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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 400-101 Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1 Version: 13.29 Q & As: 1514
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QUESTION 1 Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D.
The use of tail drop The use of WRED Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class The use of TCP congestion control
Correct Answer: CD Explanation: It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance. TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED or other TCP congestion control mechanisms are enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoSSRND-Book/VPNQoS.html
QUESTION 2 Which regular expression will only allow prefixes that originated from AS 65000 and that are learned through AS 65001? A. B. C. D.
^65000_65001$ 65000_65001$ ^65000_65001 ^65001_65000$
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The following table lists the regular expressions and their meanings: +------------------------------------------------------+ | CHAR | USAGE | +------------------------------------------------------| | ^ | Start of string | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | $ | End of string | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | [] | Range of characters | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | - | Used to specify range ( i.e. [0-9] ) | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | ( ) | Logical grouping | |------|-----------------------------------------------| Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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| . | Any single character | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | * | Zero or more instances | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | + | One or more instance | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | ? | Zero or one instance | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | _ | Comma, open or close brace, open or close | | | parentheses, start or end of string, or space | +------------------------------------------------------+ Some commonly used regular expressions include: +-------------+---------------------------+ | Expression | Meaning | |-------------+---------------------------| | .* | Anything | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^$ | Locally originated routes | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^100_ | Learned from AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | _100$ | Originated in AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | _100_ | Any instance of AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^[0-9]+$ | Directly connected ASes | +-------------+---------------------------+ Reference: http://blog.ine.com/2008/01/06/understanding-bgp-regular-expressions/
QUESTION 3 A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem? A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices. B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization. C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached. D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Sometimes, over some IP paths, a TCP/IP node can send small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes) with no difficulty, but transmission attempts with larger amounts of data hang, then time out. Often this is observed as a unidirectional problem in that large data transfers succeed in one direction but fail in the other direction. This problem is likely caused by the TCP MSS value, PMTUD failure, different LAN media types, or defective links. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/additional-legacy-protocols/ms-windowsnetworking/13709-38.html
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. B. C. D. E.
VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation: The route target extended community for VPLS auto-discovery defines the import and export policies that a VPLS instance uses. The export route target sets an extended community attribute number that is appended to all routes that are exported from the VPLS instance. The import route target value sets a filter that determines the routes that are accepted into the VPLS instance. Any route with a value in its import route target contained in its extended attributes field matching the value in the VPLS instance's import route target are accepted. Otherwise the route is rejected.
QUESTION 5 Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports? A. B. C. D.
IGMP snooping Router Guard PIM snooping multicast filtering
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ideally, the Layer 2 device should forward the multicast transmission only out ports to which receivers are connected and also out any ports that are connected to downstream multicast routers. This configuration requires a Layer 2 device to be able to determine the ports on which multicast routers and receivers for each separate (S,G) or (*,G) multicast group are located. To facilitate intelligent forwarding of multicast traffic on the LAN, Cisco Catalyst switches support two mechanisms: IGMP snooping - The switch listens in or "snoops" IGMP communications between receivers and multicast routers. This snooping enables the switch to determine which ports are connected to receivers for each multicast group and which ports are connected to multicast routers. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) - The switch communicates with multicasts routers, with multicast routers relaying group membership information to switches. Reference: https://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=59
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QUESTION 6 Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global synchronization? A. B. C. D.
Tail drop Random early detection Weighted random early detection Weighted fair queuing
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Tail Drop Tail drop treats all traffic equally and does not differentiate between classes of service. Queues fill during periods of congestion. When the output queue is full and tail drop is in effect, packets are dropped until the congestion is eliminated and the queue is no longer full. Weighted Random Early Detection WRED avoids the globalization problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router. Global synchronization occurs as waves of congestion crest only to be followed by troughs during which the transmission link is not fully utilized. Global synchronization of TCP hosts, for example, can occur because packets are dropped all at once. Global synchronization manifests when multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates in response to packet dropping, then increase their transmission rates once again when the congestion is reduced. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfconav.html#wp1 002048
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is mutually redistributing between EIGRP and BGP. Which configuration is necessary to enable R1 to see routes from R3?
A. The R3 configuration must include ebgp-multihop to the neighbor statement for R2. B. The R2 BGP configuration must include bgp redistribute-internal. C. R1 must be configured with next-hop-self for the neighbor going to R2. Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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D. The AS numbers configured on R1 and R2 must match. Correct Answer: B Explanation: Whenever you redistribute from BGP to something else, BGP will only advertise externally learned routes. To allow the redistribution of iBGP routes into an interior gateway protocol such as EIGRP or OSPF, use the bgp redistribute-internal command in router configuration mode.
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. You have configured two routing protocols across this point-to-point link. How many BFD sessions will be established across this link?
A. B. C. D.
three per interface one per multicast address one per routing protocol one per interface
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco devices will use one Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) session for multiple client protocols in the Cisco implementation of BFD for Cisco IOS Releases 12.2(18)SXE, 12.0(31)S, and 12.4(4)T. For example, if a network is running OSPF and EIGRP across the same link to the same peer, only one BFD session will be established, and BFD will share session information with both routing protocols. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html#wp1053749
QUESTION 9 Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
area ID domain ID system ID NSAP selector MAC address IP address
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation: An IS (Intermediate system) is identified by an address known as a network access point (NASAP). The NSAP is divided up into three parts as specified by ISO/AI 10589: Area address--This field is of variable length, composed of high order octets, and it excludes the System ID and N-selector (NSEL) fields. This area address is associated wit a single area within Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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the routing domain. System ID--This field is 6 octets long and should be set to a unique value with Level 1 and Level The system IS defines an end system (ES) or an IS in an area. You configure the area address and the system ID with the NET command. You can display the system ID with the show isis topology command. NSEL--This field is called the N-selector, also referred to as the NSAP, and it specifies the upperlayer protocol. The NSEL is the last byte of the NSAP and identifies a network service user. A network service user is a transport entity or the IS network entity itself. When the N-selector is set to zero, the entire NSAP is called a network entity title (NET). A NET is an NSAP where the last byte is always the n-selector and is always zero. A NET can be from 8 to 20 bytes in length. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iproute_isis/command/reference/irs_book/irs_is2.html
QUESTION 10 Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer.
Correct Answer: DEF Explanation: Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) authentication issues are one of the most common causes for dialup link failures. This document provides some troubleshooting procedures for PPP authentication issues. Prerequisites Enable PPP encapsulation The PPP authentication phase does not begin until the Link Control Protocol (LCP) phase is complete and is in the open state. If debug ppp negotiation does not indicate that LCP is open, troubleshoot this issue before proceeding. Note: By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer. However, this CHAP username can be changed through the ppp chap hostname command. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/25647understanding-ppp-chap.html
QUESTION 11 Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters. It establishes IPsec security associations. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy. It protects the identities of IPsec peers. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation: The basic purpose of IKE phase 1 is to authenticate the IPSec peers and to set up a secure Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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channel between the peers to enable IKE exchanges. IKE phase 1 performs the following functions: Authenticates and protects the identities of the IPSec peers Negotiates a matching IKE SA policy between peers to protect the IKE exchange Performs an authenticated Diffie-Hellman exchange with the end result of having matching shared secret keys Sets up a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 2 parameters Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=25474&seqNum=7
QUESTION 12 Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes) RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data) passive mode (based on NetFlow data) active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation: Modes are: Mode monitor passive Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Mode monitor active Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes. Mode monitor Fast This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy. Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Technology_Overview#Mode_monitor_passive
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QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it can be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol. B. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it cannot be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol. C. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route that was created because ipv6 unicast-routing is not enabled on this router. D. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a route that was put in the IPv6 routing table because one of this router's loopback interfaces has the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1/128. Correct Answer: B Explanation: The local routes have the administrative distance of 0. This is the same adminstrative distance as connected routes. However, when you configure redistributed connected under any routing process, the connected routes are redistributed, but the local routes are not. This behavior allows the networks to not require a large number of host routes, because the networks of the interfaces are advertised with their proper masks. These host routes are only needed on the router that owns the IP address in order to process packets destined to that IP address. It is normal for local host routes to be listed in the IPv4 and IPv6 routing table for IP addresses of the router's interfaces. Their purpose is to create a corresponding CEF entry as a receive entry so that the packets destined to this IP address can be processed by the router itself. These routes cannot be redistributed into any routing protocol. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/116264-technote-ios-00.html
QUESTION 14 Which three features are considered part of the IPv6 first-hop security suite? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F.
DNS guard destination guard DHCP guard ICMP guard RA guard DoS guard
Correct Answer: BCE Explanation: Cisco IOS has (at least) these IPv6 first-hop security features: IPv6 RA Guard rejects fake RA messages coming from host (non-router) ports (not sure whether it handles all possible IPv6 header fragmentation attacks). Interestingly, it can also validate the contents of RA messages (configuration flags, list of prefixes) received through router-facing ports, potentially giving you a safeguard against an attack of fat fingers. DHCPv6 Guard blocks DHCPv6 messages coming from unauthorized DHCPv6 servers and relays. Like IPv6 RA Guard it also validates the DHCPv6 replies coming from authorized DHCPv6 Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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servers, potentially providing protection against DHCPv6 server misconfiguration. IPv6 Snooping and device tracking builds a IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table (nicer name for ND table) by monitoring DHCPv6 and ND messages as well as regular IPv6 traffic. The binding table can be used to stop ND spoofing (in IPv4 world we'd call this feature DHCP Snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection). IPv6 Source Guard uses the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table to drop traffic from unknown sources or bogus IPv6 addresses not in the binding table. The switch also tries to recover from lost address information, querying DHCPv6 server or using IPv6 neighbor discovery to verify the source IPv6 address after dropping the offending packet(s). IPv6 Prefix Guard is denies illegal off-subnet traffic. It uses information gleaned from RA messages and IA_PD option of DHCPv6 replies (delegated prefixes) to build the table of valid prefixes. IPv6 Destination Guard drops IPv6 traffic sent to directly connected destination addresses not in IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table, effectively stopping ND exhaustion attacks. Reference: http://blog.ipspace.net/2013/07/first-hop-ipv6-security-features-in.html
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl. B. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl. C. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE or 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl. D. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagatettl. E. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl. Correct Answer: C Explanation: The second hop shows and IPV6 address over MPLS, so we know that there is an MPLS network running 6PE or 6VPE. And because the second and third hops show up in the traceroute. Then Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File
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TTL is being propagated because if the "no ip propagate-ttl" command was used these devices would be hidden in the traceroute.
QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the extended community value of this route?
A. B. C. D.
RT:200:3000 RT:200:9999 RT:200:9999 RT:200:3000 RT:200:3000 RT:200:9999
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Here the route map is being used to manually set the extended community RT to 200:9999.
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this IP SLA is true?
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Exam
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200-125
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200-150
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300-206
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810-440
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820-445
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200-301
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300-701 CCNP Security,
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400-251
300-801
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300-735
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200-155
640-878
300-101
300-160
300-501
300-115
300-165
300-510
300-135
300-170
300-515
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400-101
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200-901
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642-885
300-601
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642-883
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300-910
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300-915
300-615
300-920
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300-401
CCDE
352-001
CCT Data Center
010-151
CCIE Enterprise Wireless
300-401
CCNA Industrial
200-601
CCT Routing & Switching
640-692
210-451
CCNA Security
210-260
Business Architecture Analyst
810-440
210-455
300-206
Business Architecture Specialist
820-445
300-460
300-208
Business Architecture Practitioner
840-450
300-465
300-209
Customer Success Manager Specialist
820-602
300-470
300-210
300-070
300-475
300-701
300-075
210-060
300-710
300-080
210-065
300-715
CCNA Cloud
CCNP Cloud
CCNP Security CCNA Collaboration 300-085 CCNA Collaboration 210-250
300-720
300-801
210-255
300-725
300-810
200-310
300-730
300-815
CCNA Cyber Ops
CCDA
300-820
Exams Microsoft Exams Title
Exam
Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016
70-345
Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-410
Administering Windows Server 2012
70-411
Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-412
MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-461
MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-462
MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
70-480
MCSD Programming in C#
70-483
MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications
70-486
MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
70-487
Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack
70-537
Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration
70-703
Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
70-740
MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016
70-741
Identity with Windows Server 2016
70-742
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
70-743
Securing Windows Server 2016
70-744
Developing SQL Databases
70-762
Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
70-764
Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse
70-767
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI
70-778
Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication
77-725
Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation
77-727
Windows Server Administration Fundamentals
98-365
Security Fundamentals
98-367
Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution
AI-100
Microsoft Azure Administrator
AZ-103
Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
AZ-203
Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
AZ-300
Microsoft Azure Architect Design
AZ-301
Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions
AZ-400
Microsoft Azure Security Technologies
AZ-500
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
AZ-900
Designing an Azure Data Solution
DP-201
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta)
MB-200
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales
MB-210
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
MB-220
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)
MB-240
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)
MB-300
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
MB-310
Exams Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing
MB-320
MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)
MB-330
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-894
Windows 10
MD-100
Managing Modern Desktops
MD-101
Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
MS-100
Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security
MS-101
Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)
MS-200
Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform
MS-201
Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition
MS-202
Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork
MS-300
Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)
MS-302
Microsoft 365 Security Administration
MS-500
Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams Title
Exam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)
DP-100
Implementing an Azure Data Solution
DP-200
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB-230
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment
MB2-706
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration
MB2-707
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation
MB2-708
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment
MB2-710
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation
MB2-711
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration
MB2-712
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales
MB2-713
Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service
MB2-714
Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration
MB2-716
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
MB2-718
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing
MB2-719
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service
MB2-877
Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-895
Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
MB6-896
Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail
MB6-897
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent
MB6-898
Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
MS-301
Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
MB-200
70-480
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Universal Windows Platform
Web Applications
70-483
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional
MB-300
Consultant Associate
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional
MB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
MB-320
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-300
70-742
Functional Consultant Associate
MB-330
MB2-716
Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals
MS-900
MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719
Messaging Administrator Associate
Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate
Teamwork Administrator Associate
MS-201
Windows Server 2012
Windows Server 2016
Business Applications
70-411
70-741
MB6-895
MS-202
MB6-896
MD-100
MB6-897
MD-101
MB6-898
MS-500
70-744
MS-300
70-745
MS-301
Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302
70-414
Azure Administrator Associate
AZ-103
70-537
Azure AI Engineer Associate
AI-100
70-464
DP-200
70-465
DP-201
70-466
Azure Data Engineer Associate
Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert
Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
DP-100
Data Management and
70-467
MB-200
Analytics
70-762
MB-210
70-767
AZ-203
70-768
AZ-300
70-777
AZ-301
70-345
AZ-400
MCSE Productivity Solutions
70-339
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals
AZ-900
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486 70-487
Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
Exam
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
SQL Server 2012/2014
Exam
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764
98-353
70-765
98-354
MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development
Certification Name
MTA Exams Dumps
98-355
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461
98-362
70-462 70-463
Exams CompTIA Exams Title
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)
CV0-002
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+ 2018
N10-007
CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam
PT0-001
CompTIA Server+
SK0-004
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
CAS-002
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality
FC0-U11
CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology
FC0-U21
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-Z51
Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta
MC1-001
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
TK0-201
Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
CAS-003
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-001
CompTIA Cloud Essentials
CLO-002
CompTIA CySA+
CS0-001
CompTIA Cloud+
CV0-002
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U51
CompTIA IT Fundamentals
FC0-U61
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-103
CompTIA Linux+
LX0-104
CompTIA Network+
N10-007
CompTIA Project+
PK0-004
CompTIA PenTest+
PT0-001
CompTIA Security+
SY0-501
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-201
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-202
CompTIA CTT+
TK0-203
CompTIA Linux+
XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe
Hewlett-Packard
Novell
BEGINNER/NOVICE
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACA
ASE/CSE
CNE
ACI
ISACA
EXPERT
ADVANCED
ACE
CISA
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
EXPRT
Aruba INTERMEDIATE
CGEIT CISM
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI ISC2 ADVANCED
CSSLP
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM ADVANCED
PMP
EXPERT
CISSP
ADVANCED
Red Hat INTERMEDIATE
CCP
Checkpoint
RHCSA
CWNP
CCSA CCSE
RHCE
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA CWTS
ADVANCED EXPERT
RHCA
Linux Professional Institute
Rackspace
BEGINNER/NOVICE
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
Linux Essentials
RCT
ADVANCED
INTERMEDIATE
CCA
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
Citrix INTERMEDIATE
EC Council INTERMEDIATE
CHFI CEH
GIAC INTERMEDIATE
GCIH GISP GSEC
ADVANCED
Scrum Alliance
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
EXPERT
CSP
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2 EXPERT
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
CPTE
MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE
HDI Global
Salesforce
MongoDB Certified Developer Associate
SUSE INTERMEDIATE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM
SCE
ADVANCED EXPERT
SEA
Zend INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
