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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-115 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0) Version: 13.22 Q & As: 679
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QUESTION 1 What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame? A. B. C. D.
8-bit 12-bit 16-bit 32-bit
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 2 A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this? A. B. C. D.
allowed VLAN list VTP pruning VACL L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: A Explanation: When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link. Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps: 1. To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command. This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list. Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk-link
QUESTION 3 For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D.
Configure trunk and access interfaces manually. Disable DTP on a per interface basis. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter. Enable switchport block on access ports.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation: The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two Cisco devices. DTP causes increased traffic, and is enabled by default, but may be disabled. To disable DTP, configure "switchport nonegotiate." This prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link, otherwise the link will be a non-trunking link. Reference:http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2181837&seqNum=8
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10. Obviously, a port can not be both, soeven thoughCisco IOSwill accept both, the port will actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.
QUESTION 5 In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded? A. B. C. D.
100 seconds 180 seconds 300 seconds 600 seconds
Correct Answer: C Explanation: To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task: Command Purpose Step 1 switch#configure terminal Enters configuration mode. Step 2 switch(config)#mac-address-table aging-timeseconds[vlanvlan_id] Specifies the time before an entry ages out and is discarded from the MAC address table. The range is from 0 to 1000000;the default is 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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the aging specification applies to all VLANs. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/MAC Address.html
QUESTION 6 Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? A. B. C. D.
Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0ccc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface. Reference:http://network.spravcesite.net/subdom/network/index.php?id=cdp
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 - f0/15?
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A. B. C. D.
Link Combination Control Protocol Port Aggregation Protocol Port Combination Protocol Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Correct Answer: B Explanation: PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirabledesirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. . The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation: In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode. all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 8 Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
PPP DTP ISL HDLC DLCI DOT1Q
Correct Answer: CF Explanation: Switches such as the Catalyst 3550 that are capable of either 802.1Q or ISL trunking encapsulation, the switchport trunk encapsulation [dot1q | isl | negotiate] interface command must be used prior to the switchport mode trunk command. Reference:https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/previewBody/14792-102-157313/Dynamic%20Trunking%20Protocol.PDF
QUESTION 9 Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface? A. B. C. D.
routing loop cable unplugged STP loop guard security violation
Correct Answer: D Explanation: There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable. The reason can be: Duplex mismatch Port channel misconfiguration BPDU guard violation UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition Late-collision detection Link-flap detection Security violation Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard DHCP snooping rate-limit Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection Inline power Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00 806cd87b.shtml
QUESTION 10 A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor? A. B. C. D.
The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.
QUESTION 11 What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise? A. B. C. D. E. F.
4 5 8 9 10 13
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-seriesswitches/qa_c67-722110.html
QUESTION 12 Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN? A. VTP pruning Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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B. port-security C. storm control D. bpdguard Correct Answer: A Explanation: VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/1055821.html#vtp_pruning
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1 channel-group 1 mode active switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto B. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode passive C. switch1 channel-group 1 mode on switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto Correct Answer: D Explanation: The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below: Mode Description active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets. auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets. on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With theonmode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in theonmode is connected to another interface group in theonmode. passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets. Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers. Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example: An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode. An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode. An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation. An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/121_13_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html
QUESTION 14 For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement? A. Rapid Spanning-Tree B. Spanning-Tree Timers Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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C. Spanning-Tree FastPort D. Spanning-Tree PortFast E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward Correct Answer: D Explanation: In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode. Example configuration: Switch-C# configure terminal Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 - 24 Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference:http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seq Num=36
QUESTION 15 Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement? A. B. C. D.
native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements. Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements. Table 21Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2 TLV Definition Device-ID TLV Identifies the device name in the form of a character string. Address TLV Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices. Port-ID TLV Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent. Capabilities TLV Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a device type, for example, a switch. Version TLV Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running. Platform TLV Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500. IP Network Prefix TLV Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interfaceprotocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0. VTP Management Domain TLV Advertises the system's configured VTP management domain name-string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes. Native VLAN TLV Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This feature is implemented only for interfaces that support the Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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IEEE 802.1Q protocol. Full/Half Duplex TLV Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems between adjacent network elements. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015. html
QUESTION 16 Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses? A. B. C. D.
VLAN access default routing
Correct Answer: A Explanation: To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features: Access--The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs. Default--The default template gives balance to all functions. Routing--The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network. VLANs--The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55 _se/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 17 After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change? A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP. B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches. C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain. D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches. Correct Answer: A Explanation: RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. RSTP bridge port roles: * Root port - A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost * Designated port - A forwarding port for every LAN segment * Alternate port - A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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MB-220
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)
MB-240
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)
MB-300
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
MB-310
Exams Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing
MB-320
MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)
MB-330
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-894
Windows 10
MD-100
Managing Modern Desktops
MD-101
Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
MS-100
Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
MS-101
Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)
MS-200
Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform
MS-201
Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition
MS-202
Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork
MS-300
Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)
MS-302
Microsoft 365 Security Administration
MS-500
Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams Title
Exam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)
DP-100
Implementing an Azure Data Solution
DP-200
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB-230
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment
MB2-706
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
MB2-707
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
MB2-708
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment
MB2-710
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation
MB2-711
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration
MB2-712
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales
MB2-713
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service
MB2-714
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration
MB2-716
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB2-718
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
MB2-719
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service
MB2-877
Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-895
Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-896
Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail
MB6-897
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent
MB6-898
Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
MS-301
Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
MB-200
70-480
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Universal Windows Platform
Web Applications
70-483
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional
MB-300
Consultant Associate
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional
MB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
MB-320
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-300
70-742
Functional Consultant Associate
MB-330
MB2-716
Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals
MS-900
MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719
Messaging Administrator Associate
Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate
Teamwork Administrator Associate
MS-201
Windows Server 2012
Windows Server 2016
Business Applications
70-411
70-741
MB6-895
MS-202
MB6-896
MD-100
MB6-897
MD-101
MB6-898
MS-500
70-744
MS-300
70-745
MS-301
Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302
70-414
Azure Administrator Associate
AZ-103
70-537
Azure AI Engineer Associate
AI-100
70-464
DP-200
70-465
DP-201
70-466
Azure Data Engineer Associate
Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert
Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
DP-100
Data Management and
70-467
MB-200
Analytics
70-762
MB-210
70-767
AZ-203
70-768
AZ-300
70-777
AZ-301
70-345
AZ-400
MCSE Productivity Solutions
70-339
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals
AZ-900
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486 70-487
Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
Exam
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
SQL Server 2012/2014
Exam
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764
98-353
70-765
98-354
MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development
Certification Name
MTA Exams Dumps
98-355
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461
98-362
70-462 70-463
Exams CompTIA Exams Title
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)
CV0-002
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+ 2018
N10-007
CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam
PT0-001
CompTIA Server+
SK0-004
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
CAS-002
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality
FC0-U11
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology
FC0-U21
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-Z51
Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta
MC1-001
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
TK0-201
Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-002
CompTIA CySA+
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+
CV0-002
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+
N10-007
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA PenTest+
PT0-001
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-201
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-202
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-203
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe
Hewlett-Packard
Novell
BEGINNER/NOVICE
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACA
ASE/CSE
CNE
ACI
ISACA
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACE
CISA
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
EXPRT
Aruba INTERMEDIATE
CGEIT CISM
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI ISC2 ADVANCED
CSSLP
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM ADVANCED
PMP
EXPERT
CISSP
ADVANCED
Red Hat INTERMEDIATE
CCP
Checkpoint
RHCSA
CWNP
CCSA CCSE
RHCE
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA CWTS
ADVANCED EXPERT
RHCA
Linux Professional Institute
Rackspace
BEGINNER/NOVICE
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
Linux Essentials
RCT
ADVANCED
INTERMEDIATE
CCA
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
Citrix INTERMEDIATE
EC Council INTERMEDIATE
CHFI CEH
GIAC INTERMEDIATE
GCIH GISP GSEC
ADVANCED
Scrum Alliance
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
EXPERT
CSP
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2 EXPERT
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
CPTE
MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE
HDI Global
Salesforce
MongoDB Certified Developer Associate
SUSE INTERMEDIATE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM
SCE
ADVANCED EXPERT
SEA
Zend INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
