bt31R0708

Set No. 1

Code No: V3104/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Briefly explain the Geological causes for the failure of St. Francis Dam, Halesbar Dam and hafayetha Dam. [16]

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2. Explain the following:

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(a) Mode of formation of minerals (b) Structures of Silicates.

[8+8]

3. Define the term “rock”. Describe the classification of rocks and their characteristics.

[16] 4. Write a note on the following:

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(a) Anticline and syncline (b) Similar and parallel folds

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(c) Open and closed folds (d) Dome and Basin.

[4 × 4]

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5. (a) What is meant by earthquake? What are the effects o f earthquakes? (b) What are the precautionary measures taken in the construction of buildings in earthquake prone zones?

[8+8]

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6. Define the term rock mechanics? What are problems and scope of rock mechanics?

[16] 7. Explain the geological causes for failure dams Quote a few case histories.

[16]

8. Write short notes on (a) Different purposes of tunnels (b) Tunnels in faulted strata. (c) Tunnels in folded strata.

[8+4+4] ?????

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3104/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Explain the terms weathering, erosion and dendudation (b) Write short notes

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i. Exfoliation, ii. Frost wedging.

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2. Describe the following group of minerals. (a) Feldspar group

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(b) Garnet group.

[8 + 2 × 4]

[8+8]

3. Define the term “rock”. Describe the classification of rocks and their characteristics.

[16]

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4. (a) What is meant by fault? Explain the mechanism of fault.

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(b) What are the causes and effects of faulting?

5. Explain the following:

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[8+8]

(a) Terminology of earthquake. (b) Classification and causes of earthquake.

[8+8]

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6. Explain the types of electrode configuration, profiling, sounding and applications of resistivity methods and their importance of Civil Engineering?

[16] 7. What are the parts of a dam, types of dams and different purposes of dam Construction?

[16] 8. Write short notes on (a) Different purposes of tunnels (b) Tunnels in faulted strata. (c) Tunnels in folded strata.

[8+4+4] ?????

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3104/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Briefly explain the Geological causes for the failure of St. Francis Dam, Halesbar Dam and hafayetha Dam. [16]

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2. Write short note on the following:

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(a) Moh’s Scale of hardness. (b) Polymorphism (c) Isomorphism.

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[6+5+5]

3. Define the term “rock”. Describe the classification of rocks and their characteristics.

[16]

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4. (a) What is meant by fault? Explain the mechanism of fault. (b) What are the causes and effects of faulting?

[8+8]

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5. (a) What is meant by earthquake? What are the effects o f earthquakes? (b) What are the precautionary measures taken in the construction of buildings in earthquake prone zones?

[8+8]

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6. (a) What are the possible sources of ground water pollution? (b) Detail the three possible mechanisms of Arsenic release into ground water.

[8+8]

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7. What are the parts of a dam, types of dams and different purposes of dam Construction?

[16] 8. Write short notes on (a) Different purposes of tunnels (b) Tunnels in faulted strata. (c) Tunnels in folded strata.

[8+4+4] ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3104/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Civil Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are the various branches of Geology and explain their relevance form Civil Engineering point of view.

[16]

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2. Explain the following:

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(a) Mode of formation of minerals (b) Structures of Silicates.

[8+8]

3. Define the term “rock”. Describe the classification of rocks and their characteristics.

[16] 4. Write a note on the following:

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(a) Symmetrical and asymmetrical folds (b) Isoclinal and Recumbent folds

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(c) Geoanticline and Geosyncline (d) Drag folds.

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[4 × 4]

5. (a) Explain the classification of earthquakes in to tectonic and nontectonic types. (b) Explain the terms intensity and magnitude of earthquakes.

[8+8]

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6. (a) What are the possible sources of ground water pollution? (b) Detail the three possible mechanisms of Arsenic release into ground water.

[8+8]

7. Write a short note on the following: (a) geological considerations in the successful reservoir (b) Capacity of reservoir. (c) Effect of evaporation in reservoir. (d) Life of reservoir.

[4 × 4]

8. Draw suitable sketches and explain the consideration for locating tunnels in folded and faulted formations.

[16] ?????

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Code No: V3107/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 Linear System Analysis (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

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1. (a) For the network shown determine the state equations in terms of iL and Vc as state variable.

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[8 M]

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(b) A system is described by a third order differential equation x + 7 x + 14 x + 8 x = u ( t ). Develop state space representation where the system matrix is a diagonal one.

[8 M]

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2. (a) Determine the Fourier series in trigonometric form for the given function.

v(t) = vm cos 5Ɋt 0 ” t ” 0.1 =0 0.1 ” t ” 0.3 (b) Find the Fourier transform of the following signals (i) f (t) = į (t) (ii) f(t) = e-at u(t).

[8 M] [8 M]

Code No: V3107/R07

3. (a) The current through 1- Č? resistor is given as i(t) = 10 + 10 sin ČŚt + 5 sin 3ČŚt +3 sin 5ČŚt Determine rms value of current and the power dissipated in the resistance.

[8 M] -t (b) The input to the given linear system is v1 = 3 e u (t). Determine the response of the system.

[8 M] 4. (a) In the figure shown below the switch is initially at position ‘a’. After −

−

steady state condition is reached when i(0) = 2 A and Vc (0) 2V. The switch is now thrown to position ‘b’. Determine the current in the circuit.

[8 M]

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(b) A triangular wave shown below is applied to a series RL circuit with R=1Č?, L=1H. Determine the current i(t) through the circuit.

[8 M]

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5. (a) Find the range of ‘a’ so that H(S) = S4+S3+aS2+2S+3 is Hurwitz. (b) Test whether the following function is positive real or not?

N(S) =

S +2 S + 3S + 2 2

[8+8 M]

6. (a) Synthesize a network which has the impedance function 5 S 3 + 2 S 2 + 3S + 1 Z(S) = 5S 3 + 3S

(b) Synthesize the function z(s) wing first Foster form of realization

Code No: V3107/R07 Z(S) =

S ( S 2 + 10) ( S 2 + 4)( S 2 + 16)

[8+8 M]

7. (a) Compare energy spectral density with power spectral density function. (b) Explain the sampling process in band pass signals.

[8+8 M] 8. (a) Discuss about Region of convergence for the z-transform and its important properties. (b) Determine the z-transforms of the following sequences. (i) x (n) = Ar (ii) x (n) = Arn. [8+8 M]

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Code No: V3107/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 Linear System Analysis (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

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1. (a) Write the state equations using equivalent source method for the network shown: [8 M]

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(b) State and prove any four properties of state transition matrix.

[8 M] 2. (a) Find exponential Fourier series and plot spectrum for the signal shown below.

[10 M]

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(b) Determine the Fourier transform of the signum function.

[6 M]

3. (a)Determine the output voltage across the capacitor if the excitation is a current source i (t) = e-t u (t) for the circuit shown below.

Code No: V3107/R07

(b) A series RLC circuit has an applied voltage of v (t) = 150 sin 314t + 100 sin 628t + 75 sin 942t. If R=5Č?, L=5mH and C=50Č?F. Determine the effective current and average power.

[8 M] 4. (a) Determine the transform current I(s) in the given circuit assuming initial conditions to be zero.

[8 M]

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(b) Find the initial and final value of the current whose current transform function is I(s) =

0.32 S ( S + 2.42 S + 0.672) 2

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[8 M]

5. (a) Test whether the following function is a positive real function or not.

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N(S) =

2

S + S + 3S + 5 S 2 + 6S + 8

[10 M] (b) Check whether the given polynomial H(s) = S +2S +3S+6 is Hurwitz or not.

6. (a) Synthesize the Foster II form network when its admittance function is

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given as

3

2

S ( S 2 + 3)( S 2 + 5) Y(S) = ( S 2 + 2)( S 2 + 4)

( S 2 + 1)( S 2 + 3) (b) Synthesize the LC impedance function Z(s) = in II cauer S ( S 2 + 2)

form.

[8+8 M]

7. (a) Explain about power spectral density. (b) Define auto-correlation and explain the properties of it.

8. (a) Determine the inverse transform of X(Z) =

[8+8 M]

3Z 4 − 10 Z 3 − 5.75Z 2 ( Z − 1)( Z − 0.5)( Z 2 + 0.25)

(b) Define Z-transform and discuss about the different properties of ztransform.

[8+8 M]

Code No: V3107/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 Linear System Analysis (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

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1. (a) Write the state equations using graph theory for the network shown below.

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(b) A system is described by a third order differential equation x + 9 x + 26 x + 24 x = 12 u ( t ). Where x is the output and u (t) is the input.

Obtain the state space representation of the system.

[8+8 M] 2. (a) Determine the Fourier series of the function ିŕŻ? ŕŻ? f (t) = t ; ŕľ‘ ‍ Ý?‏ྑ ଶ ଶ and f (t+T) = f(t) (b) Find the Fourier transform of the Gaussian function.

[8+8 M]

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3. (a) In a two-element series network voltage and current are given as v = 50 + 50 sin 314t + 50 sin 942t i = 10 sin (314t+600) + 15 sin (942 t +450) Determine the power consumed and the network elements. (b) Determine the output voltage across the capacitor to a current source excitation i (t) = e-t u (t) for the circuit shown below.

[8+8 M]

Code No: V3107/R07

4. (a) For the circuit shown below, the initial capacitor voltage is 1V. If the switch is closed, determine the current response.

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(b) The impulse response h (t) of a continuous time system is given by h(t)=e-2t cos 3t u (t). Determine its response to a unit step input. [8+8 M] 5. (a) Check whether the given polynomial H(S) = S +S +5S2+3S+4 is Hurwitz or not. (b) State and explain the properties of positive real function.

[8+8 M]

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4

3

6. (a) Synthesize the network in the two Foster forms (series RL impedance and parallel RC admittance) of the given function

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F(S) =

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( S + 1)( S + 5) ( S + 3)( S + 7)

(b) Synthesize impedance function Z(s) =

( S 2 + 2)( S 2 + 4) S ( S 2 + 3)( S 2 + 5)

[8+8 M] 7. (a) Discuss about the principle of flat top sampling with neat schematics. (b) Define cross-correlation function and explain the properties of it.

[8+8 M]

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8. (a) Determine the Z-transform of the sequence x(n) = A e-ÄŽn cos Č•n 2Z 2 + 3Z (b) Determine the inverse of the Z-transform x (Z) = ( Z − 1)( Z − 0.5) [8+8 M]

Code No: V3107/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 Linear System Analysis (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

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1. (a) Write the state equation in matrix form for the circuit shown below.

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Ͳ Íł (b) Given A = ቂ ቃ Determine eAt. ྆͝ ྆͸

[10+8 M]

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2. (a) Determine the Fourier series for the saw-tooth function shown below

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(b) Determine the Fourier transform of the exponential voltage function given by v = V e-t/T t Â&#x2022; 0 v=0 t<0 [8+8 M] 3. (a) The input signal to a network is Vi(t) = e-2t u (t). The transfer function of ଵ the network H (jČŚ) = . Find output. ŕŻ?ఠାସ

(b) In an electric circuit voltage and currents are given by v = 10 sin t + 5 sin 3t

Code No: V3107/R07 i = 5 sin 2t + 2 sin 5t Determine the average power in the circuit.

[8+8 M]

4. (a) In the circuit shown below, the switch K is moved from position 1 to position 2 at t=0, a steady state having previously been established at position 1. Solve for the current i (t).

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(b) A 10V step voltage is applied across a RC series circuit at t=0. Find i (t) at t=0+ and obtain the value of di/dt at t=0+. Assume R=100Č?, C=100Č?F. [8+8 M]

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5. (a) Check if the polynomial P(S) = 2S4+5S3+6S2+2S+1 is Hurwitz or not.

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(b) Show that the function N(S) =

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( S + 2)( S + 4) is positive real. [8+8 M] ( S + 1)( S + 3)

S ( S 2 + 10) 6. (a) Find first foster from of LC network Z(s) = 2 ( S + 4)( S 2 + 16)

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(b) Synthesize L-C immittance function Z(s) =

2( S 2 + 1)( S 2 + 9) in to second caver form.

S ( S 2 + 4)

7. Write a short notes on (i) Band pass sampling (ii) Power density spectrum (iii) Properties of correlation function.

8. (a) Determine the inverse of the following Z-transform x(Z) =

[8+8 M]

[16 M] 2Z 2Z + 2 2 Z +1 Z â&#x2C6;&#x2019;1

(b) Determine the solution of the given second order difference equation y (k+2) + 3y (k+1) + 2y (k) = u (k) with initial conditions y (0) =3 and y (1) =2.

[8+8 M]

Set No. 1

Code No: V3114/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 HEAT TRANSFER (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Derive an expression for general heat conduction equation of Rectangular coordinate system.

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(b) Calculate the rate of heat loss for a red brick wall of length 5m, height 4m, and thickness 0.25m. The temperature of the inner surface is 1100 C and that of the outer surface is 400 C. The thermal conductivity of red brick, K=0.70 W/mk, Calculate also the temperature at an interior point of the wall, 20cm distant from the inner wall.

[10+6]

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2. (a) Derive the expression for heat transfer for the case of a straight rectangular fin of uniform cross section when the tip of the fin is end insulated. (b) A steel rod (K = 32 W/mk), 12mm in diameter and 60mm long, with an insulated is to be used as a spine. It is exposed to surroundings with a temperature of 600 C and a heat transfer coefficient of 55 W/mk. The temperature at the base of fin is 950 C. Determine

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i. Efficiency of fin ii. Heat dissipation of the fin.

[8+8]

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3. (a) Explain the lumped heat capacity analysis? (b) An aluminum sphere weighing 5.5kg and initially at a temperature of 2900 C is suddenly immersed in a fluid at 150 C. The convective heat transfer coefficient in 59 W/m2 k. Estimate the time required to cool the aluminum to 950 C. [6+10]

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4. (a) Define the local and average skin friction (drag) coefficient for a flat smooth plate at zero incidence. (b) A thin flat plate has been placed longitudinally in a steam of air at 200 C and while flows with undisturbed velocity of 7.5 m/s. The surface of plate is maintained at a uniform temperature of 1200 C. i. calculate the heat transfer coefficient 0.8m from the leading edge of the plate, ii. Also calculate the rate of heat transfer from one side of the plate to the air over the first 0.8 m length. Assume unit width of the plate.

[8+8] 5. (a) The boundary layer thickness for a free convection process is more than in the case of forced convection process. Why?

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3114/R07

(b) A plate of size 20 cm Ă&#x2014; 30 cm is used as a water heater in a process plant.

The temperature of water is 20o C while the heater plate is maintained at a temperature of 120o C. Determine the heat transfer rate by free convection when 20 cm side of the heater is kept vertical.

[4+12] 6. (a) What is Leidenfrost point? What is its significance? (b) Water at saturation temperature and atmospheric pressure is boiled in the stable film boiling regime with an electrically heated, horizontal platinum wire of diameter 1.27 mm. Calculate the surface temperature necessary to produce [6+10]. a heat flux of 150 kW/m2

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7. A one shell pass, two tube pass heat exchanger has a total surface area of 5 m2 and its overall heat transfer coefficient based on that area is found to be 1400 W/m2 K. If 4500 kg/h of water enters the shell side at 315o C while 9000 kg/h of water enters the tube side at 40o C, find the outlet temperatures using

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(a) The correction factor LMTD method and

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(b) Effectiveness-NTU method. Take cp for both fluid streams as 4.187 kJ/kg K. [16]

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8. A spherical satellite of 1 m diameter encircles the earth at an altitude of 483 km.

Estimate the shape factor of the earth from the satellite and hence calculate the equilibrium temperature of the satellite on the dark side and on the bright side of the earth. Assume that the diameter of the earth is 12880 km and its black body temperature is 20o C. The temperature of outer space may be taken as 0 K and the satellite is irradiated with a heat flux of 1.3 kW/m2 from the Sun when on the bright side.

[16]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3114/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 HEAT TRANSFER (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Explain the scope of the study of heat transfer. (b) A cubical tank of water of volume 1 m3 is kept at a steady temperature of 65 0 C by a 1 kW heater. The heater us switched off. How long does the tank take to cool to 50 0 C if the room temperatue is 15 0 C. [6+10]

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2. (a) Sketch various types of fin configurations?

(b) Aluminum fins of rectangular profile are attached on a plane wall with 5 mm spacing. The fins have thickness 1 mm, length = 10 mm and the normal conductivity K = 200 W/mk. The wall is maintained at a temperature of 2000 C and the fins dissipate heat by convection into ambient air at 400 C, with heat transfer coefficient = 50 W/m2 k. Find the heat loss.

[6+10]

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3. (a) A large slab of aluminum at a uniform temperature of 2000 C is suddenly exposed to a convective surface environment of 700 C with a heat transfer coefficient of 525 W/m2 k.Estimate time required for a point 4cm from the surface to come up to a temperature level of 1200 C. (Take k = 215 W/mk, α = 8.4 ×10−5 m2 /s).

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(b) A 40×40 cm copper slab 5mm thick at a uniform temperature of 2500 C. Suddenly has its surface temperature lowered to 300 C. Find the time at which the slab temperature becomes 900 C, ρ = 9000 kg/m3 , Cp = 0.38 kJ/kg.k, K = 370 W/mk and h = 90 W/m2 k.

[8+8]

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4. (a) Water at 500 C enters a 1.5cm diameter and 3m long tube with a velocity of 1m/s. The tube wall is maintained at a constant temperature of 900 C. Calculate the heat transfer coefficient and the total amount of heat transferred if the exit water temperature is 640 C. (b) What is Reynolds analogy? Describe the relation between fluid friction and heat transfer.

[8+8] 5. (a) What is the recommended correlation for natural convection over a vertical plate or cylinder in the turbulent region? (b) How is the velocity field developed in front of a vertical plate which is maintained at a temperature? i. Higher ii. Lower, than the surrounding fluid.

6. (a) Explain partial or unstable film boiling.

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[6+10]

Set No. 2

Code No: V3114/R07

(b) During the boiling of saturated water at 100o C with an electric heating element, a heat flux of 500 kW/m2 is achieved with a temperature difference of 9.5o C. What is the value of the coefficient Csf for the heater surface? [6+10] 7. (a) What do you mean by fouling factor? What are the causes of fouling? (b) A double pipe heat exchanger is constructed of a stainless steel ( k = 15.1 W/mK) inner tube of Di = 15 mm and Do = 19 mm and the outer tube of diameter 32 mm. The convective heat transfer coefficient is given to be hi = 800W/m2 K and ho = 1200W/m2 K. For a fouling factor of Rf i = 0.0004m2 K/W on the tube side and Rf o = 0.0001m2 K/W on the shell side, determine

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i. The total thermal resistance ii. Ui and iii. Uo of the heat exchanger.

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[4+12]

8. (a) What is the Stefan-Boltzman Law? Explain the concept of total emissive power of a surface.

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(b) A surface transmits 80% of the radiation incident on it in the range 0.3 to 1.0 Âľ and it is opaque for radiation of any other wavelength. Estimate the heat flux passing through the surface if it is receiving radiation from a black surface at 1500 K. [6+10]

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3114/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 HEAT TRANSFER (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Derive steady state general heat conduction equation without heat generation in spherical systems.

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(b) State and explain the mode of conduction heat transfer.

[10+6]

2. (a) A plate 20 mm thick and 100 mm wide is used to heat a fluid at 300 C. The heat generation rate inside the plate is 7 × 106 W/m3 . Determine the heat transfer coefficient to maintain the temperature of the plate below1800 C. Given K = 26 W/m0 C.

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(b) Explain the following: i. Efficiency of fin. ii. Effectiveness of fin.

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[10+6]

3. (a) Explain lumped parameter analysis of heat conduction in solids. (b) An aluminum alloy plate of 400mm × 400mm × 4mm size at 2000 C is suddenly quenched into liquid oxygen at -1830 C. Determine the time required for the plate to reach a temperature of -700 C. Assume h = 20000kJ/m2 -hr-k, Cp = 0.8 kJ/kg.k and ρ= 3000 kg/m3 . Take K for aluminum as 770.4 kJ/m-hr-k.

[6+10]

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4. (a) Air at 200 C and 1 atmosphere flows over a flat plate at 35 m/s. The plate is 75 cm long and is maintained at 600 C. Calculate the heat transfer from the plate per unit width of the plate. Also calculate the turbulent boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate assuming it to develop from the leading edge of the plate.

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(b) Distinguish between bulk mean temperature and film temperature.

[12+4]

5. Show that for laminar flow of air (Pr = 0.714), the local and average values of Nusselt number for natural convection heat transfer from or to a vertical plate are given by 1/4 1/4 Nux = 0.378 Grx ; NuL = 0.504GrL .

[16] 6. Saturated steam at atmospheric pressure condenses on a horizontal copper tube of 25 mm inner diameter and 29 mm outer diameter through water flows at the rate of 25 kg/min entering at 30o C and leaving at 70o C. Making necessary assumptions, calculate (a) The condensing heat transfer coefficient

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3114/R07 (b) The inside heat transfer coefficient (c) The length of the tube.

[16]

7. (a) What are the different flow arrangements in recuperative heat exchangers? (b) Steam in the condenser of a steam power plant is to be condensed at a temperature of 30o C with cooling water entering at 14o C and leaving at 22o C. The surface area of the tubes is 45 m2 and the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2100 W/m2 K. Determine the mass flow rate of the cooling water needed and the rate of condensation of steam. Take hf g at 30o C is equal to 2430.5 kJ/kg.

[4+12]

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8. (a) Plot Eb位 / T5 versus 位T. What does the curve signify?

(b) Explain the electrical analogy for radiative heat transfer in a black enclosure.

Draw the equivalent electrical net work for radiative flux between four walls of a black enclosure.

[6+10] ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3114/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 HEAT TRANSFER (Mechanical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Explain the scope of the study of heat transfer. (b) A cubical tank of water of volume 1 m3 is kept at a steady temperature of 65 0 C by a 1 kW heater. The heater us switched off. How long does the tank take to cool to 50 0 C if the room temperatue is 15 0 C. [6+10]

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2. (a) Derive the expression for heat transfer for the case of a straight rectangular fin of uniform cross section when the tip of the fin is end insulated. (b) A steel rod (K = 32 W/mk), 12mm in diameter and 60mm long, with an insulated is to be used as a spine. It is exposed to surroundings with a temperature of 600 C and a heat transfer coefficient of 55 W/mk. The temperature at the base of fin is 950 C. Determine

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i. Efficiency of fin ii. Heat dissipation of the fin.

[8+8]

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3. (a) Explain the lumped heat capacity analysis? (b) An aluminum sphere weighing 5.5kg and initially at a temperature of 2900 C is suddenly immersed in a fluid at 150 C. The convective heat transfer coefficient in 59 W/m2 k. Estimate the time required to cool the aluminum to 950 C. [6+10]

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4. (a) Air at 200 C and 1 atmosphere flows over a flat plate at 35 m/s. The plate is 75 cm long and is maintained at 600 C. Calculate the heat transfer from the plate per unit width of the plate. Also calculate the turbulent boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate assuming it to develop from the leading edge of the plate. (b) Distinguish between bulk mean temperature and film temperature.

[12+4]

5. Estimate the electrical power required to maintain a vertical heater surface at 130o C in ambient air at 20o C. The plate is 15 cm high and 10 cm wide. Compare with results for a plate 450 cm high. The heat transfer coefficient for radiation is 8.5 W/m2 K in both cases.

[16] 6. Saturated air free steam at 75o C condenses on a 0.5m Ă&#x2014; 0.5m vertical plate maintained at a uniform temperature of 45o C. Calculate (a) The average heat transfer coefficient over the entire length of the plate (b) The total rate of condensation 1 of 2

Set No. 4

Code No: V3114/R07

(c) The thickness of the condensate at the bottom of the plate.

[16]

7. (a) What is the limitation of the LMTD method? How is NTU method superior to correction factor LMTD method? (b) Show that for counter flow heat exchanger Îľ = 1- exp[- NTU (1-R)] / [(1 - R) exp[-NTU(1-R)]] Where R = Cmin / Cmax .

[6+10]

8. (a) Explain the terms absorptivity, reflectivity and transmissivity. (b) Fused quartz transmits 90% of the incident thermal radiation between 0.2 and 4 Âľ. Suppose a certain heat source is viewed through the quartz window, what heat flux in Watts will be transmitted through the material from black body radiation sources at i. ii. iii. iv.

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800o C 550o C 250o C 70o C.

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3122/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Show that in a PCM system, the output signal power to quantization noise power ratio can be expressed as S/NQ = (3/2) (4f B/f m ). Where fB is the channel bandwidth and fm is the message bandwidth.

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(b) The bandwidth of a TV radio plus audio signal is 4.5MHz. If this signal is converted to PCM with 1024 quantizing levels. Determine the bit rate of the resulting PCM signal. Assume that the signal is sampled at a rate 20% above the Nyquist rate.

[10+6]

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2. (a) What is Delta modulation and compare with PCM?

(b) Discuss different types of noise effects in delta modulation.

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[8+8]

3. Explain the design and analysis of M-ary signaling schemes. List the waveforms in quaternary schemes.

[16] 4. (a) Draw the block diagram of duo - binary PAM system and explain.

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(b) Mention the drawbacks in duo - binary correlative level coding with neat waveforms.

[10+6]

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5. One experiment has four mutual exclusive outcomes Aj , j =1, 2, 3, 4 and second experiment has three mutually exclusive outcomes Bj , j=1, 2, 3. The joint probabilities P (A, B) are P (A1 , B1 ) = 0.10 P (A1 , B2 ) = 0.08 P (A1 , B3 ) = 0.13 P (A2 , B1 ) = 0.05 P (A2 , B2 ) = 0.03 P (A2 , B3 ) = 0.09 P (A3 , B1 ) = 0.11 P (A3 , B2 ) = 0.04 P (A3 , B3 ) = 0.06 With the given joint probabilities P (Ai , Bj ), if the outcomes Ai , i=1, 2, 3, 4 of experiment A. Determine the Average Mutual Information I (B; A).

[16]

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6. (a) Define the channel capacity in terms of average signal-power and noise power. (b) Mention the two important implications of Shannon-Hartley theorem?

7. The parity check bits of a (8, 4) block code are generated by C5 =d1 + d2 + d4 C6 =d1 + d2 + d3 C7 =d1 + d3 + d4 C8 =d2 + d3 + d4 Where d1 , d2 ,d3 and d4 are message bits. (a) Find the error capabilities of this code.

1 of 2

[16]

Set No. 1

Code No: V3122/R07

(b) Show with an example that this code can detect three errors / codeword.

[16] 8. Explain various methods for describing Conventional Codes.

[16]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3122/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) State sampling theorem for low pass signals and band pass signals. (b) What is aliasing effect? How it can be eliminated? Explain with neat diagram.

[4+4+8] 2. (a) What is Delta modulation and compare with PCM?

3. (a) Compare digital modulation signaling schemes in terms of i. ii. iii. iv.

Bandwidth requirements Power requirements Immunity to channel impairments Equipment complexity.

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(b) Discuss different types of noise effects in delta modulation.

[8+8]

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(b) Discuss the M-ary signaling scheme in brief.

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[12+4]

4. (a) Find the impulse response of duo ? binary filter and draw the response. (b) Why the overall transfer function of the duo - binary filter is called as half cycle cosine function.

[8+8]

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5. The output of Discrete Memoryless Source (DMS) consists of the possible letters x1 , x2 , x3 ,............xn , which occur with probabilities p1 , p2 , p3 , ............pn , respectively.

Prove that the Entropy H(X) of the source is at most log n.

[16]

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6. (a) Define the channel capacity in terms of average signal-power and noise power. (b) Mention the two important implications of Shannon-Hartley theorem?

[16]

7. (a) Explain about single error correcting hamming codes. (b) Prove that â&#x20AC;&#x153;A linear coed with minimum distance dmin can correct up to [(dmin -1)/2] errors and detect up to dmin -1 errors in each code word, Where [(dmin -1)/2] denotes the largest integer number greater than (dmin -1)/2â&#x20AC;?.

[16] 8. Draw and explain Trellis diagram of convolutional encoder shown in figure 8 with L=2, k=2, n=3.

[16]

1 of 2

Set No. 2

Code No: V3122/R07

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Figure 8 ?????

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3122/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) State sampling theorem for low pass signals and band pass signals. (b) What is aliasing effect? How it can be eliminated? Explain with neat diagram.

[4+4+8]

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2. A DM system is tested with a 10kHz sinusoidal signal, 1V peak to peak at the input. The signal is sampled at 10times the Nyquist rate.

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(a) What is the step size required to prevent slope overload and to minimize the granular noise.

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(b) What is the power spectral density of the granular noise?

(c) If the receiver input is band limited to 200kHz, what is the average (S/NQ ).

[6+5+5]

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3. (a) Draw the signal space representation of MSK.

(b) Show that in a MSK signaling scheme, the carrier frequency in integral multiple of ‘fb /4’ where ‘fb ’ is the bit rate.

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(c) Bring out the comparisons between MSK and QPSK.

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4. (a) What is meant by ISI? Explain how it differs from cross talk in the PAM. (b) What is the ideal solution to obtain zero ISI and what is the disadvantage of this solution.

[6+10]

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5. Write short notes on the following: (a) Mutual Information.

(b) Self Information. (c) Logarithmic measure for information.

[16]

6. (a) What are the various characteristics of Ideal system? Explain. (b) Does an Ideal system proposed by Shannon can be implemented in practice?

Justify.

[16] 7. Prove S=EHT where E is error vector and H is parity check matrix.

Consider a (7, 4) Linear code

whose generator matrix is

1 0 0 0| 1 1 1

0 1 0 0| 1 1 0

G =

0 0 1 0| 1 0 1

0 0 0 1| 0 1 1

Find 1 of 2

Set No. 3

Code No: V3122/R07 (a) all the code vectors of this data. (b) the parity check matrix for this code. (c) the minimum weight of this code.

[16]

8. Figure 8 describer the encoder which has four states a, b, c, d corresponding to M1, M2 = 00, 01, 10, 11 respectively, draw the Tree Diagram.

[16]

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3122/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 DIGITAL COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics & Communication Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Draw the block diagram of a PCM system and explain each block in detail. (b) Give the advantages of PCM over other digital techniques.

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2. (a) What is Delta modulation and compare with PCM? (b) Discuss different types of noise effects in delta modulation.

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3. (a) Explain the signal space representation of QPSK.

(b) Compare QPSK with all other digital signaling schemes.

[12+4]

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[8+8]

[8+8]

4. (a) Derive an expression for error probability in a baseband PAM system. (b) The π ? filter (C1 = 157.6pF, L1 = 51µH, C2 = 39.6pF) followed by a resistive load (R=481Ω) is used for both the transmitting and receiving filter in a binary PAM system. The channel is ideal low pass with additive gaussian noise. Assume that the bit rate at the input is (6.28 ×106 ) bits/sec. and pg (t) is a rectangular pulse with a width is Tb . Find pr (t) and sketch it.

[8+8]

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5. (a) Describe the Logarithmic measure for information. (b) What are the nuts? Explain.

[16]

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6. An Ideal channel lowpass channel of bandwidth B Hz with additive Gaussian white noise is used for transmitting of digital information.

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(a) Plot C/B versus S/N in dB for an Ideal System using this channel.

(b) A practical signaling scheme on this channel uses one of two waveforms of duration Tb sec to transmit binary information.

The signaling scheme transmits data at the rate of 2B bits/sec, the probability of error is given by P(error|1sent) =Pe .

Plot graphs of i. C/B ii. Dt / B. where Dt is rate of information transmission over channel.

7. The parity check bits of a (8, 4) block code are generated by C5 =d1 + d2 + d4 C6 =d1 + d2 + d3 C7 =d1 + d3 + d4 C8 =d2 + d3 + d4 Where d1 , d2 , d3 and d4 are message bits.

Find 1 of 2

[16]

Set No. 4

Code No: V3122/R07

(a) the generator matrix and parity check matrix for this code. (b) the minimum weight of this code.

[16]

8. Draw and explain State diagram of convolutional encoder shown in figure 8 with rate=1/2, L=3.

[16]

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Figure 8

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Code No: V3124/R07

^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϭ

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS (Common to CSE, IT) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) What is an open system? Explain, in detail, about open systems interconnection. (b) Explain, in detail, about quadrature amplitude modulation and trellis code modulation.

[8 + 8 M]

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2. (a) What is a metallic transmission line? Explain the five types of metallic transmission line losses. (b) State Snell’s law for refraction and outline its significance for optical fiber cables.

[8 + 8 M]

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3. (a) What do you understand by companding? Compare analog companding and digital companding. (b) A PCM-TDM system multiplexes 24 voice-band channels. Each sample is encoded into 7-bits., and a framing bit is added to each frame. The sampling rate is 9000 samples per second. Determine the line speed in bps.

[8 + 8 M] 4. (a)What is a radio wave? What are the optical properties of radio waves?

Explain all the details of how they relate to radio wave propagation? (b) What are the three modes of terrestrial propagation of electromagnetic waves? Explain.

[8 + 8 M]

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5. (a) Compare the operation of a cordless telephone and a standard telephone. (b) What considerations are addressed by facility parameters? Compare phase hits and phase jitter.

[8 + 8 M] 6. (a) What is N-AMPS cellular telephone system? Explain the operation of NAMPS cellular telephone system. (b) List the basic parameters of GSM and describe, briefly, the GSM radio subsystem.

[8 + 8 M] 7. (a) What is a SYN character? Compare and contrast synchronous and asynchronous serial data formats. For the following sequence of bits over the

^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϭ

Code No: V3124/R07

time from left to right, identify the ASCII- encoded character, the start and stop bits, and the parity bits (assume an even parity and two stop bits): 11111101000001011110001000 (b) What is high speed modem synchronization? What are the purposes of scrambler and descrambler circuits? Illustrate with an example. [8 +8 M] 8. (a) What is a line discipline of a data link protocol? Illustrate an enquiry/acknowledgement (ENQ/ACK) line discipline with an example. (b) Compare synchronous data link control (SDLC) and high level data link control (HDLC). Describe the HDLC operational modes.

[8 +8 M]

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^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ Ϯ

Code No: V3124/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS (Common to CSE, IT) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) What is meant by a layered protocol? Why are protocol layered? Explain. (b) What is meant by M-ary encoding? Explain higher-than-binary encoding with an example.

[8 + 8 M]

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2. (a) What is a transverse electromagnetic wave? Explain with a neat diagram. (b) What is an optical fiber mode? Explain the three practical types of optical fiber modes.

[8 + 8 M]

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3. (a) What is the relationship between dynamic range and the number of bits in a pulse code modulation (PCM) code? For a PCM system with the minimum dynamic range: 46dB, determine minimum number of bits used in the PCM code. (b) What is superframe and extended superframe time division multiplexing (TDM) format? Explain each with an example.

[8 + 8 M]

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4. (a) What is meant by a free space path loss of an electromagnetic wave?

Give the mathematical equation in decibel form. Determine, in dB, the free space path loss for a frequency of 6 GHz traveling a distance of 50km. (b) What is a satellite multiple accessing arrangement? List and describe, in detail with neat diagrams, the three forms of satellite multiple accessing arrangements.

[8 + 8 M]

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5. (a) What is a paging system? Describe, in detail with a neat block diagram, how a paging system works. (b) What is meant by transmission line conditioning? Compare C-type and D-type line conditioning.

[8 + 8 M] 6. (a) What are the three primary subsystems of GSM? Describe, in detail, the GSM system architecture. (b) Explain, in detail with neat diagrams, the CDMA traffic channels.

[8+ 8 M]

^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ Ϯ

Code No: V3124/R07

7. (a) What is a Hamming code? For a 12-bit data string of: 101100010010, determine the number of Hamming bits required, arbitrarily place the Hamming bits into the data string, determine the logic condition of each Hamming bit, assume an arbitrary single –bit transmission error, and prove that the Hamming code will successfully detect the error. (b) Explain the terms: bits per second (bps), baud, probability of error, bit error rate with an example each.

[8 + 8 M] 8. (a) What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous data link protocols? Explain, with a neat frame format, how the XMODEM protocol works. (b) What is an invert-on zero encoding? Obtain the non return-to-zero inverted (NRZI) encoding to the data stream: 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0111000111 [8 + 8 M]

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^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϯ

Code No: V3124/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS (Common to CSE, IT) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) What is the difference between the communication of data and communication of information? (b) What is the difference between electrical noise and thermal noise? For an electronic device operating at 17oC with a bandwidth of 10 kHz, determine the thermal noise power in watts and dBm. [8 + 8 M]

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2. (a) What is a transmission line? Compare balanced and unbalanced transmission lines. (b) What is an optical communication system? Explain an optical fiber communication system with a neat block diagram.

[8 + 8 M]

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3. (a) What is pulse code modulation (PCM) line speed? For single-channel PCM system with a sample rate, fs = 6000 samples per second and a 7-bit compressed PCM code , determine the line speed. (b) What is a T carrier system? What is a fractional T carrier? Describe, in detail, the various T carrier systems.

[8 + 8 M]

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4. (a) What is a radio wave? What are the optical properties of radio waves?

Explain all the details of how they relate to radio wave propagation? (b) What is meant by a free space path loss of an electromagnetic wave?

Give the mathematical equation in decibel form. Determine, in dB, the free space path loss for a frequency of 6 GHz traveling a distance of 50km.

[8 + 8 M]

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5. (a) What is a telephone set? Describe, in detail with a neat diagram, the various functional components of a standard telephone set. (b) What is the difference between dB and dBm? Determine: (i) the power levels in dBm for signal levels of 10mW and 0.5mW (ii) the difference between the two power levels in dB. [8 + 8 M] 6. (a) Explain the classifications of CDMA radiated power. Determine the transmit power for a CDMA mobile unit that is receiving a signal from the base station at -100dBm.

Code No:

^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϯ

V3124/R07

(b) What is a digital cellular system? List the advantages of a digital cellular system.

[8 + 8 M] 7. (a) Compare longitudinal and cyclic redundancy checking. Determine the block check character (BCC) for the following polynomials: Data polynomial, G(x) = x8 + x5 + x2 + x0 Generating polynomial, P(x) = x5 + x4 + x1 + x0. (b) What is modem synchronization? What are its functions? Compare cable modems and standard voice band modems.

[8 + 8 M] 8. (a) What is a synchronous data link control(SDLC)? Describe, in detail, the various fields of the SDLC frame format. (b) What is the transparency mechanism used with SDLC? Illustrate with an example.

[8 + 8 M]

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^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϰ

Code No: V3124/R07

III B. Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, MAY 2010 DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS (Common to CSE, IT) Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80 Answer Any FIVE Questions All Questions Carry Equal Marks *****

1. (a) Compare peer-to-peer client/server network and dedicated client/server network (b) What is a signal-to-noise power ratio? For a circuit with a signal power of 100W and a noise power of 0.002mW, determine the signal-to-noise power ratio in absolute and dB values.

[8 + 8 M]

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2. (a) What is a plenum cable? Compare plenum and non-plenum cables. (b) What is a laser? Explain, in detail, the four types of lasers.

[8 + 8 M]

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3. (a) What do you understand by signal voltage-to-quantization noise voltage ratio? Give its relationship to resolution, dynamic range, and the maximum number of bits in a pulse code modulation (PCM). (b) Compare wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) and dense wave division multiplexing (D-WDM); and also list the advantages and disadvantages of WDM. [8 + 8 M]

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4. (a) What are the three modes of terrestrial propagation of electromagnetic waves? Explain. (b) What is a satellite multiple accessing arrangement? List and describe, in detail with neat diagrams, the three forms of satellite multiple accessing arrangements.

[8 + 8 M]

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5. (a) Explain, briefly, how caller ID operates and when it is used. Interpret the following hex code for a caller ID message(start and stop bits are not included in the hex codes): 04 12 31 31 32 37 31 35 35 37 33 31 35 37 33 36 31 30 35 33 xx (b) What is a crosstalk? What are the three types of crosstalk in telephone systems? Compare near-end crosstalk and far-end crosstalk.

[8 + 8 M]

^Ğƚ EŽ Ͳ ϰ

Code No: V3124/R07

6. (a) What is a GSM cellular telephone system? Describe the services offered

by GSM. (b) What is meant by false handoff? What are the four types of handoffs possible with N-AMPS? Compare macro cellular system and digital cellular system.

[8 + 8 M] 7. (a) What is POSTNET? What is POSTNET bar code? Determine the check character for the POSTNET nine-digit ZIP + 4 numbers: 13424-7654. (b) What is a modem? Compare synchronous and asynchronous modems.

Explain the four types of modem operational modes.

[8 + 8 M]

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8. (a) What is a data link protocol? List and describe, in detail, the three data link protocol functions. (b) What are the three frame formats used with synchronous data link control (SDLC)? What the purposes are of: the ns bit sequence, nr bit sequence, P bit and F bit?

[8 + 8 M]

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3134/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are the different elements of a measuring instrument? Describe in detail.[16] 2. With neat sketches, describe commonly used Resistance thermometer circuits.[16]

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3. Why is composition analysis required in a process industry? Write briefly on the qualitative and quantitative measurements with suitable examples. Highlight about positive methods of composition analysis.

[16]

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4. What is a Psychrometer. Describe an industrial Psychrometer and explain its operation.

[16]

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5. (a) With a neat diagram explain the working of an Ionization gauge to measure vacuum

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(b) What is radioactive type Ionization gauge ?

[10+6]

6. (a) Write in detail the methods available for measuring density.

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(b) Explain various methods of direct measurement of liquid level.

[8+8]

7. Describe the construction of a venturimeter with a figure showing clearly the pressure tap connections. Explain the salient features of the working of meter.

[16]

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8. It is desired to draw the instrumentation diagram for a jacketed CSTR with temperature control of exothermic reaction.

Present a detailed analysis of the procedure step wise for the construction of the diagram and then draw the diagram.

[16]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3134/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Discuss installation errors and equipment errors. How can they be eliminated or minimized?

[16]

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2. Discuss the selection of connecting wires in thermocouples.

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[16]

3. How can X-ray absorption spectra be utilized for analysis purposes? What are the characteristics of X-rays? Discuss the relevant diagrams and analysis.

[16] 4. (a) Describe the dew point method of measurement of absolute humidity.

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(b) Write the principle of gas analysis by thermal conductivity.

[8+8]

5. With a neat diagram explain the constructional features and the working of an Electric Pressure gauge [16]

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6. Describe the bubbler system used for pressure measurement in open vessels, with a neat diagram.

[16]

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7. (a) It is desired in a plant to continuously monitor the viscosity of a liquid for controlling a process. Suggest a suitable viscometer for the purpose and describe its operation and construction with a figure.

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(b) Write short notes on the following with a figure .

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i. Lobed impeller meter ii. Tilting trap meter.

[8+4+4]

8. (a) Differentiate between indicating and recording instruments. (b) Explain the working principle and advantages of circular chart recorder. [8+8] ?????

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3134/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are the different elements of a measuring instrument? Describe in detail.[16] 2. Discuss the selection of connecting wires in thermocouples.

[16]

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3. What are the basic differences between atomic emission and atomic fluorescence spectroscopy? Why is source modulation often emplyed in atomic absorption spectroscopy?

[16]

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4. (a) Describe the dew point method of measurement of absolute humidity.

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(b) Write the principle of gas analysis by thermal conductivity.

[8+8]

5. With a neat diagram explain the constructional features and the working with the circuitry of a thermocouple (thermal type) vacuum gauge [16]

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6. (a) Describe various methods for direct measurement of liquid levels.

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(b) Describe hydraulic remote transmission of liquid level with a neat diagram

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[8+8]

7. (a) Name the two types of pitot tubes. Explain their construction and operation with figures. (b) State the advantages of a pitot tube in measurement of flow of fluids. [8+8]

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8. (a) What are the uses of recording instruments. (b) Explain the two different styles of recording charts. Discuss their merits and limitations one over the other.

[6+10] ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3134/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION (Chemical Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Discuss installation errors and equipment errors. How can they be eliminated or minimized?

[16]

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2. (a) Explain with a neat sketch the operation of a self balancing potentiometer used for measuring thermocouple signals.

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(b) Discuss its advantages over the direct reading millivolmeter.

3. Write a note on color measurement by spectrometers and its uses.

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[10+6] [16]

4. (a) Describe the dew point method of measurement of absolute humidity. (b) Write the principle of gas analysis by thermal conductivity.

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5. What are the various designs of manometers used to measure pressure.

[8+8] [16]

6. (a) Write in detail the methods available for measuring density.

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(b) Explain various methods of direct measurement of liquid level.

[8+8]

7. An orifice meter equipped with flange taps is to be installed to measure the flow rate of crude oil to a cracking unit . The oil is flowing at 380 c through a 10 cm pipe. The maximum flow rate of oil is 80 m3 /h . Mercury is used as manometer liquid and glycol is used as sealing liquid in the leads. Calculate

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(a) the diameter of orifice and

(b) power loss. The power loss

Data: Density of mercury =13600 kg/m3 Density of glycol = 1100 kg/m3 Reading of the manometer = 0.76 m Discharge coefficient = 0.61.

The power loss and β are correlated by equation power loss = mβ + C. It is given that at β=0.4, power loss is 0.81 and at β=0.6, power loss = 0.62

[8+8]

8. (a) Explain the usage of symbols in the construction of instrumentation diagrams. (b) Write the symbols to indicate the following. i. Instrument at control center ii. Instrument transmitting iii. Process connecting line.

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3134/R07 iv. Pneumatic lines. v. Control valve-pneumatic.

(c) Draw the instrumentation diagram for a double pipe heat exchanger. [3+5+8] ?????

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3135/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS CONTROL INSTRUMENTATION ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Instrumentation & Control Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Name five flow laws relating to fluids, heat and electricity and state these laws.[16]

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2. (a) Differentiate between a “Servo operation” and “Regulator operation”. (b) Give a typical example for servo operation and explain.

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(c) Explain the regulator operation with an example.

[4+6+6]

3. (a) Discuss the effects of an integral controller on the closed loop response of first order process.

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(b) With neat sketches, explain the principle of derivative control action. Summarize its characteristics.

[8+8]

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4. (a) Explain in detail, the realization of proportional-integral action with the aid of bellows, flapper-nozzle etc.

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(b) Draw a three mode electronic controller and derive the expression for the output voltage.

[8+8]

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5. (a) A proportional - integral controller is used on a pure time - delay process.

Calculate the response to a step change in load if the controller gain is half the maximum value and the reset time is half the time delay. Calculate the integral of the absolute error.

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(b) Suggest and explain the control schemes for better control of process with dead time.

[8+8]

6. (a) Explain the essential features of a control value. (b) Explain the different responses of the 3 main types of control valves with respect to stem position and give reasoning.

[8+8] 7. A heating furnace requires a control valve passing 10gpm preheated light fuel oil (SP.gr. = 0.8) at full load and only 2 gpm at the smallest heating load. The source pressure constant at 50psi gage, but there is 10psi drop in the oil pre heater and 20 psi drop at the furnace burner nozzles. Remaining pressure drop occurs only at control valve when it is fully opened. (a) Find out control valve size required for the above application. (b) Find out required rangeability of the valve (c) Find out characteristic coefficient (α).

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[6+4+6]

Set No. 1

Code No: V3135/R07

8. Draw the feed forward and feed back control systems that regulate the flow through the pipe? Discuss about both the control systems and give reasons to select any of the two systems in maintaining the desired flow?

[16] ?????

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3135/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS CONTROL INSTRUMENTATION ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Instrumentation & Control Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) A tank having a cross sectional area of 2 square metre is operating at steady state with an input flow rate of 2 cubic metre / min. The flow – head characteristics are as shown in the figure1

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(b) Find the transfer function H(S) / Q(S).

(c) Derive the expression for the response of the system for a step change and draw the response curve.

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(d) If the flow to the tank increases from 2 to 2.2 cubic metre according to a step change, calculate the level h two minutes after the change occurs. [6+6+4]

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2. (a) Differentiate between a “Servo operation” and “Regulator operation”. (b) Give a typical example for servo operation and explain. (c) Explain the regulator operation with an example.

[4+6+6]

3. (a) Explain with neat sketches, the characteristics of two position and three position controller modes. (b) What is cycling? Suggest a suitable modification to overcome cycling.

[6+10] 4. (a) Explain in detail, the realization of proportional-integral action with the aid of bellows, flapper-nozzle etc. (b) Draw a three mode electronic controller and derive the expression for the output voltage.

[8+8] 5. (a) Explain the following terms as applicable to system evaluation with necessary graphs.

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3135/R07 i. Stability ii. measure of quality .

(b) Discuss the quarter - amplitude criterion to evaluate the response.

[8+8]

6. (a) Explain how a DC motor can be used as an actuator for a final control operation. (b) What force is generated by 90 kPa acting on a 30cm2 area diaphragms.

[10+6] 7. Write about the rotating shaft valves?

[16]

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8. Explain the economic considerations of feed forward controller?

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[16]

Set No. 3

Code No: V3135/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS CONTROL INSTRUMENTATION ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Instrumentation & Control Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) What is called a â&#x20AC;&#x153;Dead End Systemâ&#x20AC;?? Explain one such system with neat diagram.

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(b) Write the differential equation of this system and get the transfer function.

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[7+9]

2. (a) Say whether heated tank and an immersed thermometer with negligible interaction is interacting or non-interacting. Justify your answer.

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(b) Write the differential equations and determine the transfer functions individually for heated tank and thermometer.

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(c) Determine the overall transfer function of this combination. How is this transfer function related with the individual transfer function?

[3+9+4] 3. (a) With an example, explain how offset error can be eliminated with an integral controller.

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(b) With an illustration, explain the response of an integral controller to a constant error. Show the effect of integral time on the response.

[8+8]

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4. (a) Explain in detail, the realization of proportional-integral action with the aid of bellows, flapper-nozzle etc.

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(b) Draw a three mode electronic controller and derive the expression for the output voltage.

[8+8]

5. (a) Explain the following terms as applicable to system evaluation with necessary graphs. i. Stability ii. measure of quality . (b) Discuss the quarter - amplitude criterion to evaluate the response.

[8+8]

6. (a) Give the principle of the control valve and give its O/P equation. (b) A pressure difference of 1.5 psi occurs across a constriction in a 4 cm diameter pipe. The constriction constant is 0.008 w3 /s/(kPa)1/2 . Find i. the flow rate in m3 /sec. ii. flow velocity in m/sec.

[8+8]

7. (a) Give the schematic of single seated and double seated valves.

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3135/R07

(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of single seated and double seated valves.

[8+8] 8. What type of controllers would you use for two controllers of a cascade system? How would you tune them? Discuss the methodology to select the adjusted parameters of the two controllers?

[16] ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3135/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PROCESS CONTROL INSTRUMENTATION ( Common to Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering and Instrumentation & Control Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. (a) Find the transfer functions H2 (S)/Q(S) for the three tank system shown below figure1in which H2 , H3 and Q are deviation variables.

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Figure 1:

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(b) Find the transfer function H3 (S)/Q(S) for the same system. (c) Comment technically on the arrangement of tanks 1 and 2. How is it differed from the arrangement of tank 2 and 3?

[7+6+3]

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2. (a) Say whether heated tank and an immersed thermometer with negligible interaction is interacting or non-interacting. Justify your answer. (b) Write the differential equations and determine the transfer functions individually for heated tank and thermometer. (c) Determine the overall transfer function of this combination. How is this transfer function related with the individual transfer function?

[3+9+4] 3. (a) what is meant by differential gap and how it is related to the performance of the final control element? (b) Define proportional band. Explain the relation between proportional gain, proportional band and offset error. (c) With a neat sketch explain the integral controller mode action. Summarize the characteristics.

[5+5+6]

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3135/R07

4. (a) Briefly explain the principle of operation of a displacement type pneumatic PD controller. How the derivative time can be adjusted in this controller. (b) Outline the design steps involved in developing an electronic PI controller.

[8+8] 5. (a) Explain the detailed procedure for Ziegler - Nichols method PID settings. (b) In the Ziegler - Nichols method, the critical gain was found to be 4.2 and the critical period was 2.21 minutes. Find the standard settings for i. Proportional mode control ii. PI control iii. PID control.

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[6+10]

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6. (a) Explain the baffle - Nozzle system with the help of its characteristic curves. (b) Explain the pneumatic booster and what is its need.

(c) Differentiate between direct and reverse action final control operation.[6+6+4]

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7. Write short notes on.

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(a) Sliding stem Valves (b) Rotating shaft Valves.

[8+8]

8. (a) Explain the design procedure of feed forward controller.

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(b) Discuss the principles of feed back- Augmented feed forward controller. [8+8]

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Set No. 1

Code No: V3148/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 OPERATING SYSTEMS (Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are the major activities of an operating system with regard to process management?

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2. (a) What is a thread? (b) What are its benefits?

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(c) Explain about user level and kernel level threads.

3. Give short note about the following :

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(a) Binary Semaphores. (b) Bounded Waiting.

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[5+5+6]

[8+8]

4. What is a deadlock? What are the necessary conditions for a deadlock occurrence?

[16]

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5. (a) Compare global and local page replacement algorithms. What are the advantages of each? (b) Describe two-level paging. What problems two-level paging tries to solve?

[8+8]

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6. What is the purpose of processor scheduling? Explain various types of scheduling for uniprocessor system.

[16]

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7. (a) Compare the bitmap and hole list method of keeping track of free space on a disk with 800 cylinders, each having 5 tracks of 32 sectors. How many holes it takes before the hole list would be larger than the bitmap? Assume that the allocation unit is the sector, and that a hole requires a 32-bit word (b) Make comparision of three allocation methods.

[8+8]

8. (a) What is a mutation engine? Explain its functionality. (b) List and explain the three types of autoexcuting macros. ?????

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[8+8]

Set No. 2

Code No: V3148/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 OPERATING SYSTEMS (Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Some CPUs provide for more than two modes of operation. What are two possible uses of these multiple modes? Explain.

[16]

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2. Give short notes on the following.

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(a) Context Switch (b) Schedulers (c) Spawning of threads.

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[5+5+6]

3. (a) What is a semaphore? What are the various operations defined on it? (b) What is the difference between weak semaphore and strong semaphore? Explain.

[8+8]

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4. What is the difference between the possibility of deadlock and existence of deadlock?

Explain in detail.

[16]

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5. Explain about address binding for a user program and discuss multi step processing of a user program.

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6. Explain Fair-share scheduling policy with an appropriate example. Compare its performance with any other scheduling policy.

[16]

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7. Explain file sharing. Discuss access right and management of simultaneous access.

[16] 8. (a) List the properties of reference monitor. (b) Write a short note on digital immune system. (c) Discuss about propagation phase and propagation time of viruses. ?????

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[5+6+5]

Set No. 3

Code No: V3148/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 OPERATING SYSTEMS (Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Time Sharing Operating Systems are logical extension of Multiprogramming Operating Systems. Discuss.

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2. What are various steps involved in change of a process state? Explain in detail?

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3. Write the short notes on the following (a) Race Condition

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(b) Process Interaction 4. Explain about Deadlock Prevention.

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[8+8] [16]

5. (a) When do page faults occur? Describe the action taken by the operating system when a page fault occurs? (b) Explain optimal page replacement algorithm.

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(c) Write a note on thrashing.

[5+6+5]

6. Consider the following set processes:

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Process Name P1 P2 P3 P4 P5

Arrival Processing Time Time 1 10 2 12 0 7 3 6 4 3

Develop a Gantt-chat to show the execution pattern using following policies: (a) FCFS (b) SPN (c) SRT (d) HRRN (e) RR(q=1) (f) RR(q=4) (g) Feedback(q=1) 1 of 2

Set No. 3

Code No: V3148/R07 (h) Feedback(q=2i )

[8Ă&#x2014;2 ]

7. (a) Give an example of an application in which data in a file should be accessed sequentially, randomly. (b) Define: B= block size, R= record size, P= size of block pointer, F= blocking factor. Give a formal for F for three blocking methods.

[6+10] 8. (a) Explain the flaws in one-way encryption of password strategy. (b) Write a brief note on intrusion detection.

[8+8]

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3148/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 OPERATING SYSTEMS (Electronics & Computer Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are the various services offered by the Operating Systems?

[16]

2. Draw and explain the Thread structure for Adobe PageMaker.

[16]

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3. Write a solution to the Infinite-Buffer Producer/Consumer problem using semaphores.

[16]

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4. What is Resource-Allocation graph? Explain about various situations by drawing resource allocation Graph .

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5. (a) Discuss LRU-Approximation page Replacement.

(b) Consider LRU, FIFO, Optimal page replacement algorithms.

Rank these algorithms from bad to perfect according to their page fault rate.

Separate those algorithms which suffer from Beladyâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s anomaly from those which do not.

[8+8]

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6. (a) Explain about the key scheduling criteria. (b) Give a detail note on short-term scheduling.

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[8+8]

7. (a) Give a detail note on bit tables. (b) What is a Inode? Explain.

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(c) List and explain four types of files supported in UNIX.

[5+5+6]

8. (a) Explain the flaws in one-way encryption of password strategy. (b) Write a brief note on intrusion detection. ?????

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[8+8]

Set No. 1

Code No: V3157/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Describe initiation and maintenance of callus cultures along with its characteristic features.

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2. Discuss about a crop (e.g. Rice) plant where anther culture has been extensively used for practical applications.

[16]

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3. Give an example of a plant system where shooty teratoma has been useful for production of secondary metabolites.

[16]

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4. Give an account of gene transfer methods in plants for the production of transgenic plants.

[16] 5. Discuss about the method for developing transgenic plants resistant to fungi. [16]

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6. Describe how a broad specific â&#x2C6;&#x2020; desaturase gene from cyanobacteria can be used to confer increased chilling tolerance.

[16]

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7. Why do you think plants can be a suitable alternative to other living organisms for the production of biologically active compounds.

[16]

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8. Describe how amplification of regular secondary metabolic pathway can be accomplished by activation of rate limiting enzymes.

[16]

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Set No. 2

Code No: V3157/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Write short notes on the following:

[4 Ă&#x2014; 4]

(a) Clonal propagation

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(b) Cell suspension cultures

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(c) Synthetic seeds (d) Organogenesis.

2. Discuss the process of cryopreservation in detail and write about its implications in the germplasm conservation of plants.

[16]

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3. Describe different groups of secondary metabolites and discuss their uses.

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[16]

4. Write about the recent developments on the understanding of integration of T-DNA to plant genome.

[16]

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5. Discuss about the method for developing transgenic plants resistant to fungi. [16] 6. How plants can be genetically engineered for salt tolerance.

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[16]

7. What are edible vaccines. Write about the potential know-how for the production of edible vaccine in plants. In your opinion can edible vaccine be used for human welfare.

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8. What is metabolic engineering. Discuss about the strategy for the manipulation of secondary metabolic pathway.

[16] ?????

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Set No. 3

Code No: V3157/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. Write short notes on the following:

[4 Ă&#x2014; 4]

(a) Clonal propagation

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(b) Cell suspension cultures

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(c) Synthetic seeds (d) Organogenesis.

2. Why isolated microspore culture and what advantage it has over complete anther culture.

[16]

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3. Do you think plant tissue culture can act as an alternative for the production of secondary metabolites. Explain.

[16]

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4. Describe in detail about the Electroporation method of gene transfer.

[16]

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5. Discuss about the method for developing transgenic plants resistant to fungi. [16] 6. Describe a strategic plan for production of drought resistant plants using gene coding for high levels of polyols.

[16]

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7. What is the biotechnological application of hirudin. Describe the production of recombinant hirudin from plant seeds.

[16]

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8. Write short notes on the following:

[4 Ă&#x2014; 4]

(a) Pharmaceuticals

(b) Fragrances (c) Aroma (d) Food additives. ?????

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Set No. 4

Code No: V3157/R07

III B.Tech I Semester Supplementary Examinations, May 2010 PLANT BIOTECHNOLOGY (Bio-Technology) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks ?????

1. What are cybrids. How cybrids can be developed by protoplast fusion.

2. Write short notes on the following:

[16] [4 Ă&#x2014; 4]

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(a) In situ conservation

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(b) Ex situ conservation (c) Cryoprotectants (d) Thawing.

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3. Do you think plant tissue culture can act as an alternative for the production of secondary metabolites. Explain.

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4. Describe in detail Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer in plants.

[16]

5. Discuss about the method for developing transgenic plants resistant to fungi. [16]

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6. What are osmoprotectants, discuss their role in plants and describe the strategy for making salt tolerant transgenic plants.

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7. What is the biotechnological application of hirudin. Describe the production of recombinant hirudin from plant seeds.

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8. Write short notes on the following:

[4 Ă&#x2014; 4]

(a) Pharmaceuticals

(b) Fragrances (c) Aroma (d) Food additives. ?????

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