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Test Information Guide: College-Level Examination ProgramÂŽ 2011-12 Western Civilization II
Š 2012 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, College-Level Examination Program, CLEP, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE FOR WESTERN CIVILIZATION II
worldwide through computer-based testing programs and also — in forward-deployed areas — through paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all CLEP candidates are military service members.
History of CLEP
2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Age*
Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP®) has provided over six million people with the opportunity to reach their educational goals. CLEP participants have received college credit for knowledge and expertise they have gained through prior course work, independent study or work and life experience.
Under 18 9% 30 years and older 30%
18-22 years 39%
23-29 years 22%
Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy. Typically, the examinations represent material taught in introductory college-level courses from all areas of the college curriculum. Students may choose from 33 different subject areas in which to demonstrate their mastery of college-level material.
* These data are based on 100% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this survey question during their examinations.
2010-11 National CLEP Candidates by Gender
Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities recognize and grant credit for CLEP.
41%
Philosophy of CLEP Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to demonstrate and receive validation of their college-level skills and knowledge. Students who achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can enrich their college experience with higher-level courses in their major field of study, expand their horizons by taking a wider array of electives and avoid repetition of material that they already know.
58%
Computer-Based CLEP Testing The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows for a number of key features. These include: • a variety of question formats that ensure effective assessment • real-time score reporting that gives students and colleges the ability to make immediate creditgranting decisions (except College Composition, which requires faculty scoring of essays twice a month) • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all exams • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per correct answer • pretest questions that are not scored but provide current candidate population data and allow for rapid expansion of question pools
CLEP Participants CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old students, adults just entering or returning to school, home-schoolers and international students who need to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted by CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, 58 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 52 percent are 23 years of age or older. For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to provide government-funded credit-by-exam opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam fees. Exams are administered at military installations
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CLEP Exam Development
The Committee
Content development for each of the CLEP exams is directed by a test development committee. Each committee is composed of faculty from a wide variety of institutions who are currently teaching the relevant college undergraduate courses. The committee members establish the test specifications based on feedback from a national curriculum survey; recommend credit-granting scores and standards; develop and select test questions; review statistical data and prepare descriptive material for use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).
The College Board appoints standing committees of college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery. Committee members usually serve a term of up to four years. Each committee works with content specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish test specifications and develop the tests. Listed below are the current committee members and their institutional affiliations.
College faculty also participate in CLEP in other ways: they convene periodically as part of standard-setting panels to determine the recommended level of student competency for the granting of college credit; they are called upon to write exam questions and to review forms and they help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP examinations through the curriculum surveys.
David Longfellow, Chair
Baylor University
William Alexander
Norfolk State University
Margaretta Handke
Minnesota State University, Mankato
Sally West
Truman State University
The primary objective of the committee is to produce tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the appropriate courses. While the consensus of the committee members is that this test has high content validity for a typical introductory Western Civilization II course or curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific course or curriculum is best determined locally through careful review and comparison of test content, with instructional content covered in a particular course or curriculum.
The Curriculum Survey The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain information needed to develop test-content specifications that reflect the current college curriculum and to recognize anticipated changes in the field. The surveys of college faculty are conducted in each subject every three to five years depending on the discipline. Specifically, the survey gathers information on: • the major content and skill areas covered in the equivalent course and the proportion of the course devoted to each area • specific topics taught and the emphasis given to each topic • specific skills students are expected to acquire and the relative emphasis given to them • recent and anticipated changes in course content, skills and topics • the primary textbooks and supplementary learning resources used • titles and lengths of college courses that correspond to the CLEP exam
The Committee Meeting The exam is developed from a pool of questions written by committee members and outside question writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty, fairness and correlation with assessment criteria are added to the pool. These questions are compiled by test development specialists according to the test specifications, and are presented to all the committee members for a final review. Before convening at a two- or three-day committee meeting, the members have a chance to review the test specifications and the pool of questions available for possible inclusion in the exam.
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At the meeting, the committee determines whether the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, whether they need to be reworked and pretested again to ensure that they are accurate and unambiguous. Finally, draft forms of the exam are reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and content specifications on the various test forms. The committee is also responsible for writing and developing pretest questions. These questions are administered to candidates who take the examination and provide valuable statistical feedback on student performance under operational conditions.
developing, administering and scoring the exams. Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects, with the exception of four-semester language exams, which represents the performance of students who earn a grade of C in the corresponding college course. The American Council on Education, the major coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and to influence public policy through advocacy, research and program initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE CREDIT website at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.
Once the questions are developed and pretested, tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. These forms are of comparable difficulty and are therefore interchangeable. More commonly, questions are assembled into smaller, content-specific units called testlets, which can then be combined in different ways to create multiple test forms. This method allows many different forms to be assembled from a pool of questions.
CLEP Credit Granting CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all CLEP exams. This common credit-granting score does not mean, however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are the same. When a new or revised version of a test is introduced, the program conducts a standard setting to determine the recommended credit-granting score (“cut score”).
Test Specifications Test content specifications are determined primarily through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the committee and test development specialists, the recommendations of appropriate councils and conferences, textbook reviews and other appropriate sources of information. Content specifications take into account: • the purpose of the test • the intended test-taker population • the titles and descriptions of courses the test is designed to reflect • the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested • the length of the test, types of questions and instructions to be used
A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty members from colleges and universities across the country who are currently teaching the course, is appointed to give its expert judgment on the level of student performance that would be necessary to receive college credit in the course. The panel reviews the test and test specifications and defines the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as those of the typical B, C and D students.* Expected individual student performance is rated by each panelist on each question. The combined average of the ratings is used to determine a recommended number of examination questions that must be answered correctly to mirror classroom performance of typical B and C students in the related course. The panel’s findings are given to members of the test development committee who, with the help of Educational Testing Service and College Board psychometric specialists, make a final determination on which raw scores are equivalent to B and C levels of performance.
Recommendation of the American Council on Education (ACE) The American Council on Education’s College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for
*Student performance for the language exams (French, German and Spanish) is defined only at the B and C levels.
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Western Civilization II Description of the Examination
The subject matter of the Western Civilization II examination is drawn from the following topics. The percentages next to the main topics indicate the approximate percentage of exam questions on that topic.
The Western Civilization II: 1648 to the Present examination covers material that is usually taught in the second semester of a two-semester course in Western Civilization. Questions cover European history from the mid-seventeenth century through the post-Second World War period including political, economic and cultural developments such as Scientific Thought, the Enlightenment, the French and Industrial Revolutions, and the First and Second World Wars. Candidates may be asked to choose the correct definition of a historical term, select the historical figure whose viewpoint is described, identify the correct relationship between two historical factors, or detect the inaccurate pairing of an individual with a historical event. Groups of questions may require candidates to interpret, evaluate or relate the contents of a passage, a map, a picture or a cartoon to the other information or to analyze and use the data contained in a graph or table.
7%–9% Absolutism and Constitutionalism, 1648–1715 The Dutch Republic The English Revolution France under Louis XIV Formation of Austria and Prussia The “westernization” of Russia 4%–6% Competition for Empire and Economic Expansion Global economy of the eighteenth century Europe after Utrecht, 1713–1740 Demographic change in the eighteenth century 5%–7% The Scientific View of the World Major figures of the scientific revolution New knowledge of man and society Political theory
The examination contains approximately 120 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of these are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials and providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time.
7%–9% Period of Enlightenment Enlightenment thought Enlightened despotism Partition of Poland
Knowledge and Skills Required Questions on the Western Civilization II examination require candidates to demonstrate one or more of the following abilities. • Ability to understand important factual knowledge of developments in Western Civilization • Ability to identify the causes and effects of major events in history • Ability to analyze, interpret and evaluate textual and graphic historical materials • Ability to distinguish the relevant from the irrelevant • Ability to reach conclusions on the basis of facts
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10%–13% Revolution and Napoleonic Europe The Revolution in France The Revolution and Europe The French Empire Congress of Vienna 7%–9% The Industrial Revolution Agricultural and industrial revolution Causes of revolution Economic and social impact on working and middle class British reform movement
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6%–8% Political and Cultural Developments, 1815–1848 Conservatism Liberalism Nationalism Socialism The Revolutions of 1830 and 1848
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10%–12% The First World War and the Russian Revolution The causes of the First World War The economic and social impact of the war The peace settlements The Revolution of 1917 and its effects 7%–9% Europe Between the Wars The Great Depression International politics, 1919–1939 Stalin’s five-year plans and purges Italy and Germany between the wars Interwar cultural developments
8%–10% Politics and Diplomacy in the Age of Nationalism, 1850–1914 The unification of Italy and Germany Austria-Hungary Russia France Socialism and labor unions European diplomacy, 1871–1900
8%–10% The Second World War and Contemporary Europe The causes and course of the Second World War Postwar Europe Science, philosophy, the arts and religion Social and political developments
7%–9% Economy, Culture and Imperialism, 1850–1914 Demography World economy of the nineteenth century Technological developments Science, philosophy and the arts Imperialism in Africa and Asia
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Sample Test Questions The following sample questions do not appear on an actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give potential test-takers an indication of the format and difficulty level of the examination and to provide content for practice and review. Knowing the correct answers to all of the sample questions is not a guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam. Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case. Digital Image @ The Museum of Modern Art/Licensed by SCALA/Art Resource NY
1. Colbert’s economic policies ran into difficulties chiefly because of the
3. Which of the following is a major theme depicted in the painting above?
(A) relative poverty of France (B) loss of France’s colonial empire (C) wars of Louis XIV (D) abandonment of the salt tax (E) reckless spending by the nobility
(A) A scientific view of the world (B) Enlightened rationalism (C) Romantic concern with nature (D) Realistic appraisal of industrial progress (E) The world of the unconscious mind
2. Which of the following best describes the use of the inductive method, as described by Francis Bacon?
4. Which of the following occurred as a result of the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–1748) and the Seven Years’ War (1756–1763)?
(A) Consult established scientific opinion and formulate a philosophical system based on it. (B) Begin with a mathematical principle and draw inferences from it. (C) Begin by making observations and then draw conclusions from them. (D) Begin with self-evident truths and draw inferences from them. (E) Advance learning by comparisons, analogies, and insights.
(A) Prussia emerged as an important economic and military power. (B) Sweden ceased to be a great power. (C) Russia extended its territory to the shores of the Baltic Sea. (D) Hapsburg claims to Polish territory were dropped. (E) France acquired the provinces of Alsace and Lorraine.
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5. Which of the following best describes Joseph II of Austria? (A) An absolute monarch who consolidated his authority through military force (B) An absolute monarch whose policies were considered reactionary by the intelligentsia (C) A skilled politician who coined the expression “Politics is the art of the possible” (D) A monarch who tried to impose religious uniformity throughout his territory (E) A monarch who sought to translate Enlightenment principles into government policies and objectives
8. The cartoon above refers to the (A) Napoleonic Wars (B) Crimean War (C) Boer War (D) Russo-Japanese War (E) First World War
6. Which of the following statements best describes the term “romanticism?” (A) A belief that the rules of art are eternal and unchanging (B) Interest in expressing general and universal truths rather than particular and concrete ones (C) Emphasis on logical reasoning and exact factual knowledge (D) Emphasis on a high degree of emotional subjectivity (E) A value system that rejects idealism
9. All of the following were instrumental in the emergence of Italy as a modern nation-state EXCEPT (A) Mazzini (B) Napoleon III (C) Cavour (D) Francis II (E) Garibaldi
7. All of the following were related to the Eastern Question EXCEPT
10. Men being by nature all free, equal, and independent, no one can be put out of this estate and subjected to the political power of another without his own consent, which is done by agreeing with other men, to join and unite into a community for their comfortable, safe, and peaceable living in a secure enjoyment of their properties.
(A) Pan-Slavism (B) the Congress of Berlin of 1878 (C) the Crimean War (D) the Kruger Telegram (E) the Treaty of San Stefano
The quotation above is from a work by (A) John Locke (B) Karl Marx (C) Edmund Burke (D) Voltaire (E) Adam Smith
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14. The three classes, being associated and united in interest, would forget their hatred. . . . Labor would put an end to the drudgery of the people and the disdain of the rich for their inferiors, whose labors they would share. There would no longer be any poor, and social antipathies would disappear with the causes which produced them.
11. Which of the following characterizes the size of the population of Europe during the eighteenth century? (A) It increased rapidly. (B) It stayed about the same. (C) It declined. (D) It dropped drastically in Western Europe but rose in Eastern Europe. (E) It dropped drastically in Eastern Europe but rose in Western Europe.
The quotation above typifies which of the following schools of thought? (A) Utopian socialism (B) Marxism (C) Utilitarianism (D) Social Darwinism (E) Stalinism
12. The term “collective security� would most likely be discussed in which of the following studies? (A) A book on the twentieth-century welfare state (B) A monograph on Soviet agricultural policy during the 1920s (C) A book on Bismarckian imperialism (D) A treatise on Social Darwinism (E) A work on European diplomacy during the 1930s
15. The British economist John Maynard Keynes did which of the following? (A) He urged governments to increase mass purchasing power in times of deflation. (B) He defended the principles of the Versailles Treaty. (C) He helped to establish the British Labour party. (D) He prophesied the inevitable economic decline of capitalism. (E) He defined the concept of marginal utility to replace the labor theory of value. 16. The vast increase in German military expenditures in the two decades preceding the First World War occurred primarily because Germany (A) had extended its imperialistic activities to the Far East (B) was planning to militarize the provinces of Alsace and Lorraine (C) was extending military aid to Russia (D) feared an attack from France (E) was rapidly expanding its navy
13. The map above shows national boundaries in which of the following years? (A) 1789 (B) 1812 (C) 1815 (D) 1870 (E) 1914
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17. In comparison to a preindustrial economy, the most distinctive feature of a modern economy is its
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20. Each individual, bestowing more time and attention upon the means of preserving and increasing his portion of wealth than is or can be bestowed by government, is likely to take a more effectual course than what, in this instance and on his behalf, would be taken by government.
(A) greater capacity to sustain growth over time (B) increased democratization of the workplace (C) lower wages for the literate middle class (D) lack of economic cycles (E) elimination of hunger and poverty
The quotation above best illustrates which of the following? (A) Fascism (B) Mercantilism (C) Syndicalism (D) Classical liberalism (E) Utopian socialism
18. Which of the following was NOT an issue disturbing Europe on the eve of the Revolutions of 1848? (A) Socialism versus capitalism (B) Hungarian independence (C) The unification of France (D) The power of the papacy (E) The condition of serfs
21. The aim of the Soviet Union’s First Five-Year Plan was to (A) acquire foreign capital (B) produce an abundance of consumer goods (C) encourage agricultural production by subsidizing the kulaks (D) build up heavy industry (E) put industrial policy in the hands of the peasantry
19. The primary goal of Marxist socialists in the latter half of the nineteenth century was to (A) establish constitutional government (B) ensure equal rights for women (C) end government regulation of business (D) institute trial by jury in all criminal cases (E) abolish private ownership of the means of production
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POPULATION DENSITY IN FRANCE PER SQUARE KILOMETER
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23. The National Assembly in France (1789–1791) did all of the following EXCEPT (A) issue assignats (B) ban strikes (C) pass the Civil Constitution of the Clergy (D) abolish guilds (E) abolish private property 24. Historical explanations for nineteenth-century European imperialism include all of the following EXCEPT (A) a need to discover new sources of raw materials (B) a need to find new markets for manufactured goods (C) a need to invest excess financial resources (D) a desire to establish world government (E) a desire to maintain the European balance of power 25. All of the following factors contributed to the rise of the National Socialist German Workers’ party (Nazis) EXCEPT
22. The increase in population density between 1801 and 1846 shown above indicates that (A) the growth of Paris absorbed any natural population increase (B) there was a reversing trend in which industry moved to the center of France while agriculture moved to the north (C) the population distribution in existence in 1801 was almost unchanged in 1846 (D) by 1846 southern France was declining in population (E) by 1846 central France was declining in population
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(A) the weakness of the Weimar Republic (B) the dissatisfaction with the Versailles Treaty (C) the impact of the Great Depression (D) the support of German conservatives (E) the support of Socialist trade unions
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26. He used extreme methods and mass repressions at a time when the Revolution was already victorious, when the Soviet state was strengthened, when the exploiting classes were already liquidated and Socialist relations were rooted solidly in all phases of the national economy, when our party was politically consolidated and had strengthened itself both numerically and ideologically.
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29. In the mid-eighteenth century, European population increased sharply for all of the following reasons EXCEPT (A) improved agricultural techniques (B) improvements in medical care (C) fewer famines (D) a decline in the death rate (E) a decline of the plague
In the quotation above, which of the following spoke and about whom?
30. One of the goals of the physiocrats was to
(A) Khrushchev about Stalin (B) Khrushchev about Trotsky (C) Stalin about Trotsky (D) Trotsky about Lenin (E) Brezhnev about Lenin 27. Albert Einstein’s theory of relativity proposed (A) a new structure for the atom (B) a new conception of space and time (C) the fundamental concepts for developing the computer (D) the origin of the universe from the explosion of a single mass (E) the particulate nature of light 28. Which of the following is a central and essential component of the European welfare state? (A) Nationalization of all major sectors of the economy (B) Decentralization of the state (C) State responsibility for assuring access to medical care for all citizens (D) Elimination of large private fortunes through taxation (E) Elimination of independent trade unions
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(A) reform the French monarchy along Dutch lines (B) implement more stringent mercantilist economic policies (C) implement free-trade policies (D) repudiate the national debt (E) effect a complete redistribution of arable land in France 31. During the reign of Catherine the Great (1762–1796), all of the following occurred EXCEPT (A) Russia increased its commercial and cultural contacts with the West. (B) Russia won several wars against the Ottoman Empire. (C) A new class of powerful merchants appeared in Russia’s major cities. (D) The Russian population increased in size. (E) Increasingly, the upper classes were educated in and spoke French.
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35. Which of the following largely resolved the battle for sovereignty between crown and Parliament in England? (A) The Test Act of 1673 (B) The acceptance of the divine right of kings (C) John Locke’s Second Treatise of Civil Government (D) The Glorious Revolution (E) The English Civil War 36. Each contract of each particular state is but a clause in the great primeval contract of eternal society, linking the lower with the higher natures, connecting the visible and invisible world, according to a fixed compact sanctioned by the inviolable oath which holds all physical and all moral natures, each in their appointed place.
32. The map of Europe shown portrays national boundaries as they existed in
The quotation above reflects the ideas of
(A) 1871 (B) 1913 (C) 1925 (D) 1948 (E) 1950
(A) Charles Fourier (B) Voltaire (C) Rousseau (D) Adam Smith (E) Edmund Burke
33. The dictum “form follows function” is associated with which of the following trends in the arts?
37. Which of the following is true of the French Revolution of 1830? (A) It strengthened the power of the working class. (B) It overthrew the Bourbon Monarch Charles X. (C) It produced a constitutional monarchy based on universal adult male suffrage. (D) It was suppressed by Charles X with the aid of Austria and Russia. (E) It strengthened the power of the Roman Catholic Church in France.
(A) Neoclassicism (B) Modernism (C) Humanism (D) Romanticism (E) Realism 34. The Ostpolitik of West German Chancellor Willy Brandt was designed to (A) nationalize German banks (B) win Soviet diplomatic recognition for West Germany (C) deepen West Germany’s commitment to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) (D) normalize West German relations with the communist states of Eastern Europe (E) promote free trade in Europe
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38. Which of the following countries remained most closely aligned, ideologically and economically, with the Soviet Union from 1945 to 1989? (A) The People’s Republic of China (B) Bulgaria (C) Czechoslovakia (D) Hungary (E) Poland 39. We are fifty or a hundred years behind the advanced countries. We must make good this distance in ten years. Either we do it or they crush us.
The Granger Collection, New York
41. The eighteenth-century political cartoon reproduction shown above relates most closely to which of the following events of the French Revolution?
The quotation above is attributed to (A) Charles de Gaulle calling for France to prepare for tank warfare (B) Winston Churchill demanding that Britain expand its air force and navy (C) Joseph Stalin explaining the need for continued industrial development in the Soviet Union (D) Mao Zedong (Mao Tse-tung) introducing the Cultural Revolution in China (E) Adolf Hitler inaugurating German rearmament
(A) The emergence of the power of the Third Estate (B) The tensions between the nobility and clergy (C) The mistreatment of political prisoners (D) The death of Marat (E) The Thermidorean Reaction 42. Which of the following joined Nazi Germany in its attack on the Soviet Union?
40. By the end of the seventeenth century, which of the following was a consequence of the policies pursued by Spain in its colonial possessions in the New World? (A) Economic and social mobility in Spanish America were greatly inhibited by a rigid ethnic and class structure. (B) The native inhabitants had secured a degree of political independence. (C) The Roman Catholic Church had been forced to tolerate Protestant missionary activities. (D) Most colonists had come to view themselves as fundamentally opposed to their compatriots remaining in Spain. (E) There had been virtually no intermarriage among various racial groups.
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(A) Great Britain (B) Finland (C) Sweden (D) Turkey (E) Japan
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43. Churchill’s famous phrase “Never—was so much owed by so many to so few” referred to (A) those who evacuated the Allied army from Dunkirk (B) those who convoyed food and materiel across the Atlantic in the early 1940s (C) the scientists who developed radar and other early warning technologies (D) the fighter pilots of the Royal Air Force who won the Battle of Britain (E) the cryptographers who broke the German and Japanese military and diplomatic codes 44. The Soviet foreign policy of “peaceful coexistence” was most closely associated with which of the following Soviet domestic policies? (A) Lenin’s New Economic Policy (NEP) (B) Stalin’s program of collectivization (C) Khrushchev’s policy of de-Stalinization (D) Brezhnev’s policy toward dissidents (E) Andropov’s program of increased industrial output
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46. Which of the following countries intervened militarily in Mexico in the 1860s in an attempt to establish colonial control? (A) Germany (B) Sweden (C) Portugal (D) Italy (E) France 47. The theories of which of the following had the most influence on the American and French Revolutions? (A) Condorcet, Voltaire, Jefferson (B) Pitt, Hobbes, Raynal (C) Diderot, Burke, Fox (D) Montesquieu, Locke, Rousseau (E) Wilkes, Turgot, Helvetius 48. The country that pioneered social insurance legislation in the late nineteenth century was (A) Great Britain (B) France (C) Germany (D) Austria (E) Russia
45. This is what I see and what troubles me. I look on all sides and I see only darkness everywhere. Nature presents to me nothing which is not a matter of doubt and concern. It is incomprehensible that God should exist and that God should not exist.
49. One accomplishment of the British Reform Bill of 1832 was the
The quotation above expresses the view of (A) Pascal (B) Newton (C) Bacon (D) Galileo (E) Hobbes
(A) reduction in the parliamentary power of the House of Lords (B) reduction in the constitutional powers of the Crown (C) extension of parliamentary representation to the new industrial centers (D) extension of the right to vote to all males over the age of 21 (E) increase in the representation of the colonies in Parliament
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50. Which of the following was an outcome of the First World War?
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53. The importance of Sigmund Freud in the development of Western thought is that
(A) The downfall of the German, Ottoman, Italian, and British Empires (B) Territorial gains for Italy, Romania, Austria, and Hungary (C) National independence for Poland, Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia, and Finland (D) A decrease in the number of parliamentary democracies in Europe (E) Successful Communist revolutions in Russia and Germany 51. Women did not gain the right to vote until after the Second World War in which of the following groups of countries?
(A) he proved the Enlightenment belief that the mind responded to conscious motives in a rational manner (B) his ideas on the id, ego, and superego have gone unchallenged since the late-nineteenth century (C) he paved the way for the sexual revolution in the late-twentieth century (D) his theories have had a great impact on twentieth-century thought, culture, and science (E) his method of psychoanalysis has proved to cure all kinds of mental illnesses 54. Film director Leni Riefenstahl depicts the birth of the new Germany in her 1934 film “Triumph of the Will� through
(A) Great Britain, the United States, and France (B) France, Italy, and Switzerland (C) Germany, Austria, and Russia (D) Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary (E) Norway, the Netherlands, and Sweden
(A) Wagnerian music and military exercises (B) Olympic games (C) idyllic rural scenes (D) the defeat of France (E) the Luftwaffe
52. Pablo Picasso is credited with founding the twentieth-century art movement called (A) fauvism (B) expressionism (C) cubism (D) futurism (E) baroque
55. The National Workshops were established in France in order to (A) compete with cheap goods being produced in America (B) mass produce military weapons (C) produce quality wines for the European market (D) reduce high urban, especially Parisian, unemployment (E) promote Protestant social reforms
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56. The Agricultural Revolution included all of the following features EXCEPT
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ACTIVE WORKFORCE Great Britain (1961)
(A) France and Prussia pioneered in agricultural innovations (B) a new system of crop rotation allowed for better replenishment of soil nutrients (C) enclosures of land made food production more efficient (D) seed drills often replaced the broadcast method of sowing (E) crossbreeding practices improved livestock production
Spain (1964)
Agriculture Mining
Agriculture Services
Services Commerce
Manufacturing Commerce Construction Construction
Mining Manufacturing Men Women
57. All of the following were among the Great Reforms implemented in Russia during the reign of Alexander II (1855–1881) EXCEPT (A) the establishment of a parliament (B) the creation of regional councils known as zemstvos (C) the emancipation of the serfs (D) judicial reforms that granted all Russians access to civil courts (E) military reforms that reduced the length of the term of service for conscripts 58. The Second International, formed in 1889, lost its reason for existence primarily because of the (A) disintegration of socialist international solidarity in the face of wartime nationalism (B) disintegration of the German Social Democratic Party (C) Russian Bolshevik Revolution, which was repudiated by western European socialists (D) militarism of the French socialist leader, Jean Jaurès (E) disputes between French and German socialists over the question of Alsace-Lorraine
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59. The chart shown above supports which of the following conclusions about employment during the 1960s? (A) A large proportion of the working population in Spain was engaged in agriculture. (B) Over half the working population in both countries was employed in mining and manufacturing. (C) There was very little unemployment in Great Britain. (D) A majority of women in both countries were employed in commerce. (E) Women in both countries earned higher wages than their male counterparts. 60. All of the following were results of the Treaty of Paris (1763) EXCEPT (A) Britain controlled much of India. (B) France retained most of its sugar colonies in the West Indies. (C) France suffered no decline in its overseas trade. (D) Britain emerged as the predominant sea power. (E) France had to give up its remaining North American mainland colonies.
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65. Which of the following statements about female industrial workers in eighteenth-century England is correct?
61. In the mid-nineteenth century, women were LEAST likely to be employed in which of the following occupations? (A) Factory work (B) Domestic service (C) Shopkeeping (D) Teaching (E) Legal services 62. The Great Elector, Frederick William of Brandenburg-Prussia (1640–1688), advocated all of the following policies EXCEPT (A) a uniform currency system (B) profitable dynastic marriages (C) Jewish immigration (D) a citizen army rather than a standing army (E) consolidation of Hohenzollern lands 63. In 1936 it was widely assumed that France would come to the aid of the Republicans in Spain because France (A) had been a consistent supporter of Franco (B) opposed the Moscow-dominated government in Madrid (C) wanted to seize Gibraltar (D) was mandated by the League of Nations to defend Spain (E) had a Popular Front government, as did Spain 64. Disraeli led the Conservatives in taking “a leap in the dark” in 1867. This phrase refers to the (A) extension of the franchise to male working-class householders (B) establishment of a more vigorous foreign policy vis-à-vis continental Europe (C) plan proposed for establishing home rule in Ireland (D) attempt to stimulate the economy through the use of deficit spending (E) decision to grant dominion status to Canada
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(A) They outnumbered male workers. (B) Most left employment before they married. (C) Most left the mills soon after employment to return to the countryside. (D) They generally received lower pay than male workers. (E) They were protected by law from hazardous occupations such as mining. 66. The enormous business success of the eighteenth-century English potter Josiah Wedgwood can be attributed primarily to (A) the wealth of the aristocracy and their desire for elaborate china (B) the rising prominence of the middle class, who sought to emulate the upper class (C) the development of a huge overseas market for English china (D) the prominence of coffee and tea drinking in the eighteenth century (E) royal patronage for potters and weavers 67. “Separate spheres” refers to which of the following in nineteenth-century Europe? (A) The post-1789 legal relationship between the Catholic Church and the civil authority (B) The division of domestic and foreign policy making in modern constitutional states (C) Different roles of men and women in Victorian society (D) Parts of the human psyche as defined by Sigmund Freud (E) Gregor Mendel’s techniques for determining heredity
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68. The “Velvet Revolution” refers to the collapse of communism in which of the following Eastern European countries? (A) Poland (B) Hungary (C) Yugoslavia (D) Czechoslovakia (E) Romania 69. Which of the following political philosophers believed that liberty could be preserved through separation of powers and checks and balances? (A) Jean-Jacques Rousseau (B) Adam Smith (C) Montesquieu (D) Thomas Hobbes (E) Voltaire
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72. The attack on the Bastille by the Paris mob, July 14, 1789, was (A) undertaken to free the large number of inmates there (B) initiated to arrest the commander of the prison, who was known as a monster of cruelty (C) a spontaneous reaction to a symbol that had long represented despotism (D) a desperate, planned move to begin revolution between French citizens and the government (E) an action to force Louis XVI from Versailles to Paris 73. The “revolution of textiles” in eighteenth-century England involved principally (A) silk cloth (B) linen cloth (C) cotton cloth (D) machine-made tapestries (E) imported Indian calico cloth
70. Which of the following works most directly challenged the theory of the divine right of kings? (A) The Wealth of Nations (B) Letters Concerning the English Nation (C) Crime and Punishment (D) The Social Contract (E) The Prince
74. Most sansculottes demanded which of the following from the leaders of the French Revolution? (A) Higher taxes for the wealthy, and rent and price restrictions (B) Restoration of church lands (C) Equal rights for women (D) Prices based on supply and demand (E) Property qualifications for voters
71. During the Enlightenment, an unwillingness to accept explanations for events or phenomena unless such explanations were based on empirical evidence or logic was called (A) stoicism (B) mysticism (C) monasticism (D) skepticism (E) shamanism
75. Serfdom was abolished in 1861 in which of the following? (A) Spain (B) Prussia (C) The Netherlands (D) Russia (E) Austria-Hungary
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Study Resources
Answer Key
Most textbooks used in college-level Western civilization courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphases given to them may differ. To prepare for the Western Civilization II exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test. You may also find it helpful to supplement your reading with books listed in the bibliographies found in most history textbooks. In addition, contemporary historical novels, plays and films provide rich sources of information. Actual works of art in museums can bring to life not only the reproductions found in books but history itself. Visit www.collegeboard.org/clepprep for additional Western civilization resources. You can also find suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schools’ websites.
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1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.
C C E A E D D E D A A E B A A E A C E D D C E D E A B C B C C C B D D E B B
39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
C A A B D C A E D C C C B C D A D A A A A C E D E A D B C D C D D C C A D
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Test Measurement Overview Format There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, each containing a predetermined set of scored questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There may be some overlap between different forms of a test: any of the forms may have a few questions, many questions, or no questions in common. Some overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons. In the computer-based test, not all questions contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the questions presented to the candidate are being pretested for use in future editions of the tests and will not count toward his or her score.
Scoring Information CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is simply the number of questions answered correctly. However, this raw score is not reported; the raw scores are translated into a scaled score by a process that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the questions on the various forms of the test.
Scaled Scores The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80. Because the different forms of the tests are not always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale conversions may in some cases differ from form to form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. Table 1 indicates the relationship between number correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms.
The Recommended Credit-Granting Score Table 1 also indicates the recommended credit-granting score, which represents the performance of students earning a grade of C in the corresponding course. The recommended B-level score represents B-level performance in equivalent course work. These scores were established as the result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent having been conducted in 2011. The recommended credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent
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courses at various colleges and universities. These experts evaluate each question in order to determine the raw scores that would correspond to B and C levels of performance. Their judgments are then reviewed by a test development committee, which, in consultation with test content and psychometric specialists, makes a final determination. The standard-setting study is described more fully in the earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on page 4. Panel members participating in the most recent study were: Andrew Barnes Patricia Bixel Lolene Blake April Brooks Paul Buckingham Elizabeth Clark Marsha Frey David Frye Wayne Hanley Preston Jones Kim Klimek Oscar Lansen Deena McKinney Jennifer McNabb Martin Menke David Mock Michael Nagle Aaron Palmer Travis Ricketts Jamie Underwood
Arizona State University Maine Maritime Academy Salt Lake Community College South Dakota State University Morrisville State College (SUNY) West Texas A&M University Kansas State University Eastern Connecticut State University West Chester University John Brown University Metropolitan State College of Denver University of North Carolina at Charlotte East Georgia College Western Illinois University Rivier College Tallahassee Community College West Shore Community College Wisconsin Lutheran College Bryan College Montana State University – Northern
To establish the exact correspondences between raw and scaled scores, a scaled score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that corresponds to the recommended credit-granting score for C-level performance. Then a high (but in some cases, possibly less than perfect) raw score will be selected and assigned a scaled score of 80. These two points — 50 and 80 — determine a function that generates a raw-to-scale conversion for the test.
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Table 1: Western Civilization II Interpretive Score Data American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 3 Course Grade
B
C
Scaled Score
Number Correct
80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50* 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20
88-90 87 87 86 86 85 85 84 83 82-83 81-82 80-81 79-80 78-79 77-78 75-76 74-75 72-74 71-72 69-70 67-68 65-66 63-64 61-62 58-60 56-58 54-55 51-53 49-51 47-48 44-46 42-44 40-41 38-39 36-37 34-35 32-33 30-31 29-30 27-28 26-27 24-25 23-24 22-23 21-22 20-21 19-20 19 18 17-18 17 16 16 15 15 0-14
*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE. Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difďŹ culty.
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Validity
Reliability
Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are used to make inferences about the examinees’ knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the scores for that purpose is the extent to which those inferences can be trusted to be accurate.
The reliability of the test scores of a group of examinees is commonly described by two statistics: the reliability coefficient and the standard error of measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is the correlation between the scores those examinees get (or would get) on two independent replications of the measurement process. The reliability coefficient is intended to indicate the stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores, and is often expressed as a number ranging from .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted as the correlation between the scores examinees would earn on two forms of the test that had no questions in common.
One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is called content-related evidence of validity. It is usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts who evaluate the extent to which the content of the test is appropriate for the inferences to be made about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee that developed the CLEP Western Civilization II examination selected the content of the test to reflect the content of Western Civilization II courses at most colleges, as determined by a curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in the content of the courses they offer, faculty members should, and are urged to, review the content outline and the sample questions to ensure that the test covers core content appropriate to the courses at their college. Another type of evidence for test-score validity is called criterion-related evidence of validity. It consists of statistical evidence that examinees who score high on the test also do well on other measures of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades they received in corresponding classes, or other measures of achievement or ability. CLEP and the College Board conduct these studies, called Admitted Class Evaluation Service or ACES, for individual colleges that meet certain criteria at the college’s request. Please contact CLEP for more information.
Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP exam. This involves looking at the statistical relationships among responses to individual multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability of the total test score. The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent to a more general formula called coefficient alpha. The SEM is an index of the extent to which students’ obtained scores tend to vary from their true scores.1 It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals extending one standard error above and below the true score (see below) for a test-taker will include 68 percent of that test-taker’s obtained scores. Similarly, intervals extending two standard errors above and below the true score will include 95 percent of the test-taker’s obtained scores. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard error of measurement would be zero. Scores on the CLEP examination in Western Civilization II are estimated to have a reliability coefficient of 0.90. The standard error of measurement is 2.82 scaled-score points. 1
True score is a hypothetical concept indicating what an individual’s score on a test would be if there were no errors introduced by the measuring process. It is thought of as the hypothetical average of an infinite number of obtained scores for a test-taker with the effect of practice removed.
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