EnsurePass 300-115 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)

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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-115 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0) Version: 13.22 Q & As: 679

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QUESTION 1 What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?

A. B. C. D.

8-bit 12-bit 16-bit 32-bit

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The VLAN field is a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q

QUESTION 2 A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?

A. B. C. D.

allowed VLAN list VTP pruning VACL L2P tunneling

Correct Answer: A Explanation: When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.

Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps: 1. To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.

This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.

Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/11836/how-define-vlans-allowed-trunk-link

QUESTION 3 For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking?

(Choose two.)

A. B. C. D.

Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.

Disable DTP on a per interface basis.

Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.

Enable switchport block on access ports.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation: The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two Cisco devices. DTP causes increased traffic, and is enabled by default, but may be disabled. To disable DTP, configure "switchport nonegotiate." This prevents the interface from generating DTP frames.

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You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link, otherwise the link will be a non-trunking link.

Reference:http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2181837&seqNum=8

QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?

A.

B.

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C.

D.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: In this case, the port has been configured both as a trunk and as a switchport in data vlan 10.

Obviously, a port can not be both, soeven thoughCisco IOSwill accept both, the port will actually be used as a trunk, ignoring the switchport access VLAN 10 command.

QUESTION 5 In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?

A. B. C. D.

100 seconds 180 seconds 300 seconds 600 seconds

Correct Answer: C Explanation: To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task: Command Purpose Step 1 switch#configure terminal Enters configuration mode.

Step 2 switch(config)#mac-address-table aging-timeseconds[vlanvlan_id] Specifies the time before an entry ages out and is discarded from the MAC address table. The range is from 0 to 1000000;the default is 300 seconds. Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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the aging specification applies to all VLANs. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/MAC Address.html

QUESTION 6 Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

A. B. C. D.

Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.

Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.

Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0ccc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface.

Reference:http://network.spravcesite.net/subdom/network/index.php?id=cdp

QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 - f0/15?

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A. B. C. D.

Link Combination Control Protocol Port Aggregation Protocol Port Combination Protocol Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Correct Answer: B Explanation: PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirabledesirable, and on-on will allow a channel to be formed. .

The Link Aggregate Control Protocol (LACP) trunking supports four modes of operation: In this example, we see that fa 0/13, fa0/14, and fa0/15 are all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode. all in Port Channel 12, which is operating in desirable mode, which is only a PAgP mode.

QUESTION 8 Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

PPP DTP ISL HDLC DLCI DOT1Q

Correct Answer: CF Explanation: Switches such as the Catalyst 3550 that are capable of either 802.1Q or ISL trunking encapsulation, the switchport trunk encapsulation [dot1q | isl | negotiate] interface command must be used prior to the switchport mode trunk command.

Reference:https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/servlet/JiveServlet/previewBody/14792-102-157313/Dynamic%20Trunking%20Protocol.PDF

QUESTION 9 Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?

A. B. C. D.

routing loop cable unplugged STP loop guard security violation

Correct Answer: D Explanation: There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable. The reason can be: Duplex mismatch Port channel misconfiguration BPDU guard violation UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition Late-collision detection Link-flap detection Security violation Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard DHCP snooping rate-limit Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection Inline power Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00 806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 10 A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?

A. B. C. D.

The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.

IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.

Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.

Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 11 What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

A. B. C. D. E. F.

4 5 8 9 10 13

Correct Answer: D Explanation: Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-seriesswitches/qa_c67-722110.html

QUESTION 12 Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN? A. VTP pruning Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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B. port-security C. storm control D. bpdguard Correct Answer: A Explanation: VTP ensures that all switches in the VTP domain are aware of all VLANs. However, there are occasions when VTP can create unnecessary traffic. All unknown unicasts and broadcasts in a VLAN are flooded over the entire VLAN. All switches in the network receive all broadcasts, even in situations in which few users are connected in that VLAN. VTP pruning is a feature that you use in order to eliminate or prune this unnecessary traffic.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vtp/1055821.html#vtp_pruning

QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?

A. switch1 channel-group 1 mode active switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto B. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode passive C. switch1 channel-group 1 mode on switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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D. switch1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switch2 channel-group 1 mode auto Correct Answer: D Explanation: The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below: Mode Description active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets. auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets. on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With theonmode, a usable EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in theonmode is connected to another interface group in theonmode. passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers. Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example: An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.

An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.

An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation. An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/121_13_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html

QUESTION 14 For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?

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C. Spanning-Tree FastPort D. Spanning-Tree PortFast E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward Correct Answer: D Explanation: In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode.

Example configuration: Switch-C# configure terminal Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 - 24 Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast Reference:http://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seq Num=36

QUESTION 15 Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?

A. B. C. D.

native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Type-Length-Value fields (TLVs) are blocks of information embedded in CDP advertisements.

Table 21 summarizes the TLV definitions for CDP advertisements.

Table 21Type-Length-Value Definitions for CDPv2 TLV Definition Device-ID TLV Identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Address TLV Contains a list of network addresses of both receiving and sending devices.

Port-ID TLV Identifies the port on which the CDP packet is sent.

Capabilities TLV Describes the functional capability for the device in the form of a device type, for example, a switch.

Version TLV Contains information about the software release version on which the device is running.

Platform TLV Describes the hardware platform name of the device, for example, Cisco 4500.

IP Network Prefix TLV Contains a list of network prefixes to which the sending device can forward IP packets. This information is in the form of the interfaceprotocol and port number, for example, Eth 1/0.

VTP Management Domain TLV Advertises the system's configured VTP management domain name-string. Used by network operators to verify VTP domain configuration in adjacent network nodes.

Native VLAN TLV Indicates, per interface, the assumed VLAN for untagged packets on the interface. CDP learns the native VLAN for an interface. This feature is implemented only for interfaces that support the Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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IEEE 802.1Q protocol.

Full/Half Duplex TLV Indicates status (duplex configuration) of CDP broadcast interface. Used by network operators to diagnose connectivity problems between adjacent network elements.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015. html

QUESTION 16 Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?

A. B. C. D.

VLAN access default routing

Correct Answer: A Explanation: To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features: Access--The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs. Default--The default template gives balance to all functions.

Routing--The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.

VLANs--The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12.2_55 _se/configuration/guide/swsdm.pdf

QUESTION 17 After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change?

A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP. B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.

C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.

D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge.

RSTP bridge port roles: * Root port - A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost * Designated port - A forwarding port for every LAN segment * Alternate port - A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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Security Fundamentals

98-367

Introduction to Programming Using Python

98-381

Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

AI-100

Microsoft Azure Administrator

AZ-103

Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

AZ-203

Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies

AZ-300

Microsoft Azure Architect Design

AZ-301

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

AZ-400

Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

AZ-500

Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

Designing an Azure Data Solution

DP-201

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta)

MB-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales

MB-210

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB-220

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)

MB-240

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)

MB-300

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials

MB-310

Exams Title

Exam

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing

MB-320

MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)

MB-330

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-894

Windows 10

MD-100

Managing Modern Desktops

MD-101

Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

MS-100

Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security

MS-101

Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)

MS-200

Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform

MS-201

Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition

MS-202

Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork

MS-300

Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)

MS-302

Microsoft 365 Security Administration

MS-500

Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

MS-900

Technology Literacy for Educators

62-193

Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015

70-333

Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015

70-334

Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016

70-339

Managing Projects with Microsoft Project

70-343

Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

70-348

Developing Mobile Apps

70-357

MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

70-413

MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

70-414

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417

MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-463

Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-464

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-465

Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-466

Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-467

Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705

Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core

70-713

OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

70-735

Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter

70-745

Querying Data with Transact-SQL

70-761

Provisioning SQL Databases

70-765

Developing SQL Data Models

70-768

Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions

70-777

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

70-779

OEM Preinstallation

74-697

Exams Title

Exam

Windows Operating System Fundamentals

98-349

Software Development Fundamentals

98-361

Database Fundamentals

98-364

Networking Fundamentals

98-366

Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

98-368

Cloud Fundamentals

98-369

HTML5 App Development Fundamentals

98-375

Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)

98-380

Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

98-382

Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS

98-383

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388

Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)

DP-100

Implementing an Azure Data Solution

DP-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB-230

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment

MB2-706

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration

MB2-707

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation

MB2-708

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment

MB2-710

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation

MB2-711

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration

MB2-712

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales

MB2-713

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service

MB2-714

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration

MB2-716

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB2-718

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB2-719

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service

MB2-877

Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-895

Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-896

Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail

MB6-897

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent

MB6-898

Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

MS-301

Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name

Exam

Certification Name

Exam

Azure Security Engineer Associate

AZ-500

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

70-357

MB-200

70-480

Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate

MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate

Universal Windows Platform

Web Applications

70-483

70-483

MB-200

70-486

MB-240

70-410

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional

MB-300

Consultant Associate

MB-310

70-412

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional

MB-300

70-740

Consultant Associate

MB-320

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management

MB-300

70-742

Functional Consultant Associate

MB-330

MB2-716

Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals

MS-900

MB2-718

MS-200

MB2-719

Messaging Administrator Associate

Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate

Teamwork Administrator Associate

MS-201

Windows Server 2012

Windows Server 2016

Business Applications

70-411

70-741

MB6-895

MS-202

MB6-896

MD-100

MB6-897

MD-101

MB6-898

MS-500

70-744

MS-300

70-745

MS-301

Core Infrastructure

70-413

MS-302

70-414

Azure Administrator Associate

AZ-103

70-537

Azure AI Engineer Associate

AI-100

70-464

DP-200

70-465

DP-201

70-466

Azure Data Engineer Associate

Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert

Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert

Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate

DP-100

Data Management and

70-467

MB-200

Analytics

70-762

MB-210

70-767

AZ-203

70-768

AZ-300

70-777

AZ-301

70-345

AZ-400

MCSE Productivity Solutions

70-339

MS-100

Expert

70-333

MS-101

70-334

MB-200

70-357

MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

MCSD Exams Dumps

70-486 70-487

Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

BI Reporting

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

Exam

SQL 2016 Database Administration

SQL 2016 Database Development

SQL Server 2012/2014

Exam

MB-200

98-349

MB-210

98-350

70-778

98-351

70-779

98-352

70-764

98-353

70-765

98-354

MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development

Certification Name

MTA Exams Dumps

98-355

70-767

98-356

70-768

98-357

70-764

98-358

70-765

98-359

70-761

98-360

70-762

98-361

70-461

98-362

70-462 70-463

Exams CompTIA Exams Title

Exam

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

220-1001

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2

220-1002

CompTIA A+ (220-901)

220-901

CompTIA A+ (220-902)

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)

CV0-002

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+ 2018

N10-007

CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

PT0-001

CompTIA Server+

SK0-004

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)

CAS-002

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality

FC0-U11

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology

FC0-U21

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-Z51

Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta

MC1-001

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA CTT+ Essentials

TK0-201

Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name

Ex am

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1001

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1002

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-901

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-002

CompTIA CySA+

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+

CV0-002

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+

N10-007

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA PenTest+

PT0-001

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-201

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-202

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-203

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe

Hewlett-Packard

Novell

BEGINNER/NOVICE

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACA

ASE/CSE

CNE

ACI

ISACA

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACE

CISA

Office of Government Commerce/Prince2

INTERMEDIATE

EXPRT

Aruba INTERMEDIATE

CGEIT CISM

ACMP

Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED

CCSK

The Cloud School

INTERMEDIATE

Prince2 Foundation EXPERT

Prince2 Practitioner

PMI ISC2 ADVANCED

CSSLP

INTERMEDIATE

CAPM ADVANCED

PMP

EXPERT

CISSP

ADVANCED

Red Hat INTERMEDIATE

CCP

Checkpoint

RHCSA

CWNP

CCSA CCSE

RHCE

INTERMEDIATE

CWNA CWTS

ADVANCED EXPERT

RHCA

Linux Professional Institute

Rackspace

BEGINNER/NOVICE

INTERMEDIATE

CCIA

Linux Essentials

RCT

ADVANCED

INTERMEDIATE

CCA

LPIC-1 Linux Professional

Citrix INTERMEDIATE

EC Council INTERMEDIATE

CHFI CEH

GIAC INTERMEDIATE

GCIH GISP GSEC

ADVANCED

Scrum Alliance

LPIC-2 Linux Professional

EXPERT

EXPERT

CSP

LPIC-3 Linux Professional

Mile2 EXPERT

BEGINNER/NOVICE

HDI DST HDI SCA

INTERMEDIATE

SALESFORCE

CPTE

MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE

HDI Global

Salesforce

MongoDB Certified Developer Associate

SUSE INTERMEDIATE

INTERMEDIATE

SCA

HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM

SCE

ADVANCED EXPERT

SEA

Zend INTERMEDIATE

PHP Certification ADVANCED

Framework 2 Certification