Facebology 3rd Year Exam Notes by Facebology

‫�ﺴﻢ ﷲ اﻟﺮﲪﻦ اﻟﺮﺣﲓ‬ ‫�‬ ‫ن‬ ‫امتحا�ت السنوات السابقة للفرقة الثالثة‬ ‫أسئ�‬ ‫یقدم ل� فر یق ‪ Facebology‬مذکرة‬ ‫� ي� مواد‪:‬‬ ‫‪Pathology – Pharmacology – Microbiology – Parasitology‬‬ ‫ئ � ئ‬ ‫�‬ ‫��توي ا�ذکرة ع� طر ي ن‬ ‫سئ� ا�و� ا�متحان �مل والثانیة ع� ش� ج�میعات‬ ‫یقتن لعرض ا�‬ ‫ئ‬ ‫ن‬ ‫ل� �‬ ‫سئ� �‬ ‫الئ تکررت ي� � امتحان ل� فرع من ا�ادة ‪.‬‬ ‫ي‬ ‫وا�هد �‬ ‫نتمى أن ینال هذا العمل رضا � فقد ن‬ ‫ن‬ ‫حى ي�ل ع� الطالب‬ ‫أم� علیه الفر یق من الوقت ج‬ ‫ئ � ئ‬ ‫سئ� ج� �ک� من طر یقة لتعم الفائدة للجمیع ‪.‬‬ ‫الوصول ل�علومة وعرض ا�تکرر من ا�‬ ‫ئ‬ ‫تفک� ن� هوا �أن� والوصول ب� لتحقیق أع� درجات النجاح فادرس �‬ ‫واج�د وا�ل‬ ‫إن دا�ا ما يشغل ي‬ ‫ئ‬ ‫ين‬ ‫العا�ن ‪.‬‬ ‫النتا� ع� رب‬ ‫ودع‬ ‫ج‬ ‫�‬ ‫ّ �‬ ‫لقد � ّ‬ ‫و� �نة الطب ف� تدرس ي ن‬ ‫عز�ي الطالب فقط �جل ا�متحان بل‬ ‫ا�هن‬ ‫�‬ ‫�‬ ‫�فنا � و�فنا ج‬ ‫ي‬ ‫ادرس لتنفع نفسك ومرضاك جعلك � سببا لشفاء ن‬ ‫ين‬ ‫ا�س�ن ج�یعا ‪.‬‬ ‫مر�‬

‫دفعة واحدة نبض واحد ‪2018-2011‬‬ ‫تفضلوا �� ي�رة صفحتنا ع� الـ‪: Facebook‬‬ ‫‪https://www.facebook.com/Facebology‬‬ ‫‪Facebology Team‬‬

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Content Pathology

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5×1 MARK I. GIVE THE DEFINITION OF: 1- Phagocytosis. 2- Pyaemia. 3- Hamartoma. 4- Gas gangrene. 5- Acute infective endocarditis. 5×1 MARK II. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING BY TRUE OR FALSE: 1- Fracture long bones is one of the common causes of air embolism. 2- The most commonly affected valves in Rheumatic fever are mitral and aortic valves. 3- Intestinal Bilhariziasis is a precancerous lesion. 4- Amyloidosis is essentially intracellular protein deposition. 5- The most undifferentiated tumors are the most radiosensitive tumors. III. SHORT NOTE QUESTIONS: 5×3 MARK 1- Compare between Transudate & Exudate. 2- Describe the Microscopic features of Actinomycosis. 3- Enumerate the complications of Mitral valve Stenosis. 4- Give 6 examples of Dystrophic Calcification. 5- What are the routes of malignant tumor spread? (Just Enumerate). 20×1 MARK IV. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 1- Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by: a. Skin nodules b. Hypopigmented skin macules c. Nasal septal perforation d. Visceral lesions 2- Brown atrophy is characterized by: a. Melanin deposition b. Lipofuscin deposition c. Hemosiderin deposition d. Carbon particles deposition

3- Ulcerated syphilitic gumma is grossly characterized by being: a. Irregular ulcer with sharp edges and smooth washed leather floor b. Shallow ulcer with punched out edges and granular floor c. Oval ulcer with undermined edges and pale yellow floor d. Irregular ulcer w ith everted edges and necrotic hemorrhagic floor 4- A hypertensive patient with enlarged left kidney and stenosed right renal artery showed smaller right kidney than normal. The size change in the right kidney is an example of: a. Atrophy b. Hypertrophy c. Aplasia d. Hyperplasia 5- A patient suffering watery eye and sneezing frequently in spring and summer will mostly have cellular increase in: a. Eosinophils b. Monocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Basophils 6- Keloid is a: a. Mass of tumor tissue b. Mass of fibrous tissue c. Excessive formation of keratin d. Formation of keratinous cyst 7- Pale infarction occurs in all of the following organs EXCEPT: a. Heart b. Kidney c. Lung d. Spleen 8- Klienfilter syndrome is an example of: a. Autosomal chromosome abnormality b. Sex chromosomal abnormality c. Deficient one X-chromsome abnormality d. Translocation abnormality 9- Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of: a. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity b. Immune complex hypersensitivity c. Immediate hypersensitivity d. Cell mediated hypersensitivity

10- Primary sites of malignant melanoma include all of the following Except: a. Skin b. Meninges c. Eyes d. Stomach 11- Staging of malignant tumors means: a. Degree of tumor cells differentiation b. Degree of malignant tumor tissue necrosis c. Degree of malignant tumor extension d. a & b 12- A female patient suffering from diarrhea , loss of memory and skin rash possibly has deficiency in which nutrient: a. Thiamine b. Folic Acid c. Ascorbic Acid d. Niacin 13- Signet ring carcinoma is a type of: a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma 14- Mature teratoma grossly can be: a. Cystic b. Solid c. a & b d. None of the above 15- Epithelial dysplasia can be seen in: a. Chronic gastritis b. Ulcerative colitis c. Chronic cervicitis d. All of the above 16- Lupus vulgaris means: a. Nodular lesions in the face of lepromatous leprosy patients b. Systemic lupus erythematosus lesions in face c. Tuberculosis of skin d. Tuberculoid 1eprosy

17- Pathological lesions produced by generalized chronic venous congestion include: a. Nutmeg liver b. Brown induration of the lung c. Congestive splenomegaly d. All of the above 18- Paul-Bunnel test is a diagnostic test in: a. Sarcoidosis b. Tuberculosis c. Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease d. Infectious mononucleosis 19- Labile cells are all of the following EXCEPT: a. Endometrial epithelium b. Bone marrow cells c. Liver cells d. Basal cells in epithelial lining 20- Rheumatic fever is a: a. Immune mediated disease b. Suppurative disease c. Degenerative disease d. None of the above

MODEL (A)

45 MARKS

15% PATHOLOGY EXAM FOR THIRD YEAR MEDICAL STUDENTS 2012 5×1 MARK

A. GIVE THE DEFINITION OF : 1- Chemotaxis . 2- Amyloidosis . 3- Teratoma . 4- Labile Cell . 5- Thrombus . 5×1 MARK B. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING BY TRUE OR FALSE : 1- Melanoma is a radiosensitive malignant tumor of melanocytes. 2- The gangrenous part become shrunken and mummified in moist gangrene. 3- Fracture of long bones is a common cause of fat embolism. 4- Cyclops eye is commonly seen in trisomy 21. 5- CD4/CD8 ratio is increased in AlDs patients. 5×3 MARK C. ENMUMERATE THE COMPLICATIONS OF : 1- Secondary pulmonary tuberculosis 2- Wound healing 3- Malignant Hypertension 4- Urinary bilhariziasis 5- Myocardial infarction 20×1 MARK D. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER : 3- Cellulitis is a: a. Localized suppuration b. Necrotizing inflammation c. Caused by staphylococcus d. All of the above e. None of the above 4- Which of the following explains the etiology of primary hemochromatosis a. Increased intake of iron in diet b. Repeated blood transfusion c. Abnormality leading to excessive intestinal absorption of iron d. Excessive release of iron from RBCs e. Decreases ferritin synthesis by the liver 5- Heart failure cells are present in the alveoli as a result of a. Petechial hemorrhage b. Ecchymosis c. Purpura d. Active hyperemia e. Passive hyperemia

The basic causes of edema include all of the following except: a. Increased capillary blood pressure b. Increased permeability of the capillaries and venules c. Increased plasma osmotic pressure d. Sodium retention by the kidney e. Obstruction of lymph flow 4- All of the following are post necrotic changes in the nucleus except: a. Karyorrhexis b. Karyolsis c. Karyomegally d. Pyknosis 5- Amyloid deposits in the liver occur in a. Liver cells b. Sinusoidal lumens c. Sinusoidal basement-membrane d. None of the above 6- The most common site of Pottâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s disease is: a. Lower dorsal & upper lumbar vertebrae b. Lower cervical & upper dorsal vertebrae c. Lower lumbar & upper sacral vertebrae d. All of the above 7- The most commonly affected nerves in lepromatous leprosy are: a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Facial nerve d. All of the above e. None of the above 8- Bilharizial polypi a. Commonly occur in urinary bladder than colon b. Never occur in urinary bladder c. Commonly occur in colon than urinary bladder d. Never occur in colon 9- Schaumann bodies are characteristic inclusions seen in a. Sarcoidosis b. Actinomycosis c. Rhinoscleroma d. Tuberculosis 10- The pus in actinomycosis is characterized by a. Foul smell b. Green colour c. Containing firm grayish yellow bodies d. Pink translucent 11- Clinical staging of cancer is concerned with a. The differentiation of tumor e. The clinical picture of the tumor f. The clinical and anatomical extent of the tumor g. The rate of tumor growth 12- Brown atrophy of the heart is an example of a. Pressure atrophy b. Disuse atrophy c. Senile atrophy d. Neuropathic atrophy 6-

14- The tongue can be affected in the following stages of syphilis a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary , d. a, b e. All 15- An increase in incidence of malignancy occur in a. Male with undescended testis b. Villous papilloma of urinary bladder c. Dysplasia of the cervix d. Xeroderma pigmentosa e. All of the above 16- Dermoid cyst is a. Benign cystic teratoma b. Malignant cystic teratoma c. Malignant solid teratoma d. None of the above 17- All of the following tumors can metastasize except a. Bronchogenic carcinoma ' b. Melanoma c. Adamantinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma e. Melanoma 18- Kaposi sarcoma is a type of a. Osteosarcoma b. Fibrosarcoma c. Angiosarcoma d. Chondrosarcoma 19- Rodent ulcer is a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell papilloma c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Transitional cell carcinoma 20- The inflammatory exudates clots on standing because of its content of a. Cytokioies b. Hyalouronidase c. Fibrinogen d. Inflammatory cell e. Growth factors

MODEL (B)

45 MARKS

15% PATHOLOGY EXAM FOR THIRD YEAR MEDICAL STUDENTS 2012 5×1 MARK A. GIVE THE DEFINITION OF : 1- Ghon's Focus 2- Teratoma 3- Oncogens 4- Apoptosis 5- Aschoff Nodule 5×1 MARK B. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING BY TRUE OR FALSE : 1- Many acid fast Bacilli are detected in lepra cells of Tuberculoid Leprosy 2- Paraneoplastic Syndrome can be explained by the presence of an occult carcinoma 3- Russel Bodies are degenerated plasma cells with intracellular protein accumulation 4- Broder's Grading is a prognostic factor in basal cell carcinoma 5- Anaplasia means no Neoplasia C. ENMUMERATE THE COMPLICATIONS OF : 5×3 MARK 1- Abscess 2- Thrombus 3- Urinary Schistosomiasis 4- Lobar Pneumonia 5- Cardiovascular Syphilis D. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER : 20×1 MARK 1- Secondary Amyloidosis a. Diphtheria b. Tuberculosis c. Cellulitis d. Plasma cell Myeloma e. b & d

may complicate

2- Transudate is characterized a. Low Specific Gravity b. Low Protein Content c. Clear Yellow d. Coagulates e. No Bacterial Growth

by all of the following EXCEPT :

A football player suffered right fracture femur during the game he developed respiratory distress over next several days died 3 days later at Autopsy Sudan III Positive material was detected in small blood vessels of Brain & Lung the most likely diagnose is : a. Air Emboli b. Amniotic Fluid Emboli c. Fat Emboli d. Sodium retention by the kidney e. Saddle Emboli . 4- The following considered as Precancerous Lesion a. Chronic Atrophic Gastritis b. Ulcerative Colitis c. Chronic Cervicitis 3-

d. All of the Above e. None of the Above

5- Pyogenic Bacterial infections and Ischemic Brain infarcts most characteristically

produce which of the listed types of necrosis a. Caseous Necrosis b. Coagulative Necrosis c. Fat Necrosis d. Fibrnoid Necrosis e. Liquefactive Necrosis 6- Ulcerated Lower Esophageal area filled with Blood , Fibrin , Proliferating vessels and Fibroplasts with easily found Mitosis and Prominent Nucleoli can be described as a. Non Caseating Granuloma b. Dysplastic Epithelium c. Granulation Tissue d. Squamous Cell Carcinoma e. Caseating Granulmatous Ulcer 7- Pott's Disease affects a. Brain b. Spinal Cord c. Meninges d. Vertebrae e. a & b

8- ……… is not diagnostic tumor marker a. Desmin b. Vimentin c. C-erbB-2 d. HMB-45 e. Cytokeratin 9- Clark's level is prognostic in a. Squamous Cell Carcinoma b. Nevus c. Basal Cell Carcinoma d. Melanoma e. All of the Above 10- Carcinoma in Situ has the following criteria EXCEPT a. Cellular Hyperchromasia b. Atypical Mitosis c. Prominent Nucleoli d. Pleomorphism e. Local Invasion without ditant metastasis 11- The Causative Organism of Pneumonia is a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungus d. Parasite e. All of the Above 12- Mentally Retarded Male Infant with Congenital Heart Disease , Recurrent Chest infection he has flat facial profile opaque palpebral fissure and broad hands with single transverse palmar crease this child chromosomal abnormality mostly diagnosed as a. Patau's Syndrome b. Edward's Syndrome c. Down's Syndrome d. Klinefelter's Syndrome e. Turner's Syndrome 13- Metastatic Calcification May Complicate a. Vitamin-D Deficiency b. Sarcoidosis c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Atherosclerosis e. Hyperthyroidism 18

14- T-Lymphocytes are Characterized by the following EXCEPT a. Developed in feotal Thymus b. Involved in cell mediated immunity c. Formed in general centers of Lymph nodes d. Represent 65-80% of peripheral blood lymphocytes e. Produce Lymphokines 15- The Following is NOT TRUE for Bronchogenic Squamous Cell Carcinoma a. Closely Related to Smoking b. May arise in top of Bronchiectasis c. Arise in Main Bronchus d. Formed of uniform cells with Neurosecretory cytoplasmic

granules e. Rapid rate of local growth with excess necrosis 16- The Malignant Ulcers has a. Undermined Edge with Smooth Floor b. Undermined Edge with Yellow Caseous Floor c. Sharp Edge with Necrotic Hemorrhagic Floor d. Punched out Edge with Grayish Granular Floor e. Everted Edge with Necrotic Floor 17- Tumor Grading is Concerned with a. Anatomical Extent of the Tumor b. Lymph Nodal Metastasis of the Tumor c. Tumor Cells Differentiation d. Blood Metastasis of the Tumor e. Tumor Cell Invasion of the Basement Membrane 18- Carbuncle is a a. Special Type of Diffuse Non Suppurative Inflammation b. Localized Suppuration with Sulphur granules in neck c. Diabetic Patients Nape Multi-Sinus Suppuration d. Diffuse Suppuration e. Localized Granuloma in Immunocompromised Patient 19- Desmoid Tumor is a a. Benign Epithelial Tumor that may Recur b. Capsulated Fibrous Tissue Tumor of Anterior Abdominal Wall c. Locally Infiltrative Fibrous Tissue Tumor d. Nerve Sheath Tumor e. Malignant Recurrent Fibrous Tumor

20- Arrange the following numbered statements , Choose the correct order of the

expected sequence of events that normally occur during healing of a Myocardial Infarction 1. Collagen deposition forming fibrous Scar . 2. Minimal cytoplasmic changes within Cardiac Myocytes . 3. Granulation Tissue begin to form . 4. Neutrophils & Macrophages begin to arrive at area of Coagulative Necrosis . 5. Pink Cardiac Myocytes with loss of Neuclei and Striations .

a. b. c. d. e.

2,Then 3,Then 4,Then 5,Then 1 2,Then 4,Then 5,Then 3,Then 1 2,Then 5,Then 4,Then 3,Then 1 4,Then 5,Then 3,Then 2,Then 1 5,Then 4,Then 3,Then 2,Then 1

45 MARKS

15% PATHOLOGY EXAM FOR THIRD YEAR MEDICAL STUDENTS 2010 (February) A.

35Ă&#x2014;1 MARK

Choose The Correct Answer :

1- The followings are causes of chronic right sided heart failure EXCEPT: a) Emphysema c) Mitral stenosis b) pulmonary incompetence d) Mitral incompetence 2- Acute inflammation is characterized by the followings EXCEPT: a) Sudden onset c) End arteritis obliterans b) Short duration d) Presence of polymorphs 3- All of the followings are true for septic bronchopneumonia EXCEPT: a) Patchy inflammation c) Common in children d) Starts in the bronchioles b) Affects upper lobes 4- Causes of rickets do hot include: a) Vitamin C deficiency b) Chronic renal disease.

c) Vitamin D deficiency d) Calcium deficiency

5- All of the followings are locally malignant tumors EXCEPT: a) Basal cell carcinoma c) Giant cell tumor of bone b) Transitional cell carcinoma d) Pleomorphic adenoma 6- Brunn's nests are due to : a) Hyperplasia b) Metaplasia

c) Dysplasia d) Neoplasia

7- The followings are examples of differentiated Sarcomas EXCEPT: a) Spindle Cell Sarcoma c) Leiomyosarcoma d) Liposarcoma b) Fibrosarcoma 8- Karyorrhexis means : a) Swelling of the nucleus b) Shrinkage of the nucleus

c) Fragmentation of the nucleus d) Dissolving of the nucleus

9- Hemorrhagic infarction characteristically occurs in the: a) Kidney c) Myocardium b) Lungs d) Pancreas

10- All of the following are characters of amoebic ulcers EXCEPT: a) Flask-Shaped c) The floor is formed of mucosa and musculosa b) Undermined Edges d) The mucosa in between is severely affected 11- All are true about mycotic aneurysm EXCEPT: a) True aneurysm c) Due to emboli containing low virulent organism b) Affects cerebral veins. d) May rupture leadings to hemorrhage 12- Assmann's focus is located at: a) At the apex of the lung b) In the diaphragmatic surface of the lung,

c) At the lower part of the upper lobes d) At the hilum of the lung

13- One of the following pleural diseases can lead to secondary amyloidosis: a) Hydrothorax c) Pleurisy b) Pneumothorax d) Empyema 14- Heart failure cells are: a) Macrophages distended with hemosiderin c) Giant ceils in tuberculosis b) Microglia distended with fat d) Plasma cells showing hyalinosis 15- Pneumoconiosis is caused by inhalation of: a) Dust particles c) Silica b) Carbon particles d) All of the above 16- All of the followings can be a type Of pericarditis EXCEPT: a) Fibrinous c) Tuberculous d) Constrictive b) Pseudomembranous 17- All of the following disease are manifested by mental retardation EXCEPT: a) Marfan's Syndrome c) Edward's Syndrome b) Down's Syndrome d) Patau's Syndrome 18- The following cells are low radiosensitive EXCEPT: a) Chondrocytes c) Fibroplasts b) Nerve Cells d) Germ Cells 19- Laryngosceierorna a) Benign epithelial tumor b) Malignant epithelial tumor

c) Granulomatous inflammation d) Benign mesenchymal tumor

20- Typhoid fever is example of : a) Chronic nonspecific inflammation b) Acute Inflammation

c) Chronic granulomatous inflammation d) Chronic suppurative inflammation

21- All are examples of diagnostic tumor markers EXCEPT: a) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) c) Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) b) Progesterone Receptor (PR) d) Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) 22- All of the followings are manifestation of Pellagra EXCEPT: a) Dermatitis c) Keratitis b) Dementia d) Diarrhea 23- Which of the following best explains the etiology of primary haemochromatosis a) Increased intake of iron in diet c) Excessive release of iron from RBCs b) Abnormality leading to excessive intestinal absorption of iron d) Repeated blood transfusion 24- Epithelial Dysplasia can occur in: a) Bronchiectasis b) Schistosomal Cystitis

c) Ulcerative Colitis d) All of the above

25- Elephantiasis means markedly swollen limbs occurring in: a) Dermatitis c) Keratitis b) Dementia d) Diarrhea 26- Infective granuloma include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Toxoplasmosis c) Tuberculosis b) Rhinoscleroma d) Silicosis 27- All of the followings Can be caused by Type III Hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT: a) Arthus Phenomenon c) Serum Sickness b) Anaphylactic Shock d) Acute Post Streptococcal glomerulonephritis 28- The basic cause of oedema include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Increased Capillary Blood Pressure b) Increased Plasma Osmotic Pressure c) Obstruction of Lymph flow d) Increased Permeability of Capillaries and Venules

29- Emphysema associated most often with Îą-1 antitrypsin deficiency is: a) Panacinar c) Centilobular b) Compensatory d) Atrophic 30- The Followings are examples of Liquifactive Necrosis EXCEPT: a) Brain Infarction c) Brain Abscess b) Kidney Infarction d) Amoebi Abscess 31- Condition with high risk of Gastric Carcinoma include: a) Pernicious Anemia c) Chronic Atrophic Gastritis b) Adenomatous Polyp d) All of the Above 32- Dystrophic Calcification is most closely associated with: a) Hypercalcaemia c) Necrosis b) Chronic Irritation d) Diminished Blood Supply 33- All are Nuclear Features of Malignancy EXCEPT: a) Increase Mitotic Figures c) Hyperchromatism b) Decreased Nuclear Cytoplasmic Ration d) Chromatin Clumping 34- Prostatic enlargement in old age is an example of: a) Physiologic Hyperplasia c) Compensatory Hyperplasia b) Reactive Hyperplasia d) Hyperplasia due to Hormonal Imbalance 35- The Process of which inflammatory cells are positively attracted to a focus of tissue injury is: a) Phagocytosis c) Diapedesis b) Complement Fixation d) Chemotaxis

B. Put one word instead of the following Sentences:

10×½ MARK

1- Defense mechanisms, that are present even before infection and protect healthy individuals

against infections. 2- Escape of blood into body cavities. 3- Tuberculosis of the vertebral spines. 4- Massive tissue necrosis followed by putrefaction. 5- Early intraepithelial malignant changes without invasion of basement membrane 6- New immature bone formed within and around a bone fracture. 7- Tumor arise from the totipotent cells. 8- Inflammation of a vein with thrombus formation 9- Passage of black tarry stool due to Oesophageal varices 10- Non expansion complete expansion of alveoli .

C. True or False:

10×½ MARK

1- Hyaline Degeneration can occur both Intra & Extracellularly while Amyloidosis occur Extracellular. 2- Dysplasia can be precursor foe Benign tumors. 3- Estrogen & Progesterone receptors examination is important diagnostic method in Breast

Cancer. 4- Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma is composed of Malignant Squamous cells & Neoplastic

Lymphocytes and it related to Human Papilloma Virus infection. 5- Cardiac Vegetations of subacute infective endocarditis are aseptic. 6- Myositis Ossificans is a type of tumor metaplasia. 7- Demoid tumor is locally aggressive tumor but don't send metastasis. 8- Skip lesion is characteristic of Crohn's disease. 9- Tabes Dorsalis is a Meningio-Vascular Neurosyphilis manifested by loss of deep

sensations known as locomotor ataxia. 10- Barrett's Oesphagus is metaplasia of the distal oesphageal epithelium from squamous

intestinal epithelium. 30

45 MARKS

15% PATHOLOGY EXAM FOR THIRD YEAR MEDICAL STUDENTS 2010 (July) A- Choose The Correct Answer :

35Ă&#x2014;1 MARK

1- All are benign tumours of connective tissue origin EXCEPT: (A) Fibroma. (B) lipoma. (C) Myxoma (D)Melanoma 2- The inflammatory cellular infiltrate in bronchial asthma consists mainly of: (A) Lymphocytes (B) Plasma cells (C) Eosinophils (D) Polymorphs 3- Lymphocytes are characterized by all of the followings EXCEPT: (A) Present in paracortical area of lymph node. (B) Present in cortical follicles of lymph node. (C) Bursa dependent. (D) Responsible for immediate hypersensitivity. 4- The commonest cause of secondary hypertension is: (A) Renal diseases (B) Liver diseases (C) Blood diseases (D) Cardiac diseases 5- Decrease in the size of an organ due to decrease in the size of its individual cells is called: (A) Hypertrophy (B) Dysplasia (C) Hyperplasia (D) Atrophy 6- Grading of tumors depends upon: (A) Size of tumor (B) Distant metastatic spread (C) Regional lymph node metastasis (D) Degree of differentiation 7- Apoptosis has the following features EXCEPT: (A) It is programmed cell death (B) Cell loss affects single or cluster of cells (C) There is cell shrinkage in apoptosis (D) Occurs in pathological processes only 8- All are features of portal hypertension EXCEPT: (A) Haemoptysis â&#x20AC;&#x2122; (B) Acities (C) Caput medusa (D) Pile

9- Are examples of diagnostic tumor markers EXCEPT: (A) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) (B) Carcino embryonic antigen (CEA) (C) Progesterone Receptor (PR) (D) Prostate specific antigen (PSA) 10- All the following malignant tumors metastasis EXCEPT: (A) Bronchogenic carcinoma (B) Adamantinoma (C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) Malignant melanoma 11- In Pottâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s disease the lesion starts in: (A) The .vertebral spine (B) The vertebral body (C)The intervertebral disc (D) The transverse process 12- Fibrocystic disease of the breast is characterized by all EXCEPT: (A) Fibrosis (B) Adenosis (C)Intestinal metaplasia (D) Cyst formation 13- All are true about mycotic aneurysm EXCEPT: (A) True aneurysm (B) Due to emboli containing low virulent organism (C) Affects cerebral veins (D) May rupture leadings to hemorrhage 14- Peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following sites EXCEPT: (A) Lower oesophagus (B) Caecum (C) Stomach (D) Meckel's diverticulum 15- The acute rheumatic pericarditis is a: (A)Suppurative pericarditis (B) Serofibrinous pericarditis (C) Membranous pericarditis (D) Hemorrhagic pericarditis 16- The followings are characters of bronchopneumonia EXCEPT: (A) It is a patchy fibrinous inflammation (B) It is more common in extremes of age (C) It occurs as a complication of other diseases (D) It is more frequent in the lower lobes 17- The epithelial changes in schistosomiasis of urinary bladder include all EXCEPT: (A) Cell nest (B) Cystitis cystica (C) Cystitis glandularis (D) Squamous cell carcinomas 18- The followings are surface epithelial ovarian tumor EXCEPT: (A)Serous cystadenoma (B) Dermoid cyst (C)Mucinous cystadenoma (D) Brenner tumor 19- In benign prostatic hyperplasia, hyperplasia may occur in: (A) Glandular elements (B) Fibrous elements (C) Muscular elements (D) All of the above 20- The following are sites of metastatic calcification EXCEPT: (A) Mucosa of the stomach (B) Old thrombi (C) Renal tubules (D) Wall of the lung and alveoli

21- All of the following are characters of carcinoma, in situ EXCEPT: (A) The cells show hyperchromatism (B) Cells show increased nucleocytoplasmic ratio (C) The cells show increased mitotic activity (D) Cells may be seen below basement membrane 22- The following are true about dry gangrene EXCEPT: (A) Arterial and venous occlusion (B) Mild toxemia (C) Marked line of demarcation (D) Self separation may occur 23- Manifestations of rickets include all of the following EXCEPT: (A) Broadening of epiphyseal line (B) Dementia (C) Scoliosis (D) Bow legs 24- The followings are the common causes of pyaemic abscess in the lung EXCEPT: (A) Puerperal sepsis (B) Acute haematogenous osteomyelitis (C) Acute cholecystitis (D) Suppurative otitis media 25- A thrombosis in a vein is called: (A) Mural thrombus (B) Phlebothrombosis (C) Vegetation (D) Ball valve thrombus 26- Compilation of gall stones includes all of the following EXCEPT: (A) Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas (B) Obstructive jaundice (C) Acute pancreatitis (D) Intestinal obstruction 27- Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is best characterized by which ONE of the following features: (A) Basement membrane thickening (B) Crescent formation (C) Fibrinoid necrosis of afferent arteriole (D) Mesangial cell proliferation 28- Gestational trophoblastic disease includes all of the following EXCEPT: (A) Hydatidiform mole (B) Invasive mole (C) Dysgerminoma (D) Choriocarcinoma 29- Russel bodies are degenerated: (A) Lymphocyte (B) Neutrophils (C) Histiocytes (D) Plasma cell 30- The following ulcers affect the large intestine EXCEPT: (A) Bilharzial ulcer (B) Bacillary dysentery ulcer (C) Amoebic ulcer (D) Typhoid ulcer 31- Fatty degeneration of the liver is caused by: (A) Severe anaemia and anoxia (B) Starvation (C) Deficiency of lipotropic factors (D) All of the above 32- Necrosis of the following lesions is liquifactive type EXCEPT: (A) Abscess (B) Brain infarct (C) Amoebic liver abscess (D) Renal infarct

33- Hamartoma is: (A) Tumor like malformation (B) Benign tumor of lung (C) Benign tumor of heart (D) All of the above 34- All of the followings are true for a thrombus EXCEPT: (A) Occurs in stagnant blood (B) Adherent to the vascular wall (C) Platelets are essential for its formation (D) Show lines of Zahn 35- Peau d'orange appearance of breast carcinoma is due to: (A) Associated Paget's disease of the nipple (B) Desmoplastic stromal reaction (C) Obstruction of the superficial lymphatic vessels (D) Metastasis to internal mammary lymph nodes B. Put one word instead of the following Sentences:

10×½ MARK

1. Impaction of undissolved substance in the lumen of a vessel. 2. Accumulation of air in the pleural cavity. 3. Attraction of cells towards a chemical substance. 4. Presence of nests of endometrial glands and stroma in abnormal sites outside the uterus. 5. Ulceration of any part of the gastrointestinal tract exposed to acid-pepsin secretion of gastric glands. 6. A specific type of chronic inflammation characterized by focal accumulation of macrophages mixed with lymphocytes, giant cells and surrounded by fibrous tissue. 7. Inflammation of the renal pelvis and parenchyma. 8. Yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to hyperbilirubinaemia. 9. It is pathologic deposition of haemosiderin in tissues. 10. Benign tumor of the melanocytes. C. True or False:

10×½ MARK

1.Transudate is the fluid of inflammation. 2.Lymphatic obstruction is a cause of generalized edema 3.Small cell carcinoma is an important cause of paraneoplastic syndrome. 4.Amoebic liver abscess is characterized by the presence of sulphur granules 5.Lung abscess is one of the complications of bronchiectasis. 6.Tabes mesenterica is a component of the primary intestinal complex. 7.Sarcoma is malignant tumor of epithelial tissue. 8.Lymphokines are produced by B cells. 9.Aschoff nodule is the pathognomonic lesion in rheumatic fever. 10.Type I diabetes mellitus shows normal or increased blood insulin.

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, June 2006 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON:

(24 Marks)

A- Renal Lesions In Diabetes Mellitus. B- Pre-Cancerols Lesions. C- Post-Hepatitic Cirrhosis. 2- DISCUSS THE COMPLICATIONS OF:

(24 Marks)

A- Lung Abscess. B- Peptic Ulcer. C- Osteomyelitis. 3- COMPARE BETWEEN:

(24 Marks)

A-Follicular Lymphoma & Reactive Hyperplasia Of Lymph Node. B- Carcinoma & Sarcoma. C- Rheumatic Endocarditis & Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis. 4- WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: A- Metaplasia. B- Haemolytic Anaemia. C- Naevus . D- Pottâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s Disease Of The Spines. E- Dry Gangrene. F- Endometriosis.

(24 Marks)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, August 2006 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON:

(24 Marks)

A- Pathology of Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis. B- Viral Ontogenesis. C- Types Of Emphysema. 2- MENTION THE CAUSES OF:

(24 Marks)

A- Pathologic Fracture. B- Splenomegaly. C- Pericarditis. D- Hemolytic Anemia. 3- COMPARE BETWEEN:

(24 Marks)

A- Laennec's Cirrhosis and Bilharzial Periportal Fibrosis (Causes, Naked Eye and Microscopic Picture). B- Hashimoto Thyroiditis and Granulomatous Thyroiditis. C- Acute Inflammation and Chronic Inflammation. 4- ENUMERATE THE EFFECTS AND COMPLICATIONS OF: A- Septis Meningitis. B- Secondary Pulmonary Tuberculosis. C- Typhoid Fever. D- Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.

(24 Marks)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, January 2006 Midyear Exam

TIMED ALLOWED TWO HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED WRITE SHORT NOTES ON:

1- Cells of Acute Inflammation. 2- Characters of Malignant Tumors. 3- Types of Emboli. 4- Microscopic Features of Bilharziasis of Urinary Bladder. 5- Complications Of Pulmonary Tuberculosis. 6- Microscopic Features of Rhinoscleroma. 7- Types of Adenoma. 8- Effects of Hemorrhage. 9- Types Of Naevus. 10- Pathological Calcifications.

(6 Marks for each)

Faculty Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, June 2005 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: 1- Pathology Urinary Bladder Carcinoma. 2- Autoimmune Thyroid Disease. 3- Types & Causes Biliary Cirrhosis. 4- Compare Between Rheumatic & Bacterial Endocarditis. 5- Causes Haematuria. 6- Precancerous Lesions. 7- Complications Osteomyelitis. 8- Aetiology & Predisposing Factors Breast Carcinoma. 9- Comparison between Ulcerative Colitis & Crohn's disease. 10- Causes Splenomegaly. 11- A-Endometriosis. B- Membranous Inflammation. 12-

A-Astrocytoma. B- Lung Abscess.

(8 Marks for each)

Faculty Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, September 2005 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: 1- Renal Cell Carcinoma. 2- Tumor Markers. 3- Complications of Diphtheria. 4- Differences between Hyperplasia & Neoplasia. 5- Complications of Liver Cirrhosis. 6- Burkitt’s Lymphoma. 7- Fibrocystic Disease of The Breast. 8- Aneurysms (Types & Complications). 9- Sarcoidosis. 10- Complications of Peptic Ulcer. 11- A- Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN). B- Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis. 12- A- Causes of Pathological Fracture of Bone. B- Iron Deficiency Anemia.

(8 Marks for each)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, February 2005 Midyear Exam

TIMED ALLOWED TWO HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED WRITE SHORT NOTES ON:

(5 Marks for each)

1- Bone Repair. 2- Paraneoplastic Syndromes. 3- Definitions Of : Hyperplasia, Dysplasia, Atrophy, Metaplasia, Inflammatory Exudate, 4- Papilloma. 5- Epithelial Changes of Urinary Bladder Bilharziasis. 6- Complications of Intestinal Amoebiasis. 7- Tabes Mesenterica. 8- Causes Of Secondary Amyloidosis. 9- Types & Sources of Emboli. 10- Comparison Between Tuberculoid & Lepromatous Leprosy, 11- Cells of the Immune System. 12- Effects of Total Body Irradiation.

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, June 2004 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON: (a) Paget's disease of nipple. (b) Grave's disease of thyroid gland primary toxic goiter. (c) Giant cell tumor of the bone osteoclastoma . 2- DISCUSS: (a) Pathology of melanocytic tumors. (b) Causes & manifestations of hepatocellular failure. (c) Endometriosis. 3- WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: (a) Types & complications of renal calculi. (b) Complications of myocardial infarction. (c) Causes of haemolytic anaemia. 4- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON: (a) Histopathological subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma. (b) Astrocytoma. (c) Complications of peptic ulcer.

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, February 2004 Midyear Exam

TIMED ALLOWED TWO HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- DISCUSS THE PATAHOLGY OF THE FOLLOWING:

(5 Marks for each)

(a) Factors controlling the rate of healing. (b) Methods of spread of malignant tumors. (c) Primary intestinal tuberculosis. (d) Causes of secondary immunodeficiency disease. 2- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON:

(5 Marks for each)

(a) Types of bilharzial hepatic fibrosis. (b) Complications of bronchogenic carcinoma. (c) Carcinogenic effects of irradiation. (d) Fat necrosis. 3- COMPARE BETWEEN EACH OF THE FOLLOWINGS: (a) Dry & gas gangrene. (b) Transudate & exudate. (c) Lepromatous & tuberculoid leprosy. (d) Basal cell carcinoma & squamous cell carcinoma. (Sites, spread & histological pictures)

(5 Marks for each)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, June 2003 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- COMPARE BETWEEN EACH OF THE FOLLOWINGS:

(6 Marks for each)

(a) Basal cell carcinoma & squamous cell carcinoma. (b) Reactive hyperplasia & follicular lymphoma of lymph nodes. (c) Vegetations of rheumatic endocarditis & vegetations of subacute bacterial endocarditis. (d) Dystrophic & metastatic calcification. 2- MENTION THE EFFECTS & COMPLICATIONS OF:

(6 Marks for each)

(a) Urinary stones. (b) Vitamin D deficiency. (c) Osteomyelitis. (d) Peptic ulcer. 3- WRITE SHORT ACCOUNT ON:

(6 Marks for each)

(a) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN). (b) Tissue reaction to tubercle bacilli. (c) Senile enlarged prostate. (d) Carcinoid tumor. 4- MENTION THE MICROSCOPIC PICTURE OF: (a) Bronchiectasis. (c) Lepromatous leprosy. (b) Fibrocystic disease. (d) Toxic goiter.

(6 Marks for each)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, February 2003 Midyear Exam

TIMED ALLOWED TWO HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- DEFINE EACH OF THE FOLLOWINGS:

(2 Marks for each)

Sarcoidosis, Emphysema, Embolism, Mikuliczâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s cells, Hemochromatosis. 2- GIVE SHORT NOTES ON:

(5 Marks for each)

(A) Septicemia. (B) Pathology of intestinal bilharziasis (Gross & microscopic) (C) Congenital Syphilis. 3- WRITE SHORT ACCOUNT ON:

(5 Marks for each)

(A) Amoebic liver abscess. (B) Staging of malignant tumors. 4- MENTION BRIEFLY: (A) (B) (C) (D)

Actinomycosis. The differences between hyperplasia and neoplasia. Necrosis (definition and types). Chemical mediators of inflammation.

(5 Marks for each)

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, June 2002 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- DISCUSS THE PATHOLOGY OF THE FOLLOWING: a- Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis. b- Carcinoma of the Glandular Epithelium . c- Endometriosis. 2- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON: a- Arterial Aneurysm. b- Biliary Cirrhosis. c- Prognostic factors of Cancer Breast. 3- DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN: a- Follicular Lymphoma and Follicular Hyperplasia . b- Simple Goiter and Toxic Goiter . c- Crohn's Disease and Ulcerative Colitis. 4- WRITE SHORT NOTES ON: a- Urinary Bladder Bilharziasis (Epithelial Changes). b- Myeloid Leukemia (Definition and Differences between acute and chronic types). c- Brain Abscess (Etiology and Complications).

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, September 2002 Final Exam

TIMED ALLOWED THREE HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- GIVE AN ACCOUNT ON: a- Causes, Types, and Complications of Urinary Stones. b- Hypersensitivity Reactions . c- Paraneoplastic Syndromes. 2- COMPARE BETWEEN THE FOLLOWING: a- Transudate and Exudate. b- Hamartoma and Teratoma. c- Hydatidiform mole , and Choriocarcinoma . 3- MENTION THE COMPLICATIONS OF: a- Bronchopneumonia. b- Diabetes Mellitus. c- Peptic Ulcer. 4- DISCUSS THE PATAHOLOGY OF: a- Testicular Tumors. b- Rickets. c- Oncogenic Viruses.

Faculty of Medicine Tanta University Department of Pathology Third Year Medical Students, February 2002 Midyear Exam

TIMED ALLOWED TWO HOURS ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED 1- DEFINE EACH OF THE FOLLOWINGS:

(10 Marks for each)

a- Cells of inflammation (acute and chronic) and their role in immunity. b- Behavioral classification of tumors. 2- WRITE SHORT NOTES ON:

(5 Marks for each)

a- Pathological Calcification. b- Thrombosis . c- Actinomycosis. d- Metaplasia. 3- MENTION THE EFFECTS AND COMPLICATIONS OF: a- Secondary Intestinal Tuberculosis. b- Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis . c- Total Body Irradiation . d- Ameabiasis.

(5 Marks for each)

General Pathology 1- Compare between: -Chronic & Acute inflammation. -Neoplasia & Pathological Hyperplasia. -Carcinoma & Sarcoma. -Clot & Thrombus. -Benign & Malignant Tumors. -Cells of acute inflammation. -Membranous inflammatory. -Transudate and exudates. -Dry gangrene and moist gangrene. -Dystrophic and metastatic calcification. -Tuberculoid and Lepromatous leprosy. -Basal cell carcinoma & squamous cell carcinoma (sites, spread & histological pictures). -Hamartoma & teratoma. 2- Define: inflammatory exudates. 3- Factors controlling the rate of healing. 4- Chemical mediators of inflammation. 5- Cells of inflammation (acute and chronic) and their role in immunity. 6- Enumerate types of cardiac vegetations. 7- Give an account on Carcinoid Tumors. 8- Enumerate & Classify types of acute inflammation. 9- Enumerate types of emboli. 10- Enumerate complications of Wound healing. 11- A diabetic patient aged 60 years presented with painful swelling on his back, which open on the surface with multiple openings with local manifestations of redness and hotness. Surgical exploration revealed multiple loculi filled with pus. -What is the diagnosis ? Define this case. -Describe mechanism of pus formation? -Mention and define another type of suppuration that opens on the surface by multiple sinuses. -Describe its gross and microscopic picture. -What is the definition of sinus and how it differs from fistula? -Define chemotaxis. Mention examples of chemotaxic agent. 12- Pathological fracture. 13- Pathological calcification. 50

14- Bone repair. 15- Fat necrosis. 16- Describe gross and microscopic picture of: Bilharziasis of the liver. 17- Sarcoidosis. 18- Epithelial changes of urinary bladder bilharziasis. 19- Complications of intestinal amaebiasis. 20- Tabes mesentrica. 21- Primary intestinal TB. 22- Types of bilharzial hepatic fibrosis. 23- Tissue reaction to tubercle bacilli. 24- Ameobic liver abscess. 25- Action mycosis. 26- Pathology intestinal bilharziasis. [Gross and microscopic]. 27- Congenital Syphilis. 28- Mention the microscopic picture of: lepromatous leprosy. 29- Mention the effects and complications of secondary intestinal TB. 30- Define: chancre 31- Granulation tissue. 32- Hepatic shistosomiasis. 33- Urinary bladder bilharziasis. [Epithelial changes]. 34- Types, Fate & Sources of emboli. 35- Types, fate of thrombi. 36- Effects of hemorrrahge. 37- Septicemia. 38- Thrombosis. 39- Iron deficiency anemia. 40- Causes of secondary immune-deficiency disease. 41- Define: Embolism & hemochromatosis. 42- Effects & Complications of total body irradiation. 43- Carcinogenic effects of irradiation. 44- Hypersensitivity reactions. 45- Adenoma. 46- Dysplasia and relation to cervical carcinoma. 47- Viral ontogenesis. 48- Pre-cancerous lesions. 49- Metaplasia. 50- Naevus. 51

51- Characters of malignant tumors. 52- Tumor markers. 53- Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN). 54- Precancerous lesions. 55- Para-neoplastic syndromes. 56- Definitions of: hyperplasia, atrophy, metaplasia. 57- Papilloma. 58- Pathology of melanocytic tumors. 59- Methods of spread of malignant tumors. 60- Carcinoid tumor. 61- Staging of malignant tumors. 62- Oncogenic viruses. 63- Carcinoma of the glandular epithelium. 64- Behavioral classification of tumors. 65- Teratoma. 66- Classification of epithelial tumors. 67- Rodent ulcer (Basal cell carcinoma). 68- Define: carcinoma in situ. 69- Prognostics of malignant tumors.

Cardiovascular system 1- Compare between: -Vegetations of rheumatic fever and Vegetations of subacute bacterial endocarditis. - Rheumatic fever and Subacute bacterial endocarditis. 2- Enumerate complications of: rheumatic fever. 3- Cerebral aneurysm. 4- Rheumatic endocarditis. 5- Mention tumors of blood vessels. 6- Define and mention types and complications of: true aneurysm. 7- Mention briefly the causes of: pericarditis. 8- Enumerate the effects & complications of: typhoid fever. 9- Aneurys (types & complications). 10- Complication of myocardial infarction. 11- Mention the effects and complications of Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis. 12- Causes of right sided heart failure. 13- Define and mention types and complications of true aneurysm. 14- Causes of pericarditis. 15- Causes and effect, complications of typhoid fever. 16- Mention tumors of blood vessels. Respiratory system 1- Lung abscess. 2- Septic bronchopneumonia. 3- Discuss the pathology of bronchogenic carcinoma (etiology, predisposing factors, gross, microscopic picture, spread and effects, complications). 4- Def. & Types of emphysema. 5- Complications of diphtheria. 6- Microscopic picture & complications of bronchiectasis. 7- Complications of Bronchopneumonia. 8- Compare between: Lobar pneumonia & bronchopneumonia. 9- Effects and complications of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis. 10- The microscopic picture of bronchiectasis. 11- Complications of bronchopneumonia. 12- Complications of bronchiactesis. 13- Septic bronchopneumonia. 53

G.I.T. 1- Compare between: - Ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease. - Laennecs cirrhosis & bilharzial periportal fibrosis (causes, naked eye & microscopic picture). 2- A male patient aged 60 years, heavy pipe smoker, was presented with tongue ulcer. On examination the ulcer was fixed to the tongue, the edges were everted with necrotic floor and indurated base. Examination of the cervical lymph nodes showed that they are enlarged fixed. -What is your diagnosis? -Describe other types of tongue ulcers. -What are the predisposing factors of malignant tumors of the oral cavity? -What are the methods of spread of oral cancers? -Define leukoplakia, describe its microscopic picture. 3- Discuss the pathology of acute viral hepatitis (Definition, aetiology, Microscopic picture, fate and complication). 4- Describe gross and microscopic picture of: -Gastric carcinoma. -Bilharziasis of liver. 5- Mention briefly the causes of splenomegaly. 6- Compare between. 7- Post hepatitic cirrhosis. 8- Complications of peptic ulcer. 9- Classification, Fate & Complications of liver cirrhosis. 10- Types & causes of biliary cirrhosis. 11- Causes & manifestations of hepatocellular failure. 12- Complications of liver cirrhosis. 13- Types and complications of biliary cirrhosis. 14- Causes and manifestations of hepatocellular failure. 15- Tabes mesenteries. 16- Intestinal amoebiasis. 17- Complication of D.M. 18- Give an account on : Ulcers of the intestine. 19- Short notes on : Hepatic shistosomiasis. 20- Classification of liver cirrhosis. 21- Discuss the pathology of acute viral hepatitis (definition, aetiology ,microscopic picture, fate and complications). 54

Urinary system 1- Pathology of malignant tumors of the kidney (cell of origin, gross & microscopic picture and spread). 2- Sites, gross, microscopic picture and pathology of Urinary bladder carcinoma. 3- Chronic (slowly progressive) Glomerulonephritis. 4- Renal lesions in benign essential hypertension. 5- Pathology of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. 6- RenaI lesion in diabetes mellitus. 7- Renal cell carcinoma. 8- Causes of haematuria. 9- Types & complications of renal calculi. 10- Mention the effects, complications, causes & types of Urinary stones. 11- Sites of primary complex & discuss one of them. 12- Nephritic and nephrotic syndrome. 13- Hypernephroma and wilm's tumor. 15- Causes of haematuria. 16- Enumerate the complications of renal stones.

Male genital system

1- Effects & Complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia. 2- Short notes on senile enlarged prostate. 3- Discuss the pathology of testicular tumors.

Female Genital system & Breast

1- Female patient aged 25 years presented with ovarian tumors which was removed. Histological examination revealed that, the cyst is lined by skin; and contains also mature cartilage, bone, respiratory and nerve tissue. -Is this tumor benign or malignant and what is the diagnosis? -Explain the presence of different tissues in the tumor? -Mention sites and describe types of this lesion. -Enumerate other ovarian tumors which have the same cell of origin. Describe one of them. -Enumerate types of non-neoplastic ovarian cyst. Describe one of them. 2- Give an account on: -Mastitis. -Endometriosis. -Fibrocystic disease of the breast. -Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. -Aetiology and predisposing factors of breast carcinoma. -Paget's disease of nipple. 3- Compare between hydati from mole & chorio carcinoma. 4- Prognostic factors of breast cancer. 5- Endometrial hyperplasia. 6- Microscopic picture, grading & staging of endometrial adenocarcinoma. 5- Dysplasia and it's relation to cervical carcinoma. Lymphoid system

1- Mention briefly the cause of splenomegaly. 2- Compare between follicular lymphoma and reactive hyperplasia of lymph node 3- Discuss burkitts lymphoma. 4- Histological subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma. 5- Differentiate between: follicular lymphoma and follicular hyperplasia. 6- Causes of oseoclatoma.

Blood 1- Define and mention types and complications of leukemia. 2- Causes of haemolytic anemia. 3- Short note on haemolytic anaemia. 4- Iron deficiency anaemia. 5- Discuss myeloid leukemia 6- Effects of hemorrhage. 7- Types and sources of emboli. 8- Define embolism and septicemia.

Endocrine System

1- Define and mention types and complications of thyroid adenoma. 2- Compare betweem hashimotos thyroiditis granulomatous thyroiditis. 3- Short notes on hashimotos thyroiditis 4- Short notes on auto immune thyroid disease. 5- Discus gravis disease of thyroid (1ry toxic goiter). 6- The microscopic picture of toxic goiter. 7- Compare between simple goiter and toxic goiter.

Bone & Joints 1- Gross and microscopic picture of osteosarcoma. 2- Pathologic fracture (Causes). 3- Complications of osteomyelitis. 4- Discuss giant cell tumor of bone (osteoclastoma). 5- Discuss chronic osteomyelitis. 6- Malignant bone tumors. 7- Short note on bone repair.

C.N.S. 1- Give an account on astrocytoma . 2- Effects & complications of septic meningitis. 3- Brain abscess : (etiology& complications). 4- Menengioma. 5- Meningiococcal meningitis.

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 23/6/2013

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following (35 Marks) a. Tolerance b. Aspirin (clinical uses & contraindications) c. Prostaglandins (clinical uses) d. Metoclopramide (mode of action & clinical uses) e. Digitalis (Drug-Drug interactions) 2. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following (35 Marks) a. Beta blockers (clinical uses & adverse effects) b. Benzodiazepines (classification with examples & clinical uses) c. Rifampicin (mode of action, clinical uses & adverse effects) d. Nifedipine (mechanism of action and clinical uses) e. Contraceptive pills (Drug-Drug interaction) 3. List in table the main differences only between each of the following (30 Marks) a. Atopine & Hyoscine b. Morphine & Mepridine c. Cimetidine & Rantidine d. Heparin & Warpharine e. Frusemide & thiazide 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following (30 Marks) a. Gout (acute and chronic) b. Status asthmaticus c. Closed angle glaucoma d. Hypertensive crisis e. Cardiogenic shock f. Thyroid storm (crisis) 5. Give reason for each of the following (20 Marks) a. Tetracycline is better to be avoided in pregnant women as well as in children b. Regular insulin is the insulin of choice for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis c. Lactoluse is used for treatment of hepatic encephalopathy d. Potency of local anesthetic decreased in inflamed area e. Use of corticosteroids in organ transplantation

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 21/9/2013

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Give a short account on each of the following: (35 marks) a. Atropine (clinical uses and contraindications) b. Cimetidine (dynamics and side effects) c. Corticosteroids (precautions with prolonged use and contraindications) d. Insulin (preparations with example and methods of administration) e. Digitalis (uses and drug interctions) 2. Give a short account on treatment of the following conditions: (36 marks) a. Hypertensive encephalopathy b. Senile osteoporosis c. Open angle glaucoma d. Typhoid fever e. Hypovolumic shock f. Myocardial infarction 3. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (35 marks) a. Morphine (uses and contraindications) b. Amiodarone (uses, side effects and toxicity) c. Praziquantil (dynamics, advantages and disadvantages) d. Spironolactone (dynamics, uses and side effects) e. Oral contraceptives (drug interactions and contraindications) 4. Compare between each of the following: (30 marks) a. Agonist and partial agonist b. Heparin and enoxaparin c. Aspirin and paracetamol d. MAO (monoamine oxidase) inhibitors and SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) e. Erythromycin and azithromycin f. Curare and succinylcholine 5. Give reason for each of the following: (14 marks) a. Coadministration of caffeine with ergotamine in acute migraine headache b. Doxycycline is better than tetracycline in patients with renal disease c. Use of fresh blood transfusion in treatment of succinylcholine toxicity d. Dopamine canâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be used itself in treatment of parkinsonism e. Halothane is contraindicated in cirrhotic patients f. Nifedipine may aggravate myocardial ischemia g. Doses must be reduced in geriatric generation

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 13/1/2013

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

1. Give a short account on the following: (15 marks) a. Mechanisms of drug action b. Uses and side effects of Beta blockers c. Action and adverse effects of Benzodiazepines

2. List in table the main differences between each of: (15 marks) a. Morphine and Mepiridine b. Colchicine and Allopurinol c. Atropine and Hyoscine

3. Lines of treatment of the following: (10 marks) a. Organophophorus compounds toxicity b. Closed angle glaucoma

4. Give reason of the following: (5 marks) a. Coadministration of L-dopa and carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism b. Dantrolene should be available in operating theatre if Halothane is used c. Terfenadine and Astimazole are preferred as allergic drugs over other antihistaminases d. Caffeine is added with ergotamine in treatment of acute migraine e. Timolol eye drops are contraindicated in patients with chest problems

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 26/6/2012

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Aspirin (contraindications and drug interactions) b. Verapamil (uses, side effects and adverse effects) c. Spironolactone (mode of actions, uses and adverse effets) d. Praziquantel (mode of action, advantages and disadvantages) e. First pass effect (pre-systemic metabolism) 2. Penicillin, cortisol and Allopurinol are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Explain their mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects. (30 marks) 3. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Neostigmine (uses and contraindications) b. Biguanides (mode of action, clinical uses and adverse effects) c. Benzodiazepines (uses and advantages) d. Warfarin (mechanism of action and adverse effects) e. Theophylline (drug interaction and precautions) 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following (25 marks) a. Open angle glaucoma b. Cardiogenic shock c. Morphine toxicity (acute and chronic) d. Acute myocardial infraction e. Senile osteoporosis 5. Give reason(s) for each of the following (15marks) a. Use of metoclopramide in treatment of reflux esophagitis b. Digitalis is used in treatment of atrial arrhythmia and contraindicated in ventricular arrhythmia c. Beta blockers are better avoided in treatment of prinzmetal angina d. Bronchial asthma responds poorly or not at all to antihistaminic (H1) e. Halothane is contraindicated in thyrotoxic patients

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 6/9/2012

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Zero order kinetics b. Atropine (clinical uses) c. Aspirine contraindications d. Warfarin drug interaction 2. Penicillin, Rantidine and Insulin are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Explain their mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects. (30 marks) 3. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Digitalis clinical uses b. Rifampicin side effects c. Corticosteroids precautions and contraindications d. Sulphonylurea drug interaction 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following (25 marks) a. Acute pulmonary edema b. Neurogenic shock c. Open angle glaucoma d. Typhoid fever e. Status asthmaticus 5. Give reason(s) for each of the following (15marks) a. Oximes are used in treatment of organophosphorus poisoning b. Morphine is not given alone in biliary colic treatment c. Use of antibiotics in treatment of peptic ulcer d. Co-administration of loop diuretics and aminoglycosides antibiotic should be avoided e. Combination of beta blockers and nitrates in treatment of angina pectoris

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 12/2/2012

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

1. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (16 marks) a. Beta blockers (side effects) b. Morphine (contraindication) c. Metoclopromide (dynamic and uses) d. Prostaglandins (clinical uses)

2. List in table 4 main differences between: (10 marks) a. Enzyme inducer and enzyme inhibitor b. Atropine and Hyoscine c. Cimitidine and Rantidine d. Heparin and Warfarin

3. Write a brienf account on the treatment of the following: (10 marks) a. Status asthmaticus b. Neurogenic shock c. Gout (acute) d. Closed angle glaucoma

4. Give reasons of the following: (9 marks) a. Aspirin should not be used in children with viral infection b. Carbidopa is used in combination with levo dopa in treatment of parkinsonism c. Activity of local anesthetic decrease in inflamed area d. Drugs should be given cautiously to children and elderly people e. Tissue plasminogen activator is better than streptokinase as thrombolytic f. Anti- histaminic H1 drugs are not effective in bronchial asthma

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 18/6/2011

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Clinical uses and adverse effects of amiodarone b. Dynamics and uses of carbamazepine c. Therapeutic uses of prostaglandins with drug examples d. Clinical uses of beta blockers with explanation e. Precautions during long use of corticosteroids 2. Sulphonylurea, Rifampicin and Metocloperamide are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Discuss dynamics, uses and side effects of each. (30 marks) 3. Give an account on: (40 marks) a. L-Dopa dynamics and side effects b. Fusemide adverse effects and drug interactions c. Succinylcholine uses and toxicity d. Nitrates adverse effects and precautions e. Factors affecting drug distribution 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following: (25 marks) a. Hypertensive emergency b. Hypovolemic shock c. Status asthmaticus d. Migraine headache (acute and prophylaxis) e. Deep vein thrombitis 5. Give reasons: (15marks) a. Morphine is contraindicated in bronchial asthma b. Nifedipine may aggravate myocardial ischemia c. Sudden stop of clonidine therapy is contraindicated d. Tissue plasminogen activator in better than streptokinase as thrombolytic e. Iodide therapy used 7-10 days before subtotal thyroidectomy

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 18/6/2011

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Dynamics and uses of colchicine b. Uses and contraindications of Morphine c. Dynamics and side effects of Ranitidine d. Clinical uses and precautions of fibrinolitics e. Uses and side effects of clonidine 2. Insulin, Erythromycin and Methylxanthine are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Discuss dynamics, uses and side effects of each. (30 marks) 3. Give an account on: (40 marks) a. Spironolactone dynamics and drug interaction b. Captopril uses and side effects c. Mechanisms of drug action d. Sodium cromoglycate dynamics and uses e. Therapeutic uses of adrenaline with explanation of each use 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following: (25 marks) a. Organic phosphorus compounds toxicity b. Exertional angina c. Digitalis toxicity d. Thyroid crisis (storm) e. Myasthenia gravis 5. Give reasons: (15 marks) a. Dantrolene should be available in operating theatre if halothane is used b. Nitrates therapy should never be stop suddenly c. Enoxaparin is better than unfractionated heparin d. Hyoscine is than atropine in preanesthetic medication e. Benzodiazepines are preferred over babiturates as sedative â&#x20AC;&#x201C; hyponotic drug

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Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 21/6/2010

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Side effects and toxicity of Atropine b. Contraindications of Morphine c. Clinical uses and adverse effects of Hydrochlorothiazide d. Drug-drug interactions of Sulphonylurea (oral hypoglycemic) e. Routes of drug administration. Mention advantage ang disadvantages of Intravenous Rout. 2. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Action, uses and side effects of Omeprazol b. Drug-drug interaction of Digitalis c. Clinical uses and adverse effects of Sodium cromoglycate d. Pharmacological actions and side effects of Anhistaminics (H1 antagonists) e. Mode of action and adverse effects of Heparin 3. Colchicine, Methotrexate and Eruthromycine are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Explain their mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects. (31 marks) 4. List in table the main difference between: (24 marks) a. Barbiturate and Benzodiazepines b. Tolerance and Intolerance (supersensitivity) c. Isoniaide and Rifampicine d. Verapamil and Nifedpine e. Phenytoin and Ethosuximide f. Propranolol and Atenolol 5. Give reasons of the following: (15 marks) a. Drugs should be given cautiously to children and eldary people b. Vitamin B12 is not given orally in pernicious anaemia c. Quinidine is avoided in old atrial fibrillation d. Tetracyclin is better avoided in pregnant and lactating women e. Aspirin should not be used in children with viral infection f. Spironolactone in not combined with ACEls in treatment of hypertension

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 18/8/2010

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write a phramacologiacal account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. Digitalis (toxicity and its treatment) b. Anticoagulants (uses and contraindications) c. Spironolactone (dynamicsm uses and side effects) d. Corticosteroids (contraindications and precautions) e. Laxatives (classification with examples, uses and adverse effects) 2. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a. First order kinetics b. Phenoxybenzamic (uses and side effects) c. Phenytoin (drugs interactions) d. Lcal anesthetic (classification with examples and side effects) e. Cough suppressant (antitussives) 3. Aspirine, Ciprofloxan and Interferon are drugs with different pharmacological actions. Expain their mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects. (30 marks) 4. Write a brief account on the treatment of each of the following: (30 marks) a. Acute pulmonary edema b. Myasthenia gravis c. Thyroid storm d. Typhoid fever 5. Give reasons of the following: (10 marks) a. Gallamine is contraindicated in thyrotoxic patients b. Timolol eye drops are contraindicated with chest problems treated for glaucoma c. Tea and coffee are allowed in gout d. Morphine is used in neurogenic shock e. Nifedipine is used in neurogenic shock

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Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 20/2/2010

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

A. Give short account on each of the following: (36 marks) 1. Acquired tolerance: definition, types and chracters. 2. Apparent volume of distribution 3. Contraindications of Morphine 4. Clinical uses of Beta-Blockers 5. Drug interactions of Curare 6. Carbamazapine (tegretol):uses and adverse effects 7. Contraindications of parasympathomimetics 8. Antihistaminic (Hi antagonists): uses and side effects 9. Classification of local anesthesia with examples 10. Sodium Cromoglycate (intal): dynamics and uses 11. Metoclopramide (primpane): uses and side effects 12. Drug interactions of oral anticoagulants

B. Give reason: (9 marks) 1. Phenothiazines can develop introgenic Parkinsonism 2. Atropine must added before neostigmine in treatment of myasthenia gravis 3. Pilocarpine is used in closed angle glaucoma 4. Enoxaparin is better than un fractionated Heparin 5. Aspirin is contraindicated in bronchial asthma 6. Pregnant female should not use Misoprostol as treatment of peptic ulcer

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 24/7/2010

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

Give short account on each of the following:

1. First pass effect (Pre-systemic metabolism) 2. Adrenalin (Side effects and contraindications) 3. Organophosphorus toxicity (Manifestations and its treatment) 4. Metaclopramide (Uses and side effects) 5. Salbutamol (Actions and uses) 6. L-DOPA (Side effects and drug interactions) 7. Aspirin (Contraindications) 8. Benzodiazepine (Classification with examples and advantages) 9. Prostaglandins (Clinical uses)

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 11/5/2009

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on each of the following: (40 marks) a) Mechanism of action and uses of Captopril (ACEI) b) Adverse effects and precautions of Spironolactone c) Contraindications of Beta-Blockers d) Drug- interactions of oral contraceptive pills e) Systemic uses of Aspirin 2. Give a pharmacological account on each of the following: (40 marks) a) Advantages and disadvantages of Praziquentel (Distocide) b) Uses and side effects of Metoclopramide (Primprane) c) Contraindications of Fibrinolitics d) Precautions during long term corticosteroid therapy e) Clinical uses of prostaglandins 3. Write a brief pharmacological account on the treatment of the following: (35 marks) a) Left ventricular failure b) Status asthmatics c) Thyroid crisis d) Typhoid fever e) Pheochromocytoma 4. List in table the main four differences between: (20 marks) a) First order kinetics and zero order kinetics b) Morphine and Meperidine c) Heparin and Warfarin d) Sulphonylureas and Biguanides e) First and third generations of cephalosporines 5. Give reasons: (15 marks) a) Rantidine is preferred than Cimetidine in peptic ulcer b) Furosemide is preferred than Thiazide in some clinical situations c) Paracetamol is preferred than Aspirin in asthmatic patients d) Fluroquinolones should not be given to patients under 18 years e) Co-administration of pyridoxine (Vit. B6) with Isoniazide in T.B. f) Atracurium is preferred in patients with hepatic and renal failure

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 15/2/2009

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

Give short account on each of the following:

1. Enzyme inducer and enzyme inhibitor 2. Idiosyncrasy (Pharmacogenitics) 3. Contraindications of Adrenalin 4. Mode of actions and uses of Prazosin (Minipress) 5. Organophosphorus toxicity and its treatment 6. Advantage of Hyoscine over Atropine in Pre-anesthetic medication 7. Adverse effects of Lithium 8. Drug interactions of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAO) 9. Mode of actions and uses of Allopurinol (Zyloric) 10. Advantages of Benzodiazepines

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 26/7/2009

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

Give short account on each of the following:

1. First pass effect 2. Mode of action and uses of Îą-methyl dopa (aldomet) 3. Contraindications of Atropine 4. Treatment of myasthenia gravis 5. Classify Benzodiazepine compounds with examples 6. Clinical uses of Morphine 7. Second stage of general anesthesia 8. Actions and uses of Omeprazole 9. Drug interactions of oral anticoagulants

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: August 2008

Total Marks: 150 Marks

•

Question 1: (25 marks) Give a short account on the routes, mechanisms involved and factors influencing elimination (excretion) of drugs.

•

Question 2: (30 marks) Enumerate the common side effects encountered in long-term corticosteroid therapy and discuss the mechanism of action underlying each observed side effect.

•

Question 3: (30 marks) Discuss the main beneficial therapeutic uses of muscarinic receptor blocking drugs giving drug examples and mode of action in each case.

•

Question 4: (25 marks) Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis. Mention the drugs used and most important side effects of drugs used.

•

Question 5: (40 marks divided equally) Give a short account on the mechanism of action of the following drugs: A) The proton pump inhibitor omiorazole B) The sedative hypnotic Pentobarbital C) The antiparkinsonism coadministration of Levodopa and Carbidopa D) The antiepileptic Sodium Valproate (Depakene)

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 15/5/2007

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Write an account on 4 of the following: (24 marks) a) Aminocaproic acid b) Metoclopramide c) Procaine HCl d) Mepridine (pethidine) e) Prazocin 2. Give the line of treatment of 3 of the following medical emergencies: (24 marks) a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Status asthmaticus c) Thyroid crisis or storm d) Hypertensive emergenciess 3. Mention shortly: (24 marks) a) Mode of action, uses and side effects of Guinilone b) Beta-Lactamase (penicillinase) inhibitors c) Astringents and their clinical uses d) Idiosyncrasy and its clinical importance 4. Answer the following questions: (24 marks) a) Discuss briefly action, uses, side effects and drug-drug interaction of Furosemide b) Uses, side effects and contraindications of oral contraceptives c) Mention the different groups of drugs used in treatment of peptic ulcer and then discuss actions, uses and side effects of omeprazole

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 3/9/2007

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Give the line of treatment of 3 of the following conditions: (24 marks) a) Portal Systemic Encephalopathy b) Acute attack of Gouty Arthritis c) Malignant Hyperthermia d) Acute attack of migraine headache 2. Mention shortly: (24 marks) a) Mode of action, uses and side effects of Biguanides (Metformin) b) Mode of action, uses and side effects of Spironolactone c) Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis 3. Give a short account on the following drugs: (24 marks) a) Na cromoglycate (intal) b) Sucrakfate c) Simvastatin d) Warfarin Na 4. Answer the following questions: (24 marks) a) Mode of action, uses and side effects of Losartan b) Mode of action, uses and side effects of Hydrocorticosterone c) Actions, uses and adverse effects of Morphine

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 21/5/2006

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1. Give an account on the following: a) Sulphonylurea preparations, mode of action, uses, side effects and contraindications b) Acidifying dieuritics, action, uses, contraindications and drug interactions 2. Discuss briefly each of the following: a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors b) Cephalosporins classification, mechanism of action uses and toxicity 3. Answer these short questions: a) Discuss factors modifying the dose response of the drugs b) Mention pharmacological action, uses anf drug interaction of D-Tubocurarine 4. Mention mode of action, uses, adverse effects and drug interaction of the following: a) Phenytoin (Diphenyl Hydantoin) b) Warfarin sodium (Marevan) 5. Give an account on: a) Antitussives (Cough suppressants) b) Alpha methyldopa (Adolmet)

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 2006

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

Discuss briefly each of the following: (18 marks) a) Mention different types of antagonism of drugs with examples b) Give short account on the mechanism of action and pharmacological actions of opioid analgesics

II.

Discuss briefly 3 only of the following: (18 marks) a) Order of kinetics b) Classification of Sympathomimetics drugs and mention the therapeutic uses of adrenaline c) Mention the action, uses and side effects of Clonidine (Catapress) d) Side effects and drug interactions of barbiturates

III.

Answer these short questions: (12 marks) a) Discuss the disadvantages of Imipramine in old aged patients b) Why Barbiturates are contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria c) Explain the use of Levodopa with Carpidopa in patients of Parkinsonism d) What are the physiologic effet of Niacin e) Discuss the beneficial effects of Bismth SubSalicylate in the prophylaxis and therapy of peptic ulcer.

IV.

Multiple choice questions: 1) All the following are true regarding imipramine EXCEPT: a) It increases noradrenaline at the synaptic sites in the CNS. b) Highly effective for major and minor depressive disorders c) In old age it must be given in caution d) It produces rapid relieve of the symptoms of depression 2) All of the following drugs are antiplatelet drugs EXCEPT: a) Aspirin (75-150 mg/day) b) Dipyridamole c) Ticlopidine d) Streptokinase

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 6

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 23/5/2005

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1) Discuss uses and adverse effects of benzodiazepines. (16 marks) 2) Discuss actions, mode of actions and uses of:

• Dopamine (8 marks) • Neostigmine (8 marks) 3) Discuss mode of actions, side effects and drug interactions of: • Thiazide diuretics (10 marks) • Lovastatin (6 marks) 4) Enumerate drugs used in treatment of angina pectoris. Discuss the mode of action and side effects of each. (16 marks) 5) Discuss mode of action, uses, adverse effects and drug interactions of sulohonylureas. (16 marks) 6) Discuss briefly each of the following: (16 marks) • Rlfampicine: antibacterial activity, uses, side effects and drug interactions. • Pyrimethamine (daraprim): mode of action, uses and side effects. • Motronidazole (flagyl): actions and mode of action.

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 7/2/2005

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

1) Discuss briefly each of the following: a) Factor controlling drug distribution b) Properties of first order kinetics 2) Discuss the mode of action of each of the following: a) Aldomet (alph-methyl-dopa) b) Organophosphorus compunds c) Phenoxybenzamine 3) Discuss the effect of the following drugs on the cardiovascular system: a) Atropine b) Beta adrenergic blockers 4) Discuss the mode of action of the following drugs: a) Valproic acid (depakene) b) Allopurinol c) Neuroleptic drugs d) Tricyclic antidepressants 5) Discuss the drug interactions of each of the following: a) Curare b) Barbiturates c) Salicylates 6) The following drugs are used in treatment of peptic ulcer. Explain their mechanism of action and side effects: a) Cimetidine b) Lansoprazol c) Misoprostol

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 31/5/2004

Total Marks: 150 Marks

â&#x20AC;˘

Discuss only 8 of the following questions: 1) Factors affecting drugs metabolism. (12 marks) 2) Adverse effects and contraindications of Barbiturates. (12 marks) 3) Uses and contraindications of Adrenaline. (12 marks) 4) Actions and uses of H1-receptor antagonists. (12 marks) 5) Adverse effects and drug interactions of furosemide (loop diuretic). (12 marks) 6) Adverse effects and contraindications of oral contraceptives. (12 marks) 7) Actions, side effects and contraindications of praziquintal (biltricide). (12 marks) 8) Actions and side effects of cimetidine (tagament). (12 marks) 9) Causes and treatment of each of the following: (12 marks) a. Agranulocytosis b. Cholinergic and myasthenic crisis c. Malignant hyperthermia d. Thyrotoxic crisis

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 5

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 26/5/2003

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1- Discuss briefly each of the following: a) Salicylates: actions and mechanism of actions. b) Digitalis: actions and mechanism of actions. 2- Write a short account on each of the following: a) Phenytion (diphenythydantion): actions, uses, adverse effects and drug interactions. b) D-tubocurorine: pharmacological actions, mode of actions, uses, drug interactions, toxicity and treatment. c) Hydrocortisone (cortisol): uses and adverse effects. 3- Discuss briefly each of the following: a) b) c) d)

Cimetidine (tagamet): actions mode of actions and side effects Spironolactone: mode of action uses and adverse effects Expectorant sedatives and stimulants: types and mode of action Rifampicin: mode of action, antibacterial spectrum, uses, and side effects

4- Discuss briefly each of the following: a) b) c) d)

Fibrinolytics: classification, uses and contraindications. Thiouracils (thioureas): action, mode of action and adverse effects. Theophylene (methylxanthine): mode of action, action and uses. Antacids: classification, and side effects.

5- Write short account on each of the following: a) b) c) d)

Metronidazole (flagyl): actions mode of actions and toxicity. Nitrites: actions and side effects. Clonidine (catapress): actions, uses and side effects. Furosemide (loop diuretic): adverse effects and drug interactions.

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Midyear Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Date: 9/2/2003

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

1- A) Mention 4 factors related to the drug that influences its absorption. B) Explain the consequences of plasma protein binding. C) Define with example: First-order kinetics. Zero-order kinetics. 2- A) Give 4 characters explaining competitive block (antagonism) B) Define with example each of the following -latrogenicity. - Teratogenicity. C) Explain with example each of the following: -Synergism. - Potentiation. 3- A) Mention 4 different uses for Benzodiazepines B) What is Flumazenil, what do we use it for C) Why barbiturates arc contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyries D) What are the effects of morphine on: Respiratory system - Gastrointestinal tract. 4- A) Give with examples 4 different types of the mode of action of antiepileptic drugs. B) Give the reason behind: 1- Antiepileptic drugs should be withdrawn gradually 2- We start the anticoagulant therapy with both heparin & warfarin 3- Aspirin potentates the action of warfarin. 4- Cimitidine increases potency of oral anticoagulant C) Mention the mechanism of action of each in chronic gout: Allopurinol. Probenecid 5- A) mention with examples 4 different types of drugs used in prophylaxis of migraine headache; mention their mode of action? B) How phenoxybenzamine prevents the development of irreversible shock? C) How does the B-blocker (propranolol) produce its antihypertensive effect? 6- A) How does Cionidine (catapress) produce its hypertensive effect B) Mention 4 different uses for Neostigmine C) What is the cause & treatment of: Succinyl-choline apnea. Malignant hyperthermia (with use of succinyl-choline).

Third Year Medical Students Tanta University

Written Exam

Faculty of Medicine

Number of Questions: 4

Pharmacology Department

Time Allowed: 3 Hours

Date: 27/5/2002

Total Marks: 150 Marks

1- Discuss both items: a. Therapeutic uses and contraindications of atropine b. Pharmacological actions of beta blockers. 2- Discuss only 3 of the following: a. b. c. d.

Actions of benzodiazepines Adverse effects of morphine Procaine hydrochloride Heparin

3- Discuss only 2 of the following: a. Nitrites and nitrates: actions, uses and toxicity b. Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of peptic ulcer mention their mechanism of action and side effects c. Enumerate bronchodilator drugs and mechanism of action of each group 4- Discuss only 3 of the following: a. Enumerate with example various members of penicillin and their toxicity b. Short account on potassium sparing diuretics c. Adverse effects and drug interactions of oral contraceptives d. Adverse effects and contraindications of glucocorticoid drugs.

General Pharmacology 1- Routes of drug distribution. 2- Routes of drug administration Adv. And Disadvantage. 3- Routes, Mechanism and factors influencing Drug elimination. 4- Factors affecting Drug Metabolism. 5- First pass effect. 6- Compare between First order kinetic and zero order kinetic. 7- Enzyme inducer and Enzyme inhibitor. 8- Idiosyncrosy. 9- Antagonism. 10- Order of kinetics. 11- Consequence of plasma protein binding. 12- Competetive inhibitor. 13- Supersenstivity, latrogeniaty, Teratogenecity, Tolerance, Synergism, Potentiation. 14- Mechanism of drug action. 15- First order kinetic. 16- First pass effect (pre-systemic metabolism). 17- Enzyme inducer and enzyme inhibitors. 18- List in table main four differences between : first order kinetics and zero order kinetics. 19- Routes mechanism involved and factors affecting elimination of drugs . 20- Factors controlling drug distribution. 21- Discuss factors modifying the dose response relationship of the drug. 22- Mention Different types of antagonism of drugs with examples. 23- Factors affecting drug metabolism. 24- Explain the consequence of plasma protein binding. 25-Give 4 Characters explaining competitive block (Antagonism) 26- Explain with examples each of the following: Synergism and Potentiation. 27- Types of drug antagonist. 28- Discuss with examples the meaning of drug allergy (super sensitivity). 29- Tolerance: types, mechanism and characteristics. 30- Enumerate the factors affecting absorption of drugs from GIT relating to the patient and to the drug. 21- Identify with examples the following terms. 22- Potentiation , antagonism and competitive inhibition.

A.N.S. 1- Atropine. 2- Methyl dopo. 3- Captopril. 4- Contraindications and uses of β-Blocker. 5- Adrenaline. 6- Noradrenaline. 7- Action and uses of Prazosin. 8- Organophosphorous Toxicity and its TTT. 9- Main Uses of Muscarinic Receptor Blocker. 10- Action fuses and side effects of Phenoxybenzamine. 11- Curare. 12- Cionidine uses, action, Side effects. 13- Dopamine & Neostigmine. 14- Irreversible anti-cholinesterase , action , toxicity and TTT. 15- Succinylecholine uses, toxicity and TTT. 16- Brief account about pheochromocytoma. 17- Contraindications of β-Blockers. 18- Advantages of Hyoscine over Atropine in pre-anesthetic medication. 19- Aldomet. (α-Methyl dopa). 20- Mention the action, uses and side effects of clonidine (Captapress). 25- Pharmacokinetics, actions, toxicity and treatment of irreversible anticholinesterase. 26- How does the β -blocker (propranolol) produce its antihypertensive effect? 27- How does clonidine (captapress) produce its hypertensive effect? 28- D-tubocurarine : pharmacological actions, mode of actions ,uses ,drug interactions, toxicity and treatment. 29- Causes & Treatment of each of the followings: Cholinergic and Myasthenic crisis. 30- Actions, uses and side effects of L-dopa (Levo-dopa). 31- Actions, uses and side effect of Salbutamol (Ventoline). 32- Drugs that affect of intra-ocular tension. 33- Give an account on depolarizing neuromuscular blockers and their side effects. 34- Main therapeutic uses of muscarinic receptors blocking drugs , giving examples and mode of action in each case.

C.N.S. 1- Morphine. 2- Benzodiazepines classification, uses, Side effects. 3- Second stage anesthesia. 4- Aspirin. 5- Compare morphine-Meperedine. 6- Side effects of Lithium. 7- Drug interaction of MAO inhibitor. 8- Barbiturates. 9- Na.Valproate Mechanism of action. 10- Mechanism of action of levodopa-carpidopa. 11- Mepridine. 12- TCA Mode of action. 13- Phenytoin. 14- Neuroleptic Drugs Mode of action. 15- Classification, example of local anesthesia. 16- Allopurinol. 17- Chioropromazine. 18- Give an account on mechanism of action and pharmacological actions of opioid analgesics. 19- Side effects of the drug interaction of Barbiurates. 20- Discuss the disadvantages of the imipramine in old aged patients. 21- Explain use of the Levodopa with Carbidopa in patients with Parkinsonism. 22- Discuss uses and adverse effect of Benzodiazepines. 23- Salicylates: action and mechanism of action. 24- Theophylene (Methylxanthine): action, mode of action and uses. 25- Drug therapy of gout. 26- What is Flumazenil? What did we use it for? 27- Give reason: Antiepileptic drugs should be withdrawn gradually. 28- Mention with 4 examples different types of drugs used in prophylaxis of migrane headache and mention their mode of action. 29- How Phenoxybenzamine prevents the development of irreversible shock. 30- Action and adverse effect of Paracetamol. 31- Classification of ant-depressant drugs. 32- Ketofan: action & uses. 33- Action and adverse effect of Thiopental Sodium. 89

Respiratory system 1- Solbutamol Action, uses, Side effects. 2- Bronchodilator. 3- Theophyline. 4- Expectorant. 5- Anti-tussive.

G.I.T. 1- Action, uses And side effects of Omeprazole. 2- Uses and side effects of Metoclopramide. 3- Sucralfate. 4- Classify Laxatives with Example and indications, Mechanism of action, Side effects. 5- Mechanism of action and examples of Drugs used in ITT of peptic ulcer. 6- Cimetidin-lansoprazof-Misoprostol) Mechanism of action and side effects. 7- Rantidine Dynamics & Side effects. 8- Uses and side effects of Metacloprimide (Primprane). 9- Mechanism of action of: Proton pump inhibitor,Omeprazole,Sucralfate and Metacloprimide. 10- Discuss the beneficial effects of Bismuth Subsalicylate in the prophylaxis and therapy of peptic ulcer. 11- Drugs uses in the treatment of Peptic ulcer. 12- Laxative: classify with examples , mechanism of action and adverse effects. 13- Action and uses of H1-Receptors antagonist. 14- Actions of Chlorpromazine HCL (Largactil). 15- Cimetidine.

C.V.S. 1- Digitalis. 2- Simvastatin. 3- Action, uses And side effects of Losartan. 4- Classify Hypertensive drugs and their Mechanism of action. 5- Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor. 6- Quinidine action, toxicity and contraindications. 7- Tovastatin Drug interaction, uses, side effects & action. 8- Amiodarone clinical uses and side effects. 9- Brief account on Left Ventricular failure (Typhoid fever). 10- Mechanism of action of Captopril. 11- Treatment of Malignant Hyperthermia. 12- Mode of action , uses and side effects of Losrtan. 13- NA Cromoglycate (Intal). 14- Emergency treatment of Acute Myocardial infarction. 15- Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of angina pectoris , discuss the mode of action and side effects of each. 16- Nitrites. 17-Classify different types of Anti-Hypertensive drugs and discuss their mechanism of action. 18- Discuss action, mechanism of action , toxicity and precautions of Amiodarone (Cordaron).

Blood 1- Heparin action and side effects. 2- Drug interaction, uses and contraindications of oral anticoagulant. 3- Contraindications of oral anticoagulant. 4- Clinical uses, precautions and Contraindications of fibrinolytic. 5- Compare between Heparin and Warfarin. 6- Warfarin. 7- Uses of Anti-Platlet Drugs. 8- Dicoumarol Mechanism of action, uses and Side effects. 9- Drug interaction of anti-coagulant. 10- Contraindications of Fibrinolytics. 11- Discuss mode of action , side effects and drug interaction of Lovastin. 12- Causes and treatment of each of arganulocytosis. 13- Fibrinolytics. 14- How to manage a case of Hyperlipoprotinaemaia. 15- Drugs enhance & drugn reduce the anti-coagulant activity. 16- Simvastatin. 17- Aminicaproic acid.

Renal Pharmacology 1- Potassium sparing diuretics, example, mechanism of action, uses and contraindications. 3- Hydrochlorothiazide uses, drug interaction and side effects. 4- Spironolactone action, uses, side effects and precautions. 6- Allopurinol Mode of action and uses. 7- Furosemide action, uses, side effects and drug interactions. 8- Acidifying diuretic. 9- Drug therapy of gout. 10- Thiazide Diuretics.

Endocrine System 1- Sulphonylurea. 2- Compare between sulphonylurea and Biguanides. 3- Contraindications, Precaution during long term corticosteroid. 4- Corticosteroid Mechanism of action and side effects. 5- Biguanides Mode of action and Uses. 6- Hydrocortisone action and Side effects. 7- Thiouracil. 8- Drug interactions of oral contraceptive pills. 9- Treatment of Thyroid crisis. 10- Medical Emergency treatment of Thyroid crisis. 11- Cortisol.

Chemotherapy 1- (Sulphonylurea-Rifampicin-Metocloperamide) Discuss dynamics, uses and side effects. 2. Advantage and disadvantage of Praziquantel. 3. First and third generation of Cephalosporins. 4- Chemotherapy of TB. Drugs used and Side effects. 5- Quinolone uses, Side effects and Action. 6- B-lactame inhibitor. 7- Cephalosporins classification, Mech. of action, Uses, Toxicity. 8- Rifamicine: Anti-bacterial activity, uses, side effects and drug interaction. 9- Pyrimethamino (Daraprim): activity, uses, side effects and mode of action. 10- Metronidazole (Flagyl): Actions and mode of action. 11- Sulphonamides. 12- Methotrexate.

57 56 58 93

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 7/7/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 10 For: Egyptian Students

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number Q1. Compare between: a. Lag and log phases of bacterial growth curve. b. Phenotypic and genotypic bacterial variation. c. Function of IgG and IgM. d. Classical and alternative complement pathways.

Marks 20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Q2. Define the disadvantages of weil-felix test.

5 Marks

Q3. Define the advantages of the presence of antibiotic policy in hospitals.

5 Marks

Q4. Discus the diagnosis of each of the following: a. Malignant pustule b. Renal T.B. C. Late stage of syphilis (specific). d. Campylobacter enteritis. Q5. Enumerate types and causes of meningitis then discus the diagnosis, treatment and prevention of epidemic primary bacterial cause? Q6. Differentiate between: a. Conventional viruses and prions. b. Neutralizing antibodies and interferon in viral immunity.

20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

10 Marks 10 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Question Number

Marks

Q7. Define the viral agent and mode of transmission of American plague then discus its prevention?

5 Marks

Q8. Explain in details how to manage a case of Avian Influenza?

5 Marks

Q9. A 20-years old female presented with sudden onset of dysphagia, diplopia and weakness after eating home- canned food. There is no accompanying vomiting, diarrhea or fever. On examination, flaccid paralysis and reduced deep tendon reflexes. a. The most likely case diagnosis is …………………………… b. The causative organism is …………………………… and its virulence depends on …………………………… c. How would you confirm the presumptive diagnosis? d. How to treat and prevent this condition?

10 Marks

Q10. A 34 old leukemic male presented with creamy white painful lesions on his tongue, which does not wash off. A gram stained film of a swab obtained from the lesion revealed gram-positive oval cells. a. What is the most likely case diagnosis? b. Based on microscopic examination, the causative pathogen is………………. c. ………………. and ………………. are the possible complications of this condition. d. What are the further steps of diagnosis? e. How to treat this condition?

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 27/8/2013 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 10 For: Egyptian Students

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number Q1. Compare between: a. Flagella and Pilli. b. Types of plasmid. c. T-helper and T-cytotoxic lymphocytes d. Innate and acquired Immunity.

Marks 20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Q2. Define different mechanisms of diarrhoeagenic strains of E. coli.

5 Marks

Q3. Explain prophylaxis of Tetanus in man.

5 Marks

Q4. Discus the diagnosis of each of the following: a. Staphylococcal food poisoning b. Haemophilus Meningitis. c. Bubonic plague. d. Leprosy Q5.Enumerate causes of sexually transmitted diseases then discuss the diagnosis and treatment of its acute bacterial, gram-negative diplococci cause. Q6. Clarify: a. Atypical viruses. b. Diagnosis of viral replication in tissue culture.

20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

10 Marks

10 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Question Number

Marks

Q7. Define Congenital Rubella Syndrome and its diagnosis then discuss its prevention.

5 Marks

Q8. Discuss rabies vaccination.

5 Marks

Q9. An 8-years old child presented with sore throat, low- grade fever, difficulty in swallowing and dyspnea. On examination The child looked very ill, body temperature 38C, cervical lymphadenitis and whitish- gray adherent membrane over tonsils and pharynx. a. The most likely case diagnosis is…………………………….. b. The virulence factors of the causative organism are: 1- …………………………………. 2- …………………………………. 3- …………………………………. c. How would you confirm the presumptive diagnosis? d. How to prevent this condition?

Q10. Discuss: a. Clinical classification of mycosis. b. Laboratory diagnosis and treatment of Cryptococcal Meningitis.

10 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 9/7/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 10 For: Malaysian Students

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number Q1. Compare between: a. Bacterial toxins. b. Dry and moist heat sterilization. c. Classic and super antigens. d. Different types of graft rejection.

Marks 20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Q2. Define the disadvantages of cardiolipin antibody tests for diagnosis of syphilis.

5 Marks

Q3. Define the significance of tuberculin test.

5 Marks

Q4. Discus the diagnosis of each of the following: a. Primary case of cholera. b. Pneumococcal pneumonia. C. Weilâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s disease. d. Whooping cough. Q5. Enumerate types and causes of food poisoning then discuss the diagnosis, treatment and prophylaxis of one of them causing mainly nervous affection. Q6. Clarify the following: a. Definition and types of inclusion bodies. b. Significance of phage.

20 Marks (5 Marks Each)

10 Marks

10 Marks (5 Marks Each)

Question Number

Marks

Q7. Define the viral agent and mode of transmission of Japanese Encephalitis then discus its prevention.

5 Marks

Q8. Explain in details how to manage a case of AIDS.

5 Marks

Q9. A 3-years old girl presented with sudden onset of projectile vomiting and convulsion about 15 minutes ago. Physical examination revealed high fever (40C), mild throat congestion and marked neck rigidity. a. The most likely case diagnosis is…………………………….. b. The most common bacterial pathogens are…………....and……………… c. If there is an epidemic, how would you confirm the presumptive diagnosis? d. How to treat and prevent this condition? Q10. A 85 old female presented with creamy white painful lesions on her tongue, which does not wash off. A gram stained film of a swab obtained from the lesion revealed gram-positive oval cells.10 Marks a. What is the most likely case diagnosis? b. Based on microscopic examination, the causative pathogen is………………... c. …………… and ………………… are the possible complications of this condition d. What are the further steps of diagnosis? e. How to treat this condition?

100

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 24/9/2013 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 11 For: Malaysian Students

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

Q1. Compare between: a) Cell wall of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. b) Types of radiation used for sterilization. c) Innate (natural) and acquired immunity. d) The classical and the alternative pathway of complement activation.

(3 Marks) (3 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

Q2. Enumerate the virulence factors of microbes.

(4 Marks)

Q3. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of each of the following: a) Rheumatic fever. b) Bacillary dysentery. c) Gas gangrene.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

Q4. Mention the differences between: a) Pneumococci and Viridians Streptococci. b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitides.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks)

Q5. A pilgrim on returning from Mecca developed profuse watery diarrhea with fishy odor and mucous flakes and manifestation of fluid and electrolytes loss: a) The most likely case diagnosis is ................... b) The most likely bacterial pathogen is ........... , c) If this patient is the first case appearing in his country which is non endemic area, it is called .............. case. d) How would you confirm the presumptive diagnosis.................

101

(10 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

Q6. Write the laboratory diagnosis and treatment of cutaneous anthrax.

(10 Marks)

Q7. Tuberculin test: significance and uses.

(5 Marks)

Q8. Clarify the following: a) Morphological classification of fungi. b) Laboratory diagnosis of Candidiasis. c) Treatment and prevention of Cryptococcosis.

(3 Marks) (5 Marks) (2 Marks)

Q9. Complete the following: 1. Virus structure is composed of 2. Retroviruses are RNA viruses but adenoviruses are 3. Viruses multiply in; fertile eggs, animals and 4. Bacteriophage could be used for tracing the source of the following types of infection: a)................., b).................. 5. Japanese Encephalitis virus is transmitted by..............mosquito, while Chikungunya virus is transmitted by.................mosquito. 6. Dengue hemorrhagic fever starts as the classic type, followed by pain in ................and hemorrhage in .................. 7. The most common virus strains causing â&#x20AC;&#x153;Hand, Foot and Mouth Diseaseâ&#x20AC;? are ..................and...................... 8. The following viruses can causes cancer cervix: a).........., b).............. 9. Venereal viral infections include: a).........., b).............. 10. Neurotropic viral infections include: a).........., b)..............

(10 Marks) (1 Mark Each)

Q10. Differences between conventional viruses and prions.

(5 Marks)

Q11. Modes of transmission of hepatitis C.

(5 Marks)

102

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 23/1/2013 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 4 Short Essay & 10 MCQ For: Egyptian & Malaysian Students

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

A. Short Essay Q1. Write 2 main differences between (in a table): a. Plasmids and transposons b. Primary and secondary immune response

4 Marks (2 Marks Each)

Q2. 2 Give possible reason (s) for: a. Occurrence of serum anaphylaxis

4 Marks (1.5 Mark)

b. Breaking down the mechanisms that maintain autotolerance

(2.5 Mark)

Q3.How can you solve these problems: a. Diagnosis of erythroblastosis fetalis. b. Antlmicrobial drug resistance. Q4. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of sub-acute bacterial Endocarditis.

103

4 Marks (2 Marks Each)

3 Marks

Question Number

Marks

B. MCQ Q1. Which component of bacterial cells contain lipid A: c. Cell wall e. Cytoplasmic membrane

1.5 Marks

d. Capsule f. Flagella

Q2. All EXCEPT ONE enhance virulence activity: c. Toxogenicity

d. Colonization

e. Spreading activity

f. Sporulation

Q3. ………………is NOT released by activated helper T-cells: c. Alpha interferon

d. IL-2

e. Gamma interferon

f. IL-4

1.5 Marks

Q4. Each of the following statements concerning killing of the bacteria is true EXCEPT: a. %70solution of alcohol kills more than 100% alcohol. b. Autoclave uses steam under pressure to reach the killing temperature of 121. c. The pasteurization of milk allows many organisms and spores to escape. d. Filtration kills bacteria by changing pH of the growth.

1.5 Marks

Q5. Which one of the following is NOT CORRECT regarding alternative complement pathway: a. Triggered by the presence of antibody b. Has the same terminal sequence of event as the classical pathway c. Could be initiated by bacterial endotoxin d. It can not be initiated unless C3b fragments are present

1.5 Marks

104

Question Number

Marks

Q6. Exotoxins a. Produced by Gram -ve bacteria b. Specific in their action c. Are more toxic than endotoxins

True T T T

False F F F

Q7. Tissue transplant between genetically non-identical individuals of the same species is: a. Isograft

b. Autograft

c. Xenograft

d. None of the above

1.5 Marks

Q8. The principal differences between classical and super-antigens include all of the following EXCEPT: a. The site of their binding to MHC and TCR b. Specificity c. Fragmentation and presentation d. Type of MHC class II

1.5 Marks

Q9. The most active phase of bacterial growth curve, with maximum division rate is : a. Lag phase b. Log phase c. Stationary phase d. Decline phase

1.5 Marks

Q10. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus is a. Responsible for about 25% of nosocomial infections b. Not resistant to other f5-lactam antibiotic c. Best treated with penicillin d. All of the above

1.5 Marks

105

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 5/7/2012 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 13

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

*Give an account on: 1. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells 2. The role of bacteriophage in genetic transfer 3. Superantigens 4. Mechanisms of graft rejection 5. Causative organism, mode of infection, pathogenesis laboratory diagnosis and treatment of gas gangrene 6. Toxins and enzymes shared by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes 7. How human infection occurs by Legionella pneumophila, discuss the clinical signs and symptoms, methods of laboratory diagnosis and proper treatment for such an infection 8. Tuberculin test, principle, significance and uses 9. A woman of reproductive age and with a history of premature labour, suffered from vaginal greyish white discharge with fishy odour and no signs of vaginal inflammation. Mention the possible causative organisms of such a case, Method of laboratory and differential diagnosis and suggested treatment. 10. different mechanisms of carcinogenesis for viruses causing cancer cervix 11. In a tabie form compare between Salk & Sabin Vaccine 12. Mode of transmission, diagnosis and prevention of infection with Hepatitis C 13. Describe the morphology, cultural characters, lesions and predisposing Factors and treatment of Candida albicans 106

(7 Marks) (7 Marks) (7 Marks) (7 Marks) (10 Marks) (7 Marks)

(8 Marks) (7 Marks)

(10 Marks) (10 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks) (10 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 22/2/2012 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 5 Short Essay & 20 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. Short Essay (10 Marks) 1- Lag phase of bacterial growth curve 2- Bacterial chromosome, structure and replication 3- Atopy 4- Super antigens 5- Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

B. MCQ (20 Marks) 1. All are true for L-form EXCEPT: a. Produced by penicillin b. Produced by lysozyme, c. Can reproduce d. Sensitive to penicillin 2. Lyophilization means: a. Sterilization by filtration. b. Steaming at 100째C for 3 days. c. Rapid drying of frozen bacteria under vacuum in sealed ampoules. d. Exposure of bacteria to light for a few minutes in the presence of dye. 3. For preparation of skin before surgery we use: a. Glutaraldehyde (cidex) b. Chlorine c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Povidone - iodine (betadine)

107

4. The ideal antimicrobial agent is characterized by the following EXCEPT: a. Low in toxicity b. Destroy, neutralize or excrete the drug so rapidly c. Reach the site of infection. d. Has bacteriostatic effect 5. The form of genetic exchange in bacteria through sex pilus is called: a. Transformation b. Genetic recombination c. Conjugation d. Transduction 6. The antigen is a substance that has the following characters EXCEPT: a. Protein in nature. b. Resemble self-constituents. c. High molecular weight. d. Stimulate immune response. 7. IgA antibody is characterized by: a. Cross the placenta. b. Can fix the complement. c. Found in milk of lactating women. d. Bind firmly to mast cells and triggers anaphylaxis 8. A hapten: a. is a molecule that will exclusively induce the formation of IgM antibodies b. A high molecular weight molecule that will not induce antibodies but is able to combined with specific antibody c. a low molecular weight that will not induce antibodies but is able to combine with specific antibody d. is a molecule that is unable to induce antibodies 9. Natural killer ceil is involved in: a. Ceil mediated immunity b. Antibody mediated immunity c. The destruction of cancer cells d. Anamnestic reaction e. Immunotolerence

108

10. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) is a process in which antibody coated cells are killed by: a. Antibodies b. Complement. c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Cells with Fc receptors for IgG. 11. Produced by T cells, activates macrophages; induces MHC-II expression (m macrophages) a. gamma-interferon b. IL-1 c. alpha-interferon d. Beta-interferon 12. Complement fixation refers to: a. the ingestion of C3bcoated bacteria by macrophages b. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56" C for 30 minutes c. the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes d. the interaction of C3b and mast cells e. hemolysis of RBCs 13.Principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity: a. The class of antibodies b. The site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed c. The participation of complement d. The participation of T cells. 14. Graft versus host disease occurs because: a. Prior sensitization by cell mediated immune system. b. Prior sensitization by humoral immune system. c. The transplant rejects the body. d. Inability of the body to manufacture more blood cells. 15. All the following statements about Antiglobulin tests are true EXCEPT: a. Are used in detection of anti-Rh Ab b. Are used in diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Are used in diagnosis of rheumatic fever d. Are direct and indirect coomb's tests 16. The MOST important feature of Staph aureus is: a. Coagulase production. b. Gelatin liquefaction. c. Heamolytic activity. d. Mannite fermentation. 109

17. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes subacute barter ai endocarditis? a. Pneumococci. b. Streptococcus pyogenes. c. Streptococcus viridians. d. Gram-negative organisms. 18. Quelling test is used for the direct identification of: a. Pneumococci. b. Streptococci. c. Haemophilus influenza. d. Klebsiella pneumonia. 19. The drug of choice in prevention of cerebrospinal meningitis is: a. Penicillin G. b. Polymyxin B c. Rifimpacin. d. Cefotaxime. 20. Active immunization against diphtheria includes the following EXCEP a. formol toxoid. b. Anti-toxic serum c. Aium-percipitated toxoid. d. DPT vaccine.

110

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 12/9/2012 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 5 Short Essay & 20 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. Short Essay (10 Marks) 1- Bacterial pigments 2- Methods used to test the efficiency of the autoclave 3- Virulence of bacteria 4- Natural killer cells 5- Staphylococcus aureus Toxins

B. MCQ (20 Marks) 1. Each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is true EXCEPT: a) It is a complex network that surrounds the entire cell. b) It is thinner in gram positive than gram negative bacteria. c) It allows the cell to withstand media of low osmotic pressure. d) It is a target for antibacterial drugs. 2. The following are true for capsule EXCEPT: a) Gelatinous layer covering the whole bacterium b) Used as a vaccine c) Resist heat d) Used for typing. 3. Which of the following statements regarding bacterial spores: a) They do not stained with ordinary stain b) They are metabolically active c) They are formed within certain gram positive bacteria d) They are resistant to disinfectants

111

4. Antigenicity in gram negative bacteria is associated with: a) Peptidoglycan layer b) Lipopolysaccharide layer c) Flagella d) a and b e) b and c 5. The length of the lag phase depends on the following factors EXCEPT: a) The nutritive value of the medium. b) The size of the inoculum. c) The morphology of the organism. d) The nature of the organism. 6. All Statements concerning bacterial endotoxin are correct EXCEPT: a) The toxicity is due to lipid portion b) It is secreted by most of Gram positive bacteria c) It is located in the cell wall d) It is more stable on heating than exotoxin 7. Which is the following enzyme acts as a spreading factor? a) Hyaluronidase b) Coagulase c) Catalase d) DNase 8. Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is: a) Antisepsis b) Sterilization c) Disinfection d) Dehydration 9. Antimicrobial synergism means: a) The combined act ion is equivalent to the sum of the actions of each drag when used alone. b) The combined action is significantly greater than sum of both effects. c) The combined action is not greater than that of the more effective agent when used alone. d) The combined action is less than that of the more effective agent when used alone

112

10. The bacterial enzyme that inactivate penicillin is: a) Catalase b) peroxidase c) B- lactamase d) Coagulase 11. AH of the following statements are correct for bacteriophage except or,e< a) Play the main role in transduction b) Are the main tool for tracing the source of infection c) Must have a specific receptor on the bacterial cell wall d) They always lead to death of bacteria they infect 12. Sources of infection could be all of the following EXCEPT: a) endogenous from the commensal flora b) soil c) animals d) healthy earner e) patients in incubation period f) none of the above 13. IgM antibodies: a) Cross the placenta b) Are characteristically produced in a secondary immune response c) Can activate complement d) Are usually found lining mucosal surfaces. 14. Natural killer cells are: a) B cells b) Cytotoxic T cells c) Increase by immunization d) Able to kill viruses infected cells

113

15. Haemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility requires maternal antibodies to enter fetal blood stream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is: a) IgE antibody. b) IgG antibody c) IgM antibody d) IgA antibody 16. Staphylococci are classified according to: a) Exopigments b) C-carbohydrate antigen c) Coagulase production d) b and c 17. Which is primarily responsible for the signs and symptoms of scarlet fever? a) Erythrogenic toxin b) M protein c) Streptokinase d) Exfoliative toxin 18. The Quelling test, used for the direct identification of: a) Pneumococci b) Streptococci c) Haemophilus influenza d) Klebsiella pneumonia 19. Each of the following statements concerning Neisseriae is correct EXCEPT: a) They are gram negative diplococcic b) They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor c) They are oxidase- positive d) They grow best under anaerobic conditions 20. Diphtheria toxin absorbed into circulation can cause the most serious damage to the: a) Kidney b) Heart c) Nerves d) All of the above

114

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 24/8/2011 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 14

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

*Give an account on: 1. Bacterial pigments (types and function). 2. Difference between exotoxins and endotoxins. 3. Application of genetic recombination. 4. Difference between classic antigen and superantigen. 5. Difference between classic and alternative pathway of complement. 6. Natural killer cells. 7. Important cytokines and their activities.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks) (4 Marks) (5 Marks) (4 Marks) (5 Marks)

*For the following organisms or diseases discuss: 8. Diagnosis and treatment of abscess due to MRSA. 9. Treatment of TB and leprosy. 10. Diagnosis and treatment of Malta fever. 11. Diagnosis and treatment of enteric fever.

(5 Marks) (6 Marks) (8 Marks) (8 Marks)

12. A 40-year old male is brought to a hospital complaining of a gradual onset of stiffness in the jaw muscles with difficult to open the mouth (trismus),several hours later, the patient has three successiveviolent spasms with neck stiffness. The patient's wife statesthat her husband's wounded accidentally from a gun shots one week earlier. a) What is the etiologic organism of such case? b) Mention the laboratory diagnosis of this pathogen. c) Treatment and prophylaxis of this case.

115

(2 Marks) (5 Marks) (3 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

13. Mycology: a) Differences of fungi from bacteria. b) Clinical findings and laboratory diagnosis and treatment of Candida infection.

(3 Marks) (7 Marks)

14. Give an account on: a) Compare between neutralizing antibody and interferon in antiviral immunity. b) Mechanism of carcinoensis by RNA viruses. c) Hepatitis C virus: mode of transmission, laboratory diagnosis, prevention and treatment.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks)

116

(10 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 12/9/2011 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 14

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

*Give an account on: 1. Virulance of infecting organism. 2. Methods used for testing the efficiency of autoclaving. 3. Transduction and its types. 4. Phagocytosis. 5. Difference between class / MHC and class II MHC. 6. Monoclonal antibodies. 7. Mechanism of graft rejection. 8. Diagnosis and prophylaxis and treatment of rheumatic fever. 9. Diagnosis and treatment of Helicobacter pylori gastritis. 10. Diagnosis and treatment of bacillary dysentery. 11. Diagnosis and treatment of primary case of cholera. 12. A 29 years old school teacher arrived at the emergency room with a two days history of headache and fever. On the day on admission the teacher failed to come to school. The teacher's wife found her husband in bed confused and highly agitated. When the patient arrived at the emergency room, he was comatosed with neck rigidity and purpuric rash on his trunk. a) What is your diagnosis? b) What are the capsulated organisms responsible for epidemic coses and discuss the diagnosis of it? 13. Mycology: a) Cyto logical and morphologic forms of fungi. b) Causitive agent, diagnosis and treatment of Cryptococcus meningitis. 14. Give an account on: a) Detection of virus in tissue culture. b) Steps of viral replication. c) Infectious mononucleosis (IMN): Causitive virus and mode of infection and clinical picture and laboratory diagnosis. 117

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 28/6/2010 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 6

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

1- Give an account on: a- Bacteria with defective cell wall. b- Mechanism of antimicrobial action. c- Transduction.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

2- Discuss the following: a- T-cell subpopulations and its role in immunity. b- Heterophile antigens and its application in bacterial diagnosis. c- Toxic complex syndrome (type III hypersensitivity).

(6 Marks) (6 Marks) (6 Marks)

3- For the following diseases discuss: a- Diagnosis and treatment of enteric fever. b- Diagnosis and prophylaxis of pneumococcal pneumonia. c- Diagnosis and treatment of tetanus. d- Diagnosis and treatment of primary stage of Syphilis.

(7 Marks) (7 Marks) (6 Marks) (7 Marks)

4- A pilgrim on returning from Mecca developed profuse watery diarrhea with manifestation of fluid and electrolytes loss. a- What is the suspected organism of such case? b- Mention the laboratory diagnosis of these pathogens. c- Treatment of this case.

118

(2 Marks) (5 Marks) (3 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

5- Mycology: a- Give two fungal cell structures are important medically. b- Cryptococcus meningitis: the causative agent, the striking structural features, mode of transmission, predisposing factors and two tests are used in the diagnosis.

(3 Marks) (7 Marks)

6- Give an account on: a- Steps of viral replication. b- Different mechanisms of carcinogenesis by Human papilloma virus (HPV). c- Hepatitis (B) virus: method of infection, laboratory diagnosis, vaccination and treatment.

119

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (10 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 23/8/2010 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 6

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

1- Give an account on: a) Extra chromosomal genetic elements. b) Mechanism of antimicrobial chemotherapy resistance. c) Application of genetic recombination.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

2- Discuss the following: a) Immunoglobulin types, structure and function of each. b) Mention different types of important cytokines, its main activities and its importance. c) Cytolytic reaction (type II hypersensitivity ).

(6 Marks) (6 Marks) (6 Marks)

3- For the following diseases discuss: a) Diagnosis and prophylaxis of tonsillar diphtheria. b) Diagnosis and prophylaxis of gas gangrene. c) Diagnosis and treatment of leprosy. d) Diagnosis and treatment of Malta fever.

(7 Marks) (6 Marks) (7 Marks) (7 Marks)

4) At a banquet, the menu included fried chicken, homefried potatoes, peas, chocolate, eclairs and coffee. Within 2 hours, most of the diners becomes violently ill, with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. a) What is the most suspected organism that is responsible for these cases? b) What are other diseases caused by this organism? c) Mention the laboratory diagnosis of this pathogens. 120

(2 Marks) (4 Marks) (4 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

5- Mycology:

(10 Marks)

a) Classification of Mycosis, illustrated with examples. b) Thrush: give the causative agent, the most morphological features, predisposing factors, diagnosis and treatment.

6- Give an account on: a) Diagnosis of viral replication in tissue culture. b) Persistent viral infection. Prophylaxis against poliomyelitis.

121

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (10 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 22/7/2010 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 4 Short Essay & 20 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. Short Essay (10 Marks) a- Spore formation and its importance.

(3 Marks)

b- Virulence of infecting organism.

(2 Marks)

c- Steps of Phagocytosis.

(2 Marks)

d- Tuberculin test.

(3 Marks)

B. MCQ (20 Marks) 1. The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that: a- A disinfectant kills bacterial spores, while an antiseptic does not. b- A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on the skin surface. c- A disinfectant does not achieve sterilization, and antiseptic does. d- Disinfectant are chemical substances, while antiseptics are not chemical substances. 2. All of the following are characteristics of fermentation EXCEPT: a- End products include acids, gases, alcohols. b- Generates large amounts of energy compared to cellular respiration, c- Occurs under anaerobic conditions. d- It provides both electron donor and acceptor at the same time. 3. In transduction, only genes adjacent to the viral insertion site is transferred to a new host cell: a- Specialized b- Generalized c- Both a and b. 122

4. Endotoxic activity of Gram negative bacteria is associated with: a- Periplastic gel. b- flagellum protein c- lipid "A" d- teichoic acid. 5. Which of the following antibiotics is mismatched? a- Aminoglycosides . . . . . . . . protein synthesis. b- Penicillin . . . . . . . . .cell wall synthesis. c- Sulfonamides . . . . . . . . Anti-metabolites. d- Chloramphenicol. . . . . . . . . nucleic acid analogs. e- None of the above is mismatched. 6. Each of the following statements concerning superantigens is correct except: a- They interact with MHC molecule outside the peptide binding groove. b- They are active at very low concentration. c- It binds to the variable region of a and 6 chains of TCR. d- it causes massive T cell activation. 7. The major rote of T cells in the immune response includes which one of the following: a- Complement fixation. b- Phagocytosis c- Production of antibodies d- Recognition of epitopes presented with MHC molecules on all surfaces 8. Which portion of the antibody molecule activates the first protein in the complement pathway? a- Variable regions of the light chains. b- Variable regions of the heavy chains. c- The hinge region. d- Constant regions of the light chains e- Constant regions of the heavy chains. 10. Immunity may be innate or acquired. Which of the following best describes acquired immunity? a- Complement cascade. b- Increase in C- reactive protein (CRP) c- Material transfer of antibody. d- Inflammatory response.

123

11. Which of the following is FALSE about B-cells? a- Divides into plasma cells to secrete antibody. b- Divides into memory cells. c- Mature in the thymus. d- Featured in humoral immunity. 12. About T cells it is that they: a- Mature in thyroid gland. b- Comprises 20-30% of lymphocytes. c- Have IgG as surface marker. d- Recognize non-self-antigens. e- All are true. 13. Which category of hypersensitivity best describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? a- Atopic or anaphylactic. b- Cytotoxic. c- Immune complex. d- Delayed hypersensitivity. 14. In the complement system the following statements are false except: a- alternative pathway does not rely on antibody. b- Classical pathway is best activated by bacteria endotoxin. c- The membrane attack complex is made up of C3a and C5a. d- Properdin system is utilized in classical pathway. 15. Graft rejection is mediated by oil of the following EXCEPT: a- Phagocytic cells. b- Cytotoxic T cells. c- Helper T cells. d- Non d complement fixing antibody. 16. Pneumococci are classified according to: a- Capsular polysaccharide. b- Cell wall carbohydrate antigen. c- Coagulase. d- Endopigment production.

124

17. Which one of the following is not an important characteristic of either Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitides? a- Polysaccharide capsule. b- M-protein. c- IgA proteose. 18. Positive Dick test means: a- Immunity to scarlet fever. b- Hypersensitivity to Streptococcus toxins. c- Susceptibility to scarlet fever. 19. Which one of the following is considered a virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus? a- A heat labile toxin that inhibits chemicals release at neuron. b- Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG. c- An oxygen labile hemolysin. d- Resistance to novobiocin. 20.Which of the following organisms most commonly causes subacute bacteriaI endocarditis? a- Pneumococci. b- Streptococcus pyogenes. c- Streptococcus pyogenes. d- Gram-negative organisms.

125

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 2/6/2009 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 7

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

1- Give an account on:

Marks

(20 Marks)

i) Serum sickness ii) Monoclonal antibodies iii) Value of tuberculin test iv) carrier : definition and importance

2- For the following diseases , discuss the causative agent(s) , modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis:

(20 Marks)

i) Weirs disease iii) Malta fever iv) Scarlet fever

3- Tabulate the differences between the following:

(10 Marks)

i) Antigen and superantigern ii) B and T lymphocyte cells iii) Campylobacter and Helicobacter iv) Vibrio cholera and Vibrio elTor

4- A 20 years old male is suddenly taken ill with headache , vomiting, malaise and high fever. When the patient arrived at the emergency room , he was comatosed with convulsions, physical examination reveals nuchal rigidity i) What is the most likely diagnosis? ii) What are the possible causative bacterial organism(s) responsible for this case? iii) Mention the laboratory diagnosis of only one of them 126

(10 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

5- Write the morphological and clinical classification (10 Marks) of fungi. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of only one fungal infection 6- Give reason for:

(10 Marks)

i) Some viruses can activate a proto â&#x20AC;&#x201D;oncogene ii) Interferon is more important than neutralizing antibodies in antiviral Immune response

7- Avian influenza A (K5N1) infection in human: Method of transmission, clinical picture, laboratory diagnosis and treatment.

(10 Marks)

8- MCQ

(10 Marks)

127

1) Molecules involved in opsonization df bacteria include all of the following EXCEPT a) IgG b) C3 b c) C5 b d) FC receptor 2) HIV/AIDS is: a) Curable but has no vaccine b) Such a global disaster and threat to the world population c) caused by spherical , enveloped , RNA virus d) (a) and (b) e) (b) and (c) 3) DNA viruses include the following EXCEPT : a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis C c) Molluscum contagiosum? d) Varicella zoster 4) Clostridium Perfringens infection are commonly associated with a) Contamination of She wound b) Antibiotic treatment c) Immunosuppression d) Pseudomembranous colitis 5) The species most frequently involved in salmonella food poisoning is: a) Salmonella typhi murium b) Salmonella typhi c) Salmonella entiritidis d) Salmonella Cholera e) Salmonella infantis 6) The following characteristics describe the organism that has been shown to be responsible for Legionnaire's disease EXCEPT: a) It is a Gram negative bacillus b) It is frequently fusiform in shape c) It is Gram - positive bacillus d) It is not acid fast e) It is non- sporing

128

7) Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative-agent of: a) Hard chancre b) Urethritis c) Soft chancre d) Granuloma inguinale 8) All of the following statements are true in reference to congenital syphilis EXCEPT: a) It may result in abortion b) It may go to term with infant born dead c) In live births the lesions may be those of tertiary syphilis d) It is characterized by many spirochaetes in the tissues e) It is never generalised 9) All of the following statements are true in reference to human Mycoplasma EXCEPT: a) Stained with Geimsa but not with Gram stain b) The only bacteria contain cholesterol in their cell membrane c) Not immunogenic d) Can be cultured in vitro 10) Diagnosis of diphtheria is confirmed by: a) Microscopic appearance of organism stained by methylene blue b) Isolation of the organism from the blood c) Detection of B phage d) Detection of the toxin production by suspicious isolate

129

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 19/8/2009 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 100 Marks NO. Of Questions: 7

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

1- Give an account on: a. Bacteria with defective cell wall. b. Bacterial toxin, types and its application. c. Bacterial conjugation and its physiology.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

2- Give an account on each of the following: a. Heterophile antigens and its application in bacterial diagnosis. b. Primary and secondary immune response. c. Hypersensitivity reaction type n.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

3- Mention the causative organism and laboratory diagnosis of the following diseases: a. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis. b. Tonsillar diphtheria. c. Subacute bacterial endocarditis. d. Malignant pustule.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

4- Mention the prophylaxis and treatment of the following diseases: a. Gas gangrene. b. Vibrio cholera. c. Pulmonary tuberculosis. d. Plague.

130

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

Question Number

Marks

5- Discuss laboratory diagnosis and treatment of dermatophytes.

(10 Marks)

6- Compare and contrast between hepatitis B and C viruses.

(8 Marks)

7- White short account on: a) Types of interferons. b) The aetiology, mode of infection and laboratory diagnosis of glandular fever.

131

(6 Marks) (6 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 22/7/2009 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 5 Short Essay, 1 Case Study & 10 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. Short Essay (15 Marks) a) L- form of bacteria. b) Bacterial Pigment. c) Primary and Secondary immune response. d) Activation of complement. e) Koch's postulate.

B. Case Study (5 Marks) A 10 years old child suffering from fever , sore throat and white membrane on the tonsils: a) What is your diagnosis? b) What is the most causative agent for this case? c) What is the laboratory diagnosis for this case?

C. MCQ (10 Marks)

132

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 26/8/2007 Term: Final Examination (2) Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks NO. Of Questions: 4 Short Essay & 12 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. Short Essay 1-What are the main differences between: a) Bacterial endotoxin and exotoxin. b) Superantigens and classical antigens. c) Vibrio cholera and Vibrio El Tor.

(9 Marks)

2- Give short account on the following: a) Transduction. b) Hypersensitivity reaction type II.

(10 Marks)

3- Give short account on the following: a) Epidemic cerebrospinal-meningitis. b) Tetanus. c) Poliomyelitis.

(15 Marks)

4- Mention the laboratory diagnosis and treatment of each of the following: a) Undulant fever. b) A case of Diphtheria. c) Pneumonic anthrax. d) Dermatophytes

(20 Marks)

133

B. MCQ (6 Marks) 1) Each of the following regarding bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT : a) They have enhanced metabolic activity. b) Formed by Gram +ve bacilli. c) Killed by heating to 121째 for 20 minutes. d) Contain less water than vegetative forms. 2) the classical complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with: a) Antigen. b) Factor B. c) Antigen-IgG complex. c) Bacterial lipopolysaccharides. 3) Natural killer cells are: a) Cytotoxic T-cells. b) B cells c) Increased by immunization. d) Able to kill virus infected cells without prior Sensitization. 4) Bacillus anthrax is the only bacterium to possess: a) An endotoxin b) An exotoxin c) Polypeptide capsule d) Polysaccharide capsule 5) Which of the following is the treatment of choice to bacteroid infections? a) Cephalocin b) Metronidazole c) Erythromycin d) Penicillin 6) A stool culture from a case of diarrhea reveals motile Gram -ve microaerophilic thin curved s-shaped organism, the organism is: a)E coli b) Vibrio parahamoliticus c) Camplyiobacter jejuni d) Yersinia enterocolitica 7) Bird collector person presents with atypical pneumonia, which is the most likely causative organism a) Strept.pneumoniae b) Haemophillus influenza c) Clamydia psittaci d) Clamydia pneumoniae 8) Haemophillus influenza vaccine contains which of the following? a) Lipopolysaccharide b) Capsular polysaccharide c) Teichoic acid d) Toxoid 9) Tuberculin test indicates which of the following? a) The person has active tuberculosis b) Infection with atypical mycobacteria c) Delayed type hypersensitivity against mycobacterium tuberculosis 10) Aerobic, Oxidase +ve, Gram-ve organism was isolated from a burn wound, this is most likely to be? a) Klebsiella b) Pseudomonas c) Strept.pneumoniae d) Staph.aureus 134

11) Salmonella typhi most likely to be found during carrier state in which site ? a) Blood b) Gall bladder c) Spleen d) Liver 12) Which test is the most specific for detection of Syphilis ? a) RPR b) VDRL c) FTA-absorption test d) Zeihl-Neelsen film

C. Answer the following by True or False (4 Marks) a) Yersinia pestis belongs to enterobacteriaceae. b) Leptospira cause Weil'? disease. c) Mycoplasma can be treated by penicillin. d) Endemic typhus is caused by Rickettsiae prowazeki.

C. Give Reason for the following (3 Marks) a) Bacillus stearothermophillus is used to monitor efficiency of autoclave. b) Ethyl alcohol 70% is effective than absolute ethyl alcohol in sterilization. c) Urinary tract infection with proteus may be associated with stone formation.

135

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 3/6/2006 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 150 Marks NO. Of Questions: 3 Short Essay & 15 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. MCQ (15 Marks) 1) Which component of bacterial cell contain lipid A: a. Cell wall b. Capsule c. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Flagella 2) Decline-pbase of bacterial growth curve correlates to: a. Incubaction period b. Recovery period c. Exhibition of clinical signs d. Mutation period 3) Plasmid transformed from one bacterial cell to another by: a. Transduction b. Conjugation c. Transformation d. Recombination 4) Which class of immunoglobulin can fix mast cells and mediate atopic allergies: a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgD 5) All the following are examples of type IV hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT: a. Mantoux test (Tuberculin test) b. Contact dermatitis c. Lepromin test d. Arthus reaction 6) Which of the following statement does not describe diphtheria disease: a. The pathogenesis due to endotoxin production b. The main causative agent is Corynebacterium diphtheria c. The causative agent can be isolated on tolerance medium d. Early administration of antitoxin is recommended for the treatment 7) Streptococcus pyogenes is classified into serotypes by: a. C-substance b. O-Antigen c. E-protein d. M-protein 8) Fever of unknown origin in fanners who raises cattle most likely caused by: a. Brucella melitensis b. Brucella suis c. Brucella abortus d. Brucella cansis

136

9) All EXCEPT ONE are applicable to Pseudomonas species a. aerobe b. motile c. nosocomial infection d. multi-sensitive to drugs 10) DOTS is a WHO new strategy for treatment of: a. Diphtheria b. Anthrax c. Pulmonary tuberculosis d. Syphilis 11) The following bacteria produce neuxotoxin EXCEPT: a. Clostridium tetani b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium difficile d. a + b 12) All EXCEPT ONE cause diarrhea: a. E. coli b. Vibro cholera c. Haemophilus influenza d. Salomnella ryphimumum 13) All of the following concerning Ireponema pallidum EXCEPT a. Can be seen by dark field microscope b. Can be transmitted to the fetus by placenta c. Can be cultured on artificial media d. May cause a chancre in the mouth 14) The following routes may transmit HIV infection EXCEPT: a. Homosexual b. Heterosexual c. Shared needle by drug abusers d. Mosquito bites 15) Modes of HCV transmission include the following EXCEPT: a. Mainly associated with blood transfusion (90%) b. Haemodialysis and renal transplant (20%) c. Sexual contact is quiet common mode of infection d. Shared unsterilized or poorly sterilized needles & svringes

B. Short Essay 1. Give an account on: a) Virulence of infecting organism. b) Factors affecting antibody response. c) Tuberculin test. 2. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of the following diseases: a) Gonorrhea. b) Bacillary dysentery. c) Tetanus. 5. Write what you know about: a) Types and uses of bacteriophages. b) Prophylaxis against poliomyelitis. 137

(6 Marks) (6 Marks) (6 Marks) (7 Marks) (7 Marks) (7 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 18/1/2006 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 40 Marks NO. Of Questions: 8 Short Essay & 8 MCQ

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

A. MCQ (8 Marks) 1) Autotrophe acquired carbon from: a. carbon dioxide b. carbon monoxide c. carbon hydrates d. sugars 2) Co-enzyme is a. protein in nature b. non-protein in nature c. responsible for specificity d. larger molecule of the enzyme 3) Which one of the following articles best sterilized by autoclaving: a. plastic syringe b. glasses c. culture media d. bacteriological loop 4) Mutations in bacteria can occur by: a. base substitutions b. deletions c. insertions d. all of the above 5) All except one enhance virulence activity : a. toxogenicity b. colonization c. spreading activity d. sporulation 6) To induce immune response the hapten requires: a. to be attached to antibody b. antigenic determinant c. to be attached to a carrier molecule d. none of the above 7) The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to : a. make antibody b. lyse virus-infected target cells c. activate cytotoxic T cells d. process antigen and present it 8) Natural killer cells are: a. B cells that can kill without complement c. cytotoxic T cells b. non T non B cells d. increased by immunization

138

B. Short Essay (4 Marks for each) 1) Bacteria with defective cell wall. 2) Bacterial toxins. 3) Sterilization by dry heat. 4) Chemoprophylaxis. 5) Extra-chromosomal genetic elements. 6) Basic structure of immunoglobulin. 7) The classic and alternative pathways of the complement system. 8) Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic hypersensitivity).

139

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 6/2005 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 150 Marks NO. Of Questions: 4

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

1.Give an account on : a. Bacterial growth curve b. Types of lymphocytes c. Fluorescent antibody technique d. Koch's phenomena

2.Discuss the causative agents. laboratory diagnosis & prophylaxis of the following diseases: a. Tonsillar diphtheria. b. Enteric fever (during 7-10 days).

3.Discus the laboratory diagnosis & treatment of the following diseases: a. Tetanus. b. Epidemic typhus. c. Pneumonic plague.

4.Write what you know about each of the following: a. Human virus cancer relationship. b. Atypical viruses. c. Compare & contrast between hepatitis B & C viruses.

140

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 9/6/2004 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 150 Marks NO. Of Questions: 4

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Question Number

Marks

1.Give an account on : a) Genetic origin of drug resistance, and how to be minimized. b) Bacterial chromosome and its replication. c) Definition of antigen and its general properties. d) Mechanism of graft rejection and trials to prevent this rejection.

(4 Marks) (4 Marks) (4 Marks) (6 Marks)

2.Discuss the different characters (Morphological, Cultural and Biochemical) of each of the following: a) Haemophilus influenzae. b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. c) Clostridium perfringens. d) Salmonella typhi.

(4 Marks) (4 Marks) (4 Marks) (4 Marks)

3.Mention the causative organism, mode of infection and laboratory diagnosis of each of the following diseases: a) Malignant pustule. b) Epidemic typhus. c) Bacillary dysentery. d) Undulant fever.

(5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks) (5 Marks)

4.Enumerate the DNA and RNA viruses possibly transmitted (10 Marks) to man by infected blood transfusion. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis and vaccine used against only one of them.

141

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 12/2/2004 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 40 Marks NO. Of Questions: 8

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

*Give an account on:

(5 Marks for each)

1) Structures outside the cell wall of bacteria 2) Bacterial growth curve. 3) Kochâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s postulates. 4) Bacterial virulence. 5) Phagocytosis and the inflammatory response. 6) Primary and secondar> immune response. 7) Clinical types of type I hypersensitivity. 8) Toxins and enzymes of Streptococcus pyogenes.

142

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 24/6/2003 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours NO. Of Questions: 4

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

1.Give an account on : a) The role of bacteriophage in genetic (ransferc b) Immunoglobulins, types, structure and function of each. c) Bacterial toxins.

2.Mention the causative organism, mode of infection and laboratory diagnosis of each of the following diseases: a) Enteric fever. b) Tetanus. c) Malignant pustule.

3.Mention the causative organism of cholera . Discuss the pathogenicity and pathogenesis of the disease and how to diagnose a suspected case in non-endemic area.

4. a) Discuss the possible human virus cancer relation. b) Enumerate three DNA viruses. Mention the mode of infection and Laboratory diagnosis of only ONE of them.

143

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 20/2/2003 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 40 Marks NO. Of Questions: 8

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

*Give an account on:

(5 Marks for each)

1) Bacterial cell wall , structure and persumed function. 2) Liquid disinfectants , types and application. 3) What are antigens? What are the main attributes that make a substance a good antigen. 4) Toxic complex syndrome ( complex mediated hypersensitivity or type III hypersensitivity ). 5) Phenotypic variation. 6) Bacterial growth curve. 7) Staph aureus products. 8) Mention the causative agent, method of transmission, laboratory diagnosis and proper treatment of a case of epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis. 144

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 6/6/2002 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours NO. Of Questions: 4

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

1.Give an account on : a) Bacterial enzymes, definition and characters. b) Bacterial genetic engineering, principal, idea, technique and application.

2.Mention the difference between: a) Sterilization and disinfection, mention types and liquid Disinfectant. b) Primary and secondary immune response.

3.Discuss each of the following: a)A 25 years old solider admitted to fever hospital with locked jaw and descending spasm of the neck and back muscles with history of wound in the battle field since 7 days ago. b) Patient suffering from intermittent prolonged fever, asking about his job he told that he is a veterinary doctor.

4.Mycology: Give the morphologic and clinical classification of fungi, Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of only one disease caused by fungi.

5.Virology: a) Discuss the structure of true viruses and write what you know about atypical viruses. b) Compare and contrast between hepatitis B and C viruses, mention the mechanism. Explaining the possibility of liver cancer development on top of each.

145

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Microbiology & Immunology Code: TMED.03:03 Date: 14/2/2002 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 40 Marks NO. Of Questions: 10

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Microbiology & Immunology

ALL QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED

*Discuss each of the following:

(4 Marks for each)

1) Types of bacteria! pigments, production, and function. 2) Draw and label a typical "bacterial growth curve. 3) Role of bacteriophage in genetic transfer. 4) Koch's postulates. 5) Jumping genes. 6) Define antigen and mention its general properties. 7) Pentamer immunoglobulin and its structure. 8) Non motile strains of protcus and their uses in diagnosis. 9) Mention the source, way of infection by Bacillus anthracis, and how to get rid of the infected animal. 10) A child aged 4 years suffering from fever, dyspnea, cough, and working ala nasi. What is the most common causative bacterial agent of this case, how to diagnose it in a way to be sure of this causative organism.

146

General Bacteriology

1- Significance of bacterial structures outside the cell wall. 2- Bacteria with defective ceil wall. 3- Mechanism of anti-microbial action. 4- Transduction. 5- Spore formation and its Importance. 6- Virulence of infecting organism. 7- L-form of bacteria. 8- Bacterial pigment (Types, production & function). 9- Bacterial toxin &types and its application. 10- Bacterial conjugation and its physiology. 11- Ethyl alcohol 70% is effective than absolute ethyl alcohol in sterilization. 12- Bacterial respiration. 13- Bacterial growth Curve. 14- Genetic origin of drug resistance &how to be minimize. 15- Bacterial chromosome & its replication. 16- Difference between exotoxins & endotoxins. 17- Application of genetic recombination. 18- The role of bacteriophage in genetic transfer. 19- Liquid disinfectants & types and application. 20- Bacterial enzymes [Definition and characters]. 21- Bacterial genetic engineering (principle, idea, technique and application). 22- Bacterial cell wall (structure, presumed function. 23- Mutation. 24- Bacterial capsule. 25- Anaphylaxis. 26- Methods used for testing the efficiency of autoclaving. 27- Mention Difference between: a) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells. b) Flagella and Pilli. c) Sterilization and disinfection & mention types and liquid Disinfectant. d) Gram +ve & gram -ve. e) Exotoxins & endotoxins.

148

Immunology 1- Alternative pathway of complement. 2- Difference between classic and alternative pathway of complement. 3- Difference between classic antigen and superantigen. 4- Natural killer cells. 5- Important cytokines and their main activities. 6- Toxic complex syndrome (type II hypersensitivity). 7- Heterophile antigens and its application in bacterial diagnosis. 8- T cell subpopulations and its role in immunity. 9- Steps of phagocytosis & the inflammatory response. 10- Primary and Secondary immune response. 11- Activation of complement. 12- Serum sickness. 13- Monoclonal antibodies. 14- Hyper sensitivity reaction type n. 15- Phagocytic cells &Phagocytosis. 16- Types of Lymphocytes & their role in immune response. 17- Florescent antibody technique. 18- Definition of antigen &its general properties. 19- Mechanism of graft rejection & to prevent this rejection. 20- Clinical types of type I hypersensitivity. 21- Immunoglobulins (types, structures & function of each. 22- Types of bacteria! antigens and how to differentiate between them. 23- Factors affecting antibody response. 24- Different types of cytokines. 25- What are antigens? What are the main attributes that make a substance a good antigen? 26- Enumerate the antigen , antibody reactions & discuss only one of them in details. 27- Anaphylactic types hypersensitivity. 28- Role of commensal organism in innate immunity & their possible hazards. 29- Microbial factors that determine the fate of the infecting organism. 30- Compare between: a) Antigen and superantigen. b) B and T-lymphocyte cells. c) Classic and alternative pathway of complement. 31- Difference between class I MHC and class II MHC. 149

Systemic Bacteriology

*Give An account on: 1- Treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis. 2- Tuberculin test. 3- Non-motile stains of proteus & their uses in diagnosis. 4- Mention the source, way of infection by bacillus anthraces & how to get rid of the infected animal. 5- Treatment of TB. and Leprosy. 6- Diagnosis and treatment of Malta fever. 7- Diagnosis and treatment of enteric fever. 8- Diagnosis and treatment of abscess due to MRSA. 9- Koch's phenomena. 10- Diagnosis and prophylaxis and treatment of rheumatic fever. 11- Diagnosis and treatment of Helicobacter pylori gastritis. 12- Diagnosis and treatment of bacillary dysentery. 13- Diagnosis and treatment of primary case of cholera. *For the following diseases, discuss the causative agent (s), modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis: 1- Diagnosis & treatment of pneumococcal pneumonia. 2- Diagnosis & prophylaxis of pneumococcal pneumonia. 3- Diagnosis & treatment of tetanus. 4- Diagnosis & treatment of 1st stage syphilis. 5- Wellâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s disease. 5- Q fever. 6- Malta fever. 7- Scarlet fever. 8- Epidermic cerebrospinal meningitis. 9- Tonsillar diphtheria. 10- Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis. 11- Malignant pustule. 12- Causes gastritis, peptic ulcer and can produce urease. 13- Cause bloody diarrhea does not ferment lactose and does not produce H2S. 14- Gram +ve organism causes skin lesion and severe pneumonia. 15- Oxidase positive organism can be cultured on Thayer Martin media. 150

16- First case of cholera in non-endemic area. 17- Relapsing fever. 18- Botulism. 19- Lymph granuloma venereum. 20- Epidemic typhus. 21- Endemic typhus. 22- Yellow fever. 23- Granular fever. 24- Bacillary dysentery. 25- Undulant fever. 26- Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitis. 27- Acute sore-throat. 28- Rhinoscleroma. 29- Mention the prophylaxis & treatment of the following diseases. 30- Gas gangrene. 31- Vibrio cholera. 32- Pulmonary tuberculosis. 33- Plaque. 34- Diphtheria. 35- Tetanus. 36- Urinary tuberculosis. 37- Epidemic typhus. *Give reason for the following: 1- Urinary tract infection with proteus may be associated with stone formation. 2- Botulism occurs due to consumption of canned food. 3- Shigella sonni gives both pale yellow & rose pink colonies on MacConkey's media. 4- Streptococci are not usually isolated from a case of acute glumerulonephritis. 5- In botulism, usually there is no vomiting or diarrhea. 6- Shigella infection cannot be diagnosed by direct Gram stained smear from stool. 7- VDRL test is not a confirmatory test for diagnosis of syphilis. 8- Presence of acid-fast bacilli in urine does not prove diagnosis of urinary T.B. 9- Protus gives swarming colonies on moist agar. 10- Tuber dine test is not a confirmatory test for diagnosis of T.B. in adults. 11- Wiel Felix test is not specific test. 12- Haemophylus cannot grow on ordinary media.

151

*Tabulate the differences between the following: 1- Campylobacter & Helicobacter. 2- Vibrio cholera & vibrio eltor. *Discuss the morphology, culture, character & biochemical reactions of the following: 1- Shigella. 2- Neisseria gonorrhea. 3- Haemophilus influenza. 4- Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 5- Clostridium perfringens. 6- Salmonella typhi.

Mycology 1- Difference of fungi from bacteria? 2- Clinical finding & Laboratory diagnosis and treatment of Candida infections? 3- Give two fungal cell structures are important medically? 4- Cryptococcus meningitis: the causative agent, the striking structural features, mode of transmission, predisposing factors and two tests are used in the diagnosis? 5- Write the morphological and clinical classification of fungi, Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of only one fungal infection? 6- Discuss laboratory diagnosis and treatment of dermatophytes? 7- Cytological and morphologic forms of fungi.

152

Virology 1- Compare between neutralizing antibody and interferon in antiviral immunity? 2- Mechanism of carcinogenesis by RNA Viruses? 3- Hepatitis C virus (HCV): mode of transmission, Laboratory diagnosis, prevention and treatment? 4- Steps of Viral replication? 5- Different mechanism of carcinogenesis by Human papilloma virus (HPV)? 6- Hepatitis B Virus: method of infection, Laboratory diagnosis, Vaccination and treatment? 7- Give reason for: Some Viruses can activate aproto-oncogene-interferon is more important than neutralizing antibodies in antiviral immune response. 8- Avian influenza A (H5N1) infection in human: Method of transmission, clinical picture, Laboratory diagnosis and treatment? 9- Compare and contrast between hepatitis B and C Viruses, mention the mechanism explaining the possibility of liver cancer development on top of each? 10- Types of interferon. 11- The etiology, mode of infection and laboratory diagnosis of glandular fever. 12- Give reason, Viruses can grow only in WBCs but not in RBCs? 13- Mention the types & discuss the uses of interferon? 14- Human virus cancer relationship. 15- Atypical viruses. 16- Enumerate the DMA & RNA viruses possibly transmitted to man by infected blood transfusion, Discuss the laboratory diagnosis &Vaccine used against only one of them. 17- Discuss the possible human virus relation? Enumerate three DNA viruses, mention the mode of infection & laboratory diagnosis of only ONE of them. 18- Enumerate 2 virus disease transmitted to man by oral route& discuss the laboratory diagnosis of only one of them &the vaccine used for prophylaxis against the other one? 19- Discuss the structure of true viruses and write what you know about atypical viruses? 20- Give a brief account on human virus-cancer relation? 21- Enumerate the indication of rabies vaccination, discuss the antirabies vaccine used in Egypt, its possible complications & mention the newly introduced vaccines to overcome these complications? 22- Definition, types of nosocomial infection & investigation of an outbreak? 23- Mechanism of carcinoensis by RNA viruses. 24- Detection of virus in tissue culture. 25- Infectious mononucleosis (IMN): Causative virus, mode of infection, clinical picture and 153 laboratory diagnosis.

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 4/6/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following ten questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1- Aetiology and clinical aspects of kala azar. 2- Laboratory diagnosis of Fasciola gigantica infection. 3- Medical importance of Musca domestica. 4- Ocular larva migrans.

14 Marks

II-Mention two parasites that: 1- Can be prevented by mosquito control. 2- Surgical interference is the treatment of choice. 3- Can be transmitted by ingestion of larvae. 4- Can be diagnosed by coproantigen detection. 5- May be presented with skin ulcer.

5 Marks

III-Give the reason(s) for: 1- Emetic drugs are contraindicated in Taenia solium infection. 2- Steatorrhea is a characteristic feature in giardiasis. 3- Anaemia is a common complication in Trichuris trichiura infection. 4- Autoinfection is common in Cryptosporidium infection.

8 Marks

6 Marks

IV-Mention the difference between the followings: 1- Gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium falciparum.. 2- Chiggers' disease and scabies (causative agents and pathogenesis of skin lesions). 3- Unilocular and multilocular hydatid cysts.

155

V-Complete the following statements with one answer only: a- Epidemic typhus is transmitted by ( (1) ) ,while endemic typhus is transmitted by ( (2) ). b-Espundia is caused by ( (3) ) ,while Romana's sign is caused by ( (4) c- Plerocercoid is the infective stage in ( (5) ). d- Semisulcospira libertina is the snail intermediate host for ( (6) ). e- High eosinophilia is a laboratory finding in infection with ( (7) ). f- The vector of Trypanosoma gambiense is ( (8) ), its mechanism of transmission is ( (9) ) and its type of metamorphosis is ( (10) ). g- Scotch adhesive tape method is used for diagnosis of ( (11) ), while Mazzotti test is used for diagnosis of ( (12) ).

6 Marks

VI-Draw labeled diagrams for the following: a- lnfective stage(s) of: 1- Hymenolepis nana 2- Trypanosoma cruzi b- Diagnostic stage(s) of: 1- Entamoeba histolytica 2- Wuchereria bancrofti c- Life cycle of Heterophyes heterophyes

10 Marks

VII-Mention one parasitological use of the following: 1- Modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain 2- Primaquine 3- IgG avidity test 4- N.N.N. media 5- Xenodiagnosis 6- Gambusia affinis fish

6 Marks

156

VIII-Read the following case and answer the related questions:

5 Marks

An Egyptian gardener working barefooted complaining of severe pallor , dyspnea and palpitation. Epigastric pain and diarrhea are accompanying manifestations. Blood examination showed severe anemia. Stool examination revealed immature oval translucent ova. 1- What is the suspected causative parasite? 2- What are the possible complications? 3- Mention the treatment in such a case. 4- Enumerate other two parasites that can infect barefooted man. 5 Marks

IX-Read the following case and answer the related questions: A married woman complaining of profuse vaginal discharge with severe vaginal itching and frequency of micturition. Microscopic examination of urine sample and vaginal swab revealed a motile protozoal stage. 1- What is the suspected causative parasite? 2- What are different methods of laboratory diagnosis? 3- What are the different lines of treatment in such a case? 4- Enumerate other two parasites that can be detected in urine.

157

X-Choose the correct answer:

10 Marks

1- Nephrotic syndrome may complicate infection with: (A) Plasmodium ovale (B) Plasmodium malariae (C) Plasmodium vivax (D) Plasmodium falciparum 2- Which of the following parasites is capable of completing its life cycle in a single host: (A) Hymenolepis diminuta (B) Taenia saginata (C) Diphyllobothrium latum (D) Trichinelfa spiralis 3- In schistosomiasis, egg emboli may cause: (A) Severe anaemia (B) Verminous pneumonitis (C) Cor-pulmonale (D) Batherâ&#x20AC;&#x2DC;s itch 4- High level of non-specific IgM is a laboratory finding in infection with: (A) Trypanosoma gambiense (B) Trichostrongylus columbriformis (C) Trypanosoma cruzi (D) Plasmodium malariae 5- Enlargement of lymph nodes does not occur in: (A) Fiiariasis (B) Toxoplasmosis (C) Balantidiasis (D) African trypanosomiasis 6- Man is an intermediate host for all the following parasites EXCEPT: (A)Plasmodium ovaie (B) Taenia saginata. (C) Multiceps multiceps (D) Toxoplasma gondii 7- Chyluria may occur in infection with: (A) Schistosoma japonicum (B) Enterobius vermicularis (C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Loa loa 8- Specific myiasis is produced by (A) House dust mites (B) Fleas (C) Calliphora (D) Hypoderma 9- Winter bottom sign is a clinical (A) Leishmania aethiopica (B) Trypanosoma cruzi (C) Trypanosoma gambiense (D) Leishmania tropica 10- Retroinfection may occur in: (A) Taenia saginata (B) Trichuris trichiura (C) Enterobius vermicularis (D) Dracunculus medinensis

158

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 4/9/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following ten questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1- Complications of Diphyllobothrium latum infection. 2- Laboratory diagnosis of trichinosis. 3- Medical importance of Sand fly. 4- Congenital toxoplasmosis (Clinical aspects and laboratory diagnosis).

15 Marks

II-Mention two parasites that: 1- Can be diagnosed by sputum examination. 2- Can be prevented by control of Cyclops. 3- Can cause perianal itching. 4- May be complicated with blindness. 5- Can be transmitted by fleas.

5 Marks

8 Marks

III-Give the reason(s) for: 1- Proper cooking of sheep liver is highly indicated before ingestion. 2- Pulmonary amoebiasis may complicate intestinal infection with Entamoeba histolytica. 3- Microfilariae may be not detected in blood film of a patient infected with Wuchereria bancrofti. 4- Anaemia is a common presentation in Kala azar.

6 Marks IV-Mention the difference between the followings: 1- Bather's itch and creeping eruption (Aetiology and clinical aspects). 2- Cysts of Giardia lamblia and Acanthamoeba (Site of isolation and morphology). 3- Coenurus disease and onchocerciasis (Causative parasite and laboratory diagnosis).

159

V-Complete the following statements with one answer only: a- Megacolon may be a complication in infection with ( (1) ). b- CSF examination is indicated in diagnosis of ( (2) ). c- Specific myiasis is caused by ( (3) ) ,while Chiggers' disease is caused by ( (4) ). d- Chiclero ulcer is caused by ( (5) ) ,while Winterbottom's sign is caused by ( (6) ). e- The systemic drug of choice in scabies is ( (7) ). f- Sporozoites act as infective stage in ( (8) ) ,while mature oocysts act as infective stage in ( (9) ). g- Triatoma megistus is the vector of ( (10) ) and the mechanism of transmission is ( (11) ). h- Steatorrhea may complicate infection with ( (12) ).

6 Marks

VI-Draw labeled diagrams for the following: a-lnfective stage of : 1- Cysticercosis 2- Cryptosporidium b-Diagnostic stage of : 1- Trichomonas vaginalis 2- Schistosoma mansoni c-Life cycle of Trichuris trichiura

10 Marks

VII-Mention one parasitological use of the following: 1- PAIR technique 2- Triclabendazole 3- Paris green 4- Baermann's technique 5- Buffy coat technique

5 Marks

160

VIII-Read the following case and answer the related questions:

5 Marks

A child presented with abdominal discomfort , colic and diarrhea. Stool examination revealed heavy infection with helminthic eggs . These eggs are spherical, translucent, mature and measuring 30-50n in diameter. 1) What is the suspected causative parasite? 2) Mention the infective stages and the modes of infection of this parasite? 3) What is the drug of choice in such a case? 4) Enumerate other four parasites that can cause diarrhea. 5 Marks

IX-Read the following case and answer the related questions: An African patient was admitted to the hospital, suffering from high irregular fever and shivering . He started to show cerebral manifestations in the form of seizures and alteration of consciousness. Clinical examination showed hepatosplenomegaly .Blood examination revealed that RBCs were infected with protozoal parasitic stages. 1) What is the suspected causative parasite? 2) Illustrate with diagrams the diagnostic stages which can be detected in blood film? 3) Discuss the pathogenesis of cerebral manifestations in such a case? 4) Enumerate other two parasites that can cause hepatosplenomegaly.

161

X-Choose the correct answer: 1- Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis is caused by: (A) Leishmania donovani (B) Leishmania tropica (C) Leish mania aethiopica (D) Leish mania major 2- Pigs act as both definitive and intermediate hosts in: (A) Toxoplasma gondii (B) Taenia solium (C) Balantidium coli (D) Trichinella spiralis 3- High IgM is a common laboratory finding in infection with (A) Plasmodium malariae (B) Trypanosoma cruzi (C) Leishmania donovani (D) Trypanosoma gambiense 4- Endemic relapsing fever is transmitted by the bite of: (A) Hard ticks (B) Trombicula akamushi (C) Pediculus humanus (D) Soft ticks 5- Physical and mental retardation may occur in children infected with: (A) Giardia lamblia (B) Enterobius vermicularis (C) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Entamoeba histolytica 6- Dysentry can be a clinical presentation in infection with: (A) Leishmania donovani (B) Leishmania mexicana (C) Giardia lamblia (D) Naegleria fowleri 7- Man acts as intermediate host in: (A) Trypanosoma rhodesiense (B) Plasmodium ovale (C) Leishmania tropica (D) Balantidium coli 8- Acne-like pustules are the common manifestation in: (A) House dust mites (B) Demodex folliculorum (C) Tunga penetrans (D) Pulex irritans 9- Charcoat Leyden crystals may be detected in the stool of patient infected with: (A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Intesinal myiasis (C) Giardia lamblia (D) Trichostrongylus colubriformis 10- Viability test is used for diagnosis of: (A) Fasciola hepatica (B) Schistosoma haematobium (C) Strongyloides stercoralis (D) Dracunculus medinensis

162

10 Marks

Examination for Malaysian Students Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 4/6/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Clinical picture of Paragonimus westermani. 2) Complications of Capillaria philippinensis. 3) Diagnosis of scabies. 4) Post-kala-azar-dermal leishmanoid.

10 Marks

II- Give the reason(s) for: 1) Taenia solium is more dangerous than Taenia saginata. 2) Steatorrhoea in Giardia lantblia infection. 3) Cholangiocarcinoma may complicate infection with Opisthorchis viverrini. 4) Anaemia in Ancylostoma doudenale infection. 5) Black water fever

10 Marks

5 Marks III-Complete the following statements with one answer only: 1) The 1st intermediate host for Clonorchis sinensis is (........) while that for Fasciolopsis buski is (........) 2) The diagnostic stage of Cryptosporidium parvum is (........) while that of Trypanosoma gambiense in blood film is (........) 3) The disease caused by Tunga penetrans is (........) while the disease caused by Musca domestica is (........) 4) Creeping eruption is caused by larvae of (…… or …….) 5) The infective stage of Wuchereria bancrofti is (........) while that of Diphyllobothrium latum is (........)

163

IV-Name only two parasites that: 1) The infective stages are the trophozoites. 2) Are transmitted by autoinfection, 3) Can cause space occupying lesion in the brain. 4) Are considered to be opportunistic. 5) May be associated with Lymphadenopathy.

5 Marks

V-Mention one of the parasitological uses of the following: 1) Malariol oil. 2) Primaquine. 3) Xenodiagnosis. 4) IgG avidity test. 5) Ivermectin.

5 Marks

VI-Draw Labelled diagrams for the following: 1) Life cycle of Enterobius vermicular is. 2) The diagnostic stages of: a) Ascaris lumbricoides b) Toxoplasma gondii. 3) The infective stage (s) of-. a) Hymenolepis nana b) Entamobea histolytica.

15 Marks

7.5 Marks

VII-Case (1): A 35-year-old, married female suffered from profuse vaginal discharge, frequency and burning sensation during micturition. Microscopic examination of urine sample revealed protozoan trophozoites. 1) What is your provisional diagnosis? 2) Mention the modes of infection? 3) How would you treat this case? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that could be detected in urine sample?

164

7.5 Marks VIII-Case (2): A 45-year-old, Japanese farmer presented to the hospital with an attack of haematemesis (vomiting of blood). On clinical examination, hepatosplenomegaly was evident. Microscopic stool examination revealed oval translucent ova with small lateral tubercle. Ultrasonography of the abdomen showed, liver fibrosis and portal hypertension.

1) What is the suspected parasitic infection? 2) Mention the mode of infection? 3) How would you treat this case? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that may cause hepatosplenomegaly? IX-Choose the correct answer: 1- Man acts as an intermediate host for the following parasites EXCEPT: a) Plasmodia spp. b) Taenia solium. c) Hymenolepis nana. d) Trichuris trichiura. 2- The most common site for hydatid cyst is: a) Bone. b) Kidney, c) Brain. d) Liver. 3- The first intermediate host for Metagonimus yokogawi is: a) Bulimus snail. b) Segmentina snail. c) Parafossarulus snail. d) Semisulcospira spp. 4- The following disease is transmitted by fleas- : a) Epidemic typhus . b) Epidemic relapsing fever, c) Endemic typhus. d) Endemic relapsing fever. 5- The diagnostic stage of Naegleria fowleri is: a) Trophozoite. b) Cyst. c) Oocyst. d) All of the above.

165

10 Marks

6- Ingestion of undercooked pork may cause infection with: a) Taenia saginata. b) Taenia solium. c) Echinococcus granulosus. d) Diphyllobothrium latum. 7- The following parasite can be transmitted by blood transfusion: a) Wuchereria bancroftl b) Visceral larva migrans. c) Schistosoma haematobium. d) None of the above. 8- The following diseases are transmitted by body lice Except- : a) Epidemic typhus. b) Q-fever. c) Trench fever. d) Epidemic relapsing fever. 9- Filariform larvae are the infective stages in the following parasites Except: a) Ancylostoma duodenale. b) Strongyloides stercoralis. b) Toxocara canis. d) Wuchereria bancrofti. 10- Cyclops is an intermediate host for the following parasites Except: a) Dracunculus medinensis. b) Dipylidium caninum. c) Diphyllobothrium mansoni. d) Diphyllobothrium latum.

166

Examination for Malaysian Students Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 29/9/2013 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Pathogenesis and clinical picture of Clonorchis sinensis. 2) Diagnosis of trichinosis. 3) Medical importance of Cyclops.

10 Marks

5 Marks II-Complete the following statements with one answer only: 1- The 1st intermediate host for Opisthorchis viverrini is ( ) while that for Fasciolopsis buski is ( ). 2- The infective stage of Leishmania tropica is ( ) , while that of Trypanosoma gambiense is ( ). 3- One of the disease transmitted by Hard tick is ( ) , while that transmitted by Lice is ( ). 4- Consumption of under cooked meat may lead to infection with ( or ). 5- One of the complications of hydatid disease is ( ) ,while that of amoebiasis is ( ).

III- Give the reason(s) for: 1) Occurrence of lymphatic obstruction in case of chronic Malayan filariasis. 2) Antigen detection is preferred in diagnosis of schistosomiasis. 3) Plasmodium falciparm is more dangerous than Plasmodium vivax. IV- Name only two parasites that: 1) Can cause malabsorption syndrome. 2) Are considered to be sexual transmitted disease. 3) Can cause microcytic hypochromic anaemia. 4) Could be diagnosed by detection of coproantigen. 5) May be associated with ocular manifestations.

167

10 Marks

5 Marks

V-Mention one of the parasitological uses of the following: 1) Paris green. 2) Albendazole. 3) Quantitative Buffy Coat. 4) Muscle biopsy. 5) Nitazoxanide.

5 Marks

VI-Draw labeled diagrams for the following: 1) Life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides. 2) The diagnostic stage (s) of: a) Trichuris trichiura. b) Balantidium coli 3) The infective stages of: a) Taenia solium. b) Toxoplasma gondii

15 Marks

7.5 Marks

VII-Case (1): A 35-year-old, male Japanese patient presented to the hospital complaining of abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhea for several weeks and marked weight loss after a history of eating fish one month ago. Microscopic stool examination revealed peanut-shaped immature ova. Blood examination revealed low serum albumin level. 1) What is the suspected parasitic infection? 2) Mention the modes of infection. 3) How can you treat this case? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that could be transmitted by eating under cooked fish. 7.5 Marks VIII-Case (2): A 28-year-old, Indian male patient presented to the hospital complaining of fever with double daily rise and appearance of dark pigmented skin lesion. On clinical examination there were marked hepatosplenomegaly and generalized lymphadenopathy. Laboratory investigation showed marked anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

1) What is your suggested diagnosis? 2) Mention the mode of infection. 3) How can you confirm your diagnosis? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that may cause hepatosplenomegaly. 168

IX-Choose the correct answer: 1- Duodenal aspiration is used in diagnosis of the following parasites Except-: a) Plasmodia spp. b) Giardia lamblia. c) Cryptsporidium spp. d) Fasciola. 2- Dysentery may complicate infection with: a) Heterophyes heterophyes. b) Entamoeba histolytica. c) Taenia solium. d) Trichomonas vaginalis. 3- The first intermediate host for Paragonimus westermani is: a) Bulimus snail. b) Segmentina snail, c) Parafossarulus snail. d) Semisulcospira spp. 4- Semispecific myiasis is produced by larvae of- : a) Calliphora. b) Dermatobia. c) Musca domestica. d) Osterus. 5- Man is a blind host for: a) Ascaris lumbricoides. b) Trichinella spiralis. c) Schistosoma mansoni. d) Leishmania donovani. 6- Bronchial asthma is a common manifestation caused by: a) Dermatophagoides. b) Sarcoptes scabiei. c) Demodex folliculorum. d) Trombicula akamushi. 7- The following parasite can be diagnosed by CSF examintion: a) Wuchereria bancrofti. b) Visceral larva migrans. c) Schistosoma haematobium. d) African Trypanosoma. 8- Infection by the following parasites cause high eosinophilia EXCEPT: a) Fasciola b) Strongyloides stercoralis. c) Trichinella spiralis. d) Hymenolepis diminuta 9- The following parasites are transmitted by autoinfection EXCEPT: a) Diphyllobothrium latum. b) Enterobius vermicularis c) Strongyloides stercoralis. d) Capillaria philippinensis 10- The following disease is transmitted by Fleas: a) Epidemic typhus. b) Epidemic relapsing fever, c) Endemic typhus. d) Endemic relapsing fever

169

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 11/6/2012 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Diagnosis of Schistosoma mansoni. 2) Complications of Giarclia lamblia infection. 3) Clinical aspects and treatment of hydatid disease. 4) Toxoplasma igG avidity test. 4) Clinical types of myiasis ( give one example for each). II-Draw labelled diagrams for the following: 1) The diagnostic stage(s) of: a) Fasciola gigantica. b) Ancylostoma duodenale. c) Trichomonas vaginalis. 2) The infective stage (s) of: a) Cysticercosis. b) Trichuris trichiura. c) Leishmania donovani. 3) The Life cycle of Hymenolepis nana.

15 Marks

10 Marks

5 Marks

III-Complete the following statements: a) The first intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium latum is ( (1) ), while the first intermediate host for Paragonimus westermani is ( (2) ). b) ( (3) ) is used for control of both larva and pupa of mosquitoes, while ( (4) ) is used as repellant against adult mosquitoes. c} Ascites may complicate Infection with ( (5) ) d) The vector in Plasmodium vivax is ( (6) ) , and the mechanism of transmission is ( (7) ). e) Spiramycin is used for treatment of ( (8) ). f) Sleeping sickness is caused by ( (9) ) and its vector is ( (10) ).

170

IV-Give reasons for each cf the following: 1) The use of sterile fluid for contact lenses preservation is highly recommended. 2) Chyluria may occur in Wuchereria bancrofti infection. 3) Megacolon may complicate chronic chagas' disease. 4) Autoinfection does not occur in ascariasis.

8 Marks

V-How can you solve these problems: 1) Negative blood film in a patient infected with Plasmodium falciparum. 2) Family spread of scabies. 3) Persistant infection in Trichomonas vaginalis.

6 Marks

VI-Mention the difference between the followings: 1) The gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium falciparum. 2) Onchocerca tumor and calabar swelling. 3) Complete and incomplete metamorphosis (give 2 examples for each). 4) Oocysts of Cryptosporidium and Isospora in stool.

6 Marks

VII-Name only (Two ) parasites that can be : 1) Transmitted by ingestion of beef meat. 2) Diagnosed by CSF examination. 3) Presented with microcytic hypochromic anaemia. 4) Complicated by intestinal obstruction. 5) Diagnosed by lymph node biopsy.

5 Marks

VIII-Read the following and answer the related questions:

10 Marks

Case (1) A female child complained of dysuria and pruritis vulvae. She gave history of night per ana* itching . Urine examination revealed D-shaped transparent ova. 1.What is the possible parasitic cause? 2.What are the possible modes of infection? 3.What are the laboratory techniques used for diagnosis of this parasite? 4. Enumerate other three parasites that can be detected in urine sample.

171

Case (2) A patient suffered from severe colic with frequent motions of diarrheic mucoid bloody stool accompanied with tenesmus. Diarrheic stool examination revealed the presence of actively motile uninucieated protozoal stage. 1) What is the suspected parasitic cause? 2) What are the possible complications that may occur to this patient? 3) What is the drug of choice used for treatment of the causative parasite? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that inhabit the large intestine. 10 Marks

IX-Choose the correct answer: 1) The following parasites can be transmitted by autoinfection EXCEPT: (A) Isospora belli. (B) Capillariaphilippinensis. (C) Giardia lamblia. (D) Hymenolepis nana. 2) Modified Ziehl Neelsen stain is used fo'r the diagnosis of: (A) Toxoplasma gondii. (B) Leishmania donovani. (C) Cryptosporidium. (D) Trypanosoma cruzi. 3) Proper washing of vegetables is important in control of all the following EXCEPT: (A) Ascaris lumbricoides. (B) Hymenolepis nana. (C) Heterophyes heterophyes. (D) Fasciola hepatica . 4) Formol gel test may be helpful in diagnosis of (A) Leishmania donovani. (B) Leishmania tropica. (C) Trypanosoma cruzi. (D) Trypanosoma gambiense. 5) Bronchial asthma may complicate infection with: (A) House dust mites. (B) Demodex folliculorum. (C) Trombicula akamushi. (D) None of the above.

6) Sporocysts can be detected in stool of patient infected with: (A) Sarcocystis suihominis. (B) Sarcocystis lendemani. (C) Dientamaeba fragilis. (D) Toxoplasma gondii. 7) Man can act as both definitive and intermediate hosts in the following parasites EXCEPT: (A) Taenia solium. (B) Hymenolepis diminuta. (C) Trichinella spiralis. (D) Hymenolepis nana. 8) Pediculus humanus can transmit: (A) Scrub typhus . (C) Epidemic typhus.

(B) Oroya fever. (D) Endemic typhus.

9) Winter bottom sign is a clinical manifestation of infection with: (A) Wuchereria bancrofti. (B) Trypanosoma gambiense. (C) Toxoplasma gondii. (D) Trypanosoma cruzi.

10) Ingestion of larvae is the mode of infection with : (A) Strongyloides stercoral is. (B) Trichostrongylus columbriformis. (C) Wuchereria bancrofti. (D) Ascaris lumbricoides.

172

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 23/8/2012 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: (Draw whenever needed) I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Sparganosis (definition and modes of infection). 2) Clinical aspects of Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 3) Direct diagnosis of Schistosoma haematobium infection. 4) Clinical varieties of old world cutaneous leishmaniasis. 5) Medical importance of mosquitoes. II-Draw labelled diagrams for the following: 1) The diagnostic stage(s) of: a) Trypanosoma cruzi. b) Wuchereria bancrofti. c) Enterobius vermicularis 2) The infective stage (s) of: a) Toxoplasma gondii. b) Hydatid disease. c) Balantidium coli. 3) The Life cycle of Fasciola gigantica.

15 Marks

10 Marks

5 Marks

III-Complete the following statements: A) The vector of Leishmania donovani is (1) and its mechanism of transmission is (2). B) In Dracunculus medinensis, the intermediate host is (3) and its main clinical sign is (4). C) Q fever is transmitted by (5) while Trench fever is transmitted by (6) D) Immature oocyst is the diagnostic stage in (7) while mature cyst is the diagnostic stage in (8). E) Cysticercoid is the larval stage in (9) while cysticercus is a larval stage in (10).

173

8 Marks IV-Give reasons for each of the following: 1) Anaemia in Ancylostoma duodenale infection is more severe than in Necator americanui 2) increased tendency to sleep in African trypanosomiasis. 3) In Giardia lamblia,repeated courses of therapy at higher doses are required for treatment of biliary complications. 4) Abortion may complicate infection with Plasmodium falciparum.

V-How can you solve these problems: 1) The high risk of leakage of hydatid fluid in tissue during its surgical removal . 2) Widespread of infection with Entamoeba histolytica in the community. 3) Indoor preveiance of house dust mites. VI-Mention the difference between the followings: 1) Malaria relapse and malarial recrudescence. 2) Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba (mode of infection and clinical aspects). 3) Scabies and cutaneous myiasis (causative agents and skin lesions). VII-Name only (Two) parasites that can be: 1) Transmitted by ingestion of an arthropod. 2) Diagnosed by detection of coproantigen. 3) Treated with ivermectin. 4) Complicated with protein losing enteropathy. 5) Diagnosed by sputum examination.

6 Marks

5 Marks

10 Marks VIII-Read the following and answer the related questions: Case (1): A 50 years-old Egyptian farmer presented with severe jaundice. He gave a history pneumonia two months ago followed by abdominal colic , dyspepsia and diarrhea? Stool examination revealed the presence of immature ,yellowish brown eggs with a size about 60X45 Âľm .

1) What is the suspected parasitic cause? 2) What is the mode of infection? 3) What are the possible complications? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that can cause jaundice.

174

Case (2): A child complained of severe chronic diarrhea accompanied with dehydration. And has a history of receiving immunosuppressive therapy for the previous two months . Routine stool examination was negative. Special staining techniques for stool examination were revealed spherical protozoal stage about 5 Âľm in diameter. 1) What is the suspected parasitic cause? 1) What are special staining techniques for stool that were used for diagnosis of this case? 3) What are the possible complications of this parasite? 4) Enumerate other three parasites that can cause diarrhea. IX-Choose the correct answer: 1) Chigger's disease is caused by: (A) Leishmania mexicana (C) Trypa nosoma cruzi

10 Marks (B) Trombicula akamushi (D) Tunga penetrans

2) All the following parasites are considered as opportunistic protozoa EXCEPT: (A) Toxoplasma gondii (B) Acanthamaeba (C) Cryptosporidium (D) Sarcocystis lendemani 3) The following microfilariae are not detected in patient's blood: (A) Microfilariae of Loa loa (B) Microfilariae of Onchocerca volvulus (C) Microfilariae of Brugyia malayi (D) Microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti 4) The following protozoan parasite causes conjunctivitis: (A) Plasmodium malariae (B) Trypanosoma rhodesiense (C) Trypanosoma cruzi (D) Leishmania aethiopica 5) Acne like lesions are the main manifestation in infection with: (A) Pediculus humanus (B) Demodexfolliculorum (C) Dientamaeba fragilis (D) House dust mites

6) The following protozoan parasite can be detected in patient's urine: (A) Trichomonas vaginalis cyst (B) Isospora belli oocyst (C) Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoite (D) Sarcocystis bovis sporocyst 7) Amastigote (Leishmania) forms of Trypanosoma cruzi are found in : (A) NNN culture media (B) Cardiac muscles of the patient (C) RBCs of the patient (D) RBCs of the laboratory animal 8) Charcot-Leyden crystals are found in the stool of patients infected with : (A) Giardia lambiia (B) Entamoeba histolytica (C) Heterophyes heterophyes (D) None of the above 9)

Proper sewage disposal is an important method for control of the following pare EXCEPT: (A) Ascaris lumbricoides (B) Trichinella spiralis (C) Fasciola hepatica (D) Hymenolepis nana

10) Increased IgM is a characteristic feature in infection with: (A) Babesia bovis (B) Trypanosoma gambiense (C) Babesia microti (D) Leishmania tropica

175

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 15/2/2012 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 22.5 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

I-Define and mention one parasite for each of the following: a- Haematuria b- Sparganosis c- Diarrhea d- Calabar swelling II-Illustrate with diagrams: a-lnfective stage(s) of: 1- Ascaris lumbricoides 2- Schistosoma mansoni b-Diagnostic stage(s) of : 1- Hymenolepis nono 2-Strongyloides stercoralis III-Give the reason(s) for: a- Eggs of Enterobius vermicularis are seldom found in stool infected patient. b- Anaemia may complicate infection with Diphyllobothrium latLitn. c- Microfilariae may not be detected in blood of a filarial patient d- Clinical aspects of schistosomiasis japonicum is more severe in schistosomiasis mansoni. IV-Complete the following statements with one answer only: a- The first intermediate host' of Heterophyes heterophyes ( (1) ), While the first intermediate host for Paragomrominatis westermani is ( (2) ). b- Muscle biopsy is used for direct diagnosis of ( (3) ), While lymph node biopsy is used for direct diagnosis of ( (4) ). c- Visceral larva migrans is caused by ingestion of eggs of ( (5) ), while hydatid disease is caused By ingestion of eggs of ( (6) ). d- Praziquantel is used in treatment of ( (7) ), while Ivermectin is used in treatment of ( (8) ).

176

V-Complete the following statements with one answer only:

2.5 Marks

1- The following parasites are transmitted by consumption of undercooked fish EXCEPT: a-Fasciola hepotica b-Diphyllobbthrium latum c-Heterophyes heterophyes d-Capillaria philippinensis 2- Cyclops acts as an intermediate host for: a- Hymenolepis nana b- Loa loa c- Dracunculus medinensis d- Schistosoma mansoni 3- Larva currens is a common manifestation during infection with: a- Loo loa b- Strongyloides stercoralis c- Wuchereria bancrofti d- Ascaris lumbricoides 4- Man acts as intermediate host in infection with: a- Onchocerca volvulus b- Ascaris lumbricoides c- Hymenolepis diminuto d- Echinococcus granulosus 5- Anti snail measures are important methods for control of the following parasites EXCEPT: a- Fasciola giganilca b- Schistosoma mansoni c- Diphyllobothrium latum d- Paragonimus westermani

177

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 20/7/2011 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Cercarial dermatitis. 2) Complications of the intestinal stage of ascariasis. 3) Post Kala azar dermal leishmanoid. 4) Clinical aspects and diagnosis of amoebic liver abscess. 5) Types of Biological disease transmission by arthropods. II-Draw labelled diagrams for the following: 1) The diagnostic stages of: a) Ancylostoma duodenale. b) Giardia lamblia in formed stool sample 2) The infective stages of: a) Entamoeba histolytica. b) Trichinella spiralis. 3) The direct Life cycle of Hymenolepis nana. 4) The erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium vivax.

10 Marks

15 Marks

5 Marks III-Complete the following statements: 1) The intermediate host of Schistosoma mansoni is…………………. 2) Scotch adhesive tape swab is used for direct diagnosis of ………………….. 3) Visceral larva migrans is caused by ingestion of …………………….. 4) Primary amoebic meningo-encephalitis (PAM) is caused by……………….. 5) Chiclero ulcer is caused by (.......... ), while Chagoma is caused by................... 6) Vagabond's disease is caused by (.......... ), while Chiggers is caused by................... 7).............. and (............) are parasitic diseases transmitted by fish. 8 Marks

IV-Give only one reason for each of the following: 1) Detection of Fasciola gigantia eggs in stool sample of healthy person. 2) Emetic drugs are contraindicated in case of Teania solium infection. 3) Severe anaemia is a common manifestation in Hookworm infection. 4) CNS invasion in Trypanosoma gambiense Infection is more common than T. rhodesiense. 5) Schizont stages of Plasmodium faciparum cannot be seen in blood film. 178

VI-Mention the advantage of each of the following: 1- The use of acidic vaginal douches for treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis. v 2- Ziehl Nelson staining of Taenia eggs. 3- Formol ether concentration technique in stool examination. 4- Specific antigen detection in diagnosis of parasitic infections. VII-Name only Two parasites: 1- Can be transmitted by food handlers. 2- May cause ocular lesions. 3- May cause hypersplenism. 4- Can be diagnosed by detection of coproantigen. 5- Can be treated with spiramycin.

6 Marks

5 Marks

10 Marks VIII-Read the following and answer the related questions: Case (1): An Egyptian gardener complained of epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea alternated with constipation. He gave history of local itching and redness in the interdigital spaces. Laboratory investigations revealed blood eosinophilia and rhabditiform larvae in stool samples.

1. What is the suspected parasitic infection? 2. Mention the modes of infection. 3. Enumerate other 3 parasites that can cause high eosinophilia. Case (2) An AIDs patient suffered from severe chronic diarrhea, dehydration and loss of weight. Stool examination using special techniques showed small spherical oocyst containing 4 sporozoites. 1) What is the suspected parasitic cause? 2) What are the special techniques that were used for stool examination? 3) Enumerate other 3 opportunistic parasites that can infect this patient

179

IX-Choose the correct answer: 1) Ingestion of undercooked Pork meat may cause infection with: (A) Taenia saginata. (B) Taenia solium. (C) Echinococcus granulosus. (D) Diphyllobothrium latum. 2) Man acts as a blind host for: (A) Fasciola hepatica. (B) Shcistosoma mansoni. (C) Trichinella spiralis. (D) Balantidium coli. 3) Man can act as both definitive and intermediate host for: (A) Diphyllobothrium latum. (B) Toxoplasma gondii. (C) Plasmodium falciparum. (D) Hymenolepis nana. 4) Dogs are reservoir host for the following parasites, EXCEPT: (A) Heterophyes heterophyes. (B) Enterobius vermicularis. (C) Toxocara cartis. (D) Giardia lamblia. 5) Larva currens is a clinical manifestation of: (A) Ancylostoma duodenale. (B) Strongyloides stercoralis. (C) Onchocerca volvulus. (D) Leishmania tropica. 6) The following parasites can cause lung infection, EXCEPT: (A) Entamoeba histolytica. (B) Leishmania donovani. (C) Phlebotomus papatasii. (D) Ancylostoma duodenale. 7) Baermannâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s technique is used for isolation of: (A) Trematoda larvae. (B) Hookworm larvae. (C) Arthropod larvae. (D) Trypanosome epimastigotes. 8) The following parasites may be found in urine samples, EXCEPT: (A) Schistosoma haematobium. (B) Trichomonas vaginalis. (C) Fasciola hepatica. (D) Phthirus Pubie. (9) Mites can cause the following diseases, EXCEPT: (A) Bronchial asthma. (B) Acne like pustules. (C) Scabies. (D) Creeping eruption. 10) The parasite transmitted by Triatoma megjstus (Winged bugs) is: (A) Trypanosoma gambiense. (B) Trypanosoma rhodesiense. (C) Both of the above. (D) Trypanosoma cruzi.

180

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 16/8/2011 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1. Dissemenated strongyloidiasis (Aetiology and clinical aspect). 2. Renal complications of plasmodium falciparum. 3. Prognosis of hydatid cyst. 4. Clinical aspects of Cryptosporidium infection. 5. Control of house dust mites. II-Draw labelled diagrams for the following: 1. The diagnostic stage of: a-Trichomonas vaginalis b- Taenia saginata 2. The infective stages of: a-Leishmania donovani b- Ancylostoma duodenale 3. The life cycle of Hyeterophyes hyeterophyes in its intermediate hosts. 4. The sexual (sporogony) cycle of plasmodium species.

10 Marks

15 Marks

5 Marks

III-Complete the following statements: 1. Eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides hatch in (....) while eggs of hookworms hatch in (....) 2. The habitat of schistosoma haematobium is (....) 3. (....) is used for isolation of larvae of strongyloides stercoralis from stool 4. Female sand fly is the vector in (....) and its mechanism of transmission is (.....) 5. Human cysticercosis is caused by ingestion off (....) 6. Romana'sign is a clinical manifestation in (....) 7. The disease caused by house fly is (....) while the disease caused by lice is (....)

8 Marks

IV-Give only one reason for each of the following: 1. Treatment of both partners is indicated in Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Night itching in scabietic patients. 3. Anaemia is a common manifestation in Trichuris trichiura infection. 4. Control of Trypanosoma rhodesiense is more difficult than Trypanosoma Gamhiense. 5. Tissue cestodes are more dangerous than intestinal ones. 181

6 Marks V-How can you solve these problems: 1. The difficulty in collection of midnight blood sample in wuchereria bancrofti infection. 2. Widespread infection with Hymenolepis nana among school children. 3. Diagnosis of chronic malarial infection where the diagnostic stages are rarely, found in blood samples

VI-Mention the advantages of each of the following: 1. Adminstration of primaquine in treatment of plasmodium ovale. 2. The detection of Oncho-27 antigens in suspected Onchocerca patient. 3. Toxoplasma IgG avidity test. 4. The use of thick and thin blood films in diagnosis of parasitic diseases. VII-Name only two parasites that can be: 1.Transmitted by autoinfection. 2.Treated by ivermectin. 3.Presented with verminous pneumonia. 4.Transmitted by inhalation of oocysts. 5. Diagnosed by duodenal aspiration.

6 Marks

5 Marks

10 Marks VIII-Read the following and answer the related questions: Case (1): An Egyptian farmer complained of fever, pain in right upper quadrant of the abdomen and general weakness .Clinical examination revealed enlarged tender lever.Blood examination showed high eosinophilia .Stool examination revealed oval operculated ova.

1. What is the possible parasitic cause? 2. Mention two complications that may occur to this patient. 3. Enumerate other four parasites that can affect the liver. Case (2): An Indian patient suffered from intermittent fever with double daily rise .Clinical examination revealed hepatosplenomegally and generalized lymphadenopthy .Blood examinationshowed pancytopenia 1. What is the suspected parasitic cause? 2. What are indirect laboratory diagnostic techniques that can be used for this case? 3. Enumerate other three parasites that can cause hepatosplenomegally. 182

IX-Choose the correct answer: 1. Praziquantel is used for treatment of all of the followings EXCEPT: a- Heterophes heterophes b- Toenio solium c- Fasciola gigantica d- Diphyllobothrium latum 2. Mazotti test is used for the diagnosis of: a- Cutaneous larva migrans b- Calabar swelling c- Cutaneous myiasis d- Onchocerca tumour 3. Acanthameba may lead to: a- Dysentry b- Jaundice c- corneol ulcer d- Anaemia 4. The presence of Charcoal leyden crystals in the stool may be diagnostic for: a- Entamaeba histolytica b- Strongyloides stercoralis c- Trypanosoma gambiense d- Leishmania Mexicana 5. Winter bottom sign is a clinical manifestation of: a- Trypanosoma cruzi b- Leishmania donovani c- Trypanosoma gambiense d- Leishmania Mexicana 6. The following parasites can cause appendicitis, EXCEPT: a- Ascaris lumbricoides b- Trichuris trichiura c- Enterobius vermicularis d- Hymenolepis hana 7. Paris green is used for control of: a- Larva of Mosquitoes b- Adult Mosquitoes c- Pupa of Mosquitoes d- All of the above 8. The colour of urine is helpful in diagnosis of: a- Trichuris trichiura b- Wuchereria bancrofti c- Oncocerca volvulus d- Loa loa 9. Which of the following parasites have two intermediate hosts? a- Ascaris lumbricoides b- Diphyllobothrium latum c- Taenia soginata d- Schistosoma mansoni 10. Fleas can transmit the following diseases, EXCEPT: a- Plague b- Chigger's disease c- Epidemic typhus d- Endemic typhus

183

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 12/6/2010 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Clinical aspects of kala-azar. 2) Diagnosis of Trichineila spiralis 3) Chemical control of mosquitoes 4) Adhesion phenomenon . II) Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Life cycle of Taenia saginata. 2) Diagnostic stage(s) of Toxoplasma gondii. 3) Infective stage of Schistosoma haematobium. 4) Infective stage of Cryptosporidium species. III-Give the reason(s) of: 1) Chronicity of Strongyloides stercoralis infection. 2) Infection with HyrhenolepiS nana is more common than that with H. diminuta. 3) Acidic douches are essential in the treatment of trichomoniasis. 4) Detection of Fasciola aggs in the stool is not always diagnostic of fascioiiasis. 5) Primaquine is essential in the treatment of benign tertian malaria. 6) Mega-colon in Chagas' disease .

12 Marks

9 Marks

6 Marks

7 Marks

IV-Clinical Case (1): A male patient aged 28 years coming from a mosquitoe-endemic area in Gharbia Governorate, complained of swelling of both legs with painful swelling in the groin .He had recurrent attacks of fever and allergic manifestations. On examination there were non-pitting oedema of the lower limbs and lymphadenitis, in the groin. Blood count showed leucocytosis with eosinophilia. 1) What is your suggested diagnosis.? 2) How would you confirm the diagnosis.? 3) Mention two drugs which can be used in treatment. 4) Mention two possible late complications if untreated. 184

V-Name only two parasites which: 1) Can be diagnosed by sputum examination. 2) Can be transmitted by inhalation. 3) May produce mal-absorption. 4) May cause eye lesions. 5) Are obligatory intracellular.

5 Marks

8 Marks

VI-Complete the missing words: 1) Consumption of undercooked fish may cause infection with a)..... .b)…… c) 2) Praziquantel is effective in the treatment of ...... &......While metronidazole is effective on ... ... & ... ... 3) Muscle biopsy is helpful in the diagnosis of a).....b)……c) 4) Chictero ulcer is caused by…… while wet oriental sore is caused by…… 5) ………… transmits Trypanosoma gambiense through………… while Triatoma megistus transmits………… through …………

7 Marks

VII-Clinical Case (2): A male patient, 20 years old suffered from abdominal colic with the passage of frequent loose, mucoid and bloody stool with tenesmus. Stool examination revealed motile protozoal stages. 1) What are the possible causative parasites? 2) Mention the organ of locomotion in each. 3) Draw the infective stage in each of them. 4) Mention two complications for one of them, common in Egypt. VIII-Compare between the following ( in tables ): 1) Mechanisms of anemia in Diphyllobothrium latum and hookworm infections 2) Endemic and epidemic typhus (Vector and causative organism). 3) Mechanism of jaundice in ascariasis and toxoplasmosis. 4) Direct diagnosis of Trypanosma gambiense and Trypanosoma rhodesiense 5) Naegleha fowleri and Acanthamoeba (Portal of entry and disease produced).

185

15 Marks

IX-Choose the correct answer(s): 1) The following parasites can be diagnosed by sputum examination: a)- Capillaria philippenensis b)- Paragonimus westermani c)- Diphyllobothrium latum d)- Hydatid cyst. 2) Ingestion of filariform larvae is the mode of infection with: a)- Hymenolepis nana b)- Brugia malayi. c)- Trichostrongytus cblubnformis d)- Onchocerca volvulus. 3) Cutaneous larva migrans is produced by infection with: a)- Heterophyes heterophyes b)- Ascaris lumbricoides c)- Toxocara canis d)- Ancylostoma braziliense 4) Actively motile larvae in stool is diagnostic for: a)- Ascaris lumbricoides b)- Strongyloides stercoralis c)- Tricburis trichiura d)- Schistosoma mansoni 5) The larval stage of Dipylidium caninum is: a)- Cysticercoid b)- Cysticercus bovis c)- Plerocercoid d)- Cysticercus collulosae

186

6 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 8/8/2010 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Pathogenesis and clinical picture of vivax malaria. 2) Laboratory diagnosis of hydatid disease. 3) Clinical aspects and treatment of scabies. 4) Mode of infection and diagnosis of cutaneous leishmaniasis. II) Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis nana. 2) Life cycle of Ancylostoma duodenale. 3) Diagnostic stage(s) of Entamoeba histolytica. 4) Infective stage of Giardia lamblia . III-Give the reason(s) of: 1) The hazards of eating undercooked fish. 2) Ascariasis should be treated before surgical operations. 3) Infection with Taenia solium is more dangerous than that with Taenia saginata. 4) Dysentery in falcipamm malaria. 5) Toxoplasma infectipn is widespread in nature. 6) Recurrent fever in African trypanosomiasis.

12 Marks

9 Marks

6 Marks

7 Marks

IV-Clinical Case (1): An Egyptian farmer, 30 years old complained of dysuria , frequency of micturition and the passage of blood drops at the end of micturition. Urine examination showed translucent mature eggs about 140 x 60 M , associated with few pus cells and excessive RBCs . 1) What is your suggested diagnosis ? 2) Draw the infective stage of the parasite. 3) What is the intermediate host ? 4) Mention the drug of choice for the treatment of this case. 5) Mention other. Two parasites which can be diagnosed by urine examination. 187

V-Name only two parasites which 1) Can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy. 2) Can be transmitted through swimming in water. 3) May produce lymphadenopathy. 4) May be complicated by hepatosplenomegaly. 5) Are biologically transmitted by arthropods.

5 Marks

8 Marks VI-Complete the missing words: 1) Cyclopropagative mechanism of transmission is present in the life cycle of the following parasites 1)……2)……..3)……. 2) Paragonimus westermani needs ………&……… as intermediate hosts while………………needs only one intermediate host which is Lymnaea cailliaudi. 3) CSF examination is helpful in the diagnosis of………&……… 4) The following may be transmitted by auto-infection 1)……2)…….. 3)……. 5) Mal-absorption is a manifestation of infection with 1)…… 2)…….. 3)……. 6) Brain lesions occur due to infection with 1)……2)…….. 3)……. 4)……… 7 Marks

VII-Clinical Case (2): A child from South America was presented with fever, heart failure and mild enlargement of lymph nodes . He had 3 history of unilateral oedema of the face with conjunctivitis, 10 days before the illness. 1) What is the suspected parasitic disease.? 2) Name the causative parasite and vector. 3) Draw the diagnostic stage seen in blood. 4) Mention other parasites diagnosed by blood film. VIII-Compare between the following (in tables): 1) Calabar swelling and Onchocerca tumor. 2) Miracidium and coracidium (Draw and name one parasite for each). 3) Mechanism of anemia in Kala-azar and schistosomiasis. 4) Complete and incomplete metamorphosis with one example for each. 5) Advantages of thin and thick blood films for the diagnosis of parasites.

188

15 Marks

IX-Choose the correct answer(s): 1) Metronidazole, Is effective in the treatment of: a)- Giardia lamblia b)- Sarcoptes scabiei c)- Strongyloides stercoralis d)- Balantidium coli 2) Tissue biopsy may be helpful in the diagnosis of infection with: a)- Leishmania donovani b)- Ascaris lumbricoides c)- Entamoeba histolytica d)- Taenia saginata 3) The eggs of the following are mature EXCEPT: a)- Heterophyes heterophyes. b)- Enterobius vermicuiaris c)- Hymenolepis diminuta d)- Diphyllobothrium latum 4) The following parasites are transmitted by pork meat consumption EXCEPT: a)- Sarcocystis lendemanni b)- Trichinella spiralis c)- Sarcocystis suihominis d)- Taenia solium 5) Mature oocyst is the diagnostic stage of: a)- Cryptosporidium spp. b)- Isospora belli c)- Giardia lamblia d)- Trichomonas vaginalis 6) The following parasites may be diagnosed by sputum examination EXCEPT: a)- Strongyloides stercoralis b)- Entamoeba histolytica c)- Trichuris trichiura d)- Paragonimus westermani

189

6 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 22/2/2010 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 22.5 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

I-Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1) Visceral larva migrans. 2) Haematuria. 3) Cysticercosis. II-Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Diagnostic stage of Fasciola gigantica. 2) Infective stage of Trichuris trichiura. 3) Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis nana. III-Give the reason(s) of each of the following statements: 1) Puncture and aspiration of hydatid cyst fluid is a risky procedure. 2) Stool examination is usually not sufficient for the diagnosis of enterobiasis. 3) Heterophyes heterophyes is endemic around lakes of Nile Delta. IV-Mention only two helminthes (for each of the following) which: 1) Are transmitted through eating undercooked pork. 2) May be complicated by jaundice. 3) May cause appendicitis. 4) Are transmitted through the bite of arthropode vector.

190

6 Marks

4.5 Marks

3 Marks

4 Marks

V-Choose the correct answer (s): 1) Consumption of raw fish may cause infection with: a)- Capillaria philippenensis b)- Ascaris lumbricoides c)- Diphyllobothrium latum d)- Taenia solium 2) Semisulcospira libertina is an intermediate host for: a)- Heterophyes heterophyes b)- Paragonimus westermani c)- Fasciola hepatica d)- Schistosoma japonicum 3) Hepatosplenomegaly usually complicates infection with: a)- Schistosoma mansoni b)- Ancylostoma duodenale c)- Schistosoma haematobium d)- Schistosoma japonicum 4) Encysted larva in muscle biopsy is diagnostic for: a)- Ascaris lumbricoides b)- Trichuris trichiura c)- Trichinella spiralis d)- Trichostrongylus colubriformis 5) The infective stage of Hymenolepis diminuta is: a)- Mature egg b)- Cysticercus c)- Plerocercoid d)- Cysticercoid 6) Autoinfection may accompany infection with the following EXCEPT: a)- Hymenolepis nana b)- Taenia saginata c)- Strongyloides stercoralis d)- Enterobius vermicularis 7) Two intermediate hosts are essential for the following EXCEPT: a)- Heterophyes Heterophyes b)- Diphyllobothrium latum c)- Multiceps Multiceps d)- Paragonimus westermani 8) Larvated egg is the diagnostic stage for: a)- Diphyllobothrium latum b)- Ascaris lumbricoides c)- Both d)- Neither 9) Ivermectin is used in the treatment of: a)- Schistosoma haematobium b)- Strongyloides stercoralis c)- Hymenolepis nana d)- Wuchereria bancrofti 10) Hypochromic anemia is a prominent clinical feature during infection with a)- Dipylidium caninum b)- Enterobius vermicularis c)- Ancylostoma duodenale d)- Heterophyes Heterophyes

191

5 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 21/7/2010 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 22.5 Marks

I-Define the following and mention one causative helminthic parasite for each: 1) Chyluria. 2) Coenurosis. 3) Dysentery. II-Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Diagnostic stage of Heterophyes heterophyes. 2) Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides. 3) Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis diminuta. III-Give the reason(s) of each of the following: 1) Anemia in Diphyllobothrium latum infection. 2) Consumption of pork meat is risky. 3) Halzoun syndrome. IV-Mention only two helminthes (for each of the following) which: 1) Are transmitted through eating green salad. 2) May be complicated with mal-absorption. 3) Can be diagnosed by urine examination. 4) Are transmitted through close contact with dogs .

192

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

6 Marks

4.5 Marks

3 Marks

4 Marks

V-Choose the correct answer (s): 1) The following parasites can be diagnosed by sputum examination: a)- Capillaria philippenensis b)- Paragonimus westerman c)- Diphyllobothrium latum d)- Hydatid cyst 2) Ingestion of filariform larvae is the mode of infection with: a)- Hymenolepis nana b)- Brugia malayi c)- Trichostrongylus colubriforrnis d)- Onchocerca volvulus 3) Cutaneous larva migrans is produced by infection with: a)- Heterophyes heterophyes b)- Ascaris tumbhcoides c)- Toxocaracanis d)- Ahcyidstdma braziliense 4) Actively motile larvae in stool is diagnostic for : a)- Ascaris lumbricoides b)- Strongyloides stercoralis c)- Trichuris thchiura d)- Schistosoma mansoni 5) The larval stage of Dipylidium caninum is: a)- Cysticercoid b)- Cysticercus bovis c)- Plerocercoid d)- Cysticercus cellulosae 6) Autoinfection may accompany infection with the following EXCEPT: a)- Schistosoma mansoni b)- Taenia solium c)- Hymenolepis nana d)- Enferobius vermicufaris 7) Two intermediate hosts are essential For: a)- Diphyllobothrium latum b)- Fasciola gigantica c)- Muiticeps muiticeps d)- Paragonimus westermani 8) Mature eggs are diagnostic for: a)- Schistosoma mansoni b)- Ascaris lumbricoides c)- Hymenolepis nana d)- Tricburis trichiura 9)- Praziquantel is used in the treatment of the following EXCEPT: a)- Schistosoma haemalobium b)- Diphyllobothrium latum c)- Wuchereria bancrofti d)- Hymenolepis nana 10- Which of the following may cause acute appendicitis ? a)- Wucherena bancrofti b)- Enferobius vermicularis c)- Ascaris lumbricoides d)- Fasciola hepatica

193

5 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 21/5/2009 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Role of pigs in transmission of parasitjc diseases. 2) Life cycle of Schistosoma mansoni. (Illustrating with diagrams). 3) Ciinicai types of myiasis. 4) Congenital toxoplasmosis (Clinical picture and diagnosis).

12 Marks

II) Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis nana . 2) Diagnostic stage of Paragonimus westermani. 3) Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides. 4) Infective stage of Isospora belli.

6 Marks

III-Give the reason(s) of: 1) Hyper-infection in capillariasis. 2) Bleeding tendency in Kala-azar. 3) Anemia in DiphyHobothrium latum infection . 4) Accidental ingestion of Fleas is potentially dangerous. 5) Giving corticosteroids is important in the treatment of trichinosis. 6) Provocation test may be needed for the diagnosis of bancroftian filariasis.

6 Marks

IV-Clinical Case (1): A male patient aged 30 years came complaining of chronic headache and recurrent epileptic fits. Blood examination revealed eosinophilia CT imaging of the brain multiple lesions (1.5-2 cm.). On routine 1 stool examination there were spherical mature ova (30 - 40 Âľ) 1) What is your provisional diagnosis? 2) How would you confirm the diagnosis? 3) What is the treatment of this case? 4) How was this patient infected with the cerebral lesions? 194

V-Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1) Winterbdttom's sign. 2) Calabar swelling. 3) Halzoun syndrome. 4) Sparganosis. 5) Chigger's disease

10 Marks

VI-Complete the missing words: 9 Marks 1).......... and ............ can be diagnosed by skin biopsy. 2) Xenodiagnosis is beneficial for the diagnosis of ..........and ............ 3) The following can be detected by sputum examination: a)......b)……c)…… 4) ........ ........ penetrates the bare footed skin and leads to infection-with ............ which produces ........ ........ Anemia. 5) Close contact with dogs may lead to infection with a)......b)……c)…… 6) Fish eating may cause infection with a)......b)……c)…… 7) Parasites can escape the immune response of the host through ……&…… 6 Marks

VII- Clinical Case (2): A young Egyptian man from El- Fayoum complained of periodic attacks of (chills, fever and sweating) every third day. He gave a history of blood transfusion seven days before the first attack. 1) What is your suggestive diagnosis? 2) What is the mechanism of these attacks? 3) Draw the infective stages in this case. 4) Mention the drugs Used in the treatment of this case. VIII-Compare between the following (in tables): 1) Mechanism of disease transmission by sand fly and house. 2) Pathogenesis of trypanosomal chancre and chagoma. 3) Hydatid cyst and coenurus larva (Common sites and adult parasites). 4) Advantages of thin and thick blood films in diagnosis of parasites. 5) Auto-infection giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis. 6) Mechanism of itching in enterobiasis and scabies.

195

12 Marks

IX-Choose the correct answer (s) : 1) Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by: a)- Acanthamoeba spp b)- Naegleria fowled c)- Toxoplasma gondii d)- Plasmodium vivax 2) Ivermectin is effective in the treatment of: a)- Onchocerca volvulus b)- Schistosoma mansoni cj- Scabies c)- Giardia lamblia 3) The following can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy: a)- Hymenolepis nana b)- Sarcocystis bovihominis c)- Trichinella spiralis d)- Sarcocystis lendemanni 4) Man is an intermediate host tor the following EXCEPT: a)- Taenia Saginata b)- Echinococcus multiocularis c)- Toxoplasma gondii d)- Plasmodium ovale 5) Epidemic typhus is transmitted by: a)- Pulex irritans b)- Phthirus pubis c)- Pediculus humanus d) Cimex lectularis 6) The following is common in visceral larva migrans EXCEPT: a)- Hepatosplenomegaly b)- Diarrhoea c)- Eosinophilia d)- C.N.S. lesions 7) Jaundice may complicate the following EXCEPT: a)- Ascariasis b)- Hydatidosis c)- Malaria d)-Trichuriasis 8) The following parasites may cause lesions in ectopic sites EXCEPT: a)- Heterophyes heterophyes b)- Entamoeba histolytica c)- Dipylidium caninum d)- Fasciola gigantica

196

8 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 18/6/2008 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: a) Indirect laboratory diagnosis of hydatid disease. b) Treatment of benign tertian malaria. c) Life cycle of H. heterophyes. d) Chigger's disease.

8 Marks

7 Marks

II) A 12-year-old child complained of chronic abdominal pain and diarrhea Microscopic examination of his stools revealed transparent, spheroid and mature eggs . a) What is your diagnosis? b) Mention and draw the infective stages. c) Is this infection common among children? (Why?) d) Prescribe the treatment of this case . III-Compare between the following (In table forms): a) Complete and incomplete metamorphosis with an example for each. b) The cause of itching in enterobiasis and cutaneous larva migrans. c) Mechanism of hepatosplenomegaly in malaria and schistosomiasis d) Onchocerca nodule and calabar swelling e) T.solium and T.saginata concerning the infective stages and diseases produced. f) Two protozoal oocysts. g) Eggs of A. duodenale and T. colubriformis. IV-Give reasons of: a) The importance of proper cooking or sailing of fish and crabs. b) Hyper-infection syndrome in strongyloidiasis. c) Dysphagia in Chagas disease. d) Anemia in Trichuriasis . e) Difficulty of egg detection in patients with chronic schistosomiasis.

197

14 Marks

10 Marks

V-State true or false (and correct the false statement): a) Embryonated egg is the infective stage of Ascaris. b) Hard ticks are permanent ectoparasites. c) Infection with Giardia lamblia causes bloody diarrhea. d) Autoinfection is common in H. dirninuta infection.

4 Marks

VI-Complete the missing words: a) Female Culex is the main vector of……………………….. b) Consumption of pork may lead to infection with……………………….. c) Baermann's technique is used for……………………….. d) Antigenic disguise is common in……………………….. a) Nephrotic syndrome is a complication of……………………….. f) ………………………..is the intermediate host of F. hepatica.

6 Marks

VII-Illustrate with labeled diagrams: a) Diagnostic stage of S. haematobium. b) Infective stage of Enteroblus vermicularis. c) The cyst of one pathogenic intestinal protozoon. d) Diagnostic stage of W. bancrofti.

6 Marks

VIII-Infant was born with signs of encephalitis. X ray of the skull showed cerebral calcifications .His mother gave a history of fever and skin rash during pregnancy. a) What is the possible diagnosis of this case? b) How was this baby infected? c) How would you confirm your diagnosis? d) Draw the diagnostic stage(s) of the causative parasite. e) What are your recommendations to prevent infection of pregnant mothers?

8 Marks

IX-Mention only two parasites that may cause: a) Corneal opacity. b) Space occupying lesion in the brain. c) Obstructive jaundice. d) Dysentery. e) Skin ulcer. f) Mal-absorption syndrome.

12 Marks

198

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 26/8/2008 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 75 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Write short notes on the following: 1) Chemical control of the aquatic stages of mosquitoes. 2) Treatment of trichinosis. 3) Cutaneous leishmaniasis (Types of lesions and direct lab. diagnosis) . 4) Life cycle of S. haematobium (Illustrated with diagrams) . II) Explain briefly why: 1) Anaemia is manifest in hookworm infections . 2) Heteropbyes heterophyes is more prevalent in North Delta. 3) Toxoplasma infection needs both antenatal and postnatal follow up. 4) Proper cooking of meat is an essential control measure of parasites . 5) Dysentery is a complication of P. faiciparum infection. 6) Gravid segments are absent in pseudophyllidian cestodes. III-Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1) Diagnostic stage of Fasciola glgantica. 2) Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis nana. 3) Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica. 4) Diagnostic stage of Trichostrongylus colubriformis.

10 Marks

9 Marks

6 Marks

7 Marks

IV-A male patient aged 35 years came complaining of recurrent abdominal pain, chest pain and cough there was hepatomegaly. By ultrasonography there was a cystic structure 15 Ă&#x2014; 10 cm. in the right lobe of the liver. X ray revealed a smaller cystic lesion in the left lung . The patient gave a history of close Contact with dogs. 1) What is the possible provisional diagnosis of this case ? 2) How would you confirm your diagnosis by laboratory investigations. 3) What is the fate of such lesions if neglected ? 4) Give two prophylactic measures to protect the definitive and intermediate hosts. 199

V-Mention only two parasites that may cause : 1) High eosinophilia. 2) Hepatosplenomegaly. 3) Megaloblastic anaemia. 4) Meningoencephalitis. 5) Cough and bronchial asthma . 6) Skin swelling .

12 Marks

VI-A young girl In a nursery school complained of abdominal pain and diarrhea The family doctor requested stool examination which revealed prbtozoal infection. 1) What are the protozoal parasites that may be detected in stool? 2) Draw the diagnostic stages of these parasites. 3) Mention the drug of choice for the treatment of these parasitic Infection. 4) Give the possible complications of untreated.

8 Marks

10 Marks VII-Compare between the following (In table forms): 1) Treatment of vivax and falciparum malaria . 2) Mechanism of lymphadenopathy in W. baricrdfti and African trypanosome infections. 3) Clinical picture of scaplasis and cutaneous mylasis. 4) Infective stages of Enteroblus vermicularis and Trichurls trlchlurc. 5) Advantages of thin and thick blood films for diagnosis of blood parasites.

VIII-Complete the missing words: 1) ……….. and……….. are the intermediate hosts of Paragonimus westermani. 2) Cyclops can transmit a)......b)……c)…… 3) ……….. and……….. may cause acute appendicitis. 4) Eggs of the following cestodes are directly infective to man: a)......b)……c)…… 5) Duodenal aspiration is helpful, for diagnosis of: a)......b)…… 6) Urine examination can reveal diagnostic stages of a)......b)……c)……d)……… IX-State true or false (and correct the false statement): 1) The pig is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata. 2) Chyluria is a complication of onchocerclasis. 3) Gambian sleeping-sickness is acute in nature. 4) Trichomonas vaginalis affects females only. 5) N.I.H. swab is used for the diagnosis of enterobiasis. 200

8 Marks

5 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 24/1/2008 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 22.5 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

I-Name only two different protozoan diseases that may be transmitted by: a- Swimming in warm stagnant water. b- Ingestion of quadrinudeated cysts. c- Organ transplantation. II-Define the following and mention two causative protozoan parasite for each: a- Romanas sign. b- Malarial recrudescence. c- Dry oriental sore. III-Draw the diagnostic stage(s) of one protozoan parasite that causes: a- Steatorrhoea. b- Myocarditis. c- Espundia. IV-Give the reason(s) for: a- Dysentery in malignant malaria. b- Anemia in Kala-azar. V-Indicate the true statement with (V) and false one with(x): a- Leishmania tropica is a blood flagellate. b- In trichomoniasis, both partners should be treated simultaneously. c- Giardia trophozoites often invade the bile duct and gall bladder. d- Cryptosporidiosis is a zoonotic disease. e- Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites may be detected m liver aspirate. f- Primaquine phospiiate is not needed in treating Plasmodiian vivax.

201

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 26/5/2007 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered:

10 Marks

I-A young man suffering from high fever with double daily rise, pallor & emaciation. Physical examination showed generalized lyrnphadenopathy & hepatosplenomegaly. Blood picture showed pancytopenia. a- What is your diagnosis? Name the causative parasite, b- Draw the life cycle of this parasite. c- Mention other three protozoan causes of hepatosplehomegaly. II) Write short notes on: a- Laboratory diagnosis & complications of urinary schistosomiasis. b- Clinical picture and treatment of scabies. III-Illustrate with diagrams the infective stages of: a- Two helminthes transmitted by undercooked meat. b- Two opportunistic protozoa.

5 Marks

8 Marks

IV-In a table form mention the habitat 8c vectors of six helminthes transmitted to man by arthropods.

9 Marks

V-Give the reason(s) for: a- Chronicity of Strongyloides stercoralis infection. b- Rarity of Diphyllobothrium latum infection in Egypt. c- Anaemia in malaria.

6 Marks

202

VI-Choose the correct answer: 1- The following parasite may cause haemolytic anaemia: a- Diphyllobothrium latum. b- Toxocara cati. c- Taenia saginata. d- Plasmodium vivax 2.-Soil may transmit the following parasites except: a- Dipylidium caninum. b- Toxocara cati c- Ascaris lumbricoides. c- Necator americsnus. 3- Under-cooked meat transmit the following diseases EXCEPT: a- Trichinosis. b- Intestinal sarcocystosis. c- Taeniasis. d- Diphyllobothriasis. 4- Auto infection may occur in the following except: a- Capillaria philippinensis b- Hymenolepis nana. c- Leishmania tropica d- Ascaris lumbricoides. 5- The following parasites live in the small intestine of man EXCEPT: a- Cryptosporidium. b- Trichuris trichiura. c- Ancylostoma duodenale. d- Diphyllobothrium latum. 6- Fleas are vectors of: a- Endemic typlus. b- Endemic relapsing fever. c- Trench fever. d- Epidemic typhus. 7- Soft tick transmits: a- Epidemic relapsing fever. b- Epidemic typhus. c- Endemic relapsing fever. d- Endemic typhus. 8- Man acts as an intermediate host in the following EXCEPT: a- Babesiosis. b- Hydatidosis. c- malaria. d- Filariasis. 9- Complete metamorphosis of an arthropod means that: a- The immature stages are completely different from the adult. b- The immature stages are partially different from the adult. c- The immature stage are completely similar to adult. d- None of the above. 10- Praziquantel is used in the treatment of: a- Amoebiasis. b- Visceral larva migrans. c- Trypanosomiasis. d- Schistosomiasis

203

10 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 12/8/2007 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered:

8 Marks

I-A newly born baby with microcephaly ,convulsions and fever. His mother gave a history of having a cat at home. a- What is your diagnosis? Name the causative parasite. b- How was this baby infected? c- How would you confirm your diagnosis? d- What are other modes of infection by this parasite? e- Mention other five parasites that may affect the brain. 9 Marks

II) Write short notes on: a- Different mechanisms of transmission of diseases by arthropods: (Give an example for each) b- Diagnosis and treatment of enterobiasis , c- Clinical aspects of bancroftian filariasis. 9 Marks

III-Illustrate with diagrams: a- Life cycle of Heterophyes heterophyes. b- Diagnostic stages of three intestinal Cestodes transmitted to man by different modes of infection. c- Infective stages of three parasites causing malabsorption. IV-In a table form mention the infective stages, diagnostic stages and habitat of six parasites affecting the liver. V-Give the reason(s) for: a- Taeniasis solium is more dangerous than Taeniasis Saginata. b- Blindness in onchocerciasis. c- Rhodesian trypanosomiasis is difficult to be controlled. VI-Choose the correct answer:

204

9 Marks

3 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 16/1/2007 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 30 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

I-In a table form, enumerate helminthic infections transmitted to man by eating raw or undercooked fish. Mention their intermediate hosts and illustrate with diagrams their diagnostic stages. II-A patient presented with frequent abdominal colic, recurrent hunger pains and loss of weight. He-complained of the passage of whitish elongated tissue pieces from the anus (by examination they were cestode segments). He gave also the history of eating improperly cooked beef within the last few months. a) What is the expected diagnosis? b) Illustrate the diagnostic stages with diagrams c) What is the drug of choice? III-Illustrate with diagrams: a) The life cycle or shistosoma mansoni. b) The infective stages of four intestinal nematodes transmitted to man by the oral route. IV-Give the reason(s) for: a) Anaemia in trichuriasis. b) Chyluria in cases of Bancroftian filariasis. V-Indicate the true statement with (V) and false one with(x): a) Cercaria is the infective stage of Fasciola. b) Autoinfection is common in Hymenolepis diminuta infection. c) Praziquantel is effective against all species of Schistosoma infecting man. d) River blindness is a complication of onchocerciasis. e) Cyclops is the intermediate host of Dracimculiis medinensis. f) Casoni test is used in the diagnosis of coenurosis. g) Sparganurn is a larva of Diphyllobothrium latum. h) Xenodiagnosis is used for the diagnosis of Trichinella spiralis. i) The eggs of T.solium and T. saginata are morphologically similar. j) Appendicitis may be a complication of Enterobiasis vermicularis infection. 205

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 29/6/2006 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered:

24 Marks

I-Write as shown in brackets: 1- Pediculus humanus (Medical Importance). 2- Enterobius vermicularis (life cycle). 3- Diagnostic stages of 4 intestinal cestodes of man (labeled diagrams). 4- Fascioliasis (clinical aspects and diagnosis). 5- Oriental sore (pathogenesis and diagnosis). 6- Aquatic stages of mosquitoes (biological control). II-Clinical case: A 20year- old farmer presented with dysentery with or without low-grade fever. 1- List [ 3 ] possible causative parasites 2- Draw labeled diagrams for their diagnostic stages 3- Mention [ 2 ] parasites that may cause dysentery with high intermittent fever III-Give reason [s] for: 1- Steatorrhea in giardiasis. 2- Hymenolepis nana infection is more common than Hymenolepis diminuta. 3- Elephantiasis in Wushereria bancrofti infection. 4- Salting of fish more than 15 days is essential. 5- Pneumonitis in Ascaris infection.

206

9 Marks

10 Marks

IV-Choose the best answer(s): 1- Skin penetration is the mode of infection in: a-Ancylostoma duodenale b- Taenia saginata c-Hydatid disease d- Chiggers disease 2- Espundia is: a- Due to Trypanosoma c.infection c- Transmitted by Aopheles

2.5 Marks

b- Endemic in EGYPT d- Treated by Pentostam

3- Parasites that need 2 intermediate hosts in their life cycle include : a- Heterophyes h. b- Diphylobothrium latum c- Trichinella spiralis d- Strongyloides s. 4- Pupa of mosquito is characterized by: a- Rspiration only b- Feeding and respiration c- Feeding on organic matter d- All of them 5- These parasites are transmitted by green salad except; a- Fasciola gigantica b- Enterobius vermicularis c- Trichostrongylus c. d- Trichinella spiralis V-Put True Or False: 1- Endemic typhus is transmitted by fleas 2- Pirenella conica is intermediate host of Fasciola g. 3- Man is the definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus 4- Relapse occurs in malaria transmitted by blood transfusion 5- Cryptosporidium p. is an opportunistic parasite

207

2.5 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 25/1/2006 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour Total Assessment Marks: 22.5 Marks

I-Give an account on:

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

15 Marks

1) Life cycle and diagnosis of Hymenolepis nana. 2) Clinical picture and treatment of Ancylostoma duodenale. 3) Diagnostic stages of intestinal nematodes (diagrams only).

II-Clinical Case:

7.5 Marks

A male patient from a village near Tanta complained nf dysentery. Abdominal pain and fatigue. He gave a history of bathing in canal water few months ago. Stool examination revealed the presence of oval translucent eggs with lateral spine. a) What is your diagnosis? b) What is the infective stage? c) Mention the complications of this parasitic infection.

208

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 4/6/2005 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered:

Give an account on the following:{draw whenever possible}: I-a-life cycle of Hetrophyes hetrophyes. b-diagnosis of Shistosoma mansoni.

6 Marks

II-Diagnosis and treatment of hydatid disease.

6 Marks

III-Pathogenesis of: Disseminated strongyloidiasis and entrobiasis.

6 Marks

IV-Habitat of pathogenic tissue nematodes.

4 Marks

V-Protozoan parasites that may affect the brain ;mention their diagnostic stages, hosts and the diseases they produce. VI-Medical importance of: a- Sandfly b- Pediculus Humanus

9 Marks

c- Soft Ticks

VII-Indicate true statements with {ď&#x192;ź} and false ones with {ď&#x192;ť}: a- Walking bare -footed is a risk factor for Ancylostoma infection b- Praziquantel is used for treatment of nematode infections c- Biomphaiaria snail is intermediate host for Shistosoma heamotobium d- Autoinfection is common in Taenia saginata infection e- Dogs play an important role in visceral larva migrans infection f- Trichomonas vaginalis needs two hosts g- Balantidium coli usually invaded liver and lungs h- Giardiasis is characterized by bloody diarrhea i- Toxoplasma gondii is an obligate extracellular parasite of man j- Oriental sore is caused by Trypanosoma specis 209

12 Marks

5 Marks

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 21/2/2005 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

1.Enumerate Trematodes which are found in EGYPT - Give account on fife cycle and clinical aspects of one of them (draw only cycle). 2.Enumerate tissue cestodes - Give account on one which involves the CNS. 3.Draw the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides and mention its diagnosis. 4.Enumerate Helminthes which cause marked eosinophilia - Give account on clinical aspect of one of them. 5.Give account on acute Chagas disease. 6.Enumerate protozoa which may cause autoinfection - Give account on diagnosis of one of them 7.Mention medically important Mites - give account on Clinical aspect and diagnosis of one of them. 8.Give account on medical importance of fleas.

210

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 4/6/2003 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: I-Give account on the following (draw whenever possible) 1- Life cycle and diagnosis of Trematode inhabiting the blood vessels (draw only) 2- Enumerate 2 parasites causing each of the following clinical signs mention mode of infection in each one: a-Jaundice

b-skin tumor-like mass

3- Diagnostic stages of intestinal Cestodes 4- Clinical aspects of Trichinella spiralis 5- Enumerate zoonotic Protozoa -give account on life cycle and diagnosis of one of them (draw only) 6- Protozoa causing diarrhea- mention the diagnosis and clinical aspects of one of them 7- Myiasis (classification and diagnosis) 8- Control of aquatic stages of mosquitoes

211

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 27/5/2002 Term: Final Examination Timed Allowed: 3 Hours Total Assessment Marks: 48 Marks

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered: 1) Discuss both items: a. Therapeutic uses and contraindication of atropine. b. Pharmacological actions of beta blockers. 2) Discuss only 3 of the following: a. Actions of benzodiazepines. b. Adverse effects of morphine. c. Procaine hydrochloride. d. Heparin. 3) Discuss only 2 of the following: a. Nitrites and nitrates: actions, uses and toxicity. b. Enumerate drugs used in treatment of peptic ulcer mention their mechanism of action and side effects. c. Enumerate bronchodilator drugs and mechanism of action of each group . 4) Discuss only 3 of the following: a. Enumerate with example various members of penicillin and their toxicity. b. Short account on potassium sparing diuretics. c. Adverse effects and drug interactions of oral contraceptives. d. Adverse effects and contraindications of glucocorticoid drugs.

212

Examination for (Third Year) Course Title: Medical Parasitology Date: 18/2/2002 Term: Midyear Examination Timed Allowed: 1 Hour

Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Department of Parasitology

The following questions must be answered:

Give account on the following (draw whenever possible) 1- Life cycle and clinical aspects of Heterophyes heterophyes 2- Parasites causing anemia 3- Diagnosis of hydrated cyst 4- Diagnostic stages of intestinal nematodes 5- Pathology and clinical aspects of filariasis 6- Urine examination for parasites

213

trematoda 1- A Life cycle of S.haematobium (illustrate with diagrams)? 2- Life cycle of H.heterophyes? 3- Mention the infective stage and mode of infection in Fasciola gigantica? 4- Laboratory diagnosis & complications of urinary schistosomiasis. 5- Cercarial dermatitis? 6- How can you solve this problem: Diagnosis of closed schistomiasis? 7- Pathogenic snails & their biological control. 8- Direct diagnosis of S. haematobium. 9- Diagnosis of Shistosoma mansoni. 10- Life cycle & diagnosis of Trematode inhibiting the blood vessels. [Draw only]. 11- Life cycle in the intermediate host & diagnosis of Fasciola species. 12- Methods used for isolation of the schistosoma miracidia. [2002[ 13- Fascioliasis [clinical aspects & diagnosis]. 14- Clinical aspects of Schistosoma mansoni. 15- Compare between Miracidium and corocidium (Draw and name one parasite for each). *Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1- Hematuria. 2- Chyluria. *Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1- Diagnostic stage of Fasciola gigantica. 2- Infective stage(S) of Schistosoma haematobium? 3- Diagnostic stage of Heterophyes heterophyes. 4- Diagnostic stage of S.haematobium. 5- Diagnostic stage of S.mansoni. 6- Life cycle of heterophyes heterophyes. 7- The life cycle of Schistosoma mansoni. *Give reason: 1- Heterophyes heterophes is endemic around lakes of Nile Delta. 2- Detection of Fasciola eggs in the stool is not always diagnostic of fascioliasis? 3- Halzoun syndrome. 4- Difficulty of egg detection in patient with chronic schistosomiasis. 5- Detection of Fasciola gigantic eggs in stool sample of healthy person. 6- Salting offish more than 15 days is essential. 215

cestoda 1- Laboratory diagnosis &treatment of hydatid disease? 2- The advantage of Ziel Nelson of Taenia eggs? 3- How can you solve this problem: Treatment of cycticercosis when surgical removal is impossible? 4- Life cycle & diagnosis of hymenolepis nana. 5- Life cycle of diphyllobothrium. 6- Diagnosis & treatment of cysticercosis. 7- Enumerate tissue cestodes & give an account on one which involves the CNS. 8- Clinical aspects & diagnosis of one cestode which has an extra intestinal stage in the same host. 9- Compare between T.solium and T.saginata concerning the infective stages and diseases produced. *Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1- Cysticercosis. 2- Coenurosis. *Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1- Diagnostic stage of Hymenolepis nana.? 2- Life cycle of Taenia Saginata? 3- Diagnostic stage of three intestinal Cestodes transmitted to man by different modes of infection. 4- The direct life cycle of Hymenolepis nana. *Give reason: 1- Puncture and aspiration of hydatid cyst fluid is arisky Procedure. 2- Infection with Hymenolepis nana is more common than that with H.diminute. 3- Consumption of pork meat is risky. [2010[ 4- Anemia in Dyphyllobothrium latum infection. 5- The hazards of eating undercooked fish. 6- Gravid segments are absent in pseudophyllidian cestodes? 7- Infection with Taenia solium is more dangerous than that with Taenia saginata 8- The important of proper cooking or salting offish and crabs. 9- Rarity of Diphyllobothrium latum infection in Egypt. 10- Emetic drugs are contraindicated in case of Taenia solium infection.

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nematoda 1- Diagnosis of Trichinella Spiralis? 2- Treatment of trichinosis? 3- Mention the infective stage and mode of infection inAncylostoma duodenale? 4- Mention the infective stage and mode of infection inTrichinella spiralis? 5- Clinical aspects of pacroftian filariasis. 6- Blindness in Onchocerciasis. 7- In a table form: mention the infective stages, diagnostic stages & habitat of six parasites affecting the liver. 8- In a table form: mention the habitat & vectors of six helminthes transmitted to man by arthropods. 9- In a table form: Enumerate helminthic infections transmitted to man by eating raw or undercooked fish. Mention their intermediate hosts & illustrate with diagrams their diagnostic stages. 10- Complication of the intestinal stage of ascariasis? 11- Advantage of the use of acidic vaginal douches for treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis. 12- The advantage of specific antigen detection in diagnosis of parasitic infections. 13- Enterobius vermicularis. [lifecycle]. 14- Pnthology & clinical aspects of filariasis. 15- Clinical picture & treatment of Ancylostomo duodenale. 16- Dignostic stages of intestinal nematodes (digrams only). 17- Calabar swelling. 18- Pahogenesis of: Disseminated strongyloiasis & entrobiasis. 19- Habitat of pathogenic tissue nematodes. 20- Dignosis of Wuchercria bancrofti. 21- Clinical aspects of trichinosis. 22- Methods used for isolation of Strongyloides st larva. 23- Enumerate the nematodes which can be transmitted by food consumption. 24- Discuss the clinical aspect & diagnosis of one causes autoinfection. [2002[ 25- Significance of chyluria in filariasis. 26- Modes of transmission of tissue nematodes. 27- Life cycle & diagnosis of capillaria phiiippenesis. 28- What is the role of humeral immunity in diagnosis of parasite diseases? 29- Parasitic autoinfection. 217

*Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1- Visceral larva migrans. 2- Dysentery. *Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1- Infective&diagnostic stage of Trichuris trichiura. 2- Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides. 3- Life cycle of Ancylostoma duodenale? 4- Diagnostic stage of Trichostrongylus colubriformis? 5- Infective stage of Enterobius vermicularis? 6- Infective stages of three parasites causing malabsorption. 7- Infective stages of: Two helminthes transmitted by undercooked meat. 8- Infective stages of: Four intestinal nematodes transmitted to man by the oral route. 9- Diagnostic stage of Ancylostoma duodenale. 10- The infective stage of Trichinella spiralis. 11- Diagnosis of both Stongyloides s. & Enterobius v. infection. *Give reason: 1- Stool examination is usually not sufficient for the diagnosis of enterobiasis. 2- Chronicity of Strongyloides stercolaris infection. 3- Ascariasis should be treated before surgical operations. 4- Anemia is manifest in hookworm infections? 5- Proper cooking of meat is an essential control measure of parasites? 6- Anemia in Trichuriasis. 7- Hyper-infection syndrome in strongyloidiasis. 8- Frequency of E. vermicularis infection among children. 9- Chyluria in cases of Bancroftian filariasis. 10- Elephantiasis in Wushereria bancrofti infection. 11- Pneumonitis in Ascaris infection. *In a form of table compare between the following: 1- Mechanism of anemia in Diphyllobothriumlatum and hookworm infections. 2- Calabar swelling and Onchocerca tumor. 3- Infective stages of Enterobiusvermicularis and Trichuris trichiura. 4- Eggs of A.duodenale and T.coluhriformis. 5- The cause of itching in enterobiasis and cutaneous larva migrans.

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protozoa 1- Clinical aspects, of Kala-azar? 2- Adhesion Phenomena? 3- Mode of infection and diagnosis of cutaneous leishmaniasis. 4- Pathogenesis and clinical picture of Vivax malaria. 5- Cutaneous leishmaniasis (Types of lesions and direct Lab.diagnosis). 6- Treatment of benign malaria. 7- Chiggers disease. 8- Name only two different protozoan disease that may be transmitted by: A) Swimming in warm stagnant water. B) Ingestion of quadrinucleated cysts. C) Organ transplantation 9- Postkala azar dermal leishmanoid. 10- Clinical aspects and diagnosis of amoebic liver abscess. 11- The advantage of Formol ether concentration technique in stool examination. 12- How can you solve this problem: Diagnosis of active toxoplasmosis in pregnant women. 13- Oriental sore [pathogenesis & diagnosis]. 14- Protozoan parasites transmitted by blood transfusion; [Enumerate & Mention the habitats, hosts, infective stages & diseases they produce]. 15- Protozoan parasites that may affect the brain; mention their diagnostic stages, hosts & diseases thy produce. 16- Enumerate protozoa which may cause autoinfection & Give an account on diagnosis of one of them. 17- Enumerate zoonotic Protozoa & give account on life cycle & diagnosis of one of them. 18- Protozoa causing diarrhea & mention the diagnosis & clinical aspect of one of them. 19- Methods used for isolation of Entamoaba histylotica cyst. 20- Clinical aspects & diagnosis of chagas disease. 21- Phagocytic cells in parasitic infection. 22- Diagnosis of Kala Azar. 23- The defense mechanism of protozoa & Give an example. 24- Hematological changes in parasitic diseases. *Define the following and mention one causative parasite for each: 1- Romanas sign. 2- Malarial recrudescence. 3- Dry oriental sore. 219

*Give reason: 1- Acidic douches are essential in the treatment of trichomoniasis? 2- Primaquine is essential in the treatment of benign terian malaria? 3- Mega-Colon in Chagas disease? 4- Dysentery in falciparum malaria. 5- Toxoplasma infection is widespread in nature. 6- Recurrent fever in African trypanosomiasis. 7- Dysentery is a complication of P.falciparum infection? 8- Toxoplasma infection needs both antenatal and postnatal follow up? 9- Dysphagia in chagas disease? 10- Anemia in Kala-azar? 11- Rhodesian trypanosomiasis is difficult to be controlled. 12- Anaemia in malaria. 13- CNS invasion in Trypanosoma gambiense infection is more common than Trhodesiense. 14- Schizont stages of Plasmodium falciparum cannot be seen in blood film. 15- Steatorrhea in giardiasis. 16- Complication & diagnosis of giardiasis. *Illustrate with labeled diagrams: 1- Diagnosis stage (s) of Toxoplasma gondii? 2- Infective stage of Cryptospordium species? 3- Infective stage of Giardia lamblia. 4- Diagnostic stage of Entamoeba histolytica? 5- Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica? 6- Diagnostic stage of W.Bancrofti? 7- The cyst of one pathogenic intestinal protozoon? 8- Diagnostic stage of one protozoan parasite that causes: a) Steatorrhoea. b) Myocarditis. c) Espundia. 9- Infective stages of: two opportunistic protozoz. 10- Dignostic stage ofGiardia lamblia in formed stool sample. 11- The erythocytic cycle of plasmodium vivax. 12- Life cycle of plasmodium vivax in the intermediate host. [Diagrams only].

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*In a form of table compare between the following: 1- Mechanism of jaundice in ascariasis and toxoplasmosis. 2- Direct diagnosis of trypanosome gambiense and trypanosome rhodesiense. 3- Naegleriafowleri and Acanthamoeba (portal of entry and disease produced). 4- Mechanism of anemia in Kala-azar and Schistosomiasis. 5- Complete and incomplete metamorphosis with one example for each. 6- Advantages of thin and thick blood â&#x20AC;&#x201D; film for the diagnosis of parasites. 7- Treatment of Vivax and Falciparum malaria. 8- Mechanism of lymphadenopathy in W.bancrofti and African trypanosome infections. 9- Mechanism of hepatosplenomegaly in Malaria and schistosomiasis. 10- Two protozoal oocysts.

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arthropods 1- Chemical control of Mosquitoes? 2- Clinical aspects and treatment of Scabies. 3- Different mechanisms of transmission of diseases by arthropods. 4- Types of Biological disease transmission by arthropods. 5- Pediculus humanus. [Medical importance]. 6- Aquatic stages of mosquitoes. [Biological control]. 7. Role of arthropods in typhus diseases. 8- Diagnosis & treatment of scabies. 9- Intestinal myiasis. 10- Medical importance of: A) Sand fly B) Pediculus humanus C) Soft ticks. 11- Mention Medically important mites & give an account on clinical aspect & diagnosis of one of them. 12- Medical importance of Fleas. 13- Medical importance of: A) Fleas B) Hard ticks C) Cyclops. *In a form of table compare between the following: 1- Endemic and epidemic typhus (vector and causative organism). 2- Clinical picture of scabiasis and cutaneous myiasis. *Mention only two Parasites which: 1- May be complicated by jaundice. 2- Are transmitted through eating undercooked pork. 3- Are transmitted through the bite of arthropod vector. 4- May cause appendicitis. 5- Can be diagnosed by sputum examination. 6- Can be transmitted by inhalation. 7- May produce mal absorption. 8- May cause eye lesion. 9- Are obligatory intracellular. 10- Are transmitted through eating green salad. 11- Can be diagnosed by urine examination. 12- Are transmitted through close contact with dogs. 13- Can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy. 14- Can be transmitted through swimming in water. 15- May produce lymphadenopathy. 16- May be complicated by hepatosplenomegaly. 222

17- High eosinophilia. 18- Megaloplostic anemia. 19- Meningoencephalitis. 20- Cough and bronchial asthma. 21- Corneal opacity. 22- Space occupying lesion in the brain. 23- Obstructive jaundice. 24- Dysentery. 25- Skin ulcer. 26- Can be transmitted by food handlers. 27- May cause hyper splenism. 28- Can be diagnosed by detection of coproantigen. 29- Can be treated with spiramycin. 30- Parasites causing anaemia. 31- Parasite diagnosed by: Xenodiagnosis. 32- Parasite diagnosed by: Duodenal aspiration.

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