Test Bank For Supervision Concepts and Skill-Building, 11th Edition by Samuel Certo Chapter 1-17 by welldoneassistant

TEST BANK FOR Supervision Concepts and Skill-Building, 11th Edition by Samuel Certo Chapter 1-17 Answer are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1

Student name: 1)

Describe management functions according to Henri Fayol.

2) Describe the activities a manager typically performs according to the classic view of management skills.

3) How should a supervisor manage a diverse workforce? What are the opportunities and challenges?

4) Discuss the changes that a person goes through when he or she gets promoted to a supervisory position.

How can supervisors be loyal and fair at their work?

A manager at the first level of management is called a(n) A) top executive. B) middle manager. C) assembly-line worker. D) supervisor.

7) Which of the following acts states that a supervisor is “any individual having authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward or discipline other employees, or responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action, if in connection with the foregoing the exercise of such authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment”? A) the Wagner Act B) the Taft-Hartley Act C) the Norris–La Guardia Act D) the Fair Labor Standards Act

8) Dillon, a new employee at Texcare Inc., reports to Debra, who is at the first level of management. In the context of different levels of management, Debra is most likely A) a manager. B) a stakeholder. C) a supervisor. D) the director.

Which of the following statements is true of managing at the supervisory level?

A) Supervisors are managers at the second level of management. B) Supervisors are responsible for ensuring that each department contributes to accomplishing the company’s goals. C) Supervisors need to forecast projects and involve themselves in long-term planning. D) Supervisors need to formulate visions for their companies and develop business strategies.

10)

Which of the following must be a supervisor’s primary focus? A) efficiency B) long-term planning C) future-oriented conceptualization D) predictability

11) According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchical pattern of needs, the most basic needs of any human being are A) safety needs. B) physiological needs. C) needs related to love and belonging. D) esteem needs.

12) According to Abraham Maslow’s hierarchical pattern of needs, which of the following is included in the final part of the hierarchy? A) safety needs B) physiological needs C) self-actualization D) self-esteem

13) __________, a French industrialist, is often regarded as the pioneer of administrative theory. A) Frederick W. Taylor B) Henri Fayol C) Abraham Maslow D) Ivan Pavlov

14)

__________ is often referred to as the “father of scientific management.” A) Frederick W. Taylor B) Henri Fayol C) Abraham Maslow D) Ivan Pavlov

15) Which of the following stages of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs includes an attitude of acceptance, a lack of racial biases, and creativity? A) self-actualization needs B) physiological needs C) safety needs D) esteem needs

16)

Which of the following is true about supervision?

A) Henri Fayol generated the idea that the application of science to the study of production can result in maximal employee efficiency. B) Supervision is management at the highest level of an organization.

C) It is important for supervisors to help workers to satisfy their personal needs while being productive in organizations. D) The quality of an organization is often independent of the quality of interactions among its members.

17)

Supervisors emphasize people orientation because they

A) work with conceptualization and policy formation and understand a company’s requirements. B) work with other departments to collaborate on achieving tasks. C) plan organizational strategies with top management. D) deal directly with employees and have knowledge about an organization’s customers.

18) to?

In the context of the modern view of management skills, what does sustainability refer

A) a supervisor’s responsibility of generating tools that allow information to be shared consistently B) an organization’s potential to generate high levels of profit over long periods of time C) a business’s ability to operate with minimal impact on the environment D) an overseer’s ability to evaluate employees based on their work efficiency

19) In the context of the management skills of a successful supervisor, __________ involve the ability to see the relationship of the parts to the whole and to one another. A) empowering skills B) human relations skills C) conceptual skills D) monitoring skills

20) Mary has worked as a seamstress for 10 years. Her ability to sew flawlessly is an example of her A) decision-making skills. B) conceptual skills. C) motivational skills. D) technical skills.

21)

For a supervisor, conceptual skills include

A) recognizing how the work of various employees affects the performance of a department as a whole. B) the specialized knowledge and expertise used to carry out particular mechanical, scientific, or work-related techniques or procedures. C) communicating with, motivating, and understanding people. D) the ability to analyze information and reach good decisions.

22) Which of the following sets of skills is almost equally significant at all levels of management? A) conceptual skills B) human relations skills C) technical skills D) decision-making skills

23)

Supervisors rely more on technical skills than do higher-level managers because

A) higher-order skills like human relations are of little use to supervisors. B) supervisors are expected to deal with technical work only. C) their subordinates are generally low in skills and require fewer human relations skills to manage. D) employees who have a problem doing their jobs go to the supervisor and expect help.

24) In the context of important managerial skills, the ability to analyze information about events, trends, and changes in the environment to identify threats and opportunities for a work unit is part of the ________ set of skills. A) innovative thinking B) short-term planning C) monitoring operations D) external monitoring

25) In the context of skills of successful managers, __________ primarily involves checking on the progress and quality of the work and evaluating individual and unit performance. A) monitoring operations B) empowering C) consulting D) envisioning change

26) In the context of skills of successful managers, __________ primarily involves checking with people before making decisions that affect them, encouraging others to participate in decision making, and using the ideas and suggestions of others in decision making. A) consulting B) empowering C) clarifying roles D) envisioning change

27) In the context of skills of successful managers, being considerate when tasks are difficult and helping employees overcome anxiety and stress is part of the __________ set of skills.

A) developing B) supporting C) empowering D) consulting

28) Providing praise for significant achievements and effective performance is part of the managerial skill called A) developing. B) supporting. C) empowering. D) recognizing.

29) Alan is the supervisor of a technical support team. He ensures that he provides his subordinates appropriate coaching and advice to help them execute tasks. He also provides them opportunities to improve and expand their skills. In the context of skills of successful managers, Alan is utilizing his A) supporting skills. B) empowering skills. C) consulting skills. D) developing skills.

30) In the context of skills of successful managers, __________ primarily involves allowing substantial responsibility and discretion in work activities and trusting people to solve problems and make decisions without getting approval first. A) empowering B) developing C) supporting D) consulting

31) In the context of skills of successful managers, presenting an appealing description of desirable outcomes that the unit can achieve and describing a proposed change with enthusiasm and conviction is primarily part of A) monitoring operations. B) short-term planning. C) encouraging innovative thinking. D) envisioning change.

32) In the context of skills of successful managers, making sacrifices to encourage and promote desired outcomes in an organization is primarily part of A) monitoring operations. B) taking risks for change. C) external monitoring. D) envisioning change.

33) In the context of skills of successful managers, __________ primarily involves challenging people to question their assumptions about the work and consider better ways of doing it. A) monitoring operations B) taking risks for change C) encouraging innovative thinking D) envisioning change

34) Efforts to carry out critical management-related duties, such as planning, setting objectives for employees, and monitoring performance, can be best categorized as

A) team-related activities. B) change-related activities. C) people-related activities. D) task-related activities.

35) According to the modern view of management skills, a manager’s efforts to empower employees to solve problems and develop their skills are categorized as A) task-related activities. B) analysis-related activities. C) people-related activities. D) change-related activities.

36) to

According to the modern view of management skills, a change-related activity would be

A) provide employees support and encouragement. B) empower employees to solve problems. C) recognize employees’ contributions. D) propose new tactics and strategies.

37) Melissa is a supervisor at an accounting firm. She carefully plans duties for employees, establishes employees’ goals that are aligned with the strategic goals of the organization, and regularly monitors the performance of employees. According to the modern view of management skills, Melissa’s efforts would be categorized as A) career-related activities. B) task-related activities. C) skill-related activities. D) people-related activities.

38) Which of the following managerial skills do supervisors and other managers rely on when they need to assign tasks and explain job responsibilities, task objectives, and performance expectations? A) envisioning change B) taking risks for change C) clarifying roles D) monitoring operations

39) Which of the following managerial skills do supervisors and other managers rely on to determine how to use personnel and other resources to accomplish a task efficiently and determine how to schedule and coordinate activities efficiently? A) short-term planning B) external monitoring C) empowering D) developing

40) Mark is a training manager at Renox Inc. He encourages employees to think critically about the work they have been assigned and enables them to develop new methods of completing their tasks. He also recognizes the achievements of employees who generate innovative solutions to problems and regularly rewards them for their efforts. In the modern view of management skills, Mark’s efforts would fall under A) change-related activities. B) culture-related activities. C) task-related activities. D) people-related activities.

41) Barry, a customer service executive, finds it difficult to handle an angry customer. He asks his supervisor, Ben, to handle the situation. Ben listens to the customer patiently and apologizes for the inconvenience caused. This calms the customer down. In the context of supervisory skills, Ben primarily used __________ skills to solve the problem. A) technical B) human relations C) conceptual D) decision-making

42)

Which of the following is an example of the developing skills of successful managers? A) providing coaching and advice B) providing praise and recognition for effective performance C) being considerate D) checking on the progress and quality of work

43) Ray, a manager at Senzel Inc., wants to implement a new piece of software in the company’s processes. This software will help him monitor the productivity of his employees more effectively. However, before implementing the change, he discusses it with lower-level managers to understand the effect it will have on the internal environment of the company. Ray is primarily utilizing __________ skills in this scenario. A) developing B) consulting C) recognizing D) empowering

44) Maya, a supervisor at Zelden Inc., focuses on achieving her department’s goals on time. She understands that it contributes to achieving the organization’s goals. In the context of the classical understanding of management skills, Maya has good __________ skills.

A) controlling B) empowering C) technical D) conceptual

45) Gary is a supervisor at a manufacturing company. He keeps accurate records of the company’s production rates. He also plans the activities of his employees so that production lines operate at maximum efficiency. In the context of the classical understanding of management skills, Gary’s abilities can be categorized under A) human relations skills. B) decision-making skills. C) technical skills. D) conceptual skills.

46) Michelle is a sales manager at Feuzen Inc. Her job includes analyzing recent trends and evaluating modern technological changes. In this scenario, Michelle is primarily engaged in A) clarifying roles. B) external monitoring. C) thinking innovatively. D) short-term planning.

47) Elizabeth is a supervisor at Marten Inc., a company that sells electronic goods. Steven, a new sales executive at Marten Inc., finds it difficult to communicate effectively with customers. The best way in which Elizabeth can help Steven in the long run is to A) help him by dealing with customers and making sales herself. B) teach him how to handle customers on his own. C) let experienced employees in the company handle customers. D) set him lower sales targets so that he gets room to develop his skills.

48) Aubrey is a supervisor at Air Box Storage, a large web storage company. She pushes her employees to constantly reevaluate the methods they use to complete their tasks and develop better ways of doing them. In the context of the skills of successful managers, which set of skills does Aubrey demonstrate in this scenario? A) encouraging innovative thinking B) external monitoring C) envisioning change D) taking risks for change

49) Margaret is the only female employee at her workplace, which includes 20 employees. Her suggestions are often overlooked because of this. In the context of the diversity of the workplace, this is an example of A) a gap in communication. B) an empowering issue. C) subtle discrimination. D) supporting behavior.

50)

Choose the correct statement regarding workforce diversity.

A) Almost everybody holds some stereotypes that consciously or unconsciously influence their behavior. B) Questioning negative stereotypes rarely helps supervisors and other managers in improving employee attitudes, and thus should be avoided. C) It is alright for managers to give preference to employees on the basis of their sex. D) Mistaking an African American professional for someone with a less prestigious job cannot be considered a form of discrimination.

51) Chang works as a supervisor at Corpus Inc. He finds that Emily, the only female employee in the office, has difficulties communicating effectively with her colleagues because of subtle discrimination. In the context of dealing with discrimination, Chang must A) speak to Emily on a regular basis to alleviate the emotional and psychological effects of discrimination. B) train Emily to deal with discrimination in an effective manner. C) empower Emily with authority so that other employees respect her. D) question negative stereotypes regarding Emily and ask the employees to avoid such remarks.

52) Lorenzo works as a supervisor at NovaMachines Corp., a manufacturing firm. He finds that raw materials are being used ineffectively, as a result of which NovaMachines Corp. is incurring losses. He asks his subordinates to make appropriate changes to increase the efficiency of raw material utilization. In this scenario, Lorenzo is primarily engaged in the function of A) planning. B) organizing. C) controlling. D) staffing.

53) Deciding on a department’s goals and how to meet them most accurately describes the function of A) planning. B) leading. C) organizing. D) controlling.

54) Christie works as a supervisor at Rubrics Inc. She is engaged in preparing a budget for her department, which includes all the expenditure made on furniture. Which of the following supervisory functions does this most accurately exemplify?

A) planning B) leading C) organizing D) controlling

55) Rhonda is the supervisor of the spare parts department at a car dealership. Her responsibilities include scheduling work for employees, setting deadlines, and delegating work on ordering and counting the inventory. Rhonda’s responsibilities can be best categorized as the supervisory function of A) leading. B) controlling. C) organizing. D) planning.

56) The activities involved in identifying, hiring, and developing the necessary number and quality of employees can best be categorized as the management function of A) organizing. B) staffing. C) controlling. D) leading.

57) Influencing employees to act (or not act) in a certain way is a primary part of the management function called A) leading. B) planning. C) organizing. D) controlling.

58) A vision will not become a reality unless employees know and want to do their part. __________, as a function of management, is primarily associated with this aspect. A) Leading B) Organizing C) Staffing D) Controlling

59)

Monitoring performance and making needed corrections is the management function of A) leading. B) planning. C) staffing. D) controlling.

60) Sandra works as the supervisor of the accounting department of Welfare Co. She notices that in the month of September, the expenditure on supplies was much more than the planned budget. She looks into the surplus expenditure and finds that she had approved a bulk purchase of supplies to take advantage of a volume discount. Sandra then makes appropriate corrections so that future expenditure on supplies is in line with the planned budget. In this scenario, Sandra is primarily engaged in the management function of A) controlling. B) organizing. C) leading. D) staffing.

61) On which of the following sets of management functions do higher-level managers usually spend most of their time?

A) staffing and controlling B) planning and organizing C) staffing and organizing D) organizing and controlling

62)

Supervisors typically spend most of their time A) staffing and controlling. B) planning and organizing. C) staffing and organizing. D) leading and controlling.

63) In the context of the controlling function of management, employees are motivated to improve their performance when A) they believe that the upper management cannot interfere in day-to-day operations. B) they are encouraged to compete with each other when working on the team’s goals. C) they know what is expected of their department to achieve the goals of the company. D) they believe that help and feedback are related to their true skills and performance.

64) Organizing draws heavily on a supervisor’s conceptual skills, but leading requires good __________ skills. A) technical B) human relations C) conceptual D) decision-making

65) Abigail, a production manager at Teznek Inc., interviews and selects candidates who will work in her team. In this scenario, Abigail is mainly performing the __________ function. A) planning B) organizing C) staffing D) leading

66) Bilal, a supervisor at BrainWare Corp., is given the task of organizing and setting up processes for a new department in his company. This new task will draw heavily on Bilal’s __________ skills. A) human relations B) conceptual C) technical D) motivational

67)

Supervisors spend most of their time leading and controlling because A) other functions, like planning and organizing, are of no use to them. B) these functions help them effectively deal with higher-level managers. C) they communicate directly with the heads of other departments. D) they work directly with the employees who are producing or selling a product.

68) Ranjan, a professor at a university, teaches his management students about the ways to utilize resources and equipment in a job in order to achieve maximum efficiency and effectiveness. In the context of the functions of a supervisor, Ranjan discusses the __________ function.

A) controlling B) staffing C) communicating D) leading

69)

A supervisor’s responsibilities include A) communicating only with superiors and subordinates. B) conceptualizing projects and tasks. C) projecting the future trends of a company. D) providing an opportunity for employees to evaluate him or her.

70)

Identify the correct statement regarding supervisory responsibilities. A) Supervisors should keep their staff informed and up to date. B) Supervisors should avoid having a sense of humor. C) Supervisors should refrain from learning proper hiring practices. D) Supervisors should keep vague employee records.

71) Which of the following terms refers to the practice of imposing penalties for failing to carry out responsibilities adequately and usually includes giving rewards for meeting responsibilities? A) controlling B) accountability C) benchmarking D) sustainability

72) Because supervisors are responsible for building morale and carrying employee concerns to the relevant managers, they are expected to serve as a kind of __________ between employees and management. A) arbitrator B) initiator C) strategist D) linchpin

73) Sarah, a supervisor at Zenair Inc., forgets to communicate the organization’s sales targets for the day to her employees, which results in low sales performance. In the context of the responsibilities of a supervisor, Sarah failed to A) be accessible to those under supervision. B) keep the staff informed and up to date. C) specialize in her duties. D) train her subordinates.

74) Akira, a supervisor at Weld-on Inc., was required to work in place of his subordinate because of a shortage of personnel in the workforce. He did his work in an effective way. In the context of the responsibilities of a supervisor, Akira was good at A) being able to perform the duties of his subordinate. B) adhering to anti-discrimination rules. C) keeping in touch with his workplace standards. D) providing an opportunity for his employees to evaluate him.

75) Of the 20 sales executives at Orion Sales Inc., James is the only one to be promoted to the position of supervisor. However, he realizes that it will be difficult for him to exercise authority over his subordinates because they see him as a colleague. In order to acquire power, James should

A) make immediate changes in the department. B) associate with top-level managers to learn how to acquire power. C) ask his boss to officially announce his new position in the company. D) try to sort out any issues in the department all by himself.

76) Jia, a sales executive, performs exceptionally well at her work. Bill, Jia’s supervisor, gives her monetary incentives for her outstanding performance. Bill is primarily exercising the __________ function of a supervisor. A) loyalty B) accountability C) fairness D) controlling

77) Salma is a new supervisor. She realizes that she lacks the necessary human relations skills to perform her job in an effective way. The best way for Salma to learn human relations skills is to A) associate with managers. B) assign tasks and give feedback to subordinates. C) read performance appraisals and observe the behavior of employees. D) utilize authority to get work done.

78)

In the context of performing supervisory duties, the right to do certain things is known as A) authority. B) accountability. C) power. D) monitoring.

79) In the context of performing supervisory duties, __________ is the ability to do certain things. A) power B) authority C) accountability D) empowerment

80) Which of the following behaviors will allow a newly promoted supervisor to transition smoothly to a position of power? A) focusing on evaluating the success of the whole team rather than of individuals B) making changes quickly to the department to assert authority C) communicating directly with more assertive employees to understand how the department feels D) encouraging and teaching employees to manage tasks the supervisor handled before being promoted

81) Bob has been promoted to a supervisory position and will take charge of his work group in six months. He is anxious about his new position. In this scenario, Bob should focus on A) handing over all tasks to his subordinates. B) preparing for the job. C) seeking a better opportunity elsewhere. D) obtaining and using power and authority.

82) Which of the following would be a new supervisor’s most reliable source of getting to know his or her new employees?

A) the top management B) the performance appraisals of employees C) the human resource department D) the employees themselves

83) Isaac is promoted to the position of supervisor in his company. Later, he notices that Dexter, an employee, is jealous of his promotion because he was also a candidate for the supervisory position that was given to Isaac. Which of the following steps should Isaac take up in order to solve this issue effectively? A) speak about this issue to top-level executives B) try to defuse the conflict by training Dexter to become a supervisor C) neglect Dexter’s feelings and perform his job with honesty D) try to understand Dexter’s perspective and ask for his support on important tasks

84) __________ skills are relatively important for first-level managers. Hence, most supervisors start out working in a department they now supervise. A) Conceptual B) Technical C) Human relations D) Decision-making

85) Jinny, a technical assistant at TechCare Inc., loves her job. She takes pride in the fact that she is knowledgeable about her job. However, she associates with very few people at the office and dislikes ordering or requesting others to perform tasks. She finds it difficult to communicate with her superiors. From this scenario, we can infer that Jinny would be a poor supervisor because she lacks

A) conceptual skills to create strategies. B) motivation to perform her job better. C) the ability to inspire others to achieve their goals. D) the ability to plan her tasks effectively.

86) Kathleen, a new supervisor at Fashions Co., finds it difficult to assign difficult tasks to her subordinates. She thinks her subordinates lack enough motivation to perform these jobs. Consequently, she performs the most difficult tasks at Fashions Co. all by herself. In the context of the characteristics of a successful supervisor, Kathleen lacks A) the desire for the job. B) a positive attitude. C) the ability to delegate. D) communication skills.

87) Ray loves his job as a technical service executive. He enjoys being creative when dealing with challenges. Ray is offered a supervisory position in his department because of his performance and enthusiasm. The new position is challenging, but he turns it down because it does not require creativity. In the context of the characteristics of a successful supervisor, Ray lacks A) the ability to control his employees. B) a positive attitude toward the job. C) the sense of loyalty. D) the desire for the job.

88) Jane, a supervisor at MotoDel Inc., often complains about her position in front of her subordinates. This results in poor productivity levels in her team. In the context of the characteristics of a successful supervisor, Jane lacks

A) fairness in her approach toward subordinates. B) the ability to delegate tasks effectively. C) communication skills. D) a positive attitude.

89) Jonathan, a new supervisor at Feedz Corp., has problems with assigning authority and tasks to different employees. He finds it difficult to match the skills of the employees with the tasks they perform. This affects the efficiency of his projects. In the context of the characteristics of a successful supervisor, Jonathan lacks A) the desire for the job. B) the ability to delegate. C) loyalty. D) attitude.

90) A supervisor’s commitment to employees and customers is significant because supervisors A) help top management in formulating long-term strategies. B) act as initiators of ideas regarding product innovations. C) play a critical role in cross-department communication. D) inspire employees to do their best.

91) Wilma, a supervisor at Star Insurance Inc., favors her employee, Jill, over other employees. She provides Jill with better opportunities to prove her potential, praises her incessantly, and assigns her the best projects. Which of the following characteristics of a successful supervisor is Wilma lacking?

A) fairness B) loyalty C) communication skills D) delegation skills

92) The characteristic of successful supervisors that involves listening to what employees have to say is known as A) fairness. B) communication skills. C) loyalty. D) delegation skills.

93) Assigning work to employees refers to which of the following characteristics of a successful supervisor? A) ability to delegate B) ability to be fair C) ability to be loyal D) ability to have a positive attitude

94) Henry is an engineer in an aerospace company. He has excellent technical skills and enjoys his job, but he lacks interest in making plans and inspiring others to achieve their goals. Due to his superior technical ability, he is offered a promotion to a supervisory position. He turns out to be an unsuccessful supervisor. Which of the following characteristics of a successful supervisor did he lack? A) loyalty B) communication skills C) fairness D) the desire for the job

95) Mark has been promoted to a supervisory position. He explains to the workers what their job is but fails to provide them with feedback about their performance. Due to this, the workers keep making the same mistakes over and over again. Which of the following characteristics of a successful supervisor should Mark have to become a better supervisor? A) loyalty B) ability to delegate C) fairness D) communication skills

96)

In general, employees who report to supervisors are managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) In an organization whose management is not committed to developing a diverse workforce, supervisors should not indulge in providing advice and coaching to female and nonwhite employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) A supervisor’s responsibilities include determining the department’s goals and the ways to meet them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Higher-level managers are responsible for executing the duties assigned to them by supervisors. ⊚ ⊚

true false 28

100) Cooperating with coworkers in other departments is one of the responsibilities of a supervisor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) A company can hire a recent college graduate as a supervisor if that person demonstrates the leadership abilities or specialized skills that are required for the position. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) A new supervisor should first understand how a department functions and what employees expect before implementing changes in the department. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 30

32) B 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) B 57) A 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) B 31

62) D 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) A 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) A 80) D 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) B 85) C 86) C 87) D 88) D 89) B 90) D 91) A 32

92) B 93) A 94) D 95) D 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE

Student name:__________ 1)

Discuss some of the traits that are considered to be predictors of good leadership.

Identify the criteria for choosing a leadership style.

How should supervisors build and maintain relationships with their employees?

How can supervisors be good role models for their employees?

How can supervisors build trust with their employees?

Version 1

Leading is the management function of A) influencing people to act or not act in a certain way. B) seeking direction and implementing ideas. C) determining how to achieve organizational objectives. D) setting up groups and allocating resources.

7) Which of the following is true about managers and leaders according to management consultants Herb Greenberg and Patrick Sweeney? A) Managers give directions, whereas leaders seek directions. B) Managers implement ideas, whereas leaders initiate ideas. C) Unlike leaders, managers inspire achievement. D) Unlike leaders, managers influence people to act in a certain way.

A factor that differentiates leaders from managers is that leaders A) inspire achievement, whereas managers seek and follow direction. B) implement ideas, whereas managers initiate ideas. C) engage in tactical planning, whereas managers engage in strategic planning. D) are authoritative, whereas managers are democratic.

Which of the following traits is most likely to be a predictor of good leadership?

Version 1

A) external locus of control B) self-confidence C) egocentrism D) self-righteousness

10) A(n) ________ refers to the belief that an individual is the primary cause of what happens to him or her. A) individualistic orientation B) tolerance for ambiguity C) polycentric notion D) internal locus of control

11)

Who among the following exemplifies a manager with an internal locus of control? A) Dylan, who blames his team members for his poor management skills B) Glory, who tries hard to take charge of events for smooth functioning C) Ezra, who holds her team accountable for the failure of her project D) Noel, who urges his employees to resolve conflicts by themselves

12)

Who among the following exemplifies a manager with an external locus of control? A) Alan, who blames his team members for his poor performance ratings B) Emilia, who believes that her promotion is a result of her hard work C) Jose, who makes decisions and gives instructions to his employees D) Chelsy, who takes full accountability for her project’s failure

Version 1

13) Corina supervises 12 cashiers at Prime Grocers. Lately, the cashiers have had several instances of substantial cash shortage because Corina has not been verifying their initial cash amount. When approached by her manager about this situation, Corina replied, "The cashiers are lazy and just do not care." Which of the following traits is Corina exhibiting? A) a sense of humor B) an external locus of control C) empathy D) a sense of responsibility

14) People who blame others or events beyond their control when something goes wrong are said to have a(n) A) external locus of control. B) democratic leadership style. C) internal locus of control. D) authoritarian leadership style.

15) The trait of a successful leader that refers to the ability to be sensitive to the feelings of employees and higher management is A) accountability. B) empathy. C) sustainability. D) central tendency.

16) Which of the following traits of a successful manager enables him or her to put in long hours willingly to handle the variety of duties that come with the job?

Version 1

A) self-confidence B) a high energy level C) empathy D) an internal locus of control

17) In the context of the characteristics of a successful leader, which of the following traits does a supervisor lack if he or she has difficulty understanding what makes people tick? A) a high energy level B) an internal locus of control C) empathy D) self-confidence

18) In the context of the characteristics of a successful leader, a supervisor who believes in his or her ability to get a job done is said to possess A) self-confidence. B) empathy. C) a high energy level. D) an internal locus of control.

19) The leadership style in which the leader allows subordinates to participate in decision making and problem solving is known as the A) authoritarian leadership style. B) laissez-faire leadership style. C) democratic leadership style. D) dictatorial leadership style.

Version 1

20)

Who among the following best exemplifies an authoritarian leader?

A) Will, who blames his team members for his poor performance ratings B) Violet, who believes that her hard work led to her promotion C) George, a team leader who makes decisions himself and gives instructions to his team members D) Hannah, who encourages her subordinates to come up with solutions to problems

21)

Who among the following exemplifies a manager with a democratic leadership style? A) Anne, who makes decisions and dictates instructions to her employees B) Joanne, who allows her employees to take charge of events without her supervision C) Ron, who is uninvolved and lets employees do what they want D) Miguel, who involves his employees in decision making and problem solving

22) In which of the following leadership styles does the leader remain uninvolved and let subordinates direct themselves? A) authoritarian leadership B) democratic leadership C) laissez-faire leadership D) dictatorial leadership

23)

Who among the following best exemplifies a laissez-faire leader?

A) Will, who blames his team members for his poor performance ratings B) Edgar, a manager who lets his employees work as they wish and seldom interferes C) George, a team lead who makes decisions himself and gives instructions to his team members D) Hannah, who encourages her subordinates to come up with solutions to problems

Version 1

24)

Which of the following is true of democratic leaders versus authoritarian leaders?

A) Unlike authoritarian leaders, democratic leaders share more authority with employees. B) Unlike democratic leaders, authoritarian leaders involve employees in decision making. C) Unlike authoritarian leaders, democratic leaders merely dictate instructions to employees. D) Unlike democratic leaders, authoritarian leaders let employees do what they want.

25) A(n) ________ leader retains a great deal of power, making decisions and dictating instructions to employees. A) authoritarian B) democratic C) laissez-faire D) people-oriented

26) Which style of leadership is rarely practiced by supervisors because the nature of a supervisor's job requires close involvement with employees? A) authoritarian B) democratic C) laissez-faire D) task-oriented

27)

Which of the following statements is true about the different leadership styles?

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A) Very few supervisors are completely authoritarian or totally democratic. B) With authoritarian leadership, a leader shares a great deal of authority with subordinates. C) Laissez-faire leadership is effective with jobs that require close monitoring. D) A democratic leader is uninvolved and lets employees do what they want.

28) A leader who focuses on the jobs to be done and the goals to be accomplished is considered A) empathic. B) people oriented. C) permissive. D) task oriented.

29) A(n) ________ leader is concerned primarily with the well-being of employees and emphasizes issues such as morale, job satisfaction, and relationships. A) task-oriented B) authoritarian C) people-oriented D) laissez-faire

30) Rules followed by Marine Corps officers are “never eat before your troops eat” and “never ask your troops to do something you wouldn’t do.” This is an example of ________ leadership. A) authoritarian B) people-oriented C) task-oriented D) laissez-faire

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31) According to Fred Fiedler’s contingency model, whether relationship-oriented or taskoriented leaders perform better depends on three characteristics of the situation A) type of organization, effectiveness of group, and time available. B) leader–member relations, task structure, and the position power of the leader. C) tolerance of ambiguity, problem or task, and need for independence. D) relationship behavior, task behavior, and maturity of followers.

32) According to Fiedler’s contingency model, ________ refers to the formal authority granted to the leader by the organization. A) task structure B) laissez-faire C) locus of control D) position power

33)

According to the Hersey-Blanchard life cycle theory of leadership, leaders should A) adapt their behaviors according to the maturity of their followers. B) exhibit directive and supportive behaviors. C) put other people’s needs and interests above their own. D) be more task oriented rather than relationship oriented.

34) According to which theory should leaders adjust the degree of task and relationship behavior in response to the growing maturity of their followers?

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A) the life cycle theory of leadership B) Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership C) the path–goal theory of leadership D) the X and Y theory of leadership

35) The ________ theory of leadership suggests that the primary activities of a leader are to make desirable and achievable rewards available to organization members who attain organizational objectives and to clarify the kinds of behavior that must be performed to earn those rewards. A) contingency B) X and Y C) life cycle D) path–goal

36) According to the theory of path–goal leadership, ________ behavior involves telling followers what to do and how they are to do it. A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement

37)

According to the theory of path–goal leadership, participative behavior involves

A) telling followers what to do and how they are to do it. B) setting a challenging goal for a follower to meet and expressing confidence that the follower can meet this challenge. C) seeking input from followers about methods for improving business operations. D) recognizing that above all, followers are human beings.

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38) According to the theory of path–goal leadership, ________ behavior involves setting a challenging goal for a follower to meet and expressing confidence that the follower can meet this challenge. A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement

39)

According to the theory of path–goal leadership, a leader should A) be more relationship-oriented rather than task-oriented. B) put other people’s needs, aspirations, and interests above his or her own. C) exhibit directive, participative, achievement, and supportive behaviors. D) adapt his or her behavior according to followers’ maturity.

40) According to the theory of path–goal leadership, ________ behavior involves recognizing that above all, followers are human beings. A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement

41)

According to the theory of path–goal leadership, supportive behavior involves

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A) telling followers what to do and how they are to do it. B) setting challenging goals for followers to meet. C) seeking input from followers about methods for improving business operations. D) being friendly and encouraging to followers.

42)

According to the theory of path–goal leadership, directive behavior involves A) communicating clearly what is expected of followers. B) setting challenging goals for followers to meet. C) seeking input from followers about methods for improving business operations. D) being friendly and encouraging to followers.

43) Which style of leadership involves putting other people’s needs, aspirations, and interests above one’s own? A) top-down hierarchical leadership B) authoritarian leadership C) entrepreneurial leadership D) servant leadership

44)

Which of the following best describes servant leaders?

A) They put other people’s needs, aspirations, and interests above their own. B) They view people as the means through which to accomplish the organization’s objectives. C) They retain a great deal of authority and often dictate instructions to employees. D) They believe that they play an important role at a company rather than an unimportant one.

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45)

A characteristic feature of servant leaders is that they are A) directive. B) egocentric. C) empathic. D) authoritative.

46)

Which of the following is a reason why servant leaders are considered persuasive? A) They are respected by the people around them. B) They listen intently to the people who surround them. C) They take time to make sure that those surrounding them are heard and understood. D) They make much effort to help those around them achieve wellness.

47) A leader who is a good listener, empathic, healing, aware, and persuasive meets the description of a(n) ________ leader. A) task-oriented B) servant C) authoritative D) laissez-faire

48)

In the context of leadership styles, a servant leader A) deliberately chooses to help other people. B) is not overly concerned about his or her followers. C) is more task oriented than relationship oriented. D) puts his or her needs above other people’s needs.

49)

________ leadership is based on the attitude that the leader is self-employed.

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A) Traditional B) Transformational C) Entrepreneurial D) Servant

50)

Which of the following is true of entrepreneurial leaders? A) They view risk-taking as an unnecessary component of being successful in business. B) They have a clear picture of how they would like to see their company grow in the

future. C) They put other people’s needs, aspirations, and interests above their own. D) They are usually uninvolved and let employees do what they want.

51) ________ leadership involves believing that one plays a very important role at a company rather than an unimportant one. A) Servant B) Authoritarian C) Democratic D) Entrepreneurial

52) An entrepreneurial leader having a clear picture of how he or she would like to see the company grow in the future fits the role of a A) visionary. B) problem solver. C) decision maker. D) risk taker.

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53)

Which of the following is a role skillfully filled by an entrepreneurial leader? A) a risk taker B) a healer C) a good listener D) an empathizer

54) A leader who acts as if losing money will result in personal financial loss and making money will result in additional financial income best exemplifies a(n) ________ leader. A) authentic B) democratic C) entrepreneurial D) transformational

55) In the context of approaches to leadership, ________ leadership reflects the extent to which a leader stands by his or her values and provides true and accurate feedback to followers. A) entrepreneurial B) authentic C) transactional D) democratic

56) In the context of approaches to leadership, ________ leaders focus on leading by influencing and developing their people. A) transformational B) authentic C) transactional D) authoritative

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57) In the context of approaches to leadership, ________ leaders focus on leading by adhering to tasks. A) transformational B) authentic C) transactional D) spiritual

58)

In the context of approaches to leadership, transformational leaders

A) view incentives and monitoring as effective means to ensure subordinates complete the organization’s objectives. B) focus on leading by adhering to tasks. C) address the spiritual developmental needs of followers. D) view people as the means through which to accomplish the organization’s objectives.

59)

In the context of approaches to leadership, transactional leaders

A) view incentives and monitoring as effective means to ensure subordinates complete the organization’s objectives. B) focus on leading by influencing and developing their people. C) address the spiritual developmental needs of followers. D) view people as the means through which to accomplish the organization’s objectives.

60) In the context of approaches to leadership, ethical leadership reflects the extent to which leaders

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A) address the spiritual developmental needs of followers. B) stand by their values and provide true and accurate feedback to followers. C) possess a moral code and abide by those moral standards. D) focus on leading by influencing and developing their people.

61) The factor that differentiates transformational leadership from transactional leadership is that transformational leaders A) focus on leading by adhering to tasks. B) view incentives and monitoring as effective means to ensure subordinates complete the organization’s objectives. C) view people as the means through which to accomplish the organization’s objectives. D) adjust their degree of task and relationship behavior in response to the growing maturity of their followers.

62) According to the path–goal theory of leadership, ________ involves a leader assigning a task that is challenging enough to stretch a follower, but not so challenging that the follower is unable to complete the task. A) directive behavior B) supportive behavior C) participative behavior D) achievement behavior

63) According to the path–goal theory of leadership, which of the following leadership behaviors invites followers to provide input as to what rewards would be desired upon completing tasks?

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A) participative behavior B) achievement behavior C) supportive behavior D) directive behavior

64) In the context of the various approaches to leadership, research suggests that although most people prefer ________, the right type of leadership depends on the unique work context. A) ethical leaders B) transformational leaders C) authentic leaders D) spiritual leaders

65) In the context of the various approaches to leadership, ________ reflects the extent to which leaders address the inner, nonmaterial developmental needs of followers. A) authentic leadership B) ethical leadership C) spiritual leadership D) transformational leadership

66) Which of the following statements is true about successful leaders in emerging economies? A) They focus on planning and communication and strive, along with those who work for them, toward the common good. B) They tend to be global thinkers and are concerned primarily with long-term planning. C) They refrain from using a hands-on approach to supervising employees. D) They focus on the operational process and on monitoring individual performances.

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67) Which of the following is one of the leader characteristics that influences the choice of leadership style for a supervisor? A) need for independence B) tolerance for ambiguity C) interest in solving a problem D) time available

68) Which of the following is a situation characteristic that influences the choice of leadership style for a supervisor? A) need for independence B) tolerance for ambiguity C) interest in solving a problem D) time available

69) In choosing a leadership style, readiness to take responsibility, understanding of and identification with goals, and expectations are categorized as ________ characteristics. A) situation B) organization C) subordinate D) leader

70) When the supervisor involves employees in making decisions, he or she cannot always be sure of the outcomes. Supervisors differ in their level of comfort with this uncertainty, which refers to their

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A) personal leadership strengths. B) level of confidence in employees. C) tolerance for ambiguity. D) knowledge and experience.

71) When choosing a leadership style, an individual has to consider values, level of confidence in employees, strengths, and tolerance for ambiguity. These attributes describe A) situation characteristics. B) leader characteristics. C) subordinate characteristics. D) organization characteristics.

72)

Which of the following is a subordinate characteristic in choosing a leadership style? A) knowledge and experience B) time available C) effectiveness of the group D) values

73) In choosing a leadership style, one needs to consider the type of organization and the effectiveness of the group. These attributes describe A) situation characteristics. B) manager characteristics. C) subordinate characteristics. D) leader characteristics.

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74) If a department, team, or other work group has little experience in making its own decisions, the supervisor A) should adopt a democratic leadership style because it is more effective. B) should adopt the authoritarian leadership style because it is easier to use. C) may effectively use a participatory decision-making approach. D) should allow decision making despite his or her inability to handle the responsibility.

75)

People who want a lot of direction will most likely welcome ________ leadership. A) laissez-faire B) collaborative C) servant D) authoritarian

76) In which of the following cases is a supervisor most likely to benefit from a democratic approach to leadership? A) when employees don’t identify with goals B) when employees are not tolerant of ambiguity C) when employees are eager to assume responsibility D) when employees expect a lot of direction from the supervisor

77) Employees who are eager to assume responsibility will most likely appreciate ________ leadership. A) dominant B) bureaucratic C) authoritarian D) laissez-faire

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78) Employees who are tolerant of ambiguity will most likely accept a(n) ________ style of leadership. A) authoritarian B) democratic C) bureaucratic D) dominant

79) Organizations that use self-managing work teams generally encourage a variety of employee characteristics that are associated with the successful use of democratic leadership and a low degree of A) task-oriented behavior. B) people-oriented behavior. C) relationship-oriented behavior. D) community-oriented behavior.

80)

A structured task—that is, one with a set procedure to follow—is best managed by a(n) A) relations-oriented leader. B) authoritarian leader. C) people-oriented leader. D) democratic leader.

81)

A manager should use a relatively democratic leadership style only when A) enough time is available. B) tasks are structured. C) decisions need to be made quickly. D) a work group has little experience in making its own decisions.

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82) Unstructured tasks, such as generating ideas to improve customer service or planning the department picnic, are most likely to benefit from the use of ________ leadership. A) authoritarian B) task-oriented C) laissez-faire D) democratic

83) When employees and managers work in teams, a(n) ________ leadership style is generally appropriate. A) democratic B) authoritarian C) laissez-faire D) bureaucratic

84) According to some management experts, a coach is a good analogy for a(n) ________ leadership style. A) democratic B) authoritarian C) laissez-faire D) bureaucratic

85) In the context of the characteristics of the situation that determines a leadership style, identify a true statement about coaches.

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A) They pick qualified people, help them learn their jobs, and inspire peak performance. B) They are unwilling to share authority and refrain from delegating responsibility to carry out operations. C) They are a good analogy for an authoritarian leadership style. D) They impose a lot of rules and restrictions on people’s styles of working.

86) Which of the following statements is true of a supervisor’s relationship with his or her employees? A) A supervisor should be friends with employees and involve them in his or her personal life. B) A supervisor should command rather than empower employees for better results. C) A supervisor should consistently treat employees in a way that reflects his or her role as a part of management. D) A supervisor who is feared by employees will inspire them to work harder and better and thereby yield faster results.

87) When a supervisor listens carefully, shares pertinent information, and engages in fair, predictable behavior, he or she is most likely to A) be authoritative. B) breach the code of secrecy. C) be a patronizing leader. D) build trust.

88)

Efforts made to learn about and match the style of one’s manager are often called

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A) laissez-faire. B) managing up. C) empowerment. D) role management.

89) In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their managers, what does “loyalty” mean? A) It means that a supervisor works with others in the organization to achieve organizational goals. B) It means that a supervisor prefers to remain silent rather than criticizing or saying something negative. C) It means that a manager expects supervisors to keep him or her informed about the department’s performance. D) It means that a manager should see that the department meets or exceeds its objectives.

90)

In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their managers, “cooperation” means

A) a supervisor works with others in the organization to achieve organizational goals. B) a supervisor says only positive things about company policies and about his or her manager. C) a manager expects supervisors to keep him or her informed about the department’s performance. D) a manager should see that the department meets or exceeds its objectives.

91)

In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their managers, “communication” means

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92)

In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their managers, “results” means

A) a supervisor works with others in the organization to achieve organizational goals. B) a supervisor says only positive things about company policies and about his or her manager. C) a supervisor expects to be informed about the department’s performance. D) a supervisor should see that the department meets or exceeds its objectives.

93) In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their managers, a supervisor can reasonably assume that the manager expects A) respect, accountability, hard work, and sincerity. B) loyalty, cooperation, communication, and results. C) timeliness, obedience, trust, and independence. D) openness, proficiency, empathy, and participation.

94) Mark knows that a coworker has done something that is not in the company’s best interest. In this case, Mark should A) go directly to that coworker and point out the problem. B) ignore the situation and hope the coworker does not do it again. C) tell his boss immediately. D) inform his other coworkers.

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95) In the context of supervisors’ relationships with their peers, if a supervisor realizes that a coworker has done something that works against the organization’s best interests, the supervisor should A) not go directly to that person and point out the problem. B) discuss the issue with his or her manager if the coworker resists listening to his or her criticism. C) assume that the problem was intended and avoid being diplomatic. D) focus on the personalities involved rather than the problem and its consequences to the organization.

96) An internal locus of control is the belief that an individual is the primary cause of what happens to him or her. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) With authoritarian leadership, a supervisor allows employees to participate in decision making and problem solving. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98)

When the work gets done correctly and on time, a task-oriented leader is satisfied. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Leader–member relations refers to the extent to which a leader has the support and loyalty of group members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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100) “Unity of command” refers to the formal authority granted to the leader by the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) According to the path–goal theory of leadership, leaders should adjust their degree of task and relationship behavior in response to the growing maturity of their followers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) The more confidence a supervisor has in employees, the more he or she will involve them in planning and decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Employees who look for and depend on structure and direction tend to become incapacitated if their leader has an authoritarian leadership style. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) Today’s supervisor seeks consensus and spends time with employees to learn what they need for job success and career development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) B Version 1

32) D 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) C Version 1

62) D 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) D 67) B 68) D 69) C 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) A 82) D 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) C 87) D 88) B 89) B 90) A 91) C Version 1

92) D 93) B 94) A 95) B 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

What are the most common personal reasons for joining a group?

List the seven characteristics of groups and define them.

What are the five stages of team development? Briefly discuss them.

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What is a team? What are the benefits associated with teamwork?

5) Discuss the problems that often arise during team meetings and suggest ways of overcoming these problems.

6) In the context of today’s business world, a(n) ________ is two or more people who interact with one another, are aware of one another, and think of themselves as a unit. A) gathering B) audience C) group D) assembly

7) Shannon is a supervisor at Florenz Inc. She joined Florenz Inc. because two of her friends from college were working at the firm. In the context of the reasons for joining groups, which of the following is the primary reason for Shannon joining Florenz Inc.? Version 1

A) strength in numbers B) common goals C) achievement as objective D) closeness

8) Salman is a new employee at a quarry. Being a new employee, he feels lonely at work. However, he finds a group of people who share jokes and speak informally with each other to reduce work-related stress. Salman feels confident being with them and joins their group. In the context of the reasons for joining groups, which of the following is the reason why Salman joined the group? A) closeness B) achievement as objective C) common goals D) strength in numbers

9) Timothy and his team work on an animal rescue project. Anna, an animal lover, asks Timothy if she can join his team, and he agrees. In the context of the reasons for joining groups, for which of the following reasons did Anna join Timothy’s team? A) closeness B) achievement of objectives C) common goals D) strength in numbers

10) John is a new employee at IronMakers Inc. He wants to be a supervisor. Therefore, he socializes with the supervisors of the organization. He feels important when he is with them. In the context of the reasons for joining groups, which of the following is the reason why John likes to associate with the supervisors in his company?

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A) closeness B) achievement of personal objectives C) common goals D) strength in numbers

11)

A task group is A) formed to carry out a particular function, such as producing or selling goods. B) often disbanded once the objective of the group is achieved. C) set up to satisfy the informal needs of the members in a group. D) also called an organic group.

12)

Which of the following statements is true about groups in a workplace? A) Working in groups often leads to members losing their confidence. B) Groups are formed to reduce the occurrence of social loafing. C) Most employees of large organizations cluster into smaller groups such as task

groups. D) Not all employees of an organization form or join groups.

13) Which of the following organizations has very little hierarchy and employees who are multitalented and have the diverse skills and flexibility to perform a variety of tasks? A) matrix organization B) organic organization C) functional organization D) team-based organization

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14) Most employees welcome the opportunity to be part of informal groups primarily because these groups A) help in enhancing productivity. B) improve technical skills. C) satisfy formal needs. D) satisfy social needs.

15)

Which of the following is true about an organic organization? A) An organic organization focuses on the centralization of authority. B) Employees of an organic organization have limited skills. C) The procedures in an organic organization are rigid. D) An organic organization has very little hierarchy.

16)

Which of the following is a characteristic of organic organizations? A) All workers tend to be on the same level. B) Employees cooperate efficiently without any leadership. C) Communication structures are rigid and formal. D) Organizational hierarchies are based on skills rather than experience.

17)

Which of the following is a weakness of an organic organization? A) It is an informal structure that lacks authority. B) It is good only for functional tasks. C) It requires cooperation from all its members. D) It requires a tall organizational structure to function effectively.

18)

Which of the following best defines functional groups?

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A) Groups that fulfill ongoing needs in an organization by carrying out a particular function B) Groups that are set up to carry out a specific function and then disbanded when it is completed C) Groups that work together and solve functional problems through computer-based interactions D) Groups that are formed for the purpose of bringing together employees with similar non-work-related interests

19) A hospital’s permanent accounting department and customer service department are examples of ________ groups. A) project B) functional C) task D) informal

20) Lawrence manages the legal department of a manufacturing company. The legal department has the continuing responsibility of dealing with all legal issues related to the company. In the context of the different types of groups, Lawrence is a member of a(n) ________ group. A) project B) functional C) informal D) task

21)

Functional and task groups are types of ________ groups.

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A) cohesive B) formal C) informal D) homogenous

22)

Task groups are best defined as

A) permanent groups set up to fulfill ongoing needs in an organization. B) groups that form when the individuals in an organization develop relationships to meet personal goals. C) groups set up to carry out a specific activity and are disbanded when the activity is completed. D) groups which appear on a company’s organization chart.

23) In the U.S. division of Nine Inc., employees from different functional departments are brought together to work on the development of a new computer operating system. After the successful completion of the project, this group is broken up. This group is an example of a(n) ________ group. A) functional B) virtual C) informal D) task

24)

Formal groups are best defined as groups that are A) set up by management to meet organizational objectives. B) formed when individuals in an organization develop relationships to meet personal

needs. C) bound together by common interests such as political beliefs and social activities. D) created by members who are prone to social loafing and groupthink.

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25) Groups that form when individuals in an organization develop relationships to meet personal needs are called ________ groups. A) informal B) formal C) task D) functional

26) Alice, Noah, and Isaac are colleagues at Faxotell Inc. They meet every Saturday morning at the gym for workout sessions. In the context of the different types of groups, the gym group of Alice, Noah, and Isaac is a(n) ________ group. A) informal B) formal C) homogenous D) task

27) Emily has recently joined a new job and is getting comfortable with her team members. Although she fits into the team quite easily, she feels that her team leader makes her feel like an outsider. She hesitates to approach her team leader and express her feelings. She forms a group with other members of the team as she feels comfortable talking to them. Which of the following types of groups has Emily formed? A) formal subgroup B) informal subgroup C) organic group D) semi-formal group

28) Which of the following tactics should a supervisor use to fully utilize the potential benefits of working with groups?

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A) split up informal groups and create formal groups B) keep groups up to date about occurrences in the organization C) prevent group concerns from reaching higher management D) reward individual employees rather than the group as a whole

29)

A supervisor can receive his group’s support by A) dictating terms and guidelines. B) establishing norms for group behavior. C) encouraging the group to participate in solving problems. D) giving out the industry secrets of competitors.

30)

In the context of the characteristics of groups, roles are best defined as A) patterns of behavior related to employees’ positions in a group. B) group standards for appropriate or acceptable behavior. C) the degree to which group members stick together. D) group members’ positions relative to others in an organization.

31)

Awareness of roles is important because it helps A) employees avoid informal behavior. B) supervisors dictate their orders effectively. C) supervisors encourage desirable behavior. D) employees adopt an “us versus them” attitude toward management.

32) A supervisor who wants to reinforce or change group norms will have the greatest success by

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A) enforcing strict rules against group norms. B) involving top management in dealing with undesirable group norms. C) focusing on the high-status members whom other group members tend to mimic. D) trying to increase the cohesiveness of the group by promoting new activities.

33) A situation in which a person has two different roles that call for incompatible types of behavior is known as A) role-playing. B) role ambiguity. C) role conflict. D) role overload.

34) Sameer is part of the programming team at Game Trends Inc. His manager announces that Sameer will be assigned the role of acting supervisor for three months in addition to his current position while his team supervisor is on sabbatical. After a month, Sameer realizes that his role as supervisor and as teammate clash as they need him to act in two different ways. In the context of roles, this is an example of A) role conflict. B) role erosion. C) role strain. D) role ambiguity.

35)

In the context of the characteristics of groups, norms refer to

A) the efforts made by group leaders to support their groups. B) the organizational rules that all employees are expected to adhere to. C) the previous achievements and successes that are used as benchmarks for individual group performance. D) the standards for appropriate or acceptable behavior in groups.

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36) In the context of the characteristics of group, why is determining the status of group members important to supervisors? A) because a group’s cohesiveness depends on the working relationship of high-status group members B) because group members with the highest status have the most effect on the development of group norms C) because group members with the lowest status are the easiest to influence into changing informal group norms D) because groups with very few high-status members tend to be more beneficial for organizational productivity than groups with many high-status members

37) John, Damon, and Roxanne work at Digizel Inc. They have been working together for two years. They meet their targets every day. However, they never do more than what is expected of them. Salma, a new employee, joins their group. Within the first week, she starts exceeding her targets and performing exceptionally well. This angers John, Damon, and Roxanne. In this scenario, Salma broke the group’s A) norms. B) cohesiveness. C) status. D) homogeneity.

38)

Which of the following is true of cohesive groups? A) They are always exceptionally good at conceptual skills. B) They have formal norms because of which they have better human relations skills. C) They work harder than others and are more likely to accomplish their objectives. D) They are disbanded once their objectives are accomplished.

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39)

Groups tend to be more cohesive when A) their norms are determined by the supervisor. B) there is one group leader who guides the other members. C) the status of the group is high. D) everybody participates equally.

40)

A group member’s position in relation to others in the group is referred to as A) status. B) role ambiguity. C) cohesiveness. D) norm.

41) In the context of the characteristics of groups, a supervisor who wants to foster cohesiveness in a group should A) increase the group’s size so that multiple members work together on each task. B) encourage group members to be competitive with each other in completing tasks. C) discourage the group from competing with other groups in the organization. D) encourage less active members to participate equally in all tasks.

42) Ariana works for an insurance company. She is highly qualified, has greater work experience, and has a strong personality when compared to her colleagues. Her colleagues often consult her when they need assistance. Some of them are so inspired by her that they tend to mirror the way she talks and behaves. In the context of the characteristics of groups, this scenario reflects Ariana’s _______ within the group.

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A) integrity B) value C) status D) authority

43)

The degree to which group members stick together is called A) integrity. B) cohesiveness. C) status. D) homogeneity.

44) Brandon, Ravi, and Li work in the same group at Creltz Inc. They are also in a music band together, and they hold concerts during weekends. Their group often outperforms all other groups at Creltz Inc. They are known to complete their projects within planned time limits even when their work is challenging. In the context of the characteristics of groups, their group is a(n) ________ group. A) egocentric B) cohesive C) status-oriented D) self-managing

45) Mark supervises a group of employees who are always at odds with one another. Which of the following steps should Mark take to foster group cohesiveness? A) make the group members aware of their individual contributions to the group B) help the members set their personal goals rather than focusing on a common goal C) try to keep the group size large D) encourage competition with other groups

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46) Steve manages a group of employees consisting of 12 women and 8 men. Ten members of his group are Hispanic, five are African, and five are Asian. This group is a A) dysfunctional group. B) heterogeneous group. C) homogeneous group. D) cohesive group.

47) In the context of the characteristics of groups, a heterogeneous group is better suited to creative tasks than a homogenous group because the members of a A) heterogeneous group have higher conceptual skills than the members of a homogenous group. B) heterogeneous group offer a greater variety of skills, experience, and viewpoints than the members of a homogenous group. C) homogenous group have broader skills and knowledge than members of a heterogeneous group. D) homogenous group often engage in more undesirable behavior than the members of a heterogeneous group.

48)

In comparison to homogeneous groups, heterogeneous groups A) are most suitable for simple and ordinary tasks. B) have broader set of skills and expertise. C) offer better cooperation among members. D) examine problems from common points of view.

49) Ameen, Amir, and Ehsan work at Fenzel Inc. They are from the Middle East. They all love soccer, the same genres of music, and the same TV shows. They also hold informal music performances during breaks at work. In the context of the characteristics of a group, Ameen, Amir, and Ehsan belong to a ________ group. Version 1

A) heterogeneous B) task force C) conflicting D) homogenous

50) A ________ is a small group whose members share goals, commitment, and accountability for results. A) congregation B) cluster C) team D) group

51)

Which of the following statements is true of group size in the workplace? A) Big groups favor the participation of quiet group members. B) Big groups are faster at making decisions. C) Small groups are less dependent on formal procedures and rules. D) Small groups work best when a lot of work needs to be done.

52)

Identify a true statement about self-managing teams.

A) They are responsible for making decisions that affect their areas of responsibility. B) They are disbanded immediately after completing their objectives and tasks. C) They are formed of people who share common interests, such as political beliefs and social activities. D) They are large teams that handle the marketing aspects of an organization’s products.

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53) At Max Construction Company, over 50 permanent work groups consisting of diverse members work together to build an entire construction plant. These groups have the authority to hire new employees, decide how to run their own projects, and establish budgets. These groups are examples of A) informal groups. B) self-managing work teams. C) task groups. D) homogeneous teams.

54)

Which of the following is true of self-managing work teams?

A) These teams disband once their objective is accomplished. B) Members of these teams collaborate with each other to produce an entire product. C) Members of these teams compete with each other to improve the team’s productivity. D) These teams are formed when individuals in an organization develop relationships to meet personal needs.

55)

Which is the first stage of the team development process? A) forming B) storming C) performing D) norming

56) ________ is the stage of the team development process in which the team members become acquainted with one another and oriented to the idea that they are part of a team. A) Performing B) Norming C) Forming D) Storming

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57) A new research team is formed at Tezel Inc. The group members are all new recruits, and they spend the first few months getting to know each other and understanding their roles in the company. They learn to coordinate their work by understanding each other’s strengths and weaknesses. In the context of the stages of team development, the team is in the ________ stage. A) performing B) norming C) forming D) storming

58) Abhi and Jack are the only two members of the newly formed social media team at Senfer Co. They are being trained together. During training, Abhi and Jack find that they have significant differences in opinions about their work. This results in a heated argument between the two. They discuss this with their supervisor, who helps them resolve the argument and sort out their differences. In the context of the stages of team development, the social media team is in the ________ stage. A) forming B) norming C) performing D) storming

59) To meet the demands of a growing customer base, Cora Heights, a clothing company, forms a new product development team. The members of the team have many heated disagreements over creative decisions. However, they also try to understand each other’s talents and shortcomings so that they can work together more effectively. In this scenario, the new team of at Cora Heights is in the ________ stage of team development. A) norming B) performing C) forming D) storming

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60) In the context of the stages of team development, storming is often perceived as a stressful period because group members A) undergo many formal training sessions. B) try to delineate exactly what each member’s specific role will be. C) try to understand conceptual issues that affect their performance. D) are very concerned about their productivity.

61)

During the norming stage of team development, team members A) explore the different strengths of other team members. B) feel that their ideas and opinions have been heard by other members. C) face conflict and assert their different roles on the team. D) disband after meeting all of the team’s goals.

62) The lobbying department at Forma Pharmaceuticals is very productive. Though the team had many problems when it formed, it has managed to develop strong relations between the company and various hospitals. Each member of the team contributes equally to achieving the goals of the department. In the context of the stages of team development, the lobbying team is in the ________ stage. A) forming B) norming C) performing D) storming

63)

Which of the following statements is true about the storming stage of team development?

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A) It is a period of conflict in which group members assert their different roles on the team. B) This is the stage in which the team decides to disband after having achieved its goals. C) In this stage, supervisors are encouraged to advise team members to be discreet about their opinions related to their roles in the group. D) This stage of team development is not required for every team, given that some teams meet for indefinite periods of time.

64) Solving organizational problems and meeting assigned challenges are part of the ________ stage of team development. A) norming B) storming C) performing D) adjourning

65) The quality assurance team at Fern Automobiles has three members: Brenda, Claude, and Stefan, who completed their training as associate automobile engineers. After forming the new team, they went through a period of conflicts. However, they now understand their roles and work together to achieve their department’s goals. In the context of the stages of team development, the quality assurance team is in the ________ stage. A) adjourning B) norming C) storming D) performing

66) Identify the stage of team development in which a team decides to disband after having achieved its goals.

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A) norming B) storming C) performing D) adjourning

67) The web design team at FirstNet Corp. has five members: Sasha, Megha, Margaret, Shen, and Zahra. They were selected from different teams for a pilot project, which they completed in six months. Their team manager informs them that they will be reassigned to their respective teams soon. In the context of the stages of team development, the design team is currently in the ________ stage. A) adjourning B) performing C) storming D) norming

68) In the context of the characteristics of team productivity, members of a team must have close relationships, which is impossible when the team’s membership keeps changing. This is a dimension of quality known as A) access to information. B) decisions made by consensus. C) openness and honesty. D) relatively low turnover.

69) In the context of the characteristics associated with team productivity, openness and honesty build ________ between team members.

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A) status B) trust C) norms D) homogeneity

70) The leader of a team will sometimes have to make a decision alone or reject suggestions. However, all team members should have a voice in making many decisions, rather than simply a vote without the full opportunity to be heard. This is a dimension of quality of team productivity referred to as A) assessment of progress and results. B) decisions made by consensus. C) debate and discussion. D) openness and honesty.

71) In the context of the characteristics associated with team productivity, a(n) ________ leader is most likely to have a leadership style that does not dominate. A) flexible B) authoritarian C) extrovert D) orthodox

72) The graphics design team at TelDesign willingly takes on new projects and always completes them on time. The team members work together on all projects and help each other out as needed. In the context of the characteristics of team productivity, the dimension of quality described in this scenario is known as

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A) assessment of progress and results. B) acceptance of assignments. C) comfortable atmosphere. D) relatively low turnover.

73) Ronnie and Ming are the only members of the electricals team at Zolaten Inc. They have an argument with their supervisor when they are informed that their targets will be increased the following month. This results in a minor conflict. However, they eventually agree to cooperate, and they go on to achieve their department’s objectives. Which of the following team characteristics associated with team productivity is depicted by the electricals team in this scenario? A) accountability B) honesty C) comfortable atmosphere D) access to information

74) Jim and Nancy are managers at Zensol Inc. Jim proposes a plan for improving customer satisfaction, but Nancy disagrees with his plan. However, she asks him to speak about his plan at the quarterly meeting to see if the other members of her department like it. In the context of the characteristics associated with team productivity, which of the following most accurately highlights the characteristic that Nancy made sure was present in their department? A) honesty and integrity B) comfortable environment C) atmosphere of listening D) access to information

75) All team members need to know what is happening. In the context of the characteristics associated with team productivity, to which of the following characteristics does this statement correspond?

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A) access to information B) debate and discussion C) atmosphere of listening D) honesty and integrity

76) If everyone in a team agrees all the time, it may signify that the team members are unable or unwilling to contribute. Which of the following team characteristics associated with team productivity mostly deals with the significance of this issue? A) win–win approach to conflict B) debate and discussion C) openness and honesty D) atmosphere of listening

77) Choose the team characteristic associated with team productivity that deals with the importance of team members focusing on outcomes and effects. A) decisions made by consensus B) debate and discussion C) assessment of progress and results D) involvement and participation

78) When a team member is reluctant to speak up at meetings, the leader should seek his or her input during or outside the meeting. Identify the team characteristic associated with team productivity that deals with the significance of this issue. A) assessment of progress and results B) involvement and participation C) relatively low turnover D) acceptance of assignments

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79) Small organizations are sometimes unable to afford an expert consultant to carry out their team-building processes. In such cases, the ________ carries out this responsibility at regular team meetings. A) human resource manager B) supervisor C) top management D) production manager

80) The characteristic of successful teams that emphasizes the importance of team members working to resolve differences in ways that let everyone come out on top is known as A) the win–win approach to conflict. B) debate and discussion. C) comfortable atmosphere. D) the assessment of progress and results.

81) “Team members should view accomplishing objectives as the team’s primary purpose because it gives them direction and purpose.” Which of the following characteristics associated with team productivity best corresponds to this statement? A) acceptance of assignments B) goals that are understood and accepted C) assessment of progress and results D) involvement and participation

82)

Successful teamwork requires ________ communication among team members.

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A) stereotypical B) open C) assumed D) biased

83)

In the context of coaching a team, enabling is best defined as the process of

A) providing employees with the resources they need to do their job and removing obstacles that interfere with their work. B) forming small groups in which the members share goals, commitment, and accountability for results. C) making the transition after adjournment as seamless as possible for the team members by assuring them that new challenges await. D) giving each team member the absolute authority to take decisions related to achieving organizational goals.

84) Jose, a supervisor at Stay-A-Day Hotels, provides his subordinates with all the resources they need to do their job properly. He also ensures that he helps them in removing all obstacles that hinder their ability to perform well at work. In the context of coaching the team, Jose is ________ his subordinates. A) storming B) adjourning C) enabling D) norming

85) In the context of coaching employees, which of the following tips is most likely to help a supervisor stimulate high-quality performance?

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A) criticize team members who are not performing well, preferably during team meetings B) be authoritative and dominate meetings so that the team members do not stray from their agenda C) tell employees what to do, because enabling them to handle a situation is a waste of time D) encourage team members by expressing understanding and appreciation of their ideas and feelings

86)

Which of the following best describes the process of team building?

A) It is the process of developing the ability of members to work together to achieve common objectives. B) It is the process of making transitions after adjournment as seamless as possible for team members by assuring them that new challenges await. C) It is the process of giving each team member the absolute authority to take decisions related to achieving organizational goals. D) It is the process of bringing together individuals in an organization who share common interests and forming groups to meet personal needs.

87) Activities like setting goals, analyzing what needs to be done and allocating work, examining how well the group is working, and examining the relationships among the members are part of the process of A) enabling. B) biofeedback. C) team building. D) appraisal.

88) In the context of communication in teams, which of the following should a team leader ideally employ to increase team productivity?

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A) The supervisor should single out team members to get everyone focused on the issue at hand, even if it affects team spirit. B) The team leader should ensure that team members confide in him or her alone to prevent the formation of informal groups. C) The team leader should ensure that there is open and positive communication among team members. D) The team leader should look out for disagreements and put an end to them immediately.

89)

One of the most valid reasons to hold a meeting is to A) rescue a lost cause. B) make small matters seem important. C) prove that team leaders are being democratic. D) convey news to a group when its feedback is important.

90)

When the purpose of the meeting is to convey information to the whole department, then

A) all the employees of the department should be invited to attend the meeting. B) only the union representatives should be invited because they will get the word out. C) top management should not be invited because they are not affected by the information. D) only the human resource staff should be invited.

91)

A list of topics to be covered at a meeting is defined as a(n) A) norm. B) agenda. C) yellow book. D) user manual.

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92) Joseph, a production manager at Tes-Fin Inc., asks his personal assistant to write down a list of topics he has to discuss with his subordinates at the monthly meeting. Joseph asked his personal assistant to prepare a(n) ________ for the meeting. A) norm B) report C) plan D) agenda

93) Mary, a human resource coordinator, has to chair a meeting for company supervisors. She writes down the purpose of the meeting, the location, the date, the starting and ending times, and the major topics to be covered. Mary has prepared a(n) A) report. B) norm. C) agenda. D) manual.

94) To make sure meetings are as fruitful as possible, a supervisor can facilitate the discussion by A) dominating the meeting. B) sounding like the participants’ echo. C) summarizing the key points. D) encouraging participants who monopolize the discussion.

95) In the context of preparation for a meeting, a meeting should be scheduled at a time that is convenient for

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A) the top management. B) the supervisor. C) all participants. D) members who follow group norms.

96) In the context of organizing powerful meetings, what should a supervisor do when a participant begins discussing a topic unrelated to the agenda of the meeting? A) The supervisor should restate the purpose of the meeting and suggest discussing the unrelated topic in another meeting. B) The supervisor should remind the participant to be more considerate of the other attendees and stay on the topic being discussed. C) The supervisor should reschedule the meeting and help the participant find a solution to his or her problem. D) The supervisor should encourage other participants with similar problems to speak up and incorporate the discussion into the meeting’s agenda.

97)

Which of the following is true about conducting effective meetings?

A) Supervisors should steer discussions back on course by focusing on the effects of particular behaviors displayed by participants. B) A supervisor should refrain from concluding a meeting by scheduling another follow-up meeting. C) Agendas should be avoided in order to keep meetings flexible and accommodate employee suggestions. D) Authoritative supervisors should allow participants to go off on tangents as far as possible.

98)

People can satisfy personal needs by joining a group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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99) In an organization, a group of people tends to be less influential than one strong personality acting alone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) Supervisors can foster cohesiveness within the group by encouraging competition with other groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) Employees who participate in planning and decision making are less likely to take responsibility for the quality of what they do. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) A frequent complaint about meetings is that they waste time because participants stray from the main topic and go off on tangents. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) When a team member derails a team meeting by discussing an unrelated topic, the supervisor should criticize the participant to discourage other participants from straying from the main topic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) C Version 1

32) C 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) B 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) D 60) B 61) B Version 1

62) C 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) B 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) C 78) B 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) D 86) A 87) C 88) C 89) D 90) A 91) B Version 1

92) D 93) C 94) C 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

“Business ethics” is an oxymoron. Discuss the two views regarding this statement.

2) Why is it especially challenging for one to adhere to high ethical standards when working with people from more than one culture?

As a supervisor, what types of ethical behavior should one ideally practice?

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4) Ryan, a supervisor, suspects that one of his employees may be involved in unethical behavior. List the steps Ryan should take to tackle the matter effectively.

List the steps an organization can take to achieve sustainability.

Corporate social responsibility is best defined as the

A) degree to which employees adhere to the organization’s written statement of its values and rules for ethical behavior. B) managerial obligation to take action that protects and improves both the welfare of society as a whole and the interests of the organization. C) ability to understand cultural differences, which helps businesspeople interpret behavior accordingly and act socially. D) set of customs, processes, laws, policies, and institutions that affect the way a company is directed or controlled.

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7) Which of the following is a proposition of the Davis model of corporate social responsibility? A) Whistle-blowers should be identified and prevented from disturbing the work culture of organizations. B) Business shall operate as a one-way system, with open receipt of inputs from society but controlled disclosure of its operations to the public. C) The social costs related to each activity, product, or service shall be passed on to the consumer. D) Business institutions do not have the responsibility to become involved in any social problem that is outside their normal areas of operation.

8) In the context of corporate social responsibility, which of the following statements is a proposition of the Davis model that relates to how businesses should interact with society? A) Business interests are independent of societal issues and should be analyzed separately. B) Businesses should avoid intervening in the development of society. C) Businesses must help solve societal issues that may be outside their normal realm of action. D) Businesses must handle the social costs related to each product or service they provide to consumers.

9) The Davis model of corporate social responsibility states that the social costs related to each activity, product, or service shall be passed on to the consumer. This implies that A) businesses have a significant impact on societal issues such as environmental pollution and minority employment. B) business shall operate as a two-way open system, with open receipt of inputs from society and open disclosure of its operations to the public. C) business institutions have the responsibility to become involved in certain social problems that are outside their normal areas of operation. D) consumers must be ready to buy services from businesses to help them maintain operational functions.

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10) In the context of the Davis model of corporate social responsibility, it is important for businesses to act in socially responsible ways because businesses A) have a significant impact on societal issues such as environmental pollution and minority employment. B) form a central core from which communities derive their social values. C) can then focus solely on the degree of economic profit to be earned and thus gain social power. D) have a social obligation to create goods and services for the masses.

11) The Davis model of corporate social responsibility proposes that businesses must listen to the public to understand what can be done to improve society as a whole because businesses A) are obliged to sacrifice their profits in the pursuit of solving societal issues within their realm of action. B) are responsible for ensuring the functioning of society. C) have power and must act in socially responsible ways. D) cannot see operational profits until societal issues preventing them from developing are solved.

12) According to the Davis model of corporate social responsibility, businesses need to help solve societal issues that may be outside their normal realm of action because A) all businesses have a legal obligation to solve societal issues that are outside their realm of action. B) it will help businesses circumvent legal issues in the future. C) businesses can increase their profits by solving societal issues. D) businesses form a central ethical core from which communities derive their social values.

13)

Ethics refers to the

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A) ability to analyze information and reach good decisions. B) principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. C) belief that one is the primary cause of what happens to one’s self. D) characteristics of individuals that shape their identities.

14) Maya, the CEO of Xyno Composites, introduces training programs to educate her employees on how to distinguish between moral and immoral behaviors. In the context of corporate social responsibility, the changes introduced by Maya are intended to improve her company’s A) ethical practices. B) environmental impact. C) short-term profits. D) production methods.

15) Boris, a production manager at Flensel Inc., asks his subordinates to learn how to distinguish what is morally right. In the context of corporate social responsibility, Boris is talking about the importance of A) nepotism. B) ethics. C) codes. D) delegation.

16) Which of the following is the primary effect of teaching supervisors about the importance of ethics? A) It improves productivity in an organization. B) It helps supervisors in eliminating quality control processes. C) It helps supervisors enhance their human relations skills. D) It promotes social responsibility in an organization.

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17) Shelley is an accountant at an aerospace company that is going through a financial crisis. To make it seem like the company is still profitable, she manipulates the company’s financial data. However, this manipulation is against the standards of accounting. In this scenario, Shelley is guilty of A) unethical behavior. B) bribery. C) social loafing. D) nepotism.

18)

Ethical behavior is part of a range of behaviors that ensure A) the preservation of informal culture in a company. B) optimum returns on the investments of a company. C) an organization’s long-term health and success. D) the financial growth of a few employees in an organization.

19)

Companies that practice ethical behavior A) are likely to perform well in stock trading. B) have relatively low return on investment. C) almost always take a long time to optimize profits. D) impose strict regulations on employees.

20)

In the context of the benefits of ethical behavior, ethics helps in

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A) eliminating quality control processes. B) eliminating corporate responsibilities. C) distinguishing right from wrong. D) deciphering an organization’s productive trends.

21)

Which of the following is true of business ethics?

A) Ethical standards are universal in nature. B) Supervisors should refrain from balancing between meeting an organizational goal and benefitting society at the same time. C) Business ethics is an insignificant issue unless one gets caught. D) Ethical behavior can improve an organization’s relations with the community.

22)

Which of the following is a benefit that is most closely associated with ethical behavior? A) the right to undermine a trade embargo B) the reduction of public pressure for government regulation C) the improvement of group cohesiveness in a diverse group D) the rightful acceptance of gifts that fall outside federal government regulations

23) Which of the following is a disadvantage most closely associated with organizations whose employees are unethical? A) decrease in social loafing B) decreased instances of bid rigging C) loss of qualified employees D) increase in groupthink

24)

Identify a true statement about ethical business practices.

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A) When an organization behaves ethically, the government decreases the taxes enforced on its profits. B) Behaving ethically results in short-term gains but costs an organization long-term sustainability and profitability. C) Investors tend to be more interested in companies that have a good track record of ethical behavior. D) To establish an ethical work culture, an organization must sacrifice short-term profits and focus exclusively on establishing socially and environmentally responsible practices.

25) Which of the following is a challenge when establishing the practice of ethical behavior in workplaces? A) Downsized or restructured organizations tend to lack the resources to monitor the day-to-day behavior of their employees. B) Large organizations cannot work toward establishing high ethical standards as it costs them short-term profits. C) Many organizations are often pressured by their investors to act in unethical ways to generate profits or risk having the investors pull out completely. D) Ethical practices can only be established by companies that are already profitable.

26) In the context of challenges to ethical behavior, the restructurings, cutbacks, and layoffs of recent years have made ethical behavior A) impossible to practice. B) a norm in the business world. C) mandatory to follow. D) harder to encourage.

27) Which of the following is the reason why employees in organizations feel high ethical standards are of less importance?

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A) Practicing ethical standards always conflicts with the productivity goals of companies. B) Companies often focus more on measuring productivity than on practicing ethical standards. C) Employees behave most ethically when they do not have access to all the resources they need to meet their goals. D) Meeting high ethical standards is especially easy for those who work with people from more than one culture.

28) An organization’s written statement of its values and rules for ethical behavior is known as its A) value statement. B) code of ethics. C) code of practices. D) ethical protocol.

29) Phillip, the CEO of Texonet Inc., thinks it is beneficial for the company to print a booklet that contains the values and rules for right behavior in the company and distribute it to the employees. He thinks it will help employees to distinguish between right and wrong behavior. In this scenario, Phillip is thinking of printing the company’s A) mission statement. B) ethical agenda. C) vision statement. D) code of ethics.

30) Max, a new employee at Glanx Inc., is being informed about the company’s values and habits that will help him distinguish right from wrong. In the context of corporate social responsibility, Max is learning about the company’s

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A) business agenda. B) code of ethics. C) rules of sustainability. D) formal behavior.

31) Which of the following statements is true of how cultural diversity affects the ethical behavior of employees? A) Ethical behavior is easy to practice in a company with cultural diversity. B) Ethical values vary from culture to culture. C) Ethical behavior is easy to practice in countries with high corruption levels. D) Ethical values are a vague concept in a diverse cultural environment.

32) According to research by the Ethics Resource Center, which of the following factors is most important for organizations trying to establish strong ethical cultures? A) a clear and accurate code of ethics B) supervisors who demonstrate ethical behavior C) employees who recognize the importance of ethical behavior D) a committee that monitors and punishes unethical behavior

33)

If an organization does business in a country where corruption is expected, employees A) have relatively less difficulty being ethical. B) can have more difficulty meeting high standards. C) are generally sure of what can be categorized as a misconduct. D) are always sure about what the company expects of its people.

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34) Steve, a supervisor, works in a country where corruption levels are relatively high. As a direct consequence of this, Steve will have difficulty A) being productive. B) practicing ethical values. C) dealing with immediate subordinates. D) improving the efficiency of his team.

35) It is difficult to practice clear corporate values and business-related standards in countries with high corruption levels because A) employees in these countries are often unsure if they are seeing misconduct. B) people in these countries have poor understanding of codes of ethics. C) monetary rewards are the primary concern of employees in these countries. D) the giving of gifts often is interpreted as bribery in these countries.

36)

Meeting high ethical standards is likely to be most challenging for A) people who support political ideologies. B) women who have to put up with more hardships than men. C) people who work in publicly traded companies. D) those who work with people from more than one culture.

37)

Understanding cultural differences helps in A) reducing the operational costs of a company. B) creating formal norms that improve productivity. C) establishing quality control processes in a company. D) interpreting behavior in order to arrive at agreements.

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38)

In the context of ethical behavior, Western ideals tend to focus on __________ behavior. A) fraternal B) individual C) ethnocentric D) nepotistic

39)

In the United States, the giving of gifts in the workplace is most likely to be interpreted as A) a form of bribery, an attempt to buy influence. B) an expression of one’s gratitude toward the receiver. C) being customary and, hence, an acceptable behavior. D) a charge on the corporate account and, hence, a tax-deductible expense.

40) Some companies have helped individuals make ethical choices in an international context by signing the voluntary A) International Labor Treaty. B) North American Free Trade Agreement. C) United Nations Development Program Memo. D) United Nations Global Compact.

41) Which of the following is most likely to help U.S. representatives effectively deal with Chinese trading partners?

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A) They should place their entire focus on the individual behavior of their Chinese partners in order to win their trust. B) They need to convince their Chinese colleagues to honor Western values or be at a disadvantage. C) They should know that bribing is an acceptable practice in China and, hence, should practice it regularly. D) They should know that a relationship of trust is likely to count for more than any particular official law and, hence, should work on building trust.

42) Steven, the CEO of a company based in the United States, travels to China to meet the CEO of a Chinese company in order to discuss a joint marketing strategy. Which of the following steps should Steven take? A) He must start with a meeting on critical business strategies. B) He should establish a relationship of trust before beginning business talk. C) He must focus on innovative marketing to make the joint marketing strategy a success. D) He should focus only on explaining the advantages of coordinating with each other.

43) Lily works as a supervisor in an overseas division of an American firm named Color Wheel Inc. She receives a gift from one of her employees, who is a citizen of the country in which the division is based. She runs the risk of insulting the giver if she refuses to accept it, but her company’s policy discourages supervisors from accepting gifts from employees. In the context of ethical behavior, which of the following actions should Lily take? A) Lily should accept the gift and recommend amending the policies to be more culturally sensitive. B) Lily should turn down the gift and explain that it is against company policy to accept gifts from employees. C) Lily should cut off all future transactions with the employee. D) Lily should politely decline but ultimately accept the gift if the giver insists.

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44) Steve, a very hardworking supervisor, sometimes talks with his friends on the office phone and takes office supplies home for personal use. Steve’s behavior is A) unsustainable. B) unethical. C) biased. D) nepotistic.

45) Joe, the supervisor of the information technology team of BHJ Corp., does not like Frank, one of his employees. He often passes the blame for mistakes on to Frank and tasks him with responsibilities that he does not have the skill or knowledge to handle. In the context of the ethical behavior of supervisors, which dimension of ethical behavior does Joe violate in this scenario? A) loyalty B) accountability C) fairness D) openness

46) Barbara, a supervisor at SnowLenz Corp., supervises ten employees. However, she treats Eliza, one of her ten subordinates, as her favorite. She often assigns Eliza relatively easier jobs so that her productivity is always high. Other employees are unhappy with Barbara’s behavior. In the context of the ethical behavior of supervisors, Barbara’s subordinates are unhappy because she fails to practice A) loyalty. B) fairness. C) honesty. D) openness.

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47) Dave, a supervisor at a web design company, has a self-centric attitude toward work. He steals resources from work to sell them online for his own gains. In this scenario, which of the following dimensions of ethical behavior does Dave violate? A) fairness B) sincerity C) openness D) loyalty

48) Employees expect to be treated evenhandedly. Which of the following behavioral qualities of a supervisor relates to this statement? A) loyalty B) creativity C) fairness D) openness

49) Branden is a supervisor at Xenze Inc. He has worked with the company for many years and is generally liked by the senior management for his commitment to the company. However, he often takes credit for the achievements of his employees. He also steals pens and reams of printer paper from the office. In this scenario, which dimensions of ethical behavior does Branden violate? A) honesty B) loyalty C) fairness D) openness

50)

Which of the following statements best defines the term “nepotism”?

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A) the act of discriminating based on gender stereotypes B) the act of hiring one’s own relatives C) the act of exposing a violation of ethics or law D) the act of taking credit for others’ work

51)

Loyalty, fairness, and honesty are __________ that supervisors must exhibit. A) authoritarian values B) requisites of formal conduct C) dimensions of ethical behavior D) important controlling techniques

52)

As a leader, a supervisor is expected to A) practice nepotism. B) eliminate quality control processes. C) be loyal to the organization and subordinates. D) increase organizational profits solely by being a perfectionist.

53) If the CEO of a company hires his or her cousin, who lacks the required qualification, to head a division of the company, then it would be most appropriate to say that he or she is guilty of A) nepotism. B) whistle-blowing. C) felony. D) free riding.

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54) Supervisors may find it harder to be fair when they supervise their own relatives. In the context of the ethical behavior of supervisors, this situation can result from practicing A) dishonesty. B) nepotism. C) disloyalty. D) egotism.

55)

Which of the following is an appropriate example of an honest behavior?

A) A supervisor tactfully plays favorites or passes the blame for mistakes on to his or her employees. B) A supervisor makes sure that the employees get the credit when they make a brilliant suggestion. C) A supervisor is seen by others in the organization to put his or her own interests first. D) A supervisor manipulates company policies to ensure that the company’s targets are met.

56) Sheng, a new employee at Agrocan Inc., proposes an innovative supply management program to his supervisor. Which of the following is an ethical action that Sheng’s supervisor should take in this situation? A) The supervisor must ask Sheng to improve his idea in order to make it more practical. B) The supervisor should use the idea and make sure that Sheng gets the credit. C) The supervisor can use the idea as his own and compensate Sheng with monetary rewards. D) The supervisor must ignore the idea because new employees like Sheng seldom understand company processes.

57)

Making ethical decisions ideally involves

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A) settling on a solution that gives each person part of what he or she wants. B) deciding what is right and then determining how to carry it out. C) giving people incentives that cause them to act in desired ways. D) restricting whistle-blowers from exposing a company.

58) Which of the following is a way by which a supervisor can ensure his or her subordinates accept the ethical decisions made by him or her? A) asking subordinates to make their own decisions B) giving subordinates the right to offer their perspectives in making decisions C) holding subordinates responsible for poor decisions D) creating norms that restrict subordinates from conceptual thinking in decision making

59)

Discussing the ethical implications of a decision with subordinates can help a supervisor A) confront them with evidence in case the decision has inadequate effects. B) disperse the responsibility for decisions that can result in negative consequences. C) see consequences and options that he or she might not have thought of alone. D) decide which employee is good at decision making.

60) Which of the following is the last step in dealing with an employee suspected of unethical behavior? A) follow the organization’s disciplinary procedure B) confront the employee with evidence C) look for and correct the conditions that led to the problem D) gather and record evidence

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61) Carol, a supervisor at a manufacturing company, suspects Steve of stealing company resources. She observes Steve for a few days, gathers evidence, and then confronts him. Which of the following steps should be Carol’s next move? A) follow the organization’s disciplinary procedure B) look for the conditions that led to Steve’s behavior C) fix the conditions that prompted Steve to steal D) hide the issue from the top management to protect Steve

62)

Many employees are afraid to be ethical because doing so would A) cause their customers to go away. B) limit the satisfaction they get from their jobs. C) lead to their termination under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. D) cause their performance to suffer and cost them their jobs.

63)

A supervisor can most effectively promote ethical decision making by A) involving the employees in the process. B) practicing nepotism. C) giving gifts to employees. D) discouraging whistle-blowers.

64)

The act of deciding what behavior is ethical A) makes one very susceptible to grapevine communication. B) does not always end an ethical dilemma. C) makes one prone to be a victim of nepotism. D) invariably causes one’s ethical performance to suffer.

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65) Which of the following is the first step a supervisor should take when he or she suspects that an employee is behaving unethically? A) confront the employee with the evidence B) follow the organization’s disciplinary procedure C) gather and record evidence D) look for and correct the conditions that led to the problem

66) Aisha, a supervisor at Teserel Corp., suspects that one of her subordinates, Gilbert, is selling the trade secrets of Teserel Corp. to a rival company. She observes his behavior for a few weeks and carefully makes note of the data he accesses on the company’s servers. In the context of supervising unethical employees, which of the following actions should Aisha take next? A) She should initiate disciplinary proceedings against him. B) She needs to confront Gilbert with the evidence against him. C) She should look for conditions that led to his behavior and fix them. D) She needs to fix the lapses in the company’s data security procedures.

67) Kyra, a supervisor at Hercules Industries, suspects that one of her subordinates is indulging in unethical practices. She gathers the required evidence to support her case. Which of the following should be Kyra’s next step? A) confronting the concerned employee with the evidence B) ignoring the incident as it would disrupt the employee’s productivity C) immediately correcting the conditions that led to the problem D) protecting the employee in case this lapse reflects badly on her

68) Christie, the supervisor of a library, suspects Ernie, one of the librarians, of selling library books to secondhand bookshops. She watches him for the next few days and gathers the required evidence to confirm her suspicion. Then, Christie meets Ernie and discusses the situation. In the context of the course of action to be followed when an employee is suspected of unethical behavior, in which step is Christie currently involved?

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A) correcting the conditions that led to the problem B) following the organization’s procedure C) confronting the employee with the evidence D) filing a lawsuit against the employee

69)

A whistle-blower is best defined as a person who A) hires his or her own relatives. B) exposes a violation of ethics or law. C) bullies his or her subordinates. D) gives in easily to peer pressure.

70)

Whistle-blowers are protected by federal laws because A) none of the state laws offer them any protection. B) organizations may retaliate against them for the costs incurred because of them. C) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act allows employers to sue whistle-blowers for losses incurred. D) publicly speaking about a company’s misdeeds is irresponsible behavior.

71) Clayton, an accounts manager at Zonfex Corp., finds discrepancies in the company’s financial records. He finds that Zonfex Corp. is practicing unlawful accounting and eventually exposes the company in a press conference. In the context of corporate social responsibility, Clayton is a(n) A) unethical employee. B) nepotistic executive. C) corporate traitor. D) whistle-blower.

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72) Identify a true statement about the treatment of whistle-blowers who go public with their complaints. A) They are arrested for sedition under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. B) Under a Civil War–era law, they are seen as complicit in the corruption they report. C) Though they are protected under the law, they are often resented and rejected by their coworkers. D) They are forbidden from disclosing corruption in government institutions to the media.

73)

A whistle-blower typically brings ethics-related issues first to a A) government agency. B) media person. C) manager in the organization. D) rival organization.

74) Which of the following acts forbids employers from retaliating against an employee who reports possible accounting, auditing, or reporting misdeeds that deceive investors? A) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act B) the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) the USA Patriot Act D) the Federal Information Security Management Act

75)

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act A) helps in formulating codes of conduct for a company. B) is designed to protect nepotism. C) agitates whistle-blowers to sue their companies. D) forbids employers from retaliating against whistle-blowers.

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76) Zahra, a supervisor at Artworx Inc., observes two of her employees, Robert and Simone, fighting with each other over parking space. She knows that the feud has been going on for many months. Later, she is approached by Robert, who alleges that Simone has been falsifying records. As a supervisor, how should Zahra react to Robert’s allegations against Simone? A) Zahra should confront Simone with Robert’s allegations and ask her to prove her innocence. B) Zahra should fire Robert for attempting to damage Simone’s reputation over personal issues. C) Zahra should initiate disciplinary action against Simone for falsifying records. D) Zahra should firmly discourage Robert from making allegations motivated by personal disagreements.

77)

A whistle-blower typically contacts a government agency about a violation

A) as soon as he or she realizes there has been a violation. B) after he or she has quit, so that the company cannot threaten him or her with suspension or demotion. C) only after the matter has been resolved by the human resources department. D) after he or she has first brought the matter to the attention of the management and found them unresponsive.

78)

If someone complains about a genuine case of ethical violation, a supervisor should A) investigate the complaint and report what will be done. B) ignore the complaint if it does not affect the company's profits. C) immediately bring it to the attention of the media. D) advise the whistle-blower to call government agencies.

79)

A supervisor’s general attitude toward whistle-blowing should be to

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A) expose all whistle-blowers to the media. B) agree with the top management if they decide to fire a whistle-blower. C) forbid the same whistle-blower from retaliating against employees again. D) discourage reports of wrongdoing when they are motivated simply by pettiness.

80)

A supervisor should bear in mind that the typical whistle-blower is a A) troublemaker. B) person with high ideals and competence. C) vindictive person. D) person who wants to bring negative publicity to a company.

81)

Sustainability is best defined as

A) the ability of an organization to meet its present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. B) the degree to which employees adhere to an organization’s written statement of its values and rules for ethical behavior. C) the ability to understand cultural differences that helps businesspeople interpret behavior and act ethically. D) the ability of an organization to protect employees who make complaints pertaining to occupational health and environmental laws.

82) Nathan, a production manager at OCSET Inc., asks his employees to reduce wastage of raw materials. He desires to instill a habit in the employees of producing high-quality products with as few resources as possible. He thinks it will help in preserving natural resources for the coming generations. In the context of corporate social responsibility, Nathan is trying to make his company more

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A) sustainable. B) approachable. C) accountable. D) reliable.

83) Zachary, the CEO of TeleCarz Inc., desires to enhance his organization’s ability to meet its present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. In the context of corporate social responsibility, Zachary is focusing on A) sustainability. B) profitability. C) accountability. D) reliability.

84) Which of the following is most likely to be a primary objective of a sustainable organization? A) minimizing customer demand B) conserving natural resources C) maximizing the emission of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) D) maximizing energy use

85)

When organizations put in efforts to achieve sustainability, the efforts start with A) hiring people with sustainability skills. B) tracking their progress toward sustainability. C) rewarding contributions to sustainability. D) setting sustainability goals.

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86) Melanie wants to make her organization more sustainable by preserving materials and resources. Melanie must begin with A) hiring new people for her organization to achieve sustainability. B) rewarding her current employees for achieving sustainability. C) setting goals to achieve sustainability. D) tracking the progress made toward achieving sustainability.

87) Esther, the owner of a restaurant, thinks her restaurant needs to become more sustainable in its approach. She asks her employees to focus on reducing their energy use. In the context of organizations putting in efforts to achieve sustainability, this is an example of A) setting sustainability goals. B) tracking progress toward sustainability. C) rewarding contributions to sustainability. D) hiring people with sustainability skills.

88) Baron Inc. is a chemical company that aims to improve its environmental safety practices. The management decides to revise its processes of disposing the hazardous waste generated during its production procedures. In the context of steps taken toward sustainability, Baron Inc. is in the stage of A) rewarding contributions to sustainability. B) hiring people with sustainability skills. C) setting sustainability goals. D) tracking its progress toward sustainability.

89) Fullermann Corp. manufactures plastic materials. The CEO of the company realizes that the amount of waste generated must be reduced so that the company can become more environmentally friendly. The CEO introduces a company-wide strategy to minimize the generation of plastic waste and increase production efficiency. In the context of organizations putting in efforts to achieve sustainability, this is an example of

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A) rewarding contributions to sustainability. B) tracking progress toward sustainability. C) setting sustainability goals. D) hiring people with sustainability skills.

90) Stonfren Corp. manufactures leather and leather accessories. The CEO of Stonfren Corp. decides to reduce the amount of materials consumed during leather production and move the company toward more environmentally friendly practices. She decides to employ Patrick, an engineer who is very experienced in leather production processes. In the context of organizations putting in efforts to achieve sustainability, this is an example of A) setting sustainability goals. B) hiring people with sustainability skills. C) rewarding contributions to sustainability. D) tracking the progress toward sustainability.

91) When organizations put in efforts to achieve sustainability, the step that should be taken after setting sustainable goals is A) rewarding contributions to sustainability. B) hiring people with sustainability skills. C) directing people to accomplish tasks. D) tracking the progress toward sustainability.

92) Which of the following should be the last step taken by organizations that want to achieve sustainability? A) tracking their progress toward sustainability B) hiring people with sustainability skills C) setting sustainability goals D) rewarding contributions to sustainability

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93) Laura, a production manager at Neon Lights Inc., hired new people with creative skills to attain sustainability. In this scenario, the next step that Laura should take is to A) track the company's progress toward sustainability. B) teach employees how to attain sustainability. C) set sustainability goals. D) reward contributions to sustainability.

94) In the context of corporate social responsibility, minimizing energy usage is one of the goals of attaining A) sustainability. B) affordability. C) accountability. D) reliability.

95) In the context of enhancing an organization’s sustainability, business experts believe that improving sustainability increases A) responsibility. B) integrity. C) productivity. D) quality.

96) The Davis model of corporate social responsibility states that businesses have little impact on societal issues. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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97) A supervisor of a business organization must act in a way that supports the accomplishment of the mission of his or her organization, even at the cost of ignoring its social responsibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98)

A whistle-blower reports an ethical violation first to a government agency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) In an organization that is sustainable, managers make decisions aimed at balancing present needs against the needs of future generations in three areas: the economy, the environment, and society. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) A sustainable organization is less likely to have a steady supply of workers and customers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) B Version 1

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32) B 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) B 57) B 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) A Version 1

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62) D 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) B 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) A 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) C 87) A 88) C 89) C 90) B 91) B Version 1

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92) A 93) D 94) A 95) C 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) Differentiate between prejudice, discrimination, and stereotypes by defining all three and giving one example of each.

Write a note on the Americans with Disabilities Act.

What are the goals of diversity training?

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Write a note on the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

In the context of cultural diversity, the old “melting pot” model refers to

A) the process of finding the best fit between the employee and the job. B) how immigrants were expected to assimilate their culture and language into the mainstream. C) the corporate culture found in most firms today. D) how new affirmative action programs were used to correct past discrimination problems.

Diversity is defined as the

A) characteristics of individuals that shape their identities and the experiences they have in society. B) number of employees with different racial backgrounds in an organization. C) ratio of male to female employees in an organization. D) preconceived judgment about an individual or a group of people.

Which of the following statements is true of primary diversity?

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A) Primary diversity includes things that are not as often considered but that are integral to an individual’s make up. B) Marital status, military experience, and religion are some of the components of primary diversity. C) Primary diversity includes commonly thought of differences between people such as age, ethnicity, gender, characteristics, race, and sexual orientation. D) The dimensions of primary diversity are factors that an individual has some control over.

Which of the following statements is true of secondary diversity? A) Secondary diversity includes the more commonly thought of differences between

people. B) Physical abilities/characteristics, race, and sexual orientation are some of the components of secondary diversity. C) The components of secondary diversity are things that cannot be changed. D) The components of secondary diversity include education, employment history, family background, income, geographic location, marital status, military experience, and religion.

9) ________ refers to the characteristics of individuals that shape their identities and the experiences they have in society. A) Diversity B) Ethnicity C) Civility D) Bigotry

10)

________ diversity includes the more commonly thought of differences between people.

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A) Primary B) Rational C) Schematic D) Collective

11)

Which of the following is a component of secondary diversity? A) ethnicity B) age C) sexual orientation D) education

12)

Which of the following is a component of primary diversity? A) marital status B) military experience C) race D) religion

13) ________ diversity includes things that are perhaps not as often considered but are integral to an individual’s make up. A) Rational B) Secondary C) Schematic D) Collective

14)

Identify a true statement about diversity.

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A) Diversity within an organization often results in poor decision making. B) Family background and employment history are essential components of primary diversity. C) Diversity is influenced by local and international changes. D) The components of secondary diversity include race and sexual orientation.

15)

Which of the following is a recent diversity trend in the United States?

A) a decrease in the proportion of women in the workforce B) a decrease in the rate at which mothers of young children are entering the workforce C) an aging workforce, as some older workers postpone retirement to continue working D) a gradual reduction in the proportions of Asian Americans and Hispanics in the workforce

16) Which of the following statements is true of the recent diversity trends in the United States? A) The participation of women in the workforce has risen to above 50 percent. B) A survey found that few women held management-related occupations. C) The proportion of African Americans in the workforce is decreasing gradually. D) Older workers opt for early retirement, which results in more opportunities for youngsters.

17)

Workers who were born between 1946 and 1964 are typically referred to as A) baby boomers. B) traditionalists. C) Generation X workers. D) Generation Y workers.

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18) Which of the following refers to the beliefs and norms that govern organizational behavior in a firm? A) corporate agenda B) corporate governance C) corporate culture D) corporate lifestyle

19)

A preconceived judgment about an individual or group of people is known as A) ethnocentrism. B) prejudice. C) stereotyping. D) sexism.

20)

Identify a true statement about prejudice. A) It is a generalized, fixed image of other people. B) It is prohibited by law. C) It can always be easily recognized. D) It affects people’s behavior.

21)

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies prejudice?

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A) As Cathy is a working parent, her supervisor assumes that she often abuses sick day privileges. B) Lilly and Ben work for the same firm, and both perform similar tasks. However, Ben’s pay is more than that of Lilly’s. C) Erick’s manager often says, “All Americans are aggressive and loud.” D) Violet’s manager, Ted, often shows obscene pictures to her and threatens to fire her if she complains.

22) Olivia, a supervisor, recently hired workers for a new project. When creating batches for the training sessions, she grouped the younger workers in a two-day training session while she grouped the older workers in a week-long training session as she believes that the older workers require more training than the younger workers to learn the technicalities of the job. In this scenario, Olivia’s behavior reflects A) ageism. B) cynicism. C) harassment. D) victimization.

23)

Unfair or inequitable treatment of people based on prejudice is known as A) discrimination. B) egocentrism. C) stereotyping. D) nepotism.

24)

Which of the following refers to prejudice?

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A) beliefs and norms that govern organizational behavior in a firm B) a preconceived judgment about an individual or group of people C) unfair or inequitable treatment of people based on biased decisions D) a generalized, fixed image formed of other people

25)

Which of the following refers to discrimination? A) beliefs and norms that govern organizational behavior in a firm B) a preconceived judgment about an individual or group of people C) unfair or inequitable treatment of people based on prejudice D) a generalized, fixed image formed of other people

26)

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies discrimination?

A) As Cathy is a working parent, her supervisor assumes that she often abuses sick day privileges. B) Lilly and Ben work for the same firm, and both perform similar tasks. Although both are equally qualified and experienced, Ben’s pay is much higher than that of Lilly’s. C) Erick’s manager often says, “All Americans are aggressive and loud.” D) Violet’s manager, Ted, often shows obscene pictures to her and threatens to fire her if she complains.

27)

Which of the following statements is true of discrimination? A) It is defined as a generalized, fixed image of other people. B) It is not prohibited by law. C) It is based on prejudice. D) It encourages and unites employees.

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28) If a manager assumes that women cannot work with machinery and consequently denies employment to them, it can be construed as A) ageism. B) discrimination. C) harassment. D) ethnocentrism.

29) Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between prejudice and discrimination? A) Prejudice is a preconceived judgment about a group of people, whereas discrimination is an unfair treatment based on prejudice. B) Prejudice is prohibited by law, whereas discrimination is not prohibited by law. C) Prejudice refers to a generalized, fixed image of other people, whereas discrimination refers to a preconceived judgment about an individual. D) Prejudice cannot be countered or eliminated, whereas discrimination can be countered or eliminated.

30) If a supervisor assumes that a female job applicant cannot make sales calls at night, he or she is making judgments based on A) prejudice. B) norms. C) ethics. D) ageism.

31) If a supervisor assumes that an older worker is not as physically strong as a younger one, he or she is making judgments based on

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A) prejudice. B) norms. C) ethics. D) sexism.

32) If a manager assumes that people from a particular race or belonging to a certain religion are less reliable than others and consequently denies them employment, it can be construed as A) sexism. B) discrimination. C) abuse. D) bigotry.

33) Malik works as a correspondent at a news channel. He realizes that he has been rejected for the position of lead news anchor because the management was looking for a “white” male. Consequently, he resigns from the job. In this scenario, Malik’s actions are most likely a result of A) discrimination. B) individualism. C) polycentrism. D) nepotism.

34) Erick, the night supervisor at Harold’s Hamburgers, believes that Black people are unreliable and therefore avoids hiring them. In this scenario, Erick is displaying A) bigotry. B) sexism. C) nepotism. D) discrimination.

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35) Mike, a manager at a firm, assigns different tasks to his employees based on some preconceived notions he has about them. For example, he never assigns high-priority projects to females assuming that they are inefficient. In this case, Mike’s business decisions are based on A) rationality. B) prejudices. C) company policies. D) bigotry.

36)

________ are generalized, fixed images of other people. A) Slurs B) Ethnocentrisms C) Stereotypes D) Prejudices

37)

The statement “All youngsters are impulsive and careless” is an example of A) prejudice. B) discrimination. C) a stereotype. D) sexism.

38)

Which of the following statements is true of stereotypes? A) They are often intended and cannot be eliminated. B) They refer to the unfair or inequitable treatment of people, which is prohibited by

law. C) They are usually based on true or complete information. D) They occur because human beings prefer things that are familiar.

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39)

Which of the following refers to stereotypes? A) beliefs and norms that govern organizational behavior in a firm B) preconceived judgment about an individual C) unfair or inequitable treatment of people based on prejudice D) generalized, fixed images of others

40)

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies stereotyping?

41)

The statement “All Americans are loud and aggressive” is an example of A) a stereotype. B) prejudice. C) discrimination. D) nepotism.

42) Zack, a former rock musician who holds a master’s degree in economics, works as a financial advisor at Plateau Finances. Zack’s boss thinks that all rock musicians are incompetent at finance-related jobs. In this case, Zack is subjected to

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A) stereotyping. B) racism. C) nepotism. D) discrimination.

43) Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between prejudices and stereotypes? A) Prejudices refer to the unfair treatment of people based on discrimination, whereas stereotypes are preconceived judgments about a group of people. B) Prejudices are not prohibited by law, whereas stereotypes are prohibited by law. C) Prejudices are preconceived judgments about a group of people, whereas stereotypes are generalized, fixed images of other people. D) Prejudices cannot be countered or eliminated, whereas stereotypes can be countered or eliminated once recognized.

44)

Identify the statement that accurately differentiates stereotypes from discrimination.

A) Stereotypes refer to the unfair treatment of people based on prejudice, whereas discrimination is a preconceived judgment about a group of people. B) Stereotypes are prohibited by law, whereas discrimination is not prohibited by law. C) Stereotypes are generalized, fixed images of other people, whereas discrimination is the unfair or inequitable treatment of people based on prejudice. D) Stereotypes can be countered or eliminated, whereas discrimination cannot be countered or eliminated.

45)

Sexism is discrimination based on

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A) racial stereotypes. B) gender stereotypes. C) age stereotypes. D) ethnic stereotypes.

46) Richard, an experienced chef, applied for a role in a commercial for baked goods. He felt he was perfect for the role as he specialized in baking. However, he was turned down because the advertising firm felt that a woman would fit the product image of baked goods better than a man would. To which of the following was Richard subjected? A) ethnocentrism B) sexism C) ageism D) nepotism

47)

Which of the following is a form of sexism?

A) considering people from certain countries not fit for managerial positions B) assuming that a senior employee will not be able to handle an assignment that involves a great deal of traveling C) considering a woman unfit to head a business unit D) denying employment to a person with a questionable background

48) ________, or discrimination based on gender stereotypes, is a barrier to diversity that many employers have taken steps to combat and prevent. A) Ageism B) Sexism C) Ethnocentrism D) Nepotism

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49) In the context of sexism, which of the following statements is true of women in top positions in the United States? A) Women are no longer a minority in top positions. B) The number of businesses owned by women has been declining in recent decades. C) The participation of women in the workforce has dropped to 40 percent. D) Female entrepreneurs are making a strong mark on U.S. business.

50)

Asking a pregnant job applicant about child care arrangements is a form of A) ageism. B) sexism. C) nepotism. D) embolism.

51) Core Inc. is a firm where less than half of the employees are females. Veronica is one of them, and she has been a mid-level manager for several years without being able to progress. This is the case with all qualified female employees in the firm. Which of the following is most likely a reason preventing these employees from getting promoted? A) the revolving door B) the glass ceiling C) the level of threshold D) the invisible line

52) When Matilda was up for promotion, her manager stated that the role was physically demanding, and it would be hard for a woman to cope. In this case, Matilda is subjected to

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A) ethnocentrism. B) sexism. C) ageism. D) nepotism.

53)

________ is the most blatant form of sexism. A) Sexual harassment B) Transsexualism C) Gender egalitarianism D) Patriarchy

54)

Discrimination against gays or lesbians is a form of A) nepotism. B) egotism. C) sexism. D) embolism.

55)

Identify a true statement about sexism.

A) The subtle use of language, such as the word “stewardess” applied to a woman instead of the gender-neutral “flight attendant,” is a form of sexism. B) Women are always the victims and men the aggressors in all cases of sexual harassment. C) The most blatant form of sexism is transgender inequality. D) The “glass ceiling” is an organizational practice to overcome the negative effects of sexism in a workplace.

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56) In the context of ageism, which of the following statements is true of older workers in an organization? A) They receive intensive coaching and more constructive feedback than younger adults. B) They are absent from work more often than younger workers. C) They generally must look for work longer than younger adults. D) They are less costly to the company than younger workers because of their age.

57) ________ refers to a certain level of responsibility to which many qualified applicants find themselves rising to, and then no higher, despite their ability and willingness to contribute further to the goals of the firm. A) Corporate segregation B) The glass escalator C) The glass ceiling D) Corporate negligence

58) Which of the following terms best defines any unwanted sexual attentions, including language, behavior, or the display of images? A) bestiality B) sexual harassment C) adultery D) sexual abuse

59)

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies sexual harassment?

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A) As Cathy is a working parent, her supervisor assumes that she often abuses sick day privileges. B) Lilly and Ben work for the same firm, and both perform similar tasks. Although both are equally qualified and experienced, Ben’s pay is much higher than Lilly’s. C) Erick’s manager often says, “All Americans are aggressive and loud.” D) Violet’s manager, Ted, often shows obscene pictures to her and threatens to fire her if she complains.

60)

Which of the following statements is true of older workers in an organization? A) Older workers are frequently absent than young workers. B) The share of older workers in the U.S. labor force is less since World War II. C) Older workers perform less effectively than young workers. D) About three in five older workers experience age discrimination in the workplace.

61)

Which of the following depicts ageism? A) considering employees from certain countries not fit for managerial positions B) assuming that senior employees are incapable of handling long-term projects C) considering a woman unfit to head a business unit D) denying employment to a young employee with a questionable background

62)

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies ageism?

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A) As Cathy is a working parent, her supervisor assumes that she often abuses sick day privileges. B) Lilly and Ben work for the same firm, and both perform similar tasks. Though both are equally qualified and experienced, Ben’s pay is much higher than that of Lilly’s. C) Erick’s manager often says, “All Americans are aggressive and loud.” D) Fifty-five-year-old James was denied employment at a manufacturing firm because the interviewer felt that younger workers are more reliable.

63)

________ are often the underlying cause of ageism. A) Prejudices B) Stereotypes C) Norms D) Traditions

64) In the context of ageism, which of the following is true of older workers in an organization? A) They cost less because of their greater experience. B) They do not require any training. C) They add diversity of thought and approach. D) They do not take their work very seriously.

65) Generational studies are becoming increasingly common. Who among the following are the most studied generation to date? A) the Millennials B) the Baby Boomers C) the Silent Generation D) the GI Generation

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66)

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967) makes it illegal to A) allow a senior employee to retire voluntarily before the acceptable retirement age. B) fail to hire, or fire, on the basis of age. C) deny older workers training that will help them advance their careers. D) have a requirement for a bona fide occupational qualification.

67) In the context of ageism, which of the following is true of a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)? A) It enables people with disabilities to find employment. B) It is an objective characteristic required for an individual to perform a job properly. C) It prevents any age-related discrimination at work. D) It is a subjective criterion that employers use to select employees.

68)

A qualified individual with a disability is a person

A) with a disability who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of an employment position that such individual holds or desires. B) who is less physically capable than others, or has failing eyesight, which prevents him or her from performing well on the job. C) with a disability and considerable job experience who should be denied employment owing to the disability. D) who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.

69) ________ is a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity, a record of such an impairment, or being regarded as having such an impairment.

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A) Ageism B) Bigotry C) Dissonance D) Disability

70) Which of the following is one of the challenges of managing diversity in a business organization? A) the requirement of unique arrangements such as job sharing and telecommuting B) the ability to increase the attraction and retention of the best employees for a job C) the reduction of turnover and enhanced performance, which leads to greater market share D) the ability to increase morale and motivation throughout the company

71)

Identify an advantage of supervising a diverse workforce for a business organization. A) It leads to everyone thinking in a similar manner. B) It leads to the phenomenon of the “glass ceiling” effect. C) It reduces communication-related problems. D) It reduces instances of employee turnover.

72) ________, born between 1981 and 1995, tend to be optimistic and enthusiastic, and they expect that their managers will be eager to act as mentors. A) Generation Y employees B) Generation X employees C) The Millennials D) The Baby Boomers

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73) Best Inc. offers its employees a paid day off to attend a diversity training program. Which of the following will be the most likely result of this offer? A) higher morale and motivation throughout the company B) increased turnover among the employees C) enhanced opportunities for career advancement D) reduced absenteeism among the employees

74)

A company that provides diversity training to its employees is most likely to benefit from A) a more resilient workforce. B) conventional work processes. C) a bureaucratic team structure. D) centralized decision making.

75) Which of the following is often mentioned as a way to make a workplace friendlier to female employees? A) bilingual employee manuals B) flexible work arrangements C) special equipment and training D) employee loyalty programs

76) What should supervisors do to effectively communicate while managing a diverse workforce? A) They should make assumptions in communications with others. B) They must think before communicating. C) They should avoid checking for understanding as it is impractical. D) They must become an expert in other cultures.

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77) In the context of supervising a diverse workforce, which of the following is true of communication? A) Communication is one area in which supervisors can serve as particularly good role models of managing diversity constructively. B) Nonverbal communication is not as powerful in many contexts as the actual words people say. C) Body language does not differ across cultures. D) Only spoken communication offers opportunities for bridging the gaps between cultures.

78)

Which of the following statements is true of nonverbal communication? A) Nonverbal communication is the basis of communication that supervisors have with

others. B) Nonverbal communication offers many opportunities for bridging gaps between cultures. C) Nonverbal communication seldom occurs without some accompanying words. D) Nonverbal communication reflects the real complexity of any individual or foreign culture.

79) that

Expressions such as “get the nod” have more than one meaning. This emphasizes the fact

A) supervisors always make assumptions when using idioms during verbal communication. B) the complexity of English fascinates nonnative speakers of the language. C) the English language has the potential to mislead, and certain words should be used with care. D) nonverbal communication is more effective than verbal communication.

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80)

In order to build on the advantages of diversity in a work group, a supervisor should A) standardize work timings and set fixed working hours. B) communicate effectively to bridge cultural differences. C) use stereotyping when dealing with racial differences. D) form generalized, fixed images of his or her employees.

81) Which of the following is an advantage of supervising a diverse workforce, particularly for an individual supervisor? A) enhanced communication skills B) increased productivity C) increased employee turnover D) greater innovation

82)

Hiring only those people who appear to fit into a company’s corporate culture A) can lead to a staff with similar backgrounds. B) can reduce the potential for groupthink in the company. C) will result in increased vitality. D) will result in more creativity.

83) Which of the following is needed to raise employee awareness of multiculturalism and help reduce such barriers to success as prejudice and stereotypes? A) emphasis on nonverbal communication B) team-building activities C) formal diversity training D) english-speaking courses for nonnatives

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84)

Which of the following is a common goal of diversity training? A) increasing team homogeneity B) standardizing policies and procedures C) eliminating divergent thinking D) improving communications skills

85) Despite the risks of stereotypes and awkward comments, diversity training is especially important for supervisors, because A) they are responsible for making strategic decisions. B) they interact directly with employees. C) they need to improve their technical skills. D) they generally lack interpersonal skills.

86)

When is diversity least likely to contribute to a company’s goals? A) when it is overlooked by top management B) when it is built into policies and procedures that are fairly enforced C) when the goals of diversity training are continually reinforced within the corporate

culture D) when supervisors consistently set good examples in their dealings with others

87) ________ created the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, which bars discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. A) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 B) Title VII of 1964 Civil Rights Act as amended in 1972 C) Vietnam Era Veterans’ Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974 D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

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88)

Which of the following is true of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973? A) It prohibits discrimination against qualified handicapped persons. B) It recommends equal pay for men and women performing similar work. C) It bars discrimination in employment against women based on pregnancy. D) It is not applicable to jobs connected with the federal government.

89) The ________ bars unfair treatment against women in employment based on childbirth or related conditions. A) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 B) Protection of Life during Pregnancy Act 2013 C) Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 D) Title VII of 1964 Civil Rights Act

90) The ________ was instituted by Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act as amended in 1972 and consists of five members appointed by the president to serve a five-year term. A) American Association of Retired Persons B) Committee for Economic Development C) National Association of Employers D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

91)

Which of the following is true of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission?

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A) It was instituted by Title IV of the 1960 Civil Rights Act as amended in 1964. B) It consists of seven members appointed by the president to serve a six-year term. C) It acts as the state government’s major means of enforcing equal employment opportunity laws. D) It has the power to investigate complaints and use conciliation to eliminate discrimination when found.

92) The ________ requires equivalent remuneration for men and women performing similar work. A) Equal Pay Act of 1963 B) Equal Employment Act of 1973 C) Civil Rights Act of 1991 D) Gender Discrimination Act of 1990

93)

The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973

A) requires affirmative action to employ qualified handicapped persons and prohibits discrimination against them for jobs connected with the federal government. B) mandates affirmative action in employment for veterans of the Vietnam War era. C) places the burden of proof on the employer and allows for compensatory and punitive damages in discrimination cases. D) bars discrimination against those 40 years old and older because of age.

94) Which of the following Equal Employment Opportunity Legislations places the burden of proof on the employer and allows for compensatory and punitive damages in discrimination cases?

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A) the Equal Pay Act of 1963 B) the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 C) the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 D) the Civil Rights Act of 1991

95)

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

A) cannot use conciliation to eliminate discrimination when found. B) has the power to file discrimination charges on behalf of an individual if needed. C) mandates affirmative action in employment for veterans of the Vietnam War era. D) places the burden of proof on the employer and allows for compensatory and punitive damages in discrimination cases.

96)

The view today is that our diversity is our strength. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97)

The U.S. workforce is getting younger as older workers are opting to retire early. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) To help guard against discrimination, a supervisor should first know and acknowledge his or her own prejudices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99)

In all cases of sexual harassment, women have been the victims and men the aggressors.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Research indicates that while people may feel less comfortable working with others who are similar to themselves, they are actually less effective when working with those who are different. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) According to research by the Chartered Institute of Personnel and Development (CIPD), Baby Boomers prefer to learn new information using computer programs and the Internet. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

Nonverbal communication offers many opportunities for bridging gaps between cultures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

One of the problems with diversity training is the reinforcement of group stereotypes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

Generation Y workers rely on e-mail when they want a quick response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission has the power to use conciliation to eliminate discrimination when found. Version 1

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⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) A Version 1

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31) A 32) B 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) D Version 1

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61) B 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) A 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) C 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) A 87) B 88) A 89) C 90) D Version 1

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91) D 92) A 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Compare and contrast strategic planning and operational planning.

Describe the management by objectives (MBO) process.

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Describe the steps in the control process.

4) List the possible actions that supervisors take to solve process and behavioral problems in an organization.

Define the term “controlling.” List the three different forms of controlling.

6) ________ is the management function of setting goals and determining how to meet them. A) Organizing B) Controlling C) Planning D) Evaluating

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________ are objectives with a broad focus. A) Goals B) Norms C) Requirements D) Targets

Which of the following statements is true of planning?

A) Time spent in planning a project increases the time required in executing the project. B) Planning should begin at the top of the organization, with a plan for the organization as a whole. C) Expensive software packages are required for supervisors to plan projects efficiently. D) Planning helps supervisors search for problems underlying an employee’s poor performance.

9) Which of the following is the management function upon which all the other functions depend? A) staffing B) controlling C) planning D) organizing

10) of it.

________ specify the desired accomplishments of an organization as a whole or of a part

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A) Traditions B) Objectives C) Codes of ethics D) Norms

11)

Strategic planning is best defined as the process of A) creating long-term goals for the organization as a whole. B) developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational

goals. C) planning what to do if the original plans or objectives set by an organization do not work out. D) accurately linking operational planning with financial planning.

12) Fusion Inc., a clothing manufacturer, has recently become very successful in terms of total revenue. The top management is now planning to venture into the confectionary business and earn similar profits in this new business. This is an example of ________ planning. A) operational B) strategic C) contingency D) integrated operational

13)

Operational planning is best defined as the process of A) creating long-term goals for the organization or company as a whole. B) developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational

goals. C) planning what to do if the original plans or objectives set by an organization do not work out. D) accurately linking operational planning with financial planning.

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14)

Differentiate between operational plans and strategic plans.

A) Operational plans are made by top managers, while strategic plans are made by middle managers and supervisors. B) Operational plans are more specific and focus on a shorter time frame, while strategic plans focus on long-term goals for the organization. C) Operational plans develop objectives for the organization as a whole, while strategic plans develop objectives for a division, department, or work group. D) Operational plans specify the quality of goods or services the organization is to provide, while strategic plans specify how to achieve organizational goals.

15)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of strategic planning?

A) It is typically performed by middle managers and supervisors. B) It lays down objectives for specific departments and not for the entire firm. C) It covers a large time span, which is usually over a year. D) It is primarily aimed at making employees focus on their role in supporting the company’s goals.

16)

Operational planning is performed by the A) top management and the board of directors. B) top and the middle management. C) middle management and the supervisors. D) supervisors and the board of directors.

17) Robert, a supervisor at a clothing company, is responsible for the women’s clothing department of Wonder Clothing Inc. He meets with his manager to discuss and develop objectives for the resources he is in charge of. He creates short-term goals that the team needs to achieve within the next 10 months. In this scenario, Robert is engaging in

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A) parallel planning. B) strategic planning. C) operational planning. D) contingency planning.

18)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of operational planning?

A) Operational planning is ideally done by the CEO and other top managers. B) The scope of operational planning includes stating objectives for the organization as a whole. C) Typically, operational planning is done when the original plan fails to materialize. D) Operational planning is usually short-term, with a time frame of one year or less.

19) In the context of planning in organizations, making objectives ________ means indicating who is to do what and by what time to accomplish the objective. A) observable B) specific C) measurable D) challenging

20)

For objectives to be effective, they should be A) written, measurable, clear, specific, and challenging but achievable. B) simple, distinctive, rational, assessable, and easily achievable. C) specific, acceptable, generalizable, innovative, and extremely challenging. D) unique, understandable, logical, observable, and simple yet significant.

21)

Which of the following statements accurately describes policies?

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A) They are broad guidelines for how to act. B) They are principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. C) They are specific statements of what to do or not to do in a given situation. D) They record the activities performed by employees.

22)

Procedures are best defined as A) the principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. B) the steps that must be completed to achieve a specific purpose. C) specific statements of what to do or not to do in a given situation. D) objectives with a narrow focus.

23) At Value Inc., there are specific steps to be followed when applying for a day off. First, an employee has to apply to his or her immediate supervisors. After getting their approval, he or she has to get it signed by the branch manager. Then, a copy of the leave application has to be submitted to the HR department. These mandatory steps are referred to as A) policies. B) ethics. C) procedures. D) goals.

24)

Identify a true statement about procedures in an organization.

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A) They are broad guidelines for how to deal with stress and are flexible and open to interpretation. B) They free managers and employees from making decisions about activities they carry out repeatedly. C) They are the plans to review all objectives, looking for areas where something might go wrong. D) They are specific statements of what to do or not do in a given situation in an organization.

25)

Rules are best defined as A) the principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. B) the steps that must be completed to achieve a specific purpose. C) specific statements of what to do or not to do in a given situation. D) objectives with a narrow focus.

26)

The difference between a policy and a rule is that

A) a policy is rigid, but a rule is comparatively flexible. B) a policy does not specify details of how to handle a specific situation, but a rule is very specific. C) a policy is related to operational planning and has a narrower scope compared to a rule. D) a policy is not open to interpretation like a rule.

27)

An organization’s ________ determine what its employees should be striving toward. A) clients B) profits C) goals D) standards

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28) At Ecstasy Cafe, it is mandatory for employees to wash their hands before handling food. This is an appropriate example of a A) plan. B) rule. C) code. D) procedure.

29)

An action plan is best defined as the plan A) for how to achieve an objective. B) that is a backup for the original plan. C) that is specifically concerned with the formulation of a budget. D) for setting a mission statement.

30)

Which of the following refers to contingency planning? A) planning that is specifically concerned with the formulation of a company’s budget B) planning that is concerned with what to do if the original plans do not work out C) planning that is primarily concerned with setting a mission statement D) planning that is primarily concerned with dealing effectively with whistle-blowers

31)

Identify a true statement about contingency planning.

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A) It is more efficient and effective to create a written contingency plan for every detail of operations than to memorize it. B) The supervisor creates a contingency plan by answering the questions what, who, when, where, and how. C) One useful technique for contingency planning is to review all objectives, looking for areas where something might go wrong. D) Contingency plans are the original plans developed by top managers for the organization as a whole.

32)

Which of the following is true of action plans? A) They are the original plans developed by top managers for the organization as a

whole. B) They are created by answering the questions what, who, when, where, and how. C) They are plans implemented when the original plans do not work out. D) They cannot be used as a tool to meet desired organizational objectives.

33) If objectives are thought of as statements of where one wants to go, then a(n) ________ plan is a map that tells them how to get there. A) operational B) strategic C) contingency D) action

34) ________ is a process in which managers and employees at all levels set objectives for what they are to accomplish.

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A) Objectives management B) Strategic objectives managing C) Program evaluation and review technique D) Management by objectives

35)

For the effective use of management by objectives, A) managers at all levels must be committed to the system. B) the objectives set should be general and immeasurable. C) employees should be excluded from the process. D) goals must be set solely by top management.

36)

Why do some people dislike management by objectives?

A) It is not possible for managers to periodically review an individual's performance to see whether he or she is meeting the objectives. B) Employees do not benefit from a system of rewards that is based on personality rather than on performance. C) Setting and monitoring the achievement of objectives can be time-consuming and requires a lot of paperwork. D) When employees are involved in the process of setting goals, it results in limited commitment toward achieving those goals.

37)

Identify a true statement about management by objectives (MBO).

A) The performances of managers and employees are measured against the objectives. B) Managers dictate the objectives to employees. C) Senior-level managers in the organization work with the board of directors to set the objectives. D) Setting and monitoring the achievement of the objectives does not require paperwork.

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38)

A(n) ________ is defined as a plan for spending money. A) budget B) contingency plan C) schedule D) action plan

39) In the context of budgeting, big-ticket items such as machinery or a new building would most likely be part of a(n) ________ budget. A) central B) capital C) divisional D) operating

40)

Which of the following is most likely to be included as part of an operating budget? A) insurance B) a new plant C) a new building D) machinery

41)

Which of the following best defines budgeting in organizations? A) It is the process of allocating money resources. B) It is the process of formulating an agenda. C) It is the process of allocating equipment resources. D) It is the process of allocating human resources.

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42) Fred, a supervisor at JK Inc., is drafting a report on his department's estimated expenses for the coming fiscal year and the precise allocation of available capital to areas such as rent, employee wages, and insurance. Fred is most likely formulating a(n) A) strategic plan. B) contingency plan. C) strategic budget. D) operating budget.

43)

Which of the following is most likely to be included as part of a capital budget? A) the amount to be spent on wages B) the amount to be spent on rent C) the amount to be spent on insurance D) the amount to be spent on heavy machinery

44) In the context of a supervisor's role as a planner, setting a precise timetable for the work to be done is known as A) scheduling. B) capital budgeting. C) strategic planning. D) evaluating.

45) ________ includes deciding which activities will take priority over others and deciding who will do what tasks and when.

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A) Budgeting B) Allocating C) Scheduling D) Controlling

46)

Two of the most widely used techniques for scheduling are A) Supnick matrix and flow network. B) Gantt charts and PERT networks. C) directed graphs and matrices. D) graph algorithms and spectral layout.

47) A ________ is a scheduling tool that lists the activities to be completed and uses horizontal bars to graph how long each activity will take, including its starting and ending dates. A) scatter graph B) run chart C) stem plot D) Gantt chart

48) A scheduling tool that most efficiently identifies the relationships among tasks as well as the amount of time each task will take is called a A) Gantt chart. B) program evaluation and review technique (PERT). C) planar map. D) run chart.

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49) In the context of the program evaluation and review technique (PERT), the sequence of tasks that requires the greatest amount of time is referred to as the A) precautionary principle. B) exception principle. C) exaggerated agenda. D) critical path.

50) In the program evaluation and review technique (PERT), a delay in ________ will cause the entire project to fall behind. A) the critical path B) the network C) the action plan D) concurrent control

51) What should supervisors do to ensure that employees understand objectives and consider them achievable? A) Supervisors should involve the employees in the goal-setting process. B) Supervisors should involve the top managers in the goal-setting process. C) The objectives should be more specific at higher levels of the organization. D) The objectives should be less challenging to stimulate employees to do their best.

52)

“Controlling” is best defined as the

A) scheduling tool that identifies the relationships among tasks as well as the amount of time each task will take. B) management function of making sure that work goes according to plan. C) process of planning what to do if the original plans do not work out. D) process of developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational goals.

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53)

________ is at the heart of the control function. A) Implementation of plans B) Detection of problems C) Elimination of errors D) Allocation of resources

54)

Which of the following is the first step in the process of controlling? A) monitoring actual performance against set targets B) establishing performance standards C) estimating the fund required for efficient productivity D) providing feedback based on performance

55)

Which of the following is the final step in the control process?

A) Supervisors monitor actual performance and compare it with the standards. B) Supervisors respond, either by reinforcing success or by making some adjustment to bring performance and the standards into line. C) Supervisors meet with their employees to discuss the year’s goals and ways the work unit should contribute to meet the goals. D) Supervisors establish performance standards, which are measures of what is expected.

56)

In the context of the process of controlling, “standards” are best defined as A) measures of what is expected. B) principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. C) results of performance evaluation. D) objectives with a comparatively narrow focus.

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57)

To be effective, performance standards should be A) orally stated. B) easy rather than challenging. C) general rather than specific. D) measurable.

58)

In the control process, ________ define the acceptable quantity and quality of work. A) standards B) controls C) rules D) policies

59)

In the control process, supervisors set performance standards based on their A) employees’ expectations. B) beliefs and values. C) personal goals. D) work experience.

60)

When setting performance standards, a supervisor must avoid A) communicating performance standards to employees. B) being a slave to the past. C) having very specific standards. D) apparent and achievable standards.

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61)

Which of the following steps is the core of the control process? A) monitoring performance B) setting standards C) communicating performance standards D) providing feedback

62) When monitoring performance, supervisors should focus on how actual performance compares with the standards they have set. Two concepts useful for maintaining this focus are A) Gantt charts and operational planning. B) variance and the exception principle. C) standards and performance reports. D) feedback control and the parity principle.

63) Which of the following refers to the size of the difference between actual performance and a performance standard in a control system? A) true error B) grade frequency C) variance D) skewness

64) The control principle stating that a supervisor should take action only when the variance is meaningful is most accurately referred to as the A) exception principle. B) scalar principle. C) Peter principle. D) reinforcement principle.

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65)

Which of the following is true of the exception principle?

A) The exception principle is beneficial when it helps supervisors manage their time wisely and motivate employees. B) According to the exception principle, supervisors should take action only when variance is measurable. C) The exception principle is applied by top managers during strategic planning when they set objectives for an organization as a whole. D) According to the exception principle, supervisors should avoid comparing actual performance with standards set by them.

66)

Encouragement of a behavior by associating it with a reward is known as A) the exception principle. B) feedback control. C) reinforcement. D) empowerment.

67) ________ involves the presentation of something pleasant after a desired behavior has occurred. A) Laissez-faire B) Positive reinforcement C) Empowerment D) Affirmative feedback

68)

Which of the following statements is true of reinforcement?

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A) Reinforcement is the practice of moving employees from job to job to give them more variety. B) When supervisors reward employees with monetary bonuses, they are negatively reinforcing the employees’ behavior. C) Reinforcement that involves praising employees for good work motivates and inspires them to repeat the behavior. D) When supervisors constantly nag employees and push them to perform better, they are using positive reinforcement.

69) Removal of something unpleasant after a desired behavior has occurred is most accurately referred to as A) positive reinforcement. B) negative reinforcement. C) self-evaluation. D) team evaluation.

70)

In the context of controlling, “symptoms” are best defined as A) measures of what is expected. B) the principles by which people distinguish what is morally right. C) the results of performance evaluation. D) indications of an underlying problem.

71) In the context of controlling, a factor in an organization that is a barrier to improvement is known as a A) symptom. B) threat. C) variance. D) problem.

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72)

The best response to problems related to standards is to make the performance standard A) less challenging. B) less observable. C) more appropriate. D) more general.

73)

The information gained from the control process is beneficial only if supervisors A) develop work standards that are not challenging and specific. B) use it as the basis for reinforcing or changing behavior. C) use it to monitor performance before establishing standards. D) uncover problems as soon as customers and management discover them.

74)

Which of the following statements is true of the control process?

A) Once performance standards are in place, the supervisor can begin the core of the control process: fixing problems. B) The information gained from the control process is beneficial even if supervisors do not use it as the basis for reinforcing behavior. C) In a control system, “variance” refers to a factor in the organization that is a barrier to improvement. D) If the control system is working properly, the supervisor should be uncovering problems before customers and management discover them.

75)

What are the three types of control?

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A) negative, positive, and neutral control B) precontrol, postcontrol, and parallel control C) strategic, operational, and tactical control D) feedback, concurrent, and precontrol

76)

Control that focuses on past performance is referred to as ________ control. A) feedback B) concurrent C) positive D) negative

77)

Control that occurs while the work takes place is referred to as ________ control. A) feedback B) concurrent C) positive D) negative

78)

Statistical process control is a technique for A) precontrol. B) concurrent control. C) feedback control. D) negative control.

79) ________ refers to efforts aimed at preventing behavior that may lead to undesirable results.

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A) Precontrol B) Feedback control C) Concurrent control D) Negative control

80) ________ is one of the functions of the management philosophy known as “total quality management.” A) Precontrol B) Feedback control C) Concurrent control D) Negative control

81)

Which of the following exemplifies feedback control?

A) a cafe supervisor greeting customers at their tables B) a supervisor reviewing customer comments about service C) a production supervisor providing employees with guidelines about the detection of improperly functioning machinery D) a restaurant manager visiting the kitchen to see how work is progressing

82)

Which of the following exemplifies concurrent control?

A) a cafe supervisor trying to change employee behavior based on customer feedback B) a supervisor reviewing customer comments about service C) a production supervisor providing employees with guidelines about the detection of improperly functioning machinery D) a restaurant manager visiting the kitchen to see how work is progressing

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83)

Which of the following exemplifies precontrol?

A) a cafe supervisor greeting customers at their tables B) a supervisor reviewing customer comments about service and trying to change employee behavior based on customer feedback C) a production supervisor providing employees with guidelines about the detection of improperly functioning machinery D) a restaurant manager visiting the kitchen to see how work is progressing

84) Jake, the restaurant manager at Tulips le Beignet, greets his customers at their tables, visits the kitchen to see how work is progressing, and makes the effort to fix any issues as soon as they occur. Which of the following types of control does Jake use in this scenario? A) feedback control B) precontrol C) statistical quality control D) concurrent control

85) ________ are an invaluable tool with which supervisors can closely monitor and control the progress and performance of a project. A) Gantt charts B) Histograms C) Bar diagrams D) Line graphs

86)

In controlling, a ________ is useful as a kind of performance standard. A) budget B) policy C) procedure D) rule

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87) a

A summary of performance and comparison with performance standards is referred to as

A) performance pattern. B) performance report. C) performance synopsis. D) performance record.

88)

Identify a true statement about performance reports in organizations.

A) Few supervisors both prepare and request performance reports. B) Supervisors hide performance problems in these reports to convince managers that the group needs more resources or training. C) A performance report does not compare performance with performance standards. D) Supervisors should highlight and explain any variances from performance standards in these reports.

89) In the context of tools for control, ________ can help supervisors understand the activities behind the numbers in performance reports. A) personal observation B) positive reinforcement C) the precontrol technique D) program evaluation

90)

Which of the following is true of the tools for control?

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A) Budgets and reports are rarely used control tools in most organizations. B) Supervisors should ensure that performance reports are elaborate and convoluted. C) The inability to control through personal observation is a challenge of supervising employees who work at home. D) Personal observations cannot help supervisors understand the activities behind the numbers in reports.

91)

The tools for control include A) budgets, performance reports, and personal observation. B) feedback control, concurrent control, and precontrol. C) positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and standards. D) management by objectives, policies, and procedures.

92) Allowing a supervisor to occasionally ignore a variance if it is in the best interests of the company is an example of a control that is A) flexible. B) economical. C) even. D) concurrent.

93) In the context of the characteristics of effective controls, the controls should be ________, enabling supervisors to correct problems quickly enough to improve results. A) timely B) acceptable C) economical D) flexible

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94)

Effective controls are those that are A) written, clear, measurable, and specific. B) timely, economical, acceptable, and flexible. C) simple, observable, adaptable, and precise. D) rigid, quantifiable, accessible, and central.

95) The cost of using the controls should be less than the benefit derived from using them. This means that effective controls should be A) flexible. B) acceptable. C) economical. D) timely.

96)

Identify a characteristic of effective controls in organizations.

A) The controls should be acceptable to supervisors and employees. B) Employees need no controls on the areas over which they themselves have some control. C) To be effective, the cost of using the controls should be more than the benefit derived from using them. D) The supervisor should not tolerate variance even if doing so is in the best interests of the organization.

97) Which characteristic of effective controls is important mainly because of incompatible performance measures?

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A) cost effectiveness B) acceptability C) timeliness D) flexibility

98)

Which of the following is true in the context of the characteristics of effective controls?

A) For effective controls, the cost of using the controls should be more than the benefit derived from using them. B) Supervisors and employees want controls that unduly infringe on their privacy. C) An effective control system is one that helps the supervisor direct his or her efforts toward spotting significant problems. D) Normally, a supervisor is not expected to use the control system higher-level managers have established.

99) Supervisors should set easy and simple objectives for employees so that they are able to achieve those objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Rules are flexible and are open to interpretation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) In the management by objectives (MBO) system, the top management alone sets the objectives for each employee in the company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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102) Operational objectives become more specific at higher levels of the organization, and planning tends to focus on longer time spans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) A problem underlying significant variance is that the performance standard is too low or too high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) In all the three types of controlling methods, the controlling process begins only when employees’ work is complete. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) C Version 1

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32) B 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) B 54) B 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) A Version 1

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62) B 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) D 72) C 73) B 74) D 75) D 76) A 77) B 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) C 84) D 85) A 86) A 87) B 88) D 89) A 90) C 91) A Version 1

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92) A 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) D 98) C 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE Student name:__________ 1) What is a learning organization? How does a learning organization influence its employees?

2) List the key elements of job descriptions as stated by the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA).

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Differentiate between centralized and decentralized authority.

Identify the steps in the process of organizing.

Explain the parity principle.

Give three benefits of delegating.

Organizing is best defined as the management function of

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A) determining how to achieve set objectives. B) setting the goals and objectives of a company. C) setting up a group, allocating resources, and assigning work to achieve goals. D) influencing people to act or not act in a certain way.

Name the standard way used by businesspeople to draw the structure of an organization. A) an organization chart B) a corporate portfolio C) a Gantt chart D) an organization network

A(n) ________ provides a visual representation of the overall structure of a company. A) organization chart B) corporate portfolio C) Gantt chart D) PERT network

10)

Which of the following is true of organization charts? A) Positions at the top of the charts are those with the least authority. B) Boxes in the charts represent the various positions or departments in an organization. C) Lines in the charts indicate who reports to whom within an organization. D) The bottom of the charts usually shows the mid-level managers and supervisors.

11)

In comparison to flat organizations, tall organizations

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A) have a large number of levels in the management hierarchy. B) are more flexible and responsive to customers’ needs. C) provide employees greater autonomy and responsibility. D) encourage employees to work together to solve organization issues.

12) In the context of organization charts, organizations with little height are usually called ________ organizations. A) rigid B) short C) small D) flat

13)

The positions at the top of an organization chart are those with the A) highest workload and commitment. B) least responsibility and experience. C) most authority and responsibility. D) least efficiency and productivity.

14) The number of levels in an organization from top management down to the operative employees describes the ________ of the organization. A) efficiency level B) breadth C) height D) scope

15)

Identify a true statement about a flat organization.

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A) This type of organization maintains flexibility in organizational structure by contracting with other organizations to complete projects. B) It is an organizational structure in which the boundaries between jobs continually shift. C) It is well-suited to centralized decision by top management. D) It is more flexible and responsive to customers than a tall organization.

16)

Which of the following is true of organizations with little height? A) They are more productive than tall organizations. B) Only a few people report to each manager. C) Employees have a lot of decision-making authority. D) They are not very flexible or responsive to customers.

17)

When does a flat organization offer advantages? A) when employees can handle responsibilities B) when customer satisfaction is less important C) when employees perform dissimilar functions D) when the organization is highly decentralized

18)

Which of the following is a benefit of understanding an organization chart?

A) It enables supervisors to identify the relationships among tasks as well as the amount of time each task will take. B) It enables supervisors to determine who needs training and what plans to implement. C) It enables supervisors to see a variety of responsibilities held by others at their level in the organization. D) It enables supervisors to closely monitor the task performance of employees.

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19)

A department is best defined as a A) unique group of resources that management has assigned to carry out a particular

task. B) group of employees upon whom the decision-making authority resides. C) group that is formed among employees of an organization who have similar interests. D) subgroup that is formed when members in formal groups feel uncomfortable with the way they are expected to behave.

20)

Departmentalization refers to A) setting up divisions in an organization. B) categorizing employees based on their qualifications. C) creating a hierarchy of different levels in an organization. D) standardizing procedures for all departments.

21)

Which of the following best describes a functional structure?

A) It is an organizational structure where boundaries between jobs continually shift, and people pitch in wherever their contributions are needed. B) It is an organizational structure where work and resources are assigned to departments responsible for all the activities related to producing and delivering a particular product. C) It is an organizational structure where an organization is departmentalized according to the type of customer served. D) It is an organizational structure where personnel and other resources are grouped according to the types of work they carry out.

22) A company with a ________ structure has an organization chart that reflects its grouping of personnel and resources according to the work that it does.

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A) product B) geographic C) functional D) customer

23)

Identify a true statement about a functional structure in an organization.

A) It results when an organization is departmentalized according to the location of the customers served. B) It is well-suited for dynamic environments where decisions must be made quickly and products or services customized. C) It is well-suited to centralized decision making and efficiency through economies of scale and specialization. D) It departmentalizes an organization according to the type of customers served.

24) An organization chart of a company with a product structure reflects its grouping of personnel and resources according to the A) services it provides. B) work that it does. C) type of customer served. D) location of the customers served.

25)

Which of the following best describes a product structure?

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A) It is an organizational structure where boundaries between jobs continually shift, and people pitch in wherever their contributions are needed. B) It is an organizational structure where work and resources are assigned to departments responsible for all the activities related to producing and delivering a particular good or service. C) It is an organizational structure where an organization is departmentalized according to the type of customer served. D) It is an organizational structure where personnel and other resources are grouped according to the types of work they carry out.

26) A ________ structure results when an organization is departmentalized according to the location of the customers served or the goods or services produced. A) functional B) geographic C) customer D) product

27) Vite Finance Inc. is an insurance company with its headquarters in Texas. It caters to 17 sales territories in the United States. To improve customer satisfaction, it established a department for each sales territory. Which of the following structures is best exemplified in this scenario? A) functional structure B) geographic structure C) customer structure D) product structure

28) Which of the following organization structures departmentalizes the organization according to the type of client served?

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A) functional structure B) product structure C) customer structure D) geographic structure

29) A national grocery chain is divided into well-demarcated groups such as the Northeastern division, the Northwestern division, the Southeastern division, and the Southwestern division. These divisions have been set up based on the location of large groups of customers the company serves. In the context of departmentalization, this company is most likely using a(n) A) geographic structure. B) customer structure. C) product structure. D) organic structure.

30) At ATA Speakers Inc., operations are departmentalized under the following sections— home speakers, automobile speakers, and commercial speakers. Tasks and resources are allocated to these departments for producing and delivering their respective type of speakers. In the context of departmentalization, this company is most likely using a(n) A) organic structure. B) combination structure. C) geographic structure. D) product structure.

31)

Which of the following best describes an organic structure?

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A) It is an organizational structure where boundaries between jobs continually shift and people pitch in wherever their contributions are needed. B) It is an organizational structure where work and resources are assigned to departments responsible for all the activities related to producing and delivering a particular product. C) It is an organizational structure where an organization is departmentalized according to the type of customer served. D) It is an organizational structure where the departmentalization is done by combining both product and geographical structures.

32) The management at Pine Inc. reduces the size of the company’s workforce in order to become more flexible. For specific project requirements, it arranges alliances. In this case, Pine Inc. is an example of a(n) ________ organization. A) centralized B) bureaucratic C) network D) organic

33) An organizational structure in which the boundaries between jobs continually shift and people pitch in wherever their contributions are needed is known as a(n) ________ structure. A) functional B) geographic C) customer D) organic

34)

According to research, a top challenge of the organic structure is that

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A) employees may become confused about the details of their roles and responsibilities. B) an inflexible structure is rarely suitable for a very small organization. C) rigid boundaries between jobs make it difficult for employees to contribute. D) it is not well-suited for dynamic environments where decisions must be made quickly.

35) What involves giving a small team or group within a company the resources to develop new ideas and new ventures without leaving the parent organization? A) joint ventures B) intrapreneurships C) strategic alliances D) subsidiaries

36) Organizations that maintain flexibility by staying small and contracting with other individuals and organizations as needed to complete projects are referred to as ________ organizations. A) learning B) bureaucratic C) network D) centralized

37) ________ is a process in which companies move departments from headquarters to cheaper overseas locations. A) Offshoring B) Diversifying C) Departmentalizing D) Subsidizing

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38) An organization that does well in creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge and in modifying behavior to reflect new knowledge is referred to as a ________ organization. A) virtual B) centralized C) network D) learning

39)

Learning organizations

A) encourage employees to share their ideas and solve problems together. B) encourage employees to stick to the conventional methods of problem solving. C) focus on employee productivity rather than seeing opportunities for skill development. D) micromanage employees’ work instead of allowing experiential learning.

40) ________, when clearly defined, allow those within the various organizational departments and positions to know exactly what are an individual’s responsibilities. A) Organizational charts B) Job descriptions C) Corporate portfolios D) Job postings

41) According to the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA), the process of writing a job description usually begins with

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A) an analysis of the important facts about a job. B) asking employees to fill questionnaires about their job preferences. C) determining the job vacancies in an organization. D) a process known as job enrichment.

42) According to the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA), an analysis of the important facts about a job is most likely to include A) skills gained by performing the job. B) personality characteristics of the job holder. C) employees’ attitudes toward the job. D) qualifications needed for the job.

43) According to the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA), an analysis of the important facts about a job is least likely to include A) the relationship of the job to other jobs. B) individual tasks involved. C) employees’ attitudes toward the job. D) qualifications needed for the job.

44) According to the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA), a job description typically includes a A) detailed description of the tools used to perform the job. B) summary of the general nature and level of the job. C) list of personality traits suitable for performing the job. D) list of names of employees responsible for performing the job.

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45)

Which of the following is least likely to be included in job descriptions? A) a job title B) a job objective C) a job responsibility D) a job posting

46) Which of the following elements of job descriptions is key to ensuring that each person’s part in a company’s organizational structure is understood? A) a summary of the general nature and level of the job B) a description of the relationships and roles within the company C) key functional and relational responsibilities in order of significance D) a description of the broad function and scope of the position

47)

A good job description should accurately define the needs of the A) company. B) employees. C) industry. D) customers.

48)

Authority is best defined as the A) obligation to steer clear of nepotism. B) right to perform a task or give orders to someone else. C) obligation to perform assigned activities. D) ability to prevent instances of whistle-blowing.

49)

The basic type of authority in organizations is ________ authority.

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A) functional B) centralized C) line D) staff

50) The right to carry out tasks and give orders related to an organization’s primary purpose is called A) centralized authority. B) functional authority. C) staff authority. D) line authority.

51)

________ authority is the right to advise or assist those with line authority. A) Functional B) Centralized C) Decentralized D) Staff

52)

The difference between line authority and staff authority is that staff authority A) is the right to advise or assist those with line authority. B) is the right to advise or assist those with functional authority. C) gives one the right to fire employees with line authority. D) gives one the right to fire employees with functional authority.

53)

Functional authority is best defined as the right given by higher management to

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A) specific middle managers to recruit and dismiss line managers. B) specific staff personnel to give orders concerning an area in which the staff personnel have expertise. C) carry out tasks and give orders related to an organization’s primary purpose. D) advise or assist those with line authority.

54) Peter is the human resource manager of Voir Power Company, which manufactures rotors for alternators. He has the authority to ensure that all departments in the company adhere to the United States labor laws and ensure fair employment practices. Identify the authority that Peter has in this scenario. A) decentralized authority B) line authority C) functional authority D) centralized authority

55)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of centralized organizations? A) Management grants absolute authority to middle managers. B) Managers at the top retain a great deal of authority. C) Employees at all levels are involved in strategic decision making. D) Employees at all levels are granted much authority.

56)

Which of the following is true of decentralized organizations? A) Management grants much authority to supervisors. B) Top managers retain all the authority. C) All decisions are made by the top management. D) Line authority does not exist.

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57)

Which of the following is true of centralized and decentralized authority?

A) Organizations that share relatively little authority are said to be decentralized, and those that share a lot of authority are said to be centralized. B) Most organizations either tend to have a completely centralized or a completely decentralized authority depending on the type of organizational structure. C) Supervisors who know whether their employer has a centralized or decentralized structure understand how much authority they can expect to have. D) An organization cannot make changes in the degree to which it decentralizes or centralizes authority depending on its strategic plan and goals.

58)

Power is best defined as the A) obligation to perform assigned activities. B) duty to advise or assist those with line authority. C) ability to get others to act in a certain way. D) duty to advise or assist those with functional authority.

59)

________ is the obligation to perform assigned activities. A) Responsibility B) Power C) Authority D) Control

60) Employees who accept responsibility may be rewarded for doing a good job, and those who do not may be punished. This practice is called

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A) controllability. B) accountability. C) empowerment. D) reinforcement.

61) Mathew, a supervisor with Home Security Systems, supervises the installation of security systems for residential buildings. He assigns the duty of installing surveillance cameras for Downhill Residential Society to his juniors in the company. This transferring of responsibility is called A) job sharing. B) controlling. C) delegating. D) cross-training.

62) Sheena, a supervisor, decides to organize a company softball team to play against other companies in the city. She starts by laying down the purpose of the team. In this list, she includes improvement of the team’s morale, physical exercise, and most importantly, having fun. Which of the following steps in the organizing process is Sheena concentrating on at present? A) grouping activities B) defining objectives C) assigning duties D) determining resources

63)

Which of the following is the first step in the process of organizing? A) defining the objective B) determining the needed resources C) grouping activities D) assigning duties

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64)

In the process of organizing, the step followed by defining the objectives is A) deciding what tasks to delegate. B) creating an obligation. C) grouping activities. D) determining the needed resources.

65)

The last step of the organizing process typically involves a supervisor A) grouping activities and assigning work to the appropriate employees. B) defining objectives by reviewing a plan. C) estimating personnel, equipment, and the money needed. D) measuring the performance of a group.

66)

Which of the following is true of the process of organizing?

A) The process of organizing is a seven-step approach that leads to a structure that supports the goals of an organization. B) To ensure that all the necessary responsibilities are assigned, a supervisor can involve employees in grouping activities and assigning duties. C) In the second step of the organizing process, a supervisor groups the necessary activities and assigns work to the appropriate employees. D) A supervisor or other manager should begin the process of organizing by identifying which resources are needed for the particular areas being organized.

67)

Which of the following is one of the principles of organizing?

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A) the exception principle B) the equity principle C) the parity principle D) the uncertainty principle

68)

The parity principle states that A) supervisors should take action only when variance is meaningful. B) personnel must have equal amounts of authority and responsibility. C) supervisors must refrain from delegating administrative duties to employees. D) each employee should receive directions only from his or her supervisor.

69) According to the ________ principle, when someone accepts a responsibility, he or she also needs enough authority to be able to carry out that responsibility. A) uniformity B) parity C) equity D) reactivity

70) Which of the following is true according to the principle of unity of command in an organization? A) A supervisor’s manager should direct the employees who report to the supervisor. B) A supervisor should take action only when variance is meaningful. C) Power should be concentrated only at the hands of supervisors. D) Each employee should have only one supervisor.

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71) According to the principle of ________, employees who receive orders from several people tend to get confused and aggravated. A) unity of command B) span of control C) chain of command D) level of control

72) In the context of principles of organizing, ________ helps to eliminate factors within organization structure like complexity and confusion in the workplace. A) the exception principle B) unity of command C) level of control D) the association principle

73) John is an AutoCAD designer with MotoCorp Ltd. He reports to the research and development manager as well as the operations manager of his company. He often receives conflicting directions from both these departments, which severely impact his productivity as he must redo machine designs every time. Which of the following principles is violated in this scenario? A) the parity principle B) the principle of chain of command C) the principle of unity of command D) the controlling principle

74) Which of the following principles states that authority flows from one level of management to the next, from the top of an organization to the bottom?

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A) the principle of chain of command B) the principle of span of control C) the principle of unity of command D) the parity principle

75) In the context of principles of organizing, ________ helps to clarify issues like who should be giving direction in an organization and who should be taking it. A) the parity principle B) chain of command C) level of control D) the equity principle

76)

Which of the following is true of unity of command?

A) It holds that every employee should report to more than one supervisor. B) It strictly holds that all decision-making authority should rest with the supervisor. C) It allows supervisors to be more flexible as they command different teams at regular intervals. D) It helps to eliminate factors within organization structure like complexity and confusion in the workplace.

77)

Span of control is the A) number of people a manager supervises. B) principle that personnel must have equal amounts of authority and responsibility. C) ability to get others to act in a certain way. D) authority that flows from one level of management to the next.

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78)

Identify a true statement about span of control.

A) The less time managers spend on coordination, the lesser the span of control. B) The more complex the functions performed by subordinates, the greater the span of control. C) The more people the manager supervises, the greater the span of control. D) The closer subordinates are physically, the lesser the span of control.

79)

A manager’s span of control is most likely to be greater when A) employees perform similar functions. B) subordinates are physically farther apart. C) subordinates perform complex functions. D) standards for performance are unclear.

80)

A manager’s span of control is most likely to be lesser when A) employees perform similar and familiar functions. B) subordinates are physically closer. C) subordinates perform more complex functions. D) standards for performance are clear.

81)

Today, spans of control have

A) decreased as organizations spend more money by including more management positions. B) increased as organizations empower employees to make more decisions. C) decreased as mass production complicates manufacturing processes. D) increased as standards for performance are more subjective and vague.

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82)

Giving someone else the authority and responsibility to carry out a task is known as A) controlling. B) delegating. C) strategizing. D) manipulating.

83)

Delegation is best defined as the

A) act of giving another person the authority and responsibility to carry out a task. B) right given by higher management to specific middle managers to recruit and dismiss line managers. C) management function of correcting defects in goods or services or improving them in some way. D) management function of setting the goals and objectives of a company.

84)

Which of the following is an advantage closely associated with delegating? A) It frees supervisors to do tasks they do best. B) It leads to high employee turnover. C) It protects whistle-blowers. D) It encourages the formation of informal groups.

85)

A benefit of delegating is that A) it allows an organization to centralize authority. B) it allows supervisors to give up their responsibilities. C) it reduces the workload of nonmanagement employees. D) it is an important tool for time management.

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86)

Identify a true statement about delegating responsibilities in organizations.

A) A supervisor who delegates gets enough time for supervisory jobs like planning and counseling. B) It is a random assignment of jobs followed by waiting for them to be completed. C) Additional responsibilities for employees adversely affect the morale of lower-level management. D) It enables a supervisor to improve change management initiatives in the organization.

87)

Delegation of broad decision-making authority and responsibility is known as A) power B) authority. C) empowerment. D) unity of command.

88)

Which of the following is an advantage of empowering employees? A) It allows decision-making power to be concentrated at the hands of supervisors. B) Employees’ empowerment further reduces a manager’s span of control. C) Employees provide more insight and expertise than managers can provide alone. D) It is an important tool for time management in organizations.

89)

Which of the following is the first step in the delegating process? A) granting authority B) delegating work C) deciding what work to delegate D) creating an obligation

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90) In the process of delegating, which of the following is the next step once a supervisor decides what tasks to delegate? A) creating an obligation B) assigning the work C) following up D) granting authority

91) Which of the following actions will help a supervisor encourage employees to accept responsibility? A) involving employees in making decisions and listening to their ideas B) replacing the traditional hierarchical organizational structure with a holacracy C) adding or reducing the number of products or services a company offers D) assigning the task of completing the easiest parts of a project first

92) If a supervisor can successfully get an employee to accept responsibility for carrying out a task, then the A) organization does not hold the supervisor accountable. B) supervisor gives up the responsibility for its completion. C) employee is left with little scope to improve his or her individual skills. D) employee and the supervisor become responsible for the work.

93) In the process of delegating, once a supervisor assigns the work to selected employees, the next step is to

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A) create an obligation. B) decide what work to delegate. C) grant authority. D) follow up.

94) Which of the following tasks can most appropriately be delegated by supervisors to employees? A) performance appraisals B) conflict resolution C) personal work D) administrative duties

95)

In the process of delegating, what should supervisors specifically do during follow up?

A) They should set forth a plan for periodically checking on the progress of the work. B) They should abandon employees to succeed or fail on their own. C) They should give employees the authority they need to carry out their jobs. D) They should ensure that employees accept responsibility for carrying out the assigned tasks.

96)

Which of the following is true of creating an obligation during the process of delegating? A) Creating an obligation is the first step in the process of delegating. B) Following delegation, both employees and supervisors have responsibility for the

work. C) Once an employee accepts responsibility, the supervisor is not held responsible. D) Supervisors can force employees to feel responsible when employees are reluctant.

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97)

In the process of delegating, once supervisors create an obligation, they should A) assign the work. B) assess performance. C) grant authority. D) decide what work to delegate.

98) Which of the following is most likely to be a reason behind a supervisor's reluctance to delegate responsibility? A) The supervisor will not be able to hold the employees responsible for their work. B) There will be an increase in incidence of social loafing. C) The supervisor will not be able to give directions efficiently. D) The supervisor is convinced that he or she will do a better job than the employees.

99) An organization with more than a handful of people works most efficiently when it is grouped into departments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

A growing number of organizations are trying to stay flexible by increasing their size. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) The terms “decentralized” and “centralized” are relative since most companies fall along a range between both extremes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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102) To ensure that employees are deeply involved in the process of organizing, supervisors can involve them in defining the objectives of the department. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) A manager’s span of control is larger when the standards for performance are clear and familiar to the employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) The lesser the staff specialists available to provide support in a variety of areas, the larger the span of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105) Although employees should accept responsibility for carrying out a task, this does not mean that a supervisor gives up the responsibility for its proper completion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) C Version 1

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33) D 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) B Version 1

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63) A 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) B 70) D 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) D 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) A 87) C 88) C 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) D Version 1

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93) A 94) D 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) D 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) Define the term “decision.” List the steps involved in the rational model of decision making.

Describe the decision-making traps that managers must avoid for good decision making.

List two advantages and two disadvantages of group decision making.

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Define groupthink and list the symptoms of groupthink.

Define creativity and describe the guidelines for thinking creatively.

6) How is the scientific method in decision making similar to the rational model? List the steps a supervisor must take if he chooses the scientific method in decision making.

A decision is a

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A) choice from among available alternatives. B) message conveyed without using words. C) belief held by like-minded people. D) plan for how to achieve an objective.

The first step in the rational model of decision making is to A) choose a plan of action. B) identify the problem. C) gather and organize facts. D) identify possible solutions.

9) In the rational model of decision making, which of the following steps comes after one chooses and implements the best alternative? A) identifying the problem B) gathering and organizing facts C) getting feedback and taking corrective action D) identifying the alternative solutions

10) In the rational model of decision making, which of the following is the next step after identifying alternative solutions? A) identifying the problem B) gathering and organizing facts C) getting feedback and taking corrective action D) evaluating alternatives

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11) In the rational model of decision making, which of the following is the next step after gathering and organizing facts? A) identifying the problem B) identifying alternative solutions C) getting feedback and taking corrective action D) evaluating alternatives

12) Dan works 50 to 60 hours a week supervising a group of engineers. He realizes that he is spending too much time training new engineers and starts thinking about new options. He could delegate the training to the senior engineers, ask the human resources department to offer training seminars, or require better work experience from all future employees. Which step in the rational model of decision making is Dan performing here? A) identifying the problem B) identifying alternative solutions C) getting feedback D) gathering and organizing facts

13) Steven works 90 hours a week at his job as the manager of a paper manufacturing company. He often feels stressed while at work. He assumes that his strained relationship with his girlfriend is the reason for his stress, so he decides to break up with her. According to the rational model of decision making, Steven has A) accurately identified the source of his problem. B) applied bounded rationality to evaluate his alternatives. C) made the mistake of choosing and implementing the best alternative without getting feedback first. D) not identified alternative solutions.

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14) Ben, a trainer, meets his team to discuss the possibility of senior engineers training new engineers. He also meets the human resources director to see if she can offer training seminars and to examine the effect of increased work experience on training requirements. Which step of the rational model of decision making is Ben at? A) gathering and organizing facts B) identifying the alternative solutions C) getting feedback D) identifying the problem

15)

In the rational model of decision making, identifying alternative solutions is the A) last step that involves getting feedback. B) step during which the best alternative is implemented. C) next step after recognizing the problem. D) only step which requires subjective rationality.

16)

In the rational model of decision making, evaluation of alternatives A) is the last step. B) should be as objective as possible. C) can only be done with the help of a decision tree. D) is the only step that requires subjective rationality.

17) In the rational model of decision making, the selection and implementation of the best alternative A) requires formal criteria for making decisions. B) should be as subjective as possible. C) can only be done with the help of a decision tree. D) can only be done after getting feedback.

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18)

In decision making, taking a simpler approach A) limits a decision maker’s opportunities of discovering innovative solutions. B) always delivers the best results as the alternatives have been tried and tested before. C) minimizes the time spent on the problem and eliminates any scope of failure. D) helps employees make decisions independently without their supervisor’s guidance.

19)

Choosing an alternative that meets minimum standards of acceptability is a form of A) purposive rationality. B) bounded rationality. C) instrumental rationality. D) subjective rationality.

20) In the context of human compromises in decision making, which of the following statements is true of bounded rationality? A) It occurs when a decision maker tends to select an alternative that he or she has tried before and that has delivered acceptable results. B) It occurs when a decision maker settles for an alternative that he or she considers good enough because other limitations make finding the best alternative impossible. C) It occurs when a decision maker relies on his or her intuition and gut instincts while analyzing alternatives instead of collecting impartial data. D) It occurs when a decision maker assumes that everyone around sees things the way he or she does.

21) In the process of bounded rationality, which of the following steps comes after one identifies the problem?

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A) choosing an alternative solution B) seeing if the alternative solves the problem C) implementing the solution D) gathering and organizing facts

22) When people analyze alternatives, they tend to rely on their intuition and gut instincts instead of collecting impartial data. This is known as A) the self-fulfilling prophecy. B) the recency syndrome. C) subjective rationality. D) the halo effect.

23)

Subjective rationality is the tendency to A) favor a solution that is justifiable to others. B) assume that everyone sees things the same way. C) rely on intuition instead of data. D) choose the simplest possible solution to a problem.

24) Phil, the manager of a grocery store, orders truckloads of pumpkins as he believes that there will be a huge demand for it based on the sales of the previous month. He doesn’t know that the demand was due to the State Pumpkin Week held the previous month. This is an example of the human compromise known as A) subjective rationality. B) personal perspective. C) stereotyping. D) simplicity.

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25)

Which of the following is a true statement about bounded rationality?

A) It is the act of choosing an alternative that meets the minimum standards of acceptability. B) It is the main cause of the recency syndrome. C) It occurs when we rely on intuition instead of data. D) It is our tendency to find the simplest possible solution to a problem.

26) Antonio is the owner of a popular Italian restaurant. He decides to stop offering takeaway services to his customers because he feels the beauty in the way food is presented will be lost when it is packaged. His customers are very unhappy with his decision. Which human compromise has Antonio made? A) personal perspective B) simplicity C) the recency syndrome D) stereotyping

27) Crumbs is a popular bread manufacturing company. It is famous for its unsliced bread, and many customers believe that slicing the bread will make it lose its flavor. So, when Charles, the manager of the company, decides to start selling presliced bread, assuming that the customers would find it more convenient, the customers protest. This is an example of the human compromise known as A) simplicity. B) the recency syndrome. C) personal perspective. D) stereotyping.

28)

Which of the following is a true statement about the recency syndrome?

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A) It is the measure of an individual’s ability to think creatively when faced with a highpressure deadline. B) It is the cause of groupthink. C) It is the tendency to more easily remember events that have occurred in the near past. D) It is the tendency to choose the simplest possible solution to a problem.

29) In the context of the human compromises in decision making, ________ interferes with good decisions when the decision maker focuses more on justifying an alternative than on weighing alternatives against previously defined criteria. A) rationalization B) simplification C) personification D) generalization

30) In the context of the human compromises in decision making, rationalization occurs when people A) select an alternative that they have tried before and that has delivered acceptable results. B) consider alternatives only until one is found that meets their minimum criteria for acceptability. C) favor solutions that they believe they can justify to others. D) remember events that have occurred recently than those that took place sometime in the past.

31) Daphne, who works part-time and goes to school full-time, has the ability to obtain straight As but is not motivated to work for them. She thinks she can justify her low grades since she works part-time and is, therefore, not able to put in the hours required to get straight As. Which human compromise is this an example of?

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A) rationalizing B) brainstorming C) regression D) displacement

32) In the context of personal perspective as a compromise in decision making, people make the mistake of A) selecting an alternative that they have tried before. B) relying on their intuition and gut instincts instead of collecting impartial data. C) favoring solutions that they believe they can justify to others. D) assuming that everyone sees things the way they do.

33)

To avoid the problem of personal perspective, decision makers must A) justify the reason for the decision to others. B) find out what other people are thinking and then consider those views. C) assume that everyone sees things the same way as they do. D) believe that their decisions must be clear to everyone else.

34) Which of the following refers to the tendency to most readily remember events that have just occurred? A) the recency syndrome B) the halo effect C) bounded rationality D) groupthink

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35) Linda is the manager of a graphic design company. Her IT team asked for her consent to upgrade the editing software used by employees. Linda remembered that when such an upgrade was made in the previous month, all the systems crashed, and work was affected for several days. So, she refused to give consent for the upgrade even though such upgrades had been generally useful in the past. Which human compromise has influenced this decision? A) the recency syndrome B) simplicity C) bounded rationality D) stereotype

36)

Which of the following refers to a rigid opinion about categories of people? A) ethnocentrism B) narcissism C) stereotype D) nepotism

37)

The cure for stereotyping is to

A) ignore the strengths and values people receive from their culture. B) distort the truth that people offer a rich variety of individual strengths and viewpoints. C) talk about one’s own stereotypes about people and situations. D) not assume that everyone is alike.

38)

Stereotyping interferes with rational decision making because it

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A) involves choosing an alternative that meets minimum standards of acceptability. B) limits a decision maker’s understanding of the people involved. C) eliminates a decision maker’s ability to brainstorm. D) eliminates groupthink.

39) Ken is a writer for a local magazine. His manager, assuming that Ken must be good at math since he is Asian, asks Ken if he can do his taxes for him. This is an example of A) stereotyping. B) bounded rationality. C) the recency syndrome. D) groupthink.

40)

Assuming that everyone is alike is not a cure for stereotyping because it A) results in bounded rationality. B) oversimplifies the situation. C) eliminates groupthink. D) values individual differences.

41)

Identify a true statement about stereotyping.

A) It refers to the human tendency to remember events that have occurred recently than those that took place in the past. B) It can only be eliminated by assuming that everyone is alike. C) It seldom interferes with rational decision making. D) It distorts the truth that people offer a rich variety of individual strengths and viewpoints.

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42) When time, cost, or other limitations, such as the tendency to simplify, make finding the best alternative impossible or unreasonable, decision makers settle for an alternative they consider good enough. This sort of human compromise is referred to as A) bounded rationality. B) subjective rationality. C) the recency syndrome. D) personal perspective.

43) Rita, the sales manager of a large multinational company, relies on her experience and instinct rather than quantifiable data to predict the future trends in the demand for their product. She says, “I think we should increase the inventory of our product by 20 percent. I feel there is going to be a huge spike in the next quarter.” This scenario exemplifies the human compromise known as A) bounded rationality. B) subjective rationality. C) stereotyping. D) simplicity.

44) Lisa, a supervisor in a manufacturing firm, observes that her team members are always late. This annoys her so much that she wants to fire everyone in her team. However, she knows that this choice will be demoralizing. She rejects this alternative realizing that this will create a sudden need for hiring and training and probably will not impress her manager. Then, she remembers that she gave “timeliness awards” last year, but that did not stop the tardiness of her team members, so she rejects that alternative, as well. Finally, she recollects reading an article that recommends spelling out the consequences of tardiness and then letting the employees experience those consequences. She decides to try that approach. This is an example of the human compromise known as A) simplicity. B) personal perspective. C) bounded rationality. D) stereotyping.

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45) Anita, a quality supervisor, knows that her manager focuses on maintaining quality. Anita tends to favor a high-quality alternative whenever she is considering alternative ways to approach a problem. She understands that another alternative might be more successful. However, Anita believes that whatever the outcome, her manager is likely to appreciate her efforts to maintain the quality standard. This is an example of the human compromise known as A) bounded rationality. B) the recency syndrome. C) stereotyping. D) rationalization.

46) Kenny, a team leader, remembers that the last time he gave a negative performance appraisal, Lisa, a team member, became very hostile. He decides against the idea and tries to keep the appraisal meeting neutral by not criticizing her too much, even though a negative appraisal two years ago had led Lisa to improve her performance. This is an example of the human compromise known as A) the recency syndrome. B) bounded rationality. C) rationalization. D) stereotyping.

47) Which of the following is the first step of the Osborne-Parnes Creative Problem Solving process? A) fact finding B) objective finding C) problem finding D) idea finding

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48) In the context of the Osborne-Parnes Creative Problem Solving process, once the main objective or goal has been identified, the next step is to A) select and strengthen solutions. B) generate ideas. C) gather data. D) plan for action.

49)

Which of the following is a guideline for proper decision making in the workplace? A) Consider the consequences of one’s actions. B) Respond slowly to make sure one is making the right decision. C) Inform one’s boss after reaching and announcing a major decision. D) Always be rigid when one has made up one’s mind.

50)

It is appropriate to make a decision using bounded rationality when A) it is not possible to be decisive. B) a group has to arrive at the decision. C) the decision needs to be made quickly in a crisis. D) it is not possible to use stereotypes.

51) When the consequences of a decision are great, which of the following should the supervisor follow? A) spend less time on the decision to avoid confusion B) use the rational model of decision making C) avoid using alternative solutions D) limit the money spent in identifying and evaluating alternatives

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52)

When the consequences of the decision are slight, a supervisor should A) limit the money spent in identifying and evaluating alternatives. B) spend more time on the decision and avoid making any compromises. C) strictly follow the rational model of decision making. D) seek to include as many alternatives as possible.

53)

In a crisis, a supervisor should A) inform his or her boss before taking any action. B) weigh each employee’s qualifications and select the best employee. C) quickly select the course of action that seems best. D) list all the possible responses.

54)

When a manager needs to know about a decision, it is usually smart for a supervisor to A) discuss the problem before reaching and announcing the decision. B) inform the manager about every minor decision being made each day. C) quickly select the course of action that seems best. D) agree to discuss the decision as soon as possible after it is made.

55)

Which of the following is typical of a decisive supervisor?

A) makes quick decisions and is not affected by feedback on how the solution is working B) does not bother too much with clearing his or her desk of routine matters C) promptly refers matters to the proper people D) delegates complete responsibility for getting the facts needed to solve a problem

56)

Being decisive means

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A) making a decision without making any human compromise. B) reaching a decision within a reasonable amount of time. C) making the simplest possible decision. D) taking as much time as needed to choose an alternative.

57)

In decision making, why is feedback important for a supervisor? A) It indicates whether the chosen solution is working. B) It eliminates the use of stereotypes when making a decision. C) It helps the supervisor use subjective rationality more effectively. D) It makes the supervisor choose the simplest solution to all problems.

58) Craig, the supervisor of a chemical plant, made the error of ordering more raw materials than required. When his manager asked him about this, he responded by saying that the production team misinformed him. In the context of decision-making traps, Craig has A) promised too much. B) responded inappropriately to failure. C) overlooked precedent. D) assumed only one choice is right.

59) A salesperson tells his customers that he will give them some freebies if they purchase laptops from his store. However, he has neither asked the store manager if he can do so nor checked if the shop has an adequate stock of freebies. As such, he is not able to deliver the freebies to his customers. Which decision-making trap does this scenario exemplify? A) responding inappropriately to failure B) promising too much C) assuming only one choice is right D) overlooking precedent

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60) Melvin is the owner of a musical instruments store. William, a music teacher, is a customer who regularly buys five to six electric guitars. One day, William asked Melvin if he could provide 10 custom guitars. Melvin didn’t check to see if he could meet William’s requirements but agreed to make the guitars. Later, Melvin realized that he didn’t have the right parts to make the guitars and apologized to William for his failure. Which decision-making trap does this scenario exemplify? A) assuming only one choice is right B) treating every decision like a crisis C) promising too much D) overlooking precedent

61)

Which of the following is a true statement about probability theory?

A) It can only be used to make decisions in situations that do not involve risk. B) It states that groupthink will always result as a product of brainstorming. C) It requires knowledge of the expected values of each alternative when making a decision. D) It cannot be applied to real life situations without the use of computer software.

62) A graph that helps decision makers use probability theory by showing the expected values of decisions in varying circumstances is known as a A) Gantt chart. B) probability curve. C) bar graph. D) decision tree.

63)

In using a decision tree, decision makers should select the alternative that has the

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A) greatest expected value. B) least expected value. C) expected value of zero. D) average expected value.

64) Supervisors can compare the consequences of several decisions in a risk situation by using A) subjective rationality. B) Six Sigma. C) theory X. D) probability theory.

65)

Which of the following statements is true of decision trees?

A) They are used in measuring the magnitude of the recency syndrome. B) They are only used when evaluating alternatives in the rational model of decision making. C) They show expected values of decisions in varying circumstances. D) They can only be used with the help of decision-making software.

66)

Access and IBM DB2 are examples of A) guidelines for decision making. B) frameworks for assessing employees’ strengths. C) tools used in probability theory. D) database management programs.

67)

Decision-making software

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A) makes decision trees obsolete. B) makes decisions for supervisors. C) promotes groupthink by increasing the use of bounded rationality to reduce stereotypes. D) leads users through the steps of the formal decision-making process.

68)

Identify a true statement about decision-making software.

A) It eliminates a user’s need to identify alternatives or provide information about his or her values and priorities. B) It complicates the process of decision making. C) It makes it easier for supervisors to organize their thoughts and gather information. D) It is designed to promote groupthink.

69)

To use probability theory, a supervisor A) needs to know or be able to estimate the value of each possible outcome. B) must assume that only one choice is right. C) needs to be able to balance the application of bounded rationality with groupthink. D) must use database management software such as Access or Oracle Database.

70)

Identify a disadvantage of group decision making.

A) Group decision-making processes always look at problems from a narrow perspective. B) Group decision-making processes disallow people to draw on their own experiences when generating and evaluating ideas. C) People who come up with a solution are more likely to support the implementation of the solution only when their contributions are rewarded. D) There is always a risk of the group reaching an inferior decision by letting a subgroup dominate the process.

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71)

Identify an advantage of group decision making.

A) Group decision making is appropriate for all situations and always results in the implementation of perfect solutions. B) Group members will look at a problem from a broader perspective. C) Group members engage in groupthink, which improves the quality of decisions made. D) Group decision making inevitably results in superior decisions when one person dominates the whole process.

72)

In which of the following groups are its members most likely to experience groupthink?

A) a group that has a designated devil’s advocate B) a group that includes people who are known for questioning ideas and arguing unpopular viewpoints C) a group that employs self-censorship D) a group that sleeps on a decision before finalizing it

73) The failure to think independently and realistically as a group because of the desire to enjoy consensus and closeness is called A) in-group bias. B) the ecological fallacy. C) groupthink. D) the recency syndrome.

74) James is the supervisor of a group responsible for coming up with a name for a new product. He finds that his group has fallen victim to groupthink. Which of the following steps should he take to rectify this situation?

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A) He should ask his group members to be more agreeable and appoint one member to act as a mindguard who urges other members to go along with the group. B) He should apply pressure against group members who disagree. C) He should let the members of the groupthink that they are invulnerable. D) He should appoint one group member to act as devil’s advocate, challenging the position of the majority.

75) When supervisors notice that their group is showing the symptoms of groupthink, they should A) defend the group’s position against any objections. B) encourage group members to listen with an open mind. C) urge group members to go along with the group. D) create an illusion of invulnerability.

76)

Identify a symptom of groupthink. A) a view that the group is clearly moral B) opposing the group’s position against any objections C) an illusion of being vulnerable D) being receptive to ideas that are contrary to the group’s ideas

77)

In which of the following situations should a supervisor make a decision alone? A) when the supervisor needs to cut costs or improve productivity B) when a decision must be made quickly, as in an emergency C) when the supervisor needs to build support for a solution D) when the consequences of a poor decision are significant

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78)

In which of the following situations should a supervisor use group decision making? A) when the supervisor needs to build support for a solution B) when a decision must be made quickly, as in an emergency C) when the potential benefit of the decision is insignificant D) when the supervisor needs to use bounded rationality

79) Lincoln, the supervisor of an acid manufacturing company, finds out that there has been an acid leakage from one of the containers, and if nothing is done, the plant is likely to be destroyed within hours. Which of the following is the optimum response for this situation? A) He should call a group meeting to discuss the situation. B) He should have a brainstorming session with his plant manager. C) He should make a quick decision by himself. D) He should use decision trees to arrive at a solution.

80) When a supervisor needs to build support for a solution, such as cutting costs or improving productivity, it is best for him or her to A) use group decision making. B) make the decisions alone. C) let his or her boss make the decision. D) make the decision with the help of top management only.

81) Whenever supervisors ask for input from a group, they should be sure they intend to use the information, or the group A) members will fall victim to groupthink. B) will suffer from the recency syndrome. C) members will be offended. D) will be more likely to use self-censorship.

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82)

Which of the following is a way to generate ideas in a group? A) groupthink B) brainstorming C) stereotyping D) reinforcement

83) An idea-generating process in which group members state their ideas, have their ideas recorded, and no one comments on the ideas until the process is complete is referred to as A) brainstorming. B) bounded rationality. C) stereotyping. D) groupthink.

84)

Which of the following statements is true of brainstorming? A) People who are generally quiet dominate the conversation. B) People who are naturally talkative dominate the conversation. C) People hesitate to share ideas because others may pass them off as their own. D) People criticize and comment on other’s ideas during the process.

85) A supervisor leading a group decision-making meeting should make sure that everyone participates because A) it creates an illusion of invulnerability in the group. B) it stimulates groupthink, which enhances the quality of ideas. C) it is the only way to avoid the problems related to stereotyping. D) it utilizes the variety of opinions and expertise available.

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86) Samantha is a project supervisor for an ad agency. She calls a meeting to generate ideas for a new ad. During the meeting, she finds that some members do not speak at all. In this case, Samantha should A) ask their opinions about the ideas discussed. B) ask them to play the role of mindguards and urge other group members to go along with the group. C) criticize them for being quiet. D) ask them to play the role of devil’s advocate and defend the group’s position against any objections.

87)

Identify a disadvantage of using brainstorming to generate ideas in a group. A) Hearing one or two ideas may send the group off down the wrong track. B) Brainstorming inevitably leads to groupthink. C) An illusion of invulnerability is created during brainstorming sessions. D) Brainstorming diminishes the role of the supervisor in groups.

88) Jennifer is the head of a marketing company. She requests a group meeting with her employees to come up with a new marketing strategy. She decides to begin with a brainstorming session. Jennifer knows that although brainstorming sessions are generally effective, there can be some pitfalls as well. Which of the following steps can she take to avoid pitfalls? A) She can let the naturally talkative people dominate the conversation as they often come up with the best ideas. B) She can ask everyone ahead of time to come up with ideas for the marketing strategy. C) She can appoint mindguards who urge other group members to go along with the group. D) She can create an illusion of invulnerability to help the brainstorming process benefit from groupthink.

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89) Which of the following is a step that supervisors can take to encourage more participation in a group meeting without it leading to the phenomenon of groupthink? A) designating a mindguard to urge other members to go along with the group B) criticizing anyone who plays the role of devil’s advocate C) reacting positively when people contribute ideas D) asking questions indirectly and reacting dismissively to anyone who disagrees with the group’s view

90)

A supervisor can develop employees’ idea-generating skills by A) criticizing anyone who plays the role of devil’s advocate. B) asking employees to contribute ideas only if they are good. C) designating a mindguard who generates all the ideas. D) making idea generation something the group practices regularly.

91)

________ refers to the ability to bring about something imaginative or new. A) Sustainability B) Creativity C) Transitivity D) Productivity

92) In a decision-making process, being able to generate alternatives that are innovative or different from what has been used before is called

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A) brainstorming. B) the recency syndrome. C) creativity. D) bounded rationality.

93)

A fundamental way to become more creative is to A) be open to one’s own ideas. B) think of as few alternatives as one can. C) evaluate alternatives at the same time as one thinks of them. D) reject immediately any ideas that one does not like.

94)

Which of the following is a practice to develop creativity? A) think of only a few alternatives to avoid overthinking B) evaluate alternatives immediately after you think of them C) employ the process of bounded rationality when thinking of ideas D) jot down all alternatives without rejecting any

95)

Which of the following is a true statement about creative thinking? A) It is always a conscious process. B) It only happens when bounded rationality is applied. C) The recency syndrome triggers creative thinking. D) Short breaks can help increase creative thinking.

96)

A supervisor can benefit from his or her entire group’s creativity by

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A) implementing a groupthink philosophy. B) establishing a work climate that encourages innovative thinking. C) using bounded rationality. D) reaching a consensus without critically testing, analyzing, or evaluating ideas.

97) Mark, a supervisor at KMT Inc., encourages his team members to come up with innovative suggestions. He reviews the suggestions with the employees, and if it results in monetary savings or profits, the employee who made the suggestion is awarded a $500 bonus. In this case, Mark is trying to A) employ authoritarian decision making. B) assess employees’ intellectual skills. C) establish and maintain a creative work climate. D) encourage employees to engage in groupthink.

98)

One way to overcome barriers to creativity is to A) overcome one’s own fear of failure. B) be overly busy. C) keep oneself isolated. D) pass the blame on to someone else.

99)

If an idea fails, a supervisor should acknowledge the problem and A) place the blame on the employee who suggested it. B) focus on finding a solution for it. C) focus on learning only from successes and not from failures. D) discuss it with the same few people he or she always spends time with.

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100)

The scientific method of decision making A) is systematic and logical. B) stems from the recency syndrome. C) is an applied form of bounded rationality. D) allows the decision maker to be biased.

101) Often, supervisors and employees have difficulty being creative because they are afraid their ideas will fail. A supervisor can overcome this barrier by A) asking employees to take the focus away from customer satisfaction. B) using bounded rationality. C) accepting that employee failures will occur. D) using groupthink.

102) The desire to achieve higher quality is a source of problems for a supervisor to solve creatively. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Rationalization interferes with good decisions when the decision maker focuses more on weighing alternatives against previously defined criteria than on justifying an alternative. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

A supervisor should always avoid human compromises in making decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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105) Probability theory, decision trees, and computer software are tools for analyzing alternatives for decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106) Computer software programs have been developed to make decisions for supervisors without the need for supervisor intervention. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) People who are involved in coming up with a solution are less likely to support its implementation since they know that the solution is still the supervisor’s total responsibility. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) One basic way of encouraging participation is for a supervisor to avoid monopolizing the discussion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109)

Creative thinking is not always a conscious process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) D Version 1

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33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) A 53) C 54) A 55) C 56) B 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) D Version 1

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63) A 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) B 92) C Version 1

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93) A 94) D 95) D 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) B 100) A 101) C 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) What is quality control? Which two areas do supervisors focus on when they look for high-quality performance to reinforce or improvements to make? Describe each.

2) What is productivity? Mention three activities that are directed toward improving quality and productivity.

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Discuss the zero-defects approach and total quality management (TQM).

Distinguish between statistical quality control and statistical process control (SPC).

5) In the context of quality control, explain why prevention of errors is more important than detection of errors.

6) List three constraints on productivity. Elaborate one of the limitations and discuss how it can be overcome.

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Supervisors must care about quality because poor quality A) limits the organization’s access to resources. B) leads to reduced organizational costs. C) prevents inspection and rework. D) saves much-needed raw materials.

8) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ refers to a product’s primary operating characteristic, such as the picture clarity of a television set. A) aesthetics B) conformance C) performance D) reliability

9) In the context of dimensions of quality, the ________ dimension primarily refers to supplements to a product’s basic operating characteristics. A) performance B) conformance C) aesthetics D) features

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10) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ primarily refers to the probability that a product will function properly and not break down during a specified period. A) reliability B) conformance C) durability D) aesthetics

11) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ primarily refers to the length of a product’s life. A) aesthetics B) conformance C) durability D) reliability

12) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ refers to the degree to which a product’s design and operating characteristics meet established standards. A) reliability B) performance C) durability D) conformance

13) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ refers to the speed and ease of repairing a product. A) serviceability B) performance C) reliability D) conformance

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14) In the context of dimensions of quality, ________ refers to the way a product looks, feels, tastes, and smells. A) reliability B) features C) aesthetics D) conformance

15) Ben is planning on buying a new smartphone. He believes that products developed by Smart Widget are the strongest and most reliable. His friend, Alice, tries to convince him to buy a smartphone from a different company as she is extremely satisfied with its service. However, Ben is confident that a Smart Widget smartphone is the best choice. Which of the following dimensions of quality is Ben’s belief based on? A) perceived quality B) conformance C) bona fide quality D) serviceability

16) Barbara thinks that her car looks amazing. She likes the smell of the car and the color of its interiors. In the context of dimensions of quality, Barbara likes the ________ of the car. A) reliability B) features C) aesthetics D) conformance

17)

Productivity is best defined as the

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A) success rate of the efforts to prevent defects in a firm’s goods or services. B) amount of results an organization gets for a given amount of inputs. C) statistical representation of the effectiveness of a quality-control method. D) organization-wide focus on satisfying lifelong customers.

18)

Quality control is best defined as an organization’s efforts to

A) prevent or correct defects in its goods or services or to improve them in some way. B) produce goods that are of the same quality as its competitors’ goods. C) control all whistleblowing activities so as to maintain the positive image of the organization. D) let employees know that they will be penalized for any complaints related to the quality of their goods or services.

19) When a city’s park district considers ways to upgrade its playground equipment or improve the programs it offers senior citizens, it is most likely focusing on A) concurrent control. B) process control. C) method control. D) product quality control.

20)

Process control is the type of quality control that focuses on ways to A) do things in a way that leads to better quality. B) increase the turnover rates in a company. C) decrease the serviceability of an end product. D) use sampling techniques to find defects in products.

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21) Dexter, a supervisor at Rensil Inc., emphasizes how to do things in a way that results in better quality. In the context of types of quality control, Dexter is inclined toward A) product conformance. B) process control. C) turnover. D) benchmarking.

22)

Which of the following is true of total quality management (TQM) strategies? A) They require supervisors to transfer between departments every two months. B) They require employees to take mandatory breaks every two hours. C) They require employees to work six days a week. D) They require the involvement of employees at all levels.

23)

Statistical quality control primarily involves

A) maintaining a customer feedback log and making the necessary improvements in products whenever required. B) checking every product for possible defects so as to reduce high costs related to poor quality. C) looking for defects in parts, finished goods, or other outcomes selected through a sampling technique. D) monitoring production quality on an ongoing basis and making corrections whenever the results show that the process is out of control.

24)

The most accurate way to apply statistical quality control is to use a A) specific sample. B) random sample. C) quota sample. D) stratified sample.

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25) Statistical process control (SPC) is a quality-control technique that primarily involves using statistics A) to monitor production quality during the production process. B) to improve the production quality of products. C) to look for defects in the random sampling process. D) to find out ways to limit defects to 30,400 per million operations.

26) A ________ can be best defined as the quality-control technique based on the view that everyone in an organization should work toward the goal of delivering such high quality that all aspects of the organization’s goods and services are free of problems. A) lean process improvement B) statistical process control C) zero-defects approach D) just-in-time approach

27) In the context of quality improvement methods, employee involvement teams primarily involve A) using a formal process in which teams study processes and correct problems to limit defects to 3.4 per million operations. B) setting up teams of employees to identify quality-related problems and come up with possible solutions. C) focusing the whole organization on continuously improving every business process so it satisfies customers. D) using statistics to monitor production quality during the production process.

28)

Employee involvement teams are most successful when membership is

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A) given to all workers whose productivity levels are high. B) made voluntary. C) given to workers who qualify for the program. D) made mandatory.

29) In the context of quality improvement methods, ________ can be best described as using a formal process in which teams study processes and correct problems to limit defects to 3.4 per million operations. A) lean process improvement B) Six Sigma C) the zero-defects approach D) total quality management

30)

The basic goal of Six Sigma programs is to A) improve the yield of sustainable products. B) improve output and efficiency. C) reduce variation from the standard to nearly nothing. D) deliver world-class organizational performance.

31) In the context of quality improvement methods, ________ can be best described as a practice that considers any costs other than a cost that adds value for the customer to be wasteful and, hence, something to be eliminated. A) lean process improvement B) Six Sigma C) total quality management D) the zero-defects approach

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32) ________ can be best described as the quality improvement method that involves focusing the whole organization on continuously improving every business process so it satisfies customers. A) Lean process improvement B) The zero-defects approach C) Total quality management D) Statistical process control

33) An operator who periodically measures some aspect of ongoing production and plots the results on a control chart is most likely using A) statistical quality control. B) statistical process control. C) the zero-defects approach. D) the just-in-time approach.

34)

The zero-defects approach is best defined as the quality control technique

A) designed to improve the product or service output to be 99.97 percent perfect. B) in which an organization works toward making its goods and services free of problems. C) in which the employees look for defects in parts, finished goods, or other outcomes selected through a sampling technique. D) in which the top performer of a process is identified and imitated.

35) Which of the following is most likely to be the first step that the members of an employee involvement team should take?

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A) They should select the problems to focus on the first step. B) They should identify quality problems related to the employees’ areas of responsibility. C) They should analyze the problem to identify the causes of poor quality. D) They should identify possible solutions and select one to recommend to management.

36)

Employee involvement teams are most successful when A) a strict hierarchical structure is maintained. B) supervisors outsource the entire process. C) all group members are eager to participate. D) the supervisor follows the essay appraisal method.

37) Which of the following skills is important for an employee involvement team to be successful? A) conceptual skills B) human relations skills C) technical skills D) problem-solving skills

38)

Six Sigma is best defined as a process-oriented quality-control method A) designed to improve the operations output to 99.99 percent perfection. B) aimed at producing goods with zero percent defect. C) designed to reduce errors to 99.9997 percent perfection. D) designed to correct problems to limit defects to 2.4 per million operations.

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39)

The objective of total quality management (TQM) is to A) meet or outdo customer expectations. B) reduce variation from the standard to nothing. C) reduce time spent on rework and correcting mistakes. D) train and motivate employees.

40) Joseph M. Juran, one of the experts who played an important role in spreading the idea of total quality management (TQM), taught quality concepts to the Japanese. He emphasized the view that management should seek to maintain and improve quality through efforts on two levels: the organization as a whole and the A) department primarily formed to improve product quality. B) human resource department of the organization. C) most productive departments in the organization. D) individual departments in the organization.

41) Eliza, a supervisor, tells her team to cut all costs other than the costs that add value for her company’s customers. In the context of quality improvement methods, Eliza is most inclined toward ________. A) the zero-defects approach B) statistical process control C) total quality management D) lean process improvement

42) Betty, the CEO of Raxen Inc., thinks her organization must work as a unit toward enhancing the company’s processes. She believes this will help her organization to improve customer satisfaction. In the context of quality improvement methods, Betty is most inclined toward

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A) employee involvement teams. B) statistical process control. C) total quality management. D) lean process improvement.

43) Ronald, a production manager at FindSolutions Inc., finds that his organization’s process efficiency has reduced over the past three years. He asks one the supervisors to set up two groups of 10 workers each. He assigns these groups the responsibility to assess the company’s processes, make decisions, and evaluate factors that reduce efficiency. In the context of quality improvement methods, Ronald is engaging A) employee involvement teams. B) statistical process control. C) the zero-defects approach. D) lean process improvement.

44) Which of the following is an annual award administered by the U.S. Commerce Department’s National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? A) Firestone Inner Circle of Quality Award B) Baldrige Performance Excellence Program C) ISO 9000 certification D) Presidential Award for Management Excellence

45) Which of the following is a series of standards adopted by the International Organization for Standardization to spell out acceptable criteria for quality systems?

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A) ISO 9000 B) Total quality management guidelines C) Malcolm Baldrige guidelines D) Benchmarking

46) ________ is the practice of identifying the top performer of a process, and then learning and carrying out the top performer’s practices. A) Offshoring B) Free riding C) Outsourcing D) Benchmarking

47) Eric completes his work twice as fast as his peers do. Eric’s manager requests his peers to do their work exactly the same way as he does. This is an example of A) detour behavior. B) benchmarking. C) free riding. D) outsourcing.

48)

Quality improvement directed toward value ideally begins when a(n)

A) supervisor makes decisions aimed at balancing present needs and the needs of future generations. B) organization starts to recruit more people with sustainable skills. C) organization’s employees communicate with customers to determine their needs and wants. D) organization sets up departments according to the goods or services produced.

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49) ________ are responsible for setting quality standards, and communicating and enforcing them. A) Supervisors B) Workers C) Vice presidents D) Board of directors

50) In the context of quality improvement, ________ is a large goal toward which an organization’s quality improvement methods should be directed. A) profit B) value C) return on investment D) cost reduction

51) are

In the context of setting quality standards, a supervisor should ensure that the standards

A) primarily communicated through the grapevine. B) immeasurable and nonspecific. C) reflective of what is important to himself or herself. D) challenging but achievable.

52)

When an inspection exposes a quality problem, the supervisor should A) let the responsible employees know about it immediately. B) terminate the responsible employees for being negligent. C) cover up the issue to protect the employees from facing consequences. D) ignore the matter until it reaches the higher management.

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53) The most effective way supervisors can overcome the productivity constraint of management limitations is by A) collaborating with the labor union to build a sustainable organization. B) demonstrating by their actions and words that they are interested in the department’s productivity. C) facilitating the formation of informal groups among the members of the production team. D) encouraging employees to overcome their resistance to change and adapt to new technologies.

54)

People have a natural tendency to resist change because it is A) confusing. B) frightening. C) predictable. D) comfortable.

55)

Improving productivity requires A) increasing employees’ daily targets. B) avoiding employee recommendations regarding changes. C) changing employee attitudes. D) enhancing employee negotiation skills.

56) In the context of constraints on productivity, when government regulations seem illogical, an organization

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A) should disobey the regulations. B) should ignore the regulations. C) must follow the government regulations even if they are unreasonable. D) must alter the government regulations to suit the company’s needs.

57) Jack is a new executive at Costel Inc. He frequently uses social networking sites at his office to keep his job-related stress low. However, this results in low productivity. In the context of constraints on productivity, this is an example of ________ affecting productivity. A) management limitations B) employee skills C) union rules D) employee attitude

58)

Operative employees will contribute to improve productivity only if they believe A) they will get technical help from their supervisors. B) they can ignore government regulations in order to accommodate union rules. C) they can change their allotted tasks according to their skills. D) management is truly committed to this objective.

59)

When the productivity of organizations in a country improves, people A) are forced to buy goods and services at higher prices. B) get goods and services at lower prices. C) end up paying for services that are taxed at higher rates. D) get lower wages from their employers.

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60) Jim and Sam work as pizza delivery persons for a restaurant. Jim delivers twice as many pizzas as Sam does. In order for both of them to have the same productivity measure, if Jim earns $16/hour, Sam should earn A) $2/hour. B) $6/hour. C) $16/hour. D) $8/hour.

61) Mary processes 96 permit applications in an eight-hour day at her office while earning $10/hour. However, John processes 150 permit applications in an eight-hour day while earning $20/hour. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true in this situation? A) John is less productive than Mary is. B) John is more productive than Mary is. C) John’s work will have more errors than Mary’s work. D) Mary’s work will have more errors than John’s work.

62)

The basic way to measure productivity is to A) divide outputs by inputs. B) add outputs and inputs. C) multiply inputs and outputs. D) subtract inputs from outputs.

63)

In the context of the productivity equation, to increase productivity, a supervisor needs to A) increase outputs and reduce inputs. B) decrease outputs and increase inputs. C) increase inputs significantly to lower the rate of outputs. D) decrease outputs significantly to increase the rate of inputs.

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64) In the context of measuring productivity, when the bottom (denominator) of a fraction gets bigger, the number A) remains the same. B) becomes zero. C) becomes greater. D) becomes smaller.

65) Food Stop, a fast-food restaurant, offers home delivery service. The manager of Food Stop decides to upgrade its existing fleet of delivery vehicles to improve the speed of delivery. The estimated cost of the upgrade is set at $100,000. If the finance department of Food Stop agrees to a payback period of five years, the upgraded delivery vehicles need to save the restaurant ________ a year for five years. A) $200,000 B) $100,000 C) $20,000 D) $40,000

66) Which of the following equipment purchased by a company has the greatest payback period? A) a boiler that costs $20,000 with the potential to save $200 a year B) a truck that costs $40,000 with the potential to save $2,000 a year C) a stove that costs $1,000 with the potential to save $200 a year D) a computer system that costs $55,000 with the potential to save $5,000 a year

67) Which of the following equipment purchased by a company provides the greatest savings per year?

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A) a car that costs $40,000 with a payback period of 4 years B) a van that costs $180,000 with a payback period of 2 years C) an industrial filter that costs $30,000 with a payback period of 5 years D) a packaging unit that costs $250,000 with a payback period of 2 years

68) Marc, an employee at Tezel Inc., was assigned work by his manager. The manager asked him to start work as soon as he receives instructions from his supervisor. Marc waits for three hours before his supervisor gives him instructions to start work. In the context of productivity, the time spent on waiting for instructions is called A) the interim time. B) payback time. C) downtime. D) overtime.

69) A percentage that represents the average annual earnings for each dollar of a given investment is referred to as the A) average downtime. B) average rate of return. C) average idle time. D) total payback period.

70) A new coffee roasting machine bought by a cafe costs $10,000. If it saves the cafe $1,000 a year, its average rate of return is A) 10 percent. B) 100 percent. C) 50 percent. D) 0 percent.

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71) If the average rate of return of an equipment that costs $5,000 is 25 percent, its savings per year is A) $250. B) $1,250. C) $500. D) $5,000.

72)

Productivity is most likely to improve when A) the process quality is improved upon so that employees work more efficiently. B) an organization’s managers decide to put its defective products up for sale. C) the output of a department or an organization increases along with the increase in

cost. D) an organization adheres strictly to the EEOC guidelines.

73)

Which of the following is true about installing modern equipment in a company?

A) Installing modern equipment can increase a company’s overheads significantly. B) A supervisor can install modern equipment only if the payback period of the equipment is relatively long. C) A supervisor can install modern equipment only if the average rate of return of the equipment is low. D) Installing modern equipment can be expensive if its benefits are less than its cost.

74) In the context of purchasing new equipment to improve productivity, the ________ department usually has an opinion on what payback period is acceptable for the organization.

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A) marketing B) production C) hiring D) finance

75) Magix Productions orders new equipment for the company. The new equipment costs $50,000 and will help the company save $10,000 annually. What is the average rate of return of the equipment? A) 15 percent B) 20 percent C) 35 percent D) 40 percent

76)

Motivation is a key tactic for improving productivity because A) organizations can guarantee results without adding to their costs. B) supervisors can easily make false promises to employees. C) training has been proved to be ineffective in improving productivity. D) employees can think of ways to achieve their objectives efficiently.

77)

Supervisors play an important role in improving employee productivity because they A) are primarily required to utilize conceptual skills. B) are in direct contact with employees. C) determine organizational policies. D) devise strategies that are appealing to employees.

78)

When work levels are low, the result is

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A) idle time. B) detour behavior. C) increased productivity. D) low turnover.

79) Which of the following would be the best way for a supervisor to ensure superior quality of goods and boost productivity? A) seeking help exclusively from the top management B) utilizing conceptual skills to devise new plans C) training employees in human relations skills D) including employees in the decision-making process

80)

Supervisors can increase their own and their team’s productivity primarily by A) understanding the goals of quality programs and their own role in achieving those

goals. B) implementing strict rules and dictating departmental goals that need to be achieved. C) focusing on the average rate of return and the payback period of investments made on new equipment. D) utilizing conceptual and planning skills to develop new control strategies.

81)

Employees often have excellent ideas for doing the work better because they A) are good at conceptual skills. B) are often inclined toward change. C) can change tasks according to their skills. D) see the problems of their jobs.

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82) Donna, an employee at Falken Inc., takes frequent breaks from her work. She has a habit of spending time gossiping with her colleagues because she feels that her job is too challenging. In the context of wastage of time, Donna’s habit is an example of A) idle time. B) detour behavior. C) tardiness. D) absenteeism.

83)

The rate at which employees leave an organization is known as A) conformance. B) payback period. C) average rate of return. D) turnover.

84) Before a supervisor can make decisions about how to trim costs, he or she has to know where the money is going. The most important source of such information is the A) employee handbook. B) code of ethics. C) budget report. D) vision statement.

85)

A supervisor who wants to boost productivity by increasing output must first A) ensure that the new output goals are reasonable. B) emphasize the positive aspects of the change. C) exclude employees from the decision-making process. D) dictate the decisions to his or her team.

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86)

Expenses not related directly to producing goods and services are termed A) staff salaries. B) overhead. C) core costs. D) relative costs.

87)

Which of the following is an example of an overhead in a company? A) cost of maintaining a vending machine in the break room B) cost of instruments needed for production C) basic salary paid to every employee D) bonus amounts paid to the higher-level management

88)

The expenses that an organization incurs on rent, utilities, and staff support are termed A) return on investment. B) relative costs. C) core costs. D) overhead.

89)

Downtime is best defined as the time during which A) employees or machines are not producing goods or services. B) employees or machines are maximizing their production of goods and services. C) the output of a department increases along with an increase in cost. D) the output of a department decreases along with a decrease in cost.

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90) All kinds of tactics used for postponing or avoiding work that results in wasted time are referred to as A) detour behavior. B) overhead. C) kaizen. D) free riding.

91)

Reviewing and revamping the way things are done is the basic principle of A) the red ocean strategy. B) brown field venturing. C) reengineering. D) patenting.

92)

Which of the following is true in the context of regulating departmental work flow?

A) If the work flow must remain even, a supervisor must hire temporary employees during peak periods. B) When a definite plan is charted out, it hampers the flexibility of the employees and makes it difficult to regulate departmental work flow. C) A supervisor should ideally avoid working closely with his or her manager and peers in order to effectively regulate departmental work flow. D) The formation of teams of employees to examine and solve work-flow problems helps in effectively regulating departmental work flow.

93) Which of the following is most likely to be the primary cause underlying the problem of time lost to tardiness and absenteeism?

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A) frequent layoffs B) the lack of motivation C) increase in costs D) the reduction of overhead

94)

High turnover is most likely to A) save the company from unnecessary expenses. B) motivate employees to increase productivity. C) prove expensive for the company. D) attract qualified employees.

95)

Uneven work flow can be costly primarily because A) it increases overhead costs due to an unexpected surge in work. B) employees will need to be paid overtime when there is a surge in demand for work. C) wastage of resources occurs when work levels are high. D) when work levels are low, employees engage in detour behavior.

96)

Increasing output without increasing costs is most likely to make employees A) reduce the time they spend in detour behavior. B) unhappy as it may mean that the new goals are unreasonable. C) reject the principles of job enlargement and job enrichment. D) add additional quality improvement measures.

97)

________ refers to contracting with specialists to perform business functions.

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A) Offshoring B) Outsourcing C) Green field venturing D) The blue ocean strategy

98)

When a supervisor gives information about productivity improvement, employees should

A) have an opportunity to ask questions. B) be discouraged from expressing their views. C) interrupt at every step to show their involvement in the process. D) simply follow the instructions without questioning the supervisor as this would help save time.

99)

When managers start talking about improving productivity, employees usually react A) in a positive way. B) with fear. C) with a desire to learn new productivity techniques. D) by delivering increased output.

100) Employees have good reason to be fearful when employers speak about improving productivity because A) improving productivity reduces overhead costs. B) improving productivity hinders employee growth options. C) cost-reduction strategies often result in less overtime pay and difficult work. D) cost-reduction strategies often lead to downtime.

101)

Quality-control programs should be limited to the detection of defects.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Lack of motivation is often the problem underlying time lost to tardiness and absenteeism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Tardiness is often an employee’s first step to leaving the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

Low turnover is expensive for any company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105)

Employees are fearful of productivity improvements due to possible layoffs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C Version 1

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33) B 34) B 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) A Version 1

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63) A 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) D 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) B 78) A 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) B 83) D 84) C 85) A 86) B 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) A 91) C 92) D Version 1

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93) B 94) C 95) B 96) B 97) B 98) A 99) B 100) C 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

In the context of communication, what is noise? Give at least three examples.

Distinguish between hearing and listening.

3) What should a supervisor do when a message has not been received fully and correctly by the receiver? Version 1

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4) Describe information overload as a barrier to communication and how a supervisor can respond to this barrier.

Compare and contrast verbal and nonverbal messages.

6) Describe the different directions of communication in an organization with examples for each.

7) In conducting research on workplace communication, Alex Pentland and Benjamin Waber found that

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A) employees mostly communicated about their personal lives during such conversations. B) employees used the information they received to build relationships and make better decisions. C) employees’ productivity dramatically decreased when communication was irrelevant to work. D) employees’ facial expressions were insignificant in studying their communication patterns.

8) Researchers Alex Pentland and Benjamin Waber determined that the workers who interacted the most with their coworkers were A) the most productive. B) the least productive. C) more prone to the recency effect. D) least likely to experience groupthink.

9) According to Alex Pentland and Benjamin Waber, the workers who interact the most with their coworkers are the most productive because A) workplace communication only involves trading facts. B) they are more likely to experience groupthink. C) they are more prepared to make important work-related decisions. D) workplace communication is always oral.

10) Susanna strongly believes in the relationship between workplace communication and employee productivity, and she agrees with Alex Pentland and Benjamin Waber’s findings on workplace communication patterns. She finds that two of her employees, Steven and Amy, are talking to each other in Amy’s cubicle. She is likely to

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A) subtly hint to Steven that he should be getting back to work. B) allow them to continue for a reasonable amount of time. C) ensure that they only talk about work-related topics. D) ensure that they only talk about non-work-related topics.

11)

Pentland and Waber’s research suggests that effective communication A) can never occur in the presence of noise. B) only occurs at a lateral level. C) is about more than talking or writing. D) only occurs when brainstorming.

12)

The communication process begins when the sender of a message A) receives feedback. B) creates noise. C) encodes the message. D) gives feedback.

13)

When the sender of a message encodes a message, it means that the sender is A) translating his or her thoughts and feelings into words. B) encrypting the message based on inferences, leading to misunderstandings. C) distorting the message by adding noise to it. D) not focusing on the receiver’s viewpoint.

14)

In the communication process, encoded messages

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A) are only required when there is noise distorting a communication process. B) can only be transmitted through writing. C) can be transmitted through personal contact. D) always lead to misunderstandings.

15) Joy is a supervisor at an advertising agency. While conducting performance appraisal meetings with her employees, she instructs her secretary to hold all calls and to prevent any other interruptions. This action of Joy A) ensures that distractions that might hamper communication are avoided. B) increases the likelihood of messages being distorted during the communication process. C) distinguishes between opinions and facts so that communication is not hampered. D) shows that she uses the informal mode of communication to make employees comfortable.

16)

In the communication process, noise A) always leads to communication breakdowns. B) only affects the feedback process of communication. C) occurs because the sender of a message encodes the message. D) distorts communication by interfering with it.

17)

If incompatible electronic equipment is used to transmit a message, A) the message gets encoded by the equipment. B) the receiver will not be able to receive the message. C) lateral communication is not possible. D) the communication is likely to be distorted by noise.

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18)

Feedback is best defined as the

A) way the receiver of a message responds or fails to respond to the message. B) actions that can distort a message by interfering with the communication process. C) way people draw negative conclusions about a category of people based on stereotypes. D) path along which informal communication travels in an organization.

19) The sender of a message can recognize and resolve communication problems by paying attention to A) noise. B) inference. C) grapevine. D) feedback.

20)

Which of the following statements is true of feedback? A) Feedback does not take the form of words. B) Feedback is used to eliminate noise. C) Feedback is the main source of noise. D) Feedback may take the form of behavior.

21)

Identify a true statement about the communication process. A) The sender encodes, but does not do any decoding. B) The receiver decodes, but does not do any encoding. C) Noise and feedback do not affect communication. D) The receiver of a message must listen to it rather than just hear it.

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22) Jude loves to play GameCube games. While he is playing, he gets so involved that when someone asks him a question, he answers, “Uh-huh.” He is most likely A) listening, but not hearing. B) hearing, but not listening. C) communicating effectively. D) using formal communication.

23)

Communication fails to occur when the A) sender encodes the message. B) feedback is negative. C) receiver fails to eliminate noise. D) receiver does not decode the message.

24)

An important difference between hearing and listening is that

A) hearing requires full understanding of a message whereas listening is the mere registration of sound. B) hearing is the mere registration of sound whereas listening requires full understanding of a message. C) hearing can occur even if there is feedback whereas listening cannot occur in the presence of feedback. D) hearing cannot occur if there is feedback whereas listening can occur even if there is feedback.

25)

When a receiver decodes a message, he or she is

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A) hearing but not listening to the message. B) listening to the message. C) sending feedback. D) eliminating noise.

26)

The model of the communication process shows that communication works A) only when there is no noise. B) only when there is no feedback. C) when people decode messages as well as send them. D) when people hear messages instead of merely listening to them.

27) Craig is the manager of a company that is opening a new branch of operations in another country. In a meeting set up to inform his employees of this news, he focuses on how this move is going to make the company more profitable but fails to address the employees’ fears for job security. In this case, Craig has communicated ineffectively because he has A) ignored his receivers’ viewpoint. B) encoded his message. C) not eliminated feedback. D) failed to eliminate noise.

28) When feedback indicates that a message was not received fully and correctly, the sender should better adapt it to the receiver by A) eliminating sources of noise. B) avoiding the receiver’s viewpoint. C) not encoding his or her message. D) hearing rather than listening.

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29)

When an employee is providing feedback, a supervisor should A) quickly think of a response before the employee is done speaking. B) react defensively if the employee is critical of something the supervisor did. C) ask for more details and verify what the employee is saying. D) pay attention to the employee’s words rather than his or her emotions.

30)

Which of the following is a major type of distraction that obstructs active listening? A) assuming that the listener has nothing interesting to say B) looking at the speaker most of the time C) trying to hear the main points and supporting points D) decoding the receiver’s feedback

31) The technique that involves hearing what the speaker is saying, trying to understand the facts and feelings the speaker is trying to convey, and then stating what the listener understands that message to be, is called A) upward communication. B) active listening. C) downward communication. D) feedback.

32)

In workplace communication, active listening is used effectively only when A) upward communication is used. B) a supervisor does not encode his or her feedback to employees. C) downward communication is used. D) a supervisor demonstrates genuine respect for employees.

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33)

Active listening typically involves A) always replying promptly with a yes or no answer. B) decoding the information conveyed rather than the emotions of the speaker. C) understanding the feelings the speaker is conveying through a message. D) focusing on cultural differences that can distort communication.

34)

When faced with cross-cultural communication, supervisors should avoid A) speaking slowly and articulating words carefully. B) supplementing words with gestures. C) using metaphorical meanings of words. D) using facial expressions while communicating.

35)

Which of the following guidelines prepares employees for cross-cultural communication? A) use the figurative meanings of words B) generalize about individuals based on their culture C) speak very loudly D) ask for clarification when required

36)

Which of the following is a common error in cross-cultural communication?

A) seeking feedback by asking the listener what he or she has heard B) using literal meanings of words C) assuming that a limited knowledge of English means that the person is uninterested in learning English D) assuming that people from other cultures may be unfamiliar with the idioms used in one’s own culture

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37) Jeff is the owner of a new Indian restaurant. He employs Vijay, an immigrant from India, who mostly speaks Hindi. Vijay recently began learning English and is making good progress. Jeff will be effectively communicating with Vijay if he A) talks to Vijay with a loud tone of voice. B) uses figurative meanings of words. C) avoids using simple words. D) supplements his words with gestures.

38)

To be a good listener, a supervisor should A) interrupt the speaker without hesitation to clarify his or her understanding. B) avoid checking if he or she heard the speaker correctly by restating the speaker’s

point. C) eliminate distractions and give the speaker his or her complete attention. D) make the speaker comfortable by avoiding eye contact with the speaker most of the time.

39)

Which of the following is an effective way to seek feedback from a listener? A) asking questions such as “Do you understand?” B) asking simple yes-or-no questions C) asking questions that require some level of understanding to answer appropriately D) asking questions such as “Do you work tomorrow?”

40)

Which of the following is true of cultural stereotypes?

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A) It is only harmful when negative stereotypes are used by supervisors. B) Both positive and negative stereotypes result in negative emotions. C) It is acceptable to use positive stereotypes to give feedback. D) Even negative stereotypes can be used by supervisors to motivate their employees.

41) Which of the following is a requirement for supervisors to communicate better with employees? A) being more open to possibilities when employees come up with ideas B) focusing on giving directions and advice than on listening to employees C) excluding employees’ emotions and paying attention to their words D) thinking of an immediate response when an employee is talking

42)

Which of the following rules should supervisors follow in order to be better listeners? A) avoid distinguishing between opinions and facts B) try to hear the main point and supporting points C) ask questions to clarify one's understanding when the speaker is talking D) refrain from giving a smile when the speaker hesitates

43)

Which of the following is a basic guideline for cross-cultural communication? A) speak loudly B) talk fast C) pronounce words carefully D) use metaphors and similes

44) In the context of barriers to communication, which of the following helps supervisors steer clear of misunderstanding? Version 1

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A) use words that attribute characteristics to another person B) use “you statements” instead of “I statements” C) treat inferences as facts when communicating D) avoid using language that obscures the meaning of words

45)

To overcome the barrier of information overload, supervisors should ideally A) give employees only the information that will be useful to them. B) encourage employees to turn to the grapevine for information. C) not ask for feedback because employees might get distracted. D) speak clearly in a loud tone of voice.

46) In the context of barriers to communication, misunderstandings are least likely to occur when A) a message is complicated. B) technical jargon is used. C) simple words are used. D) a message is emotional.

47) In the context of barriers to communication, misunderstandings are most likely to occur when A) a message is complicated. B) the sender encodes a message. C) simple words are used. D) gestures are used.

48)

To avoid misinterpreting the words and behavior of others, a supervisor must

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A) speak in a loud tone of voice. B) be familiar with the communication styles of the various cultures of people with whom he or she works. C) not supplement his words with gestures as this is considered to be offensive in many cultures. D) use his or her industry’s technical jargon instead of relying on simple words.

49)

A conclusion drawn from the facts available is referred to as a(n) A) prejudice. B) stereotype. C) noise. D) inference.

50)

Which of the following statements is true about inferences? A) Statements using the words “never” and “always” are inferences. B) Inferences can only be used for lateral communication. C) Making inferences is always a conscious process. D) Facts are derived from inferences.

51)

The difference between a fact and an inference is that a(n) A) fact is a conclusion drawn from statements using the words “never” and “always.” B) inference is a conclusion drawn from the facts available. C) fact is a conclusion drawn typically from an informal mode of communication. D) inference is always true.

52)

Which of the following statements about inferences and facts is true?

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A) Statements using the words “never” and “always” are less likely to be inferences. B) A fact is a conclusion drawn from the inferences available for scrutiny. C) When sending a message, a supervisor should avoid statements that phrase inferences as facts. D) An inference is a conclusion drawn from observation.

53)

When perceptions about others are false, A) messages cannot be encoded. B) prejudices are overcome. C) stereotypes are overcome. D) messages might get distorted.

54)

Prejudices are defined as A) negative conclusions about a category of people based on stereotypes. B) beliefs and norms that govern organizational behavior in a firm. C) conclusions reached on the basis of reasoning and evidence. D) principles by which people distinguish what is morally right.

55)

A supervisor can best combat biases in attention by A) using statements that phrase inferences as facts. B) using technical jargon to grab the attention of the listener. C) phrasing messages carefully to appeal to the receiver. D) switching to nonverbal forms of communication.

56)

Which of the following statements is true about nonverbal messages?

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A) Nonverbal forms of communication work best when a supervisor wants to remove biases in attention. B) Our facial expression, posture, and even silence provide nonverbal cues. C) The meanings of nonverbal messages are universal and do not change from culture to culture. D) Nonverbal messages generally have lesser influence on the receiver than verbal messages.

57)

We learn the meaning of nonverbal messages by A) participating in our culture. B) engaging in passive listening. C) drawing facts from inferences. D) encoding messages.

58)

When a person is sending both verbal and nonverbal messages, A) the probability of noise distorting the communication is very less. B) the receiver is more likely to not send any feedback. C) the information is most likely to be misinterpreted. D) the nonverbal message may have more influence on the receiver.

59)

To communicate with employees, supervisors usually depend on A) written communication. B) nonverbal communication. C) haptic communication. D) oral communication.

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60)

In which of the following situations is it possible to send both nonverbal and verbal cues? A) a supervisor receiving a memo from his manager B) a supervisor orally providing instructions to an employee C) a manager receiving an e-mail from his employees D) an organization sending a letter to its customers

61) One way supervisors can protect themselves and avoid ethical problems that can arise from their public speaking activities is by A) letting their employer know about their public speaking activities. B) refraining from encoding their messages. C) sticking only to upward forms of communication when speaking in public. D) sticking only to lateral forms of communication when speaking in public.

62)

Much of the verbal communication that occurs in organizations is in writing because A) writing allows users to communicate nonverbally as well as verbally. B) writing is the only way to communicate laterally. C) written communication provides a record of what people tell one another. D) written communication eliminates any disruptions caused by noise.

63)

Which of the following is an advantage of memos?

A) They take a relatively short time to be prepared and delivered. B) They are the preferred mode of communication for writing to people outside the organization. C) They provide a written document for the receiver to review. D) They allow the supervisors to send out nonverbal messages more effectively.

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64)

Which of the following is a difference between letters and memos?

A) Letters are more formal than memos. B) Letters are used for analyzing problems, whereas memos are only for formal communication. C) Letters cannot be sent electronically, whereas memos can be sent electronically. D) Letters provide a written document for review, whereas memos do not provide a written document for review.

65)

Which of the following is a similarity between letters and memos? A) Both are formal ways of sending a written message. B) Both take a relatively long time to prepare and deliver. C) Both can only be sent electronically. D) Both can only be used for lateral communication.

66)

Most complications from email communications arise because A) they do not provide a written record for review. B) it takes a long time to write an email. C) of how easy it is to send an email. D) two-way communication is not possible.

67)

Which of the following is an advantage of sending letters over emails? A) Letters take less time to be prepared and delivered. B) Letters offer a chance for reflection and change. C) Letters are easier to send. D) Letters can be used to communicate informally.

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68)

Which of the following is true of bulletin board notices used in organizations? A) They are never used to supplement personal types of communication. B) They are highly ineffective. C) They can only be used for upward communication. D) They are impersonal ways to send messages.

69) The ability to send and receive information from many places, including one’s workplace, home, car, and airplane seat, can contribute to A) information overload. B) the recency syndrome. C) increase in noise. D) the halo effect.

70)

One way to minimize the intrusiveness of modern media is to

A) convey messages without using complicated words. B) limit the use of phone calls and texts to situations where an immediate reply is essential. C) rely only on oral communication which gives an opportunity to send and receive many nonverbal cues. D) communicate without the use of feedback.

71)

Supervisors can help with the constant interruptions of modern media by

A) banning the use of memos at work. B) restricting all emails to lateral forms of communication only. C) setting aside time when cell phones should be turned off so everyone can concentrate. D) communicating without the use of feedback.

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72) A supervisor should choose oral communication over written communication when the message is A) official. B) sensitive. C) factual. D) complex.

73)

For emotionally charged issues, the supervisor should typically A) communicate face-to-face. B) communicate through email. C) use voice mail. D) use the bulletin board.

74) When there is a need for a record, which of the following is the most effective mode of communication? A) telephone conversation B) memorandum C) face-to-face communication D) conference call

75)

The easiest way to get feedback is to A) use memos. B) send an oral message. C) send an email. D) use bulletin board notices.

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76) When feedback is critical, which of the following is the most effective mode of communication? A) telephone conversation B) memorandum C) face-to-face communication D) bulletin board notice

77)

People will receive a message only if A) the message has not been encoded by the sender of the message. B) it is a lateral form of communication. C) there is no feedback. D) it comes through a channel they feel comfortable using.

78)

Which of the following statements is true about nonverbal messages? A) One way in which people can communicate nonverbally is through their choice of

attire. B) When a person is sending both verbal and nonverbal messages, the nonverbal message has little or no influence on the receiver. C) The meanings of nonverbal cues are consistent among different groups of people born in a country. D) People from different cultures have similar nonverbal vocabularies.

79)

A supervisor should choose written communication over oral communication when

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A) building a relationship with the receiver of the message is important. B) a message includes complex information. C) immediate feedback is necessary. D) information is more sensitive than factual.

80)

Why is knowledge about the directions of communications essential for a supervisor?

A) Supervisors need it to protect themselves from the ethical problems that can arise from public speaking. B) Supervisors can use that knowledge to be sure that they are communicating in all directions. C) Without knowing about directions of communications, supervisors cannot engage in cross-cultural communication. D) Without knowing about directions of communications, supervisors cannot encode messages.

81) Organizational communication in which a message is sent to someone at a lower level is referred to as A) diagonal communication. B) upward communication. C) lateral communication. D) downward communication.

82) Jeremy is the manager of a supermarket. When he asks all his employees to assemble for a meeting, he is using ________ communication. A) multidirectional B) downward C) lateral D) upward

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83) Organizational communication in which a message is sent to someone at a higher level is referred to as A) upward communication. B) diagonal communication. C) lateral communication. D) downward communication.

84) When James, the receptionist of a marketing firm, asks his manager for a raise, he is using ________ communication. A) upward B) diagonal C) lateral D) grapevine

85) Steven is the supervisor of a transport company. He feels that he should do something to be more informed about his employees. Which of the following is a way for Steven to be more informed about his employees? A) He should encourage upward communication. B) He should discourage diagonal communication. C) He should rely on rumors. D) He should shut down all forms of grapevine communication.

86) A supervisor is receiving a(n) ________ communication when an employee reports a problem.

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A) diagonal B) upward C) lateral D) downward

87) When a supervisor gets a memo from top management describing a new company policy, he or she is receiving a(n) ________ communication. A) diagonal B) upward C) lateral D) downward

88) To be well informed and benefit from employees’ creativity, a supervisor should primarily encourage A) nonverbal communication. B) grapevine communication. C) upward communication. D) haptic communication.

89)

One method that supervisors can use to encourage upward communication is to A) persuade one’s boss to ask questions. B) hear rather than listen to employees. C) use a suggestion box. D) use an authoritarian leadership style.

90)

Lateral communication occurs when a message is sent to a person

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A) at a higher level in the organization. B) at the same level in the organization. C) outside the organization. D) at a lower level in the organization.

91) When Arianna, the supervisor of the production department of a fertilizer company, asks her counterpart, Brian, the supervisor of the raw materials department, for a meeting, she is using A) grapevine communication. B) lateral communication. C) upward communication. D) downward communication.

92)

Supervisors send and receive lateral communications when they A) evaluate a new policy from top management. B) take instructions from their manager. C) ask their manager for a raise. D) socialize with their peers at the company.

93)

Supervisors send a downward communication when they A) coordinate their group’s work with that of other supervisors. B) tell the manager how work is progressing or ask for a raise. C) tell an employee how to perform a task. D) discuss their needs with coworkers in other departments.

94)

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of formal communication?

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A) It is directed toward accomplishing the goals of the organization. B) It is directed toward meeting people’s individual needs. C) It rarely follows the lines of the organization chart. D) It is typically used by top management but not by employees.

95)

Which of the following is true of informal communication? A) It is directed toward accomplishing the goals of the organization. B) It is directed toward meeting people’s individual needs. C) It is typically used only for lateral communication. D) It is typically used by top management but not by employees.

96) Communication that is primarily directed toward meeting people’s individual needs is called A) formal communication. B) informal communication. C) diagonal communication. D) upward communication.

97)

Much of the communication that occurs in an organization is A) directed toward meeting the organization’s goals. B) through recorded conversations. C) directed toward meeting individual needs. D) through formal meetings.

98)

Which of the following is true of rumors?

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A) The supervisor is often obligated to participate in spreading rumors. B) Rumors rarely tell a complete or unbiased version of the truth. C) Rumors are always based on facts. D) Much of the formal communication takes the form of rumors.

99) Rumors and gossip rarely tell a complete or unbiased version of the truth; therefore, supervisors should A) participate in spreading rumors. B) have an open mind and get the facts from those directly involved. C) use grapevine communication to prevent the spread of rumors. D) immediately call for legal action against all rumormongers.

100)

In the context of communicating in organizations, the grapevine is

A) an example of formal communication. B) the path along which informal communication travels. C) the mode of communication preferred by supervisors for upward communication. D) the mode of communication used by supervisors to send messages outside the organization.

101)

The grapevine is important to supervisors because it is A) a formal form of communication used in organizations. B) the only way to use downward communication. C) the only way to use upward communication. D) used by employees as a source of information.

102)

As the grapevine is a source of information for employees, supervisors should

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A) use it as the primary way to communicate with their employees. B) ensure that they are the primary source of all the information that flows through the grapevine. C) expect that employees sometimes have information before they have delivered it. D) be careful not to use lateral forms of communication.

103) In times of crisis, when employees are not satisfied with the amount of information they receive from the management, they may be getting incorrect information from A) haptic communication. B) formal communication. C) the grapevine. D) the employee handbook.

104)

Managers are generally unable to control the grapevine of information as A) it is only used by supervisors for lateral communication. B) it generally springs up on its own. C) it is the most formal form of communication used by organizations. D) it is the only form of communication that does not require feedback.

105)

Which of the following is true of grapevine communication? A) It is primarily used by supervisors. B) It only occurs at times of crisis. C) It can happen online. D) It can be easily controlled by managers.

106)

Communication is the process by which people send and receive information.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

107) In the communication process, the receiver’s behavior in response to a message is a form of feedback for the sender. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) For effective communication to occur, it is mandatory for the sender to play an active role, but the receiver can play a passive role. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109) Effective communication is most likely to occur when the focus is entirely on the speaker’s viewpoint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110) In explaining to employees that the department will be reorganized, a supervisor should focus on how the changes will make the company more profitable, not on topics such as job security and job design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) An important way to combat information overload is to give employees only information that will be useful to them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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112) Awareness enables the sender and the receiver of a message to focus on understanding rather than assuming. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113)

Tone of voice is a major type of nonverbal message. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114)

A manager sharing ideas with another manager is an example of lateral communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D Version 1

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33) C 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) D 60) B 61) A 62) C Version 1

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63) C 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) B 87) D 88) C 89) C 90) B 91) B 92) D Version 1

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93) C 94) A 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) B 99) B 100) B 101) D 102) C 103) C 104) B 105) C 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Compare and contrast McClelland’s theory to Vroom’s theory.

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Briefly describe reinforcement theory.

3) Discuss two pros and two cons of keeping pay information secret. What can a company do to offset the cons?

Describe McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y managers.

5) Why is it important for employers to make work interesting for their employees? What are some of the techniques to make work interesting?

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Giving people incentives that cause them to act in desired ways is known as A) consideration. B) bribery. C) motivation. D) punishment.

The objective of motivating employees is to

A) lead them to perform in ways that meet the goals of the department and the organization. B) get as much work out of them as possible to maximize company profits. C) justify their positions, especially during a layoff, so they do not lose their jobs. D) help them believe that they can attain desired incentives.

The theories of motivation that focus on what things motivate workers are called A) content theories. B) process theories. C) expectancy theories. D) equity theories.

Which of the following statements is true of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory? A) Security needs include the desire for love, friendship, and companionship. B) People first aim to satisfy their physiological needs before satisfying their security

needs. C) Social needs are satisfied through buying insurance and attending medical checkups. D) People satisfy their self-actualization needs through paychecks and benefits.

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10) Edgar, a student at New York University, goes to Luanda every summer to teach poor kids. He volunteers with an Angolan government agency for two months every year for this purpose. Which of the following needs categorized by Maslow’s theory does Edgar want to satisfy? A) power B) security C) self-actualization D) expectancy

11) Jim was praised by his manager for his work. In this case, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Jim’s __________ needs have been met. A) physiological B) social C) self-actualization D) esteem

12) Anna goes on a meditation retreat in India to develop herself spiritually. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which need is she trying to satisfy? A) physiological need B) social need C) self-actualization need D) esteem need

13) Jane plans on buying general insurance that covers her home, vehicle, and valuables. She believes it will keep her and her family safe from any harm. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, she is trying to satisfy a(n)

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A) physiological need. B) social need. C) esteem need. D) security need.

14) According to Maslow, a man who has met his security needs is most likely to also have satisfied his __________ needs. A) physiological B) social C) esteem D) self-actualization

15) According to Maslow, a man will satisfy his __________ needs before he attempts to satisfy his social needs. A) physiological B) spiritual C) esteem D) self-actualization

16) Alan, a stockbroker, did well in the commodities market and decided to buy a Ferrari. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Alan is most likely fulfilling his A) esteem need. B) physiological need. C) safety need. D) self-actualization need.

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17) When a person does not feel valued by his or her company, the person’s __________ needs are most likely to be unfulfilled. A) esteem B) social C) physiological D) self-actualization

18) Brian is the manager of a sales office. His company has not been doing well lately, and all his employees are demotivated because of that. Which of the following needs must Brian try to satisfy in order to motivate his employees? A) spiritual B) security C) physiological D) self-actualization

19)

Which of the following is a shortcoming of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory? A) It is only applicable to work settings. B) It cannot be applied to the piecework system. C) It was not tested much for relevance to the work settings. D) It relies heavily on the Pygmalion effect.

20)

Job sharing is a flexible work arrangement in which A) an employee delegates work to his or her subordinates to take time off from work. B) two full-time employees exchange jobs for a given period of time. C) an employee works on behalf of a colleague to ease the colleague’s workload. D) two part-time employees split the duties of a single full-time job.

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21)

Applied to a work situation, Maslow’s theory means a supervisor must A) recognize that employees are only motivated by money. B) be aware of the current needs of particular employees. C) actively try to eliminate the Pygmalion effect. D) always use the piecework system for providing financial incentives.

22) A policy that grants employees some leeway in choosing which 8 hours a day or which 40 hours a week to work is called A) job sharing. B) gainsharing. C) flextime. D) a compressed workweek.

23) Cathy, an employee, has to take leave on Monday. So, in order to compensate, she takes her company laptop home to work. This is an example of A) job sharing. B) telecommuting. C) flextime. D) a compressed workweek.

24) Vinita and Lilly work on the same projects in Cyber Max Company. They both manage the duties of a single position in the company. They only work for five hours every day as both of them have six-month-old babies. What type of work arrangement does this exemplify?

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A) flextime B) job sharing C) telecommuting D) staggered shifts

25)

McClelland’s theory is based on which of the following needs? A) physiological, social, and self-actualization B) achievement, power, and affiliation C) reward, power, and social D) esteem, social, and security

26) Which of the following is true according to McClelland’s achievement-power-affiliation theory? A) The need for affiliation is the desire to do something better than it has been done before. B) People with a high need for power desire close and friendly relationships and do not like to be responsible for other people. C) People with a high need for achievement prefer unchallenging goals as they are easier to achieve. D) The nature of a person’s early life experiences can influence the person’s needs.

27)

A person with a strong need for achievement A) is more motivated by success than by money. B) tries to influence others. C) seeks out advancement and responsibility. D) seeks approval and acceptance.

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28)

According to David McClelland, a person with a strong need for achievement tends to A) set challenging but achievable goals. B) assess risk carelessly. C) actively avoid work. D) be more motivated by money than success.

29) Which of the following is a statement that both McClelland’s theory and Maslow’s theory agree upon? A) Money is the only motivating factor for all employees. B) All people have the same pattern of needs. C) Supervisors must remember that employees are motivated by a variety of possibilities. D) Different people have different patterns of needs.

30) According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is included in hygiene factors? A) salary and benefits B) personal growth C) work in itself D) opportunity for recognition

31)

Frederick Herzberg’s research led to the conclusion that

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A) dissatisfaction results from the presence of hygiene factors. B) employee satisfaction and dissatisfaction stem from different sources. C) money is the only motivator for employees. D) organizations that provide only motivating factors ensure optimum productivity.

32)

According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, dissatisfaction results from the A) absence of hygiene factors. B) presence of motivating factors. C) Pygmalion effect. D) lack of the need for affiliation.

33)

According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, satisfaction results from the A) presence of hygiene factors. B) presence of motivating factors. C) Pygmalion effect. D) fulfilment of security needs.

34)

Frederick Herzberg found that employees are most productive when organizations

A) provide “family-friendly” policies, which typically include flexible work arrangements. B) stop the use of telecommuting. C) eliminate the Pygmalion effect. D) provide a combination of desirable hygiene factors and motivating factors.

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35) Michael was an engineer in a large aerospace company. He was unhappy with his job, and it was beginning to show in terms of his work performance. His supervisor, Nick, tried to motivate Michael by telling him about the new employee benefit plans that the company would be coming out with within the next quarter. Nick also told Michael about the new building that they were going to move to next month. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which type of factor was Nick using to motivate Michael? A) motivating factors B) hygiene factors C) reinforcement factors D) affiliation factors

36)

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a hygiene factor? A) personal growth B) advancement C) responsibility D) supervision

37) A family-friendly policy that allows employees to work more hours on fewer days, allowing more days off, is called A) a compressed workweek. B) part-time work. C) telecommuting. D) flextime.

38) According to David McClelland’s theory of motivation, the need for power refers to the desire to

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A) maintain interpersonal and social relationships. B) set and accomplish challenging goals. C) gain control and authority over other people. D) take calculated risks to achieve set goals.

39) Jina works as an accountant for a small manufacturing company. She works from home on weekdays so that she can keep an eye on her ailing father. The company has provided her with a computer that allows her to keep in touch via email. Which of the following flexible work arrangements is exemplified in this scenario? A) a compressed workweek B) telecommuting C) job sharing D) part-time work

40) Catherine attends high school during the day and works as a childcare provider in the evening. She saves most of the money she makes and intends to use it to travel the country. Which of the following flexible work arrangements is exemplified in this scenario? A) job sharing B) telecommuting C) part-time work D) a compressed workweek

41) In the context of David McClelland’s theory of motivation, the need for achievement refers to the desire to A) maintain close and friendly personal relationships. B) be responsible for other people. C) control and influence other people. D) do something better than it has been done before.

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42) In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is categorized as a hygiene factor? A) working conditions B) work in itself C) the opportunity for achievement D) the opportunity for recognition

43) In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is categorized as a motivating factor? A) relationship with subordinates B) personal growth C) company policy D) supervision

44) Which of the following theories maintains that people keep doing things that have led to consequences they like, and people avoid doing things that have had undesirable consequences? A) Skinner’s reinforcement theory B) Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory C) Herzberg’s two-factor theory D) McClelland’s achievement-power-affiliation theory

45)

Which of the following is true about Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory?

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A) It is based on employees’ perceptions of rewards and whether they are able to achieve them. B) According to this theory, dissatisfaction results from the absence of hygiene factors and satisfaction results from the presence of motivating factors. C) It focuses on three needs, namely power, achievement, and affiliation. D) It argues that needs are organized into a hierarchy and the most basic needs are at the bottom of the hierarchy.

46) Which assumption did Vroom make when he set out to explain what determines the intensity of motivation? A) Money is the only motivator for all employees. B) People act as they do to satisfy their needs. C) The Pygmalion effect applies to all situations. D) Dissatisfaction arises from the lack of hygiene factors.

47)

According to Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory, valence is A) an unpleasant consequence of an undesirable behavior. B) the perceived probability that a promised reward will actually be received. C) the value a person places on the outcome of a particular behavior. D) the cause for all types of dissatisfaction.

48)

According to Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory, expectancy is A) a measure of the impact of the Pygmalion effect. B) the deciding factor used in the piecework system. C) the value a person places on the outcome of a particular behavior. D) the perceived likelihood that a behavior will lead to an outcome.

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49)

According to Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory, instrumentality is A) a measure of the impact of the Pygmalion effect. B) a measure of the usefulness of an employee. C) the perceived probability that a promised reward will actually be received. D) the perceived likelihood that a behavior will lead to an outcome.

50) Greta, the manager of a company, has implemented a payments-for-suggestions plan whereby employees get paid for providing valid suggestions that can help the company. She found that not many employees came forward with suggestions. Upon further investigation, she found out that employees did not think that they would actually be paid for making suggestions. So, she made the payments-for-suggestions plan part of their work contract, which guaranteed that they would be paid. According to Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory, Greta has increased the __________ of her plan to motivate her employees. A) instrumentality B) expectancy C) valence D) reinforcement

51) __________ theory says that the strength of motivation equals the perceived value of the outcome of a particular behavior times the perceived probability that the behavior will result in the outcome. A) Vroom’s expectancy–valence B) Herzberg’s two-factor C) McClelland’s achievement-power-affiliation D) Alderfer's ERG

52)

Reinforcement theory implies that supervisors can

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A) encourage or discourage a particular kind of behavior by the way they respond to the behavior. B) only use money as a motivating factor. C) use the piecework system to punish workers effectively. D) rely on the Pygmalion effect to accurately determine an employee’s motivation levels.

53)

Reinforcement differs from punishment in that it is A) more effective in the long term. B) less effective in the short term. C) less effective in the long term. D) more effective in the short term.

54) Both Vroom’s and Skinner’s process theories both state that supervisors motivate most effectively when they A) only provide extrinsic rewards. B) eliminate the Pygmalion effect. C) place less emphasis on punishing infractions. D) use more punishment than reinforcement.

55) __________ theory maintains that people’s behavior is influenced largely by the consequences of their past behavior. A) Valence–expectancy B) Reinforcement C) Alderfer's ERG D) Herzberg’s two-factor

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56)

Which of the following is an example of punishment?

A) Certain police officers are given favored assignments when the department receives compliments on those police officers’ work. B) Employees who meet the sales target are not required to work on weekends. C) An assembly-line worker is docked if he or she gets to work late. D) A nurse is given the day shift after working six months in the night shift without any patient and/or doctor complaints.

57)

Which of the following is an example of reinforcement? A) a service waiter being fired for being rude to customers B) an employee getting demoted for never coming in to work on time C) a truck driver getting a bonus for making deliveries on time D) an employee being paid his or her severance package

58) Ted is a manager at Global Gains, an advertising firm. Kim works as a sales executive in Global Gains. Ted reduced Kim’s incentives for three successive months after repeatedly warning her of her incompetence. Kim started having a passive approach toward her job as she believed that she would fail no matter what. She was convinced that she would never be able to achieve what was expected of her. Which of the following describes Kim’s situation? A) learned helplessness B) instrumentality C) cognitive dissonance D) affirmation

59)

Repeated punishment or failure can lead to an unhappy consequence called

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A) loss aversion. B) repression. C) learned helplessness. D) self-serving bias.

60) In order to successfully implement behavior modification programs in organizational settings, a supervisor should consider A) offering all employees similar types of rewards regardless of the quality of their performance. B) giving feedback to employees by telling them only about what they are doing right and not what they are doing wrong. C) punishing an employee in the presence of other employees. D) providing rewards and punishments that are substantial.

61) According to the __________, organizations with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius must give employees up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave to care for a newborn, adopted, or foster child within one year of the child’s arrival. A) Uniform Adoption Act of 1994 B) Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 C) Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 D) Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

62)

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward?

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A) an employee experiencing a sense of increased self-esteem after accomplishing a challenging task B) a supervisor spending time helping an employee sort out a personal problem C) a human resource executive being satisfied with his or her job, which fulfills his or her esteem needs D) a manager giving an “employee of the month” award with a certificate and gift vouchers

63)

An extrinsic reward A) is a compensation that is extraneous to the task accomplished. B) is the personal satisfaction that comes directly from performing a task. C) is given only to executives who do extra work. D) is never given in the form of money.

64)

An intrinsic reward is A) only achievable when money is not a motivator. B) a compensation that is extraneous to the task accomplished. C) the personal satisfaction that comes directly from performing a task. D) determined solely by the Pygmalion effect.

65)

Which of the following is an intrinsic reward? A) the happiness one experiences while gardening B) the recognition one gets for breaking a world record C) the pay bonus an employee receives for a job well done D) the trophy a boxing champion gets for winning a tournament

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66)

The content theories of motivation imply that money A) is the only expectation that employees have from a job. B) motivates people when it meets their needs. C) motivates employees to work toward meeting organizational goals. D) cannot be given as an extrinsic reward.

67)

Who among the following is most likely to work solely for intrinsic rewards? A) a single mother living in Mexico B) a college student studying economics C) a retired accountant with a pension D) a man who has to support a family of five

68)

If money is to work as a motivator, it should A) be seen as achievable by employees. B) be used only as an intrinsic reward. C) not serve to signal one’s worth to his or her organization. D) circumvent the Pygmalion effect.

69)

The structure of a pay plan A) determines the extent to which the Pygmalion effect affects employees’ motivation. B) enables supervisors to rate employee performance. C) influences the degree to which employees are motivated to perform well. D) decides the specific roles of a supervisor.

70)

Payments for meeting or exceeding objectives are known as

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A) financial incentives. B) scale economies. C) intrinsic rewards. D) basic wages.

71)

Which of the following is a true statement about financial incentives? A) They are only given when objectives are exceeded. B) They can be given for acquiring additional skills. C) They are decided by supervisors. D) They are only given in the form of intrinsic rewards.

72)

The piecework system A) moves employees from job to job to give them more variety. B) provides training in the skills required to perform more than one job. C) pays people according to how much they produce. D) adds more duties to a job to make it more interesting.

73)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a production bonus system? A) It relies heavily on the Pygmalion effect. B) It does not encourage high-quality work. C) It assumes that money is not an important motivation tool. D) It involves excessive behavior modification.

74) People such as independent contractors, seamstresses, farm workers, and so on are often paid by

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A) commissions. B) the piecework system. C) the production bonus system. D) profit-sharing plans.

75) An increasing number of companies are adopting a __________, under which a company encourages employees to participate in making suggestions and decisions about improving the way the company or work group operates. A) group incentive plan B) payments-for-suggestions plan C) gainsharing program D) production bonus system

76) Employees in a production department may receive a basic wage or salary plus a bonus that consists of a payment for each unit produced. This is called a A) payments-for-suggestions plan. B) production bonus system. C) piecework system. D) commission.

77) A financial incentive plan that rewards a team of workers for meeting or exceeding an objective is called a A) piecework system. B) payments-for-suggestions plan. C) group incentive plan. D) commission.

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78) Which of the following methods is often used to pay independent contractors, that is, people who are self-employed and perform work for an organization? A) group incentive plans B) payments-for-suggestions plans C) a production bonus system D) a piecework system

79) Which financial incentive pay plan involves companies paying employees for offering ideas on how to cut costs or improve quality? A) a piecework system B) a production bonus system C) profit sharing D) payments for suggestions

80)

Profit-sharing plans and gainsharing plans are types of A) group incentive plans. B) innovation plans. C) piecework plans. D) payments-for-suggestions plans.

81) Arax Group of Companies has initiated a group incentive plan to motivate its employees. Under this plan, the company sets aside money that remains after all operating expenses are subtracted from its revenue and divides the money among its employees. Which of the following plans has the company adopted?

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A) a gainsharing plan B) a stock-based incentive plan C) a profit-sharing plan D) a pay-for-performance plan

82) Identify the correct statement about the wage and salary information of private (nongovernment) workers. A) Employees’ earnings are public information. B) Employees usually do not know one another’s earnings. C) Employees’ earnings are published on the company’s noticeboard. D) Supervisors do not know what their subordinates earn.

83) Which of the following is a true statement about the wage and salary information of government workers? A) Employees’ earnings are public information. B) Employees do not know one another’s earnings. C) Salary information can only be accessed in case of a national emergency. D) Salary information is only available to politicians.

84) What do organizations do to maintain the secrecy of individual salaries yet provide enough information on salary to motivate employees? A) do not publish any wage or salary information whatsoever B) publish pay ranges, showing the lowest and highest wage or salary for each position C) publish selective salary details of all employees D) post the information only on their company’s noticeboard

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85)

According to Douglas McGregor, Theory X managers assume that A) people can learn to seek responsibility. B) people will work hard to achieve objectives to which they are committed. C) many people are able to be creative in solving organizational problems. D) people’s primary need is for security.

86) According to William Ouchi, which of the following statements is true about Theory Z managers? A) They give employees relatively great freedom in carrying out their duties. B) They fail to consider long-term goals when making plans. C) They assume that people wish to avoid responsibility and prefer to be directed. D) They are not likely to adopt a democratic leadership role.

87) According to McGregor, which of the following is an assumption made by Theory Y managers? A) People dislike work and try to avoid it. B) People can learn to seek responsibilities. C) People’s primary need is for security. D) People must be coerced to perform.

88) According to William Ouchi, which of the following statements is true about Theory Z managers? A) They assume that people must be forced to perform. B) They would adopt an autocratic leadership role. C) They consider long-term goals when making plans. D) They believe that people dislike work and try to avoid it.

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89) __________ is a set of management attitudes based on the view that people dislike work and must be coerced to perform. A) Theory X B) Two-factor theory C) Reinforcement theory D) Theory Z

90) Rhett, the supervisor of a construction crew, assumes that his employees have little ambition and dislike work. He uses this assumption to micromanage their work. From this description of Rhett, it can be inferred that he is a A) Theory X manager. B) Theory A manager. C) Theory Y manager. D) Theory Z manager.

91)

Who among the following is a Theory X manager? A) a manager who involves his or her employees in all decision-making processes B) a manager who micromanages his or her employees C) a manager who allows people to follow flexible schedules D) a manager who constantly provides positive encouragement to his or her employees

92)

A Theory X manager assumes that A) people cannot be coerced to perform work. B) people like to work but need direction. C) people actively seek responsibility. D) people wish to avoid responsibility.

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93) According to McGregor’s __________, working is as natural an activity as resting or playing, and people will work hard to achieve objectives to which they are committed. A) Theory X B) Theory Y C) two-factor theory D) reinforcement theory

94)

A Theory Y manager A) focuses on developing the potential of his or her employees. B) believes that people wish to avoid responsibility and would prefer to be directed. C) adopts an autocratic leadership role. D) assumes that the primary need of people is security.

95) __________ is a set of management attitudes that emphasizes employee participation in all aspects of decision making. A) Reinforcement theory B) Two-factor theory C) Theory X D) Theory Z

96)

According to William Ouchi’s Theory Z, A) Japanese workers are more productive than their U.S. counterparts. B) the Pygmalion effect leads to demotivation in employees. C) people have a natural tendency to avoid work. D) people will work hard to achieve objectives to which they are committed.

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97)

Training in the skills required to perform more than one job is known as A) job sharing. B) vestibule training. C) job enrichment. D) cross-training.

98) Chris is a manager at Sifco Inc. He provides all his employees with cross-training, where employees are provided training in the skills required to perform more than one job. In order to motivate his employees by making their jobs more interesting, Chris is using job A) sharing. B) enlargement. C) enrichment. D) rotation.

99)

Job __________ is the incorporation of motivating factors into a job. A) sharing B) specialization C) enrichment D) enlargement

100)

Job __________ is an effort to make a job more interesting by adding more duties to it. A) sharing B) specialization C) enrichment D) enlargement

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101) When modifying jobs to make them more interesting, an organization and a supervisor must remember that A) production bonus systems only work when intrinsic rewards are used. B) most employees are only motivated by money. C) not all employees are motivated by the same things at the same time. D) all employees will eagerly accept the new variety in their jobs.

102) Which of the following is one of the top reasons employees in a global survey gave for taking a job with a company? A) opportunities to learn new skills B) convenient work location C) the business of the organization D) the organization’s financial health

103)

Giving employees some contact with the people who receive and use their products A) can make their work more meaningful. B) reduces their motivation to ask for more money. C) eliminates the Pygmalion effect. D) is a motivational strategy according to McGregor’s Theory X.

104)

The Pygmalion effect is the A) direct relationship between expectations and performance. B) inability to function effectively as a result of ongoing stress. C) tendency of a manager to judge an employee based upon their own image. D) power that comes from a person’s formal role in an organization.

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105) In which of the following situations has the Pygmalion effect been utilized to increase motivation? A) A supervisor rewards his or her employee’s excellent performance with a raise. B) A manager demands that his or her employee improve his or her performance or prepare to be fired. C) An employee requests his or her manager for a flexible schedule. D) A manager tells all his or her employees that he or she expects much higher performance from them.

106) Susan, a manager at Biskin, clearly lays out the targets for her team members. She has high expectations of her team members. She constantly motivates them and keeps reinstating what the team members are capable of, which eventually leads to high performances. Which of the following indicates this relationship? A) the Pygmalion effect B) the Hawthorne effect C) the Galatea effect D) the placebo effect

107)

Whatever rewards a supervisor uses, they should be linked to an employee’s A) seniority in the company. B) informal leadership abilities. C) level of participation in meetings. D) performance.

108) The objective of motivating employees is to lead them to perform in ways that meet the goals of the department and the organization.

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⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Maslow’s theory assumes that different people have different patterns of needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110) According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, opportunity for recognition is considered a hygiene factor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) Vroom’s expectancy–valence theory and Skinner’s reinforcement theory are process theories that focus on the process of motivation rather than specific motivators. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112) Vroom’s theory is based on employees’ perceptions of rewards and whether they are able to achieve them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113) An example of an extrinsic reward would be a sense of increased self-esteem after accomplishing a challenging task. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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114)

Bonuses are payments linked to the amount of sales completed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115)

Job rotation involves moving employees from job to job to give them more variety. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116)

Job rotation requires that employees have relatively broad skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) B Version 1

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32) A 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) B Version 1

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62) D 63) A 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) D 79) D 80) A 81) C 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) A 90) A 91) B Version 1

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92) D 93) B 94) A 95) D 96) A 97) D 98) D 99) C 100) D 101) C 102) B 103) A 104) A 105) D 106) A 107) D 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Define counseling. What are the benefits of counseling?

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2) Describe directive and nondirective counseling approaches. Which approach is more effective?

3) Define the term “discipline” in the context of counseling problem employees. Elaborate on the discipline process.

What are some of the good practices for writing a warning letter?

Elaborate on employee assistance programs (EAPs).

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6) As a supervisor dealing with problem employees, what roles would you expect your manager and the human resources department to play?

A problem employee is one who A) is sometimes unable to follow the rules. B) is not provided with enough support by his or her colleagues. C) is persistently unwilling to meet performance standards. D) does not come to work if he or she wakes up with a sore throat, cough, or a nasty

cold.

8) In general, problem employees fall into two categories. One of the categories consists of employees causing problems and the other includes employees A) with problems. B) belonging to a minority group. C) with the potential to supersede the supervisor. D) with connections.

Which of the following can be best categorized as an employee who causes problems?

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A) an employee who has Alzheimer’s disease B) an employee who leaves early C) an employee who has money worries D) an employee whose home life issues are a distraction from work

10) When an employee performs poorly because of not understanding how to do a job, a supervisor must A) make sure that instructions are communicated with clarity. B) encourage the employee to make sense of the instructions himself or herself. C) blame the employee for lacking ability or effort. D) assign the employee a less challenging job with less responsibility.

11)

An employee with problems is someone who A) shows a dislike for a supervisor and the organization. B) always starts fights at the workplace. C) deliberately refuses to obey the supervisor’s orders. D) fails to meet performance standards due to home life issues.

12) When dealing with common problems requiring special action on the part of a supervisor, one of the two basic courses of action to be taken is A) firing. B) counseling. C) authorizing. D) reprimanding.

13)

When supervisors observe poor performance in an employee, they are most likely to

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A) blame it on a lack of proper training. B) blame the organization for not providing enough support. C) blame it on external distractions. D) blame the employee for lacking ability.

14)

Identify a true statement about absenteeism and tardiness. A) Employees are always more productive when they have to cover for someone who is

tardy. B) A company should not pay for an employee’s unproductive hours. C) Unscheduled absences are less frequent at organizations where morale is poor. D) Psychological health stressors are not significantly associated with absenteeism.

15)

One of the most common reasons given for taking unscheduled time off is A) personal needs. B) stress. C) entitlement mentality. D) personal illness.

16)

Insubordination is defined as the A) deliberate refusal of an employee to do what a supervisor or other superior asks. B) tendency of some people to avoid taking responsibility when working in a group. C) tendency of a supervisor to discriminate against an employee based on stereotypes. D) action taken by a supervisor to prevent employees from breaking rules.

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17) Joanne, an employee at Corpora Inc., has a generally poor attitude. Her manager noticed that she engages in criticizing, complaining, and showing dislike for her supervisor and the organization. Moreover, she gets into arguments over many kinds of issues. Which of the following problem behaviors is Joanne exhibiting? A) bullying B) excessive tardiness C) insubordination D) absenteeism

18) When Brian joined Goals Corp as a new employee, his supervisor had made sure that instructions were communicated to him clearly and that he received proper training. Lately, Brian’s supervisor has noticed that Brian never signs out at lunchtime. When questioned about this, he replies that he simply forgets to sign out. Which of the following problem behaviors is Brian exhibiting? A) absenteeism B) excessive tardiness C) bullying D) insubordination

19)

Employees engaging in insubordination are the ones who A) do not do their work properly because they choose not to. B) are sometimes unable to follow the rules. C) are not provided with enough support by their supervisors. D) do not do their work because they need help.

20)

Which of the following statements is true of alcohol and drug abuse by workers?

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A) Employees who abuse drugs are likely to be more productive than their coworkers who stay sober because many drugs have the capacity to enhance performance. B) Employers who go to work while high have 55 percent more accidents and 85 percent more injuries than others. C) The Americans with Disabilities Act does not consider drug abuse as a disability. D) In accordance with the American legal system, an employee involved in substance abuse should immediately be fired.

21)

Which of the following statements is true of alcohol and drug abuse by workers? A) Actions taken with regard to an employee should focus only on the substance abuse

itself. B) Substance abuse is always a legal ground for firing employees. C) Employees who abuse drugs are far less productive than their coworkers who stay sober. D) Substance abuse is not common at work.

22)

Substance abuse arising from an addiction is treated as a disability by the A) Americans with Disabilities Act. B) Javits–Wagner–O’Day Act. C) Randolph–Sheppard Act. D) U.S. Rehabilitation Act.

23) Salma and Maria are employees at Welfare Co. Salma argues that substance abuse may not be legal grounds for firing an employee, whereas Maria says that substance abuse is always a legal ground for firing employees. Which of the following is a true statement that best supports Salma’s argument?

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A) It is illegal for any company to conduct random drug testing of employees. B) Employees who use drugs are far more productive than their coworkers who stay sober. C) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination on the basis of physical or mental disability only. D) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) treats substance abuse arising from an addiction as a disability.

24) Who among the following supervisors is most likely to reduce the occurrence of workplace violence among his or her employees? A) Li, a supervisor at Colors Corp., who has psychological problems B) Arjun, a supervisor at Randomizer Inc., who is under work stress C) Chinua, a supervisor at Oasis Co., who fosters effective communication D) Garry, a supervisor at Coral Corp., who feels that he is treated unfairly

25)

Which of the following is most likely to reduce the occurrence of workplace violence? A) segregating employees on the basis of their nationality B) encouraging whistleblowers C) treating employees fairly D) giving absolute authority to the supervisor

26)

Identify an example that deals with an employee who engages in theft of time.

A) Lee, a supervisor at Builders Co., who uses office stationery for personal use at home B) Diana, a customer of InStyle Cosmetics, who shoplifts cosmetic products C) Rahul, a finance employee at Global Inc., who transfers small sums from Global’s books to his own account D) Anna, a manager at Infoholics Inc., who takes extra sick leaves almost every month

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27) Yolanda is a manager at Feedz Inc. She loves surfing the Internet for the latest fashion trends and tweets these trends throughout the day at work to get more followers. Yolanda is engaging in which of the following thefts? A) theft of information B) theft of time C) theft of money D) theft of goods

28) Employees sometimes use their company-supplied computers for social networking. Many employers have handled such problems by blocking the websites that are most visited. Which of the following causes the most difficulty in handling such problems in recent times? A) Not all thefts involve money or tangible goods. B) Many employees bring their own mobile devices to work. C) Forty percent of web surfing during work hours is for personal reasons. D) Over three-fourths of employees with Facebook accounts visit the site during their workday.

29)

Which of the following statements is true of theft by a company’s own employees? A) Employees who feel like a part of the organization are more likely to steal from it. B) Employees exclusively steal money and tangible goods from the organization. C) Employees steal time by doing less work than they are paid for. D) Employees steal only from organizations that produce tangible goods.

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30) Mark works as a supervisor in the manufacturing unit of Acme Corporation. He ensures that every new employee who joins his team receives proper training about machinery and safety procedures. He observes that Jack, a new employee, frequently works without wearing proper safety gear. When asked, Jack responded by saying, “Sorry, I forgot to wear my helmet.” On being warned, Jack got into an argument with Mark. In this scenario, which of the following problem behaviors is Jack exhibiting? A) insubordination B) tardiness C) absenteeism D) bullying

31)

When dealing with an employee suspected of substance abuse, a supervisor should A) focus on the problem of substance abuse itself instead of work performance. B) permit the employee to take a disability leave to get treatment. C) ignore problems relating to work performance. D) fire the employee immediately because there are legal grounds to do so.

32)

Who among the following is most likely to engage in violence at work?

A) Jeff, a writer, who was recently involved in an accident at work B) Mary, a supervisor, whose colleague was killed in a workplace incident C) Dorothy, a receptionist, who is regularly abused by her husband D) John, a sales manager, who returned to work from a substance abuse rehabilitation program

33)

Which of the following statements is true about counseling at the workplace?

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A) It is unlikely to evoke a positive response from employees. B) It is one of the least constructive ways for supervisors to address problem behaviors. C) It involves the “shape up or ship out” attitude toward problem employees. D) It is a cooperative process between a supervisor and an employee.

34)

Counseling is best defined as the

A) deliberate refusal on the part of an employee to do what a supervisor asks. B) measure taken by supervisors to prevent employees from engaging in social loafing. C) process of learning about an individual’s personal problem and helping in its resolution. D) practice of giving a day off to an employee to deal with his or her health issues.

35)

Which of the following is an advantage of counseling?

A) It gives employees a sense that the supervisor and organization are interested in their welfare. B) It gives employees a sense that the supervisor and organization are willing to confide in them. C) It makes employees believe that the supervisor considers them to be more efficient than the other team members. D) It makes it clear to employees that they need to perform well so as to avoid termination.

36)

Identify a characteristic of counseling.

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A) The view that other employees suffer consequences such as working harder to make up for the problem employee’s lapses is a myth. B) The view that changes in an employee’s attitudes carry over to the work of other employees is a myth. C) It can indirectly motivate employees and improve job satisfaction. D) Employees who receive it rarely meet performance standards.

37) Which of the following is the most appropriate time for a supervisor to counsel an employee? A) when the supervisor feels threatened that the employee might contend for the supervisor’s position B) when the employee needs help in resolving problems affecting his or her work C) when the employee threatens the supervisor that he or she will reveal company secrets D) when the supervisor feels the need to humiliate the employee in public

38)

In the context of counseling, a supervisor should refrain from A) resolving an employee’s performance difficulties. B) suggesting various sources of help for employees. C) expressing concern over employees’ problems. D) handling an employee’s alcoholic family member.

39) Michelle’s work performance as an employee at Fort Camp Industries was suffering due to problems at home. When asked by her supervisor, Keith, she told him about her alcoholic husband. Keith listened to her problems, expressed concern, referred her to a trained counselor, and offered to talk to her husband about this. As Michelle’s supervisor, which of the following should Keith have refrained from doing?

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A) listening to Michelle’s personal problems B) expressing concern over Michelle’s problems C) referring Michelle to a trained counselor D) offering to talk to Michelle’s husband

40) An approach to counseling in which a supervisor asks questions to an employee about a specific problem and then suggests ways to handle the problem after he or she understands the problem is referred to as A) directive counseling. B) emotionally focused therapy. C) nondirective counseling. D) grief therapy.

41) Cindy, the supervisor of a marketing team, is concerned about John’s continuous poor performance and arranges to have a meeting with him. This session helps Cindy identify that John was facing a problem of substance abuse. She then suggests that John take a disability leave to get treatment. Which of the following approaches to counseling has Cindy adopted? A) nondirective counseling B) academic counseling C) directive counseling D) grief counseling

42) Adil, the supervisor of a development team, is concerned about Rita’s performance at work. He decides to utilize the most focused approach to counseling and has a meeting with Rita to help solve her problem. Which of the following is the first step that Adil would take in this method of counseling?

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A) suggesting ways to handle Rita’s problem B) asking Rita questions about her problem C) listening to Rita, encouraging her to look for the source of the problem D) asking Rita to propose solutions and select one of them

43) Daniel, the supervisor of a finance team, decides to utilize the most focused approach to counseling for dealing with Sophia’s performance issues at work. He calls Sophia for a meeting to help her solve the problem. In this method of counseling, which of the following would be the right step to take after Daniel asks Sophia questions about her problem? A) Daniel listens to Sophia’s answers until he understands the problem. B) Daniel primarily listens to Sophia, encouraging her to look for the source of her problem. C) Daniel suggests ways to handle Sophia’s problem. D) Sophia identifies her problem.

44) Rohan, an employee at Sigma Tech, has performance issues at work. Samantha, his supervisor, is concerned about his work performance and thus decides to utilize the most focused approach to counseling. She asks Rohan to join her in a meeting in order to discuss and help him solve the problem. In this method of counseling, which of the following would be the right step to take after Samantha listens to Rohan’s answers until she understands the problem? A) Rohan identifies the problem. B) Samantha suggests ways to handle Rohan’s problem. C) Samantha encourages Rohan to look for the source of the problem. D) Rohan proposes solutions and selects one of them.

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45) Ashton’s supervisor Carol notices that he is always late to work. She discusses the matter with Ashton and makes him realize how his behavior is affecting everyone in the department. Carol encourages him to analyze the problem and listens to what Ashton has to say. Ashton realizes that the reason behind his being late is that he is running too many errands in the morning. So, he decides to run his personal errands during lunch and after work. In this scenario, which type of counseling approach has been used? A) nondirective counseling B) reverse psychology C) directive counseling D) grief therapy

46) Nondirective counseling is best defined as an approach to counseling in which the supervisor A) primarily listens, encouraging the employee to seek the source of the problem and propose possible solutions. B) asks questions and then suggests ways to handle the problem, after he or she understands the problem. C) plays an authoritative role and dictates the guidelines to the employee. D) makes the employee realize his or her fault and reprimands the employee.

47) Kim leaves office early every day because she has to look after her alcoholic brother at home. Her supervisor, James, notices that she mostly stays only for a few hours at work. He decides to use the nondirective method of counseling for discussing her problem. Which of the following is the first step that James would take in this method of counseling? A) James would suggest ways to handle her alcoholic brother. B) James would help Kim resolve her financial difficulties. C) James would suggest Kim to use a time log in order to handle the problem. D) James would listen to Kim, encouraging her to look for the source of the problem.

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48) Sam, who works for Tech Solutions Corp., has performance issues at work. Lily, Sam’s supervisor, is concerned about his work performance and decides to use the nondirective method of counseling. She asks Sam to join her in a meeting in order to discuss and help him solve the problem. In this method of counseling, which of the following would be the right step to take after Lily listens to Sam about his problem? A) Lily would suggest ways to handle the problem. B) Sam would encourage Lily to look for the source of the problem. C) Sam would propose solutions to the problem and select one of them. D) Sam would identify the problem after finding the source of the problem.

49) Hussain, the supervisor of a finance team, decides to utilize the nondirective method of counseling for dealing with Susanna’s performance issues at work. He calls Susanna for a meeting to help her solve the problem. In this method of counseling, which of the following would be the right step to take after Susanna identifies the problem? A) Hussain would ask questions about the problem B) Susanna would propose solutions and select one of them C) Hussain would listen to Susanna’s answers until he understands the problem D) Hussain would suggest ways to handle the problem

50) After having a discussion on what the problem is, which is the next step of the counseling interview process? A) selecting a solution to the problem B) considering possible solutions to the problem C) scheduling a follow-up meeting D) identifying the pros and cons of the problem

51) In the counseling interview process, which step comes right after the consideration of possible solutions to a problem?

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A) selecting a solution to the problem B) discussing what the problem is C) identifying the pros and cons of the problem D) scheduling a follow-up meeting

52)

What is the last step of the counseling interview process? A) identifying the pros and cons of a problem B) discussing what the problem is C) scheduling a follow-up meeting D) selecting a solution to the problem

53) A salesperson in a hardware store has a 10-year-old son with behavior problems, and this is affecting his work. The supervisor gets to know about this and plans counseling sessions with him. In one of these sessions, the supervisor says, “I’ve noticed that we have not received any more customer complaints about your service and, in fact, one customer told me you went out of your way to help.” From the given information, identify the stage in which the process of counseling has most likely reached. A) selecting a solution B) considering possible solutions C) scheduling a follow-up meeting D) discussing the problem

54)

Who among the following should begin a counseling interview?

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A) If an employee requested help, the supervisor should begin. B) Irrespective of who requested the counseling, the supervisor should begin. C) If a supervisor set up the interview because something seemed wrong, the supervisor should begin. D) If a supervisor set up the interview because something seemed wrong, the manager should begin.

55) Which of the following is the most common reason behind employees becoming emotional during counseling sessions? A) Counseling involves talking about personalities instead of behaviors. B) Counseling involves the personal problems of employees. C) Supervisors tend to have angry outbursts during counseling. D) Supervisors become sympathetic and forgive employees’ behavior during counseling.

56)

Which of the following is true of counseling?

A) The most appropriate time for counseling an employee is when the supervisor feels threatened that the employee might contend for his or her position. B) Counseling gives employees a sense that the supervisor and organization are interfering in their personal issues and hence should be avoided. C) A counseling interview should ideally start with the employer reprimanding the employee for his or her lapse. D) During the counseling session, the supervisor should focus on the behavior and performance of the employee rather than who they are.

57) Which of the following is the most effective way to end constant whining and complaining by an employee with a problem behavior?

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A) asking the employee to suggest solutions B) scheduling a follow-up meeting about the problem C) describing appropriate and inappropriate ways to express emotions D) reassuring the employee that these signs of emotion are neither good nor bad

58) Jeniffer, a supervisor of a customer service team, is concerned about Mark’s performance. She decides to talk to Mark and schedules a meeting with him. If Jeniffer is using the directive counseling approach, which of the following should be Jeniffer’s first step? A) She should ask Mark questions about his problem. B) She should propose possible solutions to Mark’s problem. C) She should encourage Mark to look for the source of the problem. D) She should primarily just listen to Mark.

59) Alex, a supervisor of a manufacturing unit, is concerned about Keith’s work performance. Alex decides to set up a meeting with Keith to understand the situation better. In the context of the counseling interview, which of the following should be Alex’s first step? A) Alex should begin the meeting by scheduling a follow-up meeting with Keith. B) Alex should begin the meeting with a discussion of what the problem is. C) Alex should offer Keith a list of possible solutions to his problems. D) Alex should allow Keith to select one possible solution to try and see if it works for him.

60) Katherine, a floor supervisor, finds out that her secretary, Joanne, has been coming to work rather late. Katherine sets up a meeting with Joanne and listens to what she has to say. Katherine encourages Joanne to analyze the problem and explains how Joanne’s coming late to work is affecting the departmental processes as well as the other employees. Joanne realizes that the reason behind her being late to work is that she has been taking care of her sickly daughter, Susan. So, she decides to hire a nanny to help take care of Susan. In the context of counseling techniques, which of the following types of approaches has been used in this scenario?

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A) grief counseling B) rehabilitation counseling C) nondirective counseling D) relationship counseling

61) job?

Which of the following terms is defined as the permanent removal of an employee from a

A) warning B) suspension C) demotion D) dismissal

62) Jerry is a supervisor in a manufacturing company. He observes Kate displaying certain undesirable behaviors in team meetings. Jerry sets up a meeting with Kate to discuss the issue further. In the meeting, Jerry says, “Kate, I have noticed that in the last couple of team meetings, you have arrived late. This tends to disrupt the meetings and leads your colleagues to take you less seriously. I expect you will put in more effort to be punctual, or there will be consequences.” Which of the following terms refers to the disciplinary measure exemplified in this scenario? A) a warning B) 360-degree feedback C) detour behavior D) an employee assistance program (EAP)

63) John, the chief supervisor of a manufacturing company, is conducting an investigation into a series of allegations of theft levelled against Moby, a mechanist. In order to control the situation and conduct a fair enquiry in the matter, John asks Moby not to come to work for a period of three weeks. John also informs Moby that during the span of the investigation, the company will not pay Moby. Which of the following disciplinary measures is exemplified in this scenario?

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A) warning B) suspension C) demotion D) dismissal

64) Mary was promoted to the position of senior editor in a publication firm last year. However, soon after she started working as a senior editor, she realized that the job was more than she could handle. She began neglecting her work, and her productivity dipped. Her supervisor, Pete, noticing her performance issues, transfers her to the role of junior editor, the position she held before. Which of the following disciplinary measures is exemplified in this scenario? A) suspension B) warning C) demotion D) dismissal

65) Martha is a chief supervisor in a manufacturing firm. She is handling the case of Henry, a crane operator, who has been accused of stealing from the company. Henry has been notified multiple times of his behavior, but he failed to correct himself. This time, Martha decides to relieve Henry of his duties by firing him, knowing that she will have to recruit, hire, and train a new employee. However, she decides that this is the only way to deal with an employee who does not respond to any other form of discipline. Which of the following disciplinary measures is exemplified in this scenario? A) warning B) demotion C) suspension D) dismissal

66)

Discipline is defined as

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A) an action taken by a supervisor to prevent employees from breaking rules. B) an approach to counseling in which employees are allowed to participate in problem solving. C) the management function of ensuring that work goes according to plan. D) the use of reinforcement theory to motivate employees to behave in a certain way.

67)

Unlike punishment, discipline A) is narrower. B) always involves unpleasant consequences. C) is a teaching process. D) prevents employees only from breaking rules.

68)

Identify a true statement about discipline or punishment.

A) Discipline leads to learned helplessness. B) Discipline is a broader concept than punishment. C) Every punishment should be followed by a reward. D) In order to set examples, punishment should be delivered in front of other employees.

69)

Which of the following is true of administering discipline?

A) In order to be effective, management actions in response to violations of company rules should not be predictable. B) Employees should not question management’s statement of the facts. C) Supervisors should not include respecting the rights of employees in the discipline process. D) The specific ways in which a supervisor applies disciplinary steps may be dictated by a union contract.

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70) A supervisor believes that one of her employees is using the office telephone for excessive personal calls. What should she do? A) get the employee’s version of the situation B) issue a general memo stating the company policy about phone use C) ask the employee about the telephonic conversations during an appraisal meeting D) make accusations

71) In the process of administering discipline, the first step should ideally be to __________ the employee. A) fire B) suspend C) demote D) warn

72) Norah is a supervisor at Vogue Inc., a company that follows progressive disciplinary practices. Which of the following disciplinary measures is Norah most likely to take as a first step? A) dismissal B) demotion C) suspension D) warning

73) Which of the following is the step that a supervisor who follows progressive disciplinary practices would take if an employee does not improve his or her behavior even after he or she has been warned?

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A) demotion B) termination C) dismissal D) suspension

74) As a supervisor who follows progressive disciplinary practices, which step should be taken next if an employee does not improve his or her behavior even after he or she has been suspended for a month? A) dismissal B) demotion C) discharge D) warning

75) Lorenzo, who works as a supervisor at Travelus Corp., notices that one of the employees, Maya, takes very long coffee breaks while socializing with her colleagues. Before more punitive measures are taken, Lorenzo decides to tell her something that is unpleasant to hear but fulfills the important purpose of informing her about the consequences of this behavior. From the given information, we can infer that Lorenzo has decided to give Maya a A) suspension. B) demotion. C) warning. D) dismissal.

76) Identify a step of the discipline process that is less upsetting to employees because it refrains from hurting them in the pocketbook.

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A) warning B) dismissal C) demotion D) suspension

77) The requirement that an employee not come to work for a set time period, during which the employee is not paid, is referred to as a A) suspension. B) termination. C) demotion. D) dismissal.

78) Ted, a supervisor for Jack’s Pool Supplies, was accused of stealing pool supplies and selling them to friends and relatives at reduced prices. Given Ted’s good track record, he was not fired immediately. The authorities decided to give him an administrative leave, without pay, until the investigation was complete. Considering the given information, it would be most appropriate to say that Ted was A) demoted. B) discharged. C) suspended. D) dismissed.

79) The transfer of an employee to a job involving less responsibility and usually lower pay is referred to as a A) suspension. B) termination. C) demotion. D) dismissal.

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80)

Dismissal is

A) the temporary removal of an employee from work. B) less upsetting to an employee than suspension. C) also known as “termination” or “discharge”. D) an oral warning followed by a written warning.

81)

Which of the following statements is true of dismissals?

A) The length of a dismissal might run from one day to one month, depending on the seriousness of the problem. B) A dismissal involves the transfer of an employee to a job with less responsibility and usually lower pay. C) A supervisor should ideally dismiss an employee at the slightest hint of any problem so that the problem does not aggravate. D) An organization cannot really regard dismissal as a success because it then has to recruit, hire, and train a new employee.

82)

Which of the following is true of the discipline process?

A) As per rules, a demotion should not end up making an employee feel welcome returning to a previous job. B) Witnesses are not required for trivial situations like an employee refusing to sign a warning. C) The length of suspensions should not be less than a week. D) Dismissals occur when the correction of a problem is impossible.

83) Which of the following disciplinary steps is most likely to be taken when an employee deliberately damages an organization’s property, fights on the job, or engages in dangerous practices in addition to continued failure to correct the problem behavior? Version 1

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A) The employee should be suspended for an entire day. B) The employee should be removed from the company permanently. C) The employee should be demoted to a job with lower pay. D) The employee should be given a written warning and asked to sign the warning.

84)

Identify a true statement about the discipline process.

A) Supervisors should remember that the objective is to end the problem behavior. B) Supervisors are not required to involve higher-level management before dismissing an employee. C) Pointing out poor behavior and administering negative consequences are easy tasks. D) When an employee causes a problem by refusing to cooperate, the supervisor should initially ignore the situation.

85)

A supervisor’s ultimate goal in administering discipline should ideally be to A) fire the employee. B) solve the problem without dismissing the employee. C) show how much power he or she has. D) restrict whistleblowers from exposing the company.

86) Which of the following should be done by a supervisor when effectively discussing a problem with an employee? A) name-calling the employee B) dwelling on the employee’s patience or compassion C) dredging up instances of the employee’s past misbehavior D) discussing how to correct the employee’s problem in the future

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87) During counseling, when a supervisor is discussing a problem with an employee, he or she should ideally A) encourage the employee to give in to emotional outbursts. B) let other employees be a part of the discussion. C) talk about behaviors instead of personalities. D) try to be at the same emotional level as the employee.

88) Which of the following should be avoided by a supervisor when effectively discussing a problem with an employee? A) getting emotional about the problem B) acting on the problem immediately C) pointing out poor behavior D) administering negative consequences

89)

Identify a true statement about effective discipline.

A) Being angry and hostile helps a supervisor to be objective when confronting the employee. B) Being calm and relaxed when administering discipline tells an employee that the supervisor is confident of what he or she is doing. C) By ignoring the situation, a supervisor saves a behavior problem from getting worse. D) By being emotional, supervisors can easily deal with problem employees.

90)

Which of the following is true of effective discipline? A) Supervisors should reprimand employees in front of other employees. B) Humiliation helps decrease problem behavior in the future. C) Humiliation only breeds resentment. D) All disciplinary steps should be taken in public.

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91)

Which of the following guidelines should be followed for effective discipline?

A) Supervisors should emphasize how patient they have been with the problem employee. B) Supervisors should express their anger to signal that the problem is serious. C) Supervisors should be consistent in responding to misbehavior in the workplace. D) Supervisors should focus on all instances of past misbehavior of the problem employee.

92)

Which of the following is true of documentation of disciplinary action?

A) Supervisors usually give negative evaluations during performance appraisals. B) A performance appraisal that has an employee’s work recorded as meeting only minimal standards supports dismissal of that employee. C) Past performance appraisals cannot be used as documentation of the need for disciplinary action. D) It is legal for an employee who receives discipline to respond by suing the employer.

93)

Positive discipline is best defined as the

A) discipline designed to prevent the occurrence of problem behavior from beginning. B) act of transferring an employee to a job involving less responsibility. C) approach to discipline in which a supervisor primarily listens to his or her employees’ problems. D) discipline designed to monitor the behavior of problem employees.

94) A day off during which a problem employee is supposed to arrive at a conclusion whether to return to work and meet standards or to stay away for good is known as a

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A) dismissal. B) decision-making leave. C) demotion. D) disciplinary leave without pay.

95)

Identify a true statement about positive discipline.

A) Supervisors should not only punish problem behavior but also reward desirable kinds of behavior. B) Explaining the consequences of violating rules is not the responsibility of a supervisor. C) Employees usually stay away from engaging in problem behavior when they feel frustrated. D) Implementation of self-discipline is a redundant concept because most people get satisfaction from doing a job well.

96) Alicia, a supervisor, has been monitoring Mathew’s behavior at work. Several efforts have been made to correct his problematic behavior, but he continues to perform poorly and fails to follow the company’s rules. Alicia asks Mathew to take a day off to determine whether he is willing to return to work and meet standards or he wants to resign. In this scenario, Mathew has been given a A) privilege leave. B) decision-making leave. C) sabbatical leave. D) compensatory leave.

97)

Which of the following is true of self-discipline?

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A) Self-discipline often leads to the termination of employees. B) Self-discipline often leads to a lack of uniformity in the behavior of the employees. C) Employees voluntarily follow the rules and try to meet performance standards. D) Employees are forced to follow the rules by taking disciplinary measures.

98) When a supervisor suspects a problem with a troubled employee, what should be his or her first step? A) documenting the problem B) confronting the employee C) referring the employee to a source of counseling D) threatening the employee with termination

99)

Which of the following is a fact about detecting and confronting troubled employees?

A) Ignoring problems generally makes them go away. B) Supervisors should establish their authority by making accusations about what they believe is going on. C) When supervisors gather enough supporting evidence, they should confront the employees. D) The category of troubled employees does not include people who are substance abusers or have psychological problems.

100) When confronting a troubled employee, which of the following should ideally be the last step taken by a supervisor? A) telling the employee that he or she has a problem B) reprimanding the employee for inappropriate behavior C) asking other employees to help the troubled employee D) explaining the consequences of not changing

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101) Which of the following ideally comes under the scope of an employer when dealing with troubled employees? A) diagnosing a psychological problem B) protecting the employee’s privacy C) covering up for the employee D) giving advice on medical issues

102)

Identify a correct statement about the confrontation of troubled employees.

A) Supervisors should consider cases when employees’ excuses are particularly sad and compelling. B) Improvement of behavior should be excused if the employee is outraged. C) Occasionally, supervisors should pity employees and offer to cover up for them. D) Supervisors should give employees a fair chance to respond to any complaints.

103)

Which of the following is true of the rehabilitation of troubled employees?

A) It shows that the employers lack compassion. B) It is less costly than hiring and training a new employee. C) It is likely to violate laws prohibiting employment discrimination. D) It is comparatively more time consuming than other types of treatment programs and should ideally be avoided.

104) A company-based program for providing counseling and related help to employees whose personal problems are affecting their performance is most accurately called a(n)

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A) employee assistance program. B) grief therapy program. C) employee self-help program. D) community psychology program.

105)

Identify a fact about aid in and evaluation of recovery.

A) The type of treatment program chosen is independent of the size of an organization. B) Many small organizations avoid referring troubled employees to counseling services. C) Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are voluntary and confidential in nature. D) Dismissal of an employee due to drug abuse can in no way violate laws prohibiting employment discrimination.

106) The primary purpose of providing employee assistance programs and other counseling programs is to A) prevent discrimination against a troubled employee. B) improve a troubled employee’s performance. C) make a troubled employee feel guilty about his or her behavior. D) avoid being persecuted by a troubled employee.

107)

Which of the following is a true statement about helping problem employees?

A) In small organizations, it is legal for supervisors to get support from outside experts. B) Violations of union contracts do not hold for employees engaged in workplace violence. C) Documentation of all disciplinary actions is the responsibility of the human resources department. D) When suspending an employee, it is not required for a supervisor to get authorization from a higher-level manager.

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108) When an employee fails to respond to initial attempts at counseling, a supervisor should ideally A) consult with an outside expert. B) hire an attorney to protect himself or herself. C) discuss the problem with his or her manager. D) take suggestions from other employees.

109) Compared to employees suffering from physical health stressors, employees seeking mental health treatment are less likely to work under suboptimal conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110) A supervisor should ideally delay responding to problem behavior because it often tends to aggravate when it receives positive reinforcement from the supervisor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) In the directive counseling approach, an employee looks for the source of the problem and proposes possible solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112) Pointing out poor behavior and administering negative consequences are unpleasant tasks and should be avoided. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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113) Using past performance appraisals as documentation of the need for disciplinary action often backfires because many supervisors are reluctant to give negative evaluations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114) Most people get satisfaction from doing a job well, so self-discipline should result when employees understand what is expected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115) If a supervisor notices signs that an employee has been using alcohol or drugs, then that employee should immediately be dismissed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

116) It is up to the supervisor to see that the treatment plan provided by an employee assistance program (EAP) is producing the desired results at the workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C Version 1

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33) D 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) A Version 1

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63) B 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) D 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) C 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) B 86) D 87) C 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) C 92) D Version 1

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93) A 94) B 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) A 99) C 100) D 101) B 102) D 103) B 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) C 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) Define time management and mention a few time management techniques that can be used to evaluate the use of time.

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2) Describe procrastination and perfectionism. Explain how perfectionism underlies the failure to delegate.

Define burnout and describe what happens in the three stages of burnout.

4) Describe challenge stressors and hindrance stressors and their influence on employees’ productivity.

Discuss how exercising can help people decrease stress.

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Describe psychotherapy and its effectiveness in combating workplace burnout.

How can organizations help their employees in dealing or coping with stress?

Who among the following is most likely to be an efficient supervisor?

A) Diana, a supervisor at Yellow Umbrella LLC, who uses an appointment calendar to keep track of her schedule B) Matthew, a supervisor at RMC Co., who gets all the information he needs after he starts on a project C) Sarah, a supervisor at NeonShine Corp., who works very hard but would be hardpressed to say what she accomplished D) Stefan, a supervisor at Delta Works Inc., who is learning the importance of time logs

9) A(n) __________ can be defined as a record of what activities a person is doing hour by hour throughout the day. Version 1

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A) activities log B) progress report C) activities record D) time log

10) Matilda records her activities, hour by hour, throughout the school day. This practice best describes a person who A) is going to have a burnout. B) has a Type A personality. C) maintains a time log. D) keeps an activities log.

11)

Identify a correct statement about time management.

A) Getting an average amount of work done is a good way to impress higher-level management. B) Almost all the people who know how to manage time get organized in quite the same way. C) A time log should be reviewed after it has been kept for at least one typical day. D) A time log should be updated each half-hour during the day.

12)

Which of the following statements is true of time management? A) It focuses solely on those activities that get the best results in less time. B) It is the practice of effectively controlling the way one uses time. C) It is effective in achieving long-term goals rather than short-term goals. D) It focuses on completing easy tasks rather than difficult tasks.

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13)

In order to be an efficient supervisor, it is essential to tackle the __________ jobs first. A) easiest B) challenging C) important D) moderate

14)

Identify a common time waster that plagues supervisors. A) learning how to say no B) working with fuzzy goals or too many goals C) updating time logs every half-hour D) recording all the activities that must occur at a set time

15) Which of the following statements accurately brings out the difference between a time log and a to-do list? A) A time log is used for recording all levels of jobs, whereas a to-do list is used for recording only important or top-priority jobs. B) A time log is used exclusively by employees, whereas a to-do list is used by supervisors. C) A time log is a record that can be filled up only once a week, whereas a to-do list can be filled up at any time of the day. D) A time log is a record of the activities one actually did, whereas a to-do list records activities that one has to do in the future.

16) In prioritizing activities for a to-do list, the __________ activities are those that are important but can be postponed if necessary.

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A) A-level B) B-level C) C-level D) D-level

17) Donald, a supervisor in a manufacturing company, has the following activities that he intends to finish by the end of the week. Which of the following activities should be categorized as an A-level activity? A) organizing a team outing B) conceptualizing ideas for the organization’s newsletter C) writing a blog post about his recent adventure D) conducting a performance review of senior employees

18)

Which of the following falls under the category of B-level activity? A) John has a report to be finished in the next three hours. B) Maria has a report to be done in the next five hours. C) Sheila has to fill her personal diary. D) Max has to fill his blog for his alumni association.

19) Naina has the following activities to be done. Identify the activity that falls under the category of a C-level activity. A) finishing up a report before the weekend B) writing an agenda for the next day’s team meeting C) planning a surprise party for her cousin’s birthday the following month D) filling out paperwork by the end of the following week

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20) Which of the following activities is likely to follow immediately after you record all the activities that must occur at a set time? A) scheduling the most challenging and most important activities for the times of day when you are at your best B) finding time for your remaining A-level activities C) learning to use the calendar or scheduling tools built into your computer operating system D) scheduling time solely for doing, not for thinking alone

21)

Schedule time for thinking, not solely for doing, as creative processes require time for A) recognition. B) reflection. C) listing. D) recalling.

22)

Which of the following is considered to be the most common time waster? A) scheduled visitors B) utilizing biofeedback C) procrastination D) the ability to say no

23) Which of the following is a way in which a supervisor can manage time during a meeting? A) by bringing along some reading material if meetings tend to start late B) by engaging in other discussions when the formal meeting gets under way C) by slowly drifting into the room so as not to disturb others D) by devoting time to chatting with colleagues while waiting for latecomers

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24) Bob is a newly-appointed manager who has difficulty maintaining time wisely during group meetings. Which of the following will help him do a better job? A) ensuring the meeting starts only after everyone has arrived B) making sure there is no ending time for the meeting C) reminding participants politely about the subject at hand if the discussion veers off course D) scheduling the meeting for a later date when everyone is relatively free

25) During a meeting, when a problem cannot be solved in the allotted time, which of the following is the best practice to be undertaken by a supervisor? A) updating the time log B) scheduling a follow-up meeting C) creating a to-do list D) setting a meeting reminder

26) Gina has a meeting scheduled for an hour during which she needs to find a solution for a problem at hand. If the problem cannot be solved in the time allotted, which of the following should Gina follow to achieve her goal? A) schedule a follow-up meeting B) set a starting time but no ending time for the meeting C) start later than the expected starting time D) discourage any sort of diversion or interruption even if it requires being rude

27) A supervisor answers a call while he is in a meeting. He explains to the caller that he cannot give the call the attention it deserves at that time and schedules a convenient time to call back. However, the telephone call will become the supervisor’s top priority if the person calling is a(n)

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A) HR personnel. B) subordinate. C) colleague. D) customer.

28)

An efficient way to respond to a memo is to A) handle each item in the memo only once. B) take it home since interruptions will not occur there. C) ignore it until it actually needs to be answered. D) write a brief response across the top and return it to the sender.

29) Stuart had an open-door policy for his employees and their problems. However, he was also aware of how this policy could be abused to waste time. Therefore, when one of his employees came to him to discuss her recent European vacation, Stuart should have responded by A) listening attentively. B) calling a departmental meeting to hear about the topic. C) saying that they could have lunch together so that they could talk about it. D) asking her to write about it and submit it to the company’s weekly newsletter.

30) If a supervisor is interrupted by an employee with a problem and the supervisor views the employee’s problem as not urgent, then he or she should A) call a departmental meeting to find out what the problem is. B) schedule a meeting with the employee at a later time. C) listen attentively to the employee anyway. D) avoid that employee.

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31)

The process of putting off what needs to be done is termed A) procrastination. B) laziness. C) prejudice. D) indifference.

32) Which of the following can be best described as a time waster because it leads people to spend their time on low-priority activities while they avoid the higher priorities? A) procrastination B) burnout C) perfectionism D) biofeedback

33)

Which of the following is the best way to control time wasters?

A) The best cure for procrastination is to force yourself to jump in. B) A to-do list should be filled up every hour of the day and week. C) The best way to manage paperwork is to look into each item at least thrice. D) Since employees are a part of organizations, their visits cannot be categorized as unscheduled.

34) In the context of the most common time wasters, the attempt to do things thoroughly and precisely is termed A) delegation. B) procrastination. C) perfectionism. D) time management.

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35)

Perfectionism often results from the A) failure to delegate work. B) desire to be rewarded. C) inability to say no. D) need to prove one’s self-worth.

36)

Which of the following is the attitude that stands in the way of appropriate delegating?

A) employees believing they can do a job more efficiently in terms of cost and availability B) supervisors believing that they have taken on too much work C) supervisors believing only they can really do the job right D) employees identifying activities that they have been trained to handle

37)

Identify a true statement about controlling time wasters.

A) A supervisor cannot ask to be taken off the distribution list when he or she receives an internal company report even if it provides little useful information. B) Although high standards can inspire high performance, perfectionism can make people afraid to try at all. C) The inability to say no and perfectionism are time savers that allow supervisors to fully use their time. D) If your own supervisor asks you to take on an urgent new task, the best way out is to politely refuse since it would clash with your other priorities.

38)

Which of the following is a common reason why supervisors resist delegating work?

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A) They cannot set aside some time to list and review all their tasks. B) They believe only they can really do the job right. C) They find that all the activities and associated paperwork are always necessary. D) They cannot identify any activity that their employees can be trained to handle.

39) To control your use of time, you must be able to say no when appropriate to people who approach you with new tasks. Which of the following tips is most appropriate for situations where one is unable to say no? A) ask the person not to bother you as you are busy B) go according to your supervisor or colleague’s timetable C) remind the person that he or she must learn to manage time properly D) put a time limit on your participation

40)

Which of the following tips will help an individual conquer procrastination?

A) Individuals should turn off distractions, such as instant-messaging programs, when they need to concentrate. B) Individuals should refrain from making specific decisions the next time they are tempted to procrastinate. C) One thumb rule to deal with procrastination is to refrain from dividing up projects into short segments. D) When procrastination is very tempting, individuals should focus on the long term.

41) The body’s response to coping with environmental demands, such as change, frustration, uncertainty, danger, or discomfort, is known as A) natural selection. B) stress. C) biofeedback. D) metabolism.

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42) Identify the factor involving an organization’s work design that can contribute to workrelated stress. A) poor social environment B) poor communication C) lack of support from supervisor D) hectic pace

43) Which of the following is the job factor involving an organization’s work design that is linked to stress? A) the lack of control B) inflexibility regarding personal needs C) violence D) poor communication

44) Which of the following is a cause of stress linked to the workplace involving the organization’s work design? A) poor social environment B) discrimination C) the lack of support from supervisor D) long work hours

45)

Which of the following is a cause of stress due to management issues in a job?

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A) poor communication B) infrequent rest breaks C) poor ergonomics D) meaningless tasks

46)

Which of the following is a cause of stress due to management issues in a job? A) vague directions B) shift work C) poor social environment D) noise

47) Pick from the following the factor involving an organization’s management that can contribute to work-related stress. A) noise B) rapid, unexpected changes C) verbal abuse D) infrequent rest breaks

48) Which of the following is a cause of stress linked to the workplace involving the organization’s management? A) crowding B) heavy workload C) meaningless tasks D) job insecurity

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49) Identify the factor involving an organization’s management that can contribute to workrelated stress. A) noise B) discrimination C) verbal abuse D) infrequent rest breaks

50) Which of the following is the job factor involving an organization’s work environment that is linked to stress? A) vague or conflicting expectations B) heavy workload C) verbal abuse D) infrequent rest breaks

51) Which of the following is a cause of stress linked to the workplace involving the organization’s work environment? A) job insecurity B) vague or conflicting expectations C) poor ergonomics D) hectic pace

52)

Which of the following is a cause of stress due to work environment issues in a job? A) lack of employee empowerment B) shift work C) crowding D) discrimination

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53) Which of the following personality type tries to get more and more done in less and less time? A) Type B personality B) Type A personality C) Type Y personality D) Type X personality

54) Femi, a 20-year-old, has the habit of moving, walking, and eating rapidly. Her parents admire her because they see her as thriving on her approach to life. With which type of personality is Femi’s behavior patterns most closely associated? A) Type X personality B) Type Y personality C) Type A personality D) Type B personality

55) People with Type __________ personality feel impatient with people who move slower than them. A) A B) B C) X D) Y

56) Feeling impatient when others talk about something that is not of interest to you is a behavior pattern typically associated with a Type __________ personality.

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A) X B) Y C) A D) B

57) Trying to get more and more done in less and less time is a behavioral pattern associated with __________ personalities. A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D

58) Feeling unable to relax or stop working is a behavior pattern typically associated with a Type __________ personality. A) X B) Y C) A D) B

59)

A person with a Type B personality A) moves and walks rapidly. B) is unable to relax. C) has varied interests. D) gets more done in less time.

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60) Taking a relaxed but active approach to life is a behavior pattern typically associated with a Type __________ personality. A) X B) Y C) A D) B

61) Which of the following stress-causing factors is related to an organization’s work environment? A) meaningless tasks B) noise C) long work hours D) vague or conflicting expectations

62)

Which of the following statements is true about hindrance stressors?

A) They place employees in new environments where they are stretched and challenged to succeed. B) They are stressors that are viewed by individuals as opportunities to grow and develop. C) They drain personal resources from employees that hinder their productivity. D) They rarely arise from nonwork sources.

63) Employees tend to perform best when they are experiencing a __________ degree of stress. A) negligible B) low C) moderate D) high

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64)

Identify a fact about consequences of stress. A) Jobs billed as exciting are those that are likely to be least stressful. B) A critical manager is a source of positive stress. C) Sources of stress may make employees prone to accidents. D) Job performance is best when the amount of stress is low.

65) In the context of the consequences of stress, which of the following is a possible sign of excess stress? A) increasing use of sick days B) taking decisions easily C) showing indifference toward criticism D) assertive behavior

66)

Which of the following is a characteristic of stress? A) Stress always has a negative influence on an employee’s productivity. B) Hindrance stressors may arise from nonwork sources. C) Excessive workload and organizational politics are challenge stressors. D) Weight-training and running act like hindrance stressors.

67) __________ stressors can be best defined as stressors that are viewed by individuals as opportunities to grow and develop. A) Adrenaline B) Hindrance C) Adventure D) Challenge

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68) __________ stressors are best defined as stressors that impede an individual’s ability to perform. A) Adrenaline B) Inhibition C) Hindrance D) Challenge

69)

The inability to function effectively as a result of ongoing stress is called A) alienation. B) a panic attack. C) burnout. D) boredom.

70)

Which of the following signifies that an employee has entered the first stage of burnout? A) The employee feels emotionally exhausted. B) The employee’s perceptions of others become calloused. C) The employee wants to unwind and feels like going for a vacation. D) The employee loses motivation to work for the organization.

71) Joshua is assigned a project by his supervisor. Lack of support from his supervisor, working extra hours, and a heavy workload takes a toll on his efficiency. He loses enthusiasm and feels emotionally exhausted. He feels he will be unable to get the job done fully. In the context of the consequences of stress, Joshua is experiencing

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A) burnout. B) role conflict. C) moral injury. D) stagnation.

72)

Which of the following is the second stage of burnout? A) The employee typically cannot make decisions. B) The employee’s perceptions of others become calloused. C) The employee criticizes himself or herself excessively for mistakes made. D) The employee views his or her effectiveness adequately.

73)

Identify the final stage of burnout. A) The employee engages in tardiness at work. B) The employee turns to alcohol or drug abuse. C) The employee criticizes his or her supervisor and colleagues. D) The employee views his or her effectiveness negatively.

74) Sharon is under a lot of work stress, which has started to affect her work performance. She also feels that she is incapable of getting her job done satisfactorily. Sharon is dealing with A) procrastination. B) biofeedback. C) burnout. D) perfectionism.

75) Changing the statement “I’ll never get the hang of this job” to “This job is difficult, but I’ll learn how to do it better” is an example of Version 1

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A) procrastination. B) biofeedback. C) a positive attitude. D) perfectionism.

76)

Developing an awareness of bodily functions in order to control them is called A) biofeedback. B) stress management. C) time management. D) burnout.

77) In its general form, __________ is a practice of focusing your thoughts on something other than day-to-day concerns. A) biofeedback B) meditation C) procrastination D) burnout

78) Richa, a supervisor at Unicorn TechSolutions Corp., sets aside a few hours every day for focusing on a symbol. This daily routine helps her relax and unwind from work-related stress. Which of the following best refers to Richa’s daily routine? A) biofeedback B) burnout C) procrastination D) meditation

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79) __________ often involves discussing and processing current life stressors in a confidential manner. A) Biofeedback B) Meditation C) Psychotherapy D) Procrastination

80) Which of the following is a basic approach that supervisors should take to reduce stress in the workplace? A) praising employees for average performance B) using criticism and put-downs to improve productivity C) providing information on a need-to-know basis D) giving employees opportunities for advancement

81) In order to reduce stress in the workplace, which is a basic approach that supervisors should take? A) allow control over pace of work B) set rigid work schedules C) set unpredictable schedules D) allow minimal interaction with coworkers

82)

A basic approach that supervisors should take to reduce stress in the workplace is to A) restrict frequent breaks. B) give employees total control over decisions and work processes. C) make fixed policies and procedures. D) enforce zero tolerance of harassment and discrimination.

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83)

How should supervisors minimize organizational stressors? A) by letting employees participate in decision making B) by showing too much concern for employees’ well-being C) by checking up on every detail of an employee’s work D) by intimating the fight-or-flight syndrome in employees

84) Which of the following basic approaches will help supervisors minimize organizational stressors? A) using rapid, unexpected changes to drive new policies B) checking up on every detail of an employee’s work C) providing information to employees on a need-to-know basis D) offering employees more opportunities to interact with coworkers

85) Which of the following refers to an organizational activity designed to help employees adopt healthy practices? A) personal therapy B) time management C) biofeedback D) wellness programs

86) Paul’s friends consider him to be a very affectionate and easygoing person. He is frank and does not mind voicing his opinion. He likes the company of his friends and feels energized when he is around them. In the context of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Paul is most likely a(n)

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A) perceiver. B) intuitive. C) extrovert. D) judger.

87) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is literal, practical, handson, and prefers facts and details is a A) thinker. B) sensor. C) judger. D) feeler.

88) Cathy, a counsellor, is known to her friends as someone who is driven by objective values in life. She has sound reasoning abilities. She offers practical solutions to her patients using her analytical skills. In the context of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Cathy is most likely a(n) A) introvert. B) thinker. C) perceiver. D) feeler.

89) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is structured, scheduled, ordered, planned, and controlled is a(n) A) extrovert. B) feeler. C) perceiver. D) judger.

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90) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies a person who is outgoing, verbal, and energized by other people and action as a(n) A) judger. B) feeler. C) extrovert. D) intuitive.

91) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is private, inward-looking, and energized by thoughts and ideas is a(n) A) introvert. B) thinker. C) sensor. D) feeler.

92) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is visionary, figurative, and prefers possibilities and meanings is a(n) A) intuitive. B) introvert. C) extrovert. D) judger.

93) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is subjective, interpersonally oriented, and driven by the impact of decisions on people is a(n)

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A) introvert. B) thinker. C) perceiver. D) feeler.

94) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is logical, analytical, and driven by objective values is classified as a(n) A) thinker. B) extrovert. C) perceiver. D) sensor.

95) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a person who is flexible, spontaneous, adaptive, and responsive is a(n) A) judger. B) sensor. C) perceiver. D) extrovert.

96) When using a time log, a supervisor should record the activities he or she completed every half-hour during the day and review the log at least once a week. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) One must be careful that one’s to-do list serves its purpose and does not become a goal in itself.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

98) If the person you are calling is not available, leave a message even though you have no control over when the call will be made. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Stress-causing job factors include the company’s policies, structures, physical conditions, and processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Job performance is best when the amount of stress moves from moderate to high. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) For someone who gets all of his or her satisfaction and rewards from working, job-related stress is less likely to be overwhelming. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) If a supervisor cannot act alone in resolving conflicts with another department, he or she should make sure that higher-level managers know about the stress-related job factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) A Version 1

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34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) C Version 1

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64) C 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) A 77) B 78) D 79) C 80) D 81) A 82) D 83) A 84) D 85) D 86) C 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) D Version 1

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94) A 95) C 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE Student name:__________ 1)

Identify and describe both positive and negative aspects of conflict.

How can supervisors effectively mediate conflict resolution?

Describe how supervisors can implement change.

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4) Describe the guidelines supervisors should use when socializing with others in the organization.

5) The struggle that results from incompatible or opposing needs, feelings, thoughts, or demands within a person or between two or more people is the most accurate definition of A) competition. B) conflict. C) frustration. D) crusade.

In the context of the consequences of conflict, frustration is A) success in influencing people to act in a certain way. B) a reaction that can bring about necessary changes. C) defeat in the attempt to attain desired goals. D) an indication of an underlying problem.

When conflict is viewed as a win–lose proposition, the losing party experiences A) frustration. B) burnout. C) satisfaction. D) alienation.

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Conflict arising within an individual is termed A) interpersonal conflict. B) structural conflict. C) strategic conflict. D) intrapersonal conflict.

Conflict between individuals or groups is called A) structural conflict. B) interpersonal conflict. C) organizational conflict. D) intrapersonal conflict.

10) A conflict that arises when a person has trouble selecting from among goals can be best categorized as a(n) __________ conflict. A) strategic B) structural C) interpersonal D) intrapersonal

11) Dean, a supervisor at NeonColors Inc., is engaged in a conflict with his colleague, Nathan, because they could not agree on the design of a product. As what type of conflict can this be best categorized? A) interpersonal conflict B) intrapersonal conflict C) structural conflict D) strategic conflict

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12) Fiona, an editor for a newspaper company, received a job offer from a reputed publishing company. The job requires her to move away from her family to a new city. Although she has always wished to have a prestigious company on her resume and the offer is attractive, she is unhappy about the location and is unable to make a decision. Fiona is experiencing an A) interpersonal conflict. B) interorganizational conflict. C) interdependence conflict. D) intrapersonal conflict.

13)

Which of the following is an example of interpersonal conflict?

A) Ronnie disagrees with his superior because Ronnie and his superior support different political parties. B) Jennifer cannot decide which university she wants to study at because she got low grades in her exams. C) Jane, Martin, and Jessica are unsure about their answers to a math problem. D) Veronica cannot decide which car she wants to buy.

14) Anne had a conflict with Zarifa, a customer, because of differences in their religious values and beliefs. Identify the type of conflict in this situation. A) intrapersonal conflict B) interpersonal conflict C) structural conflict D) strategic conflict

15)

The capability to deal with emotions and interpersonal relationships is referred to as

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A) emotional intelligence. B) concurrent control. C) intrinsic control. D) emotional perception.

16) Which of the following terms best describes the quality of recognizing one’s emotions and how they affect others? A) self-discipline B) self-regulation C) self-motivation D) self-awareness

17) Which of the following terms best describes the ability to control emotions and maintain integrity? A) self-motivation B) self-awareness C) self-regulation D) self-actualization

18)

The quality of social awareness involves A) recognizing one’s emotions and how they affect others. B) showing empathy and concern for others. C) controlling one’s emotions and maintaining integrity. D) comparing one’s abilities to that of others.

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19) Which of the following terms best describes the quality in people who strive to meet goals and improve themselves? A) self-actualization B) self-regulation C) self-awareness D) self-motivation

20) Jonathan is a new employee at an IT firm. He empathizes with his colleagues, cares for them, and has a good understanding of how people work in groups. Which of the following statements is true about Jonathan? A) He has a high level of self-motivation. B) He ranks high on the scale of self-regulation. C) He ranks high on the scale of social awareness. D) He has a high level of reasoning ability.

21) Rishab, a supervisor at a software company, is responsible for a large team. He effectively manages his team in high-pressure situations. His ability to manage his emotions, thoughts, and behavior in such situations helps maintain a positive attitude at work. Based on this scenario, Rishab has high A) self-regulation. B) self-esteem. C) self-elevation. D) self-awareness.

22) Nathan works as a senior product designer for a textile firm. He reports to two different managers. One manager wants him to produce new designs every week, whereas the other manager wants him to create products with the firm’s existing designs. Nathan is confused about the chain of command and is unsure about his production targets. Which of the following statements is most likely true about the scenario?

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A) Nathan lacks the emotional intelligence necessary to handle the situation. B) The scenario is an example of structural conflict. C) Nathan lacks the expert power necessary to handle the situation. D) The scenario is an example of interpersonal conflict.

23) __________ conflicts often arise when production and marketing departments are at odds; marketing wants to give customers whatever they ask for, and production wants to make what it can easily and well. A) Positive B) Intrapersonal C) Strategic D) Structural

24)

Which of the following is the most common reason for structural conflict? A) difficulty in balancing one’s roles at work and at home B) variety in employees’ values and opinions C) various groups in an organization sharing resources D) using competition to motivate employees to do exceptional work

25) A(n) __________ conflict often arises when two different groups in an organization require assistance from the support team at the same time. However, the support team can attend to only one group at a time. A) positive B) interpersonal C) strategic D) structural

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26) AdvancedTech Industries is a manufacturing company that is structured in a way that its employees have dual managers improving their performance and efficiency. Salma, an employee at AdvancedTech, develops a conflict because she is a shared resource and needs to report to an experienced functional manager as well as a relatively new project manager. Identify the type of conflict in this situation. A) structural conflict B) personal conflict C) strategic conflict D) interpersonal conflict

27)

Which of the following situations is most likely to result in structural conflict?

A) when a supervisor has trouble selecting a choice between two mixed possibilities B) when a supervisor’s manager ignores the chain of command and gives directions to the supervisor’s employees C) when an organization’s management intentionally brings about a conflict to achieve an objective D) when a conflict arises between a supervisor and a peer from differing opinions

28)

Identify an accurate statement about structural conflict. A) Its primary intent is to use competition to motivate employees to do exceptional

work. B) If some employees involved in a structural conflict report to another supervisor, managing the conflict requires the cooperation of only one employee’s supervisors. C) Knowing that a conflict is structural frees a supervisor from taking the issue personally and alerts him or her to situations that require extra diplomacy. D) Because supervisors do not establish an organization’s structure, they are not needed to be able to recognize the sources of structural conflict.

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29) A(n) __________ conflict can be best defined as a conflict that an organization’s management or an individual sometimes intentionally brings about to achieve an objective. A) intrapersonal B) interpersonal C) structural D) strategic

30) The sales department at Fortuerer Corp. decides to have a contest between two experienced salespeople to determine who would first reach the sales target of $150,000 in the first quarter of the year. The winner of the contest would be given a bonus and a paid leave of two weeks by the firm. This contest is an example of a(n) A) structural conflict. B) interpersonal conflict. C) individual conflict. D) strategic conflict.

31) A conflict that arises between two employees when their manager informs that they are both in the running for a retiring supervisor’s job can be best categorized as a(n) __________ conflict. A) strategic B) interpersonal C) structural D) intrapersonal

32)

Conflict management involves

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A) responding to problems stemming from conflict. B) resolving only strategic conflicts within an organization. C) punishing employees who engage in disputes. D) relieving a number of employees of their jobs.

33) __________ can be best defined as settling on a solution that gives each person in a conflict part of what he or she wants; no one gets everything, and no one loses completely. A) Strategic avoidance B) Consolidation C) Compromise D) Resolution

34) Natalie, the supervisor of a 24-hour pharmacy, schedules the work shifts of her employees. Recently, two of her senior employees had a conflict because each of them wanted both Friday and Saturday nights off. Natalie gave one employee Friday nights off and the other employee Saturday nights off. In this case, Natalie used a(n) __________ strategy to resolve the conflict. A) avoiding B) smoothing C) compromise D) grievance redressal

35) Which of the following is a feature of compromising as a strategy for conflict management?

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A) It is the best way to solve a conflict without experiencing any frustration. B) It works when people who choose to compromise would rather force someone to accept a completely disagreeable choice. C) It is the best way to solve the underlying problem of a conflict. D) It works best when the problem is relatively minor and time is limited.

36)

The most direct and sometimes the most difficult way to manage conflict is to A) settle on a solution that gives each person part of what he or she wants. B) confront the problem and solve it. C) force a solution. D) avoid it.

37)

Managing a conflict by confronting the problem and solving it is known as A) compromise. B) forcing. C) conflict resolution. D) conflict consolidation.

38) Which of the following of these strategies makes most sense if one assumes that all conflict is bad? A) avoiding B) compromising C) forcing a solution D) resolving

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39) Which of the following statements is true about avoidance as a strategy for conflict management? A) Avoidance strategies work for conflicts for which a solution would be more difficult than the problem justifies. B) Avoidance strategies work best when conflicts are serious. C) Avoiding conflicts is effective because it generally makes conflicts go away. D) Avoiding conflicts is always a logical approach because all conflict is bad.

40) In cultures where people place a higher value on harmony than on “telling it like it is,” which of the following strategies are they most likely to implement for managing conflict? A) forcing strategy B) avoidance strategy C) confrontation strategy D) resolution strategy

41) Two supervisors of an organization present conflicting proposals for allocating space among their departments. A committee of higher-level managers selects one proposal, allowing no room for discussion. Of which type of strategy for conflict management is this an example? A) avoiding B) forcing a solution C) compromising D) confronting the problem and resolving it

42) In an organization with self-managed work teams, one of the teams decides that instead of reaching a consensus on some issue, it will simply vote on what to do. The majority then makes the decision. Identify the type of conflict management strategy used in this scenario.

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A) resolving a problem B) avoiding C) compromising D) forcing a solution

43) Which of the following is a feature of forcing a solution as a strategy for conflict management? A) It is the best way to solve a conflict without experiencing any frustration. B) It rarely works during emergencies because it tends to be time consuming. C) It requires a supervisor to listen to both sides and attempt to understand rather than to place blame. D) It can be implemented when a team leader makes the overall decision and lets the group work out the details.

44) Which of the following strategies for conflict management assumes that many conflicts are win–win conflicts? A) forcing B) avoiding C) compromising D) resolving

45)

Which of the following statements is true of the strategy of conflict resolution?

A) It avoids frustration among the conflicting parties and makes them feel like winners. B) It is the best approach in an emergency because it is a relatively fast way to manage conflicts. C) It works better than the avoidance strategy of conflict management when conflicts are less serious. D) It leads to the assumption that the parties to a conflict have a win–lose situation.

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46)

When initiating conflict resolution, the first step is to A) listen to the solution. B) find a solution together with other conflicting parties. C) understand the conflict. D) restate the problem.

47)

When initiating conflict resolution, a supervisor should A) act as soon as he or she is aware of the problem. B) ignore it at first because it may go away. C) get emotionally involved to gain a better understanding of the problem. D) focus on the personalities of those involved.

48) Two supervisors, Jake and Gareth, have a conflict about the use of shared resources in their organization. Both Jake and Gareth understand the conflict. Jake states the problem of shared resources to Gareth. According to the conflict resolution process, which of the following steps should Jake take next? A) He should listen to Gareth’s response. B) He should reiterate the problem to Gareth and other teams in the organization. C) He should talk immediately to the top management. D) He should immediately have a brainstorming session with Gareth about possible solutions to the problem.

49) When a person initiates a conflict resolution with another person, which of the following is the next step that should be taken immediately after the two people work together to find a solution?

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A) implement the solution B) restate the problem C) understand the conflict D) restate the solution

50)

When responding to a conflict where the other person is emotional, one should A) explain the constructive ways of using emotions. B) first let that person vent those feelings. C) concentrate on the problem at hand and not let that person be emotional. D) use avoidance or smoothing as a way to manage the conflict.

51) Which of the following reactions should be avoided by a supervisor when an employee says, “You always give me the dirty assignments?” A) letting the employee vent those feelings and then getting down to discussing the problem B) trying to interpret the problem in the terms the supervisor would use to express the problem C) showing his or her power and authority by being angry and defensive D) finding out what specific actions the employee is referring to

52) In context of responding to a conflict, which of the following best defines a hidden agenda? A) a confidential list of steps that need to be taken soon B) a central concern that is left unstated C) a method of smoothing where a person exhibits his or her anger D) a situation where a person’s feelings are confidentially disclosed

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53)

What should be done when the parties to a conflict are peers of a supervisor? A) The supervisor should refer the peers to another supervisor. B) The supervisor should do his or her duty by mediating the conflict. C) The supervisor should refer the peers to a higher-level manager. D) The supervisor should ask one of the peers to mediate the conflict.

54)

What should be done when the parties to a conflict are a supervisor’s employees? A) The supervisor should refer the peers to a higher-level manager. B) The supervisor should ask the most senior employee to mediate the conflict. C) The supervisor should refer his or her employees to another supervisor. D) The supervisor should do his or her duty by mediating the conflict.

55)

Identify the correct statement regarding conflict mediation by a supervisor.

A) Having all participants suggest as many solutions as they can usually leads to chaos and delay. B) Combining or modifying ideas usually leads to complications and thus should be avoided. C) The supervisor should have all the parties state individually what they want to accomplish or what will satisfy them. D) It is considered wise to focus on the present rather than on the future when mediating a conflict.

56)

Which of the following is true when mediating a conflict?

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A) Asking each person to explain what the problem is should be avoided because it leads to delay and chaos. B) It is considered wise not to encourage employees to select a solution. C) The supervisor should refrain from restating each person’s position in his or her own words. D) The supervisor should summarize what has been discussed and agreed on.

57) Which of the following statements is true about conflict between work and family demands? A) Employees try to balance work and family instead of choosing one over the other. B) Many companies realize that there is labor supply shortage and have begun to adopt family-friendly policies and values. C) Most organizations demand 30 hours per week or less to maintain a high-powered career. D) Work always takes precedence over family demands.

58)

Since change is a fact of organizational life, supervisors A) must decide whether organizations should change. B) should tactfully refer all problems to higher-level managers. C) must decide how to make the changes work. D) should not be change agents, since only top management makes changes.

59)

Which of the following is a requisite for a change agent? A) expertise in the area affected B) coercive power C) self-actualization D) referent power

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60) Which of the following is a factor that can affect the success of a change by primarily focusing on the fact that any changes should make an organization more effective in delivering high quality? A) the kind of change to be made B) the determination of what to change C) the evaluation of change D) the change agent

61)

Which of the following factors acts as an external source of change in an organization? A) the performance of senior executives B) the working conditions of employees C) the formation of labor unions D) new government regulations

62)

Which of the following statements is true of Baby Boomers? A) They are currently entering the work force. B) They are in leadership positions in most organizations. C) They are tech savvy and ethnically diverse. D) They are also known as the “Millennials.”

63)

Which of the following generations followed the Silent Generation? A) Baby Boomers B) Generation X C) Generation Y D) Greatest Generation

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64) Which of the following generations was born approximately between the years 1960 and 1981? A) Silent Generation B) Baby Boomers C) Generation X D) Generation Y

65)

Which of the following statements is true about the people of Generation Y? A) They are otherwise known as the “Greatest Generation.” B) They preceded the Silent Generation. C) They experienced comparatively more changes than prior generations. D) They grew up with heavy exposure to technology, which Baby Boomers lacked.

66)

The generation of the Millennials is also known as A) Generation A. B) Generation X. C) Generation Y. D) Generation Z.

67) Which generation was born and grew up in a time of significant socioeconomic and political change, and now largely comprises the leadership positions of most organizations? A) Generation X B) Baby Boomers C) Greatest Generation D) Silent Generation

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68) This generation experienced comparatively less change than some prior generations. This generation is also known as the “Millennials.” Which generation is this? A) Baby Boomers B) Greatest Generation C) Generation X D) Generation Y

69)

Lewin’s model of change defines “unfreezing” as people A) reverting to old practices. B) recognizing a need for change. C) trying to behave differently. D) making a new behavior permanent.

70) According to Kurt Lewin’s model of change, the change process is complete with the phase of

A) freezing. B) refreezing. C) unfreezing. D) changing.

71) Pick the statement that is true regarding the implementation of change according to Lewin’s model of change.

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A) In any given situation, a supervisor has the complete authority to make a change and to implement it. B) Employees must see the status quo as less than ideal before a change can occur. C) Behaviors, by their nature, are more resistant to change than values. D) A supervisor’s duty does not encompass creating conditions in which changes are likely to last.

72)

Which of the following is a guideline that supervisors may use in implementing change? A) keep reasons for change confidential B) reassure employees by hiding bad news C) roll out the change gradually D) implement change without employee involvement

73)

If a supervisor has control over scheduling a change, he or she should A) build on failures so that employees will learn from them. B) make sure that deadlines are reasonable. C) have employees undergo training before they are told about the new change. D) focus on enforcing change without worrying about the implications.

74)

To propose a change effectively, a supervisor should begin by A) analyzing it. B) cautiously recommending it. C) convincing the top management. D) writing a proposal.

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75) __________ can be best defined as intentional acts of influence to enhance or protect the self-interest of individuals or groups. A) Role conflicts B) Strategic conflicts C) Hidden agendas D) Organizational politics

76)

The ability to influence people to behave in a certain way is called A) conflict resolution. B) power. C) nepotism. D) unethical leadership.

77)

Power that arises from an individual’s formal role in an organization is termed A) position power. B) personal power. C) physical power. D) referent power.

78) Robert is a project engineer who possesses great problem-solving abilities and knowledge of the software system used by his company. He is considered his group’s informal leader because of his A) position power. B) political power. C) personal power. D) connection power.

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79)

Legitimate power A) arises from fear related to the use of force. B) arises from a person’s knowledge or skills. C) comes from the emotions a person inspires. D) comes from the position a person holds.

80) The power that enables supervisors to delegate tasks to employees is termed __________ power. A) legitimate B) referent C) expert D) coercive

81) While talking about their supervisors, a group of employees at GreenWire Corp. agreed that one of the supervisors, Samuel, has a winning personality. They found out that they like working for him and often did more than what they were asked to do because they wanted Samuel to like them. From the given information, we can infer that Samuel has __________ power. A) position B) expert C) referent D) reward

82) __________ can be best defined as the power that arises from a person’s knowledge or skills.

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A) Information power B) Specialization power C) Expert power D) Referent power

83) Jordan is a new salesperson at an automobile firm. He is respected by his peers and colleagues because of the vast knowledge he possesses in marketing. Many salespeople in his firm seek his advice and tips on marketing strategies. In this case, Jordan has A) connection power. B) referent power. C) expert power. D) coercive power.

84) __________ can be best defined as the power that arises from fear related to the use of force. A) Coercive power B) Expert power C) Authoritarian power D) Connection power

85) A senior sales executive says, “Achieve your sales target, or you will be demoted.” This statement suggests the senior sales executive’s use of A) coercive power. B) referent power. C) connection power. D) expert power.

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86)

What is a characteristic of reward power?

A) It may be in the form of a raise but not recognition. B) Supervisors are often limited in this regard. C) This type of power may get results in the short run, but employees come to resent it in the long run. D) A person with reward power is often called “charismatic.”

87) James works as a supervisor at FastLoops Co. He transferred his most hardworking nightshift worker, Mary, to the day shift, which she had been wanting for a long time. Which type of power did James use to reinforce hard work? A) connection power B) supervisory power C) reward power D) referent power

88)

Which of the following best exemplifies connection power? A) an organization’s employee who is given a raise by his or her supervisor B) an organization’s employee who is the daughter of a vice president C) an organization’s supervisor who exudes enthusiasm, energy, and genuine enjoyment D) an organization’s supervisor who knows when the department manager will be out of

town

89)

Power that arises from possessing valuable data is termed

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A) information power. B) expert power. C) legitimate power. D) coercive power.

90) An employee who knows which of a firm’s employees are targeted in the next round of layoffs has __________ power. A) referent B) expert C) reward D) information

91)

Which of the following is a commonly used political strategy in an organization? A) delegating personal tasks to workers B) evaluating a worker on racial basis C) building relationships at all levels D) damaging others’ reputation

92) of

Offering ideas, sharing progress reports, and announcing accomplishments are examples

A) seeking control over resources. B) making a good impression. C) signaling confidence. D) helping others.

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93) Haruto, a supervisor at TechFounder Co., is often seen carrying his body erect, with good posture, when he is in office. He is also definite in his discussions regarding TechFounder’s goals and culture. He is often heard making assertive, accurate, and insightful comments regarding his own specialization. In this scenario, which political strategy is Haruto using? A) helping others B) signaling confidence C) building relationships D) assuming greater responsibility

94) Samantha, a graphic designer, works for eight hours a day. On most days however, she volunteers to work an extra hour to help her manager train new employees in her team. Which of the following approaches is Samantha using to build a base of power? A) seeking control over resources B) developing alliances with others C) stealing managerial power D) assuming greater responsibility

95) Mark, a supervisor at Alliancez Corp., is friendly with his coworkers and develops potential allies by finding common interests among them. He does favors for them, and, in exchange, he gets a lot done through them. Which of the following is Mark using to build a power base? A) hanging around with greedy, pushy, or unethical coworkers B) developing alliances with others in the organization C) seeking control over resources D) establishing a close relationship with the manager

96) Which of the following employees will be the most eligible to receive a raise or promotion?

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A) Danielle, an employee at Robust Manufacturers, who looked good at the expense of someone else B) Jennifer, a manager at Florist Colony Inc., who uses the grapevine to look for information related to the work of her subordinate supervisors C) Emily, an employee at Urban Bricklane Corp., who tried to do an exceptional job on a housing project managed by her supervisor D) Phillipe, a supervisor at Trending Co., who spread lies and rumors about his colleagues

97)

Which of the following is true of using socializing as a political strategy? A) Socializing is always helpful in an employee’s career growth. B) Supervisors should push to become buddies of their subordinates. C) Supervisors should use social occasions as an opportunity to make a big impression. D) Common sense can help a supervisor handle socializing appropriately.

98) Conflict that arises between a subordinate and a supervisor because both have different political views is an example of intrapersonal conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Parties using a compromising strategy to resolve conflicts get exactly what they want without experiencing any degree of frustration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Factors that can affect the success of a change include the kind of change to be made. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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101) According to Kurt Lewin’s model of change, the change process is complete only when employees recognize the need for change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

A supervisor with coercive power is usually said to be “charismatic.” ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Implementing change and resolving conflicts are easier for a person who has a relatively strong position in an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) To do favors so that others will be in one’s debt is an important way supervisors can build their power bases. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) D Version 1

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31) A 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) D 57) A 58) C 59) A 60) B Version 1

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61) D 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) D 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) C 84) A 85) A 86) B 87) C 88) B 89) A 90) D Version 1

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91) C 92) B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) C 97) D 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) What is the role of a supervisor in the employee selection process of both large and small organizations?

Compare and contrast job descriptions and job specifications.

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3) Differentiate between open-ended and closed-ended questions. Give one example of each.

4) What is affirmative action? Why have many organizations established affirmative action programs?

Which of the following is true of a supervisor’s role in the selection process?

A) A supervisor’s role in the selection process does not vary from one organization to another. B) A supervisor has great latitude in selecting employees in large organizations. C) A supervisor has to do most of the work in large organizations that have formal procedures. D) A supervisor works to some extent with a human resources department.

A job description is best described as a listing of the

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A) characteristics of a job, including the job title, duties involved, and working conditions. B) permissible questions related to a particular job that an employer can ask in a job interview. C) required educational background, physical characteristics, and personal strengths for a job. D) possible sources of employees, both inside and outside the organization.

A written job description typically includes the A) title of the job. B) required educational experience. C) skills needed to perform the job. D) personal characteristics of the job candidate.

8) The listing for a systems analyst job states that the job requires the analyst to prepare feasibility studies, program specifications for the system(s), and work with the programming staff. This information is most likely to be part of the A) job specification. B) job description. C) code of ethics. D) mission statement.

9) A job __________ is a listing of the characteristics of the job—that is, the observable activities required to carry out the job. A) specification B) posting C) description D) title

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10) job.

A job __________ is a listing of the characteristics desirable in the person performing the

A) specification B) posting C) designation D) title

11)

Job specification is best defined as a listing of

A) the characteristics of a job, including the job title, duties involved, and working conditions. B) the characteristics desirable in the person performing a given job, including educational and work background. C) the motivating features of a specific job that encourages employees to perform well. D) the procedures to be used by employees when faced with specific ethical situations.

12) the

In the context of job specification, the knowledge of the person performing a job refers to

A) proficiency in carrying out the tasks in the job description. B) information required to perform the tasks in the job description. C) general enduring capabilities required for carrying out the tasks in the job description. D) psychological characteristics related to the successful performance of essential tasks.

13)

Which of the following is most likely to be part of a job specification?

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A) location of the job B) job title C) productivity and quality standards of the job D) unusual sensory demands to qualify for the job

14) In the context of job specification, the general enduring competences required for carrying out the tasks in the job description refer to the ________ of the person performing the job. A) knowledge B) duties C) abilities D) personality

15)

Which of the following is most likely to be an integral part of a job specification? A) job title B) working conditions C) duties involved in the job D) educational qualification required for a job

16)

The skills of a person performing a job refer to A) the proficiency in carrying out the tasks in the job description. B) the general enduring capabilities required for carrying out tasks. C) the educational qualification of the person. D) ethical and moral obligations.

17)

Recruitment is best defined as the process of

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A) forming a small group whose members share goals and accountability for results. B) developing the ability of members to work together to achieve common objectives. C) identifying people interested in holding a particular job or working for the organization. D) learning about an individual’s personal problem and helping him or her in its resolution.

18) Identifying people interested in holding a particular job or working for an organization is known as A) recruitment. B) placement. C) orientation. D) selection.

19)

Which of the following is a way of conducting internal recruitment in a firm? A) employee referrals B) media advertisements C) employment agencies D) online job-listing services

20)

Which of the following is least likely to be included in job postings? A) the job title B) the salary range C) the department D) the organization profile

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21) At Core Inc., the supervisor and the human resources department have decided to recruit people from within the organization for filling up the company’s various vacant positions. Which of the following will be most effective in their quest to find the right candidate? A) help-wanted ads in newspapers B) employment agencies C) job postings D) a survey of local colleges

22)

Which of the following is an advantage of recruiting outside an organization? A) Candidates are familiar with the work environment. B) Candidates bring fresh ideas and skills that the organization might lack. C) The expenses involved are comparatively less. D) The process of recruitment is less time consuming.

23)

A __________ is a list of the positions that are vacant in an organization. A) job description B) job scope C) job posting D) job specification

24) In the context of external recruitment, __________ seek to match people looking for a job with organizations looking for employees. A) employment agencies B) job postings C) employee referrals D) journal advertisements

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25) Which of the following sources of external recruitment is most likely to be beneficial for an organization that lacks the time or expertise to carry out an effective recruiting effort? A) employment agencies B) job postings C) employee referrals D) print publications

26) In the context of external recruitment, the most popular, inexpensive, and convenient way to match candidates to jobs is through A) word-of-mouth recruiting. B) online recruiting. C) employee referral. D) newspaper advertisements.

27) In the process of selecting a candidate for a job, the __________ is most likely to do the initial screening. A) supervisor B) human resources department C) line manager D) disciplinary committee

28) Once an organization has identified candidates for a job, it begins the __________ process.

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A) organizing B) planning C) selection D) control

29)

Which of the following is true of the selection process?

A) The physical examination step helps to eliminate those with inadequate education and experience. B) The human resources department makes the final decision in the selection process. C) Supervisors can use employment tests without consulting the human resources department. D) Supervisors sometimes pick employees like themselves so that they will feel comfortable.

30) In the process of selecting a candidate for a job, the __________ is most likely to make the final decision. A) supervisor B) human resources department C) line manager D) disciplinary committee

31)

The first step of the selection process involves A) interviewing the shortlisted candidates. B) screening from employment applications. C) recording impressions about prospective candidates. D) conducting personality and aptitude tests.

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32)

What is the objective of screening in the selection process?

A) to narrow the search for an employee by assessing each candidate’s interpersonal and communication skills B) to see whether employees have the necessary skills to perform the job efficiently C) to learn details about the information a candidate has provided on the application or résumé D) to narrow the pool of applicants to the number that a supervisor wants to interview for a job

33) Jennifer, a new human resources manager for a pharmaceutical firm, is given the task of recruiting 25 people for the firm. Jennifer screens the candidates based on their education qualifications and the firm’s job requirements. According to the selection process, which of the following should Jennifer do next? A) She should interview the candidates. B) She should conduct a physical examination of the candidates. C) She should immediately conduct an employment test. D) She should gather background information about the candidates.

34)

In the context of interviewing a candidate, which of the following is true?

A) An interviewer should start off an interview by intimidating the candidates so that they give their best. B) An interviewer should ideally include questions about the candidate’s age, sex, race, and marital status for an inclusive analysis. C) An interviewer should review the job description and develop a realistic way to describe the job to the candidates. D) An interviewer should arrange for a structured interview if he or she desires more flexibility and does not want to stick to a standard set of questions.

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35)

What is the objective of interviewing in the selection process?

A) to narrow the pool of applicants to the number that a supervisor wants to interview for a job B) to learn details about the information a candidate has provided on the application or résumé C) to see whether employees have the necessary skills to perform the job efficiently D) to compare the applications or résumés of candidates with the job description prepared by the supervisor

36)

An interviewer should begin the interviewing process by A) making the candidate feel comfortable. B) asking about the candidate’s background, qualifications, goals, and expectations. C) recording impressions of the candidate. D) preparing the content and conditions of the interview.

37)

An interviewing process usually ends by A) selecting the candidate for temporary employment. B) asking about the candidate’s background, qualifications, goals, and expectations. C) recording impressions about the candidate. D) placing the candidate into training programs.

38) Which of the following questions should an interviewer usually refrain from asking a candidate during a selection interview?

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A) What is your current legal name? B) What is your current residence? C) Have you ever been convicted of felony? D) What is your marital status?

39) Which of the following is a permissible question that an interviewer can ask a candidate during a selection interview? A) Who handles the candidate’s household responsibilities? B) Does the candidate have his or her birth certificate? C) What is the candidate’s preferred courtesy title? D) Does the candidate meet the minimum age requirement set by law?

40)

Which of the following is an advantage associated with an unstructured interview? A) It makes sure that each interview covers the same material. B) It gives more flexibility to the interviewer. C) It allows the interviewer to ask impermissible questions. D) It allows the interviewer to have a list of questions prepared in advance.

41)

Which of the following statements is an example of an open-ended question? A) Would you prefer working on the weekends? B) How did you handle stress at your previous workplace? C) Would you have a problem working under a female supervisor? D) How many years of experience do you have in marketing?

42) Sara, a manager at a finance firm, is preparing questions for an interview. Which of the following is a permissible question Sara can include in her question list? Version 1

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A) To which religious denomination do you belong? B) Have you ever been arrested? C) What is your national origin? D) Have you ever been convicted of a felony?

43)

Which of the following statements is an example of a closed-ended question?

A) Do you have experience in telesales? B) Why do you think internal recruitment is more advantageous than external recruitment? C) What is your strategy to remain focused on your work? D) How will your experience with your previous employer help you in your current employment?

44)

The difference between an open-ended question and a closed-ended one is that the latter A) allows the employer to ask for information about a conviction. B) requires a comparatively broad and more inclusive response. C) often leads to the halo effect. D) requires a simple answer, such as yes or no.

45)

The halo effect is best defined as the

A) practice of forming an overall opinion on the basis of one outstanding characteristic. B) practice of grouping together employees who share common interests. C) phenomenon where group members lose their individuality and give in to group pressure. D) act of hiring one’s own relative for a job in spite of there being more eligible candidates.

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46) In the interviewing process, once an interviewer prepares the content and conditions of an interview, he or she should A) record impressions of the candidate. B) make the candidate feel comfortable. C) ask about background, qualifications, goals, and expectations. D) administer employment tests.

47) In an interviewing process, after asking candidates about their background qualifications and goals, an interviewer should A) make notes of the candidates’ impressions. B) close the interview by telling candidates what to expect. C) offer candidates the opportunity to ask questions. D) ask candidates to take a physical examination.

48) A(n) __________ interview style is informal in nature and signals that the supervisor is interested in getting to know the candidate both as a prospective employee and an individual. A) interpersonal B) professional C) authoritative D) laissez-faire

49) A(n) __________ interview style tends to be formal in nature and focuses primarily on the information pertinent to the job itself.

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A) interpersonal B) professional C) democratic D) laissez-faire

50) The factor that differentiates the interpersonal interview style from the professional interview style is that the latter A) is informal in nature. B) focuses primarily on the information pertinent to the job itself. C) does not enable a candidate to build rapport with an interviewer. D) enables an interviewer to gain more information about a candidate.

51) In the interviewing process, after making the candidate comfortable, an interviewer should begin by A) asking general questions about the candidate’s background and qualifications. B) telling the candidate what to expect regarding the organization’s decision about the job. C) jotting down notes of his or her impressions about the candidate. D) asking questions about the candidate’s age, race, marital status, and religion.

52)

Which of the following questions during an interview violate antidiscrimination laws? A) Why do you want to work for our company? B) Are you planning to have any children? C) How do you plan to continue developing yourself? D) Are you a leader? Explain.

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53) Which of the following questions can be asked by an interviewer during the interviewing process? A) What nationality is that name? B) What are your strengths and weaknesses? C) How long do you plan to work before retiring? D) Are you planning to have any children?

54)

Which of the following statements is true of a structured interview?

A) It includes questions that an interviewer has planned in advance. B) It gives an interviewer a high degree of flexibility in the choice of questions. C) An interviewer asks only close-ended questions that require simple one-word answers. D) The interview format and the questions vary from candidate to candidate.

55) An interview in which the interviewer has no list of questions prepared in advance but asks questions on the basis of the applicant’s responses is referred to as a(n) __________ interview. A) structured B) unstructured C) semistructured D) nonstandardized

56)

In a structured interview, an interviewer A) covers the same material with each candidate. B) has no list of questions prepared in advance. C) has more flexibility in the choice of questions. D) can ask only open-ended questions.

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57) Which of the following statements accurately differentiates structured interviews from unstructured interviews? A) Structured interviews are formal in nature, whereas unstructured interviews are informal in nature. B) Unstructured interviews give an interviewer more flexibility than structured interviews. C) Unlike structured interviews, unstructured interviews cover the same material with each candidate. D) Structured interviews use open-ended questions, whereas unstructured interviews use closed-ended questions.

58) A(n) __________ question is one that gives the person responding broad control over the response. A) structured B) closed-ended C) unstructured D) open-ended

59)

A(n) __________ question is one that requires a simple answer, such as yes or no. A) structured B) closed-ended C) unstructured D) open-ended

60) __________ questions tend to be more useful in interviewing because they lead a candidate to provide more information.

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A) Structured B) Closed-ended C) Unstructured D) Open-ended

61)

Which of the following is true of open-ended questions? A) They are seldom used by supervisors when interviewing job candidates. B) They lead a candidate to provide more information. C) They require a simple answer, such as yes or no. D) They tend to be less useful in interviewing than closed-ended questions.

62)

Which of the following is true of closed-ended questions? A) They lead a candidate to provide more information. B) They tend to be more useful in interviewing than open-ended questions. C) They lead to answers that are usually not clear or specific enough. D) They require a simple answer, such as yes or no.

63) Jennifer believes that Mark, a new employee, is the most efficient employee in the company. Her basis of this opinion is that Mark was polite and had once helped her find her car keys which she had misplaced in the office. Now, whenever she sees Mark working in the office, she assumes that he is the hardest working employee in the company. Jennifer’s belief is an example of the A) halo effect. B) hindsight bias. C) placebo effect. D) courtesy bias.

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64)

A test that measures whether a person has the skills needed to perform a job is called a(n) A) psychomotor test. B) aptitude test. C) proficiency test. D) personality test.

65)

What is the objective of administering employment tests in the selection process?

66)

In the context of administering employment tests, a psychomotor test A) identifies various personality traits. B) measures an applicant’s ability to learn skills related to the job. C) measures a person’s strength, dexterity, and coordination. D) determines whether an applicant has the skills needed to perform a job.

67) A test that measures an applicant’s ability to learn skills related to a job is known as a(n) __________ test.

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A) intelligence B) aptitude C) psychomotor D) proficiency

68)

In the context of employment tests, identify an example of a proficiency test. A) a language test for the position of an editor at a publishing company B) a dexterity test for a position in an assembly line C) a test measuring a job applicant’s physical strength D) a personality test measuring the behavior of an individual under stressful conditions

69)

Which of the following is true of administering employment tests? A) It is the first step in the selection process and narrows the pool of applicants. B) Its objective is to see whether the supervisor and employee are comfortable with each

other. C) Usually, the top management of an organization handles the testing of applicants. D) Personality tests can pose a problem if they identify candidates with mental disabilities.

70) Employment tests used by supervisors should be reviewed by the human resources department to ensure that they A) are not discriminatory. B) identify candidates with emotional disabilities. C) have used closed-ended questions. D) can screen out applicants based on age.

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71)

Which of the following is an example of a psychomotor test? A) a test measuring a candidate’s intelligence and emotional quotients B) a test measuring a candidate’s knowledge about the use of a tool C) a test measuring a candidate’s strength and technique in using a particular equipment D) a test measuring a candidate’s aptitude for a job

72)

Which of the following is an example of an academic reference? A) a reference provided by former employers verifying an applicant’s work history B) a reference provided by professors regarding an applicant’s performance in school C) a reference provided by former colleagues verifying an applicant’s character D) a reference provided by friends substantiating an applicant’s job performance

73)

Which of the following is an example of an employment reference? A) a reference provided by former supervisors verifying an applicant’s work history B) a reference provided by professors regarding an applicant’s performance in school C) a reference provided by former colleagues verifying an applicant’s character D) a reference provided by friends substantiating an applicant’s job performance

74)

The last stage of the selection process involves A) conducting employment tests. B) conducting physical examinations. C) interviewing candidates. D) making the selection decision.

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75) Since Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Act, experts have advised that employers request a physical exam only A) before a job offer is made. B) before the formal interview. C) after a job offer is made. D) during the screening process.

76) When asked by Jay’s employer, Rob vouches for Jay’s moral qualities and temperament. In this case, Rob acts as a(n) A) professional reference. B) employment reference. C) personal reference. D) academic reference.

77) In the context of conducting background and reference checks, teachers or professors who can describe an applicant’s performance in school are considered __________ references. A) professional B) employment C) personal D) academic

78) In the context of conducting background and reference checks, former managers who can verify an applicant’s work history are considered __________ references. A) specialized B) employment C) personal D) academic

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79) Which of the following is true of background checks conducted during the selection process? A) Background checks give a potential employer unlimited access to a candidate’s personal information. B) Often, a background check will yield only that an applicant did in fact hold the stated position during the dates indicated. C) Since previous employers are cautious about what they disclose, a telephone call to a former supervisor is less fruitful than a written request for information. D) There are no laws limiting the types of information available to potential employers through background checks.

80)

Which of the following is true of making the selection decision?

A) The final decision of whom to hire is usually up to the human resources department. B) Typically, only one person will survive all the preceding steps of the screening process. C) The Americans with Disabilities Act requires that employers request a physical exam before making the selection decision. D) In practice, hiring decisions often reflect a variety of issues, including a supervisor’s comfort level.

81) Since Congress passed the __________ Act, experts have advised that employers request a physical exam only after a job offer is made. A) Age Discrimination in Employment B) Americans with Disabilities C) Pregnancy Discrimination D) Civil Rights

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82) Which of the following is least likely to be a benefit of requesting a physical examination after making a job offer? A) It helps the organization determine whether the person is physically able to fulfill job requirements. B) It reduces the risk that someone will sue the company for refusing to hire him or her because of a disability. C) It helps to determine whether the person is eligible for any life, health, and disability insurance that the company offers as benefits. D) It allows an organization to legally deny employment to a disabled person who is capable of performing the essential functions of the job.

83) Which of the following is true of requesting a physical examination during the selection process? A) In the past, organizations have not required that job candidates pass a physical examination. B) Since Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Act, experts have advised that employers request a physical exam before a job offer is made. C) A physical examination does not help determine whether the person is eligible for any life, health, and disability insurance that the company offers as benefits. D) Most organizations will want the human resources department to handle the exams and the issue of how to accommodate employees with disabilities.

84) In the selection process, which of the following usually takes place after making a job offer? A) reference checks B) psychomotor tests C) physical examinations D) structured interviews

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85) The federal government agency that is in charge of enforcing Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is the A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. B) U.S. Department of Labor. C) Affirmative Action Association. D) Immigration Agency.

86)

The Rehabilitation Act of 1973

A) prohibits employers from discriminating on the basis of age against people over 40 years old, provided the job does not involve much physical activity. B) makes it illegal to refuse a job to a disabled person because of the disability, if the disability does not interfere with the person’s ability to do the job. C) makes it unlawful to discriminate on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. D) protects disabled veterans and veterans of the Vietnam War and requires federal contractors to make special efforts to recruit these people.

87) Plans designed to increase opportunities for groups that have traditionally been discriminated against are referred to as A) ethnocracy plans. B) civil rights. C) affirmative action. D) diversity promotion.

88) Under __________, employers may not discriminate on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin in recruiting, hiring, paying, firing, or laying off employees, or in any other employment practices.

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A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 C) the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 D) Title IV of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

89)

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

A) prohibits employers from discriminating on the basis of age against people over 40 years old. B) investigates charges of discrimination and may pursue a remedy in court or arrange for mediation. C) makes it illegal for the federal government to refuse a job to a disabled person because of the disability, if the disability does not interfere with the person’s ability to do the job. D) prohibits employers in state and local governments and the private sector from discriminating against a qualified person with a disability.

90) __________ is a view that extends beyond legally protected differences to fair treatment of employees who differ in some ways such as military service, sexual orientation, and age differences not protected by law. A) Managing up B) Diversifying selection C) External recruiting D) Valuing diversity

91)

Affirmative action plans A) try to encourage diversity in an organization. B) set up artificial quotas for disadvantaged groups. C) relieve employees who fail to meet performance standards. D) forbid employers from hiring illegal immigrants.

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92) Which of the following conditions is most likely to get a disability status under the Americans with Disabilities Act? A) pregnancy B) common personality traits such as impatience C) illegal drug use that is casual D) physical and mental impairments

93) Which of the following is the federal law that prohibits employers from discriminating on the basis of mental or physical impairments against people who can perform the essential functions of a job? A) the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 B) the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 C) the Civil Rights Act of 1964 D) the Pregnancy Discrimination Act 1978

94) Which of the following is one of the conditions to get a disability status under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? A) illegal drug users disciplined for current abuse B) cultural and economic disadvantages C) temporary or short-term problems D) severe obesity

95)

To comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act, supervisors should

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A) make sure production standards are not easily attainable by current employees. B) revise job descriptions to indicate the essential functions of the job. C) ask interview questions regarding candidates’ health history. D) screen out illegal immigrants and report them to the authorities.

96)

Which of the following is true of the Immigration Reform and Control Act?

A) It restricts employers in the United States from outsourcing to other countries. B) It requires employers to screen candidates to make sure they are authorized to work in the United States. C) It restricts employers from directly firing foreign employees who are addicted to alcohol, drugs, or any other addictive substances. D) It allows employers to screen out legal immigrants with a physical or mental disability.

97)

The Immigration Reform and Control Act forbids employers from A) discriminating against Persian Gulf War veterans. B) hiring disabled people. C) hiring illegal immigrants. D) sponsoring immigrants to the United States and paying them low wages.

98)

A job description should exclude information about the working conditions of a job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99)

A written job description typically mentions the desired skills in a candidate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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100)

Online recruitment is the most expensive way to match candidates to jobs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) The recruitment process typically involves identifying and hiring candidates from outside the organization only. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

The steps in the selection process are designed to narrow the field of candidates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) A structured interview gives an interviewer more flexibility but makes it harder to be sure that each interview covers the same material. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits employers from discriminating on the basis of age against people over 50 years old. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) A Version 1

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31) B 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) B 60) D Version 1

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61) B 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) D 75) C 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) D 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) C 85) A 86) B 87) C 88) A 89) B 90) D Version 1

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91) A 92) D 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE Student name:__________ 1)

Define orientation. Why is it considered important for new employees?

2) List a few common employee orientation methods and briefly discuss any one of the methods.

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What are the various steps involved in the training process?

Describe the coaching process in the business context.

Describe how supervisors can evaluate training effectiveness.

Training is best defined as the process of A) increasing the skills that will enable employees to better meet the organization’s

goals. B) making the transition phase after the adjournment of a team as smooth as possible. C) developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational goals. D) planning what to do if the original plans or objectives set by an organization do not work out.

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7) __________ refers to increasing the skills that will enable employees to better meet the organization’s goals. A) Monitoring B) Instructing C) Training D) Managing

Which of the following is true of training? A) The best employees do not usually need any training. B) Training is not a major expense. C) Employee training meets important needs. D) Training cannot improve productivity.

Orientation is best defined as the process of A) developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational

goals. B) planning what to do if the original plans or objectives set by an organization do not work out. C) giving new employees the information they need to do their work comfortably, effectively, and efficiently. D) correcting defects in the goods or services of a firm or improving them in some way.

10) __________ refers to the process of giving new employees the information they need to do their work comfortably, effectively, and efficiently.

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A) Orientation B) Coaching C) Mentoring D) Formalization

11) In the context of small organizations, who is usually responsible for the orientation of employees? A) the human resources department personnel B) the employees themselves C) the supervisor D) the stockholders of the company

12)

The primary reason organizations have orientation programs is that it A) allows employees to quickly become productive. B) encourages coworkers and supervisors to spend more time helping newcomers. C) allows supervisors to make quick selection decisions. D) encourages employees to form informal groups within the organization.

13) Which of the following is least likely to be a reason for conducting orientation for new employees? A) to reduce the need for a training program B) to develop a positive attitude and commitment C) to decrease their nervousness and uncertainty D) to enable them to work faster with fewer errors

14)

Which of the following is an advantage associated with employee orientation?

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A) reduces the halo effect in an organization B) reduces nervousness in new employees C) controls the occurrence of nepotism D) decreases the costs associated with training

15)

In the context of orientation of new employees, which of the following is true? A) It is time consuming and often reduces employee efficiency. B) It gives employees a sense that their individuality will be crushed. C) It encourages employees to develop a positive attitude. D) It strictly discourages employees from forming informal groups.

16)

Large organizations generally have a formal orientation program conducted by the A) supervisor. B) employees themselves. C) board of directors. D) human resources department.

17) When the human resources department and supervisor share responsibility for conducting an orientation, the supervisor typically covers topics related to A) the organization’s policies and procedures, including hours of work and breaks. B) enrollment forms for insurance policies and withholding forms for tax purposes. C) performing a particular job in a particular department. D) procedures for filling out time sheets.

18) When the human resources department and supervisor share responsibility for conducting an orientation, the human resources department typically covers topics related to Version 1

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A) the performance of a particular job in a particular department. B) specific tasks involved in performing both simple and complex jobs. C) policies regarding performance appraisals, pay increases, and time off. D) what the department does and how these activities contribute to the organization’s goals.

19)

Which of the following is true of orientation methods?

A) The methods a supervisor uses will depend on the organization’s policies and resources. B) A large organization expects individual supervisors to develop their own orientation methods. C) Small organizations typically provide a handbook of information for new employees and spell out orientation procedures to follow. D) Some of the common orientation methods include computer-based instruction, interactive multimedia, and role-playing.

20)

An employee handbook is most likely to include a description of an organization’s A) products and services. B) administrative procedures. C) suppliers and retailers. D) manufacturing processes.

21)

Which of the following is a common orientation method? A) providing guidance and instruction B) assigning roles to new employees C) conducting a tour of the facilities D) coaching and career mentoring

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22) A document that describes a company’s conditions of employment, policies regarding employees, administrative procedures, and related matters is called a(n) A) employee handbook. B) code of ethics. C) mission statement. D) vision statement.

23) On his first day at work, Kevin’s supervisor gave him a document with a description of the organization’s policies and procedures. His supervisor explained to him the way to use the document to find answers to questions. The document given to Kevin is an example of a(n) A) employee handbook. B) code of ethics. C) mission statement. D) vision statement.

24) Ryan is a new employee in Mark’s department. Mark wants to orient Ryan in the most comfortable way possible, so he invites him out to lunch on his first day. Furthermore, Mark asks the other employees in the department to welcome Ryan by inviting him out to lunch with them on other days. Which of the following methods of orientation is being employed by Mark? A) establishing the norms of the organization B) initiating a formal training process C) encouraging the involvement of coworkers D) arranging for a follow-up with the employee

25)

In addition to the initial information provision, an orientation should involve

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A) feedback. B) follow-up. C) an exit interview. D) reinforcement.

26)

In the context of employee orientation, what should a supervisor do during follow-up? A) regularly check on the performance and progress of employees B) show the employee the locations of facilities he or she will need to know about C) encourage coworkers to invite a new employee to join them on breaks and at lunch D) introduce the new employee to the people with whom he or she will be working

27)

Which of the following is the first step in the process of providing training to employees? A) setting objectives for training B) deciding who will participate C) choosing training methods D) assessing needs for training

28) Jonathan, a human resources manager at a restaurant, gets complaints from customers about the poor quality of food at the restaurant. He learns that the quality of the food is directly linked to the lack of skills the chefs possess. According to the training cycle, which of the following should Jonathan do next? A) He should immediately hire new chefs. B) He should identify chefs who would be part of the training. C) He should create a list of training methods. D) He should set training objectives for the chefs.

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29) Jennifer, a human resources manager, has identified that the poor customer service at her marketing firm is because of the fact that salespeople in the marketing department do not speak the language of the firm’s customers. She identifies that salespeople require training and sets objectives for training. According to the training cycle, which of the following steps should Jennifer take next? A) She should evaluate the training program. B) She should get an external expert to conduct the training. C) She should decide who should participate in the training. D) She should implement the training immediately.

30) Jerome identifies that there are problems in the research and development department of his pharmaceutical company. He learns that some employees in the department require training. He sets objectives for the training and makes a list of the employees who will participate in the training session. According to the training cycle, which of the following steps should Jerome take next? A) He should hire an external trainer to train the employees. B) He should rewrite his training objectives. C) He should conduct a refresher training immediately. D) He should choose appropriate training methods for the employees.

31) Heather, a human resources manager at a bank, determines that a classroom training would be best for some of her experienced employees who are not aware of the current trends and changes in the banking industry. According to the training cycle, which of the following steps should Heather take next? A) She should identify if there is a need for training. B) She should revise her training objectives with her superior. C) She should set objectives for the training program. D) She should conduct the training.

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32)

When a supervisor is conducting the training, he or she can benefit from applying A) principles of learning. B) a code of ethics. C) different leadership styles. D) theories of personality.

33)

Which of the following is true of the assessment of training needs?

A) Needs assessment should be an ongoing, not an occasional, concern of supervisors. B) With input from supervisors, employees should determine the areas of training that they will need. C) Supervisors who do not conduct their employees’ formal training are not responsible for recognizing needs for training. D) A supervisor cannot identify training needs by observing problems in a department or by asking employees.

34) Which of the following is the last step in the process of planning a training program for employees? A) conducting training in a timely manner B) deciding who will participate C) setting objectives for the training D) choosing training methods

35)

Which of the following is the last step in the training cycle? A) assessing training needs B) evaluating training C) choosing training methods D) conducting training

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36)

Evaluation of training concludes the training cycle by helping a supervisor A) identify employee requirement for additional training. B) decide which employees are no longer needed. C) observe departmental problems that need fixing. D) forecast a company’s future performance.

37) Laura’s division is switching over to a new computerized telephone system in the upcoming months. She realizes that everyone in her division will have to undergo training to operate the new telephone system. Which of the following reasons has led Laura to decide on a training program for her employees? A) the need to adhere to government regulations B) the inefficiency of the employees C) the increase in the frequency of client complaints D) the need to make employees familiar with the latest technology

38)

Which of the following statements is true of a learning environment?

A) It encourages competition and rivalry among employees and improves their individual performance. B) It provides supervisors an opportunity to determine whether an employee is interested in the job. C) It encourages employees to exchange with one another the knowledge and skills they have acquired. D) It is worth creating only when it leads to improved performance, as measured by increased work output.

39)

How can supervisors foster a learning environment by setting a good example?

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A) by determining the areas of training that employees will need and scheduling the times for them to receive it B) by explaining what a particular department does and how these activities contribute to the organization’s goals C) by developing their own knowledge and skills through a variety of means, from reading to attending seminars D) by viewing training as a distraction from the “real work” of the organization, not merely an investment to be evaluated

40)

Which of the following factors can affect how frequently employees need to be retrained? A) changing consumer needs B) inconsistent employee performance C) fluctuating employee confidence levels D) changing reporting structure

41) __________ learning refers to the ongoing acquisition and enhancement of knowledge, skills, and abilities by individuals. A) Passive B) Kinesthetic C) Lifelong D) Observational

42) __________ learning provides employees with additional knowledge, skills, and abilities that can enable them to better connect with customers, engage in creative decision making and problem solving, and identify ways of improving work.

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A) Passive B) Kinesthetic C) Lifelong D) Observational

43) A potential drawback to providing employees with ongoing training and learning opportunities is that A) employees could take their newly gained knowledge, skills, and abilities and leverage them with other firms. B) it prevents employees from engaging in creative decision making and problem solving. C) employees become less productive as they spend more time learning new skills rather than performing their tasks. D) it increases competition among employees, which results in interpersonal conflicts.

44)

Which of the following is an example of atrophy?

A) Jacob is unable to complete his work-related tasks because he reports to two different supervisors who give him different goals and objectives. B) Rob is unable to perform his work-related tasks because his skills have deteriorated since the time he was employed. C) Sylvia is unable to perform a work-related task because her manager has incorrectly assigned the task to a senior member of her team. D) Irene is unable to perform a work-related task because she is unable to comprehend the instructions given by her superior.

45)

Atrophy refers to a condition where employees lose the capability of

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A) trusting the organization and remain loyal. B) functioning effectively as a result of ongoing stress. C) performing work-related functions over time. D) working effectively with other employees.

46) Which of the following factors is most likely to impact the frequency with which retaining of employees is needed? A) changing customer needs B) supervisors’ interests C) employee personality characteristics D) economies of scale

47)

In a broader context, lifelong learning A) does not provide employees with additional knowledge. B) prevents good employees from quitting. C) benefits companies, not employees. D) makes a labor force more productive.

48)

When choosing the type of training to be used, a supervisor should take into account the A) qualification of the trainer. B) expense versus the benefits. C) structure of the organization. D) employees’ likes and dislikes.

49)

On-the-job training primarily involves

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A) teaching the job while the trainer and the trainee perform the job at the work site. B) teaching the tasks related to a job through computer-based training aids without a live instructor. C) training employees to perform job tasks that are outside their regular duties. D) assigning roles to participants, who then demonstrate how they would handle a specific situation.

50) In __________ training, a trainer shows an employee how to do a job, and then the employee tries it. A) certification B) on-the-job C) classroom D) vestibule

51)

Which of the following statements about on-the-job training is true? A) It is most appropriate for a relatively complex job in which the costs of an error are

high. B) The time and expense involved in this form of training are comparatively higher than the apprenticeship form. C) It is a type of training that takes place on equipment set up in a special area away from the job site. D) The results are immediate and tell whether the employee understands what the trainer is trying to teach.

52) Which of the following professionals is most likely to undergo on-the-job training as a new employee?

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A) a doctor B) a nurse C) a pilot D) a salesperson

53)

Apprenticeship is best defined as

A) the training that involves working alongside an experienced person, who shows the trainee how to do the various tasks of the job. B) the training that takes place on equipment set up in a special area off the job site. C) the training that involves delivering training programs via computer-based training aids in the absence of a live instructor. D) the off-the-job training method in which specific roles are assigned to participants.

54) Jake, a new employee at an automobile firm, is assigned to work with an experienced employee in the assembly line of the firm. The experienced employee demonstrates how to use the various equipment in the assembly line. This is an example of A) simulation. B) apprenticeship. C) classroom instruction. D) directive counseling.

55)

An apprenticeship is a long-term form of __________ training. A) on-the-job B) vestibule C) off-the-job D) certification

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56)

Which of the following is true of an apprenticeship training program?

A) It is less time consuming and inexpensive when compared to on-the-job training. B) It is not well suited for training needs that require months or years of learning. C) It is more complicated to set up than simple on-the-job training for individual tasks. D) It involves delivering training programs via computer-based training aids in the absence of a live instructor.

57)

Cross-training is best defined as

A) the type of off-the-job training that takes place on equipment set up in a special area. B) the type of training that teaches employees another job so that they can fill in as needed. C) the off-the-job training method in which specific roles are assigned to participants. D) the training program aimed at strengthening a particular skill.

58) Phil and Neville are junior tele salespeople at a marketing firm. Since their marketing firm requires employees to take turns and perform various jobs, they are now learning the roles and tasks of the field salespeople at their firm. This is an example of A) cross-training. B) vestibule training. C) apprenticeship. D) off-the-job training.

59)

Teaching employees another job so that they can fill in as needed is known as

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A) computer-based training. B) on-the-job training. C) cross-training. D) vestibule training.

60)

Which of the following is true of cross-training?

A) Supervisors of employees who have completed cross-training have no flexibility in making assignments. B) In planning cross-training, a supervisor should make sure that employees spend less time practicing each job. C) Employees who have completed cross-training can enjoy more variety in their work. D) It is a type of training that allows employees to practice using equipment off the job.

61) As part of a training program for commercial loan officers, Maria was trained by training instructors at a bank’s training institute for different positions of its operations. These different positions included being a bank teller, a new accounts representative, a loan collector, and an installment loan officer. This is an example of A) on-the-job training. B) computer-based training. C) cross-training. D) autogenic training.

62)

Vestibule training is best defined as

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A) the on-the-job training method in which specific roles are assigned to participants. B) the on-the-job training program aimed at strengthening a particular skill of the participant. C) the training that takes place on equipment set up in a special area away from the job site. D) the training that involves delivering training programs via computer-based training aids.

63) Jerome is a new employee at a steel manufacturing unit. Before Jerome is placed on the actual job, his supervisor allows him to work in a separate room with some of the firm’s manufacturing equipment. In this room, he is allowed to make errors and learn how to handle the equipment. This type of training is an example of A) vestibule training. B) virtual training. C) on-the-job training. D) classroom training.

64)

Identify an accurate statement about vestibule training.

A) It is ineffective when the training is conducted before an employee gets to work on the actual job. B) It is less effective than on-the-job training when providing training for jobs that require no room for error. C) It is a long-term form of apprenticeship. D) It is expensive because employees do not produce goods for organizations during their training period.

65)

Vestibule training is most likely appropriate when

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A) an organization hires people who do not already know how to use its equipment. B) the tasks to be learned are relatively simple or the costs of an error are low. C) an organization requires that employees learn to perform more than one job. D) employees prefer to have more variety in their work.

66)

Which of the following is an advantage of vestibule training?

A) Employees can concentrate on the training without the fear of committing mistakes. B) This training method is less expensive than the on-the-job training method. C) Employees find it easy to adjust to the real work environment and apply what they have learnt. D) This form of training is the least time consuming of all the other modes of training.

67)

The difference between on-the-job and vestibule training is that the latter A) takes place on equipment set up in a special area off the job site. B) teaches employees skills apart from their area of expertise. C) involves working alongside an experienced person. D) uses the computer-based instruction medium.

68) In the context of the various training methods used by U.S. employers, the largest share of training time is devoted to A) off-the-job training. B) vestibule training. C) apprenticeship. D) classroom instruction.

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69) __________ training takes place in a seminar where one or more speakers lecture on a specific topic. A) Vestibule B) Classroom C) On-the-job D) Off-the-job

70)

Which of the following is true of classroom training?

A) It cannot occur at the workplace if an organization lacks the time or facilities for formal classes. B) Regardless of the format and trainer, it can be a relatively expensive way to convey information. C) Most of the communication travels in one direction—from the lecturer to the audience. D) In most cases, it allows the learners to practice what they are learning.

71) An instructor using the __________ method can deliver a large quantity of information to more than one person in a relatively short time. A) apprenticeship B) vestibule training C) cross-training D) classroom training

72)

Which of the following is a disadvantage primarily associated with classroom training? A) It typically brings about a two-way communication that complicates things. B) It rarely allows the learners to practice what they are learning. C) The trainees are more prone to make mistakes as they are put to work directly. D) The learners are less likely to feel involved as it is computer-based.

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73) Which of the following modes of training delivers the course content to participants who are located far away from the provider of the training through computers and other communications technology? A) on-the-job training B) apprenticeship C) distance learning D) classroom training

74)

Computer-based training that employs the Internet is commonly referred to as A) mentoring. B) e-learning. C) distance training. D) coaching.

75)

Identify an accurate statement about computer-based instruction.

A) It requires an organization to pay huge sums of money to a trainer to conduct the training. B) It takes up the largest share of training time across all organizations. C) It is expensive when an instructor has to train many trainees. D) It allows trainees to work at their own pace.

76) What advice do experts provide for successfully implementing a computer-assisted training program?

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A) It should maximize access, speed, and ease of use. B) It should exclude rewards, such as money or time off. C) It should not vary media—using either audio or video. D) It should chunk instruction into segments of 30 minutes or more.

77)

Interactive multimedia is best defined as

A) the software that brings together sound, video, graphics, animation, and text and adjusts content on the basis of user responses. B) the medium of providing instructions through instructor-led classes with the aid of texts and videos. C) the mode of training that allows employees to practice using equipment related to performing particular tasks off the job. D) the software specifically designed for cross-training that involves teaching employees multiple skills so that they can fill in as needed.

78) Computer software that brings together sound, video, graphics, animation, and text and adjusts content on the basis of user responses is known as A) cloud application. B) cognitive robotics. C) interactive multimedia. D) adaptive software.

79)

Identify an accurate statement about e-learning. A) It is useful when trainees are spread over a wide geographical area. B) It changes the focus of training from the learner to the instructor. C) It restricts a learner from learning at his or her own pace. D) It is more intrusive of daily work duties than other types of learning.

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80)

Role-playing is best defined as a(n)

A) off-the-job training method in which employees learn by observing the performance of experts who serve as role models. B) type of training method in which employees are primarily taught jobs beyond their area of expertise. C) training method in which roles are assigned to participants, who then act out the way they would handle a specific situation. D) training program aimed at strengthening a particular skill, and it involves working alongside an experienced person.

81)

The major potential drawback of role-playing is that A) communication travels in one direction—from the trainer to the trainees. B) it requires a trainer with expertise in conducting it. C) it does not have online forms unlike other kinds of training. D) it is not useful for training in human relations skills, such as communicating.

82) Which of the following training techniques would be most suitable for training employees in human relations skills such as communicating, resolving conflicts, and working with people of other races? A) role-playing B) distance learning C) computer-based training D) autogenic training

83)

Which of the following is a reason why employees resist attending basic skills training?

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A) Employees are afraid the organization will punish them if they do not have basic skills. B) Participating in basic skills training programs often places the employees’ jobs in danger. C) Employees have to pay for the basic skills training, which is quite expensive and laborious. D) Participating in basic skills training programs is not useful in performing modern jobs.

84)

Coaching is best defined as the process in which

A) supervisors provide guidance and instruction in how to do a job so that it satisfies performance goals. B) supervisors dictate to employees as to how to increase their productivity. C) employers criticize employees in public so as to prevent the occurrence of any further lapses. D) employees complain to employers regarding the occurrence of any unethical behavior.

85) In the context of coaching an employee, when an employee makes a mistake, the supervisor should A) focus primarily on the perceived deficiencies in the employee’s character. B) work with the employee, focusing on solving the problem. C) call for a meeting and reprimand the concerned employee. D) authoritatively dictate to the employee as to how he or she is expected to perform.

86)

The coaching process usually begins with a supervisor

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A) praising the employee. B) observing the employee’s performance. C) reprimanding the employee. D) describing the problem.

87) __________ is defined as guidance and instruction in how to do a job so that it satisfies performance goals. A) Role-playing B) Coaching C) Monitoring D) Instructing

88)

Acting as a coach is especially appropriate for supervisors in organizations that A) encourage employees to participate in decision making. B) give more importance to individual performance rather than teamwork. C) have a bureaucratic structure. D) promote authoritarian leadership with centralized decision making.

89)

Which of the following is true of the process of coaching? A) It is similar to simply telling employees what to do. B) It emphasizes learning about employees, then drawing on and developing their

talents. C) It is only appropriate for organizations that encourage centralized decision making. D) It is not an ongoing process.

90)

Mentoring is best defined as the act of

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A) providing guidance, advice, and encouragement through an ongoing one-on-one work relationship. B) delivering training programs via computer-based training aids in the absence of a live instructor. C) introducing new employees to the other staff members so as to put them at ease. D) organizing an orientation session for new employees so as to motivate them to work efficiently.

91)

When a supervisor focuses coaching efforts on one employee, the practice is called A) mentoring. B) instructing. C) role-playing. D) monitoring.

92) __________ is defined as providing guidance, advice, and encouragement through an ongoing one-on-one work relationship. A) Role-playing B) Instructing C) Mentoring D) Monitoring

93)

The most basic way to evaluate training is to measure A) the theoretical knowledge of each trainee. B) whether the problem addressed by the training is being resolved. C) whether employees are satisfied with the job. D) employees’ performance on assessments given during the training period.

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94)

Which of the following is true of the evaluation of training?

A) Employees are often in the best position to determine whether training is working. B) The most basic way to evaluate training is to measure whether employees are satisfied with the job. C) Training that does not produce results should be changed or discontinued. D) Whatever the outcome, training does not represent a cost to the organization.

95) At Eclectic Gas and Electric Company, a team was established to review the apprenticeship program. They surveyed the supervisors and trade workers in the apprenticeship program. The survey was then used to make improvements in the program. This survey is most likely to be a part of the process of A) recruiting new employees. B) orienting new employees. C) evaluation of training. D) implementation of training.

96) During orientation, for simple jobs as well as complex jobs, the supervisor should ideally explain the whole job at once so as to save time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) In conducting an orientation, a supervisor is responsible for covering topics related to hours of work and breaks, procedures for filling out time sheets, and policies regarding performance appraisals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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98) An orientation should ideally include face-to-face interaction, which provides an opportunity for learners to ask questions and interact with other new employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) A disadvantage of training is that it makes the new employee dependent on the supervisor and makes it hard for the employee to adapt to changes in the workplace. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

On-the-job training is best for jobs such as piloting and nursing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) E-learning limits interaction among learners and instructors in comparison to large lecture courses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) An apprenticeship program is more complicated to set up than simple on-the-job training for individual tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Supervisors are usually in the best position to determine whether a training process is working efficiently. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) D Version 1

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32) A 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) C 61) C Version 1

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62) C 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) B 86) B 87) B 88) A 89) B 90) A 91) A Version 1

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92) C 93) B 94) C 95) C 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE Student name:__________ 1) Define performance appraisal, and list the benefits of conducting a performance appraisal.

What are the steps in the performance appraisal process?

3) List the various types of performance appraisal methods. Briefly discuss one of the methods.

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4) List the major sources of bias related to performance appraisals. Briefly explain one of them.

Explain the objective of conducting a performance appraisal interview.

Performance appraisal is best defined as the process of A) giving formal feedback on how well an employee is doing his or her job. B) developing objectives that specify how each department will support organizational

goals. C) creating a back-up plan along with the original strategic plan. D) identifying people interested in holding a particular job or working for an organization.

7) Which of the following is one of the advantages primarily associated with a performance appraisal? Version 1

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A) It protects employees against discrimination on the basis of race. B) It enables employees to put forth the greatest effort in the areas that get appraised. C) It encourages employees to play the role of the whistle-blower. D) It encourages employees to ignore and forget their weak areas.

To deliver their potential benefits, performance appraisals must be completely A) fair and accurate. B) subjective. C) rigid and biased. D) task-oriented.

In the course of the performance appraisal process, a supervisor should ideally start with A) observing and measuring individual performance against standards. B) establishing and communicating expectations for performance. C) establishing and communicating standards for measuring performance. D) reinforcing performance or providing remedies.

10) A supervisor ideally determines the expected accomplishments of a department or work group during the A) planning process. B) reinforcement process. C) directing process. D) staffing process.

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11) Jeff, a supervisor at a restaurant, tells his employees that they are required to cook and deliver food on time to customers. Jeff sets timely delivery as their basic expectation for performance. According to the process of performance appraisal, which of the following steps should Jeff take next? A) He should observe and measure the individual performance of his employees. B) He should conduct training programs to help his employees meet his expectations. C) He should hire experts to set objectives for appraisal. D) He should establish and communicate how he would measure his employees’ performance.

12) In the appraisal process, which step should a supervisor undertake after establishing and communicating expectations for performance? A) observe and measure individual performance against standards B) reinforce performance or provide remedies C) establish and communicate standards for measuring performance D) determine what a department or a work group should accomplish

13) In the appraisal process, after a supervisor establishes and communicates standards for measuring performance, the next step is to A) observe and measure individual performance against set criteria. B) reinforce performance or provide remedies. C) establish and communicate expectations for performance. D) determine what a department or a work group should accomplish.

14)

Which of the following is true of the process of performance appraisal?

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A) It is a random process that takes place in six steps. B) It is a single, short-term event. C) It ends with measuring individual performance against standards. D) It enables supervisors to reinforce good performance.

15) Linda, a supervisor at an IT firm, has established and communicated the company’s basic objectives and targets to her subordinates. She also tells them how she will measure their performance. During the performance appraisal, she observes and measures the performance of her subordinates against the standards she had earlier communicated with them. According to the process of performance appraisal, which of the following steps should Linda take next? A) Linda should reinforce good performance and give remedies for shortcomings. B) Linda should close the performance appraisal process by getting the signatures of her subordinates on a feedback form. C) Linda should get peers and other supervisors to review the performance of her subordinates. D) Linda should revise the standards used in the performance appraisal process.

16) In the appraisal process, while establishing and communicating expectations for performance, a supervisor A) investigates the underlying problem and identifies solutions. B) determines what a department or a work group should accomplish. C) decides how to measure employees’ performance. D) gathers information about each employee’s performance.

17) In the appraisal process, while establishing and communicating standards for measuring performance, a supervisor

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A) investigates the underlying problem and identifies solutions. B) determines what a department or a work group should accomplish. C) decides how to assess employees’ performance. D) gathers information about each employee’s performance.

18) In the appraisal process, while observing and measuring individual performance against standards, a supervisor A) investigates the underlying problem and identifies solutions. B) determines what a department or a work group should accomplish. C) decides how to measure employees’ performance. D) gathers information about each employee’s performance.

19) In the appraisal process, while reinforcing performance or providing remedies, a supervisor A) investigates the underlying problem and identifies solutions. B) determines what a department or a work group should accomplish. C) decides how to measure employees’ performance. D) gathers information about each employee’s performance.

20) In the performance appraisal process, if a supervisor finds that the reason behind an employee’s poor performance is his lack of certain skills, the supervisor should ideally A) dismiss the concerned employee. B) reprimand the employee in public. C) provide the necessary training. D) adjust the appraisal standards and ratings.

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21) In the appraisal process, while uncovering the underlying problems, if the problem is a lack of effort on an employee’s part, a supervisor should most appropriately A) apply the principles of motivation. B) see that the employee gets the necessary training. C) change the way work is done. D) handle the situation with counseling and discipline.

22) In the appraisal process, while uncovering the underlying problems, if organizational policies and procedures reward inefficient or less-than-high-quality behavior, a supervisor should most appropriately A) apply the principles of motivation. B) see that an employee gets the necessary training. C) change the way work is done. D) handle the situation with counseling and discipline.

23) Lucas, an employee at an insurance company, is going through a divorce. His divorce has affected his performance at work. He is often tardy, mentally absent, and lacks interest. His supervisor wants to uncover the underlying cause of Lucas’s poor performance. In addressing this issue, his supervisor should A) reduce his job responsibilities. B) manage the situation with discipline and counseling. C) apply the principles of motivation. D) adjust his appraisal ratings to be fair to him.

24) to

During a performance appraisal, labeling people with certain characteristics is most likely

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A) motivate employees. B) increase the dedication of employees. C) put employees on the defensive. D) increase employee productivity.

25)

A performance appraisal should focus on an employee’s A) intelligence and experience. B) personality and beliefs. C) behavior and results. D) age and qualification.

26)

Which of the following is a characteristic of effective performance appraisal measures? A) They are subjective. B) They are based on labels. C) They are outside employees’ control. D) They are related to specific tasks.

27) In the context of what to measure in an appraisal, focusing on behavior means that the appraisal should A) be based on the labels assigned to people who behave in a particular way. B) describe specific actions or patterns of actions. C) be subjective and outside employees’ control. D) describe the extent to which an employee has satisfied the objectives for which he or she is responsible.

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28) In the context of what to measure in an appraisal, focusing on results means that the appraisal should A) be based on the labels assigned to people who behave in a particular way. B) describe specific actions or patterns of actions. C) be subjective and outside employees’ control. D) describe the extent to which an employee has satisfied the objectives for which he or she is responsible.

29) The __________ published the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, which include guidelines for designing and implementing performance appraisals. A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission B) Association for Prohibiting Age Discrimination in Employment C) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Commission D) Fair Employee Recruitment Directive

30) According to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission’s general guidelines on performance appraisals, the behaviors or characteristics measured by a performance appraisal should strictly be A) related to the educational qualification of an employee. B) related to the job and to succeeding on the job. C) based on the company’s policies. D) based on an employee’s personal views.

31) It has been observed that a majority of companies direct their managers to separate performance appraisals from discussions of pay. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason behind this?

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A) The employees focus more on individual performance, making them self-centered and unwilling to work as part of a team. B) The employees focus more on the pay, leading them to utilize all kinds of unethical means to meet the set standards. C) The employees are intimidated by this process, leading to a drastic drop in their productivity. D) The employees focus more on the pay, making it difficult for supervisors to use performance evaluation as an opportunity for motivating and coaching.

32) In the context of performance appraisals and pay reviews, which of the following statements is true? A) The pay of an employee has no link to his or her performance, as the pay for every employee is typically fixed by the EEOC. B) The fixing of pay on the basis of performance makes training and coaching programs more effective. C) Companies that do not base the pay structure on performance can more readily keep the appraisal focused on an employee’s performance. D) A performance appraisal should not focus on behavior.

33)

A graphic rating scale is best defined as a performance appraisal

A) that primarily marks the degree to which an employee has achieved various characteristics. B) that primarily measures the relative performance of employees in a group. C) that presents an appraiser with sets of statements describing employee behavior and that requires the appraiser to rate the statements. D) that requires a supervisor to keep a written record of incidents that show positive and negative ways an employee has acted.

34)

The most commonly used type of appraisal is the

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A) critical-incident appraisal. B) graphic rating scale. C) work-standards approach. D) behaviorally anchored rating scale.

35)

Identify an accurate statement about graphic rating scales. A) They provide scores that can measure improvement from year to year. B) They are completely objective. C) They are difficult to use. D) They are the least commonly used type of performance appraisal.

36) Which of the following is a disadvantage typically associated with the graphic rating scale appraisal method? A) The rating is subjective. B) It is very complicated to handle. C) The rating is unfair. D) It fails to measure degree of improvement.

37) Which of the following appraisal methods is best suited for measuring the relative performance of employees in a group? A) essay appraisal B) forced-choice approach C) paired-comparison approach D) critical-incident appraisal

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38) In which of the following types of appraisals does a supervisor list the employees in a group and then rank them? A) forced-choice approach B) work-standards approach C) 360-degree feedback approach D) paired-comparison approach

39)

In the context of the types of appraisals, the paired-comparison approach A) rates the degree to which an employee has achieved various characteristics. B) combines assessments from several sources, including customers or peers. C) can be used to identify the best candidate for a special assignment. D) can be tailored to an organization’s objectives for employees.

40) Identify an accurate statement about the paired-comparison approach of performance appraisal. A) It is ineffective in determining the best candidate for promotion. B) It requires an appraiser to choose the most appropriate statement from a series of statements about an employee. C) It makes some employees look good at the expense of others. D) It is the most commonly used type of appraisal.

41) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of the forced-choice approach to appraisal?

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A) It requires a supervisor to write a detailed description of an employee’s performance. B) It requires hiring organizational psychologists to analyze the performance of employees as a group. C) It requires a supervisor to keep a written record of incidents that show positive and negative ways an employee has acted. D) It requires a supervisor to choose from sets of statements, the most characteristic and the least characteristic ones describing an employee.

42) Identify an accurate statement about the forced-choice approach of performance appraisal. A) It prevents a supervisor from saying only positive things about employees. B) It requires supervisors to write detailed descriptions about every aspect and behavior of their employees. C) It is the most used type of performance appraisal. D) It is ineffective because it relies on the quality of the writing skills of a supervisor.

43) In the context of the types of appraisals, the __________ approach is used when an organization determines that supervisors have been rating an unbelievably high proportion of employees as above average. A) forced-choice B) work-standards C) 360-degree feedback D) paired-comparison

44)

Which of the following statements is true of essay appraisals?

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A) They are unaffected by the quality of the writing skills of a supervisor. B) They provide an opportunity to describe aspects of performance that are not thoroughly covered by an appraisal questionnaire. C) They are the most popular method of performance appraisal. D) They involve selecting statements from a list that best describe an employee’s characteristics and ranking these statements.

45)

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is a performance appraisal in which a(n)

A) supervisor rates the performance of employees and then ranks the employees from best to worst. B) employee is rated on scales containing statements describing performance in several areas. C) appraiser compares an employee’s performance with objective measures of what the employee should do. D) supervisor keeps a written record of incidents that show positive and negative ways an employee has acted.

46)

The major advantage of using behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that they A) prevent a supervisor from saying only positive things about employees. B) can be tailored to an organization’s objectives for employees. C) are more subjective than some other approaches. D) do not allow the pay structure to be linked to performance.

47)

Identify an accurate statement about behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS).

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A) They are less subjective than some other approaches because they use statements describing employee performance. B) They are a form of paired-comparison approach. C) They use the same statements in the rating scales for all job titles in an organization. D) They take minimal time to be developed and are inexpensive.

48) __________ rate employee performance using a series of statements that describe the range of performance from ineffective to effective. A) Management by objectives B) Behaviorally anchored rating scales C) Critical-incident appraisals D) Graphic rating scales

49) The appraisal method that contains a series of questions such as “Does the employee have adequate job knowledge?” to which an appraiser answers yes or no is known as the A) essay appraisal. B) forced-choice approach. C) graphic rating scale. D) checklist appraisal.

50) Joanne, a supervisor at Whirlwind Technologies, is evaluating one of her employee’s performance. She is using a written record of data, which she created over the past months, to assess the employee’s performance. It includes events that show positive and negative ways the employee has acted, dates, actions taken, and other relevant details. Which of the following performance appraisal methods is Joanne using in this scenario?

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A) work-standards approach B) critical-incident appraisal C) checklist appraisal D) paired-comparison approach

51)

Which of the following is a disadvantage of checklist appraisal?

A) A supervisor has no way to adjust the answers for any special circumstances that affect performance. B) The quality of the appraisal completely depends on a supervisor’s writing skills. C) It makes some employees look good at the expense of others, which can make it ineffective for motivating team performance. D) Supervisors tend to record negative events more than positive ones, resulting in an overly harsh appraisal.

52)

Identify an accurate statement about the checklist approach of performance appraisal.

A) It is merely a record of performance rather than an evaluation by a supervisor. B) It is difficult to complete. C) It is subjective and requires supervisors to describe employees' performance. D) It allows supervisors to customize their answers for special circumstances that affect an employee’s performance.

53)

The work-standards approach to appraising performance is a process in which a(n)

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A) employee is rated on scales containing statements describing performance in several areas. B) supervisor keeps a written record of incidents that show positive and negative ways an employee has acted. C) supervisor evaluates an employee’s performance against objective measures of what the employee should do. D) employee is rated and ranked by comparing the employee’s performance with that of other employees.

54)

Which of the following is an advantage of a critical-incident appraisal? A) It is relatively less time consuming. B) It is less objective than some other approaches. C) It allows supervisors to focus on positive events. D) It allows supervisors to focus on actual behaviors.

55) Which of the following statements is true about the critical-incident approach of performance appraisal? A) It usually excludes the dates of incidents. B) It hardly focuses on actual behaviors of employees. C) It is the most popular method of performance appraisal in large organizations. D) It tends to make a supervisor record negative events more than positive ones.

56) At a motorcycle manufacturing unit, a supervisor determines that an employee must produce 10 units of a good in an hour. He then compares the actual performance of all employees against this parameter. The appraisal conducted by the supervisor is an example of the

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A) checklist approach. B) work-standards approach. C) behaviorally anchored rating scales method. D) paired-comparison method.

57) The performance appraisal method in which a supervisor compares each employee’s accomplishments with the goals for that employee is referred to as A) critical-incident appraisal. B) checklist appraisal. C) the work-standards approach. D) management by objectives.

58) Which of the following approaches to performance appraisal is also used as a planning tool in organizations? A) behaviorally anchored rating scales B) checklist appraisals C) graphic rating scales D) management by objectives

59) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of the 360-degree feedback performance appraisal method? A) It requires that only a supervisor assess his or her subordinates. B) It combines assessments from several sources. C) It combines the checklist appraisal and the work-standards approach. D) It is also known as peer review.

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60)

Combining several sources of appraisals is called A) 360-degree feedback. B) checklist appraisal. C) essay appraisal. D) a work-standards approach.

61)

Performance appraisals conducted by an employee’s coworkers are known as A) checklist appraisals. B) peer reviews. C) 360-degree appraisals. D) graphic rating scales.

62)

For 360-feedback to be effective, the person managing the review process should A) ensure that the responses are anonymous. B) exclude employees’ peers from the appraisal process. C) only share feedback that is positive and unbiased. D) avoid the use of self-assessments.

63)

In the context of assessments by someone other than a supervisor, supervisors

A) often know how an employee behaves at all times and in all situations. B) always appreciate the full impact of an employee’s behavior on people inside and outside an organization. C) can use subordinate appraisals to supervise more effectively and to make their organization more competitive. D) should ensure that the employees’ names and their individual responses are revealed to everyone involved.

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64) Which of the following types of appraisals can provide information that is more useful for problem solving and employee development than the typical results of a traditional top-down appraisal? A) subordinate appraisals and 360-degree feedback B) management by objectives and checklist appraisal C) graphic rating scales and paired-comparison approach D) forced-choice approach and work-standards approach

65) Rating employees more severely than their performances merits is referred to as __________ bias. A) proximity B) harshness C) recency D) leniency

66) Rating employees more favorably than their performances merits is referred to as __________ bias. A) proximity B) harshness C) recency D) leniency

67)

The difference between a harshness bias and a leniency bias is that

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A) the former involves selecting employee ratings in the middle of a scale, and the latter involves selecting employee ratings toward the end. B) the former involves rating employees more severely than their performance merits, and the latter involves rating employees more favorably than their performance merits. C) the former involves assigning similar scores to items that are near each other on a questionnaire, and the latter involves leaving out items placed close together. D) the former involves judging others more negatively when they are like oneself, and the latter involves judging others more positively when they are like oneself.

68)

Which of the following supervisors best demonstrates harshness bias?

A) a supervisor who gives poor ratings to good performers B) a supervisor who focuses on events that have occurred lately C) a supervisor who generalizes one positive aspect of an employee to the employee’s entire performance D) a supervisor who forms preconceived judgments about an employee based on the employee’s membership in a group

69)

The tendency to select employee ratings in the middle of a rating scale is called A) leniency bias. B) rating tendency. C) central tendency. D) similarity bias.

70) Natasha, a supervisor at a pharmaceutical company, is conducting the annual performance appraisal for her employees. According to her evaluation, Selena, one of her employees, has failed to meet the goals that she was supposed to. Natasha gives Selena a higher rating than she deserves because she is uncomfortable discussing Selena’s unsatisfactory performance. In this scenario, Natasha is demonstrating

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A) harshness bias. B) similarity bias. C) proximity bias. D) leniency bias.

71) Which of the following is true of central tendency as a source of bias in performance appraisals? A) People are comfortable taking a strong stand at either extreme than on the middle of a scale. B) This bias causes a supervisor to miss important opportunities to praise or correct employees. C) It is the tendency to assign similar scores to items that are near each other on a questionnaire. D) Supervisors with this bias rate their employees more favorably than their performance merits.

72) Jeff, a supervisor, learns that his subordinate, Javier, supports a football team that he likes. He also learns that they both like listening to the same genre of music. During an appraisal, these factors heavily influence Jeff’s assessment of Javier. This scenario is an example of A) hindsight bias. B) similarity bias. C) confirmation bias. D) proximity bias.

73) The tendency to assign similar scores to items that are near each other on a questionnaire is called

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A) harshness bias. B) similarity bias. C) proximity bias. D) central tendency.

74) While rating Lucy on her characteristics, Divya tends to assign similar rating scores for each of her traits. Divya gives Lucy similar rating scores because she does not want to deviate from the first rating score she assigned at the beginning of the appraisal. This is an example of A) the halo effect. B) proximity bias. C) hindsight bias. D) similarity bias.

75) __________ refers to the human tendency to place the most weight on events that have occurred lately. A) Recency syndrome B) Proximity bias C) Halo effect D) Central tendency

76) Alia, a supervisor, gives Andrew a good rating in his performance appraisal because during the week prior to the appraisal, Andrew was punctual and completed his tasks on time. Alia’s appraisal of Andrew can be best explained by A) hindsight bias. B) the recency syndrome. C) the bandwagon effect. D) proximity bias.

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77) While conducting performance appraisals, Mike gives more weight to factors such as a problem an employee caused last week or to an award an employee just won. This tendency is specifically referred to as the A) recency syndrome. B) similarity bias. C) proximity bias. D) halo effect.

78) Which of the following appraisal methods would be most effective in checking the recency syndrome? A) critical-incident appraisal B) peer review C) essay appraisal D) the graphic rating scale method

79)

The most effective way to overcome the bias resulting from the recency syndrome is to A) focus on recent information. B) keep records throughout the year. C) use an employee’s coworkers to do the rating. D) use the essay appraisal method.

80)

The halo effect refers to the tendency to

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A) rate employees more favorably than their performance deserves. B) generalize a person’s one positive or negative characteristic to the person’s complete performance. C) assign similar scores to items that are near each other on a questionnaire. D) use the first impression of an employee to evaluate the employee’s performance.

81) Rachel gives Karen a good rating in a performance appraisal because Karen once handled a difficult customer by empathizing with him. Since that incident, Rachel believes that Karen is the smartest and most efficient employee in the organization. Even though Karen has multiple positive attributes to her personality, Rachel makes an overall impression of Karen based on her quality of empathy. This is an example of the A) bandwagon effect. B) contrast effect. C) halo effect. D) decoy effect.

82) When uncertain how to answer or when the overall scoring on a test looks undesirable, a supervisor is most likely to make A) gross errors. B) guesstimates. C) random choices. D) fair judgments.

83) When using a type of appraisal that requires answers to specific questions, a supervisor might succumb to making

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A) gross errors. B) guesstimates. C) random choices. D) biased judgments.

84) Sarah believes that all graduates from a certain university have poor engineering skills and uses this belief as a base to appraise the performance of all employees from that university. In this case, Sarah’s __________ is affecting the appraisal process. A) central tendency B) narcissism C) ethical belief D) prejudice

85)

Which of the following supervisors best demonstrates prejudice?

A) a supervisor who gives poor ratings to good performers B) a supervisor who places the most weight on events that have occurred lately C) a supervisor who generalizes one positive aspect of an employee to his or her entire performance D) a supervisor who forms preconceived judgments about an employee based on his or her membership in a group

86) Which stage of the appraisal process occurs in an interview between supervisor and employee?

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A) the stage at which a supervisor reinforces performance or provides remedies B) the stage at which a supervisor establishes and communicates standards for measuring performance C) the stage at which a supervisor establishes and communicates expectations for performance D) the stage at which a supervisor observes and measures individual performance against standards

87)

The primary purpose of holding an appraisal interview should be to A) allow employees to demand salary increases. B) communicate information about an employee’s performance. C) form informal groups so as to improve employee performance. D) sort out the problem of nepotism.

88)

In the context of conducting an appraisal interview, a supervisor should

A) fill the appraisal form just one hour before the interview to prevent his prejudices from clouding his judgment. B) notify the employees about the appraisal interview ahead of time so that they get the time to think about their performance. C) arrange the interview in an area that is easily accessible to the other employees to increase the transparency of the system. D) discourage the employees from offering any form of feedback as this would only lead to an argument.

89)

At the beginning of an appraisal interview, a supervisor should try to

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A) put the employee at ease. B) reprimand the employee for his or her poor performance. C) provoke the employee to act instinctively. D) look over the mistakes of the employee.

90) In the process of conducting a performance appraisal interview, after putting the employee at ease, what should a supervisor ideally do next? A) review appraisal ratings and the basis for these ratings B) request and listen to the employee’s feedback C) decide together how to solve the problems identified D) sign the appraisal form and close on a positive note

91) In the process of conducting a performance appraisal interview, after reviewing appraisal ratings and the basis for these ratings, what should a supervisor ideally do next? A) put the employee at ease B) request and listen to the employee’s feedback C) decide together how to solve the problems identified D) sign the appraisal form and close on a positive note

92) In the process of conducting a performance appraisal interview, after listening to the employee’s feedback, what should a supervisor ideally do next? A) put the employee at ease B) review appraisal ratings and the basis for these ratings C) decide with the employee how to solve the problems identified D) sign the appraisal form and close on a positive note

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93) In the process of conducting a performance appraisal interview, after deciding with the employee how to solve the problems identified, what should a supervisor ideally do next? A) put the employee at ease B) review appraisal ratings and the basis for these ratings C) decide with the employee how to solve the problems identified D) sign the appraisal form and close on a positive note

94) In the context of conducting an appraisal interview, what is the first step toward resolving any problems described in the appraisal? A) reviewing the employee’s self-appraisal B) explaining the contents of the appraisal form C) hearing the employee’s reactions D) describing areas for improvement

95)

At the end of the appraisal interview, a supervisor and an employee should ideally A) explain the basis for the ratings. B) ask the human resources department to fill the appraisal form. C) sign the appraisal form. D) review the employee’s self-appraisal.

96) Which of the following is true of the process of conducting a performance appraisal interview?

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A) As soon as the interview is over, a supervisor discontinues appraising performance. B) The first stage of the appraisal process occurs in an interview between supervisor and employee. C) Before the appraisal interview, a supervisor should allow plenty of time for completing the appraisal form. D) The purpose of holding an appraisal interview is to communicate information about an organization’s long-term objectives.

97) up?

In the context of conducting a performance appraisal interview, what is true of follow-

A) A supervisor needs to follow up on any actions planned during the interview. B) A follow-up need not be an ongoing process. C) A follow-up should be left for the next year’s performance appraisal. D) As soon as the interview is over, a supervisor stops appraising performance.

98) In the context of conducting a performance appraisal interview, after the interview is over, A) a supervisor and an employee should go over the self-appraisal, if any, and the supervisor’s appraisal of the employee. B) a supervisor and an employee should work together to develop solutions to any problems identified. C) a supervisor signs the appraisal form, and then closes with a positive comment. D) a supervisor needs to follow up to make sure that planned actions are taken.

99) A formal performance appraisal ensures that feedback to an employee covers all important aspects of the employee’s performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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100) The performance appraisal process usually begins by observing and measuring the performance of an individual against set standards. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) In appraising performance, the human resources department is responsible for establishing employee performance standards, and the supervisor is responsible for letting employees know what will be measured. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) An advantage of the checklist appraisal is that a supervisor can adjust the answers if he or she needs to consider any special circumstances that affected an employee’s performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Subordinate appraisals and other 360-degree feedback contribute toward increasing instances of appraisal bias. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) The proximity bias is the tendency of a supervisor to judge others more positively when they are like him or her. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105)

Even after the appraisal interview is over, a supervisor continues appraising performance.

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⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) D Version 1

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32) C 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) B 57) D 58) D 59) B 60) A 61) B Version 1

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62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) A 76) B 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) C 82) C 83) C 84) D 85) D 86) A 87) B 88) B 89) A 90) A 91) B Version 1

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92) C 93) D 94) C 95) C 96) C 97) A 98) D 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE

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