old b. 12 years old c. 14 years old d. 16 years old Answer: d Page: 261 Applied Moderate Rationale: In earlier times, puberty occurred later than it does now; In the 1840s, for example, the average age at menarche was 16½ for girls. 10.42. Which of the following girls would be expected to have her first menstrual period at the youngest age? a. a girl raised in the Czech Republic b. a girl raised in the United States c. a girl raised in the Kikuyu tribe in Africa Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. a girl raised in the Bindi tribe in New Guinea Answer: b Page: 261 Applied Moderate Rationale: The book notes that in some parts of the world, menarche occurs considerably later than it does in the United States. For example, the average girl in the Czech Republic has her first period at age 14; among the Kikuyu of Kenya, the average age is 16; and for the Bindi of New Guinea, it is 18. In the U.S. the average age at menarche is currently 12½. 10.43. A menstrual cycle in which a mature egg has NOT been produced is described by the term: a. sebaceous b. anovulatory c. marginal d. counterfactual Answer: b Page; 261 Factual Easy 10.44. In the United States today, at what age does the typical white girl have her first menstrual period? a. 9½ years b. 10½ years c. 11½ years d. 12½ years Answer: d Page: 261, 262 Factual Moderate 10.45. In the United States today, and in comparison to the typical white girl, the typical girl of African American descent reaches menarche about? a. 3-6 months earlier b. 3-6 months later c. 2 years earlier d. 2 years later Answer: a Page: 262 Factual Moderate 10.46. If Lucy is an African American girl and Lorraine is a white American girl, you should expect that Lucy will experience menarche at about age ____ and Lorraine will experience menarche at about age ____. a. 10; 12 b. 9; 13 c. 12; 11 d. 12; 12½ Answer: d Page: 262 Applied Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The average age of menarche in the U. S. today is 12 ½ for white girls. African American and Hispanic girls reach menarche 3 to 6 months earlier, on average. 10.47. Linda just started menstruating 2 months ago. Her menstrual cycles are most likely: a. regular and ovulatory b. regular and anovulatory c. irregular and ovulatory d. irregular and anovulatory Answer: d Page: 261 Applied Moderate Rationale: Early menstrual cycles tend to vary from one month to the next and in many cases, a mature ovum is not produced. In other words, the early cycles are irregular and anovulatory. 10.48. According to the test, about what percent of teenage girls experience menstrual "cramping" with their menstruation? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 98% Answer: c Page: 262 Factual Moderate 10.49. Mary is a typical teenage girl. When asked what changes she would like to make in her body, what is she most likely to say? a. "I would make myself skinnier." b. "I would make my shoulders narrower." c. "I would make my ears lie back." d. "I would make myself 3 inches taller." Answer: a Page: 262 Applied Moderate Rationale: Adolescent girls often focus on weight largely because of their concern with social acceptance; many normal weight and even lean adolescent girls consider themselves overweight. 10.50. Nick is a typical teenage boy. When asked what changes he would like to make in his body, he is most likely to comment that he would like to: a. be thinner b. be taller and more muscular c. have better looking hair and a clearer complexion d. have a more attractive nose and “gorgeous” eyes Answer: b Page: 262 Applied Moderate Rationale: For boys, the primary concern is physical size and strength, and in particular their height and musculature are most important.

10.51. Generalizing from research reported in the text, with respect to their physical appearance, most adolescent females: a. have specific changes they would like to make b. would make no changes c. are vague or imprecise about the changes they would make d. would change everything about their appearance Answer: a Page: 262 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Almost half of all adolescents voice concerns about pimples and blackheads. Most also wish for one or more physical changes in themselves, although such self-consciousness diminishes in late adolescence. 10.52. The name of the eating disorder in which the primary symptom is that the person is obsessed by thoughts of an unattainable image of “perfect” thinness is: a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. gordophobia Answer: b Page: 262 Factual Easy 10.53. The eating disorder that is characterized by cycles of overeating and purging is called: a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. emotional eating d. obesity Answer: a Page: 262 Factual Easy 10.54. According to research reported in the text, body-image satisfaction is lowest for: a. girls at age 13 and boys at age 15 b. girls at age 15 and boys at age 13 c. girls and boys at age 13 d. girls and boys at age 15 Answer: a Page: 262 Factual Moderate 10.55. Ill-timed maturation typically poses the most significant problems for adolescents in which of the following groups? a. early-maturing males b. early-maturing females c. late-maturing males d. late-maturing females Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 262 Factual Easy 10.56. All of the following are true of early-maturing girls EXCEPT: a. they go out on dates more frequently than late-maturing girls b. they are more popular with older boys than late-maturing girls c. they feel more attractive than late-maturing girls do d. they are more intelligent than late-maturing girls Answer: d Page: 263 Factual Easy 10.57. Jack has low social status among his peers and is perceived as less competent than his peers by his teachers and baseball coach. If Jack’s social status results from the timing of his physical maturation, research would suggest that which of the following statements is most likely to be correct? a. None of the other answers are correct since research has demonstrated that the timing of maturation is unrelated to social status. b. Jack is most likely an early maturer. c. Jack is most likely an average maturer. d. Jack is most likely a late maturer. Answer: d Page: 263 Applied Difficult Rationale: Because the late-maturing boy is smaller and less muscular than his male peers, he is at a disadvantage in most sports, as well as in many social situations. Other children and adults tend to treat a late-maturing boy as though he were a younger child, and the late maturer has a lower social status among his peers and often is perceived as less competent by adults. 10.58. In comparison to late-maturing boys, early maturing boys: a. are more likely to be the leaders of their peer groups b. have a more difficult adjustment c. are more likely to be overly concerned with matters related to social acceptance d. tend to have higher IQs Answer: a Page: 263 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that early maturing boys tend to gain social and athletic advantages among their peers. 10.59. Natalie matured at the same time as most of her male peers and shares their interests and dating activities. She is most likely a(n): a. early maturer b. average maturer c. late maturer d. prepubescent mature Answer: c Page: 263 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Girls mature, on average, about 2 years earlier than boys. Late maturation for girls can be advantageous because they mature at about the same time as most of their peers who are boys and are therefore in a better position to share boys’ interests and privileges. 10.60. According to the text, early maturing girls: a. have fewer opportunities to discuss physical and emotional changes with peers b. have fewer dates because of being more mature than their male peers c. tend to feel unattractive d. are at a disadvantage in most aspects of development Answer: a Page: 263 Factual Moderate Gender Identity and Sexual Practices 10.61. Which of the following young women would have had the hardest time purchasing birth control pills? a. Linda, who was in college during the decade of the 1950s b. Maria, who was in college during the decade of the 1970s c. Marta, who was in college during the decade of the 1990s d. Lacy, who was in college in 2009 Answer: a Page: 264 Applied Easy Rationale: Before the mid-1960s, most young people felt that premarital sex was immoral and girls were under pressure to remain chaste until marriage. Because of these societal pressures, one would expect that Linda would have had the most difficult time purchasing birth control pills. 10.62. If you were to explain how sexual attitudes and practices have changed in the United States during the past century, you might want to note the point at which, for the first time, the majority of adolescents no longer believed that premarital sex was neither right nor wrong but rather should be judged based on the couple’s relationship. You should associate this change in cultural attitudes with which of the following dates? a. 1947 b. 1959 c. 1973 d. 1996 Answer: c Page: 264 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The 1970s are known as the time during which a sexual revolution occurred. In a 1973 study of adolescent attitudes, the majority of adolescents, for the first time, did not think of premarital sex as inherently right or wrong but instead judged it on the basis of the relationship between the participants. 10.63. Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the sexual double standard? a. Married people should have sex relations, but unmarried people should not. b. Sexual intercourse is acceptable, but oral and anal sexual practices are perverse. c. Premarital sexual relations are acceptable for heterosexual couples, but not for gay or lesbian couples. d. Premarital sexual relations are acceptable for men, but not for women. Answer: d Page: 264 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The sexual double standard is defined as the view that sexual activity is more permissible for boys than for girls. 10.64. What is the term the text used to refer to sexual attraction toward members of one’s own sex? a. sexual double standard b. same-sex orientation c. heterosexuality d. intimate similitude Answer: b Page: 264 Factual Easy 10.65. What is the term the text used to refer to the view that sexual activity is more permissible for boys than for girls? a. sexual double standard b. sexual orientation c. sexual revolution d. gender script Answer: a Page: 264 Factual Easy 10.66. Suppose that a researcher conducted a survey about sexual attitudes in 1970 that asked if people approved of premarital sex and of same-sex orientation. If the results of this survey reflected people’s attitudes at that time, you should expect that about ____ percent of the respondents would approve of premarital sex and ____ percent would approve of same-sex orientation as an acceptable lifestyle. a. 70%; 50% b. 50%; 70% c. 80%; 20% d. 20%; 80% Answer: a Page: 264 Applied Moderate Rationale: In a study of adolescent sexual attitudes that was conducted in 1973, almost 70% agreed that two people should not have to marry to have sex or live together. About 50% approved of same-sex orientation, which is defined by sexual attraction toward members of one’s own sex. 10.67. Which of the following dates would represent the year in which the sexual revolution in the United States was at its highest point? a. 1957 b. 1963 c. 1978 d. 1995 Answer: c Page: 264 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The text notes that by the late 1970s the sexual revolution was in full swing. 10.68. Suppose you conduct a longitudinal study by interviewing “typical” 18-year-olds at various points in time about their attitudes about sexuality. Which of the following person would be most likely to hold the most liberal attitudes? a. Tom, who was 18 years old in 1949 b. Bob, who was 18 years old in 1959 c. Frank, who was 18 years old in 1979 d. Mark, who was 18 years old in 1989 Answer: c Page: 264 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that during the late 1970s the sexual revolution was in full swing. In addition, a study of adolescent sexual attitudes conducted in 1973 demonstrated that attitudes regarding sex had become considerably more liberal than in earlier time periods. In the 1980s, sexual attitudes became more conservative. 10.69. If she were a typical teenage girl growing up in the early 1960s, Sarah would most likely consider premarital sex between a man and a women to be: a. moral if both parties freely chose to engage in it b. immoral unless they were going to get married c. moral if both parties cared about each other d. immoral under any circumstances Answer: d Page: 264 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text notes that before the mid-1960s, most young people felt that premarital sex was immoral. 10.70. Suppose you were working on a research project in which you read diaries written in 1944 by 100 16-yearold girls. If the diaries were truthful, you would expect that about ___ of the 100 girls would have reported having sexual intercourse by age 16. a. 7% b. 22% c. 38% d. 51% Answer: a Page: 264 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, the proportion of 16-year-old girls who reported losing their virginity was 7% in the 1940s. 10.71. Suppose you were working on a research project in which you read diaries written in 1982 by 100 16-yearold girls. If the diaries were truthful, you would expect that about ___ of the 100 girls would have reported having sexual intercourse by age 16. a. 7% b. 22% c. 44% d. 66% Answer: c Page: 264 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, the proportion of 16-year-old girls who reported losing their virginity was 44% in the 1982. 10.72. How did sexual attitudes change in the United States during the mid- to late1980s? a. They became much more liberal with respect to the sexual double standard. b. They become much more liberal with respect to same-sex orientation. c. They became more conservative regarding sexual behavior in general. d. They did not change much at all from the attitudes held during the 1970s. Answer: c Page: 265 Factual Moderate 10.73. Suppose you compared the results of two surveys on sexual attitudes, one conducted in the early 1990s and one conducted in the late 2000s. If you looked at the percentage of high school students who reported being sexually active, you would expect to find that high school students were: a. much more sexually active in the early 1990s than in the late 2000s b. much more sexually active in the late 2000s than in the early1990s c. slightly more sexually active in the late 2000s than in the early 1990s d sexually active in approximately the same numbers in the early 1990s and the late 2000s Answer: d Page: 265 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to research cited in the text, approximately the same percentage of high school students reported being sexually active in 1991 (37.5%) as in 2007 (35.0%). 10.74. According to a study reported in the text, in 2007 about ____ of 9th graders in the United States reported that they had engaged in sexual intercourse and about ____ of 12th graders reported they had engaged in sexual intercourse. a. one-third; two-thirds b. 25%; 50% c. one-half; three-quarters d. one-half; 90% Answer: a Page: 265 Factual Moderate 10.75. Suppose you interview a group of people who were 9th graders in 2007. If you believe they represent a “typical” population of people growing up in the United States at this time, you would expect that about ____ of these students would have had sexual intercourse. a. 5% b. 15% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: c Page: 265 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. While the percentage differs by racial/ethnic identity, the average percentage for 9 th graders is around 33%. The text also notes that in 2007, the proportion of 9th graders who had engaged in sexual intercourse was about one-third. 10.76. Suppose you interview a group of people who were 12th graders in 2007. If you believe they represent a “typical” population of people growing up in the United States at this time, you would expect that about ____ of these students would have had sexual intercourse. a. 15% b. 33% c. 50% d. 67% Answer: d Page: 265 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that in 2007, about two-thirds of 12th graders had engaged in sexual intercourse. This is also reflected in Figure 10-3. 10.77. Suppose you conduct a study of high school students, asking them if they have “ever had sexual intercourse.” If your results are typical, you should expect students who identify themselves as belonging to which of the following racial/ethnic groups to report the LOWEST level of sexual experience? a. member of groups who identify themselves as “Other” b. members of groups who identify themselves as “White” c. members of groups who identify themselves as “Black” d. members of groups who identify themselves as “Hispanic” Answer: a Page: 265 Applied Moderate Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. The percentage differs by racial/ethnic identity with the lines representing the “other” category of girls and boys being lowest overall. 10.78. Suppose you conduct a study of high school students, asking them if they have “ever had sexual intercourse.” If your results are typical, you should expect students who identify themselves as belonging to which of the following racial/ethnic groups to report the HIGHEST level of sexual experience? a. member of groups who identify themselves as “Other” b. members of groups who identify themselves as “White” c. members of groups who identify themselves as “Black” d. members of groups who identify themselves as “Hispanic” Answer: c Page: 265 Applied Moderate Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. The percentage differs by racial/ethnic identity with the lines representing the “Black girls” and “Black boys” categories being highest overall. 10.79. Generalizing from data presented in the text, which of the following 12th graders would be LEAST likely to report having had sexual intercourse? a. James, an African American boy b. Cynthia, an African American girl Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. Roberto, a Hispanic boyt d. Lee, a boy who belongs to an “Other” racial/ethnic category Answer: d Page: 265 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. Boys and girls in the “Other” category report the lowest rates of sexual intercourse. 10.80. Generalizing from data presented in the text, which of the following 10th graders would be MOST likely to report having had sexual intercourse? a. James, an African American boy b. Maria, a Hispanic girl c. Luke, a White boy d. Lee, a boy who belongs to an “Other” racial/ethnic category Answer: a Page: 265 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. The percentage differs by racial/ethnic identity with the line representing the “Black boys” category being highest overall. 10.81. Generalizing from data presented in the text, which of the following 12th graders would be MOST likely to report having had sexual intercourse? a. James, an African American boy b. Cynthia, an African American girl c. Roberto, a Hispanic boy d. Lee, a boy who belongs to an “Other” racial/ethnic category Answer: a Page: 265 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 10-3 shows the percentage of students, by grade level and racial/ethnic identity, who have ever had sexual intercourse. The percentage differs by racial/ethnic identity with the line representing the “Black boys” category being highest overall. 10.82. Suppose you conduct a survey of 9th and 12th grade boys and girls. If the students in your survey respond in the same way as did students in 2007, you would expect that, in comparison to girls, boys in 9th grade reported ______ levels of sexual activity and boys in 12th grade reported _____ levels of sexual activity. a. higher; about the same b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. about the same; higher Answer: a Page: 265 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, in 2007, 27% of female and 38% of male 9th graders reported being sexually active. However, this gender difference had disappeared by 12th grade, with 66% of females and 63% of males reporting sexual activity.

10.83. Dr. Fanzen conducts a study of sexually experienced adolescents. If his results are typical, he should expect that sexually experienced boys report _____ self-esteem than boys who are not experienced, and sexually experienced girls report _____ self-esteem than girls who are not experienced. a. lower; lower b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. higher; lower Answer: d Page: 265 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, sexually experienced male adolescents tend to have relatively high self-esteem, while sexually experienced females tend to have lower self-esteem. 10.84. According to the text, adolescent boys and girls from two-parent families have ____________ sexual experience, compared to children from single-parent homes. a. less and later b. less but earlier c. more and earlier d. more but later Answer: a Page: 265 Factual Moderate Rationale: According to research cited in the text, adolescent boys and girls from two-parent families have less and later sexual experience than those from single-parent families. 10.85. According to the text, about what percent of sexually active teenagers in the United States today have a sexually transmitted disease? a. 5% b. 20% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: b Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.86. Mark is a typical high school student who is sexually active. If he and nine of his best high school friends are tested for sexually transmitted diseases, he should assume of that of these 10 young men, ___ will have positive test results. a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 7 Answer: b Page: 266 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text reports a statistic that about 20% of sexually active adolescents have an STD. If Mark and his friends are typical, then 2 of the 10 of them would test positive.

10.87. If you were to conduct a study of a “typical” high school in the United States today, you should expect that about _____ of the students would have been tested for AIDS. a. 1% b. 5% c. 13% d. 26% Answer: c Page: 266 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text reports that 12.9% of U.S. high school students were tested for AIDS in 2007. 10.88. About what percent of teenage girls in the U. S. become pregnant? a. 1% b. 8% c. 16% d. 25% Answer: b Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.89. Which of the following 16-year-old girls is most likely to have had a baby? a. Alicia, who is African American b. Martha, who is Asian American c. Linda, who is a Native American d. Barbara, who is white Answer: a Page: 266 Applied Easy Rationale: Figure 10-4 shows live birth rates for mothers ages 15 to 17, by race and Hispanic origin, for 1991, 2005, and 2006. According to this figure, there were more births to black American mothers than to the other groups listed as response options to this question in the years 1991 and 2005. In 2006, there was roughly the same number of births to black American as to American Indian/Alaskan Native mothers. Thus, the best answer is that the African American mother is most likely to have had a baby overall. 10.90. Suppose you study a group of 100 pregnant teenagers in the U. S. today. If this group is typical, you would expect about ___ to have their baby, about ___ to have an abortion, and about ___ to have a miscarriage. a. 25%; 50%, 25% b. 50%; 45%; 5% c. 75%; 20%; 5% d. 50%; 25%; 25% Answer: d Page: 266 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, about one-half of pregnant teens give birth; and about one-quarter of those pregnancies are believed to be lost through miscarriage and another quarter through abortion. 10.91. In comparison to sexual activity patterns and pregnancy rates in Europe, teenagers in the United States are _______ likely to be sexually active and _______ likely to become pregnant: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. more; less b. equally; more c. less; less d. more; equally Answer: b Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.92. Suppose you conduct a survey of 100 teenage girls, asking them whether or not they used contraception at their first experience of sexual intercourse. If this group was typical, you should expect that about ____ of these girls report that they DID use contraception. a. 90% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% Answer: d Page: 266 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to research cited in the text, about 75% of adolescent girls and 82% of adolescent boys do NOT use contraception at first intercourse. 10.93. Suppose you conduct a survey of 100 teenage boys, asking them whether or not they used contraception at their first experience of sexual intercourse. If this group was typical, you should expect that about ____ of these boys report that they DID use contraception. a. 92% b. 77% c. 43% d. 18% Answer: d Page: 266 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to research cited in the text, about 82% of adolescent boys do not use contraception at first intercourse. This leaves about 18% of adolescent boys who do use contraception at first intercourse. 10.94. According to research cited in the text, about what percent of U. S. adolescents girls do NOT use contraception at first intercourse? a. 15% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% Answer: d Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.95. According to research cited in the text, about what percent of U. S. adolescents boys do NOT use contraception at first intercourse? a. 15%

b. 33% c. 55% d. 82% Answer: d Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.96. According to the text, more U.S. adolescent girls become pregnant than adolescent girls from Western European countries because U.S. adolescent girls: a. are more sexually active b. will experience more social stigma for an illegitimate birth c. are less likely to use contraception d. experience too much affection at home Answer: c Page: 266 Factual Moderate 10.97. According to research presented in the text, about ____ of adolescent girls report that their first experience of sexual intercourse was the result of either rape or was “unwanted”? a. 1% b. 12% c. 21% d. 31% Answer: d Page: 266-267 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that 7% of adolescent girls report that their first experience with sexual intercourse was the result of rape and that another 24% report their first experience as voluntary but “unwanted.” 10.98. In comparison to teenage pregnancy rates in the U. S. in 1991, rates in 2005 were: a. slightly higher b. slightly lower c. substantially higher d. substantially lower Answer: d Page: 266-267 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The rate of teen pregnancy and teen childbirth in the United States fell sharply during the 1990s and up until 2006, when it rose slightly for the first time in 15 years. 10.99. According to the text, the teenage pregnancy rate in Japan and Korea is about ____, whereas the teenage pregnancy rate in sub-Saharan Africa is about ____. a. 1%; 50% b. 5%; 25% c. 25%; 5% d. 33%; 33% Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 267 Factual Easy 10.100. According to data cited in the text, in which of the following regions of the world is teen parenting LEAST common? a. U.S. b. Japan c. sub-Saharan Africa d. None of the other answers is correct because teen parenting is equally common throughout the world. Answer: b Page: 267 Factual Moderate 10.101. If teenagers marry because of an unintended pregnancy, they are _____ likely to drop out of high school and _____ likely to get a divorce, compared to pregnant teens who don’t marry or who marry after the birth of the child. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: a Page: 268 Factual Moderate Cognitive Changes in Adolescence 10.102. According to the text, prior to about 1995, most developmental researchers believed that brain development during adolescence was __________; today most researchers believe that brain development during this period of the lifespan is_________. a. complete; still underway b. still underway; complete c. fast; slow d. complex, simple Answer: a Page: 268 Factual Moderate 10.103. Advances in which of the following fields has been of primary importance in helping researchers understand that brain development during adolescence is much more dramatic than had previously been thought? a. human nutrition b. genetic counseling c. self-monitoring research d. magnetic resonance imaging Answer: d Page: 268 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Recent studies that utilize advanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) technologies are providing Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

researchers a much clearer look at how brain cells develop. 10.104. According to the text, the development of fMRI techniques has allowed developmental researchers to investigate brain development more effectively because this technology allows them to perform which of the following types of research? a. cross-sectional research b. longitudinal research c. experimental research d. correlational research Answer: b Page: 268 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Because MRIs employ no radioactive tracers or X-rays that can be potentially harmful—a concern especially for children who are still growing— they can be used in longitudinal studies, which involve multiple scans of individuals taken across time. 10.105. By the time a person reaches the age of 6, that person’s brain has reached _____ of its full adult size. a. less than 50% b. about 67% c. about 80% d. 95% or more Answer: d Page: 269 Factual Moderate 10.106. With respect to gray matter in the brain, the period of adolescence is best characterized by the word(s): a. growth in number of cells b. pruning c. enlargement of cells d. increase in complexity of cell connections Answer: b Page: 269 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The period of adolescence is a period in which considerable pruning away of neural tissue occurs. This is particularly the case with gray matter, the volume of which peaks in girls at age 9 ½ and in boys at age 10 ½ . 10.107. The volume of gray matter in the brain peaks for girls at about age _____ and for boys at about age _____. a. 2; 2½ b. 9½; 10½ c. 16; 18 d. 40; 44 Answer: b Page: 269 Factual Difficult 10.108. During adolescence, the volume of gray matter in the brain _________ and the volume of white matter _________. a. decreases; decreases Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. increases; increases c. increases; decreases d. decreases; increases Answer: d Page: 269-270 Factual Difficult 10.109. Dr. Jones is studying brain changes during adolescence. In looking at MRIs of people age 12 and people age 18, he should expect that the 12-year-olds will have ______ gray matter and _______ white matter in their brains, compared to the 18-year-olds. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: d Page: 269-270 Applied Difficult Rationale: MRI studies show that the volume of gray matter increases in childhood, peaking in girls at about age 9½ and in boys at about age 10½. After these peaks, the volume of gray matter decreases up to adulthood, leveling off at about age 25. 10.110. The white matter in the brain in composed mostly of: a. cell bodies b. connective tissue including tendons and cartilage c. bone d. nerve cells surrounded by myelin Answer: d Page: 270 Factual Moderate 10.111. If Dr. Matthews were examining brain scan images of healthy people of various ages, she should expect to see the largest volume of white matter in the scans of people who were approximately age: a. 4 b. 14 c. 40 d. 60 Answer: c Page: 270 Applied Difficult Rationale: Research has found that white matter increases in adolescence, perhaps up until the age of 40. 10.112. The two words that best describe how the brain changes during adolescence are: a. pruning and myelination b. birth and death c. expansion and growth d. little or none Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 270 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: White matter, which is composed of the fatty myelin that surrounds and insulates nerve cells, increases in adolescence. After the volume of gray matter peaks at around age 10, its volume decreases up to adulthood, leveling off at about age 25, indicating that adolescence is a period in which serious pruning away of neural tissue occurs. 10.113. The developmental changes that occur in the brain during adolescence are first seen in the parts of the brain that control __________ and later are seen in the brain regions that control _________. a. vision; judgment b. coordination; sensation c. coordination; vision d. judgment; coordination Answer: a Page: 270 Factual Moderate 10.114. Brain development during adolescence is LEAST likely to affect processes involved in which of the following? a. judgment b. social cognition c. social behavior d. coordination of motor responses Answer: d Page: 270 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Because complex mental functions that require coordinated thought and judgment are among the last to mature, a person’s ability to exercise mature problem solving, to appraise risk, and to make difficult decisions that involve multiple perspectives is most likely not fully elaborated until perhaps as late as early adulthood. Brain development during adolescence may also underlie changes in social cognition and social behavior typically associated with this developmental period. For example, specific regions of the brain that are involved in selfawareness and self-concept undergo considerable remodeling during the teenage years. 10.115. Generalizing from the text, you should expect that neuroscientists would be most likely to argue that the volatile emotions that sometimes characterize adolescent behavior can be traced to the effect of hormones on: a. the gonads b. the frontal cortex of the brain c. the amygdala d. the pituitary gland Answer: c Page: 270 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: When the amygdala is triggered by the adolescent hormonal rush, emotions become volatile. Activity in this region of the brain is associated with stimulus-seeking behavior, giving rise to the risky thrill-seeking tendencies that often characterize adolescent activities. 10.116. Changes in which part of the brain are most closely associated with the advancement in problem-solving abilities that accompanies the development from childhood into adolescence? a. prefrontal cortex b. thalamus Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. pituitary gland d. hypothalamus Answer: a Page: 270 Factual Easy 10.117. According to the text, thrill-seeking behavior that is characteristic of adolescence is most likely to be related to which of the following regions of the brain? a. the frontal cortex b. the left hemisphere of the brain c. the occipital cortex d. the amygdala Answer: c Page: 270 Factual Moderate 10.118. Suppose Dr. Markward conduct a study that examines the activity levels of various brain regions while participants are looking at pictures of faces and identifying the emotions being displayed. If your results replicate those reported in the text, you would expect to find that the __________ is most active in young adolescents and the __________ is most active in older adolescents and adults. a. frontal lobes; amygdala b. amygdala; frontal lobes c. hypothalamus; amygdala d. frontal lobes; hypothalamus Answer: b Page: 270 Applied Difficult Rationale: By examining the activity level of various regions of the brain using functional MRI techniques, researchers were able to determine that children and young adolescents relied more heavily on the amygdala while solving these problems; older adolescents and adults showed greater activity in the frontal lobes, where more formulated, problem-solving activity is centered. 10.119. In Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development that is reached during early adolescence is usually called the: a. concrete operational stage b. preoperational stage c. formal operational stage d. sensorimotor stage Answer: c Page: 270-271 Factual Easy 10.120. Allison is a 16-year-old who shows an increasing ability to plan and think ahead. She has sent for college information and has made financial plans to help pay for college. She is in which of the following of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development? a. concrete operational thought b. preoperational thought c. formal operational thought Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. sensorimotor thought Answer: c Page: 271 Applied Easy Rationale: For Piaget, formal operations is the final stage of cognitive development, which begins at about age 12 and is characterized by the ability to reason hypothetically and think about abstract concepts. 10.121. When 17-year-old Paul was discussing his future with his father, Paul said, "Let's just suppose for the sake of discussion that I don't attend college right away. What if I volunteered overseas instead?" Paul's ability to think in these terms is characteristic of: a. sensorimotor thought b. preoperational thought c. formal operational thought d. concrete operational thought Answer: c Page: 271 Applied Moderate Rationale: The formal operational stage involves the ability to consider what could be; to think abstractly and to formulate, test, and evaluate hypotheses. In this example, Paul considers an abstract, hypothetical possibility for his future. 10.122. Stan has become critical of his parents as he contrasts his ideal parents with the real parents he sees on a daily basis. His ability to understand contrary-to-fact situations is a characteristic that emerges during which of Piaget’s periods of cognitive development? a. preoperational thought b. concrete operational thought c. formal operational thought d. sensorimotor thought Answer: c Page: 271-272 Applied Easy Rationale: A key characteristic of formal operational thinking involves the manipulation not only of known, verifiable events but also of the things that are contrary to fact. 10.123. Which of the following statements provides the clearest example of second-order thinking? a. I want a cookie so I will buy one. b. I think that I am feeling a little too sorry for myself so I should cheer up. c. 2 + 2 = 4 d. A rat and a mouse are similar because they are both rodents. Answer: b Page: 271-272 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Second-order thinking involves thinking about one’s thoughts, looking for links between relationships, and maneuvering between reality and possibility. 10.124. Dr. Larsen argues that the changes in thought that occur as children become adolescents are gradual and subtle. Dr. Larsen’s views are ___________ with Piaget’s view of cognitive development and are _____________ with the information-processing view. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. inconsistent; inconsistent b. consistent; consistent c. consistent; inconsistent d. inconsistent; consistent Answer: d Page: 272 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In contrast to Piaget’s view of defined stages in cognitive development, theorists who emphasize information-processing skills see the changes associated with the transition from childhood to adolescent thinking as much more gradual, with shifts back and forth between formal operational thought and earlier cognitive modes. 10.125. According to the text, the best way to think about the relationship between most adolescents and their parents is to emphasize the term: a. “all-out war” b. negotiation c. collaboration d. two-way resentment Answer: b Page: 272 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Instead of talking about rebellion and the painful separation or alienation of teenagers from their families, many researchers prefer to describe adolescence as a time in which parents and teenagers negotiate new relationships with one another, much as they do with the negotiation of shared goals in the process of coregulation. 10.126. According to David Elkind, adolescents' assumption that others are focusing a great deal of critical attention on them is called the: a. adolescent myth b. foundling fantasy c. personal fable d. imaginary audience Answer: d Page: 274 Factual Moderate 10.127. Vicki believes that she is constantly being watched and judged by her friends. According to the view advanced by David Elkind, Vicki is experiencing the: a. imaginary audience b. personal fable c. ascribed identity d. foundling fantasy Answer: a Page: 274 Applied Difficult Rationale: Imaginary audience refers to adolescents’ assumption that others are focusing a great deal of critical attention on them. 10.128. On Nicole's first day of junior high school, she felt that all the students were scrutinizing every move she made. According to the view advanced by David Elkind, Nicole has created a(n) Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. personal fable b. foundling fantasy c. adolescent myth d. imaginary audience Answer: d Page: 274 Applied Difficult Rationale: Imaginary audience refers to adolescents’ assumption that others are focusing a great deal of critical attention on them. 10.129. Melissa believes that she can drink and drive because she is invulnerable and immortal. According to the view of David Elkind, Melissa is experiencing a(n): a. imaginary audience b. foundling fantasy c. personal fable d. adolescent myth Answer: c Page: 274 Applied Moderate Rationale: Personal fable refers to adolescents’ belief that they are so special that they should be exempt from the laws of nature, that nothing bad can happen to them, and that they will live forever. 10.130. Adolescents' feeling that they are special and invulnerable and exempt from the laws that control the destinies of ordinary people is called the: a. adolescent myth b. foundling fantasy c. personal fable d. imaginary audience Answer: c Page: 274 Factual Moderate 10.131. Even though John has seen other people get into car accidents, he does not believe that such an accident will ever happen to himself. John’s perception of personal invulnerability is best considered to be an example of: a. shared negotiation b. a personal fable c. conventional moral reasoning d. the imaginary audience Answer: b Page: 274 Applied Moderate Rationale: Personal fable refers to adolescents’ belief that they are so special that they should be exempt from the laws of nature, that nothing bad can happen to them, and that they will live forever. 10.132. Both the imaginary audience and the personal fable emphasize that adolescence is a period of the lifespan in which individuals are overly concerned about themselves. The overarching term that best describes this “selfpreoccupation” is: a. self-regulation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. egocentrism c. adaptation d. assimilation Answer: b Page: 274 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The self-absorption that typifies adolescence is an example of what the text refers to as adolescent egocentrism. This egocentric view leads them to believe that others are fascinated by them and that others will be as approving or critical of them as they are themselves. Both of these are egocentric orientations, and they underlie the basic ideas expressed by David Elkind as the imaginary audience and the personal fable. 10.133. Joshua’s friends tease him because he always tries to conform his behavior to what he believes his friends are doing. In this sense, the stage of moral development that most likely characterizes his behavior would be: a. premoral b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional Answer: c Page: 275 Applied Moderate Rationale: The conventional level of moral development is based in large part on conformity to social expectations and stereotypes. 10.134. If Melinda’s parents wanted her to think about moral judgments at a level higher than she typically uses, their best strategy to encourage her moral development would be to: a. punish her when she made decisions based on her current level of moral reasoning, so that she would try harder b. reward her when she made decisions based on her current level of moral reasoning, so she would feel comfortable and be able to advance in her thinking c. suggest a solution that was at a slightly higher level of moral reasoning so she could think about this d. simply wait until she gets older, because no kind of coaching or reward can advance the pattern of moral development an individual goes through Answer: c Page: 275 Applied Difficult Rationale: Kohlberg and his colleagues set up experimental moral education classes for children and adolescents and demonstrated that moral reasoning could be taught. In the classes, Adolescents were presented with a problem and asked to give a solution. If the answer was argued at Stage 4 of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, the discussion leader suggested a Stage 5 rationale to see if the teenager thought it was a good alternative. The students almost always found that slightly more advanced reasoning was more appealing and, through repeated discussions, they sooner or later began to form judgments at higher stages. Current Issues: Diet and Exercise – Building a Healthy Lifestyle or an Eating Disorder 10.135. According to data gathered in the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, in 1976-1980 about ___ percent of U. S. teenagers were obese; in 2003-2006 this percentage was ___ percent. a. 5; 10 b. 10; 5 c. 25; 55 d. 5; 18 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 260 Factual Moderate 10.136. According to data gathered in the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, the rate of teenage obesity in the Unites States today is about __________ it was in the late 1970s. a. the same as b. double what c. triple what d. ten times what Answer: c Page: 260 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The 2003–2006 National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES), compiled by the United States National Center for Health Statistics, revealed that nearly 18% of all U.S. teens were obese: In 1976 to 1980 this percentage was only 5%. 10.137. Fearing womanhood, Dana stops eating, thereby halting her body's development. She is obsessed by thoughts of food and an unattainable image of "perfect" thinness. What is her disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. pica c. obsessive-compulsive eating disorder d. anorexia nervosa Answer: d Page: 260-261 Applied Easy Rationale: In anorexia nervosa, individuals silently starve themselves. In bulimia nervosa, on the other hand, individuals find themselves in a cycle of bingeing and purging. 10.138. Monica is terribly anxious about weighing too much, but has an uncontrollable need to eat, especially sweets. She consumes huge quantities of food in an hour, and then feels despondent and out of control. To compensate for overeating, she vomits. What is her disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. pica c. anorexia nervosa d. obsessive-compulsive eating disorder Answer: a Page: 261 Applied Easy Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by eating “binges” that then trigger “purges,” during which vomiting, laxatives, or sometimes extreme exercise regimens are used to eliminate the caloric intake of the just-eaten food. In anorexia nervosa, on the other hand, individuals silently starve themselves. Changing Perspectives: How Adolescents Around the World Spend Their Time 10.139. Which of the following correctly expresses a way in which adolescents in the United States differ from adolescents in most other parts of the world? a. U. S. adolescents have less leisure time. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. U. S. adolescents spend less time on school work. c. U. S. adolescents spend less time talking with their friends. d. U. S. adolescents spend more time helping their parents with household chores. Answer: b Page: 273 Factual Easy 10.140. In comparison to adolescents in the United States, adolescents in Korea and Japan spend _____ time on schoolwork and _____ time engaging in creative activities. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: c Page: 273 Factual Moderate 10.141. In comparison to adolescents in most other parts of the world, adolescents in the Unites States have ______ free time and they are ______ likely to have their parents regulate how they spend the free time they have. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: c Page: 273 Factual Moderate 10.142. If Jacob is a typical teenager growing up in the United States today, we would expect that he would spend the largest proportion of his free time in which of the following activities? a. schoolwork b. working c. watching TV or other media d. talking with his friends Answer: b Page: 273 Applied Difficult Rationale: The figure in Changing Perspectives: How Adolescents Around the World Spend Their Time, shows the amount of time teens in a variety of locales spend their time. U.S. teens spend, on average, 6-8 hours working, more time than was spent on any of the other activities listed.

True-False questions: Adolescent Development in a Cultural and Historical Context 10.143. The adolescent rite of passage usually occurs at the end of a 1- to 2-year apprenticeship that most adolescents undertake to ready themselves for the roles and responsibilities of full adulthood.

Answer: False Page: 255 Rationale: Usually the adolescent rite of passage occurs first, and it is followed by a 1- to 2-year apprenticeship that readies the adolescent to assume full adulthood. 10.144. As adolescents move through the period called “adolescence,” they usually become more likely to see themselves as adults. Answer: True Page: 256 10. 145. The period called “emerging adulthood” is most likely to be seen in cultures in which the transition between childhood and adulthood is short and relatively simple. Answer: False Page: 256 Rationale: Emerging adulthood is seen more often in complex cultures, where the period between childhood and adulthood is long and complex. 10.146. In the United States today, the period of adolescence is heavily age-segregated, meaning that nearly all children enter adolescence at age 12 or 13 and exit this period at age 22-24. Answer: False Page: 256 Rationale: Adolescence in the U. S. is age-segregated, but this means that adolescents spend most of their time with other adolescents. Physical Development and Adaptation 10.147. In both males and females, fat is deposited in the breast area during adolescence. Answer: True Page: 258 10.148. Only males produce testosterone. Answer: False Page: 258-259 Rationale: Male and female hormones are present in members of both sexes, although, beginning in adolescence, males produce more testosterone than females. 10.149. The hypothalamus and the amygdala are the two brain regions that are most involved in controlling the balance of hormones in the body. Answer: False Page: 259 Rationale: The two brain regions that are most involved in controlling the balance of hormones in the body are the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. 10.150. The term menarche is used to indicate the onset of a girl’s first menstrual period. Answer: True Page: 259 10.151. Because of better nutrition, the age at which girls reach menarche in the Unites States is older now than in previous decades. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 261 Rationale: The age at which U. S. girls reach menarche has been decreasing, which is called the secular trend. Most researchers believe that better nutrition is at least partly responsible for this trend toward earlier sexual maturation. 10.152. In boys, the first indication of puberty is a change in voice. Answer: False Page: 260 Rationale: The first indication of puberty in boys is usually accelerating growth of the testes and scrotum. The change in voice that sometimes accompanies male sexual maturation occurs relatively late in the developmental process. 10.153. A boy’s first ejaculation usually does not contains fertile sperm. Answer: True Page: 260 10.154. When asked about their developing bodies, adolescent girls most often express concerns about being too fat or too tall, whereas adolescent boys most often express concern about being too short or too weak. Answer: True Page: 262 10.155. Research suggests that adolescents’ satisfaction with their body image is at its lowest point at age 13 for boys and at age 15 for girls. Answer: False Page: 262 Rationale: The low point for satisfaction with body image is at age 13 for girls and at age 15 for boys. 10.156. Boys who mature early usually experience more adjustment problems than do boys who mature late. Answer: False Page: 263 Rationale: Although boys who mature very early may experience some disadvantages, in general they are wellserved by earlier maturation, since they are better at many sports and in social settings. Boys who mature late are usually at the greatest disadvantage as the result of their timing of maturation. Gender Identity and Sexual Practices 10.157. Attitudes about both premarital intercourse and same-sex orientation are more permissive today than they were in the 1950s. Answer: True Page: 264 10.158. The sexual double standard refers to the idea that men are allowed to enjoy sex but women should not. Answer: False Page: 264 Rationale: The term sexual double standard refers to the view that sexual activity is more permissible for males than females. 1.159. According to research cited in the text, in 2007 about one-third of 9th graders and two-thirds of 12th graders Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

reported that they were sexually active. Answer: True Page: 265 1.160. Black boys and girls are more likely to engage in sexual intercourse during adolescence than are white boys and girls. Answer: True Page: 265 1.161. Sexually experienced male adolescents and sexually experienced female adolescents are both likely to have higher self-esteem than their less experienced counterparts. Answer: False Page: 265 Rationale: Although sexually experienced male adolescents have higher self-esteem than inexperienced males, experienced female adolescents typically have lower self-esteem than do inexperienced adolescent girls. 1.162. In the United States today, about 50% of sexually active adolescents have a sexually transmitted disease. Answer: False Page: 266 Rationale: About 20% of sexually active adolescents in the U. S. today have an STD. 1.163. In the United States today, about 2% of teenage girls become pregnant. Answer: False Page: 266 Rationale: The text reports that about 8% of U. S. teenage girls become pregnant. 1.164. The majority of boys and girls in the U. S. today use contraception the first time they have sexual intercourse. Answer: False Page: 266 Rationale: The text reports a study that found that 75% of girls and 82% of boys do not use contraception the first time they have intercourse. 10.165. Adolescent marriage is more likely to lead to dropping out of high school than is adolescent pregnancy. Answer: True Page: 316 Cognitive Changes in Adolescence 10.166. By age 6, the brain is about 80% of it adult size. Answer: False Page: 269 Rationale: By age 6, the brain is about 95% of its adult size. 10.167. During adolescence, the amount of gray matter in the brain decreases and the amount of white matter increases.

Answer: True Page: 269-270 10. 168. During adolescence, two significant changes in the brain are the pruning away of some neurons and the increasing myelination of the brain cells. Answer: True Page: 270 10.169. Younger adolescents seem to rely more on the amygdala to process emotional information, whereas older adolescents rely more on the frontal regions of the brain. Answer: False Page: 270 Rationale: Younger adolescents rely more on the amygdala, whereas older adolescents rely more on the frontal lobes. Thus, older adolescents are able to incorporate emotional judgments with problem-solving functions more effectively than are younger adolescents. 10. 170. According to Piaget, children move from the stage of formal operations to the stage of concrete operations at about age 12. Answer: False Page: 270-271 Rationale: The final stage of cognitive development for Piaget is the stage of formal operations, which children enter at about age 12 as they move out of the stage of concrete operations. 10.171. Piaget’s view of development suggests that cognitive processes develop gradually and continuously, whereas the information-processing view suggests that thought processes change rapidly and dramatically about age 12. Answer: False Page: 272 Rationale: Information-processing views emphasize a more gradual and continuous development of cognitive functions than does Piaget’s theory, which views cognitive development as involving a sequence of stages that are quite different from each other. 10.172. David Elkind called adolescents’ tendency to see themselves as the center of everyone’s attention and scrutiny the “imaginary audience.” Answer: True Page: 274 10.173. Adolescents perceive themselves as much more vulnerable to injury than they actually are. Answer: False Page: 274 Rationale: According to the personal fable, adolescents see themselves as being so special that they are exempt from the laws of nature, that nothing bad can happen to them, and that they will live forever. 10.174. According to Lawrence Kohlberg’s view of moral development, most adolescents exercise conventional moral thinking most of the time. Answer: True Page: 275

Short Answer questions: Adolescent Development in a Cultural and Historical Context 10.175. Give an example of a rite of passage from childhood to adulthood. Page: 255 10.176. Explain why the concept of “emerging adulthood” might be more important in explaining developmental processes in a developed nation than in an undeveloped nation. Page: 255-256 10.177. Describe the results of the study reported in the text in which adolescents and adults of different ages were asked, “Do you feel that you have reached adulthood?” What conclusions can be drawn from this study? Page: 256 10.178. What does it mean to say that in the United States today the period of adolescence is “age-segregated?” Page: 256 Physical Development and Adaptation 10.179. Describe the hormone changes that occur as boys and girls enter puberty. Page: 258 10.180. What is the secular trend? Why is this trend occurring? Page: 261 10.181. Describe the physical changes that girls’ bodies go through, in order, as they move from childhood to adulthood. Page: 260 10.182. Describe the physical changes that boys’ bodies go through, in order, as they move from childhood to adulthood. Page: 260 10.183. Describe how body satisfaction changes for girls and for boys during the period of adolescence. Page: 262 10.184. What advantages and disadvantages are associated with being an early maturing boy? Page: 263 10.185. What advantages and disadvantages are associated with being a late-maturing girl? Page: 263 Gender Identity and Sexual Practices

10.186. What is the sexual double standard and how has it changed in the United States since the 1950s? Page: 264-265 10.187. Suggest 3 ways in which U. S. society has changed as the result of the sexual revolution. Page: 264-266 10.188. Describe how the rates of sexual intercourse change from the time adolescents are in 9 th grade to the time they are in 12th grade. Include in your answer how these changes occur for adolescents in different racial/ethnic groups. Page: 265 10.189. Does having early sexual experience affect boys’ and girls’ self-esteem in the same ways? Explain your answer. Page: 265 10.190. According to a study reported in the text, what percentage of boys and girls reported that they did not use contraception during their first experience with sexual intercourse? What factors probably account for this result? Page: 266 10.191. If you were to advise a teenage couple who was pregnant about the advantages and disadvantages of marrying, what advice would you give? Cite evidence presented in the text to support your advice. Page: 268 Cognitive Changes in Adolescence 10.192. How has the development of fMRI technology helped scientists advance their understanding about how the brain changes during adolescence? Page: 268-269 10.193. In comparison to the number of neurons present in the brain at birth, are their more or fewer neurons present in the brain during adolescence? What does this change imply about how neurons change as development progresses throughout childhood? Page: 269-270 10.194. Describe a typical task used in a study to test whether or not a child has developed formal operational thought. Page: 271 10.195. How does an information-processing view of cognitive development differ from Piaget’s view? Page: 272 10.196. Give an example of the imaginary audience, as defined by David Elkind. Page: 274 10.197. Give an example of the personal fable, as defined by David Elkind. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 274 10.198. Describe the approach that parents should take if they wish to encourage their adolescent child to become more advanced in moral reasoning. Include in your answer how the concept of “disequilibrium” is involved in the development of moral reasoning. Page: 275

Essay questions: Adolescent Development in a Cultural and Historical Context 10.199. What is a rite of passage and what functions do such rites serve? Page: 255 10.200. The concept called “emerging adulthood” was developed to explain what historical trend in development? Page: 255-256 Physical Development and Adaptation 10.201. Describe the pattern of changes that occur at puberty for the typical boy and typical girl. Be sure to note which changes occur earlier in this developmental process and which occur later. Page: 258-262 10.202. Explain the typical findings with respect to the age of menarche when studied in different cultures and different historical time periods. What conclusions result from this pattern of data? Page: 261 10.203. What are the typical concerns that adolescent boys and girls have about their bodies? How are boys’ concerns different than girls’ concerns and how are they similar? Page: 262 10.204. If you had a daughter, would you hope that she would be an early-maturing, average-maturing, or latematuring girl? Why? Would these same advantages and disadvantages apply if your child were a boy? Explain your answer. Page: 263 Gender Identity and Sexual Practices 10.205. What changes occurred in the United States with regard to sexual attitudes and behavior during the decades of the 1960s and 1970s? Do you think these changes are still in motion, or has U. S. culture reached an equilibrium point regarding sexual attitudes and practices? Cite evidence to support your conclusions. Page: 264-266 10.206. Identify and describe 3 different factors that are associated with the age at which boys and girls begin to engage in sexual intercourse.

Page: 265-266 10.207. Describe the results of a study reported in the text that investigate the use of contraception by boys and girls during their first sexual experiences. What factors account for these results? Page: 266 10.208. What positive and negative outcomes are associated with early parenthood? Page: 267-268 Cognitive Changes in Adolescence 10.209. How do the volumes of the brain’s gray matter and white matter change during the period of adolescence? What do these changes imply about the direction of neural development during this developmental period? Page: 269-270 10.210. How does the brain’s development during adolescence influence the thinking and behavior of teenagers? Page: 269-270 10.211. How do hormones, and especially those that target the amygdala, influence cognitive development? Page: 270 10.212. Discuss 3 ways in which the thought processes of a 10-year-old are likely to be different from those of a 13year-old, according to Piaget’s view of cognitive development. Page: 271-272 10.213. How might the concept of the personal fable help explain why adolescents seem especially enthralled with media that are highly violent? Answer: 257, 275 10.214. In what ways can adolescent cognition be described as being “egocentric”? What does this term mean when applied as a description of adolescent thought and problem solving? Page: 275 10.215. In what way might media such as movies and television shows prolong the adolescent concepts of imaginary audience and personal fable? Page: 274 10.216. Suppose you are working with a teenage girl whose moral reasoning is very conventional. What might you do to help her become more postconventional in her thought? Cite research to support your answer. Page: 275

Name____________________________________ Chapter 11 - Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1

Factual questions: 1. According to the text, an adolescent "clique" consists of: a. a highly cohesive group of 3 to 9 peers b. a group of any size with whom one shares a particular function or status c. a reference group that one aspires to emulate d. 15 to 30 peers that form the set of people with whom one sometimes interacts 2. According to statistics reported in the text, what percentage of U. S. teenagers have used alcohol by the end of high school? a. 30% b. 55% c. 80% d. 92% 3. Which of the following has been shown to be the strongest predictor of depression in male and female adolescents: a. use of marijuana b. use of alcohol c. being sexually abused d. having low self-esteem Conceptual questions: 4. Making your own judgments and regulating your own behavior is known as what? a. self-confidence b. self-efficacy c. self-regulation d. self-consciousness 5. Generalizing from the text, during the early part of adolescence, the source of most conflicts between teenagers and their parents is which of the following issues? a. family rules and obligations b. career choices c. religious beliefs d. political beliefs 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the risk factors commonly associated with adolescent suicide? a. belonging to the “most popular” peer group in the school b. being depressed c. experiencing a stressful family event, such as a divorce d. alcohol and/or drug abuse 7. Statistically, you should expect that delinquency rates would be highest in: a. poor urban areas b. poor rural areas c. rich urban areas d. rich rural areas Applied questions:

8. Paula is a very good student in high school. When her teachers encourage her to consider attending college, Paula’s response is that she has always assumed that she would get married, raise a family, and be a good mother, just as her mother is. She seems unwilling to really think about another option for her life. According to Marcia, Paula’s identity status is most likely: a. diffusion b. identity achievement c. moratorium d. foreclosure 9. Nancy has just entered her teenage years. Although she was a good student in elementary, school she recently has gotten into trouble at school because she is behaving inappropriately and she does not seem to be able to control herself well enough to get enough sleep and complete her homework. If Nancy’s difficulties are linked to the parenting style of her parents, they would most likely be described as: a. permissive parents b. authoritarian parents c. authoritative parents d. regressive parents 10. Jose constantly measures himself against his friends, noting how he is better at some things and not as good at others. This process is called: a. foreclosure b. identity diffusion c. interdependence d. social comparison

Name____________________________________ Chapter 11 - Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2

Factual questions: 1. According to the text, in comparison with younger adolescents, older adolescents are _____ concerned with their date’s physical appearance and ______ concerned with their date’s personality characteristics. a. more; more b. less; more c. more; less d. less; less 2. In comparison to statistics from the 1970s, today in the United States surveys find that cigarette smoking by adolescents has: a. increased substantially b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined substantially 3. Since the mid-1950s, suicide rates for adolescents ages 15 to 19 have_________. a. declined slightly b. stayed about the same c. increased slightly d. quadrupled Conceptual questions: 4. According to the text, the two major tasks for teenagers to accomplish during adolescence are: a. developing a mature view of sexuality and learning to “love” themselves b. forming an identity and becoming independent from parents c. making “good” friends and staying out of trouble d. selecting a career and preparing to enter it 5. Which parenting style is associated with the most positive outcome for adolescent behavior? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. neglectful 6. In comparison to a crowd, a clique is _______ and is ______ likely to include members of both genders. a. larger; less b. larger; more c. smaller; less d. smaller; more Applied questions: 7. Judy was raised by Republican parents and so, when asked her party preferences, she says, “Hmm…I guess I’m a Republican, but I really don’t know.” Generalizing from Marcia’s view of identity formation, which label best describes Judy’s political identity status? a. identity achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium

8. Suppose the Jones family has four children. The level of conflict in the family is most likely to increase the most dramatically when which of these children reaches adolescence? a. when the oldest child reaches adolescence b. when the second child reaches adolescence c. when the third child reaches adolescence d. when the youngest child reaches adolescence 9. Carlos is an adolescent boy who has been subjected to sexual abuse. Which of the following people would most likely have been the abuser? a. Renaldo, who is his biological father. b. Maria, who is his biological mother. c. Julia, who is his stepmother d. Marco, who is his father’s boss. 10. Suppose you are reading statistics about a particular college. This college reports that about 30-40% of the student body has been treated for depression. Generalizing from statistics reported in the text, you would know that the students at this college are about ____ as likely to suffer from depression as are students nation-wide. a. half b. equally c. twice d. four times

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 11.1 1. a, p. 290 2. c, p. 295 3. d, p. 298 4. c, p. 281 5. a, p. 286 6. a, p. 299 7. a, p. 296 8. d, p. 282 9. a, p. 287 10. d, p. 289 Quick Quiz 11.2 1. b, p. 291 2. d, p. 294 3. d, p. 299 4. b, p. 281 5. b, p. 287 6. c, p. 290 7. c, pp. 282-283 8. a, p. 287 9. d, p. 297 10. c, p. 298

Chapter 11 Adolescence and Emerging Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Multiple Choice questions: Developmental Tasks of Adolescence 11.1. In industrialized nations, the period between the ages of 18 and 25 is often called the period of: a. late adolescence b. “late-late” adolescence c. emerging adulthood d. moratorium Answer: c Page: 280 Factual Easy 11.2. The word(s) that best describes the period of “emerging adulthood” would be: a. in-between b. super-advanced c. regression d. repression Answer: a Page: 280 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Researchers today often refer to the period between the end of high school and the adoption of adult roles and responsibilities as “emerging adulthood.” 11.3. Often, the period of adolescence is described as a time of “storm and stress.” Research suggests that this view is: a. not accurate, because most adolescents do not experience adolescence as a stressful time of life b. a mostly accurate view of the period of adolescence c. not accurate, because adolescence is stormy but usually not stressful d. not accurate, because adolescent is stressful, but usually not stormy Answer: a Page: 281 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Studies generally show that the large majority of adolescents are emotionally healthy and well-adjusted and have few major conflicts with their parents, peers, or selves. 11.4. The text reports a study in which adolescents from many different countries were asked to rate their own behavioral and emotional problems. The results of this study suggest that: a. teenagers from developed nations experience much more stress during adolescence than do teenagers from less-developed nations b. teenagers from less-developed nations experience much more stress during adolescence than do teenagers from developed nations c. around the world, teenage girls experience much more stress than do teenage boys d. around the world, most teens are well-adjusted, with no significant differences between countries

Answer: d Page: 281 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In a study of about 27,000 adolescents in 24 different countries, results showed striking similarities in the ways in which adolescents rated their lives. Although some adolescents did report emotional and behavioral problems—most typically mood swings, arguments, self-criticism, and distractibility—the percentage of individuals experiencing significant issues was small. 11.5. Suppose a TV producer wants to develop a show with a “generation gap” theme, in which teenagers are in constant and deep conflict with their parents. A psychologist would do well to advise this producer that research shows that the “generation gap”: a. is a typical experience for teenage girls and their parents, but not teenage boys b. is a typical experience for teenage boys and their parents, but not teenage girls c. is a typical experience for both teenage girls and boys and their parents d. is accurate for only a minority of teenagers Answer: d Page: 281 Applied Moderate Rationale: Around the world the vast majority of teenagers are well-adjusted, get along reasonably well with their parents, and have positive attitudes toward their families. Thus, media stories with a “generation gap” theme have limited evidence to support them. 11.6. According to the text, the two major tasks for teenagers to accomplish during adolescence are: a. developing a mature view of sexuality and learning to “love” themselves b. forming an identity and becoming independent from parents c. making “good” friends and staying out of trouble d. selecting a career and preparing to enter it Answer: b Page: 281 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, most theorists agree that adolescents must confront two major tasks: achieving autonomy and independence from their parents (although the form this takes varies across cultures); and forming an identity, which means creating an integrated self that harmoniously combines different elements of the personality. 11.7. Making your own judgments and regulating your own behavior is known as what? a. self-confidence b. self-efficacy c. self-regulation d. self-consciousness Answer: c Page: 281 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Self-regulation, in the context of the need for independence, means making your own judgments and regulating your own behavior, as in the expression, “Think for yourself.” 11.8. Bob’s parents allow him to set many of his own rules, hoping that by doing so Bob will learn to solve his own problems and develop good skills in planning his own life. Bob’s parents are emphasizing the core idea of: a. forming an identity b. interdependence Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. commitment d. self-regulation Answer: d Page: 281 Applied Difficult Rationale: Self-regulation, in the context of the need for independence, means making your own judgments and regulating your own behavior, as in the expression, “Think for yourself.” 11.9. According to the text, interdependence is defined as: a. mutual regulations b. shared responsibility c. mutual autonomy d. reciprocal dependence Answer: d Page 281 Factual Easy 11.10. Julio belongs to a youth group, a book club, and the school debate team. He compares himself to these groups, and finds his values confirmed. According to the text, what are these groups called? a. peer groups b. marginal groups c. identity groups d. social reference groups Answer: d Page: 282 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social reference groups are defined as narrow or broad groups with which people identify, and in so doing, help to define themselves. 11.11. Julie’s parents are concerned because Julie has started spending most of her time with a group of friends they think are a bad influence on her. Julie has started wearing clothing her parents don’t approve of, using language they think is inappropriate, and conforming to the expectations of this group in ways her parents worry about. The group of friends is a good example of which of the following? a. a social reference group b. a foreclosure group c. a diffusion status group d. a moratorium status group Answer: a Page: 282 Applied Easy Rationale: Social reference groups are defined as narrow or broad groups with which people identify, and in so doing, help to define themselves. 11.12. According to Erikson, what is the adolescent's main developmental task? a. to achieve intimacy b. to be industrious c. to be autonomous d. to form an identity Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 282 Conceptual Easy Rationale: For Erikson, identity versus identity confusion refers to the critical developmental task for adolescents, which focuses on forging an answer to the question, “Who am I?” 11.13. For Erik Erikson, the central task of adolescence is: a. developing an intimate relationship with a trusted peer b. separating from parents and becoming autonomous c. forming an identity d. clarifying one’s own sexual preferences Answer: c Page: 282 Factual Easy 11.14. Which of the following questions best reflects what Erik Erikson saw as the central task of adolescence? a. “Do you love me?” b. “Who am I?” c. “Do I love myself?” d. “How good a person am I?” Answer: b Page: 282 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: For Erikson, identity versus identity confusion refers to the critical developmental task for adolescents, which focuses on forging an answer to the question, “Who am I?” 11.15. What term did Erik Erikson use to describe a period during which individuals grapple with the options available and ultimately make a choice and commitment as to which path their lives will take? a. identity crisis b. identity commitment c. identity forbearance d. identity availability Answer: a Page: 282 Factual Easy 11.16. According to Erikson and Marcia, a period of making decisions about important issues, such as "Who am I and where am I going?" is called a(n): a. self-regulation b. identity crisis c. self-examination d. exploration Answer: b Page: 282 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Erikson believed that forming one’s identity typically involved an identity crisis, during which individuals grapple with the options available and ultimately make a choice and commitment as to which paths their Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

lives will take. Marcia then defined the 4 types of identity formation according to the degree to which a crisis was experienced and whether a commitment had been made. 11.17. According to Marcia, what is the identity status of those adolescents who have made commitments without going through a crisis? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement Answer: b Page: 282 Factual Easy 11.18. Paula is a very good student in high school. When her teachers encourage her to consider attending college, Paula’s response is that she has always assumed that she would get married, raise a family, and be a good mother, just as her mother is. She seems unwilling to really think about another option for her life. According to Marcia, Paula’s identity status is most likely: a. diffusion b. identity achievement c. moratorium d. foreclosure Answer: d Page: 282 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, foreclosure refers to the identity status of those who have made commitments without going through much decision making or through an identity crisis. 11.19. Which of Marcia’s identity status modes is most likely to be associated with authoritarian values and minimal anxiety? a. foreclosure b. diffusion c. achievement d. moratorium Answer: a Page: 282 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, foreclosure refers to the identity status of those who have made commitments without going through much decision making or through an identity crisis. 11.20. According to Marcia, what identity status has an individual adopted who has neither experienced an identity crisis nor made a commitment? a. achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium Answer: c Page: 282 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.21. Judy was raised by Republican parents and so, when asked her party preferences, she says, “Hmm…I guess I’m a Republican, but I really don’t know.” Generalizing from Marcia’s view of identity formation, which label best describes Judy’s political identity status? a. identity achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium Answer: c Page: 282-283 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, diffusion refers to the identity status of those who have neither gone through an identity crisis nor committed to an occupational role or moral code. 11.22. Henry lacks a sense of direction. Whenever his parents or friends ask him what he is going to do now that he has graduated from high school, he avoids the issue. His only interest is "hanging out with his buddies" and drinking beer. What identity status has Henry adopted? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement Answer: a Page: 282-283 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, diffusion refers to the identity status of those who have neither gone through an identity crisis nor committed to an occupational role or moral code. 11.23. During his teenage years, Larry struggled with “finding himself.” He tried drugs, failed in school, and couldn’t hold a job. Recently, though, Larry has decided to pursue a career as a welder and has enrolled in welding classes at a local school. He feels relieved to have found a direction for his life. According to Marcia, which of the following statuses would Larry currently be in? a. foreclosure b. identity achievement c. identity commitment d. identity crisis Answer: b Page: 282-283 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, identity achievement refers to the identity status of those who have gone through an identity crisis and have made commitments. 11.24. Fred made his transition into adulthood without reassessing his value system, yet he is committed to his career, which is the same as his father’s. He has most likely adopted which identity status? a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. diffusion d. achievement Answer: a Page: 282-283 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, foreclosure refers to the identity status of those who have made commitments without going through much decision making or through an identity crisis. 11.25. The identity status of those who are currently in the midst of an identity crisis is called: a. achievement b. moratorium c. diffusion d. foreclosure Answer: b Page: 282-283 Factual Easy 11.26. Gina told her parents that she was going to take some time off from college and travel because she needed time to "find herself." If her parents were to use a term from Marcia’s view of identity development that term would be: a. achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium Answer: d Page: 282-283 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, moratorium refers to the identity status of those who are currently in the midst of an identity crisis or decision-making period. 11.27. The identity status of those who have gone through an identity crisis and have made commitments is called: a. achievement b. moratorium c. diffusion d. foreclosure Answer: a Page: 282-283 Factual Easy 11.28. Maria grew up attending Catholic church with her family. Upon entering high school she began to question her beliefs and carefully considered a variety of alternative belief systems. After a period in which she struggled to understand what she truly believed to be true, she eventually concluded that she agrees with her original beliefs. What best describes Maria’s religious identity status? a. identity achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium Answer: a Page: 282-283 Applied Moderate Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, identity achievement refers to the identity status of those who have gone through an identity crisis and have made commitments. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.29. According to the text, about what percent of people who are entering young adulthood have attained the identity achievement status, as described by James Marcia? a. 33% b. 50% c. 75% d. 95% Answer: b Page: 283 Factual Moderate 11.30. Which of the following age groups would likely have the highest proportion of people in the identity achievement status stage of identity development? a. 14 to 16 years old b. 16 to 18 years old c. 18 to 20 years old d. 20 to 22 years old Answer: d Page: 283 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The proportion of people in identity achievement status increases with age. 11.31. Which of the following would most likely be the dominant emotion for young people in moratorium status? a. anxiety and confusion b. anger and hostility toward others c. loneliness and a sense of despair d. contentment and peace Answer: a Page: 283 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Adolescents or young adults in moratorium status are in the midst of an ongoing identity crisis or decision-making period. An extended period of decision making may be uncomfortable, but often leads to more thoughtful resolutions. 11.32. Rick is experiencing a great deal of anxiety as he struggles for freedom, yet fears his parents' disapproval of the choices he might make. He often feels like he “just doesn’t know what to do.” What identity status is Rick most likely experiencing? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement Answer: c Page: 283 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Marcia’s theory, moratorium refers to the identity status of those who are currently in the midst of an identity crisis or decision-making period.

11.33. According to the text, boys are much more likely to develop a(n) _______________ and girls are more likely to develop a(n) _______________: a. interpersonal identity; blend of interpersonal and intrapersonal identities b. intrapersonal identity; blend of interpersonal and intrapersonal identities c. interpersonal identity; intrapersonal identity d. foreclosed identity; diffused identity Answer: b Page: 284 Factual Difficult 11.34. Which identity status is seen most frequently in teenagers who have experienced rejection or neglect from detached or uncaring parents? a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. diffusion d. achievement Answer: c Page: 284 Factual Moderate 11.35. According to the text, if an adolescent is a member of a group that is outside the majority culture, forming a secure and positive sense of identity is: a. completed at a younger age b. harder c. easier d. completed much more quickly, from beginning to end of the process Answer: b Page: 285 Factual Moderate Family Dynamics 11.36. John, who is a teenager, complains to his friends that he recently has had a string of arguments with his parents. If John and his parents are typical, these arguments are most likely about which of the following? a. John’s core political views b. John’s core religious views c. John’s views about economic issues d. who John is dating and what his curfew hours are

Answer: d Page: 286 Applied Easy Rationale: Most conflicts between teenagers and their families revolve around ordinary issues, such as family chores, curfew hours, dating, grades, personal appearance, and eating habits. Conflicts between parents and adolescents about core economic, religious, social, and political values are much less common. 11.37. If Mark is a typical adolescent, you should expect that the amount of conflict he has with his parents is likely highest during which of his adolescent years? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. between age 11 and 12 b. between age 13 and 14 c. between age 15 and 16 d. between age 17 and 18 Answer: c Page: 286 Applied Moderate Rationale: Research does show that conflict with parents peaks in early to middle adolescence (Around ages 15-16, as shown in Figure 11-2). Conflict then begins to subside in later adolescence. 11.38. Generalizing from the text, during the early part of adolescence, the source of most conflicts between teenagers and their parents is which of the following issues: a. family rules and obligations b. career choices c. religious beliefs d. political beliefs Answer: a Page: 286 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, most conflicts between teenagers and their families revolve around ordinary issues, such as family chores, curfew hours, dating, grades, personal appearance, and eating habits. Conflicts between parents and adolescents about core economic, religious, social, and political values are much less common. 11.39. Which of the following statements about family alliances is supported by research cited in the text? a. Alliances present in childhood tend to be maintained throughout adolescence. b. Girls and boys who identified most with their mother in childhood typically shift their alliance to their father during adolescence. c. Girls, but not boys, who identified most with their mother in childhood typically shift their alliance to their father during adolescence. d. Boys, but not girls, who identified most with their mother in childhood typically shift their alliance to their father during adolescence. Answer: a Page: 287 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The book notes that, like parenting styles, family alliances begin to shape behavior long before adolescence. For example, an older brother who dominated his younger brother during childhood will probably have the same influence in adolescence. 11.40. Tommy has just turned 14 and has become very defiant and resentful of any authority figure, and especially his parents. If Tommy’s defiance is the result of his parents’ parenting style, this style is most likely to be described as: a. permissive b. authoritative c. resistant d. authoritarian Answer: d Page: 287 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Adolescents who have experienced authoritarian parenting, which centers on strict control and inflexible rules for behavior, often become dependent and anxious in the presence of authority figures or may become defiant and resentful. 11.41. Which parenting style is associated with the most positive outcome for adolescent behavior? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. neglectful Answer: b Page: 287 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Normal and healthy adolescent behavior is most likely to result when parenting is authoritative because this style encourages children toward taking responsible, independent actions and establishing good self-acceptance and self-control. 11.42. Sixteen-year-old Mikhail has made a good adjustment to high school and he is able to be responsible, he generally takes independent actions that are appropriate, and he has developed a positive self-concept. If his behavior is the result of his parents’ style of parenting, his parents most likely have adopted which of the following parenting styles? a. indifferent b. authoritarian c. authoritative d. overly permissive Answer: c Page: 287 Applied Moderate Rationale: Normal and healthy adolescent behavior is most likely to result when parenting is authoritative because this style encourages children toward taking responsible, independent actions and establishing good self-acceptance and self-control. 11.43. Nancy has just entered her teenage years. Although she was a good student in elementary school she recently has gotten into trouble at school because she is behaving inappropriately and she does not seem to be able to control herself well enough to get enough sleep and complete her homework. If Nancy’s difficulties are linked to the parenting style of her parents, they would most likely be described as: a. permissive parents b. authoritarian parents c. authoritative parents d. regressive parents Answer: a Page: 287 Applied Moderate Rationale: Permissive parents provide little structure and control, and their adolescent children may have difficulty setting boundaries and defining appropriate behavior. 11.44. Generally speaking _________ usually know more about their teenager’s activities and this knowledge generally leads to _________ levels of adolescent deviance: a. mothers; higher b. mothers; lower c. fathers; higher Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. fathers; lower Answer: b Page: 287 Factual Moderate 11.45. _______ typically know more about their teenager’s activities and ________ usually exert a stronger influence on parent-child acceptance and conflict. a. Fathers; fathers b. Fathers; mothers c. Mothers; fathers d. Mothers; mothers Answer: d Page: 287 Factual Moderate 11.46. As children enter adolescence, parental warmth from the mother generally __________ and parental warmth from the father generally ___________. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. increases; increases Answer: c Page: 287 Factual Moderate 11.47. If Susie is a typical teenager, you would expect her to complain that the warmth she feels toward her mother is _________ and the warmth she feels toward her father is ___________. a. decreasing; increasing b. increasing; decreasing c. increasing; increasing d. decreasing; decreasing Answer: d Page: 287 Applied Moderate Rationale: The textbook notes that as children enter adolescence, parental warmth generally declines, both from mothers and from fathers. 11.48. Suppose the Jones family has four children. The level of conflict in the family is most likely to increase the most dramatically when which of these children reaches adolescence? a. when the oldest child reaches adolescence b. when the second child reaches adolescence c. when the third child reaches adolescence d. when the youngest child reaches adolescence Answer: a Page: 287 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: As noted in the textbook, family conflict typically escalates when firstborn children enter adolescence, but the level of conflict generally does not increase when younger children enter this developmental period. 11.49. Linda’s mother and father give her considerable freedom to choose her friends and activities, but they also pay careful attention to where she is, what she is doing, and whom she is with. Her parents’ attention to knowing about Linda’s activities is what researchers mean by the term: a. parental warmth b. social comparison c. interdependence d. parental monitoring Answer: d Page: 288 Applied Easy Rationale: In parental monitoring, parents discuss, give advice, and supervise, but only to the extent to which the teen is willing to disclose. Peer Relationships During Adolescence 11.50. In the United States today, adolescents typically spend about ____ time with their peers as they do with their parents. a. half as much b. the same amount of c. twice as much d. ten times as much Answer: c Page: 289 Factual Moderate 11.51. If Julia is a typical teenager growing up in the United States, she would probably spend about ____ time with her peers, compared to her parents. a. half as much b. the same amount of c. twice as much d. ten times as much Answer: c Page: 289 Factual Moderate 11.52. The process we all use to evaluate our personal abilities, behaviors, personality characteristics, appearance, reactions, and general sense of self against the characteristics of others is called: a. self-exploration b. self-identification c. social comparison d. mutual regulation Answer: c Page: 289 Factual Easy

11.53. Jose constantly measures himself against his friends, noting how he is better at some things and not as good at others. This process is called: a. foreclosure b. identity diffusion c. interdependence d. social comparison Answer: d Page: 289 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social comparison refers to the process we all use to evaluate our abilities, behaviors, personality characteristics, appearance, reactions, and general sense of self in comparison to those of others. 11.54. Jennie evaluates herself by considering how her accomplishments stack up against those of her friends. This process is called: a. social comparison b. identity fusion c. interdependence d. intradependence Answer: a Page: 289 Applied Easy Rationale: Social comparison refers to the process we all use to evaluate our abilities, behaviors, personality characteristics, appearance, reactions, and general sense of self in comparison to those of others. 11.55. The text uses the term peer arena to describe which of the following? a. the small group of “best friends” that each teenager relies on for advice and support b. the large group of many different kinds of people each teenager interacts with c. the “imaginary audience” that teenagers imagine they are being compared to d. the group of opposite-sex peers that the teenager would like to date Answer: b Page: 289 Factual Moderate 11.56. Which of the following considerations would typically be the focus of older adolescents, rather than of younger adolescents? a. physical appearance b. intimacy with a member of the opposite gender c. characteristics associated with popularity d. characteristics associated with a good sense of humor Answer: b Page: 289 Factual Moderate 11.57. If an adolescent looks to the Internet for advice rather than to peers or parents, chances are highest that the topic of advice concerns: a. possible careers b. how often to date c. whether to go to college Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. issues of sexuality and health Answer: d Page: 289-290 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, adolescents and even younger children are increasingly using Internet sources for advice, especially on matters involving sexuality and health issues. 11.58. Adolescents usually seek advice from parents, rather than peers, on all of the following topics EXCEPT: a. education b. finances c. dating and sexuality d. career plans Answer: c Page: 290 Factual Easy 11.59. Teenagers are most likely to turn to their parents, rather than their peers, for advice concerning which of the following? a. what books to read b. whom to date c. how to choose a future occupation or job d. where to get correct information about sex Answer: c Page: 290 Factual Moderate 11.60. Julie usually turns to her friends for advice about the questions she has. However, if she is like most teenagers, she decides that she would be better served to listen to her parents about which of the following questions? a. what books to read b. whom to date c. how to choose a future occupation or job d. where to get correct information about sex Answer: c Page: 290 Factual Moderate 11.61. According to the text, an adolescent peer group with between 3 and 9 members is known as a: a. clique b. crowd c. gaggle d. pack Answer: a Page: 290 Factual Easy

11.62. According to the text, an adolescent "clique" consists of: a. a highly cohesive group of 3 to 9 peers b. a group of any size with whom one shares a particular function or status c. a reference group that one aspires to emulate d. 15 to 30 peers that form the set of people with whom one sometimes interacts Answer: a Page: 290 Factual Easy 11.63. In most typical U. S. high schools, a group of 4 or 5 of the best football players who are labeled as "Jocks" would be an example of a: a. crowd b. clique c. marginal group d. peer group Answer: b Page: 290 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Cliques are defined as adolescent peer groups with as few as 3 members or as many as 9 members that are more cohesive than a crowd. 11.64. The rather large group of friends that adolescents often construct, and that usually include 15 to 30 members, are called: a. social referencing groups b. cliques c. diffusion groups d. crowds Answer: d Page: 290 Factual Easy 11.65. Patricia belongs to a large group of about 25 friends, including both boys and girls. This type of peer group would be referred to as a(n): a. diffusion group b. identity group c. clique d. crowd Answer: d Page: 290 Applied Easy Rationale: A crowd is defined as an adolescent peer group with perhaps 15 to 30 members. 11.66. In comparison to a crowd, a clique is _______ and is ______ likely to include members of both genders. a. larger; less b. larger; more c. smaller; less d. smaller; more

Answer; c Page: 290 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Crowds have around 15 to 30 members, whereas cliques are likely to have between 3 and 9 members. During early adolescence, cliques tend to be all male or all female. 11.67. According to the text, about what percent of adolescents do not belong to a peer group: a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20% Answer: d Page: 290 Factual Moderate 11.68. In the United States today, young teenagers are most likely to first learn how to relate to the opposite sex in which of the following settings: a. group settings involving peers of both genders b. family gatherings c. one-on-one dating d. small group discussions with members of the same gender Answer: a Page: 291 Conceptual Easy Rationale: During early adolescence, most interactions with members of the opposite sex take place in group settings. Many 14- or 15-year-olds prefer group contact to the closer relationship of dating. 11.69. Juan enjoys dating Martha because she is very popular and is the captain of the cheerleading squad. He feels that by dating her, he gains the respect of his peer group. What function does dating serve him? a. status b. mate selection c. socialization d. recreation Answer: a Page: 291 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in Table 11-4, status is a function in dating that refers to an opportunity to increase status by being seen with someone who is considered desirable (i.e., popular). 11.70. According to the text, _________ usually begin dating at an earlier age and dating serves ________ functions for boys and girls. a. girls; similar b. boys; similar c. girls; different d. boys; different Answer: a Page: 291 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 11.71. According to the text, in comparison with younger adolescents, older adolescents are _____ concerned with their date’s physical appearance and ______ concerned with their date’s personality characteristics. a. more; more b. less; more c. more; less d. less; less Answer: b Page: 291 Factual Moderate 11.72. According to the text, when dating, girls are more interested in ________ intimacy and boys are more interested in _________ intimacy. a. emotional; sexual b. emotional; unemotional c. physical; interpersonal d. peer group; interpersonal Answer: a Page: 291 Factual Easy Risk and Resilience in Adolescence 11.73. Rickie engages in risky behavior because he believes that “bad things don’t happen to me.” His point of view is best explained by the concept of: a. interdependence b. social referencing c. identity diffusion d. personal fable Answer: d Page: 293 Applied Moderate Rationale: Personal fable refers to adolescents’ belief that they are so special that they should be exempt from the laws of nature, that nothing bad can happen to them, and that they will live forever. 11.74. Sarah explains to her friend that she had sex with her boyfriend without using contraception because she “knew” that she would not get pregnant because pregnancy didn’t fit into her life plan. This disregard for the possibility that a bad outcome could occur is most consistent with the idea expressed as: a. identity diffusion b. moratorium c. the personal fable d. social referencing Answer: c Page: 293 Applied Moderate Rationale: Personal fable refers to adolescents’ belief that they are so special that they should be exempt from the laws of nature, that nothing bad can happen to them, and that they will live forever. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.75. If Jake is an adolescent who is known for taking extreme risks, research would suggest that he is also likely to have all of the following EXCEPT: a. high grades in school b. a history of aggressiveness c. an infatuation with the “rush” that risky behavior is associated with d. difficulty controlling his impulses Answer: a Page: 293 Applied Easy Rationale: According to research cited in the text, adolescents who engage in high-risk behavior are more likely than others to have a history of aggressiveness, to enjoy the thrill involved in risky behavior, to have difficulty in controlling their impulsiveness, and to experience low school achievement. 11.76. The age period associated with the highest usage of illicit drugs is which of the following? a. age 12 to14 b. age 14 to 16 c. age 16 to 18 d. age 18 to 20 Answer: d Page: 293 Factual Moderate 11.77. Statistically speaking, which of the following people is most likely to engage in the use of illicit drugs? a. Randy, who is 13 years old b. Mick, who is 16 years old c. Rex, who is 20 years old d. Frank, who is 30 years old Answer: c Page: 293 Applied Moderate Rationale: As shown in Figure 11-3, the age period with the highest usage of illicit drugs is from 18 to 20. 11.78. According to the text, the illicit drugs that are most frequently abused by adolescents under the age of 18 are: a. alcohol and marijuana b. alcohol and cigarettes c. alcohol and amphetamines d. caffeine and nicotine Answer: b Page: 294 Factual Easy 11.79. According to the text, which of the following is not a long-term effect associated with cigarette smoking? a. brain damage b. heart attack c. lung cancer d. emphysema

Answer: a Page: 294 Factual Easy 11.80. According to the text, moderate smoking shortens the lifespan by ____ years. a. 2 b. 7 c. 14 d. 23 Answer: b Page: 294 Factual Easy 11.81. Bernard has been a moderate cigarette smoker for several years. Research shows that, statistically speaking, his moderate smoking will shorten his life by an average of: a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 7 years d. 12 years Answer: c Page: 294 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, even moderate smoking shortens a person’s life by an average of 7 years. 11.82. According to the text, what is the single most preventable cause of death in the United States today? a. smoking-related illnesses b. alcoholism c. diseases of the liver d. diabetes Answer: a Page: 294 Factual Moderate 11.83. In comparison to statistics from the 1970s, today in the United States surveys find that cigarette smoking by adolescents has: a. increased substantially b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined substantially Answer: d Page: 294 Factual Easy 11.84. Suppose you look at medical records collected on adolescents in high school in 1970 and in high school in 2007. You should expect these records to show that, compared to the number of high school students who smoke cigarettes in 2007, the number who smoked in 1970 would be: a. considerably higher Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. slightly higher c. about the same d. slightly lower Answer: a Page: 294 Applied Moderate Rationale: Tobacco smoking by U.S. adolescents showed a sharp decline in the late 1970s; since that time smoking by teenagers has gradually declined. 11.85. Charlie is 18 years old. If he and his 18-year-old friends are typical, about what percentage of them have smoked a cigarette in the past month? a. 5% b. 15% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: c Page: 294 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to research reported in the text, in 2007 about 33% of 18- to 20-year olds reported “current” smoking (defined as at least once within the past month). 11.86. Suppose you administer a survey to a large, representative group of high school seniors. If you ask how many of them have ever tried smoking, you should expect that ____ will report having smoked cigarettes. a. 25% b. 50% c. 67% d. 85% Answer: b Page: 294 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, more than one-half of high school seniors have tried smoking. 11.87. Alcohol acts as a(n): a. stimulant b. depressant c. hallucinogen d. narcotic Answer: b Page: 294 Factual Easy 11.88. The action of alcohol on the body is most similar to the action of which of the following? a. cigarettes b. amphetamines c. tranquilizers d. diet pills Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 294 Factual Moderate 11.89. Suppose that Bart and Larry are identical twins. Bart has never had a drink of alcohol, but Larry has been a heavy drinker for the past 20 years. If Bart and Larry are both given an identical shot of alcohol, how would you expect them each to experience the physical effects of alcohol? a. Bart would experience the effects of alcohol more than Larry would. b. Larry would experience the effects of alcohol more than Bart would. c. Bart and Larry would experience the effects of alcohol to the same degree but Bart would perceive these effects to be greater. d. Bart and Larry would experience the effects of alcohol to the same degree but Larry would perceive these effects to be greater. Answer: a Page: 294 Applied Difficult Rationale: Individual tolerance for alcohol increased with long-term, habitual use. Therefore, because Larry has used alcohol habitually, his response is more tolerant and he would experience less effects from alcohol, compared to Bart. 11.90. According to statistics reported in the text, what percentage of U. S. teenagers have used alcohol by the end of high school? a. 30% b. 55% c. 80% d. 92% Answer: c Page: 295 Factual Moderate 11.91. If you sent a survey to a representative sample of 10,000 graduating high school seniors asking them to report whether or not they had ever used alcohol, you should expect that about _____ would respond “yes.” a. 2,000 b. 4,000 c. 6,000 d. 8,000 Answer: d Page: 295 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that about 80% of high school seniors in the United States have tried alcohol by the end of high school; 80% of 10,000 students is 8,000 students. 11.92. If you sent a survey to a representative sample of 10,000 graduating high school seniors asking them to report whether or not they drink alcohol every day, you should expect that about _____ would respond “yes.” a. 100 b. 200 c. 500 d. 1,000 Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 295 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text reports that about 1 in 20 high school seniors, or 5%, reports drinking alcohol every day; 5% of 10,000 seniors is 500 seniors. 11.93. If you sent a survey to a representative sample of 10,000 graduating high school seniors asking them to report how many of their friends get drunk at least once a week, you should expect that about _____ would respond “yes.” a. 200 b. 500 c. 1,000 d. 2,400 Answer: d Page: 295 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text reports that about 24% of high school seniors report that all or most of their friends get drunk at least once a week; 24% of 10,000 seniors is 2,400 seniors. 11.94. Compared to the percent of adolescent males who drink alcohol, the percent of adolescent girls who drink alcohol was ____ in the 1970s and is _____ today. a. lower; equal b. lower; lower c. lower; higher d. higher; equal Answer: a Page: 295 Factual Moderate 11.95. Between the ages of 18 and 25, the reported use of which of the following drugs increases with increased age? a. marijuana and alcohol, but not tobacco b. marijuana and tobacco, but not alcohol c. marijuana, but not alcohol or tobacco d. marijuana, alcohol, and tobacco Answer: d Page: 295 Factual Moderate 11.96. According to the text, in the 1990s, marijuana use became more: a. sex specific, with more males than females now using this drug b. exclusive to white adolescents, with fewer black and Hispanic adolescents using this drug c. income selective, with usage increasing among upper-income adolescents but decreasing among lowerincome adolescents d. egalitarian, with about equal proportions of white, black, and Hispanic adolescents using this drug Answer: d Page: 295 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.97. About how long after consumption can marijuana’s active ingredient, THC, be detected in the brain? a. about 2-4 hours b. about 24-36 hours c. about 4-5 days d. about several days to several weeks Answer: d Page: 295 Factual Moderate 11.98. If you sent a survey to a representative sample of 10,000 adolescents age 12 to 17, asking them to report whether or not they use marijuana, you should expect that about _____ would respond “yes.” a. 700 b. 1,200 c. 2,500 d. 4,000 Answer: a Page: 295 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that about 7% of 12- to 17-year-olds report using marijuana; 7% of 10,000 seniors is 700 seniors. 11.99. If you were to select the year in which the use of alcohol and marijuana by adolescents was the LOWEST, which year would that be? a. 1980 b. 1985 c. 1990 d. 1995 Answer: c Page: 295 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 11-5 plots drug usage of alcohol, marijuana, and cocaine from 1975 to 2007. This figure and the text make the point that drug usage of alcohol and marijuana was at its lowest point in 1990, after which time it increased and then has gradually declined. 11.100. Adolescents’ use of which of the following drugs rose sharply in the 1990s? a. alcohol b. marijuana c. designer drugs d. cocaine Answer: c Page: 295-296 Factual Easy 11.101. According to the text, about what percent of high school seniors reported using the drug Ecstasy in 2000? a. 0.5% b. 1% c. 4% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 9% Answer: d Page: 296 Factual Moderate 11.102. According to the text, the use of manufactured amphetamine drugs such as methamphetamine peaked in which year: a. 1975 b. 1990 c. 2001 d. There has not yet been a peak since usage continues to increase each year. Answer: c Page: 296 Factual Moderate 11.103. Which of the following statements about delinquency is TRUE? a. Delinquency is the term used for only minor crimes, such as shoplifting. b. Delinquency refers to crimes that would be more serious than misdemeanors but less serious than felonies. c. Delinquency refers to crimes of all sorts when they are committed by people under the age of 16 (or 18 in some states). d. Delinquency is the term given to crimes committed by people who are mentally incompetent. Answer: c Page: 296 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, adolescents under age 16 or 18 who commit criminal acts are called delinquents; the age cutoff varies by state and by the nature of the crime. 11.104. Statistically, you should expect that delinquency rates would be highest in: a. poor urban areas b. poor rural areas c. rich urban areas d. rich rural areas Answer: a Page: 296 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Sociologists often note the association between crime and living in disadvantaged or stressful environments that arise from (among other contributors) poverty and overcrowding. 11.105. Fifteen-year-old Ron was arrested for attempted burglary. The term that would most likely be applied to him would be: a. juvenile b. delinquent c. high-risk recidivist d. felon Answer: b Page: 296 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Easy Rationale: According to the text, adolescents under age 16 or 18 who commit criminal acts are called delinquents; the age cutoff varies by state and by the nature of the crime. 11.106. According to research cited in the text, members of which of the following groups would be most likely to engage in delinquent behavior? a. teens from poor families with no male role models b. teens from financially stable families with no male role models c. teens from poor families with strong male role models d. teens from financially stable families with strong male role models Answer: a Page: 296 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, sociologists often note the association between crime and (among other contributors) poverty and the lack of a positive male role model. 11.107. From the description of delinquency provided in the text, which of the following parenting styles would most likely be linked to this behavior? a. permissive parenting b. authoritative parenting c. proactive parenting d. authoritarian parenting Answer: d Page: 296 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text notes that acting-out behaviors can be the likely result of adolescents who perceive that their parents exhibit little warmth or are too intrusive and allow too little autonomy. These are the characteristics most often associated with authoritarian parenting. 11.108. According to statistics reported in the text, about ____ of college men report that they have had forced sexual activity and about _____ of college women report they have experienced an attempted or completed rape. a. 20%; 10% b. 10%; 20% c. 20%; 50% d. 50%; 20% Answer: d Page: 297 Factual Moderate 11.109. According to statistics gathered on 9 th to 12th graders reported in the text, about ___ of girls and ___ of boys reported that they had been forced to have sexual intercourse at some point in their lives. a. 5%; 11% b. 11%; 5% c. 2%; 15% d. 15%; 2% Answer: b Page: 296-297 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate 11.110. Abby is an adolescent girl who has been subjected to sexual abuse. Which of the following people would most likely have been the abuser? a. Paul, who is her biological father b. Peter, who is her stepfather c. Rick, who is a complete stranger d. Donna, who is her mother Answer: b Page: 297 Applied Easy Rationale: The text notes that in early adolescence, the most common form of sexual abuse for girls occurs between a young adolescent girl and an adult male relative or family friend: A stepfather or the mother’s boyfriend is more likely to be the abuser than is the girl’s natural father. 11.111. Carlos is an adolescent boy who has been subjected to sexual abuse. Which of the following people would most likely have been the abuser? a. Renaldo, who is his biological father. b. Maria, who is his biological mother. c. Julia, who is his stepmother d. Marco, who is his father’s boss. Answer: d Page: 297 Applied Difficult Rationale: Abusers of young boys are most likely to be a male who is not a family member. Stress, Depression, and Coping 11.112. According to the text, the most common pattern of psychological distress for adolescents today is: a. anorexia nervosa and other eating disorders b. stunting c. depression d. schizophrenia Answer: c Page: 298 Factual Easy 11.113. If Dr. Martinez conducts a large-scale survey of adolescent depression, he would expect that, at any given time, about ____ of the adolescent population would be suffering from depression. a. 2% b. 7% c. 14% d. 25% Answer: b Page: 298 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, a reasonable estimate is that at any given point in time about 8% of adolescents suffer from moderate to severe depression. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.114. Suppose you are reading statistics about a particular college. This college reports that about 30-40% of the student body has been treated for depression. Generalizing from statistics reported in the text, you would know that the students at this college are about ____ as likely to suffer from depression as are students nationwide. a. half b. equally c. twice d. four times Answer: c Page: 298 Applied Moderate Rationale: Statistics indicate that 15-20% of college students report having had a period of serious depression at some point in their lives. 11.115. Which of the following has been shown to be the strongest predictor of depression in male and female adolescents? a. use of marijuana b. use of alcohol c. being sexually abused d. having low self-esteem

Answer: d Page: 298 Factual Moderate 11.116. According to the text, unintended pregnancy is ____ as common among girls who are depressed compared to nondepressed girls. a. half b. equally c. twice d. three times Answer: d Page: 299 Factual Moderate 11.117. Today, drugs that are available to treat depression are effective for about ____ of the people who take them. a. 40% b. 60% c. 80% d. 99.9% Answer: c Page: 299 Factual Moderate 11.118. The three leading causes of death among adolescents are: a. accidents, murders, and suicides b. accidents, cancer, and suicides c. accidents, asthma, and cancer Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. accidents, heart disease, and murders Answer: a Page: 299 Factual Moderate 11.119. Since the mid-1950s, suicide rates for adolescents ages 15 to 19 have_________. a. declined slightly b. stayed about the same c. increased slightly d. quadrupled Answer: d Page: 299 Factual Moderate 11.120. Which of the following is NOT one of the risk factors commonly associated with adolescent suicide? a. belonging to the “most popular” peer group in the school b. being depressed c. experiencing a stressful family event, such as a divorce d. alcohol and/or drug abuse Answer: a Page: 299 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Table 11-6, being depressed; experiencing a stressful family event; and alcohol and/or drug use are all risk factors associated with adolescent suicide. 11.121. The text suggests a set of four risk factors that are associated with adolescent development. Which of the following is NOT one of these risk factors? a. teenage sexual activity b. abuse of alcohol and other drugs c. overachievement in school performance d. antisocial and unproductive behavior Answer: c Page: 300 Factual Moderate 11.122. Good relationships with parents and peers, a particular area of expertise, and a role that includes responsibilities for others are all examples of what the text refers to as: a. stress breakers b. coping responses c. protective factors d. social comparison factors Answer: c Page: 302 Factual Easy

11.123. Jimmy grows up in a poor home and his parents are constantly arguing. He has trouble learning to read in school, and he is a poor athlete. As a young child he spent a good deal of time by himself, unsupervised, with little to do except watch television. Yet, as a young adult, he is happy, well-adjusted, and productive at work. The word that best described Jimmy’s personality is: a. resilient b. authoritarian c. permissive d. authoritative Answer: a Page: 302 Applied Moderate Rationale: Resilient adolescents are those who are able to confront the risks associated with adolescence and to deal effectively with them. Current Issues: A Key Component of Self-Definition 11.124. The values of the cultural or ethnic group of which a person belongs is called: a. ethnic foreclosure b. ethnic confidence c. ethnic integrity d. ethnic identity Answer: d Page: 285 Factual Easy 11.125. Mai’s family immigrated to the U. S. from Cambodia and her parents expect her to honor the traditions and styles that characterize life for a young woman growing up in Cambodia. Although she wants to please and honor her parents, Mai, however, also want to be like her school friends, most of whom are white, middle-class girls. She feels torn between wanting to be the person her parents expect, and wanting to be a modern woman growing up in mainstream U.S. culture. The term that best describes Mai’s dilemma is: a. ethnic identity crisis b. foreclosure status c. ethnic identity achievement d. social comparison compromise Answer: a Page: 285 Applied Moderate Rationale: Adolescents who belong to ethnic minorities must take note of their ethnicity, but they must also acknowledge that the majority culture may not reflect or may actually be hostile to the characteristics valued within the ethnic group. Sometimes this means that individuals will experience an ethnic identity crisis much like the more general adolescent identity crisis that Erikson described. 11.126. According to research cited in the text, the trait of ethnic identity is comprised of all of the following EXCEPT: a. race centrality (the important of race to the person’s self-definition) b. private regard (group pride about belonging to the racial group) c. public regard (how one interprets the majority culture’s beliefs about one’s group) d. self-identity (whether or not one considers himself or herself to belong to the racial/ethnic group or to the majority culture)

Answer: d Page: 285 Factual Difficult Changing Perspectives: Family Obligation and Assistance During Adolescence 11.127. According to research presented in the text, when children in families were asked to take on additional responsibilities, this was usually the result of high levels of stress in the ________ job, and the child who assumed the greatest responsibilities was usually a __________. a. mother’s; son b. mother’s; daughter c. father’s; son d. father’s; daughter Answer: b Page: 288 Factual Difficult 11.128. Suppose that Scott and Ruth (a brother and sister) have recently been asked to take on more responsibility for household chores. This is most likely the result of extra stress in their _________ job, and _______ will likely provide the greatest amount of help to the family. a. father’s; Scott b. father’s; Ruth c. mother’s; Scott d. mother’s; Ruth Answer: d Page: 288 Applied Difficult Rationale: Research cited in the text showed that when the mother’s job (but not necessarily the father’s) was particularly stressful, teens of working parents were asked to take on some family responsibilities. Additionally, daughters, far more than sons, assumed the obligations when the parents needed help. 11.129. Whitney has promised that she will repay her parents for sending her to college and medical school by paying them 1% of her income for life. This type of family obligation would best be considered an example of: a. current assistance b. family respect c. future support d. balance of power Answer: c Page 288 Applied Easy Rationale: The type of obligation called future support refers to adolescents’ plans to send money from future earnings to the family or assume obligations for educating younger siblings. 11.130. If you studied groups of teenagers whose parents had recently immigrated to the United States, you should expect that teenagers from which of the following groups would feel the LEAST obligation to their families? a. teenagers whose families came from Europe b. teenagers whose families came from China c. teenagers whose families came from Mexico d. teenagers whose families came from the Philippines Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 288 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to a research study cited in the textbook, in comparison to adolescents whose parents represented European backgrounds, those from the other four ethnic traditions (Chinese, Filipino, Mexican, Central and South American) reported feeling greater obligation to their families in all three types of family obligation studied. 11.131. If you conducted a study that compared teenagers whose parents immigrated from South America to the United States with teenagers whose parents immigrated from Europe to the U.S., you would expect that the teens from South America were _____ likely to recognize the value of education opportunities and were ______ likely to dislike the “hard” subjects of math and English. a. more; more b. less; less c. more: equally d. less; equally Answer: c Page: 288 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to a research study cited in the text, adolescents from non-European groups were more likely to recognize the value of school success, especially in the areas of math and English, although they did not like these subjects any more than the adolescents from the European background did.

True-False questions: Developmental Tasks of Adolescence 11.132. Based on large cross-cultural studies of adolescence, it seems clear that adolescence is a time of considerable “storm and stress” for most teenagers in developed nations. Answer: False Page: 281 Rationale: A study of 27,000 adolescents in 24 different countries concluded that although some adolescents did report emotional and behavioral problems, the percentage of individuals experiencing significant issues was small and was comparable across countries. 11.133. Achieving autonomy and forming an identity are the two most important developmental tasks of adolescence. Answer: True Page: 281 11.134. Adolescence is a period of the lifespan normally characterized by increasing self-regulation and increasing interdependence with parents. Answer: True Page: 281 11.135. Eric Erikson saw the period of adolescence as a time in which teenagers try out various alternative identities as they attempt to sort through the available options and forge their sense of who they are.

Answer: True Page: 282 11.136. According to Marcia, if a person has gone through one or more identity crises, but has not yet made a commitment to any particular course of action, that person would be in the stage of foreclosure. Answer: False Page: 282-283 Rationale: Foreclosure involves making a commitment but without going through and identity crisis. If a person went through a crisis but has not made a commitment, this identity status would be called moratorium. 11.137. More young adolescents than young adults are in the identity state of diffusion. Answer: True Page: 284 11.138. Young men and women who are gay or lesbian generally have an easier time forging an identity because they do not have the pressures of parents regarding dating and choosing a mate to deal with. Answer: False Page: 285 Rationale: Normally, gay males and lesbian females have a harder time forging an identity because the sexual identity they have is not well accepted by their peer group. Also, families sometimes find an identity that includes a homosexual orientation to be unacceptable, further compromising the gay or lesbian adolescent’s ability to adopt a secure sense of self. Family Dynamics 11.139. Most conflicts that adolescents have with their parents are about the “big” things in life, such as choosing a mate or career, determining a religious orientation, and making a commitment to a set of social and political values. Answer: False Page: 286 Rationale: Usually, adolescents do not have much conflict with their parents about core religious, economic, social, and political values, in part because few adolescents form their beliefs about these values so early in life. Instead, adolescents are more likely to have conflicts with parents about daily matters, such as family chores, dating, curfew hours, grades, personal appearance, and eating habits. 11.140. The family alliances that were formed during childhood usually remain intact during the period of adolescence. Answer: True Page: 287 11.141. Adolescents who grow up in families with permissive parents often become defiant and resentful, and may become dependent and anxious in the presence of authority figures. Answer: False Page: 287 Rationale: The behaviors described in this question are more likely to be linked to authoritarian parenting. Permissive parenting typically leads to the adolescent’s difficulty in setting boundaries and defining appropriate behavior. 11.142. Although mothers generally know more than fathers about their adolescent’s behaviors, fathers usually exert a stronger influence on their adolescent child’s development.

Answer: False Page: 287 Rationale: According to the text, mothers both know more and exert a stronger influence on the development of their adolescent children than fathers do. Peer Relationships During Adolescence 11.143. The process we use to evaluate our abilities, behaviors, personality characteristics, appearance, reactions, and general sense of self in comparison to those of others is called self-efficacy. Answer: False Page: 289 Rationale: This process is called social comparison. Self-efficacy refers to what the person believes he or she is capable of doing in a given situation. 11.144. Most adolescents would be more likely to ask their friends, rather than their parents, about which social events to attend, which clubs to join, and how to dress. Answer: True Page: 289-290 11.145. A clique is nearly always larger in number than a crowd. Answer: False Page: 290 Rationale: Cliques are usually comprised of 3-9 close friends, whereas crowds are larger groups, numbering perhaps 15 to 30 people. Crowds are often made up of two or more cliques. 11.146. Most adolescents who are involuntary loners feel that they are strange or different and they do not fit into crowds or cliques. Answer: True Page: 290 11.147. Dating serves very different functions for boys and girls, with boys gaining sexual experience from dating and girls gaining popularity. Answer: False Page: 291 Rationale: According to the text, dating serves quite similar functions for adolescent boys and girls. 11.148. Culture clashes that result when children of immigrant parents want to embrace U. S. culture rather than adhere to their family’s tradition ethnic culture are usually harsher for boys than girls. Answer: False Page: 291 Rationale: According to the text, culture clashes such as this are usually more serious for girls because disparities, such as those for hairstyles and dress, are greater for women than for men. Risk and Resilience in Adolescence 11.149. The regions of the brain responsible for decision making are among the last to develop. Answer: True Page: 292

11.150. The adolescents who are most likely to take risks also tend to be the best students and to have good impulse control. Answer: False Page: 293 Rationale: Adolescents who are most likely to take risks tend to have poor impulse control and to experience low school achievement. 11.151. The percentage of people who report the use of any illicit drug in the past month is highest among the 16- to 17-year-old age group. Answer: False Page: 293 Rationale: The group with the highest percentage of people who report any illicit drug use in the past months is the 18- to -20-year-old age group, as shown in Figure 11-3. 11.152. According to statistics reported in the text, about one-third of high school seniors report “current” smoking. Answer: True Page: 294 11.153. Illnesses that result from smoking are the single most preventable causes of illness and death in the United States today. Answer: True Page: 294 11.154. Although alcohol consumption remains fairly constant throughout early and middle adulthood, the proportion of people who report binge drinking declines with age, beginning at about age 25. Answer: True Page: 294 11.155. Recent research suggests that the use of marijuana may be more dangerous than previously thought. Answer: True Page: 295 11.156. When a person ingests marijuana, the active ingredient, THC, is quickly eliminated from the body so use of this drug seldom causes problems for the user. Answer: False Page: 295 Rationale: Marijuana’s adverse effects on thinking, problem solving, and memory can last for several days or weeks, so people who use the drug regularly may be functioning with some level of impairment all of the time. 11.157. The use of alcohol and marijuana has fallen from a high point in the late 1970s. Answer: True Page: 295 11.158. The illicit drugs generally used by the youngest children and adolescents are typically stimulants, sedatives, and tranquilizers. Answer: False Page: 196 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The average age of first use of stimulants, sedatives, and tranquilizers is in the early 20s, making these drugs among the last to be used by adolescents. Young adolescents are more likely to use inhalants, marijuana, and LSD. 11.159. The defining factor that determines whether a person is a delinquent or a criminal is how severe the crime committed is. Answer: False Page: 296 Rationale: The term delinquent can be applied to individuals who commit any crime, from petty misdemeanors to armed robbery, rape, and murder. However, delinquency is a term that applies only to young people who are under the age of 16, or age 18 in some states. Thus, age is the defining factor that determines whether a person is a delinquent or a criminal. 11.160. For both adolescent boys and girls, if sexual abuse occurs, the abuser is most likely to be a male adult who is not the child’s father. Answer: True Page: 297 Stress, Depression, and Coping 11.161. At any given point in time, about 15-20% of adolescents will be suffering from depression. Answer: False Page: 298 Rationale: About 15-20% of college students report that they have suffered from moderate to severe depression. However, at any given point in time, only about 8% of adolescents are currently coping with this disorder. 11.162. The strongest predictor of depression in both male and female adolescents is low self-esteem. Answer: True Page: 298 11.163. Girls who suffer from depression are less likely to become pregnant than girls who don’t because when girls are depressed, they lose their interest in sexual behavior. Answer: False Page: 299 Rationale: The incidence of pregnancy is 3 times higher among depressed teenage girls than among those who are not depressed. 11.164. Suicide is now the third leading cause of death among adolescents and suicide rates have quadrupled since the mid-1950s. Answer: True Page: 299

Short Answer questions: Developmental Tasks of Adolescence 11.165. The text discusses a cross-cultural study in which 27,000 adolescents from 24 different countries were asked to rate their own behavioral and emotional problems. Describe the most important results from this study.

Page: 281 11.166. Give an example of how teenagers and their parents can develop an interdependent relationship. Page: 281 11.167. Describe a social reference group that you think is important to yourself or to an adolescent you know. How do you know this group functions as a social reference group? Page: 282 11.168. Identify the conflict that Erik Erikson believes was the central task for adolescents to achieve and describe how his concept of identity crisis is important to resolving this conflict. Page: 282 11.169. Using Marcia’s view of identify formation, explain the difference between identity achievement and foreclosure. Page: 282-283 11.170. How does gender typically affect how adolescents develop a sense of identity? Do boys and girls develop identities that emphasize the same, or different, aspects of the self? Page: 284 Family Dynamics 11.171. How do family alliances formed in childhood generally change as children move through the period of adolescence? Page: 287 11.172. Explain the difference between authoritarian parenting and authoritative parenting. Which parenting style leads to better developmental outcomes for adolescents? Page: 287 11.173. Explain the difference between parental control and parental monitoring. Give an example of each to clarify your answer. Page: 288 Peer Relationships During Adolescence 11.174. What does the term “social comparison” mean? Give an example of how an adolescent might use the process of social comparison to determine whether or not she should work hard in her mathematics class in high school. Page: 289 11.175. Explain the difference between a clique and crowd. Page: 290 11.176. How does being an involuntary loner affect an adolescent’s identify formation? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 290-291 11.177. Identify two different functions of dating and describe how the importance of each of these functions typically shifts as adolescents move through the period from early adolescence to emerging adulthood. Page: 291 11.178. Describe a situation in which an adolescent and his or her parents are caught in a clash of cultures. Suggest two ways in which such culture clashes can be resolved. Page: 291-292 Risk and Resilience in Adolescence 11.179. How might brain development be linked to risk-taking in adolescence? Page: 292 11.180. What is binge drinking and why is it a problem on most college campuses? Page: 293-294 11.181. What physiological effects does cigarette smoking have on the body? How dangerous it is to smoke cigarettes? Page: 294 11.182. Is alcohol consumption a problem in most high schools in the United States today? Explain your answer and cite relevant statistics to support your conclusion. Page: 294-295 11.183. Explain the effects that marijuana typically has on behavior. Page: 295 11.184. Are teenagers today more likely, or less likely, to use illicit drugs now that 40 years ago? Cite statistics that support your answer. Page: 295-296 11.185. Define the term delinquency and suggest two risk factors that are associated with this type of crime. Page: 296 Stress, Depression, and Coping 11.186. Explain why overstatements that incorrectly emphasize that adolescence is a period of intense psychological trauma can lead to poor outcomes. Page: 298 11.187. Is adolescent suicide a significant problem? Cite statistics to support your answer. Page: 299 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.188. Indentify a protective factor that helps adolescents achieve good developmental outcomes for each of the following three categories: individual characteristics, family characteristics, and sociocultural characteristics. Page: 300 11.189. Define the term “resilience” and suggest an individual characteristic, a family characteristic, and a sociocultural characteristic that contributes to an individual adolescent’s resilience. Page: 302

Essay questions: Developmental Tasks of Adolescence 11.190. Why is forming an identity typically considered the most important task of adolescence? Page: 282 11.191. How might an authoritarian parenting style contribute to prolonging an adolescent’s time spent in a foreclosure identity status? Page: 282-283, 287 11.192. Describe the way a typical adolescent would move through the stages Marcia identified as being involved in identify formation: diffusion, moratorium, foreclosure, and identity achievement. Page: 283-285 11.193. Which of Marcia’s stages of identify formation are you presently in? Give examples that support your conclusion about your own developmental progress through identity formation. Page: 283-285 11.194. Does the development of an identity during adolescence seem to depend to a large degree, or a small degree, on culture? Describe research that supports your answer. Page: 283-284 11.195. The text suggests that adolescents who are gay males or lesbians generally have a more difficult time in developing a secure identity than do adolescents with heterosexual orientation. Do you agree or disagree with the text’s assertion? Cite evidence to support your answer. Page: 285-286 Family Dynamics 11.196. What are the most important roles that parents play during the teenage years? Page: 286-289 11.197. How might an authoritative parenting style contribute to the major adolescent task of achieving autonomy and independence? Page: 287 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

11.198. What are the parenting characteristics that contribute most positively to the healthy development of children through adolescence? Page: 287-288 Peer Relationships During Adolescence 11.199. How are cliques and crowds related to identity formation in adolescence? Include in your answer the role of social comparison in identity formation. Page: 289 11.200. How do typical adolescent friendships change as children move through the period of adolescence? Page: 289-290 11.201. Identify from your own experience a child who appeared to you to be an involuntary loner. Explain as best you can the factors that contributed to this child’s involuntary aloneness. Does your example of this adolescent support the text’s conclusion that oftentimes loners are adolescents who are different in some important way from others in their group? Page: 290-291 11.202. What can parents and teachers do to help a child who is an involuntary loner become better integrated into a peer group? Page: 290-291 11.203. How do the expectations held by younger and older adolescents differ with respect to the functions of dating that are important? Page: 291 11.204. Give an example of a clash of culture that you have experienced between an adolescent and his or her parents. (If you can’t think of a personal example, use a hypothetical example.) What factors contributed to this culture clash? What seemed to be the major point of conflict? What can parents do to help their adolescents work through such clashes of culture? Page: 292-293 Risk and Resilience in Adolescence 11.205. Is risky behavior a normal part of adolescence for most teenagers? Explain why you answered this question the way you did, citing evidence to support your conclusion. Page: 292-293 11.206. Suggest three factors that likely contribute to the finding that the percentage of people using illicit drugs peaks during late adolescence. Page: 293 11.207. Describe how illicit drug use has changed over the period from the 1970s to the present day. Suggest three social forces that help explain these changes.

Page: 295-296 11.208. Do you think it is a good idea to have a separate label, delinquency, for adolescents who commit crimes? Why or why not? Page: 296 11.209. How large a problem is sexual abuse of adolescents in the Unites Stated today? What are two negative outcomes associated with sexual abuse of teenagers? Page: 297 Stress, Depression, and Coping 11.210. Suggest three reasons that might explain the gender difference seen in the incidence and prevalence of depression. Page: 298-299 11.211. Explain what it means to say that depression results from an interaction of risk factors. Name two such risk factors and explain how they may interact to produce the symptoms of depression. Page: 299 11.212. How have teenage suicide rates changed over the past five decades? Suggest three factors that may help explain this change. Page: 299-300 11.213. The text suggests that psychological problems are associated with several risk factors, some of which pertain to individual characteristics, some to family characteristics, and some to sociocultural characteristics. Taking the problem of depression as an example, suggest how specific risk factors in each of these three categories interact to predispose a given individual toward, or away from, the development of this illness. Page: 300-301 11.214. Explain the concept of resilience, using the development of depression as an example. Page: 302-303

Name____________________________________ Chapter 12 - Young Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development – Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. According to the text, all of the following reach their peak during young adulthood EXCEPT: a. vitality b. strength c. endurance d. visual acuity 2. Sexual orientation is best thought of as being: a. “either-or,” that is, a person has either a same-sex or an opposite-sex orientation b. the result of biological causes c. the result of social and psychological causes d. a continuum, with individuals varying in the degree to which they have same-sex and opposite-sex preferences 3. According to Piaget, at which of the following ages do individuals typically reach the stage of formal operations, and thereby substantially complete their cognitive development? a. at age 12 b. at age 25 c. at age 55 d. at age 75 Conceptual questions: 4. How well a person adapts to environmental demands is most important to the concept captured by which of the following terms? a. chronological age b. social age c. psychological age d. biological age 5. Beginning at about age 38, most women find that: a. their ovaries release fewer ova and with greater irregularity b. they begin to enter menopause c. they experience a “second menarche” d. their ovaries develop a new supply of ova 6. According to Levinson’s original research, women were less likely to have mentors for their career because: a. they have difficulty in listening to how another person believes they should live their lives b. they believe that they must achieve career success unaided c. they choose careers where mentoring is not necessary d. there are few female mentors available Applied questions: 7. After graduating from high school, Tyrone and several of his classmates attended the local community college. Going to college immediately following high school is best considered to be an example of a(n): a. normative event b. idiosyncratic event c. biological-clock-driven event d. cross-cultural event

8. As Shelly gets older, she is better able to work productively with people she doesn’t like or doesn’t respect. This ability is most central to which of the following concepts? a. formal operations b. emotional intelligence c. postformal thought d. dialectical thought 9. At this stage in his life, Martin is busy with providing money for his family, with working on his relationship with his wife, and with helping his parents adjust to the processes of aging. According to Havighurst’s model, which stage of development is Martin most likely in? a. middle age b. early adulthood c. older adulthood d. adolescence 10. Jack is 60 years old, has never married, and consequently feels like he “missed out” on the most important thing in life – to fall in love and be in love with another person. According to Erikson’s view of adult development, Jack is experiencing a sense of: a. existential loneliness b. isolation c. mistrust of emotions d. stagnation

Name____________________________________ Chapter 12 - Young Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development – Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. Which of the following is the leading cause of death in young adulthood? a. murder b. accidents c. cancer d. suicide 2. At present, there is no cure for which of the following diseases? a. herpes b. syphilis c. gonorrhea d. chlamydia 3. Which of the following is the term that describes thought that seeks to integrate opposing or conflicting ideas and observations? a. normative thought b. dialectical thought c. preformal thought d. postformal thought Conceptual questions: 4. Researchers use which of the following terms to express how we know when certain events in our life "should" occur? a. age clocks b. life change units c. normative transitions d. initiation rites 5. Suppose you survey a population of U. S. married adults about their sexual activity. You should expect that couples in which of the following age groups will report having sex most frequently? a. couples in their 20s and 30s b. couples in their 40s and 50s c. couples in their 60s and 70s, after the children have left home d. None of the couples reported having sex more frequently, since sexual frequency is unrelated to age. 6. According to Havighurst, selecting a mate and rearing children are tasks of: a. late adulthood b. later maturity c. middle age d. early adulthood 7. According to the view of Daniel Levinson, the life structure develops out of which of the following processes? a. taking on and resolving the tasks of life b. growing older physically and mentally c. forming an intimate relationship with a person who loves you d. raising children and helping them become successful adults Applied questions:

8. Although Mary is only 17 years old, she is married, has a child, holds a complex job, and provides the majority of her family’s income. To describe Mary as being “like a 30-year-old” would emphasize which of the following concepts? a. social age b. biological age c. chronological age d. postformal age 9. David has been a defense lawyer for 15 years. Now in his early 40s, he has volunteered his services to battered women in the community. According to Schaie, David's application of his cognitive skills reflects what stage of adult thinking? a. acquisition b. achieving c. reintegrating d. social responsibility 10. Jonathon tells his best friend: “I’m going to accept a job offer from a start-up technology company, but if that doesn’t work out, I’m sure my parents will bail me out and I can always join the family business.” Generalizing from Gould’s theory, if Jonathon is typical for people his age, he is most likely about: a. age 18 b. age 25 c. age 36 d. age 48

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 12.1 1. d, p. 309 2. d, p. 318 3. a, p. 320 4. c, p. 309 5. a, p. 315 6. d, p. 326 7. a, p. 307 8. b, pp. 322-323 9. a, p. 325 10. b, p. 325 Quick Quiz 12.2 1. b, p. 312 2. a, p. 315-316 3. b, p. 321 4. a, p. 308 5. a, p. 317 6. d, p. 325 7. a, p. 325-326 8. a, p. 309 9. d, p. 323 10. b, p. 328

Chapter 12 Young Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

Multiple Choice questions: Perspectives on Adult Development 12.1. In comparison with earlier stages of development, the stage of adulthood is _____ predictable and _____ variable. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: d Page: 307 Factual Easy 12.2. The periods of early childhood are defined for the most part by _____________, whereas the period of early adulthood is defined for the most part by ___________. a. social milestones such as learning to love parents; physical milestones such as menopause b. physical milestones such as learning to walk; social milestones such as getting married c. chronological age; biological age d. biological age; chronological age Answer: b Page: 307 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, the events marking the major transitions from one stage to the next within adulthood are less closely tied to chronological age or specific biological events, such as the rapid brain maturation that occurs in infancy or the maturation of sexual functions in adolescence. Rather, the major markers within adulthood are more closely linked to personal, social, and cultural forces or events—such as getting married, starting a job or career, or having a child. 12.3. Events that occur at relatively specific times in the lifespan and which most people in an age cohort experience are referred to by which of the following terms? a. idiosyncratic events b. normative events c. biological-clock-driven events d. age clocks Answer: b Page: 307 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Normative events refer to the events and the transitions that surround them, that occur at relatively specific times in the lifespan, which most people in an age cohort experience, such as marriage and retirement. 12.4. After graduating from high school, Tyrone and several of his classmates attended the local community college. Going to college immediately following high school is best considered to be an example of a(n): a. normative event b. idiosyncratic event Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. biological-clock-driven event d. cross-cultural event Answer: a Page: 307 Applied Easy Rationale: Normative events refer to the events and the transitions that surround them, that occur at relatively specific times in the lifespan, which most people in an age cohort experience, such as marriage and retirement. 12.5. Events that happen at any time without warning and create considerable stress in a person's life are called: a. contextual b. normative c. idiosyncratic d. dialectic Answer: c Page: 307 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Idiosyncratic events are those events in the lifespan that are unanticipated, such as the death of a spouse, that typically cause considerable stress and readjustment of a person’s life, both personally and socially. 12.6. Following graduation from college, Mark and Lisa got engaged and began looking for jobs in the same city. Their situation is typical for the majority of people in their age cohort, so it is called a(n): a. normative transition b. idiosyncratic transition c. anticipated transition d. cultural transition Answer: a Page: 307 Applied Moderate Rationale: Normative transitions are those that occur at relatively specific times in the lifespan, which most people in an age cohort experience, such as marriage and retirement. 12.7. Bernice has recently experienced the sudden and unexpected death of her husband and has lost her job after working at the company for 10 years. Since both of these events were unanticipated, they would best be considered to be: a. cohort events b. normative events c. idiosyncratic events d. counter-cultural events Answer: c Page: 307 Applied Moderate Rationale: Idiosyncratic events are those events in the lifespan that are unanticipated, such as the death of a spouse, that typically cause considerable stress and readjustment of a person’s life both personally and socially. 12.8. According to the text, which of the following types of events typically cause the most stress? a. events that can be anticipated well in advance b. normative events c. idiosyncratic events Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. age-clock events Answer: c Page: 307 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, there are typically clear expectations for how normative events should be dealt with so they usually are associated with minimal stress. Because idiosyncratic events usually are not anticipated and often are not emotionally shared with others, they can create considerable stress. 12.9. According to the text, which of the following spans of years fits within the developmental stage called “middle adulthood” ? a. 80s and up b. 60s and 70s c. 40s and 50s d. 30s and 40s Answer: c Page: 308 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As the text notes, it conventionally divides the adult years in such a way that the 40s and 50s are considered the middle adulthood years. 12.10. Researchers use which of the following terms to express how we know when certain events in our life "should" occur? a. age clocks b. life change units c. normative transitions d. initiation rites Answer: a Page: 308 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Age clocks refer to a form of internal timing used as a measure of adult development. Age clocks provide us with a way of knowing that we are progressing too slowly or too quickly in terms of key social events that occur during adulthood. 12.11. Donna is upset because she has returned to college in her late 30s. She feels so “old” and out of step compared to the other students, who nearly all are in their late teens and early twenties. Donna’s feeling best reflect the issues surrounding the concept of: a. idiosyncratic events b. intimacy c. postformal thought d. age clocks Answer: d Page: 308 Applied Moderate Rationale: Age clocks let us know when certain events in our life should occur, relative to standards typical in our culture. If important life events happen earlier or later than expected, individuals may experience distress and less peer support than when such developments are accomplished according to a more typical schedule. 12.12. Today, about ___ of the female population will live to be 80 years old or older; in 1900 that percentage was Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

about ___. a. 50%; 30% b. 50%; 14% c. 80%; 50% d. 80%; 40% Answer: b Page: 308 Factual Moderate 12.13. According to the text, age clocks today, when compared to age clocks 50 years ago, have become: a. much longer b. much faster c. more relevant d. more blurred Answer: d Page: 308 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Partly because more people are living longer, and partly because our society is becoming more flexible with respect to the roles and opportunities available to both women and men, the lines that traditionally have separated the stages of adulthood are becoming more blurred. 12.14. Juanita is celebrating her 30th birthday. The fact that she has lived 30 years best reflects the concept of: a. biological age b. social age c. chronological age d. psychological age Answer: c Page: 309 Applied Easy Rationale: The concept of chronological age refers to how many years and months have elapsed since birth. 12.15. Two of Dr. Brown’s patients are in identical health, both having heart disease, diabetes, and limited physical abilities. However, one of these patients is 86 years old and the other is 56 years old. This example best points out what is meant by the term: a. social age b. chronological age c. psychological age d. biological age Answer: d Page: 309 Applied Difficult Rationale: Biological age refers to an individual’s position with regard to his or her expected lifespan. 12.16. Lonnie and his friend Jake are both 40 years old, but Lonnie is much more successfully settled in his life. Lonnie is married, is raising a family, and has a job he enjoys; Jake is still dating, has held several jobs that he doesn’t like, and he is just “unhappy” with his life. This example emphasizes the idea of: a. chronological age b. psychological age Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. biological age d. living in an ageless society Answer: b Page: 309 Applied Moderate Rationale: Psychological age refers to an individual’s current ability to cope with and adapt to social and environmental demands; it includes subjective dimensions like feelings, attitudes, and motives. 12.17. According to the text, a person's age as measured by the additional number of years she is expected to live is called her: a. chronological age b. social age c. psychological age d. biological age Answer: d Page: 309 Factual Moderate 12.18. How well a person adapts to environmental demands is most important to the concept captured by which of the following terms? a. chronological age b. social age c. psychological age d. biological age Answer: c Page: 309 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Psychological age is defined as an individual’s current ability to cope with and adapt to social and environmental demands. 12.19. Ernest, a 50-year-old man, bar hops every night in search of one-night stands – a behavior more commonly associated with much younger men in their 20s. To say that Ernest acts like a man who is 25 emphasizes the concept of: a. chronological age b. biological age c. social age d. psychological age Answer: c Page: 309 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social age refers to an individual’s current status as compared with cultural norms. Saying that Ernest acts like he is 25 emphasizes how he acts in relation to cultural norms. 12.20. Although Mary is only 17 years old, she is married, has a child, holds a complex job, and provides the majority of her family’s income. To describe Mary as being “like a 30-year-old” would emphasize which of the following concepts? a. social age b. biological age Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. chronological age d. postformal age Answer: a Page: 309 Applied Moderate Rationale: Social age refers to an individual’s current status as compared with cultural norms. Saying that Mary acts like she is 30 emphasizes how she acts in relation to cultural norms. 12.21. Dr. Abrams emphasizes to students in her Developmental Psychology class that they must consider multiple interacting forces when trying to understand human development. She is reflecting the central focus of which of the following? a. psychodynamic theory b. contextual paradigms c. normative evens d. idiosyncratic events Answer: b Page: 309 Applied Difficult Rationale: Contextual paradigms refer to theories that emphasize the interaction of numerous environmental, social, psychological, and historical factors that influence development. 12.22. Contextual paradigms generally are most important to consider when investigating developmental changes during which of the following periods of the lifespan? a. prenatal development b. infancy and toddlerhood c. middle childhood d. middle adulthood Answer: d Page: 309 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, at no point do contextual considerations become more important than in adult development when pathways of life begin to diverge markedly. General Physical Development 12.23. According to the text, all of the following reach their peak during young adulthood EXCEPT: a. vitality b. strength c. endurance d. visual acuity Answer: d Page: 309 Factual Moderate 12.24. Which of the following athletes would be most likely to reach peak performance during adolescence, rather than adulthood? a. a swimmer b. a runner Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. a tennis player d. a golfer Answer: a Page: 311 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, the age at which athletes reach their peak performance varies according to the sport. Swimmers and gymnasts generally peak during adolescence, short-distance runners and tennis players usually peak in their early 20s. Golfers tend to perform best in their late 20s and on into their 30s. 12.25. According to the text, decline in which of the following systems is greatest between the ages of 20 and 80? a. cardiovascular function b. muscle strength c. maximum breathing capacity d. kidney function Answer: c Page: 311 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 12-1 shows that the decline in functioning between age 20 and age 80 is least for nerve condition speed, followed by kidney function, cardiovascular function, muscle strength, useful lung volume, and finally maximum breathing capacity. All of these functions are about equally high at age 20. 12.26. Which of the following people would be expected to have the greatest arm strength, leg strength, and hand strength? a. Fred, who is 39 years old b. Frank, who is 33 years old c. Mark, who is 26 years old d. Paul, who is 23 years old Answer: d Page: 311 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The textbook notes that between the ages of 23 and 27, the striated (voluntary) muscles, including the biceps and triceps, achieve their maximum physical strength. Peak leg strength comes between the ages of 20 and 30, peak hand strength comes at about age 20. 12.27. Suppose that Jim wants to become a professional golfer. He should plan to achieve his best game at about what age? a. age 16 b. age 18 c. age 24 d. age 30 Answer: d Page: 311 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the textbook, golfers tend to perform best in their late 20s and on into their 30s. 12.28. If you and your friends identified the “five best baseball players of all time” and computed the average age at which each of them had his best season, this average age would most likely be: a. age 19 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. age 22 c. age 25 d. age 30 Answer: d Page: 311 Applied Difficult Rationale: Major league baseball players generally peak around ages 27-30, although the players with the greatest ability may peak several years after that. 21.29. Suppose that the world record winning time for the half-marathon was 1 hour 10 minutes in 1900. If the world’s fastest 60-year-olds ran a half-marathon race today, what would you expect the winning time would be? a. 2 hours 20 minutes b. 2 hour 0 minutes c. 1 hour 50 minutes d. 1 hour 10 minutes Answer: d Page: 311 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In 1896 the winning time for a marathon was 2 hours 59 minutes; in 2008, the winning time for master athletes running the same distance was 2 hours 59 minutes for those in the 60 to 69 age group. By analogy, one would expect the record winning time for a half-marathon in 1900 to be roughly the same as the winning time for the fastest 60-year-old today. 12.30. Generalizing from race times reported in the text for women’s marathon races, if the world record time for the women’s half-marathon was 1 hour 20 minutes, what would you expect the world record time for women to be today for this race? a. 1 hour 40 minutes b. 1 hour 20 minutes c. 1 hour 15 minutes d. 1 hour 0 minutes Answer: d Page: 311 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Although women did not run in the Boston Marathon in the 1890s, the winning time for women in 1972 was 3 hours 10 minutes. In 2008, merely 36 years later, the top woman finished in 2 hours 25 minutes, lopping 45 minutes off the 1972 winning time. 12.31. What is the leading preventable cause of death among males aged 25-44? a. homicides b. suicides c. accidents d. HIV infection resulting in AIDS Answer: c Page: 312 Factual Moderate 12.32. At 31 years old, Marco died from the leading preventable cause of death among males in his age group. What did he die from? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. homicide b. an accident c. heart disease d. HIV infection resulting in AIDS Answer: b Page: 312 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the textbook, the leading preventable cause of death among adults ages 25 to 44 is accidents; the death rate due to accidents for males is about 3 times that of the rate for females. 12.33. For young adults today, what are the top 3 leading causes of preventable death: a. smoking, obesity, and alcohol consumption b. smoking, alcohol consumption, and diabetes c. diabetes, asthma, and drug addiction d. obesity, smoking, and diabetes Answer: a Page: 312 Factual Moderate 12.34. In early adulthood, about _____ of adults report “no physical activity,” about _____ report “some physical activity,” and about _____ report “regular physical activity.” a. 20%; 50%; 30% b. one-third; one-third; one-third c. one-half; one-quarter; one-quarter d. 10%; 50%; 40% Answer: b Page: 312 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As shown in Figure 12-2, between the ages of 18 and 64 roughly a third of adults fall into each of these categories. 12.35. Which of the following periods of the lifespan has the LOWEST death rate? a. middle childhood b. adolescence c. young adulthood d. middle adulthood Answer: c Page: 312 Factual Moderate 12.36. According to data reported in the text, over the past several years in the United States the death rate associated with AIDS has: a. increased slightly b. remained the same c. decreased slightly d. decreased substantially Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 312 Factual Easy 12.37. According to data presented in the text, the peak of physiological functioning occurs at about age ____ for people who have active lifestyles and at about age _____ for people who have sedentary lifestyles. a. 30; 30 b. 40; 20 c. 50; 18 d. 50; 30 Answer: a Page: 312 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 12-3 shows the percent of general physiological function for people age 10 to age 90. For both active and sedentary people, the peak of functioning occurs at about age 30. 12.38. Which of the following is the leading cause of death in young adulthood? a. murder b. accidents c. cancer d. suicide Answer: b Page: 312 Factual Moderate 12.39. According to statistics reported in the text, the use of illicit drugs and driving while drunk both reach their peak in which of the following age groups? a. 16-22 b. 18-25 c. 20-27 d. 24-30 Answer: b Page: 312 Factual Easy 12.40. What law makes it illegal to discriminate against individuals with disabilities in employment, public accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications? a. Equal Pay Act b. Social Security Act c. Americans with Disabilities Act d. Equal Employment Opportunity Act Answer: c Page: 312-313 Factual Easy 12.41. While already employed, Philip develops a disability. In the language of the law, if he is otherwise qualified for his job, his employer must provide him with: a. a "second chance"" Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. a "job guarantee" c. "reasonable accommodations” d. a "medical waiver" Answer: c Page: 313 Applied Difficult Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act requires companies to make reasonable accommodations for the needs of employees with disabilities so that they can do the work for which they are trained; if that is not possible, they must be trained for comparably skilled work. 12.42. Mark is a high school biology teacher who suffered an accident and now cannot use his legs and is in a wheelchair. When he recovered and came back to work, his school moved his biology classroom from the second to the first floor, and they installed a lower lab bench so he could teach effectively in this renovated classroom. The school’s response would be considered a good example of: a. assimilation b. postformal response c. reasonable accommodation d. dialectical response Answer: c Page: 313 Applied Moderate Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act requires companies to make reasonable accommodations for the needs of employees with disabilities so that they can do the work for which they are trained; if that is not possible, they must be trained for comparably skilled work. Sex and Sexuality 12.43. The average woman is born with approximately how many ova? a. 10,000 b. 400,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 18,00,000 Answer: b Page: 315 Factual Difficult 12.44. Beginning at about age 38, most women find that: a. their ovaries release fewer ova and with greater irregularity b. they begin to enter menopause c. they experience a “second menarche” d. their ovaries develop a new supply of ova Answer: a Page: 315 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, ovulation is relatively stable between the ages of 25 and 38. After age 38, and up until menopause, however, there is a rapid decline in the number and regularity of ova released. 12.45. According to the text, peak fertility occurs for women at about age ____ and for men at about age ____. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. 25; 15 b. 15; 25 c. 25; 25 d. 15; 15 Answer: c Page: 315 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, peak fertility occurs for both groups during late adolescence and early adulthood. 12.46. Difficulty with conception as the result of having a sexually transmitted disease is a significant risk for all of the following EXCEPT: a. chlamydia b. syphilis c. gonorrhea d. herpes Answer: d Page: 315-316 Factual Moderate 12.47. At the present time, around the world about what percentage of those infected with HIV/AIDS are women? a. about 10% b. about 20% c. about 35% d. about 50% Answer: d Page: 316 Factual Easy 12.48. At present, there is no cure for which of the following diseases? a. herpes b. syphilis c. gonorrhea d. chlamydia Answer: a Page: 315-316 Factual Easy 12.49. Which disorder is most likely to cause urinary tract infection in men? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. chlamydia d. AIDS Answer: c Page: 316 Factual Moderate

12.50. Barbara is writing a research paper on sexually transmitted diseases. If she identifies the STD that is LEAST likely to be contracted by a young adult in the U. S. today, this disease would be which of the following? a. AIDS b. chlamydia c. herpes d. gonorrhea Answer: a Page: 316 Applied Easy Rationale: Even for high-risk groups within the U.S., the likelihood of contracting HIV is about 0.1%. The rate for other sexually transmitted diseases is much higher: in the range of 5 to 15%. 12.51. Tom, who is 20 years old, asks his brother, who is 36 years old, what percentage of his friends used condoms when they had sexual intercourse when they were Tom’s age. Tom also asks his own friends about their frequency of condom use. If Tom’s friends and Tom’s brother’s friends are typical for people of their generations, you should expect that about ____ of Tom’s friends report using condoms and ____ of Tom’s brother’s friends reported using condoms when they were 20 years old. a. 33%; 80% b. 80%; 33% c. 46%; 62% d. 62%; 46% Answer: d Page: 316 Applied Difficult Rationale: In comparison to 1991, in 2007 fewer young people reported having had sexual intercourse, and the proportion of those who do but use condoms increased from 46 to 62%. Tom’s brother would have been 20 in 1991, so we would expect that approximately 46% of his friends would report using condoms at age 20. Recent (2007) data suggest that approximately 62% of 20-year-olds currently use condoms, so we would expect that the usage among Tom’s friends would be at approximately that rate. 12.52. In comparison to people growing up in the 1990s, young adults today are more likely to: a. have unprotected sex, without the use of condoms b. engage frequently in sexual intercourse, and at younger ages c. avoid having testing done for STDs, including AIDS testing d. be more cautious about their sexual activity Answer: d Page: 316 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In comparison to 1991, in 2007 fewer young people reported having had sexual intercourse, and the proportion of those who do but use condoms increased from 46 to 62%. 12.53. According to data from a study at the University of Chicago, what percentage of people reporting having more than five sexual partners in the past year claim either to be decreasing their sexual activity, going for HIV testing on a regular basis, or using condoms always? a. 12% b. 33% c. 76% d. 94% Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 316 Factual Difficult 12.54. If you were on a quiz show and were asked to estimate the percentage of U. S. adults who have had sexual intercourse before marriage, the most accurate response you could give would be: a. 50% b. 62% c. 75% d. 95% Answer: d Page: 317 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to research presented in the text, 95% of the U.S. population today has had sex before marriage. 12.55. Generalizing from research presented in the text, which of the following statements about sexual behavior by U.S. adults is FALSE? a. About one-third of couples have sexual relations at least twice a week. b. About one-third of couples have sexual relations a few times a year or not at all. c. Hispanic Americans are far more likely to have frequent sexual relations than are Black or White Americans. d. A large majority of couples are monogamous. Answer: c Page: 317 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: 12.56. According to research described in the text, about what percent of married people in the U. S. today have sex at least twice a week? a. 1% b. 20% c. 33% d. 65% Answer: c Page: 317 Factual Moderate 12.57. Lorraine complains to her therapist that she and her husband have sex only a few times a year. Lorraine believes that this pattern of sexual activity is very unusual for married couples. If the therapist is knowledgeable about patterns of sexual intercourse, he should respond to Lorraine that in the United States today, about ____ percent of married couples report this pattern of sexual activity. a. 50% b. 33% c. 8% d. less than 1% Answer: b Page: 317 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: According to the University of Chicago survey reported in the text, there are three basic patterns of sexual relations: About one-third have sex at least twice a week, one-third several times a month, and one-third a few times a year or not at all. 12.58. Suppose you administer a survey about sexual activity to married couples who are either African American, Hispanic, or white. What results should you expect, if these couples’ responses reflect population trends in the U.S. today? a. African American couples will report having sex much more frequently than the other two groups. b. Hispanic couples will report having sex much more frequently than the other two groups. c. White couples will report having sex much more frequently than the other two groups. d. All couples will report having sex with about the same frequency. Answer: d Page: 317 Applied Difficult Rationale: According the University of Chicago survey reported in the text, there are only very minor variations across ethnic groups with regard to frequency of sex. 12.59. Suppose you survey a population of U. S. married adults about their sexual activity. You should expect that couples in which of the following age groups will report having sex most frequently? a. couples in their 20s and 30s b. couples in their 40s and 50s c. couples in their 60s and 70s, after the children have left home d. None of the couples reported having sex more frequently, since sexual frequency is unrelated to age. Answer: a Page: 317 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the University of Chicago survey reported in the text, the highest frequencies of sexual activity regardless of marital status were reported by people in their 20s and 30s. 12.60. Compared to the 1970s, reports of sexual satisfaction among U. S. adults today is _____ and _____ closely tied to whether or not sexual activity results in orgasm. a. much higher; is b. much higher; is not c. about the same; is d. about the same; is not Answer: b Page: 317 Factual Moderate 12.61. According to the text, a phrase that means essentially the same thing as “sexual orientation” is: a. homosexuality b. heterosexuality c. bisexuality d. sexual preference Answer: d Page: 317 Factual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12.62. A person who is sexually attracted to both males and females is called which of the following? a. homosexual person b. heterosexual person c. bisexual person d. hermaphrodite person Answer: c Page: 317 Factual Easy 12.63. According to the text, the most accurate answer to the question, “What causes a person to develop a samesex orientation?” is: a. exposure to male hormones during the prenatal period b. overly harsh punishment during childhood c. a set of genes that produce this behavior d. we don’t know Answer: d Page: 318 Factual Moderate 12.64. Sexual orientation is best thought of as being: a. “either-or,” that is, a person has either a same-sex or an opposite-sex orientation b. the result of biological causes c. the result of social and psychological causes d. a continuum, with individuals varying in the degree to which they have same-sex and opposite-sex preferences Answer: d Page: 318 Factual Moderate 12.65. According to the text, compared to people who have opposite-sex orientations, people who have same-sex orientations are LESS likely to: a. graduate from high school b. graduate from college c. have emotional problems d. live in urban areas Answer: c Page: 318-319 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, as compared to heterosexuals, a higher proportion of self-reported homosexuals attend or complete college and a higher proportion live in large cities than in other locales. 12.66. In comparison to people with heterosexual orientations, those with same-sex orientations are more likely to: a. be a high school dropout b. live in a large city c. live in a rural area d. be an only child

Answer: b Page: 318-319 Factual Moderate 12.67. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about how psychologists have thought about homosexuality as being a mental disorder? a. Psychologists have never considered homosexuality to be a mental disorder. b. Psychologists today consider homosexuality to be a mental disorder, and there is a classification for homosexuality in the current edition of the DSM. c. In the early part of the 20th century, psychologists considered homosexuality to be a mental disorder, but today they no longer do. d. Psychologists are split today, with about half considering homosexuality to be a mental disorder and about half considering homosexuality to not be a disorder but rather a lifestyle preference. Answer: c Page: 319-320 Factual Difficult 12.68. The prejudice, fear, and aversion held by individuals and directed against lesbians, gay men, and bisexuals is called what? a. homophobia b. agoraphobia c. xenophobia d. heterophobia Answer: a Page: 319 Factual Easy 12.69. Homophobia is best described as: a. sexual prejudice b. a clinical phobia c. sexual orientation d. homosexuality Answer: a Page: 319 Factual Easy 12.70. According to research presented in the text, what percentage of second-year medical students were found to endorse the belief that homosexuality is a mental disorder? a. 4% b. 9% c. 19% d. 27% Answer: b Page: 319 Factual Difficult Cognitive Development in Adulthood Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12.71. If Dr. Swank studies how IQ scores change across the lifespan, she would probably find that most individuals score the highest on tests of intelligence when they are at which of the following ages? a. age 18 b. age 27 c. age 39 d. age 60 Answer: b Page: 320 Applied Moderate Rationale: IQ scores are observed to peak between the ages of 20 and 34, especially when the tests involve speed and memory in addition to more complex, context-based problem solving. 12.72. According to Piaget, how would the problem-solving abilities of a 15-year-old differ from those of a 30year-old: a. Their problem-solving abilities would not differ substantially, although the 30-year-old might know more things. b. The 15-year-old would be better at conservation tasks. c. The 30-year-old would be better at conservation tasks. d. The 30-year old would be much more likely to use hypothetical reasoning when solving scientific problems. Answer: a Page: 320 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Piaget, although adults continue to accumulate additional facts and experiences, the logic and problem-solving skills they apply are largely the same as they used when they developed formal operational skills in adolescence. 12.73. According to Piaget, at which of the following ages do individuals typically reach the stage of formal operations, and thereby substantially complete their cognitive development? a. at age 12 b. at age 25 c. at age 55 d. at age 75 Answer: a Page: 320 Factual Easy 12.74. The text reports a study conducted on students from Harvard and Radcliffe. Compared to how their thinking was characterized as seniors, when these students were freshmen, their thinking was more likely to: a. be tolerant of many different points of view b. reflect their self-chosen ideas and convictions c. be dualistic, emphasizing the “either-or” aspects of thought d. focus on understanding ambiguous answers, rather than focusing on truth and knowledge Answer: c Page: 320-321 Factual Difficult

12.75. Which of the following is the term that describes thought that seeks to integrate opposing or conflicting ideas and observations? a. normative thought b. dialectical thought c. preformal thought d. postformal thought Answer: b Page: 321 Factual Moderate 12.76. Brittany often engages in the kind of thought in which she argues both sides of a question, pointing out the “pros” and “cons” of the situation. Her focus on trying to integrate opposing points of view and conflicting aspects of situations comes closest to thought that is called: a. formal operational thinking b. postformal thought c. normative thought d. dialectical thought Answer: d Page: 321 Applied Difficult Rationale: As noted in the text, dialectical thought is the style of thinking that seeks to integrate opposing or conflicting ideas and observations. 12.77. Jacob explains a difficult situation by bringing together ideas that reflect the logical aspects of the problem, the emotional aspects of the problems, and his own past experiences in solving problems of this type. The term that best describes Jacob’s approach to explaining this problem is: a. formal operational thinking b. postformal thought c. normative thought d. dialectical thought Answer: b Page: 321 Applied Difficult Rationale: Postformal thinking typically involves both cognitive and emotional aspects in problem solving and often is seen when issues are framed within a social context. 12.78. If a person has developed postformal thought, this would imply that she: a. can consider both cognitive and emotional aspects of a problem, in addition to her own experiences b. can understand hypothetical situations and can reason through “what if” problems c. has mastered the concepts that underlie conservation tasks d. knows the difference between “right” and “wrong” Answer: a Page: 321 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, postformal thinking typically involves both cognitive and emotional aspects in problem solving and often is seen when issues are framed within a social context. 12.79. As adolescents become adults, their thinking becomes more _______ and more ________. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. complex; realistic b. concrete; idealistic c. precise; idealistic d. abstract, idealistic Answer: a Page: 322 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One way in which thinking changes as young people move into adulthood is that it becomes more reflective and complex. Another dimension of adult thought is that it is more realistic, reflecting not just what is ideal but also what is possible. 12.80. According to the work of Daniel Goleman, which of the following is the term given to those aspects of the intellect that relate to understanding others’ and one’s own emotions and emotional responses? a. social intelligence b. dialectical intelligence c. emotional intelligence d. empathetic intelligence Answer: c Page: 322 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As defined in the text, emotional intelligence is the term given to those aspects of the intellect that relate to understanding others’ and one’s own emotions and emotional responses. 12.81. As Shelly gets older, she is better able to work productively with people she doesn’t like or doesn’t respect. This ability is most central to which of the following concepts? a. formal operations b. emotional intelligence c. postformal thought d. dialectical thought Answer: b Page: 322-323 Applied Moderate Rationale: Emotional intelligence is the term given to those aspects of the intellect that relate to understanding others’ and one’s own emotions and emotional responses. 12.82. As Kyle has gotten older, he has come to understand that, when two of his coworkers don’t like each other, he can sometimes smooth their disagreements so that they can work productively together. This ability is best captured by viewpoints that emphasize: a. formal operations b. postformal thought c. dialectical thought d. emotional intelligence Answer: d Page: 322-323 Applied Moderate Rationale: Emotional intelligence is the term given to those aspects of the intellect that relate to understanding others’ and one’s own emotions and emotional responses.

12.83. Wilma is using her intellectual abilities to pursue her chosen career and to decide on a lifestyle. In which of Warner Schaie’s stages of adult thinking is she? a. achieving period b. social responsibility period c. acquisitive period d. executive period Answer: a Page: 323 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Schaie, in the achieving period we apply our intellectual, problem-solving, and decisionmaking abilities toward accomplishing goals and a life plan. 12.84. According to Warner Schaie, in what period do children and adolescents acquire increasingly complex structures for understanding the world through formal operational thought? a. acquisition b. achieving c. social responsibility d. reintegrating Answer: a Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The powerful tools of formal operational thinking are the key achievement of the acquisition period, according to Schaie. 12.85. Warner Schaie views childhood and adolescence as a period of cognitive development that focuses on the ________of cognitive skills. a. acquisition b. reintegrating c. reorganization d. regression Answer: a Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Schaie, during childhood and adolescence we acquire increasingly complex structures for understanding the world. The powerful tools of formal operational thinking are the key achievement of this period, called the acquisition period. 12.86. In Schaie’s view, childhood and adolescence is to acquisitive as young adulthood is to: a. executive b. responsible c. achieving d. reintegrative Answer: c Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During childhood and adolescence we acquire increasingly complex structures for understanding the world; Schaie called this the acquisition period. In young adulthood we use our intellectual abilities to pursue a career and to choose a lifestyle; Schaie called this the achieving period. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12.87. Schaie's stage of social responsibility typically occurs during: a. childhood and adolescence b. young adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood Answer: c Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Schaie, the stage of social responsibility occurs in middle adulthood when we use our cognitive abilities to solve problems for others in the family, in the community, and on the job. 12.88. Schaie suggests that adult intelligence is characterized by: a. a steady decline in functioning b. a return to concrete operational thinking c. a substitution of postformal thought for the formal thought of adolescence d. flexible use of the cognitive skills they already possess Answer: d Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Schaie’s view emphasizes that the focus of cognitive development in adulthood is not on expanded intellectual capacity or on a change in cognitive structures. Instead, it emphasizes the flexible use of intelligence in different ways at different stages of the lifespan. 12.89. Jake studied business in college and took a summer job in an accounting firm to help him decide whether he really wanted to pursue a career in accounting. According to Schaie, Jake is in which stage of adult thinking? a. acquisition b. achieving c. reintegrating d. social responsibility Answer: b Page: 323 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Schaie, in the achieving period we apply our intellectual, problem-solving, and decisionmaking abilities toward accomplishing goals and a life plan. 12.90. Warner Schaie's social responsibility period for cognitive skills is typically characterized by: a. seeking objectively correct answers in problem-solving situations b. applying cognitive skills to problem solving in the family, community, and workplace c. choosing personal solutions that become integrated into a life plan d. reintegrating life experiences so as to see life and its purpose as a whole Answer: b Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Schaie, the stage of social responsibility occurs in middle adulthood when we use our cognitive abilities to solve problems for others in the family, in the community, and on the job.

12.91. David has been a defense lawyer for 15 years. Now in his early 40s, he has volunteered his services to battered women in the community. According to Schaie, David's application of his cognitive skills reflects what stage of adult thinking? a. acquisition b. achieving c. reintegrating d. social responsibility Answer: d Page: 323 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Schaie, the stage of social responsibility occurs in middle adulthood when we use our cognitive abilities to solve problems for others in the family, in the community, and on the job. 12.92. In his 60s, Arthur joins a Bible study group to help him make sense of his life and to explore questions of purpose. According to Schaie, Arthur's questions reflect what stage of adult cognition? a. acquisition b. achieving c. reintegrating d. social responsibility Answer: c Page: 323 Applied Difficult Rationale: The central task of the reintegration stage involves reintegrating the elements experienced earlier in life— making sense of life as a whole and exploring questions of purpose. 12.93. According to Schaie, what is the central task of late adulthood? a. acquisition b. achievement c. social responsibility d. reintegration Answer: d Page: 323 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Schaie, in the later years, the central task is one of reintegrating the elements experienced earlier in life—making sense of life as a whole and exploring questions of purpose. Frameworks for Understanding Adult Development 12.94. Dr. Lee advanced a theory that prescribes that nearly all adults go through an ordered series of five “life conflicts” that define how adult development unfolds. This type of theory fits best into which of the following theoretical approaches? a. a cognitive development model b. a context model c. a stage model d. a postformal model Answer: c Page: 324 Applied Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: As noted in the text, stage models are those that specify how individuals change as they move through stages of development and emphasize the commonalities of development. 12.95. Dr. Parks suggests that every person is so unique that theory of adult development cannot capture the widely varying patterns of development that individuals undergo. Dr. Parks’ point of view fits best into which of the following theoretical approaches? a. a stage model b. a postformal model c. a dialectical model d. a context model Answer: c Page: 324 Applied Moderate Rationale: Context models focus attention on the specific experiences that shape each individual’s life. 12.96. Which of the following theories is the best example of a context model? a. Piaget’s view of cognitive development b. Schaie’s view of adult development c. Erikson’s view of psychosocial development d. Goleman’s view of emotional intelligence Answer: d Page: 324, 322-323 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Context models focus on the specific experiences that shape each person’s life and they view these unique circumstances as important in determining how development proceeds. Stage models emphasize the commonalities of development and specify that all (or most) individuals pass through the same ordered stages in the same sequence and at approximately the same age. Piaget’s, Schaie’s, and Erikson’s theories all emphasize this universal, ordered sequence of stages, whereas Goleman’s model instead focuses on basic tasks that contribute to emotional development. Thus, Goleman’s model is the best example of a context model. 12.97. According to Havighurst, selecting a mate and rearing children are tasks of: a. late adulthood b. later maturity c. middle age d. early adulthood Answer: d Page: 325 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Table 12-3 lists the developmental tasks that occur at each stage of adulthood, according to Havighurst. According to this table, selecting a mate and rearing children are tasks of early adulthood. 12.98. According to Havighurst, which of the following is a developmental task most commonly associated with middle age? a. taking on civic responsibility b. adjusting to death of a spouse c. developing leisure-time activities d. establishing satisfactory living arrangements Answer: c Page: 325 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 12-3 lists the developmental tasks that occur at each stage of adulthood, according to Havighurst. According to this table, developing leisure-time activities is a task of middle adulthood. 12.99. At this stage in his life, Martin is busy with providing money for his family, with working on his relationship with his wife, and with helping his parents adjust to the processes of aging. According to Havighurst’s model, which stage of development is Martin most likely in? a. middle age b. early adulthood c. older adulthood d. adolescence Answer: a Page: 325 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 12-3 lists the developmental tasks that occur at each stage of adulthood, according to Havighurst. According to this table, establishing and maintaining an economic standard of living, relating to one’s spouse as a person, and adjusting to aging parents are tasks associated with middle adulthood. 12.100. Adjustment to changing circumstances is a task that is required throughout adulthood. However, in Havighurst’s model, adjustment to a wide variety of life circumstances is an especially important dimension of which of the following periods of the lifespan? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. older adulthood Answer: d Page: 325 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 12-3 lists the developmental tasks that occur at each stage of adulthood, according to Havighurst. According to this table, older adults make the most adjustments: adjusting to decreasing physical strength and health, to retirement and reduced income, and to death of spouse. 12.101. According to Erik Erikson, young adults typically experience the crisis of: a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus stagnation c. trust versus mistrust d. intimacy versus isolation Answer: d Page: 325 Factual Moderate 12.102. Camilla has established a mutually satisfactory close relationship with Herb. This couple has achieved what Erik Erikson called: a. intimacy b. generativity c. integrity d. industry Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 325 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, intimacy involves establishing a mutually satisfying, close relationship with another person. 12.103. Lindsay spends a good share of time daydreaming about her ideal mate and how she plans to become a wonderful spouse to that person. According to Erikson’s view of development, her thoughts best reflect the developmental task of: a. autonomy b. trust c. intimacy d. identity Answer: c Page: 325 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, intimacy involves establishing a mutually satisfying, close relationship with another person. 12.104. Jack is 60 years old, has never married, and consequently feels like he “missed out” on the most important thing in life – to fall in love and be in love with another person. According to Erikson’s view of adult development, Jack is experiencing a sense of: a. existential loneliness b. isolation c. mistrust of emotions d. stagnation Answer: b Page: 325 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, isolation involves the inability or failure to achieve mutuality, sometimes because the individual’s identity is too weak to risk a close union with another person. 12.105. According to the text, the young adult’s development of intimacy depends most importantly on the previous development of: a. integrity b. trust c. initiative d. identity Answer: d Page: 325 Factual Moderate 12.106. Sally is 60 years old. Looking back at her life, she feels that she has accomplished the things that were important to her and she sees her life as being unified and whole. Using Levinson’s term, you would conclude that she has successfully developed: a. identity b. a life structure c. intimacy d. autonomy

Answer: b Page: 325-326 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, Levinson’s term life structure refers to the overall pattern that underlies and unifies a person’s life. 12.107. According to the view of Daniel Levinson, the life structure develops out of which of the following processes? a. taking on and resolving the tasks of life b. growing older physically and mentally c. forming an intimate relationship with a person who loves you d. raising children and helping them become successful adults Answer: a Page: 325-326 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Growing older, forming an intimate relationship, and raising children can be part of developing a life structure, but the formation of a life structure includes resolving all of the tasks of life, which vary somewhat from one stage in the lifespan to the next. 12.108. To achieve complete entry into adulthood, Levinson believes that the young man must master all of the following development tasks EXCEPT: a. finding a mentor b. developing a career c. establishing intimacy d. becoming a parent Answer: d Page: 326 Factual Easy 12.109. In Levinson's seasons of a man's life, the era of early adulthood extends from ages: a. 17 to 33-35 b. 17 to 40-45 c. 21 to 25-30 d. 25 to 45-50 Answer: b Page: 326 Factual Moderate 12.110. According to Levinson’s original research, women were less likely to have mentors for their career because: a. they have difficulty in listening to how another person believes they should live their lives b. they believe that they must achieve career success unaided c. they choose careers where mentoring is not necessary d. there are few female mentors available Answer: d Page: 326 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The text notes that at the time of Levinson’s original work—the 1980s—fewer accomplished female mentors were available in the workforce. 12.111. According to research on the way women progress through Levinson’s stages of the life cycle, it appears women’s transitions may depend more on _____________ than on their age. a. their stage in the family life cycle b. their physical attractiveness c. the income group to which they and their family belong d. their sexual orientation Answer: a Page: 326 Factual Moderate 12.112. Generalizing from the text, normative models of human development such as Levinson’s theory would be expected to provide the LEAST accurate explanations of women’s development and behavior during which of the following decades? a. 1930s b. 1950s c. 1980s d. 2000s Answer: c Page: 327 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Normative models have difficulty keeping pace when cultural events are in rapid and dramatic transition. For women, the decades of the 1970s and 1980s were particularly in transition, reflecting the dramatic changes in expectations and opportunities brought on by the women’s movement. Thus, compared to the other periods noted in this question, when women’s roles were less in a state of flux, the decade of the 1980s would likely pose the greatest challenge for normative models. 12.113. The central focus of Roger Gould’s model of transformations of adulthood is: a. career development b. family transitions c. love relationships d. cognitive development Answer: d Page: 327 Factual Moderate 12.114. Jonathon tells his best friend: “I’m going to accept a job offer from a start-up technology company, but if that doesn’t work out, I’m sure my parents will bail me out and I can always join the family business.” Generalizing from Gould’s theory, if Jonathon is typical for people his age, he is most likely about: a. age 18 b. age 25 c. age 36 d. age 48 Answer: b Page: 328 Applied Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: According to Gould, between the ages of 22 and 28, young adults often make a false assumption that reflects their continuing doubts about self-sufficiency: “Doing things my parents’ way, with willpower and perseverance, will bring results. But if I become too frustrated, confused, or tired, or am simply unable to cope, they will step in and show me the right way.” 12.115. Martha says, “I know who I am, I know where I’m going, and I know how to get there.” According to Gould, her view is most clearly reflective the false assumption reflected by people in which of the following age categories? a. ages 16-18 b. ages 18-22 c. ages 22-28 d. ages 28-34 Answer: d Page: 328 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Gould, during the period spanning ages 28-34, the major false assumption is: “Life is simple and controllable. There are no significant coexisting contradictory forces within me.” 12.116. Although Jennifer has become a well-respected partner in her public relations firm, recently she has been having doubts that she will not be successful enough, and not accomplish enough in her career to satisfy her need to be successful. According to Gould’s view of adult development, your best guess would be that Jennifer is about how old? a. about 24 years old b. about 28 years old c. about 38 years old d. about 58 years old Answer: c Page: 328 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Gould, during the period spanning ages 35-45, individuals are fully involved in the adult world, but experience time pressure and they fear that they will not accomplish all of their goals. Changing Perspectives: History, Culture, and the Information Age 12.117. According to the text, in comparison with earlier times, the death of a child today is _____ traumatic because____________. a. more; so many fewer children die in childhood b. less; so many fewer children die in childhood c. more; so many more children die in childhood d. less; families typically have many fewer children Answer: a Page: 310 Factual Easy 12.118. In Germany in 1600, about ____ of children died before they reached adulthood; in the U.S. today this percentage is about _____. a. 33%; 3% b. 10%; 1% c. 80%; 15% d. 50%; 1% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 310 Factual Moderate 12.119. According to the work of Dinesh Sharma, the most important social change in contemporary world society is: a. the rapid increase in the world’s population b. the escalation of the religious conflicts in the world c. the development of the Internet and the information age d. the failure of the traditional religions of the world to attract new members Answer: c Page: 310 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Dinesh Sharma, a contemporary scholar of rapid social change in India, has been studying the impact of the new technologies on the cognitive development of children, on the functioning of families, and on cultural patterns in a more general sense. Sharma suggests that we are at the cusp of a new digitally connected world, which is giving rise to a radically different interactive culture. Current Issues: The Changing Face of HIV/AIDS 12.120. About how many new cases of AIDS were diagnosed in the United States in 2006? a. about 1,000 b. about 38,000 c. about 100,000 d. about 238,000 Answer: b Page: 314 Factual Moderate 12.121. According to statistics presented in the text, which subgroup in the U.S. population currently is being hardest hit by increasing rates of HIV/AIDS infection? a. White women b. White men c. African American women d. Hispanic American women Answer: c Page: 314 Factual Moderate 12.122. In which of the following regions of the world is the rate of HIV/AIDS infection currently the highest? a. China and Southeast Asia b. South America c. the United States d. Sub-Saharan Africa Answer: d Page: 314 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy 12.123. According to the text, if you were a volunteer working with an AIDS population in Africa today, you would need to raise about how many dollars to pay for one patient’s antiretroviral therapy for a year? a. about $10,000 b. about $3,000 c. about $300 d. about $30 Answer: c Page: 314 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, a year’s supply of antiretroviral drugs can now be obtained at the cost of about $300 per patient.

True-False questions: Perspectives on Adult Development 12.124. The events that define the entry and exit of developmental periods during childhood and adolescence are less defined by culture and more defined by maturation than are the developmental periods during adulthood. Answer: True Page: 307 12.125. Retirement at age 65 would be a good example of a normative event. Answer: True Page: 307 12.126. Idiosyncratic events often create considerable stress and a need for reorganization in one’s life. Answer: True Page: 307 12.127. The period of middle adulthood typically extends from age 30 to age 50. Answer: False Page: 308 Rationale: Early adulthood extends from age 20-40, and middle adulthood extends from age 40-60 or 65. 12.128. Age clocks let us know whether our development is proceeding too quickly or too slowly. Answer: True Page: 308 12.129. Although Luke and Connor are both 30 years old, Luke is married, has two children, and is progressing in his career, whereas Connor is still in graduate school, has never had time for a serious romantic relationship, and doesn’t yet know what he wants to accomplish in his professional life. The concept that best describes the differences between these men is psychological age. Answer: False Page: 309 Rationale: Psychological age refers to an individual’s current ability to cope with and adapt to social and Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

environmental demands, which both of these young men appear to be handling, albeit in different ways. The differences between Luke and Connor are better addressed by considering their social ages, which reflects their status as compared with cultural norms. General Physical Development 12.130. The decline in physical strength and biological functions that occurs between the ages of 20 and 40 is significant and is noticeable by all but the most highly trained athletes. Answer: False Page: 310-311 Rationale: Although there is a slight decline in strength and biological functions during this period, the decline is slight enough and gradual enough that most people do not notice any decline at all. The exception would be trained athletes, whose peak performance generally occurs in the early to mid-20s. 12.131. The early adult years are likely to be the time of adulthood in which use of drugs and alcohol is highest. Answer: True Page: 311 12.132. Professional baseball players usually hit their peak performance at younger ages than professional tennis players. Answer: False Page: 311 Rationale: Professional tennis players usually hit their peak performance in their early 20s; baseball players usually hit their peak around age 27-30, although the great players may peak even later than that. 12.133. The best performance of 60-year-old marathon runners today approximately matches the best performance of 60-year-old marathon runners of a century ago. Answer: False Page: 311 Rationale: The text cites statistics that 60-year-old runners today can match the records set by much younger runners in the Olympics a century ago. 12.134. Death rates are lower for people in the young adult age group than in any other age group in the U. S. today. Answer: True Page: 312 12.135. The law that prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability is usually called the Civil Rights Act. Answer: False Page: 313 Rationale: The law that prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability is the Americans with Disabilities Act, which is often called the ADA. Sex and Sexuality 12.136. Women are at their peak of fertility at about age 15. Answer: False Page: 315 Rationale: Peak fertility for both men and women occurs in late adolescence and early adulthood.

12.137. A woman may have a harder time becoming pregnant after age 38, since her production of ova becomes less regular and the number of ova she produces declines after this age. Answer: True Page: 315 12.138. Partly as the result of the AIDS epidemic, young people in the U. S. today are more likely to decrease their sexual activity or use condoms when they do have sexual intercourse. Answer: True Page: 316 12.139. During the decades of the 1970s, the average duration of sexual intercourse declined, although the frequency of sexual intercourse increased. Answer: False Page: 316 Rationale: During the 1970s, the duration of sexual intercourse increased markedly, suggesting that partners were experiencing greater enjoyment from sex. 12.140. There are three general patterns of sexual relations: About 80% of couples have sex two or more times a week, about 10% have sex several times a month, and about 10% have sex only a few times a year or not at all. Answer: False Page: 317 Rationale: According to statistics cited from a study conducted at the University of Chicago, about a third of the adults in this study engaged in each of the three patterns described in this question. 12.141. A study by the University of Illinois suggested that sexual satisfaction is very closely tied to having an orgasm. Answer: False Page: 317 Rationale: This study in fact showed that sexual satisfaction was NOT closely tied to having an orgasm. 12.142. Research suggests that there may be a genetic link on the X chromosome for women who have a lesbian orientation, but no such genetic factor has been identified for men. Answer: False Page: 318 Rationale: Research has identified a particular gene sequence on the X chromosome that may be implicated for male homosexuality, although no such link appears for female homosexuality. 12.143. Most researchers studying sexual preference today agree that sexual orientation is, for the most part, a choice made by men and women who would otherwise be heterosexual. Answer: False Page: 318 Rationale: Although there is some disagreement in the research community about the degree to which biological versus social forces are involved in homosexuality, nearly all agree that homosexuality is much more complex than simply making a choice as to be homosexual versus heterosexual. 12.144. Gay men and lesbian women are more likely than their heterosexual counterparts to live is urban areas and to graduate from college. Answer: True Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 319 12.145. Homophobia is not a true phobia. Answer: True Page: 319 Cognitive Development in Adulthood 12.146. Jean Piaget proposed that the last stage of cognitive development, formal operational thought, was followed by at least three more stages of more advanced thinking, although he did not describe these stages in detail. Answer: False Page: 320 Rationale: According to Piaget, cognitive development was complete when the stage of formal operational thought was reached, at around age 12 for most people. 12.147. Dialectical thought occurs when people who have mastered formal operational thought regress back to using thought more characteristic of the period of concrete operations. Answer: False Page: 321 Rationale: Dialectical thought is more complex than formal operational thought and it involves the ability to integrate opposing or conflicting ideas and observations. This is not consistent with concrete operational thinking. 12.148. When a person is capable of weighing both the cognitive and emotional aspects of a situation, this style of thought is called postformal thought. Answer: True Page: 321 12.149. Critics of Goleman’s concept of emotional intelligence note that it may simply be a different word to describe personality and cognitive traits that others have studied previously. Answer: True Page: 323 12.150. According to Schaie’s view of adult development, young adults first enter a period of social responsibility, in which they learn to behave like adults, and then they enter a period called acquisition, in which they develop a set of career and life goals. Answer: False Page: 323 Rationale: According to Schaie, young adults first enter the stage of acquisition, in which they use their intellectual abilities to pursue a career and choose a lifestyle. Later, individuals who successful establish themselves enter a period called social responsibility, in which they solve problems for others in the family and the community. Frameworks for Understanding Adult Development 12.151. Context models focus attention on the specific experiences that shape each individual’s life, whereas stage models focus on how adults move through life in similar patterns. Answer: True Page: 324 12.152. The primary developmental tasks of early adulthood according to Havighurst are to establish a family and Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

find a career. Answer: True Page: 325 12.153. Erik Erikson saw the central developmental conflict of early adulthood to be one of identity versus confusion. Answer: False Page: 325 Rationale: For Erikson, the developmental crisis of early adulthood centers on intimacy versus isolation. The identity conflict is associated with adolescence. 12.154. According to Levinson, women follow much the same developmental trajectory as men do. Answer: True Page: 326 12.155. Gould conceptualized the period of adulthood as one in which individuals need to challenge and resolve a series of “false assumptions,” such as “I’ll always belong to my parents and believe in their world.” Answer: True Page: 327-328 12.156. Compared to the theories proposed by Levinson and Erikson, the theory advanced by Gould is much more social in focus. Answer: False Page: 327-328 Rationale: Gould’s theory is primarily cognitive in focus, whereas Levinson focused more on social roles including career choice and Erikson focused on psychosocial changes. 12.157. Gould considered growth in adulthood to be the process of casting off false assumptions. Answer: True Page: 327-328 12.158. One criticism of stage theories is that they tend to overvalue the role of multiple contexts. Answer: False Page: 329 Rationale: Stage theories are often criticized because they undervalue the role of multiple contexts.

Short Answer questions: Perspectives on Adult Development 12.159. Explain the difference between normative and idiosyncratic events. Provide examples of each. Page: 307 12.160. Define the concept of age clock and give an example for how an adult might consider an age clock in determining whether or not to get married or to start a family. Page: 308 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12.161. Give an example of two people who are of the same chronological age but of different biological ages. Page: 309 12.162. Identify the key idea that makes a contextual paradigm different from a specific theory, such as Piaget’s theory of cognitive development Page: 309 General Physical Development 12.163. How would you describe the physical decline that occurs between the ages of 20 and 40 for most people? When would this decline most likely be noticed? Page: 310-311 12.164. Describe how early adulthood can be thought of as a contradictory period in terms of how healthy this period is for typical adults. In what ways are young adults healthy, and in what ways are they not healthy? Page: 311 12.165. The text describes the race times in the marathon achieved by runners in the 1896 Olympics and today. How do the times of adults today compare to those of 100 years ago? Page: 311 12.166. Identify the three leading preventable causes of death for young adults. What behavioral changes and social changes could prevent such deaths? Page: 312 12.167. What are employers expected to do if they have a worker who becomes disabled? Page: 313 Sex and Sexuality 12.168. Describe how a man’s and a woman’s fertility changes between the ages of 20 and 60. Page: 315 12.169. What steps might a 40-year-old woman take if she were no longer ovulating regularly and she wanted to become pregnant? Page: 315 12.170. Describe two ways that the AIDS epidemic has likely affected the sexual behavior of adults in the United States today. Page: 316 12.171. Describe two ways in which sexual attitudes and behaviors changed as the result of the “sexual revolution” that took place in the United States during the 1960s and 1970s. Page: 316-317 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

12.172. Explain the difference among the terms lesbian, gay, and bisexual. Page: 317-318 12.173. Define the term “homophobia” and comment on whether or not homophobia is more like a phobia or more like a prejudice. Answer: 319 Cognitive Development in Adulthood 12.174. Describe the results of a study reported in the text in which students at Harvard and Radcliffe were studied during their college years. How did the thought processes that characterized individuals during their freshman year differ from thinking that was typical at the end of college? Page: 321 12.175. Define the term “dialectical” thought and give an example of it. Page: 321 12.176. How does postformal thought differ from the formal operations thought described by Jean Piaget? Page: 321 12.177. What is emotional intelligence and how does it differ from the cognitive abilities we normally think of when we consider the concept of intelligence? Page: 322-323 12.178. What are “executive functions,” as envisioned by Warner Schaie? Are executive functions related only to work environments, or do they impact social and emotional relationships as well? Page: 323 12.179. Explain the difference between Schaie’s executive period and legacy period. Page: 323-324 Frameworks for Understanding Adult Development 12.180. Describe two ways that a context model of adult development is different from a stage model. Page: 324 12.181. What are the major tasks associated with each of the three stages of adult development identified by Havighurst: early adulthood, middle adulthood, and older adulthood? Page: 325 12.182. Describe what Erikson meant when he described the fundamental developmental task of early adulthood as one of “intimacy versus isolation.” Page: 325

12.183. According to Levinson, what is a “life structure” and how does it develop during adulthood? Page: 325 12.184. According to Levinson, how is a woman’s development in early adulthood likely to be similar to that of a man’s? How is a woman’s development likely to be different? Page: 326-327 12.185. List an advantage and a disadvantage associated with normative models of adult development. Page: 327 12.186. Describe the “false assumptions” that typify early and middle adulthood, according to the theory proposed by Roger Gould. Page: 327-328

Essay questions: Perspectives on Adult Development 12.187. Explain why there would likely be more variation in age clocks for people of the same age living in complex, transitional societies than for those who live in simpler and more predictable environments. Page: 308 12.188. Are adults who were born in the same year always of the same age? Include in your answer a discussion of chronological age, biological age, social age, and psychological age. Page: 308-309 12.189. Would contextual paradigms have an easier time explaining normative or idiosyncratic events? Explain your answer, being sure to define each of these terms. Page: 307, 309 General Physical Development 12.190. In recent decades, have young adults in the United States become more or less physically fit? Cite evidence to support your answer. Page: 311 12.191. How has the general health of U. S. adults changed over the last 100 years? Are adults healthier now, or were they healthier 100 years ago? Cite research statistics to support your answer. Page: 311 12.192. Suggest two reasons why it is critical to have good exercise and eating habits as young adults, when the body is relatively resilient against injury and disease. Page: 311-312 12.193. What is the primary purpose of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? What are two major Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

accomplishments this Act has provided with respect to improving the lives of people with disabilities? Page 312-313 Sex and Sexuality 12.194. Describe the changes in fertility that a man and a woman should expect as they move through adulthood, from age 20 to age 80. Page: 315 12.195. Is AIDS a “gay disease”? Explain your answer to this question by describing how the AIDS epidemic started and what its current status is. Page: 316 12.196. Describe four of the major results from the University of Chicago survey on sexual behavior among U.S. adults. Which of these four results do you believe is most contradictory to popular opinion about how U.S. adults experience sexuality? Why? Page: 317 12.197. What does it mean to suggest that sexual orientation is not an “either-or” trait but rather one that exists on a continuum? Give an example that supports this continuum view. Page: 318 12.198. How might the continuum approach to sexual orientation help to explain incidences or periods of heterosexual behavior by a person who self-identifies as homosexual, and conversely, homosexual behavior by a person who self-identifies as heterosexual? Page: 318 Cognitive Development in Adulthood 12.199. Using the results of the study of freshmen through seniors at Harvard and Radcliffe as a source of data, describe how the thought processes of young adults change during their college years. Page: 320-321 12.200. What is dialectical thought? Give an example of dialectical thought from your own experience. Page: 321 12.201. Describe how postformal thought differs from the formal operational thinking described by Piaget. Then identify two ways that postformal thinking might help a young adult to assume the responsibilities associated with raising a family. Page: 321-322 12.202. Define “emotional intelligence” as this term was used by Daniel Goleman. Then describe three of the four areas of emotional intelligence that Goleman identified. Page: 322-323 12.203. Warner Schaie proposed a stage-based model of adult thinking. Briefly describe Schaie’s model. Then Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

suggest two characteristics of thought that Schaie would suggest as being typical for traditional, 18- to 22-year-old college students. Page: 323-324 Frameworks for Understanding Adult Development 12.204. Identify two differences between stage-based models and context-based models of human development. As part of your answer, select one of the theories outlined in this chapter of the text as an example of each type of model and describe how the theory you chose exemplifies either the stage-based on context-based approach. Page: 324-325 12.205. Which of the following theories – Schaie’s, Erikson’s, Levinson’s, or Gould’s – do you think is most similar to the view originally proposed by Robert Havighurst? What features do these theories have in common? Page: 325 12.206. What is the central developmental task to be resolved in early adulthood, according to Erik Erikson? How might one’s choice of a marriage partner be linked to the manner in which this task is resolved? Page: 325 12.207. Describe the core features of a normative model of adult development. Do such models explain human behavior better during times of great, or minimal, social transition? Explain your answer. Page: 327 12.208. Outline the basic approach that Roger Gould took in explaining how adults cope with age-related transitions. Give an example of the “false assumptions” that adults typically hold in early adulthood versus late adulthood, and describe how the change in these assumptions reflects changes in the responsibilities and lifestyles that typically occur as a person moves through adulthood. Page: 327-328 12.209. Explain three limitations that stage-based models of human development have. Given these limitations, why do you think it is that stage-based models have often been used to explain the changes that occur during adult development? Page: 328-329

Name____________________________________ Chapter 13 - Young Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. With regard to work, the satisfaction that workers derive from the work itself is the definition of: a. intrinsic factors b. remote factors c. extrinsic factors d. immediate factors 2. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the American Academy of Pediatrics’ (AAP’s) position on allowing homosexuals to adopt their partner’s children? a. The AAP supports adoption of children by a homosexual partner. b. The AAP supports adoption, but only if the child is a biological child of the partner. c. The AAP supports adoption, but only for lesbian women, not for gay men. d. The AAP does not support adoption of children by a homosexual partner, regardless of circumstances. 3. The two reasons the text suggests to explain why women are underrepresented in the more highly paid professions are: a. discrimination in the workplace and that women sometimes make early choices that limit their later career options b. they lack “toughness” in making hard decisions and they are more nurturing c. they do not have as much mathematical aptitude and they are more nurturing d. they lack “toughness” in making hard decisions and they sometimes make early choices that limit their later career options Conceptual questions: 4. According to the text, which are the two most important tasks of emerging adulthood and early adulthood? a. finding a job and making a living b. finding a romantic partner and entering a career or job c. finding a mate and having children d. saving enough money to buy a house and having children 5. According to stimulus-value-role theory, during what stage of courtship are judgments typically formed on the other's appearance and social and mental traits? a. value stage b. role stage c. stimulus stage d. response stage 6. In comparison to the number of families with children that were headed by single women in the 1970, the number headed by single women in 2007 was: a. slightly less b. about the same c. slightly more d. substantially more 7. Learning that one’s expectations about work are unrealistic and that one’s training is inadequate is most likely to lead to which of the following? a. reality shock b. self-actualization c. emotional independence Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. the mentoring relationship Applied questions: 8. Through his own studies and thoughts, Robert has come to realize that he and his parents differ on several important beliefs. According to the text, which aspect of independence has Robert accomplished? a. functional b. attitudinal c. emotional d. conflictual 9. Suppose that Dr. Robins is interested in how people learn about and choose the jobs they hold in their lives. He decides to study a cohort of children, asking them what they think about different jobs, and they follow these children as they grow into adults, studying how they choose jobs and adjust to job demands. The topic of study that best describes Dr. Robins work is: a. career counseling b. industrial psychology c. the occupational cycle d. the “person-job fit” theory of careers 10. If Alice and Arthur are a typical married couple who both work full-time, compared to Arthur, Alice will do _______ of the daily housework. a. slightly less b. an equal amount c. 2 to 3 times more d. 10 times more

Name____________________________________ Chapter 13 - Young Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to the text, nearly all couples cite which of the following as the central aspect of their relationship? a. money b. trust c. help and support d. love 2. According to the 2002 U. S. Census, about what percentage of all married couples are self-described as “interracial” ? a. 1% b. 3% c. 9% d. 21% 3. The increase in the proportion of women in the U.S. workforce since the 1950s has been most dramatic for women in which of the following groups? a. African American women b. white women c. Hispanic American women d. None of the other answers are correct because changes in labor force participation rates for African American, white, and Hispanic American women have been nearly the same. Conceptual questions: 4. According to the view of Carl Rogers, in order to show a child unconditional positive regard, parents should: a. impose conditions of worth b. accept the child without reservation c. never punish any behavior d. praise a child whenever she accomplishes a goal 5. In comparison to the percent of two-parent families in the U.S. living in poverty today, the percent of singleparent families headed by a mother is: a. about the same b. about 20% higher c. about twice as high d. more than 4 times as high 6. The stage of Havighurst's model of vocational life in which the idea of working enters into a person's selfconcept is the stage of: a. acquiring the basic habits of industry b. acquiring an identity as a worker c. identification with a worker d. contemplating a productive/responsible life 7. Generalizing from research described in the text, if you were to study couples in dual-earner families, you would expect to find the highest levels of stress for people in which of the following groups? a. men in professional-level jobs b. men in working-class jobs c. women in professional-level jobs d. women in working-class jobs Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Latonya is a new student at a major university and is trying hard to find new friends. Maslow would say that Latonya is trying to satisfy her need for: a. self-actualization b. esteem c. safety d. belongingness 9. When Mark and Jill had their first child, they had different reactions to parenthood. If their adjustment is typical of most new parents, you would expect that Jill would react to becoming a mother by: a. giving priority to her parenting and family roles b. intensifying her work efforts to become a better provider c. ignoring her parenting responsibilities and spending more time with her female friends d. assigning the majority of household and childcare responsibilities to Mark 10. Velma is astonished at how political her new job is, and she is struggling to meet her boss’s expectations. Velma tells her husband that she had no idea about how hard this new job would be. Her response is best considered to be an example of: a. poor mentoring b. the first stage of the occupational cycle c. the last stage of the occupational cycle d. reality shock

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 13.1 1. a, p. 336 2. a, p. 340 3. a, p. 350 4. b, p. 333 5. c, p. 338 6. d, p. 345 7. a, p. 348 8. b, p. 335 9. c, p. 347 10. c, p. 355 Quick Quiz 13.2 1. d, p. 337 2. b, p. 339 3. b, p. 351 4. b, pp. 334-335 5. d, p. 345 6. c, p. 347 7. c, p. 355 8. d, p. 334 9. a, p. 343 10. d, p. 348

Chapter 13 Young Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development

Multiple Choice questions: Self, Family, and Work 13.1. If you surveyed 22-year-olds today and compared the results of this survey to similar results gathered on 22year-olds 50 years ago, you should expect to find that young adults today are: a. marrying at younger ages but entering careers at older ages b. marrying at older ages but entering careers at younger ages c. marrying and entering careers at younger ages d. marrying and entering careers at older ages Answer: d Page: 333 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that young adults today are waiting until later to make a variety of commitments, including postponing marriage and taking longer to enter a career. 13.2. According to the text, which are the two most important tasks of emerging adulthood and early adulthood? a. finding a job and making a living b. finding a romantic partner and entering a career or job c. finding a mate and having children d. saving enough money to buy a house and having children Answer: b Page: 333 Conceptual Easy Rationale: A successful journey into and throughout adulthood is, for most people, closely tied to a person’s involvement with a career and with a romantic partner and a family. 13.3. The classic view of self-development called the Hierarchy of Needs was proposed by which theorist? a. Robert Sternberg b. Jean Piaget c. Carl Rogers d. Abraham Maslow Answer: d Page: 334 Factual Easy 13.4. According to Abraham Maslow, human needs can be arranged in a hierarchy with which of the following needs occupying the highest level? a. self-fulfillment b. self-perfection c. self-improvement d. self-actualization Answer: d Page: 334 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Easy 13.5. The goal of self-actualization is most central to the theoretical perspective advanced by which of the following theorists? a. Sigmund Freud b. Jean Piaget c. Abraham Maslow d. Robert Sternberg Answer: c Page: 334 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Maslow developed a hierarchy emphasizing the needs that individuals need to meet in developing their unique self. For Maslow, the ultimate goal of self-development was self-actualization, which means realizing one’s full development by utilizing one’s talents and abilities 13.6. Latonya is a new student at a major university and is trying hard to find new friends. Maslow would say that Latonya is trying to satisfy her need for: a. self-actualization b. esteem c. safety d. belongingness Answer: d Page: 334 Applied Moderate Rationale: Belongingness refers to a need to belong in one’s family and community, whereas esteem refers to gaining the respect of others and ourselves. Self-actualization is realizing one’s full development, and safety is a lower-level need referring to our need for basic physical security. 13.7. Which of the following is the most basic (the lowest) need on Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs? a. physiological needs b. belongingness needs c. safety needs d. self-actualization Answer: a Page: 334 Factual Easy 13.8. Lois lives in a country which suffers continually from riots and internal wars. This situation would challenge most directly Lois’s ability to satisfy which of the following needs? a. physiological b. safety c. esteem d. cognitive Answer: b Page: 334 Applied Easy

Rationale: Safety is a lower-level need referring to our need for basic physical security, whereas physiological needs have to do with even more basic survival necessities such as food and water. Esteem needs are higher-level needs having to do with a need for respect from others and one’s self. 13.9. John tells his girlfriend, “If you don’t stop nagging me, I’m going to find a different girlfriend.” John’s statement emphasizes the concept of: a. unconditional positive regard b. self-actualization c. conditions of worth d. intrinsic reinforcement Answer: c Page: 334 Applied Moderate Rationale: Conditions of worth are conditions others impose upon us if we are to be worthwhile as human beings. They often involve the withdrawal of affection and approval unless behavior conforms to another’s expectations. 13.10. When parents tell a child what to do or not to do in order to be considered a worthwhile human being, they are imposing what Carl Rogers termed: a. self-actualization b. self-esteem c. conditions of worth d. security and belongingness Answer: c Page: 334 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Conditions of worth are conditions others impose upon us if we are to be worthwhile as human beings. They often involve the withdrawal of affection and approval unless behavior conforms to another’s expectations. 13.11. According to the view of Carl Rogers, in order to show a child unconditional positive regard, parents should: a. impose conditions of worth b. accept the child without reservation c. never punish any behavior d. praise a child whenever she accomplishes a goal Answer: b Page: 334-335 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Rogers’ concept of unconditional positive regard suggests that we should warmly accept another person as a worthwhile human being without reservations or conditions of worth. 13.12. Luke tells his sister that he will love her, no matter what she does or how she acts. In his comment, according to the view of Carl Rogers, Luke is expressing which of the following characteristics: a. unconditional positive regard b. conditional positive regard c. positive conditions of worth d. self-actualization Answer: a Page: 334-335 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: Rogers’ concept of unconditional positive regard suggests that we should warmly accept another person as a worthwhile human being without reservations or conditions of worth. 13.13. Through his own studies and thoughts, Robert has come to realize that he and his parents differ on several important beliefs. According to the text, which aspect of independence has Robert accomplished? a. functional b. attitudinal c. emotional d. conflictual Answer: b Page: 335 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 13-1 highlights the aspects of achieving independence in young adulthood. According to the table, attitudinal independence refers to the young adult developing attitudes, values, and beliefs that are independent from, and may be different from, those held by parents. 13.14. Margaret wants to move into her own apartment, but she hesitates to do so because she doesn’t want to leave her widowed father to live by himself. Margaret’s concern best exemplifies her inability to achieve which of the following types of independence? a. conflictual independence b. attitudinal independence c. emotional independence d. functional independence Answer: a Page: 335 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 13-1 highlights the aspects of achieving independence in young adulthood. According to the table, conflictual independence refers to the young adult’s separation from parents, accomplished without feelings of guilt or betrayal. 13.15. Lindsay is 15 years old, lives in her own apartment, has a responsible job, chooses her own friends, and is independent from her parents except that they send her a check for $1,000 every month to help her make ends meet. Lindsay has most likely achieved all of the types of independence EXCEPT: a. conflictual independence b. attitudinal independence c. emotional independence d. functional independence Answer: d Page: 335 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 13-1 highlights the aspects of achieving independence in young adulthood. According the table, in functional independence the young adult becomes financially independent and can take care of day-to-day problems. 13.16. Suppose you administered a survey to a group of men and women and asked them what was the most important component of defining themselves as who they are. Generalizing from a similar study reported in the text, you should expect the large majority to respond: a. career advancement b. income c. family roles d. opportunities for self-actualization Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 335 Applied Difficult Rationale: In the study of adult identity cited in the text, 90% of the men and women who were interviewed indicated that their family roles and responsibilities were the most important components in defining who they were. 13.17. If you administered a survey that asked men and women to identify what was the most important component of defining themselves as who they are, you would expect men to answer __________ and women to answer ______________. a. family; career b. family; family c. career; family d. career; career Answer: b Page: 335 Applied Difficult Rationale: In the study of adult identity cited in the text, 90% of the men and women who were interviewed indicated that their family roles and responsibilities were the most important components in defining who they were. Very few men and women defined themselves primarily in terms of their career rather than their family. 13.18. Which of the following is the best example of an intrinsic factor of work? a. the rewards of salary and status the person receives b. the convenience of work hours for the person’s schedule c. the opportunity for advancement to a better paying job d. the degree to which the work is interesting and challenging Answer: d Page: 336 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Intrinsic factors in work refer to satisfaction workers obtain from doing the work in and of itself. Figure 13-3 lists two of these factors as being work that is interesting and work that is challenging. 13.19. Montel describes his new accounting job as very rewarding because of his high level of interest in taxes and being able to work with numbers. Montel’s description of his job points out the importance of which of the following factors? a. intrinsic factors b. extrinsic factors c. unconditional regard factors d. decision/commitment factors Answer: a Page: 336 Applied Difficult Rationale: Intrinsic factors in work refer to satisfaction workers obtain from doing the work in and of itself. 13.20. With regard to work, the satisfaction that workers derive from the work itself is the definition of: a. intrinsic factors b. remote factors c. extrinsic factors d. immediate factors Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 336 Factual Easy 13.21. Pedro describes his new job in terms of his salary and the bonuses he will receive. He describes his work in terms of its: a. generativity b. extrinsic factors c. intrinsic factors d. self-actualization potential Answer: b Page: 336 Applied Moderate Rationale: In work, extrinsic factors refer to satisfaction in the form of salary, status, and other rewards for work. Forming Close Relationships 13.22. According to Erik Erikson, the primary developmental task in early adulthood is: a. establishing a meaningful intimate relationship b. learning to trust another person c. understanding one’s self and forming a self-identity d. establishing career goals and starting to fulfill them Answer: a Page: 337 Factual Easy 13.23. According to the text, since the 1950s, U. S. society has changed dramatically in all of the following ways EXCEPT that: a. expectations that couples should marry have relaxed b. society now is more tolerant of sex outside of marriage c. male and female roles have become more different from each other d. expectations that marriage will last forever have become lower Answer: c Page: 337 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Since the 1950s, there has been a weakening of the norms requiring couples to marry, to remain married, to have children, to engage in intimate relations only within the marriage, and to maintain separate roles for males and females. 13.24. According to the text, nearly all couples cite which of the following as the central aspect of their relationship? a. money b. trust c. help and support d. love Answer: d Page: 337 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Easy 13.25. According to the view of Robert Sternberg, which of the following words is used to describe the feeling of closeness that occurs in love relationships? a. passion b. communication c. intimacy d. commitment Answer: c Page: 337 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: For Sternberg, intimacy is the feeling of closeness that occurs in love relationships; it is the sense of being connected or bonded to the people we love. 13.26. Carol and Jason have what is called romantic love. According to Robert Sternberg’s view, which components of love make up romantic love? a. passion and decision/commitment b. intimacy and decision/commitment c. intimacy and passion d. intimacy, passion, and decision/commitment Answer: c Page: 337 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to Figure 13-4 and Table 13-2, romantic love is comprised of intimacy (the closeness that occurs in love relationships) and passion (physical attraction, arousal, and sexual behavior in a relationship). 13.27. Ben and Mindy feel very close to each other, and are happiest when they are together. They describe each other as “best friends.” According to Robert Sternberg’s view, their love is best characterized as one emphasizing: a. infatuation b. intimacy c. passion d. decision/commitment Answer: b Page: 337 Applied Moderate Rationale: For Sternberg, intimacy is the feeling of closeness that occurs in love relationships; it is the sense of being connected or bonded to the people we love. 13.28. According to Robert Sternberg’s view of love, which of the following kinds of love has intimacy, passion, and commitment? a. companionate love b. consummate love c. romantic love d. infatuated love Answer; b Page: 337-338 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: According to Figure 13-4 and Table 13-2, consummate love is comprised of all three components: intimacy, passion, and commitment. 13.29. According to Robert Sternberg’s view, which kind of love do two people share who have passion, but lack intimacy and commitment? a. infatuated love b. empty love c. romantic love d. companionate love Answer: a Page: 338 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to Table 13-2, infatuated love occurs when passion, but not the other two components of love, are present. 13.30. Bob and Gina are a married couple who feel connected to each other, enjoy each other’s company, and view marriage as a lifetime commitment. However, there is no passion in their love for each other anymore. In Sternberg’s view, this marriage is best characterized by one focused on: a. infatuated love b. romantic love c. fatuous love d. companionate love Answer: d Page: 338 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Figure 13-4 and Table 13-2, companionate love occurs when intimacy (the closeness that occurs in love relationships) and commitment (the decision to be in and maintain love) are present, but passion (physical attraction, arousal, and sexual behavior in a relationship) is not. 13.31. According to stimulus-value-role theory, during what stage of courtship are judgments typically formed on the other's appearance and social and mental traits? a. value stage b. role stage c. stimulus stage d. response stage Answer: c Page: 338 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During the stimulus stage, when a man and woman meet or see each other for the first time, they make initial judgments about each other’s appearance, personality, and intelligence. 13.32. What theory of marital choice says that we try to get the best deal in life by examining the partner's assets and liabilities at various stages? a. triangular theory b. self-actualization theory c. stimulus-value-role theory d. hierarchy of needs theory Answer: c Page: 338 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to stimulus-value-role theory, each person examines the assets and liabilities of the other partner to determine whether the relationship is worthwhile. 13.33. During which stage of the stimulus-value-role theory of couple formation do couples typically determine whether their interests, attitudes, and beliefs are compatible? a. role stage b. stimulus stage c. value-comparison stage d. triangulated stage Answer: c Page: 338 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During the value-comparison stage, couples’ conversations reveal whether their interests, attitudes, beliefs, and needs are compatible. 13.34. Based on current population projections in the United States, what percent of men and women will marry at some point in their lives? a. 40% b. 60% c. 70% d. 90%

Answer: d Page: 338 Factual Easy 13.35. In traditional Arabic cultures, marriage typically includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. marriages are usually arranged b. marriages are usually with people who are strangers to the family c. once a woman is engaged, all contact with men is forbidden d. the night before the wedding the couple engage in sexual intercourse to see if the marriage will “work” for the husband Answer: d Page: 339 Factual Moderate 13.36. According to the 2002 U. S. Census, about what percentage of all married couples are self-described as “interracial”? a. 1% b. 3% c. 9% d. 21% Answer: b Page: 339 Factual Moderate

13.37. According to the text, about what percent of cohabiting couples have children living with them? a. about 10% b. about 25% c. about 33% d. about 57% Answer: d Page: 339 Factual Moderate 13.38. Statistics cited in the text suggest that the number of cohabiting couples in the U. S. is ______ the number of such couples in 1970. a. slightly less than b. about the same number as c. about twice as many as d. about 10 times greater than Answer: d Page: 339 Factual Moderate 13.39. According to the text, about what percentage of cohabiting couples in the U. S. today are over the age of 40: a. about 10% b. about 20% c. about 35% d. about 70% Answer: c Page: 339 Factual Moderate 13.40. According to statistics cited in the text, about what percent of cohabiting couples eventually marry: a. 5% b. 20% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: c Page: 339 Factual Moderate 13.41. Which of the following statements about cohabiting couples is TRUE? a. If they marry, they are less likely to get divorced than couples who did not cohabitate before marriage. b. If they marry, their marriages are generally happier than those of couples who did not cohabitate before marriage. c. If they marry, they provide more support for each other than do couples who did not cohabitate before marriage. d. If they marry and have children, they are more likely to get divorced than couples who have children but did not cohabitate before marriage. Answer: d Page: 339 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Two findings cited in the text suggest that this is true. First, divorce has been shown to be more likely for couples who have previously lived together: Ten years after marriage, 31% of those who did not cohabit, but 40% of those who did, were divorced. Second, children born to cohabiting couples versus married parents have over five times the risk of experiencing their parents’ separation. 13.42. Generalizing from statistics reported in the text, which of the following couples would be most likely to experience the most tension in their relationship? a. Mark and Nancy, who are a married, heterosexual couple b. Jim and Mary, who are a cohabiting, heterosexual couple b. Felix and Tom, who are gale male couple c. Lindsey and Marie, who are a lesbian couple Answer: b Page: 339 Applied Difficult Rationale: A variety of findings cited in the text support the idea that cohabiting heterosexual couples experience more tension than married heterosexual couples. The statistics that describe the relationships of same-sex cohabiting couples are more comparable to those describing married, rather than cohabiting, heterosexual couples. 13.43. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the American Academy of Pediatrics’ (AAP’s) position on allowing homosexuals to adopt their partner’s children: a. The AAP supports adoption of children by a homosexual partner. b. The AAP supports adoption, but only if the child is a biological child of the partner. c. The AAP supports adoption, but only for lesbian women, not for gay men. d. The AAP does not support adoption of children by a homosexual partner, regardless of circumstances. Answer: a Page: 340 Factual Moderate 13.44. Generalizing from the text, you should expect that the proportion of the population who are single reached the LOWEST point in which of the following years? a. 1935 b. 1951 c. 1983 d. 2010 Answer: b Page: 340 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During the depression through World War II, fewer people married. By the mid-1950s, however, only 4% of marriage-age adults remained single, and the age at first marriage was the youngest on record. Being single again became popular in the 1970s. 13.45. Generalizing from the text, you should expect that the average age at the time of first marriage would be at its LOWEST point in which of the following years? a. 1935 b. 1951 c. 1983 d. 2010

Answer: b Page: 340 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, the age at first marriage was the youngest on record in the mid-1950s. 13.46. Statistically speaking, which of the following people has the GREATEST chance of being single, rather than married, in the U.S. today? a. Sam, an African American man b. Fred, an Asian American man c. Jose, a Hispanic American man d. Jeff, a white, non-Hispanic man Answer: a Page: 340 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, white Americans are least likely to remain single; black Americans are most likely to adopt the single lifestyle. 13.47. Statistically speaking, which of the following people has the LEAST chance of being married, rather than single, in the U.S. today: a. Jean, who is a white, non-Hispanic woman b. Latoya, who is an African American woman c. Linda, who is a Hispanic American woman d. Li, who is an Asian American woman Answer: b Page: 340 Applied Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, white Americans are least likely to remain single; black Americans are most likely to adopt the single lifestyle. 13.48. When Mark and Jill had their first child, they had different reactions to parenthood. If their adjustment is typical of most new parents, you would expect that Mark would react to becoming a father by: a. giving priority to his parenting and family roles b. intensifying his work efforts to become a better provider c. ignoring his parenting responsibilities and spending more time with his male friends d. assuming the majority of household and childcare responsibilities Answer: b Page: 343 Applied Difficult Rationale: While there are diverse reactions to the birth of a first child, women characteristically adjust their lifestyles to give priority to parenting and family roles. Men, on the other hand, more often intensify their work efforts to become better or more stable providers. 13.49. When Mark and Jill had their first child, they had different reactions to parenthood. If their adjustment is typical of most new parents, you would expect that Jill would react to becoming a mother by: a. giving priority to her parenting and family roles b. intensifying her work efforts to become a better provider c. ignoring her parenting responsibilities and spending more time with her female friends d. assigning the majority of household and childcare responsibilities to Mark

Answer: a Page: 343 Applied Difficult Rationale: While there are diverse reactions to the birth of a first child, women characteristically adjust their lifestyles to give priority to parenting and family roles. 13.50. Ned and Barb are expecting their first child and are concerned about how well they will adjust to their parenting roles. According to research described in the text, all of the following are important factors in determining how they will adjust EXCEPT: a. happiness in the marriage during pregnancy b. self-esteem of the parents c. the baby's characteristics and temperament d. in which region of the country they live Answer: d Page: 344 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text specifically notes that marital happiness, parental self-esteem, and the baby’s temperament (whether the baby is “difficult”) are all factors that influence how parents will adjust to their new roles. 13.51. According to the text, when does the image-making stage of parenthood, during which parents create an image of the kind of parents they will be, occur: a. from conception to birth b. birth to 2 years c. 2 years to 5 years d. middle childhood Answer: a Page: 344 Factual Moderate 13.52. The period from birth to age 2 corresponds to which stage of parenthood? a. nurturing, in which parents become attached to the child b. authority, in which parents evaluate their parenting style c. departure, in which parents evaluate their successes and failures as parents d. image making, in which parents create an image of the kind of parents they will be Answer: a Page: 344 Factual Difficult 13.53. The period of parenthood when children are between the ages of 6 and 12 corresponds to which stage of parenthood? a. interpretive, in which parents continue to evaluate their style of parenting b. nurturing, in which parents learn to balance their family, personal, and professional lives c. departure, in which parents evaluate their successes and failures as parents d. image making, in which parents create an image of the kind of parents they will be Answer: a Page: 344 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13.54. As a new parent, Leanne is trying to find a balance between the time she gives to her husband, her daughter, and her business. According to the text, Leanne is in which of the following stages of parenthood? a. image-making stage b. interpretive stage c. nurturing stage d. authority stage Answer: c Page: 344 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 13-4 highlights the stages of parenthood. According to the table, the nurturing stage is the time when parents become attached to the child and learn to balance their commitments to family versus personal and professional life. 13.55. Among all families with children in 2007, what percentage were single-parent families headed by a single mother? a. 25% b. 19% c. 13% d. 8% Answer: a Page: 345 Factual Moderate 13.56. In comparison to the number of families with children that were headed by single women in the 1970, the number headed by single women in 2007 was: a. slightly less b. about the same c. slightly more d. substantially more Answer: d Page: 345 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The number of families with children that were headed by single women increased more than 10 times faster than the number of traditional two-parent families during this time. Figure 13-9 notes that in 1970, 10.8% of families with children were headed by a single mother, a percentage that had increased to 23.4% in 2005. Both of these statistics suggest that the growth of families headed by single mothers increased substantially during this 4year period. 13.57. Among all families with children in 2007, what percentage were single-parent families headed by a single father? a. 0.5% b. 1% c. 4% d. 10% Answer: c Page: 345 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13.58. According to the text, in 2005, about ____ of all births were to unmarried women. a. 5% b. 10% c. 21% d. 37% Answer: d Page: 345 Factual Moderate 13.59. According to the text, in 2005, about ____ of all births to Black women were to Black women who were unmarried. a. 5% b. 10% c. 37% d. 70% Answer: d Page: 345 Factual Moderate 13.60. In comparison to the percent of two-parent families in the U.S. living in poverty today, the percent of singleparent families headed by a father is: a. slightly lower b. about the same c. about 20% higher d. more than twice as high Answer: d Page: 345 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The percent of children living in a household with an annual income below $30,000 in 2004 was 14%. The percent living with a single-parent father was 39%, which is more than twice as many. 13.61. In comparison to the percent of two-parent families in the U.S. living in poverty today, the percent of singleparent families headed by a mother is: a. about the same b. about 20% higher c. about twice as high d. more than 4 times as high Answer: d Page: 345 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The percent of children living in a household with an annual income below $30,000 in 2004 was 14%. The percent living with a single-parent mother was 62%, which is more than 4 time as many. 13.62. According to the U.S. census in 2009, what percent of black families with children under the age of 18 were headed by a single parent? a. 16% b. 29% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. 36% d. 58% Answer: d Page: 346 Factual Moderate 13.63. What percent of fathers gain custody of their children after divorce? a. 3% b. 10% c. 32% d. 41% Answer: b Page: 346 Factual Moderate 13.64. In 1996, the Aid to Families with Dependent Children (AFDC) program was replaced by: a. the AFDC-2 b. the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA) c. Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) d. nothing; this act was cancelled and not replaced with any program that provides government assistance to families with children that are living in poverty Answer: b Page: 346 Factual Easy 13.65. Generalizing from the text, you should note that the primary goal of the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA) was to: a. reduce the cycle of generations of poverty, where children of impoverished families are also likely to become impoverished as parents b. increase funding to low-income day-care centers so children raised in impoverished families will have a “head start” c. provide incentives to employers to hire single parents d. raise the minimum wage Answer: a Page: 346 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The intent of the PRWORA was to transform public assistance into a system that helps mothers on welfare become independent, self-sufficient workers instead of being a program that encourages them to be dependent, passive aid recipients who tend to pass their dependency along to the next generation. 13.66. Which of the following is NOT commonly identified as a problem with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA) ? a. increasing numbers of women being served make enough money so that they are no longer eligible for federally-funded daycare b. jobs that women in the program hold are generally low-paying c. the program covers only women who are single parents, not men who are single parents d. women who were semi-skilled were more likely to make a successful transition back to the workforce than were women who had no work history or were capable of only unskilled work Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 346 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The PRWORA covers both men and women who are single parents. Each of the other options do reflect problems with the Act identified in the textbook. 13.67. In the U.S. today, about what percent of divorced fathers either gain custody of their children or share custody? a. 5%’ b. 10% c. 16% d. 26% Answer: d Page: 346 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: At least 10% of fathers who divorce gain custody of their children, and another 16% participate in joint custody settlements. Thus, a total of 26% either gain or share custody. The Occupational Cycle 13.68. Suppose that Dr. Robins is interested in how people learn about and choose the jobs they hold in their lives. He decides to study a cohort of children, asking them what they think about different jobs, and then follows these children as they grow into adults, studying how they choose jobs and adjust to job demands. The topic of study that best describes Dr. Robins work is: a. career counseling b. industrial psychology c. the occupational cycle d. the “person-job fit” theory of careers Answer: c Page: 347 Applied Difficult Rationale: An adult’s working life follows what is called the occupational cycle, which is a variable sequence of periods or stages in a worker’s life. 13.69. According to the work of Robert Havighurst, most people begin to consider their choice of careers in which of the following periods of the lifespan? a. childhood b. adolescence c. emerging adulthood d. early adulthood Answer: a Page: 347 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to Table 13-5, which describes the stages in Havighurst’s model, children ages 5 to 10 identify with working fathers and mothers and the idea of working enters their self-concept. 13.70. Seventeen-year-old Kaori has decided that she wants to become a medical doctor. She is in which of the following stages, according to Havighurst’s theory of career development? a. identifying with a worker Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. acquiring basic habits of inductor c. acquiring an identity as a worker d. maintaining a productive society Answer: c Page: 347 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Table 13-5, which describes the stages in Havighurst’s model, people from ages 15 through 25 choose a career and begin to prepare for it. This stage is referred to acquiring an identity as a worker. 13.71. Seventh-grader Paul learns to organize his time so that he can complete his daily homework assignments, practice on the soccer team after school, and do his chores at home. According to Havighurst, Paul is in which of the following stages of career development? a. identifying with a worker b. acquiring the basic habits of industry c. acquiring an identity as a worker d. becoming a productive person Answer: b Page: 347 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Table 13-5, which describes the stages in Havighurst’s model, the stage called acquiring the basic habits of industry refers to the stage in which students ages 10 to 15 learn to organize their time and efforts and learn to give work priority over play when necessary. 13.72. The stage of Havighurst's model of vocational life in which the idea of working enters into a person's selfconcept is the stage of: a. acquiring the basic habits of industry b. acquiring an identity as a worker c. identification with a worker d. contemplating a productive/responsible life Answer: c Page: 347 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to Table 13-5, which describes the stages in Havighurst’s model, the stage called identification with a worker refers to the stage in which children ages 5 to 10 identify with working fathers and mothers and the idea of working enters their self-concept. 13.73. After graduating from high school, Dave took a summer job in construction, and then in the fall, began taking business courses at the community college. He is considering starting his own construction business, and hopes that these experiences will help him choose and get started in his career. According to the theory of vocational development proposed by Havighurst, which of the following stages of vocational life is Dave in? a. identifying with a worker b. acquiring the basic habits of industry c. acquiring an identity as a worker d. becoming a productive person Answer: c Page: 347 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Table 13-5, which describes the stages in Havighurst’s model, people from ages 15 through Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

25 choose a career and begin to prepare for it. This stage is referred to acquiring an identity as a worker. 13.74. According to the distinction between formal and informal preparation for work, which of the following would most likely be considered a FORMAL method of job preparation? a. participating in an on-the-job training program b. listening to parent’s opinions about the kind of work that is most rewarding c. learning about the importance of showing up for work by observing one’s parents d. watching TV shows about doctors and nurses and using the shows to find out what these jobs entail Answer: a Page: 348 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Formal occupational preparation includes structured learning in high school, vocational-training programs, college, as well as on-the-job training. 13.75. Learning that one’s expectations about work are unrealistic and that one’s training is inadequate is most likely to lead to which of the following? a. reality shock b. self-actualization c. emotional independence d. the mentoring relationship Answer: a Page: 348 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: When young adults start working, they may experience what could be termed reality shock. During adolescence and the preparation for a career, people often have high expectations about what their work will be like and what they will accomplish. When the training ends and the job begins, novices often quickly learn that some of their expectations were unrealistic. 13.76. Jake starts his first job as a firefighter and is very disappointed that it is much less glamorous and exciting than he thought it would be. Jake’s experience is best considered an example of: a. mentoring b. reality shock c. person-job-fit errors d. the first stage of the occupational cycle Answer: b Page: 348 Applied Easy Rationale: When young adults start working, they may experience what could be termed reality shock. During adolescence and the preparation for a career, people often have high expectations about what their work will be like and what they will accomplish. When the training ends and the job begins, novices often quickly learn that some of their expectations were unrealistic. 13.77. Janet can’t wait to begin her first job as a hair stylist because she thinks it will be exciting and fulfilling to help people become more attractive. However, after 2 months on the job, she is disappointed and disillusioned about how appreciative her customers are. Janet’s experience is best considered to be an example of: a. mentoring b. the first stage of the occupational cycle c. the last stage of the occupational cycle d. reality shock

Answer: d Page: 348 Applied Moderate Rationale: When young adults start working, they may experience what could be termed reality shock. During adolescence and the preparation for a career, people often have high expectations about what their work will be like and what they will accomplish. When the training ends and the job begins, novices often quickly learn that some of their expectations were unrealistic. 13.78. Velma is astonished at how political her new job is, and she is struggling to meet her boss’s expectations. Velma tells her husband that she had no idea about how hard this new job would be. Her response is best considered to be an example of: a. poor mentoring b. the first stage of the occupational cycle c. the last stage of the occupational cycle d. reality shock Answer: d Page: 348 Applied Moderate Rationale: When young adults start working, they may experience what could be termed reality shock. During adolescence and the preparation for a career, people often have high expectations about what their work will be like and what they will accomplish. When the training ends and the job begins, novices often quickly learn that some of their expectations were unrealistic. 13.79. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about mentors? a. More female executives than male executives have mentors. b. In most companies, there are more mentors than are needed. c. Mentors typically provide connections but no job training. d. Mentors typically serve as models for social and work-related behavior. Answer: d Page: 348 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Mentors perform teaching and training roles, sponsor the young workers’ advancement, serve as models for social behavior, as well as work-related behavior. The book notes that women in high-level and technical careers sometimes have difficulty finding mentors. 13.80. According to the text, which of the following fields has emerged to help people select jobs that will be a good match for their interest? a. occupational therapy b. work-study c. clinical psychology d. career counseling Answer: d Page: 349 Factual Easy 13.81. If Robbie wants to train for a position that will involve helping others find the jobs that best match their talents and interested, Robbie would be best advised to enter a graduate program in: a. occupational therapy b. clinical psychology Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. career counseling d. industrial psychology Answer: c Page: 349 Applied Moderate Rationale: Career counseling is a field that attempts to match the talents and interests of individuals to the characteristics of a job. 13.82. Which of the following is NOT one of Holland’s six career-related personality types? a. realistic b. bored c. social d. enterprising Answer: b Page: 349 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Holland’s six career types are: Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional. 13.83. Jeremy has several characteristics that might influence his choice of career. He is creative, introspective, and independent. According to Holland’s theory of careers, which of the following careers would best suit Jeremy? a. priest b. statistician c. reporter d. beautician Answer: c Page: 349 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Table 13-6, the artistic career-related personality type is unconventional, creative, introspective, and independent; the representative career listed is that of a reporter. 13.84. According to Holland’s theory of careers, a person who is popular, self-confident, and who possesses a high level of energy and verbal skills would fit best into which of the following personality types? a. realistic b. enterprising c. social d. conventional Answer: b Page: 349 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 13-6 describes Holland’s career-related personality types. According to this table, a person with the personal characteristics listed would be described as enterprising. 13.85. According to Holland’s theory of careers, a person who is practical, physically strong, and who has excellent hand-eye coordination and motor skills would fit best into which of the following personality types? a. realistic b. enterprising c. social d. conventional Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 349 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 13-6 describes Holland’s career-related personality types. According to this table, a person with the personal characteristics listed would be described as realistic. 13.86. According to Holland’s theory of careers, which of the following matches of personality type and career is the BEST? a. realistic – secretary b. enterprising – reporter c. artistic – realtor d. social – public health nurse Answer: d Page: 349 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 13-6 describes Holland’s career-related personality types and representative careers. The representative career given for the social personality types is public health nurse. 13.87. According to Holland’s theory of careers, which of the following matches of personality type and career is the WORST? a. realistic – realtor b. conventional – secretary c. artistic – reporter d. social – public health nurse Answer: a Page: 349 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 13-6 describes Holland’s career-related personality types and representative careers. Each of the options matches the representative career given in the text with the corresponding personality type except for the realistic personality type. In this personality type, a person is robust, practical, has good motor skills and is physically strong and active. The representative career listed, carpenter, is very different from that of a realtor. 13.88. In Holland’s theory of careers, people are encouraged to choose an occupation based on: a. how much income potential the job has b. how much income they believe they need to be happy c. whether their personality characteristics match the job’s requirements d. how much education or training the job requires and how intelligent they are Answer: c Page: 349 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One method that is sometimes used by career counselors is to classify jobs into categories that represent different types of work and to attempt to match these jobs to an individual’s personality style. The most widely used method of job matching is based on Holland’s theory. 13.89. Statistically, women are overrepresented in all of the following jobs EXCEPT: a. nurses b. bus drivers Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. elementary school teachers d. social workers Answer: b Page: 350 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Table 13-7 shows the representation of women in a variety of occupations. Eighty-eight percent of nurses, 81% of elementary school teachers, and 82% of social workers are women, whereas the job of bus driver is equally distributed among men and women (52% are women). 13.90. Statistically, women are underrepresented in all of the following jobs EXCEPT: a. bookkeepers b. architects c. correctional officers d. janitors and office-building cleaners Answer: a Page: 350 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Table 13-7 shows the representation of women in a variety of occupations. Twenty-five percent of architects, 29% of correctional officers, and 34% of janitors are women, whereas 90% of bookkeepers are women. 13.91. The two reasons the text suggests to explain why women are underrepresented in the more highly paid professions are: a. discrimination in the workplace and that women sometimes make early choices that limit their later career options b. they lack “toughness” in making hard decisions and they are more nurturing c. they do not have as much mathematical aptitude and they are more nurturing d. they lack “toughness” in making hard decisions and they sometimes make early choices that limit their later career options Answer: a Page: 350 Factual Moderate Work and Gender 13.92. According to the text, about what percent of U. S. women age 16 and older were in the labor force in 2009? a. 38 b. 60 c. 78 d. 92 Answer: b Page: 351 Factual Easy 13.93. Generalizing from the text, during which of the following years should you expect the percent of women in the workforce to be at the lowest point? a. 1943 b. 1958 c. 1980 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 2009 Answer: b Page: 351 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: During WW II, the percent of women in the workforce was high, due to women taking on men’s jobs while they were at war. Even if students do not know the specific dates of WW II, they should be able to estimate that 1943 is the year that corresponds to this war. Following WW II, women left the labor force as men returned home to take over their former jobs. Women began re-entering the workforce in large proportion in the 1970s, and the text notes, the labor participation rate for women has been increasing since then. 13.94. According to the text, in 1950, about ____ of women in the United States were in the workforce; today about ____ of U.S. women are in the labor force. a. 34%; 60% b. 55%; 75% c. 25%; 75% d. 55%; 60% Answer: a Page: 351 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The text notes that from the period between 1950 and today, labor force participation rates for women increased from about 34% to a little more than 60%. 13.95. The increase in the proportion of women in the U.S. workforce since the 1950s has been most dramatic for women in which of the following groups? a. African American women b. white women c. Hispanic American women d. None of the other answers are correct because changes in labor force participation rates for African American, white, and Hispanic American women have been nearly the same. Answer: b Page: 351 Factual Moderate 13.96. According to the text, about what percent of U. S. married women with children are full-time homemakers? a. about 1% b. about 9% c. about 23% d. about 50% Answer: b Page: 351 Factual Moderate 13.97. Generalizing from the text, if you were to quote a general figure for the size of the increase in the number of women in the professions today as compared to 25 years ago, the best estimate you could give would be that women today are about ____ likely to work in the professions. a. equally b. 2 to 3 times more c. 5 to 6 times more Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 8 to 10 times more Answer: b Page: 351 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, in the United States in the year 2007, the figures representing the percentage of women in the professions are generally 2 to 3 times higher than they were a quarter of a century ago. 13.98. According to the text, if you were to advise a young woman about the proportion of women working in the professions today, you would be most accurate if you told her that there is the highest percentage of women working in which of the following occupational groups? a. lawyers and judges b. management, professional, and related occupations c. physicians d. chief executives Answer: b Page: 351 Applied Moderate Rationale: Of the overall category, “management, professional, and related occupations” as designated by the U.S. Department of Labor, which includes the preceding occupations and over 30 others, almost 51% were women— making them the majority. 13.99. In the U. S. today, on average women make about _____ for every dollar earned by a man. a. $0.50 b. $0.78 c. $0.95 d. $1.05 Answer: b Page: 351 Factual Easy 13.100. In comparison to their male counterparts, women in which of the groups make the LEAST amount of money? a. African American women b. white women c. Hispanic American women d. None of the other answers are correct because African American, white, and Hispanic American women all make about the same percentage of the average male income within their racial ethnic group. Answer: b Page: 351 Factual Moderate 13.101. If you were to conduct a survey of working women asking them why they worked, you should expect that the largest percentage of women would answer: a. for personal fulfillment b. for intellectual stimulation c. because my family expects me to d. for financial necessity

Answer: d Page: 351 Applied Moderate Rationale: The primary reason that women work is out of economic necessity. Single mothers are often the sole source of income for their families; even many married couples could not make ends meet without income from both spouses. 13.102. According to research presented in the text, compared to women who don’t work outside the home, women who do work are psychologically ______ healthy and this trend is stronger for women who work because _______________. a. less; their families need the money b. more; their families need the money c. less; they enjoy their job d. more; they enjoy their job Answer: d Page: 351 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that working women tend to be both physically and psychologically healthier than nonworking women. Women who enjoy their work benefit more from the multiple roles they take on; this may be one reason that professional women actually gain more physical and psychological benefits from their work than do clerical workers, despite the greater responsibilities and stresses of their jobs. 13.103. According to the text, when women take on multiple roles, such as working and raising a family, what impact does this typically have on their mental health? a. Their mental health typically improves. b. Their mental healthy typically suffers. c. Their mental health typically improves if they enjoy their job but it declines if they do not enjoy their job. d. Their mental health typically improves if they have a supportive spouse but declines if they are a single parent. Answer: a Page: 351 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As noted in the text, taking on multiple roles has been shown to contribute to, not detract from, mental health. 13.104. In comparison to how men typically proceed through their career trajectories, the word(s) that best describes how women progress would be: a. unhappier b. steadier c. faster d. more variable Answer: d Page: 352 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As the text notes, women who work outside the home do not necessarily follow the same type of career patterns that are typical for men. Instead they follow a variety of patterns. 13.105. In choosing a career, a woman is more likely than a man to emphasize the importance of: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. money b. power c. flexibility d. intrinsic rewards Answer: c Page: 352 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Women are more like than men to choose occupations that allow for more flexibility. 13.106. According to the text, which of the following statements is most accurate about women who work in traditionally male professions? a. They are very similar to men pursuing the same career. b. They are less willing than men to take risks. c. They are less willing than men to make sacrifices for their career. d. They are more focused on family than are men. Answer: a Page: 352-353 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Women in traditionally male professions, such as business, law, and medicine, have career plans that are very similar to those of men pursuing the same careers. 13.107. Suppose you study two groups of women who were employed part-time: one group of women who describe themselves as career oriented and one group who describe themselves as not being career oriented. If your results were the same as those of a similar study described in the text, compared to women who work full-time, you would expect that the self-esteem of the career-oriented women working part-time would be ______ and the selfesteem of the non-career-oriented women would be ______ women working full-time. a. lower than; higher than b. lower than; equal to c. equal to; equal to d. equal to; higher than Answer: b Page: 353 Applied Difficult Rationale: In a study cited in the text, researchers found that those women who described themselves as careeroriented were much happier and had higher self-esteem and more positive self-concepts when they were employed full-time than when they were temporarily unemployed or were working at part-time jobs or jobs that underutilized their skills. The results were quite different for women who described themselves as not being career-oriented. Their self-esteem and life satisfaction were not related to whether they were employed full-time or part-time. 13.108. According to the text, which of the following types of household is now the norm in the United States? a. single-earner households headed by a woman b. single-earner households headed by a man c. dual-earner households d. multiple-earner households with 3 or more people in the family working Answer: c Page: 354 Factual Moderate

13.109. In 2010, how many weeks of unpaid family leave are companies required to give their employees (both male and female) by federal law? a. 0 weeks; companies are not required by law to provide unpaid family leave b. 2 weeks c. 4 weeks d. 12 weeks Answer: d Page: 355 Factual Easy 13.110. If Alice and Arthur are a typical married couple who both work full-time, compared to Arthur, Alice will do _______ of the daily housework. a. slightly less b. an equal amount c. 2 to 3 times more d. 10 times more Answer: c Page: 355 Applied Moderate Rationale: Studies have shown that even when both spouses are employed full-time, wives continue to do 2 to 3 times more of the daily housework than their husbands. 13.111. Generalizing from research described in the text, if you were to study couples in dual-earner families, you would expect to find the highest levels of stress for people in which of the following groups? a. men in professional-level jobs b. men in working-class jobs c. women in professional-level jobs d. women in working-class jobs Answer: c Page: 355 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Both men and women experience role conflicts stemming from job demands, work hours, family and work-scheduling conflicts, and family crises. Although both men and women in dual-earner couples experience these conflicts, women typically report higher levels of conflict between work and family roles. The role conflict experienced by professional women is particularly acute when they work long hours and are under time pressures. 13.112. Generalizing from research described in the text, about what percent of the adults in dual-earner families would you expect to report being “uncomfortable” about the wife’s working outside the home? a. about 5% b. about 20% c. about 40% d. about 70% Answer: d Page: 355 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In one study cited in the text, 78% of the men and 65% of the women recognized the necessity of the wives’ income, but they were uncomfortable about it.

Changing Perspectives: Living Together or Living Alone 13.113. In the United States today, about what percent of young people age 18-24 live at home with one or more parents? a. 10% b. 33% c. 50% d. 75% Answer: c Page: 341 Factual Moderate 13.114. Generalizing from statistics reported in the text, you should conclude that the percentages of young adults in which of the following groups changes the LEAST between the ages of 20 and 35? a. percent who remain single b. percent who live with their spouse c. percent who live alone d. percent who live with others, including parents Answer: c Page: 341, 340 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 13-7 displays statistics that show that, although the percent of young adults who live with another person and the percent who live with a spouse increase dramatically during young adulthood, the percent who live alone changes only slightly. Figure 13-6 displays statistics that show that the percent of young adults who marry increases dramatically across the years of young adulthood. 13.115. Compared to previous decades, the average age at which people in the U. S. marry today has ________ for men and _________ for women. a. increased; increased b. decreased; decreased c. increased; decreased d. decreased; increased Answer: a Page: 341 Factual Easy 13.116. In the U. S. today, about what percent of unmarried young adults between the ages of 35 and 44 live with someone who is not their parent? a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% Answer: b Page: 341-342 Factual Moderate 13.117 Generalizing from statistics reported in the text, which of the following people would be expected to spend the most money on alcohol and luxury items? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. Maggie, who lives alone b. Lucy, who lives with a roommate c. Babs, who is married and lives with her husband d. None of the others answers is correct because spending habits are unrelated to housing arrangements Answer: a Page: 342 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, single people who live alone spend more on alcohol ($314 per year compared to $181), as well as on reading materials, health care, and tobacco products: They also are more likely to buy themselves luxuries, even in the face of a declining economy, than are married people and those who live with roommates. Current Issues: Juggling Work and Family Roles – The Special Challenge for Low-Income, Dual-Career Couples 13.118. According to a study by Perry-Jenkins on working-class, dual-income couples, about what percent of these families include an adult who works during “off-shift” hours (not in the 8-to-5 traditional shift) ? a. about 10% b. about 33% c. about 60% d. about 85% Answer: b Page: 354 Factual Moderate 13.119. If adults in working-class, dual-income household choose to work in “off-shift” schedules, the reason usually is: a. more money b. less stress on the spouse c. less stress on the off-shift worker d. less need for childcare outside the home Answer: d Page: 352 Factual Moderate 13.120. Suppose you study a group of working-class, dual-income couples who have just had a baby. In all of these families, one of the parents agrees to work “off-shift” in hours different from the traditional 8-to-5 workday. Generalizing from research described in the text, in the first year of your study, you would expect to see that the offshift work was especially difficult for _______ and in the third year of your study, you would expect to observe that off-shift work was especially difficult for ___________. a. both parents; the mother b. both parents; the father c. the mother; both parents d. the father; both parents Answer: c Page: 352 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to a study cited in the text, in the early stages of parenting when children are young, off-shift Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

work was more detrimental to maternal health and well-being than to paternal health. Mothers working off-shifts got less sleep and had more difficulty juggling baby care with work demands, and they were more often depressed than those on regular work schedules. A year later, shift work for either the mother or father typically began to interfere with the couple’s relationship with each other—wives reported less marital love. By the second year of shift work, fathers also were reporting less marital love.

True-False questions: Self, Family, and Work 13.121. According to Maslow’s theory, the need of self-actualization is always the most important need that adults strive to satisfy. Answer: False Page: 334 Rationale: Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow’s need hierarchy, but lower-level needs, such as the physiological and safety needs, must be satisfied before the adult can focus on satisfying the need for selfactualization. 13.122. Conditions of worth express Rogers’s concern that parents will withhold their love and affection until the child behaves in the manner the parents desire. Answer: True Page: 334 13.123. When a young adult gets her first job and is able to become financially independent from her parents, this would be considered to be an example of functional independence. Answer: True Page: 335 13.124. Workers whose jobs have high pay, good working conditions, and supportive coworkers would be expected to have higher levels of job satisfaction than those who work in interesting jobs that use their best talents. Answer: False Page: 336 Rationale: High pay, good working conditions, and supportive coworkers are all extrinsic job factors, whereas interesting work that is matched to the worker’s talents is an intrinsic job factor. Workers usually report the highest levels of job satisfaction when their jobs are characterized by positive intrinsic, rather than extrinsic, factors. Forming Close Relationships 13.125. To say that a friendship has mutuality means that friends care about each other, and to say that it has reciprocity implies that friendships are two-way, with both friends supporting each other. Answer: True Page: 337 13.126. According to Sternberg, when a relationship is characterized by a high degree of intimacy, passion, and decision/commitment, this defines the type of love called romantic love. Answer: False Page: 337 Rationale: When all 3 of these features are present, this is called consummate love.

13.127. If, in a particular culture, marriages are arranged such that families consider the benefits and limitations of each possible match for a daughter, the theory that would best explain this sort of behavior would be stimulus-valuerole theory. Answer: True Page: 338 13.128. Although different cultures have widely varying marriage rituals, marriage-type arrangements are seen across cultures. Answer: True Page: 339 13.129. The number of couples cohabiting today in the U. S. is more than 10 times larger than it was in 1970. Answer: True Page: 339 13.130. Although cohabiting heterosexual couples experience more tension than married couples, cohabiting gay male couples and lesbian couples have the highest level of tension of all. Answer: False Page: 339 Rationale: Cohabiting heterosexual couples exhibit more tension in their relationships than married couples, gay male couples, or lesbian female couples. 13.131. When cohabiting couples do marry, their marriages involve greater commitment and are less likely to end in divorce, compared to couples who marry without cohabiting first. Answer: False Page: 339 Rationale: Cohabiting couples who marry experience less commitment in their marriages and are more likely to divorce, compared to couples who marry without cohabiting first. 13.132. In most important ways, gay and lesbian couples are very much like heterosexual married couples. Answer: True Page: 340 13.133. In comparison to the 1950s and 1960s, today there are fewer numbers of young adults who are single (not married). Answer: False Page: 340 Rationale: There are more single adults today than in the 1950s and 1960s. The Family Life Cycle and Adult Development 13.134. When the first baby is born, women usually respond by adjusting their lifestyles to give priority to parenting and family roles, whereas men more often intensify their work efforts. Answer: True Page: 343 13.135. Parents respond differently to children at different ages, but generally if a parent responds well at one age, the parent will respond well at every age for that child. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: False Page: 344 Rationale: Parents who cope well with children at one stage of development may have trouble coping at other developmental stages, and parents who have difficulty at one stage may cope successfully at other stages of development. 13.136. The proportion of two-parent families has declined more than 50% in the past 35 years. Answer: False Page: 345 Rationale: As Figure 13-9 shows, the decline in two-parent families is from 85.2% in 1970 to 67.3% in 2005. The decline in two-parent families is thus 17.9%, not 50%. 13.137. In 2007, over 50% of all families were headed by a single parent, and of these, the large majority of singleparent families were headed by a woman. Answer: False Page: 345 Rationale: In 2007, 29% of all families were headed by a single parent, with 25% being headed by a woman and 4% being headed by a man. 13.138. Of families living in poverty, the highest percentage are headed by a single mother. Answer: True Page: 345 13.139. The biggest problem associated with the government’s current public assistance program for parents and children is that it perpetuates a “culture of generational poverty.” Answer: False Page: 346 Rationale: The aim of the the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act was to break the culture of poverty by helping welfare mothers become independent, self-sufficient workers. It’s biggest problems include the lack of affordable child care and the low-income jobs at which most women in the program work. Thus, women are working, but they do not make enough money to pay for child care and support their families. 13.140. Single fathers tend to respond in the same ways as single mothers to the challenges of being a single parent. Answer: True Page: 346 The Occupational Cycle 13.141. According to Havighurst’s view of career development, children begin their occupational cycle as early as age 5, when they begin to identify with a worker who performs a job that interests them. Answer: True Page: 347 13.142. It has been suggested that one of the most successful strategies of management development is to discontinue formal mentoring programs for women and allow women to choose their own mentors, inside or outside of the company. Answer: False Page: 348 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: It has been suggested that one of the most successful strategies of management development is to develop formal, company-based systems for mentoring programs for women. 13.143. The field that focuses on helping individuals identify jobs that would be a good match to their talents and interested is called occupational therapy. Answer: False Page: 349 Rationale: This field is called career counseling. 13.144. According to Holland’s theory of careers, a good way of selecting a career is to match the worker’s personality characteristics to the demands of the career. Answer: True Page: 349 13.145. Women and members of some minority groups are underrepresented in most lower-paying jobs, and overrepresented in most higher-paying jobs. Answer: False Page: 350 Rationale: Women and members of disadvantaged minority groups are underrepresented in most higher-paying jobs and are overrepresented in most lower-paying jobs. Work and Gender 13.146. The entry of women into careers, rather than full-time homemaking roles, began for the first time in U. S. history as the result of World War II. Answer: False Page: 351 Rationale: According to the text, women have historically worked outside the home. For example, in the early 1800s, it was typical for women and men to work together in a family business or on a farm. 13.147. In 1950, only about 10% of women were in the labor force; today that percentage is about 60%. Answer: False Page: 351 Rationale: In 1950, about one-third (33%) of women were in the labor force; today about 3 in 5 (60%) women work. 13.148. The greatest change in recent years regarding women and work is that Black women are coming into the labor force in much greater numbers than in previous decades. Answer: False Page: 351 Rationale: The largest shift is that White women are entering the labor force in greater numbers. Black and Hispanic women have always had a high labor force participation rate, and this has not changed much in recent decades. 13.149. Generally speaking, women who work are physically and psychologically healthier than women who don’t work. Answer: True Page: 351

13.150. Research suggests that women in managerial and professional positions are less willing to take risks than are their male counterparts. Answer: False Page: 352 Rationale: Although this statement represents a commonly held stereotype, this belief is a myth. Women managers are about equally likely to take risks as are men managers. 13.151. In most dual-career families, the woman still retains the majority of the responsibility for child care and household tasks. Answer: True Page: 355

Short Answer questions: Self, Family, and Work 13.152. Give an example of how the “self as a worker” might interact with the “self as a family member” and the “self as an individual.” Page: 333-334 13.153. What is self-actualization? According to Maslow’s theory, what must individuals accomplish before they can become self-actualized? Page: 334 13.154. Give an example of how parents might impose conditions of worth on their child. Give an example of how parents could create a climate of unconditional positive regard. Page: 334-335 13.155. Give two examples of extrinsic job factors and two examples of intrinsic job factors. Which are more important in determining job satisfaction, intrinsic or extrinsic factors? Page: 336 Forming Close Relationships 13.156. Describe what it means to say that adult friendships are characterized by reciprocity and mutuality. Page: 337 13.157. Explain the difference between companionate love and romantic love, as described by Robert Sternberg. Page: 337-338 13.158. Explain the difference between intimacy and passion, as described by Robert Sternberg. Page: 337-338 13.159. Describe what happens in each of the three stages of courtship, according to stimulus-value-role theory. Page: 338 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13.160. Give two examples of how culture defines what is an “appropriate” marriage in the U. S. today. How have such definitions been changing in U. S. culture over the past three decades? Page: 339 13.161. Cite three ways that cohabiting couples are different from married couples, with respect to their happiness and adjustment. Page: 339 13.162. Describe how the percentage of adults who remain “single” has changed throughout the last 100 years in the United States. Do rates appear to be increasing or decreasing at the present time? Page: 340 The Family Life Cycle and Adult Development 13.163. Compare and contrast how women and men typically deal with first-time parenthood. Page: 343-344 13.164. Describe the stages that most parents go through, as they raise their child in the period from conception to adulthood. Page: 344 13.165. Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: If a parent has a hard time with a child in early childhood, those difficulties will most likely become worse as the child grows up. Page: 344 13.166. Identify how the role of the typical single mother is similar to, and different from, the role of typical single father. Page: 345-347 13.167. In comparison to the Aid to Families With Dependent Children program, how is the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act different? Page: 346 13.168. What are two substantial problems associated with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act, in terms of the problems it poses for low-income mothers and their children? Page: 346 The Occupational Cycle 13.169. Describe the main features of Robert Havighurst’s developmental model of the career cycle. Page: 347-348 13.170. How are most careers today different from the way that Havighurst conceptualized career development when he proposed his model?

Page: 348 13.171. Suppose that 14-year-old Maria decided that she wanted to become a nurse. Identify two formal and two informal steps she could take to help her prepare for this career. Page: 348 13.172. Describe three specific things that a mentor can do to help a younger associate progress successfully along his or her career path. Page: 348 13.173. Why do women sometimes have a harder time finding a mentor than men do? Page: 348 13.174. Describe why Holland’s theory of careers is sometimes called a “person-job fit” model. How does this theory suggest that people should be matched to jobs? Page: 349 13.175. Cite two reasons why women are underrepresented in high-paying careers. Page: 350 Work and Gender 13.176. Consider four time periods in U.S. history: during WW II, the 1950s (just after WW II), the 1970s, and the present day. How has the percentage of women in the labor forced differed in these four different periods? Page: 351 13.177. Describe two reasons why women in the U. S. today make about $.78 for every $1.00 earned by men. Page: 351 13.178 How does taking on multiple roles associated with holding a job while caring for a family typically impact a working woman, both physically and psychologically? Page: 351 13.179. Describe two myths about how women compare to men as workers. What is the truth about each of these myths? Page: 352-253 13.180. Describe two advantages and one disadvantage associated with typical dual-career families. Page: 354-355 13.181. When both the mother and father in a family work, how are household and child care responsibilities usually carved up? Page: 355

13.182. Identify three ways in which working outside the home can benefit working mothers. Page: 356

Essay questions: Self, Family, and Work 13.183. Both Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers identified self-actualization as a goal of development. Describe how each theorist envisioned the pursuit of self-actualization, identifying what the individual must do in order to achieve this state. Page: 334-335 13.184. Identify three different types of identity and describe what emerging adults must do in order to achieve each type. Page: 335 13.185. Considering your current role as a student, identify two factors that would be considered to be intrinsic factors that are associated with this role and two factors that would be considered to be extrinsic factors. If the role of being a student is comparable to the role of being a worker, which set of factors – intrinsic or extrinsic – do you think would be more closely associated with your satisfaction in your “student” role? Page: 336 13.186. Describe how a job that is challenging, interesting, and involves personal growth can help a person reach a stage of self-actualization. Page: 336, 334-335 Forming Close Relationships 13.187. Identify and briefly describe Sternberg’s three components of love and then describe how these three components combine to form the four different types of love his theory specifies. Page: 337-338 13.188. According to Sternberg’s theory of love, identify the form of love that you believe would most likely be involved in the first year of an arranged marriage. Why do you think this form of love would be the most likely to evolve? Page: 337 13.189. In a society in which most marriages are arranged by families without regard for the feelings of the bride and groom, do you think Sternberg’s theory of love or the stimulus-value-role theory provides the better explanation for choosing a partner to marry? Explain your answer. Page: 337-338 13.190. Describe the population trends regarding cohabitation. What factors seem to be fueling these trends? Page: 339

13.191. Suppose that James tells his parents that he and his girlfriend are moving in together, and that they plan to marry two years in the future. In light of the research presented in the text, what should James’s parents tell him about how living together might likely affect his marital happiness? Page: 339 13.192. Considering the past three decades, are cultural definitions and prescriptions about marriage becoming more strict or more flexible? Provide two examples that demonstrate your conclusion. Page: 339 13.193. Whose relationships are gay and lesbian cohabiting couples more like: heterosexual cohabiting couples or heterosexual married couples? Cite specific examples that support your conclusion. Page: 340 13.194. During the past 80 years, when have there been the largest, and the smallest, percentage of the adult population who were single? What social and economic factors are involved in producing a relatively greater, or smaller, percentage of single adults? Page: 340 13.195. Considering how the percentage of adults who remain “single” has changed during the last 100 years, identify three different social conditions that would likely increase the percentage of “single” versus “married” people at a given point in time in a given society. Page: 340-341 The Family Life Cycle and Adult Development 13.196. How do mothers and fathers typically adjust to the birth of their first child? For whom do you believe the adjustment is greater, mothers or fathers? Explain your answer. Page: 342-344 13.197. Identify three factors that are associated with successful adjustment to parenthood. How might these factors also be linked to the parenting styles that come to characterize how parents relate to their child? Page: 344 13.198. Discuss how the rate of single parenthood has changed over the last several decades. What social forces encourage this rate to increase, rather than to decrease? What social forces would cause the rate to decrease? Page: 345-346 13.199 How are single mothers typically different from single fathers? Which group, single mothers or single fathers, do you think has the harder job in raising children? Why? Page: 345-346 13.200. Why might the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act (PRWORA) actually do little to reverse the welfare and poverty cycle of single parents? What are the two primary challenges it faces in overcoming this cycle of poverty? Page: 346

13.201. How does the experience of being a single-parent mother typically differ from that of being a single-parent father? How are these experiences similar? Page: 344-346 The Occupational Cycle 13.202. Describe Havighurst's stages of vocational life. Identify your own vocational stage, according to Havighurst’s model, and provide personal reflections on your involvement with work at this point in your life. Page: 347-348 13.203. Why do many people who enter their first jobs experience reality shock? Discuss three things that young adults can do to reduce the risk of reality shock upon entering their chosen career. Page: 348 13.204. Identify three functions that mentors can serve. Do you think mentors are more important for people in more complex, or less complex, jobs? What mentoring functions might be particularly important in jobs of each of these types? Page: 348 13.205. Describe how a career counselor could use Holland’s theory of careers to provide career advice to a client. What should the counselor do, and what kind of advice would the counselor give? Page: 349-350 13.206. Describe two reasons why women and members of some disadvantaged minority groups are overrepresented in lower-paying, lower-status jobs. Do you think social conditions in the U. S. are changing so that this over-representation will become less in the next decade? Explain the reasoning behind your projection. Page: 350 Work and Gender 13.207. Describe the changing demographics of the workplace with respect to the percentage of White, Black, and Hispanic women who are working today, as compared to 1950. Explain why these shifts in the percent of women who work have occurred. Page: 351 13.208. What is the text’s conclusion about the link between managing multiple roles and physical and psychological health? Do you agree that this conclusion is accurate? Why or why not? Page: 352 13.209. What are the primary advantages and disadvantages associated with being a dual-income couple with children? Page: 353-355 13.210. How do men and women in dual-career families typically split up housework and child care responsibilities? Who does the most work, and why? Page: 355 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

13.211. In the context of dual-career families, what does the phrase “second shift” refer to? Is there evidence that suggests that the “second shift” is real, or is it imaginary? Page: 355 13.212. In the United States today, who do you think has the easier time entering a professional career, a man or a woman? Explain your answer by stating facts and statistics that support your point of view. Page: 351-356

Name____________________________________ Chapter 14 - Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. In Levinson’s later work, he studied the way in which women move through middle adulthood. According to this research, Levinson concluded that women: a. very seldom experience a midlife crisis b. do experience midlife crises, but at much earlier ages than men c. do experience midlife crises, but at much later ages than men d. experience midlife crises in ways very similar to men 2. In 1998 in the U. S., about what percentage of women between the ages of 45 and 64 were taking some form of hormone replacement therapy? a. 10% b. 33% c. 54% d. 78% 3. Intelligence that comes with experience and education and is based on the body of knowledge and information accumulated over the years is called: a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. declarative intelligence d. pragmatic intelligence Conceptual questions: 4. Generalizing from the text, which of the following age periods is most likely to be defined by the events that are taking place in the person’s life, rather than by events linked directly to biological maturation? a. infancy and toddlerhood b. early childhood c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood 5. According to the text, which of the following is the most accurate statement about how men and women experience the climacteric? a. Both men and women experience the climacteric, but women’s experience is more dramatic. b. Both men and women experience the climacteric, but men’s experience is more dramatic. c. Women experience the climacteric, but men do not. d. Men experience the climacteric, but women do no. 6. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would most likely report the LOWEST level of sexual satisfaction? a. Linda, who is 30 years old b. Laurie, who is 50 years old c. Bob, who is 30 years old d. Peter, who is 50 years old 7. Between the ages of 45 and 54, the cause of the largest percentage of deaths is __________; between the ages of 55 and 64, the cause of the largest percentage of deaths is _________. a. cancer; accidents b. accidents; cancer c. cancer; heart disease d. heart disease; cancer Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied questions: 8. Bob tells his 45-year-old father to look forward to middle age, since this is a period in which most people experience only a slight decline in overall health but an increase in their sense of well-being and satisfaction with life. Bob’s comment is: a. essentially true for most people b. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight increase in health but a decline in their sense of well-being and health c. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight increase in both their health and their sense of well-being and satisfaction d. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight decline in both their health and their sense of well-being and satisfaction 9. If you were to conduct a survey of 100 women who were in the midst of menopause, you should expect that about ____ would report they felt relief about the cessation of their menstrual cycle. a. 99% b. 75% c. 50% d. 15% 10. Tyrone has gone through many stress-producing events lately. According to the Stress Scale printed in the text, which of the following events in Tyrone's life probably produced the most stress? a. death of his wife b. marriage to his long-time girlfriend c. retirement from his job d. having his youngest child leave home

Name____________________________________ Chapter 14 - Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to the text, midlife crises are more likely to occur among: a. very poor men, since they must continue to work for the longest period of the lifespan b. very poor women, since they have always worked to support their families c. middle-income men and women, since they have a realistic view of their lives d. affluent men and women, since they can delude themselves about the burdens of life 2. According to the text, studies show that about ______ of men over the age of 40 will experience some erectile dysfunction. a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 50% 3. The life expectancy today for individuals who have reached the age of 45 in the United States is: a. 66 years b. 70 years c. 80 years d. 86 years Conceptual questions: 4. The text cites examples of cross-cultural research about how women experience menopause. In general, these studies suggest that reports of negative symptoms vary ________ from culture to culture, suggesting the importance of __________ factors in explanations. a. very little; biological b. quite a lot; biological c. very little; psychological d. quite a lot; psychological 5. If a woman’s probability of having a bone fracture after age 50 is 50%, what is the probability that a man will have a bone fracture after age 50? a. considerably smaller than 50% b. about 50% c. slightly higher than 50% d. considerably higher than 50% 6. According to the text, adults age 55-64 are LESS likely to die from which of the following conditions than are adults age 45-54? a. cancer b. heart disease c. respiratory diseases d. cerebrovascular diseases including Alzheimer’s disease 7. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be MOST likely to be obese: a. Alan, who is 20 years old b. Luke, who is 34 years old c. Jeremy, who is 50 years old d. Mike, who is 69 years old

Applied questions: 8. Recently, Jim has begun to focus on his feeling that he has accomplished the career goals he set for himself and he now does not know what to do with his life. He feels frustrated and confused, and he wonders if the excitement in his life is mostly behind him. According to Levinson, Jim is experiencing: a. a command moment b. transitional moment c. a fluid moment d. a midlife crisis 9. Alice is 45 years old. Compared to her sensory abilities in her mid-20s, today she likely is better able to: a. see close-up objects b. hear high-frequency sounds c. taste spicy foods d. see objects that are far away 10. Since Ed has been a tax attorney for over 25 years, he is now able to analyze clients' problems and draw conclusions from experience-based information and knowledge. Although he does not solve problems as quickly as he did when he was younger, his solutions are more complex and therefore better. The fact that his solutions are more complex best illustrates which of the following concepts? a. crystallized intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. cognitive mechanics d. inductive reasoning

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 14.1 1. d, p. 361 2. b, p. 366 3. b, pp. 374-375 4. d, p. 360 5. a, p.365 6. b, p. 367 7. c, p. 368 8. a, p. 364 9. c, p. 365 10. a, p. 372 Quick Quiz 14.2 1. d, p. 362 2. d, p. 367 3. c, p. 370 4. d, p. 366 5. a, p. 366 6. a, p. 368 7. c, p. 371 8. d, p. 361 9. d, p. 364 10. a, p. 375

Chapter 14 Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Development in Middle Adulthood 14.1. According to the text, in the U.S. today, the period of middle adulthood spans the ages from: a. 35 to 55 b. 40 to 60 or 65 c. 45 to 65 or 70 d. 50 to 65 or 70 Answer: b Page: 360 Factual Easy 14.2. Which of the following people is LEAST likely to be experiencing the period of middle adulthood? a. Marie, who is 35 years old b. Laura, who is 45 years old c. Jane, who is 55 years old d. Maxine, who is 60 years old Answer: a Page: 360 Applied Moderate Rationale: Middle adulthood typically spans the ages from years 40 to 60 or 65, although it may begin or end earlier or later for certain individuals. 14.3. Generalizing from the text, which of the following age periods is most likely to be defined by the events that are taking place in the person’s life, rather than by events linked directly to biological maturation? a. infancy and toddlerhood b. early childhood c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood Answer: d Page: 360 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The period termed middle adulthood typically begins and ends for an individual depending on the life experiences they are going through. 14.4. The text suggests that the beginning and ending of the period of middle adulthood is defined by a variety of cues. Which of the following stage-defining cues is the best example of a SOCIAL cue? a. reaching menopause b. the realization that one will soon retire c. the youngest child leaving home for college d. the slowing down of reaction times, making it more difficult to play baseball Answer: c Page: 360 Conceptual Moderate

Rationale: Reaching menopause and slowed reaction times are cues that would be considered biological. The realization that one will soon retire is a psychological cue, although the retirement itself could be considered social in nature. Social cues have more to do with changes is one’s family status or personal status, and an example would be having the youngest child leave home. 14.5. The text suggests that the beginning and ending of the period of middle adulthood is defined by a variety of cues. Which of the following stage-defining cues is the best example of a PSYCHOLGICAL cue? a. reaching menopause b. the realization that one will soon retire c. the youngest child leaving home for college d. the slowing down of reaction times, making it more difficult to play baseball Answer: b Page: 360 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Reaching menopause and slowed reaction times are cues that would be considered biological. Social cues have more to do with changes is one’s family status or personal status, and an example would be having the youngest child leave home. The realization that one will soon retire is a psychological cue, since its focus is on how the person comes to understand the significance of this event. 14.6. Manuel, age 52, has the experience and self-knowledge to allow him to manage his own life, and is able to make decisions with ease and self-confidence. This is why Manuel is considered part of: a. the command generation b. Generation X c. Generation Y d. Generation Z Answer: a Page: 360-361 Applied Easy Rationale: Because they can make decisions with ease, and have expertise and self-confidence that were previously beyond their grasp, individuals in the 40-to-60-year range are considered part of the “command generation.” 14.7. According to the text, the age group in the society that makes most of the policy decisions is referred to as: a. Generation X b. Generation Y c. Generation Z d. the command generation Answer: d Page: 360-361 Factual Easy 14.8. Recently, Jim has begun to focus on his feeling that he has accomplished the career goals he set for himself and he now does not know what to do with his life. He feels frustrated and confused, and he wonders if the excitement in his life is mostly behind him. According to Levinson, Jim is experiencing: a. a command moment b. transitional moment c. a fluid moment d. a midlife crisis Answer: d Page: 361 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Levinson, at the end of the period of young adulthood individuals experience a midlife crisis in which earlier decisions are questioned and life patterns must be reestablished. 14.9. Recently, Larry has begun to focus on his feeling that he has accomplished the career goals he set for himself and he now does not know what to do with his life. He feels frustrated and confused, and he wonders if the excitement in his life is mostly behind him. According to Levinson, Larry is most likely to be about how old? a. 30 years old b. 40 years old c. 50 years old d. 60 years old Answer: b Page: 361 Applied Easy Rationale: According to Levinson, most men experience a midlife crisis between the ages of 40 and 45, although more recent research suggests that such a crisis, if it happens at all, might occur either earlier or later. 14.10. According to Levinson, which of the following ages is most likely to include a feeling of inner turmoil, as a man resolves questions about the meaning of his life and the correctness of the choices he has made? a. age 32 b. age 42 c. age 52 d. age 58 Answer: b Page: 361 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to Levinson, most men experience a midlife crisis between the ages of 40 and 45, although more recent research suggests that such a crisis, if it happens at all, might occur either earlier or later. 14.11. Laura has been feeling older lately and has begun to re-evaluate the choices she has made thus far in her life. She decides that she needs a little more excitement, so she buys a new red sports car. Her response is best considered to be an example of: a. a command decision b. the climacteric c. a midlife crisis d. a transitional event Answer: c Page: 361 Applied Easy Rationale: According to Levinson, at the end of the period of young adulthood individuals experience a midlife crisis in which earlier decisions are questioned and life patterns must be reestablished. 14.12. In Levinson’s later work, he studied the way in which women move through middle adulthood. According to this research, Levinson concluded that women: a. very seldom experience a midlife crisis b. do experience midlife crises, but at much earlier ages than men c. do experience midlife crises, but at much later ages than men d. experience midlife crises in ways very similar to men

Answer: d Page: 361 Factual Moderate 14.13. Transitional models of adult development generally stress which of the following features of development? a. continuities in how life is experienced b. discontinuities in how life is experienced c. cognitive changes that occur with age d. biological changes that occur with age Answer: a Page: 361 Factual Moderate 14.14. According to transitional models, if crises do occur they generally are the result of: a. gradual biological aging b. gradual cognitive changes that come with age c. unexpected, traumatic events d. turning 40 Answer: c Page: 361 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to transitional models, crises are rare and when they do occur they usually are in response to a specific event, such as the death of a friend or parent, a sudden illness, unemployment, a new job, a child going off to war, and so forth. These are all unexpected, traumatic events. They are not linked to gradual aging or to any specific birthday. 14.15. Arnie plans to retire at age 65. Therefore, beginning at about age 50, he makes a series of investments with his savings so that he will have enough income to support himself and he plans to move into a smaller, less expensive house. When his 65th birthday comes, Arnie feels calm and prepared. Arnie’s adjustment to retirement is best considered to be an example of how which of the following models view adult development? a. crisis models b. Levinson’s model c. command models d. transitional models Answer: d Page: 361-362 Applied Moderate Rationale: Transitional models advocate the view that changes in midlife are gradual and midlife crisis is not the norm. 14.16. Which of the following events is the best example of a nonnormative event? a. retiring at age 65 b. experiencing menopause at age 52 c. having a spouse killed in a car accident at age 48 d. having wrinkles appear on one’s face as one gets older Answer: c Page: 362 Applied Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: Nonnormative events are those that do not occur at a predictable point in a person’s development. An accident is a prime example of an event that cannot be predicted. 14.17. In comparison to Levinson’s view of the midlife crisis, most modern theorists view this crisis as: a. less likely to occur than Levinson thought b. more likely to occur than Levinson thought c. more likely to occur in men, but less likely to occur in women than Levinson thought d. less likely to occur in men, but more likely to occur in women than Levinson thought Answer: a Page: 362 Factual Moderate 14.18. According to the text, midlife crises are more likely to occur among: a. very poor men, since they must continue to work for the longest period of the lifespan b. very poor women, since they have always worked to support their families c. middle-income men and women, since they have a realistic view of their lives d. affluent men and women, since they can delude themselves about the burdens of life Answer: d Page: 362 Factual Moderate 14.19. Suppose that Mark is a person with a very realistic and planful approach to life. Luke is a person who lives for the moment, deluding himself about the realities of life and instead focusing on the next “big adventure” in his life. When Mark and Luke enter middle adulthood, which of the following statements is the best description about how they are likely to experience this transition? a. Mark will be much more likely than Luke to have a midlife crisis. b. Luke will be much more likely than Mark to have a midlife crisis. c. Both Mark and Luke will be very likely to have a midlife crisis, because they are men. d. Neither Mark nor Luke will be likely to have a midlife crisis, because they are men. Answer: b Page: 362 Applied Difficult Rationale: Those who are most likely to experience a midlife crisis tend to avoid introspection and use denial to avoid thinking about their changing bodies and lives. Physical Continuity and Change 14.20. Which of the following physical changes is typically experienced more severely in men than in women? a. hearing loss b. decreases in the ability to distinguish different smells c. decline in visual acuity d. loss of bone mass Answer: a Page: 362 Factual Moderate

14.21. According to the text, during middle adulthood, overall health typically ________ and the sense of wellbeing and satisfaction with life __________. a. declines; remains unchanged b. remains unchanged; declines c. remains unchanged; increases d. declines; declines Answer: a Page: 363 Factual Moderate 14.22. Bob tells his 45-year-old father to look forward to middle age, since this is a period in which most people experience only a slight decline in overall health but an increase in their sense of well-being and satisfaction with life. Bob’s comment is: a. essentially true for most people b. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight increase in health but a decline in their sense of well-being and health c. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight increase in both their health and their sense of well-being and satisfaction d. false, because in middle age most people experience a slight decline in both their health and their sense of well-being and satisfaction Answer: a Page: 364 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to research cited in the text, even though most adults experience a gradual decline in their overall health during middle adulthood, their sense of well-being and satisfaction with life remain intact during these years. 14.23. With respect to sensory changes in middle age, one commonly experiences a(n): a. increased ability to hear low-frequency sounds, but decreased ability to hear high-frequency sounds b. increased sensitivity to pain, but decreased sensitivity to smell c. increased sensitivity to smell, but decreased sensitivity to pain d. decline in visual acuity and decline in reaction time Answer: d Page: 364 Factual Moderate 14.24. Hearing loss involving high-frequency sounds is more common in: a. men than in women b. women than in men c. very young men than in middle-aged men d. very young women than in middle-aged women Answer: a Page: 364 Factual Easy 14.25. In middle age, Janice can expect declines in sensitivity to all of the following EXCEPT: a. taste b. pain Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. smell d. temperature changes Answer: d Page: 364 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to research cited in the text, sensitivity to temperature changes remains high during the middle adult years. Taste, smell, and sensitivity to pain all decline during middle adulthood. 14.26. Which of the following sensory abilities usually improved during middle adulthood? a. vision for objects in the distance b. vision for objects in the near field of vision c. hearing for high-frequency sounds d. taste sensitivity Answer: a Page: 364 Factual Moderate 14.27. Alice is 45 years old. Compared to her sensory abilities in her mid-20s, today she likely is better able to: a. see close-up objects b. hear high-frequency sounds c. taste spicy foods d. see objects that are far away Answer: d Page: 364 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 14-1 highlights the physical changes in middle adulthood and notes that a decline in visual acuity occurs, except for distant objects. The text also notes that people often see distant objects better in middle adulthood than they could as young adults. 14.28. Reginald's tennis game remains just about the same as always, even though he has reached middle age. The most likely reason for this is: a. reaction time remains the same throughout adulthood b. motor skills remain constant throughout adulthood c. motor skills actually improve throughout adulthood d. practice and experience can compensate for declining reaction times Answer: d Page: 364 Applied Moderate Rationale: As we age, and especially after age 50, our reaction speed slows. Oftentimes, however, actual performance remains constant, probably because practice and experience compensate for slower reaction times. 14.29. Bart, age 40, asks his doctor about what sensory changes he should expect. The doctor will most likely tell him that: a. his vision will decline in his 50s, while his hearing has been declining for 20 years b. both his vision and his hearing will begin to decline in the next five years c. neither his vision nor his hearing will begin declining until he reaches age 50 d. his hearing will decline in his 50s, while his vision has been declining for 20 years

Answer: a Page: 364 Applied Difficult Rationale: Hearing becomes less acute and gradually declines after age 20. Visual capabilities are stable from adolescence through the 40s or early 50s. 14.30. Which of the following is NOT a physical change associated with middle adulthood? a. loss of body fat b. hearing loss c. slowing of reaction time d. loss of visual acuity Answer: a Page: 364 Factual Moderate 14.31. Which of the following changes is typical of how most adults experience middle adulthood? a. They become slightly taller. b. They become slightly thinner. c. Their heart pumps less blood. d. Their lung capacity decreases. Answer: d Page: 364 Factual Moderate 14.32. If you were to interview a representative sample of 100 women and 100 men who are 50 years old, about how many of them would likely report having been on a diet to control their weight? a. 51% of women and 42% of men b. 42% of women and 51% of men c. 87% of women and 59% of men d. 59% of women and 87% of men Answer: c Page: 364 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports results from a recent study that found that 87% of middle-aged women and 59% of middle-aged men had dieted to control their weight. 14.33. According to the text, the heart pumps an average of ______ blood to the body for each decade after the beginning of adulthood. a. 15% less b. 8% less c. 5% more d. 15% more Answer: b Page: 364 Factual Difficult

14.34. What is the term for the broad complex of physical and emotional symptoms that accompany reproductive changes in middle adulthood? a. climacteric b. menarche c. midlife crisis d. menopause Answer: a Page: 365 Factual Moderate 14.35. The climacteric is experienced by: a. men at the time of the midlife crisis b. women in middle adulthood, but not men c. men and women in middle adulthood d. women in late adulthood Answer: c Page: 365 Factual Easy 14.36. According to the text, which of the following is the most accurate statement about how men and women experience the climacteric? a. Both men and women experience the climacteric, but women’s experience is more dramatic. b. Both men and women experience the climacteric, but men’s experience is more dramatic. c. Women experience the climacteric, but men do not. d. Men experience the climacteric, but women do no. Answer: a Page: 365 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Some time in middle age, both men and women experience the climacteric, which refers to the overall complex of physical and emotional effects that accompany hormonal changes in middle adulthood. In women, the most dramatic aspect of the climacteric is menopause—the permanent cessation of ovulation and menstruation, which may be accompanied by physical symptoms and intense emotional reactions. As noted earlier, men continue to produce sperm and male hormones throughout the lifespan and do not experience a comparable male menopause. 14.37. What is the end of menstruation called? a. climacteric b. menopause c. menarche d. amenorrhea Answer: b Page: 365 Factual Easy 14.38. Melissa is in middle adulthood. If she is typical, when can she expect menopause to occur? a. between ages 40 and 45 b. between ages 45 and 48 c. between ages 45 and 55 d. between ages 52 and 56 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 365 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that, on average, women experience their last menstrual period between ages 45 and 55. 14.39. Martha is 50 years old and is beginning to experience the symptoms associated with menopause. About how old will she likely be when the process of menopause is finished? a. 51 years old b. 53 years old c. 55 years old d. 57 years old Answer: d Page: 365 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that, on average, women experience their last menstrual period between ages 45 and 55. 14.40. Eloise, age 50, has developed erratic ovulation, her uterus is shrinking, and there has been some reduction in her breast size. Her physician tells her that these are symptoms that normally accompany which of the following? a. ovarian cancer b. cervical cancer c. menopause d. the midlife crisis for women Answer: c Page: 365 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that, on average, women experience their last menstrual period between ages 45 and 55. As a result of lower estrogen production, the uterus slowly shrinks, and there is a gradual reduction in breast size as glandular tissue atrophies and is replaced with fat tissue. 14.41. According to the research cited in the text, what percent of menopausal women report their symptoms as bothersome? a. 1% b. 20% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: b Page: 365 Factual Difficult 14.42. Patty is close to experiencing menopause and is concerned about the symptoms she will experience. To give her accurate information, her physician might tell her that about _____ of menopausal women report bothersome symptoms: a. 1% b. 20% c. 35% d. 48% Answer: b Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 365 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to research cited in the text, only about 20% of women who experience menopausal symptoms rate them as bothersome. 14.43. If you were to conduct a survey of 100 women who were experiencing the symptoms of menopause, you should expect that about ____ women would report having hot flashes and ____ would report having night sweats. a. 35; 50 b. 49; 90 c. 75; 55 d. 90; 20 Answer: c Page: 365 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, in the United States, about 75% of women report hot flashes during menopause; night sweats are reported by 50 to 60% of women. 14.44. If you were to conduct a survey of 100 women who were in the midst of menopause, you should expect that about ____ would report they felt regretful about the cessation of their menstrual cycle. a. 4% b. 24% c. 54% d. 96% Answer: a Page: 365 Applied Moderate Rationale: A large national survey of menopausal women recently reported that fewer than 4% indicated feelings of regret over the cessation of their menstrual cycles. 14.45. If you were to conduct a survey of 100 women who were in the midst of menopause, you should expect that about ____ would report they felt relief about the cessation of their menstrual cycle. a. 99% b. 75% c. 50% d. 15% Answer: c Page: 365 Applied Moderate Rationale: A large national survey of menopausal women recently reported that about half of women reported feeling only relief at the cessation of their menstrual cycles. 14.46. If you were to conduct a survey of 100 middle-aged women and asked them a series of questions about what they worry about as they are getting older, you would expect that the largest percentage would respond that they are MOST worried about: a. being too old to have children b. having more illnesses as they get older c. being less attractive as a woman d. having to go through menopause

Answer: b Page: 365 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 14-2 highlights the degree of worry women experience regarding getting older on three issues. A greater percentage of respondents (40.4%) reported worry about increased illness than about being too old to have children or about being less attractive. 14.47. The text cites examples of cross-cultural research about how women experience menopause. In general, these studies suggest that reports of negative symptoms vary ________ from culture to culture, suggesting the importance of __________ factors in explanations. a. very little; biological b. quite a lot; biological c. very little; psychological d. quite a lot; psychological Answer: d Page: 366 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In cross-cultural studies of menopause, results typically reveal that reports of negative symptoms vary widely by culture, as well as among different women of the same culture. Results such as these suggest that menopausal symptoms are the result of not only physical factors but psychological and cultural factors as well. 14.48. Which of the following terms refers to the loss of bone mass and increased bone fragility? a. menopause b. osteoporosis c. climacteric d. general atrophy Answer: b Page: 366 Factual Easy 14.49. Which of the following is a long-term effect associated with the estrogen loss that accompanies menopause? a. increase in bone mass and bone density b. excessive lubrication of the genitals c. decrease in the risk for coronary disease d. vaginal atrophy Answer: d Page: 366 Factual Moderate 14.50. Which of the following statements regarding changes to bone mass in middle age is TRUE? a. Only men experience a loss in bone mass as they age. b. Only women experience a loss in bone mass as they age. c. Both men and women can experience bone mass loss, but women are more likely to experience a bone fracture as a result. d. Both men and women can experience bone mass loss, but men are more likely to experience a bone fracture as a result. Answer: c Page: 366 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Both men and women begin to experience a loss in bone mass as they approach the end of middle age but the loss is about twice as great in women and occurs more rapidly and as a result, bone fractures are much more common in older women than in older men. 14.51. Women's loss of bone mass accelerates greatly after menopause due in largest part to which of the following? a. hormone replacement therapy b. decreased supply of estrogen c. decreased supply of androgen d. decreased activity level Answer: b Page: 366 Conceptual Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, women’s loss of bone mass accelerates greatly after menopause, apparently because of estrogen deprivation. 14.52. Eve is concerned about loss of bone mass because her mother has osteoporosis. She should understand that her loss of bone mass will most likely accelerate considerably after: a. menopause b. her 30th birthday c. her 40th birthday d. the birth of her first child Answer: a Page: 366 Applied Easy Rationale: As noted in the text, women’s loss of bone mass accelerates greatly after menopause, apparently because of estrogen deprivation. 14.53. Lucille consults her doctor about osteoporosis. The doctor tells her that her chances of having a bone fracture after age 50 is about ______. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 85% Answer: c Page: 366 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, nearly half of all postmenopausal women over the age of 50 will experience a bone fracture related to osteoporosis. 14.54. If a woman’s probability of having a bone fracture after age 50 is 50%, what is the probability that a man will have a bone fracture after age 50? a. considerably smaller than 50% b. about 50% c. slightly higher than 50% d. considerably higher than 50% Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 366 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Men have a much smaller probability of having a bone fracture than women do after the age of 50. 14.55. Before menopause, the rate of cardiovascular disease is _______ for men, compared to women; after menopause the rate of cardiovascular disease is ________ for men, compared to women. a. higher; higher b. higher; about the same c. lower; higher d. lower; about the same Answer: b Page: 366 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Estrogen seems to have a protective function against cardiovascular disease for premenopausal women. Women have a much lower rate of cardiovascular disease than men until menopause; then the rate for women rises nearly as high as the male rate. 14.56. Paula is unable to sleep because she is having frequent and bothersome night sweats resulting from menopause. If she decides to take medicine to help with this symptom, the medicine her physician would most likely prescribe would be: a. aspirin taken together with caffeine b. a male hormone similar to testosterone c. a multi-vitamin that includes a large dose of calcium d. estrogen, progesterone, or a combination of these drugs Answer: d Page: 366 Applied Moderate Rationale: HRT—in the form of either estrogen or progesterone supplements or a combination of the two—helps alleviate symptoms, such as hot flashes and vaginal changes. 14.57. In 1998 in the U. S., about what percentage of women between the ages of 45 and 64 were taking some form of hormone replacement therapy? a. 10% b. 33% c. 54% d. 78% Answer: b Page: 366 Factual Moderate 14.58. Hormone replacement therapy appears to be involved in increasing a woman’s risk of developing all of the following problems EXCEPT: a. breast cancer b. cardiovascular problems c. osteoporosis d. several forms of cancer Answer: c Page: 366 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Difficult 14.59. In comparison to the proportion of women who received a doctor’s recommendation to take hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in the late 1990s, the proportion today is ______. a. larger b. smaller c. about the same d. nonexistent since HRT therapies have been withdrawn from the legal drug market Answer: b Page: 366-367 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has recently been associated with significant health risks as well as benefits, the decision about whether to use HRT is now more questionable than it was previously. Although HRT risks are relatively small for most women, women’s health experts now usually recommend that women use these drugs only for the short-term relief of symptoms or to address a severe risk of osteoporosis, if at all. 14.60 According to the text, studies show that about ______ of men over the age of 40 will experience some erectile dysfunction. a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 50% Answer: d Page: 367 Factual Moderate 14.61. If you were to conduct a survey that included responses from 1,000 men over the age of 40, about how many of them would report experiencing some erectile dysfunction (assuming they were truthful)? a. about 100 b. about 200 c. about 500 d. about 800 Answer: c Page: 367 Applied Moderate Rationale: Studies report that about 50% men over the age of 40 will experience some erectile dysfunction. 14.62. About what percent of middle-aged men experience erectile dysfunction on more than an infrequent basis? a. 10-20% b. 33-45% c. 50-60% d. 70-80% Answer: a Page: 367 Factual Moderate

14.63. After Ralph turned 50, he began to have occasional problems with erectile dysfunction. If he asked his physician for a prescription to help with this problem, he should assume that the drugs prescribed would help about _____ of the men that have this problem. a. 25% b. 50% c. 70% d. 95% Answer: c Page: 367 Applied Moderate Rationale: Drugs used to treat erectile dysfunction are effective in 60-80% of the men for whom they are prescribed. 14.64. In comparison to early adulthood, men and women in middle adulthood report ________ sexual satisfaction; and, in comparison to men, women report _______ sexual satisfaction. a. greater; greater b. greater; less c. less; greater d. less; less Answer: d Page: 367 Factual Moderate 14.65. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would most likely report the LOWEST level of sexual satisfaction? a. Linda, who is 30 years old b. Laurie, who is 50 years old c. Bob, who is 30 years old d. Peter, who is 50 years old Answer: b Page: 367 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In comparison to early adulthood, men and women in middle adulthood report lower levels of sexual satisfaction; and, in comparison to men, women report lower levels of sexual satisfaction. 14.66. Paul is 35 years old and Mark is 55 years old. In comparison to Paul, Mark’s sexual activity is likely to be ______ frequent and to involve ______ different partners. a. less; fewer b. less; more c. more; fewer d. more; more Answer: a Page: 367 Applied Easy Rationale: Frequency of sexual activity, as well as the number of different sexual partners a person is likely to have, generally slows down in middle adulthood.

14.67. According to the text, compared to early adulthood, in middle adulthood men generally take _____ time to achieve erection and orgasm and women generally take _____ time to achieve orgasm. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: a Page: 368 Factual Moderate 14.68. The text defines sensuality as: a. the pleasure associated with sexual orgasm b. the degree to which a person is interested in sexual intercourse c. the degree to which a person is attracted to members of the opposite sex d. hugging, touching, stroking, and other behaviors that may or may not lead to sex Answer: d Page: 368 Factual Easy Disease and Health 14.69. According to the text, adults age 55-64 are LESS likely to die from which of the following conditions than are adults age 45-54? a. cancer b. heart disease c. respiratory diseases d. cerebrovascular diseases including Alzheimer’s disease Answer: a Page: 368 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows the causes of death in early, middle (ages 45-54), and older (55-64) adulthood. Cancer is shown in this figure to be a more common cause of death in middle adulthood than in older adulthood. 14.70. According to the text, the greatest age-related decline in deaths from ages 35-44 to ages 55-64 is in which of the following causes of death? a. cancer b. heart disease c respiratory disease d. accidents Answer: d Page: 368 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows the causes of death in early (35-44), middle (ages 45-54), and older (55-64) adulthood. Death due to accidents is shown to decrease dramatically, especially between early and middle adulthood, in which the percentage of overall deaths declines from around 40 percent to below 10 percent. 14.71. Between the ages of 45 and 54, the cause of the largest percentage of deaths is __________; between the ages of 55 and 64, the cause of the largest percentage of deaths is _________. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. cancer; accidents b. accidents; cancer c. cancer; heart disease d. heart disease; cancer Answer: c Page: 368 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows the causes of death in early (35-44), middle (ages 45-54), and older (55-64) adulthood. This figure shows that the single most common cause of death in middle adulthood is cancer and in older adulthood is heart disease. 14.72. Which of the following causes of death peaks during early middle adulthood, around age 50, as opposed to earlier or later in life? a. heart disease b. cancer c. cerebrovascular diseases d. accidents, suicides, and homicides Answer: b Page: 369 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows the death rates from various diseases at ages 35-44, 45-54, and 55-64. Deaths due to cancer are highest for the 45-to-54-year-old age group, and are lower in the younger and older groups. Deaths from heart disease and cerebrovascular disease are highest in the 55-to-64-year-old group; deaths from accidents, suicides, and homicides are much higher in the 35-44-year-old group. 14.73. Hal, age 55, is concerned about his mortality. According to the text, Hal is statistically most likely to die from: a. heart disease b. cancer c. chronic liver disease d. HIV infection resulting in AIDS Answer: a Page: 369 Applied Moderate Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows the causes of death in early (35-44), middle (ages 45-54), and older (55-64) adulthood. This figure shows that the single most common cause of death in older adulthood is heart disease. 14.74. The life expectancy today for individuals who have reached the age of 45 in the United States is: a. 66 years b. 70 years c. 80 years d. 86 years Answer: c Page: 370 Factual Moderate 14.75. At every age level throughout the lifespan, the death rate of men is about _____ that of women. a. half Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. one-third c. double d. triple Answer: c Page: 369 Factual Moderate 14.76. According to the text, which of the following chronic health conditions affects the largest proportion of middle-aged adults? a. mental illness b. diabetes c. lung diseases and dysfunctions d. arthritis Answer: d Page: 369 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 14-2, Limitation of Activity Caused by Selected Chronic Health Conditions Among Working-Age Adults, by Age, shows that across young, middle, and older adulthood, arthritis is the condition that affects the largest proportion of individuals. 14.77. Which of the following statements is most accurate, regarding the relationship between educational level and early death? a. There is no link between these variables since early death does not depend on education level achieved. b. The risk of dying young is slightly higher for women with more education, but is equal for men with more versus less education. c. The risk of dying young is slightly higher for men with more education, but is equal for women with more versus less education. d. The risk of dying young is about double for those with less than a high school education, compared to those with some college education. Answer: d Page: 369-370 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to the U.S. Census Bureau, as cited in the text, people with more than a high school education are at less than half the risk of dying early than are those with 12 years of schooling or less. 14.78. Which of the following groups has the HIGHEST death rate during middle adulthood? a. males with less than 12 years of education b. males with a high school diploma c. males with some college d. females with less than 12 years of education Answer: a Page: 370 Factual Easy 14.79. Which of the following groups has the LOWEST death rate during middle adulthood? a. females with less than 12 years of education b. females with a high school diploma c. females with some college Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. males with a high school diploma Answer: c Page: 370 Factual Easy 14.80. Which of the following is a negative risk factor for diseases common to middle adulthood? a. lots of sun exposure and a good tan b. high levels of physical activity c. limited or no use of alcohol d. having a college degree Answer: a Page: 369-371 Factual Moderate 14.81. Of the more than 2.4 million deaths in the United States in 2005, about what percent were caused by smoking-related illnesses? a. 2% b. 10% c. 20% d. 50% Answer: c Page: 370 Factual Moderate 14.82. According to the text, of among people between the ages of 35 and 64, smoking is responsible for more than ____ of all deaths. a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 67% Answer: b Page: 370 Factual Moderate 14.83. If you were to conduct a survey of adults who smoke cigarettes, you would expect about ____ of these people would report that they want to quit smoking; of these, less than ____ will actually be able to quit. a. 70%; 5% b. 95%; 50% c. 90%; 10% d. 50%; 25% Answer: a Page: 371 Factual Difficult 14.84. If you asked a representative sample of adults in the U. S. if they had consumed alcohol in the past 30 days, you should expect that about _____ would answer “yes.” Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. 35% b. 50% c. 75% d. 85% Answer: b Page: 371 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to recent national surveys, more than half of the U.S. adult population drank alcohol in the past 30 days. 14.85. As of 2009, alcohol consumption was the ______ leading cause of preventable death in the United States. a. first b. second c. third d. twelfth Answer: c Page: 371 Factual Moderate 14.86. Today in the United States, about ____ of adults are either overweight or obese. a. 35% b. 45% c. 55% d. 65% Answer: d Page: 371 Factual Moderate 14.87. Since the 1976-1980 period in the U.S., the percent of Americans who are obese or overweight has increased about ____. a. 12% b. 18% c. 33% d. 55% Answer: d Page: 371 Factual Moderate 14.88. About what percent of middle-aged adult men and women are obese in the United States today? a. about 15% b. about 25% c. about 40% d. about 65% Answer: c Page: 371 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.89. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be MOST likely to be obese? a. Alan, who is 20 years old b. Luke, who is 34 years old c. Jeremy, who is 50 years old d. Mike, who is 69 years old Answer: c Page: 371 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Adults in the 40 to 59 age group had the highest rate of obesity prevalence in the United States. 14.90. According to the text, obesity-related illnesses are considered to be the _______ leading cause of preventable death in the United States today. a. first b. second c. third d. twelfth Answer: b Page: 371 Factual Moderate 14.91. According to the text, which of the following is the correct order of leading causes of preventable deaths in the United States today, from first to third: a. smoking, obesity, alcohol b. obesity, alcohol, smoking c. smoking, alcohol, illegal drug use d. AIDS, smoking, illegal drug use Answer: a Page: 371 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that being overweight is now considered the second largest preventable cause of death and disease in adulthood, just behind smoking and just ahead of alcohol abuse. 14.92. Richard Rahe revised his earlier version of the Stress Scale for Selected Life Events, noting that life today is _____ stressful than it was in earlier decades and noting that the stress associated with certain life events today is _______ it was in earlier decades. a. less; the same as b. less; somewhat different from c. more; somewhat different from d. more; the same as Answer: c Page: 372 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, Richard Rahe noted with the revision of his scale in 1997 that life today is more stressful than in earlier decades. Recently, data gathered through an online survey of 10 of the original life events have served to point out that, while some events cause less stress for adults today than they did 40 years ago, others cause more.

14.93. According to the Stress Scale printed in the text, which of the following life events is associated with the HIGHEST level of stress? a. change to a different line of work b. marriage c. son or daughter leaving home d. divorce or marital separation Answer: d Page: 372 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 14-5 shows stress scale for selected life events. Divorce/separation is shown as being more stressful than the other events listed. 14.94. According to the Stress Scale printed in the text, which of the following life events is associated with the HIGHEST level of stress? a. death of a spouse b. divorce or marital separation c. death of a family member d. job layoff or firing Answer: a Page: 372 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 14-5 shows stress scale ratings for selected life events. Death of a spouse is shown as being more stressful than all of the other events listed. 14.95. Tyrone has gone through many stress-producing events lately. According to the Stress Scale printed in the text, which of the following events in Tyrone's life probably produced the most stress: a. death of his wife b. marriage to his long-time girlfriend c. retirement from his job d. having his youngest child leave home Answer: a Page: 372 Applied Easy Rationale: Table 14-5 shows stress scale ratings for selected life events. Death of a spouse is shown as being more stressful than all of the other events listed. 14.96. Illness may follow periods of prolonged stress, primarily because stress weakens one’s: a. heart b. lungs c. immune system d. level of exercise Answer: c Page: 372 Factual Moderate 14.97. In comparison to members of the white majority in the U.S., African Americans are more likely to die from all of the following EXCEPT: a. heart disease Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. cancer c. AIDS d. parasitic diseases Answer: d Page: 372-373 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that Blacks are more likely than Whites to die from heart disease, hypertension, cancer diabetes, accidents, and AIDS; and that Hispanics are more likely than Whites to die from infectious and parasitic diseases, diabetes, hypertension, and AIDS. 14.98. According to the text, which of the following statements about racial/ethnic differences in healthiness is FALSE? a. Low-income minority groups experience more stress. b. Low-income minority groups have less access to preventative health care. c. Low-income minority groups are more likely to use alcohol, cigarettes, and drugs. d. Low-income minority groups are less likely to be overweight or obese. Answer: d Page: 373-374 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Members of low-income minority groups often have a number of special challenges that contribute to stress. The book notes that the fact that overeating, alcohol, cigarettes, and drugs are often used to cope with such stress may explain these individuals greater risk for a variety of health-related problems. The book also notes that access to health care is an issue for these individuals. Cognitive Continuity and Change 14.99. Compared to research conclusions drawn in the 1980s, researchers today are more likely to see the cognitive decline that is associated with aging as being: a. more gradual and occurring later b. more gradual but beginning earlier c. faster but occurring later d. faster and beginning earlier Answer: a Page: 374 Factual Moderate 14.100. In those cognitive skills that are most closely related to work and daily living, the peak of performance usually occurs during: a. adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood Answer: d Page: 374 Factual Moderate 14.101. Intelligence that comes with experience and education and is based on the body of knowledge and information accumulated over the years is called: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. declarative intelligence d. pragmatic intelligence Answer: b Page: 374-375 Factual Moderate 14.102. An older adult’s ability to recall well a second language used and practiced mostly in early adulthood would best be considered an example of: a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. mechanical intelligence d. practical intelligence Answer: b Page: 374-375 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Crystallized intelligence refers to accumulated knowledge and skills based on education and life experiences. Recalling a language reflects this type of intelligence. 14.103. According to the text, fluid intelligence is believed to reach its peak in: a. middle childhood b. late adolescence c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood Answer: b Page: 375 Factual Moderate 14.104. Since Ed has been a tax attorney for over 25 years, he is now able to analyze clients' problems and draw conclusions from experience-based information and knowledge. Although he does not solve problems as quickly as he did when he was younger, his solutions are more complex and therefore better. The fact that his solutions are more complex best illustrates which of the following concepts? a. crystallized intelligence b. fluid intelligence c. cognitive mechanics d. inductive reasoning Answer: a Page: 375 Applied Difficult Rationale: Crystallized intelligence refers to accumulated knowledge and skills based on education and life experiences. It is logical that this accumulation of a variety of knowledge and skills would allow Ed to develop more complex solutions. In fact, research has shown that crystallized intelligence remains high and perhaps even increases throughout middle age. 14.105. Marge has acquired knowledge of the law through her 30 years as a litigator and from her years studying in law school. Her knowledge, accumulated over the years, is called: a. fluid intelligence Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. mechanical intelligence c. pragmatic intelligence d. crystallized intelligence Answer: d Page: 375 Applied Moderate Rationale: Crystallized intelligence refers to accumulated knowledge and skills based on education and life experiences. 14.106. In earlier cross-sectional studies of age-related changes in intelligence, the typical finding was that crystallized intelligence _________ and fluid intelligence _________ during middle adulthood. a. remained the same or increased; remained the same or increased b. declined; declined c. remained the same or increased; declined d. declined; remained the same or increased Answer: c Page: 375 Factual Difficult 14.107. According to earlier cross-sectional studies of age-related changes in intelligence, scores on which of the following tests would be most likely to DECREASE most substantially with age? a. vocabulary b. general information c. overall intelligence d. inductive reasoning Answer: d Page: 375 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 14-6 shows tasks that are representative of crystallized and fluid intelligence. Inductive reasoning is cited as being representative of fluid intelligence. Because research has shown that fluid intelligence begins to decline in early adulthood and continues to get worse with age, one would expect that inductive reasoning, as a task representing this type of intelligence, gets worse with age. 14.108. According to earlier cross-sectional studies of age-related changes in intelligence, scores on which of the following tests would be most likely to decline the LEAST with age? a. vocabulary b. figural relations c. overall intelligence d. inductive reasoning Answer: a Page: 375 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 14-6 shows tasks that are representative of crystallized and fluid intelligence. Vocabulary is cited as being representative of crystallized intelligence. Because research has shown that crystallized intelligence remains high and perhaps even increases throughout middle age, one would expect that vocabulary, a task representing this type of intelligence, does not decline as much with age as figural relations or inductive reasoning, which are representative of fluid intelligence. Figure 14-5 shows that overall intelligence does decline with age.

14.109. If you are tested longitudinally for skills involving the use of crystallized intelligence, at which of the following ages would you expect to have the highest score? a. age 20 b. age 30 c. age 40 d. age 50 Answer: d Page: 375 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Research shows that crystallized intelligence remains high and perhaps even increases throughout middle age, thus the oldest person should have the highest score with regard to crystallized intelligence. 14.110. According to the text, about what percent of the adult population either maintains a stable level of intellectual performance or increases their performance well into their 70s? a. about 40-45% b. about 60-70% c. about 80-85% d. nearly 100% Answer: b Page: 375 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text notes that when we look at how individuals change as they grow older, we find that 45 to 60% of people maintain a stable level of overall intellectual performance—both fluid and crystallized—well into their 70s. An additional 10-15% show increases in performance into their mid-70s. 14.111. In comparison to how well a group of young adults performs, a group of older adults would likely perform LEAST well on which of the following tasks? a. typing quickly and accurately b. spelling c. recalling historical facts, such as the names of the first 4 presidents of the U. S. d. reading for meaning Answer: a Page: 375-376 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The most noticeable decline in abilities associated with aging involves tasks that require speed. Typing is such a task. Other types of knowledge do not show as much age-related decline, if any decline at all. 14.112. The age-related changes that occur in intellectual skills have been traced to which of the following brain changes? a. enlargement of the cerebellum, which controls balance and some motor control b. shrinkage of the prefrontal regions of the brain c. build up of protein plaques around the axons in the hypothalamus d. enlargement of the corpus callosum, which connects the left and right hemisphere, thereby making transfer of information slower Answer: b Page: 376 Factual Moderate

14.113. If you were to choose a few words to describe how an older adult’s cognitive processes differ from those of a younger adult, you would be most accurate to conclude that the older adult’s mental processes were: a. less complex and slower b. less complex but faster c. more complex but slower d. more complex and faster Answer: c Page: 376 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: If there is a decline in intellectual functioning associated with age, it is most likely to be seen in tasks involving speed, since various psychomotor processes gradually begin to slow down in middle age. Such declines are commonly compensated by increases in efficiency and general knowledge, contributing to more complexity. 14.114. Which of the following provides the best example of declarative knowledge? a. being able to operate a computer program, such as Word b. knowing the names of the capitals of the states in the United States c. hitting a serve in a tennis game d. driving a car Answer: b Page: 376 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Declarative knowledge is factual knowledge – it is what you know, such as names of the state capitals. The other options all reflect procedural knowledge – knowing how to do something. 14.115. This type of skill is action-oriented, involving how activities are carried out: a. declarative knowledge b. procedural knowledge c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence Answer: b Page: 376 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Procedural knowledge includes one’s knowledge of how to carry out activities. 14.116. Which of the following terms come closest to meaning the same thing as “factual knowledge” ? a. declarative knowledge b. procedural knowledge c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence Answer: a Page: 376 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Declarative knowledge is defined as factual knowledge. 14.117. Since 1900, the life expectancy at birth in the United States has increased by about: a. 10 years b. 18 years c. 24 years Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 32 years Answer: d Page: 378 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In 1900, the average life expectancy at birth was 47.3 years; in 1950, it was 68.2 years; in 2000, it was 77.0 years; and by 2020, it is expected to be 79.5 years, about 32 years longer than in 1900. 14.118. If you were going to advise a middle-aged adult on how to best maintain and improve her cognitive abilities into older adulthood, your best advice would be to tell her to: a. quit working, relax, and watch more TV b. stay intellectually engaged in complex tasks c. create a stable routine, in which the tasks she does are done repeatedly so forgetting does not occur d. make sure she gets enough sleep each night so her brain has a chance to store the new information she learned that day Answer: b Page: 378 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As the text notes, engaging in complex tasks throughout adulthood seems to be a key in maintaining intellectual processes at their highest possible levels. Current Issues: Why Are Some Groups at Risk? 14.119. According to the text, people who live in poverty or who are victims of discrimination enjoy _____ healthy lifestyles, and the impact of these lifestyles becomes _____ apparent as people get older. a. less; more b. more; less c. less; less d. more; more Answer: a Page: 373 Factual Easy 14.120. According to the results of the MIDUS survey, the words that best describe the respondents of minority status who were economically poor, would be: a. “they did the best they could” b. “they gave up too easily” c. “they wasted their chances” d. “their resentment made it impossible for them to succeed” Answer: a Page: 373 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The survey generally showed that hard-working, proud, low-income minority adults in their 40s and 50s had usually done the best they could with the cards they were dealt, which included such things as caring for grandchildren, wrestling with chronic disease, and lacking retirement and health care coverage. 14.121. According to the results of the MIDUS survey, it is apparent that ______________ contribute to the health risks of low-income minority populations. a. low income, but not minority status Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. minority status, but not low income c. both low income and minority status d. neither low income nor minority status Answer: c Page: 373 Factual Moderate 14.122. The MIDUS study has found that all of the following factors contribute to the diminished health that characterizes low-income, minority adult population EXCEPT: a. lack of education b. race-specific genes that code for certain chronic illnesses like diabetes c. greater degree of life stress d. poorer access to health care Answer: b Page: 373 Factual Moderate 14.123. According to the text, adult members of minority populations in the United States are less likely than the White population to suffer from: a. heart disease b. cancer c. diabetes d. depression Answer: d Page: 372-373 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, White Americans are less likely than members of minority groups to suffer from depression. Changing Perspectives: Retraining for Today’s Technological Jobs 14.124. According to the text, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a problem for older workers who are retraining in new, technology-oriented jobs? a. poorer vision than younger workers b. slower reaction times than younger workers c. slower learning of new skills than younger workers d. lower intelligence than younger workers Answer: d Page: 377 Factual Moderate 14.125. According to the text, which of the following types of institutions are most likely to be involved in the retraining of an older workforce? a. community colleges b. 4-year private colleges c. state universities d. high schools that provide remedial education programs

Answer: a Page: 377 Factual Easy 14.126. Professionals that adjust the way that machines and technologies work so that older workers can learn and operate them more efficiently are called: a. career counselors b. transitional counselors c. human factors engineers d. technologicians Answer: c Page: 377 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that “human factors engineers study these situations and re-design machines to make them easier to use.”

True-False questions: Development in Middle Adulthood 14.127. The period of middle adulthood occurs at the same time and lasts the same length of time for everyone. Answer: False Page: 360 Rationale: Middle adulthood is a cultural construction of the 20 th century, and its beginning and ending points depend on the life experiences the person is going through. 14.128. Most decision makers in government, corporations, and society are middle aged. Answer: True Page: 360-361 14.129. Levinson’s investigation of midlife crises in males revealed large differences between the experiences of successful middle-class men and unsuccessful lower-class men. Answer: False Page: 361 Rationale: Levinson’s original work was a study of primarily highly successful middle-class White men. However, he later extended his conclusions to most people, including women, and concluded that the midlife crisis is a common developmental event. 14.130. Most researchers nowadays agree with Levinson’s view of middle adulthood in men as routinely involving a midlife crisis. Answer: False Page: 362 Rationale: Researchers today more often view the transition into middle adulthood as continuous and nontraumatic. Although some people may experience a “midlife” crisis, for those who do this is just as likely to come in the 30s or 50s, and is likely to reflect the specific events in an individual’s life. Physical Continuity and Change

14.131. Although most adults experience gradual decline in their overall health during middle adulthood, their sense of well-being and satisfaction with life remain intact during these years. Answer: True Page: 363 14.132. Of the physical changes in the senses that are associated with aging, decline in vision is usually the first to occur. Answer: False Page: 364 Rationale: Visual acuity usually remains stable from adolescence through the 40s and early 50s, and vision for distant objects often becomes better. However, the sense of hearing begins to decline at about age 20 for most people. 14.133. Although reaction time usually slows somewhat during middle adulthood, performance usually does not decline much, due to the greater experience that middle-aged adults have that allows them to compensate. Answer: True Page: 364 14.134. The climacteric is experienced by both men and women, but menopause is a biological event that only women experience. Answer: True Page: 365 14.135. In the United States today, most middle-aged women express little regret about entering menopause. Answer: True Page: 365 14.136. The personal and psychological adjustments associated with menopause are experienced by women around the world in highly similar ways. Answer: False Page: 366 Rationale: The text cites research indicating that in some Indian castes, women generally report no negative symptoms associated with menopause, suggesting that culture defines to a large extent how women experience this biological event. 14.137. Of U. S. women age 50 and over, the best estimate is that about 20% will suffer a broken bone related to osteoporosis. Answer: False Page: 366 Rationale: The percentage is actually closer to 50%. 14.138. Hormone replacement therapy has been found to be associated with many positive benefits, but very few, if any, health risks. Answer: False Page: 366-367 Rationale: Research on the health risks associated with HRT is inconclusive, but it does seem to provide relief for the troublesome symptoms of menopause and to slow or stop bone loss, but it also seems to be linked to higher incidence of some cancers (especially breast cancer) and may increase women’s risk of heart disease. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.139. Drugs used to treat erectile dysfunction, such as Viagra and Levitra, are effective for a relatively small percentage of the men who take them. Answer: False Page: 367 Rationale: The text reports that these drugs are effective for 60-80% of the men who take them. 14.140. Studies show that many middle-aged adults have sex infrequently and most have conventional ideas about love, sex, and marriage. Answer: True Page: 368 14.141. For some adults in middle adulthood, an emphasis on sexuality gives way to a greater sense of sensuality. Answer: True Page: 368 Disease and Health 14.142. Between the ages of 45-54 and 55-65, the percent of people dying of cancer and heart disease increases. Answer: False Page: 368 Rationale: Figure 14-1 shows that, although the rate of deaths due to heart diseases increases during this period, the rate of cancer deaths actually declines. 14.143. The death rate due to accidents declines sharply when adults move from early adulthood into middle adulthood. Answer: True Page: 368 14.144. Death in middle adulthood is better characterized as the result of the development of chronic diseases that develop prematurely in high-risk individuals, whereas death in later adulthood is better described as resulting from age-related processes that are common to almost all people. Answer: True Page: 369 14.145. In the U. S. today, the most common cause of limited activity in middle adulthood is arthritis. Answer: True Page: 369 14.146. In the United States today, death rates for men typically equal the death rates for women throughout the adult years. Answer: False Page: 369 Rationale: As Figure 14-3 shows, the death rate for men is higher than for women throughout the adult years. 14.147. In the United States, education is related to life expectancy for both men and women, and those with more education are likely to live longer.

Answer: True Page: 369-370 14.148. Today in the United States, the life expectancy for adults who live to age 45 is about 70 years. Answer: False Page: 370 Rationale: Life expectancy for those living to age 45 is about 80 years in the U. S. today. 14.149. If you were to advise a young adult about the best way to live longer, the three things you should say would be to get regular physical exercise, quit smoking, and control your weight. Answer: True Page: 370-371 14.150. In the U. S. today, the three leading causes of preventable death are smoking-related illnesses, followed by being overweight, followed by alcohol-related illnesses. Answer: True Page: 371 14.151. According to stress scales used to evaluate the degree of stress associated with particular life events, the stress linked to retirement is about the same as that linked to the death of a spouse. Answer: False Page: 372 Rationale: As Table 14-5 shows, the death of a spouse is the most stressful event today, as it was in 1967. Retirement is also stressful, but not as stressful as death of a spouse. 14.152. According to the text, the stress of life events is additive, meaning that when stressful events occur at about the same time, their effects are cumulative. Answer: True Page: 372 14.153. Prolonged stress appears to take its toll on health primarily by causing heart capacity to decline. Answer: False Page: 372 Rationale: Prolonged stress affects most physiological functions, but its primary effect seems to be on the immune system. It also can affect how well people are able to care for themselves, so health habits may suffer in stressful times also. 14.154. In the 45- to 64-year-old age group, the death rate for Black Americans is nearly twice as high as for White Americans. Answer: True Page: 372 14.155. The text reports that in the U. S. today, Black and Hispanic Americans are much less likely to seek health care at hospital emergency rooms because the costs are simply above their ability to pay. Answer: False Page: 374 Rationale: The text states that the highest rate of emergency room treatment is by Hispanic Americans, since hospitals cannot turn away sick or injured people, regardless of their ability to pay. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.156. Socioeconomic status is positively linked to cognitive performance in middle adulthood. Answer: True Page: 374 Cognitive Continuity and Change 14.157. Young adults can generally outperform adults in middle age on tasks requiring high-order cognitive processing. Answer: False Page: 374 Rationale: According to the text, middle adulthood is a time of maximum performance of many higher-order cognitive abilities, especially in areas related to work and daily living. 14.158. Brain damage is more likely to affect fluid intelligence than crystallized intelligence. Answer: True Page: 375 14.159. Although cross-sectional studies typically show that mental abilities decline with age, when longitudinal studies are used, these age-related declines typically are seen to be nonexistent or much smaller. Answer: True Page: 375 14.160. The ability that typically experiences the most decline in middle adulthood is memory. Answer: False Page: 375-376 Rationale: Memory remains largely intact in middle adulthood, but speed does show some noticeable decline. 14.161. Knowing how to start a car is a good example of declarative knowledge. Answer: False Page: 376 Rationale: Starting a car involves understanding a set of procedures, rather than facts, so it is a much better example of procedural knowledge than declarative knowledge. 14.162. Although cognitive abilities typically decline in middle and older adulthood, thinking usually becomes more efficient and therefore faster, so performance usually remains steady until about age 70. Answer: False Page: 376 Rationale: Just the opposite is true: Cognitive abilities remain largely intact, but speed declines. Because older adults are more knowledgeable, they can usually compensate for diminished speed through their better knowledge base. 14.163. People who have complex jobs typically experience greater cognitive decline in older adulthood. Answer: False Page: 377-378, 376 Rationale: People who are challenged by the cognitive demands of their jobs typically score higher on tests of intellectual flexibility and those who keep mentally active experience less age-related intellectual decline.

14.164. The average life expectancy from birth was about age 47 in 1950, but by 2020 it will be nearly 80 years. Answer: True Page: 378

Short Answer questions: Development in Middle Adulthood 14.165. When does the period of middle adulthood typically begin and end? Page: 360 14.166. Is the period of middle adulthood more, or less, defined by culture events than is the period of early adulthood? Explain your answer. Page: 360 14.167. What does it mean to say that people in the period of middle adulthood are the “command generation”? Page: 360-361 14.168. According to Daniel Levinson, identify three core issues that are typically experienced by people at about the time they reach age 40. Page: 361 14.169. According to Daniel Levinson, why and how do most 40-year-olds experience a midlife crisis? Page: 361 14.170. If a person were advocating a “transition model” to explain middle adulthood, how would this person explain the phenomenon of the “midlife crisis”? Page: 361-362 14.171. The text notes that affluent people are more likely to experience a midlife crisis than are those with greater socioeconomic challenges. What might this be? Page: 362 Physical Continuity and Change 14.172. What changes typically occur in the cardiovascular and respiratory systems during middle adulthood? Are these changes typically problematic during this period of the lifespan? Page: 364 14.173. Explain the difference between the climacteric and menopause. Page: 365 14.174. Why does the text note that menopause is a process, and not an event? What is meant by this statement? Page: 365 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.175. Do most U. S. women respond positively, or negatively, to the events defining menopause? Cite evidence to support your answer. Page: 365-366 14.176. How is menopause linked to the increased risk of osteoporosis? Page: 366 14.177. What hormones are delivered through hormone replacement therapy (HRT)? What effect do these drugs usually have on the body? Page: 366 14.178. Identify one positive benefit of taking HRT and one negative benefit associated with HRT. Page: 366 14.179. What advice does the text provide for women regarding their decision about whether they should, or should not, take hormone replacement therapy (HRT) at the time of menopause? Page: 367 14.180. Is erectile dysfunction a common problem for men during the period of middle adulthood? Cite statistical evidence to support your answer. Page: 367 14.181. Identify two types of therapy that can be used to help men overcome erectile dysfunction, and note which therapy is used when the problems are biological versus psychological. Page: 367. 14.182. Identify two health-related conditions that can be linked to the frequency of sexual behavior in middle adulthood. How do these conditions affect the experience of sexuality during this period of the lifespan? Page: 367 14.183. According to the text, what impression do the media usually convey about sexuality during middle adulthood? Do the results of research studies support or refute this general view? Page: 368 Disease and Health 14.184. Describe the age-related changes that occur across ages 35-44, to ages 45-54, and to ages 55-64, with respect to the death rate due to accidents, to cancer, and to heart disease. How do death rates for these three factors change with age? Page: 368 14.185. Are men or women more vulnerable to disease and early death during middle adulthood? Cite statistical evidence to support your conclusion. Page: 369 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.186. How is the amount of education a person has linked to death rates? Is this trend the same for men and women? Describe your answer by citing statistical evidence. Page: 370 14.187. Identify three things that young adults can do that will have the greatest impact on lengthening their lives. Page: 370-371 14.188. Describe the current statistics that describe cigarette smoking in the United States. Page: 371 14.189. How are obesity rates changing in the United States today, and what effect will these changes likely have on life expectancy? Page: 371 14.190. Describe how stress scales, such as the one described in the text, developed. What information about stress do these scales provide? Page: 372 14.191. Describe four life events that are among the most stressful. Page: 372 14.192. Does stress result from major life events, from daily hassles, or from both? Describe two ways in which the effects of stress can take their toll on health. Answer: 372 14.193. Identify two reasons that help explain why the death rate for Black Americans is substantially higher than for White Americans today. Page: 372-374 Cognitive Continuity and Change 14.194. Give an example of fluid intelligence and an example of crystallized intelligence, noting how these abilities are different from each other. Page: 374-375 14.195. Why is fluid intelligence sometimes called cognitive pragmatics? Why is crystallized intelligence sometimes called cognitive mechanics? How do the terms “pragmatics” and “mechanics” help describe the fundamental difference between these two types of intellectual skills? Page: 375 14.196. Why are cross-sectional studies likely to lead researchers to incorrect conclusions about how intellect changes with age across adulthood? Page: 375

14.197. Describe the typical result of cross-sectional studies that explore changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence across the span of adulthood. Which abilities decline the most? Page: 375 14.198. Which intellectual abilities appear to be most resistance to age-related decline? Which decline the most during adulthood? Page: 375-376 14.199. What brain changes are typically associated with the period of middle adulthood? What cognitive changes are typically the result? Page: 376 14.200. How do experts retain a high level of skill in middle and older adulthood, given the decline in cognitive abilities that typically accompany aging? Page: 376-377 14.201. Describe the changes to life expectancy in the U. S. that have occurred in the past 60 years. What do these changes imply for the importance of job retraining in the U. S. workforce? Page: 378

Essay questions: Development in Middle Adulthood 14.202. Is middle adulthood “prime time” or the “beginning of the end”? Explain your answer and support it with evidence. Page: 360-361 14.203. According to Daniel Levinson, what factors lead a person toward a midlife crisis? How is such a crisis typically experienced? How is it typically resolved? Page: 361 14.204. According to Levinson, men and women typically experience the midlife crisis in the same way and at the same time. If you were to conduct research that explores gender differences in how the midlife crisis is experienced, what two factors do you believe would be most interesting to explore? What hypothesis would you propose for each gender-related factor, based on how you think men might adapt differently than women? Page: 361 14.205. How do transitional models explain the “midlife crisis” that was suggested by Levinson? What life factors might influence how a 40-year-old person might experience the transition from early to middle adulthood? Page: 361-362 14.206. Describe how modern researchers typically differ from Daniel Levinson in their views of middle age, specifically regarding the midlife crisis. Page: 362 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Physical Continuity and Change 14.207. Describe the typical changes to vision, hearing, taste, and smell that occur in middle adulthood. How do these changes typically affect the adult’s use of cognitive resources, such as memory and problem-solving skills? Page: 364 14.208. Describe the results of research that explored how U. S. women typically experience the symptoms associated with menopause. Do women today view “the change” as positive, negative, or a mixture of both? Page: 365 14.209. Cite two pieces of evidence that the text presents that indicate that the experience of menopause is heavily dependent on cultural, rather than biological, forces. Do you agree with this conclusion? Explain. Page: 365-366 14.210. Suppose a good friend is experiencing bothersome symptoms associated with menopause and is considering going on hormone replacement therapy. If she asked you for your advice, what evidence would you cite that would help her make an informed decision? What would your recommendation be? Page: 366-367 14.211. Is erectile dysfunction more likely to be the result of physiological, or psychological, problems? What treatments exist and which is generally prescribed? Does the therapy prescribed depend on what the likely cause of dysfunction is? Explain. Page: 367 14.212. Identify three reasons why sexual activity typically declines during middle adulthood. Is this decline substantial, and does it lead to greater marital unhappiness? Cite evidence to support your conclusions. Page: 367-368 Disease and Health 14.213. How do death rates from the major causes of death in adulthood change as a person moves from early adulthood through middle adulthood? In your answer, describe how death rates due to accidents, to cancer, and to heart disease shift with increasing age in this period. Page: 368-369 14.214. Describe how death rates and disease rates differ in the U.S. today for men versus women. What factors are likely to contribute to these differences? Page: 369-370 14.215. Discuss the relationship between education level and life expectancy for men and women. Identify two ways in which educational level is likely related to life expectancy. Page: 369-370 14.216. Describe three ways in which physical exercise can help middle-aged adults be healthier and live longer. Page: 370 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.217. Describe the prevalence of cigarette smoking in the United States today, in comparison to earlier decades. Include in your answer research about the success most people have in trying to quit. Page: 370-371 14.218. List in order the top three causes of preventable death in adulthood in the United States today. How might each be related to socioeconomic factors and to stress? Page: 371 14.219. Describe how researchers measure the degree to which a person’s life is stressful. How does life stress interact with lifestyle to affect overall health? Page: 372 14.220. Identify three factors that help explain the finding that the death rate in middle adulthood of white Americans is lower than that of African Americans and of Hispanic Americans. To what extent are socioeconomic forces involved, do you think? Page: 372-374 14.221. Discuss how one’s socioeconomic status might influence one’s health in middle adulthood. What factors related to socioeconomic status have an impact on health and risk of dying? Page: 372-374 Cognitive Continuity and Change 14.222. Define the terms “crystallized intelligence” and “fluid intelligence” and identify the key distinction between these different types of cognitive skills. Which is more closely tied to neurological functioning? Why? Page: 374-375 14.223. Consider the job of an airplane pilot and suggest which tasks involved in flying a plane would be good examples of crystallized intelligence and which would be examples of fluid intelligence. How would you expect the flying ability of a 20-year-old pilot be different from that of a 60-year-old pilot? Which person would you rather have be the pilot in a plane in which you were a passenger? Why? Page: 374-375 14.224. How do the conclusions about age-related cognitive decline differ, depending on whether a study uses cross-sectional, versus longitudinal, research methods? Which of these methods provides the more accurate view of age-related changes in cognition throughout adulthood? Page: 375 14.225. Given the age-related decline that is typical of middle and later adulthood, explain why middle adulthood is still generally considered to be the “command generation.” Page: 376-377, 360 14.226. Describe how people’s ability to carry out cognitive tasks, including those involving spatial orientation, perceptual processing, and verbal memory, change over time during adulthood. Page: 375-377 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

14.227. How would a younger physician and an older physician likely approach a complex medical problem, such as determining how to select a chemotherapy program for a patient with cancer, when several different options are available? If you were the patient, would you rather have the younger, or the older, doctor? Why? Page: 376 14.228. Why is it more important now than ever to provide ongoing education and training to workers in the workforce today? Suggest two reasons. Page: 378

Name____________________________________ Chapter 15 - Middle Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. According to statistics cited in the text, in the U.S. today, about what percent of “launched” children return home for a period of time? a. 5% b. 15% c. 35% d. 65% 2. The text reports the results of a study of friendships among people at four different life stages. In all of these stages of life, which of the following was reported as the most important aspect of friendship? a. loyalty b. empathy c. honesty d. reciprocity 3. According to the text, in comparison to first marriages, second marriages are more often characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. more open communication b. greater acceptance of conflict c. more trust that disagreements can be resolved d. higher levels of hostility Conceptual questions: 4. Which of the following statements about Erik Erikson’s view of adult development is FALSE? a. Adults move through stages of development, each with somewhat different developmental tasks. b. Earlier life events set the stage for how later development will unfold. c. Developmental issues from earlier in life reappear from time to time in later stages of development. d. When major life circumstances change dramatically, we tend to ignore earlier developmental adaptations and strike out in bold new directions. 5. In a study reported in the text, women were asked to report the major transitions in their lives. Which of the following was NOT one of the three transitions that most women reported? a. the birth of their children b. menarche c. when children left home d. menopause 6. Which of the following statements about marriage and divorce is TRUE? a. Having children usually increases marital satisfaction. b. Married people have more sex and more satisfying sex lives than unmarried couples. c. Husbands typically make more adjustments to married life than wives do. d. Children are usually better off with divorced parents than with parents who are unhappily married. 7. If personality traits are biologically based, this would imply that they would be established relatively ________ in life and would change ________ across the lifespan. a. early; a great deal b. early; little c. late; a great deal d. late; little

Applied questions: 8. Leonardo finds that as he has reached middle age, his physical stamina has begun to wane, and he has been forced to shift his focus his leisure time interests away from golf and tennis toward reading and going to the theater. Peck would describe Leonardo’s adjustment as centering on: a. socializing versus sexuality b. valuing wisdom versus valuing physical powers c. mental flexibility versus mental rigidity d. cathectic flexibility versus cathectic impoverishment 9. As 45-year-old Brenda’s parents age, she helps them with their finances, buys their groceries, and takes care of their house. Which of the following terms best describes this transition in Brenda’s and her parents’ lives? a. role conflict b. stagnation c. role strain d. role reversal 10. Suppose you are conducting a study in which you ask middle-aged men and women why they have stayed married to each other. You would expect that the primary reason that men would give would be _________ and the primary reason women would give would be _____________. a. "my spouse is my best friend"; “for the sake of the children” b. "for the sake of the children"; “for financial reasons” c. "my spouse is my best friend”; “my spouse is my best friend” d. "for sexual reasons"; “for financial reasons”

Name____________________________________ Chapter 15 - Middle Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2

Factual questions: 1. According to the view proposed by Robert Peck, which of the following periods is most often the critical time for making adjustments that will determine the way people live out the rest of their years? a. ages 20 to 30 b. ages 30 to 40 c. ages 40 to 50 d. ages 50 to 60 2. According to the text, about what percent of aging parents in the United States today share a home with their middle-aged children? a. about 40% b. about 25% c. about 10% d. about 2% 3. In a study that asked adults how their personalities had changed in the previous 6 years, the results shows that _____ reported that their personalities had “stayed the same” and _____ reported that their personalities had “changed a good deal.” a. 33%; 67% b. 67%; 33% c. 9%; 53% d. 53%; 9% Conceptual questions: 4. According to Erikson, the procreative domain of generativity centers on which of the following? a. successfully integrating work responsibilities with family life b. taking care of one’s children and guiding them toward good lives c. increasing cultural potential on a greater scale d. finding meaning in one’s own work 5. If you were to choose the most descriptive words to describe how middle-aged fathers are typically regarded by their children, these words would be: a. prime time for fathers b. useless period for fathers c. most-resented parent d. least-appreciated parent 6. Statistically speaking, which of the following people is likely to be oldest when he or she becomes a grandparent? a. Ralph, who is an African American man b. Tim, who is a White man c. Roberta, who is an African American woman d. Lynette, who is a White woman 7. Which of the following terms refers to something quite different than do the other three terms? a. blended family b. stepfamily c. single-parent family d. reconstituted family Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied questions: 8. Now that her father is a widower, Susan finds herself in middle age hosting the holidays at her home for all of her extended family members. According to the text, which of the following is the word used to describe the role has Susan assumed? a. arbitrator b. kinkeeper c. scapegoat d. family generator 9. If you were to gather evidence on the age at which divorced adults concluded their divorce, you would most likely find that the average age of divorced men was about _____ and the average age of divorced women was _____. a. 32; 29 b. 42; 39 c. 42; 29 c. 32; 39 10. Suppose your friend has just taken a job that is strongly associated with job burnout. To help him cope, you could point out that all of the following pieces of advice help prevent burnout EXCEPT: a. he should be realistic, rather than optimistic, about how much impact he can have b. he should try to keep his personal life separate from his work c. he should try to dedicate his professional life to the people he is trying to help d. he should develop interests outside of his job

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 15.1 1. c, p. 387 2. d, p. 392 3. d, p. 397 4. d, p. 383 5. b, p. 385 6. b, p. 393 7. b, p. 401 8. b, p. 384 9. d, p. 389 10. c, p. 395 Quick Quiz 15.2 1. d, p. 384 2. c, pp. 388-389 3. d, pp. 401-402 4. b, p. 383 5. a, p. 385 6. b, p. 390 7. c, p. 395 8. b, p. 386 9. a, p. 392 10. c, p. 400

Chapter 15 Middle Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development Multiple Choice questions: Personality Continuity and Change 15.1. According to the text, during the period of middle adulthood, most adults think less about __________ and more about ________________. a. how long they’ve lived; how much time they have left b. how much time they have left; how long they’ve lived c. money; love d. love; money Answer: a Page: 382 Factual Easy 15.2. Erik Erikson’s view of middle adulthood is one in which individuals deal with the issue of ________ vs. selfabsorption. a. despair b. role identity c. intimacy d. generativity Answer: d Page: 383 Factual Easy 15.3. According to Erikson, what is the central issue facing middle-aged adults? a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus self-absorption c. intimacy versus isolation d. industry versus inferiority Answer: b Page: 383 Factual Easy 15.4. In middle age, Sue raises her three children and integrates her work with her family life. In doing so, she finds meaning in life, and believes she has made important contributions to her family and career. Erikson would describe Sue’s belief as being most reflective of what he referred to as: a. integrity b. initiative c. generativity d. intimacy Answer: c Page: 282 Applied Moderate

Rationale: For Erikson, the primary task of middle age is one of generativity versus self-absorption. By generativity, Erikson meant that adults contribute in worthwhile ways to the good of others and their community. 15.5. Larry is almost 60 years old, and feels that he has not lived the life he had hoped. He believes he accomplished little in his job, and that his children don’t respect him. According to Erik Erikson, Larry’s life is characterized by: a. generativity b. self-absorption c. unconditional negative regard d. few conditions of worth Answer: b Page: 383 Applied Moderate Rationale: For Erikson, the primary task of middle age is one of generativity versus self-absorption. Here, adults develop either the feeling that they have contributed in worthwhile ways (generativity) or that their lives have not been worthwhile (self-absorption). 15.6. In the generative stage, Erikson suggests that people act within all of the following domains EXCEPT: a. a humanistic one b. a procreative one c. a productive one d. a creative one Answer: a Page: 383 Factual Moderate 15.7. Ramona is a middle-aged woman who finds meaning in her life by devoting herself to raising her children to be “good people.” Erikson would most likely emphasize which of the following terms as being most descriptive of Ramona's personality development? a. creativity b. self-absorption c. procreation d. productivity Answer: c Page: 383 Applied Difficult Rationale: Erikson suggested that people act within 3 domains with regard to generativity: procreative, productive, and creative. The procreative domain centers on giving and responding to the needs of one’s children. 15.8. According to Erikson, the procreative domain of generativity centers on which of the following? a. successfully integrating work responsibilities with family life b. taking care of one’s children and guiding them toward good lives c. increasing cultural potential on a greater scale d. finding meaning in one’s own work Answer: b Page: 383 Conceptual Moderate

Rationale: Erikson suggested that people act within 3 domains with regard to generativity: procreative, productive, and creative. The procreative domain centers on giving and responding to the needs of one’s children. 15.9. Judy worked hard to build a successful consulting business because she needs to provide for her children. She chose to work in consulting because she wanted to be at home when her children went off to school and came home from school, and consulting allows her to work flexible hours. Erikson would most likely view Judy’s focus on integrating family life and work life successfully as filling needs in which of the following domains? a. creative domain b. productive domain c. recreative domain d. procreative domain Answer: b Page: 383 Applied Moderate Rationale: Erikson suggested that people act within 3 domains with regard to generativity: procreative, productive, and creative. The productive domain centers on integrating work with family life or caring for the next generation. 15.10. Jeannine is 50 years old. Although she has never married, she devotes many hours to her volunteer work at the local “art incubator,” where artists can come and work in stress-free environments. She also takes great pleasure in volunteering at the local food pantry and at the free clinic. According to Erikson, Jeannine’s development is characterized by investment in: a. the procreative domain b. the productive domain c. the creative domain d. conditions of worth and merit Answer: c Page: 383 Applied Moderate Rationale: Erikson suggested that people act within 3 domains with regard to generativity: procreative, productive, and creative. The creative domain centers on contributing to society on a larger scale. 15.11. Which of the following statements about Erik Erikson’s view of adult development is FALSE? a. Adults move through stages of development, each with somewhat different developmental tasks. b. Earlier life events set the stage for how later development will unfold. c. Developmental issues from earlier in life reappear from time to time in later stages of development. d. When major life circumstances change dramatically, we tend to ignore earlier developmental adaptations and strike out in bold new directions. Answer: d Page: 383 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: When we are uprooted by major life circumstances, we must revisit the earlier developmental issues of basic trust, autonomy, and so forth, before we can pursue adult generativity. Thus, dramatic changes cause us to reconnect with our previous life issues, rather than ignore them. 15.12. According to the text, if a person is not able to develop a sense of generativity, which of the following is most likely to result? a. a basic sense of mistrust in people b. an identity crisis c. boredom d. a sense of being all alone, with no one to love Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 383 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: When generativity does not emerge in middle adulthood, people come to view their lives as meaningless, they become self-absorbed, and a sense of stagnation and boredom are the typical result. Nothing seems meaningful, so boredom takes the place of a sense of generativity. 15.13. According to the text, which of the following is Robert Peck's main criticism of Erikson's stages of development? a. Erikson's stages ignore the first 20 to 25 years of life. b. Erikson's stages ignore the final years of life. c. Erikson's stages place too much emphasis on childhood, adolescence, and young adulthood. d. Erikson's stages place too much emphasis on the final years of life. Answer: c Page: 383 Factual Moderate 15.14. According to the view proposed by Robert Peck, which of the following periods is most often the critical time for making adjustments that will determine the way people live out the rest of their years? a. ages 20 to 30 b. ages 30 to 40 c. ages 40 to 50 d. ages 50 to 60 Answer: d Page: 384 Factual Moderate 15.15. Which of the following conflicts of adult development was proposed by Robert Peck? a. generativity versus stagnation b. integrity versus despair c. trust versus mistrust d. valuing wisdom versus valuing physical powers Answer: d Page: 384 Factual Moderate 15.16. Jack and Sarah find that in their middle-aged years, many of their couple friends have either divorced or moved away, or do not share the same interests any more. Their adjustment illustrates which of Peck's issues of adult development? a. socializing versus sexuality b. ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation c. cathectic flexibility versus cathectic impoverishment d. mental flexibility versus mental rigidity Answer: c Page: 384 Applied Difficult Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: In Peck’s cathectic (emotional) flexibility versus cathectic impoverishment, emotional flexibility underlies the various adjustments that people must make in middle age as families split up, friends move away, and old interests cease being the central focus of life. 15.17. Leonardo finds that as he has reached middle age, his physical stamina has begun to wane, and he has been forced to shift his focus his leisure time interests away from golf and tennis toward reading and going to the theater. Peck would describe Leonardo’s adjustment as centering on: a. socializing versus sexuality b. valuing wisdom versus valuing physical powers c. mental flexibility versus mental rigidity d. cathectic flexibility versus cathectic impoverishment Answer: b Page: 384 Applied Moderate Rationale: Peck’s issue of valuing wisdom versus valuing physical powers refers to the fact that as physical stamina and health begin to wane, people must shift much of their energy from physical activities to mental ones. 15.18. Frank tends to let his past experiences and old judgments dominate his current decisions. For instance, Frank says he has always disapproved of women in the armed services, and is not changing his mind now. This best illustrates which of Peck's conflicts of adult development? a. ego differentiation versus work-role preoccupation b. mental flexibility versus mental rigidity c. cathectic flexibility versus cathectic impoverishment d. valuing wisdom versus valuing physical powers Answer: b Page: 384 Applied Difficult Rationale: Peck’s issue of mental flexibility versus mental rigidity refers to the fact that individuals must fight the inclination to become too set in their ways or too distrustful of new ideas. Mental rigidity is the tendency to become dominated by past experiences and former judgments. 15.19. A researcher is interested in studying how traditional women react in midlife. If his goal were to identify predictable relationships between adjustment and life events, he would most likely want to focus on how women experience: a. their career cycle, noting when they begin working and when they retire b. the stages of moral development they use in evaluating moral dilemmas c. the major events that define their family’s life cycle d. their 40th, 50th, and 60th birthdays Answer: c Page: 385 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to the text, many women whose lives have reflected traditional female roles define themselves more in terms of the family cycle than by their place in the career cycle. 15.20. During middle adulthood, how do men’s roles typically change with regard to parenting? a. Children become more dependent on their mother and less dependent on their father for advice, so fathers’ roles diminish in importance. b. Children become more resentful of their fathers, so fathers’ roles diminish in importance. c. Children become distant from fathers, either emotionally or geographically, so fathers’ roles diminish in importance. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. Children are more influenced by their fathers, so fathers’ roles in midlife become more important. Answer: d Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Midlife has been characterized as the prime time for fathers, as their influence over their young adult children tends to increase. 15.21. If you were to choose the most descriptive words to describe how middle-aged fathers are typically regarded by their children, these words would be: a. prime time for fathers b. useless period for fathers c. most-resented parent d. least-appreciated parent Answer: a Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Midlife has been characterized as the prime time for fathers, as their influence over their young adult children tends to increase.

15.22. According to the text, _______ associate their sexual satisfaction with emotional aspects of their relationships and _______ associate their sexual satisfaction with physical pleasure they experience. a. men; women b. women; men c. both men and women; both men and women d. women, both men and women Answer: c Page: 385 Factual Moderate 15.23. According to the text, during midlife, parenting usually has quite ________ effects on men and women, and when differences emerge in how parenting affects men and women at this stage, research usually shows that ______ benefit more from parenting. a. similar; men b. similar; women c. different; men d. different; women Answer: a Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Parenthood typically has similar psychological effects on mothers and fathers during midlife. When differences do emerge, results often show that men benefit more in midlife from parenting than do women. 15.24. In a study reported in the text, women were asked to report the major transitions in their lives. Which of the following was NOT one of the three transitions that most women reported? a. the birth of their children b. menarche c. when children left home Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. menopause Answer: b Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One study of Midwestern women found that they tended to report major life transitions at three points in the family cycle. The first major life transition occurs in young adulthood; fully 80% reported major role changes associated with the birth of their children and their early childrearing years. In middle adulthood, about 40% reported a major life transition when their children left home, although very few described the transition as particularly traumatic. The final major life transition reported by 33% of the women was menopause. 15.25. In a study reported in the text, women were asked to report the major transitions in their lives. Which of the following was one of the three transitions that most women reported? a. when they got married b. menarche c. when children left home d. when their own mother died Answer: c Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One study of Midwestern women found that they tended to report major life transitions at three points in the family cycle. The first major life transition occurs in young adulthood; fully 80% reported major role changes associated with the birth of their children and their early childrearing years. In middle adulthood, about 40% reported a major life transition when their children left home, although very few described the transition as particularly traumatic. The final major life transition reported by 33% of the women was menopause. 15.26. In a study reported in the text, women were asked to report the major transitions in their lives. Which of the following was the major life transition that the largest proportion of the women identified? a. the birth of their children b. when their own mother died c. when children left home d. menopause Answer: a Page: 385 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Fully 80% reported major role changes associated with the birth of their children and their early childrearing years. 15.27. An overload of demands within the same role is called a: a. role strain b. role reversal c. role burnout d. role conflict Answer: a Page: 385 Factual Easy 15.28. Grace has chosen to stay at home and raise her three young children, but feels incapable of giving all three the attention they want from her. Which of the following terms best describes Grace’s dilemma? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. dual roles b. role strain c. role conflict d. role reversal Answer: b Page: 385 Applied Moderate Rationale: Role strain results when there is an overload of demands within a given role. 15.29. Martha is a secretary for a prestigious company, and experiences an overload of demands from various executives. She finds that she is incapable of satisfying any of their needs. Martha’s problem is best considered to be an example of role: a. conflict b. strain c. crisis d. overload Answer: b Page: 385 Applied Moderate Rationale: Role strain results when there is an overload of demands within a given role. 15.30. According to the text, when men and women are engaged in multiple roles, such as having a career, raising children, and caring for parents, they are more likely to experience: a. well-being b. self-absorption c. the empty nest phenomenon d. job burnout Answer: a Page: 385 Factual Moderate Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 15.31. According to the text, people in which of the following developmental periods are most likely to focus on the present, rather than the future or the past? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. older adulthood Answer: c Page: 386 Factual Easy 15.32. According to the text, people in which of the following age groups generally takes on the role of family kinkeeper? a. late adolescents b. young adults c. middle-aged adults Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. elderly adults Answer: c Page: 386 Factual Easy 15.33. Now that her father is a widower, Susan finds herself in middle age hosting the holidays at her home for all of her extended family members. According to the text, which of the following is the word used to describe the role has Susan assumed? a. arbitrator b. kinkeeper c. scapegoat d. family generator Answer: b Page: 386 Applied Easy Rationale: Kinkeeper is the role assumed by middle-aged people that includes maintaining family rituals, celebrating achievements, keeping family histories alive, reaching out to family members who are far away, and gathering the family together for holiday celebrations—all of which helps keep the family close. 15.34. Max, who is middle-aged, has assumed the task of maintaining his family's rituals by keeping his family history alive and reaching out to family members who live far away. Max has now taken on the role of family: a. kinkeeper b. caregiver c. overseer d. mentor Answer: a Page: 386 Applied Moderate Rationale: Kinkeeper is the role assumed by middle-aged people that includes maintaining family rituals, celebrating achievements, keeping family histories alive, reaching out to family members who are far away, and gathering the family together for holiday celebrations—all of which helps keep the family close. 15.35. According to the text, when adolescents are launched most parents: a. enjoy increased freedom, privacy, and discretionary income b. experience a sense of loss, especially with respect to emotional connectedness c. become more self-absorbed d. experience greater role strain Answer: a Page: 386 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Despite the worries that often accompany a child taking on the responsibilities of adult life, most parents enjoy the increase in freedom, privacy, and discretionary income once the children are gone. 15.36. According to the text, when adolescents are launched, the overall reaction from parents is usually _________, and __________ are generally better at letting go of their children. a. positive; fathers b. positive; mothers c. negative; fathers Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. negative; mothers Answer: b Page: 387 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Most parents enjoy the increase in freedom, privacy, and discretionary income once the children are gone. However, mothers often are better prepared than fathers to see their children leave home. 15.37. According to statistics cited in the text, in the U.S. today, about what percent of “launched” children return home for a period of time? a. 5% b. 15% c. 35% d. 65% Answer: c Page: 387 Factual Moderate 15.38. Adult children are LEAST likely to return home to live with their parents in which of the following cultures or settings? a. in Italy b. in Asian families c. in urban areas in the United States d. in rural areas in the United States Answer: c Page: 388 Factual Moderate 15.39. Suppose you are a sociologist studying patterns of how young adults return home to live with their parents. Generalizing from previous research, which of the following young adults would you expect to be LEAST likely to live with his parents? a. Michael, who lives in Italy b. Ngyuen, who is Asian and whose family lives in California c. Bob, whose family lives on a farm in Iowa d. Ted, whose family lives in an apartment in New York City Answer: d Page: 388 Applied Difficult Rationale: In Italy it is normal for children to reside in their parents’ home until marriage. In the United States, adult children in Asian and Latin American families were found to live with parents longer out of respect and the desire to assist the family. Additionally, studies show that young adults reside with parents longer in rural than in urban areas. 15.40. The period in the family life cycle that occurs after the last child has left home is called: a. role resolution b. empty nest c. generativity d. transition

Answer: b Page: 388 Factual Easy 15.41. Tim and Ann have just sent their last child off to college. What period in the family life cycle are they now experiencing? a. generativity b. empty nest c. kinkeeper d. role reversal Answer: b Page: 388 Applied Easy Rationale: Empty nest is the period in the family life cycle that occurs after the last child has left home. 15.42. According to statistics reported in the text, compared to 1900, the difference in life expectancy between men and women today has: a. decreased b. become much less predictable c. stayed the same d. increased Answer: d Page: 388 Factual Difficult 15.43. In 2005, Ron and Betty both celebrated their 40 th birthday. At this point, Ron knew he could expect to live another ____ years, and Betty could expect to live another ____ years. a. 38; 42 b. 42; 38 c. 28; 32 d. 32; 28 Answer: a Page: 388 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 15-2 shows the life expectancy for U.S. men and women. It shows that in 2005 the life expectancy for men was 75.2 and for women it was 80.4. 15.44. Tommy depends on his parents to pay his college tuition and in return he helps out on weekends at the family business. The word the text uses to capture the sense of give-and-take between Tommy and his parents is: a. identify b. autonomy c. integrity d. reciprocity Answer: d Page: 388 Applied Easy

Rationale: Ideally, as children reach adulthood, they interact with their parents on a more equal basis than they did earlier in life, thereby establishing a reciprocal give-and-take relationship. Surveys reveal that social, emotional, and material reciprocal exchanges of assistance between children and their parents are common. 15.45. The text cites statistics that indicate that in 1900 about ____ of children experienced the loss of a parent before age 15; in 2000, this percentage was about ____. a. 50%; 5% b. 40%; 5% c. 25%; 5% d. 40%; 10% Answer: c Page: 388 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In 1900, one in four children experienced the death of a parent before they were 15 years old; in 2000, fewer than 1 in 20 children did. 15.46. According to the text, the primary reason why adult children and their parents share a household is: a. one or both parents have lost a job b. the adult child has lost a job c. the adult parents have become disabled and need assistance d. living expenses are too high for parents and children to afford two households Answer: d Page: 388 Factual Moderate 15.47. According to the text, about what percent of aging parents in the United States today share a home with their middle-aged children? a. about 40% b. about 25% c. about 10% d. about 2% Answer: c Page: 388-389 Factual Moderate 15.48. When the middle-aged become the generation "in charge" of their aging parents, what has occurred? a. role overload b. role strain c. role conflict d. role reversal Answer: d Page: 389 Factual Moderate 5.49. As 45-year-old Brenda’s parents age, she helps them with their finances, buys their groceries, and takes care of their house. Which of the following terms best describes this transition in Brenda’s and her parents’ lives? a. role conflict b. stagnation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. role strain d. role reversal Answer: d Page: 389 Applied Moderate Rationale: Role reversals often take place for middle-aged adults and their parents. Middle-aged adults become the generation in charge and their parents, if they are still living, may be in poor health, retired, or in need of financial aid. Over a period of years, power gradually and naturally shifts from older parents to their middle-aged children. 15.50. Suppose you conduct a study investigating which family members are most likely to provide caregiving support to aging parents. Generalizing from research described in the text, you should expect that which of the following groups would be MOST likely to provide this support? a. sons b. daughters c. granddaughters d. sisters Answer: b Page: 389 Applied Moderate Rationale: Regardless of whether or not they hold jobs, daughters and daughters-in-law are much more likely than male family members to provide care to aging parents. 15.51. If you asked 1,000 people who were between ages 35 and 64 whether or not they had cared for a relative or friend in the last year, you should expect about how many of them to answer “yes”? a. 50 b. 200 c. 500 d. 650 Answer: b Page: 389 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text cites a study that found that 1 in 5 adults from ages 35 to 64 had cared for a relative or a friend in the last year. 15.52. According to the text, about what percent of aging adults are cared for by their adult children in a home environment, either by providing the necessary assistance so the parent can live independently, or by having the parent live with their families? a. about 40% b. about 55% c. about 70% d. about 85% Answer: d Page: 389 Factual Moderate 15.53. If current trends hold into the future, you would estimate that a person’s chances of being cared for in a nursing home are about 1 in: a. 2 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. 3 c. 4 d. 10 Answer: d Page: 389 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text reports that 80-90% of the elderly are cared for at home, and only a small percentage are cared for in formal facilities, such as nursing homes. 15.54. According to the text, which of the following people are MOST likely to provide care for elderly family members? a. daughters and sons b. daughters and daughters-in-law c. sons and sons-in-law d. granddaughters and grandsons Answer: a Page: 390 Factual Moderate 15.55. If you conducted a survey of women who were providing care to elderly relatives, you should expect that about ____ of them would report that they feel guilty about not doing enough. a. 2% b. 10% c. 33% d. 60% Answer: d Page: 390 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In one study cited in the textbook, 60% of caregiving women reported that they felt guilty about not doing enough. 5.56. When Susan gave birth to triplets after already having two children, her parents' presence was calming, and provided an anchor to both the grandchildren and parents. According to research conducted by Bengtson, which of the following best describes the role that Susan's parents serve? a. arbitrator b. family national guard c. being there d. maintaining the family's biography Answer: c Page: 390 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 15-3 lists important roles played by grandparents. The being there role can include being a calming presence in the face of family disruption or external catastrophe, providing an anchor of stability to both grandchildren and parents, and acting as a deterrent to family disruption. 5.57. Hugh and Lois are grandparents who are available to help with grandchildren in times of crisis. During these times, they actually get involved in the active management of their grandchildren's lives. According to research conducted by Bengtson, which of the following roles do these grandparents serve? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. being there b. family national guard c. arbitrator d. maintaining the family's biography Answer: b Page: 390 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 15-3 lists important roles played by grandparents. The family national guard role involves being available in times of emergency. 5.58. When Jill had an emergency appendectomy, her parents stayed with Jill's children and took care of them for a week. According to research conducted by Bengtson, which of the following roles do Jill’s parents serve? a. arbitrator b. family national guard c. being there d. maintaining the family's biography Answer: b Page: 390 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 15-3 lists important roles played by grandparents. The family national guard role involves being available in times of emergency. 15.59. Statistically speaking, which of the following people is likely to be oldest when he or she becomes a grandparent? a. Ralph, who is an African American man b. Tim, who is a White man c. Roberta, who is an African American woman d. Lynette, who is a White woman Answer: b Page: 390 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to the text, women and members of some minority groups tend to become grandparents at somewhat earlier ages. 15.60. In the United States today, about what percent of grandparents are raising their grandchildren? a. about 1% b. about 3% c. about 11% d. about 23% Answer: c Page: 390 Factual Moderate 15.61. In the United States today, about 1 in ___ grandparents are raising their grandchildren. a. 100 b. 50 c. 25 d. 10 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 390 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that today, about 11% of grandparents are raising their grandchildren. 15.62. Statistically speaking, which of the following grandparents is LEAST likely to be involved in raising grandchildren? a. Li, who is an Asian American woman b. Marie, who is a white American woman c. Ruth, who is an African American woman d. Lucinda, who is a Hispanic American woman Answer: b Page: 391 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Asian, Black, Hispanic, Native American, and Inuit families are far more likely to be three-generation households than are non-Hispanic White families. In Black and Native American families, more than 50% of grandparents are their grandchildren’s primary caregivers. 15.63. According to the text, in African American and Native American families, about ___percent of grandparents are their grandchildren’s primary caregivers. a. 10% b. 25% c. 33% d. 50% Answer: d Page: 391 Factual Moderate 15.64. If you were to study the complexity of friendship relationships, you would expect that the most complex friendships would be seen among people in which of the following age groups? a. young adults between ages 20 and 30 b. young adults between ages 30 and 40 c. middle-aged adults between ages 40 and 50 d. middle-aged adults between ages 50 and 60 Answer: d Page: 392 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to the text, the most complex friendships generally occur among the late middle-aged group. 15.65. The text reports the results of a study of friendships among people at four different life stages. In all of these stages of life, which of the following was reported as the most important aspect of friendship? a. loyalty b. empathy c. honesty d. reciprocity Answer: d Page: 392 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Moderate 15.66. According to research presented in the text, in which of the following age periods do the most complex friendships typically occur? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. early middle-adulthood d. later middle-adulthood Answer: d Page: 392 Factual Moderate 15.67. According to the text, during middle adulthood, men’s friendships tend to be based on _____ and women’s friendships tend to be based on ______. a. work; family b. reciprocity; similarities c. similarities; family d. similarities; reciprocity Answer: d Page: 392 Factual Moderate The Changing Family 15.68. When a family consists of a father who works and a mother who stays at home to care for children, the word used to describe this situation is: a. nuclear family b. blended family c. “empty” family d. single-caregiver family Answer: a Page: 392 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text suggests that a nuclear family is the same as the traditional family, in which the father works and the mother stays home to care for children. 15.69. The divorce rate for second marriages is: a. higher than the divorce rate for first marriages b. about the same as the divorce rate for first marriages c. much lower than the divorce rate for first marriages d. slightly lower than the divorce rate for first marriages Answer: a Page: 392-393 Factual Easy 15.70. A simple consideration of the number of people married and the number divorced in a given year typically leads to the conclusion that about ____ of all marriages end in divorce; however the actual percentage is about ____. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. half; 55% b. half; 40% c. half; 30% d. two-thirds, 50% Answer: b Page: 392-393 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Statistics lead to the often-cited conclusion that half of all marriages end in divorce. However, the people who are divorcing in a given year are not the same as those marrying and, therefore, a simple comparison of marriage and divorce rates usually leads to an erroneous conclusion. The book notes that after taking multiple trends into consideration, a reasonable estimate of the chances of a marriage today ending in divorce is close to 40%. 15.71. In the United States today, about what percent of 40-year-olds have been married? a. about 57% b. about 67% c. about 77% d. about 87% Answer: d Page: 392 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: By age 40, 86% of men and 88% of women living in the United States have been married. 15.72. In the United States today, about what percent of 40-year-olds have been married and divorced? a. about 10% b. about 20% c. about 33% d. about 50% Answer: c Page: 392 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The text notes that in the U.S. about one-third of 40-year-olds have been divorced. 15.73. During which of the following periods in the lifespan do most divorces occur? a. early adulthood b. early middle-adulthood c. later middle-adulthood d. older adulthood Answer: a Page: 392 Factual Easy 15.74. If you were to gather evidence on the age at which divorced adults concluded their divorce, you would most likely find that the average age of divorced men was about _____ and the average age of divorced women was _____. a. 32; 29 b. 42; 39 c. 42; 29 c. 32; 39 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: a Page: 392 Applied Difficult Rationale: The average age of divorce in 2004 in the U. S. was age 31.8 years for men and 29.4 years for women. 15.75. In comparison to women, today U. S. men marry _________ and they tend to marry women who are _________ than they are. a. earlier; younger b. later; younger c. earlier; older d. later; older Answer: b Page: 393 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text associated with Figure 15-1, men stay single longer and marry younger women. 15.76. In comparison to men, today in the U. S. women are widowed at _______ ages and are _______ likely to remarry after being widowed or divorced. a. earlier; less b. earlier; more c. later; less d. later; more Answer: a Page: 393 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text associated with Figure 15-1, men remarry more often after divorce or death of a spouse; and women are widowed earlier. 15.77. Which of the following statements about marriage and divorce is TRUE? a. Having children usually increases marital satisfaction. b. Married people have more sex and more satisfying sex lives than unmarried couples. c. Husbands typically make more adjustments to married life than wives do. d. Children are usually better off with divorced parents than with parents who are unhappily married. Answer: b Page: 393 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 15-4 notes several myths about marriage and divorce and correctly notes that married people generally have more sex and more satisfying sex lives than unmarried couples, even though the contrary conclusion is a popular misconception. 15.78. Which of the following statements about marriage and divorce is TRUE? a. Divorce proceedings are usually initiated by women. b. Slightly more than half of all marriages today end in divorce. c. Husbands’ marital satisfaction is higher when wives are full-time homemakers than when they are employed. d. Children are usually better off with divorced parents than with parents who are unhappily married. Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 393 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 15-4 notes several myths about marriage and divorce and correctly notes that divorce proceedings are initiated by women in about two-thirds of the cases, even though the contrary conclusion is a popular misconception. 15.79. In cases of divorce, it is usually the _______ that becomes dissatisfied with the marriage first, and it is usually the ______ that initiates the divorce proceedings. a. husband; husband b. wife; wife c. husband; wife d. wife; husband Answer: b Page: 394 Factual Moderate 15.80. Compared to adults who remain married, people who are divorced in middle adulthood are more likely to experience all of the following EXCEPT: a. bigger financial problems b. higher rates of alcoholism c. higher rates of physical illness d. lower rates of depression Answer: d Page: 394 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text states that recently divorced men and women have higher rates of alcoholism, physical illness, and depression, and also have considerably more financial problems, owing to the need to support two households on the income stream that formerly supported only one. 15.81. According to the text, which of the following groups has the HIGHEST rate of remarriage? a. widowed men b. widowed women c. divorced men d. divorced women Answer: c Page: 394 Factual Moderate 15.82. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be most likely to remarry? a. Bob, a recently divorced man b. Fred, a recently widowed man c. Barbara, a recently divorced woman d. Charlene, a recently widowed woman Answer: a Page: 394 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that divorced men have the highest rate of remarriage among all single groups. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15.83. According to research cited in the text, which of the following is the primary reason that middle-aged men and women give for staying married to each other? a. "my spouse is my best friend" b. "for the sake of the children" c. "for financial reasons" d. "for sexual reasons" Answer: a Page: 395 Factual Moderate 15.84. Suppose you are conducting a study in which you ask middle-aged men and women why they have stayed married to each other. You would expect that the primary reason that men and women would give would be which of the following? a. "my spouse is my best friend" b. "for the sake of the children" c. "for financial reasons" d. "for sexual reasons" Answer: a Page: 395 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although middle-aged men and women cite different reasons for remaining married, both list “My spouse is my best friend” as their primary reason. 15.85. Suppose you are conducting a study in which you ask middle-aged men and women why they have stayed married to each other. You would expect that the primary reason that men would give would be _________ and the primary reason women would give would be _____________. a. "my spouse is my best friend"; “for the sake of the children” b. "for the sake of the children"; “for financial reasons” c. "my spouse is my best friend”; “my spouse is my best friend” d. "for sexual reasons"; “for financial reasons” Answer: c Page: 395 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although middle-aged men and women cite different reasons for remaining married, both list “My spouse is my best friend” as their primary reason. 15.86. Among happily married couples, having a satisfying sex life is seen by men as being of _________ importance and is seen by women as being of __________ importance. a. great; great b. great; some c. some; great d. some; some Answer: d Page: 395 Conceptual Moderate

Rationale: Although most happily married couples are satisfied with their sex lives, it usually is not a primary factor in happiness or marital satisfaction. Men listed satisfaction with sex as the 12th most important reason for staying together; women listed it as the 14th. 15.87. Which of the following terms refers to something quite different than do the other three terms? a. blended family b. stepfamily c. single-parent family d. reconstituted family Answer: c Page: 395 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The terms blended family, stepfamily, and reconstituted family all refer to a family that is re-formed following the breakup of one or more former families, either through death or divorce. These families are headed by two parents or stepparents. Single-parent families can involve a divorce or death of a parent, but can also result from being never married. Also, a single-parent family has only 1 parent living in the household, making this type of family quite different from the others. 15.88. In comparison to the proportion of blended families in the 17th and 18th centuries, the proportion of blended families in the U.S. today is: a. about the same b. somewhat higher c. somewhat lower d. dramatically higher Answer: a Page: 396 Factual Moderate 15.89. In comparison to the typical blended family of two centuries ago, blended families today are usually more complex because they: a. include more children under the age of 10 b. include more teenage children c. include the presence of a living former spouse d. involve much greater financial hardships Answer: c Page: 397 Factual Moderate 15.90. According to the text, in comparison to first marriages, second marriages are more often characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. more open communication b. greater acceptance of conflict c. more trust that disagreements can be resolved d. higher levels of hostility Answer: d Page: 397 Factual Easy

15.91. Regarding adjustment in blended families that include stepchildren, it is usually the _______ that has a harder time adjusting to new roles and the stereotype of the “neglected, abused stepchild” is largely ________________. a. father; a myth b. mother; a myth c. father; accurate d. mother; accurate Answer: b Page: 397 Factual Moderate 15.92. Adjustment in blended families is usually hardest between girls and their ____________ and between boys and their ____________. a. stepmothers; stepmothers b. stepfathers; stepfathers c. stepmothers; stepfathers d. stepfathers; stepmothers Answer: d Page: 397 Factual Difficult Occupational Continuity and Change 15.93. If a college has historically employed its own security staff, but now decides to fire these people and contract with a firm that specializes in security to take over this function, this is best considered to be an example of: a. downsizing b. “right-sizing” c. outsourcing d. union-busting Answer: c Page: 398 Applied Easy Rationale: The text describes outsourcing as farming out work to other companies that involves the loss of jobs to workers, regardless of how competent and dedicated they have been. 15.94. Julie has worked in the laundry of a large hospital for 34 years. One Friday afternoon she and her coworkers are brought in and told that the hospital is firing them because it has decided that the laundry will close and this function will be performed by a company that does laundry for large institutions. Julie’s situation is best considered to be an example of: a. outsourcing b. union-busting c. right-sizing d. downsizing Answer: a Page: 398 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text describes outsourcing as farming out work to other companies that involves the loss of jobs to workers, regardless of how competent and dedicated they have been. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15.95. According to the text, the loss of one's job in middle adulthood often causes reactions most similar to the adjustment: a. of being married for the first time b. of being married for the second time c. of leaving home to go to college or take a first job d. to the death of a loved one Answer: d Page: 398-399 Factual Difficult 15.96. The text cites all of the following reasons as explanations why job loss is especially traumatic in middle adulthood EXCEPT: a. middle-aged adults face discrimination, making it harder for them to find a new job b. new jobs are likely to involve lower pay than former jobs c. older workers usually have more of the personal identity invested in their jobs d. older workers have poorer self-concepts than younger workers Answer: d Page: 399 Factual Moderate 15.97. According to the text, the emotional exhaustion that often affects middle-aged people in the helping professions is called: a. professional obsolescence b. job strain c. role strain d. job burnout Answer: d Page: 399 Factual Easy 15.98. At age 45, Paige is emotionally exhausted from her work with prison inmates over the past ten years, feeling that no matter what she does, no one ever gets better. Paige is most likely experiencing: a. role strain b. role conflict c. job burnout d. professional obsolescence Answer: c Page: 399 Applied Easy Rationale: Job burnout is characterized by emotional exhaustion that results from working in high-stress professions or trades. 15.99. Job burnout is caused by: a. racial and sexual prejudice b. lack of reward for great effort c. outside interests becoming more important than the job d. role conflict between work and family responsibilities Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: b Page: 399-400 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, the general cause of job burnout is the lack of rewards in a work situation in which great effort has been expended and high hopes originally predominated. 15.100. People who suffer job burnout are typically: a. money-oriented workers who are tired of the "rat race" b. less competent workers who realize their limitations c. underskilled workers who go back to school d. idealistic, competent workers who finally realize that they cannot make a difference Answer: d Page: 399-400 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, people in the helping professions who suffer job burnout generally are idealistic, highly motivated, extremely competent workers who finally realize that they cannot make the difference they once thought they could. 15.101. Job burnout would be expected to be the biggest problem for workers in which of the following jobs? a. nursing b. police chief c. corporate executive d. college professor Answer: a Page: 399 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Job burnout is especially prevalent among individuals in the helping professions. Social workers, police officers, nurses, therapists, teachers, day-care workers, and others who must work in close personal contact with those whom they serve. 15.102. Which of the following people would be at greatest risk for developing job burnout? a. Laura, who is a social worker for an agency that serves low-income families b. Peter, who is the president of his own small insurance agency c. Rex, who is a computer programmer d. Priscilla, who is a professional musician Answer: a Page: 399 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Job burnout is especially prevalent among individuals in the helping professions. Social workers, police officers, nurses, therapists, teachers, day-care workers, and others who must work in close personal contact with those whom they serve. 15.103. Workers can best avoid burnout by: a. being realistic about their jobs b. taking regular vacations c. immersing themselves in the positive aspects of work d. having high ideals and good intentions

Answer: a Page: 400 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that workers can avoid or minimize job burnout by learning to be realistic in their approach to their work and their goals, by promoting changes in their job requirements or work flow, by attempting to keep the rest of their life separate from their work (for example, by not taking their work troubles home with them), and by developing interests outside of their jobs. 15.104. Suppose your friend has just taken a job that is strongly associated with job burnout. To help him cope, you could point out that all of the following pieces of advice help prevent burnout EXCEPT: a. he should be realistic, rather than optimistic, about how much impact he can have b. he should try to keep his personal life separate from his work c. he should try to dedicate his professional life to the people he is trying to help d. he should develop interests outside of his job Answer: c Page: 400 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text notes that workers can avoid or minimize job burnout by learning to be realistic in their approach to their work and their goals, by promoting changes in their job requirements or work flow, by attempting to keep the rest of their life separate from their work (for example, by not taking their work troubles home with them), and by developing interests outside of their jobs. Continuity and Change in the Structure of Personality 15.105. Psychologists use the term “Big Five” to refer to: a. the 5 most influential theorists in the field of psychology b. the 5 steps of the scientific approach to research methodology c. the 5 most important people in any given individual’s life d. the 5 core traits that describe personality Answer: d Page: 400-401 Factual Easy 15.106. According to the “Big Five” theory of personality, individuals differ from each other according to: a. how high or low each person is on each of the Big Five traits b. how many of the Big Five traits each person possesses c. which are the most important, and least important, of the Big Five traits to the person’s life d. how the person rank-orders the Big Five traits when these traits are used to describe the subject matter of personality Answer: a Page: 401 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The Five Factor model reflects the consensus within the field of psychology that personality can be well described by assessing five traits, or factors, that appear to capture the most important dimensions on which individuals differ from each other. People can possess more or less of each of these traits. 15.107. Which of the following sets of personality traits correctly describe the Big Five factors identified in psychology research? a. conscientiousness, openness, extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. conscientiousness, altruism, extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness c. altruism, openness, extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness d. conscientiousness, openness, extroversion, emotional stability, altruism Answer: a Page: 401 Factual Moderate 15.108. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five factors of personality? a. agreeableness b. intelligence c. conscientious d. openness Answer: b Page: 401 Factual Easy 15.109. If personality traits are biologically based, this would imply that they would be established relatively ________ in life and would change ________ across the lifespan. a. early; a great deal b. early; little c. late; a great deal d. late; little Answer: b Page: 401 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: To the extent that personality is biologically determined, we would expect to see consistency in the traits that characterize the personality profile across the stages of the lifespan. 15.110. According to a large-sample study reported in the text, which of the following personality traits has been shown to increase as adults grow older? a. extraversion b. emotional stability c. agreeableness and conscientiousness d. openness to experience and conscientiousness Answer: c Page: 401-402 Factual Moderate 15.111. How does research suggest that the trait of emotional stability changes across the lifespan? a. It increases for men, but not for women. b. It increases for women, but not for men. c. It increases for both men and women. d. It stays relatively constant in both men and women. Answer: b Page: 401 Conceptual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: According to research cited in the text, emotional stability was observed to change throughout adulthood, but the change depended on gender. Although women increased in emotional healthiness throughout middle adulthood, men did not. 15.112. If you were considering how the Big Five traits change throughout adulthood for women, you should conclude that women would be expected to show the LEAST increase in which of the following traits across the ages of 16 to 70? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. openness to experience d. emotional stability Answer: c Page: 401-402 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 15-3 depicts changes in the Big Five personality traits at different points in the lifespan and both Openness to experience and Extroversion can be seen to decrease with age. The text also notes that the increases associated with Emotional stability are descriptive of women in adulthood, but not for men. Thus, the trait that declines most for women during adulthood is Openness to experience. 15.113. According to research cited in the text, as people move through the lifespan from age 16 to age 70-andover, which of the following personality traits increases to the greatest degree: a. extroversion b. emotional stability c. openness to experience d. conscientiousness Answer: d Page: 402 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 15-3 depicts changes in the big five personality traits at different points in the lifespan and the increases are noticeably larger for conscientiousness than for any of the other traits. 15.114. Which of the following best reflects the text’s conclusion about how personality traits change across the adult portion of the lifespan? a. they are stable for almost everyone b. they are constantly changing for almost everyone c. most people’s traits are characterized by both stability and change d. they are stable for some people but changing for others Answer: c Page: 401-402 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The book notes that the best conclusion to draw is that in many ways middle adulthood is characterized by both stability and change. While stability is critical for preserving one’s core identity and personal relationships throughout life, the ability to change and adjust to life’s circumstances provides a means of adapting. Furthermore, there probably are individual differences in the degree that these adjustments occur. 15.115. In a study that asked adults how their personalities had changed in the previous 6 years, the results shows that _____ reported that their personalities had “stayed the same” and _____ reported that their personalities had “changed a good deal.” a. 33%; 67% b. 67%; 33% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. 9%; 53% d. 53%; 9% Answer: d Page: 401-402 Factual Moderate 15.116. If you were to ask a large group of adults to tell you whether they thought their personalities had “stayed the same” or “changed a good deal,” you should expect that: a. most people would report that their personalities had stayed the same b. most people would report that their personalities had changed a good deal c. the people would be split into two equal-sized groups, with half reporting stability and half reporting change d. the response you got would be heavily dependent on age, with younger adults reporting more stability and older adults reporting more change Answer: a Page: 401-402 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In a study cited in the text that asked middle-aged adults how much they believed their personalities had changed during the previous 6 years, 52.5% responded they had “stayed the same.” Current Issues: Studying Generativity in African American and White U. S. Families 15.117. Sarah is asked to complete a questionnaire asking about how often she does volunteer work, how much time she spends helping her children, and so forth. Generalizing from research described in the text, this questionnaire most likely is measuring: a. generativity b. the empty nest c. job burnout d. life satisfaction Answer: a Page: 387 Applied Moderate Rationale: Generativity involves an adult’s concern for the next generation and includes various activities, such as raising and mentoring children, serving as a role model for younger people, supporting social causes that assist the next generation to develop in ways that are valued, and creating a legacy for others. 15.118. Thomas is asked to respond to a series of statements, such as “I believe that other people need and depend on me.” Generalizing from research described in the text, this questionnaire is most likely measuring: a. generativity b. the empty nest c. job burnout d. EQ Answer: a Page: 387 Applied Moderate Rationale: Loyola Generativity Scale consists of 20 statements about how adults might display generative concerns, such as “I try to pass along knowledge I have gained through my experiences” and “I do not feel that other people need me.” This last statement is quite like the one in this question (only opposite). Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

15.119. In studies, generativity has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT: a. being more involved with others b. being more involved in religious activities c. being less involved in political activities d. having an active role in children’s lives Answer: c Page: 387 Factual Difficult 15.120. According to research discussed in the text, in comparison to White Americans, African Americans were more likely to emphasize the role of ________ in their lives. a. children b. parents c. jobs d. religion Answer: d Page: 387 Factual Moderate Changing Perspectives: Blended Families – Themes and Variations 15.121. In the United States today, about what percent of all marriages are second marriages for one or both partners? a. about 10% b. about 25% c. about 33% d. about 50% Answer: d Page: 396 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that at the beginning of the 21 st century, nearly half of all marriages are remarriages for one or both partners. 15.122. About what percent of children in the United States today will spend some time in a stepparent family before they reach adulthood? a. about 5% b. about 33% c. about 50% d. about 65% Answer: b Page: 396 Factual Moderate 15.123. The text presents evidence that suggests that, in comparison to traditional families, blended families are: a. happier b. better off financially c. simpler to manage Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. more complex Answer: d Page: 396 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that blended families are more complex and provides multiple examples of the ways in which this complexity is greater in blended families than in traditional families. There are no conclusions drawn about overall family happiness or financial situations that distinguish blended from traditional families.

True-False questions:

Personality Continuity and Change 15.124. According to Erik Erikson, the major task adults face in middle adulthood is one of generativity versus selfabsorption. Answer: True Page: 383 15.125. Generativity in the productive domain is focused on contributing to society on a larger scale, such as by volunteering in an orphanage or at a free clinic. Answer: False Page: 383 Rationale: The productive domain focuses on integrating family life with work and caring for the next generation. Contributing on a larger scale falls more closely to Erikson’s idea of the creative domain. 15.126. Robert Peck’s view of the changes that occur during social development during adulthood was much the same as Erikson’s view. Answer: False Page: 383-384 Rationale: Peck believed that Erikson placed too much emphasis on childhood and adolescence and too little on adulthood. 15.127. As men’s and women’s roles are becoming more similar, their developmental transitions are becoming more similar as well. Answer: True Page: 385 15.128. If a woman feels that she does not have time to care for her family and perform her job responsibilities, this is a good example of role strain. Answer: False Page: 385 Rationale: Role strain is defined as an overload of demands within a given role, such as being a mother. Negotiating multiple roles, which is the sense of this example, is better thought of as role conflict than role strain. Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 15.129. Research has shown that the parent-child relationship is highly similar across families and across cultures.

Answer: False Page: 387-388 Rationale: The text describes how young adults in Italy are more likely to live at home until marriage, a family pattern quite different from that typically found in U. S. families. 15.130. Men and women living in the U. S. who are 40 years old today can expect to live, on average, another 40 years or so. Answer: True Page: 388 15.131. The “empty nest” refers to the situation in which a divorce occurs and the husband (or wife) is left with no children to care for, since they live with the “other” parent. Answer: False Page: 388 Rationale: The empty nest is a term used to refer to the time of life when the last child has left home. 15.132. In the United States today, most older adults spend their last years in nursing homes or other types of special care facilities. Answer: False Page: 389 Rationale: The text notes that only a small percentage of caregivers use formal services and that the majority of adults – 80 to 90 percent – care for their aging parents at home, either by providing the necessary assistance that allows the parent to live independently or by having the parent move in with the family. 15.133. Sons are more likely than daughters to provide care for their aging parents. Answer: False Page: 390 Rationale: Daughters are more likely than sons to provide this care. 15.134. In the United States today, about 11% of grandparents are raising their grandchildren, and this percentage is much higher among African American and Native American families. Answer: True Page: 390-391 15.135. There are gender differences in how friendships are established during middle adulthood, with women being more likely to consider reciprocity as the most important feature of friendships, whereas men are more likely to have friends based on similarity. Answer: True Page: 392 The Changing Family 15.136. In the U.S., the average age at which divorce occurs is about age 39 for women and age 42 for men. Answer: False Page: 392 Rationale: According to the text, the average age of divorce for men is 31.8 years and for women is 29.4 years. 15.137. The chances of a marriage ending in divorce in the U. S. today is about 40%.

Answer: True Page: 393 15.138. Children are better off with divorced parents than with parents who are unhappily married. Answer: False Page: 393 Rationale: Although this statement reflects a popular myth, in fact divorce is usually traumatic for children and even unhappy marriages provide children with greater economic standing, stronger family bonds, stronger connections with the community, more time for parent-child interactions, and better overall emotional health. 15.139. When couples divorce, it is usually the husband who first raises the issue of divorce and is the initiator of divorce. Answer: False Page: 394 Rationale: It is usually the wife who first raises the issue of divorce and women are more often the initiators of divorce than are men. 15.140. Women are more likely to remarry following a divorce than are men. Answer: False Page: 394 Rationale: Men are more likely to remarry following a divorce. 15.141. The most common reason given for remaining married by both men and women is that marriage provides a satisfying means of having a good sex life. Answer: False Page: 395 Rationale: Both men and women cite “my spouse is my best friend” as their primary reason for remaining married, and satisfaction with sex is listed as the 12th most important reason by men and the 14th by women. 15.142. A blended family is the same thing as a stepfamily and a reconstituted family. Answer: True Page: 395 15.143. Blended families today are much more common than they were 200 years ago. Answer: False Page: 396 Rationale: Blended families are about equally common today, but today they usually involve a divorce, rather than the death of a parent. Occupational Continuity and Change 15.144. Changes related to work, such as career changes or job loss, generally produce high levels of stress and anxiety when they occur during middle adulthood. Answer: True Page: 398-399 15.145. Job loss is usually more difficult for middle-aged adults than for younger adults. Answer: True Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 399 15.146. Job burnout is usually the result of the person’s not working hard enough or caring enough about the job. Answer: False Page: 399 Rationale: Job burnout usually affects people who are highly committed to their jobs but whose hard work does not accomplish the ends that they hope for. Continuity and Change in the Structure of Personality 15.147. The five-factor view of personality suggests that humans differ, to greater or lesser degree, on five basic traits: emotional stability, extroversion, openness to experiences, agreeableness, and conscientiousness. Answer: True Page: 400-401 15.148. Psychologists today believe that the basic structure of personality is in place for most people by the age of 30. Answer: True Page: 401 15.149. Research conducted on people’s perceptions of how their personality changed or stayed the same over the past six years showed that the majority of people believed that their personality “had changed a great deal.” Answer: False Page: 401-402 Rationale: In this study, 52.5% of respondents reported that their personalities had “stayed the same” and only 9% reported that their personalities had “changed a great deal.”

Short Answer questions: Personality Continuity and Change 15.150. Describe what Erikson meant by the term “generativity.” Page: 383 15.151. What did Erikson believe were the consequences of not achieving generativity during middles adulthood? Page: 383 15.152. In what two ways does Robert Peck’s view of adulthood differ from Erik Erikson’s view? Page: 383-384 15.153. Why is middle adulthood sometimes considered the “prime time” for fathers? Page: 385 15.154. Give an example of role strain. Page: 385

Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 15.155. What is a kinkeeper? Page: 386 15.156. Give an example of what is meant by the term “empty nest.” Page: 388 15.157. Give an example of what is meant by the term “reciprocal” exchange of assistance between adults and their parents. Page: 389 15.158. How is care typically provided to older adults who can no longer take care of themselves? In the United States today, is most care done in formal, or informal, settings? Page: 389 15.159. Are sons or daughters more likely to care for elderly parents? What kinds of problems are typical for adult children who are caring for their elderly parents? Page: 390 15.160. Identify 2 different roles that grandparents can serve for their grandchildren and give an example of each role. Page: 390 15.161. In middle adulthood, who relies more on friends, men or women? Why might this be? Page: 392 The Changing Family 15.162. How common is divorce in the United States today? Who is most likely to get divorced, from a demographic point of view? Page: 392-393 15.163. State 3 myths about marriage and divorce and note why these beliefs are myths, rather than truths. Page: 393 15.164. Are men or women more likely to initiate a divorce? What factors explain this finding? Page: 394 15.165. What are 3 of the most commonly cited reasons for why married couples remain married? Page: 395 15.166. Describe 3 challenges frequently faced by blended families. Page: 397 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Occupational Continuity and Change 15.167. Why is job loss generally more problematic if it occurs in middle adulthood, as opposed to early adulthood? Page: 399 15.168. Define and give an example of job burnout. Page: 399 15.169. List 2 things that a worker can do to avoid job burnout. Page: 400 Continuity and Change in the Structure of Personality 15.170. Name and briefly define the 5 factors that comprise personality, according to the Five Factor model. Page: 401 15.171. Identify one of the five personality factors that appear to increase as adults move through the lifespan, and one that appears to decrease. Page: 401-402 15.172. Describe the results of a study that asked adults to report whether their personalities had “stayed the same,” “changed a little,” or “changed a good deal.” Page: 402

Essay questions: Personality Continuity and Change 15.173. Describe how an adult who has achieved generativity is different from an adult who is characterized instead by self-absorption. Page: 383 15.174. Discuss the similarities and differences between Peck’s and Erikson’s views regarding social development during adulthood. On which central ideas did each theorist focus? Page: 383-384 15.175. In what ways do men and women living in the U. S. today experience middle adulthood differently from each other? What factors appear to be important in whether men’s and women’s experiences are more similar, or more different, from each other? Page: 385 15.176. Is role strain more common for men or for women do you think? Give an example of the typical role strain a man and a woman might experience. Page: 385 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 15.177. Who is the kinkeeper in your family? What roles does this person assume that allows you to identify this person as your family’s kinkeeper? (If your family does not have a kinkeeper, what roles are going unmet because of this?) Page: 386 15.178. How are socioeconomic and cultural issues involved in how children are launched in the U. S. today? Page: 387-388 15.179. What factors determine whether the empty nest is experienced as a positive or a negative developmental transition? Page: 388 15.180. What is the primary reason that adults share a household with their parents? Do you think this situation will become more common, or less common, in the years ahead? Explain your answer. Page: 388 15.181. How have population trends over the past 100 years affected the type of relationships most adults have with their aging parents? Page: 388-389 15.182. Describe an example of a role reversal between middle-aged adults and their elderly parents. What factors can make this role reversal a more positive, rather than negative, developmental process? Page: 389 15.183. Identify 4 different roles that grandparents can play in relation to their grandchildren. How would the current economic conditions facing people in the United States affect the pattern of roles that grandparents typically would play? Page: 390 15.184. How do friendships in middle adulthood differ from those in early periods of the lifespan? Page: 392 The Changing Family 15.185. The text notes that in 2006, about 2.16 million people were married and about 1 million people were divorced. Explain why the simple division of these numbers (1/2.16) does NOT result in an accurate estimate of the likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce. Page: 392-393 15.186. Describe 3 reasons why divorce might occur in middle adulthood, rather than in early adulthood. Page: 393-394

15.187. Who is usually better able to cope after a divorce, the divorced husband or the divorced wife? Identify 3 factors that should be considered in formulating an answer to this question. Page: 394 15.188. What has research shown about the characteristics of a successful marriage? Page: 395 15.189. Describe how the demographic characteristics of blended families have changed over the last 100 years. How are the problems faced by blended families today different from those faced by blended families of 100 years ago? Page: 395-396 15.190. Describe 3 problems that are likely to occur in blended families. Suggest a way in which parents can successfully resolve each of these problems. Page: 397 15.191. In creating a blended family, is it better to try to replicate the family structure of the previous family, or to create a new family structure? Explain your answer. Page: 397 Occupational Continuity and Change 15.192. How has the conceptualization of the “ideal career trajectory” changed over the past 4 decades? What implications do these changes have for adults who lose their jobs during middle adulthood? Page: 398 15.193. Do you agree that job loss is generally more stressful when it occurs in middle adulthood, in comparison to early adulthood? Explain your answer. Page: 398-399 15.194. Describe 5 things that are helpful in coping with job loss in middle adulthood. Page: 399 15.195. Why does job burnout occur most often in middle adulthood? Be sure you include a good definition of job burnout as part of your answer. Page: 399-400 Continuity and Change in the Structure of Personality 15.196. Describe the Five Factor model of personality, noting how it explains the individual differences in personality that exists among different people. Page: 400-401 15.197. Discuss whether personality development in middle adulthood is marked more by stability or by change. Cite evidence to support your answer.

Page: 401-402 15.198. How do the personality traits of conscientiousness and agreeableness tend to change as individuals move through their adult years? Describe the research that addresses questions such as this. Page: 401-402 15.199. If you were to ask a group of adults whether their personalities are stable, or change with age, what results would you expect? Explain the basis of your conclusion. Page: 401-402

Name____________________________________ Chapter 16 - Older Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. In the colonial period in the United States, the median age of the population was ____ years and about ___ of the population reached the age of 65. a. 16; 2% b. 25; 6% c. 25; 20% d. 32; 40% 2. The text cites recent studies of the brain that indicate that as adults age, their brain actually becomes _________ and the activity of their brain in the prefrontal cortex regions __________. a. smaller; declines b. smaller; increases c. larger; declines d. larger; increases 3. Which of the following words means essentially the same thing as dementia? a. senescence b. stochastic c. senility d. ageism Conceptual questions: 4. In general, what has been the effect of high-intensity physical exercise programs for the elderly? a. These programs are linked to a greater incidence of heart attack. b. These programs can help older adults double or even triple their physical strength. c. These programs work well to build strength for people under the age of 75, but are dangerous for those in older age categories. d. Programs of high-intensity exercise have little impact on the elderly. 5. According to the text, which of the following factors accounts for the largest share of problems older adults have with driving a car? a. decline in visual acuity b. an increase in the probability of having cataracts c. increased hypertension that leads to mental errors of judgment d. a general slowing down of general cognitive abilities 6. To say that a condition is chronic means that it: a. involves a serious but brief illness b. is the result of genetic factors c. involves repeated occurrences or continuation of a disease d. is related to life style choices, such as alcoholism or smoking-related illnesses 7. If you were to estimate the typical percentage of prescription errors that occur in administering medicines to older adults, the most accurate percentage would be which of the following? a. Errors occur in about 1% of the prescriptions that are given. b. Errors occur in about 2% of the prescriptions that are given. c. Errors occur in about 5% of the prescriptions that are given. d. Errors occur in 15% or more the prescriptions that are given. Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. John says he fears becoming old because “old people are stupid, poor, in poor health, lonely, and they seldom can take care of themselves.” John’s statement is a good example of: a. senescence b. filial piety c. ageist stereotypes d. metacognition 9. Frank reports that he just can’t get to sleep, and if he does fall asleep, he can’t stay asleep. His condition would be called: a. sleep apnea b. sleep aphasia c. sleep-related senescence d. insomnia 10. If Sara believes that aging is the result of chromosome breakage that occurs each time a cell divides and accumulates until the cell no longer can reproduce itself, her view is most similar to: a. free radical theory b. a stochastic theory of aging c. a biological clock theory of aging d. the theory of senility

Name____________________________________ Chapter 16 - Older Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to the text, what percent of U.S. adults age 85 and older live in nursing homes? a. 14% b. 22% c. 33% d. nearly 50% 2. The term most often used to refer to theories suggesting that genetic programming determines the pace and processes of aging are referred to as: a. biological clock theories of aging b. senescence theories of aging c. stochastic theories of aging d. random theories of aging 3. About what percent of the U.S. population over age 85 would be expected to meet the diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s disease? a. about 3% b. about 6% c. about 28% d. about 50% Conceptual questions: 4. In which of these cultures is filial piety the LEAST strong? a. mainstream U.S. culture of 200 years ago b. mainstream U.S. culture today c. Native American culture in the U.S. today d. Chinese culture today 5. Retirement in the United States today typically occurs at about age 65 or 66. Thus, most people who retire would belong to which of the following groups? a. young-old b. middle-aged old c. old-old d. very old-old 6. If you conducted a survey of older adults who live in their own homes, you would expect that about ____ would report that they suffer from sleep problems of one sort or another. a. 10% b. 33% c. 50% d. 85% 7. Generalizing from research described in the text, you would expect older adults to suffer the greatest memory decrement on which of the following tasks? a. arithmetic calculations, such as balancing a check book b. vocabulary, such as that needed to solve a crossword puzzle c. story-telling of stories from their distant past or childhood d. knowledge of a second language learned in childhood and used in early adulthood Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Brenda has been a watercolor artist all of her adult life. Now in her 60s, she has lost the ability to distinguish fine detail. Her visual problem would best be described as a decline in: a. visual acuity b. binocular disparity c. convergence d. sensory adaptation 9. Beginning around the time of her 70 th birthday, Margaret began to experience increasing problems in learning new things, with her memory, and with her motor coordination. She now is frequently confused, sometimes doesn’t recognize people she has known for a long time, and her speech has become less fluent. The condition that would most likely be diagnosed in Margaret’s case would be: a. senescence b. dementia c. atherosclerosis d. pathological aging 10. John’s grandmother says she has “hardening of the arteries.” The more technical term for this condition is: a. osteoporosis b. atherosclerosis c. hypertension d. apnea

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 16.1 1. a, p. 407 2. b, p. 422 3. c, p. 424 4. b, p. 411 5. d, p. 413 6. c, p. 415 7. d, p. 418 8. c, p. 406 9. d, p. 412 10. c, p. 419 Quick Quiz 16.2 1. a, p. 409 2. a, p. 419 3. d, p. 428 4. b, p. 407 5. a, p. 408 6. c, p. 412 7. c, p. 422 8. a, p. 413 9. b, p. 414 10. b, p. 417

Chapter 16 Older Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development Multiple Choice questions: Aging Today: 16.1. A widely prevalent social attitude that overvalues youth and discriminates against the elderly defines the term: a. ageism b. senescence c. bigotry d. gerontologism Answer: a Page: 406 Factual Easy 16.2. Barb feels that all older people are senile, grouchy, and unsociable. She is demonstrating: a. filial piety b. senescence c. projection d. ageism Answer: d Page: 406 Applied Easy Rationale: Ageism refers to the set of widely prevalent negative attitudes that many people hold of older adults. 16.3. If you judged the way that younger and older men and women are portrayed in U. S. movies today, you would most likely conclude that ageist stereotypes are greatest for: a. older women b. older men c. younger women d. younger men Answer: a Page: 406 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A survey of popular movies over the last several decades found that older women are more often portrayed as unattractive, unfriendly, and unintelligent than are older men. 16.4. Suppose you watch 100 current U.S. films as part of a course on film. If these films are representative of those typically produced in the U.S., which of the following groups of people would be most likely to be presented as unattractive, unfriendly, and unintelligent? a. younger men b. younger women c. older men d. older women Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 406 Applied Moderate Rationale: A survey of popular movies over the last several decades found that older women are more often portrayed as unattractive, unfriendly, and unintelligent than are older men. 16.5. John says he fears becoming old because “old people are stupid, poor, in poor health, lonely, and they seldom can take care of themselves.” John’s statement is a good example of: a. senescence b. filial piety c. ageist stereotypes d. metacognition Answer: c Page: 406 Applied Moderate Rationale: Ageist stereotypes typically overvalue youth and degrade older people. Each of the characteristics John listed reflects a negative ageist stereotype listed in Table 16-1. 16.6. Suppose you conducted a survey of older Americans. If your results mirrored those of a study reported in the text, you would find that most older adults: a. believe that they are among the “lucky few” older adults to be in a favorable economic and social position b. are actually considerably worse off economically than they perceive themselves to be c. have considerably poorer health than they perceive themselves to have d. have much poorer memory abilities than they think they do Answer: a Page: 407 Applied Difficult Rationale: Polls have shown that, although most older adults have a high opinion of their own economic and social condition, they often believe that they are among the lucky few who have escaped the misery of aging in the United States. 16.7. The veneration given the elderly in Asian cultures is called: a. senescence b. transference c. ageism d. filial piety Answer: d Page: 407 Factual Moderate 16.8. James, who is of Japanese ancestry, shows great respect for his elders in everyday matters as part of his Asian culture. This is part of a tradition known as: a. filial piety b. ageism c. seniority d. senescence Answer: a Page: 407 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Moderate Rationale: Filial piety refers to the veneration given to the elderly in Asian cultures and other cultures, which is manifested in cultural traditions, as well as in everyday encounters. 16.9. In which of these cultures is filial piety the LEAST strong? a. mainstream U. S. culture of 200 years ago b. mainstream U. S. culture today c. Native American culture in the U.S. today d. Chinese culture today Answer: b Page: 407 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In China, Japan, and other Asian nations, older people are honored in a tradition known as filial piety. Filial piety may be changing, however. Although respect for older people remains strong in countries throughout Asia, it is more pronounced among middle-aged and rural people than among young adults and urban residents who reflect to a greater degree the influence of Western traditions. From a historical context, the biblical tradition of veneration for elders was a powerful cultural influence, even in Western cultures like the United States. For example, in colonial times, long life was viewed as an outward manifestation of divine grace and favor, the reward for an extraordinarily upright life. 16.10. If you were to guess which of the following 90-year-old men would be LEAST likely to be honored and respected by his family and members of his culture, your best guess would be? a. Nathan, who is a Native American man living on a reservation in the United States b. Peter, who is a white man living in the United States c. Lee, who is a Chinese man living in the United States d. Hong, who is a Chinese man living in China Answer: b Page: 407 Applied Moderate Rationale: Among Native Americans throughout the hemisphere, older people traditionally have been venerated as wise elders and transmitters of culture and have been respected as a storehouse of historical lore. In China, Japan, and other Asian nations, older people are honored in a tradition known as filial piety. 16.11. If you were to study how Japanese citizens consider filial piety today, you would most likely find that which of the following groups are LEAST likely to honor this tradition? a. older Japanese people who live in urban areas b. older Japanese people who live in rural areas c. younger Japanese people who live in urban areas d. younger Japanese people who live in rural areas Answer: c Page: 407 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In China, Japan, and other Asian nations, older people are honored in a tradition known as filial piety. Filial piety may be changing, however. Although respect for older people remains strong in countries throughout Asia, it is more pronounced among middle-aged and rural people than among young adults and urban residents who reflect to a greater degree the influence of Western traditions. 16.12. If you were to study how Japanese citizens consider filial piety today, you would most likely find that which of the following groups are MOST likely to honor this tradition? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. older Japanese people who live in urban areas b. older Japanese people who live in rural areas c. younger Japanese people who live in urban areas d. younger Japanese people who live in rural areas Answer: b Page: 407 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In China, Japan, and other Asian nations, older people are honored in a tradition known as filial piety. Filial piety may be changing, however. Although respect for older people remains strong in countries throughout Asia, it is more pronounced among middle-aged and rural people than among young adults and urban residents who reflect to a greater degree the influence of Western traditions. 16.13. In colonial America, older adults: a. were not trusted b. were considered helpless and a burden c. received great respect stemming from the biblical tradition d. were rarely consulted for their opinions Answer: c Page: 407 Factual Moderate 16.14. According to the text, the reverence for the elderly common in colonial times is thought to be due to the fact that: a. people were raised with higher moral values b. so few people managed to live to old age c. knowledge was passed down from the elderly d. the elderly were needed for manual labor Answer: b Page: 407 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Part of the reason that reverence for age was powerful in earlier times was that so few people managed to achieve old age. The demographic contrast between then and now is startling. In the colonial period, the median age of the population was 16 and only 2% of the population reached the age of 65; today, the median age of the U.S. population is 36.6 and climbing, and approximately one in eight people is age 65 or older. 16.15. In the colonial period in the United States, the median age of the population was ____ years and about ___ of the population reached the age of 65. a. 16; 2% b. 25; 6% c. 25; 20% d. 32; 40% Answer: a Page: 407 Factual Difficult 16.16. In the United States today, about what percent of the population is age 65 or older? a. 2% b. 6% Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. 12% d. 19% Answer: c Page: 407 Factual Moderate 16.17. In the United States today, the median age of the population is about: a. 27 years b. 37 years c. 47 years d. 57 years Answer: b Page: 407 Factual Moderate 16.18. From 1950 to 2050 in the U. S., the proportion of people age 65 and over in the population is expected to: a. decline slightly b. remain constant c. increase slightly d. increase dramatically Answer: d Page: 408 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Table 16-2 shows the percentage of the population 65 years of age and over. According to this table the percentage was 8.1% in 1950 and is projected to be 20.2% in 2050. 16.19. The average 60-year-old today can expect to live for another: a. 11 years b. 15 years c. 19 years d. 27 years Answer: c Page: 408 Factual Moderate 16.20. According to statistics presented in the text, in the United States in colonial times about 1 in ___ people were age 65 and over; in 1970, about 1 in ___ people were age 65 and over, and in 2030, about 1 in ___ people is expected to be age 65 and over. a. 10; 8; 6 b. 50; 10; 5 c. 100; 40; 20 d. 100; 20; 6 Answer: b Page: 408-409 Conceptual Difficult

Rationale: The text notes that in the colonial period, only 2% of the population reached the age of 65. Table 16-2 shows the percentage of the population 65 years of age and over and shows that in 1970, this percentage was 9.8 and in 2030 the percentage is projected to be 19.9. 16.21. According to statistics presented in the text, the life expectancy for 75-year-old adults living in the U. S. today is: a. 78 years b. 80 years c. 82 years d. 87 years Answer: d Page: 408 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that the average 75-year-old can expect to live another 12.0 years. 16.22. The text suggests that older adulthood is best thought of as consisting of 4 distinct age-related periods. Why is older adulthood, but not other stages of development, divided into “substages” ? a. This is the fastest growing part of the U. S. population. b. Older adults differ more dramatically from each other than do people in other age groups. c. Older adults are mostly White, so they generally are not divided into racial/ethnic categories, making age the best way to divide them into groups. d. Everyone in older adulthood is pretty much alike in most regards, so they need to be divided into different age groups so they can be studied more accurately. Answer: b Page: 408 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Because people commonly live into their 90s and beyond, older adulthood can span 40 years or more and individuals grouped into older adulthood could even be members of separate generations. As such, this group displays considerable heterogeneity, making it useful to divide this stage of development into substages. 16.23. According to the text, those persons aged 60 to 69 are considered a. young-old b. middle-aged-old c. old-old d. very old-old Answer: a Page: 408 Factual Easy 16.24. Retirement in the United States today typically occurs at about age 65 or 66. Thus, most people who retire would belong to which of the following groups? a. young-old b. middle-aged old c. old-old d. very old-old Answer: a Page: 408 Conceptual Easy Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: The young-old substage encompasses ages 60-69. 16.25. In the previous year of his life, Albert’s income has been reduced because he retired and his physical strength has waned somewhat, although he still feels healthy enough to engage in a wide array of leisure activities. Albert is most likely in what age group? a. 60-69 b. 70-79 c. 80-89 d. 90-99 Answer: a Page: 408 Applied Easy Rationale: The experiences listed in this question are all typical of the young-old substage, which spans ages 60-69. 16.26. At age 62, George takes early retirement. He is considered: a. young-old b. middle-aged old c. old-old d. very old-old Answer: a Page: 408 Applied Easy Rationale: The young-old substage encompasses ages 60-69. 16.27. According to the text, if the young-old slow down their activity level, this is usually due mainly: a. because they have lost much of their vigor b. because they have little to keep them active c. because of society's expectations that they will do so d. to indicate their unique social status Answer: c Page: 408-409 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Society frequently reduces its expectations of people in their 60s, demanding less energy, independence, and creativity, which thereby demoralizes older adults, especially those who remain healthy and vigorous. Many people in their 60s accept these expectations and respond by slowing the pace of their life, thereby creating a selffulfilling prophecy. 16.28. For most people in young-old adulthood, the biggest adjustment during this period usually concerns: a. death of a spouse b. a significant decline in physical health c. a significant decline in mental health and cognitive abilities d. retirement Answer: d Page: 408 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The book notes that the young-old stage frequently involves a major transition in roles since this is the time period in which most people retire.

16.29. According to the text, many people in their 70s experience a dramatic decline in sexual activity, which is most often because of: a. declining physical abilities b. a loss of interest in sex c. societal attitudes about physical attractiveness and aging d. the loss of a partner Answer: d Page: 409 Factual Moderate 16.30. The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is that including: a. adults between the ages of 55 and 65 b. adults between the ages of 65 and 75 c. adults between the ages of 75 and 85 d. adults over the age of 85 Answer: d Page: 409 Factual Moderate 16.31. According to the text, the old-old age group extends from ages: a. 60 to 69 b. 70 to 79 c. 80 to 89 d. 90 to 99 Answer: c Page: 409 Factual Easy 16.32. The term used to refer to people in their 80s is which of the following? a. octogenarians b. dectuagenarians c. nonagenarians d. septuagenarians Answer: a Page: 409 Factual Easy 16.33. The term used to refer to people in their 90s is which of the following? a. octogenarians b. dectuagenarians c. nonagenarians d. septuagenarians Answer: c Page: 409 Factual Easy

16.34. According to the text, what percent of U.S. adults age 85 and older live in nursing homes? a. 14% b. 22% c. 33% d. nearly 50% Answer: a Page: 409 Factual Moderate 16.35. According to the text, the percentage of older adults who live in nursing homes is: a. increasing slightly b. increasing dramatically, and is expected to double by 2030 c. remaining constant d. decreasing Answer: d Page: 409 Factual Easy 16.36. What percent of the U. S. population age 85 and older is comprised of women? a. about 55% b. about 63% c. about 70% d. about 88% Answer: c Page: 409 Factual Moderate The Physical Aspects of Aging 16.37. Jack is 67 years old and is dying from liver disease that has resulted from his long and heavy overconsumption of alcohol. The term that best captures the idea that Jack’s illness results from poor lifestyle choices is: a. dementia b. pathological aging factor c. senescence d. chronic condition Answer: b Page: 410-411 Applied Moderate Rationale: Pathological aging factors refer to the cumulative effects that result from earlier events and lifestyle choices—accidents, previous illnesses, or bad health habits—that may accelerate aging. 16.38. Which of the following is the BEST example of a pathological aging factor? a. Joan carries a dominant gene that codes for the development of cancer. b. Bob carries a recessive gene that puts him at risk for developing heart problems. c. Luke has been severely obese since childhood, and he is now developing diabetes. d. Charlene is developing osteoporosis as the result of normal aging processes. Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 410-411 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Pathological aging factors refer to the cumulative effects that result from earlier events and lifestyle choices—accidents, previous illnesses, or bad health habits—that may accelerate aging. 16.39. Age spots that look like brown areas of pigmentation are popularly called: a. freckles b. liver spots c. moles d. rashes Answer: b Page: 411 Factual Easy 16.40. For most people age-related changes in the skin are most likely the result of: a. a diet deficient in vitamin D b. a diet deficient in vitamin A c. liver dysfunction d. exposure to ultraviolet rays of the sun Answer: d Page: 411 Factual Easy 16.41. Which of the following is NOT one of the changes normally associated with aging? a. blood vessels become more elastic b. muscle weight decreases c. less oxygen is supplied to the muscles d. fine motor coordination deteriorates Answer: a Page: 411 Factual Moderate 16.42. In general, what has been the effect of high-intensity physical exercise programs for the elderly? a. These programs are linked to a greater incidence of heart attack. b. These programs can help older adults double or even triple their physical strength. c. These programs work well to build strength for people under the age of 75, but are dangerous for those in older age categories. d. Programs of high-intensity exercise have little impact on the elderly. Answer: b Page: 411 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The age-related decline in strength and mobility often can be delayed or partially offset by high-intensity exercise training. In one study, those who engaged in muscle-building exercises were able to double and even triple their strength and, for the first time in years, perform many strength-related tasks without assistance. 16.43. If Tom and Betty are typical adults and both are 6 feet tall at age 25, about how tall would you expect them to be at age 80? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. Tom will remain at 6 feet, but Betty will be about 5 feet 10 inches tall. b. Betty will remain at 6 feet, but Tom will be about 5 feet 10 inches tall. c. Tom and Betty will both remain at 6 feet. d. Tom and Betty will both be about 5 feet 10 inches tall. Answer: d Page: 411 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Older adults are usually an inch or more shorter than they were in early adulthood as a result of the compression of cartilage in the spine, which is a long-term effect attributable to the effects of gravity. 16.44. Older adults sometimes suffer from a condition that makes their bones more hollow and more brittle and may lead to a bent or stooped posture. This condition is called: a. arthritis b. atherosclerosis c. muscular atrophy d. osteoporosis Answer: d Page: 411 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Osteoporosis is an age-related condition where bones become weaker, more hollow, and more brittle. This condition makes bones more likely to fracture and take longer to mend and is often the cause of the bent or stooped posture that some people develop as they age. 16.45. Which of the following women has the HIGHEST likelihood of having osteoporosis? a. Ruth, a 30-year-old white woman b. Beth, a 60-year-old black woman c. Amy, a 60-year-old Asian American woman d. Tish, a 30-year-old black woman Answer: c Page: 412 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Osteoporosis generally develops in older adulthood and White and Asian women are especially likely to develop this condition. 16.46. As we age and enter older adulthood, which of the following changes is LEAST likely to occur? a. Our immune function becomes stronger, because we have been exposed to so many diseases that immunities have developed. b. Respiratory infections become more common because aging involves a lower capacity of oxygen intake. c. The reserve capacity of our cardiovascular system becomes smaller. d. Our sense of balance is compromised, so we are more likely to fall and hurt ourselves. Answer: a Page: 412 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As we age, the function of our immune system declines, leaving us less protected from infection and disease. The other changes listed are all noted in the textbook as common age-related changes. 16.47. According to text, why do older adults typically keep their houses warmer than younger adults do? a. They have more money and can afford to pay for heating expenses. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. They have diminished reserve capacity in their organ systems and lower body temperatures. c. Their muscles need more heat in the environment to work efficiently. d. Their memories are bad and they forget to turn the heat down when they come in from the cold. Answer: b Page: 412 Factual Moderate 16.48. If you conducted a survey of older adults who live in their own homes, you would expect that about ____ would report that they suffer from sleep problems of one sort or another. a. 10% b. 33% c. 50% d. 85% Answer: c Page: 412 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that about half of the people over age 65 who live at home and about two-thirds of those in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities suffer from sleep problems. 16.49. Suppose you are conducting research at a nursing home populated by older adults. About two-thirds of these adults complain that they suffer from sleep problems. Generalizing from research presented in the text, you should conclude that the proportion of adults in this facility with sleep problems is: a. much higher than you would expect b. slightly higher than you would expect c. about the same as you would expect d. somewhat lower than you would expect Answer: c Page: 412 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that about half of the people over age 65 who live at home and about two-thirds of those in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities suffer from sleep problems. The people in this nursing home, thus, are about average in the proportion that report sleep problems. 16.50. Part of the reason why a large proportion of older adults report sleep problems is that they spend _______ time sleeping and spend _______ time in deep sleep, compared to younger adults. a. more; more b. less; less c. more; less d. less; more Answer: b Page: 412 Factual Moderate 16.51. According to research presented in the text, older adults typically sleep about _____ hours a night, although they stay in bed about ____ hours per night: a. 4; 10 b. 6 to 6½; 8 c. 8 to 8½; 10 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. 9 to 10; 23 Answer: b Page: 412 Factual Moderate 16.52. Frank reports that he just can’t get to sleep, and if he does fall asleep, he can’t stay asleep. His condition would be called: a. sleep apnea b. sleep aphasia c. sleep-related senescence d. insomnia Answer: d Page: 412 Applied Easy Rationale: Insomnia refers to the inability to sleep in general. 16.53. Marion feels tired because his breathing pauses or stops frequently while he is sleeping, waking him up gasping for breath, and being unable to fall back asleep again. This condition is called: a. sleep apnea b. sleep aphasia c. sleep-related senescence d. insomnia Answer: a Page: 412 Applied Moderate Rationale: Sleep apnea is a condition involving repeated waking due to interruptions or pauses in breathing. 16.54. According to the text, which of the following senses is LEAST affected by advanced age? a. hearing b. vision c. taste d. touch Answer: c Page: 413 Factual Moderate 16.55. Judy is upset because her doctor has just put her on medication because her blood pressure is too high. Judy suffers from : a. glaucoma b. atherosclerosis c. osteoporosis d. hypertension Answer: d Page: 413 Applied Easy Rationale: Hypertension is the technical term for high blood pressure. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

16.56. According to the text, hearing problems associated with aging include all of the following EXCEPT: a. difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds b. difficulty hearing low-frequency sounds c. difficulty hearing mid-frequency sounds d. separating speech sounds from sounds of background noise Answer: c Page: 413 Factual Moderate 16.57. Robert is diagnosed as having glaucoma. He should anticipate that the recommended treatment for this condition will most likely be: a. eating a better diet higher in vitamin A b. Lasik surgery c. cataract surgery d. medication Answer: d Page: 413 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that glaucoma often can be treated with medication. 16.58. Brenda has been a watercolor artist all of her adult life. Now in her 60s, she has lost the ability to distinguish fine detail. Her visual problem would best be described as a decline in: a. visual acuity b. binocular disparity c. convergence d. sensory adaptation Answer: a Page: 413 Applied Moderate Rationale: Visual acuity, the ability to distinguish fine detail, is frequently lost to some extent by older individuals. 16.59. Helen used to love to sew, but when she turned 90 she gave this up, because she could no longer see well enough to thread a needle. Helen’s problem is best described as one involving: a. glaucoma b. visual acuity c. senescence d. hypertension Answer: b Page: 413 Applied Easy Rationale: Visual acuity, the ability to distinguish fine detail, is frequently lost to some extent by older individuals. 16.60. According to the text, which of the following factors accounts for the largest share of problems older adults have with driving a car? a. decline in visual acuity b. an increase in the probability of having cataracts c. increased hypertension that leads to mental errors of judgment Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. a general slowing down of general cognitive abilities Answer: d Page: 413 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The book notes that visual acuity problems generally are not the source of problems with driving. Rather, it is the more general slowing down of certain cognitive abilities that can lead older adults into difficulties with driving. 16.61. Older adults typically have some difficulty in driving a car. The particular visual problem that is most responsible for driving problems and car accidents is: a. a noticeable decline in visual acuity, especially in the center of the visual field b. a noticeable decline in visual acuity, especially in peripheral vision c. a problem in ignoring irrelevant stimuli, especially in complex displays requiring quick decisions d. a build-up of pressure within the eyes that causes distant objects to sometimes appear blurry Answer: c Page: 414 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The book notes that visual acuity problems generally are not the source of problems with driving. Rather, it is the more general slowing down of certain cognitive abilities that can lead older adults into difficulties with driving. As people age, they increasingly have trouble ignoring irrelevant stimuli. Their ability to perform visual search tasks, locating the correct “place to look” in a complex display of visual information, tends to become slower and less accurate with age. 16.62. Beginning around the time of her 70 th birthday, Margaret began to experience increasing problems in learning new things, with her memory, and with her motor coordination. She now is frequently confused, sometimes doesn’t recognize people she has known for a long time, and her speech has become less fluent. The condition that would most likely be diagnosed in Margaret’s case would be: a. senescence b. dementia c. atherosclerosis d. pathological aging Answer: b Page: 414 Applied Moderate Rationale: Dementia is a disorder associated with older age that includes a broad array of cognitive deficiencies, such as impaired learning and memory ability, a deterioration of language and motor functions, a progressive inability to recognize familiar people and objects, frequent confusion, and personality changes. 16.63. If a normal person’s brain weighed 3 pounds at age 30, about how much would you expect it to weigh at age 90? a. 3.6 pounds b. 3.3 pounds c. 3.0 pounds d. 2.7 pounds Answer: d Page: 414 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: At age 90, the brain of a normal person weighs about 90% of what it weighed at age 30. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

16.64. The normal, age-related changes that occur in the brain as we enter older adulthood are most likely the result of having ______ of brain cells and having _______ connections among brain cells. a. fewer; about the same number of b. fewer; fewer c. about the same number of; fewer d. fewer; more Answer: c Page: 414 Factual Moderate 16.65. If you were to do one thing that would give you the best chance of avoiding or limiting normal, age-related declines in brain functioning, that would be: a. engaging in complex cognitive tasks on a regular basis b. sleeping longer than normal c. sleeping less than normal d. trying not to “over-tax” the brain by thinking too hard or too long on difficult problems Answer: a Page: 414 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Those who experience the least brain atrophy are more likely to engage regularly in complex cognitive tasks. Apparently, keeping our brains active and engaged in old age may help ward off some of the neurological decline that typically accompanies aging. 16.66. If you examined the brain functioning of a teenager and that of an older adult, you would probably notice which of the following differences, with respect to brain lateralization? a. lateralized functioning would be higher in the adolescent’s brain b. lateralized functioning would be higher in the older adult’s brain c. the degree of lateralized functioning would be about equal for these two people d. in females, lateralization would he higher in the teenager’s brain but in males, the lateralization would be higher for older men Answer: a Page: 414 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to the text, the lateralization of functions into the left or right hemispheres that is characteristic of the brain during adolescence and young adulthood becomes at least somewhat reversed in old age. 16.67. To say that a condition is chronic means that it: a. involves a serious but brief illness b. is the result of genetic factors c. involves repeated occurrences or continuation of a disease d. is related to lifestyle choices, such as alcoholism or smoking-related illnesses Answer: c Page: 415 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text defines chronic conditions as those illnesses that never go away.

16.68. Luther, like millions of other Americans, suffers from arthritis, which is considered to be a chronic condition because it: a. is an illness that occurs repeatedly or never goes away b. is an illness that he inherited from his parents c. can be controlled with drugs d. only develops in old age Answer: a Page: 415 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text defines chronic conditions as those illnesses that never go away. 16.69. According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the three most common chronic conditions associated with age? a. hypertension b. arthritis c. heart disease d. cancer Answer: d Page: 415 Factual Moderate 16.70. Miranda suffers from type 2 diabetes. If she is typical, you would guess that she is also: a. a smoker b. a moderate to heavy drinker (of alcohol) c. obese d. under the age of 50 Answer: c Page: 415 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is linked to obesity, which is becoming more prevalent among older adults. 16.71. According to the text, what percent of people over age 75 are probably affected by at least one chronic condition? a. about 10% b. about 25% c. about 50% d. about 75% Answer: d Page: 415 Factual Moderate 16.72. Which of the following is the best example of a chronic health problem faced by a relatively large proportion of older adults? a. diabetes b. influenza c. cancer d. stroke

Answer: a Page: 415 Conceptual Easy Rationale: According to the text, type 2 diabetes is a chronic, age-related health condition. Not only does this disease become more prevalent as adults grow older, but also the damage it causes to the body accumulates over time. 16.73. Compared to obesity rates in the early1960s, the percentage of older adults who are obese today has: a. remained about the same b. decreased c. increased for both men and women d. increased for women, but decreased for men Answer: c Page: 415 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Figure 16-3 shows obesity rates for men and for women from 1960-1962 up to 2003-2006. Obesity rates were fairly steady until about the 1980s, at which point rates for both men and women rose sharply until 1999-2002, after which they have declined slightly. 16.74. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be expected to have the longest life expectancy? a. Aretha, a black female b. Lucille, a white female c. Zeke, a white male d. Elijah, a black male Answer: b Page: 415 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text and Figure 16-4, life expectancies are longer for women than for men and longer for Whites than for Blacks. 16.75. If you were to interview 1,000 adults age 85 and over and ask them to rate their own health status, about how many people in this group would you expect to report that their health is “good” to “excellent”? a. about 150 b. about 330 c. about 500 d. about 750 Answer: c Page: 417 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text reports that more than half of adults age 85 and over report having good to excellent health. 16.76. If you were a dietician at a restaurant in an extended care facility where active healthy people in older adulthood ate, you should know that, in comparison to younger adults, older adults need about _______ calories and about _______ nutrients. a. the same number of; 20% more b. 20% more; the same number of c. the same number of; 20% fewer d. 20% fewer; the same number of Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 417 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: By the time they reach age 65, older adults require at least 20% fewer calories than younger adults do; however, they still need nearly as many basic nutrients. 16.77. Which of the following disorders is more commonly known as “hardening of the arteries”? a. atherosclerosis b. osteoporosis c. hypertension d. dementia Answer: a Page: 417 Factual Moderate 16.78. John’s grandmother says she has “hardening of the arteries.” The more technical term for this condition is: a. osteoporosis b. atherosclerosis c. hypertension d. apnea Answer: b Page: 417 Applied Easy Rationale: Atherosclerosis is also known as hardening of the arteries, which is a common condition of aging caused by the body’s increasing inability to use excess fats in the diet; responsible for many of the heart conditions prevalent among older people; these fats are stored along the walls of arteries, where they restrict flow of blood when they harden. 16.79. Atherosclerosis is most closely linked to a diet high in: a. protein b. fat c. sugar d. fiber Answer: b Page: 417 Factual Easy 16.80. If you were to estimate the typical percentage of prescription errors that occur in administering medicines to older adults, the most accurate percentage would be which of the following? a. Errors occur in about 1% of the prescriptions that are given. b. Errors occur in about 2% of the prescriptions that are given. c. Errors occur in about 5% of the prescriptions that are given. d. Errors occur in 15% or more the prescriptions that are given. Answer: d Page: 418 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text cites several studies that all indicate the high frequency of errors in prescribing and delivering prescription medication. For example, inappropriate medicines were prescribed in 8% of doctor visits; errors were Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

made in 28.2% of the medication deliveries in a set of 12 different assisted living facilities; and 20-25% of older adults had at least one inappropriate prescription. Taken together, this pattern demonstrates that prescription errors are frequent. The best judgment from the choices given is that errors occur in about 15% or more of the prescriptions that are given. 16.81. Statistically speaking, which of the following people is the MOST likely to be taking 3 or more prescription medicines? a. Doris, who is a 70-year-old woman b. Donna, who is a 50-year-old woman c. Charles, who is a 70-year-old man d. Elway, who is a 50-year-old man Answer: a Page: 418 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 16-5 shows the percentage of men and women in the United States with 3 or more drug prescriptions in the previous month, by age. According to this figure, the percentage increases with age and is higher for women than for men at every age. 16.82. The average annual prescription drug cost for noninstitutionalized Medicare recipients was about ____ in 1992, compared to about ____ in 2004. a. $100; $1,000 b. $200; $600 c. $500; $800 d. $500; $2,000 Answer: d Page: 418 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 16-6 displays statistics that show how prescription drug costs have changed across the years from 1992 to 2004. By reading this figure, it is clear that in 1992 the average cost was about $500 and this cost had risen to about $2,000 by 2004. The Causes of Aging 16.83. According to the text, the upper end of the lifespan is thought to be about age: a. 105 b. 110 c. 120 d. 145 Answer: b Page: 419 Factual Moderate 16.84. The normal aging process, not connected with the occurrence of disease in the individual, is called: a. gerontology b. senescence c. ageism d. osteoporosis Answer: b Page: 419 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Easy 16.85. Dr. Rogers is giving a lecture in which he stresses that aging is a normal, natural process that is very much the same for all people, unless illness or injury is involved. The topic for this lecture would best be described as: a. stochastic theories of aging b. senescence c. senility d. dementia Answer: b Page: 419 Applied Moderate Rationale: Senescence refers to the normal aging process that is not connected with the occurrence of disease in an individual. It refers to the universal biological process of aging. 16.86. Dr. Robbins argues that aging is primarily the result of the attack of body cells by harmful molecules and radiation from the sun. His theory would be most closely associated with which of the following views? a. the biological clock theory aging b. the theory of senescence as proposed by Erikson c. the theory or senescence as proposed by Freud d. the stochastic theory of aging Answer: d Page: 419 Applied Difficult Rationale: Stochastic theories of aging suggest that the body ages as a result of random assaults from both internal and external environments. 16.87. According to the text, theories that explain aging as the result of random assaults from both internal and external environments are referred to as: a. biological clock theories of aging b. senescence theories of aging c. stochastic theories of aging d. random theories of aging Answer: c Page: 419 Factual Moderate 16.88. Dr. Smith believes that aging is the result of a genetically programmed set of changes that operate such that cells can only live for a certain length of time before they become unable to process glucose and die. Such a view would be most consistent with which of the following theoretical models? a. biological clock theories b. psychological clock theories c. the gerontology model d. stochastic theories Answer: a Page: 419 Applied Moderate

Rationale: Biological clock theories of aging are those suggesting that genetic programming determines the pace and process of aging. 16.89. If Sara believes that aging is the result of chromosome breakage that occurs each time a cell divides and accumulates until the cell no longer can reproduce itself, her view is most similar to: a. free radical theory b. a stochastic theory of aging c. a biological clock theory of aging d. the theory of senility Answer: c Page: 419 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to one version of biological clock theories of aging, there is a limit to the number of times each cell can divide before it dies. One limiting mechanism that appears to be involved centers on DNA sequences, called telomeres, which lie at the tips of chromosomes. Research shows that with each cell division, the length of the telomere becomes shorter; after about 80 cell divisions, there is no longer enough telomere left for cells to reproduce, and they ultimately die. 16.90. The term most often used to refer to the internal timing that is linked to both the female menstrual cycle and the human immune system is: a. age clocks b. biological clocks c. social clocks d. psychological clocks Answer: b Page: 419 Factual Moderate 16.91. The term most often used to refer to theories suggesting that genetic programming determines the pace and processes of aging are referred to as: a. biological clock theories of aging b. senescence theories of aging c. stochastic theories of aging d. random theories of aging Answer: a Page: 419 Factual Moderate 16.92. Which of the following would be LEAST well explained by biological clock theories? a. menarche b. menopause c. age-related changes in the immune system d. sun damage to skin cells Answer: d Page: 419-420 Conceptual Difficult

Rationale: Menarche, menopause, and changes in the immune system all occur according to biological clocks, but sun damage to skin cells centers on a “wear-and-tear” explanation that is more consistent with stochastic theories of aging. Cognitive Changes in Advanced Age 16.93. The term that usually is used to describe general, overall intellectual functioning is: a. personality b. intelligence c. cognition d. intellect Answer: c Page: 420 Factual Easy 16.94. If you were to compare the performance of a group of 30-year-olds and a group of 70-year-olds, the most noticeable differences would most likely be on tasks that involved: a. memory for events long in the past b. memory for recent events c. vocabulary d. speed Answer: d Page: 420 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Many studies have shown that the intellectual functions that depend heavily on speed of performance decline in older people. Older people have slower reaction times, slower perceptual processing, and slower cognitive processes in general. 16.95. Compared to younger adults, older adults typically are _________ at performing cognitive tasks and they are __________ at using performance-enhancing strategies. a. slower; better b. slower; worse c. faster; better d. faster; worse Answer: a Page: 420-421 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Older people have slower reaction times, slower perceptual processing, and slower cognitive processes in general, but often learn new strategies to compensate for their loss of speed. By using more effective strategies, older people are often able to compensate for their loss of speed on many tasks and, in many cases, to recover much of their former performance level. 16.96. According to the text, older adults experience the largest decline in their ability to manage which of the following types of memory? a. semantic memory b. short-term memory c. episodic memory d. sensory memory Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 421-422 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text notes that older adults experience more decline in their episodic memories than in their semantic memories. Table 16-6 lists the degree of decline associated with each type or function of memory. This table lists the declines in sensory and short-term memory as slight to none, the decline in semantic memory as minimal, and notes that episodic memory does decline with age, although this may be due to slower processing speed. 16.97. The term usually used to refer to the memory store that holds visual or auditory memories very briefly for a few seconds prior to further processing of the information is called: a. sensory memory b. semantic memory c. short-term memory d. episodic memory Answer: a Page: 421 Factual Easy 16.98. Research usually shows that in older adulthood, sensory memory typically: a. decreases significantly b. decreases slightly c. improves slightly d. remains the same Answer: b Page: 421 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: With respect to memory capacity, it appears that older individuals are able to pick up and hold slightly less sensory information than are young adults. 16.99. Suppose you look up the telephone number to call, and someone asks you where your next class is. You answer quickly, but promptly forget the number you just looked up. The memory store in which this telephone number was held is called: a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. semantic memory Answer: b Page: 421 Applied Moderate Rationale: Short-term memory refers to memory for things we are presently and actively thinking about. Table 16-6 lists as an example of short-term memory remembering a phone number just looked up long enough to dial it. 16.100. Eighty-five-year-old Norma tells her grandchildren about her life during the Great Depression. Her recall of such events illustrates her ability to recall information from: a. sensory memory b. short-term memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 422 Applied Difficult Rationale: Episodic long-term memory refers to a person’s recollection of past events and personally relevant information. 16.101. Generalizing from research described in the text, you would expect older adults to suffer the greatest memory decrement on which of the following tasks? a. arithmetic calculations, such as balancing a check book b. vocabulary, such as that needed to solve a crossword puzzle c. story-telling of stories from their distant past or childhood d. knowledge of a second language learned in childhood and used in early adulthood Answer: c Page: 422 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The greatest memory decline in older adulthood is for tasks involving episodic, rather than semantic, memory. Episodic memories involve the recall of specific past events, whereas semantic memories involve factual recall. In this example, arithmetic, vocabulary, and knowledge of a second language all depend on semantic memory, whereas recall of childhood events is an episodic memory task. Thus, recall of past episodes is the type of memory task where the greatest decrement would be expected. 16.102. Generalizing from research described in the text, you would expect older adults to suffer the LEAST memory decrement on which of the following tasks? a. arithmetic calculations, such as balancing a check book b. memories of a trip taken in childhood c. recollections of clothing that one wore at an important occasion years before d. recall of the colors painted on the walls of the house one lived 40 years ago Answer: a Page: 422 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The greatest memory decline in older adulthood is for tasks involving episodic, rather than semantic, memory. Episodic memories involve the recall of specific past events, whereas semantic memories involve factual recall. In this example, the arithmetic task depends on semantic memory, whereas recall of childhood events in an episodic memory task. Thus, the least memory decrement would likely be for the check-balancing task. 16.103. The text cites recent studies of the brain that indicate that as adults age, their brain actually becomes _________ and the activity of their brain in the prefrontal cortex regions __________. a. smaller; declines b. smaller; increases c. larger; declines d. larger; increases Answer: b Page: 422 Factual Moderate 16.104. Suppose you apply for a job as a data programmer and you are asked to compare two lists of numbers paired side by side, noting which pairs of numbers are identical to each other and which pairs are different from each other. This task would best be considered a test of: a. inductive reasoning b. spatial orientation Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. perceptual speed d. verbal memory Answer: c Page: 422 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 16-7 lists the 6 mental abilities studied in the Seattle Longitudinal Study and provides an example of each. Checking lists for identical versus nonidentical pairs of items is the example given that demonstrates perceptual speed. 16.105. Suppose you are given a test that asks you to identify similarities between two words. For example, one question asks, “How are a cup and a plate alike?” This test is most likely measuring which of the cognitive abilities tested in the Seattle Longitudinal Study? a. perceptual speed b. inductive reasoning c. numeric facility d. verbal ability Answer: d Page: 422 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 16-7 lists the 6 mental abilities studied in the Seattle Longitudinal Study and provides an example of each. “How are a cat and dog alike?” is the example given that demonstrates verbal ability. 16.106. The Seattle Longitudinal Study is best described as a study that uses which of the following methods to study how adult cognition changes with age? a. only cross-sectional methods b. only longitudinal methods c. neither cross-sectional nor longitudinal methods d. both cross-sectional and longitudinal methods Answer: d Page: 422-423 Factual Moderate 16.107. Which of the following is the most accurate statement of the purpose of the Seattle Longitudinal Study? a. to investigate how cognitive processes change during adulthood b. to determine the factors that cause cognitive processes to change with age c. to examine gender and socioeconomic differences in cognition d. to investigate how wisdom develops and why some people are “wiser” than others Answer: a Page: 422-423 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: K. Warner Schaie has been studying the age-related changes in various types of cognitive abilities for over 50 years through the Seattle Longitudinal Study, in which he has tracked adults, ages 20 to 70, since 1956. 16.108. Suppose that Dr. Rand goes to a college reunion and asks for volunteers to take a memory test. He identifies 4 groups: people who graduated in 1920-1925, in 1940-1945, in 1960-1965, and in 1980-1985. He then analyzes how these groups compare to each other on the tests. Dr. Rand’s study is best considered to be an example of: a. an experiment Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. a cross-sectional study c. a longitudinal study d. both a cross-sectional and a longitudinal study Answer: b Page: 423 Applied Difficult Rationale: Cross-sectional studies compare individuals in various age groups at the same point in time. 16.109. The longitudinal results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study show which of the following patterns in relationship of cognitive abilities and aging? a. Most cognitive abilities remain intact until older adulthood, at which point they begin to decline. b. Verbal abilities show little decline with age, but perceptual abilities decline steadily throughout adulthood. c. Perceptual abilities show little decline with age, but verbal abilities decline steadily throughout adulthood. d. Nearly all cognitive abilities show a small but steady decline throughout adulthood, beginning at about age 35. Answer: a Page: 423 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: When individuals are tracked across time as they age, results show that they maintain their early levels of cognitive functions throughout early and middle adulthood, with very little decline occurring until about age 65. By age 75, some gentle decline in most functions has begun, and by age 85 this decline is more significant. 16.110. According to the results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study, which of the following adults would be expected to have the worst performance on the tests included in this study? a. Matt, who is 25 years old b. Tom, who is 50 years old c. Bob, who is 65 years old d. Fred, who is 85 years old Answer: d Page: 423 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The Seattle Longitudinal Study shows that, although age-related cognitive decline is modest throughout much of adulthood, by age 85 this decline is more significant. Figure 16-8 clearly shows this age-related decline. 16.111. If you were to choose one word to describe the essence of what developmentalists mean by the term “wisdom” that word would be: a. expert b. verbal c. fast d. old Answer: a Page: 423-424 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Wisdom refers to an expert knowledge system that involves excellent judgment and advice on critical and practical life issues.

16.112. According to the text, expert knowledge focusing on the pragmatics of life that involves excellent judgment and advice on critical life issues defines the trait called: a. fidelity b. wisdom c. purpose d. competence Answer: b Page: 423 Factual Easy 16.113. Which of the following abilities improves, or increases, with advancing age into older adulthood? a. perceptual speed b. verbal memory c. numeric ability d. wisdom Answer: d Page: 423-424 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Wisdom is positively related to age; both the development of personality and cognitive growth contribute to wisdom. 16.114. Suppose you are given a test that asks questions such as: “Suppose a single mother with no money wants to have another child. What should she do?” This question is most likely on a test that assesses which of the following traits: a. wisdom b. verbal ability c. procedural knowledge d. spatial orientation Answer: a Page: 424 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: This question is the one given as an example in Table 16-8, used to demonstrate the use of wisdomrelated criteria to evaluate discourse about life matters. 16.115. The text defines the confusion, forgetfulness, and personality changes associated with old age as: a. dementia b. psychosis c. depression d. neurosis Answer: a Page: 424 Factual Easy 16.116. Which of the following wordS means essentially the same thing as dementia? a. senescence b. stochastic c. senility d. ageism Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 424 Factual Easy 16.117. Chuck, age 82, suffers from confusion, forgetfulness, and personality changes associated with old age. The general term that best describes Chuck’s symptoms is: a. hypertension b. atherosclerosis c. osteoporosis d. dementia answer: d Page: 424 Applied Easy Rationale: Dementia, which is sometimes referred to by the less-technical term senility, refers to the chronic confusion, forgetfulness, and accompanying personality changes that are sometimes associated with advanced age. 16.118. Eighty-year-old Jack has a limited ability to grasp abstractions. His memory for recent events is impaired. He is unable to cope with routine tasks, and can no longer relate to people. Jack most likely suffers from which of the following conditions: a. Parkinson's disease b. depression c. dementia d. osteoporosis Answer: c Page: 424 Applied Moderate Rationale: Dementia, which is sometimes referred to by the less-technical term senility, refers to the chronic confusion, forgetfulness, and accompanying personality changes that are sometimes associated with advanced age. People with dementia have a limited ability to grasp abstractions and because of their mental deterioration, people with dementia may be unable to cope with routine tasks, such as keeping clean and groomed, and may be unable to think, behave, or relate to people normally. 16.119. Larry was an orphaned child and has lived in an institution his entire life. As he ages, he begins to experience the symptoms of dementia. If these symptoms are the result of his impoverished living conditions, they would best be considered an example of what the text defines as: a. specific causes of cognitive decline b. personal causes of cognitive decline c. general causes of cognitive decline d. precipitous causes of cognitive decline Answer: c Page: 425 Applied Moderate Rationale: General factors of cognitive decline describe a person’s overall welfare, such as poor general health or living in a nonstimulating environment. These factors can produce symptoms associated with dementia. 16.120. If Leila is hospitalized and the diagnosis is “multi-infarct dementia,” her family would know that she has: a. had a heart attack b. moved into the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. moved into the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease d. had a series of small strokes Answer: d Page: 425 Applied Moderate Rationale: Strokes, including ministrokes, produce a form of cognitive decline that is sometimes called multi-infarct dementia (MID). An infarct is an obstruction of a blood vessel that prevents a sufficient supply of blood from reaching a particular area of the brain. 16.121. Another term used to describe the condition called “multi-infract dementia” is: a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. stroke d. heart attack Answer: c Page: 425-426 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Strokes, including ministrokes, produce a form of cognitive decline that is sometimes called multi-infarct dementia (MID). An infarct is an obstruction of a blood vessel that prevents a sufficient supply of blood from reaching a particular area of the brain. 16.122. Which of the following is a disease that involves a progressive deterioration of brain cells, especially in the cerebral cortex, and is a common cause of dementia? a. atherosclerosis b. osteoporosis c. Parkinson's disease d. Alzheimer's disease Answer: d Page: 426 Factual Easy 16.123. Alzheimer's disease is a form of: a. dementia b. cancer c. atherosclerosis d. stroke Answer: a Page: 426 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that the leading cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease. 16.124. According to the text, which of the following is generally the first noticeable symptom of Alzheimer's disease to appear? a. forgetfulness b. fatigue c. physical impairment, such as stumbling and shaking d. depression

Answer: a Page: 426-427 Factual Easy 16.125. If a researcher is working on a genetic test to determine which variation of the APP and ApoE genes a person carries, the general focus of this work is most likely on finding a test that can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases: a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. atherosclerosis d. stroke Answer: a Page: 427 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: APP and ApoE are genes that are thought to control processes linked to the development of Alzheimer’s disease. 16.126. If researchers are working to develop drugs that slow or limit the damage caused by Alzheimer’s disease, the neurotransmitter they most likely would be working with would be: a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. serotonin Answer: b Page: 428 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text notes that drugs that prevent the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine can act to delay the worsening of symptoms associated with Alzheimer’s disease, so research is most likely to involve investigation of this neurotransmitter. 16.127. About what percent of the U.S. population over age 85 would be expected to meet the diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s disease? a. about 3% b. about 6% c. about 28% d. about 50% Answer: d Page: 428 Factual Moderate 16.128. On autopsy, Dan’s brain showed a high incidence of twisted and tangled neurons, along with some general cortical shrinkage. This evidence most likely suggests that Dan may have died from: a. a major stroke b. a transient ischemic attack c. Alzheimer’s disease d. atherosclerosis Answer: c Page: 428-429 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Autopsies of deceased people in the advanced stages of Alzheimer’s disease have revealed a characteristic pattern of damaged brain areas where neurons are no longer neatly ordered but instead are disorganized, looking like little bits of braided yarn. Cortical shrinkage is also revealed in the brain scans of people living with Alzheimer’s disease. Changing Perspectives: Diabetes – Will Type 2 Diabetes Be the New Lifestyle Disease Epidemic? 16.129. Diabetes is a chronic disease that involves a problem with the body’s use of, or production of, _________, a protein produced in the pancreas that is needed to break down molecules of _______. a. riboflavin; fat b. riboflavin; sugar c. insulin; fat d. insulin; sugar Answer: d Page: 416 Factual Easy 16.130. The type of diabetes that typically develops in adulthood and is linked to obesity is called: a. insulin-dependent diabetes b. insulin-expressive diabetes c. type 1 diabetes d. type 2 diabetes Answer: d Page: 416 Factual Easy 16.131. Connor is 50 years old, is considerably overweight, and has recently become concerned that he may have developed type 2 diabetes. If he is experiencing all of the following symptoms which is LEAST likely to be the result of having this disease: a. excessive thirst b. insomnia c. frequent need to urinate d. fatigue Answer: b Page: 416 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to the text, common symptoms of diabetes include excessive thirst and urination (to dilute the unused sugar and excrete it), and fatigue (because energy levels are low). 16.132. Type 2 diabetes is associated with higher risks of developing all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. cancer b. heart disease c. blindness d. kidney disease Answer: a Page: 416 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: According to the text, diabetes is the leading cause of blindness in adults. Nearly one-half of the cases of end-stage kidney disease are the result of diabetes and those with diabetes are at higher risk for various chronic ailments, ranging from heart disease and stroke to circulation problems, especially in the feet and legs. 16.133. According to statistics presented in the text, the number of people in the world with type 2 diabetes is expected to __________ between 2000 and 2025. a. increase 10% b. increase 50% c. double d. quadruple Answer: c Page: 416 Factual Moderate 16.134. Statistically speaking, which of the following adults has the highest risk of developing type 2 diabetes? a. Bob, who is a White American b. Rex, who is an African America c. Jesus, who is a Hispanic American d. Joseph, who is a Native American Answer: d Page: 416 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Compared to non-Hispanic Whites, the incidence of diabetes is 60% higher for Blacks, it is 110 to 120% higher for Mexican Americans and Puerto Ricans, and it is highest of all for Native Americans. Current Issues: Wisdom – Cross-Cultural or Culture Specific? 16.135. In Baltes’ studies, participants are asked to consider complex situations and make recommendations about the best course of action. For example, a question might be: “A teenage boy wants to drop out of high school. What should his parents do?” Tests comprised of questions such as this have helped Baltes and his colleagues understand the concept of: a. dementia b. wisdom c. ageism d. senescence Answer: b Page: 425 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Paul Baltes and colleagues have been conducting a program of research on the concept of wisdom over the past 15 years or more. To study how people make wise choices, Baltes and colleagues have posed dilemmas and asked people to answer questions about the dilemmas that require the consideration of various kinds of judgments involved in wisdom. 16.136. According to Baltes and his colleagues, the combination of knowledge and judgment defines: a. aging b. wisdom c. creativity d. intelligence

Answer: b Page: 425 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Baltes and colleagues see wisdom as reflecting a general theory of expert knowledge and judgment that speaks to the combination of excellence in mind together with virtue. 16.137. Bill is knowledgeable, but he also can see the consequences that different choices in life will have for the future. Paul Baltes and his colleagues would describe Bill as possessing which of the following traits? a. extroversion b. openness to experience c. wisdom d. agreeableness Answer: c Page: 425 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the view of Baltes and his colleagues, wise people are those who are able to see the ramifications and consequences of different choices in the important decisions of life.

True-False questions: Aging Today 16.138. Ageist stereotypes can be either positive or negative. Answer: True Page: 406 16.139. People are seldom ambivalent in their feelings about aging; most believe older adulthood to be filled with only negative events. Answer: False Page: 407 Rationale: According to the text, most people are ambivalent about aging, seeing both positive and negative aspects of older adulthood. 16.140. In most Asian nations, the tradition of filial piety is becoming stronger as the population is aging. Answer: False Page: 407 Rationale: Filial piety, which refers to the veneration of the elderly in Asian cultures, is weakening, especially among younger people and those who live in urban environments. 16.141. Older adulthood is more complex than earlier developmental stages because the people in this stage vary so substantially from each other. Answer: True Page: 408 16.142. According to the text, most adults over the age of 85 are frail. Answer: True Page: 409 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

The Physical Aspects of Aging 16.143. Pathological aging factors are those factors that involve infectious diseases, such as pneumonia. Answer: False Page: 410-411 Rationale: Pathological aging factors are those things that affect aging that are associated with earlier events (such as an accident) or lifestyle choices (such as previous illnesses or bad health habits like smoking). 16.144. Hearing loss that results from working in a noisy factory environment is a good example of a pathological aging factor. Answer: True Page: 411 16.145. Regular exercise can allow older adults to double, or even triple, their strength. Answer: True Page: 411 16.146. Older adults typically are an inch or more shorter than they were during their early adult life. Answer: True Page: 412 16.147. Older individuals adapt less well to changes in temperature than younger adults. Answer: True Page: 412 16.148. Older adults typically sleep better, and sleep longer, than younger adults do. Answer: False Page: 412 Rationale: About half of the people over age 65 who live at home and about two-thirds of those in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities suffer from sleep problems, which often involve insomnia or sleep apnea. Older adults also sleep less and spend less time in deep sleep than younger adults. 16.149. A high-salt diet can contribute to the development of Alzheimer’s disease. Answer: False Page: 413 Rationale: The text makes no mention of a link between salt intake and Alzheimer’s disease, but does note that salt intake is linked to the development of high blood pressure, which is called hypertension. 16.150. Older adults have trouble ignoring irrelevant stimuli and this, more than vision problems, contributes to their problems with driving a car. Answer: True Page: 413-414 16.151. Unless a brain disease is involved, the brains of older adults typically become slightly larger and heavier with advancing age. Answer: False Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 414 Rationale: Brain size typically declines with age. At age 90, a typical person’s brain is about 10% smaller than it was at age 30. 16.152. Pneumonia is a good example of a chronic health condition. Answer: False Page: 415 Rationale: Pneumonia is an infectious disease that, if treated successfully, is cured. Chronic diseases, on the other hand, are lasting and recurrent. A good example of a chronic disease is arthritis or diabetes. 16.153. Adults require more calories as they age because their bodies become less efficient at producing energy from food. Answer: False Page: 417 Rationale: Older adults require about 20% fewer calories than they did when they were younger, although they do require the same number of nutrients. 16. 154. Atherosclerosis is a condition caused by fat cells that are deposited in the walls of arteries, and this condition is more common in Western, than in Eastern, cultures. Answer: True Page: 417 16.155. Studies often show that mistakes in prescribing and dispensing prescription drugs are quite frequently made, both by health-care professionals and by older adults themselves. Answer: True Page: 417-418 The Causes of Aging 16.156. The term senility refers to the normal aging not connected with the occurrence of disease in an individual, and to the universal biological process of aging. Answer: False Page: 419, 424 Rationale: Senility is a synonym of dementia, and refers to disease-related aging processes. Senescence is the term used to refer to the normal process of aging. 16.157. Theories of aging that focus on how external factors damage our body are usually referred to as biological clock theories. Answer: False Page: 419 Rationale: Wear and tear theories of aging are called stochastic theories. 16.158. If aging is caused by processes that allow cells to divide a limited number of times, this view would be a good example of a biological clock theory of aging. Answer: True Page: 419 Cognitive Changes in Advanced Age

16.159. The major decline in intellectual function that occurs with aging involves tasks involving speed. Answer: True Page: 420 16.160. Most studies find little or no difference in the short-term memory performance of young and older adults. Answer: True Page: 421 16.161. Semantic memory is usually affected to a greater degree by aging than is episodic memory. Answer: False Page: 422 Rationale: Semantic memory is largely unaffected by aging, but episodic memory does appear to decline with advancing age. 16.162. The general conclusion of the Seattle Longitudinal Study is that most cognitive abilities remain intact through most adulthood, although some decline is noticeable by age 65 and this decline accelerates at about age 85. Answer: True Page: 423 16.163. Wisdom is seen equally often among young adults and older adults. Answer: False Page: 242 Rationale: Wisdom is related to age in that it is seldom seen in early adulthood and becomes much more commonly seen in later adulthood. 16.164. Developing dementia is part of the normal aging processing, which means that even healthy adults will eventually develop dementia if they live long enough. Answer: False Page: 424 Rationale: Dementia is typically the result of disease processes or brain injury. If adults do not develop these health problems, they do not experience dementia, no matter how old they become. 16.165. The two most common specific sources of dementia are strokes and Alzheimer’s disease. Answer: True Page: 425 16.166. Alzheimer’s disease is now the fifth leading cause of death among people age 65 and over. Answer: True Page: 426 16.167. Alzheimer’s disease can now be cured, although the therapy consists of taking a combination of several types of new drugs called “drug cocktails.” Answer: False Page: 428-429 Rationale: At the present time, there is no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, although drugs that address some of its symptoms and drugs that appear to slow down the progress of the disease are available and new drug treatments are on the horizon. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Short Answer questions: Aging Today 16.168. Give two examples of common ageist stereotypes, one reflecting a negative view and one reflecting a positive view of aging. Page: 406 16.169. What does it mean to say that most view older adulthood with ambivalence? Page: 407 16.170. With respect to the proportion of people over age 65, describe the changes expected in the U. S. population over the next 50 years. Page: 408 16.171. Describe 3 important ways in which the “young-old” are different from the “old-old.” Page: 408-409 16.172. Identify two societal challenges that likely will result from the changing demographics of older adults in the U. S. population. Page: 409 The Physical Aspects of Aging 16.173. Give two examples of diseases that result primarily from pathological aging factors and an example of a disease that does not result from such factors. Page: 410-411 16.174. Describe 3 ways in which muscles, bones, and mobility change as adults age. Page: 411 16.175. Define what is meant by the term “reserve capacity” and give an example for how older adults adapt to a reduction in this ability. Page: 412 16.176. Describe how the sleep patterns of adults typically change with age, noting the kinds of sleep problems that are most often seen among elderly populations. Page: 412 16.177. Which aspects of vision appear to be most directly involved in the development of problems linked to poorer driving among older adults? Page: 413-414 16.178. Describe how the brain of a 30-year-old would likely be different from the brain of a 90-year-old. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 414 16.179. Identify the 3 most common chronic health problems faced by older adults in the United States today. Page: 415 16.180. Why are older adults often overweight, but undernourished? Page: 417 16.181. Identify and describe 3 reasons why prescription drugs are sometimes misused by older adults. Page: 418 The Causes of Aging 16.182. What is the primary distinction between the meaning of the terms senescence and senility? Page: 419, 424 16.183. Describe an example of a stochastic theory of aging. Page: 419 16.184. Describe an example of a biological clock theory of aging. Page: 419-420 Cognitive Changes in Advanced Age 16.185. Identify the major cognitive decline that occurs with advancing age and provide an example for how this decline might affect the job performance of an older worker. Page: 420 16.186. How do older adults typically accommodate their slower cognitive processing speed? Give an example for how an older typist might be able to maintain her typing ability, in spite of her slower reaction times. Page: 420-421 16.187. Explain the difference between sensory memory and short-term memory and provide an example of each. Page: 421 16.188. Which type of memory system is most likely to experience the greatest degree of age-related decline? Give an example of the kind of information typically processed in this memory system. Page: 422 16.189. How does a cross-sectional study differ from a longitudinal study? Page: 422-423 16.190. According to the longitudinal data generated by the Seattle Longitudinal Study, describe the typical pattern of cognitive decline associated with advancing age. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 423 16.191. Describe the typical way in which wisdom is measured and studied in research situations. Page: 424 16.192. Explain the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease. Page: 424-426 16.193. What is the difference between a general cause and a specific cause of cognitive decline? Then give an example of each type of age-related cognitive decline. Page: 425-426 16.194. Describe the typical progression of symptoms seen in cases involving Alzheimer’s disease. Page: 426-427 16.195. Describe the typical way in which older adults compensate for their diminishing abilities, using the example of pianist Arthur Rubinstein to illustrate your points. Page: 429 Aging Today 16.196. Discuss how today’s ageist stereotypes of men and women differ and comment on who is more negatively affected by these stereotypes, old men or old women. Page: 406-407 16.197. Comparing the view of aging held by most people in the U. S. today to views held in colonial times and to views held in other cultures, answer the question: Do people in the U. S. today view aging as a more positive, or a more negative, process than it was viewed in other times and in other contexts? Page: 407 16.198. Do you think older adults in the United States today are treated better, or worse, than older adults in other cultures? Explain your answer. Page: 407 16.199. Why is the period of older adulthood often divided into 3 or more age-defined periods, such as the youngold, and old-old? What advantages does dividing this developmental stage into periods provide for researchers and scholars studying this stage of the lifespan? Page: 408 16.200. Describe the major ways in which the “young-old” differ from the “old-old.” To what degree do biological and social forces contribute to these changes? Page: 408-409 16.201. Describe how the proportion of older adults in the U. S. population is expected to change over the next several decades and explain how this change is likely to affect U. S. social and economic policies. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 409 16.202. Explain the reasoning used in the text’s statement that the “very old” are often healthier than those in the “middle-aged-old” age group. Why would this be? Page: 409 The Physical Aspects of Aging 16.203. Describe 3 things that older adults can do to remain healthy and strong into old age. Page: 411-412 16.204. Suggest an explanation for why more older adults have heart attacks while shoveling snow or mowing the lawn than while sleeping. Include in your answer an explanation of reserve capacity. Page: 412 16.205. Describe the particular sensory and cognitive changes that contribute to the difficulties older adults typically have with driving a car. Page: 413-414, 420-421 16.206. Describe three common changes in the visual system that are age-related and suggest how each can be treated so that vision remains good. Page: 413-414 16.207. Describe two ways in which the brain changes as it ages and suggest how the brain likely compensates for these changes. Page: 414 16.208. Comment on the accuracy of the statement: The human brain deteriorates with age. Page: 414 16.209. Describe how gender and ethnicity are linked to life expectancy. What might this pattern of results suggest about lifestyle differences among these groups of people? Page: 415 16.210. Describe the current trend of prescription drug use among the U. S. older population. Explain two types of problems this trend is accelerating. Page: 417-418 The Causes of Aging 16.211. Distinguish between the terms senescence and senility. Then comment on the degree to which each is driven by biological forces. Page: 419

16.212. Suppose a researcher finds evidence that brain cells can only divide about 50 times before they die. Would this evidence provide better support for a stochastic, or a biological clock, theory of aging? Explain your answer. Page: 419-420 16.213. Compare how stochastic theories of aging and biological clock theories of aging explain the aging process. What aspects of aging does each theory explain well and what aspects are not explained well? Page: 419-420 Cognitive Changes in Advanced Age 16.214. How do memory processes change as a person ages? Which particular types of tasks are least likely to be affected by age-related memory declines and which are more likely to be affected? Page: 420-422 16.215. Does advancing age appear to be more problematic for tasks involving sensory memory, tasks involving short-term memory, or tasks involving long-term memory? Explain your answer by giving examples. Page: 421-422 16.216. Describe and give an example of 4 different types of abilities measured in the Seattle Longitudinal Study. Which of these abilities, if any, appear to experience the greatest degree of age-related decline? Page: 422-423 16.217. Describe how the results on age-related effects on cognition are different, depending on whether one considers a cross-sectional versus a longitudinal approach to research. 16.218. Page: 423 16.218. What is wisdom? Why does it seem to develop only as adults become older? Page: 423-424 16.219. Distinguish between general causes and specific causes of cognitive decline and give a clear example of each. Then give examples of how lifestyle choices made earlier in life might affect these general and specific causes. Page: 425-426 16.220. How might diet during adulthood affect the development of dementia? Page: 425-426 16.221. How might a wife first notice that her husband is developing the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease? If the disease is confirmed, what changes to her lifestyle should she anticipate as her husband’s disease progresses? Page: 426-427 16.222. If you were to examine the brains of patients who died from Alzheimer’s disease, what differences would you expect to see, compared to brains of healthy young adults? What might these structural differences indicate about the causes of Alzheimer’s disease? Page: 428-429 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

16.223. Describe two possible causes for Alzheimer’s disease and speculate on what type of research you think will provide the best chances for developing a cure for this disease. Page: 428-429

Name_______________________________ Chapter 17 - Older Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. Which of the following is the final stage in Erikson’s theory of the life cycle? a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus self-absorption c. intimacy versus isolation d. identity versus identity confusion 2. Questions that assess a person’s best time for retirement provide an index of a. functional well-being b. openness to experience c. retirement maturity d. emotional health 3. According to statistics reported in the text, the fastest-growing segment of the U. S. population is: a. adults age 55-64 b. adults age 65-74 c. adults age 75-84 d. adults age 85 and over Conceptual questions: 4. If you were to describe the emotionality of the majority of older adults, the best conclusion to come to would be that, compared to earlier in their lives, their emotionality is ______ complex and their sense of well-being is _________. a. more; lower b. more; greater c. less; lower d. less; greater 5. Generalizing from information presented in the text, in which of the following years would you predict to see the highest proportion of retirements occurring at ages 65 or younger? a. 1955 b. 1970 c. 1988 d. 2009 6. For men who are age 75-84, the most common marital status is __________; for women in the age range the most common marital status is ___________. a. widowed; widowed b. married; widowed c. widowed; married d. married; married 7. Who are the Gray Panthers? a. an activist group that promotes issues important to older adults b. a political action committee that raises money to support older candidates for public office c. a group of health-care workers who lobby for health-care reform for the elderly d. retired workers who volunteer to help new businesses and volunteer agencies improve their operations Applied questions:

8. An elderly widow is angry with her children for telling her she should not live alone in her home anymore, because she fell recently. She blames the fall on inadequate lighting and claims that if her children did some house repairs, she could stay in her house. This woman’s inability to deal with her changed circumstances reflects her difficulty in which of the following processes? a. making a successful status passage into older adulthood b. achieving intimacy with herself c. assimilation d. accommodation 9. Frank says that he doesn’t like having to use a walker, but at least he’s in better shape than his brother, who must use a wheelchair. Frank’s statement exemplifies the basic principle involved in: a. integrity b. despair c. social comparison d. conflict resolution 10. If Julie were the youngest child in her family and the last to leave home, she should expect that the stress her parents feel after she moves away will ______ and their level of marital satisfaction will _______. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; increase d. decrease; decrease

Name_______________________________ Chapter 17 - Older Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to Piaget, if new events and changing circumstances can be absorbed into one’s self-concept, this defines the process called: a. equilibration b. accommodation c. integrity d. assimilation 2. In the United States today, about what percent of the population continues to work part-time or return to work following retirement? a. about 3% b. about 10% c. about 33% d. about 60% 3. Which of the following expenses does Medicare currently cover, in whole or in part? a. hospital visits, but not physician charges or medication costs b. physician charges and medication costs, but not hospital visits c. hospital visits and physician charges, but not medication costs d. hospital visits, physician charges, and medication costs Conceptual questions: 4. Suppose you show positive and negative images on a computer screen to younger and older adults. If younger adults remember 25% of the positive images and 25% of the negative images, you would expect that, of the total number of images they remembered, older adults would remember _____ positive images and _____ negative images. a. more than 25%; more than 25% b. less than 25%; less than 25% c. less than 25%; more than 25% d. more than 25%; less than 25% 5. In a national survey of older Americans reported in the text, adults age 65 and over rated their health and wellbeing. The most accurate conclusion to be drawn from the data reported would be that _______ of the people in this study reported that their health was good to excellent and Black Americans reported _______ levels of health than did White Americans: a. less than half; lower b. less than half; higher c. about three-quarters; lower d. about three-quarters; higher 6. If you conducted a survey of 1,000 families with children under age 18 living at home, about how many of these would you expect to be headed by a grandparent? a. about 400 b. about 200 c. about 120 d. about 60 7. If you conducted a random survey of older people who were living alone after a spouse had died, and of the people you surveyed 100 were men, you should expect that your survey group included about _____ women. a. 80 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. 120 c. 300 d. 600 Applied questions: 8. When she is honest with herself, Judy recognizes that she has wasted many of the opportunities that could have led her to a positive lifestyle. In this respect, Judy is engaging in the developmental task that Erikson thought characterized which of the following periods of the lifespan? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. later adulthood 9. Rod visited with a retirement counselor who asked him if he had adequate savings and income, a place to live, and other related questions to learn how prepared Rod is to retire. The retirement counselor was most likely trying to estimate Rod’s index of: a. functional well-being b. emotional health c. openness to experience d. retirement maturity 10. Mr. Jones has suffered a severe stroke that has left him unable to walk, speak, or dress and feed himself. He needs nursing care for several hours a day, but his wife has died and his adult son lives 1,000 miles away. Which of the following options would most likely be the type of living arrangement that would best serve Mr. Jones’s needs? a. an adult daycare facility b. an assisted living facility c. a nursing home d. an Elderhostel

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 17.1 1. a, p. 434 2. c, p. 443 3. d, p. 450 4. b, p. 436 5. c, p. 441 6. b, p. 446 7. a, p. 453 8. d, p. 435 9. c, p. 439 10. c, p. 444 Quick Quiz 17.2 1. d, p. 435 2. c, p. 441 3. d, p. 449 4. d, p. 436 5. c, p. 439 6. d, p. 444 7. c, p. 446 8. d, pp. 434-435 9. d, p. 443 10. c, pp. 450-451

Chapter 17 Older Adulthood: Personality and Sociocultural Development Multiple Choice questions: Personality and Aging 17.1. A change in role and social position that occurs as one enters a new developmental stage is the text’s definition of: a. role reversal b. lateral transition c. status passage d. rite of passage Answer: c Page: 434 Factual Easy 17.2. Max and Toni just had their first child, thereby entering a new period of their lives. According to the text, such a change in role and position would best be considered an example of what is meant by the term: a. role transfer b. status passage c. developmental step d. developmental integrity Answer: b Page: 434 Applied Easy Rationale: Status passages refer to the changes in role and social position that occur when a person enters adolescence, becomes a parent, retires, or becomes a widow or widower. 17.3. According to the text, the major difference between the status passage into older adulthood, compared to status passages into earlier stages of the lifespan, is that moving into older adulthood includes: a. having to deal with grandchildren b. losses of power, responsibility, and autonomy c. poorer health d. more freedom from responsibility Answer: b Page: 434 Factual Moderate 17.4. Although individuals must sometimes deal with losses that occur unexpectedly in their lives, losses are an inevitable part of which of the following stages of the lifespan? a. adolescence b. older adulthood c. early adulthood d. infancy and toddlerhood Answer: b Page: 434 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy Rationale: The text notes that the status passage into older adulthood differs from all others in that it includes dealing with losses, in addition to gains. Earlier status passages typically are characterized by gains in such things as ability, freedom, autonomy, status, and so forth. 17.5. Which of the following is the final stage in Erikson’s theory of the life cycle? a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus self-absorption c. intimacy versus isolation d. identity versus identity confusion Answer: a Page: 434 Factual Easy 17.6. Wilma, age 90, is able to look back and say that her life had meaning and that she has done the best she could under the circumstances. According to Erik Erikson's theory of the life cycle, Wilma has successfully resolved the conflict called: a. integrity versus despair b. generativity versus self-absorption c. identity versus identity confusion d. trust versus mistrust Answer: a Page: 434-435 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson, integrity versus despair is the final developmental task in the lifespan when people think about how their lives have fulfilled their earlier expectations. 17.7. Gwen looks back over the last 77 years of her life and feels satisfied that her life has had meaning and that she has done the best she could with life's circumstances. According to Erikson, Gwen will develop a sense of: a. hope b. integrity c. generativity d. ego transcendence Answer: b Page 434-435 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to Erikson, those who can look back and feel satisfied that their lives have had meaning and that they have done the best they could develop a strong sense of personal integrity. Integrity versus despair is the developmental conflict that Erikson believed characterized older adulthood. 17.8. When she is honest with herself, Judy recognizes that she has wasted many of the opportunities that could have led her to a positive lifestyle. In this respect, Judy is engaging in the developmental task that Erikson thought characterized which of the following periods of the lifespan? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. later adulthood Answer: d Page: 434-435 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Applied Difficult Rationale: Reflecting on one’s lost opportunities is what Erikson defined as despair, which is the negative outcome of the stage of integrity versus despair. Integrity versus despair is the developmental conflict that Erikson believed characterized older adulthood. 17.9. Marie is dying of cancer and she tells her husband that she is “at peace” with the way she lived her life, because she always tried to do her best to be a good wife and mother. Marie’s statement best reflects the meaning of the term: a. integrity b. autonomy c. identity d. self-esteem Answer: a Page: 435 Applied Difficult Rationale: According to Erikson, those who can look back and feel satisfied that their lives have had meaning and that they have done the best they could develop a strong sense of personal integrity. Integrity versus despair is the developmental conflict that Erikson believed characterized older adulthood. 17.10. Lou is dying of cancer and he is very angry that his life “didn’t work out the way it should have.” In Erik Erikson’s view, Lou’s disappointment is best considered to be an example of: a. mistrust b. guilt c. despair d. isolation Answer: c Page: 435 Applied Difficult Rationale: Reflecting on one’s lost opportunities, wrong turns, and failures is what Erikson defined as despair, which is the negative outcome of the stage of integrity versus despair. Integrity versus despair is the developmental conflict that Erikson believed characterized older adulthood. 17.11. According to Erikson, older adulthood is ideally a time when: a. identity has predominated over integrity b. integrity has predominated over despair c. identify has predominated over role confusion d. trust has predominated over mistrust Answer: b Page: 435 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: in Erikson’s view, a satisfactory resolution of the developmental tasks of older adulthood involves accepting that not everything in life has worked out as ideal, yet realizing that one’s life has been of value (that is, that integrity has predominated over despair). 17.12. According to Piaget, if new events and changing circumstances can be absorbed into one’s self-concept, this defines the process called: a. equilibration b. accommodation c. integrity Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. assimilation Answer: d Page: 435 Factual Moderate 17.13. According to Piaget, if new events and changing circumstances cannot be absorbed into one’s self-concept, and the self-concept changes in order to adapt to these new events, this defines the process called: a. equilibration b. accommodation c. integrity d. assimilation Answer: b Page: 435 Factual Moderate 17.14. Greta has lost her driver’s license because she can no longer pass the vision test. Rather than feeling bad about her lost abilities, she has simply adjusted to this new circumstance by selling her car, getting a bus pass, and using a taxi service for unanticipated trips. Greta’s ability to adjust to her new circumstances without its negatively affecting her self-concept is a good example of: a. a status passage b. integrity c. assimilation d. generativity Answer: c Page: 435 Applied Difficult Rationale: Piaget described the process of adaptation, which involves assimilating new events and changing circumstances into one’s existing self-concept. 17.15. An elderly widow is angry with her children for telling her she should not live alone in her home anymore, because she fell recently. She blames the fall on inadequate lighting and claims that if her children did some house repairs, she could stay in her house. This woman’s inability to deal with her changed circumstances reflects her difficulty in which of the following processes? a. making a successful status passage into older adulthood b. achieving intimacy with herself c. assimilation d. accommodation Answer: d Page: 435 Applied Difficult Rationale: Piaget described the process of adaptation, which involves accommodating (changing) one’s self when major life events cannot be readily assimilated. 17.16. According to Piaget, the best adjustment is characterized by: a. reliance on assimilation, rather than on accommodation b. reliance on accommodation, rather than on assimilation c. a balance between assimilation and accommodation d. avoiding assimilation and accommodation in favor of association Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 435 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Ideally, according to Piaget’s view, people maintain a balance between assimilation and accommodation. Refusal to accommodate may mean that the person is denying reality. Such a person may be defensive, rigid, and may unjustifiably blame other people. On the other hand, accommodating too readily can make a person hysterical, impulsive, or hypersensitive. 17.17. The text describes a study of older adults who experienced major negative changes to their health and living circumstances. As these people adjusted, they usually did so by: a. denying that their new circumstances were permanent b. thinking more about the past than the present c. becoming very, very angry and bitter d. giving up and becoming totally dependent on others, to a degree greater than necessary Answer: b Page: 435-436 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Those who were in this study, mostly individuals in their 70s and 80s, who were most successful in adapting managed to do so by maintaining and validating their identities. Despite adversity, they were able to say, “I am who I have always been.” Even while they were being faced with very real shifts in their lives and in their physical abilities, they were able to do this by shifting from thinking about the present to thinking about the past. 17.18. During most of older adulthood, people’s emotional adjustment would be characterized by _________; and at the very end of life, their emotional satisfaction usually __________. a. emotional growth; remains the same or declines b. emotional stagnation; remains the same or declines c. emotional growth; becomes more positive d. emotional stagnation; becomes more positive Answer: a Page: 436 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Research suggests that this life stage is usually experienced as one of continued emotional growth. If well-being declines at all, it generally does so only in the period immediately preceding a person’s death when cognitive and physical problems seriously impact a person’s critical areas of functioning. 17.19. In comparison to early stages of adulthood, in older adulthood, adults tend to have _______ friends; during this stage, their friendships tend to be _________ meaningful. a. more; more b. fewer; more c. more; less b. fewer; less Answer: b Page: 436 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Older adults may not maintain as many relationships, but the ones they keep do not diminish in intensity. In fact, older people tend to experience more satisfaction with their interpersonal relationships than they have throughout their earlier lives.

17.20. As a young adult, Aaron had many friends, but his friends were not very important to him. In older adulthood, researchers would expect that Aaron would have ______ friends and his friends would __________ to him. a. even more; still be unimportant b. fewer; still be unimportant c. even more friends, more important d. fewer; more important Answer: d Page: 436 Applied Difficult Rationale: Older adults may not maintain as many relationships, but the ones they keep do not diminish in intensity. In fact, older people tend to experience more satisfaction with their interpersonal relationships than they have throughout their earlier lives. 17.21. According to research presented in the text, you would expect that in older adulthood adults would experience all of the following changes EXCEPT: a. a reduced capacity to feel positive emotions b. fewer mood swings c. less agitation d. a greater ability to control emotions Answer: a Page: 436 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In studies across cultures, older adults consistently reported fewer mood swings, less agitation, and a greater ability to control their emotions than did young adults, which contributes to a greater sense of well-being. 17.22. According to the text, the positivity effect is best described as: a. older adults’ increased ability to look on the “bright side” of health-related problems b. the peace that they feel as they assume fewer responsibilities for caring for others c. older adults’ decrease in intellectual flexibility such that they feel more positive they are right d. the tendency to remember positive information better than negative information Answer: d Page: 436 Factual Moderate 17.23. Jane is surprised to learn that her income for most of her career was quite low, because when she thinks back she remembers making more money than she actually did. Jane’s memory distortion is best considered to be an example of: a. the positivity effect b. the negativity effect c. state-dependent memory d. episodic drift Answer: a Page: 436 Applied Difficult Rationale: The positivity effect refers to the well-documented finding that older adults seem to attend more to positive information than negative information; they remember positive information better as well.

17.24. If you looked at MRI results of brain activity of younger and older adults while viewing positive images, you would expect that brain activity would be relatively ___________ for older adults in the area of the brain called the ____________. a. lower; amygdala b. lower; prefrontal cortex c. higher; amygdala d. higher; prefrontal cortex Answer: c Page: 436 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The book describes a research study in which, relative to younger adults, older adults were found to experience greater neural activation for positive images than negative ones in the amygdala, an area in the brain involved in the processing of emotional responses. 17.25. Suppose you show positive and negative images on a computer screen to younger and older adults. If younger adults remember 25% of the positive images and 25% of the negative images, you would expect that, of the total number of images they remembered, older adults would remember _____ positive images and _____ negative images. a. more than 25%; more than 25% b. less than 25%; less than 25% c. less than 25%; more than 25% d. more than 25%; less than 25% Answer: d Page: 436 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The book describes a research study in which, relative to younger adults, older adults were found to experience greater neural activation for positive images than negative ones in the amygdala, an area in the brain involved in the processing of emotional responses. 17.26. If you were to describe the emotionality of the majority of older adults, the best conclusion to come to would be that, compared to earlier in their lives, their emotionality is ______ complex and their sense of well-being is _________. a. more; lower b. more; greater c. less; lower d. less; greater Answer: b Page: 436 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: As people grow older, their sense that time is fleeting usually deepens and makes for more complex emotionality. A greater ability to negotiate the conflicts between what they believe they should do and what they want to do contributes to a greater sense of well-being. 17.27. According to the text, the major difference between stage theories and continuity theories that describe adult development is the degree to which they: a. focus on emotional development b. focus on physical changes c. see changes as being dramatic or cumulative d. view behavior as being the result of hereditary versus environmental forces

Answer: c Page: 437 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Stage theorists emphasize the idea that people pass through discrete stages, changing in some dramatic ways in the passage from one stage to another. Continuity theorists emphasize the role of smaller, continuous adjustments as people respond to aging, which allows people to maintain a stable sense of who they are over the lifespan. 17.28. According to the text, in older adulthood, personality dimensions generally _________ and well-being generally ___________. a. remain consistent; increases b. remain consistent; decreases c. change considerably; increases d. change considerably; decreases Answer: a Page: 437 Factual Moderate 17.29. Which of the following in NOT one of the six components of adult well-being, as identified by Carol Ryff? a. self-acceptance b. personal growth c. autonomy d. parenthood Answer: d Page: 437 Factual Moderate 17.30. According to research conducted by Carol Ryff, which of the following statements describe a person who scores LOW on the “autonomy” component of adult well-being? a. relies on judgments of others to make important decisions b. evaluates self by personal standards c. is able to resist social pressures to think and act in certain ways d. regulates behavior from within Answer: a Page: 437 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 17-1 describes the characteristics of high- and low-scorers on the 6 components of adult wellbeing. The table describes low-scorer on autonomy as a relying on judgments of others to make important decisions. 17.31. According to the text, as men age, they typically become: a. less conscientious b. less agreeable c. less open to new experiences d. less extroverted Answer: d Page: 438 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: The text notes that as men age, they become more introverted. From Chapter 16, in which the Big Five personality traits are discussed, students should have learned that introversion is the opposite end of the trait of extroversion. 17.32. According to the text, in comparison to the coping styles used by younger adults, older adults are more likely to use coping styles that are more: a. passive and focused on specific problems b. passive and focused on emotions c. active and focused on specific problems d. active and focused on emotions Answer: b Page: 438 Factual Moderate 17.33. In comparison to older women, older men tend to be _____ emotional and to cope _____ effectively. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: c Page: 439 Factual Moderate 17.34. In a national survey of older Americans reported in the text, adults age 65 and over rated their health and well-being. The most accurate conclusion to be drawn from the data reported would be that _______ of the people in this study reported that their health was good to excellent and black Americans reported _______ levels of health than did white Americans: a. less than half; lower b. less than half; higher c. about three-quarters; lower d. about three-quarters; higher Answer: c Page: 439 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In a national survey of older Americans in 2008, about three-quarters of adults age 65 and older rated their health and well-being as good to excellent. Table 17-1 shows that the percentage of non-Hispanic black respondents who rated their health as good to excellent was consistently lower than the percentage of non-Hispanic white respondents who did so (in the 65-74 age range, for example, the percentages of Black and White respondents providing this rating were 80 and 63, respectively). 17.35. According to research cited in the text, which of the following groups of people age 65 and older would be expected to report the highest levels of healthiness? a. white Americans b. black Americans c. Hispanic Americans d. White Americans and Hispanic Americans would report equally high levels of healthiness, which would be higher than that reported by black Americans. Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 439 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In a national survey of older Americans in 2008, about three-quarters of adults age 65 and older rated their health and well-being as good to excellent. Table 17-1 shows that the percentage of non-Hispanic White respondents who rated their health as good to excellent was consistently higher than the percentage of non-Hispanic Black or Hispanic respondents who did so. 17.36. A study of Americans 65 or older found that about ____ rated their health and well-being as good to excellent: a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% Answer: d Page: 439 Factual Moderate 17.37. Frank says that he doesn’t like having to use a walker, but at least he’s in better shape than his brother, who must use a wheelchair. Frank’s statement exemplifies the basic principle involved in: a. integrity b. despair c. social comparison d. conflict resolution Answer: c Page: 439 Applied Moderate Rationale: When people use social comparison, they evaluate themselves and their own situation against the experiences of others they perceive to be similar. Using social comparison can allow older adults to maintain a positive outlook despite their failing health and declining abilities. 17.38. According to the text, which of the following is the most important determinant of satisfaction in older adulthood? a. money b. marital status c. amount of social interaction d. health Answer: d Page: 440 Factual Easy Retirement: A Major Change in Status 17.39. If you were to survey a large population of people who had just retired from their jobs and careers, you would expect that the factor that best predicted how well-adjusted to retirement they were would be: a. their former income level in their job b. their present income level after retirement c. whether or not they had a choice about retiring or continuing to work d. their gender

Answer: c Page: 441 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: One of the most important considerations in how people fare after retirement is whether they actually choose to retire, as opposed to being forced to retire because of their age, because of being squeezed out by a younger person, or because of corporate downsizing. 17.40. According to the text, the most significant status change in older adulthood is generally thought to be: a. divorce b. death of a spouse c. becoming a grandparent d. retirement Answer: d Page: 441 Factual Easy 17.41. Generalizing from information presented in the text, in which of the following years would you predict to see the highest proportion of retirements occurring at ages 65 or younger? a. 1955 b. 1970 c. 1988 d. 2009 Answer: c Page: 441 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: According to the text, retirement at the traditional ages of 62 or 65 seems to have peaked in the 1980s or early 1990s. 17.42. Which of the following situations would be LEAST likely to predict a negative adjustment to retirement? a. when the retiree loved her job b. when retirement is accompanied by a substantially reduced standard of living c. when the transition to retirement has been anticipated for a long period of time d. when the retiree’s self-concept is dependent upon her job role and job status Answer: c Page: 441 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, if the shift to retirement is sudden and dramatic, if the person’s standard of living is compromised, or if an individual’s identity has been closely tied to an occupational role, the transition may be very difficult. 17.43. In the United States today, about what percent of the population continues to work part-time or return to work following retirement? a. about 3% b. about 10% c. about 33% d. about 60% Answer: c Page: 441 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Factual Moderate 17.44. According to the text, about what percent of retired U. S. adults over age 65 rely to a significant degree on Social Security as a source of income? a. about 25% b. about 45% c. about 66% d. about 90% Answer: c Page: 441 Factual Moderate 17.45. According to the text, about what percent of retired U. S. adults over age 65 rely on Social Security as virtually their only source of income? a. about 8% b. about 15% c. about 31% d. about 40% Answer: d Page: 441 Factual Moderate 17.46. According to the text, about what percent of America’s elderly live below the poverty line? a. 7% b. 10% c. 24% d. 46% Answer: b Page: 441 Factual Moderate 17.47. Statistically speaking, in the U.S. today, which group is most likely to be poor? a. married people b. men c. young adults d. older adults Answer: c Page: 441 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that in terms of net worth, older adults tend to be wealthier than younger adults. 17.48. Statistically speaking, in the U S. today, which of the following individuals is most likely to be poor? a. a black older woman b. a black older man c. a white older woman d. a white older man

Answer: a Page: 441 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that those suffering the discrimination that typically comes with being both female and a member of a minority group are the most likely to be poor: Almost 27% of older African American women are impoverished. 17.49. According to a 2006 study reported in the text, which of the following groups had the largest proportion of its members in the U.S. work force? a. men, ages 65-69 b. men, ages 70 and older c. women, ages 65-69 d. women, ages 70 and older Answer: a Page: 442 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Figure 17-2 shows the percentage of older men and women in the U.S. labor force by age. Persons in the age group 55-61 are most likely to still be in the labor force. At this age, 75.2% of men and 63.8% of women report they are still working. 17.50. Generalizing from information presented in the text, which of the following persons would adjust best to retirement? a. a healthy man who wanted to retire b. a healthy man who did not want to retire c. an unhealthy man who wanted to retire d. an unhealthy man who did not want to retire Answer: a Page: 442 Conceptual Easy Rationale: The adjustment to retirement is easier when people are prepared. One of the most important considerations in how people fare after retirement is whether they actually choose to retire, as opposed to being forced to retire because of their age, because of being squeezed out by a younger person, or because of corporate downsizing. 17.51. According to research presented in the text, about what percent of people who retire report that their mental and physical health DECLINED during the period immediately after retirement? a. about 83% b. about 50% c. about 33% d. about 17% Answer: d Page: 443 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports the results of a study that found that 33% of retirees report an improvement in their mental and physical health in the period immediately after retirement and another 50% report no change. Thus, 17% reported a decline in their health. 17.52. Questions that assess a person’s best time for retirement provide an index of: a. functional well-being Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. openness to experience c. retirement maturity d. emotional health Answer: c Page: 443 Factual Easy 17.53. How prepared a person is to retire is known as an index of: a. retirement maturity b. emotional health. c. openness to experience d. functional well-being Answer: a Page: 443 Factual Easy 17.54. Rod visited with a retirement counselor who asked him if he had adequate savings and income, a place to live, and other related questions to learn how prepared Rod is to retire. The retirement counselor was most likely trying to estimate Rod’s index of: a. functional well-being b. emotional health c. openness to experience d. retirement maturity Answer: d Page: 443 Applied Moderate Rationale: Considerations such as how long the potential retiree has worked and if the retiree has adequate savings, income, a place to live, and plans for further work or activities after retirement constitute an index of retirement maturity—how prepared a person is to retire. Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 17.55. According to the text, all of the following are trends taking place in U. S. society EXCEPT: a. people are retiring at younger ages b. divorce and remarriage are more common c. there is a wider range of single lifestyles d. kinship relationships with grandchildren are more complex Answer: a Page: 444, 442 Factual Moderate 17.56. After children leave home, parents generally experience ______ stress and ______ feelings of satisfaction and harmony. a. more; more b. less; less c. less; more d. more; less

Answer: c Page: 444 Factual Easy 17.57. Ruth and John have just entered the “empty nest” phase of their lives. You would expect that the amount of stress that Ruth feels would ______ and the amount than John feels would ______. a. decrease; decrease b. decrease; increase c. increase; decrease d. increase; increase Answer: a Page: 444 Applied Easy Rationale: Although there may be some initial difficulty in adjusting to each other as a couple, most empty nest couples report decreased stress. 17.58. If Julie were the youngest child in her family and the last to leave home, she should expect that the stress her parents feel after she moves away will ______ and their level of marital satisfaction will _______. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; increase d. decrease; decrease Answer: c Page: 444 Applied Moderate Rationale: Although there may be some initial difficulty in adjusting to each other as a couple, most empty nest couples report decreased stress and increased feelings of satisfaction and harmony; on average, older married couples report being more satisfied with their marriage after their children leave home. 17.59. In comparison to marriages that have not been happy, marriages that are happy tend to be more _________ in older adulthood. a. traditional in terms of religion b. egalitarian c. organized along gender lines d. stressful Answer: b Page: 444 Factual Moderate 17.60. Generally speaking, older adults who become grandparents generally feel _________ about this role and those who become great-grandparents generally feel _________ about this role. a. negative; positive b. positive; negative c. negative; negative d. positive; positive Answer: d Page: 444 Factual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Easy 17.61. The text reports that in 1980, 2.3 million grandchildren lived in a grandparent-maintained household and that by 1997 this number was: a. 2.1 million b. 2.5 million c. 2.9 million d. 3.9 million Answer: d Page: 444 Factual Moderate 17.62. In 1997, about what percent of U. S. children under the age of 18 lived with grandparents in a grandparentmaintained home? a. about 28% b. about 16% c. about 12% d. about 6% Answer: d Page: 444 Factual Moderate 17.63. If you conducted a survey of 1,000 families with children under age 18 living at home, about how many of these would you expect to be headed by a grandparent? a. about 400 b. about 200 c. about 120 d. about 60 Answer: d Page: 444 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In 1997, the number of children living in grandparent-maintained households was 3.9 million, which included 5.5% of all U.S. children under the age of 18; 5.5% of 1000 is 55 (or about 60). 17.64. The text cites two reasons why the percent of grandparent-maintained families are becoming more predominant. These factors are: a. economic conditions are worsening and grandparents are living longer b. economic conditions are getting better and grandparents are living longer c. more children are being born to younger and younger parents and grandparents are living longer d. more children are being born to younger and younger parents and grandparents are more likely to be divorced Answer: a Page: 444 Factual Moderate 17.65. Among older married couples, if one partner becomes seriously ill, that person’s most likely caregiver is: a. a spouse b. a sibling Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. a grandchild d. a son Answer: a Page: 445 Factual Easy 17.66. For men who are age 65-74, the most common marital status is __________; for women in the age range the most common marital status is ___________. a. widowed; widowed b. married; widowed c. widowed; married d. married; married Answer: d Page: 446 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-3 shows the marital status of the U.S. population age 65 and over, by age and gender. According to this figure, 78.4% of men and 56.9% of women ages 65-74 are married. 17.67. For men who are age 75-84, the most common marital status is __________; for women in the age range the most common marital status is ___________. a. widowed; widowed b. married; widowed c. widowed; married d. married; married Answer: b Page: 446 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-3 shows the marital status of the U.S. population age 65 and over, by age and gender. According to this figure, 74.1% of men ages 75-84 are married and 52.0% of women ages 75-84 are widowed. 17.68. For men who are age 85 and over, the most common marital status is __________; for women in the age range the most common marital status is ___________. a. widowed; widowed b. married; widowed c. widowed; married d. married; married Answer: b Page: 446 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-3 shows the marital status of the U.S. population age 65 and over, by age and gender. According to this figure, 60.4% of men 85 and older are married and 76.2% of women 85 and older are widowed. 17.69. In 2007 in the United States, there were ___ times more widows than widowers. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

Answer: b Page: 446 Factual Difficult 17.70. If you conducted a random survey of older people who were living alone after a spouse had died, and of the people you surveyed, 100 were men, you should expect that your survey group included about _____ women. a. 80 b. 120 c. 300 d. 600 Answer: c Page: 446 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: As of 2007, in the United States the total number of older adult women who were widows was more than 3 times the number of older adult men who were widowers. 17.71. According to the text, of U. S. women over the age of 85, about ____ are widows. a. 40% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% Answer: c Page: 446 Factual Moderate 17.72. If you conducted a survey of 1,000 women over the age of 85 and asked them if they were widows, you should expect that about how many of them would answer “yes.” a. 500 b. 625 c. 750 d. 880 Answer: c Page: 446 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 17-3 shows the marital status of the U.S. population age 65 and over, by age and gender. According to this figure, 76.2% of women 85 and older are widowed. 17.73. On the average, older widows tend to survive about _______ longer than older widowers following the spouse's death. a. 15% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% Answer: c Page: 446 Factual Moderate

17.74. Which of the following is NOT a reason why older women are more likely to be widows than older men are to be widowers? a. Women live longer than men. b. Men are more likely to marry younger women than women are likely to marry younger men. c. Women have higher incomes in older adulthood so they don’t have to remarry for financial reasons. d. Women live longer after being widowed than men do. Answer: c Page: 447, 441 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: In fact, over the lifespan, women as a group overall work for lower wages than do men. 17.75. If all of the following men were living in the U. S. in 2007 and were over the age of 65, who would be LEAST likely to be living with his spouse: a. Greg, who is White b. Rodney, who is Black c. Mark, who is Asian d. Fred, who is Hispanic Answer: b Page: 447 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-4 shows the living arrangements of the U.S. population age 65 and over. This figure indicates that 57.4% of Black men over the age of 65 live with a spouse, a lower percentage than for White, Asian, or Hispanic men. 17.76. If all of the following women were living in the U S. in 2007 and were over the age of 65, who would be LEAST likely to be living with her spouse? a. Wanda, who is white b. Renee, who is black c. Melinda, who is Asian d. Fauna, who is Hispanic Answer: b Page: 447 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-4 shows the living arrangements of the U.S. population age 65 and over. This figure indicates that 25.2% of black women over the age of 65 live with a spouse, a lower percentage than for white, Asian, or Hispanic women. 17.77. If all of the following men were living in the U. S. in 2007 and were over the age of 65, who would be LEAST likely to be living alone? a. Greg, who is white b. Rodney, who is black c. Mark, who is Asian d. Fred, who is Hispanic Answer: c Page: 447 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-4 shows the living arrangements of the U.S. population age 65 and over. This figure indicates that 7.7% of Asian men over the age of 65 live alone, a lower percentage than for white, black, or Hispanic men. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

17.78. If all of the following women were living in the U.S. in 2007 and were over the age of 65, who would be LEAST likely to be living alone? a. Wanda, who is white b. Renee, who is black c. Melinda, who is Asian d. Fauna, who is Hispanic Answer: c Page: 447 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 17-4 shows the living arrangements of the U.S. population age 65 and over. This figure indicates that 20% of Asian women over the age of 65 live alone, a lower percentage than for white, black, or Hispanic women. 17.79. According to the text, widows typically are ______ likely than widowers to experience depression in the time just before their spouse’s death, in part because ________ generally have better social support networks. a. more; widows b. more; widowers c. less; widows d. less; widowers Answer: c Page: 447 Factual Moderate 17.80. According to the text, which of the following would LEAST likely be called on to help manage long-term responsibilities associated with caring for an older adult who has lost a spouse? a. a child b. a brother c. a sister d. a friend Answer: d Page: 448 Conceptual Moderate: Rationale: The prevailing view is that friends will help in an immediate emergency, such as a sudden illness, but kin (i.e., relatives) should handle long-term responsibilities. 17.81. By 2050, the older adult population in the Unites States is expected to include 1 in every ____ Americans: a. 5 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 Answer: a Page: 448 Factual Moderate U. S. Social Policy and Older Adulthood

17.82. In the United States in 1900, about 1 in ___ people in the general population were older adults; in 2006, about 1 in ___ people belong to this group; and by 2050 this group is expected to comprise 1 of every ___ U. S. residents. a. 50; 20; 10 b. 25; 12; 6 c. 25; 8; 5 d. 25; 20; 25 Answer: c Page: 448 Factual Moderate 17.83. Of the older adult population living in the Unites States in 2006, about ____ percent were white; in 2050, the percentage of white older adults is expected to be about ____. a. 92%; 50% b. 81%; 61% c. 55%; 65% d. 55%; 45% Answer: b Page: 448 Factual Moderate 17.84. As a proportion of the total population of the United States, by 2050 we should expect that there will be _____ older adults and of the older adults, ______ will be white. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: b Page: 448 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: There were 37 million older adults in 2006, which is about 1 in every 8 people. By 2050, the number of older adults in the population is expected to grow to over 80 million people and to represent 1 in every 5 people. By 2050, the percentage of white older adults is expected to decline from its 2006 level of 81% to 61%. 17.85. Social Security is essentially ________ program. a. an insurance b. a pension c. a tax on the elderly d. a health care Answer: b Page: 448-449 Conceptual Moderate: Rationale: Social Security is a pension program because it forces people to save for retirement by taxing wages, and then paying these taxes back to older adults upon reaching a certain minimum age. 17.86. If you wish to draw full benefits from Social Security beginning in 2012, how old must you be? a. 62 b. 63 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. 65 d. 66 Answer: d Page: 449 Factual Moderate 17.87. Health-care services are provided to older adults in the United States by a government program called: a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. Social Security d. Government Funded Health Assistance for Adults (GFHAA) Answer: a Page: 449 Factual Easy 17.88. Which of the following expenses does Medicare currently cover, in whole or in part? a. hospital visits, but not physician charges or medication costs b. physician charges and medication costs, but not hospital visits c. hospital visits and physician charges, but not medication costs d. hospital visits, physician charges, and medication costs Answer: d Page: 449 Factual Moderate 17.89. Medicare–Part D is a government program that helps older adults pay for: a. physician visits to preventative health care check-ups b. nursing home care c. hospitalization costs d. prescription medicines Answer: d Page: 449-450 Factual Moderate 17.90. According to the text, what is the biggest concern that most people have regarding Medicare? a. It does not pay for wellness-related doctor visits. b. It requires treatment in hospitals, rather than doctor’s offices and clinics. c. It may not have enough money to pay expenses. d. It does not pay for prescription drugs, which many older adults require. Answer: c Page: 450 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Medicare does pay for doctor visits, regardless of the purpose, and for treatment in hospitals and clinics, and for part of the cost of prescription drugs. However, the major concern is that these costs are growing faster than Medicare may be able to sustain. 17.91. According to the text, what is the primary reason that Medicare is severely challenged financially? Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. The costs per person for health care are increasing dramatically. b. The average life expectancy is increasing in the United States. c. The sheer number of older adults is increasing dramatically. d. There are many more people living past the age of 90. Answer: c Page: 450 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Although health-care costs per person are increasing, the average life expectancy is increasing, and there are more people living past the age of 90, and these factors do contribute to the costs paid by Medicare, the PRIMARY reason for the financial challenge that Medicare is facing is that the sheer number of older adults covered by this plan is increasing so dramatically. 17.92. During which period of the lifespan are health care costs typically the highest? a. between ages 55 and 64 b. between the ages of 85 and 90 c. in the first 2 years of life d. in the last 2 years of life, at whatever age death occurs Answer: d Page: 450 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 17-7 clearly shows that health-care expenditures are much higher in the period just before death, at whatever age death occurs. The text additionally notes that people in the oldest age groups often are healthier than those in younger-older adulthood, and that when they die they often do so quickly and with little medical expense. 17.93. According to statistics reported in the text, the fastest-growing segment of the U.S. population is: a. adults age 55-64 b. adults age 65-74 c. adults age 75-84 d. adults age 85 and over Answer: d Page: 450 Factual Moderate 17.94. According to the text, about what percent of the U. S. population age 65 and over resides in nursing homes? a. about 3.5% b. about 6% c. about 9.9 % d. about 14% Answer: a Page: 451 Factual Moderate 17.95. In comparison to the percentage of people age 85 and over who were cared for in nursing homes in 1985, the percentage in 2004 was: a. about the same b. slightly higher c. much higher Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. much lower Answer: d Page: 451 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 17-8 shows the percentage of people in the U.S. ages 65 and older living in nursing homes in the years 1985 and 2004. According to this figure, a higher percentage of older adults lived in nursing homes in 1985 as compared to in 2004. 17.96. Mr. Jones has suffered a severe stroke that has left him unable to walk, speak, or dress and feed himself. He needs nursing care for several hours a day, but his wife has died and his adult son lives 1,000 miles away. Which of the following options would most likely be the type of living arrangement that would best serve Mr. Jones’s needs? a. an adult day-care facility b. an assisted living facility c. a nursing home d. an Elderhostel Answer: c Page: 450-451 Applied Moderate Rationale: Needs that can be served through a nursing home are most acute for individuals who lack the social support of family or friends, who display unusual behavior patterns, or who have trouble with self-care. Nursing homes provide an important and needed alternative for caring for those with substantial needs, such as Mr. Jones who needs nursing care for several hours each day. 17.97. Mrs. Brown, a widow, has suffered a stroke which has left her unable to walk, although she can feed herself and still likes to read and play cards. Her adult daughter lives in the same town and would like to care for Mrs. Brown, but she can’t afford to quit her job in order to do so. Which of the following options would likely provide the best alternative to the care that Mrs. Brown needs and that her daughter is willing to provide: a. an Elderhostel b. a nursing home c. an adult daycare facility d. an assisted-living facility Answer: c Page: 451 Applied Difficult Rationale: Day-care centers provide an option for older adults who require some assistance in living. The text provides an example of a 77-year-old stroke victim who lived with her daughter and son-in-law, but she spent her days in a day-care center where she received therapy, kept busy, and made new friends. Her morale and temperament improved dramatically after only a few weeks of attendance, which made her family’s burden of care much lighter. 17.98. The text mentions a facility called the Life Center operated by the Quakers in Philadelphia. The main way in which this center is different from most other assisted living facilities or retirement communities is that it: a. is federally funded under the National Endowment for the Arts b. includes mandatory religious services for all residents, who come from many different religious traditions c. it has seniors living in the same complex as people of other ages, including students d. it requires people who live there to be widows or widowers Answer: c Page: 451 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text describes the Life Center operated by the Quakers in Philadelphia in which older people live in a large converted house with students and people in other age groups. Costs, housework, and meals are shared, and the resulting sense of community keeps older adults in the mainstream of life rather than segregated into age-defined groups. 17.99. According to the text, the large majority of older adults prefer which of the following living arrangements? a. to stay in their own homes b. to move to assisted-living facilities c. to live with a daughter d. to live with a son Answer: a Page: 451 Factual Moderate 17.100. If you were to choose one word to describe adults in the period defined by the text as “older adulthood,” the best choice would be: a. frail b. depressed c. diverse d. backward-focused Answer: c Page: 452 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The chapter has frequently made the point that adulthood is a long period, spanning 40 or more years, and that younger and healthy adults in this period are very different from older or sicker older adults. It also has dispelled the negative ageist stereotypes that portray older adults as frail, unhealthy, depressed, or interested only in the past. Thus, “diverse” is the best word to describe adults in this period of the lifespan. 17.101. Who are the Gray Panthers? a. an activist group that promotes issues important to older adults b. a political action committee that raises money to support older candidates for public office c. a group of health-care workers who lobby for health care reform for the elderly d. retired workers who volunteer to help new businesses and volunteer agencies improve their operations Answer: a Page: 453 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The Gray Panthers is a coalition of older and younger people that work to advance the issues that are especially important to older adults. This group began organizing to combat the stereotypes of rocking-chair seniors and raise awareness of this group’s needs, and now they often speak out on behalf of other social groups as well. 17.102. The text includes a list of 3 goals for social programs that address the needs of older adults. Which of the following is NOT one of these three goals? a. to integrate older adults into society b. to improve the effectiveness and limit costs of elder-care programs c. to expand the lifespan for most older adults, helping more to live to age 90 and beyond d. to devise programs to help caregivers avoid burnout Answer: c Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 453 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Table 17-4 lists the goals for social programs that address the needs of older adults. The goals that are listed are to do as much as possible to keep older adults integrated in society while at the same time trying to improve the quality of their lives and the care they receive, to recognize the burdens and stresses experienced by caregivers and devise programs to help avoid caregiver burnout, and to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of elder-care programs, thereby limiting costs. Current Issues: Psychological Well-Being in Later Adulthood 17.103. According to Carol Ryff, psychological well-being is best defined by all of the following EXCEPT: a. positive qualities b. positive attitudes c. absence of illness or stress d. positive coping methods Answer: c Page: 438 Factual Moderate 17.104. According to the results of the MIDUS study reported in the text, the psychological well-being of which of the following groups was generally found to be LOWEST? a. white Americans b. black Americans c. Hispanic Americans d. Black and Hispanic Americans were equally low, and were lower than white Americans on reported well-being Answer: a Page: 438 Factual Moderate 17.105. Generalizing from results of the MIDUS study reported in the text, you would expect which of the following people to report the highest level of personal growth and purpose? a. Aaron, who is a younger, white adult b. Bob, who is a younger, black adult c. Rich, who is an older, white adult d. Terry, who is an older, black adult Answer: b Page: 438 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The results of the MIDUS study found that white Americans scored lowest on ratings of psychological well-being, and that young adults scored higher on measures of personal growth and purpose than did older adults. 17.106. Generalizing from results of the MIDUS study, you would expect which of the following people to report the highest level of environmental mastery? a. Aaron, who is a younger, white adult b. Bob, who is a younger, black adult c. Rich, who is an older, white adult d. Terry, who is an older, black adult Answer: d Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 438 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The results of the MIDUS study found that White Americans scored lowest on ratings of well-being, and that older adults scored higher on measures of environmental mastery than did older adults. Changing Perspectives: Assisted Living – The In-Between Choice for Frail, Older Adults 17.107. John is recently widowed and decides to sell his house and move to a condominium complex for seniors. John is looking forward to having his meals prepared and served in a community dining room, and also to having staff available to help him with chores such as shopping, housekeeping, and laundry. The type of facility that John is moving into would best be considered a(n): a. nursing home b. lifestyle condo c. assisted-living facility d. senior daycare center Answer: c Page: 452 Applied Easy Rationale: ALFs (assisted-living facilities) typically provide small individual apartments or condominiums, meals in a common dining room, some management of medications as needed, housekeeping and laundry services, and transportation to doctors’ visits or for shopping. 17.108. Typically, assisted-living facilities provide ______ care than a nursing home and ______ care than living in one’s own home. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: c Page: 452 Factual Easy 17.109. Mabel is thinking about selling her home and moving to an assisted-living facility. She completes a screening interview, in which a nurse evaluates how much help she needs in bathing, dressing, toileting, feeding, grooming, and physical mobility. The behaviors the nurse evaluated are usually called: a. activities of daily living b. instrumental activities of daily living c. core abilities for older adults (CAOA) d. assisted-living quotient (AQ) Answer: a Page: 452 Applied Moderate Rationale: To help determine the level of support required, health-care professionals typically assess how well a person can manage two types of daily activities. One type is activities of daily living, which includes six basic selfmaintenance capabilities such as bathing, dressing, toileting, feeding, grooming, and physical mobility. 17.110. Carl is thinking about selling his home and moving to an assisted-living facility. He completes a screening interview, in which a nurse evaluates how much help he needs in shopping, housekeeping, laundering his clothes, preparing his meals, managing his medications and finances, and transportation. The behaviors the nurse evaluated are usually called: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. activities of daily living b. instrumental activities of daily living c. noncore abilities for older adults (NCAOA) d. assisted-living quotient (AQ) Answer: b Page: 452 Applied Moderate Rationale: To help determine the level of support required, health-care professionals typically assess how well a person can manage two types of daily activities. One type is instrumental activities of daily living, which includes areas of functioning such as telephoning, shopping, housekeeping, laundering, food preparation, transportation, and managing one’s own medications and finances. 17.111. In comparison to older adults who reside in nursing homes, older adults who live in assisted-living facilities for high-income people fair _______, and those who live in assisted-living facilities for low-income people fair ________. a. better; better b. better; worse c. better; about the same d. about the same; worse Answer: a Page: 452 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that research on the outcomes associated with ALFs usually reveals favorable results, and these positive outcomes are found in both expensive ALFs and those provided for low-income adults. True-False questions: Personality and Aging 17.112. Erik Erikson’s view of the stage of life representing older adulthood is one focused on the issues of identity versus role confusion. Answer: False Page: 434-435 Rationale: Erikson saw the fundamental developmental challenge for older adults to be one of integrity versus despair. 17.113. If a person’s focus is on how well her life has been lived and whether or not she has made a positive contribution to her family and her social groups, she is probably an older adult focused on the developmental conflict called integrity versus despair. Answer: True Page: 434-435 17.114. According to the ideas presented by Jean Piaget, older adulthood, like childhood, involves learning to accommodate, rather than assimilate, life experiences into one’s sense of self-identity. Answer: False Page: 435 Rationale: Piaget believed that assimilation and accommodation are both important, and healthy development involves finding a balance, or equilibration, between these two processes.

17.115. Accommodation becomes a more difficult task when an older person becomes ill or frail, and unable to take care of daily needs. Answer: True Page: 435 17.116. Research suggests that an older adult’s emotional and social world is typically one of increasing narrowness and emptiness. Answer: False Page: 436 Rationale: During the majority of older adulthood, older people tend to experience more satisfaction with their interpersonal relationships. 17.117. Compared to younger adults, older adults typically remember positive information better than negative information. Answer: True Page: 436 17.118. Most older adults experience this period as one of increasing complexity, but also one in which emotional adjustment, happiness, and satisfaction are high. Answer: True Page: 436 17.119. Erikson’s theory of a development is better described as a consistency theory than as a stage theory. Answer: False Page: 436 Rationale: Erikson’s theory specified that people go through 8 distinct stages, each different from the others and each have fairly well-defined points of transition. As such, Erikson’s view is a stage perspective. Consistency theories emphasize instead a more gradual transition through life, without noticeable changes from one period of the lifespan to the next. 17.120. Robert Atchley believed that people’s self-concept usually does not change throughout the lifespan, and his view fits better with consistency theories than with stage theories. Answer: True Page: 437. 17.121. According to research conducted by Carol Ryff, maintaining a sense of autonomy and purpose in life are both linked to positive well-being in adulthood. Answer: True Page: 437-438 17.122. Both men and women become more extroverted as they age. Answer: False Page: 438 Rationale: The text reports that many people, and especially men, become more introverted as they age. Introversion is the opposite of extroversion. 17.123. Coping styles may become more androgynous in older adulthood, although women tend to cope less effectively during this period of the lifespan than do men. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: True Page: 439 17.124. In surveys of older Americans, researchers should expect that slightly less than half would report that their health and well-being were good-to-excellent. Answer: False Page: 429 Rationale: In a national survey of older Americans in 2008, about three-quarters of adults age 65 and older rated their health and well-being as good to excellent. 17.125. A good example of social comparison would be if a woman who had a stroke said, “I am worse off than I have ever been in my life.” Answer: False Page: 439 Rationale: Social comparison involves comparing oneself to another. A good example would be in the women described in this question would have said, “I am disabled, but not nearly so much as my good friend, Esther, who can neither see nor hear.” Retirement: A Major Change in Status 17.126. Retirement at the traditional age of 62 or 65 seems to have peaked in the 1980s or early 1990s, and more people today are choosing to retire either earlier or later. Answer: True Page: 441 17.127. People who loved their job and those who have defined their self-concept in terms of being a worker typically have the easiest time retiring. Answer: False Page: 441 Rationale: These people typically have the hardest time retiring. 17.128. In terms of net worth, retired people are less wealthy than are younger adults who are still working. Answer: False Page: 441 Rationale: Retired adults on average have a higher net worth, which is the value of the assets they own. They do, however, have lower annual incomes than younger, working people and their standard of living typically declines after retirement. 17.129. In older adulthood, women are more likely to live below the poverty line than men, and African American and Hispanic American women are especially likely to be impoverished. Answer: True Page: 441 17.130. In comparison to 1950, there is a higher proportion of U. S. men over the age of 65 still working in the labor force. Answer: False Page: 442

Rationale: In 1950, about 50% of U. S. men over age 65 were in the labor force; in 2006 this percentage was 34% for men. 17.131. In comparison to adults born before 1954, adults born after this date will need to work longer in order to qualify for full Social Security benefits. Answer: True Page: 443 Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 17.132. Although there are exceptions, most married couples experience a decrease in marital satisfaction and an increase in their level of stress when their last child leaves home. Answer: False Page: 444 Rationale: Most empty next couples report decreased stress and increased feelings of satisfaction and harmony after their children leave home. 17.133. Today in the United States, about 25% of children are being raised in homes in which their grandparents are the primary providers for the family. Answer: False Page: 444 Rationale: In 1997, 5.5% of children in the U. S. lived in grandparent-maintained homes. In 2006, about 6 million children were living in households in which one or more grandparents resided, compared to 3.9 million children that were in grandparent-maintained homes in 1997. Although the text does not state explicitly what the percentage of children are living today in grandparent-maintained homes, it would be safe to conclude that the percentage is significantly less than 25%. 17.134. There are more than five times more elderly widowers in the United States than widows. Answer: False Page: 446 Rationale: There are about 3 times more older adult widows than widowers in the U. S. today. 17.135. In the 85-year-old-and-over age group, women are more likely to be widows than be married, and men are more likely to be married than be widowers. Answer: True Page: 446 17.136. In older adulthood, women are more likely than men to remarry. Answer: False Page: 446 Rationale: Women are much less likely to remarry in older adulthood. 17.137. Widowers have more trouble coping emotionally than do widows, who have a broader support network. Answer: True Page: 447 U. S. Social Policy and Older Adulthood

17.138. In the U. S. today, older adults make up about 1 in every 8 people, and this proportion is expected to grow dramatically in the next few decades. Answer: True Page: 448 17.139. Among older adults, in the next few decades the proportion of Black Americans is expected to decline and the proportion of Hispanic Americans is expected to increase, relative to the proportion of White older adults. Answer: False Page: 448-449 Rationale: The proportion of all minority groups is expected to become larger, compared to the proportion of White Americans between today and 2050, as Figure 17-6 shows. 17.140. In comparison to the “shape” of the U. S. population pyramid today, in 2025 this shape will become more “rectangular.” Answer: True Page: 449 17.141. Medicare is paid for by taxes collected by the federal government from incomes of working Americans. Answer: True Page: 449 17.142. Medicare – Part D is a government program that helps older adults in the U. S. pay for prescription drugs. Answer: True Page: 450 17.143. The major reason that Medicare is expected to become increasingly strained is that more people are living into the “old-old” age group and the health-care needs of this group are much higher than any other group of older adults. Answer: False Page: 450 Rationale: According to the text, the major reason that Medicare is expected to become increasingly strained is that there are so many more adults moving into the “over 65 age group,” due to the aging of the large baby boomer generation. Because the end of life is the most expensive part of the lifespan from a health-care perspective regardless of how old the person is when he or she dies, this increase in the total number of people in this age category will likely provide a challenge for Medicare. 17.144. Negative stereotypes about nursing homes probably contribute to the sense of dread that most older adults feel about this living-care option. Answer: True Page: 450 17.145. Since 1985, the proportion of older adults living in nursing homes has been increasing. Answer: False Page: 451 Rationale: Figure 17-8 shows that a significantly smaller percentage of the older adult population lived in nursing homes in 2004 than in 1985. This decline is especially apparent in the age 85-and-older group, with the percentage declining from 22.0% to 13.9% during this span of time.

17.146. Helping older adults remain in their own homes as long as possible is a policy goal in the United States, but not in most other countries. Answer: False Page: 451 Rationale: The text notes that having older adults remain in their homes is a goal of policy makers in the U. S. and also in Great Britain, Sweden, Denmark, the Netherlands, Australia, and in many other countries of the world. 17.147. Assisted-living facilities are becoming an increasingly popular option for older adults who do not remain in their own homes. Answer: True Page: 452-453 17.148. While the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP) aims to protect the interests of older adults, the organization known as the Gray Panthers aims to limit the success of organizations like AARP. Answer: False Page: 453 Rationale: Both AARP and the Gray Panthers advocate for better treatment for older adults.

Short Answer questions: Personality and Aging 17.149. Define what Erik Erikson meant by the term “integrity,” as he used it to describe the final developmental challenge in the lifespan. Page: 434-435 17.150. Give an example for how a wife might assimilate her husband’s retirement into her own life. Give an example of how she might accommodate this situation. Page: 435 17.151. Describe two general shifts that usually take place in older adulthood regarding friendships by describing how the friends and friendship patterns change as adults grow older. Page: 436 17.152. Describe the research summarized in the text that supports the “positivity effect.” Page: 436 17.153. How does a “stage” theory of adult development differ from a “continuity” theory? Page: 436-437 17.154. Using Carol Ryff’s theory as a guide, identify and briefly describe 4 factors that contribute an older adult’s sense of psychological well-being. Page: 437 17.155. Who generally copes better in older adulthood, men or women? Provide an explanation for why this result is generally observed. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 439 17.156. Describe how an older adult might use social comparison as a mean of adjusting to diminished capabilities, such as limitations that might accompany a stroke. Page: 439 Retirement: A Major Change in Status 17.157. Describe 2 ways in which retirement patterns today are different from those experienced by the typical worker 50 years ago. Page: 441 17.158. Identify 3 factors that help explain why some workers make an easy and positive adjustment to retirement and others do not. Page: 441-442 17.159. In comparison to adults who remain in the work force, how do the net worth and income level of retired individuals compare? Page: 441 17.160. How important are Social Security benefits to older, retired workers in the U.S. today? Cite statistics to support your answer. Page: 441 17.161. Which segments of the older adult population are most likely to live below the poverty line? Do race and gender influence this pattern? Page: 441 17.162. In comparison to the proportion of people still working at age 65 in 1950, how have retirement patterns in the U. S. changed in the years since then? Page: 442 17.163. Describe how financial circumstances and employment options are both influencing the retirement patterns of older adults in the United States today. Page: 443 Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 17.164. How well do most couples adjust to the “empty nest”? Explain how this event in the life cycle of the family affects marital satisfaction and stress. Page: 444 17.165. Describe 2 factors that are responsible for the finding that more children are being cared for in grandparentmaintained homes in the Unites States today than in previous decades. Page: 444 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

17.166. Identify and briefly describe two reasons why older women are more likely to be widows than older men are likely to be widowers. Page: 446-447 17.167. Describe 2 reasons why women typically have an easier time adjusting to widowhood than do men. Page: 447 17.168. For what types of help do older adults more typically depend on friends and for what types of help do they usually depend on family members for assistance? Page: 447 U. S. Social Policy and Older Adulthood 17.169. How has the U. S. population changed since 1900 with respect to the proportion of older adults? Page: 448-449 17.170. How is Social Security funded, and what is its primary goal? Page: 448-449 17.171. What is Medicare and what is its primary goal? Page: 449-450 17.172. Are Social Security and Medicare programs of great interest, or of limited interest, to older adults in the United States? Cite statistics to support your conclusion. Page: 449-450 17.173. What is the primary reason that Medicare funding is under considerable strain in the United States today? Page: 450 17.174. Describe two reasons why older adults typically dread the possibility of spending their final years in a nursing home. Page: 450-451 17.175. Is there a larger, or a smaller, proportion of older adults living in nursing homes today, compared to 20 years ago? Explain what factors account for this trend in living arrangements for the elderly. Page: 451 17.176. Describe how the services provided in a nursing home would typically differ from those provided in an assisted-living facility. Page: 451-452 17.177. Identify 3 goals for the care of elderly adults, as discussed in the text. Page: 452-453 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

17.178. Who are the Gray Panthers and what is their purpose? Page: 453 17.179. What is the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP) and what is its purpose? Page: 453

Essay questions: Personality and Aging 17.180. What did Erik Erikson mean when he identified the critical conflict of older adulthood as one of integrity versus despair? Page: 434-435 17.181. How do older adults use the processes of assimilation and accommodation to adjust to their changing circumstances and capabilities? Provide an example of each type of process that demonstrates a positive adaptation to an age-related limitation, such as losing the ability to drive a car. Page: 435 17.182. Explain how older adults adjust as they maintain a positive sense of their own identity and emotionality. Page: 435-436 17.183. Define the “positivity effect” and describe how this effect helps explain how older adults are able to cope effectively with their declining health and independence. Page: 436 17.184. List and briefly describe the six components of adult well-being identified by Carol Ryff and colleagues. What are the differences between people who score high versus low on each component? Page: 437 17.185. The text concludes that both continuity and change characterize adjustment in older adulthood. Give an example of how this period is characterized by change, and how it also is a time of continuity. Page: 437-438 17.186. Describe 3 ways in which older adults cope and adapt in order to maintain, or even increase, their life satisfaction in this stage of life. In your answer, note how the process of social comparison can assist in this process. Page: 440 Retirement: A Major Change in Status 17.187. What changes – good and bad – does retirement typically bring? Page: 441 17.188. Is it true that older adults have less money after retirement than before retirement? In your answer, discuss how both net worth and income contribute to an answer to this question. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 441 17.189. The text notes that a person’s attitude toward work, economic status, and health all influence adjustment to retirement. For each of these, identify the key factors that influence the likelihood of a person’s making a good, versus a bad, retirement adjustment. Page: 441-442 17.190. The text notes that women and members of some minority groups are more likely to experience economic hardship following retirement. Describe 3 reasons that help explain this result. Page: 441-442 17.191. Are more, or fewer, people retiring at age 65 today, compared to previous decades? Describe 3 factors that help explain this trend. Page: 442-443 17.192. What is “retirement maturity,” how is it measured, and of what use is it? Page: 443 Family and Friends: Interpersonal Contexts 17.193. Describe why kinship patterns are described in the text as being more complex now than in former generations. What impact do the changes you identify have on the typical experience of becoming a grandparent? Page: 444 17.194. Why is it especially difficult to care for a spouse that has Alzheimer’s disease? Page: 446 17.195. Do widows or widowers typically have an easier time adjusting to the loss of their spouse? Identify 3 reasons why this is typically the case. Page: 446-447 17.196. Describe how race and gender affect the likelihood that a widow or widower will remarry. Page: 446-447 17.197. What role do friendships play in the lives of older adults? How do our friendships change as we age? Page: 448 U. S. Social Policy and Older Adulthood 17.198. Discuss how the population of older adults is expected to change in the coming decades. How is the size of this group expected to change with respect to the size of the overall population in the United States, and how is the racial/ethnic composition of this group expected to change? Page: 448-449

17.199. What are the goals of the Social Security and the Medicare programs? What specific challenges do both of these programs face in the decades to come? Page: 448-450 17.200. What is a baby boomer? What impact will baby boomers have on the demographic profile of the working and retired population in the United States as they move into older adulthood? How will baby boomers affect Social Security and Medicare funds? Page: 448-450 17.201. Explain what is incorrect about the following statement: “The major problem with Medicare today is that adults are living longer.” In your answer, provide a more correct analysis of the problem that lies at the core of funding challenge regarding Medicare. Page: 450 17.202. Describe three different lifestyle options usually available to families when older adults need assistance in living. What are the advantages and disadvantaged typically associated with each option? Page: 450-452 17.203. List and describe 5 services that most communities provide to citizens who are elderly but wish to stay in their own homes. Which of these do you think is the most critically important service, and why do you think this is the case? Page: 452 17.204. Why have groups such as the Gray Panthers and the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP) formed? In today’s world, do you think these groups continue to have a reason to exist? Is so, what are those reasons; if not, why not? Page: 453

Name_______________________________ Chapter 18 - Death and Dying - Quick Quiz 1 Factual questions: 1. According to terror management theory, thinking about one’s own death leads to which of the following? a. denial b. despair c. confusion d. a stronger self-concept 2. According to research cited in the text, when caregivers were asked to comment about the relief they felt following their loved one’s death, about ____ reported that death was a relief to them and about ____ reported that they felt it provided a welcome relief to the person who died. a. 5%; 50% b. 35%; 55% c. 50%; 50% d. 72%; 90% 3. In 1900, the death rate of U.S. children under the age of 5 was ____; in 2005 it was ____. a. 8%; 4% b.18%; 8% c. 50%; 5% d. 30%; 1% Conceptual questions: 4. The text notes that today in the United States, we live in an era of “invisible death.” By this, the text means that: a. the rituals surrounding death are very clear and well understood by members of our culture b. we often cope with death by denying its existence in our lives c. most people die while they are unconscious, thus the last moments of life are peaceful d. the terror surrounding death is paralyzing and therefore we seldom see death approaching us 5. According to the work of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, which of the following statements best reflects the anger stage of dying? a. "I'm a goner." b. "The doctor has given me the wrong diagnosis." c. "Why me?" d. "How can I get out of this?" 6. Between 2003 and 2007, the number of hospice patients served in the United States: a. decreased very slightly b. remained about the same c. increased very slightly d. increased by about 50% 7. The text points out an inconsistency between hospice care and hospital care. Which of the following best captures the sense of that inconsistency? a. Hospitals focus on keeping patients alive, whereas hospice is focused on helping a person die. b. In a hospital, decisions about extending life are made by the patient but in hospice care trained professionals make these decisions for the patient. c. Most real care in hospitals is done by nurses but in hospice care the real care is done by physicians. d. Most hospital care is covered by insurance but hospice care is hardly ever covered by insurance. Applied questions: Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

8. Jodi is dying from a rare blood disorder, but insists that her doctor has made a mistake in the diagnosis. Jodi’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression 9. A small town has experienced an unusually high suicide rate in recent years. Local officials try to prevent future suicides by concentrating their efforts on those most likely to commit suicide. These people would be: a. women under age 21 b. women between ages 21 and 35 c. men under age 21 d. men over age 75 10. George is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease, so he and his wife consult an attorney to draw up and sign documents giving George’s wife the legal authority to make decisions about George’s care. Such a document is called: a. living will b. a probated will c. a medical power of attorney d. a right to die document

Name_______________________________ Chapter 18 - Death and Dying - Quick Quiz 2 Factual questions: 1. According to the theory set forth by Kübler-Ross, the stage of adjustment in which the terminal patient has recognized that death will come is called: a. acceptance b. depression c. anticipatory grief d. bereavement overload 2. The goal of hospice is to: a. keep down the cost of health care b. prevent contamination from contagious diseases c. help terminally ill patients live their final days as fully and independently as possible d. allow the terminally ill person a spiritual retreat before death 3. A legal document that informs both family and health-care workers of the signer's wish to avoid the use of "heroic measures" to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness is called a(n): a. donor's will b. medical power of attorney c. intestate will d. living will Conceptual questions: 4. When Elisabeth Kübler-Ross began her research on death and dying in the 1960s, she commonly observed all of the following EXCEPT: a. patients were sometimes not told they had a terminal diagnosis b. doctors and nurses seemed to avoid patients who were dying c. doctors and nurses provided better and more attentive care, but only after a terminal diagnosis was certain d. patients were discouraged from talking about their own deaths 5. Generalizing from the text, terror management theory seems to provide the best predictions for which of the following groups of people? a. older people from collectivist cultures b. older people from individualist cultures c. younger people from collectivist cultures d. younger people from individualist cultures 6. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be at the highest risk of suicide? a. a married woman b. a married man c. a man who has just become a widower d. a woman who has just become a widow 7. Of the children who die before they reach age 18, the largest percentage falls into which of the following age group? a. age 1 to age 4 b. age 5 to age 9 c. age 10 to age 14 d. age 15 to age 19

Applied questions: 8. Brittany, age 23, has just been told by her doctor that she has only a few months to live due to a heart ailment. Her reaction is to say that the diagnosis must be wrong and to seek out opinions from other doctors. Brittany’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. depression b. anger c. denial d. acceptance 9. Terry, a 73-year-old widower, was in the hospital for six months with cancer. Finally, the painful treatments got to be too much for him and he just gave up and let himself die. This passive form of suicide is best considered to be an example of: a. suicide-by-proxy b. anticipatory suicide c. submissive death d. unilateral death 10. MacDonald’s has established a network of “Ronald McDonald” houses near major hospitals so that families of very ill children will have a place to stay while visiting their ill child. This charity is best considered to be an example of: a. hospice care b. palliative care c. bereavement assistance d. grief work

Quick Quiz Answers Quick Quiz 18.1 1. d, p. 460 2. d, p. 462 3. d, p. 472 4. b, p. 458 5. c, p. 461 6. d, p. 464 7. a, p. 465 8. b, p. 461 9. d, p. 463 10. c, p. 467

Quick Quiz 18.2 1. a, p. 461 2. c, pp. 464-465 3. d, p. 467 4. c, p. 458 5. d, p. 460 6. c, p. 463 7. d, p. 472 8. c, p. 461 9. c, p. 463 10. b, p. 468

Chapter 18 Death and Dying Multiple Choice questions: Thoughts and Fears of Death 18.01. In comparison to how developmental psychologists engaged with the study of death a few decades ago, today there is _____ interest in studying death and psychologists know _____ about how people approach and experience their own death, as well as the deaths of others. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: a Page: 457 Conceptual Easy Rationale: In recent decades, death has been studied thoroughly. As compared to the past, we now have a better understanding of how people typically confront the prospect of death—their own as well as others’—and how we cope with the psychological loss that death implies. 18.02. Up until the middle of the 20th century, in the United States death usually occurred in: a. hospitals b. hospices c. the home d. nursing homes Answer: c Page: 457 Factual Easy 18.03. According to the text, in the United States today, death usually occurs in: a. hospices b. the home c. the workplace d. hospitals Answer: d Page: 457 Factual Easy 18.04. The text notes that today in the United States, we live in an era of “invisible death.” By this, the text means that: a. the rituals surrounding death are very clear and well understood by members of our culture b. we often cope with death by denying its existence in our lives c. most people die while they are unconscious, thus the last moments of life are peaceful d. the terror surrounding death is paralyzing and therefore we seldom see death approaching us Answer: b Page: 458 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: Some theorists have suggested that we currently live in an era of “invisible death,” where we cope with death through psychological denial. Although we know that everyone dies, we distance ourselves emotionally from the realization that death will eventually come to us. 18.05. Generalizing from the text’s discussion of how death is considered today in Western societies, which of the following terms best characterizes how people in these societies deal with death? a. acceptance b. anger c. worry d. denial Answer: d Page: 458 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Some theorists have suggested that in Western nations, we currently live in an era of “invisible death,” where we cope with death through psychological denial. Although we know that everyone dies, we distance ourselves emotionally from the realization that death will eventually come to us. 18.06. When Elisabeth Kübler-Ross began her research on death and dying in the 1960s, she commonly observed all of the following EXCEPT: a. patients were sometimes not told they had a terminal diagnosis b. doctors and nurses seemed to avoid patients who were dying c. doctors and nurses provided better and more attentive care, but only after a terminal diagnosis was certain d. patients were discouraged from talking about their own deaths Answer: c Page: 458 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Kübler-Ross noted a diagnosis of a terminal illness was made, nurses and doctors paid less attention to the patient, and they seemingly avoided all but the most necessary contact. They talked to the patient less, they provided less routine care, and they usually did not tell the patient that he or she was in a terminal state—even when the patient asked. Patients who were dying also were discouraged from discussing their feelings about dying. 18.07. In comparison to how dying patients were cared for four or five decades ago, today medical staff members are _____ likely to encourage dying patients to talk about their impending deaths and are _____ likely to be trained in caring for terminally patients. a. less; less b. less; more c. more; less d. more; more Answer: d Page: 458 Factual Moderate 18.08. According to research described in the text, _______ individuals and those with _______ religious beliefs are typically found to have the least anxiety about their own death. a. younger; strong b. younger; no c. older; strong d. older; no Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: c Page: 458 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Studies have found that older adults generally are somewhat less anxious about death than younger people are. Religious beliefs are also important in coping with death. Research has repeatedly shown that people with strong religious convictions and a deep belief in an afterlife experience less depression and anxiety about death. 18.09. Dr. Christiansen believes that thinking about death is very frightening to most people, and they cope by becoming more attentive to others around them, thereby enhancing their own self-esteem. Dr. Christiansen’s beliefs are most similar to those advanced by: a. Freud’s theory of psychosexual development b. Erikson’s conceptualization of the stage of generativity versus stagnation c. Erikson’s conceptualization the stage of integrity versus despair d. terror management theory Answer: d Page: 459-560 Applied Moderate Rationale: According to terror management theory—our biologically motivated desire for life is in direct contradiction with our knowledge that we will die at some point. This conflict gives rise to terror. If this terror is not addressed, it can be psychologically paralyzing and lead to despair and depression over the hopelessness of our situation. According to terror management theory, we cope with this terror by developing our self-esteem. We work on becoming competent, attached, and important to other people and on attending to the needs of others, as well as ourselves. 18.10. According to terror management theory, death is a cause for: a. anger b. despair c. inspiration d. denial Answer: c Page: 460 Factual Moderate 18.11. According to terror management theory, thinking about one’s own death leads to which of the following? a. denial b. despair c. confusion d. a stronger self-concept Answer: d Page: 460 Factual Moderate 18.12. Suppose you conduct a research study in China, which has a collectivist culture, and the Unites Stated. In your study, you encourage adults in both cultures to think about and write about their own deaths. Generalizing from similar research described in the text, you should expect that the U.S. participants in your study will experience a greater tendency to focus on _________ and that their self-esteem will ___________, relative to the Chinese participants. a. collectivism; increase Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. collectivism; decrease c. individualism; increase d. individualism; decrease Answer: c Page: 460 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text reports a study of Australians and Japanese participants, in which the Australians experienced an enhanced individualism and a greater focus on their own self-esteem when they were asked to consider their own mortality (Kashima, Halloran, & Yuki, 2004). 18.13. According to the text, people with high levels of self-esteem generally experience ____ death-related anxiety, and this result is _________ with predictions from terror management theory. a. more; consistent b. more; inconsistent c. less; consistent d. less; inconsistent Answer: c Page: 460 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text cites research that demonstrates that people with high levels of self-esteem generally experience less death-related anxiety. This is consistent with terror management theory, which suggests that we cope with the terror created by our awareness of our own mortality by developing our self-esteem. 18.14. Generalizing from the text, terror management theory seems to provide the best predictions for which of the following groups of people? a. older people from collectivist cultures b. older people from individualist cultures c. younger people from collectivist cultures d. younger people from individualist cultures Answer: d Page: 460 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Anxiety over death is particularly acute in individualist cultures where the focus is on personal accomplishments. When the cultural context is more collectivist and group welfare is emphasized over that of an individual, there is less anxiety about death. Additionally, because of their greater anxiety about death, terror management theories may better explain the relationship between self-esteem and anxiety for younger, compared to older, adults. Confronting One’s Own Death 18.15. If you asked a high school student, “If you knew you had 2 months to live, what would you most want to do?” the most typical response would be: a. spend more time with my family b. spend more time with my friends c. travel and do the things that I want to do but have not yet had the chance d. kill myself Answer: c Page: 461 Conceptual Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Moderate Rationale: The text describes a study in which young people and older adults were asked how they would spend the remaining 6 months of their life if they know that was all they had. The typical response was to describe activities such as traveling and trying to do the things they had not yet had the chance to do. 18.16. If you asked an older adult, “If you knew you had 2 months to live, what would you most want to do?” the most typical response would be: a. spend more time with my family and friends b. take time to do the things I’ve always wanted to do but have never had time for c. travel and read d. kill myself Answer: a Page: 461 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text describes a study in which young people and older adults were asked how they would spend the remaining 6 months of their life if they know that was all they had. Older adults typically talked about contemplation, meditation, and other inner-focused pursuits and about spending time with their families and those closest to them. 18.17. If you asked a young person and an older adult, “If you knew you had 2 months to live, what would you most want to do,” you would expect that the young person would say__________ and the older adult would say_______________: a. spend time with family and friends; travel and experience the world b. travel and experience the world; spend time with family and friends c. spend time with family and friends; spend time with family and friends d. travel and experience the world; travel and experience the world Answer: b Page: 461 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text describes a study in which young people and older adults were asked how they would spend the remaining 6 months of their life if they know that was all they had. The typical response from younger people was to describe activities, such as traveling and trying to do the things they had not yet had the chance to do. Older adults typically talked about contemplation, meditation, and other inner-focused pursuits and about spending time with their families and those closest to them. 18.18. Which of the following lists the five stages of death and dying described by Kübler-Ross in the correct order? a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance b. depression, denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance c. anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance d. anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance Answer: a Page: 461 Factual Moderate 18.19. Which of the following people was the researcher who studied the way people typically adjust to their own death and who identified five stages that many people go through as they prepare for their own death? a. Mary Ainsworth b. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross c. Anna Erikson Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. Robert Havighurst Answer: b Page: 461 Factual Easy 18.20. According to the work of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, which of the following statements best reflects the anger stage of dying? a. "I'm a goner." b. "The doctor has given me the wrong diagnosis." c. "Why me?" d. "How can I get out of this?" Answer: c Page: 461 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the anger stage realize their death is imminent and experience anger, resentment, and envy; they feel frustrated because plans and dreams will not be fulfilled. 18.21. According to the view of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the stage of adjustment to dying in which the person searches for a more promising diagnosis is called: a. depression b. bargaining c. denial d. anger Answer: c Page: 461 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the denial stage reject the possibility of their death and search for more promising opinions and diagnoses. 18.22. Brittany, age 23, has just been told by her doctor that she has only a few months to live due to a heart ailment. Her reaction is to say that the diagnosis must be wrong and to seek out opinions from other doctors. Brittany’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. depression b. anger c. denial d. acceptance Answer: c Page: 461 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the denial stage reject the possibility of their death and search for more promising opinions and diagnoses. 18.23. Edie, age 33, is full of resentment and envy because a terminal illness is going to cut short her career as a writer. Edie’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. denial b. anger c. depression d. acceptance Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: b Page: 461 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the anger stage realize their death is imminent and experience anger, resentment, and envy; they feel frustrated because plans and dreams will not be fulfilled. 18.24. Gordie promises that if God will just give him six months more to live, he will give up smoking and be a better husband. Gordie’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying: a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. acceptance Answer: c Page: 461 Applied Easy Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the bargaining stage look for ways to buy time, making promises and negotiating with their God, doctors, nurses, or others for more time and for relief from pain and suffering. 18.25. Andrea, age 45, has developed a sense of hopelessness over her terminal illness, and she especially mourns the approaching separation from her friends and family. Andrea’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. depression Answer: d Page: 461 Applied Easy Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, the depression stage occurs when helplessness and hopelessness take hold as bargaining fails or time runs out; people mourn both for the losses that have already occurred and for the death and separation from family and friends that will soon occur. 18.26. Lyle, who is about to die of cancer, has stopped fighting the illness and now awaits his fate quietly. Lyle’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression Answer: b Page: 461 Applied Easy Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, in the acceptance stage, people accept the fact of imminent death and await death calmly.

18.27. When Rod was diagnosed with terminal cancer, he sought out another doctor to get a different diagnosis. Rod’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression Answer: b Page: 461 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the denial stage reject the possibility of their death and search for more promising opinions and diagnoses. 18.28. Yolanda is dying from cancer. She promises God that she will remarry her ex-husband if she is freed from the disease. Yolanda’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression Answer: c Page: 461 Applied Moderate Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the bargaining stage look for ways to buy time, making promises and negotiating with their God, doctors, nurses, or others for more time and for relief from pain and suffering. 18.29. A terminally ill patient keeps saying, "This can't be happening to me." This patient’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression Answer: b Page 461 Applied Easy Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the denial stage reject the possibility of their death and search for more promising opinions and diagnoses. 18.30. Jodi is dying from a rare blood disorder, but insists that her doctor has made a mistake in the diagnosis. Jodi’s reaction is best considered to be an example of which of Kübler-Ross's five stages of dying? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression Answer: b Page: 461 Applied Moderate

Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the denial stage reject the possibility of their death and search for more promising opinions and diagnoses. 18.31. According to the theory proposed by Kübler-Ross, the stage of adjustment in which the terminal patient feels frustrated by the fact that plans and dreams will not be fulfilled is called: a. resentment b. bargaining c. anger d. depression Answer: c Page: 461 Factual Moderate 18.32. A man dying of lung cancer asks his doctor to confirm that he will be cured from his cancer if he quits smoking. According to the theory set forth by Kübler-Ross, this man is most likely in the stage of: a. bargaining b. acceptance c. denial d. depression Answer: a Page: 461 Applied Difficult Rationale: Table 18-1 outlines Kübler-Ross’ 5 stages of death and dying. According to this table, people in the bargaining stage look for ways to buy time, making promises and negotiating with their God, doctors, nurses, or others for more time and for relief from pain and suffering. 18.33. According to the theory set forth by Kübler-Ross, the stage of adjustment in which the terminal patient grieves for the people and things that will be left behind after death is called: a. acceptance b. denial c. anger d. depression Answer: d Page: 461 Factual Easy 18.34. According to the theory set forth by Kübler-Ross, the stage of adjustment in which the terminal patient has recognized that death will come is called: a. acceptance b. depression c. anticipatory grief d. bereavement overload Answer: a Page: 461 Factual Easy

18.35. Research studies of how people actually progress through Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying suggests that ______ people experience the 5 stages she identified and these 5 stages are _______ experienced in the order she specified. a. all; always b. all; sometimes c. most; always d. most; sometimes Answer: d Page: 461 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that not all people experience all the stages, and only a few people experience the stages in the specified order. 18.36. According to the text, what should health-care providers do if a terminally ill patient is not progressing through the 5 stages of death in the proper sequence or is stuck in one stage for too long a period of time? a. encourage the person to spend more time thinking about death b. suggest the person reconsider his or her religious beliefs c. allow the person to follow whatever path he or she chooses toward death d. refer the person for a psychological evaluation and possible counseling Answer: c Page: 461 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that it is important to remember that people cope with death in individual ways and therefore no one should be forced or expected to adjust according to a set pattern of stages. Instead, each person should be allowed to follow his or her unique path to dying. 18.37. According to research cited in the text, when caregivers were asked to comment about the relief they felt following their loved one’s death, about ____ reported that death was a relief to them and about ____ reported that they felt it provided a welcome relief to the person who died. a. 5%; 50% b. 35%; 55% c. 50%; 50% d. 72%; 90% Answer: d Page: 462 Factual Moderate 18.38. In the U. S. today, the ideal death trajectory is: a. to die in battle, fighting for one’s country b. to die suddenly, without warning c. to have about 6 months after the diagnosis of a terminal illness to adjust d. to have 2-3 years after the diagnosis of a terminal illness to adjust Answer: b Page: 462 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In the United States today, the commonly accepted ideal trajectory is to be healthy to age 85 or more, put your affairs in order, and die suddenly and without pain, perhaps while asleep.

18.39. According to the text, the term “submissive death” refers to which of the following circumstances? a. when palliative care is unavailable b. when the family withdraws life support c. when the ill person neglects his or her own needs d. when death occurs suddenly Answer: c Page: 463 Factual Moderate 18.40. According to the text, the term that is used to describe the situation where people fail to take care of themselves and essentially contribute to their own premature death is which of the following? a. suicidal erosion b. anticipatory death c. anticipatory suicide d. submissive death Answer: d Page: 463 Factual Moderate 18.41. Terry, a 73-year-old widower, was in the hospital for six months with cancer. Finally, the painful treatments got to be too much for him and he just gave up and let himself die. This passive form of suicide is best considered to be an example of: a. suicide-by-proxy b. anticipatory suicide c. submissive death d. unilateral death Answer: c Page: 463 Applied Moderate Rationale: Submissive death occurs when people simply let themselves die by not caring for themselves. 18.42. Lance's doctor told him 15 years ago that if he did not change his lifestyle, the drinking, smoking, and drug abuse were going to kill him. Lance didn't heed the warning, claiming that if he died no one would miss him anyway, and now he has died. Lance’s situation is best considered to be an example of: a. suicidal erosion b. passive death c. assisted suicide d. unilateral death Answer: a Page: 463 Applied Difficult Rationale: Suicidal erosion is an indirect form of suicide by engaging in high-risk activities, such as excessive drinking, smoking, or other drug abuse. 18.43. Suicide that occurs when one simply gives up and allows oneself die is called: a. submissive death b. suicidal erosion c. vital loss Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. palliative suicide Answer: a Page: 463 Factual Moderate 18.44. The greatest number of suicides occurs among: a. female adolescents b. male adolescents c. older women d. older men Answer: d Page: 463 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that although the most highly publicized suicides are those of young adults, adolescents, and even schoolchildren, the greatest number of suicides occur among older men. This can also be seen in Figure 18-1, which shows the suicide rates for men and women. 18.45. A small town has experienced an unusually high suicide rate in recent years. Local officials try to prevent future suicides by concentrating their efforts on those most likely to commit suicide. These people would be: a. women under age 21 b. women between ages 21 and 35 c. men under age 21 d. men over age 75 Answer: d Page: 463 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text notes that although the most highly publicized suicides are those of young adults, adolescents, and even schoolchildren, the greatest number of suicides occur among older men. This can also be seen in Figure 18-1, which shows the suicide rates for men and women. 18.46. For adults over the age 85, which of the following is true? a. Men are 10 times more likely to commit suicide than women. b. Women are 10 times more likely to commit suicide than men. c. Men are 4 times more likely to commit suicide than women. d. Women are 4 times more likely to commit suicide than men. Answer: a Page: 463 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: According to the text, after age 85 the rate of suicide among older women is only about one-tenth the rate for men. 18.47. If you examined a stack of death certificates of people who died of suicide and find that 100 of these belong to women, you would guess that the number of men’s records in this stack would number about: a. 80 b. 100 c. 180 d. 400

Answer: d Page: 463 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: The text reports that about 4 times as many men as women commit suicide. Thus, if records show that there were 100 women’s suicides, there likely would be 400 men’s suicides. 18.48. Statistics indicate that for every 100 women who commit suicide, about ____ men commit suicide. a. 80 b. 100 c. 180 d. 400 Answer: d Page: 463 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text reports that about 4 times as many men as women commit suicide. Thus, for every 100 women’s suicides, there likely would be 400 men’s suicides. 18.49. Compared to the suicide rate at age 50, the suicide rate at age 85 is _____ for men and _____ for women. a. much higher; much higher b. slightly lower; slightly higher c. about the same; slightly higher d. much higher, slightly lower Answer: d Page: 463 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 18-1 shows suicide rates across adulthood for men and women. At age 50, the suicide rate for women is about 6 deaths per 100,000, compared to men’s rate of about 25 deaths per 100,000. At age 85, the women’s rate is about 3 deaths per 100,000 and the men’s rate is about 50 deaths per 100,000. Thus, the women’s rate declines slightly between age 50 and age 85, while the men’s rate approximately doubles. 18.50. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be at the highest risk of suicide? a. a younger man who has just become a widower b. a younger women who has just become a widow c. an older man who has just become a widower d. an older woman who has just become a widow Answer: c Page: 463 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The greatest number of suicides occur among older men. Additionally, widowers particularly are at a higher risk for suicide than the general population, especially during the first year of bereavement. 18.51. Statistically speaking, which of the following people would be at the highest risk of suicide? a. a married woman b. a married man c. a man who has just become a widower d. a woman who has just become a widow Answer: c Page: 463 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that overall, 4 times as many men as women commit suicide. Additionally, widowers particularly are at a higher risk for suicide than the general population, especially during the first year of bereavement. The Search for a Humane Death 18.52. According to research cited in the text, people who attempt to control their own environment and make their own choices regarding their impending death: a. are more likely to become depressed b. have weaker coping skills c. survive longer d. help their friends and relatives grieve more successfully after they die Answer: c Page: 464 Factual Moderate 18.53. Which of the following is NOT true regarding hospice care? a. Hospice care is usually covered by insurance. b. Hospice care is designed to help the ill person live as independently as possible. c. Hospice care is designed to help the family of the ill person understand the process of dying. d. Hospice care originated in the late 1800s in New England. Answer: d Page: 464 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Hospice care was started in England, but in 1967. Thus, it is a modern institution, rather than older one. 18.54. Between 2003 and 2007, the number of hospice patients served in the United States: a. decreased very slightly b. remained about the same c. increased very slightly d. increased by about 50% Answer: d Page: 464 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Figure 18-2 shows the number of hospice patients in the U. S. as being 950,000 in 2003 and 1,400,000 in 2007, which is about a 50% increase. 18.55. About how many hospice programs are currently certified in the United States? a. 50, which is 1 per state b. 101, which is 2 per state, plus 1 in the District of Columbia c. about 2,000 d. more than 32,000 Answer: d Page: 464 Factual Moderate

18.56. Karen has a terminal illness. She is considering living out her days as independently and painlessly as possible in a residential facility designed to provide assistance and comfort to dying patients. The care she is seeking is often referred to as: a. respite care b. hospice care c. a halfway house program d. a bereavement setting Answer: b Page: 464-465 Applied Easy Rationale: Hospice is designed to help people with a terminal illness live out their days as fully and independently as possible by giving needed care, counseling, support, and other assistance both to patients and to their families and loved ones. 18.57. Sally is in the final stage of full-blown AIDS. She lives at her home, is visited daily by her physician and staff, and receives spiritual guidance from the pastor of her church. The staff of a local organization that coordinates Sally’s care also provides bereavement care to her family. The goal of Sally’s caregivers is to help her live out her days as fully and independently as possible. The type of care that Sally is receiving is best thought of as an example of: a. hospice care b. outpatient care c. natural care d. adult day care Answer: a Page: 464-465 Applied Moderate Rationale: Hospice is designed to help people with a terminal illness live out their days as fully and independently as possible by giving needed care, counseling, support, and other assistance both to patients and to their families and loved ones. It is based on the philosophy that death is a natural process and that individuals should be allowed to maintain some control over how they die. 18.58. The goal of hospice is to: a. keep down the cost of health care b. prevent contamination from contagious diseases c. help terminally ill patients live their final days as fully and independently as possible d. allow the terminally ill person a spiritual retreat before death Answer: c Page: 464-465 Factual Easy 18.59. When was the first hospice established? a. 1909 b. 1945 c. 1967 d. 2001 Answer: c Page: 464 Factual Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

18.60. At what point in a person’s illness and death do hospice care programs typically end for family members? a. at the time of the patient's death b. 3 days following the patient's death. c. 1 week after the patient's funeral, whenever that occurs d. after the bereavement process is complete Answer: d Page: 465 Factual Moderate 18.61. According to the text, about what percent of hospice care is provided while the patient is in a hospital? a. less than 1% b. about 20% c. about 80% d. nearly 100% Answer: b Page: 465 Factual Moderate 18.62. The text points out an inconsistency between hospice care and hospital care. Which of the following best captures the sense of that inconsistency? a. Hospitals focus on keeping patients alive, whereas hospice is focused on helping a person die. b. In a hospital, decisions about extending life are made by the patient but in hospice care trained professionals make these decisions for the patient. c. Most real care in hospitals is done by nurses but in hospice care the real care is done by physicians. d. Most hospital care is covered by insurance but hospice care is hardly ever covered by insurance. Answer: a Page: 465 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Hospitals are devoted to life and life support; hospital personnel tend to see death as the enemy, and they often work to prolong life, sometimes irrespective of the wishes of the patient. The hospice concept emphasizes that death is a normal and natural stage of life to be approached with dignity. Both hospital care and hospice care are usually covered by insurance. 18.63. The core concept in the “right to die” approach is: a. suicide should not be considered murder b. that death is a right to be exercised at the individual’s discretion c. physicians who perform assisted suicide should be prosecuted for murder d. premature infants who could not survive without life support should be allowed to die, regardless of their parents’ wishes Answer: b Page: 466 Factual Easy 18.64. A more formal term for the practice sometimes referred to as mercy killing is: a. euthanasia b. palliative aid c. rational suicide Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

d. suicidal erosion Answer: a Page: 466 Factual Moderate 18.65. According to the text, which of the following famous people died as the result of active euthanasia: a. Jean Piaget b. Lawrence Kohlberg c. Mary Ainsworth d. Sigmund Freud Answer: d Page: 466 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Freud asked his physician to inject him with a fatal dose of morphine when his cancer pain became too great. This is an example of assisted suicide, which is a form of active euthanasia. 18.66. In the United States, active euthanasia is considered to be: a. an option only for patients who have flat brain waves b. one option that hospice patients can request c. murder d. on option only for people who need a ventilator to breathe on their own Answer: c Page: 466 Factual Moderate 18.67. Erik has a terminal illness which is causing him great pain. He and his family are discussing their options with Erik's physician, including having Erik himself self-administer a lethal drug. If this is the option Erik chooses, the process would be an example of: a. passive euthanasia b. active euthanasia c. negative euthanasia d. positive euthanasia Answer: b Page: 466 Applied Difficult Rationale: Active euthanasia is defined as taking steps to bring about another person’s death. Assisted suicide is the term given to cases in which the ill person is provided with a means of ending his or her own life, which is the case that is described in this question. Assisted suicide is considered to be a special case of active euthanasia. The terms “positive euthanasia” and “negative euthanasia” have no particular meaning, and thus are not the best answer choice for this question. 18.68. Roger begs his doctor to give Roger a fatal injection so Roger can “end my pain and suffering.” Roger’s request is for: a. passive euthanasia b. active euthanasia c. negative euthanasia d. positive euthanasia

Answer: b Page: 466 Applied Difficult Rationale: Active euthanasia is defined as taking steps to bring about another person’s death. Passive euthanasia involves withholding or disconnecting life-sustaining equipment so that death can occur naturally. The terms “positive euthanasia” and “negative euthanasia” have no particular meaning, and thus are not the best answer choice for this question. 18.69. Polls usually indicate that the majority of the U. S. public ______ active euthanasia and the American Medical Association’s official position is _______ using active euthanasia as a means of ending a person’s life. a. opposes; strongly opposed to b. opposes; actively in favor of c. is in favor of; strongly opposed to d. is in favor of; actively in favor of Answer: c Page: 466 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: The text notes that most polls indicate that the majority of U.S. people now support the right of a person with a terminal illness to receive a lethal drug from their physician if they wish. Some health-care organizations also endorse this view, but the AMA strongly opposes suicide with the assistance of a physician. 18.70. Suppose Paul believes that every dying person should be able to receive a medicine from a physician that will bring death quickly and painlessly. Paul’s position would ______ the opinion help by the majority of U.S. adults and would ______ the official position of the American Medical Association. a. be consistent with; be consistent with b. be consistent with; differ from c. differ from; be consistent with d. differ from; differ from Answer: b Page: 466 Applied Difficult Rationale: The text notes that most polls indicate that the majority of U. S. people now support the right of a person with a terminal illness to receive a lethal drug from their physician if they wish. Some health care organizations also endorse this view, but the AMA strongly opposes suicide with the assistance of a physician. Thus, Paul’s position is consistent with the majority of U. S. adults, but different from the official position of the AMA. 18.71. Rosanne has a terminal condition, and she has decided to request that her doctors withhold all life-sustaining procedures, so that her death will come about naturally. Rosanne’s request is best considered an example of: a. passive euthanasia b. active euthanasia c. natural euthanasia d. assisted suicide Answer: a Page: 466 Applied Difficult Rationale: Passive euthanasia involves withholding or disconnecting life-sustaining equipment so that death can occur naturally. Active euthanasia is defined as taking steps to bring about another person’s death. Assisted suicide is the term given to cases in which the ill person is provided with a means of ending his or her own life and it is

considered to be a special case of active euthanasia. The term “natural euthanasia” has no particular meaning, and thus is not the best answer choice for this question. 18.72. The use of "death machines" that administer a lethal drug automatically when a patient pushes a button is an example of the practice of: a. assisted suicide b. passive euthanasia c. palliative end-of-life care d. suicidal erosion Answer: a Page: 466 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Assisted suicide is the term given to cases in which the ill person is provided with a means of ending his or her own life and it is considered to be a special case of active euthanasia. 18.73. A legal document that informs both family and health-care workers of the signer's wish to avoid the use of "heroic measures" to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness is called a(n): a. donor's will b. medical power of attorney c. intestate will d. living will Answer: d Page: 467 Factual Moderate 18.74. Kayla has drafted a legal document that informs both her family and health-care workers of her wish to avoid the use of heroic measures to maintain her life in the event of irreversible illness. This document is called a: a. medical power of attorney b. last will and testament c. living will d. dying declaration Answer: c Page: 467 Applied Moderate Rationale: A living will informs a person’s family, or others who may be concerned, of the person’s wish to avoid the use of heroic or extraordinary measures to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness. It is not legally binding; however, a living will does clarify a person’s wishes and provides both comfort and some legal protection to a loved one who makes the decision to discontinue the use of artificial means to sustain life. 18.75. In her elderly years, Barb signed a legal document that informed her family and doctor of her wish to avoid the use of heroic measures to keep her alive if she gets an irreversible illness. This document would be called: a. a medical power of attorney b. a living will c. an intestate will d. a donor's will Answer: b Page: 467 Applied Moderate Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Rationale: A living will informs a person’s family, or others who may be concerned, of the person’s wish to avoid the use of heroic or extraordinary measures to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness. It is not legally binding; however, a living will does clarify a person’s wishes and provides both comfort and some legal protection to a loved one who makes the decision to discontinue the use of artificial means to sustain life. 18.76. A legal document that sets forth a person’s request for passive euthanasia is called a: a. last will and testament b. hospice request c. living will d. death trajectory Answer: c Page: 467 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: A living will informs a person’s family, or others who may be concerned, of the person’s wish to avoid the use of heroic or extraordinary measures to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness. It is not legally binding; however, a living will does clarify a person’s wishes and provides both comfort and some legal protection to a loved one who makes the decision to discontinue the use of artificial means to sustain life. 18.77. A person who would like to make his or her wishes known regarding the extent to which “heroic measures” should be taken to maintain his or her life in the event of irreversible illness or injury should: a. make arrangements for hospice care b. contact a medical doctor to enter a “assisted suicide pact” c. hire an attorney to draw up a living will d. make arrangements for palliative care Answer: c Page: 467 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: A living will informs a person’s family, or others who may be concerned, of the person’s wish to avoid the use of heroic or extraordinary measures to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness. It is not legally binding; however, a living will does clarify a person’s wishes and provides both comfort and some legal protection to a loved one who makes the decision to discontinue the use of artificial means to sustain life. 18.78. George is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease, so he and his wife consult an attorney to draw up and sign documents giving George’s wife the legal authority to make decisions about George’s care. Such a document is called: a. living will b. a probated will c. a medical power of attorney d. a right to die document Answer: c Page: 467 Applied Moderate Rationale: Medical power of attorney refers to a legal document by which a person authorizes another to make lifeor-death medical decisions. 18.79. Suppose Sarah is worried that she will become too ill to make sound decisions about her own care, and she wants to have a family member have the legal authority to make these decisions for her. If she decides to put her wishes in writing, she should have a _______ create a ________ for her. a. physician; living will b. physician; medical power of attorney Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. lawyer; living will d. lawyer; medical power of attorney Answer: d Page: 467 Applied Moderate Rationale: A living will informs a person’s family, or others who may be concerned, of the person’s wish to avoid the use of heroic or extraordinary measures to maintain life in the event of irreversible illness. It is not legally binding; however, a living will does clarify a person’s wishes and provides both comfort and some legal protection to a loved one who makes the decision to discontinue the use of artificial means to sustain life. A medical power of attorney is a legally binding document by which a person authorizes another to make life-or-death medical decisions. A medical power of attorney document typically is created by lawyers. 18.80. A medical power of attorney serves to: a. give the physician the legal authority to end the person’s life if the person is in extreme pain and no recovery is possible b. assign the decisions about how a person will be cared for to a friend or family member, should the person become too ill to make these decisions c. legally bind a physician to provide “all due care” for the person up to the moment of natural death d. advise the next of kin that the person does not wish to use heroic measures to sustain life Answer: b Page: 467 Factual Difficult 18.81. Which of the following best captures the central aim of palliative care? a. to extend the person’s life b. to limit the person’s physical pain c. to bring death more quickly than a terminal illness would cause d. to allow terminally ill patients and their families to live as normal a life as possible Answer: d Page: 468 Factual Moderate 18.82. MacDonald’s has established a network of “Ronald McDonald” houses near major hospitals so that families of very ill children will have a place to stay while visiting their ill child. This charity is best considered to be an example of: a. hospice care b. palliative care c. bereavement assistance d. grief work Answer: b Page: 468 Applied Moderate Rationale: Palliative care can be defined as care that attempts to prevent or relieve the emotional distress and physical difficulties associated with a life-threatening illness. The aim is for the terminally ill and their families to continue to live as normal a life as possible. 18.83. Which of the following best captures the central aim of end-of-life care? a. to extend the person’s life Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. to provide counseling for the dying patient’s family and friends c. to bring death more quickly than a terminal illness would cause d. to allow terminally ill patients to settle affairs and make decisions about how life will end Answer: d Page: 468 Factual Moderate 18.84. Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines provided by the American Medical Association’s position on end-of-life care? a. Physicians have the right to withhold information about any discomfort associated with death from the patient, based on their judgment of the patient’s mental state. b. Patients should be assured that their wishes will be followed regarding the end of life arrangements. c. Patients will be treated with dignity and respect throughout all stages of their illness. d. Provisions should be made so pain is reduced and comfort is increased, to the degree possible. Answer: a Page: 468 Factual Difficult Grief and Bereavement 18.85. Now that Cindy has died, her family members and close friends must make short-term adjustments, including planning Cindy’s funeral and dealing with their initial emotional reactions to Cindy's death. According to the text, these short-term adjustments are called: a. grief work b. grief erosion c. chronic grief d. end-of-life care Answer: a Page: 469 Applied Moderate Rationale: The text defines grief work as dealing with the emotional reactions to the loss of a loved one. 18.86. Gina’s husband of 47 years died, and Gina’s current focus is on learning how to care for herself, make decisions for herself, and forgive her husband for leaving her all alone. Gina’s focus is best considered to be an example of the tasks usually associated with which of the following stages of grieving? a. the shock phase b. the overload phase c. the renewal phase d. the healing phase Answer: d Page: 469 Applied Moderate Rationale: The first phase of grieving typically involves healing, where the person adjusts to the sense of loss and the new roles and responsibilities forced by the death of his or her loved one. 18.87. Matt’s wife of 38 years died of cancer. He is now at the point that he has established a new group of friends and he can remember his years with his wife with pleasure, rather than only with a sense of loss and grief. Matt’s

focus is best considered to be an example of the tasks usually associated with which of the following stages of grieving? a. the overload phase b. the renewal phase c. the healing phase d. the bereavement phase Answer: b Page: 469-470 Applied Difficult Rationale: In the renewal phase of grieving, a person establishes new life patterns and a future-oriented focus. 18.88. Accepting new roles and learning to enjoy life again are tasks usually associated with which of the following stages of grieving? a. the shock phase b. the stress phase c. the renewal phase d. the healing phase Answer: c Page: 469-470 Factual Moderate 18.89. Before Leo died, his close friends were able to share their feelings of loss, guilt, and missed opportunities with him. This situation is best thought of as an example of: a. bereavement overload b. chronic grief c. end-of-life care d. anticipatory grief Answer: d Page: 470 Applied Moderate Rationale: Anticipatory grief refers to grief that is experienced as people emotionally prepare themselves for the death of a loved one, as in cases of prolonged terminal illness. 18.90. When Bonnie's husband was diagnosed with terminal cancer, she prepared herself for the loss. She and her husband had many conversations about their feelings of loss, their time spent together, and what they would miss when he was gone. What is Bonnie experiencing? a. anticipatory grief c. chronic grief b. bereavement overload d. submissive death Answer: a Page: 470 Applied Moderate Rationale: Anticipatory grief refers to grief that is experienced as people emotionally prepare themselves for the death of a loved one, as in cases of prolonged terminal illness. 18.91. According to the text, anticipatory grief can be beneficial, unless: a. the grief is too intense Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

b. the dying person is a child c. the dying person is an older adult d. the dying person lives much longer than anticipated Answer: d Page: 470 Factual Moderate 18.92. Renaldo, who has had several gay friends die of AIDS in the past few months, is now overwhelmed with grief, to the point where he doesn’t eat or want to go outside his house. Renaldo’s condition is best considered to be an example of: a. bereavement overload b. palliative trauma c. chronic grief d. anticipatory grief Answer: a Page: 470 Applied Easy Rationale: Bereavement overload is a stress reaction experienced by people who lose several friends or loved ones during a short period of time, often characterized by depression. 18.93. In the same year that she retired, Julie's father and sister-in-law both died. If Julie became depressed as the result of this significant loss, her depression would be attributed to: a. bereavement overload b. anticipatory grief c. end-of-life trauma d. passive euthanasia Answer: a Page: 470 Applied Easy Rationale: Bereavement overload is a stress reaction experienced by people who lose several friends or loved ones during a short period of time, often characterized by depression. 18.94. The loss of several loved ones in the span of a year or two may cause an increase in depression referred to as: a. bereavement overload b. anticipatory grief c. learned helplessness d. passive euthanasia Answer: a Page: 470 Conceptual Easy Rationale: Bereavement overload is a stress reaction experienced by people who lose several friends or loved ones during a short period of time, often characterized by depression. 18.95. According to the text, depression is especially likely in cases that involve: a. submissive death b. passive euthanasia c. anticipatory grief d. bereavement overload Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: d Page: 470 Factual Easy 18.96. Louis has never recovered from the death of his wife 15 years ago. This sort of pathological mourning process is labeled as: a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. chronic grief c. bereavement overload d. palliative grief Answer: b Page: 470 Applied Moderate Rationale: Chronic grief refers to an ingrained, pathological mourning process in which the person never overcomes the grief. 18.97. The failure to ever recover from a loss is called: a. social grief b. anticipatory grief c. chronic grief d. bereavement overload Answer: c Page: 470 Factual Moderate 18.98. According to the text, which of the following conditions is most likely to be added as a diagnostic category in the next edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual? a. chronic grief b. anticipatory grief c. passive grief d. active grief Answer: a Page: 470 Factual Moderate 18.99. In comparison to grieving rituals common in the United States a century ago, today the grief rituals are _________ and are _________ effective in helping survivors deal with their loss. a. longer; more b. longer; no more c. shorter; more d. shorter; no more Answer: d Page: 471 Factual Moderate 18.100. In 1900, the death rate of U.S. children under the age of 5 was ____; in 2005 it was ____. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

a. 8%; 4% b.18%; 8% c. 50%; 5% d. 30%; 1% Answer: d Page: 472 Factual Moderate 18.101. In 1915, the infant mortality rate in the Unites States was ____; in 2005 it was ____. a. 10%; 1% b. 20%; 5% c. 30%; 13% d. 50%; 20% Answer: a Page: 472 Factual Moderate 18.102. Of the children who die before they reach age 18, the largest percentages fall into which of the following age groups? a. age 0 to age 1 b. age 1 to age 4 c. age 5 to age 9 d. age 15 to age 19 Answer: a Page: 472 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: Figure 18-4 shows the percentage of children’s deaths to be 51.2% for children ages 0 to 1 (34.3% plus 16.9%), 9.6% for children ages 1 to 4, 6.4% for children ages 5 to 9, and 25.3% for children ages 15 to 19. Thus, the largest number of children who die is in the age 0 to 1 group. 18.103. Of the children who die before they reach age 18, the largest percentage falls into which of the following age groups? a. age 1 to age 4 b. age 5 to age 9 c. age 10 to age 14 d. age 15 to age 19 Answer: d Page: 472 Conceptual Difficult Rationale: Figure 18-4 shows the percentage of children’s deaths to be 9.6% for children ages 1 to 4, 6.4% for children ages 5 to 9, 7.6% for children ages 10-14, and 25.3% for children ages 15 to 19. Thus, the largest number of children who die is in the 15 to 19 age group. 18.104. The text reports the results of a study of grief patterns among parents of children who were killed in the Arab-Israeli conflict. This study found that _______ were more likely to see the forces that led to death as being external, and _______ expressed greater feelings of hopelessness about their loss. a. mothers; mothers b. mothers; fathers Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

c. fathers; mothers d. fathers; fathers Answer: a Page: 472 Factual Difficult Completing the Life Cycle 18.105. According to the text, it is customary in Jewish families to emphasize the connection between birth and death by: a. taking even very young children to funerals of friends and neighbors b. keeping pictures of grandparents in every child’s room c. naming children after a family member who has died d. remembering the names of dead relatives in meal-time prayers Answer: c Page: 474 Factual Moderate 18.106. According to the text, it is customary in Chinese cultures to emphasize the connection between birth and death by: a. keeping pictures of grandparents in every child’s room b. urging young couples to marry or have a child when an older relative dies c. naming children after recently deceased relatives d. taking even very young children to funerals of friends and relatives Answer: b Page: 474 Factual Moderate Current Issues: Searching for Meaning in Natural Disasters, Accidents, Terrorism, and Personal Tragedies 18.107. According to terror management theory, we deal with uncertainly and tragedy in our lives by: a. becoming depressed b. establishing a positive self-concept c. going into a state of self-denial d. focusing on the quality of our interpersonal relationships with friends and family Answer: b Page: 459 Factual Moderate 18.108. According to research on terror management, if terrorists from a foreign country bombed the subways in New York City, killing innocent people, New Yorkers would be expected to cope by becoming _____ prejudiced against foreigners and spending ______ money on luxury goods: a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: a Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 459 Factual Difficult 18.109. According to research presented in the text, after the 9/11 terrorist attacks in 2001, the most typical responses by U. S. citizens were to ________ their support for President Bush and to spend ______ money on luxury goods. a. decrease; less b. decrease; more c. increase; less d. increase; more Answer: d Page: 459 Conceptual Moderate Rationale: In a study that examined how thoughts about the 9/11 terrorist attack affected Americans’ attitudes about President George W. Bush, researchers found that reminding people about their own mortality or refreshing their memories about the 9/11 disaster increased their support for the president and his antiterrorist policies. Additionally, research suggests that we tend to become more materialistic following disasters. Conspicuous consumption—buying wanted things that enhance our status—may help us cope with the uncertainty about when our lives might end. Changing Perspectives: Humane End-of-Life Care for Children Who Are Dying and for Their Families 18.110. Which of the following is NOT a reason cited in the text for why terminally ill children pose a special challenge to those providing end-of-life care? a. Children do not have the same cognitive abilities as adults and they sometimes understand their illness in different ways. b. Parents usually have adequate time to thoroughly research all treatment options and they sometimes interfere with physician’s orders. c. Children’s terminal diseases are often rare and little is know about the best course of treatment to use. d. Terminal illness of children seems especially unfair and family members often have a very hard time coming to terms with the fact their child is dying. Answer: b Page: 473 Factual Difficult 18.111. Which of the following is NOT a working principle for caring for terminally ill children advocated by the Institute of Medicine? a. to attend to and limit the pain the child experiences b. to expand funding for more home-based care options c. to expand funding for more hospital-based care options d. to provide effective, ongoing education for health-care professionals about the special circumstances and needs of children who are dying Answer: c Page: 473 Factual Moderate Thoughts and Fears of Death 18.112. The text draws the conclusion that many people living in the United States today cope with death primarily through denial. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Answer: True Page: 457-458 18.113. In the 1960s in the United States, physicians were usually more direct with dying patients, giving them more information about their conditions and spending more time with them as they adjusted to the idea of their own death. Answer: False Page: 458 Rationale: According to the research by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, in the 1960s, physicians shied away from talking with patients about their terminal condition. 18.114. Studies typically show that older adults express much greater levels of anxiety about their own death than do younger adults and children. Answer: False Page: 458 Rationale: Older adults typically express less anxiety about their own deaths than younger people do. 18.115. Research shows that people who have strong religious convictions and a deep belief in an afterlife experience less depression and anxiety about death. Answer: True Page: 458 18.116. According to terror management theory, we cope with our own mortality by enhancing our self-esteem. Answer: True Page: 459 18.117. According to terror management theory, death is a negative force that we cope with primarily by denying that it will ever come to us. Answer: False Page: 459-460 Rationale: Terror management theory suggests that people cope with thoughts of their own death not by denial but rather by improving their own self-esteem and becoming more attached and important to other people. 18.118. According to the text, terror management theory provides a better explanation for how older adults cope with their own death than for how younger adults cope. Answer: False Page: 460 Rationale: Terror management may provide a better explanation for how younger people cope because older people are better able to cope with and accept the fact that they will die. Confronting One’s Own Death 18.119. Contemplating one’s own death prompts a kind of life review, and therefore can be considered as a final developmental task. Answer: True Page: 461

18.120. Kübler-Ross’s research on death and dying identified five stages of coping that are universal and experienced in much the same way by all terminally ill adults. Answer: False Page: 461 Rationale: Although Kübler-Ross’s five stages are commonly experienced by many people, there are individual differences, with some people going through these stages is a different order and with some people not experiencing all five stages. 18.121. According to Kübler-Ross’s view of death and dying, one of the stages that occurs in most people facing a terminal illness is elation. Answer: False Page: 461 Rationale: Kübler-Ross’s five stages of coping with death are: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. 18.122. In studies of caregivers of people who are terminally ill, when death finally comes, the caregivers’ typical response is one of despair and denial. Answer: False Page: 462 Rationale: The typical response in this situation is for caregivers to experience relief, both for themselves and for the person who died. 18.123. In the United States, the ideal death trajectory is to be healthy to age 85 or older, and then to die quickly and without pain. Answer: True Page: 462 18.124. According to the text, people dying from AIDS often have an especially difficult time coming to terms with their own death. Answer: True Page: 462 18.125. By far, the largest proportion of suicides occurs among older men. Answer: True Page: 463 18.126. Submissive death is defined as an indirect form of suicide where the person engages in high-risk activities that could lead to death. Answer: False Page: 463 Rationale: High-risk behavior defines suicidal erosion. Submissive death occurs when people limply let themselves die by not caring for themselves. 18.127. Suicide rates are higher for married men than for single men, but higher for single women than for married women. Answer: False Page: 463

Rationale: The suicide rate for married and single women is nearly identical, but the rate for married men is about 5 times lower than for single men. The Search for a Humane Death 18.128. In a study of adults with congestive heart failure, the key finding was that those who become more discouraged were more likely to die from their illness. Answer: True Page: 464 18.129. The use of hospice services by terminally ill people in the United States has been increasing dramatically in recent years. Answer: True Page: 464 18.130. Hospice workers not only provide direct care to dying patients, but also help the family members of patients to understand patients’ needs and experiences. Answer: True Page: 464-465 18.131. In the United States, active euthanasia, from a legal perspective, is murder. Answer: True Page: 466 18.132. Assisted suicide is one form of passive euthanasia. Answer: False Page: 466 Rationale: Assisted suicide occurs when a physician, or other person, provides a person with a means of ending his or her own life. Assisted suicide is a form of active euthanasia, which is defined as taking steps to bring about another person’s death. Passive euthanasia involves withholding or disconnecting life-sustaining equipment so that death can occur naturally. 18.133. Today, the American Medical Association endorses the practice of assisted suicide, even though the majority of Americans believe that physicians should not be involved in this practice. Answer: False Page: 466 Rationale: The AMA is opposed to the practice of assisted suicide, although a majority of Americans support the right of a dying person to receive a lethal drug from their physician, which they can use to end their life. 18.134. Even today, it can be difficult to determine whether a person is technically alive or dead. Answer: True Page: 466-467 18.135. A medical power of attorney is another term for a living will. Answer: False Page: 467 Rationale: These are two quite different documents. A medical power of attorney is a legally binding document that gives a trusted person the authority to make decisions on a patient’s behalf if the patient becomes mentally Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

incapacitated. A living will is a nonbinding document that expresses a patient’s wishes about withholding treatment if the person has an irreversible illness. 18.136. Palliative care attempts to prolong life as long as is possible in cases of life-threatening illness. Answer: False Page: 468 Rationale: Palliative care is care that attempts to prevent or relieve the emotional distress and physical difficulties associated with a life-threatening illness. It is not linked to either prolonging or abbreviating life. 18.137. The American Medical Association has approved a set of guidelines for end-of-life care, and these guidelines emphasize that patients and their families should have access to full information about their condition and should be assured their wishes will be followed to the extent possible. Answer: True Page: 468 Grief and Bereavement 18.138. According to the text, the term “grief work” emphasizes the short-term adjustments that must be made following the death of a loved one. Answer: True Page: 469 18.139. The ways in which people experience grief varies widely among individuals and across cultures. Answer: True Page: 469-471 18.140. One can experience grief before the death of a loved one actually occurs. Answer: True Page: 470 18.141. Bereavement overload is a stress reaction that often is characterized by extreme agitation, anxiety, and hyperactivity. Answer: False Page: 470 Rationale: Bereavement overload is a stress reaction, but it is more often characterized by depression, rather than excessive anxiety. 18.142. According to the text, the next edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual that is used to classify mental disorders may well include a diagnostic category for chronic grief reactions. Answer: True Page: 470 18.143. Most cultures have some sort of ritual that marks a person’s death. Answer: True Page: 471 18.144. The highest rate of death among children for any single-year period occurs between the ages of 15 and 16.

Answer: False Page: 472 Rationale: The highest single-year death rate in childhood is between ages 0 and 1, a time period in which over 50% of all childhood deaths occur. Completing the Life Cycle 18.145. In some cultures, there are practices or rituals that link the beginning and ending of life. Answer: True Page: 474 18.146. According to the text, a central theme that cuts across development at every stage is that hereditary and environmental forces interact in intricate ways. Answer: True Page: 474

Short Answer questions: Thoughts and Fears of Death 18.147. Identify 3 specific ways in which people in the United States today treat death differently than people living in the United States would have 100 years ago. Page: 457-458 18.148. Are people in the United States today more willing or less willing to discuss the topic of death, compared to the 1960s? Cite evidence for your conclusion. Page: 458 18.149. How does having a strong religious conviction and a secure belief in an afterlife typically affect how people react to their own impending death? Page: 458 18.150 According to terror management theory, how do individuals cope with the anxiety they feel about their own death? Page: 459-460 18.151. Would terror management theory predict that individuals from collectivist, or from individualist, cultures experience the most anxiety about their own deaths? Explain your answer. Page: 460 Confronting One’s Own Death 18.152. List the 5 stages of death and dying identified by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross and indicate the usual order in which these stages occur. Page: 461

18.153. Describe the typical reaction of family members who have cared for a loved one through a long and difficult terminal illness at the time that the loved one finally dies. Cite research evidence to support your description. Page: 462 18.154. Describe the ideal death trajectory held by most people in the United States today. Page: 462 18.155. Describe the statistics associated with suicide in the United States, indicating how suicide rates are influenced by age and by marital status. Page: 463 The Search for a Humane Death 18.156. What services are typically provided by hospice care, both for the person who is dying and for that person’s family members? Page: 464-465 18.157. State in your own words the core philosophy of the hospice movement. Page: 464-465 18.158. Explain the difference between active euthanasia and passive euthanasia. Page: 466 18.159. Explain the difference between a living will and a medical power of attorney and describe how legally binding each of these documents are. Page: 467 18.160. Explain the difference between palliative care and end-of-life care. Page: 467 Grief and Bereavement 18.161. Identify two tasks that most people do immediately after the death of a loved one, and two tasks that are performed only later, over time. Page: 469 18.162. Describe two tasks that typically occur in the healing phase of grieving and two that typically occur in the renewal phase of grieving. Page: 469 18.163. What is anticipatory grief, and what positive purpose does it typically serve? Page: 470 18.164. Explain the difference between chronic grief and bereavement overload. Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Page: 470 18.165. Is grief and bereavement experienced in the same ways by people belonging to different cultural traditions? Explain your answer and provide examples that support your conclusion. Page: 471 18.166. Describe why the death of a child might be harder to deal with by people living in the United States today, in comparison to 100 years ago. Cite statistics to support your answer. Page: 472 18.167. What are the two riskiest periods during childhood, in terms of their being associated with especially high rates of mortality? Page: 472 18.168. Describe two factors that make coping with the death of a child especially difficult for family members. Page: 472-473 Completing the Life Cycle 18.169. Describe a cultural tradition that is performed as way of linking the beginning and ending of the lifespan. Page: 474

Essay questions: Thoughts and Fears of Death 18.170. Describe how the cultural taboo against discussing death has changed over the past several decades and describe the research that has brought about this change in attitudes about death. Page: 458 18.171. According to the text, are people who are healthy and psychologically well-adjusted more anxious, or less anxious, when they face their own impending death? Explain your conclusion. Page: 458 18.172. What role does religion typically play in how adults face the prospect of their own deaths? Page: 458, 461 18.173. What are the basic assumptions of terror management theory and how do they relate to how individuals deal with the issue of death? Page: 459-460 18.174. How would terror management theory explain why consumers spend more money following a close brush with death? Page: 459-460 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

18.175. Describe two sources of evidence that support the conclusions of terror management theory as being valid. Page: 460 Confronting One’s Own Death 18.176. How can death be considered to be the final developmental task that most people face? What processes do individuals engage in if they confront death as their final developmental task? Page: 461 18.177. Describe the research conducted by Kübler-Ross. What did it show about how individuals cope with a terminal illness? Page: 461 18.178. What changes in the medical field have occurred because of the research conducted by Kübler-Ross? Do you think these are good changes, or bad changes? Explain your answer. Page: 461 18.179. How do the coping patterns of caregivers change, depending on whether the terminal illness of a loved one has a very fast, very slow, or moderate trajectory? Page: 462 18.180. Describe 3 reasons why death from AIDS is often an especially difficult death with which to cope. Do you agree that dying from AIDS poses special coping tasks that must be dealt with by the dying person and his or her loved ones? Page: 462 18.181. Describe how suicide rates change for men and women between the periods of early adulthood and older adulthood. Then describe 2 factors that most likely explain this pattern of changes. Page: 463 18.182. Describe how suicide rates change for men versus women depending on whether they are married or widowed. Then describe 2 factors that most likely explain this pattern of changes. Page: 463 The Search for a Humane Death 18.183. How does a person’s sense of control typically influence the course of their terminal illness? Describe the results of a research study noted in the text that support your answer. Page: 464 18.184. What does it mean to say that “hospice is a philosophy, not a place”? Cite evidence to support the idea behind this statement. Page: 465

18.185. How does the philosophy of hospice differ from the philosophy that guides most physicians in their care of terminally ill patients? What advantages and disadvantages are associated with each of these philosophical positions? Page: 465 18.186. The topic of assisted suicide is hotly debated, with strong opinions on both sides of this issue. Identify the most important arguments on both sides of this issue, and then state your own opinion about whether or not assisted suicide should be legalized in the United States. Page: 466 18.187. Describe the view of the U. S. public with respect to assisted suicide. Do most adults in the U.S. support or oppose this practice? What is the view of the American Medical Association? In light of public opinion about assisted suicide, what factors most likely account for the AMA’s position on this topic? Page: 466 18.188. Why would a terminally ill person want to draw up a living will? Why would he or she want to have a medical power of attorney? What do each of these documents do, and what do they not do, to make sure that a person’s wishes about their death carried out? Page: 467 18.189. What philosophical viewpoint rests at the center of both palliative care and end-of-life care strategies? When is each more likely to apply in the case of a person who has just been diagnosed with a very serious disease, such as cancer? Page: 468 18.190. Identify and describe 3 services that hospitals could provide that would be consistent with a philosophy of palliative care. Page: 469 Grief and Bereavement 18.191. Explain two functions that the process of grieving serves for the loved ones left behind after a death. Page: 469 18.192. Describe the typical pattern of grief that most people experience following the death of a loved one. Identify a specific task that occurs in each of the stages you identify. Page: 469 18.193. What is anticipatory grief, and what positive and negative reactions are associated with it? Page: 470 18.194. Describe 2 different types of situations that would put a person at risk for bereavement overload. If a person did experience bereavement overload, what kinds of symptoms what that person typically display? Page: 470

18.195. What are the symptoms that make chronic grief a different type of reaction than bereavement overload? What symptoms do these two conditions have in common? Page: 470 18.196. Give an example of how grief and bereavement are experienced in a culture other than that typical in the United States. What conclusions does a cross-cultural comparison of grief rituals lead one to make? Page: 471 18.197. Describe how a narrowly prescribed cultural ritual that surrounds death can be a helpful practice for grieving survivors. Under what circumstances could such a ritual also be a problem in helping survivors adjust to death? Page: 471 18.198. What is the text’s position on how the grief associated with a child’s death is different in the United States in the 21st century, compared to how it was in the early 1900s? Do you agree with this point of view? Why or why not? Page: 472 18.199. Identify 3 ways in which the death of a child is more difficult to cope with than is the death of an older adults. Page: 472-473 Completing the Life Cycle 18.200. What is implied in calling death the “completion of the life cycle”? How does such a statement reflect the emphasis of the study of lifespan development? Page: 474 18.201. Erik Erikson viewed the final developmental stage as one in which the individual confronts the challenge of integrity versus despair. In what ways does viewing death as the final developmental task reflect Erikson’s thinking about the period of older adulthood? Page: 474, Chapter 17 18.202. Suppose a person makes the statement, “The study of human development is the study of how all people are alike and all people are different from each other.” Would the overarching perspective of the text be compatible or incompatible with such a statement? Explain your answer. Page: 474