Biology CLEP pdf by Student IC

Test Information Guide: College-Level Examination ProgramÂŽ 2011-12 Biology

CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE FOR BIOLOGY

worldwide through computer-based testing programs and also — in forward-deployed areas — through paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all CLEP candidates are military service members.

History of CLEP Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP®) has provided over six million people with the opportunity to reach their educational goals. CLEP participants have received college credit for knowledge and expertise they have gained through prior course work, independent study or work and life experience.

2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Age* Under 18 9% 30 years and older 30%

Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy. Typically, the examinations represent material taught in introductory college-level courses from all areas of the college curriculum. Students may choose from 33 different subject areas in which to demonstrate their mastery of college-level material.

18-22 years 39%

23-29 years 22%

* These data are based on 100% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this survey question during their examinations.

2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Gender

Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities recognize and grant credit for CLEP. 41%

Philosophy of CLEP Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to demonstrate and receive validation of their college-level skills and knowledge. Students who achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can enrich their college experience with higher-level courses in their major field of study, expand their horizons by taking a wider array of electives and avoid repetition of material that they already know.

58%

Computer-Based CLEP Testing The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows for a number of key features. These include: • a variety of question formats that ensure effective assessment • real-time score reporting that gives students and colleges the ability to make immediate creditgranting decisions (except College Composition, which requires faculty scoring of essays twice a month) • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all exams • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per correct answer • pretest questions that are not scored but provide current candidate population data and allow for rapid expansion of question pools

CLEP Participants CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old students, adults just entering or returning to school, homeschoolers and international students who need to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted by CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, 58 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 52 percent are 23 years of age or older. For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to provide government-funded credit-by-exam opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam fees. Exams are administered at military installations

CLEP Exam Development

The Committee

Content development for each of the CLEP exams is directed by a test development committee. Each committee is composed of faculty from a wide variety of institutions who are currently teaching the relevant college undergraduate courses. The committee members establish the test specifications based on feedback from a national curriculum survey; recommend credit-granting scores and standards; develop and select test questions; review statistical data and prepare descriptive material for use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).

The College Board appoints standing committees of college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery. Committee members usually serve a term of up to four years. Each committee works with content specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish test specifications and develop the tests. Listed below are the current committee members and their institutional affiliations.

College faculty also participate in CLEP in other ways: they convene periodically as part of standard-setting panels to determine the recommended level of student competency for the granting of college credit; they are called upon to write exam questions and to review forms and they help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP examinations through the curriculum surveys.

Elizabeth Cowles, Chair

Eastern Connecticut State University

LaJoyce Debro

Jacksonville State University

Douglas Ure

Chemeketa Community College

The primary objective of the committee is to produce tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the appropriate courses. While the consensus of the committee members is that this test has high content validity for a typical introductory Biology course or curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific course or curriculum is best determined locally through careful review and comparison of test content, with instructional content covered in a particular course or curriculum.

The Curriculum Survey The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain information needed to develop test-content specifications that reflect the current college curriculum and to recognize anticipated changes in the field. The surveys of college faculty are conducted in each subject every three to five years depending on the discipline. Specifically, the survey gathers information on: • the major content and skill areas covered in the equivalent course and the proportion of the course devoted to each area • specific topics taught and the emphasis given to each topic • specific skills students are expected to acquire and the relative emphasis given to them • recent and anticipated changes in course content, skills and topics • the primary textbooks and supplementary learning resources used • titles and lengths of college courses that correspond to the CLEP exam

The Committee Meeting The exam is developed from a pool of questions written by committee members and outside question writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty, fairness and correlation with assessment criteria are added to the pool. These questions are compiled by test development specialists according to the test specifications, and are presented to all the committee members for a final review. Before convening at a two- or three-day committee meeting, the members have a chance to review the test specifications and the pool of questions available for possible inclusion in the exam.

At the meeting, the committee determines whether the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, whether they need to be reworked and pretested again to ensure that they are accurate and unambiguous. Finally, draft forms of the exam are reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and content specifications on the various test forms. The committee is also responsible for writing and developing pretest questions. These questions are administered to candidates who take the examination and provide valuable statistical feedback on student performance under operational conditions.

developing, administering and scoring the exams. Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects, with the exception of four-semester language exams, which represents the performance of students who earn a grade of C in the corresponding college course. The American Council on Education, the major coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and to influence public policy through advocacy, research and program initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE CREDIT website at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.

Once the questions are developed and pretested, tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. These forms are of comparable difficulty and are therefore interchangeable. More commonly, questions are assembled into smaller, content-specific units called testlets, which can then be combined in different ways to create multiple test forms. This method allows many different forms to be assembled from a pool of questions.

CLEP Credit Granting CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all CLEP exams. This common credit-granting score does not mean, however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are the same. When a new or revised version of a test is introduced, the program conducts a standard setting to determine the recommended credit-granting score (“cut score”).

Test Specifications Test content specifications are determined primarily through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the committee and test development specialists, the recommendations of appropriate councils and conferences, textbook reviews and other appropriate sources of information. Content specifications take into account: • the purpose of the test • the intended test-taker population • the titles and descriptions of courses the test is designed to reflect • the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested • the length of the test, types of questions and instructions to be used

A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty members from colleges and universities across the country who are currently teaching the course, is appointed to give its expert judgment on the level of student performance that would be necessary to receive college credit in the course. The panel reviews the test and test specifications and defines the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as those of the typical B, C and D students.* Expected individual student performance is rated by each panelist on each question. The combined average of the ratings is used to determine a recommended number of examination questions that must be answered correctly to mirror classroom performance of typical B and C students in the related course. The panel’s findings are given to members of the test development committee who, with the help of Educational Testing Service and College Board psychometric specialists, make a final determination on which raw scores are equivalent to B and C levels of performance.

Recommendation of the American Council on Education (ACE) The American Council on Education’s College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for

*Student performance for the language exams (French, German and Spanish) is defined only at the B and C levels.

Biology Description of the Examination

33%

The Biology examination covers material that is usually taught in a one-year college general biology course. The subject matter tested covers the broad field of the biological sciences, organized into three major areas: molecular and cellular biology, organismal biology and population biology. The examination gives approximately equal weight to these three areas.

Molecular and Cellular Biology Chemical composition of organisms • Simple chemical reactions and bonds • Properties of water • Chemical structure of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids • Origin of life Cells • Structure and function of cell organelles • Properties of cell membranes • Comparison of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

The examination contains approximately 115 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of these are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials and providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time.

Enzymes • Enzyme-substrate complex • Roles of coenzymes • Inorganic cofactors • Inhibition and regulation

Knowledge and Skills Required Questions on the Biology examination require candidates to demonstrate one or more of the following abilities.

Energy transformations • Glycolysis, respiration, anaerobic pathways • Photosynthesis

• Knowledge of facts, principles and processes of biology • Understanding the means by which information is collected, how it is interpreted, how one hypothesizes from available information, how one draws conclusions and makes further predictions • Understanding that science is a human endeavor with social consequences

Cell division • Structure of chromosomes • Mitosis, meiosis and cytokinesis in plants and animals Chemical nature of the gene • Watson-Crick model of nucleic acids • DNA replication • Mutations • Control of protein synthesis: transcription, translation, post-transcriptional processing • Structural and regulatory genes • Transformation • Viruses

The subject matter of the Biology examination is drawn from the following topics. The percentages next to the main topics indicate the approximate percentage of exam questions on that topic.

B 34%

L O 33%

Organismal Biology Structure and function in plants with emphasis on angiosperms • Root, stem, leaf, flower, seed, fruit • Water and mineral absorption and transport • Food translocation and storage Plant reproduction and development • Alternation of generations in ferns, conifers and flowering plants • Gamete formation and fertilization • Growth and development: hormonal control • Tropisms and photoperiodicity Structure and function in animals with emphasis on vertebrates • Major systems (e.g., digestive, gas exchange, skeletal, nervous, circulatory, excretory, immune) • Homeostatic mechanisms • Hormonal control in homeostasis and reproduction

G Y Population Biology Principles of ecology • Energy flow and productivity in ecosystems • Biogeochemical cycles • Population growth and regulation (natality, mortality, competition, migration, density, r- and K-selection) • Community structure, growth, regulation (major biomes and succession) • Habitat (biotic and abiotic factors) • Concept of niche • Island biogeography • Evolutionary ecology (life history strategies, altruism, kin selection) Principles of evolution • History of evolutionary concepts • Concepts of natural selection (differential reproduction, mutation, Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, speciation, punctuated equilibrium) • Adaptive radiation • Major features of plant and animal evolution • Concepts of homology and analogy • Convergence, extinction, balanced polymorphism, genetic drift • Classification of living organisms • Evolutionary history of humans

Animal reproduction and development • Gamete formation, fertilization • Cleavage, gastrulation, germ layer formation, differentiation of organ systems • Experimental analysis of vertebrate development • Extraembryonic membranes of vertebrates • Formation and function of the mammalian placenta • Blood circulation in the human embryo

Principles of behavior • Stereotyped, learned social behavior • Societies (insects, birds, primates) Social biology • Human population growth (age composition, birth and fertility rates, theory of demographic transition) • Human intervention in the natural world (management of resources, environmental pollution) • Biomedical progress (control of human reproduction, genetic engineering)

Principles of heredity • Mendelian inheritance (dominance, segregation, independent assortment) • Chromosomal basis of inheritance • Linkage, including sex-linked • Polygenic inheritance (height, skin color) • Multiple alleles (human blood groups)

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Sample Test Questions

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3. Of the following, which is an example of a mutualistic relationship?

The following sample questions do not appear on an actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give potential test-takers an indication of the format and difficulty level of the examination and to provide content for practice and review. Knowing the correct answers to all of the sample questions is not a guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam.

(A) The protozoan Trichonympha digesting wood in the gut of a termite (B) The sporozoan Plasmodium reproducing in human blood cells and liberating toxins into the human body (C) Two species of Paramecium deriving food from a common laboratory culture (D) Rabbits being eaten by foxes (E) Humans inadvertently providing food for cockroaches

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case. 1. In which of the following ways do social insects benefit most from having several types or castes within the species?

4. Evidence that multicellular green plants may have evolved from green algae is best supplied by the fact that in both

(A) Each colony is able to include a large number of individuals. (B) The secretions or odors produced by the protective caste are an effective defense. (C) The division of the species into castes ensures the survival of the fittest. (D) Large numbers of the worker caste can migrate to start new colonies. (E) The specialized structure of each caste permits division of labor and greater efficiency.

(A) the gametophyte generation is dominant (B) the sporophyte generation is dominant (C) chlorophylls a and b are photosynthetic pigments (D) xylem vessels are pitted and spiraled (E) male gametes are nonflagellated 5. All of the following statements concerning the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis are true EXCEPT (A) An initial event is the excitation of electrons from chlorophyll by light energy. (B) The excited electrons are raised to a higher energy level. (C) If not captured, the excited electrons drop back to their initial energy levels. (D) If captured, some of the energy of the excited electrons is used to split carbon dioxide into carbon and oxygen. (E) Light is absorbed by pigments that are embedded in membranes.

2. The greatest diversity of structure and of methods of locomotion is exhibited in the individuals of (A) a class (B) a family (C) an order (D) a species (E) a phylum

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8. In amphibian gastrulas, transplantation experiments that involve moving the dorsal lip of the blastopore of one embryo to the ventral surface of another embryo indicate that this tissue

6. Which of the following statements best explains the hypothesis that the development of sexual reproduction has resulted in acceleration of the rate of evolution? (A) Mutations are more likely to occur in spermatogenesis and oogenesis than in mitotically dividing cells. (B) Sexual reproduction results in more offspring than does asexual reproduction. (C) Those members of a species that are best adapted to their environment are most likely to be successful in sexual reproduction. (D) Mutations usually do not occur in the production of spores or in cells dividing by fission. (E) Sexual reproduction is more likely to result in genetic recombination than is asexual reproduction.

(A) is destined to be ectoderm (B) does not differ from other tissues of the blastula in any significant manner (C) will cause a concentration of yolk in adjacent cells (D) has the ability to organize the body axes of the embryo (E) is so sensitive that the dorsal lip will develop into any embryonic structure, depending on its surroundings 9. Deposits of coal in Greenland and the Antarctic indicate that (A) these regions once contained numerous mollusks that deposited carbohydrates in their shells (B) the Earthâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s crust in these regions contains vast amounts of limestone (C) these regions were once thickly vegetated (D) there is a rich store of dissolved carbon dioxide in the seas surrounding these regions (E) a geologic uplift of coral rock and ocean bed has recently occurred in these regions

7. A frog skeletal muscle contracts in response to an electrical stimulus. Increase of the stimulus intensity by 50 percent will increase the strength of response nearly 50 percent. If the intensity is again increased 50 percent, the response will increase only about another 25 percent. Further increase in the stimulus intensity produces no further increase in response. The observations above are best explained by which of the following?

10. Thirst, loss of weight, and sugar in the urine result from the undersecretion of a hormone by which of the following glands?

(A) A muscle functions with an all-or-none mechanism. (B) Muscle-fiber sarcolemma is electrically resistant. (C) The fibers of a muscle do not all contract at the same rate. (D) The fibers of a muscle fatigue at varying rates. (E) The fibers of a muscle have varying thresholds for response.

(A) Thyroid (B) Parathyroid (C) Pancreas (D) Adrenal (E) Thymus

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11. Considering the role of mitochondria in cells, mitochondria would likely be most abundant in which of the following?

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14. Which of the following best describes the effect on heart action of the stimulation of the parasympathetic nerve fibers of the vagus nerve?

(A) Mature red blood cells (B) Callous cells of the skin (C) Cells of the heart muscle (D) Epithelial cells of the cheek lining (E) Fat cells

(A) There is a decrease in the volume of blood pumped and an increase in the heartbeat rate. (B) There is an increase in the volume of blood pumped without a decrease in the heartbeat rate. (C) There is a prolonged acceleration in the heartbeat rate. (D) There is a decrease in the heartbeat rate. (E) There is an increase in the blood pressure.

12. All of the following statements about enzymes are true EXCEPT (A) A single enzyme molecule can be used over and over again. (B) Most enzymes are highly specific with regard to the reactions they catalyze. (C) Some enzymes contain an essential nonprotein component. (D) Enzymes can function only within living cells. (E) Most enzymes are denatured by high temperatures.

15. If poorly drained soils encourage the growth of bacteria that convert nitrate to nitrogen, the effect on higher plants will be to (A) increase lipid production (B) decrease protein production (C) increase carbohydrate production (D) produce unusually large fruits (E) stimulate chlorophyll production

13. Which of the following is critical in limiting the size to which an animal cell may grow?

16. A patient is placed on a restricted diet of water, pure cooked starch, olive oil, adequate minerals, and vitamins. If a urinalysis several weeks later reveals the presence of relatively normal amounts of urea, the urea probably came from the

(A) The ratio of cell surface to cell volume (B) The abundance of mitochondria in the cytoplasm (C) The chemical composition of the cell membrane (D) The presence of an inelastic cell wall (E) The relative number of nucleoli

(A) food eaten during the restricted diet (B) withdrawal of reserve urea stored in the liver (C) chemical combination of water, carbon dioxide, and free nitrogen (D) deamination of cellular proteins (E) urea synthesized by kidney tubule cells

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20. Which of the following statements about imprinting is NOT true? (A) The capacity for imprinting may be limited to a specific and brief period in the early life of the organism. (B) The behavior pattern associated with imprinting is the result of reward or punishment. (C) The learned behavior resulting from imprinting is difficult to reverse in later life. (D) A gosling imprinted by a moving wooden decoy may exhibit courting behavior to the decoy in later life. (E) Odors and sounds may serve as stimuli for imprinting.

17. Shown above is the absorption spectrum of a compound of biological importance. If a person with normal human color vision viewed this compound under ordinary white light, what color would it appear to be? (A) Red (B) Blue (C) Green (D) Black (E) White

21. Which of the graphs below illustrates the effect of substrate concentration on the initial rate of reaction when a limited amount of enzyme is present? (B)

Rate of Reaction

18. The codon for a particular amino acid is 5'CAU3'. The DNA sequence that complements this codon is

Rate of Reaction

(A)

(A) 3'CAU5' (B) 3'GTA5' (C) 3'GTT5' (D) 3'GUA5' (E) 3'GUT5'

Substrate Concentration (D) Rate of Reaction

Rate of Reaction

(C)

19. Viral DNA would be most likely to contain genes that code for

Substrate Concentration

(A) regulatory hormones (B) viral-coat protein (C) viral-ribosome proteins (D) glycolytic enzymes (E) restriction enzymes

Rate of Reaction

(E)

Substrate Concentration

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26. Which of the following statements best describes the movement of energy in an ecosystem?

22. Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in the mitochondrial electron transport system?

(A) Radiant energy is converted into chemical energy in plant photosynthesis and then released as heat energy during cellular respiration. (B) Energy cycles within an ecosystem. (C) Plants get energy from the nutrients in the soil. (D) The animals in an ecosystem absorb the radiant energy of the Sun and use it to make organic molecules such as proteins. (E) Some chemoautotrophic bacteria release energy that can then be used by soil animals to make food.

(A) ADP + Pi (B) ATP (C) NAD or FAD (D) H2O (E) O2 23. In a eukaryotic cell, glycolysis occurs in which of the following parts of the cell? (A) Chloroplast (B) Cytosol (C) Nucleolus (D) Mitochondrion (E) Ribosome

27. Which of the following elements is correctly linked to its role in a living organism? (A) Calcium .. component of proteins (B) Carbon .. component of lipids (C) Magnesium .. neuron action potential (D) Potassium .. component of ATP (E) Zinc .. component of carbohydrates

24. The clotting process in blood is initiated by (A) erythrocytes (B) lymphocytes (C) hemoglobins (D) platelets (E) neutrophils

28. Mistletoe is attached to the branches of trees such as sweet gum, from which it obtains water and some nutrients. Due to this association, tree growth may be diminished. Which of the following terms describes the relationship between the two plants?

25. Which of the following membranes is correctly matched to its function? (A) Allantois .. food absorption (B) Yolk sac .. embryonic bladder (C) Amnion .. gas exchange (D) Dura mater .. brain protection (E) Peritoneum .. heart protection

(A) Commensalism (B) Competition (C) Mutualism (D) Parasitism (E) Predation

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33. Which of the following is an example of a testcross?

29. ATP is which type of molecule? (A) A nucleotide (B) A peptide (C) A phospholipid (D) A disaccharide (E) A tripeptide

(A) AA x Aa (B) A? x AA (C) A? x Aa (D) A? x aa (E) aa x aa

30. Which of the following is generally true about bacterial viruses?

Directions: The following group of questions consists of five lettered headings followed by a list of numbered phrases. For each numbered phrase select the one heading that is most closely related to it. A heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

(A) They infect animal cells only. (B) They have a protective capsid made of chitin. (C) They inject their nucleic acids into the cells that they infect. (D) They produce haploid gametes in meiosis. (E) They carry out glycolysis but not the Krebs cycle.

Questions 34â&#x20AC;&#x201C;36 refer to the following. (A) Fertilization (B) Meiosis (C) Mitosis (D) Pollination (E) Nondisjunction

31. A typical photosynthetic eukaryotic cell contains which of the following? I. Ribosomes II. Chloroplasts III. Mitochondria

34. The process by which a zygote is formed 35. The process by which the nuclei of somatic (body) cells divide

(A) II only (B) I and II only (C) II and III only (D) I and III only (E) I, II, and III

36. The process by which haploid cells are formed from diploid cells

32. Which of the following pairs of organisms are most closely related? (A) Mus bufo and Bufo americanus (B) Lynx lynx and Alces alces (C) Panthera leo and Felis concolor (D) Odocoileus virginianus and Colinus virginianus (E) Canis latrans and Canis lupus

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Questions 37â&#x20AC;&#x201C;41 refer to the following classes of vertebrates.

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Directions: Each group of questions below concerns an experimental situation. In each case, first study the description of the situation. Then choose the best answer to each question following it.

(A) Amphibians (B) Bony fish (C) Cartilaginous fish (D) Mammals (E) Reptiles

Questions 42â&#x20AC;&#x201C;44 Expenditures of solar energy, calculated by C. Juday for Lake Mendota in southern Wisconsin, appear in the table below.

37. Birds are most closely related to which class?

Reflected or otherwise lost ............. 49.5% Absorbed in evaporation of water ...... 25.0% Raised temperatures in the lake ........ 21.7% Melted ice in the spring .................. 3.0% Used directly by organisms .............. 0.8%

38. Which class includes animals that have a moist skin as the primary organ for gas exchange? 39. Which class includes whales?

The pyramid of biomass for this same lake is represented by the following diagram.

40. Members of which class produce milk for their young in specialized skin glands? 41. Which class includes snakes?

42. The most probable explanation for the relative masses of the first- and second-order consumers is that (A) each link in the food chain of an ecosystem has less available energy than the previous link has (B) only a small fraction of sunlight that reaches the Earth is transformed into chemical energy by photosynthesis (C) the total energy of the decomposers is greater than that of the rest of the organisms put together (D) seasonal fluctuations in weather limit the number of consumers (E) second-order consumers require more total energy than first-order consumers do

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43. The energy incorporated into this ecosystem is most dependent on the

45. With respect to body color, the male parent of the 112 offspring was most probably

(A) photoperiod (B) total amount of photosynthesis (C) predator-prey relationships (D) length of the food chains (E) total amount of respiration

(A) homozygous gray (B) heterozygous gray (C) homozygous black (D) heterozygous black (E) hemizygous gray

44. If the lake is assumed to be a typical ecosystem, the percent of radiant energy from the Sun reaching the lake that is trapped in photosynthesis is about

46. Examination revealed that all of the 56 red-eyed offspring were females and all of the 56 whiteeyed offspring were males. This observation indicates that

(A) 100% (B) 10% (C) 1% (D) 0.1% (E) 0.01%

(A) red and white eye colors segregate independently of sex (B) all of the red-eyed offspring inherited their eye color from their female parent (C) all of the red-eyed offspring were homozygous (D) the gene for eye color is linked to the gene for body color (E) the gene for red or for white eye color is carried on the X chromosome

Questions 45â&#x20AC;&#x201C;47 Inheritance of certain characteristics of the fruit fly, Drosophila, is as indicated by the table below. Dominant

Recessive

Body color . . . . . . .

Gray

Black

Eye color . . . . . . . .

Red

White

Characteristic

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47. In this experiment, the number of offspring that exhibit both recessive characters is (A) 1 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 55 (E) 56

A female fruit fly had a gray body and white eyes. After being mated with a male fruit fly, she laid 112 eggs that developed into the following kinds of offspring. Number

Body

Eyes

Gray

Red

Gray

White

Black

Red

Black

White

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Questions 51–55

48. Carbon dioxide is produced by which of the following? I. A mesophyll cell in a flowering plant during the night II. A muscle cell in a mammalian heart during contraction III. A yeast cell growing under anaerobic conditions

Several different samples of DNA were digested with different restriction enzymes (endonucleases) and separated by gel electrophoresis, as shown below.

(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II only (E) I, II, and III 49. Which of the following is a function of ATP? (A) It creates energy. (B) It transports energy. (C) It is a building block of proteins. (D) It stores amino acids. (E) It gives the cells shape.

51. The terms “EcoRI,” “HaeIII,” and “HindIII” refer to which of the following? (A) The voltage intensity used to prepare the electrophoresis medium (B) The restriction enzymes used (C) The organisms from which the original DNA sample was obtained (D) The types of buffers used to maintain a constant pH in the preparation as the sample was processed (E) The types of proteins encoded by each fragment

50. Protein synthesis is the main function of which of the following structures? (A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (C) Chromosome (D) Mitochondrion (E) Vacuole

52. The patterns of bands in the different lanes result from which of the following? (A) Different voltages applied to different lanes (B) Different buffers applied to different lanes (C) Different sizes of fragments in the samples in different lanes (D) Different terminal configurations of the fragments, with some having blunt ends while others have sticky ends (E) Mutations produced by the electrophoresis

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53. In this gel, the smallest fragments are

INPUT CO2

(A) at the top of the gel, near the wells (B) at the bottom of the gel, furthest from the wells (C) at the left side of the gel (D) at the right side of the gel (E) randomly scattered from top to bottom in each lane

Rubisco Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) ADP ATP

3-Phosphoglycerate ATP ADP 1, 3-Bisphosphoglycerate

(G3P)

NADPH NADP + P i

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) OUTPUT (G3P)

54. Restriction enzymes cut samples of DNA into fragments by first

Other organic compounds

(A) binding to specific sequences of nucleotides (B) oxidizing the DNA (C) heating the DNA to its denaturation point (D) breaking peptide bonds (E) unwinding the DNA

57. The original description of the pathway shown above is attributed to (A) Louis Pasteur (B) James Watson and Francis Crick (C) Hans Krebs (D) Robert Hooke (E) Melvin Calvin and Andrew Benson

55. Which of the following is the most probable explanation for the different numbers of fragments in the different lanes? (A) There were more EcoRI cut sites than HaeIII or HindIII cut sites. (B) There were more HaeIII cut sites than EcoRI or HindIII cut sites. (C) There were more HindIII cut sites than HaeIII or EcoRI cut sites. (D) A stronger voltage was applied to the first lane. (E) Different buffers were used in the different lanes.

58. A diet with insufficient iodine will most likely lead to which of the following symptoms in an individual? (A) Bleeding gums (B) Decreased metabolic rate (C) Increased body temperature (D) Increased respiratory rate (E) Weight loss 59. Which of the following structures is correctly paired with its function?

56. Which of the following best explains why a pictorial presentation of the biomass at each trophic level of an ecosystem is a pyramid?

(A) Alveolus . . locomotion (B) Cilium . . impulse transmission (C) Sarcomere . . nutrient uptake (D) Neuron . . gas exchange (E) Nephron . . filtration

(A) The loss of iron from an ecosystem (B) The amount of energy passed from one trophic level to the next (C) The number of predators in the ecosystem (D) The chemical compounds in an ecosystem are recycled (E) The average size of the individuals in each species

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62. The aerobic cellular respiration of glucose is different from the simple burning of glucose in that the aerobic respiration of glucose

60. Based on the information in the table, which of the following substitutions is synonymous?

UUU Phe U

UUC UUA Leu

SECOND BASE C A G UGU UCU UAU U Tyr Cys C UGC UAC UCC Ser UAA Stop UGA Stop A UCA

UUG

UCG

UAG Stop UGG Trp

CUU

CCU

CAU

CGU

FIRST BASE

CCC

CUC Leu CUA

CCA

CAA

CUG

CCG

CAG

AUU

ACU

AAU

Ile A AUC

ACC

AUA

ACA

GUA GUG

Val

Thr

GCA GCG

CGG

G U

AGU

AAC

Ser AGC

AAA

AGA Lys

AAG GAU

Arg

63. A given trait occurs in two alternative types, M and m, in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If 49 percent of the population has only type M alleles, what percentage of the population is expected to be heterozygous for the trait?

CGA

Asn

(A) 9% (B) 14% (C) 21% (D) 42% (E) 51%

AGG

GGU

Asp

GCC

GUC

Arg Gln

AUG Met or ACG Start GCU GUU G

CGC

CAC Pro

G U

His C

(A) releases no heat (B) requires no oxygen (C) releases more energy (D) releases hydrocarbons (E) occurs at a lower temperature

THIRD BASE

GGC

GAC Ala

GAA Lys GAG

GGA GGG

G Y

C Gly A G

64. The forelimbs of horses and frogs are considered to be homologous structures. The best evidence for this homology is that the forelimbs have

(A) AGU to AGA (B) GUU to GCU (C) UUG to CUG (D) UGA to GGA (E) CAA to CCA

(A) a similar appearance in both species (B) a similar function in both species (C) a common embryological origin (D) the same chemical composition (E) the same number of bones

61. Excess sewage can lead to the death of aquatic animals in a lake because sewage pollution promotes

65. Which of the following types of plant cells is dead at functional maturity?

(A) mineral starvation (B) erosion (C) thermal stratification (D) oxygen depletion (E) a temperature decrease

(A) Phloem companion cell (B) Xylem vessel element (C) Root endodermal cell (D) Stem cortex cell (E) Mesophyll cell

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66. In a particular plant species, the allele for tall plants is dominant and the allele for dwarfing is recessive. Which of the following is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring from a cross between a heterozygous plant and a dwarf plant?

G Y

Questions 69â&#x20AC;&#x201C;70 The pedigree below shows the occurrence of a rare, sex-linked genetic condition in a family. Shaded symbols indicate the presence of the condition. Circles indicate females, and squares indicate males.

(A) 1 tall plant : 3 dwarf plants (B) 1 tall plant : 9 dwarf plants (C) 1 tall plant : 1 dwarf plant (D) 3 tall plants : 1 dwarf plant (E) 9 tall plants : 3 dwarf plants 67. Which of the following best describes the decomposers in an ecological community? I

(A) They are the top predators. (B) They do not occur in early successional stages. (C) They are the main contributors to the gross primary productivity. (D) They fix carbon for plant respiration. (E) They are heterotrophic.

III

69. Individual I most likely has the same genotype for the condition as (A) her father (B) her grandfather (C) Individual III (D) Individual IV (E) Individual V

68. The nearly universal nature of the genetic code supports the view that (A) all living organisms on Earth share a common ancestor (B) nucleic acids were the first living things (C) proteins are of secondary importance to living systems (D) the protein composition of all living organisms is the same (E) there is redundancy in the genetic code

70. If the parents of Individuals I, II, and III have a second daughter, what is the probability that the daughter will exhibit the condition? (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 33% (D) 50% (E) 100%

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Study Resources Most textbooks used in college-level biology courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphases given to them may differ. To prepare for the Biology exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test. Candidates would do well to consult pertinent articles from magazines such as Scientific American, Science News and Natural History. Visit www.collegeboard.org/clepprep for additional biology resources. You can also find suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schoolsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; websites.

Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

E E A C D E E D C C C D A D B D C B B B D E B D D A B D A C E E D A C

36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

B E A D D E A B C C E B E B B B C B A C B E B E C D E D C B C E A D D

Test Measurement Overview Format There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, each containing a predetermined set of scored questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There may be some overlap between different forms of a test: any of the forms may have a few questions, many questions, or no questions in common. Some overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons. In the computer-based test, not all questions contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the questions presented to the candidate are being pretested for use in future editions of the tests and will not count toward his or her score.

Scoring Information

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credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent courses at various colleges and universities. These experts evaluate each question in order to determine the raw scores that would correspond to B and C levels of performance. Their judgments are then reviewed by a test development committee, which, in consultation with test content and psychometric specialists, makes a final determination. The standard-setting study is described more fully in the earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on page 4. Panel members participating in the most recent study were: Deborah Anderson Sarah Barlow

CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is simply the number of questions answered correctly. However, this raw score is not reported; the raw scores are translated into a scaled score by a process that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the questions on the various forms of the test.

Miriam Del Campo

Scaled Scores

Arnold Karpoff Michael Kunz Heather Kuruvilla Madeline Logan

The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80. Because the different forms of the tests are not always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale conversions may in some cases differ from form to form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. Table 1 indicates the relationship between number correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms.

The Recommended Credit-Granting Score Table 1 also indicates the recommended credit-granting score, which represents the performance of students earning a grade of C in the corresponding course. The recommended B-level score represents B-level performance in equivalent course work. These scores were established as the result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent having been conducted in 2001. The recommended

Dennis Des Roches Lynelle Golden Karl Joplin Lloyd Kahn

Phillip Mason James Rooney Fred Tone Carolyn Wetzel

Saint Norbert College Middle Tennessee State University Miami Dade Community College Southeastern Louisiana University Kennesaw State University East Tennessee State University Hudson County Community College University of Louisville Fresno Pacific University Cedarville College North Shore Community College Fairmont State College Lincoln University — Missouri Central Piedmont Community College East Tennessee State University

To establish the exact correspondences between raw and scaled scores, a scaled score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that corresponds to the recommended credit-granting score for C-level performance. Then a high (but in some cases, possibly less than perfect) raw score will be selected and assigned a scaled score of 80. These two points — 50 and 80 — determine a linear raw-to-scale conversion for the test.

Table 1: Biology Interpretive Score Data American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 6 Course Grade

Scaled Score

Number Correct

80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50* 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20

97-100 95-96 93-94 91-92 89-90 87-88 85-86 84-85 82-83 80-81 78-79 77-78 75-76 73-74 72 70-71 68-69 67 65-66 63-64 62-63 60-61 58-59 57-58 55-56 54-55 52-53 51-52 49-50 48-49 46-47 45-46 43-44 42-43 40-41 39-40 37-38 36-37 34-35 33-34 32 30-31 29-30 27-28 26-27 25 23-24 22-23 20-21 19-20 18 16-17 15-16 14 12-13 11-12 10 8- 9 7- 8 6 0- 5

*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE. Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difficulty.

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Validity

Reliability

Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are used to make inferences about the examinees’ knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the scores for that purpose is the extent to which those inferences can be trusted to be accurate.

The reliability of the test scores of a group of examinees is commonly described by two statistics: the reliability coefficient and the standard error of measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is the correlation between the scores those examinees get (or would get) on two independent replications of the measurement process. The reliability coefficient is intended to indicate the stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores, and is often expressed as a number ranging from .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted as the correlation between the scores examinees would earn on two forms of the test that had no questions in common.

One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is called content-related evidence of validity. It is usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts who evaluate the extent to which the content of the test is appropriate for the inferences to be made about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee that developed the CLEP Biology examination selected the content of the test to reflect the content of the general Biology curriculum and courses at most colleges, as determined by a curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in the content of the courses they offer, faculty members should, and are urged to, review the content outline and the sample questions to ensure that the test covers core content appropriate to the courses at their college. Another type of evidence for test-score validity is called criterion-related evidence of validity. It consists of statistical evidence that examinees who score high on the test also do well on other measures of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades they received in corresponding classes, or other measures of achievement or ability. At a college’s request, CLEP and the College Board conduct these studies, called Admitted Class Evaluation Service, or ACES, for individual colleges that meet certain criteria. Please contact CLEP for more information.

Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP exam. This involves looking at the statistical relationships among responses to individual multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability of the total test score. The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent to a more general formula called coefficient alpha. The SEM is an index of the extent to which students’ obtained scores tend to vary from their true scores.1 It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals extending one standard error above and below the true score (see below) for a test-taker will include 68 percent of that test-taker’s obtained scores. Similarly, intervals extending two standard errors above and below the true score will include 95 percent of the test-taker’s obtained scores. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard error of measurement would be zero. Scores on the CLEP examination in Biology are estimated to have a reliability coefficient of 0.91. The standard error of measurement is 2.92 scaled-score points. 1

True score is a hypothetical concept indicating what an individual’s score on a test would be if there were no errors introduced by the measuring process. It is thought of as the hypothetical average of an infinite number of obtained scores for a test-taker with the effect of practice removed.

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