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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-105 Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v3.0 (ICND2) Version: 13.10 Q & As: 269
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QUESTION 1 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches? A. B. C. D.
STP VTP 802.1Q RSTP
Correct Answer: B Explanation:Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.shtml Introduction VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. B. C. D. E. F.
SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated SwitchA, Fa0/1, root SwitchB, Gi0/2, root SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated SwitchC, Fa0/2, root SwitchD, Gi0/2, root Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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Correct Answer: ABF Explanation: The question says "no other configuration changes have been made" so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct. SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, "cost" is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the "cost to the root bridge" of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
A new switch has no VLANs configured. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation: By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring...) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct. VLANs don't affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. B. C. D.
It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481. Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.
QUESTION 5 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state? A. B. C. D.
converged redundant provisioned spanned
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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selected.
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. B. C. D.
Switch1 Switch2 Switch3 Switch4
Correct Answer: C Explanation: First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.
QUESTION 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. Correct Answer: BE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml Port Roles The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section explains practical approaches to port roles. Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
QUESTION 8 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. B. C. D.
learning listening discarding forwarding
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_configuration_example 09186a00807b0670.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
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Background Information 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs. Port Roles--Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port. Port States--Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding. Port Types--Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port. Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. B. C. D. E. F.
All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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correct. The command "show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type "p2p", which means Point-to- point environment - not a shared media >; D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0 D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Correct Answer: BE Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don't need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead: Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 949fd.shtml https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/56692461/Router%20on%20a%20Stick.pdf.
QUESTION 11 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. B. C. D.
physical data link network transport
Correct Answer: B Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch. Correct Answer: C Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID 2. A lower path cost to the Root 3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
QUESTION 13 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration. Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment. Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose. Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.
QUESTION 14 Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.) A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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B. C. D. E.
802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: CCNA Self-Study (ICND Exam): Extending Switched Networks with Virtual LANs http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2
QUESTION 15 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.) A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode. B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally. C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received. D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers. Correct Answer: CF Explanation: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.
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Exams Cisco Exams Title
Exam
ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
100-105
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate
200-125
Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
200-150
Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
200-310
CCNA Cyber Ops Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
210-250
CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
210-255
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210-260
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300-101
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300-115
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300-135
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400-101
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200-105
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200-155
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200-355
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210-060
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210-065
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300-206
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300-208
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300-209
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300-210
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300-320
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400-251
Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach
810-440
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820-445
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820-602
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840-450
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Exam
Certification
100-105
Exam 400-051
CCIE Collaboration CCNA
200-301
100-105
300-701 CCNP Security,
300-835
DevNet Specialist
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400-251
300-801
DevNet Professional,
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CCNP Collaboration, 200-125
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300-735
DevNet Specialist 200-150
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640-875 CCNA Service Provider
200-105
200-155
640-878
300-101
300-160
300-501
300-115
300-165
300-510
300-135
300-170
300-515
CCIE Routing and Switching
400-101
300-175
Cisco Certified DevNet Associate
200-901
300-180
642-885
300-601
642-887 642-889
CCNP Routing & Switching
300-901
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642-883
CCNP Data Center DevNet Professional,
300-910
300-610
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300-915
300-615
300-920
300-620
400-201 CCIE Service Provider 300-501 CCNP Service Provider,
300-401
300-625
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300-535
DevNet Specialist 300-410 CCNP Enterprise
400-151
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200-355
CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-420
300-601 CCNP Data Center,
300-360
300-635
300-365 CCNP Wireless
300-425 300-430
300-370
300-101
300-375
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300-115
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400-351
DevNet Specialist CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure
300-401
CCDE
352-001
CCT Data Center
010-151
CCIE Enterprise Wireless
300-401
CCNA Industrial
200-601
CCT Routing & Switching
640-692
210-451
CCNA Security
210-260
Business Architecture Analyst
810-440
210-455
300-206
Business Architecture Specialist
820-445
300-460
300-208
Business Architecture Practitioner
840-450
300-465
300-209
Customer Success Manager Specialist
820-602
300-470
300-210
300-070
300-475
300-701
300-075
210-060
300-710
300-080
210-065
300-715
CCNA Cloud
CCNP Cloud
CCNP Security CCNA Collaboration 300-085 CCNA Collaboration 210-250
300-720
300-801
210-255
300-725
300-810
200-310
300-730
300-815
CCNA Cyber Ops
CCDA
300-820
Exams Microsoft Exams Title
Exam
Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016
70-345
Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-410
Administering Windows Server 2012
70-411
Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-412
MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-461
MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-462
MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
70-480
MCSD Programming in C#
70-483
MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications
70-486
MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
70-487
Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack
70-537
Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration
70-703
Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
70-740
MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016
70-741
Identity with Windows Server 2016
70-742
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
70-743
Securing Windows Server 2016
70-744
Developing SQL Databases
70-762
Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
70-764
Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse
70-767
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI
70-778
Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication
77-725
Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation
77-727
Windows Server Administration Fundamentals
98-365
Security Fundamentals
98-367
Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution
AI-100
Microsoft Azure Administrator
AZ-103
Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
AZ-203
Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
AZ-300
Microsoft Azure Architect Design
AZ-301
Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions
AZ-400
Microsoft Azure Security Technologies
AZ-500
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
AZ-900
Designing an Azure Data Solution
DP-201
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta)
MB-200
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales
MB-210
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
MB-220
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)
MB-240
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)
MB-300
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
MB-310
Exams Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing
MB-320
MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)
MB-330
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-894
Windows 10
MD-100
Managing Modern Desktops
MD-101
Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
MS-100
Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
MS-101
Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)
MS-200
Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform
MS-201
Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition
MS-202
Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork
MS-300
Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)
MS-302
Microsoft 365 Security Administration
MS-500
Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams Title
Exam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)
DP-100
Implementing an Azure Data Solution
DP-200
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB-230
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment
MB2-706
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
MB2-707
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
MB2-708
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment
MB2-710
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation
MB2-711
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration
MB2-712
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales
MB2-713
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service
MB2-714
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration
MB2-716
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB2-718
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
MB2-719
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service
MB2-877
Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-895
Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-896
Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail
MB6-897
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent
MB6-898
Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
MS-301
Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
MB-200
70-480
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Universal Windows Platform
Web Applications
70-483
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional
MB-300
Consultant Associate
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional
MB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
MB-320
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-300
70-742
Functional Consultant Associate
MB-330
MB2-716
Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals
MS-900
MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719
Messaging Administrator Associate
Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate
Teamwork Administrator Associate
MS-201
Windows Server 2012
Windows Server 2016
Business Applications
70-411
70-741
MB6-895
MS-202
MB6-896
MD-100
MB6-897
MD-101
MB6-898
MS-500
70-744
MS-300
70-745
MS-301
Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302
70-414
Azure Administrator Associate
AZ-103
70-537
Azure AI Engineer Associate
AI-100
70-464
DP-200
70-465
DP-201
70-466
Azure Data Engineer Associate
Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert
Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
DP-100
Data Management and
70-467
MB-200
Analytics
70-762
MB-210
70-767
AZ-203
70-768
AZ-300
70-777
AZ-301
70-345
AZ-400
MCSE Productivity Solutions
70-339
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals
AZ-900
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486 70-487
Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
Exam
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
SQL Server 2012/2014
Exam
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764
98-353
70-765
98-354
MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development
Certification Name
MTA Exams Dumps
98-355
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461
98-362
70-462 70-463
Exams CompTIA Exams Title
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)
CV0-002
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+ 2018
N10-007
CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam
PT0-001
CompTIA Server+
SK0-004
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
CAS-002
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality
FC0-U11
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology
FC0-U21
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-Z51
Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta
MC1-001
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
TK0-201
Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-002
CompTIA CySA+
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+
CV0-002
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+
N10-007
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA PenTest+
PT0-001
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-201
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-202
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-203
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe
Hewlett-Packard
Novell
BEGINNER/NOVICE
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACA
ASE/CSE
CNE
ACI
ISACA
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACE
CISA
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
EXPRT
Aruba INTERMEDIATE
CGEIT CISM
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI ISC2 ADVANCED
CSSLP
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM ADVANCED
PMP
EXPERT
CISSP
ADVANCED
Red Hat INTERMEDIATE
CCP
Checkpoint
RHCSA
CWNP
CCSA CCSE
RHCE
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA CWTS
ADVANCED EXPERT
RHCA
Linux Professional Institute
Rackspace
BEGINNER/NOVICE
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
Linux Essentials
RCT
ADVANCED
INTERMEDIATE
CCA
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
Citrix INTERMEDIATE
EC Council INTERMEDIATE
CHFI CEH
GIAC INTERMEDIATE
GCIH GISP GSEC
ADVANCED
Scrum Alliance
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
EXPERT
CSP
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2 EXPERT
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
CPTE
MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE
HDI Global
Salesforce
MongoDB Certified Developer Associate
SUSE INTERMEDIATE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM
SCE
ADVANCED EXPERT
SEA
Zend INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
