Test Bank for Foundations of Earth Science 9th Edition by Frederick Lutgens, Edward Tarbuck, Dennis by ACADEMIAMILL

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following best defines the relationship between minerals and rocks? a. A rock has an orderly, repetitive, geometrical, internal arrangement of minerals; a mineral is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of rocks. b. A mineral consists of atoms arranged in a geometrically repetitive structure; in a rock, the atoms are randomly bonded without any geometric pattern. c. In a mineral, atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of mineral grains. d. A rock consists of atoms bonded in a regular, geometrically predictable arrangement; a mineral is a consolidated aggregate of rock particles. ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 2. All of the atoms making up any given element have the same number of ________. a. electrons in the nucleus b. protons in the nucleus c. neutrons in the outer nuclear shell d. electrons in the outermost valence shell ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 3. Atoms that have an electrical charge due to a gain or loss of electrons are called ________. a. ions b. isotopes c. isochrons d. neutrons ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 4. When in contact with hydrochloric acid, which mineral gives off bubbles of carbon dioxide gas? a. quartz b. halite c. calcite d. fluorite ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 5. The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is known as ________. a. cleavage b. luster c. specific gravity d. streak ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 6. Which common mineral is composed entirely of silicon and oxygen? a. calcite b. diamond c. olivine d. quartz ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 7. Which of the following silicate minerals is the most abundant in Earth's crust? a. pyroxene b. olivine c. garnet d. feldspars ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 8. Which of the following minerals is a silicate (a mineral containing a silicon-bearing ion)? a. hematite b. feldspar c. calcite d. halite ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 9. Which one of the following mineral groups exhibits a sheet-like silicate structure? a. carbonates b. pyroxenes c. micas d. feldspars ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 10. The ion at the center of a silicon–oxygen tetrahedron is surrounded by ________. a. 4 oxygen ions b. 6 oxygen ions c. 4 sodium ions d. 6 sodium ions ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 11. The resistance of a mineral to scratching or abrasion is known as ________. a. luster b. cleavage c. streak d. hardness ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 12. Imagine you are handed a mineral sample. It breaks with a conchoidal fracture but displays no cleavage. It does not react with hydrochloric acid, is a light pink color, and has a nonmetallic luster. It is harder than a streak plate, and has a specific gravity of 2.65. What mineral is it? a. olivine b. potassium feldspar c. calcite d. quartz ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 13. You are handed a sample of an unknown silicate mineral. Which two elements must it contain? a. silicon and oxygen b. iron and silicon c. carbon and hydrogen d. silicon and sodium ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 14. What element is the most abundant in Earth's crust by weight? a. carbon b. chlorine c. oxygen d. lead ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 15. Which of the following is a silicate mineral with a single-chained structure? a. olivine b. pyroxene c. amphibole d. mica ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 16. Due to the arrangement of weaker bonds in their crystal lattice, the tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________. a. streak b. cleavage c. luster d. crystal habit ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 17. An atom's mass number is 13 and its atomic number is 6. How many neutrons are in its nucleus? a. 19 b. 13 c. 7 d. 6 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 18. Three of the following are true for minerals. Which one of the following is not true for minerals? a. They have a specific, predictable chemical composition. b. They have an orderly internal crystalline structure. c. They can be identified by characteristic physical properties. d. They can be a liquid, solid, or gas. ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 19. Which the following are the positively charged particles in an atom's nucleus? a. protons b. neutrons c. ions d. electrons ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 20. Which of the following has the highest specific gravity? a. styrofoam b. water c. halite d. gold ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 21. Which of the following properties would be least useful for identifying a sample of calcite? a. reaction to hydrochloric acid b. three planes of cleavage c. white color d. hardness of 3 on the Mohs scale ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 22. A cubic centimeter each of quartz, olivine, and native gold weighs 2.5, 3.0, and 19.8 grams, respectively. These weights indicate that ________. a. gold has a higher density and specific gravity than quartz and olivine b. olivine melts at a higher temperature than either gold or quartz c. gold is 6 to 7 times harder than olivine and quartz d. gold and olivine qualify as silicates, but quartz would not ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 23. Which of the following silicate minerals forms from single tetrahedra? a. biotite b. quartz c. potassium feldspar d. olivine ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 24. If a mineral has a specific gravity of 3, it must be ________ times as dense as water. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 25. ________ exhibits a conchoidal fracture. a. Quartz b. Halite c. Gypsum d. Calcite ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 26. The ________ mineral group reacts to hydrochloric acid. a. silicate b. carbonate c. halide d. oxide ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 27. An aggregate of one or more minerals is called a(n) ________. a. atom b. compound c. ionic bond d. rock ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 28. Biotite has which of the following types of cleavage? a. cleavage in one direction b. two directions at 90° angles c. three directions at 90° angles d. cleavage in four directions ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 29. A mineral's resistance to breaking, bending, or cutting is defined as ________. a. fracture b. cleavage c. tenacity d. specific gravity ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 30. ________ bonding is the sharing of valence atoms between a pair of atoms. a. Ionic b. Metallic c. Hydrogen d. Covalent ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 31. The most common group of minerals in Earth's crust are the ________. a. oxides b. carbonates c. native metals d. silicates ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 32. Feldspar minerals can look very similar to each other, what would you look for to differentiate plagioclase feldspar from potassium feldspar? a. striations on plagioclase feldspar b. cleavage angles c. hardness d. crystal habit ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 33. If an atom has an equal number of electrons and protons, it would be considered ________. a. electrically neutral b. electrically positive c. electrically negative d. metallic ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 34. Which of the following elements has the most valance electrons in its outermost shell? a. carbon b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. helium ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 35. The ability of a mineral to transmit both light and an image in the mineral is described as ________. a. opaque b. transparent c. translucent d. cloudy ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 36. The terms bladed, fibrous, cubic, and platy describe ________. a. tenacity b. mineral strength c. crystal habit d. density ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 37. ________ is the study of minerals. a. Paleontology b. Mineralogy c. Petrology d. Tenacity ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 38. Which of the following minerals comprises just one element? a. diamond b. halite c. quartz d. talc ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 39. ________ is the powdered form of the mineral. a. Density b. Streak c. Hardness d. Crystal habit ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 40. Limestone is most similar to the mineral ________. a. quartz b. gypsum c. halite d. calcite ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 41. Which of the following minerals would best be utilized for extracted iron to make steel? a. hematite b. dolomite c. quartz d. talc ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 42. ________ is the softest mineral and ________ is the hardest mineral on Mohs scale. a. Talc; topaz b. Gypsum; quartz c. Talc; diamond d. Gypsum; diamond ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 43. Which of the following minerals has a metallic luster? a. quartz b. galena c. diamond d. halite ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 44. Most silicate minerals form from ________. a. earthquakes b. meteorite impacts c. erosional processes d. molten rock ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. a mineral made of oxidized hydrogen. b. an item that is solid like a mineral, has definite chemical composition, and shows distinctive physical properties, but is not naturally occurring. c. silicate mineral consisting solely of silicon and oxygen, with silicon-oxygen tetrahedra bonded in a complex three-dimensional network. d. an item that is solid like a mineral, has definite chemical composition, and shows distinctive physical properties, but does not have an orderly crystalline structure. e. a mineral consisting of a poisonous gas ionically bonded to an extremely reactive metal. f. a rock composed of nonmineral matter. g. a mineral in the carbonate family; showing three planes of cleavage and a fizzing reaction to hydrochloric acid. h. a silicate mineral which has silicon-oxygen tetrahedra bonded in single-chained formation along with iron or magnesium atoms. 45. ice ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 46. dinner plate ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 47. quartz ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 48. glass ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 49. halite ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 50. coal ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 51. calcite ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 52. pyroxene ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 Match the chemical bond with the correct definition. a. valence electrons are free to move from one atom to another so all atoms share the available valence electrons. b. one atom gives up one or more valence electrons to another atom to form ions. c. sharing of one or more valence electrons between a pair of atoms. 53. Metallic Bond ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 54. Ionic Bond ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 55. Covalent Bond ANSWER: c POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the directional cleavage with the correct mineral. a. cleavage in four directions. b. cleavage in three directions not at 90° angles. c. cleavage in three directions at 90° angles. d. cleavage in two directions not at 90° angles. e. cleavage in two directions at 90° angles. f. cleavage in one direction. 56. Fluorite ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 57. Calcite ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 58. Halite ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 59. Hornblende ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 60. Feldspar ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 61. Muscovite ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 62. Which elements are most common in the Earth's crust? What sorts of minerals (i.e., specific families) result from these particularly common elements? What sorts of rocks are most common in the crust as a result? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 63. Describe in detail the relationship between elements, minerals, and rocks. Give a specific example of a specific element that is included in a specific mineral that is included in a specific rock.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

64. Compare and contrast the light silicate minerals and dark silicate minerals, and give examples of each.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

65. What is the octet rule? Describe how it explains the behavior of atoms in forming ionic and covalent bonds.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

66. Quartz has a specific gravity of about 2.65. A 5-gallon bucket of water weighs 40 pounds. How much would a 5-gallon volume of solid quartz weigh?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 67. Describe the characteristics a substance must possess in order to qualify as a mineral, and then describe which of the following cannot be minerals, listing a specific reason for each. a. Gold nugget b. Seawater c. Quartz d. Cubic zirconia e. Obsidian f. Ruby g. Glacial ice h. Amber______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

68. What steps would you take in order to identify a mineral by its physical properties?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

69. Calcite, halite, gypsum, and quartz are all light colored minerals with a similar appearance; however each mineral has a diagnostic property that makes it distinguishable from the others. Discuss in detail how you could easily identify these minerals.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 70. Ice and water both comprise H2O, yet water is not considered a mineral. Explain why ice is considered a mineral yet water is not.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

71. Quartz often occurs naturally in a variety of colors and consequently is often misidentified or confused with other minerals. Explain why quartz may crystallize in a variety of colors despite having the same chemical formula.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 72. How many cleavage directions does this mineral specimen display?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 73. Both of the samples pictured here are examples of the mineral pyrite. The physical property that sets them apart is ________.

a. reaction to hydrochloric acid b. crystal habit c. streak d. specific gravity ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 74. Use the accompanying figure of the Mohs scale of hardness to answer this question. If you have a mineral sample that is capable of scratching a penny but is scratched by a wire nail, its hardness must be ________.

a. less than 3.5 b. between 3.5 and 4.5 c. greater than 4.5 d. less than 2.5 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 75. Label each of the five atoms in this silicon-oxygen tetrahedron.

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Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 76. An igneous rock that shows a vesicular texture ________. a. contains many small holes, like Swiss cheese b. must be intrusive c. must be course grained d. appears glassy ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 77. An igneous rock that cools rapidly is likely to have ________ crystals. a. small b. medium-sized c. large d. pink ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 78. Which one of the following is an igneous rock? a. limestone b. rhyolite c. slate d. quartz ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 79. Which one of the following is a sedimentary rock? a. limestone b. rhyolite c. slate d. quartz ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 80. Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock? a. limestone b. rhyolite c. slate d. quartz ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 81. Rocks that contain crystals that are roughly equal in size and can be identified with the unaided eye are said to exhibit a ________ texture. a. fine-grained b. coarse-grained c. glassy d. porphyritic ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 82. Magma that might have cooled slowly to produce a diorite is instead erupted at Earth's surface. It would chill rapidly and produce a(n) ________. a. rhyolite b. andesite c. basalt d. granite ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 83. Which igneous texture is characterized by two distinctively different crystal sizes? a. fine-grained b. coarse-grained c. glassy d. porphyritic ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 84. Granite is ________. a. fine-grained and dominated olivine, pyroxene and plagioclase feldspar crystals b. coarse-grained and dominated by quartz and feldspar crystals c. coarse-grained and dominated by olivine, pyroxene and plagioclase feldspar crystals d. fine-grained and dominated by quartz and feldspar crystals ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 85. To transform an igneous rock into a sedimentary rock, which of the following processes must take place? a. melting and recooling, followed by crystallization b. chemical reactions under conditions of elevated temperature or pressure c. weathering, transport, deposition, and lithification d. impact by a meteorite ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 86. Chemical weathering would be most effective ________. a. in a warm, wet climate b. in a cold, dry climate c. in a warm, dry climate d. deep beneath a mountain range ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 87. A crystal of potassium feldspar (KAlSi3O8) will produce a variety of weathering products after it is weathered. Which of the following is not a product that results from the weathering of potassium feldspar? a. silica b. potassium ions c. clay minerals d. iron oxides ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 88. ________ is a weak acid that reacts to the mineral calcite. a. Carbonic acid b. Nitric acid c. Sulfuric acid d. Acetic acid ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 89. Which kind of rocks may contain fossils? a. igneous b. sedimentary c. metamorphic d. minerals ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 90. Most rock outcrops (about 75% of the total) are ________. a. igneous b. sedimentary c. metamorphic d. fossil-bearing ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 91. Detrital sedimentary rocks are classified and named principally on the basis of ________. a. grain size b. location c. rock color d. composition ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 92. Which rock type is most likely to have been deposited in a high-energy environment (such as a very turbulent stream)? a. conglomerate b. shale c. chert d. microcrystalline limestone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 93. The skeletal remains of plankton make up the sedimentary rock ________. a. flint b. breccia c. travertine d. chalk ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 94. Which of the following rock types represents the highest grade of metamorphism? a. slate b. phyllite c. schist d. gneiss ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 95. Regional metamorphism occurs during ________. a. intrusion of magma b. mountain building c. sheeting of exposed plutons of granite d. chemical weathering of limestone in caves ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 96. Limestone is dominated by the mineral ________. a. quartz b. calcite c. gypsum d. hematite ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 97. Which of the following is the parent rock of marble? a. sandstone b. basalt c. granite d. limestone ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 98. Coal primarily comprises ________. a. rocks b. crystals c. inorganic matter d. organic matter ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 99. Mud cracks and ripple marks are common features of ________. a. sedimentary rocks b. igneous rocks c. metamorphic rocks d. minerals ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 100. ________ and ________ are the most common forms of lithification. a. Fossilization; fragmentation b. Partial melting; decompression melting c. Compaction; cementation d. Weathering; erosion ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 101. Which of the following is a nonfoliated metamorphic rock? a. conglomerate b. marble c. gneiss d. slate ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 102. Granite and gabbro have a similar ________. a. composition b. course-grained texture c. fine-grained texture d. vesicular appearance ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 103. Obsidian is characterized by its ________ texture. a. course-grained b. fine-grained c. vesicular d. glassy ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 104. ________ is formed when carbon dioxide dissolves in rainwater, and this mildly reactive substance aids chemical weathering. a. Carbonic acid b. Hydrochloric acid c. Clay d. Limestone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 105. Before sedimentary rock can be formed, sediment must be produced (weathered from preexisting rocks), transported, deposited, and ________. a. eroded b. melted c. lithified d. dissolved ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 106. In contact metamorphism, ________ is the dominant agent of change. a. acid b. water c. pressure d. heat ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 107. The rock ________ is a description of how one rock may be transformed into another kind of rock through various internal and external processes. a. formation b. chart c. cycle d. group ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 108. A detrital sedimentary rock dominated by sand is a ________. a. limestone b. conglomerate c. siltstone d. sandstone ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 109. Which of the following is a chemical sedimentary rock? a. travertine b. coquina c. coal d. sandstone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 110. Layers in sedimentary rocks are called ________. a. foliation b. deposits c. beds d. striations ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 111. A detrital sedimentary rock with large angular fragments is called a(n) ________. a. shale b. conglomerate c. arkose sandstone d. breccia ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 112. Rock salt and rock gypsum are examples of ________ sedimentary rocks. a. biochemical b. chemical c. organic d. detrital ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 113. Exfoliation domes are formed from which of the following processes? a. sheeting b. oxidation c. melting d. metamorphism ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 114. Which of the following is not an agent of metamorphism? a. differential stress b. dissolution c. heat d. confining pressure ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 115. Confining pressure results from the ________ of rocks. a. uplift b. erosion c. melting d. burial ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 116. The reason we see so much mud and sand along the shore of the land is that clay minerals and quartz are ________ at Earth's surface. a. stable b. unstable c. abundant d. exposed ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. Pressure that is unequal in different directions, such as results from the convergence of tectonic plates (mountain-building). b. Pressure that is equal in every direction, such as results from the burial of sediments. c. When water freezes, it expands in volume. Water-filled cracks can be enlarged when this new ice exerts outward pressure on the walls of the fracture. d. The expansion of rocks that formed under high confining pressure, once they are uplifted and exposed at Earth's surface produce fractures that are broadly curved and parallel to the land surface. e. The reaction of a substance (often a metal ion) with oxygen. Rust is an example. f. A substance that forms when carbon dioxide in the air combines with water. It is an important agent of chemical weathering. g. The breaking of rock into smaller pieces. h. Reactions that take place, often facilitated by water, to create new products, mainly clay minerals, which are stable at Earth's surface 117. Differential stress ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 118. Confining pressure ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 119. Frost wedging ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 120. Sheeting ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 121. Oxidation ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 122. Carbonic acid ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 123. Mechanical weathering ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 124. Chemical weathering ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the corresponding characteristics with the correct igneous rock. a. glassy texture b. course-grained, felsic composition c. fine-grained, mafic composition d. vesicular texture e. ultramafic composition f. fine-grained, felsic composition g. intermediate composition h. course-grained, mafic composition 125. Obsidian ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 126. Granite ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 127. Basalt ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 128. Pumice ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 129. Peridotite ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 130. Rhyolite ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 131. Diorite ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 132. Gabbro ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the textural term to the correct rock. a. nonfoliated rock with large calcite crystals b. coarse-grained rock with large angular particles cemented with mud c. pyroclastic rock with particles less than 4 mm in diameter d. coarse-grained rock containing plagioclase, quartz, potassium feldspar, and hornblende e. biochemical rock comprising shells made from calcite f. foliated rock exhibiting banding 133. Marble ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 134. Breccia ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 135. Tuff ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 136. Granite ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 137. Coquina ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 138. Gneiss ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 139. Discuss how the following variables influence the rate of weathering: mineral content, climate, and topography.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 140. What is the source of energy that transforms igneous rocks into sedimentary rocks? What is the source of energy that transforms sedimentary rocks into metamorphic rocks? What is the source of energy that transforms metamorphic rocks into igneous rocks? Are these sources of energy internal or external? Explain.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

141. Why would intrusive rocks chemically weather more quickly than extrusive rocks? Why would mafic rocks chemically weather more easily than felsic rocks?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

142. Consider the history of a single crystal of quartz. Describe how could this quartz grain could (a) form in a granite, (b) become incorporated into a sandstone, and (c) be transformed into a quartzite? Explain the processes which act on the quartz crystal and the transformations it experiences. Detail the processes which would take place along each portion of this journey.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

143. Olivine is often found in ultramafic and mafic igneous rocks, but not felsic. Explain why you wouldn't expect to find olivine form inside a granite or rhyolite.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 144. Consider a sample of porphyritic andesite, which is common in Pacific Rim volcanoes. Speculate how this sample may have formed (simply defining porphyritic isn't enough, be specific).______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

145. Both sedimentary and metamorphic rocks exhibit layering. Explain how the layers develop for each rock type and give the name for the layering.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

146. Discuss the differences between contact and regional metamorphism. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

147. Compare and contrast a high-energy environment to a low-energy environment. For each environment, cite an example of a common rock type and assess how it may form. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 148. Quartzite and marble are nonfoliated metamorphic rocks with similar appearances, which often confuse introductory geology students. Devise an experiment to differentiate between these two samples.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 149. Examine the rock sample here. Did it form at or below Earth's surface? How do you know?

a. It formed at the surface, because of its color (composition). b. It formed at the surface, because of its texture (grain size). c. It formed below the surface, because of its color (composition). d. It formed below the surface, because of its texture (grain size). ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 150. In general, which of the statements below best describes what happens in terms of composition as crystallization proceeds down the Bowen's reaction series (shown in the figure)?

a. The early-formed silicates are enriched in iron and magnesium, resulting in such rocks as andesite and granite. As crystallization proceeds, the later-formed silicates are enriched in sodium, potassium, and silicon, resulting in and basalt. b. The early-formed carbonates are enriched in calcium and carbonate, resulting in such rocks as limestone. As crystallization proceeds, the later-formed carbonates are enriched in fossils, resulting in fossiliferous limestone and coquina. c. The early-formed silicates are enriched in iron and magnesium, resulting in such rocks as peridotite and basalt. As crystallization proceeds, the later-formed silicates are enriched in sodium, potassium, and silicon, resulting in andesite and granite. d. The early-formed silicates are enriched in sodium, potassium, and silicon, resulting in such rocks as peridotite and basalt. As crystallization proceeds, the later-formed silicates are enriched in iron and magnesium, resulting in andesite and granite. ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 151. Consult the image that depicts Bowen's reaction series. What can be said of the temperature at which a granite crystallizes?

a. Granite crystallizes at temperatures of about 750° C. b. Granite crystallizes at temperatures of about 900° C. c. Granite crystallizes at temperatures of about 1200° C. d. Nothing can be deduced from this chart about the crystallization temperature of any igneous rock. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 152. What form of physical weathering is shown in this image?

a. frost wedging b. sheeting c. root wedging d. hydrolysis ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 153. Label each process or set of processes (lettered arrows) and Earth materials (numbered boxes).

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 154. Identify each photo with a material name. Explain the processes which would have to occur as each material is transformed (arrows) into other materials. Include a plausible "next step" to replace the big question mark at the end.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

155. How are the two main categories of weathering represented in this image that shows human-made objects?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 156. ________ was an aquatic reptile that lived in South America and Africa during the Permian period. a. Mesosaurus b. Lystrosaurus c. Glossopteris d. Tyrannosaurus ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 157. In the early part of the twentieth century, ________ argued forcefully for the idea of continental drift. a. Richard Wagner b. Alfred Wegener c. James Hutton d. Harry Hess ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 158. New ocean crust is generated at ________. a. ocean-ocean convergent boundaries b. ocean-continental convergent boundaries c. continental-continental convergent boundaries d. divergent plate boundaries ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 159. Lithospheric plates can consist of which of the following components? a. continental crust, oceanic crust, and ocean water b. continental crust, lithospheric mantle, and asthenospheric mantle c. continental crust, lithospheric mantle, and oceanic crust d. continental crust only, not oceanic crust ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 160. An example of a modern convergent boundary would be ________. a. Iceland b. the East African Rift valley c. the San Andreas Fault d. India slamming into Asia ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 161. Continental rifts are associated with ________ plate boundaries. a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. hot spot ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 162. The temperature above which a material loses its magnetization is called the ________. a. hot spot b. Curie point c. fracture zone d. Darcy temperature ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 163. The area of crust directly above a rising mantle plume is a(n) ________. a. convergent plate boundary b. Curie point c. hot spot d. asthenosphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 164. Linear, magnetic patterns associated with mid-ocean ridges are configured as ________. a. concentric circles about a rising plume of hot, mantle rocks and magma b. normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly perpendicular to the ridge axis c. reversed magnetizations along the rift valleys and normal magnetizations on the ridge d. normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly parallel to the ridge ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 165. Ten million years from now, the East African Rift valley system will most closely resemble the modern ________. a. Red Sea b. Appalachian Mountains c. Peru-Chile Trench d. San Andreas Fault ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 166. Which of the following was missing from Alfred Wegener's hypothesis? a. the geometrical fit between South America and Africa b. late Paleozoic glacial features c. paleomagnetic data from ocean crust d. similar fossils on widely separated continents ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 167. Which of the following was a main objection to Alfred Wegener's continental drift hypothesis? a. His glacial evidence wasn't accurate. b. He didn't identify enough fossil remains to prove plates moved. c. It lacked compelling evidence that the continents had been connected in the past. d. He couldn't provide a credible mechanism. ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 168. Which one of the following most accurately describes the volcanoes of the Hawaiian Islands? a. Volcanoes are associated with subduction and a convergent plate boundary. b. Volcanoes are fed by a long-lived hot spot below the Pacific lithospheric plate. c. Volcanoes are associated with a mid-Pacific oceanic ridge and spreading center. d. Volcanoes are associated with a mid-Pacific transform fault. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 169. New oceanic lithosphere is formed at ________. a. convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma b. divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma c. divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma d. convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 170. Cooler, older, oceanic lithosphere sinks into the mantle at ________. a. subduction zones along convergent plate boundaries b. transform fault zones along divergent plate boundaries c. rift zones along oceanic ridges d. sites of long-lived, hot spot volcanism in the ocean basins ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 171. Imagine that you were given a ship equipped with a device that could measure how deep the water is. You are asked to use this ship to find a subduction zone. What would you look for as you sailed around the world's oceans? a. an oceanic ridge b. a mountain range c. a continental rift d. a deep-ocean trench ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 172. A transform plate boundary is characterized by ________. a. two plates colliding and thrusting up a mountain range b. two plates moving apart and opening up a new ocean basin c. a deep, vertical fault along which two plates slide past one another in opposite directions d. hot spot volcanism ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 173. When new oceanic lithosphere is generated at an oceanic ridge, what happens to the two plates on either side of the ridge? a. The plates get larger. b. The plates get smaller. c. The plates stay the same size. d. The plates sink into the lower mantle. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 174. Which of the following plate boundaries would exhibit vertical faults with rock units that didn't match, offset stream channels, and strong earthquakes with no volcanoes? a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. plate interior (hot spot) ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 175. Transform plate boundaries account for approximately ________ of all plate boundaries. a. 50% b. 40% c. 30% d. 20% ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 176. A volcanic island arc is the result of ________. a. subduction of continental crust underneath oceanic crust b. subduction of oceanic crust underneath oceanic crust c. subduction of oceanic crust underneath continental crust d. subduction of continental crust underneath continental crust ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 177. Among the following choices, the closest match for a divergent boundary is ________. a. the East African Rift valley b. the San Andreas Fault c. the Appalachian Mountains d. the Mariana Trench ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 178. The ________ is weaker and less rigid than the overlying lithosphere. a. crust b. lower mantle c. upper mantle d. asthenosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 179. Slabs of oceanic lithosphere sink at subduction zones because the subducted slab is denser than the underlying asthenosphere. In this process, called ________, Earth's gravity tugs at the slab, drawing the rest of the plate toward the subduction zone. a. slab pull b. ridge push c. convection d. reverse polarity ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 180. Continental rifting begins when plate motions produce ________ forces that pull and stretch the lithosphere. a. compressional b. tensional c. shear d. magnetic ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 181. Mt. Kilimanjaro and Mt. Kenya are ________ that occur along the East African Rift. a. hot spots b. volcanoes c. mantle plumes d. fault zones ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 182. During the first two decades of the twentieth century, ________ was a vigorous proponent of continental drift. a. Nicolas Steno b. Friedrich Mohs c. Alfred Wegener d. N. L. Bowen ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 183. A ________ is a long-lived, stationary, magma source deep in the mantle, well below the base of the lithosphere. a. volcano b. continental rift c. mantle plume d. hot spot ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 184. The ________ today marks the location of the rift along which Africa separated from South America. a. East Pacific Rise b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge c. Aleutian Islands d. Hawaiian Islands ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 185. Alaska's Aleutian Islands formed as part of a ________ along a ________ boundary. a. continental volcanic arc; convergent b. volcanic island arc; convergent c. continental volcanic arc; divergent d. volcanic island arc; divergent ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 186. Iceland sits on a ________ plate boundary. a. hot spot b. transform c. divergent d. convergent ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 187. The San Andreas fault in California is a good example of a ________ plate boundary. a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. plate interior (hot spot) ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 188. The mantle plume in the Pacific Ocean is currently beneath the island of ________. a. Oahu b. Molokai c. Maui d. Hawaii ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 189. ________ was a supercontinent that existed in the late Paleozoic era of geologic time. a. Gondwanaland b. Pangaea c. Rodinia d. Columbia ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 190. The ________ is Earth's outermost rocky layer that is broken into plates. a. core b. mantle c. asthenosphere d. lithosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 191. Some kind of ________ (upward movement of less dense material and downward movement of more dense material) appears to drive the motion of plates. a. convection b. dissolution c. slab pull d. ridge push ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 192. The ________ was created when Pangaea broke apart. a. Antarctic Ocean b. Indian Ocean c. Pacific Ocean d. Atlantic Ocean ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 193. The age of the oldest sediments recovered from deep-ocean drilling was ________. a. 300 million years ago b. 180 million years ago c. 65 million years ago d. 20 million years ago ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 194. The collision of the subcontinent of India and Asia started forming the ________ approximately 50 million years ago. a. Ural Mountains b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge c. Himalayan Mountains d. Appalachian Mountains ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 195. The average rate of seafloor spreading in modern oceans is ________. a. 5 centimeters per year b. 8 centimeters per year c. 2 centimeters per year d. 15 centimeters per year ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 196. Oceanic lithosphere is approximately ________ thick in deep-ocean basins. a. 75 kilometers b. 100 kilometers c. 150 kilometers d. 200 kilometers ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 197. Which of the following is the largest lithospheric plates? a. Eurasian plate b. North American plate c. Pacific plate d. Antarctic plate ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 198. The longest topographic feature on Earth's surface is ________. a. the oceanic ridge system b. continental-continental mountain ranges c. hot spot volcanoes d. volcanic island arcs ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 199. The mechanism that operates along the oceanic ridge system that creates new seafloor is called ________. a. flux melting b. compressional stress c. shearing d. seafloor spreading ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 200. Divergent plate boundaries are also called ________. a. spreading centers b. deep-sea trenches c. fracture zones d. subduction zones ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 201. All of Earth's current oceanic lithosphere was generated within the past ________. a. 2 million years b. 20 million years c. 200 million years d. 2 billion years ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 202. Newly formed oceanic crust is approximately ________ thick. a. 2.5 kilometers b. 7 kilometers c. 40 kilometers d. 100 kilometers ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 203. Which of the following is true as warm, weak asthenosphere moves away from the zone of upwelling? a. oceanic crust becomes weak, thus allowing it deform b. oceanic crust begins to partially melt c. cooling causes the lower mantle to expand d. cooling causes the upper asthenosphere to become increasingly rigid ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. rigid outer layer of Earth including the crust and upper mantle b. "weak" layer within the mantle that is easily deformed c. boundary in which two plates move toward each other, often resulting in collision or subduction d. region where rigid plates are moving away from each other e. boundary where plates slide past each other f. temperature above which a material loses its magnetization g. the natural remnant magnetism in rocks h. change in the polarity of Earth's magnetic field over time intervals of roughly 200,000 years i. an instrument used to measure Earth's magnetic field j. a magnetic field that is the same as what exists at present k. a magnetic field opposite what exists at present l. the history of magnetic reversals through time 204. lithosphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 205. asthenosphere ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 206. convergent plate boundary ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 207. divergent plate boundary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 208. transform plate boundary ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 209. Curie point ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 210. paleomagnetism ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 211. magnetic reversal ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 212. magnetometer ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 213. normal polarity ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 214. reverse polarity ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 215. magnetic time scale ANSWER: l POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the plate boundary with the feature that it produces. Answers will be used more than once. a. divergent plate boundary b. transform plate boundary c. convergent plate boundary 216. East African Rift valley ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 217. San Andreas Fault ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 218. Himalayan Mountains ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 219. Cascade Mountain Range ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 220. Mid-Atlantic Ridge ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 221. Aleutian Islands, Alaska ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 222. Iceland ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 223. What evidence did Alfred Wegener use to support his hypothesis of continental drift? What additional evidence was added later (post-World War II) that suggested seafloor spreading? How do these two ideas unite to form the theory of plate tectonics?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 224. How wide would an ocean basin be if it formed due to the breakup of a supercontinent 200 million years ago and had an oceanic ridge in the middle that spread at a rate of 2.5 centimeters per year (25 kilometers per million years)?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

225. Explain how Wegener used ancient glacier evidence to support his continental drift hypothesis. How was he able to account for lush tropical environments in North America, Europe, and Asia during the same time period of glaciation as South America, Africa, and India?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 226. Mount Hood (pictured) is part of the Cascade Range. These active volcanoes are a chain that stretches along the west coast from northern California to southern British Columbia, Canada. The Cascades are ________.

a. evidence of subduction in the Pacific Northwest of the United States b. evidence of rifting of the North American continent c. a product of the San Andreas Fault d. due to a hot spot beneath Seattle ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 227. Examine the two figures. For both figures the yellow arrows represent ________.

a. areas of ascending and descending mantle material b. areas of slab pull c. areas of ridge push d. hot-spot tracks ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 228. Examine the image. It shows ________, a freshwater reptile whose fossils Alfred Wegener cited as evidence of continental drift.

a. Mesosaurus b. Lystrosaurus c. Glossopteris d. Tyrannosaurus ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 229. Which of these two sets of apparent polar wandering paths shows the "fixed continent" model, and which shows the "plate tectonics" model? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 230. Examine this map of the Lutgens Archipelago, a chain of hot-spot-related islands atop the Tarbuck Plate in the Tasa Sea. Use the information given to determine the (a) direction and (b) rate of movement of the Tarbuck Plate.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 231. Examine this map showing the age of the crust in Africa and South America, and the position of ancient mountain belts (areas where mountain ranges used to exist but have since been eroded down to their roots). This information was not available to Alfred Wegener. Would he find it consistent with the idea of continental drift, or would it prove his idea wrong? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 232. Examine the cross section through a hypothetical ocean basin. Use the magnetic time scale at left to determine when continents A and B separated from one another. Justify your answer.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 233. When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source region, called the ________, the spot in Earth's crust where a fault slips. a. hypocenter b. epicenter c. scarp d. seismic zone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 234. Where is the epicenter of an earthquake? a. where the rock on either side of a fault moves b. on Earth's surface, directly above the hypocenter c. where the fault meets Earth's surface d. wherever we find the most damage from the earthquake ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 235. Three of the following statements are wrong. One is correct. Which of the following statements is correct? a. P waves travel through solids; S waves do not. b. P and S waves travel through liquids, but P waves do not travel through solids. c. S waves travel through solids, but only P waves travel through liquids. d. P and S waves travel through liquids, but S waves do not travel through solids. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 236. Which kind of seismic wave is fastest moving? a. P waves b. S waves c. surface waves d. Seismic waves all travel at the same speed. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 237. Which kind of seismic wave is responsible for the most shaking (and thus, the most damage to human structures)? a. P waves b. S waves c. surface waves d. scarp waves ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 238. Which one of the following is true of most tsunamis? a. They are faster than seismic surface waves. b. Their wave heights decrease and wavelengths increase as they move into shallower water. c. They are usually started by sudden movement on a megathrust fault, and they have wavelengths that are many kilometers long and wave heights of less than a meter. d. They only occur in the Pacific Ocean basin. ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 239. The largest earthquake ever recorded in North America had a moment magnitude of ________. a. 4.6 b. 7.0 c. 8.5 d. 9.2 ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 240. On a typical seismogram, ________ will show the highest amplitudes. a. P waves b. S waves c. surface waves d. body waves ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 241. With regard to earthquakes, what distinguishes intensity from magnitude? a. Intensity is a measure of how much energy is released by the earthquake, but magnitude is a rough measure of local shaking. b. Magnitude is a measure of how much energy is released by the earthquake, but intensity is a rough measure of local shaking. c. Intensity and magnitude both depend on people reporting their experiences. d. Magnitude cannot be measured from a distance using seismograms. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 242. Approximately how much more energy is released in an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4.5 than in a magnitude 5.5 earthquake? a. 3.2 b. 32 c. 320 d. 3,200 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 243. The distance between a seismological recording station and the earthquake source is determined from the ________. a. earthquake magnitude b. intensity of the earthquake c. length of the seismic record d. arrival times of P and S waves ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 244. The record of an earthquake obtained from a seismic instrument is a(n) ________. a. seismograph b. seismogram c. P-S graph d. epitaph ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 245. The earthquake belt with the greatest level of activity is the ________. a. San Andreas Fault b. Alpine-Himalayan Belt c. East Pacific Rise d. Circum-Pacific Belt ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 246. The phenomenon of transforming a somewhat stable soil into mobile material capable of rising toward Earth's surface is called ________. a. liquefaction b. tsunami c. landslide d. subsidence ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 247. Our greatest source of knowledge about Earth's interior comes from ________. a. drill holes b. deep mine shafts c. seismic waves d. volcanic eruptions ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 248. Which of the following terms means "weak sphere"? a. hydrosphere b. cryosphere c. asthenosphere d. lithosphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 249. Which one of the following statements is true about the crust? a. It is the thinnest of the major subdivisions. b. It is thickest of the major subdivisions. c. Continental rocks have the same composition as oceanic rocks. d. Oceanic crust has an average composition of granite. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 250. Earth's core is interpreted to consist mainly of ________. a. granite b. basalt c. iron and nickel d. mostly solid rock with a small amount of melt due to the temperature-pressure regime ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 251. Which of the following is the largest region of the Earth's interior? a. crust b. mantle c. outer core d. inner core ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 252. A(n) ________ is a structure in which the oldest rocks are located in the center. a. anticline b. syncline c. dome d. basin ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 253. A crustal block bounded by faults whose geologic history is distinct from the histories of adjoining crustal blocks is called a(n) ________. a. dome b. orogenic belt c. continental volcanic arc d. terrane ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 254. How did the Himalayas form? a. collision of India and Eurasia (continental-continental collision) b. spreading of oceanic crust (divergent plate boundary) c. movement on a strike-slip fault d. collision and accretion of many small terranes including island arcs and microcontinents (continentaloceanic collision) ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 255. Oceanic crust is primarily composed of ________. a. obsidian and pumice b. granite and diorite c. basalt and gabbro d. basalt and granite ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 256. A ________ is an instrument that is used to record earthquake vibrations. a. seismograph b. seismogram c. triangulator d. compass ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 257. A rapidly moving ocean wave generated by an earthquake that is capable of inflicting heavy damage in coastal regions is called a(n) ________. a. syncline b. tsunami c. subsidence d. anticline ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 258. ________ is when a rock "snaps back" to its original stress-free form after an earthquake. a. Fault creep b. Brittle deformation c. Elastic rebound d. Liquefaction ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 259. The ________ is a layer in Earth's interior that is in a liquid state. a. mantle b. crust c. inner core d. outer core ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 260. The ________ is the cool, brittle, outer layer of Earth that includes the crust and uppermost mantle. a. lithosphere b. asthenosphere c. inner core d. mantle ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 261. Horsts and grabens are bounded by ________. a. normal faults b. reverse faults c. thrust faults d. strike-slip faults ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 262. The east coast of present-day North America is a good example of a(n) ________ continental margin. a. active b. passive c. strike-slip d. lateral ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 263. Which of the following is considered a young mountain range? a. The Andes Mountains b. The Himalayan Mountains c. The Appalachian Mountains d. The Ural Mountains ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 264. The difference between a continent and a microcontinent is ________. a. composition b. age c. location d. size ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 265. Sediment scraped off the subducting plate builds up in a(n) ________. a. horst b. delta c. accretionary wedge d. basin ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 266. Most orogenesis occurs along ________ plate boundaries. a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. hot spot ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 267. Sand volcanoes are a good indication that ________ has occurred in an area. a. liquefaction b. uplift c. subsidence d. tsunami ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 268. Earth and the solar system began to form nearly ________ due to the gravitational collapse of a huge cloud of dust and gas. a. 65 million years ago b. 800 million years ago c. 2.5 billion years ago d. 5 billion years ago ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 269. The collective term for any process that produces a mountain belt is called ________. a. orogenesis b. diagenesis c. petrogenesis d. subduction ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 270. ________ is gradual displacement along a fault. a. Subsidence b. Liquefaction c. Fault creep d. Fault scarp ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 271. Which of the following does moment magnitude measure or estimate? a. the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram b. the total energy released during an earthquake c. the total damage to an area d. difference in magnitude between P and S waves ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 272. ________ is a general term that refers to all changes in the shape, position, or orientation of a rock mass. a. Displacement b. Liquefaction c. Subsidence d. Deformation ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 273. ________ are fractures along which no appreciable displacement has occurred. a. Faults b. Joints c. Domes d. Horsts ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 274. Which of the following is the best example of an active continental margin? a. west coast of Africa b. east coast of North America c. west coast of South America d. east coast of South America ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 275. A Richter magnitude 8 earthquake is ________ times greater than a Richter magnitude of 7. a. 100 b. 50 c. 10 d. 5 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 276. The Appalachian Mountains were formed when ________ and ________ collided more than 250 million years ago. a. North America; Africa b. Africa; Europe c. South America; Africa d. Australia; Asia ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 277. ________ is the general term that refers to all changes in the shape, position, or orientation of a rock mass. a. Uplift b. Deformation c. Subsidence d. Elastic rebound ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 278. Seismologists use a method called ________ to pinpoint the epicenter of an earthquake by using three or more seismic stations. a. deformation b. interpolation c. extrapolation d. triangulation ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 279. ________ occur in which the hanging wall block moves up relative to the footwall block. a. Normal faults b. Reverse faults c. Strike-slip faults d. Grabens ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 280. The process of melted, buoyant masses of molten rock that rose toward Earth's surface and solidified to produce a primitive crust is called ________. a. chemical differentiation b. shear-zone stress c. assimilation d. liquefaction ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 281. When differential stress changes a rock's shape, the resulting deformation (distortion) is called ________. a. asthenosphere b. tectonic structure c. strain d. monocline ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. vertical displacements along dip–slip faults that may produce long, low cliffs b. an elongated, uplifted block of crust bounded by normal faults c. valley formed from the downward displacement of a normal fault-bounded block d. a dip-slip fault where the hanging wall moves down relative to the footwall block e. a dip-slip fault where the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall block f. a fault where the dominant displacement is horizontal and parallel to the strike of the fault surface g. a fault where the movement is parallel to the dip of the fault h. a low-angle (less than 45 degrees) reverse fault 282. fault scarp ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 283. horst ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 284. graben ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 285. normal fault ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 286. reverse fault ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 287. strike-slip fault ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 288. dip-slip fault ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 289. thrust fault ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the hazard with the correct hazard region/location. a. coastal regions b. regions with unstable slopes c. areas of loose sediment d. cities with vulnerable gas and electrical lines 290. tsunami ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 291. liquefaction ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 292. landslides ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 293. fires ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Match the wave motion with the correct seismic wave. a. motion that involves compression and expansion of the material through which it passes; may pass through solids, liquids, and gases b. motion that involves oscillation perpendicular to the direction of propagation; only passes through solids c. motion at Earth's surface that may move materials side to side, or up and down 294. P wave ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 295. S wave ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 296. Surface wave ANSWER: c POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. stress that squeezes a rock mass like a vice b. stress that pulls apart rock bodies c. stress which involves the movement of one part of a rock body past another 297. compressional stress ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 298. tensional stress ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 299. shear stress ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 300. Describe the steps you would go through to determine the source of an earthquake, provided you had access to three seismographs that recorded the event.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

301. How do terranes relate the growth of continental crust over geologic time? What region of North America illustrates this process well?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 302. Would earthquakes of similar magnitudes in different regions of Earth cause approximately the same levels of damage necessarily? In your explanation, consider both geologic and human-induced factors.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

303. What sorts of geologic structures would an earth scientist expect to find forming in a convergent plate boundary? Draw a cross section to help explain your answer.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

304. Sketch a cross-sectional view of Earth's interior, and label each of the layers you depict.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

305. Briefly discuss the formation of an accretionary wedge.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 306. Explain why an earthquake on the east coast of the United States may produce damage over a larger area than an earthquake on the west coast.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

307. Discuss the differences between P, S, and surface waves.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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fes9_D2L 308. Examine the graph. After a P wave (blue line) has been traveling for 5 minutes, how much distance has been covered by an S wave (red line) generated by the same earthquake?

a. 1200 km b. 1900 km c. 2500 km d. 3100 km ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 309. What kind of fault is illustrated in this figure?

a. normal fault b. reverse fault c. thrust fault d. strike-slip fault ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 310. What kind of fold is illustrated in this photograph? At what sort of tectonic boundary situation is it likely to have formed?

a. anticline; divergent b. syncline; divergent c. anticline; convergent d. syncline; convergent ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 311. What type of structure is shown in the photograph?

a. reverse fault b. normal fault c. anticline d. syncline ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 312. What type of deformation is shown in the photograph below?

a. ductile deformation b. brittle deformation c. elastic deformation d. thrust fault ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 313. In the seismograph shown below, what is the estimated time interval between points A and C?

a. 3 minutes b. 4 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 6 minutes ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 314. Discuss the formation of the Himalayan Mountains using the figures below as a guide. Be sure to add features seen in the diagram with your explanation.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 315. As you can see from this map, the Ural Mountains exhibit a north-south orientation through Eurasia. They are about the same age as the Appalachian mountains of eastern North America. How does the theory of plate tectonics explain the existence of this mountain belt in the interior of an expansive continental landmass? Compare and contrast the Ural and Appalachian situations, given their similar age.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 316. Which type of basaltic lava flow has a fairly smooth, unfragmented, ropy surface? a. aa b. pahoehoe c. pumice d. scoria ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 317. Decompression melting is responsible for generating magma at ________ plate boundaries. a. lateral b. transform c. divergent d. convergent ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 318. Which of the following lava compositions has the greatest viscosity? a. ultramafic b. mafic c. intermediate d. felsic ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 319. The most violent volcanic activity is associated with ________. a. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge b. composite volcanoes c. cinder cones d. shield volcanoes ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 320. The Columbia Plateau in the northwestern United States is an excellent example of ________. a. an eroded shield volcano b. a caldera c. pyroclastic flow deposits d. flood basalts ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 321. The eruption at Mount St. Helens is most similar to which volcanic eruption? a. Tambora, Indonesia b. Mount Kilauea, Hawaii c. Mid-Atlantic Ridge d. Yellowstone National Park ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 322. ________ tend to increase the explosive potential of a magma body beneath a volcano by the greatest amount. a. High viscosity and lots of dissolved gas b. High viscosity and very low levels of dissolved gas c. Low viscosity and lots of dissolved gas d. Low viscosity and very low levels of dissolved gas ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 323. Pyroclastic flows primarily contain pumice, vesicular pyroclastic material, and ________. a. volcanic mudslides called lahars b. a cloud of low-density hot expanding gases c. low viscosity lava flows d. ultramafic rock debris ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 324. Magma tends to rise toward Earth's surface principally because ________. a. water is an abundant constituent of magma b. silica increases the viscosity of the magma c. rocks become less dense when they melt d. of convection in the mantle ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 325. A concentration of heat in the mantle capable of producing magma is called a ________. a. magma melt b. plume c. hot spot d. basalt spout ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 326. If you want to melt a rock, even partially, there are three methods you can employ. Which of the following is not a way that melting is triggered in rocks in the Earth? a. adding heat b. releasing pressure c. adding water d. removing water ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 327. Which one of the following shows the correct order (from left to right) of decreasing magma viscosity? (Remember that viscosity is resistance to flow, so you should pick the answer that has the most viscous lava type on the left, and the least viscous [most runny] on the right.) a. rhyolite, andesite, basalt b. andesite, rhyolite, basalt c. basalt, andesite, rhyolite d. andesite, basalt, rhyolite ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 328. Subducting oceanic crust underneath oceanic crust will produce ________. a. hot-spot volcanic islands b. volcanic island arcs c. continental volcanic arcs d. mid-ocean ridge ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 329. An igneous body injected between sedimentary strata that arches the bedrock above while the bottom layers remain relatively flat is called a ________. a. batholith b. laccolith c. dike d. sill ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 330. The volcanic activity in Yellowstone National Park is caused by ________. a. subduction b. a divergent plate boundary c. intraplate volcanism d. a transform plate boundary ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 331. How does the East African Rift relate to plate tectonics? a. The rift lies on an oceanic spreading center where two plates are diverging. b. The rift lies on a continental rift where two plates are diverging. c. The rift lies on a subduction zone where two plates are converging. d. The rift lies on a continent with a hot spot below it. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 332. ________ are discordant bodies that form when magma is forcibly injected into fractures that cut across bedding surfaces and other structures. a. Batholiths b. Sills c. Necks d. Dikes ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 333. ________ are nearly horizontal, concordant bodies that form when magma exploits weaknesses between sedimentary beds or other structures. a. Batholiths b. Sills c. Necks d. Dikes ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 334. How do calderas form? a. collapse of a partially emptied magma chamber b. explosive eruption carving out a big hole in the ground c. impact of a meteorite d. erosion by lava flows ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 335. Gases like water vapor or carbon dioxide that get released from lava or magma are referred to as ________. a. aa b. volatiles c. pumice d. scoria ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 336. ________ is a type of basaltic lava flow that has its surface covered with sharp-edged, angular blocks and rubble. a. Aa b. Tephra c. Pahoehoe d. Pillow lava ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 337. ________ is a type of volcanic mudflow. a. Lahar b. A pyroclastic flow c. Lava flows d. Tephra ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 338. Another term for preexisting crustal rocks is ________. a. laccolith b. batholith c. pluton d. host rock ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 339. Composite volcanoes are also known as ________. a. shield volcanoes b. stratovolcanoes c. cinder cones d. hot spots ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 340. To be classified as a batholith a plutonic body must have surface exposure greater than ________ square kilometers. a. 45 b. 50 c. 80 d. 100 ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 341. Which of the following is another term for submarine volcano? a. seamount b. cinder cone c. composite volcano d. pluton ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 342. ________ are pyroclastic materials that are larger than ash, but smaller than blocks or bombs. a. Pumice b. Scoria c. Lapilli d. Pillow lavas ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 343. When mantle peridotite partially melts beneath an oceanic ridge, ________ magma is produced. a. andesitic or intermediate b. basaltic or mafic c. rhyolitic or felsic d. granitic or felsic ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 344. Pyroclastic flows can exceed speeds of ________ kilometers per hour. a. 100 b. 80 c. 65 d. 40 ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 345. A horizontal conduit that allows lava to flow from a volcanic vent is called a ________. a. sill b. dike c. pillow lava d. lava tube ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 346. ________ are pyroclastic materials ejected from volcanoes that are larger than 64 mm (2.5 inches) in diameter. a. Volcanic ash b. Lapilli c. Volcanic bombs d. Pillow lavas ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 347. Most magma is generated in Earth's upper mantle by ________ of solid rock. a. decompression melting b. partial melting c. diffusion d. crystallizing ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 348. ________ is another name for pyroclastic materials. a. Fumarole b. Volatiles c. Tephra d. Caldera ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 349. Shield volcanoes like Mauna Loa mostly comprise ________. a. granitic lava flows b. intermediate lava flows c. rhyolitic lava flows d. basaltic lava flows ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 350. Kilauea's volcanic activity has occurred along the flanks of the volcano in a region called the ________, which has erupted continuously since 1983. a. East Rift Zone b. West Rift Zone c. North Rift Zone d. South Rift Zone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 351. Most lava flowing from a cinder cone volcano spills from the ________. a. open crater b. unconsolidated base of the cone c. collapsed magma chamber d. lava tube ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 352. ________ is an eruption in which lava is extruded from narrow fractures in the crust. a. Fissure eruption b. Nuée ardente c. Lahar d. Pyroclastic flow ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 353. Which of the following is an example of intraplate volcanism? a. Mount St. Helens b. Deccan Traps c. East African Rift system d. Iceland ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 354. The greatest volume of magma is produced at ________. a. transform plate boundaries b. hot spots c. convergent plate boundaries d. divergent plate boundaries ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 355. Most volcanoes along the Ring of Fire are made from ________. a. subducting ocean crust b. subducting continental crust c. hot-spot volcanism d. decompression melting ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 356. ________ is a vesicular rock with an andesitic or rhyolitic composition. a. Scoria b. Pumice c. Obsidian d. Granite ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. a crack in rock along which there is a distinct separation b. large depression caused by a collapse of the summit area of a volcano c. funnel-shaped depression at summit of volcano d. a conduit that connects a magma chamber to a volcanic crater e. pipelike opening through which magma moves toward Earth's surface f. vents in a volcanic area from which gases may escape g. cone-shaped structure built by successive eruptions of lava and/or pyroclastic material h. volcanic cone that forms on the flank of a larger volcano 357. fissure ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 358. caldera ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 359. crater ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 360. vent ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 361. conduit ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 362. volcanic cone (stratovolcano or composite cone) ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 363. fumarole ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 364. parasitic cone ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the volcano type with the correct choice. Choices will be used more than once. a. Shield volcano b. Cinder cone c. Composite volcano 365. Mauna Loa ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 366. Parícutin ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 367. Iceland ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 368. Fujiyama ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 369. Mount Etna ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 370. S P Crater ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the following items with the correct description. a. an isolated, steep-sided, erosional remnant consisting of lava that once occupied the vent of a volcano b. flows of basaltic lava fed by fissures that commonly cover extensive areas c. vast accumulation of basaltic lava resulting in a broad plain d. an eruption in which lava is extruded from narrow fractures in the crust e. large depression caused by collapse of the summit area of a volcano 371. volcanic necks (plugs) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 372. flood basalt ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 373. basalt plateau ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 374. fissure eruption ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 375. caldera ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 376. Imagine that you have a friend moving to a new area on the North American continent where there is a subduction zone offshore. What sorts of volcanoes would be most likely in this setting? Which volcanic hazards should you warn your friend to be alert for?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 377. Volcanoes are generally not preserved in the geologic rock record as they are eroded away. However, the various materials erupted from volcanoes are often found preserved in the rock record. How could you infer what type of volcano erupted in a given area based on the type of volcanic deposits now found as layers of rock? Give specific examples and briefly discuss if some materials may be linked to different types of volcanoes.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

378. Discuss the six different tectonic settings in which volcanism can occur, and why magma is produced at each location.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

379. Pick three of the following volcanic regions and assign each of them to one of the three types of volcanism (convergent plate boundaries, divergent plate boundaries, or intraplate volcanism): a. Crater Lake b. Hawaii's Kilauea c. Mount St. Helens d. East African Rift e. Yellowstone f. Vesuvius g. Deccan Plateau h. Iceland Give a brief explanation of how the volcanoes formed at each of the three locations you select.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 380. Explain why a rhyolitic lava flow is more viscous than a basaltic lava flow.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

381. Explain three ways in which a lahar can form.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

382. Discuss the various ways in which volcanic ash and gases interact with the environment and humans during a volcanic eruption.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

383. Compare and contrast the major types of calderas.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 384. You are a field geologist, dropped off in a new area. You examine the rocks of this area and find rhyolite, welded tuff, and scattered pumice. All are very young. You begin mapping the area, and soon have a rough sense of the distribution of rock units, as shown here:

Note that the welded tuff varies systematically in its thickness, and that a lake is present near the center of your mapping area. How do you interpret this pattern?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 385. Olympus Mons is an enormous volcano on Mars. It is the largest volcano in the solar system. Compositionally and structurally, Olympus Mons is most like a shield volcano on Earth, but it is many times larger. Why should Mars produce such a monstrous shield volcano, while Earth isn't capable of producing one that large?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 386. Examine the map of the Cascadia subduction zone and explain why an eruption of Mount Rainier would be considerably more destructive than the similar eruption of Mount Mazama, which formed Crater Lake during a massive eruption 7,700 years ago.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 387. Mauna Loa, a volcano in Hawaii, is an excellent example of a ________.

a. shield volcano b. cinder cone c. composite volcano d. volcanic neck ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 388. Parícutin is an example of a ________.

a. shield volcano b. cinder cone c. composite volcano d. volcanic neck ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 389. This is a photograph of Augustine volcano in Alaska. Judging by its shape, and the eruptive activity in the photo, what kind of volcano is it?

a. shield volcano b. cinder cone c. composite volcano d. volcanic neck ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 390. What caused the many small holes that are seen in this sample of scoria?

a. impacts by volcanic bombs b. dissolving away of minerals c. degassing of volatiles d. raindrops ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 391. Examine the figure and consider a rock under the conditions shown by the black dot labeled "Start here." Explain the different processes that may happen to the rock to cause it to melt. Be sure to refer to the figure with your explanation.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 392. What igneous feature is shown in this photograph?

a. sill b. batholith c. columnar jointing d. dike ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 393. The downslope movement of rock or soil due to the influence of gravity is ________. a. weathering b. erosion c. mass movement d. exfoliation ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 394. The tongue-like flow of water-saturated clay-rich soil on a hillside that breaks away and moves downslope is called ________. a. debris flow b. slump c. rockslide d. earthflow ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 395. Plants consume water during photosynthesis. They also release it to the atmosphere during ________. a. evaporation b. degassing c. transpiration d. infiltration ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 396. ________ is the process by which liquid water changes into water vapor. a. Infiltration b. Evaporation c. Runoff d. Dissolution ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 397. One drainage basin is separated from a neighboring drainage basin by a ________. a. divide b. slope c. rill d. zone of deposition ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 398. The Mississippi Delta is an example of which of the following? a. zone of sediment production b. zone of deposition c. zone of transportation d. angle of repose ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 399. The Amazon River has ________ times as much discharge as the Mississippi River. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12 ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 400. Pebbles caught in swirling eddies of water best describe ________. a. cutbanks b. potholes c. point bars d. meanders ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 401. Gravel would most likely exist in the ________ of a river. a. dissolved load b. suspended load c. bed load d. cutbank ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 402. ________ is the maximum load of solid particles a stream can transport in a unit of time. a. Capacity b. Competence c. Alluvium d. Bed load ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 403. If you were to examine the longitudinal profile of a typical river, you would probably find that the gradient is ________. a. steepest near the mouth b. steepest near the headwaters c. roughly the same at the mouth and the headwaters d. steepest in the zone of transport ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 404. Calcium and sodium ions make up much of the ________ of streams. a. dissolved load b. suspended load c. bed load d. sediment ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 405. The Mississippi River Delta system contains a series of ________ coalescing subdeltas. a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 406. Streams erode downward until they reach ________. a. their base level b. their profile c. an oxbow d. the floodplain ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 407. V-shaped valleys would most likely contain ________. a. waterfalls b. floodplains c. a braided stream d. a delta ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 408. The flat area on either side of a stream's natural levee, where alluvium is deposited, is called the ________. a. incised meander b. delta c. floodplain d. headwaters ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 409. Between a river and its floodplain, you might find ________. a. natural levees b. deltas c. distributaries d. meanders ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 410. A tributary stream that flows parallel to the main stream because a natural levee is present is called ________. a. a yazoo tributary b. flooding c. approaching base level d. eroding a pothole ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 411. Groundwater is the largest reservoir of ________. a. water on Earth b. seawater on Earth c. glacial ice on Earth d. freshwater that is readily available to humans ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 412. Impermeable layers such as clay that hinder or prevent water movement are called ________. a. aquitards b. aquifers c. meanders d. cutbanks ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 413. Groundwater tends to flow through bodies of rock or sediment that ________. a. are composed of dark silicate minerals b. have a high porosity c. have a high permeability d. are aquitards ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 414. Where the water table intersects Earth's surface, a(n) ________ results. a. geyser b. spring c. artesian well d. cone of depression ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 415. The San Joaquin Valley experienced a phenomenon called ________ due to excessive groundwater pumping. a. acid mine drainage b. evapotranspiration c. water table rise d. land subsidence ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 416. The steepest angle at which unconsolidated granular material remains stable is ________. a. oblique angles b. the angle of momentum c. the angle of repose d. right angles ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 417. ________ is located in tiny pore spaces between grains of soil and sediment, underground. a. Groundwater b. Incised meander c. Cutbank d. Aquitard ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 418. ________ can form when the pressure surface is above the land surface. a. Geysers b. Flowing artesian wells c. Springs d. Cone of depression ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 419. Old Faithful, a ________ in Yellowstone National Park, erupts steam and hot water. a. well b. spring c. geyser d. cone of depression ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 420. Drawdown of groundwater due to heavy pumping from a well may result in a(n) ________, a "dimple" in the water table. a. geyser b. spring c. artesian well d. cone of depression ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 421. External processes include weathering, mass wasting, and ________. a. partial melting b. erosion c. convection d. subduction ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 422. ________ is a measure of the volume of open space in rocks and unconsolidated, geologic materials like alluvium and soils. a. Porosity b. Angularity c. Permeability d. Sphericity ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 423. Building a dam on a stream raises its ________, causing it to cease erosion and begin to deposit sediment. a. angle of repose b. aquitard c. base level d. headwaters ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 424. Most karst topography forms in ________. a. limestone b. granite c. basalt d. sandstone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 425. Which of the following drainage patterns forms on highly fractured bedrock? a. rectangular b. dendritic c. radial d. trellis ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 426. ________ hang from the ceiling in caves. a. Stalactites b. Stalagmites c. Karst topography d. Incised meanders ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 427. Which of the following rivers flows inside the Grand Canyon? a. Nile River b. Colorado River c. Mississippi River d. Amazon River ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 428. One potential source of groundwater contamination would be ________. a. partial melting b. evapotranspiration c. lithification d. leaking septic tank ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 429. A cross-sectional view of a stream from its headwaters to its mouth is called a(n) ________. a. longitudinal profile b. transverse profile c. oblique profile d. subterranean profile ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 430. Streams that exhibit flow only during wet periods are called ________. a. intermittent streams b. braided streams c. ephemeral streams d. meandering streams ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 431. Ephemeral streams typically flow after heavy rainstorms in ________ climates. a. humid b. arid c. tropical d. arctic ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 432. The average number of storm-related deaths attributed to flooding from 1985 to 2014 was ________. a. 66 b. 73 c. 83 d. 94 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 433. ________ are earthen mounds built on the banks of rivers to increase the volume of water the channel can hold. a. Natural levees b. Channels c. Flood-control dams d. Artificial levees ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 434. Blocks of bedrock that break loose and slide downslope are often called a(n) ________. a. slump b. rockslide c. mudflow d. earthflow ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 435. Dredging a stream or river is an example of ________. a. channelization b. meandering c. lithification d. downcutting ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. the physical breakdown (disintegration) and chemical alteration (decomposition) of rock at or near Earth's surface b. the volume of water flowing past a certain point in a given unit of time c. sand, gravel, and large boulders that are too large to be carried in suspension and, instead, move along the bottom of a stream channel d. the transfer of rock and soil downslope, under the influence of gravity e. the physical removal of material by a mobile agent such as flowing water, waves, wind, or ice f. the process by which solid particles of various sizes are separated and deposited in different locations g. the slope of a stream channel expressed as the vertical drop of a stream over a specified distance h. a complex network of converging and diverging channels that thread their way among numerous islands or gravel bars i. area of active erosion in a river j. new channel segment occurring between meanders due to erosion k. area of deposition along a river Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L l. meander that has been separated from main part of river m. interwoven stream channels n. curvy bends in a river o. uppermost layer of the saturated zone p. rock, sediment, or soil through which groundwater moves easily q. water in the saturated zone r. measure of a material's ability to transmit water s. impermeable bed that hinders or prevents groundwater movement t. areas within sediment where all open spaces are completely filled with water u. volume of open spaces in rock or soil v. area above water table where openings between sediment, soil, and rock are filled with air 436. Weathering ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 437. Discharge ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 438. Bed load ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 439. Mass wasting ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 440. Erosion ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 441. Sorting ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 442. Gradient ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 443. Braided channels ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 444. Cut bank ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 445. Cutoff ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 446. Point bar ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 447. Oxbow lake ANSWER: l POINTS: 1 448. Braided channel ANSWER: m POINTS: 1 449. Meander ANSWER: n POINTS: 1 450. Water table ANSWER: o POINTS: 1 451. Aquifer ANSWER: p POINTS: 1 452. Groundwater ANSWER: q POINTS: 1 453. Permeability ANSWER: r POINTS: 1 454. Aquitard ANSWER: s POINTS: 1 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 455. Zone of saturation ANSWER: t POINTS: 1 456. Porosity ANSWER: u POINTS: 1 457. Unsaturated zone ANSWER: v POINTS: 1 458. Describe three factors that can act as triggers for mass wasting events.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

459. Imagine that you land a new job as a consultant to a county where floods have recently damaged many houses along a river. Describe some of the structural methods that are available to you as options to control flooding.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

460. In Pearson County, residents are concerned because the water table has been dropping for more than two years. What might be some of the reasons that the amount of groundwater in Pearson County is decreasing? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 461. Imagine you are an astronaut, landing on an alien world. Looking out your spacecraft window, you see a world that looks very much like Earth. You notice a disappearing stream and two sinkholes. Based on your training in Earth science, make a prediction about the rock type you would find in the area where you have landed, and justify your prediction. Make a second prediction about the composition of the atmosphere on the new planet.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

462. Discuss the difference between laminar flow and turbulent flow. Provide an example of each type and how stream velocity may influence flow.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

463. Explain how the gradient, discharge, channel size, and channel roughness typically change as you migrate downstream.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

464. Compare and contrast the concepts of capacity and competence. How would periods of flooding affect the capacity and competency of a river?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 465. Examine the sketch of a bend in a river. The arrows show the water flow direction. In which of the four lettered locations will the water be moving at the highest velocity?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 466. Examine the sketch of a bend in a river. The arrows show the water flow direction. In which of the four lettered locations will erosion take place?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 467. Examine the sketch of a bend in a river. The arrows show the water flow direction. In which of the four lettered locations is deposition most likely to occur?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 468. Which of the drainage patterns shown here might develop on relatively uniform surface materials?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 469. What is the specific form of mass wasting illustrated here?

a. point bar b. rockslide c. avalanche d. cutbank ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 470. The river depicted in this drawing shows prominent ________.

a. base levels b. potholes c. flooding d. meandering ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 471. Examine this photograph. Identify the features seen here, and describe in detail the sequence of events which must have occurred in order to produce these features.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 472. Examine the photo of Glen Canyon Dam in Arizona and the reservoir called Lake Powell that formed upstream of it. Describe what has happened to the base level on the Colorado River at this location since the dam was constructed. Make a prediction for what will happen at this location over the next several hundred years.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 473. Where is the world's largest ice sheet located today? a. Greenland b. Alaska c. Iceland d. Antarctica ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 474. Which one of the following is true of glaciers? a. They originate on land. b. They exist only in the Northern Hemisphere. c. They show evidence of flow only from the past. d. They form from the recrystallization of water. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 475. When a valley glacier leaves the mountains and enters the relative flat lands below, it may spread out to form ________. a. an ice cap b. a piedmont glacier c. an ice shelf d. a lateral moraine ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 476. The balance or lack of balance between accumulation and wastage is called ________. a. glacial trough b. glacial ice c. glacial budget d. glacial plucking ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 477. Where do crevasses form? a. in the zone of fracture b. below the zone of fracture c. at the terminus d. in icebergs ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 478. If accumulation exceeds ablation in a glacial budget, which of the following will happen? a. The terminus will move downhill ("advance"). b. The terminus will shift uphill ("retreat"). c. The glacier will begin to flow uphill. d. The glacier will melt away due to climate change. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 479. A glacier's downstream end ________. a. is where new ice is added through compaction of snowfall b. is in the zone of wastage c. is where the fastest flow occurs d. is where cirques get carved out ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 480. Although rates of glacial movement vary from region to region, on average the Antarctic Ice Sheet moves ________. a. at a rate between 2 meters (6.5 feet) and 800 meters (2600 feet) per year b. throughout the entire glacial ice mass c. at a rate between 1.6 to 8 kilometers per hour (1 and 5 miles per hour) d. only when the snow is falling ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 481. In an area of alpine glaciation, sinuous, sharp-edged ridges called ________ and sharp, pyramid-like peaks called ________ are common features. a. tarns; cirques b. cirques; arêtes c. arêtes; horns d. horns; hanging valleys ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 482. If you were on a geology field trip in an area of glacial deposition, how would you distinguish between samples of till and stratified drift? a. with a rock hammer b. by comparing their grain size and sorting c. by comparing the specific gravity of the two samples d. with hydrochloric acid ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 483. Which of the following is a variety of moraine? a. lateral b. cirque c. kettle d. hanging ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 484. Where are drumlins formed? a. in areas of alpine glaciation b. in areas of ground moraine c. in fiords d. in areas of glacial plucking ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 485. ________ are erosional features produced by valley (alpine) glaciers. a. Moraines b. Cirques c. Eskers d. Drumlins ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 486. During the last Ice Age, approximately 30% of Earth's land surface was covered by glaciers. Which of the following areas experienced the most glaciation? a. Siberia b. Australia c. North America d. Europe ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 487. Which of the following lakes are remnants of Lake Agassiz? a. Great Lakes b. Lake Bonneville c. Great Salt Lake d. Walden Pond ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 488. About what percentage of Earth's land surface is covered by deserts? a. 3% b. 15% c. 30% d. 55% ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 489. How is desert different from steppe? a. Steppe is more humid than desert. b. Desert is more humid than steppe. c. Desert occurs at subtropical latitudes, but not at mid-latitudes in continental interiors. d. Steppe occurs at subtropical latitudes, but not at mid-latitudes in continental interiors. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 490. A rainshadow desert forms ________. a. when dry air descends from high in the atmosphere between 20° and 30° latitude b. in places where mountain ranges act as barriers to the movement of water vapor c. in cold, polar regions d. near the equator, where moist air rises (because it is hot and less dense) up, away from Earth's surface ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 491. Ephemeral streams ________. a. are a major agent of erosion in desert regions b. are a major agent of erosion in areas of ground moraine c. flow all the time d. are limited to rainshadow deserts ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 492. Deflation may lead to ________. a. meanders b. drumlins c. till d. blowouts ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 493. Sand is deposited on the ________ side of a dune. a. leeward b. wind c. blowout d. deflated ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 494. ________ glaciers form when one or more ________ glaciers merge and are no longer confined. a. Ice cap; piedmont b. Alpine; valley c. Valley; piedmont d. Piedmont; valley ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 495. When a glacial trough is "drowned" by the sea, the result is a(n) ________. a. fiord b. cirque c. horn d. arête ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 496. A sinuous ridge composed of sand and gravel is a(n) ________; it is a deposit made by streams flowing in tunnels within or beneath glacial ice. a. till b. drumlin c. esker d. arête ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 497. Which of the following is the least effective agent of erosion? a. water b. wind c. ice d. lava ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 498. A(n) ________ is defined as a semiarid climate. a. drumlin b. desert c. steppe d. esker ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 499. Course-grained sediments such as pebbles and cobbles often comprise the ________ in desert environments. a. dunes b. loess c. blowout d. desert pavement ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 500. A landscape dominated by U-shaped valleys and pyramid-shaped mountains is most likely formed due to ________. a. glaciation b. desertification c. lithification d. dissolution ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 501. A(n) ________ is a cone of debris that forms where an ephemeral stream emerges from the confines of the canyon. Its runoff spreads over the gentler slopes at the base of the mountains and quickly loses velocity, dumping most of its sediment load within a short distance. a. drumlin b. alluvial fan c. esker d. delta ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 502. A hazard people face when crossing a glacier is falling into a ________, a large crack that extends through the zone of fracture. a. zone of accumulation b. zone of wastage c. snowline d. crevasse ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 503. If ice accumulation equals the amount of ice lost, the glacier will ________. a. advance b. become stationary c. retreat d. subside ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 504. By the year 2030, it is possible that Glacier National Park in Montana will not have any ________. a. deserts b. glaciers c. ephemeral streams d. fiords ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 505. ________ form from the coalescence of multiple alluvial fans. a. Mesas b. Inselbergs c. Bajadas d. Deltas ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 506. Desert regions that exhibit a discontinuous pattern of ephemeral streams that do not flow out of the desert to the ocean are said to have a(n) ________. a. subterranean drainage b. exterior drainage c. evapotranspiration d. interior drainage ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 507. Approximately ________ cycles of cooling and warming occurred during the last Ice Age. a. 20 b. 15 c. 10 d. 5 ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 508. Which of the following is created when a glacier acts as a dam, blocking the flow of a river or melting glacial water? a. playas b. proglacial lakes c. cirques d. pluvial lakes ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 509. The Last Glacial Maximum occurred ________ years ago. a. 100,000 b. 24,000 c. 18,000 d. 6,000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 510. ________ are steep-sided hills composed mostly of stratified drift. a. Kettles b. Kames c. Eskers d. Inselbergs ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 511. Which of the following is an example of a glacial deposit? a. horn b. arête c. cirque d. moraine ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 512. Dust storms are most likely to deposit windblown silt, commonly called ________. a. dunes b. loess c. blowout d. desert pavement ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 513. ________ is the process of sand grains bouncing or rolling along the surface. a. Saltation b. Infiltration c. Abrasion d. Deflation ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 514. ________ are long, linear scratch marks carved onto bedrock by glacial abrasion. a. Eskers b. Glacial troughs c. Glacial striations d. Hanging valleys ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 515. Cirques often contain small lakes called ________. a. kettles b. playas c. kames d. tarns ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 516. Greenland's ice sheet covers about ________ of the island. a. 100% b. 80% c. 65% d. 50% ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 517. Cliff retreat along the margins of a plateau produce steep-sided, flat-topped hills called ________. a. mesas b. pinnacles c. bajadas d. deltas ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 518. ________ are features similar to a mesa but smaller. a. Yardangs b. Alluvial fans c. Pinnacles d. Buttes ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 519. ________ are spires of resistant caprock that protect the weaker beds below. a. Mesas b. Pinnacles c. Inselbergs d. Eskers ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 520. Glaciers are part of the ________ and ________ cycles. a. atmospheric; rock b. rock; geothermal c. hydrologic; tectonic d. rock; hydrologic ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 521. During the Last Glacial Maximum, the volume of glacial ice was nearly ________ than at present. a. eight times greater b. four times less c. three times greater d. two times less ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Match the following items with the correct descriptions. a. a discontinuous pattern of intermittent streams that do not flow to the ocean b. a fan-shaped deposit formed when a stream's slope is abruptly reduced c. an apron of sediment along a mountain front created by the coalescence of alluvial fans d. center of basin where streams flow and briefly accumulate before evaporating or infiltrating bedrock e. a dry, flat lake bed f. encrusted salt layer left behind once water evaporates g. large bedrock knobs projecting above a sediment-filled basin h. small mountain ranges separating circular downfolded structures i. a tongue of ice normally flowing rapidly outward from an ice cap or ice sheet, usually through mountainous terrain to the sea j. a very large, thick mass of glacial ice flowing outward in all directions from one or more accumulation centers k. a glacier confined to a mountain valley, which in most instances was previously a stream valley l. a glacier that forms when one or more alpine glaciers emerge from the confining walls of mountain valleys and spread out to create a broad sheet in the lowlands at the base of mountains 522. interior drainage ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 523. alluvial fan ANSWER: b POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 524. bajada ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 525. playa lake ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 526. playa ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 527. salt flat ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 528. inselberg ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 529. basin and range ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 530. outlet glacier ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 531. ice sheet ANSWER: j POINTS: 1 532. alpine glacier (or "valley glacier") ANSWER: k POINTS: 1 533. piedmont glacier ANSWER: l POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the landscape feature with the material from which it is formed. Answers will be used more than once. a. solid rock b. outwash 534. glacial erratic ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 535. cirque ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 536. esker ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 537. horn ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 538. drumlin ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 539. moraine ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 540. Glaciers are powerful agents of erosion and deposition, and during the Quaternary Ice Age, these flowing masses of ice reshaped much of the North American continent. Discuss three of the effects of Ice Age glaciers that are not related to erosion or deposition.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 541. Wind is included along with gravity, water, and ice as an agent of erosion. In many national parks and other areas of natural beauty, statements are often made that credit wind with having sculpted the landscape. Briefly discuss the importance of wind as an agent of erosion and explain why such statements are probably geologically inaccurate.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

542. In a sequence of sedimentary rocks, you find a layer of poorly sorted sedimentary rock that includes many scratched cobbles. Below this layer is a body of granite that has a polished upper surface bearing many striations. How would you interpret such a rock sequence?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

543. Explain the difference between a v-shaped valley and u-shaped valley. Is it possible for a v-shaped valley to form inside a u-shaped valley? Explain your answer below.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

544. Consider a mountain system with three valley glaciers merging into a single, larger ice stream. Predict the number of lateral and medial moraines present before and after the creation of the larger ice stream.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 545. Discuss two ways in which desert pavement could form over time. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 546. What formed this valley's distinctive "U" shape?

a. river erosion b. wind erosion c. dune movement d. glacial erosion ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 547. This cobble shows prominent scratches because ________.

a. it was tumbled in a stream b. it was scraped against other rocks in a glacier c. it was blasted by wind d. this was its shape when it was mechanically weathered from its source rock ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 548. Which of the four lettered positions on this map-view sketch shows the location of the terminal end moraine?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 549. During the Last Glacial Maximum, about 18,000 years ago, sea level was approximately ________ lower than it is today.

a. 40 meters b. 60 meters c. 80 meters d. 100 meters ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 550. Examine the photograph below. What type of depositional feature is shown?

a. cross bedding b. alluvial fan c. esker d. drumlin ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 551. The ________ period of geologic time is depicted in this image.

a. Jurassic b. Quaternary c. Triassic d. Cretaceous ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 552. In the figure shown below, what is the stage of landscape evolution?

a. late stage b. middle stage c. early stage d. Ice Age ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 553. Examine the satellite image of Death Valley, California. A. What province of the United States is it located within? B. Identify the various desert landforms seen there; circle and label them. C. Describe how each one forms. D. Finally, describe the sequence of events that produced this scene over time.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 554. Examine the aerial photograph of Death Valley, California, part of the Basin and Range Province. Note that the western side of Death Valley, up against the Panamint Range, features a well-developed bajada, while the east side of the valley, up against the Amargosa Range, shows only a few isolated alluvial fans. Suggest an explanation for this asymmetry, and how you would test your hypothesis with an investigation on the ground.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 555. An unconformity is a buried ________. a. fault or fracture with older rocks above and younger rocks below b. surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below c. fault or fracture with younger strata above and older strata below d. surface of erosion with older strata above and younger strata below ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 556. Among the following radioactive parent isotopes, which has the shortest half-life? a. uranium-238 b. potassium-40 c. rubidium-87 d. carbon-14 ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 557. ________ is the belief that Earth was shaped by large-scale geologic calamities. a. Evolution b. Absolutism c. Uniformitarianism d. Catastrophism ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 558. "This rock is 15 million years old" is an example of ________. a. a numerical date b. a relative date c. superposition d. the principle of cross-cutting relationships ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 559. The longest subdivision of the geologic time scale is the ________. a. epoch b. eon c. era d. period ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 560. Which of the following radioactive isotopes would be best for age-dating a rock from 50,000 years ago? a. uranium-238 b. carbon-14 c. potassium-40 d. thorium-232 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 561. Why do the eras of the Phanerozoic eon all end with "zoic"? a. They are based on rock called zoisites. b. These names refer to life or living things; they invoke the changes in fossil organisms from one era to the next. c. "Zoic" means "time" in Latin. d. These eras were all first described near the London Zoo, so the names pay tribute to that location. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 562. Who first formulated the principle of uniformitarianism? a. Aristotle b. Lyell c. Steno d. Hutton ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 563. Which of the following geologic observations would bear directly on working out the sequence of geologic events in an area? a. mineral analysis of schist b. grain size comparison between sandstone and shale c. an unconformity between a granite and a sandstone d. the feldspar and quartz contents of a granite ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 564. The principle of ________ is the concept that ancient life forms evolved in a definite order, and therefore, their fossils can help determine the geologic ages of strata. a. superposition b. cross-cutting relationships c. fossil succession d. fossil assemblage ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 565. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of an index fossil? a. The organism lived in a very specific environment or two, such as tropical volcanic islands. b. The organism lived for a very limited period of geologic time. c. The fossils of the organism are exceptionally well preserved. d. The organism lived on the land, not in the ocean. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 566. Using the known rates of radioactive decay to date the crystallization of certain minerals is known as ________ dating. a. conventional b. radiometric c. relative d. fossil assemblage ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 567. The earliest 88% of geologic time is represented by the time span informally called the ________. a. Paleozoic b. Precambrian c. Mesozoic d. Phanerozoic ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 568. Why isn't the Precambrian more finely divided into subdivisions like periods and epochs? a. Fewer and less diverse fossils exist in Precambrian rocks. b. Precambrian rocks don't have radioactive isotopes in them. c. Geologists just don't care about the Precambrian the way they do about more recent time periods. d. The Precambrian lacks the igneous rocks that are most useful for radiometric dating. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 569. Which of the following describes radioactive decay by beta particle emission? a. The atomic number of the daughter isotope is one more than the parent; the mass numbers are the same. b. The daughter isotope has an atomic number one less than the parent and a mass number two less. c. The mass number of the daughter isotope is one more than the parent and both isotopes have the same atomic number. d. The daughter isotope has an atomic number two less than the parent and a mass number four less. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 570. The principle of ________ states in an undeformed sequence of sedimentary rocks each bed is older than the one above and younger than the one below. a. cross-cutting relationships b. lateral continuity c. superposition d. original horizontality ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 571. A worm would stand a poor chance of being fossilized because ________. a. worms were very rare during the geologic past b. worms have no hard parts c. worms contain no carbon-14 d. worms live in the shallow ocean ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 572. Which of the following principles addresses rock fragments being enclosed within another rock layer? a. principle of superposition b. principle of original horizontality c. principle of cross-cutting relationships d. principle of inclusions ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 573. The idea of ________ suggests that the physical, chemical, and biological laws that operate today have also operated in the geologic past. a. evolution b. absolutism c. uniformitarianism d. catastrophism ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 574. A principle by which sedimentary beds originate as continuous layers until they grade into another rock type or thin out is called the ________. a. principle of lateral continuity b. principle of original horizontality c. principle of cross-cutting relationships d. principle of inclusions ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 575. The principle of cross-cutting relationships states that geologic features that cut across rocks most form ________ the rocks they cut through. a. before b. after c. above d. below ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 576. The process by which geologists identify and match sedimentary strata and other rocks of the same ages in different areas is ________. a. paleomagnetism b. extrapolation c. correlation d. interpolation ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 577. The amount of time it takes for half of the remaining radioactive isotopes to decay is the ________ of an isotope system. a. electron capture b. beta emission c. half-life d. alpha emission ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 578. A sandstone is found to overlie a shale. The shale contains a volcanic ash layer that has been radiometrically dated to 84 million years ago. Both the shale and the sandstone are cut by a pluton of gabbro that has been dated to 60 million years old. How old is the sandstone layer? a. between 84 and 60 million years old b. older than 84 millions years old c. younger than 60 million years old d. more information is needed to constrain the age ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 579. Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil? a. petrified wood b. fossil dung c. spider trapped in amber d. carbonization of a bee ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 580. We now live in the ________ era. a. Paleozoic b. Neoproterozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cenozoic ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 581. All of geologic time prior to the beginning of the Paleozoic era is commonly referred to as the ________. a. Precambrian b. Cambrian c. Paleogene d. Jurassic ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 582. Which of the following fossils would be a good example of an index fossil? a. snake b. jellyfish c. frog d. marine microfossils ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 583. During alpha emission, the mass number is reduced by ________ and the atomic number is decreased by ________. a. 2; 4 b. 4; 2 c. 3; 6 d. 6; 4 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 584. After three half-lives, ________ of an original, radioactive, parent isotope remains and the rest has decayed into the daughter isotope. a. 75% or three-fourths (3/4) b. 50% or one-half (1/2) c. 25% or one-fourth (1/4) d. 12.5% or one-eighth (1/8) ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 585. A(n) ________ is an erosional unconformity with parallel beds or strata above and below. a. angular unconformity b. disconformity c. nonconformity d. exconformity ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 586. Most igneous rocks can be dated directly by ________ methods. a. radiometric b. fossil assemblage c. unconformity d. relative ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 587. Which of the following would be the best method for obtaining a numerical age for sedimentary rocks? a. Observe any unconformities within the area. b. Radiometrically age-date metamorphic rocks near the sedimentary rocks. c. Use radioactive isotopes in sediment grains contained within the sedimentary rock. d. Relate the sedimentary rocks to a datable igneous mass, such as a dike or sill. ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 588. Which of the following periods belongs to the Mesozoic era? a. Triassic b. Cambrian c. Paleogene d. Devonian ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 589. One important limitation when using potassium-argon for age-dating is that ________. a. potassium decays twice as fast as other isotopes b. potassium can only age-date rocks younger than 70,000 years old c. argon is a gas and may leak from minerals, throwing off measurements d. argon is unstable at surface conditions and easily weathered from rocks ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 590. A set of fossil organisms found together in a given layer is called a(n) ________. a. fossil succession b. fossil assemblage c. index fossil d. microfossils ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 591. The scientific study of fossils is called ________. a. seismology b. stratigraphy c. petrology d. paleontology ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 592. Which of the following is an example of a nonconformity? a. shale sitting atop granite b. volcanic ash deposited on conglomerate c. lava flow sitting atop schist d. shale sitting atop sandstone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 593. You notice preserved ripple marks in the mountains, then later at the beach you see ripple marks forming in the sand. Which of the following best describes how the ripple marks in the mountain formed? a. deformation b. stratigraphic correlation c. uniformitarianism d. catastrophism ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 594. A section of marine sediments is uplifted, folded, and then overlain by sandstone. What is the name of the resulting feature? a. nonconformity b. angular unconformity c. disconformity d. intrusion ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 595. ________ occurs when mineral-rich groundwater permeates porous tissue and fills the empty spaces, hardening into a fossil. a. Correlation b. Radioactive decay c. Carbonization d. Permineralization ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 596. To calculate the age of a rock, you need to know the parent-daughter isotope ratio and ________. a. the half-life of a radioactive isotope b. the composition of the parent rock c. the area in which the rock was deposited d. the sequence of depositional events ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 597. ________ is the branch of geology that studies rock layers. a. Petrology b. Seismology c. Stratigraphy d. Paleontology ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 598. The shortest subdivision of the geologic time scale is the ________. a. epoch b. eon c. era d. period ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the fossil with the correct mode of fossilization. a. silica replacement of a tree b. replica of the surface of fish in mud c. spider trapped in tree sap d. residue of carbon remains of a fossil insect e. seashell is buried in sediment then dissolved f. hollow spaces that fill with mud or mineral matter g. deer footprints preserved in soft sediment, later turned into rock 599. permineralization ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 600. impression ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 601. amber ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 602. carbonization ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 603. mold ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 604. cast ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 605. tracks ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 Match the following examples with the correct geologic principle/event. a. Sandstone outcrop is submerged underwater, then overlain by shale. b. Conglomerate sits atop a granite intrusion. c. Marine shale sits atop folded strata. d. Undeformed sequence of sandstone on bottom, shale in the middle, and conglomerate on top. e. Rock layers have been tilted or folded, are not lying flat. Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L f. Continuous layer of shale eventually thins out, grading into sandstone. g. Igneous dike intrudes into a sequence of sandstone, shale, and limestone. h. Sandstone sits atop a granite intrusion and pieces of the granite are contained within the sandstone. i. Trilobite is used to match shale units across an ocean basin. 606. disconformity ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 607. nonconformity ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 608. angular unconformity ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 609. principle of superposition ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 610. principle of original horizontality ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 611. principle of lateral continuity ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 612. principle of cross-cutting relationships ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 613. principle of inclusions ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 614. principle of fossil succession ANSWER: i POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 615. Compare and contrast relative age dating with radiometric age dating. What is a limitation (if any) of each? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

616. Is carbon-14 an appropriate isotope for dating the metamorphic rocks at the bottom of the Grand Canyon? Explain.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

617. Compare the doctrine of catastrophism with the doctrine of uniformitarianism.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

618. Explain the difficulty in using sedimentary and metamorphic rocks for radiometric age dating.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 619. Why are the Archean and Proterozoic Eras not divided into smaller units like the Cenozoic Era? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

620. Discuss two different examples of uniformitarianism. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 621. What sequence of events would have to occur in order to produce the unconformity shown here?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

622. Examine the geologic time scale shown here. Which is the longest-lasting period of geologic time? Which is the shortest period? Why should these periods differ so much in duration?

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______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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623. Examine the geologic cross section and describe the order of all the geologic events that can be depicted from this image. Don't limit yourself to merely the lettered rock units; include episodes of folding and erosion, too. Use descriptive geologic verbs like "deposition" and "intrusion" rather than simply saying the "rock unit J was formed."

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 624. How would you figure out if rock unit A or rock unit D formed first, or if they coincided?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 625. If numerical dating of rock unit A gave a crystallization age of 1.2 billion years, and numerical dating of rock unit F gave a crystallization age of 500 million years, then how old is rock unit E?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 626. The white arrow in this cross-section points to an unconformity (black line). What kind of unconformity is it?

a. disconformity b. angular unconformity c. nonconformity d. dike ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 627. Examine the geologic time scale shown here. Which is the earliest period listed in the Mesozoic?

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a. Cambrian b. Permian c. Triassic d. Cretaceous Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 628. Examine the figure that shows the sequence of strata in three Colorado Plateau national parks. Which unit(s) are shared by Grand Canyon National Park and Zion National Park?

a. Toroweap and Kaibab b. Kaibab and Monekopi c. Moenkopi and Chinle d. Kaibab only ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 629. Use the geologic cross section to determine the age of rock layer D as precisely as possible.

a. It is 40 million years old. b. It is between 39 million years old and 25 million years old. c. It is between 39 million years old and 17 million years old. d. It is older than 17 million years old. ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 630. The strata shown on the left can be correlated with which of the units on the right?

a. Q, O, P, N b. D, C, B, A c. M, L, K, J d. J, I, H, G ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 631. How does the average depth of the oceans compare to the average elevation of the continents? a. The oceans are hundreds of times deeper on average than the continents' average elevation. b. The continents stick up above sea level by about the same vertical distance that the ocean floor is below sea level. c. The ocean floors are about four times as deep, on average, than the average elevation of the continents above sea level. d. The ocean floors are higher in elevation than the continents' average distance below sea level. ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 632. Which one of the following is part of the continental margin? a. continental shelf b. deep-sea fan c. accretionary wedge d. continental trench ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 633. Which of the following would be associated with turbidity currents? a. deposits of graded beds b. subduction erosion c. erosion of accretionary wedge d. formation of seamounts ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 634. Seamounts ________. a. are a special type of oceanic trench b. are volcanoes that form on the ocean floor c. form only in the Pacific Ocean basin d. are submarine canyons found near Australia ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 635. Which of the following is associated with oceanic ridges? a. accretionary wedge b. anticlines c. reverse faults d. rift zones ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 636. Bones and teeth are an example of ________ sediment. a. terrigenous b. biogenous c. hydrogenous d. manganesogenous ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 637. The gently sloping submerged surface extending from the shoreline toward the deep ocean is termed the ________. a. submarine canyon b. continental shelf c. continental slope d. continental rise ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 638. The crests of mid-oceanic ridges ________. a. are heavily mantled with sediment b. are geologically old features c. contain active rift zones d. lie at depths exceeding 6 kilometers ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 639. ________ develop where oceanic lithosphere bends downward and sinks into the mantle. a. Guyots b. Deep-ocean trenches c. Submarine canyons d. Oceanic ridges ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 640. An echo sounder operates by measuring the time required for ________. a. a sound pulse to travel from a ship to the seafloor and back b. a laser beam to travel from a ship to the seafloor and back c. a radar pulse to travel from a ship to the seafloor and back d. a radar pulse to travel from a satellite in orbit around Earth to the sea surface and back ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 641. Ocean covers approximately ________ percent of Earth's surface. a. 11 b. 51 c. 71 d. 91 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 642. The ________ Ocean is largest; the ________ Ocean is smallest. a. Pacific; Arctic b. Atlantic; Indian c. Pacific; Indian d. Arctic; Atlantic ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 643. Which element is most commonly dissolved in seawater? a. sodium b. chlorine c. magnesium d. gold ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 644. Where is the continental rise? a. at the top of a mid-ocean ridge b. at the top of the continental slope c. between an abyssal plain and the continental slope d. at the seaward edge of a deep ocean trench ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 645. The primary reason for the elevated position of the ridge system is ________. a. uplift and erosion of continental lithosphere b. slab-pull of colder, less dense oceanic lithosphere c. newly created oceanic lithosphere is hot and less dense than cooler rocks of the deep-ocean basin d. oceanic lithosphere is subsiding over time ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 646. How many seconds would it take an echo sounder's ping to make the trip from a ship to the Challenger Deep (10,994 meters) and back? Recall that depth = 1/2 (1500 m/sec × Echo travel time). a. 0.1466 seconds b. 1.466 seconds c. 14.66 seconds d. 146.6 seconds ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 647. Where would you go to find "black smokers" (deep-sea hydrothermal vents)? a. deep-ocean trench b. oceanic ridge c. guyot d. continental rise ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 648. No thermocline exists in high-latitude regions because there is little temperature difference between the top and bottom of the water column. In such a situation the water column is said to be ________. a. isothermal b. multithermal c. clinothermal d. pycnoclinal ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 649. What kind of seawater is densest? a. warm, low salinity b. warm, high salinity c. cold, low salinity d. cold, high salinity ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 650. At low latitudes, the ________ is a zone of rapid temperature change over a relatively short depth. It is associated with a similar depth zone marked by a change in density, called the ________. a. thermocline; pycnocline b. pycnocline; thermocline c. thermocline; isotherm d. isotherm; pycnocline ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 651. Where does an accretionary wedge form? a. deep-ocean trench b. oceanic ridge c. seamount d. continental rise ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 652. ________ is the proportion of dissolved salts to pure water. a. Pycnocline b. Salinity c. Density d. Subduction ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 653. The principal source of water in the oceans and the atmosphere is by the process of ________. a. outgassing b. convection c. evaporation d. transpiration ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 654. Minerals that crystallize directly from seawater are examples of ________ sediment. a. biogenous b. terrigenous c. hydrogenous d. lithogenous ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 655. The oceanic ridge system is the ________ topographic feature on Earth. a. shortest b. longest c. youngest d. oldest ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 656. Attraction of seawater to submarine features like seamounts and oceanic ridges is due to ________; it results in areas where the surface of the ocean bulges upward by a small amount. a. gravity b. dissolution c. subduction d. convection ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 657. A prominent feature of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a very deep linear valley known as a(n) ________. a. abyssal plain b. trench c. continental rise d. rift valley ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 658. A pile of clam shells is an example of ________ sediment. a. biogenous b. terrigenous c. hydrogenous d. lithogenous ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 659. Valleys that lead from the continental shelf into deeper waters are known as ________. Typically, we find ________ along the continental rise at the bottom of these valleys. a. deep-ocean trench; accretionary wedge b. submarine canyons; deep-sea fans c. seamount; guyots d. continental rise; continental shelf ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 660. ________ continental margins typically exhibit wide, extensive, continental shelves. a. Passive b. Active c. Lateral d. Transverse ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 661. ________ continental margins occur where oceanic lithosphere is being subducted beneath the edge of a continent. a. Passive b. Active c. Lateral d. Transverse ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 662. High salinity values in ocean water are due to ________. a. higher evaporation rates b. lower evaporation rates c. higher longitudes d. lower longitudes ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 663. The area of the ocean that experiences the lowest density water occurs in the ________. a. surface mixed zone b. transition zone c. deep zone d. ocean floor ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 664. A ________ marks the site where old, oceanic lithosphere begins its descent into a subduction zone. a. deep-ocean trench b. submarine canyons c. seamount d. continental rise ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 665. A rising mantle plume may be responsible for the vast outpouring of lava associated with a(n) ________. a. continental slope b. mid-ocean ridge c. trench d. oceanic plateau ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 666. As basalt forms at the mid-ocean ridge, which of the following is correct? a. The basalt cools, expands, and becomes less dense. b. The basalt cools, contracts, and becomes more dense. c. The basalt melts, expands, and becomes less dense. d. The basalt melts, contracts, and becomes more dense. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 667. ________ is the measurement of ocean depths and the charting of the topography of the ocean floor. a. Photometry b. Altimetry c. Bathymetry d. Radiometry ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 668. Which of the following processes will increase salinity? a. runoff from land b. formation of sea ice c. precipitation d. iceberg melting ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 669. The sediment found in the Mississippi River Delta is an example of ________. a. biogenous sediment b. terrigenous sediment c. hydrogenous sediment d. lithogenous sediment ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 670. The Southern Hemisphere contains approximately ________ land compared to ________ in the Northern Hemisphere. a. 81%; 61% b. 19%; 39% c. 73%; 24% d. 8%; 57% ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 671. Which of the following processes would decrease the amount of salinity in seawater? a. icebergs melting b. evaporation c. formation of sea ice d. global temperature increase ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 672. When high-density seawater is added to low-density freshwater, ________. a. the two types of water mix evenly together b. the less dense freshwater sinks below the seawater c. the denser seawater sinks below the freshwater d. the freshwater evaporates leaving the seawater behind ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 673. The ________ accounts for approximately 80 percent of ocean water. a. surface mixed layer b. transition zone c. deep zone d. lateral zone ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 674. The main difference between a seamount and a guyot is ________. a. seamounts are flat b. guyots are flat c. guyots may become oceanic islands d. seamounts are rare ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 675. Turbidity currents carry sediments into submarine canyons which may eventually produce ________. a. deltas b. accretionary wedges c. deep-sea fans d. alluvial fans ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 676. The ________ contains 33 percent more dissolved solids and is almost ________ times saltier than seawater. a. Great Salt Lake; 8 b. Dead Sea; 10 c. Aral Sea; 5 d. Great Lakes; 3 ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 677. One fathom equals ________. a. 10 meters b. 5.5 meters c. 3 meters d. 1.8 meters ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the sediment type with the correct sediment formed. a. hydrogenous sediment b. terrigenous sediment c. biogenous sediment 678. precipitation of manganese nodules ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 679. wind-blown sediment from deserts ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 680. diatom decomposition ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 681. hot water vents associated with mid-ocean ridges ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 682. sediment transported by icebergs ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 683. calcareous ooze ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 684. volcano ash from continental-oceanic collision ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 685. calcium carbonate formation in warm waters ANSWER: a POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the deep-ocean feature with the correct definition. a. very level area of the deep-ocean floor typically lying at the foot of the continental rise b. submerged, flat-topped seamount c. portion of the seafloor between the continental margin and oceanic ridge; comprises 30 percent of Earth's surface d. subduction of oceanic lithosphere beneath a continent e. submarine volcanoes f. extensive region of the ocean floor with thick accumulation of pillow basalts and other mafic rocks g. long, narrow troughs located along subduction zones h. subduction of oceanic lithosphere beneath oceanic lithosphere 686. abyssal plain ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 687. guyot ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 688. deep-ocean basin ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 689. continental volcanic arc ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 690. seamounts ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 691. ocean plateau ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 692. deep-ocean trench ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 693. volcanic island arc ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 694. Compare and contrast the three types of seafloor sediments, and give an example of each.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

695. Why doesn't the sea get saltier over time?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

696. Imagine that a helicopter drops you off on an island. You look north and south and see a long line of active volcanic islands poking up above the ocean's waves. At what sort of plate boundary are you likely to be? What is one way that you could test this interpretation to see if it is valid?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

697. Sketch a cross-section through a continent that has an active margin on one side and a passive margin on the other side. Label relevant features and briefly (one or two sentences) describe what distinguishes the two kinds of continental margins.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 698. Where would you suggest we explore for oil: on a passive continental margin or an active margin? Explain.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

699. Explain how sound energy is used to measure water depths and map the ocean floor.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

700. Explain how an accretionary wedge forms and how this feature differs from subduction zone erosion.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

701. Explain the main difference between continental volcanic arcs and volcanic island arcs. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 702. Consider this scenario: You are hired as the sonar technician on an oceanographic research vessel. The ship is moving at a constant speed on a linear survey. Your echo-sounding equipment gives you the following dataset over the course of the 170-km transect: Distance traveled 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 120 130 140 150 160 170 (km) Echo sounder round0 trip travel time 6 5.5 6 6 5.5 6 6 6 6 7 11 13 8 6 6 5.5 land (seconds) Recall that the average speed of sound waves in water is 1500 meters per second. What submarine feature has been documented by this data? Interpret the dataset as fully as possible.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 703. The map shows the bathymetry of the ocean floor off the coast of Los Angeles, California. Note the prominent submarine canyon on the continental shelf and slope. How was this feature likely generated?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 704. Examine the graph. At what latitude does the graph show more land than water? Choose from the following options.

a. between 45° and 70° north b. between 0° and 5° north c. between 25° and 30° south d. between 60° and 65° south ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 705. Examine the graph. At what latitude do we find the maximum salinity?

a. 65° north b. 25° north c. both 25° north and south d. 5° south ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 706. Which of the four lettered locations in this figure shows a guyot?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 707. Which of the following is correct regarding a wave in the open ocean? a. Water particles move vertically in circular orbital motion. b. Water particles move in a straight line, in the same direction that the wave is moving. c. Water particles move in a straight line, in the opposite direction from that the wave is moving. d. Water particles move in an almost circular horizontal path. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 708. When waves reach shallow water they tend to be ________, which makes them become parallel to the shore. a. reflected b. refracted c. translated d. eroded ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 709. When a wave is too steep to support itself, the wave front collapses creating a ________ that advances up the shoreline. a. trough b. fetch c. swell d. break ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 710. Waves begin to "feel bottom" when the depth of water is ________. a. equal to one-half the wavelength b. equal to the wavelength c. twice as great as the wavelength d. equal to the fetch ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 711. Longshore currents and beach drift ________. a. move in opposite directions b. both have net movement that is parallel to the shore c. are oriented at 90° to each other d. are found only in deep water, and never close to the shore ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 712. You visit a coastal area for the first time. You note the presence of marine terraces, sea stacks, and sea arches. Based on these features, the area is likely to be ________. a. experiencing a spring tide b. in need of beach nourishment c. an emergent coast d. a submergent coast ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 713. Which of the following shoreline features is a result of erosion? a. spit b. estuary c. tombolo d. sea arch ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 714. Daily changes in the elevation of the ocean surface are called ________. a. sea arches b. tidal flats c. tombolos d. tides ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 715. One result of wave refraction is that wave energy is concentrated ________. a. on headlands projecting into the water b. on tombolos c. in bays, coves, and other recessed areas between headlands d. on spits ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 716. Waves approaching a beach at an oblique angle ________. a. cause beach drift b. cause hard stabilization c. cause coasts to switch from submergence to emergence d. make tides rise and fall ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 717. Which of the following shoreline features is a result of deposition? a. barrier island b. sea stack c. wave-cut platform d. marine terrace ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 718. Fetch is ________. a. a method of shoreline erosion control b. the distance between the trough of a wave and the still water level c. the circular pattern made by water particles when a wave passes d. the distance over which the wind blows over open water ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 719. One disadvantage of beach nourishment as compared to hard stabilization is ________. a. beach nourishment is permanent b. hard stabilization may increase erosion c. beach nourishment is expensive d. hard stabilization makes the coast more scenic for recreation ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 720. Which of the following is an example of "hard stabilization" designed to prevent or retard shoreline erosion? a. sea arch b. spit c. tombolo d. groin ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 721. ________ are huge circular-moving current systems that dominate the surface of the ocean within an ocean basin. a. Tombolos b. Gyres c. Coriolis d. Upwellings ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 722. The center of each of Earth's five major gyres is found at about ________ latitude. a. 0° (the equator) b. 30° c. 60° d. 90° ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 723. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis effect causes surface currents in the ocean to be deflected slightly ________ compared to the winds that cause them. a. to the left b. to the right c. to the north d. to the south ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 724. The energy that drives surface ocean currents such as the Gulf Stream comes from ________. a. the Coriolis effect b. salinity variations c. temperature differences d. prevailing wind patterns ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 725. The daily tidal range is of the least magnitude during ________. a. the daytime b. spring tides c. neap tides d. slack water ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 726. Erosional retreat of a ________ leads to enlargement and extension of a wave-cut platform in the inland direction. a. wave-cut cliff b. marine terrace c. sea arch d. spit ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 727. Large estuaries are more common on a(n) ________ coastline. a. emergent b. submergent c. stable d. eroding ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 728. A ________ is an isolated remnant of bedrock standing above a wave-cut platform. a. sea arch b. sea stack c. marine terrace d. wave-cut cliff ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 729. Upwelling, the rising of water from deeper layers of the ocean, is a wind-induced movement that brings ________ water to the surface. a. cold, nutrient-rich b. cold, nutrient-poor c. warm, nutrient-rich d. warm, nutrient-poor ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 730. The vertical distance between trough and crest is called the ________. a. wave height b. wavelength c. wave period d. wave motion ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 731. The ________ is the only current that completely encircles the Earth. a. South Equatorial Current b. North Equatorial Current c. East Wind Drift d. West Wind Drift ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 732. A shoreline is a(n) ________, a common boundary where different parts of a system interact. a. fetch b. interface c. marine terrace d. tombolo ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 733. Turbulent water created by breaking waves is known as ________. a. fetch b. interface c. surf d. wave refraction ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 734. ________ is the grinding or scraping of a rock surface by the friction and impact of rock particles carried by water. a. Abrasion b. Plucking c. Scouring d. Shocking ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 735. Breakwaters, sea walls, and groins are all examples of ________. a. beach nourishment b. hard stabilization c. beach erosion d. tombolos ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 736. As a deep-water wave enters shallow water, the part of the wave in the shallowest water slows down. The deeper-water portion of the wave crest keeps moving at a relatively rapid speed. This wave refraction causes the entire wave crest to progressively rotate toward being ________ with the shoreline. a. eroded b. oblique c. perpendicular d. parallel ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 737. If uplift of the land occurs, a wave-cut platform may become a new ________. a. wave-cut cliff b. marine terrace c. sea arch d. spit ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 738. ________ is the rising of cold water from deeper layers to replace warmer surface water. a. Sublimation b. Upwelling c. Contraction d. Wave refraction ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 739. Because deep-ocean circulation is driven largely by variations in water temperature and salinity, it is also called ________ circulation. a. anaerobic b. hydrothermal c. thermohaline d. hypoxic ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 740. ________ are low-lying zones that are alternately covered by water during flood tide and exposed following ebb tide. a. Neap tides b. Tidal deltas c. Tidal flats d. Ebb deltas ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 741. A(n) ________ is a place where fresh and salt water mix, such as a drowned river valley along a submergent coast. a. spit b. estuary c. emergent coast d. submergent coast ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 742. If a spit grows as it is deposited and extends completely across the former mouth of an estuary, separating it from the open sea, it has become a ________. a. sea stack b. barrier island c. tombolo d. baymouth bar ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 743. The fog banks that occur in the Atacama Desert are formed from ________. a. cold currents that cause temperatures to reach the dew point b. warm currents that cause temperatures to reach the dew point c. low humidity d. cold and warm currents that merge ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 744. An increase in seawater density can be caused by ________. a. a decrease in temperature and salinity b. either a decrease in temperature or an increase in salinity c. an increase in temperature and salinity d. either an increase in temperature or a decrease in salinity ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 745. When ocean waves grow so tall they topple over, they form ocean breakers called ________. a. spits b. swells c. whitecaps d. arches ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 746. An accumulation of sediment found along the landward margin of the ocean or lake is called a ________. a. beach b. marine terrace c. tombolo d. sea stack ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 747. Which of the following is an erosional feature associated with shorelines? a. baymouth bar b. spit c. tombolo d. wave-cut platform ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 748. A ________ is a barrier built at a right angle to the beach to trap sand that is moving parallel to the shore. a. spit b. groin c. breakwater d. seawall ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 749. A ________ is a structure designed to protect boats from large breaking waves by creating a quiet-water zone near shore. a. spit b. groin c. breakwater d. seawall ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the shoreline feature with the correct description. a. a ridge of sand that connects an island to the mainland or another island b. an elongated ridge of sand that projects from the land into the mouth of an adjacent bay c. an isolated mass of rock standing just offshore, produced by wave erosion of a headland d. a bench of shelf in the bedrock at sea level, cut by erosion e. a feature that forms by wave erosion when caves on opposite sides of a headland unite f. a low, elongated ridge of sand that parallels the coast g. a wave-cut platform exposed above sea level h. a sandbar that completely crosses a bay, sealing it off from the ocean 750. tombolo ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 751. spit ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 752. sea stack ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 753. wave-cut platform ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 754. sea arch ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 755. barrier island ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 756. marine terrace ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 757. baymouth bar ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the wave characteristic with the correct description. a. top of a wave b. depressions that occur between crests c. area between crests and troughs that water would occupy if there were no waves d. vertical distance between trough and crest e. horizontal distance between successive crests or troughs f. time required for one full wave to pass a fixed position g. turbulent sheet of water from collapsing breakers that moves up the slope of the beach h. water flowing back down the beach toward the surf zone 758. crest ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 759. trough ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 760. still water level ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 761. wave height ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 762. wavelength ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 763. wave period ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 764. swash ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 765. backwash ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 766. Describe some of the options available to people when it comes to coping with erosion along shorelines.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

767. Fossil fuels are a cheap way to make electricity, but burning them generates greenhouse gases. Nuclear power produces a lot of low-carbon energy, but nuclear accidents may release dangerous radioactivity. Windmills generate electricity from the movement of air currents, but the wind doesn't always blow. In light of all these "down sides" to energy production, consider how you might harness longshore currents to produce electricity. Describe your plan in detail, and sketch out how it would work. What might be some of the potential drawbacks to your plan?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

768. Explain how cold current systems in the Pacific Ocean influence climate in South America.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

769. Describe the motion of a boat at sea as a wave approaches and passes.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 770. Compare and contrast emergent versus submergent coasts and provide examples of each type.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

771. Imagine you are sailing in a yacht across the Caribbean. You have to sail through a shallow lagoon in order to reach port at an island ahead of you. It is night time, and you look up to observe a "quarter moon," such as the one pictured here. You know that the lagoon is only safely navigable at high tide during the spring tide. Should you keep going tonight, or should you wait for a better time? (If so, when?)

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 772. Examine the map shown here. You are considering buying property "C" on this stretch of coastline. Before signing the contract on the property, you hear that the owners of property "B" are considering building a groin like their neighbors recently did on property "A." Should you reconsider your purchase? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 773. Climate change is particularly acute in the Arctic. Some scientists are concerned about the melting of the Greenland ice sheet because the extra water will cause the sea level to rise around the globe. However, another concern is related to the thermohaline "conveyer belt" of ocean circulation. How might the melting of the Greenland ice sheet cause changes to that pattern of currents?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 774. Examine the figure and use the information provided there to explain the different temperature trends seen in Arica and Rio de Janeiro.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 775. Examine the figure. Of the three forms of hard stabilization illustrated here, which one is the groin?

a. A b. B c. C ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 776. Examine the map shown in the figure. If you were to go swimming in the ocean along this shoreline, which way would the longshore current carry you?

a. east b. west c. north d. south ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 777. What type of feature is shown in the photograph below?

a. marine trench b. sea arch c. tombolo d. barrier island ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 778. Air is best described as ________. a. an element b. a compound c. a mixture of gases, with solid particles and liquid droplets in it d. a mixture of gases only ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 779. Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? a. carbon dioxide b. ozone c. oxygen d. nitrogen ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 780. How is climate different from weather? a. Climate is "average weather." b. Climate is the sum of all statistical weather information that helps describe a region. c. Climate cannot change, but weather changes frequently. d. They are the same thing. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 781. Sea salts from breaking waves, fine soil blown into the air, smoke and soot from wildfires, pollen and microorganisms lifted by the wind, and ash from volcanic eruptions are all examples of ________. a. greenhouse gases b. aerosols c. elements d. radiosondes ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 782. The amount of water vapor in the air is called ________. a. latent heat b. ozone c. aerosols d. humidity ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 783. Dust in the atmosphere is responsible for which of the following? a. reflection of solar energy b. acting as a catalyst for cloud destruction c. ozone formation d. increase in water vapor ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 784. Even though ground-level ozone is a health hazard, the "ozone layer" in the stratosphere is a health benefit because ________. a. it stops global warming b. it reduces thunderstorms c. it screens out some harmful solar radiation d. it absorbs certain wavelengths of infrared radiation that are emitted by Earth's surface ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 785. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the ________. a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. ionosphere d. mesosphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 786. The boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere is called the ________. a. tropopause b. stratopause c. ionopause d. mesopause ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 787. Approximately how many kilometers (miles) above Earth's surface does the atmosphere end and outer space begin? a. 47 kilometers (30 miles) b. 82 kilometers (52 miles) c. 145 kilometers (90 miles) d. There is no clearly defined upper limit to the atmosphere; it gradually fades into space. ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 788. Which of the following locations would have the lowest average air pressure? a. summit of Mount Everest, tallest mountain on Earth b. Dead Sea, Israel, lowest point on Earth's land surface c. Challenger Deep, Mariana Trench, lowest point in the ocean d. sea level, anywhere on the planet ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 789. The temperature decrease in the troposphere is called the ________. a. solar heating b. global warming c. environmental lapse rate d. ozone depletion ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 790. Weather is ultimately driven by ________. a. geothermal heat b. energy input from the sun c. radioactive decay d. environmental lapse rate ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 791. ________ is when Earth is closest to the sun, whereas the farthest point is called ________. a. Aphelion; perihelion b. Perihelion; aphelion c. Fall equinox; summer solstice d. Winter solstice; spring equinox ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 792. The line separating the dark half of Earth from the lighted half is called ________. a. the Tropic of Capricorn b. the Tropic of Cancer c. the inclination of the axis d. the circle of illumination ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 793. ________ is energy possessed by a material arising from the internal motions of its atoms or molecules. a. Heat b. Starlight c. Gravity d. Pressure ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 794. Energy from the sun reaches Earth through ________. a. convection b. conduction c. radiation d. gravity ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 795. Solar radiation is ________, as compared to the ________ emitted by Earth. a. long-wave radiation; short-wave radiation b. short-wave radiation; long-wave radiation c. infrared radiation; visible light d. heat; electromagnetic radiation ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 796. The fraction of the total radiation that is reflected by a surface is ________. a. its albedo b. a larger proportion than is absorbed by the surface c. the same no matter what Earth material we examine d. immediately scattered by the atmosphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 797. The storage of heat in the lower layer of the atmosphere due to certain gases absorbing heat is called ________. a. adiabatic cooling b. radiosonde c. scattering d. the greenhouse effect ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 798. It is believed the most prominent means by which humans add CO2 to the atmosphere is by ________. a. the burning of coal and other fossil fuels b. renewable energy c. nuclear electric power d. solar power ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 799. When calculating basic temperature data, the difference between the highest and lowest monthly means is called ________. a. the daily range b. the annual temperature range c. the monthly mean d. the annual mean ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 800. Temperatures drop an average of ________ per kilometer in the troposphere. a. 10°C b. 8.8°C c. 7.3°C d. 6.5°C ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 801. The annual temperature range at most latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere is much smaller than that in the Northern Hemisphere. The reason is that ________. a. Earth is closest to the sun during the Southern Hemisphere summer b. rainfall and cloudiness are greater in the Southern Hemisphere c. there is a greater percentage of water surface in the Southern Hemisphere d. a greater proportion of the land surface is mountainous in the Southern Hemisphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 802. All places at the same ________ have identical angles of sunlight and lengths of daylight. a. latitude b. longitude c. climate d. location ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 803. Reflected light bounces back from a surface at the same angle at which it strikes that surface and with the same ________. a. albedo b. reflection c. absorption d. intensity ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 804. On a map, lines connecting points of equal temperature are ________. a. isogrades b. isotherms c. contour lines d. temperature gradients ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 805. Closely spaced isotherms indicate a high ________. a. daily range b. annual temperature range c. temperature gradient d. annual mean ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 806. Ozone is concentrated in the middle part of the ________. a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. ionosphere d. mesosphere ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 807. The form of oxygen that combines three atoms of oxygen into each molecule is ________. a. ozone b. dioxygen c. carbon monoxide d. carbon dioxide ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 808. Located adjacent to red on the electromagnetic spectrum, and having a longer wavelength, is ________ radiation, which we cannot see but which we can detect as heat. This is an important wavelength for the greenhouse effect, because its wavelength is blocked by greenhouse gases. a. ultraviolet b. infrared c. microwave d. gamma ray ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 809. Carbon dioxide and ________ are the most important heat absorbing gases in the lower atmosphere. a. carbon monoxide b. argon c. nitrogen d. water vapor ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 810. The monthly ________ temperature is calculated by adding together the daily means for each day of the month and dividing by the number of days in the month. a. daily range b. mean c. isotherm d. specific heat ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 811. Which of the following gases is the greatest absorber of energy emitted by Earth? a. oxygen (O2) b. argon (Ar) c. carbon dioxide (CO2) d. carbon monoxide (CO) ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 812. Above the stratosphere is a layer called the ________ where temperatures decrease with an increase in altitude. a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. ionosphere d. mesosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 813. The most important elements of weather and climate (quantities or properties that are measured regularly) are (1) air temperature, (2) ________, (3) type and amount of cloudiness, (4) type and amount of precipitation, (5) air ________, and (6) the speed and direction of the wind. a. weather; climate b. humidity; pressure c. location; humidity d. latitude; longitude ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 814. A day of the year when the length of the night is equal to the length of the day is known as a(n) ________. a. albedo b. reflection c. solstice d. equinox ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 815. The tilt of Earth's axis from the perpendicular to the plane of Earth's axis is called ________. a. the inclination of axis b. the circle of illumination c. winter solstice d. spring equinox ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 816. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat? a. water b. rocks c. metal d. air ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 817. The process of ________ explains how warm, less dense air is replaced with cooler, denser air masses. a. subduction b. conduction c. visi d. invection ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 818. The process where light bounces back from an object at the same angle it was received without being absorbed or scattered is called ________. a. reflection b. refraction c. albedo d. diffused light ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 819. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance 1°C at sea level atmospheric pressure is called ________. a. the temperature gradient b. the isotherm c. the temperature control d. the specific heat ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 820. Latent heat, or hidden heat, is transported by ________ in the atmosphere. a. aerosols b. nitrogen c. water vapor d. dust ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 821. Which of the following contributes to cloud and fog formation? a. aerosols b. circle of illumination c. conduction d. argon ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 822. Which of the following layers is farthest away from the surface of Earth? a. troposphere b. thermosphere c. stratosphere d. mesosphere ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 823. The parallel of latitude, 23½° north latitude, marking the northern limit of the sun's vertical rays is called ________. a. the Tropic of Capricorn b. the Tropic of Cancer c. the inclination of the axis d. the circle of illumination ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 824. The parallel of latitude, 23½° south latitude, marking the southern limit of the sun's vertical rays is called ________. a. the Tropic of Capricorn b. the Tropic of Cancer c. the inclination of the axis d. the circle of illumination ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 825. Another name for "white light" is ________, which is radiation with a wavelength from 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers. a. microwaves b. diffused light c. visible light d. long radio waves ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 826. ________ is the scientific study of the atmosphere and the phenomena called ________. a. Bathymetry; humidity b. Meteorology; climate c. Aerosols; isotherms d. Meteorology; weather ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 827. Energy associated with an object by virtue of its motion is described as ________ energy. a. kinetic b. destructive c. potential d. productive ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 828. Which of the following is the best example of potential energy? a. wind in a hurricane b. large hailstones suspended by an updraft c. gravel flowing in a stream d. dust particles blowing across a desert ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 829. ________ is the transfer of heat through molecular collisions from one molecule to another. a. Convection b. Radiation c. Conduction d. Albedo ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 830. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is responsible for sunburns? a. gamma waves b. infrared radiation c. ultraviolet radiation d. microwaves ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the parts of the atmosphere with the correct description. a. lowest layer of the atmosphere, where we live b. concentrated ozone causes temperatures to rise in this region of the atmosphere c. third layer of the atmosphere, temperatures approach -90°C (-130°F) d. part of atmosphere where temperatures increase (more than 1000°C) due to absorption of very shortwave solar energy by oxygen e. boundary between troposphere and stratosphere f. boundary between stratosphere and mesosphere g. boundary between mesosphere and thermosphere 831. troposphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 832. stratosphere ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 833. mesosphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 834. thermosphere ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 835. tropopause ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 836. stratopause ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 837. mesopause ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the air temperature data with the correct descriptions. a. difference between the highest and lowest monthly temperature means b. average of the 12 monthly temperature means c. statistic calculated by adding the daily means then dividing by the number of days for the month d. difference between the maximum and minimum temperature readings for a day e. statistic determined by averaging hourly readings (maximum and minimum temperatures for a day) 838. annual temperature range ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 839. annual mean temperature ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 840. monthly mean temperature ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 841. daily temperature range ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 842. daily mean temperature ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 843. Explain the discrepancy between someone who looks at the sun at noon and goes blind as a result, and another person in the same spot, who watches the sunset a few hours later with satisfaction, a sense of relaxation, and no ill effects whatsoever.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 844. Compare and contrast weather and climate.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

845. Imagine you are hired by NASA to help plan for a new "rover" mission to Mars. Your supervisors learn that you have been trained in Earth science, and they ask you to consider solar panels as a source of energy for many of the rover's instruments while it is on the Martian surface. Using your knowledge of seasons and temperatures here on Earth as a model, briefly outline the factors what would influence solar radiation on the Martian surface.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

846. Explain how the sun's radiant energy interacts with Earth's atmosphere and land-sea surface processes. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

847. Explain how ozone is formed in the atmosphere and why it is crucial for the survival of land-dwelling organisms.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 848. Discuss the factors that may influence how land and water heat and cool differently.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

849. Discuss some possible consequences if carbon dioxide (CO2) levels were to rise 100 percent in the next 100 years.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 850. Examine the graph. Note that the explanatory label indicates that during the Northern Hemisphere summer, CO2 concentrations decrease because plants consume that gas during photosynthesis. But when it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere. When it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere. Why doesn't the Southern Hemisphere summer show this same CO2 drawdown?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

851. Compare and contrast the two maps showing the global distribution of temperatures in January and July. Explain the differences as fully as possible.

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fes9_D2L

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 852. Explain how the events/processes depicted in this photo might influence climate.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 853. Examine the figure. What exact day of the year is depicted? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 854. Examine the figure and use it as a basis for discussing the role the greenhouse effect plays in the atmospheres of (a) the Moon, (b) Earth, and (c) Venus.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 855. Examine the figure. Which of the four lettered positions depicts the Northern Hemisphere winter solstice?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 856. Examine the figure below. The red zigzag pattern represents the seasons and the black line represents seasonally corrected data for atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2). What was the approximate CO2 concentration in parts per million (ppm) for 2000?

a. ~ 370 ppm b. ~ 350 ppm c. ~ 380 ppm d. ~ 360 ppm ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 857. Examine the graph below. The blue line represents the coastal city of San Francisco, California, and the red line represents Urbana, Illinois, a city on the same latitude as San Francisco, but located deep in the interior of the North American continent. What is the most likely explanation for the smaller annual temperature range for San Francisco?

a. Strong marine influence from the Pacific Ocean. b. Differences in the angle of sunlight. c. Lengths of daylight is different for each city. d. Moisture from the Gulf Stream affects each city differently. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 858. The change of state from a gas to a liquid is called ________. a. evaporation b. sublimation c. condensation d. melting ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 859. The term ________ is used to describe the conversion of a solid directly to a gas, without passing through the liquid state. a. evaporation b. sublimation c. condensation d. melting ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 860. "Frost" buildup inside a household freezer is an example of which process? a. evaporation b. condensation c. sublimation d. deposition ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 861. ________ is an indication of how near the air is to saturation rather than the actual quantity of water vapor in the air. a. Mixing ratio b. Relative humidity c. Dew-point temperature d. Adiabatic cooling ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 862. After the proper wet-bulb-measuring procedure, the two thermometers on a sling psychrometer yield the same temperature. This indicates that ________. a. the relative humidity is low b. the relative humidity is moderate c. the air is warming up d. the air is saturated with water vapor ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 863. How can condensation be triggered to form clouds or fog? a. Add sufficient water vapor to the air so that it reaches saturation. b. Heat the air to its dew point. c. Remove sufficient water vapor from the air so that it reaches saturation. d. Increase humidity. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 864. The cooling or warming of air that occurs because air is allowed to expand or is compressed, not because it is added or subtracted is called ________. a. wet adiabatic rate b. dry adiabatic rate c. adiabatic temperature changes d. sensible heat ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 865. The most important process of cloud formation in the atmosphere is ________. a. cooling by compression of air b. radiation cooling c. cooling by expansion of air d. cooling by release of latent heat of vaporization ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 866. Dry adiabatic rate only refers to ________. a. parcel b. saturated air c. unsaturated air d. condensation level ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 867. A fire extinguisher containing compressed CO2 is used to put out a fire. In spite of being close to the flames, the firefighter notices a white layer of "frost" forming on the exterior of the fire extinguisher can. What's going on? a. The gas in the extinguisher is expanding when released, cooling adiabatically. b. The gas in the extinguisher is cooling under higher pressure. c. The exterior temperature must be dropping. d. The fire is pulling heat from the surrounding air. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 868. When elevated terrain such as a mountain range causes air to rise, this is called ________. a. orographic lifting b. frontal wedging c. adiabatic cooling d. convergence ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 869. Air that does not resist vertical displacement is called ________. a. stable b. unstable c. warming d. cloudy ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 870. When the environmental lapse rate is less than the wet adiabatic rate, ________ occurs. a. absolute instability b. absolute stability c. conditional instability d. conditional stability ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 871. ________ resists upward movement. a. Convection b. Parcels c. Unstable air d. Stable air ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 872. Which of the following is the best example of a hygroscopic nucleus? a. pollen b. smoke c. sea salt d. microscopic dust ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 873. What unusual situation can occur in the absence of condensation nuclei? a. adiabatic warming b. a relative humidity of more than 100 percent c. cumulonimbus clouds d. cirrostratus clouds ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 874. Clouds consist of ________. a. water droplets b. ice particles c. either water droplets or ice particles d. white-colored gases ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 875. Which of the following is a cloud of vertical development? a. cirrus b. stratocumulus c. nimbostratus d. cumulonimbus ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 876. When warm, moist air moves over a cold surface, ________ fog may result. a. advection b. radiation c. upslope d. steam ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 877. What two kinds of fog are the result of adding moisture to a layer of air? a. advection and radiation b. radiation and upslope c. upslope and steam d. steam and frontal ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 878. Relative to lower temperatures, high temperatures require ________ moisture to fully saturate the air. a. less b. more c. the same amount of d. no ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 879. Mixing ratio, relative humidity, and dew-point temperature are all ways of measuring the amount of ________ in the air. a. convergence b. condensation level c. vapor pressure d. water vapor ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 880. ________ clouds form sheets or layers that cover much of the sky. a. Cirrus b. Stratus c. Cumulus d. Cirrostratus ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 881. A wintertime form of precipitation that consists of small transparent or translucent ice particles is called ________. a. drizzle b. freezing rain c. sleet d. mist ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 882. ________ is a kind of precipitation consisting of drops of water that fall from a cloud and have a diameter of at least 0.5 millimeter (0.02 inch). a. Rain b. Sleet c. Rime d. Glaze ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 883. ________ is a type of fog that forms in valleys at night. a. Radiation b. Steam c. Frontal d. Advection ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 884. Meteorologists refer to an imaginary volume of air enclosed in a thin elastic cover as a ________. a. parcel b. unit c. convection cell d. cloud ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 885. ________ occurs when warm air is forced up and over a mass of cooler air. a. Orographic lifting b. Frontal wedging c. Adiabatic cooling d. Convergence ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 886. ________ is a cloud with its base at or very near the ground. a. Cumulus b. Stratus c. Cirrus d. Fog ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 887. The ________ is the temperature to which a parcel of air would need to be cooled in order to reach saturation. a. water vapor b. dew point c. condensation level d. parcel ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 888. Updrafts in cumulonimbus clouds may loft small particles of ice through the cloud, coating them and producing ________. a. rime b. hail c. glaze d. sleet ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 889. Any open container having a consistent cross-sectional area throughout can be used as a ________. a. thermometer b. psychrometer c. hygrometer d. rain gauge ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 890. Atmospheric ________ is the ultimate cause of weather. a. instability b. stability c. humidity d. condensation ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 891. ________ occurs when moist air has an environmental lapse rate between the dry and wet adiabatic rates. Simply, the air is stable for an unsaturated parcel or air, but becomes unstable if the parcel of air be forced high enough for it be become saturated. a. Absolute instability b. Absolute stability c. Conditional instability d. Conditional stability ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 892. The theory that relates the formation of precipitation to supercooled clouds, freezing nuclei, and the different saturation levels of ice and liquid water is called ________. a. the collision-coalescence process b. the Bergeron process c. humidity-condenser process d. evapotranspiration process ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 893. The ________ occurs when large cloud droplets (giants) collide and join together with smaller droplets to form raindrops. a. collision-coalescence process b. Bergeron process c. humidity-condenser process d. evapotranspiration process ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 894. ________ are solid particles that serve as cores for the formation of ice crystals. a. Glaze b. Rime c. Parcels d. Freezing nuclei ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 895. Liquid water at temperatures below freezing is termed ________. a. demistified b. hypercondensed c. supercooled d. coalesced ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 896. The change of state from a liquid to a gas is called ________. a. evaporation b. sublimation c. condensation d. melting ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 897. When 10 calories of heat are absorbed by 1 gram of water, the molecules vibrate faster and the temperature ________. a. falls then rises b. remains the same c. falls d. rises ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 898. ________ occurs when the wind pattern near Earth's surface is such that more air is entering an area than leaving. a. Orographic lifting b. Frontal wedging c. Adiabatic cooling d. Convergence ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 899. Unequal surface heating that causes localized pockets of air (thermals) to rise because of their buoyancy is termed ________. a. stable air b. convective lifting c. adiabatic cooling d. convergence ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 900. Cirrostratus clouds form in the ________ regions of the troposphere. a. highest b. middle c. lowest d. fog bank ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 901. ________ forms when relatively humid air moves up a gradually sloping landform or the steep slopes of a mountain. a. Frontal fog b. Advection fog c. Radiation fog d. Upslope fog ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 902. ________ is produced by evaporation from a warm-water surface into the cool air above; often found over lakes and rivers. a. Steam fog b. Advection fog c. Radiation fog d. Upslope fog ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Match the items in the first column with the correct descriptions in the second column. a. thin, delicate, fibrous, ice-crystal clouds with hooked filaments called "mares' tails" b. thin sheet of white, ice-crystal clouds that may give the sky a milky look, may produce halos c. thin, white, ice-crystal clouds that take the form of ripples, waves or globular masses in a row; least common of the cloud types d. stratified veil of clouds that is generally then and may produce light precipitation e. white to gray clouds, often made up of separate globules called "sheepbacks" f. towering clouds; associated with heavy rainfall, thunder, lightning, hail, and tornadoes g. amorphous layer of dark gray clouds h. low uniform cloud that resembles fog but does not rest on the ground and that may produce drizzle i. soft, gray clouds in globular patches; may join together to form a continuous cloud j. clouds that are often "cottonlike" in appearance

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fes9_D2L 903. Cirrus ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 904. Cirrostratus ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 905. Cirrocumulus ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 906. Altostratus ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 907. Altocumulus ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 908. Cumulonimbus ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 909. Nimbostratus ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 910. Stratus ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 911. Stratocumulus ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 912. Cumulus ANSWER: j POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the form of precipitation with the correct description. a. precipitation from stratus clouds consisting of tiny droplets b. a cloud of water droplets suspended in the atmosphere at or near Earth's surface c. solid form of precipitation produced by sublimation of water vapor d. lumpy ice particles that form while raindrops freeze while falling through layer of subfreezing air e. nearly spherical ice pellets having concentric layers and formed by the successive freezing of layers of water f. a thin coating of ice on objects consisting of ice feathers that point into the wind g. a coating of ice on objects formed when supercooled rain freezes on contact 913. Drizzle ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 914. Mist ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 915. Snow ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 916. Sleet ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 917. Hail ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 918. Rime ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 919. Glaze ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 920. Explain how perspiring cools the skin.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

921. Compare and contrast absolute stability with absolute instability and conditional instability.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

922. Why is the vertical movement of air critical to the formation of clouds and precipitation? What role do adiabatic temperature changes play in these processes?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

923. On a specific day in the winter in St. Louis, Missouri it began snowing in the morning, the snow changed to rain by noon, and later in the afternoon sleet was falling. This later turned to snow, and by evening rain was freezing on bridges and roadways as glaze. Briefly explain how such a sequence of precipitation might occur.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 924. On a warm summer day, you go outside and feel fat, cold raindrops splashing on your hands. On a winter day, you go outside and notice fat, fluffy snowflakes piling up on top of your mittens. Compare and contrast the mechanisms by which these two kinds of precipitation were produced.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

925. Explain the concept of orographic lifting and discuss how a rainshadow desert forms.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 926. Examine the photo. Explain how the relative humidity inside the house compares to the relative humidity outside the house on this particular day.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 927. Examine the photo. Do these hot-air balloons illustrate absolute stability, absolute instability, or conditional instability? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 928. A 1-kilogram parcel of air is at 35°C and contains 7 grams of water vapor. What is the relative humidity?

a. 20% b. 40% c. 50% d. 70% ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 929. Examine the graph. Based on the relationship between temperature and relative humidity, at what time of day would an Earth scientist expect the highest relative humidity?

a. 6 am (location A) b. 11am (location B) c. 5 pm (location C) d. 12 am (midnight) (location D) ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 930. Examine the figure. Which process is illustrated?

a. orographic lifting b. frontal wedging c. adiabatic cooling d. convergence ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 931. Examine the figure. Which process is illustrated?

a. orographic lifting b. frontal wedging c. adiabatic cooling d. convergence ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 932. Examine the photo. These balloons are rising because the ________ air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding air.

a. hot (warm) b. cool (cold) c. humid d. stagnant ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 933. Standard sea level pressure is ________. a. about 1084 mb (32.01 inches of mercury) b. about 1013 mb (29.92 inches of mercury) c. about 902 mb (26.71 inches of mercury) d. about 870 mb (25.70 inches of mercury) ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 934. A(n) ________ provides a continuous record of pressure changes with the passage of time. a. mercurial barometer b. aneroid barometer c. barograph d. anemometer ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 935. Lines on a weather map connecting places of equal air pressure are called ________. a. isovectors b. isobars c. isotherms d. isopleths ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 936. The ultimate energy source for most wind is ________ because heating of the Earth's surface generates unequal heating. a. caves b. hot springs c. solar radiation d. the greenhouse effect ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 937. Which of the following does not contribute to controlling the motion of the wind? a. pressure gradient force b. Coriolis effect c. friction d. ozone layer (and hole) ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 938. The jet stream has winds that blow up to ________, which can greatly influence the impact of weather patterns over a continent. a. 80-100 kilometers per hour b. 120-240 kilometers per hour c. 260-280 kilometers per hour d. 300-310 kilometers per hour ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 939. ________ are high-elevation "rivers" of air that travel between 120 and 240 kilometers (75 and 150 miles) per hour in a west-to-east direction. a. Chinooks b. Valley breezes c. Jet streams d. Anticyclones ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 940. Together, a high-pressure center and the Coriolis effect produce ________. a. hurricanes b. cyclones c. anticyclones d. Hadley cells ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 941. You are getting ready to go for a hike on a summer day. You check the barograph and discover that the pressure tendency has been rising for several hours. Based on this information, what gear should you be sure to pack for your hike? a. snowshoes b. sunscreen c. a rain jacket d. a helmet ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 942. The ________ is characterized by subsidence and divergence near the 30˚ latitude, north and south, and consists of several semipermanent, anticyclonic centers. a. Hadley cell b. subtropical high c. trade winds d. polar front ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 943. ________ occur(s) with seasonal reversal of wind direction, often associated with large continents and producing a rainy summer season. a. Monsoons b. Cyclones c. The polar high d. Easterlies and westerlies ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 944. A wind that blows down the leeward side of a mountain and warms by compression is called a ________. a. chinook b. monsoon c. sea breeze d. mountain breeze ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 945. ________ is the deflective force of Earth's rotation on all free-moving objects including the atmosphere and oceans. a. The jet stream b. The pressure gradient force c. The geostrophic wind d. The Coriolis effect ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 946. The force that results from a difference in atmospheric pressure between two locations is called ________. a. the jet stream b. the pressure gradient force c. the geostrophic wind d. the Coriolis effect ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 947. An anemometer measures ________. a. atmospheric pressure b. wind direction c. precipitation d. wind speed ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 948. ________ are small-scale winds produced by a locally generated pressure gradient. a. Ocean breezes b. Prevailing winds c. Regional winds d. Local winds ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 949. This pressure zone is associated with abundant precipitation and warm temperatures. a. subtropical high b. equatorial low c. subpolar low d. anticyclone ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 950. The Sahara and Australian deserts (among others) are associated with the ________. a. subtropical high b. equatorial low c. subpolar low d. anticyclone ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 951. A sea breeze usually originates during the ________. a. evening and flows toward the land b. day and flows toward the land c. evening and flows toward the water d. day and flows toward the water ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 952. ________ is the result of horizontal differences in air pressure. a. An isobar b. The wind c. A pressure gradient force d. The jet stream ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 953. The faster the wind speed, the ________. a. change in wind speed does not influence the Coriolis force b. smaller the deflection of winds due to the Coriolis force c. lesser the deflection of winds due to the Coriolis force d. greater the deflection of winds due to the Coriolis force ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 954. ________ of air occurs near Earth's surface around an anticyclone. a. Divergence b. Convergence c. Transference d. Conduction ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 955. For a low-pressure center to be maintained or strengthened, the surface convergence must be balanced by ________ aloft. a. cyclones b. divergence c. anticyclones d. barometric pressures ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 956. In general, regions influenced by high pressure, with its associated subsidence and divergent winds, experience ________ conditions. a. dry b. wet c. humid d. cold ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 957. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis effect shifts objects ________ their straight-line paths. a. down from b. up from c. to the right of d. to the left of ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 958. Above a height of a few kilometers, the Coriolis effect is equal to and opposite the pressure gradient force, which results in ________ winds that blow parallel to the isobars. a. monsoons b. geostrophic winds c. valley breezes d. chinooks ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 959. Which of the following devices is used to determine wind direction? a. cup anemometer b. wind vane c. barograph d. barometer ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 960. An instrument that measures air pressure using a partially evacuated chamber is called a(n) ________. a. mercurial barometer b. aneroid barometer c. barograph d. anemometer ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 961. Polar easterlies may dominate Alaska's prevailing winds, and NE trade winds may dominate in Hawaii, but ________ dominate the prevailing winds of the "lower 48" (contiguous) United States. a. the jet stream b. the westerlies c. trade winds d. polar front ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 962. If Earth's surface were uniform, ________ belt(s) of pressure oriented east to west would exist in each hemisphere. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 963. The average position of the polar jet stream, and hence the paths followed by cyclones and anticyclones, migrate ________ with the approach of winter. a. southward b. northward c. eastward d. westward ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 964. While some barometers express atmospheric pressure in millibars, others use ________ as their basic unit of measurement. a. Kelvin b. Fahrenheit c. inches of mercury d. Celsius ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 965. In a mercury barometer, when the air pressure increases, the mercury in the tube ________. a. sublimates b. evaporates c. falls d. rises ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 966. Closely spaced isobars on a map indicate ________ and ________. a. a weak pressure gradient; light winds b. a steep pressure gradient; strong winds c. a weak pressure gradient; strong winds d. a steep pressure gradient; light winds ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 967. Widely spaced isobars on a map indicate ________ and ________. a. a weak pressure gradient; light winds b. a steep pressure gradient; strong winds c. a weak pressure gradient; strong winds d. a steep pressure gradient; light winds ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 968. The ________ is the nature of the change in atmospheric pressure over a period of several hours. a. barometric tendency b. convergence c. Coriolis effect d. divergence ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 969. Which of the following is located between the NE and SE trade winds? a. polar front b. polar easterlies c. subtropic high d. equatorial low ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 970. ________ is the source region for the variable polar easterlies. a. The polar high b. The polar easterlies c. The subtropic high d. The equatorial low ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 971. ________ is a chinook-like wind that occurs in southern California, which greatly increases the threat of forest fires in this region. a. The land breeze b. The Santa Ana c. The sea breeze d. The westerly ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 972. When the wind consistently blows more often from one direction than any other, it is called the ________. a. prevailing wind b. Coriolis effect c. chinook d. wind speed ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 973. Winds are always labeled by the ________ from which they blow. a. intensity b. isobar c. direction d. speed ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 974. The underlying cause of wind is ________ of Earth's surface. a. tropical divergence b. polar convergence c. equal heating d. unequal heating ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 975. At night, the air above the mountain slopes ________ and drains into the warm valley below, creating a ________. a. cools slowly; mountain breeze b. cools rapidly; mountain breeze c. warms slowly; valley breeze d. warms rapidly; valley breeze ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 976. Which of the following is the driving force of wind? a. vertical pressure gradient b. horizontal pressure gradient c. isobar movement d. prevailing wind direction ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the correct description with the definition. a. a surface region of low atmospheric pressure around which winds spiral inward b. a surface region of high atmospheric pressure around which winds spiral outward c. a device that measures wind speed, but not direction d. a device that measures wind direction, but not speed e. a daytime wind in coastal regions, moving inland f. a nighttime wind in coastal regions, moving seaward g. the equatorial low-pressure zone h. air movement that occurs between the equator and the subtropical high 977. cyclone ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 978. anticyclone ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 979. anemometer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 980. wind vane ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 981. sea breeze ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 982. land breeze ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 983. intertropical convergence zone ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 984. trade wind ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the atmospheric occurrence with the correct description. a. anticyclone assumed to occupy inner polar regions and believed to be in part thermally induced; source region for variable polar easterlies b. stormy belt that separates air masses of polar origin from air masses of tropical origin c. prevailing wind that blows from the polar high toward the subpolar low; not persistent winds d. low pressure located near the latitudes of the Arctic and Antarctic Circles e. poleward side of the subtropical highs, moves from west to east f. consists of several semipermanent, anticyclonic centers characterized by subsidence and divergence g. belt of low pressure that lies near the equator and between the subtropical highs 985. polar high ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 986. polar front ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 987. polar easterlies ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 988. subpolar low ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 989. westerlies ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 990. subtropical high ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 991. equatorial low ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 992. Why are coastal and mountainous regions often much windier than other locations at similar latitudes? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

993. Discuss the major factors that influence the global distribution of precipitation.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

994. Considering the repositioning of continents due to plate tectonics over geologic time, would you expect that the atmospheric circulation of the past would have been the same as we see today? Why or why not? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

995. If divergence in the jet stream above a surface low-pressure center exceeds convergence at the surface, will surface winds likely get stronger or weaker?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 996. Discuss two advantages of the aneroid barometer over the mercury barometer. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

997. Briefly discuss the three factors that control wind. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 998. Examine the map showing air pressure in millibars. Compare and contrast what sorts of weather situations you would expect at sites "B" and "D" on the map.

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999. Examine the figure. Compare the precipitation maps in parts A and B with the atmospheric pressure patterns depicted in parts C and D. Does A or B match up with C? Which one matches with D? Explain.

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fes9_D2L 1000. Examine the photo. There is a local wind blowing in this photo, though you cannot see the wind itself. Based on the evidence in the photo, which local wind is present here? State your evidence with your interpretation.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1001. Examine the barograph shown in the photograph. Based on the data available there, would you expect rainy or clear weather to be more likely? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1002. Which of the four lettered locations on this barometer would correspond to a midlatitude cyclone?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1003. Which of the four lettered locations on the map would have the highest pressure gradient (and thus, the highest potential for winds)?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1004. Which of the four breezes shown in this figure best illustrates a land breeze?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1005. Examine the figure. Which of the four lettered latitudes would be the most likely site for clear skies?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1006. Examine the map showing air pressure in millibars. Which of the four lettered locations deserves a wind hazard alert?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1007. Examine the figure. The prevailing wind depicting on this wind rose blows from the ________ toward the ________.

a. northwest; southeast b. southeast; northwest c. southwest; northeast d. northeast; southwest ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1008. Several consecutive days of rather constant weather in an area probably indicates ________. a. warm-front weather b. cold-front weather c. air-mass weather d. occluded front weather ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1009. An air mass originating in the Gulf of Mexico should be labeled ________. a. cP b. mP c. cT d. mT ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1010. A cT air mass is ________. a. cold and dry b. cold and humid c. warm and dry d. warm and humid ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1011. An mP air mass is ________. a. cold and dry b. cold and humid c. warm and dry d. warm and humid ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1012. Cold fronts advance at a rate of about ________. a. 5 to 15 kilometers (3 to 10 miles) per hour b. 25 to 35 kilometers (15 to 20 miles) per hour c. 35 to 50 kilometers (20 to 35 miles) per hour d. 55 to 75 kilometers (34 to 46 miles) per hour ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1013. Occluded fronts form because ________. a. of the Coriolis effect b. cold fronts travel at a faster rate than do warm fronts c. warm fronts travel at a faster rate than do cold fronts d. air movement is parallel to the front ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 1014. Stationary fronts are distinctive because ________. a. they occur where a warm front merges with a cold front b. they stay in one spot on Earth's surface c. there is no difference in the temperature of the air masses on either side of the front d. there is no difference in the humidity of the air masses on either side of the front ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1015. A(n) ________ occurs when dense cold air is actively advancing into a region occupied by warmer air. a. warm front b. cold front c. mid-latitude cyclone d. occluded front ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1016. On a weather map, ________ are shown by a line with triangular points on one side. a. warm fronts b. cold fronts c. occluded fronts d. dragon mouths ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1017. A cyclone is ________. a. another name for a tornado b. another name for a hurricane c. another name for the low-pressure systems that take several days to travel across North America from west to east d. the term for circulation around any low-pressure center, no matter how large or intense it is ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1018. At any given time, an estimated ________ thunderstorms are in progress on Earth, most of them in the tropics. a. 20 b. 200 c. 2,000 d. 20,000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1019. Where warm, moist, unstable mT air seldom penetrates, such as along the west coast of the United States, ________. a. there are many thunderstorms b. there are very few thunderstorms c. there is no humidity in the air d. there is an excess of humidity in the air ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1020. The life span of a typical cumulonimbus cell within a thunderstorm complex is only about ________ long. a. an hour b. a few hours c. a few days d. a few minutes ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1021. Which is of more concern, tornado watches or tornado warnings? a. tornado warnings b. tornado watches ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1022. Hurricanes are characterized by ________. a. intense convective (thunderstorm) activity and strong cyclonic circulation b. intense convective (thunderstorm) activity and strong anticyclonic circulation c. mild convective (thunderstorm) activity and strong cyclonic circulation d. mild convective (thunderstorm) activity and strong anticyclonic circulation ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1023. Which part of a hurricane has the most intense winds? a. divergence aloft b. counterclockwise rain bands (clockwise in the southern hemisphere) c. eye wall d. eye ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1024. When a hurricane moves onto land, it rapidly loses its punch; that is, the storm declines in intensity. Which of the factors listed below contributes to this loss of storm energy? a. lack of precipitation b. lack of warm, moist air c. heating from below by the land surface d. heating from above the land surface ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1025. When a hurricane enters the coastal zone, the most devastating damage usually results from ________. a. storm surge b. flooding c. wind damage d. tornadoes ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1026. Generally, hurricanes are ________. a. smaller than tornadoes b. smaller than midlatitude cyclones c. areas of light rainfall and slow winds d. areas of high temperature ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1027. The eye of a hurricane is ________. a. the portion with the highest wind speeds b. lacking heavy rain and has lowered wind speed c. along the leading edge of the storm d. the area of most intense rainfall ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1028. ________ refers to the situation where a warm air glides up along the edge of a cold air mass. a. Tropical depression b. Overrunning c. Storm surge d. Tropical storm ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1029. The new generation of weather radar that is capable of detecting precipitation motion directly is called ________ radar. a. cyclone b. EF c. Fujita d. Doppler ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1030. At the center of a hurricane is a relatively calm region called the ________. a. apex b. eye c. eye wall d. surge ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1031. The boundary between air masses having different temperatures (and hence, different densities) is called a(n) ________. a. front b. isotherm c. cloud d. fog bank ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1032. A large body of air that is characterized by a homogeneity of temperature and moisture at any given level is a(n) ________. a. warm front b. cold front c. air mass d. occluded front ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1033. When an active cold front overtakes a warm front a(n) ________ forms. a. warm front b. cold front c. occluded front d. dragon mouth ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1034. When continental polar air moves over a relatively warm lake, such as one of the Great Lakes, the air mass acquires both heat and moisture, resulting in ________ on the land leeward of the lake. a. a polar air mass b. a maritime air mass c. lake effect snow d. a nor'easter ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1035. Hail, thunder, and tornadoes are all characteristic features of a(n) ________ front. a. warm b. cold c. occluded d. overrunning ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1036. Depending on the context, the word ________ may refer to a tornado, a hurricane, or a large-scale atmospheric system in the midlatitudes. a. cyclone b. front c. air mass d. isotherm ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1037. Tornadoes are violent windstorms that take the form of a rotating column of air called a ________ that extends downward from a cumulonimbus cloud. a. front b. cyclone c. storm surge d. vortex ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1038. Generally, three stages are involved in the development of thunderstorms: the cumulus stage, the mature stage, and the ________ stage. a. precipitation b. dissipating c. convection d. conduction ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1039. Cold fronts are about twice as ________ as warm fronts and move more rapidly, too. These two factors mean warm air is forced aloft more rapidly, and more dramatic weather is produced. a. small b. common c. large d. steep ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1040. Precipitation along a cold front is generally ________ intense and of ________ duration than precipitation associated with a warm front. a. less; longer b. more; shorter c. less; shorter d. more; longer ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1041. Maritime tropical air is the source of much, if not most, of the ________ received in the eastern two-thirds of the United States. a. cyclones b. lake effect snow c. cloud cover d. precipitation ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1042. A ________ is a large, low-pressure center with a diameter often exceeding 1000 kilometers (600 miles). a. front b. tornado c. storm surge d. midlatitude cyclone ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1043. Midlatitude cyclones typically move ________ across the United States. a. eastward b. westward c. northward d. southward ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1044. A ________ is weather associated with maritime polar air into the northeast United States from the North Atlantic and produces strong winds, freezing or near-freezing temperatures, and possible precipitation. a. tropical depression b. westerly c. nor'easter d. storm surge ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1045. Which of the following contributes to the end of thunderstorm activity? a. influx of warmer air b. influx of cooler air c. warm precipitation d. warm, moist updrafts ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1046. The commonly used guide to tornado intensity is the ________. a. Doppler effect b. Richter scale c. Saffir-Simpson scale d. Enhanced Fujita Intensity Scale (EF Scale) ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1047. To estimate the most probable path for a tornado, a forecaster needs to know the ________ and ________. a. humidity; temperature b. direction; approximate speed c. precipitation rate; humidity d. time; distance ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1048. Damage caused by hurricanes can be divided into three categories: ________, ________, and ________. a. structural damage; beach erosion; temperature increases b. storm surge; wind damage; heavy rains and flooding c. property damage; fatalities; temperature decreases d. coastline damage; biological decay; inland erosion ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1049. In the Northern Hemisphere, storm surge is always most intense on the ________ side of the eye (viewed from the ocean) where winds are blowing ________ the shore. a. northern; toward b. left; away from c. right; toward d. southern; away from ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1050. ________ fronts tend to move more slowly than the other fronts. a. Occluded b. Warm c. Cold d. Stationary ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the item with the correct description. a. a front along which a cold air mass thrusts beneath a warmer air mass b. front along which a warm air mass overrides a retreating mass of cooler air c. a situation in which the surface position of a front does not move d. a front formed when a cold front overtakes a warm front e. a tropical cyclonic storm that has winds in excess of 119 kilometers (74 miles) per hour f. the abnormal rise of the sea along a shore as a result of strong winds 1051. cold front ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1052. warm front ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1053. stationary front ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1054. occluded front ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1055. hurricane ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 1056. storm surge ANSWER: f POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the air mass with the correct definition. a. cold, dry air mass b. very cold, very dry air mass c. hot, dry air mass d. cool, humid air mass e. warm, humid air mass 1057. continental polar (cP) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1058. continental arctic (cA) ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1059. continental tropical (cT) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1060. maritime polar (mP) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1061. maritime tropical (mT) ANSWER: e POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the Enhanced Fujita Intensity Scale with the correct damage description. a. Light. Some damage to siding and shingles. b. Moderate. Considerable roof damage; winds can uproot trees and overturn single-side mobile homes; and flagpoles can bend. c. Considerable. Most single-wide mobile homes are destroyed; permanent homes shift off foundations, flagpoles collapse, and softwood trees are debarked. d. Severe. Hardwood trees are debarked, and all but small portion of houses is destroyed. e. Devastating. Complete destruction of well-built residences and large sections of school buildings. f. Incredible. Significant structural deformation of mid- and high-rise buildings. 1062. EF-0 ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1063. EF-1 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1064. EF-2 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1065. EF-3 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1066. EF-4 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 1067. EF-5 ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 1068. Summarize the factors that lead to the development, growth, and decay of hurricanes.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1069. Compare the characteristics (general weather, movement, etc.) of a cold front to a warm front. Also, briefly explain why they exhibit different characteristics.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1070. Describe "lake effect" snows in the Great Lakes region and how they form.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1071. What does hailstone size indicate about the strength of processes inside a thunderstorm?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1072. A hurricane has slower wind speeds than a tornado does, but it inflicts more damage. Why?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1073. Explain how flow aloft aids in the formation of cyclones at the surface. ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1074. Examine the map showing tornado incidence in the 48 contiguous United States. Why are there so many tornados in the central mid-west?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1075. Which of the two tornado tracks shown in these satellite images is typical of the path taken by most tornados in the United States? Explain the "normal" pattern, and suggest a reason for the deviation seen in the other image.

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fes9_D2L 1076. Examine the figure. What sort of storms does it depict? Interpret their distribution and path patterns as fully as possible.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1077. Examine the figure. What weather phenomenon is illustrated here?

a. a warm front b. a cold front c. an occluded front d. a stationary front ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1078. Examine the figure. Which of the symbols shown is used to illustrate a stationary front?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1079. Examine the figure. Of the four lettered locations on the coast of North and South Carolina, which one will likely experience the worst storm surge?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1080. A hurricane that ranks as a Category 4 storm on the Saffir-Simpson Scale is moving north toward an eastwest–trending section of the Mississippi coast at 40 kilometers per hour. The net winds on the right side of the storm will be ________ kilometers per hour

ANSWER: 250-290 POINTS: 100

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1081. In the Ptolemaic (Greek) model of the universe, ________. a. Earth was flat b. Earth was at the center of the universe c. the Sun was at the center of the solar system d. Earth rotated on its axis to produce night and day ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1082. Most of the time, the planets appear to move eastward. However, the occasional apparent westward "drift" of the planets compared to the background stars is called ________. a. Ptolemaic motion b. occultation c. precession d. retrograde motion ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1083. If gravity were somehow eliminated, Earth would ________. a. spiral inward toward the sun b. spiral outward away from the sun c. move in a straight line toward the sun d. move in a straight line out into space ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1084. ________ gave Galileo a huge advantage over his astronomical predecessors. a. Use of a telescope b. Unadulterated genius c. The fresh perspective of Copernicus's ideas about a geocentric universe d. Newton's laws of motion ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1085. The nebular theory proposes the sun and planets formed from a rotating cloud of interstellar gases and dust called a ________. a. solar nebula b. planetesimal c. protoplanet d. celestial sphere ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1086. Approximately how much further away from the sun is Saturn, as compared to Earth? a. 5 times as far b. 10 times as far c. 25 times as far d. 50 times as far ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1087. One astronomical unit (AU) is equal to approximately ________. a. 100 million kilometers (62 million miles) b. 150 million kilometers (93 million miles) c. 200 million kilometers (124 million miles) d. 250 million kilometers (155 million miles) ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1088. Which of the following is an example of a terrestrial planet? a. Neptune b. Saturn c. Jupiter d. Venus ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1089. How did the lunar maria most likely originate? a. Huge impact basins that were nearly filled with basaltic lava flows. b. Huge impact craters filled with frozen carbon dioxide and dark-colored silt and dust. c. Massive, basaltic comets melted when they hit the lunar surface. d. The solar wind eroded very wide, shallow basins that filled with lunar dust. ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1090. The moon's light-colored areas are called ________. a. Olympian fields b. lunar highlands c. lunar maria d. lunar lava flats ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 1091. Nicolaus Copernicus was the first astronomer to propose ________. a. retrograde motion b. an astronomical unit c. the nebular theory d. a sun-centered universe ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1092. Three laws of planetary motion were discovered by ________. a. Sir Isaac Newton b. Johannes Kepler c. Tycho Brahe d. Nicolaus Copernicus ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1093. Most of the moon's craters were produced by ________. a. the impact of meteoroids b. volcanic eruptions c. faulting d. inertia ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1094. Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in the solar system, is found on ________. a. Earth b. Venus c. Jupiter d. Mars ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1095. Which planet revolves around the sun the fastest? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Mars ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 1096. Which of the following rotates in the opposite direction around its axis compared to other planets? a. Mercury b. Venus c. Earth d. Mars ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1097. Valles Marineris, a series of vast canyons on Mars, most likely formed by ________. a. volcanic eruptions b. meteorite impacts c. down-faulting d. massive storms ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1098. The dominant force currently shaping the Martian surface is ________. a. wind erosion b. stream erosion c. meteorite impacts d. glacier movement ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1099. ________ are small, extraterrestrial particles that glow brightly and burn up as they travel through Earth's atmosphere. a. Meteoroids b. Moons c. Meteorites d. Asteroids ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1100. Which of the following is a dwarf planet? a. Venus b. Mercury c. Pluto d. Europa ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1101. The immense gravitational compression exerted by Jupiter releases heat that ________. a. powers immense storms b. triggers volcanic eruptions c. imparts retrograde motion d. produces a mighty ring system ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1102. Which of the following moons exhibits cryovolcanism? a. Triton b. Enceladus c. Ceres d. Io ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1103. In the Ptolemaic system, planets orbited in small circles called ________ while revolving along large circles called ________. a. retrograde motion; inertia b. epicycles; deferents c. epicycles; referents d. celestial spheres; epicycles ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1104. Surrounding a comet's nucleus is the broad, glowing area called the ________. a. head b. tail c. coma d. belt ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1105. It has been estimated that Halley's Comet, which has an orbital period of 76 years, has a mass of 100 billion tons. Furthermore, it is estimated to lose about 100 million tons of material when its orbit brings it close to the sun. The maximum remaining life span of Halley's Comet is ________. a. 76,000 years b. 760 years c. 7.6 years d. 760,000 years ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1106. Asteroid-sized bodies that collide and accumulate together, ultimately forming planets are called ________. a. planetesimals b. protoplanets c. minerals d. meteorites ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1107. The Cassini gap is associated with the planet ________. a. Mars b. Saturn c. Jupiter d. Neptune ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1108. Saturn's well-developed rings are made of ________. a. interstellar gases b. water vapor c. numerous particles of water ice and rocky debris d. frozen methane ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1109. ________ is the only planet in the solar system whose axis of rotation lies close to the plane of the solar system. a. Uranus b. Venus c. Ceres d. Jupiter ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1110. The law of universal gravitation was formulated by ________. a. Sir Isaac Newton b. Galileo Galilei c. Tycho Brahe d. Johannes Kepler ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1111. ________ is the apparent shift in the position of a nearby star when viewed from extreme points in Earth's orbit six months apart. a. Retrograde motion b. Universal gravitation c. Inertia d. Stellar parallax ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1112. The ________ motion of some of Jupiter's moons indicates that they were likely captured due to the planet's immense gravity. a. inertial b. prograde c. retrograde d. celestial sphere ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1113. In addition to Earth, the planet ________ shows clear evidence of water erosion. a. Mercury b. Ceres c. Mars d. Venus ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1114. The view that the sun is the center of the solar system is called a ________. a. geocentric model b. heliocentric model c. celestial sphere d. retrograde model ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1115. ________ was the first astronomer to track sunspot movement with the aid of a telescope. a. Sir Isaac Newton b. Galileo Galilei c. Tycho Brahe d. Johannes Kepler ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1116. ________ states every body in the universe attracts every other body with a force that is directly proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. a. The law of universal gravitation b. Retrograde motion c. Inertia d. Nebular theory ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1117. The material expelled when a meteorite strikes the surface of a planet is called ________ and it creates a(n) ________. a. ejecta; impact crater b. planetesimal; impact crater c. a celestial sphere; comet d. comet; asteroid ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1118. The soil-like layer of the moon composed of igneous rocks, breccia, glass beads, and fine lunar dust is called ________. a. lunar regolith b. lunar highlands c. maria d. impact craters ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1119. The impact model of moon formation states the moon formed approximately ________. a. 250 million years ago b. 9 billion years ago c. 4.5 billion years ago d. 14 billion years ago ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1120. Which of the following planets exhibits an extreme greenhouse effect? a. Mercury b. Ceres c. Mars d. Venus ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1121. ________ are examples of small solar system bodies. a. Comets b. Moons c. Planetesimals d. Satellites ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1122. The small central part of a comet is called the ________. a. head b. tail c. coma d. nucleus ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1123. The initial velocity an object needs to break free from the surface of a celestial body is called ________. a. retrograde velocity b. terminal velocity c. inertial velocity d. escape velocity ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1124. The term for a star that is explosively ejecting gases from its surface is a(n) ________. a. celestial sphere b. nova or supernova c. inertia d. retrograde motion ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 1125. During the formation of the moon, it is believed the ________ was the last phase. a. filling of maria basins b. excavation of large impact basins c. formation of rayed craters d. formation of the original crust ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 Match the planet with its correct description. a. has the greatest temperature extremes b. retrograde motion compared to other planets c. contains the largest known volcano in the solar system d. has mass 2.5 times greater than the combined mass of all other planets e. has many rings circling the planet f. rotation is "sideways" g. one of the windiest planets; has five named rings h. largest known object in the asteroid belt i. not large enough to sweep debris in its orbit; first dwarf planet 1126. Mercury ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1127. Venus ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1128. Mars ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1129. Jupiter ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1130. Saturn ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 1131. Uranus ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L 1132. Neptune ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 1133. Ceres ANSWER: h POINTS: 1 1134. Pluto ANSWER: i POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Match the object with the correct description. a. rotating cloud of interstellar gases b. a planet's inclination with respect to the Earth-sun orbital plane c. asteroid-sized objects d. asteroid-sized objects that collide to make larger bodies e. terrestrial Earth-like planets f. Jovian planets g. depression that forms from collisions with asteroids and comets 1135. solar nebula ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1136. ecliptic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1137. planetesimals ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1138. protoplanets ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1139. inner planets ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 1140. outer planets ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 1141. impact craters ANSWER: g POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1142. Galileo made numerous contributions to the science of astronomy. Discuss two of them in detail.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1143. How is Earth unique compared to other planets in our solar system? How is it similar? And finally, what geologic information might we obtain by visiting Mars or Venus that would further link Earth to these planets? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1144. Why are meteorites a possible source of information regarding the origin and composition of Earth? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1145. Of the other seven planets in our solar system, which is most likely to host Earth-like life? Explain.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1146. Discuss the differences between a geocentric and the heliocentric model of the universe.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1147. What is the nebular theory? Explain how this theory is believed to have formed the solar system.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1148. Describe the steps in forming an impact crater. Why are there no large impact craters preserved on the Earth like the ones seen on the moon.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1149. Examine the figure and identify which of the two tails, "A" or "B," is the ion tail and which is the dust tail. How does this distinction relate to the composition of the comet? Explain the different characteristic(s) that allowed you to distinguish between the two tails, and how that relates to the way they form.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1150. All else being equal, which of these three asteroid-asteroid situations is most likely to result in a collision? Explain.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1151. Examine the figure. Explain the origin of the layers inferred to exist within our solar system's planets. Compare the terrestrial planets to the Jovian planets, and explain the origin of their differences.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1152. Briefly outline the formation of Earth's moon, referring to the figure where appropriate.

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1153. The situation depicted in part "A" of this figure will have the greatest ________ between the two asteroids.

a. gravitational attraction b. gravitational repulsion c. inertia d. density ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1154. Compare part "A" of the figure to part "B." Which of the following statements is true concerning the figures?

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a. "A" shows a heliocentric solar system; "B" shows a geocentric solar system. b. "A" shows a geocentric solar system; "B" shows a heliocentric solar system. c. Earth's orbit is faster in Figure B. Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L d. Earth's orbit is slower in Figure B. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1155. Cosmology is the study of ________. a. our solar system b. stars c. the universe d. making people more beautiful ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1156. A light-year is ________. a. a long time b. the distance light travels in one (Earth) year c. a kind of super-dense star near the end of its life-cycle d. the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation between ultraviolet and infrared ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1157. According to the big bang theory, the first two elements to form in the universe were ________. a. gluons and quarks b. hydrogen and iron c. hydrogen and helium d. oxygen and carbon ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1158. To establish that the universe was very, very large, Edwin Hubble used ________. a. Cepheid variables b. degenerate matter c. cosmological red shifts d. dark energy ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1159. The apparent brightness of a star if it were viewed from a distance of 10 parsecs (32.6 light-years) is called ________. a. supernova b. degenerate matter c. variable stars d. absolute magnitude ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1160. Our Sun is current in the ________ stage of solar evolution. a. variable b. giant c. main sequence star d. planetary nebulae ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1161. Nebulae are strands or clumps of ________. a. space b. interstellar matter c. degenerate matter d. energy ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1162. On a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, which of the following represents the dimmest star? a. main sequence stars b. white dwarfs c. red giants d. supergiants ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1163. Our solar system resides in the ________. a. Andromeda Galaxy b. Milky Way galaxy c. Crab Nebula d. Betelgeus galaxy ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1164. A system of galaxies that contains from several to thousands of member galaxies is called ________. a. globular clusters b. galaxies c. nebulae d. galactic clusters ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1165. A star having the same mass of Earth's Sun is likely to first evolve into a ________ before becoming a ________. a. white dwarf; red giant b. red giant; protostar c. red giant; white dwarf d. black hole; neutron star ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1166. The Milky Way galaxy is an example of a(n) ________ galaxy. a. spiral b. irregular c. elliptical d. dwarf ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1167. Supernova explosions occur in ________ stars. a. low-mass b. high-mass c. intermediate-mass d. black hole ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1168. The nuclear reaction that occurs when protostars collapse is called ________. a. nuclear fusion b. nuclear fission c. supernova explosions d. red shift ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1169. ________ are objects from which light cannot escape because of the immense gravitational pull at its surface. They are produced during supernova events. a. Neutron stars b. Black holes c. Black dwarves d. White dwarves ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1170. Rapidly rotating neutron stars ________. a. produce radio waves at their magnetic poles, causing them to be perceived (from Earth's perspective) as pulsars b. are more dense than black holes c. have a central barred region d. cannot be detected directly, but we can observe their gravitational effects on other physical objects ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1171. Why are neutron stars called "neutron stars"? a. They are new versions of old stars; "Neu Tron" means "New Star" in Hungarian. b. They are so dense that protons and electrons fuse to form neutrons. c. They appear to emit short pulses of radio waves. d. They are composed of neutrons gathered from the surrounding nebula by the terrific gravity of the neutron star. Electrons and protons, being less massive, aren't as likely to be pulled in. ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1172. A ________ is the remnant core of a medium-mass star that gravitationally collapses due to a lack of fuel. a. black dwarf b. red giant c. black hole d. white dwarf ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1173. Hubble's law states that galaxies are receding from us at a speed that is proportional to ________. a. their distance b. their mass c. their luminosity (absolute magnitude) d. their age ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1174. A ________ is a collapsing cloud of gas and dust that will eventually become a star. a. black hole b. main sequence star c. protostar d. supernova explosion ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1175. When a star is so dense that its atoms have their electrons smashed in toward the nucleus (resulting in densities about a million times greater than water), the resulting material is called ________. a. dark matter b. degenerate matter c. dark energy d. neutrons ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1176. ________ is/are a kind of matter that doesn't interact with visible light, but exerts a gravitational pull on other matter. It is hypothesized to exist in great quantities in the universe. a. Dark matter b. Dark energy c. Degenerate matter d. Neutrons ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1177. A star's ________ can be determined from its color. a. age b. surface temperature c. density d. composition ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1178. Observations of the red shift of most galaxies led to the idea of an expanding universe, also known as ________ theory. a. big bang b. red shift c. dark matter d. variable star ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1179. The fate of the universe (i.e., whether it expands forever or eventually collapses back on itself) is determined by its ________. a. composition b. temperature c. density d. age ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1180. Very large red stars, such as Betelgeuse in the constellation Orion, are called ________. a. main sequence stars b. white dwarfs c. red giants d. supergiants ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1181. ________ are red giants that overshoots equilibrium and then alternately expands and contracts. a. Black holes b. Main sequence star c. Variable stars d. Protostars ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1182. If a star ends its life cycle as a black hole, that implies it has a ________ mass. a. blue-shifted b. red-shifted c. small d. large ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1183. A ________ results when the outward-directed gas pressure (created by thermal nuclear energy) is balanced in a stable relationship with inward-directed gravitational force. a. black hole b. main sequence star c. degenerate matter d. supernova explosion ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1184. Blue or white main sequence stars only occur in the ________ stage of development. a. low-mass star b. high-mass star c. intermediate-mass star d. supernova ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1185. If the universe is sufficiently dense, gravity will someday pull it all back together in an event called ________, sort of like the big bang in reverse. a. the gravitational stretch b. the drift theory c. the giant impact d. the big crunch ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1186. Though they are called ________, these objects are not really empty space but very, very dense objects, so dense that their gravity pulls nearby material irresistibly in toward them, even light. Some of this material is altered on its way in to this death spiral – and it gives off X-rays in two jets. a. dark matter b. degenerate matter c. dark energy d. black holes ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1187. The Crab Nebula is a planetary nebula that formed due to a ________ in the year 1054 A.D., an event recorded by Chinese astronomers. a. black hole b. red shift event c. galaxy collision d. supernova ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1188. It is believed our solar system formed approximately ________ years ago. a. 300 million b. 13.8 billion c. 4.6 billion d. 9 billion ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1189. Which of the following stars is most similar in size to Earth? a. main sequence star b. white dwarf c. red giant d. supergiant ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1190. Approximately ________ percent of all stars are ________. a. 90; main sequence stars b. 80; supergiants c. 70; red giants d. 65; white dwarfs ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1191. ________ is/are a variable radio source of small size that emits radio pulses in very regular periods. a. Dark matter b. Degenerate matter c. Black holes d. Pulsars ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1192. If you were to observe a steady stream of X-rays emitted from a central void in space, you would most likely be observing a ________. a. red giant b. white dwarf c. black hole d. pulsar ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1193. Which of the following is a galaxy classification? a. irregular b. regular c. elongated d. spherical ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1194. Our own galactic cluster, called the Local Group, consists of more than ________. a. 50 galaxies b. 40 galaxies c. 35 galaxies d. 20 galaxies ANSWER: b POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1195. When a source of light is moving away from an observer, the spectral lines shift toward the red end of the spectrum. This phenomenon is called ________. a. the Doppler Effect b. Hubble's Law c. Hertzsprung-Russell Effect d. Cosmology ANSWER: a POINTS: 100 1196. ________ is the hypothetical form of energy that produces a force that opposes gravity and is thought to be responsible for the accelerating expansion of the universe. a. Degenerate matter b. Pulsar c. White energy d. Dark energy ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1197. The ________ is an example of an irregular galaxy. a. Andromeda galaxy b. Large Magellanic Cloud c. Milky Way galaxy d. Oort Cloud ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1198. Approximately ________ percent of the universe consists of dark matter; additionally, dark matter also works to ________ the expansion of the universe as a whole. a. 25; slow b. 50; speed up c. 75; slow d. 33; speed up ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1199. The first galaxies and stars are believed to have formed ________ years ago. a. 300 million b. 13.8 billion c. 4.6 billion d. 9 billion ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1200. During the red giant stage, thermonuclear reactions occur that may produce elements on the periodic table. Which of the following is the largest element that may form? a. nickel b. cobalt c. magnesium d. iron ANSWER: d POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L Match the following stars with their correct classification. You will use some choices more than once. a. supergiant b. giant c. main sequence star d. white dwarf e. red dwarf 1201. Betelgeus ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1202. Rigel ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1203. Polaris ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1204. Spica ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1205. Sirius ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1206. Sun ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1207. Proxima Centauri ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1208. Sirius B ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 Match the following items with their correct descriptions. a. birthplace of stars, interstellar clumps of matter rich in gas and dust b. collapsed cloud of gas and dust, contraction causes motion that emit long-wavelength red light c. stage where increased atomic motion produces an outward gas pressure balanced by an inwardPowered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L directed force of gravity d. helium-rich core is produced when all of a star's hydrogen-rich interior is consumed e. stage where stars expand and contract but never reach equilibrium f. shell of incandescent gas expanding from a star g. object roughly the size of Earth; comprised of degenerate matter h. final state of evolution of a star in which all its energy sources are exhausted and no longer emits radiation i. stellar remnant even smaller and more massive than a white dwarf; typically eight times as massive as the Sun 1209. nebula ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 1210. protostar stage ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 1211. main-sequence stage ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 1212. giant stage ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 1213. variable stage ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 1214. planetary nebula stage ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 1215. white dwarf ANSWER: g POINTS: 1 1216. black dwarf ANSWER: h POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1217. black hole ANSWER: i POINTS: 1 1218. Briefly discuss stellar evolution in the context of a star like the Sun. What forces are opposing one another throughout the life of a star and how do they influence the various stages in the life cycle of a star? ______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1219. How do we calculate or determine the distances to stars? What units do we use the distances between stars and/or galaxies?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1220. Compare and contrast a high-density universe with a low-density universe in terms of its ultimate fate.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1221. A star is observed through a telescope, and a measurement of the star's spectrum is made. The left side of the star appears to be bluer than the center of the star, but the right side appears to be redder. What's going on here? Interpret these observations as fully as possible.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1222. At the center of the Milky Way galaxy, a supermassive black hole is thought to exist. Similar supermassive black holes are thought to exist at the center of spiral galaxies throughout the universe. The stars that originally formed these black holes must have been extraordinarily large. Why would stars potentially have been much larger earlier in the history of the universe?______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

1223. Two galaxies are located at some distance from Earth. The first, Galaxy A, is located 50 million light-years from Earth. The second, Galaxy B, is located 150 million light-years from Earth. How should the red shift of Galaxy A compare to Galaxy B? Explain.______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1224. This image is a "map" of the universe's microwave background radiation. It shows 13.77 billion year old temperature fluctuations from shortly after the big bang (shown as color differences) that correspond to the gravitational "seeds" that grew to become the galaxies. Why is this heterogeneity important?

NASA image______________

ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L 1225. Examine this photo of the Milky Way taken from Earth shortly after sunset. If you were there when this photo was taken, and a friend asked you to explain what you're seeing here, what features would you point out to them? What explanations would you give?

______________ ANSWER: POINTS: 1

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fes9_D2L Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1226. Examine the figure. Which of the four lettered locations is closest to the position of Earth's Sun on this graph?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: c POINTS: 100

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fes9_D2L 1227. Examine the figure. Which of the four lettered locations is closest to the position of a supergiant star?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: b POINTS: 100 1228. Which of the following four figures shows the correct set of arrows, corresponding to the evolution of a midsized star like Earth's Sun? a.

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ANSWER: c POINTS: 100 1229. Examine the figure. Which of the four options shown here most closely matches the evolution of a high-mass star?

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a. A b. B c. C Powered by Cognero

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fes9_D2L d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 100 1230. Examine the figure. This photograph represents the remnants of which of the following objects?

a. a supernova b. a red giant c. a protostar or nebula d. a barred spiral galaxy ANSWER: a POINTS: 100

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