Previous Year Question Answers - SSC CGL TIER - I (Paper -3)

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MOCK TEST

1

SSC CGL TIER- I MATHS 01. A librarian purchased 60 story books for his library but he found that he could get 4 extra books by spending Rs. 336 more and then the overall average price per book reduces by Re 1. The previous average price of each book was a) Rs. 84 b) Rs. 83 c) Rs. 68 d) Rs. 100

And. (d) Sol. Let the previous average price be x. A.T.Q 60x+336=(x-1)64 60x+336=64x-64 4x=400 x=100 02. A jar contained a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio of 4:1. When 10 litres of the mixture was taken out and 10 litres of liquid B was poured into the jar, this ratio becomes 2:3. The initial quantity of liquid A contained in the jar was a) 4 litres b) 8 litres c) 16 litres d) 40 litres

Ans. (d) Sol . Let the initial quantity of liquids A and B in the jar be 4x and x litres respectively After taking out 10 litres of the mixture Liquid A 4 4x- ×10=  4x-8  litres 5 Liquid B

price and sells 80% of the remaining oranges at half of the previous rate of profit. The rest of the oranges being rotten are thrown away. The overall percentage of profit is a) 80 b) 84 c) 94 d) 96

Ans. (b) Sol . Let the number of oranges bought be 100 Let the C.P of hundred oranges be ` 100 S.P of 40 oranges = ` 100

100-40 ×100 =150% 40 Remaining oranges = 60  Gain percent =

80% of the remaining oranges =

60×80 =48 100

These are sold at a profit of 75%

48×175 =84 100  Gain per cent = 84%  Their S.P. =

04. A shopkeeper purchased 510 eggs at the rate of Rs. 20 per dozen. 30 eggs were broken on the way. In order to make a gain of 20%, he must sell the remaining eggs at the rate of a) Rs.22.50 per dozen b) Rs.25.50 per dozen c) Rs.26 per dozen d) Rs.26.50 per dozen

Ans. (b) Sol. 12 eggs = Rs. 20

1 4x- ×10=  4x-2  litres 5 After pouring 10 litres of liquid B

×42.5

×42.5

510 eggs Rs. 850 30 eggs were broken . so 480eggs 850×120/100=1020

4x-8 2 = 4x-2+10 3 = 12x-24=8x+16

1egg=

40 =10 4 Quantity of liquid A = 4x = 4×10=40 litres

1020 480

= x=

12eggs =

03. A fruit-seller buys some oranges and by selling 40% of them he realises the cost price of all the oranges. As the oranges begin to over-ripe, he reduces the

1020 ×12=25.50 480

05. A person on retirement gets Rs. 3,20,000 from his gratuity and P.F. He wants to invest this amount in post office and bank in such a way that he earns a total interest of Rs. 27,600 every year. If the annual

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MOCK TEST

2

rate of interest in the post office and the bank be respectively 9% and 8%, what are the amounts invested in the post office and the bank respectively ? a) Rs. 200000, Rs. 120000 b) Rs. 120000, Rs. 150000 c) Rs. 170000, Rs. 120000 d) None of these

Ans. (a) Sol. Let the amount deposited in the post office be Rs x.  Amount deposited in bank = Rs. (320000-x)

S.I=

P×R×T 100

x×9  320000-x  ×8 + 100 100 = 27600 = 9x+2560000-8x=2760000 = x= 2760000-2560000 = Rs.20,00,00  Amount in bank = Rs. (320000-200000) = Rs. 120000

3x-9+2x+6 =1 72  5x-3=72 

 x=

07. Two guns are fired from the same place at an interval of 6 minutes. A person approaching the place observes that 5 minutes 52 seconds have elapsed between the hearing of the sound of the two guns. If the velocity of the sound is 300 m/sec, the man was approaching that place at what speed (in km/hr) ? a) 24 b) 27 c) 30 d) 36

Ans. (b) Sol. Difference of time = 6 min -5 min. 52 sec = 8 seconds Distance covered by the man in 5 min. 52 sec Distance covered by the sound in 8 sec. = 330×8=2640 m.  Speed of the man

06. A, B and C can complete a work separately in 24, 36 and 48 days respectively. They started together but C left after working for 4 days and A left 3 days before the completion of the work. In how many days will the work be completed? a) 20 days b) 18 days c) 16 days d) 15 days

Ans. (d) Sol. Let the work be completed in x days. A worked for x-3 days. B for x days and C for 4 days. A's 1 day’s work =

1 24

B's 1 day’s work =

1 36

and C's 1 day's work =

1 48

 x-3 ×

1 1 1 +x× +4× =1 24 36 48

x-3 x 1 + + =1 24 36 12

75 =15 5

=

2640m 5min.52sec

=

2640 m/sec 352

2640 18 × kmph 352 5 = 27 kmph =

08. If bc+ab+ca=abc,

then

the

value

of

b+c a+c a+b + + bc  a-1 ac  b-1 ab  c-1 is a) 0

b) -

c) 3

d) 1

1 2

Ans. (d) Sol. Given, bc+ab+ca=abc  bc+ab=abc-ac=ac(b-1) ab+ca=abc-bc=bc(a-1) bc+ca=abc-ab=ab(c-1) =

b+c a+c a+b + + abc-bc abc-ac abc-ab

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MOCK TEST =

3 Ans. (b)

b+c a+c a+b + + ab+ac bc+ab bc+ca

a2 b2 Sol. Sin  2 a  b2

b+c a+c a+b = a b+c + b c+a + c a+b       =

1 1 1 + + a b c

=

bc+ac+ab abc

=

abc =1 abc

sin cos  a2 b2 Tan  2ab 11. If a 2sec 2 x-b 2 tan 2 x=c 2 , then the value of

09. If p(x+y) =5 and q  x-y  =3 , then the simplified 2

value of p 2  x+y  +4pq xy-q 2  x-y  is 2

a) -(p+q) c) p+q

2

b) 2(p+q) d) -2 (p+q)

Sol. p  x+y  =5 2

  x+y  = 2

5 P 2

b 2 -a 2 +2c2 a) b 2 +a 2

2

 a2 )

b 2 +a 2 -2c 2 b) b 2 -a 2

a 2 tan 2 x-b 2 tan 2 x=c2 -a 2

2

c 2 -a 2 tan x= 2 2 a -b 2

5 3 5q-3p  4xy= p - q = pq 2 2  p  x+y  +4pq xy-q  x-y  2

 sec 2 x+tan 2 x = 1+tan 2 x+tan 2 x

2

 5q-3p  -q 2 . 3 5  p . +pq. p pq q  5p+5q-3p-3q  2p+2q

= 1+2tan 2 x

2

= 1+

2 2 2 2 10. If a -b sinθ+2ab cosθ=a +b , then tan θ =?

b)

tan 2 x a 2 -b 2 =c 2 -a 2

5 3   x+y  -  x-y  = p - q

ab c) 2 2 a -b

2

a 2 +a 2 tan 2 x-b 2 tan 2 x=c2

3 q  x-y  =3   x-y  = q

2ab a 2 -b 2

2

a 2 (1+tan 2 x)-b 2 tan 2 x=c2

2

2

 sec x+tan x  is equal to (assume b

b 2 -a 2 -2c2 b 2 -a 2 c) d) 2 2 b 2 +a 2 b +a +2c 2 Ans. (b) Sol. a 2sec 2 x-b 2 tan 2 x=c 2

Ans. (b)

a)

2

Tan 

2

2ab a  b2

Cos 

a 2 -b 2 2ab

=

2 c 2 -a 2 2

a -b

2

a 2 -b 2 +2c 2 -2a 2 a 2 -b 2

-b 2 +2c 2 -a 2 = a 2 -b 2

a 2 -b 2 d) ab

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MOCK TEST =

4

b 2 +a 2 -2c 2 b 2 -a 2

 a+b+c 

a)

12. A man standing on the top of a tower near the sea shore, finds that a boat is coming towards him and it takes ten minutes for the angle of depression of boat to change from 30° to 60°. How soon the boat reaches the seashore ? a) 5 minutes b) 7 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 15 minutes

b)

2

 b+c-a 

c)

d)

2

 a+b-c  2

 a+c-a  2

Ans. (b) Sol . A

Ans. (a) Sol. A

D

E

O

B

C 60°

30° D

B

C

Let the speed of the boat be v meter / minute time taken to reach point B from point D = t minutes ACB=30°,ADB=60° AB = Tower In  ABC,

AB tan30°= BC 

1 3

=

 AB=

1 1 1 1 br+ ar+ cr= ab 2 2 2 2

= r  a+b+c  =ab

ab  a+b+c 

a 2 +b 2 =c 2

vt+10v

 a+b 

3

2

-2ab=c 2

 a+b  -2ab=c2 a+b-ca+b+c=2ab 2

 tan60°=

AB BD

AB 3= vt

3vt=AB

3vt=

=

In right  ABC

In  ABD,

B

In radius = r units area of (  OAC+  OBC+  OAB) = Area of  ABC

r=

AB vt+10v

E

From equation 1st

r=

r=

10v+vt 3

ab  a+b+c 

 a+b+c  a+b-c  2  a+b+c 

a+b-c r= 2

 3t=10+t  2t = 10  t = 5 minutes. 13. The sides of a right triangle ABC are a, b, and c, where c is the hypotenuse. What will be the radius of the circle of this triangle ?

ab=

 a+b-c a+b+c  2

14. ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at C and P is the length of the perpendicular from C on AB. If a, b and c are the lengths of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively, then

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MOCK TEST a)

5

1 1 1 = p2 b2 a 2

1 1 1 + 2 =- 2 2 p a b Ans. (b) Sol. c)

b)

1 1 1 = + p2 a 2 b2

d)

1 1 1  2- 2 2 p a b

Sol. B

D

C

A

A c

BD = DC =

D

b

1 BC 2

AC 2 =AD 2 +CD 2

BC=a, AC=b

AB2  AD 2  BD 2 = AD 2 +CD 2 On adding, we get

AB= AC2 +BC2 = b 2 +a 2 Area of  ABC

AB2 +AC 2 =2AD 2 +2CD 2 = BC 2 =2AD 2 +2CD 2

C

B

a

1 1 ×BC×AC = ab 2 2 Again, the area of  ABC

= 4CD 2 =2AD 2 +2CD 2 = AD 2 =CD 2 = AD = CD = BD Mid point on the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is equidistant from the vertices.

1 ×AB×CD 2

Direction (16-19): The Bar Graph given here shows the population (in crore) of India in various census years. Observe the graph and answer the following question based on it.

1 × a 2 +b 2 ×p 2 

1 1 2 2 ab= a +b ×P 2 2

80

68.4

70 54.8

60 50

 ab= a 2 +b 2 ×p On squaring both sides, we get

40 30

31.85

36.14

10 0 1931

2

1 a b = 2 2+ 2 2 2 p a b a b 1 1 1 1 1 = + = + p2 b2 a 2 a 2 b2 15. In  ABC,  B=90°, and D is the mid point of BC, then which of the following relations is true ? a) AD = BD = CD b) AD = BD = 2CD c) AD = 2BD = CD d) 2AD = BD = CD

Ans. (a)

27.9

20

a 2 b 2 = a 2 +b 2 p 2 2

43.92

1941

1951

1961

1971

1981

16. The percentage increase in population from 1971 to 1981 is a) 24.8% b) 20% c) 16.7% d) 22.9% Ans. (a) Sol. Population in 1971 = 54.80 crores Population in 1981=68.40 crores Increase = (68.40-54.80) crores = 13.6 crores

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MOCK TEST  Percentage Increase

6 =

13.6 ×100=24.8% = 54.80 17.In which census year, the percentage increase in population is highest as compared to that of the previous census year ? a) 1951 b) 1961 c) 1971 d) 1981 Ans. (d) Sol. Percentage increase in 1981 = 24.8% Percentage increase in 1971

 54.80-43.92   ×100=24.77%  43.92 

=

Hence, the percentage increase is highest for the year 1981. 18. In which census year, the percentage increase in population is least as compared to that in the previous census year ? a) 1961 b) 1951 c) 1971 d) 1941 Ans. (b) Sol. Percentage increase in 1941

 31.85-27.90  ×100 27.90  

=

=

40.5×10000000 =8100000 5

20. If the length of each of the two equal sides of an isoscles triangle is 10cm and the adjacent angle is 45°, then the area of the triangle is a) 20 2 square cm. b) 12 2 square cm. c) 25 2 square cm. d) 15 2 square cm. Ans. (c) Sol. A

10

45°

B

D

C

10

AD=AB sin 45° = 10×

3.95×100 =14.16% 27.90

1 2

= 5 2 cm  Area of  ABC

Percentage increase in 1951

36.14-31.85  100 31.85

=

1 ×BC×AD 2

4.29 ×100=13.47 31.85

=

1 ×10×5 2 = 25 2 square cm 2

Hence, the percentage increase is lowest for the year 1951. 19. Per year increase in population from the year 1931 to 1981 is a) 8100000 b) 7600000 c) 8900000 d) 6700000 Ans. (a) Sol. Total increase = (68.40-27.90) crores = 40.5 crores  Annual increase =

21. Vibha and Nutan invested Rs 36,000 and Rs 45,000 respectively. After 4 months, Nutan withdraws 4/ 9th of her initial capital investment. After 5 months she again invests 11/9th of her initial capital. If at the end of the year, their total profit is Rs. 117240, find out the share of Vibha in the total annual profit. a) 518400 b) 65400 c) 52000 d) 67000 Ans. (a) Sol. Vibha Nutan 36000 45000 36 45

40.5 crores 5

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MOCK TEST 36 × 12=432

7

45×4+45(1-4/ 9)×5+45(1+7/9)×3 =545 Profit = 432+545=977--------117240(120 times) Vibha’s profit share = 432×120= Rs. 51840 Nutan’s profit share = 545×120= Rs. 65400

22. Find the greatest number which will divide 280, 349 and 487 leaving remainder 4 in each case. a) 69 c) 12 Ans. (a)

a) 1 5  2  16 b) 1 5  2  10 c) 1 5  2  10 d) 1 5  2  10 Ans. (b) 

b) 96 d) 18

12   3 

Sol. 280-4=276 349-4=345 487-4=483

5 2 2

3  5   2 2  2

12 3 

H.C.F of 276, 345 and 483

5 2 2

6  6 5 

2763451

69  483  7

692764

5 2 2

2

 6  5  1 

12 3  5  2 2

276

1 2   3 

483

276 ×

×

6  

69 is the H.C.F 23. If the circum radius of an equilateral triangle is 10cm, then find the inradius of the triangle. a) 5cm b) 6cm c) 3cm d) 4cm Ans. (a)

5 2 2

 5

2

 5  1

5 1



5 1

2   1  

12 3

5  3  5  5  2 10  2 2

12   2

5  2  2 10  2 2

6  5  1 6 4 

1 2   2 

Sol.

5  1

10 

2

64

Circum radius (R) = 10=

a

a 3

a 2 3

=

10

10 3 2 3

2  10  1 .

5

3

a=10 3 Inradius,

25. The work done by A is half of the work done by B in one third of the total time taken to complete the work and together they take 10 days to complete a work. Find the time taken by B to complete the work alone. a) 25 days c) 12 days Ans. (a)

=5cm

Alternatively, r= 24.

3 

12

Sol.  3  5  2 2   3  5  2 2  

12 3 5 2 2

R 10 = =5cm 2 2 is equal to

b) 15 days d) 20 days

Sol. A

B

Work

1×3

2

Time

1×3 A 3 3

3

Work Time

B 2=3+2=5unit×10=50 units 3

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MOCK TEST

8

B completes the work in

50 =25 days 2

REASONING Direction (26-29):- Select the related word/ letters/number from the given alternatives. 26. CURE : DISEASE : : HEAL : ? a) Illness b) Injury c) Recover d) Sick

Ans. (b) Sol. Injury

13

13 13 13

Q O P R 17 15 16 18

33. In a certain code FRACTION is written as FNAITCOR. How is QUANTITATIVE written in that code ? a) QTNAVIATIETU b) QIATAETUTNVI c) QTEATUIAVITN d) QEAITATITNVU

10, 12, 11, 9 J L K I

Ans. (d) Sol. F R A C T I O N

13 13 13 13 W Y X V 23 25 24 22

28. 1442 : 4124 : : 1681 : ? a) 6118 b) 8611 c) 1618 d) 6811

Direction (29-31):- Select the odd word/ letters/number from the following. 29. a) Penguin d) Kiwi c) Eagle d) Emu

Ans. (c) Sol. Except eagle, all others are flightless birds .

Q E A I T A T I T N V U 34. If 'air' is called 'green', green is called 'blue', ‘blue’ is called 'sky', 'sky' is called ‘yellow’, 'yellow' is called 'water' and ‘water’ is called 'pink', then what is the color of sky? a) Yellow b) Water c) Sky d) Blue Ans. (c) 35. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. Question Figure

b) CDWX d) MNMN

Ans. (C) Sol. A+Z=27, B+Y=27, C+X=27, D+W=27, M+N=27, M+N=27, P+L=28, Q+J=27 31. a) Lawyer c) Mayor

F N A I T C O R Q UA N T I T A T I V E

Ans. (a) Sol. 1442-14 becomes 41 and 42 becomes 24 1681=6118

30. a) ABYZ c) PQJL

b) 20 d) 19

Ans. (d)

27. DBCE : QOPR :: JKLI : ? a) YWXU b) WYXV c) WXYU d) WYUX

Ans. (b) Sol. 4, 2, 3, 5 D B C E

a) 18 c) 16

Answer figure

b) Legislator d) Governor

Ans. (a) 32. Find out the number of circles in the given figure.

a)

b)

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MOCK TEST

c)

9

d)

Ans. (b) Direction (Q. 36-37):- Select the missing number from the given responses. 36. 2 4 3 2 9 7 6 5 ? 33 27 21. a) 35 b) 69 c) 80 d) 77

15÷5×2-6+3=3×2-6+3=6-6+3=3. 39. Which one of following responses would be a meaningful order of the following ? a) Chapter b) Index c) Bibliography d) Introduction e) Preface a) b, d, a, c, e b) d, b, e, a, c c) e, b, d, a, c d) e, a, d, e, c, b Ans. (c) 40. A piece of paper is folded as shown below in the question figure. Indicate how it will appear when opened. Question figure:-

Ans. (d) Sol. 7 2 -4 2 =49-16=33 6 2 -32 =36-9=27 52 -22 =25-4=21 9 2 -2 2 =81-4=77 37. 14 10 22 2 3 4 7 3 11 4 10 ? a) 2 c) 8 Ans. (c) Sol.

a)

b)

c)

d)

b) 4 d) 5

14×2 =4 7 10×3 =10 3 22×4 =8 11

38. If '+' stands for division, '×' stands for addition, '-' stands for multiplication, '÷' stands for substraction, which of the following is correct ? a) 15÷5×2-6+3=28 b) 15×5+2-6÷3=56.5 c) 15+5-2÷6×3=3 d) 15-5+2×6÷3=41 a) c b) a c) b d) d. Ans. (a) Sol. 15÷5×2-6+3 15-5+2×6÷3 15-5+2×2 15-5+4=14  28 c) 15+5-2÷6×3=3

Ans. (b) 41. Arrange the following words as per the order in the dictionary. a) Recollect b) Remember c) Report d) Repeat e) Repeal a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 c) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 d) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 Ans. (d) 42. Which of the following set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ? a ____ cbc ____ ca ____ ab ____ bca _____ ab.

a) babcc b) bcabb c) abcbc d) bcabc Ans.(a) 43. A boy's age is one fourth of his fathers age. The sum of the boy's age and his father's age is 35. What will be the age of the father after 8 years? a) 15 b) 28

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MOCK TEST

10

c) 35 d) 36 Ans. (d) Sol. Let the age of father be X The age of son =x/4 A.T.Q, x+x/4 = 35 5x = 140, x = 28 After 8 years, the age of father = 28+8=36 years. 44. A man coming out of the back door of his house which is facing east, walked for one kilometre, turned to his right and walked for another kilometer. Then he turned to his right and walked for a kilometer again. How far was he from his house at the end ? a) 1 km away in North b) 1 km away in South c) 1 km away in East d) 1 km away in West Ans. (b) Sol.

46. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right mirror image of the given figure ? Question Figure

M

.

N

a)

b)

c)

d)

1km 1km 1km

Ans. (c) Direction (Q.45):- In question no. 45, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follows from the given statements. Statements:I. Due to contamination of water, large number of people were admitted to hospital. II.The symptoms are of Typhoid. Conclusion:I. Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid. II.Typhoid is a contagious disease. a) Only conclusion I is true. b) Only conclusion II is true. c) Both conclusions I and II are true. d) Both conclusions I and II are false. Ans. (a)

Direction (47-49): In the following questions a series is given with one team missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 47. BCFG, JKNO, RSVW, ? . a) ZADE b) HIKL c) STUX d) MNPQ Ans. (a) Sol. B J R Z 2 10 18 26 C K S A 3 11 19 1(27) F N V D 6 14 22 4(30) G O W E 7 15 23 5(31) 48. D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, ? . a) A324B b) C729B c) B729A d) A729B

Ans. (c) 49. YX, UTS, ONML, ___?___. Tilak Nagar-9311566241, Karol Bagh-8376934679, Pitampura-8376934648, Munirka-9650549487, Laxmi nagar-9953283708

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MOCK TEST

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a) FEDCD c) IHGFE

b) GFEDC d) HGFED

Ans. (b) 50. In the following questions, a word is represented by a set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by alphabets as in the matrics given below. The columns and rows of matrix are numbered from 1 to 6. A letter from these matrics can be represented first by its row and next by its column no., e.g., A can be represented by 10,33 ‘H’ can be represented by 57,79 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘Play’ 0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

O 1

I A

E O

A U

O I

U E

5 6

F B

D G

B H

G F

H D

2 3

E O

I U

O E

U A

A I

7 8

D G

F H

G D

H B

B F

4

U

A

I

E

O

9

H

B

F

G

D

a) 85, 23, 21, 87, 32 b) 58, 31, 12, 57, 41, c) 77, 13, 42, 99, 32 d) 66, 31, 43, 78, 14

a) Insulation b) Van der Waals attraction c) Polar covalent bonding d) Hydrogen bonding Ans. (d) 57. The seat of Madhya Pradesh High court is located at a) Gwalior b) Indore c) Bhopal d) Jabalpur Ans. (d) 58. Photoelectric effect is a) an instantaneous process b) delayed process c) emission of protons d) emission of neutrons Ans. (a) 59. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives a) D-fruotose b) L-glucose c) D-glucose d) L-fructose Ans. (c) 60. Aluminium is obtained by the electrolysis of pure

Al2 O3 dissolved in

Ans. (a) GENERAL AWARENESS 51. Socialism intends to achieve a) higher standards of living for the people b) equal distribution of income in the society c) higher individual welfare in the society d) maximum social welfare in the society

Ans. (b) 52. Bombay was given away as dowry to the English king Charles II for marrying the princess of a) France b) Portugal c) Holland d) Denmark

Ans. (b) 53. Railway coaches are manufactured at a) Jamshedpur b) Chittaranjan c) Perambur d) Varanasi Ans. (c) 54. Name the maratha saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji. a) Saint Eknath b) Saint Tukaram c) Saint Dhyanshwar d) Namdev Ans. (b) 55. If a wire is elongated, its resistance a) decreases b) remains constant c) increases d) None of the above Ans. (c) 56. The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to

a) Bauxite b) Cryolite c) Feildspare d) Alumina Ans. (b) 61. Each body segment of Earthworm is called a) Proglottid b) Metamere c) Scolex d) Rostellum Ans. (b) 62. Which of the following atmospheric layers absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun? a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Ionosphere d) Ozonosphere Ans. (d) 63. Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of a) atoms in all matter b) electrons in atoms c) neutrons in atoms d) nucleus in atoms Ans. (d) 64. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the cells in the a) Oral cavity b) Stomach c) Ileum d) Colon Ans. (b) 65. Which five year plan is not correct among the following ? a) First 1951-56 b) Second 1956-61 c) Third 1961-66 d) Fourth 1966-71

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MOCK TEST Ans. (d) 66. Where did Aurangazeb die ? a) Pune b) Aurangabad c) Ahmad Nagar d) Mumbai Ans. (c) 67. Provision of citizenship in the Indian Constitution became applicable in a) 1950 b) 1949 c) 1951 d) 1952 Ans. (a) 68. Solids which conduct electricity at higher temperatures but not at lower tempreatures are called a) Super-Conductors b) Metallic-Coductors c) Semi-Conductors d) Insulators Ans. (c) 69. The antiseptic compound present in Dettol is a) Iodine b) Chloroxylenol c) Biothional d) Cresol Ans. (b) 70. Which national highway connects Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi a) NH4 b) NH2 c) NH10 d) NH6. Ans. (b) 71. Who founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha ? a) B.C. Pal b) G. Subramania Iyer c) Sardar Bhagat Singh d) Rukmani Lakshmipath

Ans. (c) 72. Which Indian personality has ben elected as the new chairman of FIFA governance committee? a) Mukul Mudgal b) Rajeev Shukla c) Ajay Shirke d) R.M.Lodha

Ans. (a) 73. The seat of intelligence is situated in the a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum c) Medulla d) Thalamuss Ans. (a) 74. Deficiency of Iodine causes a) Rickets b) Scurvy c) Goitre d) Polio Ans. (c) 75. Sir C.V Raman was awarded nobel prize for his work on a) Cryogenics b) Sonometer c) Light scattering d) Radio activity Ans. (c) ENGLISH

12 Directions (Q. 76 to 78): Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blanks given in the sentences. 76. The news about the huricane was telecasted yesterday. a) was telecast b) had telecasted c) was telecasts d) No Improvement Ans. (a) Sol. ‘Was telecasted’ must be replaced by ‘was telecast’ because ‘telecast’ remains same for all the three verb forms. 77. No sooner had I entered, when it started to rain. a) than b) before c) after d) No improvement Ans. (a) Sol. ‘No sooner’ is used to show that one incident happens immediately after another incident. ‘No sooner’ is usually followed by ‘than’; we refer ‘no sooner ..... than’ as corelative conjunctions. 78. Whereas, Suzanne's father is from Italy, she doesn't speak Italian. a) However b) While c) Although d) Even Ans. (c) Sol. ‘Whereas’ must be replaced ‘Although’.

Direction (Q. 79-80):- Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word. 79. Onerous a) Naive b) Erudite c) Easy d) Timid Ans. (c) Sol. ‘Onerous’ means “difficult to do or needing a lot of effort.” Therefore, ‘Onerous’ is the antonym of ‘Easy’. 80. Placate a) Generate b) Strident c) Antagonise d) Exonerate Ans. (c) Sol. ‘Placate’ means “to stop someone from feeling angry.” The origin of Placate is ‘Placare’ (a latin word) which means “to calm or soothe.” Antagonise means “to cause (someone) to become hostile.” Therefore, ‘Antagonism’ is the antonym of ‘Placate’.

Directions (Qs. 81 to 83): Out of the four alternatives given, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. 81. A grain of mustard seed a) a very small thing b) an unimportant issue

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MOCK TEST c) a small thing capable of vast development d) an important place Ans. (c) 82. Take a hike a) sit down b) go away c) go on a ride d) None of these Ans. (b) 83. Over the hill a) Past your best b) Declining c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 84 to 85): A group of four words is given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer. 84. a) Fassimile c) Faccmile Ans. (b) 85. a) Obstreperious c) Obstreperous Ans. (c)

b) Facsimile d) Fasscimile b) Obstrepurioum d) Obstrepreous

Directions (Qs. 86 to 88): Choose the word which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence. 86. A short stay at a place a) Sojourn b) Excursion c) Elocution d) Exodus Ans. (a) Sol. Sojourn means “a short period when a person stays in a particular place.” 87. A poor and thin child a) Blurb b) Waif c) Bevy d) Clique Ans. (b) 88. Use of more words than are needed to express the meaning a) Ventriloquism b) Expiation c) Pleonasm d) Apotheosis Ans. (c) Sol. ‘Pleonasm’ stems from the Greek word ‘pleonazein’which means “to be excessive”.

Directions (Qs. 89 to 93): Find out which part of the sentence contains the error. The letter

13 corresponding to that part should be marked as the answer. If there is no error in the sentence, mark "D" as the answer. 89. He wants (a)/ some relaxation (b)/ he had too tiring day (c)/ No error (d). Ans. (c) Sol. In formal English, we can use too + adjective + a/ an + noun. Therefore, ‘too tiring day’ must be replaced by ‘too tiring a day’. 90. It is time he should start (a)/ playing tennis, if he wants to (b)/ play at the national level (c)/ No error (d). Ans. (a) Sol. We use past tense after ‘it is time, it is high time, it is about time, etc.’ Therefore, ‘he should start’ must be replaced by ‘he started’. 91. This pond is abounding (a)/ with many varieties (b)/ of edible fishes (c)/ No error.(d) Ans. (d) Sol. The sentence is correct. 92. The spectacle(a) / of her grandmother are (b)/in the room on the roof top (c)/ No error (d). Ans. (a) Sol. ‘Spectacle’ must be replaced by ‘Spectacles’. 93. Three century have (a)/ passed since (b)/the book was first (c)/ written no error (d). Ans. (a) Sol. ‘Three century’ must be replaced by ‘three centuries’.

Directions (Q. 94 to 95): Choose the word that is similar in meaning to the given word. 94. Puerility a) Asperity b) Decision c) Sincerity d) Childishness Ans. (d) Sol. ‘Puerility’ means “marked by or suggesting childishness and immaturity.” 95. Impecunious a) Presumptuous b) Adventurous c) Cheerful d) Penurious Ans. (d) Sol. Impecunious : “having little or no money’’. Penurious : “penniless or extremely poor.” Therefore ‘Impecunious’ is the synonym of ‘Penurious’ . Direction (Q.96-100):- Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.

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MOCK TEST

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Our propensity to look out for regularities, and to impose laws upon nature, leads to the psychological phenomenon of dogmatic thinking or, more generally, dogmatic behaviour: we expect regularities everywhere and attempt to find them even where there are none; events which do not yield to these attempts we are inclined to treat as a kind of ‘background noise’; and we stick to our expectations even when they are inadequate and we ought to accept defeat. This dogmatism is to some extent necessary. It is demanded by a situation which can only be dealt with by forcing our conjectures upon the world. Moreover, this dogmatism allows us to approach a good theory in stages, by way of approximations: if we accept defeat too easily, we may prevent ourselves from finding that we were very nearly right. It is clear that this dogmatic attitude, which makes us stick to our first impressions, is indicative of a strong belief; while a critical attitude, which is ready to modify its tenets, which admits doubt and demands tests, is indicative of a weaker belief. Now according to Hume’s theory, and to the popular theory, the strength of a belief should be a product of repetition; thus it should always grow with experience, and always be greater in less primitive persons. But dogmatic thinking, an uncontrolled wish to impose regularities, a manifest pleasure in rites and in repetition as such, is characteristic of primitives and children; and increasing experience and maturity sometimes create an attitude of caution and criticism rather than of dogmatism. My logical criticism of Hume’s psychological theory, and the considerations connected with it, may seem a little removed from the field of the philosophy of science. But the distinction between dogmatic and critical thinking, or the dogmatic and the critical attitude, brings us right back to our central problem. For the dogmatic attitude is clearly related to the tendency to verify our laws and schemata by seeking to apply them and to confirm them, even to the point of neglecting refutations, whereas the critical attitude is one of readiness to change them — to test them; to refute them; to falsify them, if possible. This suggests that we may identify the critical attitude with the scientific attitude, and the dogmatic attitude with the one which we have described as pseudo-scientific. It further suggests that genetically speaking the pseudo-scientific attitude is more primitive than, and prior to, the scientific attitude: that it is a prescientific attitude. And this primitivity or priority also has its logical aspect. For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-imposed upon it: criticism must be directed against existing and influential beliefs in need of critical revision — in other words, dogmatic beliefs. A critical attitude needs for its

raw material, as it were, theories or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically. Thus, science must begin with myths, and with the criticism of myths; neither with the collection of observations, nor with the invention of experiments, but with the critical discussion of myths, and of magical techniques and practices. The scientific tradition is distinguished from the pre-scientific tradition in having two layers. Like the latter, it passes on its theories; but it also passes on a critical attitude towards them. The theories are passed on, not as dogmas, but rather with the challenge to discuss them and improve upon them. The critical attitude, the tradition of free discussion of theories with the aim of discovering their weak spots so that they may be improved upon, is the attitude of reasonableness, of rationality. From the point of view here developed, all laws, all theories, remain essentially tentative, or conjectural, or hypothetical, even when we feel unable to doubt them any longer. Before a theory has been refuted we can never know in what way it may have to be modified. 96. In the context of science, according to the passage, the interaction of dogmatic beliefs and critical attitude can be best described as: a) A duel between two warriors in which one has to die. b) The effect of a chisel on a marble stone while making a sculpture. c) The feedshare (natural gas) in fertilizer industry being transformed into fertilizers. d) A predator killing its prey. Ans. (b) Sol. Refer to lines 12-15 paragraph 4. 97. According to the passage, the role of a dogmatic attitude or dogmatic behaviour in the development of science is a) critical and important, as, without it, initial hypotheses or conjectures can never be made. b) positive, as conjectures arising out of our dogmatic attitude become science. c) negative, as it leads to pseudo-science. d) neutral, as the development of science is essentially because of our critical attitude. Ans. (a) Sol. Refer to lines 1-5, paragraph 5. 98. Dogmatic behaviour, in this passage, has been associated with primitives and children. Which of the following best describes the reason why the author compares primitives with children? a) Primitives are people who are not educated, and hence can be compared with children, who have not yet been through school. b) Primitives are people who, though not modern, are as innocent as children.

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MOCK TEST

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c) Primitives are people without a critical attitude, just as children are. d) Primitives are people in the early stages of human evolution; similarly, children are in the early stages of their lives. Ans. (d) Sol. Refer to lines 9-14 paragraph 2. 99. Which of the following statements best supports the argument in the passage that a critical attitude leads to a weaker belief than a dogmatic attitude does? a) A critical attitude implies endless questioning, and, therefore, it cannot lead to strong beliefs. b) A critical attitude, by definition, is centred on an analysis of anomalies and “noise”. c) A critical attitude leads to questioning everything, and in the process generates “noise” without any conviction. d) A critical attitude leads to questioning and to tentative hypotheses. Ans. (d)

Sol. Refer to lines 4-9, paragraph 6. 100. According to the passage, which of the following statements best describes the difference between science and pseudo-science? a) Scientific theories or hypotheses are tentatively true whereas pseudo-sciences are always true. b) Scientific laws and theories are permanent and immutable whereas pseudo-sciences are contingent on the prevalent mode of thinking in a society. c) Science always allows the possibility of rejecting a theory or hypothesis, whereas pseudo- sciences seek to validate their ideas or theories. d) Science focuses on anomalies and exceptions so that fundamental truths can be uncovered, whereas pseudo-sciences focus mainly on general truths. Ans. (c) Sol. Refer to lines 6-12, paragraph 3.

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MOCK TEST

1. (d) 11. (b) 21. (a) 31. (a) 41. (d) 51. (b) 61. (b) 71. (c) 81. (c) 91. (d)

2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (a) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (d) 72. (a) 82. (b) 92. (a)

16

3. (b) 13. (b) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (a) 83. (c) 93. (a)

4. (b) 14. (b) 24. (b) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (b) 74. (c) 84. (b) 94. (d)

Solution 5. (a) 6. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 65. (d) 66. (c) 75. (c) 76. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 95. (d) 96. (b)

7. (b) 17. (d) 27. (b) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (d) 67. (a) 77. (a) 87. (b) 97. (a)

8. (d) 18. (b) 28. (a) 38. (a) 48. (c) 58. (a) 68. (c) 78. (c) 88. (c) 98. (d)

9. (b) 10. 19. (a) 20. 29. (c) 30. 39. (c) 40. 49. (b) 50. 59. (c) 60. 69. (b) 70. 79. (c) 80. 89. (c) 90. 99. (d) 100.

(b) (c) (c) (b) (a) (b) (b) (c) (a) (c)

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