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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-105 Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v3.0 (ICND2) Version: 13.10 Q & As: 269
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QUESTION 1 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP B. VTP C. 802.1Q D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B Explanation:Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.shtml
Introduction VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
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Correct Answer: ABF Explanation: The question says "no other configuration changes have been made" so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct.
SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, "cost" is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the "cost to the root bridge" of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port. Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation: By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring...) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct. VLANs don't affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481. Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.
QUESTION 5 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged B. redundant C. provisioned D. spanned
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are
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selected.
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4
Correct Answer: C Explanation: First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.
QUESTION 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states.
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D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
Port Roles The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section explains practical approaches to port roles.
Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
QUESTION 8 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_configuration_example 09186a00807b0670.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
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Background Information 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast. Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features:
Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0. All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs. Port Roles--Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port. Port States--Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding. Port Types--Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port. Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are
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correct. The command "show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct. The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct. All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type "p2p", which means Point-to- point environment - not a shared media >; D is not correct. The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
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F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don't need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead:
Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 949fd.shtml https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/5669- 2461/Router%20on%20a%20Stick.pdf.
QUESTION 11 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport
Correct Answer: B Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning
Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
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D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID 2. A lower path cost to the Root 3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
QUESTION 13 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml
Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration.
Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment.
Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose.
Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.
QUESTION 14 Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
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B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: CCNA Self-Study (ICND Exam): Extending Switched Networks with Virtual LANs http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2
QUESTION 15 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the
VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF Explanation: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html
VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information. Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.
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Exams
VMware ExamsTitle
Exam
VMware vSphere 6.7 Foundations Exam 2019 Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019 Professional vSphere 6.7 Delta Exam 2019 VMware Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam 2019
2V0-01.19 2V0-21.19 2V0-21.19D 2V0-51.19vSphere 6.5 Foundations 2V0-602VMware Professional Workspace ONE Exam 2019
2V0-61.19vSphere 6 Foundations 2V0-620VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization 2V0-622VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Delta
2V0-622DVMware Certified Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation 2V0-731VMware Certified Professional - Digital Workspace 2018 Exam 2V0-761VMware Specialist: vSAN 6.x Exam
2VB-601VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Design 3V0-624VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Design 3V0-752VMware Cloud on AWS Management Exam 2019
5V0-31.19
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Virtualization Fundamentals
1V0-604
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Desktop and Mobility Fundamentals
1V0-605
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Visualization Fundamentals Exam
1V0-642
VMware Certified Associate - Digital Business Transformation (VCA-DBT)
1V0-701
Professional Horizon
2V0-51.18VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization 2V0-621VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Delta
2V0-621D
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Beta
2V0-631
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Network Virtualization (NSX v6.2)
2V0-642
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility Beta
2V0-651
VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Exam
2V0-751
VMware Specialist: vRealize Operations 6.x ExamAdvanced Deploy vSphere 6.5 Exam 2018Advanced Deploy vRealize Automation 7.3 Exam 2018
2VB-6023V0-21.183V0-31.19
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design
3V0-622
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Deployment Beta
3V0-623
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Design
3V0-632
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Deployment
3V0-633
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Network Virtualization Deployment (VCAP6-NV Deploy)
3V0-643
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility Design
3V0-652
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation Design Exam
3V0-732
VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019VMware Certified Instructor on vSphere 5
5V0-32.19VCI550
Certifications
V Mware CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
VCAP6-DCV
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design
3V0-622
VCP6-DCV
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization
2V0-621D
VCP6-DTM
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility
2V0-651
VCP6-NV
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Network Virtualization
2V0-642
VCP6.5-DCVVMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization
2V0-622
2V0-622DVCP7-CMA VMware Certified Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation 2V0-731VCP7-DTM VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility 2V0-751
Exams
Cisco ExamsTitle
Exam
ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
100-105
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate
200-125
Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
200-150
Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
200-310
CCNA Cyber Ops Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
210-250
CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
210-255
CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security
210-260
CCNP Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
300-101
CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
300-115
CCNP Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
300-135
CCIE Routing and Switching Written
400-101
ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
200-105
Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
200-155
CCNA Wireless Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
200-355
CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)
210-060
CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
210-065
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS)
300-206
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (SISAS)
300-208
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS)
300-209
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions
300-210
Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
300-320
CCIE Security Written Exam
400-251
Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach
810-440
Applying Cisco Business Architecture Techniques
820-445
Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
820-602
Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline
840-450
Certifications
C isco CertificationsCertification Exam Certification Exam Certification Exam
CCENT 100-105 400-051
400-251
CCIE Collaboration
CCIE Security CCNA 200-301 300-801 300-701
CCNP Collaboration,
CCNP Security,200-125
DevNet Professional,300-835
DevNet Professional,300-735
CCNA Routing & SwitchingDevNet Specialist
DevNet Specialist
100-105 200-150
640-875
CCNA Data Center
CCNA Service Provider 200-105 200-155 640-878
300-101300-160
300-501
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300-135 300-170 300-515
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Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 300-180 642-885
DevNet Professional,
300-901 300-601 642-887 CCNP Data Center
300-910 300-610 642-889
DevNet Specialist300-915 300-615
400-201
CCIE Service Provider 300-920 300-620 300-501
CCNP Service Provider,
300-401 300-625DevNet Professional,
300-535
DevNet Specialist
CCNP Enterprise
300-410 400-151 CCNA Wireless 200-355
CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-601
300-360
300-420 CCNP Data Center, 300-635 300-365 CCNP Wireless
300-425
300-320 300-370
300-430 300-101 300-375
CCNP Enterprise,CCDP
DevNet Professional300-435 300-115 CCIE Wireless 400-351
DevNet Specialist
CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure 300-401 CCDE 352-001 CCT Data Center 010-151
CCIE Enterprise Wireless 300-401 CCNA Industrial 200-601 CCT Routing & Switching 640-692
CCNA Cloud
210-451 CCNA Security 210-260 Business Architecture Analyst 810-440
210-455
300-206 Business Architecture Specialist 820-445
300-460 300-208 Business Architecture Practitioner 840-450
CCNP Cloud
300-465 300-209 Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-602
300-470 300-210300-070
CCNA Collaboration
CCNA Cyber Ops
300-475
300-701
300-075
CCNP Security
210-060
300-710
300-080
210-065
300-715
300-085
CCNA Collaboration
210-250
300-720
300-801
210-255
300-725
300-810
CCDA 200-310 300-730 300-815
300-820
Exams
Microsoft ExamsTitle
Exam
Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016
70-345
Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-410
Administering Windows Server 2012
70-411
Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-412
MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-461
MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-462
MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
70-480
MCSD Programming in C#
70-483
MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications
70-486
MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
70-487
Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack
70-537
Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration
70-703
Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
70-740
MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016
70-741
Identity with Windows Server 2016
70-742
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
70-743
Securing Windows Server 2016
70-744
Developing SQL Databases
70-762
Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
70-764
Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse
70-767
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI
70-778
Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication
77-725
Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation
77-727
Windows Server Administration Fundamentals
98-365
Security Fundamentals
98-367
Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310
Exams
Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification