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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-105 Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v3.0 (ICND2) Version: 13.10 Q & As: 269

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QUESTION 1 Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?

A. B. C. D.

STP VTP 802.1Q RSTP

Correct Answer: B Explanation:Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.shtml Introduction VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated SwitchA, Fa0/1, root SwitchB, Gi0/2, root SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated SwitchC, Fa0/2, root SwitchD, Gi0/2, root Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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Correct Answer: ABF Explanation: The question says "no other configuration changes have been made" so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct.

SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose?

To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.

In general, "cost" is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize: Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the "cost to the root bridge" of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port.

Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.

QUESTION 3 Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

A new switch has no VLANs configured.

Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation: By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring...) configured by default -> A is not correct.

To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.

VLANs don't affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct.

Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct.

A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct.

We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. B. C. D.

It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.

It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.

It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.

It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a008009482f.shtml When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares priority, the lower number wins. If a tie, compare MAC, the smaller one wins. Here Switch has 32769 priority which is greater than 20481 so switch will not elect for root bridge. It says the bridge priority for Switch is 32769, and the root priority is 20481. Which means that some other switch has the lower priority and won the election for VLAN 1.

QUESTION 5 Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

A. B. C. D.

converged redundant provisioned spanned

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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selected.

QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A. B. C. D.

Switch1 Switch2 Switch3 Switch4

Correct Answer: C Explanation: First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers.

Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports.

Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

QUESTION 7 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

C. RSTP defines no new port states.

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D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. Correct Answer: BE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml Port Roles The role is now a variable assigned to a given port. The root port and designated port roles remain, while the blocking port role is split into the backup and alternate port roles. The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) determines the role of a port based on Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs).

In order to simplify matters, the thing to remember about a BPDU is there is always a method to compare any two of them and decide whether one is more useful than the other. This is based on the value stored in the BPDU and occasionally on the port on which they are received. This considered, the information in this section explains practical approaches to port roles.

Compatibility with 802.1D RSTP is able to interoperate with legacy STP protocols. However, it is important to note that the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 8 Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. B. C. D.

learning listening discarding forwarding

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Spanning Tree from PVST+ to Rapid-PVST Migration Configuration Example Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_configuration_example 09186a00807b0670.shtml http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

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Background Information 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) has a drawback of slow convergence. Cisco Catalyst switches support three types of STPs, which are PVST+, rapid-PVST+ and MST. PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D standard and includes Cisco proprietary extensions such as BackboneFast, UplinkFast, and PortFast. Rapid-PVST+ is based on IEEE 802.1w standard and has a faster convergence than 802.1D. RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) natively includes most of the Cisco proprietary enhancements to the 802.1D Spanning Tree, such as BackboneFast and UplinkFast.

Rapid-PVST+ has these unique features: Uses Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) version 2 which is backward compatible with the 802.1D STP, which uses BPDU version 0.

All the switches generate BPDUs and send out on all the ports every 2 seconds, whereas in 802.1D STP only the root bridge sends the configuration BPDUs. Port Roles--Root port, designated port, alternate port and backup port.

Port States--Discarding, Learning, and Forwarding.

Port Types--Edge Port (PortFast), Point-to-Point and Shared port.

Rapid-PVST uses RSTP to provide faster convergence. When any RSTP port receives legacy 802.1D BPDU, it falls back to legacy STP and the inherent fast convergence benefits of 802.1w are lost when it interacts with legacy bridges.

QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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correct.

The command "show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.

The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority 32768 -> C is correct.

All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type "p2p", which means Point-to- point environment - not a shared media >; D is not correct.

The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.

QUESTION 10 Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0 D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 Correct Answer: BE Explanation: The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don't need to specify which trunking encapsulation to use in this case. For Cisco switches 3550 or above we have to use these commands instead: Switch3550(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switch3550(config-if)#switchport mode trunk References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk815/technologies_configuration_example09186a00800 949fd.shtml https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/download/56692461/Router%20on%20a%20Stick.pdf.

QUESTION 11 At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. B. C. D.

physical data link network transport

Correct Answer: B Explanation: RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

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D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port.

Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port.

1. A lower Root Bridge ID 2. A lower path cost to the Root 3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID

QUESTION 13 Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.shtml Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration.

Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment.

Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose.

Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.

QUESTION 14 Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

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B. C. D. E.

802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.

802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: CCNA Self-Study (ICND Exam): Extending Switched Networks with Virtual LANs http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=102157&seqNum=2

QUESTION 15 What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)

A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode.

B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.

C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.

D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.

E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.

F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.

Correct Answer: CF Explanation: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) http://archive.networknewz.com/2004/0317.html VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode.

In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode. When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain. Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information.

Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.

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Exams VMware Exams Title

Exam

VMware vSphere 6.7 Foundations Exam 2019

2V0-01.19

Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019

2V0-21.19

Professional vSphere 6.7 Delta Exam 2019

2V0-21.19D

VMware Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam 2019

2V0-51.19

vSphere 6.5 Foundations

2V0-602

VMware Professional Workspace ONE Exam 2019

2V0-61.19

vSphere 6 Foundations

2V0-620

VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization

2V0-622

VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Delta

2V0-622D

VMware Certified Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation

2V0-731

VMware Certified Professional - Digital Workspace 2018 Exam

2V0-761

VMware Specialist: vSAN 6.x Exam

2VB-601

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Design

3V0-624

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Design

3V0-752

VMware Cloud on AWS Management Exam 2019

5V0-31.19

VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Virtualization Fundamentals

1V0-604

VMware Certified Associate 6 - Desktop and Mobility Fundamentals

1V0-605

VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Visualization Fundamentals Exam

1V0-642

VMware Certified Associate - Digital Business Transformation (VCA-DBT)

1V0-701

Professional Horizon

2V0-51.18

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization

2V0-621

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Delta

2V0-621D

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Beta

2V0-631

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Network Virtualization (NSX v6.2)

2V0-642

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility Beta

2V0-651

VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Exam

2V0-751

VMware Specialist: vRealize Operations 6.x Exam

2VB-602

Advanced Deploy vSphere 6.5 Exam 2018

3V0-21.18

Advanced Deploy vRealize Automation 7.3 Exam 2018

3V0-31.19

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design

3V0-622

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Deployment Beta

3V0-623

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Design

3V0-632

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Deployment

3V0-633

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Network Virtualization Deployment (VCAP6-NV Deploy)

3V0-643

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility Design

3V0-652

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation Design Exam

3V0-732

VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019

5V0-32.19

VMware Certified Instructor on vSphere 5

VCI550

Certifications V Mware Certifications C er tification Name

Ex am

VCAP6-DCV

VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design

3V0-622

VCP6-DCV

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization

2V0-621D

VCP6-DTM

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility

2V0-651

VCP6-NV

VMware Certified Professional 6 - Network Virtualization

2V0-642

VCP6.5-DCV

VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization

VCP7-CMA

VMware Certified Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation

2V0-731

VCP7-DTM

VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility

2V0-751

2V0-622 2V0-622D

Exams Cisco Exams Title

Exam

ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

100-105

CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate

200-125

Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking

200-150

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions

200-310

CCNA Cyber Ops Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals

210-250

CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations

210-255

CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security

210-260

CCNP Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)

300-101

CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)

300-115

CCNP Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)

300-135

CCIE Routing and Switching Written

400-101

ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

200-105

Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

200-155

CCNA Wireless Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals

200-355

CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)

210-060

CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)

210-065

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS)

300-206

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (SISAS)

300-208

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS)

300-209

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions

300-210

Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

300-320

CCIE Security Written Exam

400-251

Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach

810-440

Applying Cisco Business Architecture Techniques

820-445

Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist

820-602

Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline

840-450

Certifications C isco Certifications Certification CCENT

Exam

Certification

100-105

Exam 400-051

CCIE Collaboration CCNA

200-301

100-105

300-701 CCNP Security,

300-835

DevNet Specialist

CCNA Routing & Switching

400-251

300-801

DevNet Professional,

Exam

CCIE Security

CCNP Collaboration, 200-125

Certification

DevNet Professional,

300-735

DevNet Specialist 200-150

CCNA Data Center

640-875 CCNA Service Provider

200-105

200-155

640-878

300-101

300-160

300-501

300-115

300-165

300-510

300-135

300-170

300-515

CCIE Routing and Switching

400-101

300-175

Cisco Certified DevNet Associate

200-901

300-180

642-885

300-601

642-887 642-889

CCNP Routing & Switching

300-901

CCNP Service Provide

642-883

CCNP Data Center DevNet Professional,

300-910

300-610

DevNet Specialist

300-915

300-615

300-920

300-620

400-201 CCIE Service Provider 300-501 CCNP Service Provider,

300-401

300-625

DevNet Professional,

300-535

DevNet Specialist 300-410 CCNP Enterprise

400-151

CCNA Wireless

200-355

CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-420

300-601 CCNP Data Center,

300-360

300-635

300-365 CCNP Wireless

300-425 300-430

300-370

300-101

300-375

CCDP

CCNP Enterprise, DevNet Professional

300-320

300-435

300-115

CCIE Wireless

400-351

DevNet Specialist CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure

300-401

CCDE

352-001

CCT Data Center

010-151

CCIE Enterprise Wireless

300-401

CCNA Industrial

200-601

CCT Routing & Switching

640-692

210-451

CCNA Security

210-260

Business Architecture Analyst

810-440

210-455

300-206

Business Architecture Specialist

820-445

300-460

300-208

Business Architecture Practitioner

840-450

300-465

300-209

Customer Success Manager Specialist

820-602

300-470

300-210

300-070

300-475

300-701

300-075

210-060

300-710

300-080

210-065

300-715

CCNA Cloud

CCNP Cloud

CCNP Security CCNA Collaboration 300-085 CCNA Collaboration 210-250

300-720

300-801

210-255

300-725

300-810

200-310

300-730

300-815

CCNA Cyber Ops

CCDA

300-820

Exams Microsoft Exams Title

Exam

Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016

70-345

Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

70-410

Administering Windows Server 2012

70-411

Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

70-412

MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-461

MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-462

MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

70-480

MCSD Programming in C#

70-483

MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications

70-486

MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services

70-487

Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack

70-537

Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration

70-703

Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

70-740

MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016

70-741

Identity with Windows Server 2016

70-742

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016

70-743

Securing Windows Server 2016

70-744

Developing SQL Databases

70-762

Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

70-764

Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse

70-767

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

70-778

Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication

77-725

Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation

77-727

Windows Server Administration Fundamentals

98-365

Security Fundamentals

98-367

Introduction to Programming Using Python

98-381

Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

AI-100

Microsoft Azure Administrator

AZ-103

Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

AZ-203

Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies

AZ-300

Microsoft Azure Architect Design

AZ-301

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

AZ-400

Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

AZ-500

Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

Designing an Azure Data Solution

DP-201

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta)

MB-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales

MB-210

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB-220

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)

MB-240

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)

MB-300

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials

MB-310

Exams Title

Exam

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing

MB-320

MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)

MB-330

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-894

Windows 10

MD-100

Managing Modern Desktops

MD-101

Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

MS-100

Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security

MS-101

Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)

MS-200

Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform

MS-201

Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition

MS-202

Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork

MS-300

Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)

MS-302

Microsoft 365 Security Administration

MS-500

Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

MS-900

Technology Literacy for Educators

62-193

Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015

70-333

Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015

70-334

Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016

70-339

Managing Projects with Microsoft Project

70-343

Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

70-348

Developing Mobile Apps

70-357

MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

70-413

MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

70-414

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417

MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-463

Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-464

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-465

Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-466

Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-467

Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705

Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core

70-713

OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

70-735

Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter

70-745

Querying Data with Transact-SQL

70-761

Provisioning SQL Databases

70-765

Developing SQL Data Models

70-768

Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions

70-777

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

70-779

OEM Preinstallation

74-697

Exams Title

Exam

Windows Operating System Fundamentals

98-349

Software Development Fundamentals

98-361

Database Fundamentals

98-364

Networking Fundamentals

98-366

Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

98-368

Cloud Fundamentals

98-369

HTML5 App Development Fundamentals

98-375

Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)

98-380

Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

98-382

Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS

98-383

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388

Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)

DP-100

Implementing an Azure Data Solution

DP-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB-230

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment

MB2-706

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration

MB2-707

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation

MB2-708

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment

MB2-710

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation

MB2-711

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration

MB2-712

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales

MB2-713

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service

MB2-714

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration

MB2-716

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB2-718

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB2-719

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service

MB2-877

Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-895

Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-896

Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail

MB6-897

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent

MB6-898

Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

MS-301

Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name

Exam

Certification Name

Exam

Azure Security Engineer Associate

AZ-500

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

70-357

MB-200

70-480

Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate

MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate

Universal Windows Platform

Web Applications

70-483

70-483

MB-200

70-486

MB-240

70-410

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional

MB-300

Consultant Associate

MB-310

70-412

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional

MB-300

70-740

Consultant Associate

MB-320

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management

MB-300

70-742

Functional Consultant Associate

MB-330

MB2-716

Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals

MS-900

MB2-718

MS-200

MB2-719

Messaging Administrator Associate

Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate

Teamwork Administrator Associate

MS-201

Windows Server 2012

Windows Server 2016

Business Applications

70-411

70-741

MB6-895

MS-202

MB6-896

MD-100

MB6-897

MD-101

MB6-898

MS-500

70-744

MS-300

70-745

MS-301

Core Infrastructure

70-413

MS-302

70-414

Azure Administrator Associate

AZ-103

70-537

Azure AI Engineer Associate

AI-100

70-464

DP-200

70-465

DP-201

70-466

Azure Data Engineer Associate

Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert

Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert

Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate

DP-100

Data Management and

70-467

MB-200

Analytics

70-762

MB-210

70-767

AZ-203

70-768

AZ-300

70-777

AZ-301

70-345

AZ-400

MCSE Productivity Solutions

70-339

MS-100

Expert

70-333

MS-101

70-334

MB-200

70-357

MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

MCSD Exams Dumps

70-486 70-487

Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

BI Reporting

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

Exam

SQL 2016 Database Administration

SQL 2016 Database Development

SQL Server 2012/2014

Exam

MB-200

98-349

MB-210

98-350

70-778

98-351

70-779

98-352

70-764

98-353

70-765

98-354

MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development

Certification Name

MTA Exams Dumps

98-355

70-767

98-356

70-768

98-357

70-764

98-358

70-765

98-359

70-761

98-360

70-762

98-361

70-461

98-362

70-462 70-463

Exams CompTIA Exams Title

Exam

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

220-1001

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2

220-1002

CompTIA A+ (220-901)

220-901

CompTIA A+ (220-902)

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)

CV0-002

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+ 2018

N10-007

CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

PT0-001

CompTIA Server+

SK0-004

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)

CAS-002

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality

FC0-U11

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology

FC0-U21

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-Z51

Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta

MC1-001

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA CTT+ Essentials

TK0-201

Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name

Ex am

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1001

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1002

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-901

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-002

CompTIA CySA+

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+

CV0-002

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+

N10-007

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA PenTest+

PT0-001

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-201

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-202

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-203

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe

Hewlett-Packard

Novell

BEGINNER/NOVICE

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACA

ASE/CSE

CNE

ACI

ISACA

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACE

CISA

Office of Government Commerce/Prince2

INTERMEDIATE

EXPRT

Aruba INTERMEDIATE

CGEIT CISM

ACMP

Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED

CCSK

The Cloud School

INTERMEDIATE

Prince2 Foundation EXPERT

Prince2 Practitioner

PMI ISC2 ADVANCED

CSSLP

INTERMEDIATE

CAPM ADVANCED

PMP

EXPERT

CISSP

ADVANCED

Red Hat INTERMEDIATE

CCP

Checkpoint

RHCSA

CWNP

CCSA CCSE

RHCE

INTERMEDIATE

CWNA CWTS

ADVANCED EXPERT

RHCA

Linux Professional Institute

Rackspace

BEGINNER/NOVICE

INTERMEDIATE

CCIA

Linux Essentials

RCT

ADVANCED

INTERMEDIATE

CCA

LPIC-1 Linux Professional

Citrix INTERMEDIATE

EC Council INTERMEDIATE

CHFI CEH

GIAC INTERMEDIATE

GCIH GISP GSEC

ADVANCED

Scrum Alliance

LPIC-2 Linux Professional

EXPERT

EXPERT

CSP

LPIC-3 Linux Professional

Mile2 EXPERT

BEGINNER/NOVICE

HDI DST HDI SCA

INTERMEDIATE

SALESFORCE

CPTE

MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE

HDI Global

Salesforce

MongoDB Certified Developer Associate

SUSE INTERMEDIATE

INTERMEDIATE

SCA

HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM

SCE

ADVANCED EXPERT

SEA

Zend INTERMEDIATE

PHP Certification ADVANCED

Framework 2 Certification