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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-105 Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v3.0 (ICND2) Version: 13.10 Q & As: 269

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QUESTION 1 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?

A. STP B. VTP C. 802.1Q D. RSTP

Correct Answer: B Explanation:Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.shtml

Introduction VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

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Correct Answer: ABF Explanation: The question says "no other configuration changes have been made" so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct.

SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, "cost" is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the "cost to the root bridge" of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.

QUESTION 3 Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation: By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring...) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct. VLANs don't affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481. Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.

QUESTION 5 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

A. converged B. redundant C. provisioned D. spanned

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are

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selected.

QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C Explanation: First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

QUESTION 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states.

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D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Correct Answer: BE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

Port Roles The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section explains practical approaches to port roles.

Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 8 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_configuration_example 09186a00807b0670.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml

PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

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Background Information 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features:

Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs. Port Roles--Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port. Port States--Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding. Port Types--Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port. Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are

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correct. The command "show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type "p2p", which means Point-to- point environment - not a shared media >; D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.

QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down

B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server

E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

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F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Correct Answer: BE Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don't need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead:

Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 949fd.shtml https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/5669- 2461/Router%20on%20a%20Stick.pdf.

QUESTION 11 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport

Correct Answer: B Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning

Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

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D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID 2. A lower path cost to the Root 3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID

QUESTION 13 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml

Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration.

Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment.

Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose.

Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.

QUESTION 14 Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

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B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: CCNA Self-Study (ICND Exam): Extending Switched Networks with Virtual LANs http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2

QUESTION 15 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)

A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.

B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.

C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.

D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the

VTP servers.

Correct Answer: CF Explanation: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html

VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.

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VMware ExamsTitle

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VMware Certified Associate - Digital Business Transformation (VCA-DBT)

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Professional Horizon

2V0-51.18VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization 2V0-621VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Delta

2V0-621D

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Beta

2V0-631

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VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Exam

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VMware Specialist: vRealize Operations 6.x ExamAdvanced Deploy vSphere 6.5 Exam 2018Advanced Deploy vRealize Automation 7.3 Exam 2018

2VB-6023V0-21.183V0-31.19

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design

3V0-622

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3V0-623

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3V0-632

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VCAP6-DCV

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210-250

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300-101

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300-901 300-601 642-887 CCNP Data Center

300-910 300-610 642-889

DevNet Specialist300-915 300-615

400-201

CCIE Service Provider 300-920 300-620 300-501

CCNP Service Provider,

300-401 300-625DevNet Professional,

300-535

DevNet Specialist

CCNP Enterprise

300-410 400-151 CCNA Wireless 200-355

CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-601

300-360

300-420 CCNP Data Center, 300-635 300-365 CCNP Wireless

300-425

300-320 300-370

300-430 300-101 300-375

CCNP Enterprise,CCDP

DevNet Professional300-435 300-115 CCIE Wireless 400-351

DevNet Specialist

CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure 300-401 CCDE 352-001 CCT Data Center 010-151

CCIE Enterprise Wireless 300-401 CCNA Industrial 200-601 CCT Routing & Switching 640-692

CCNA Cloud

210-451 CCNA Security 210-260 Business Architecture Analyst 810-440

210-455

300-206 Business Architecture Specialist 820-445

300-460 300-208 Business Architecture Practitioner 840-450

CCNP Cloud

300-465 300-209 Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-602

300-470 300-210300-070

CCNA Collaboration

CCNA Cyber Ops

300-475

300-701

300-075

CCNP Security

210-060

300-710

300-080

210-065

300-715

300-085

CCNA Collaboration

210-250

300-720

300-801

210-255

300-725

300-810

CCDA 200-310 300-730 300-815

300-820

Exams

Microsoft ExamsTitle

Exam

Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016

70-345

Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

70-410

Administering Windows Server 2012

70-411

Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

70-412

MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-461

MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-462

MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

70-480

MCSD Programming in C#

70-483

MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications

70-486

MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services

70-487

Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack

70-537

Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration

70-703

Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

70-740

MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016

70-741

Identity with Windows Server 2016

70-742

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016

70-743

Securing Windows Server 2016

70-744

Developing SQL Databases

70-762

Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

70-764

Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse

70-767

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

70-778

Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication

77-725

Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation

77-727

Windows Server Administration Fundamentals

98-365

Security Fundamentals

98-367

Introduction to Programming Using Python

98-381

Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials

AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310

Exams

Title

Exam

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900

Technology Literacy for Educators

62-193

Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015

70-333

Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015

70-334

Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016

70-339

Managing Projects with Microsoft Project

70-343

Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

70-348

Developing Mobile Apps

70-357

MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

70-413

MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

70-414

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417

MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-463

Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-464

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-465

Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-466

Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-467

Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705

Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core

70-713

OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

70-735

Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter

70-745

Querying Data with Transact-SQL

70-761

Provisioning SQL Databases

70-765

Developing SQL Data Models

70-768

Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions

70-777

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

70-779

OEM Preinstallation

74-697

Exams

TitleExam

Windows Operating System Fundamentals

98-349

Software Development Fundamentals

98-361

Database Fundamentals

98-364

Networking Fundamentals

98-366

Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

98-368

Cloud Fundamentals

98-369

HTML5 App Development Fundamentals

98-375

Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)

98-380

Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

98-382

Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS

98-383

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388

Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301

Certifications

Microsoft Certifications

Certification Name

Exam

Certification Name

Exam

Azure Security Engineer Associate

AZ-500

70-483

Universal Windows Platform

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

70-357

Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate

MB-200

70-480

MB-220

Web Applications

70-483

MB-200

70-486

MB-240

70-410

MB-300

Windows Server 2012

70-411

MB-310

70-412

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300

70-740

Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management

MB-320 Windows Server 2016

70-741

MB-300 70-742

Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330

MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718

MS-200

MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate

MS-201Business Applications

MB6-895MS-202

MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate

MD-100

MD-101

MB6-897

MB6-898

Security Administrator Associate

MS-50070-744

MS-300 70-745

Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure

70-413

MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537

Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100

70-464

Azure Data Engineer Associate

DP-200 70-465

DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467

Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

MB-200 Analytics

70-762

MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768

Azure Solutions Architect Expert

AZ-300 70-777

AZ-301

70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339

Enterprise Administrator Expert

Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate

MS-100

Expert

70-333

MS-101

70-334

MB-200

70-357

MB-230

MCSD Exams Dumps

70-486

Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487

Certifications

Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam

Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

BI Reporting

MB-200

98-349

MB-210

98-350

70-778

98-351

70-779

98-352

70-764 98-353

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

SQL 2016 BI Development

SQL 2016 Database Administration

SQL 2016 Database Development

70-765

98-354

MB6-894

98-355

MTA Exams Dumps

70-767

98-356

70-768

98-357

70-764

98-358

70-765

98-359

70-761

98-360

70-762

98-361

70-461 98-362

SQL Server 2012/2014

70-462

70-463

Exams

CompTIA ExamsTitle

Exam

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

220-1001

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2

220-1002

CompTIA A+ (220-901)

220-901

CompTIA A+ (220-902)

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2

CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials

PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201

Certifications

C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name

Ex am

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1001

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1002

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-901

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+

CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+

PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004

Other IT Certication Roadmap

Adobe

BEGINNER/NOVICE

ACA

INTERMEDIATE

ACI

EXPERT

ACE

Aruba

INTERMEDIATE

ACMP

Cloud Security Alliance

ADVANCED

CCSK

The Cloud School

ADVANCED

CCP

CWNP

INTERMEDIATE

CWNA

CWTS

Citrix

INTERMEDIATE

CCIA

ADVANCED

CCA

EC Council

INTERMEDIATE

CHFI

CEH

GIAC

INTERMEDIATE

GCIH

GISP GSEC

HDI Global

BEGINNER/NOVICE

HDI DST

HDI SCA

INTERMEDIATE

HDI CI

HDI DSM HDI SCM

Hewlett-Packard

EXPERT

ASE/CSE

ISACA

ADVANCED

CISA

EXPRT

CGEIT CISM

ISC 2ADVANCED

CSSLP

EXPERT

CISSP

Checkpoint

CCSA CCSE

Linux Professional Institute

BEGINNER/NOVICE

Linux Essentials

INTERMEDIATE

LPIC-1 Linux Professional

ADVANCED

LPIC-2 Linux Professional

EXPERT

LPIC-3 Linux Professional

Mile2

EXPERT

CPTE

MongoDB University

INTERMEDIATE

MongoDB Certified Developer

Associate

SUSE

INTERMEDIATE

SCA

ADVANCED

SCE

EXPERT

SEA

Novell

ADVANCED

CNE

Office of Government Commerce/Prince2

INTERMEDIATE

Prince2 Foundation

EXPERT

Prince2 Practitioner

PMI

INTERMEDIATE

CAPM

ADVANCED

PMP

Red Hat

INTERMEDIATE

RHCSA

ADVANCED

RHCE

EXPERT

RHCA

Rackspace

INTERMEDIATE

RCT

Scrum Alliance

EXPERT

CSP

Salesforce

INTERMEDIATE

SALESFORCE

Zend

INTERMEDIATE

PHP Certification

ADVANCED

Framework 2 Certification

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