Architect's Guidebook for Competitive Exams (Set-1)

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ARCHITECT’S GUIDEBOOK FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

Set 1- Solved Question Papers

(GATE- 1991 - 2023, UPSC-CPWD- 2015-2016, UPSC-MES-2019, ISRO-2015-2020)

Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate

B Arch (University of Mumbai) M. Plan (NIT, Bhopal)

Title: Architect’s Guidebook for Competitive Exams, Set-1- Solved Question Papers

Author: Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate

Published by:

Ms. Rachana B. Gaikwad

C-801, Sun Satellite, Near Suncity, Anandnagar, Sinhgad Road, Pune- 411051

Phone: +91-9096192660

E-mail: rachanagk017@gmail com

ISBN (13)- 978-9-35-267484-8

ISBN (10)- 9-35-267484-7

Cover Design & Typesetting: Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate

Copyright © 2016: Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate

All rights are strictly reserved No part of this book shall be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information retrieval system without written permission of the copyright owner

Information contained in this book has been obtained by author from sources believed to be reliable and are correct to the best of his knowledge Every effort has been made to avoid errors and omissions and ensure accuracy. Any error or omission noted may be brought to the notice of the author which shall be taken care of in the forthcoming edition of this book However, author does not guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information published herein, and does not take not responsibility or liability for any inconvenience, expenses, losses or damage to any one resulting from the contents of the book

The author of the book has taken all possible care to ensure that the contents of the book do not violate any existing copyright or other intellectual property rights of any person in any manner whatsoever. In the event, the author has been unable to track any source and if any copyright has been infringed, the facts may be brought to the notice of the author in writing for corrective action.

Send all correspondence to: Ar Swapnil S Vidhate

Email: arswapnilvidhate@gmail com

First Edition : August 2016

Eighth Edition : May 2023.

Printed in India

By ‘Sinhgad Printers Pvt. Ltd. Sinhgad Road, Pune-411051

& Published by Rachana B. Gaikwad, C-801, Sun Satellite, Near Sun City, Anandnagar, Sinhgad Road, Pune- 411051.

Price: Rs. 1200/-

Architecture is one of the prestigious careers available to young individuals. It carries a level of education superior to that of many other career options After graduation, many students opt to pursue higher education for specialization. At present, almost all admissions processes for specialization in Architecture and Planning, are based on entrance exams like GATE, CEED, State CET etc. The number of students appearing for these exams are increasing every year which is making the level of competitive exams higher and higher Also, the recruitment of architects and planners in various government agencies is being done by preliminary examinations. However, standard books were not available for students for preparation for these exams. Thus, this book is compiled and published as a guidebook to help students and architects for those competitive exams.

The book contains all GATE- Architecture & Planning papers from 1991 to 2023 as well as UPSCCPWD-2015-2016, UPSC-MES-2019 & ISRO 2015-2020 exam papers which were conducted for recruitment of architects in these prestigious Institutions The book not only provides the questions and answers, but also provides the brief explanations. These will be helpful for understanding the basic concepts, formulae and relevant information about the question which students had learnt in the academic years. The Author welcomes suggestions from the readers for improving the book in any manner.

Ar. Swapnil Vidhate (Author)

ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS………………………...

I express my sincere thanks to my family and friends for their constant help, support and encouragement in compiling the book. I am dedicating this book to my beloved wife ‘Rachana’ & my son ‘Saumitra’ for their encouragement to compile the book. I would like to thank ‘Rachana’ for taking all the efforts to publish the book The appreciation, recommendations & success of the students helps me to bring the thoroughly revised & updated 8th edition of the book. Thank you so much

-Ar. Swapnil Vidhate

GENERAL APTITUDE (Total Marks = 15)

Q. 1 – Q. 5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry one mark each (for each wrong answer: -1/3).

Q.1. He did not manage to fix the car himself, so he______ in the garage.

(A) got it fixed

(B) getting it fixed (C) gets fixed (D) got fixed Ans. A

Q.2. Planting: Seed : : Raising: ______ (By word meaning)

(A) Child (B) Temperature (C) Height (D) Lift Ans. A

Q.3 A certain country has 504 universities and 25951 colleges. These are categorized into Grades I, II and III as shown in the adjacent pie charts. What is the percentage, correct to one decimal place, of higher education institutions (colleges and universities) that fall into Grade III?

(A) 22.7 (B) 23.7 (C) 15.0 (D) 66.8

A

Q.4. The minute hand and second hand of a clock cross each other_____ times between 09:15:00 AM and 09:45:00 AM on a day.

(A) 30

15

29

31

A

Q.5. The symbols O, * Δ and □ are to be filled, one in each box, as shown in the adjacent figure.

The rules for filling in the four symbols are as follows.

1) Every row and every column must contain each of the four symbols.

2) Every 2x2 square delineated by bold lines must contain each of the four symbols. Which symbol will occupy the box marked with ‘?’ in the partially filled figure?

(A) O (B) * (C) Δ (D) □

Ans: B

Explanation: The completed figure after filling the blank spaces as per the abovementioned rules is as shown adjacent.

Architect’s Guidebook for Competitive Exams by Ar. Swapnil S. VIdhate

Q.6. – Q.10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong answer: -2/3 marks).

Q.6. In a recently held parent-teacher meeting, the teachers had very few complaints about Ravi. After all, Ravi was a hardworking and kind student. Incidentally, almost all of Ravi’s friends at school were hardworking and kind too. But the teachers drew attention to Ravi’s complete lack of interest in sports. The teachers believed that, along with some of his friends who showed similar disinterest in sports, Ravi needed to engage in some sports for his overall development.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A) All of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind

(B) No one who is not a friend of Ravi is hardworking and kind.

(C) None of Ravi’s friends are interested in sports.

(D) Some of Ravi’s friends are hardworking and kind.

Ans. D

Q.7. Consider the inequalities: P2- 4q < 4 & 3p + 2q < 6 Where p and q are positive integers. The value of (p+q) is ______

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4

Ans. A

Explanation:

p2- 4q < 4 ………. (1)

3p + 2q < 6 ……..(2)

By multiplying (2) by 2, the equation will be, 6p + 4q < 12 ……..(3)

By adding (1) & (3), the equation will be, p2 + 6p <16 ………(4)

i.e., p2 + 6p -16 < 0

i.e., p2 + 8p -2p-16 < 0

i.e., p(p+8) -2(p+8) < 0

i.e., (p+8) (p-2) < 0

i.e., -8 < p < 2

However, as per the given information, ‘p’ is +ve integer. Thus, p =1

By putting value of p=1 in (2), i.e., 3(1) + 2q < 6

i.e., 2q < 3

i.e., q < 1.5

However, as per the given information, ‘q’ is also +ve integer. Thus, q =1

Thus, p+q = 1+1 = 2

Q.8. Which one of the sentence sequences in the given options creates a coherent narrative?

(i) I could not bring myself to knock

(ii) There was a murmur of unfamiliar voices coming from the big drawing room and the door was firmly shut.

(iii) The passage was dark for a bit, but then it suddenly opened into a bright kitchen.

(iv) I decided I would rather wander down the passage.

(A) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Ans. C

(B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Explanation: Narrative means storytelling. Coherence means putting stories together so that they make sense.

Q.9. How many pairs of sets (S,T) are possible among the subsets of {1,2,3,4,5,6} that satisfy the condition that S is a subset of T?

(A) 729

Ans: A

(B) 728

(C) 665

(D) 664

Explanation:

Rule: Given a pair of subsets p= (A,B) such that A C B, associate to each element i {1,2,…..,n}, then, the number of pairs of sets (A,B) = 3n Thus, here the number of pairs of sets = 36 = 729

Q.10. An opaque pyramid (shown in the adjacent figure), with a square base and isosceles faces, is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The pyramid can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R and S is NOT possible?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

Ans: B

PART-A (COMMON & COMPULSORY FOR ARCHITECTURE AND PLANNING) (Total Marks = 60)

Q. 11 – Q. 28 (MCQ/MSQ/NAT) Each question carries one mark & a negative marking of 1/3rd mark for each wrong answer in MCQ. There is no negative marking for MSQs & NATs) (Total Marks = 18).

Q.11. The triad of secondary colors in the additive color system is ________(MCQ)

(A) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow

(B) Red, Green, Blue

Ans. A

(C) Purple, Green, Orange

(D) Magenta, Blue, Yellow

Explanation: Refer Q.29, UPSC-CPWD-2015 for more information. The question related to Primary and Secondary colors was earlier asked in ISRO-2015 (Refer Q.8), wherein it is explained that ‘Red, Blue and Yellow (RBY)’ are primary colors and ‘Orange, Green & Violet’ are secondary colors.

Q.12. The criterion that is specifically mentioned in Special Conditions of Contract (SCC) is _______ (MCQ)

(A) Scope and performance of the work

(B) Site mobilization advance

(C) Labor regulation

(D) Arbitration and Law

Ans. As per the official final GATE-Answer key, marks to all options have been granted.

Explanation: Site mobilization advance’ is defined as the advance upto 10% of Tendered Amount which shall be paid by the client to the contractor on submission of non-revocable Bank Guarantee from a nationalized/ Scheduled Bank, for an amount of 110% of an amount of mobilization advance demanded It is provided for all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract documents.

Q.13. The Command employed in AutoCAD to create a mesh from a line or curve that is swept along a straight path (as shown in the adjacent figure) is ______ (MCQ)

(A) TABSURF

(B) REVSURF

(C) RULESURF

(D) EDGESURF

Ans. A

Explanation:

Opaque Pyramid

Command TABSURF REVSURF

Creates a mesh from a line or curve that is swept along a straight path.

Creates a mesh by revolving a profile about an axis.

Action

Illustration

Command: Select a line, arc, circle, ellipse, or polyline to sweep in a straight path. Then select a line or polyline to determine the first and last points of a vector that indicates the direction and length of the polygon mesh.

Command: Select a line, arc, circle, or 2D or 3D polyline to sweep in a circular path around a selected axis.

Command RULESURF EDGESURF

Creates a mesh that represents the surface between two lines or curves.

Creates a mesh between four contiguous edges or curves.

Action

Illustration

Command: Select two edges that define the mesh. The edges can be lines, arcs, splines, circles, or polylines. If one of the edges is closed, then the other edge must also be closed.

Command: Select four adjoining edges that define the mesh. The edges can be lines, arcs, splines, or open polylines. The edges must touch at their endpoints to form a single, closed loop.

Q.14. As per the Burra Charter (2013) ‘Cultural Significance’ means for past, present, or future generations (MCQ)

(A) Historic, aesthetic, scientific, social, or spiritual value

(B) Archaeological, architectural, environmental, cultural value.

(C) Natural, Cultural, mixed, intangible heritage.

(D) Heritage value, authenticity, integrity.

Ans. A

Explanation: The Question related to Burra Charter was asked earlier in GATE-2021 (Q.28). The Burra Charter was adopted by Australia ICOMOS (the Australian National Committee of ICOMOS) on 19 August 1979 at Burra, South Australia. Revisions were adopted on 23 February 1981, 23 April 1988, 26 November 1999, and 31 October 2013. The Burra Charter provides guidance for the conservation and management of places of ‘cultural significance’ (cultural heritage places) and is based on the knowledge and experience of Australia ICOMOS members. The charter defines Cultural significance as ‘aesthetic, historic, scientific, social, or spiritual value for past, present, or future generations.

Q.15. As per URDPFI (2015), the density range (in persons per Hectare) suggested for overall planning approach for small towns in hill areas is _____ (MCQ).

(A) 20-30

Ans. B

(B) 45-75

(C) 100-125

(D) 125-150

Explanation: As per URDPFI (2015) guidelines, the recommended average densities in the developed area are as follows:

Q.16 In ecology, the term ‘niche’ refers to ______ (MCQ)

(A) The ways in which species interact with biotic and abiotic factors of the environment.

(B) Only the abiotic factors such as temperature and rainfall.

(C) The gradient change of physiochemical characteristics between two ecosystems

(D) The zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes.

Ans. A

Explanation: An ecological niche refers to the interrelationship of a species with all the biotic and abiotic factors affecting it. The term has been coined by Joseph Grinnell in 1917 which he used as mostly equivalent to a species habitat. He also stated that no two species can inhabit the same niche for a long time.

Q.17. Lowry’s model of Metropolis (1964) includes two spatial interaction models. (MCQ)

(A) Singly constrained

(B) Doubly constrained

Ans. A

(C) Unconstrained

(D) Triply constrained

Explanation: The Lowry’s model is the landuse model related to transport planning However, it is notably a static model, which does not tell anything about the evolution of the transportation / land use system. It can be singly constrained, i.e., the only constraint is the fixed location of basic employment. It can also be doubly constrained, where the location of basic employment and housing are fixed. The related question was asked earlier in GATE2003 (Q.31).

Q.18. Select the method(s) that involve(s) pairwise comparison matrix for quantifying the weights of decision criteria (MSQ).

(A) Analytical hierarchy process

(B) Explanatory factor analysis

Ans. A

Explanation:

(C) Latent class analysis

(D) Multiple linear regression

Method Description

Analytical Hierarchy Process (AHP)

Explanatory Factor Analysis (EFA)

Latent Class Analysis (LCA)

It is a structured group decision making technique for organizing and analyzing complex decisions. It represents a semi-objective approach to quantifying the weights and preferences of decision criteria.

It is a statistical technique that is used to reduce data to a smaller set of summary variables and to explore the underlying theoretical structure of the phenomena. It is used to identify the structure of the relationship between the variable and the respondent.

The method refers to a statistical technique that is used in factor, cluster, and regression techniques It is a subset of structural equation modeling (SEM). LCA is a technique where concepts are identified and created from unobserved, or latent, subgroups, which are usually based on individual responses from multivariate categorical data. This method is also referred as finite mixture models.

Method Description

Multiple linear regression

The method refers to a statistical technique that uses two or more independent variables to predict the outcome of a dependent variable. The technique enables analysts to determine the variation of the model and the relative contribution of each independent variable in the total variance.

Q.19. Select the micro-organism which is NOT an enteric pathogen (MCQ).

(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Vibrio cholerae (C) Escherichia coli (D) Salmonella typhi

Ans. A

Explanation: Enteric bacteria are bacteria that typically exist in the intestines of animals and humans. The intestines are colonized by many enteric bacteria. Most of the enteric bacteria are harmless and help maintain a healthy intestinal tract, and these are generally referred to as gut flora or human microbiota. However, other enteric bacteria are pathogenic, causing illness. E.g., The pathogenic strains of Escherichia coli (E. Coli), Salmonella typhi (responsible for typhoid fever), vibrio cholerae (responsible for Cholera fever), etc. produce toxins that may lead to foodborne illnesses with various outcomes.

Staphylococcus Aureus (gram-positive bacteria) has been recognized as one of the most important bacteria responsible for skin infections but can cause pneumonia, heart valve infections, and bone infections These bacteria are spread by having direct contact with an infected person, by using a contaminated object, or by inhaling infected droplets dispersed by sneezing or coughing.

Q.20. Select the publication by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) related to Environmental Accounts as per UN-SEEA framework (MCQ).

(A) EnviStats India 2022

(B) Energy Conservation Building Code 2017

(C) Eco Niwas Samhita 2018

(D) Climate Change 2022: Impacts, Adaptation & Vulnerability.

Ans. A

Explanation: ‘UN-SEEA’ framework stands for ‘United Nations- System of Environmental-Economic Accounting 2012’ .

It was adopted by the UN Statistical Commission and marks a major step forward that goes beyond the commonly used statistic of gross domestic product (GDP). This framework would ensure that natural capital forests, wetlands and other ecosystems are recognized in economic reporting

Based on this framework, the the Ministry of Statistics and PI, had earlier published 2 issues of the ‘Climate change Statistics in India’ in 2013 and 2015 In 2013, the Framework for the Development of Environment Statistics (FDES 2013) was conceptualised by the export group on statistics related to climate change. Based on FDES, the ‘EnviStats India 2022, Volume-I & II’ has been published by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) which highlights some of the important aspects of the environment which has the potential to act as an important tool for the policy makers in India

Q.21 Ebnezer Howard suggested the maximum population of ‘Garden City’ as _____ persons. (MCQ)

(A) 10,000

Ans. C

(B) 22,000

(C) 32,000 (D) 58,000

Explanation: Principles of Garden City Concept: City Land= 1000 Acres. Agricultural Land = 5000 Acres. (GATE-2015)

Population= 32000. Refer Q.5., GATE-2015 for more information.

Q.22 In eighteenth century, English Gardens, was used to eliminate visual boundaries between the garden and the landscape (MCQ).

(A) Stroll garden

(B) Sunken fence

(C) Topiary

(D) Qanat

Ans. B

Explanation:

Sunken Fence

Term Description

Stroll Garden

Sunken Fence

The garden style integrates the various styles of pond garden, tea garden, and dry landscape garden. The different views can be enjoyed one after another by promenading along the path circling a pond.

The sunken fence also known as ‘ha-ha’ (expression of surprise at finding sudden and unperceived check while walking) was used in 18th century English gardens to create the physical division between the garden and the contiguous park grounds and at the same time conceal this physical division also. This sunken fence was also required to keep grazing animals out of garden.

Topiary Refer GATE-2014 (Q.44), UPSC-CPWD-2015 (Q.87) for more information.

Qanat Refer Q.39, GATE-2022 for more information.

Q.23 The adjacent figure shows the spatial arrangement of rooms in a building with access from the exterior, marked as ‘entry’. Identify the appropriate diagram showing the access to rooms starting from entry (MCQ)

Q.24 In high-rise buildings, the method adopted to prevent ingress of smoke in an enclosed fire staircase is ____ (MCQ)

(A) Polarization

Ans. B

(B) Pressurization

(C) Perpetuation

Explanation: Refer Q.21, GATE-1997 & Q.45, ISRO-2015 for more information.

(D) Fumigation

Q.25. Select the Act which stipulates prohibited area of 100 m around centrally protected monuments in India.

(A) The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972.

(B) The AMASR (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010.

(C) Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976.

(D) Environment Protection Act, 1986

Ans. B

Explanation: The similar question was earlier asked in GATE-2016 (Q.7).

Q.26. Select the option(s) which include(s) a pair of ‘Gestalt’ principles (MSQ).

(A) Proximity & Similarity

(B) Continuity & Closure

Ans. A, B.

Explanation: Refer Q.34, GATE-2011 for more information.

(C) Grain & Texture

(D) Scale & Proportion

Q.27. Select the option(s) which is/are NOT considered as primary air pollutant(s). (MSQ)

(A) Suspended particulate matter

(B) Oxides of nitrogen

Ans. D

Explanation:

(C) Volatile organic compounds

(D) Peroxyacetyl Nitrate

Type Description

Primary Pollutants

Secondary Pollutants

The primary pollutants are directly emitted from the source (like vehicles or power plants) The examples of primary pollutants are suspended particulates, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, and sulfur oxide.

Secondary pollutants are those pollutants that are not directly emitted from a specific source but are formed in the atmosphere when primary pollutants interact in the atmosphere. Various secondary pollutants, such as ozone, peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs), and nitric acid, contribute to the formation of photochemical smog

Q.28. Select the Biosphere Reserve(s) in India which is/are listed in the ‘Man and the Biosphere’ program of UNESCO (MSQ)

(A) Sunderban (B) Sena Oura (C) Majang Forest (D) Gulf of Mannar Ans. A, D.

Explanation: Refer Q.38, GATE-2022 for more information.

Q.29 to Q.49 Carry TWO marks each (MCQ/MSQ/NAT) (-2/3 marks for each wrong answer in MCQ & no negative marking for MSQs & NATs) (Total Marks = 42).

Q.29. Match the buildings in Group I with their dominant spatial pattern in Group II.

P. National Assembly Building, Capitol Complex, Dhaka 1. Centralized organization

Q. Secretariat Building, UNESCO Headquarters, Paris 2. Clustered organization

R. Fatehpur Sikri Palace Complex

S. Shodhan House, Ahmedabad

Ans. A

3. Radial organization

4. Linear organization

Explanation: The similar question related to building mentioned at ‘P’ in Group-I was earlier asked in GATE-2022 (Q.37). Also, the question related to building mentioned at ‘R’ in Group-II was earlier asked in UPSC-CPWD-2015 (Q.36). Thus, the first two correct pairs among the 4 given options are P-1 & R-2 (So, options B & C are incorrect). Further, the question related to building mentioned at ‘S’ was earlier asked in GATE-2016 (Q.21). The Shodhan House which has been designed by Le Corbusier does not follow Radial Pattern Planning (Thus, S-3 as mentioned in option D is also an incorrect pair). Thus, the suitable answer as ‘option A’ can be derived easily.

Q.30. Match the Parts of Residential Buildings in Group-I with their respective minimum width (in m) in Group-II as per the National Building Code 2016.

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Ans. D

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

5. Grid organization Group

Explanation: Refer Q.6, GATE-2013 for more information related to ‘P’ in Group-I. Refer Q.44 & Q.45, ISRO-2015 for more information related to ‘Q, R & S’ in Group-II.

Q.31. Match the following City Planning concepts in Group-I with their proponents in Group-II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Ans. B

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2

Explanation: Refer GATE-2021 (Q.33), GATE-2004 (Q.72) & GATE-2006 (Q.22) for more information.

Group I Group II

P. Radiant City

Q. Conservative Surgery

R. Broadacre City

S. Linear City

1. Clarence Perry

2. Soria-Y- Mata

3. Le Corbusier

4. Pattrick Geddes

5. Frank Lloyd Wright

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.32. With reference to planning and design of housing, identify the correct statement.

(P) Gross population density is higher than net population density.

(Q) Gross population density is lower than net population density.

(R) Net population density is directly proportional to the area of the plot.

(S) Net population density is inversely proportional to the area of the plot.

(A) Both Q and S are correct.

(B) Both Q and R are correct.

Ans. A

(C) Both P and R are correct.

(D) Both P and S are correct.

Explanation: Refer GATE-1993 (Q.2), GATE-2005 (Q.35), GATE-2004 (Q.40), GATE-2016 (Q.24), GATE-2012 (Q.53), GATE-2011 (Q.54), GATE-2009 (Q.35), GATE-2007 (Q.33) for more information

Group I Group II

P. National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency

Q. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

R. National Water Mission

S. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

Q.33. Match the Mission in Group I with their objectives in Group II. (A)

1. Gain better understanding of climate science, impacts, challenges by setting up climate research fund.

2. Weather insurance mechanism and afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded forest land

3. Decrease energy consumption in large consuming industries

4. 20% improvement of water use efficiency through pricing.

5. Enforcement of automotive fuel economy standards using pricing measures.

Explanation:

Mission Initiatives

The mission consists of four initiatives which are:

i. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) schemes aiming at reducing Specific Energy Consumption (SEC) to enhance energy efficiency in energy intensive industries.

National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) (2011)

ii. Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) aims for accelerating the shift to energy efficient appliances in designated sectors through incentives and innovative business models.

iii. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) aims to provide a platform to interact with Financial Institutions (FIs) and project developers for implementation of energy efficiency projects.

iv. Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED) aims to develop of fiscal instruments to promote energy efficiency.

The objectives of the NMSH 2.0 are as follows:

National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (NMSH) (2021)

National Water Mission (NWM)

National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC)

1. Promote low-carbon urban growth towards reducing GHG emissions intensity for achieving India’s NDC (Nationally determined Contribution)

2. Build resilience of cities to climate change impacts and strengthen their capacities to ‘bounce back better’ from climate-related extreme events and disaster risks.

The objectives of the mission are as follows:

i. To ensure integrated water resource management helping to conserve water, minimize wastage and ensure more equitable distribution both across and within states.

ii. To develop a framework to optimize water use by increasing water use efficiency by 20% through regulatory mechanisms with differential entitlements and pricing

The mission implemented under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) promotes research, knowledge generation and capacity building relating to climate science Thirteen Climate Change centers/ cells have been set in various states to carry activities that connect their state action plans on climate change with NMSKCC priorities of action.

Q.34. Select the options(s) that is/are listed among the Sustainable Development Goals as articulated by the United Nations (MSQ).

(A) Globalization and Free Trade

(C) Protection of Indigenous Culture & Architecture

(D) Good Health and Well-being. Ans. B,D.

(B) Sustainable Cities and Communities

Explanation: Refer Q.22, GATE-2022 for more information.

Q.35. Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Building Security Services’. (MSQ).

(A) ‘Radio Frequency Identification Device’ is used for electronic access control system.

(B) ‘Magnetic Loop Detector’ is used for fire detection system.

(C) ‘Infrared Sensor’ is used in public broadcasting System.

(D) ‘Iris Scan’ is a type of biometric access control system.

Ans. A, D.

Explanation: The corrected statements for option B & D are as follows:

B. ‘Magnetic Loop Detector’ is used for automatic opening of gates, garage doors, industrial doors, and barriers with heavy vehicle traffic. (Reference is available in ‘Section B.2.3.8. Intelligent Transportation Systems’ in ‘Set-2’).

C. ‘Infrared Sensor’ is used in motion detection in building security systems. The question related to it was earlier asked in GATE-2017 (Q.52).

Q.36. Select the statement(s) that are TRUE regarding ‘Quality and Cost-Based Selection (QCBS) system for tendering (MSQ).

(A) Financial bid is opened before technical bid.

(B) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is submitted before the opening of technical bid.

(C) Technically qualified bidder with lowest financial bid is always awarded the job.

(D) A composite scoring system considering both the financial and technical bids is adopted for awarding the job. Ans. B, D.

Explanation: The corrected statements for option A & C are as follows:

A. Technical bid is always opened first and then followed by opening of financial bid.

C. As per the ‘General Conditions of Contract’, the client is not bound to accept the lowest or any tender. It means, the bid submitted by the tenderer should be technically and financially sounding for award of contract/job to the tenderer

Q.37. Design of septic tank requires consideration of space for the following item(s) (MSQ).

(A) Settling of incoming sewage

(B) Storage of digested sludge

Ans. A, B, D.

Explanation: Refer Q.46, ISRO-2017 for more information.

(C) Installation of liner to allow seepage of effluent

(D) Digestion of the settled sludge

Q.38. Select the place(s) which have adopted the ‘Star pattern’ of the French Garden in the design of its/their urban form(s) (MSQ)

(A) Versailles (B) Washington D.C. (C) Islamabad

Ans. A, B.

(D) Jaipur

Explanation: Refer, GATE-2013 (Q.31) for more information on option-A. Refer, GATE-2011 (Q.38) for more information on option-B. Refer, UPSC-MES-2019 (Q.17) for more information on option-C. Refer GATE-2008 (Q.58) for more information on option-D.

Q.39. Select the parameter(s) required for determining peak rates of runoff using the Rational Formula.

(A) Intensity of rainfall

(B) Coefficient of runoff

Ans. A, B.

Explanation: Refer, GATE-2005 (Q.19) for more information.

(C) Velocity of flow

(D) Hydraulic mean depth of flow

Q.40. As per Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate, Govt. of India) select the correct statement(s) (MSQ)

(A) “Dry Waste” means waste other than bio-degradable waste and inert street sweepings.

(B) “Combustible Waste” means biodegradable, recyclable, reusable, hazardous solid waste having maximum calorific value of 800 kcal/kg.

(C) “Domestic hazardous waste” includes expired medicine, CFL bulbs, discarded paint drums.

(D) “Biodegradable waste” means any inorganic material that cannot be degraded by micro-organisms into simpler stable compounds.

Ans. A, C.

Explanation: The corrected statements as per ‘Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (MoEF)’ are for option ‘B & D’ are as follows:

B. Combustible Waste means non-biodegradable, non-recyclable, non-reusable, non-hazardous solid waste having minimum calorific value exceeding 1500 kcal/kg and excluding chlorinated materials like plastic, wood pulp, etc.

D. Biodegradable waste means any organic material that can be degraded by micro-organisms into simpler stable compounds.

Q.41. Select the correct statement(s) from the following (MSQ).

(A) The introduction of automobiles led to urban sprawl.

(B) Compact cities show relatively higher carbon emissions.

(C) Land use and transportation planning are interdependent on each other.

(D) Addition of a transport mode in an urban area does not change accessibility.

Ans. A, C.

Explanation: The corrected statements for option ‘B & D’ are as follows:

B. Compact cities (high density and accessibility with fully developed inner-city public transport) show relatively lower carbon emissions as compared to the cities with excessive urban sprawl.

D. Addition of a transport mode in an urban area changes accessibility

Q.42. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding composting (MSQ).

(A) It produces natural soil amendment and enhances the effectiveness of fertilizer.

(B) Warm temperature of tropical regions is the least suitable for composting.

(C) Composting is an aerobic thermophilic process.

(D) Windrow composting and in-vessel composting are two of the common composting methods.

Ans. A, C, D.

Explanation: The corrected statement for option ‘B’ is: Warm temperature of tropical regions is more suitable for composting compared to cold regions. (Additional Information: The process of composting involves two temperature ranges: mesophilic and thermophilic. While the ideal temperature for the initial composting stage is 20-45 °C, at subsequent stages with thermophilic organisms taking over, a temperature range of 50-70 °C may be ideal. High temperatures characterize the aerobic composting process and serve as signs of vigorous microbial activities. Pathogens are normally destroyed at 55 °C and above, while the critical point for elimination of weed seeds is 62 °C. Turnings and aeration can be used to regulate temperature).

Q.43. Select the item(s) that are NOT stipulated as obligatory function(s) of the Urban Local Bodies as per the 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution (MSQ)

(A) Urban poverty alleviation

(B) Promotion of cultural, educational, and aesthetic aspects

(C) Special measures for disaster mitigation

(D) Prevention of cruelty to animals

Ans. C

Explanation: 18 no. of Items listed in the 12th Schedule of Indian Constitution which are obligatory functions of the Urban Local Bodies (ULB) are mentioned in the table below.

Sr.No. Obligatory functions of ULB

12 Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds.

13 Promotion of cultural, educational, and aesthetic aspects

14 Burial sand burial grounds, cremations, cremation grounds and electric crematoriums

15 Cattle pounds, prevention of cruelty to animals

16 Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths

17 Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences

18 Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries

Q.44. The annual precipitation recorded in a town is 400 mm. Rainwater is being collected from the flat roof of a building, and then treated to potable standards, and stored. Water loss due to evaporation, transmission and treatment is 40% of the total harvested volume. The roof area is 500 sq.m. There are 3 occupants, with average daily water demand as 200 lpcd. The stored rainwater will be adequate for the household’s daily use for days (in integer).

Ans. 200

Explanation: The similar question was earlier asked in GATE-2014 (Q.34), GATE-2009 (Q.48)

As per given information, Annual precipitation = 400 mm = 0.4 m

Thus, rainwater collected/harvested on flat roof with area 500 sq.m. annually = 0.4 x 500 m2 = 200 m3 = 200 x 1000 = 2,00,000 litres

As per given information, there is loss of 40% of harvested volume of water due to evaporation, transmission, and treatment

Thus, net water stored out of total collected water = 60% of 2,00,000 litres = 1,20,000 litres.

Further, as per given information, there are 3 occupants with average daily water demand = 200 lpcd.

Thus, total daily water demand of all the occupants = 3 x 200 = 600 lpcd.

Thus, net stored water of 1,20,000 litres will be adequate for 1,20,000 /600 = 200 days.

Q.45. A primary school is having 8 classrooms, each having internal dimensions of 15m x 10m x 4m (height). Only the internal walls of the classrooms are proposed to be painted. Assume a deduction of 10% internal wall area due to doors, window, etc. The specification suggests 2 coats of paint application. The spreading rates of the selected paint during base coat and finish coat are 4.5 l/sq.m. and 2.5 l/sq.m. respectively. The amount of paint (in litters) required for the job will be_____ (in integer).

Ans. 10080

Explanation: The similar question was asked earlier in GATE-2016 (Q.47).

As per given information, dimensions of each classroom = 15m (l) x 10m (b) x 4m(h)

Thus, area of 4 walls of each classroom = (15x4x2) + (10x4x2) = 120 + 80 = 200 sq.m.

As per given information, there is a deduction of 10% internal wall due to doors and windows.

Thus, net area available for paint in each classroom = 200 – (10% of 200) = 180 sq.m.

As per given information, there are total 8 no. of similar classrooms in the primary school.

Thus, total area available for paint in all 8 no. of classrooms = 8 x 180 = 1440 sq.m.

Thus, paint required for base coat for 1440 sq.m. walls @4.5 l/sq.m. = 1440 x 4.5 = 6480 litres.

Also, paint required for finish coat for 1440 sq.m. walls @2.5 l/sq.m. = 1440 x 2.5 = 3600 litres.

Thus, total amount of paint required for the job = 6480 +3600 = 10,080 litres.

Q.46. A construction project consists of 4 activities. The quantity of work, manpower requirement, and the productivity of the activities are listed in the table below. The inter relationship between the activities are also mentioned in the table. The construction project will start on January 29th. Assume no holidays for the entire duration of the project. The project will finish on February _________ (mention date in number).

Explanation: The similar question was asked earlier in GATE-2021 (Q.52).

Step 1: Find out the ‘Man-day’ of each activity by dividing ‘Quantity of Work’ by ‘Productivity’.

Step 2: Find out the ‘duration’ of each activity by dividing ‘Man-Day by ‘Manpower.’ Step 3: Draw the CPM diagram as shown in the adjacent fig.

Thus, as per the CPM diagram, the crash path of the project is A-B-D

Thus, crash time of the project = 4 + 9 + 7 = 20 days.

Thus, if the project starts on 29th January, then it will finish on 20th Day after. i.e., on 17th February

Additional information: As per the CPM diagram, the critical path of the project is A-C-D.

Thus, critical time of the project = 4 +11 + 7 = 22 days.

Thus, only 2 days of holiday can be scheduled to complete the project on time.

Q.47. For a privately developed group housing project, the ratio of total number of dwelling units of HIG: MIG: LIG is 3: 2: 1. The proposed average size of HIG, MIG and LIG units in sq.m. are 100, 60 and 30 respectively. The ratio of the total built up area between (MIG + LIG) to HIG will be 1: _____ (in integer). Ans. 2

Explanation: The similar question was asked earlier in GATE-2016 (Q.51).

As per given information, the ratio of HIG: MIG: LIG & dwelling units & proposed average size are as follows:

Thus, total built-up area of HIG: MIG: LIG dwelling units will be as follows:

Q.48. The surface development of a 3dimensional object is shown in the adjacent figure. The dotted lines indicate the folds. The dimensions given in the figure are in centimetre. The volume of the 3dimensional object (in cu.cm.) is ____ (rounded off to one decimal place). Ans. 25.5

Explanation:

Step 1: The axonometric view of the 3dimensional object after folding on the dotted lines will be as shown in the figure below. (X and Y points are assumed)

From the figure, it can be concluded that the final 3-dimensional object is the result of ‘Subtraction of Triangular Prism from the Cube’

Thus, the volume of the object can be calculated by subtracting the volume of triangular prism from the volume of the cube.

Step 2: Calculate the volume of Cube & Triangular Prism.

Here, Volume of Cube = 3x3x3 = 27 cu.cm.

Volume of Triangular Prism = (½ x b x hΔ) x h = (½ x 1 x 1) x 3 = 1.5 cu.cm.

Thus, Volume of 3-dimensional object = 27-1.5 = 25.5 cu.cm.

Q.49. A residential housing project is designed in a plot measuring 1 Hectare. The car parking area is equally distributed between the ground floor and the basement. Considering the data given below, the number of cars accommodated in the basement will be _______ (in integer).

Data:

FAR Consumed = 2.0

Car Parking area is exempted from built up area for FAR calculation

One car parking to be given for each 100 sq.m. of built-up area.

Area required for accommodating each car in ground floor = 15 sq.m.

Area required for accommodating each car in basement = 25 sq.m.

Ans. 75

Explanation: The similar question was asked earlier in GATE-2014 (Q.30).

As per given information, Plot area = 1 Hectare = 10,000 sq.m.

FAR consumed = 2.0. Thus, total built-up area = 20,000 sq.m

It is given that 1 no. of car parking is to be given for each 100 sq.m. of built-up area.

Thus, total no. of car parking = 20,000 / 100 = 200

It is given that area required for accommodating each car in ground floor & basement is 15 sq.m. & 25 sq.m respectively.

Assume that out of total 200 car parking, ‘x’ no. of car parking can be accommodated in ground floor parking

Thus, (200-x) car parking can be accommodated in basement parking.

Further, it is given that the car parking area is equally distributed between the ground floor and the basement.

Thus, from the above, the equation can be derived as follows:

15x = (200-x)25

i.e., 15x = 5000 – 25x

40x = 5000. Thus, x =125 i.e., 125 car parking can be accommodated in ground floor parking.

Thus, 200-125 = 75 car parking can be accommodated in basement parking.

Part B: [Contains Part B1 (For Architecture Students) & Part B2 (For Planning Students)].

Candidates can attempt any one of these sections by his/her own choice. No separate Score/Ranking based on this choice).

PART B1: FOR ARCHITECTURE CANDIDATES (Total Marks = 25):

Q.50 to Q.56 Carry ONE mark each (-1/3 marks for each wrong answer in MCQ) (Total Marks = 7).

Q.50. As per the CPWD specifications (2019), the material used for cleaning marble flooring after polishing is_____ (MCQ)

(A) Oxalic Acid (B) Caustic Soda (C) Bleaching Powder (D) White Cement

Ans. A

Explanation:

Common Name Formula Applications

Oxalic Acid Dicarboxylic acid (C2H2O4)

It is applied on marble sculptures to make it shine, in the manufacture of dye, in wastewater treatment to remove the calcium deposit.

Caustic Acid Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Manufacture of sodium salts and detergents

Bleaching Powder Calcium hypochlorite (Ca (OCl2))

White Cement Calcium Silicate

It is used as a disinfectant for purification of municipal water (GATE-2000, Q.14)

It is used for general construction and decoration

Q.51 The proportion of the sides of a traditional Japanese tatami mat is_____ (MCQ)

(A) 1:1.414 (B) 1:1.5 (C) 1:2 (D) 1:1.618

Ans. C

Explanation: A tatami is a type of mat used as a flooring material in traditional Japanese-style rooms. Tatamis are made in standard sizes, twice as long as wide, about 0.9 m by 1.8 m depending on the region.

Q.52. As per IS:4954-1964, the acceptable noise level (in dB) for urban residential areas is ____.

(A) 35-45 (B) 65-75 (C) 20-30 (D) 15-25

Ans. A

Explanation: Refer GATE-2005 (Q.33), ISRO-2015 (Q.66) for more information.

Q.53. Identify the Indian tribe that is associated with the vernacular dwelling illustrated in the adjacent image

(A) Bhotia, Uttarakhand

(B) Toda, Tamil Nadu

(C) Naga, Nagaland

(D) Kutia Kondh, Odisha

Ans. B

Explanation: The image shows the ‘Toda Huts’ commonly known as ‘Arsh Houses’ & are built by Toda tribes which are based in the Nilgiri range of Tamil Nadu, in southern India. There are no windows in the house which help the inhabitants to protect them from wild animals and cold weather in the region. The doorway is the only opening to the house with a height of around 0.9m and a width of 0.7m in the middle of the gable wall, made for multipurpose utilities like a passage, for light, air circulation and passage of smoke.

Q.54. Thermal diffusivity of a wall is influenced by the choice of building material. Identify the statement(s) that is/are correct (MSQ).

(A) Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to thermal conductivity.

(B) Increase in specific heat capacity increases the thermal diffusivity

(C) Materials with low thermal diffusivity have a high amplitude damping effect.

(D) Thermal diffusivity is inversely proportional to the density of material.

Ans. C, D

Explanation: Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by density and specific heat capacity at constant pressure It measures the ability of a material to conduct thermal energy relative to its ability to store thermal energy. High diffusivity means heat transfers rapidly. The formula for thermal diffusivity is: Where,

Thermal diffusivity

Thermal conductivity

Specific Heat Density

Thus, the corrected statements for option A & B are as follows:

A. Thermal diffusivity is directly proportional to thermal conductivity.

B. Increase in specific heat capacity decreases the thermal diffusivity

Q.55. Select the statement(s) Which are NOT correct with respect to burnt clay bricks (MSQ)

(A) Lime (<10% of clay) in carbonated form lowers the fusion point of bricks.

(B) Magnesia (>1% of clay) Imparts red colour to the bricks.

(C) Iron pyrites tend to oxidise and decompose the brick during burning.

(D) Alkalis (alkaline salts) when present in excess (>10% of clay) decrease the probability of efflorescence.

Ans. B, D.

Architect’s Guidebook for Competitive Exams by Ar. Swapnil S. VIdhate

Explanation: The related information is available ‘Section B1.2.5.4-Brick’ of Set-2. The corrected statements for option B & D are as follows:

B. Iron oxide (Fe2O3) (Percentage- 5-8%) helps silica to fuse at low temperature. It imparts a red color to brick upon burning. Iron also increases the durability and impermeability of the bricks.

D. Alkalis (alkaline salts) when present in excess (>10% of clay) increases the probability of efflorescence

Q.56. Select the example(s) of Art Nouveau Architecture (MSQ).

(A) Basilica of the Sagrada Familia, Barcelona

(B) Chrysler Building, New York.

(C) Eiffel Tower, Paris

(D) Mackintosh Building of the Glasgow School of Art, Glasgow

Ans. A, D.

Explanation:

Building Basilica of the Sagrada Familia, Barcelona Chrysler Building, New York.

Style- Architect Art Nouveau - Antoni Gaudí William Van Alen - Art Deco

Building

Building Eiffel Tower, Paris

Style- Architect Modern Art (ISRO-2020, Q.17)- Stephen Sauvestre

Mackintosh Building of the Glasgow School of Art, Glasgow

British Art Nouveau- Charles Rennie Mackintosh

Building

Q.57 to Q.65 Carry TWO marks each (-2/3 marks for each wrong answer in MCQ) (Total Marks = 18)

Q.57. Match the buildings in Group I with their architectural feature in Group II.

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 Ans. A

Explanation:

Group I

Group I Group II

P. Erechtheion, Athens 1. Hypostyle Hall

Q. Temple of Karnak, Near Luxor 2. Caryatid

R. Hagia Sophia, Istanbul 3. Pendentive

S. Pantheon, Rome 4. Flying Buttress

5. Oculus

Explanation

P. Erechtheion, Athens Refer GATE-2014 (Q.43), GATE-2003 (Q.39) for more information.

Q. Temple of Karnak, Near Luxor Refer GATE-2022 (Q.53), GATE-2009 (Q.43), GATE-2006(Q.60) for more information.

R. Hagia Sophia, Istanbul Refer GATE-1991 (Q.5), ISRO-2018 (Q.17), GATE-2015 (Q.27), GATE-2009 (Q.22) GATE2009 (Q.37) for more information.

S. Pantheon, Rome Refer GATE-2012 (Q.46), GATE-2009 (Q.37), GATE-2007 (Q.17) for more information.

Q.58 Match the architects in Group I with their key architectural ideas in Group II.

(A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 Ans. A

Group I Group II

P. Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe

Q. Kisho Kurokawa

R. Richard Rogers

S. Louis I Kahn

1. Bowellism

2. Skin-and-bones architecture

3. Served and servant spaces

4. Dymaxion

5. Metabolism

Explanation: The question related to ‘Architect Kisho Kurokawa’ and his architectural idea of ‘Metabolism’ was earlier asked in GATE-2012 (Q.42). Thus, the first correct pair is ‘Q-5’ It means, the final answer should be either option A or D Now, both options have ‘R-1’ as the common pair So, the pair for ‘P’ & ‘S’ will decide the final answer. Option-D has mentioned the pair ‘P-4’ However, the ‘Dymaxion’ (Dymaxion House) concept has been invented by ‘Architect Buckminster Fuller’ & the related question was also asked earlier in GATE-2010 (Q.36) It means that, ‘P-4’ as given in option-D is incorrect pair. Thus, option-A is the final correct answer

Q.59. Match the pump types in Group I with their key components in Group II.

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Ans. A

Explanation: Refer ISRO-2018 (Q.45) for more information.

Group I Group II

P. Centrifugal pumps

Q. Reciprocating pumps

R. Rotary pumps

S. Impulse pumps

Q.60. Match the geometric forms in Group I with the buildings in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Hyperboloid

Q. Geodesic Dome

R. Diagrid Structure

S. Umbrella Structures

Explanation:

1. Petronas Twin Towers, Kaula Lumpur by Cesar Pelli

2. Palazzo del Lavoro, Turin, by Pier Luigi Nervi

1. Piston rod

2. Impeller

3. Gear

4. Eductor pipe

5. Hydraulic ram

3. The Biomes at the Eden Project in Cornwall, UK, by Nicholas Grimshaw

4. Hearst Tower, New York, by Norman Foster

5. Cathedral of Brasilia, by Oscar Niemeyer

Structural System Hyperboloid

Used in BuildingArchitect Cathedral of Brasilia, by Oscar Niemeyer

Geodesic Dome

The Biomes at the Eden Project in Cornwall, UK, by Nicholas Grimshaw (Earlier asked in GATE-2017, Q.38)

Building

Structural System

Diagrid Structure

Used in BuildingArchitect Hearst Tower, New York, by Norman Foster (Earlier asked in GATE-2016, Q.34)

Umbrella Structures

Palazzo del Lavoro, Turin, by Pier Luigi Nervi

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 Ans. A

Q.61. Match the instruments in Group I with the physical quantities they measure in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Goniophotometer

Q. Pyrheliometer

R. Spectrophotometer

S. Forward-Looking Infrared Camera

1. Electromagnetic energy at specific wavelengths of light

2. Luminous flux of directed light sources

3. Direct Solar Irradiance

4. Temperature

5. Global Solar Radiation

(A) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4 Ans. B

Explanation: The information related to the instrument mentioned in Group-I at ‘Q’. i.e., Pyrheliometer is available at Q.7, ISRO-2017. Also, the related information is available in ‘Set-2’ at ‘Section-3.3.2- Factors affecting climate’ Thus, the 1st correct pair is ‘Q-3’ It means, option A & D are incorrect In both the remaining options B&C, ‘P-2 & R1’ are the common pairs So, now we need to identify the correct application of the instrument mentioned at ‘S’ i.e., Forward-Looking Infrared Camera, from the two given options i.e., ‘S-4’ or ‘S-5’ The Forward-Looking Infrared Cameras (also known as thermal imager) is used to measure the infrared energy / temperatures of the object It is a passive imaging method for contactless temperature measurement

Q.62. Match the terms in Group I with their associated items in Group II.

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(C) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Ans. C

Explanation:

Group I Group II

P. Scotopic vision

Q. Presbyopia

R. Emmetropia

S. Photopic vision

1. Ability to see under low light condition using rod cells

2. Vision in bright light using cone cells.

3. Inability to focus on distant objects.

4. Ideal distance vision

5. Inability to focus on nearby objects

Term Description

Scotopic vision

Photopic vision

Presbyopia

Emmetropia

Myopia

Scotopic vision is the vision of the eye under low light conditions Cone cells do not function in low level lighting so scotopic vision happens completely through rod cells

Photopic vision is the vision of the eye under well-lit conditions, normally usual daylight light intensity. It allows colour perception which is mediated by cone cells.

It is a refractive error that makes it hard for middle-aged and older adults to see things up close. It happens because the lens (an inner part of the eye that helps the eye focus) stops focusing light correctly on the retina

It is the refractive state in a healthy eye In this state any individual achieves the perfect visual function. Ametropia is a state where refractive error is present, or when distant points are no longer focused properly to the retina.

Myopia or near sightedness or short sightedness means a person can see nearby objects clearly but distant objects appear blurred. High myopia may lead to vision impairment.

Q.63. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following (MSQ).

(A) Wastewater from sinks, baths, etc. enters through the top inlet of a gully trap while foul water from sweeping of rooms or courtyards enters from side inlet.

(B) Anti-siphon traps have a reduced water-way at the inlet side, while the outlet being larger prevents the pipe from filling full and causing C siphonic action

(C) Intercepting traps prevent foul gases from street sewer to enter the house.

(D) P, Q and S traps are classified according to their shape.

Ans. C, D.

Explanation: The corrected statements for option A & B are as follows:

A. The wastewater from sinks, baths, etc as well as foul water from sweeping of rooms or courtyards enter through enters from the side inlet of the gully trap. (Refer GATE-2012 (Q.44), ISRO-2020 (Q.37), GATE-2019 (Q.36) for more information).

B. Anti-siphon traps have the same water-way at the inlet & outlet side to preserve the water seal of traps through access to atmospheric air. (Refer GATE-2006 (Q.56), ISRO-2015(Q.77), ISRO-2018(Q.52), GATE-2014(Q.12) for more information).

Q.64. A steel wire of 5.65 mm diameter and 50 m length is used for a hoisting crane. The wire is used to vertically lift a weight of 200 kg attached to its lowest end. Assume the Young's modulus of elasticity of steel as 2 x 105 N/mm2 and gravitational acceleration as 10 m/Sec2 The elongation of the steel wire (in mm) will be ______ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Ans. 19.75 to 20.15

Explanation:

As per the given information, dia. of wire = 5.65 mm. Thus, r = 2.825 mm

Length (l) = 50 m= 50 x 103 mm weight = 200 kg, E = 2 x 105 N/mm2 g = 10 m/Sec2

As, Tensile Stress = P/A………(P = External force or Load & A = Cross Sectional Area).

Here,

Also,

Thus, Tensile stress = 2000 / 25 = 80 N/ mm

)

As we know, Modulus of Elasticity (Young’s Modulus (E)) = Tensile Stress / Tensile Strain

i.e., E = Tensile Stress / Tensile Strain

Thus,

Tensile

Also, Tensile Strain = dL/L…….(dL = change in length & L = Original Length) Thus, here dL = Tensile

Q.65. A simply supported RCC beam of span 4 m is supporting a brick wall over its entire span. The brick wall is 250 mm thick and 2 m high. The RCC beam has a depth of 600 mm and width of 250 mm. The density of brick masonry and RCC can be assumed as 18 KN/m3 and 25 KN/m3 respectively. Considering the load of the wall and self-weight of the RCC beam, the maximum bending moment in the beam (in KN-m) will be ____ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Ans. 25.4 to 25.6

Explanation:

As per given information,

Span of beam (l) = 4 m. depth of beam (d)=600 mm = 0.6 m

width of beam & wall = 250 mm = 0.25 m

Height of wall = 2 m

Step-1: Calculate the load of brick masonry & RCC beam.

As per given information, density of brick masonry = 18 KN/ m3

The cross-sectional dimensions of brick wall are 4m (l) x 0.25 m (b) x 2m (h). Thus, volume of wall = 2 m3

Thus, the load of brick wall (w1) = 18 x 2 = 36 KN……….(Load = Density x Volume)

As per given information, density of RCC = 25 KN/ m3

The cross-sectional dimensions of RCC beam are 4m(l) x 0.25 m (b) x 0.6 m (h). Thus, volume of beam = 0.6 m3

Thus, the load of RCC beam (w2) = 25 x 0.6 = 15 KN…….(Load = Density x Volume)

Thus, total load (w1+w2) = 51 KN

Step-2: Calculate the U.D.L. on the beam due to load of brick masonry & self-weight of beam.

Thus, the U.D.L. on the beam = w/l = 51/4 = 12.75 KN/m

Step-3: Calculate the max. bending moment in the beam.

Thus, max. bending moment for simply supported beam carrying U.D.L. = wl2/8 = (12.75 x 4 x 4)/8 = 25.5 KN-m

PART B2: FOR PLANNING CANDIDATES (Total Marks = 25):

Q.66 to Q.72 Carry ONE mark each (-1/3 marks for each wrong answer in MCQ) (Total Marks = 7).

Q.66. Select the most appropriate scale to measure attitude opinion and perception.

(A) Likert scale

Ans. A

Explanation:

(B) Ratio scale (C) Richter scale (D) Armstrong scale

Scale Description

Likert Scale

Ratio Scale

Richter Scale

It is a unidimensional scale that researchers use to collect respondents' attitudes and opinions. Researchers often use this psychometric scale to understand the views and perspectives towards a brand, product, or target market.

It is a type of variable measurement scale which is quantitative in nature. It allows any researcher to compare the intervals or differences. There are 4 levels of measurement ranked in the order of complexity and precision – from low, nominal, to high, ratio. Thus, the ratio level is the highest of four hierarchical levels of measurement.

It is used for measuring the intensity of earthquakes The scale majors the maximum amplitude of seismic waves as they reach seismographs. The magnitude is expressed in absolute numbers from 0 to 10

Armstrong Scale It is used chiefly in measuring wavelengths of light Angstrom (Å) is the unit of length, equal to 10 10 meter, or 0.1 nanometer.

Q.67. Jal shakti Abhiyan initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti does NOT include

(A) Water conservation and rainwater harvesting

(B) Renovation of traditional water bodies

Ans. C

(C) Hydroelectric Power Generation

(D) Intensive afforestation

Explanation: Jal Shakti Abhiyan-I (JSA-I) was launched in 2019 in 1592 blocks in 256 water stressed districts of the country to promote water conservation and water resource management by focusing on accelerated implementation of five targeted interventions viz. water conservation and rainwater harvesting, renovation of traditional and other water bodies, reuse of water and recharging of structures, watershed development and intensive afforestation. Besides, the special interventions included development of Block Water Conservation Plans and District Water Conservation Plans, Krishi Vigyan Kendra Melas, Urban Wastewater Reuse, and 3D contour mapping of all villages.

Later on the scope of JSA 2019 was expanded and “Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain” (JSA:CTR) with the theme “Catch the Rain - Where it Falls When it Falls” was taken up to cover all the blocks of all districts (rural as well as urban areas) across the country during 22nd March 2021 to 30th November 2021 - the pre-monsoon and monsoon period. JSA:CTR 2021 campaign had five focused interventions- (1) rainwater harvesting & water conservation (2) enumerating, geo-tagging & making inventory of all water bodies; preparation of scientific plans for water conservation (3) Setting up Jal Shakti Kendras in all districts (4) intensive afforestation and (5) awareness generation. (Source: www.pib.gov.in)

Q.68. Select the correct sequence of activities for transit-operation planning process.

(A) Network route design → Timetable development → Vehicle scheduling → Crew scheduling

(B) Timetable development → crew scheduling → Vehicle scheduling → Network route design

(C) Vehicle scheduling → Crew scheduling → Network route design → Timetable development

(D) Crew scheduling → Vehicle scheduling → Timetable development → Network route design

Ans. A

Explanation: The public-transport (transit) operation planning process commonly includes four basic activities, usually performed in sequence: Network design, Timetable development, Vehicle Scheduling, and Crew Scheduling. The output of each activity positioned higher in the sequence becomes an important input for lowerlevel decisions. The essential inputs, planning activity and the outputs for the transit operations planning process are shown in the figure on the next page.

(Source- Ceder, Avishai (Avi) Public Transit Planning and Operation: Theory, modelling and practice, Burlington, MA, Elsevier Ltd, 2007)

Fig. Functional diagram (System Architecture) of a common transit-operation planning process

Q.69. Select the correct sequence of steps for designing the operation of a signalised intersection.

(A) Signal Phasing → Green Allocation → Cycle Length Selection

(B) Green Allocation → Cycle Length Selection → Signal Phasing

(C) Cycle Length Selection → Signal Phasing → Green Allocation

(D) Signal Phasing → Cycle Length Selection → Green Allocation

Ans. D

Explanation: The signal design procedure involves six major steps. They include the (1) phase design, (2) determination of amber time and clearance time, (3) determination of cycle length, (4) apportioning (assign) of green time, (5) pedestrian crossing requirements, and (6) the performance evaluation of the above design. The definitions related to Signalised Intersection are as follows:

Term Definition

Cycle A single cycle is one complete rotation through all of the indications provided

Cycle length

Interval

Phase

The cycle length is the time in seconds that it takes a signal to complete one full cycle of indications

It indicates the time interval between the starting of green for one approach till the next time the green starts. It is denoted by C

It indicates the change from one stage to another. There are 2 types of intervals: Change interval and Clearance interval. Change interval is also called the yellow time which indicates the interval between the green and red signal. Clearance interval is also called all red. It is included after each yellow interval indicating a period during which all signal faces show red.

A phase is the green interval plus the change and the clearance intervals that follow it It allows a set of movements to flow and safely halt the flow before the phase of another set of movements start.

Q.70. Considering the following statements (P, Q and R), select the correct option.

(P) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year modal alternatives.

(Q) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year population.

(R) Prediction of travel demand depends on target year land use

(A) Only P is correct.

(B) Only P & R are correct.

Ans. D

Explanation: Refer Q.45, GATE-2009 for more information.

(C) Only Q & R are correct.

(D) P, Q & R are all correct

Q.71. During COVID-19 pandemic, the ARHC scheme was launched in 2021 by the Government of India to address the problems of poor urban migrants. The term ARHC refers to _______.

(A) Accessible Rural Health Centre

(B) Affordable Rental Housing Complexes

Ans. B

(C) Affordable Rentals for Homeless Citizens

(D) Accessible Rural Housing Complexes

Explanation: COVID-19 pandemic has resulted in reverse migration of urban migrants/ poor in the country Urban migrants stay in slums/ informal settlements/ unauthorized colonies/ peri-urban areas to save cost on housing. They need decent rental housing at an affordable rate at their work sites.

In order to address this need, the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has initiated Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs), a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri AWAS Yojana- Urban (PMAY-U). This will provide ease of living to urban migrants/ poor in Industrial Sector as well as in non-formal urban economy to get access to dignified affordable rental housing close to their workplace. Beneficiaries for ARHCs are urban migrants/ poor from EWS/ LIG categories. ARHCs will be a mix of single/double bedroom dwelling Units and dormitory of 4/6 beds including all common facilities which will be exclusively used for rental housing for a minimum period of 25 years. (Source: http://arhc.mohua.gov.in)

Q.72. Choose the non-probability sampling method where the sample is taken from a group of people easy to contact or reach

(A) Simple random sampling

(B) Snowball sampling

Ans. C

(C) Convenience sampling

(D) Stratified random sampling.

Explanation: Refer Q.20, GATE-2003 for more information on ‘Sampling methods’ mentioned at option A, B & C. Further, ‘Non-probability Sampling’ is explained in Set-2 in the ‘Table no 5.6.2.1- The methods of survey and selecting samples in data collection’ are classified as follows:

Non-probability Sampling’

It is the one where discretion is used to select ‘representative’ units from the population (or) to infer that a sample is ‘representative’ of the population. This method is also called as judgement or purposive sampling.

Q.73 to Q.81 Carry TWO marks each (-2/3 marks for each wrong answer in MCQ) (Total Marks = 18).

Q.73. Match the items in Group-I with the most appropriate stages of travel demand modelling in Group-II.

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

Ans. A

Group I

P. US-EPA’s MOVES

Q. Fratar Model

R. Growth Factor Model

S. User Equilibrium

Group II

1. Trip Assignment

2. Trip Production

3. Trip Distribution

4. Mobile source emission estimation

5. Destination Choice

Explanation: The question related to ‘User Equilibrium model’ mentioned in ‘Group-I’ at ‘S’ & which is used for ‘Traffic/Trip Assigned’ was earlier asked & explained at Q.13, GATE-2021 Thus, the 1st correct pair is ‘S-1’ It means, option ‘C & D’ are incorrect Further, the ‘Growth Factor Model’ mentioned in ‘Group-I’ at ‘R’ & which is used for ‘Trip Generation/Production’ was earlier asked & explained at Q.14, GATE-2021. Thus, the second correct pair is ‘R-2’. These two pairs are sufficient to decide that ‘A’ is correct final option

Additional Information:

Model Description

US-EPA’s MOVES

US-EPA’s MOVES stands for ‘United States- Environment Protection Agency’s Motor Vehicle Emission Simulator. It is a state-of-the-science emission modeling system that estimates emissions for mobile sources at the national, region, and project level for criteria air pollutants, greenhouse gases, and air toxics.

Fratar Model

It is the growth factor model used to calculate trip distribution. It uses mathematical formula that proportions future trip generation estimates to each zone as a function of the product of the current trips between the two zones and the growth factor of the attracting zone

Q.74. Match the Acts in Group-I with the corresponding organizations empowered by the Act in Group-II.

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-2

Ans. C

Group I

P. RERA 2016

Q. RTI Act 2005

R. Town & Country Planning Act

S. Municipal Act

Group II

1. Chief Information Commission

2. Land Registration Board

3. Real Estate Regulatory Authority

4. Development Authority

5. Board of Councilors

Explanation: For Act mentioned at ‘P’ in Group-I, i.e., RERA 2016, which stands for ‘Real Estate Regulatory Authority’ & for Act mentioned at ‘Q’ i.e., RTI Act 2005, under which ‘Central Information Commission’ has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005. Thus, P-3 & Q-1 are first correct two pairs (i.e., Option A & B are surely incorrect). For Act mentioned at ‘R’ and ‘S’, the information was already available at GATE-2014 (Q.8).

Q.75. As per IRC 11:1962, separate bicycle tracks may be provided when the peak hour_______. Which of the following statement(s) can be used to correctly fill in the blank?

(P) Bicycle traffic is 400 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorised vehicles is 100-200 vehicles/hour.

(Q) Bicycle traffic is 100 bicycles/hour or more and the volume of motorised vehicles exceed 200 vehicles/hour.

(R) Bicycle traffic is 100-200 bicycles/hour, and the volume of motorised vehicles is 100-200 vehicles/hour.

(A) Only P & Q. (B) Only P & R. (C) Only R. (D) P, Q & R. Ans. A

Explanation:

The the recommendations for the design and layout of cycle tracks as per IRC:11-1962 are

as follows:

A. Separate cycle tracks may be provided when the peak hour cycle traffic is 400 or more on the routes with a traffic of 100 motor vehicles or more but not more than 200 per hour

B. If the number of motor vehicles using the route is more than 200 per hour, separate cycle tracks may be justified even if the cycle traffic is only 100 per hour

C. Cycle tracks are subdivided into 3 classes: 1. Adjoining cycle tracks (Adjacent and on the same level of the carriageway), 2. Raised Cycle tracks (adjoining the carriage way but at higher level) & 3. Free cycle tracks (Separated from the carriage way by a verge and may be at the same or different level of carriageway )

D. The radii of horizontal curves of cycle track should not be less than 10 meters. The vertical curves at changes in grade should have minimum radius of 200 meters for summit curves and 100 meters for valley curves.

E. It is a desirable that a cyclist should have a clear view of not less than 25 meters In case of gradient of 1 in 40 or steeper, cyclists should have a clear view of not less than 60 metres.

F. The lane width of pavement required for the movement of one cycle is one meter so that it will allow clearance of 25 centimetre on either side. Thus, the minimum width of pavement for a cycle track should not be less than 2 lanes i.e., 2 meters.

G. The minimum headroom (vertical clearance) provided for cycle track should be 2.25 meters

Q.76. As per URDPFI Guidelines (2015), match the following settlement types in Group-I to their population range in Group-II.

(A) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5

Ans. A

Explanation: As per URDPFI Guidelines (2015), the classification of Urban Settlements is as follows:

Q.77. Match the application areas in Group -I with the satellite/satellites sensors in Group -II.

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1

Ans. A

Explanation: The question related to Satellite mentioned in Group-II at ‘4’ i.e., CARTOSAT was earlier asked in GATE2021 (Q.3), GATE-2017 (Q.24), GATE-2008 (Q.36). Thus, the first correct pair is ‘R-4’. It means, option B & D are incorrect Both the remaining options i.e., ‘A & C’ have ‘P-5’ as the common pair. Thus, the pairs for ‘Q & S’ will decide the final correct answer from options A & C. The question related ‘Geostationary Orbits / Satellites (GSAT)’ was earlier asked

in GATE-1993 (Q.21) wherein, it is explained that GSAT satellites are used for ‘Communication and Meteorology’. Thus, ‘Q-3’ is the correct pair. It means, option ‘A’ is the final correct answer

Additional information: 1. IRNSS stands for ‘Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)’ with an operational name of NavIC (acronym for 'Navigation with Indian Constellation’) which provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services Further, IRNSS was also mentioned in the other incorrect options for Q.24, GATE-2017

2. HySIS stands for ‘Hyperspectral Imaging Satellite’ It is an earth observation satellite (PSLV) (launched in 2018), which will provide hyperspectral imaging services to India for range of applications in agriculture, forestry and in the assessment of geography such as coastal zones and inland waterways. The primary goal of HySIS is to study the earth surface in the visible near infrared and short-wave infrared regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Q.78. Select the institution(s) that are mandated as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. 1992 of India (MSQ).

(A) Panchayat

Ans. A, D.

(B) Municipal Council (C) Ward Committee (D) Gram Sabha

Explanation: The related question was earlier asked in GATE-2020 (Q.7.), GATE-2014 (Q.8), GATE-2009 (Q.6), GATE2008 (Q.50), GATE-2005 (Q.22)

Q.79. Select the method(s) that can be used for land use classification based on satellite images (MSQ)

(A) Maximum Likelihood

(B) Northwest Corner Method

Ans. A, C, D.

Explanation:

(C) K means

(D) ANN

Method Description

Maximum Likelihood

Northwest Corner method

K means

The method is used in deriving information from geospatial Landsat satellite imagery of different periods. Mean vector and covariance metrics are the key components of maximum likelihood classification.

The North-West Corner Rule is a method adopted to compute the initial feasible solution of the transportation problem.

K-means clustering algorithm is a better method of classifying high resolution satellite imagery. The extracted regions are classified using a minimum distance decision rule. Several regions are selected as training samples for region classification. Each region is compared to the training samples and is assigned to its closest class. The procedure significantly reduces the mixed pixel problem suffered by most pixel-based methods.

An artificial neural network (ANN), usually called "neural network" (NN), is a mathematical model or computational model that tries to simulate the structure and/or functional aspects of biological neural networks. ANN method integrated with GIS helps to interpret natural resource information.

Q.80. The adjacent figure shows a contour diagram and two points (A & B) on the continuously ascending surface. The horizontal projection of AB is 200 m long, and the gradient of AB is 1 in 25. The constant contour interval (in m) is ____ (in integer).

Ans. 2

Explanation: The section of the contour diagram will be as follows:

As per given information, the gradient of AB is 1 in 25. Thus, net elevation between A & B (distance ‘BC’ in the above dig.) = 200/25 = 8m

As per the diagram, there are ‘4’ constant contour intervals between A & B Thus, the constant contour interval = 8/4 = 2m.

Q.81. A given zone is characterised in the following tables in terms of household size, and vehicle ownership. TableI shows the trip rates of households, and Table-II shows the household composition. For households of size two and above, having one or more vehicles, the total daily home-based trips made are _____ (in integer)

Table-I: Trip rate of households (Unit: Number of daily home-based trips per household)

Table-II: Household composition of zone (Unit: Number of households)

Ans. 2350

Explanation: Refer Q.14, GATE-2021 for more information END

Number of trips = Trip rate of a Household x Number of Household

Thus, no. of trips for household of size two and above having one or more vehicles will be as follows

Thus, total no. of daily home-based trips for households of size two & above, having one or more vehicles. = 750 + 300 + 1000 + 300 = 2350

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