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EnsurePass 300-115 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks(SWITCH v2.0)
Version: 13.22
Q & As: 679
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QUESTION 1 What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?
A. 8-bit B. 12-bit C. 16-bit D. 32-bit
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
QUESTION 2 A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list B. VTP pruning C. VACL D. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: A Explanation: When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link. Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps: 1. To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command. This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list. Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk-link
QUESTION 3 For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two.)
A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually. B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis. C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter. D. Enable switchport block on access ports.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation: The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two Cisco devices. DTP causes increased traffic, and is enabled by default, but may be disabled. To disable DTP, configure "switchport nonegotiate." This prevents the interface from generating DTP frames.
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You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link, otherwise the link will be a non-trunking link. Reference:http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2181837&seqNum=8
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10. Obviously, a port can not be both, soeven thoughCisco IOSwill accept both, the port will actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.
QUESTION 5 In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?
A. 100 seconds B. 180 seconds C. 300 seconds D. 600 seconds
Correct Answer: C Explanation: To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose Step 1 switch#configure terminal Enters configuration mode. Step 2 switch(config)#mac-address-table aging-timeseconds[vlanvlan_id] Specifies the time before an entry ages out and is discarded from the MAC address table. The range is from 0 to 1000000;the default is 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified,
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the aging specification applies to all VLANs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/MAC Address.html
QUESTION 6 Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors. C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology. D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0ccc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface. Reference:http://network.spravcesite.net/subdom/network/index.php?id=cdp
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 - f0/15?
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A. Link Combination Control Protocol B. Port Aggregation Protocol C. Port Combination Protocol D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Correct Answer: B Explanation: PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirabledesirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .
The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation: In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode. all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.
QUESTION 8 Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two.)
A. PPP B. DTP C. ISL D. HDLC E. DLCI F. DOT1Q
Correct Answer: CF Explanation: Switches such as the Catalyst 3550 that are capable of either 802.1Q or ISL trunking encapsulation, the switchport trunk encapsulation [dot1q | isl | negotiate] interface command must be used prior to the switchport mode trunk command. Reference:https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/previewBody/14792-102-1- 57313/Dynamic%20Trunking%20Protocol.PDF
QUESTION 9 Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?
A. routing loop B. cable unplugged C. STP loop guard D. security violation
Correct Answer: D Explanation: There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable. The reason can be: Duplex mismatch Port channel misconfiguration BPDU guard violation UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition Late-collision detection Link-flap detection Security violation
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Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard DHCP snooping rate-limit Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection Inline power Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00 806cd87b.shtml
QUESTION 10 A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch. B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices. C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally. D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.
QUESTION 11 What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 8 D. 9 E. 10 F. 13
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-seriesswitches/qa_c67-722110.html
QUESTION 12 Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?
A. VTP pruning
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B. port-security C. storm control D. bpdguard
Correct Answer: A Explanation: VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/10558- 21.html#vtp_pruning
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?
A. switch1 channel-group 1 mode active switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1 channel-group 1 mode on switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
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D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below: Mode Description active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets. auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets. on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With theonmode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in theonmode is connected to another interface group in theonmode. passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers. Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example: An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode. An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode. An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation. An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12- 1_13_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html
QUESTION 14 For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree B. Spanning-Tree Timers
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C. Spanning-Tree FastPort D. Spanning-Tree PortFast E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward
Correct Answer: D Explanation: In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode. Example configuration: Switch-C# configure terminal Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 - 24 Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference:http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seq Num=36
QUESTION 15 Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?
A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements. Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements. Table 21Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2 TLV Definition Device-ID TLV Identifies the device name in the form of a character string. Address TLV Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices. Port-ID TLV Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent. Capabilities TLV Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a device type, for example, a switch. Version TLV Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running. Platform TLV Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500. IP Network Prefix TLV Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interfaceprotocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0. VTP Management Domain TLV Advertises the system's configured VTP management domain name-string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes. Native VLAN TLV Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This feature is implemented only for interfaces that support the
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IEEE 802.1Q protocol. Full/Half Duplex TLV Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems between adjacent network elements.
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015. html
QUESTION 16 Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?
A. VLAN B. access C. default D. routing
Correct Answer: A Explanation: To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features: Access--The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs. Default--The default template gives balance to all functions. Routing--The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network. VLANs--The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55 _se/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf
QUESTION 17 After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain. D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco
Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A Explanation: RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. RSTP bridge port roles: * Root port - A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost * Designated port - A forwarding port for every LAN segment * Alternate port - A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root
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Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310
Exams
Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
