Analyzing American Democracy Politics and Political Science 2nd Edition Test Bank by QuentinAxel

In which form of government do all the citizens have the opportunity to participate in the process of making authoritative decisions and allocating resources? (A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Oligarchy (D) Constitutional monarchy

Answer: (A) Democracy 7

A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is vested in one person is called (A) oligarchy. (B) autocracy. (C) democracy. (D) constitutional monarchy.

Answer: (B) autocracy. 8

Which of the following is NOT considered a basic form of government? (A) Autocracy (B) Oligarchy (C) Initiative (D) Democracy

Answer: (C) Initiative 9

The idea that people should be free from discrimination and class or social barriers is called (A) social equality. (B) democracy. (C) political freedom. (D) popular sovereignty.

Answer: (A) social equality. 10 The idea that people believe their views are “normal” and “common sense” and therefore shared by most people is known as (A) limited government. (B) democracy. (C) false consensus. (D) ideology. Answer: (C) false consensus. 11 Harold D. Lasswell's definition of _______ is “who gets what, when, and how.” (A) power struggle (B) democracy

(C) government (D) politics Answer: (D) politics 12 In Polisciland all important decisions are made by a single individual who serves as supreme ruler for life. Polisciland has what form of government? (A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Federalism (D) Oligarchy Answer: (B) Autocracy 13 Political scientists who adopt science as the best means to gain useful knowledge about politics and government are most interested in (A) identifying which form of government is best. (B) constructing empirical theories and testing explanations of why politics works the way it does. (C) normative theory. (D) using the scientific method to indoctrinate students to agree with their partisan and ideological values. Answer: (B) constructing empirical theories and testing explanations of why politics works the way it does. 14 As a core democratic principal, majority rule is more important than (A) political freedom. (B) political equality. (C) both of the above. (D) none of the above. Answer: (D) none of the above. 15 In which type of election do voters have an opportunity to make specific policy decisions? (A) Recall elections (B) Initiative and referendum (C) Issue election (D) Amending election Answer: (B) Initiative and referendum 16 ______ is a term used to describe a society in which organized, influential minority interests dominate the political process. (A) Pluralistic (B) Elitist (C) Diverse

(D) None of the above Answer: (B) Elitist 17 Questions and debates that can be answered by careful observation can be described as (A) empirical. (B) normative. (C) impossible. (D) rare. Answer: (A) empirical. 18 All of the following are basic goals of science EXCEPT: (A) description. (B) explanation. (C) valuation. (D) prediction. Answer: (C) valuation. 19 A monarchy (in its pure form) is an example of an autocracy. Why? Answer: 20 What term describes Aristotle’s view of the formation of the state, which contends that the state naturally developed like a living being? Answer: 21 An election in which a state legislature refers a proposed law to the voters for their approval is defined as (A) an initiative. (B) a referendum. (C) an open primary. (D) an exit poll. Answer: (B) a referendum. 22 What academic discipline is dedicated to the study of government, political institutions, processes, and behavior? (A) Political Science (B) Biology (C) History (D) Economics Answer: (A) Political Science 23 The idea that individual preferences should be given equal weight describes ________. (A) political equality

(B) political science (C) popular sovereignty (D) equality under the law Answer: (A) political equality 24 ______ analysis seeks to prescribe how things should be valued, what should be, and what is good or just, better or worse. (A) Empirical (B) Null hypothesis (C) Normative (D) False consensus Answer: (C) Normative 25 The principal under which government follows the course of action preferred by most people is known as (A) minority rights. (B) majority rule. (C) partisanship. (D) politics. Answer: (B) majority rule. 26 Which of the following does NOT describe a representative democracy? (A) Ordinary citizens make all governmental decisions. (B) Citizens choose the public officials/representatives. (C) Elected representatives make decisions for the citizens. (D) The form of democracy practiced in the United States and Great Britain. Answer: (A) Ordinary citizens make all governmental decisions. 27 Which of the following best describes a liberal democracy? (A) A concern for individual liberty (B) A law and constitution that constrain elected representatives (C) A focus on minority rights (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above 28 An election in which ordinary citizens circulate a petition to put a proposed law on the ballot for the voters to approve is known as (A) a referendum. (B) an initiative. (C) an opinion poll. (D) a primary.

Answer: (B) an initiative. 29 A consistent set of values, attitudes, and beliefs about the appropriate role of government in society can describe one's (A) partisanship. (B) voting record. (C) ideology. (D) initiative. Answer: (C) ideology. 30 The institution that has the authority to make decisions that are binding on everyone is generally referred to as (A) religion. (B) government. (C) sovereignty. (D) Congress. Answer: (B) government. 31 The idea that the law is supposed to be applied impartially, without regard for the identity or status of the individual involved is called (A) equality under the law. (B) economic equality. (C) equality of opportunity. (D) social equality. Answer: (A) equality under the law. 32 The idea that every individual has the right to develop to the fullest extent of his or her abilities is called (A) economic equality. (B) equality under the law. (C) social equality. (D) equality of opportunity. Answer: (D) equality of opportunity. 33 Which of the following characteristics differentiates government from other organizations that resolve conflict? (A) Using the power of admonitions (B) Teaching certain beliefs (C) Legitimate use of coercion (D) Resolving conflicts over values Answer: (C) Legitimate use of coercion

34 An elite theorist would probably agree with which of the following? (A) Out of the clash of competing governmental agencies, political parties, and interest groups will emerge the “public interest.” (B) There is likely to be a conflict between majority rule and minority rights. (C) Elites are controlled by the majority. (D) None of the above. Answer: (D) None of the above. 35 Which of the following would pluralists probably agree with? (A) Majority tyranny is to be feared more that the tyranny of the minority. (B) Elections provide an adequate check on government. (C) Power should be concentrated in the hands of the majority. (D) All of these. Answer: (A) Majority tyranny is to be feared more that the tyranny of the minority. 36 A society in which power is divided among a wide variety of interests is (A) elitist. (B) autocratic. (C) pluralistic. (D) oligarchistic. Answer: (C) pluralistic. 37 A study which argues that democracy is a good idea is considered to be (A) empirical. (B) normative. (C) psychological. (D) economic. Answer: (B) normative. 38 Psychological attachment to a particular political party is (A) ideology. (B) democracy. (C) republicanism. (D) partisanship. Answer: (D) partisanship. 39 The process of deciding who gets what or what values we live by is (A) politics. (B) debating. (C) bargaining.

(D) government. Answer: (A) politics. 40 Fifty percent plus one of everyone who votes in a particular election is a (A) simple majority. (B) absolute majority. (C) plurality. (D) unanimous consent. Answer: (A) simple majority. 41 A decision that is made by a majority in an election but that infringes upon minority rights is said to be (A) democratic in substance, but not democratic in process. (B) democratic in process, but not democratic in substance. (C) neither democratic in substance or process. (D) democratic in both substance and process. Answer: (B) democratic in process, but not democratic in substance. 42 Democracy can be direct or representative, and the United States has both, although it is a primarily representative democratic system. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 43 Democracy always produces the best possible outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 44 Government is among many institutions that can legitimately use coercion on all individuals and organizations in deciding who gets what. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 45 Americans like the idea of democracy, but don't necessarily like the process of democratic politics. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

46 Democracies do not necessarily produce the best policy outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 47 Although the heart of democracy is about process, substance counts too. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 48 Democracies do not necessarily produce the best policy outcomes. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 49 An oligarchy is a type of government in which one person has all ruling power. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 50 Politics can be defined as (A) who gets what, when, and how. (B) the authoritative allocation of values. (C) Both a and b. (D) Neither a nor b. Answer: (C) Both a and b. 51 Conflict and debate over policy ideas and philosophies (A) contribute to an intractable, hostile environment in which government officials cannot make decisions. (B) must be avoided at all costs in order to prevent outbursts of violence from ordinary citizens. (C) are more common in the country than debates over whose football or basketball team is the best. (D) are common, and even desirable, in a functioning pluralist democracy. Answer: (D) are common, and even desirable, in a functioning pluralist democracy. 52 According to your text, each of the following are among the “core beliefs” of American democracy EXCEPT (A) unitary government. (B) popular sovereignty.

(C) individual liberty. (D) political equality. Answer: (A) unitary government. 53 The pluralist model of democracy has been criticized for (A) its slowness and conservative bias. (B) its overemphasis on restraining majorities. (C) its failure to protect the rights of unpopular and unorganized minorities. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 54 An advocate of populist democracy would probably favor (A) the Constitutional amendment providing for direct election of U.S. senators rather that by state legislatures. (B) the Constitutional amendments that extended voting rights to African Americans, women, and young people. (C) “initiative” and “referendum.” (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 55 The populist model of democracy emphasizes (A) giving power to the smartest and wisest people in society. (B) strict majority rule and greater direct citizen participation. (C) fragmented power to promote deliberation and compromise. (D) capitalism and free enterprise. Answer: (B) strict majority rule and greater direct citizen participation. 56 Pluralists argue that in American government, power should be (A) fragmented among different branches. (B) given to the majority because democracy requires majority rule. (C) given to the most educated because they will make the right decisions. (D) given to the richest because they have earned the right to made decisions. Answer: (A) fragmented among different branches. 57 In an election, if candidate “A” gets 41% of the vote, candidate “B” gets 33%, and candidate “C” gets 26%, which candidate has a majority of the votes cast? (A) Candidate “A” (B) Candidate “B” (C) Candidate “C” (D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above 58 A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is given to a small number of persons is called: (A) oligarchy. (B) autocracy. (C) democracy. (D) constitutional monarchy. Answer: (A) oligarchy. 59 Partisanship is (A) the formal membership in political party. (B) best exemplified by the “party in structure."" (C) caused by rational deliberation and debate on many issues. (D) a psychological attachment to political party. Answer: (D) a psychological attachment to political party. 60 What are the core principles of democracy? (A) Majority rule, political equality, popular sovereignty (B) Popular sovereignty, elections, political equality (C) Majority rule, political equality, political freedom (D) Political freedom, majority rule Answer: (C) Majority rule, political equality, political freedom 61 State voters are asked to approve a ballot initiative legalizing beer sales in Flagship University Stadium. What is this an example of? (A) Direct democracy (B) The Madisonian Dilemma (C) Oligarchy (D) Purposive benefits Answer: (A) Direct democracy 62 In Polisciland blue-eyed people are not allowed to vote, a policy approved by the majority brown-eyed people. What core democratic values are in conflict here? (A) Majority rule against political equality (B) Political equality against minority rights (C) Majority rule against popular sovereignty (D) Direct versus representative democracy Answer: (A) Majority rule against political equality 63 In Polisciland, all important political decisions are made by a council of four men from prominent families. Polisciland has what form of government?

(A) Democracy (B) Autocracy (C) Federalism (D) Oligarchy Answer: (D) Oligarchy 64 The term “pluralism” describes a governmental philosophy in which (A) groups of competing interests vie for the attention of government. (B) power is divided between a single national government and several subnational units. (C) a handful of elites control the actions of government. (D) power is divided between several branches of government. Answer: (A) groups of competing interests vie for the attention of government. 65 Which of the following is an example of direct democracy? (A) A ballot initiative (B) Congress (C) An opinion poll (D) The presidential election Answer: (A) A ballot initiative 66 The Founding Fathers believed that minority rights must be respected in order to achieve all the following goals EXCEPT (A) contribute to a political culture in which those in the minority will respect the decisions of the majority. (B) instill a sense that decisions have been arrived at fairly. (C) promote governmental legitimacy and stability. (D) to prove that slavery was unjust. Answer: (D) to prove that slavery was unjust. 67 Ballot initiatives, or referendums, are examples of direct democracy. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 2 1

When the Constitution was written, the ___ believed that the national government should have more power than state governments. The ___ believed that state governments should have more power than national governments

Answer: Federalists Anti-Federalists 2

The power to review decisions of the lower courts and to determine the constitutionality of laws and actions of public officials is known as (A) judicial review. (B) executive privilege. (C) implied powers. (D) enumerated powers.

Answer: (A) judicial review. 3

Powers that are not listed or implied by the Constitution but that rather have been claimed as essential to the national government are known as (A) executive privilege. (B) enumerated powers. (C) implied powers. (D) inherent powers.

Answer: (D) inherent powers. 4

All are true of Federalism, EXCEPT: (A) Federalism is a political system. (B) Regional governments share power with central or national government. (C) Each level of a federalist government has legal powers that are independent of the other. (D) All are true of federalism.

Answer: (D) All are true of federalism. 5

All are true of the Declaration of Independence EXCEPT: (A) It was written by Thomas Jefferson. (B) It lays the foundation of American constitutional theory. (C) It was the first constitution of the United States. (D) In it, the author justifies the struggle for independence with a republican theory of government based on the concepts of natural rights and popular sovereignty.

Answer: (C) It was the first constitution of the United States. 6

What are the freedoms and protections against arbitrary governmental actions given to the people in a democratic society called? (A) Enumerated powers (B) Implied powers (C) Checks and balances

(D) Civil liberties Answer: (D) Civil liberties 7

The idea that each branch of the federal government should assert and protect its own rights but must also cooperate with the other branches is known as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government.

Answer: (B) checks and balances. 8

The _____ served as the first constitution of the United States. (A) U.S. Constitution (B) Treaty of Versailles (C) Declaration of Independence (D) Articles of Confederation

Answer: (D) Articles of Confederation 9

To keep members insulated from popular influences, longer terms in office were instituted for (A) the Senate. (B) the House of Representatives. (C) district court judges (D) state legislatures.

Answer: (A) the Senate. 10 One of the central issues raised by the opponents of the Constitution during the ratification process was (A) the restrictions placed on state governments. (B) the failure to address the issue of too much presidential authority. (C) the absence of a Bill of Rights. (D) the weakness of the judiciary. Answer: (C) the absence of a Bill of Rights. 11 The idea that each branch of government should be responsible for a separate part of the political process is known as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government.

Answer: (A) separation of powers. 12 The _____ served as the second constitution of the United States. (A) Declaration of Independence (B) Articles of Confederation (C) U.S. Constitution (D) Treaty of Versailles Answer: (C) U.S. Constitution 13 The “full faith and credit” clause of the Constitution requires (A) states to recognize and uphold the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the other states. (B) states to use the National Bank of Unites States for their financial transactions. (C) Congress to extend taxing rights to the states. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) states to recognize and uphold the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the other states. 14 Constitutional change resulting from custom and usage includes (A) political parties. (B) the eighteen-year-old vote. (C) judicial review. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) political parties. 15 The idea that government should represent both property and the number of people is know as (A) separation of powers. (B) checks and balances. (C) enumerated powers. (D) mixed government. Answer: (D) mixed government. 16 A unicameral legislature has how many chambers? (A) One (B) Two (C) None (D) Varying Answer: (A) One 17 In Federalist Number 10, Madison argued that

(A) factions would not form because men were basically “good”."" (B) minority factions were to be feared more than majority factions. (C) factions ought to be prevented from forming by a strong central government. (D) factions were inevitable and could not be removed, so their effects should be controlled. Answer: (D) factions were inevitable and could not be removed, so their effects should be controlled. 18 In class, we discussed a requirement that officeholders in England had to meet which probably explains the inclusion of a part of Article VI of the Constitution. What was that requirement? Answer: 19 Representative John Boehner, the Speaker of the House, is currently suing President Barack Obama. What principle, discussed in class, is Boehner claiming that Obama violated? Answer: 20 A majority of students band together to pressure the university to require all students to wear school colors on game days. James Madison saw such groups as the central problem of trying to create a workable democracy. What did he call such groups? Answer: 21 Which of the following does NOT represent problems experienced by states under the Articles of Confederation? (A) Laws that changed so frequently citizens could not keep track of them. (B) Competition from other states made foreign trade agreements difficult to negotiate. (C) States could not issue their own currency. (D) An “excess of democracy.” Answer: (C) States could not issue their own currency. 22 The confederal system of government under the Articles of Confederation most closely resembles (A) the Union states during the Civil War. (B) the United Nations. (C) the state government of Texas. (D) Latin American dictatorships. Answer: (B) the United Nations. 23 The Articles of Confederation demonstrated that the American people (A) missed the days of the monarchy under George III. (B) favored a strong, centralized national government. (C) demanded a unitary system of government. (D) feared a strong , centralized national government. Answer: (D) feared a strong , centralized national government. 24 The republican form of government exercised in the United States is an example of

(A) indirect democracy. (B) a unitary system. (C) direct democracy. (D) a confederal system. Answer: (A) indirect democracy. 25 Article VI of the Constitution specifically prohibits testing a potential candidate’s (A) religion. (B) literacy. (C) constitutional knowledge. (D) political ideology. Answer: (A) religion. 26 The Articles of Confederation provided for (A) a strong national government. (B) a strong executive branch. (C) strong state governments. (D) amendments without unanimous consent. Answer: (C) strong state governments. 27 The constitutional framework for the structure of Congress was the (A) New Jersey Plan. (B) Connecticut Compromise. (C) Virginia Plan. (D) Articles of Confederation. Answer: (B) Connecticut Compromise. 28 Governmental powers not explicitly written in the Constitution, but suggested by the “necessary and proper” clause (Article I, Section 8) are (A) unconstitutional. (B) enumerated powers. (C) inherent powers. (D) implied powers. Answer: (D) implied powers. 29 Amendments to the United States Constitution can be initiated by (A) a proposal in Congress. (B) a constitutional convention requested by the states. (C) both A and B. (D) neither A or B.

Answer: (C) both A and B. 30 Which one of the following is not one of the three inalienable rights in the Declaration of Independence? (A) property (B) life (C) liberty (D) pursuit of happiness Answer: (A) property 31 The Constitution has been changed through (A) formal amendment. (B) legislative interpretation. (C) custom and usage. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 32 Of the amendments currently in the Constitution, what was the longest time between submission and final ratification? (A) 13 years (B) 27 years (C) 52 years (D) 203 years Answer: (D) 203 years 33 Which of the following is prohibited in Article I of the Constitution? (A) Infringements on the right to a speedy trial (B) Ex post facto laws (C) The denial of a jury trial in civil cases (D) Limitations on freedom of speech Answer: (B) Ex post facto laws 34 Powers that are explicitly granted by the Constitution are known as (A) implied powers. (B) enumerated powers. (C) Wonder Twin powers. (D) concurrent powers. Answer: (B) enumerated powers. 35 The constitutional provision requiring all states to recognize and respect the decisions and authority of the other states regarding their citizens is the

(A) First Amendment. (B) “supremacy” clause. (C) “full faith and credit” clause. (D) Aretha Franklin clause. Answer: (C) “full faith and credit” clause. 36 The “supremacy clause” of the Constitution establishes which of the following authorities as the supreme law of the land? (A) All treaties and laws enacted by the national government (B) The Constitution (C) Neither a nor b (D) Both a and b Answer: (D) Both a and b 37 The “implied powers clause” of the Constitution ensures that the national government is sufficiently powerful to lead the nation in which of the following ways? (A) By granting to the national government all powers not explicitly granted to the states (B) By establishing a unitary system of government (C) By granting Congress the power to make all laws that it deems “necessary and proper” (D) By granting the president the power to make all laws that he deems “necessary and proper” Answer: (C) By granting Congress the power to make all laws that it deems “necessary and proper” 38 The Constitution can be changed by amendment, custom and usage, or (A) legislative act. (B) executive order. (C) citizen referendum. (D) judicial interpretation. Answer: (D) judicial interpretation. 39 Which of the following is NOT an element of the separation of powers as established in the Constitution? (A) Each branch has the power to overrule decisions made by another branch if it becomes necessary. (B) Implementation of policy is left to the bureaucracy. (C) Each branch has policy-making powers that overlap to a degree with the other branches. (D) Members of each branch of government are chosen in different ways and different intervals. Answer: (B) Implementation of policy is left to the bureaucracy. 40 The Constitution, as a written document outlining the limitations of government power, reflects the influence of (A) British customs and traditions.

(B) Marxist theory. (C) social contract theory. (D) utilitarianism. Answer: (C) social contract theory. 41 The delegates to the Constitutional Convention compromised on economic policy by allowing Congress (A) to tax imports but not exports. (B) to tax exports but not imports. (C) to tax both imports and exports. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) to tax imports but not exports. 42 An important concession granted to the large states under the Great Compromise was that taxing and spending bills must originate in (A) the House of Representatives. (B) the Senate. (C) a bipartisan joint committee. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) the House of Representatives. 43 Which of the following was NOT a key economic factor leading up to the Constitutional Convention? (A) The need to enforce debt collection (B) The need for stable currency (C) The need for a central government with the ability to negotiate trade agreements and treaties (D) The need to create a national bank Answer: (D) The need to create a national bank 44 The current method of electing Senators was established in the original Constitution. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 45 The New Jersey plan, which called for a unicameral legislature, was favored by large states. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 46 Federalists wanted (A) a weaker federal government.

(B) a stronger federal government. (C) stronger state governments. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) a stronger federal government. 47 Which of the following is NOT true of the Constitutional Convention of 1787? (A) The delegates were overwhelmingly Federalists. (B) Luther Martin was probably drunk when he gave a long speech on state's rights. (C) There was wide agreement on the need for a stronger central government. (D) Thomas Jefferson cast the deciding vote on the Virginia Plan. Answer: (D) Thomas Jefferson cast the deciding vote on the Virginia Plan. 48 You are a delegate to the Constitutional Convention from a large, populous state who wants to maximize your state's role in the new government. Which of the following proposals would you support? (A) A bicameral legislature with a popularly elected lower chamber, and an upper chamber elected by the lower chamber (B) A unicameral legislature with equal representation for each state (C) A bicameral legislature with equal representation for each state (D) A bicameral legislature with both chambers popularly elected Answer: (D) A bicameral legislature with both chambers popularly elected 49 If a proposed amendment is not ratified within two years of when it is submitted, then its chances of being ratified are (A) still very high. (B) about 50-50. (C) very low. (D) none of the above because ratification of amendments is not affected by politics. Answer: (C) very low. 50 The most common way amendments to the U.S. Constitution have been ratified is by (A) three-fourths of state legislatures. (B) three-fourths of state conventions. (C) the president's signing them into law. (D) choice “a” is most common, but “c” is also a necessary condition. Answer: (A) three-fourths of state legislatures. 51 The states' power to initiate the process of proposing amendments to the Constitution is important because (A) it was the method used to propose almost half the amendments. (B) amendments initiated by states are more likely to be ratified because the states are closer to the people than Congress.

(C) it raises public consciousness about issues and may pressure Congress to act. (D) it is not important because a process that has never been used is obviously not important. Answer: (C) it raises public consciousness about issues and may pressure Congress to act. 52 The most common way of proposing amendments to the U.S. Constitution is (A) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. (B) a petition from two-thirds of state legislatures asking Congress to call a constitutional convention. (C) a petition from three-fourths of states legislatures asking Congress to call a constitution convention. (D) a three-fourths vote in both houses of Congress. Answer: (A) a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress. 53 The original Constitution (i.e., before any amendments) explicitly prohibits both the national and state governments from (A) passing ex post facto laws. (B) passing bills of attainder. (C) adopting religious tests as a requirement to hold public office. (D) all of the above are limitations on both national and state governments. Answer: (D) all of the above are limitations on both national and state governments. 54 Governmental powers listed in the Constitution are called (A) Inherent (or prerogative) powers (B) Implied powers (C) Enumerated powers (D) Specific powers Answer: (C) Enumerated powers 55 The factions with the greatest potential to threaten individual liberty are those that (A) constitute a majority. (B) are based on religious beliefs. (C) constitute an intense vocal minority. (D) take moderate positions. Answer: (A) constitute a majority. 56 The Madisonian dilemma concerns the problem of how to (A) prevent infighting among factions of self-interested individuals. (B) empower citizens to rely on morals and conscience when governing. (C) prevent self-interested individuals with government power from exploiting those with less power. (D) eliminate biased special interests and provide for the common interests for all citizens.

Answer: (C) prevent self-interested individuals with government power from exploiting those with less power. 57 A constitution does all of the following EXCEPT: (A) establishes a legal relationship between the people and their leaders. (B) determines the rules for attaining power. (C) determines the rules of warfare. (D) outlines the rules for exercising political power. Answer: (C) determines the rules of warfare. 58 In FederalistNumber 51, James Madison argued that the new constitution should be ratified because (A) it was democratic. (B) people were “good” and would not abuse the powers of government. (C) it was mixed government in which individual selfish acts would counteract each other and result in policies that serve the public interest. (D) all of the above. Answer: (C) it was mixed government in which individual selfish acts would counteract each other and result in policies that serve the public interest. 59 Which of the following is (are) empirically true? (A) Democracy is good because it permits political freedom. (B) Democracy may not the perfect, but it works better than other types of government. (C) The term of a U.S. senator is six years. (D) All of the above are true. Answer: (C) The term of a U.S. senator is six years. 60 The major deficiency of the Articles of Confederation was (A) the structuring of government. (B) the procedures through which amendments were made. (C) the national government lacked sufficient power to govern. (D) the opposition to strong state governments. Answer: (C) the national government lacked sufficient power to govern. 61 Which type of powers are listed in the Constitution? (A) Inherent (B) Implied (C) Enumerated (D) Arbitrary Answer: (C) Enumerated

62 Concurrent powers, such as the ability to levy taxes, are not shared by the federal and state governments. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False

Chapter 3 1

Dual federalism is sometimes called ___ because federal and state governments have distinct and independent spheres of power. ___ is sometimes called marble-cake federalism because the distinction between federal powers and state powers is not clear, and often mixed.

Answer: layer-cake federalism Cooperative federalism 2

_________ is/are a type of federal grant that returns money to the state and local governments with NO requirements as to how it is spent. (A) General revenue sharing (B) Categorical grants (C) Grants-in-aid (D) Block grants

Answer: (A) General revenue sharing 3

A form of national subsidy to the states designed to help them pay for policies and programs that are the responsibility of states rather than the national government became known as (A) general revenue sharing. (B) grants-in-aid. (C) unfunded mandates. (D) unmandated funding.

Answer: (B) grants-in-aid. 4

The notion that the distinction between state and national responsibilities is unclear and that the different levels of government share responsibilities in many areas is known as: (A) the doctrine of nullification (B) duel federalism (C) cooperative federalism (D) new federalism

Answer: (C) cooperative federalism 5

The act of declaring a national law null and void within a state's borders is known as (A) overriding. (B) nullification. (C) voiding. (D) downgrading.

Answer: (B) nullification. 6

_______ refers to the obligation of states to return people accused of a crime to the state from which they fled. (A) Interstate rendition (B) Enabling act.

The provision in the Constitution that requires states to honor the civil obligations generated by other states is known as (A) interstate rendition. (B) “full faith and credit.” (C) enabling act. (D) devolution.

Answer: (B) “full faith and credit.” 8

_____ are powers listed in the Constitution as belonging to both the national and state governments. (A) God-given powers (B) Supreme Powers (C) Police power (D) Concurrent powers

Answer: (D) Concurrent powers 9

______ is a political system in which regional governments share power with a central or national government, but each level of government has legal powers that are independent of the other. (A) Socialism (B) Federalism (C) Unitary system (D) Cooperation

Answer: (B) Federalism 10 A political system in which the power is concentrated in the national government, and the regional governments can exercise only those powers granted them by the central government, is called a (A) unitary system. (B) confederal system. (C) democratic system. (D) federal system. Answer: (A) unitary system. 11 Chapter 3 of your textbook identifies three distinct types of political systems. Which of the following is NOT one of the political systems discussed? (A) Unitary systems (B) Federal systems

(C) Exclusionary systems (D) Confederation Answer: (C) Exclusionary systems 12 The specific grants of power given to the national government that are listed in the Constitution are called (A) implied powers. (B) enumerated powers. (C) concurrent powers. (D) separation of powers. Answer: (B) enumerated powers. 13 The advantages of federalism are (A) dispersal of power and factions, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests. (B) legislative expertise, dispersal of power and factions, and representation of diverse interests. (C) states’ right to withdraw from the larger union, universal suffrage, and limited power and authority of the central government. (D) the ability of factions to dominate local government, efficient coordination of local laws, and government accountability. Answer: (A) dispersal of power and factions, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests. 14 _________ is/are a type of federal grant that provides money for a specific policy activity and details how the programs are to be carried out. (A) Block grants (B) General revenue sharing (C) Quasi grants (D) Categorical grants Answer: (D) Categorical grants 15 _________ is/are a type of federal grant that provides funds for a general policy area but offers state and local governments discretion in designing the specific programs. (A) Grants-in-aid (B) Block grants (C) Categorical grants (D) General revenue sharing Answer: (B) Block grants 16 Although the Supreme Court ruled that Congress could tax someone if they did not buy health insurance, the Court ruled that Congress could not force someone to buy health insurance. Had Congress been able to directly force people to buy health insurance, the power would have been granted under what clause of the Constitution?

Answer: 17 Which level of government has more power in a confederation? Answer: 18 Amendment Ten to the Constitution (A) reserves constitutional powers not given to the national government to the state governments, or to the people. (B) reserves constitutional powers not given to the state governments to the national government, or to the people. (C) gives a specific list of powers that state governments have. (D) gives a specific list of powers that the national governments has. Answer: (A) reserves constitutional powers not given to the national government to the state governments, or to the people. 19 Medicaid is an example of a grant-in-aid program because it is (A) primarily state-funded but partially federally-administered. (B) neither state-funded nor state-administered. (C) privately-funded but federally-administered. (D) partially federally funded but primarily state-administered. Answer: (D) partially federally funded but primarily state-administered. 20 Some people argue that all states should be required to recognize same-sex marriages due to which clause in the Constitution? (A) Full Faith and Credit Clause (B) Free Exercise Clause (C) Supremacy Clause (D) Commerce Clause Answer: (A) Full Faith and Credit Clause 21 In which type of governmental system do the people grant significant powers to state governments, and then state governments grant limited powers to the federal government? (A) Unitary (B) Federal (C) Confederation (D) Autocratic Answer: (C) Confederation 22 McCulloch v. Maryland expanded the power of the federal government by offering a broad interpretation of which clause of the Constitution? (A) Supremacy Clause (B) Commerce Clause (C) Necessary and Proper Clause

(D) Establishment Clause Answer: (C) Necessary and Proper Clause 23 The Mississippi Balance of Powers Act, which was a proposal that would allow the state government to choose not to enforce federal laws with which it disagreed, is an example of an attempt at (A) nullification. (B) cooperative federalism. (C) executive privilege. (D) unitary government. Answer: (A) nullification. 24 A resolution passed by Congress authorizing residents of a territory to draft a state constitution as part of the process of adding new states to the Union is called (A) interstate rendition. (B) a constitutional law. (C) a new state protocol. (D) an enabling act. Answer: (D) an enabling act. 25 Under preemption, Congress expressly gives (A) no preference to national, state, or local laws. (B) national laws precedence over state and local laws. (C) state and local laws precedence over national laws. (D) the president the authority to declare war. Answer: (B) national laws precedence over state and local laws. 26 Provisions in federal statutes requiring states and localities to take on certain responsibilities without covering any of the associated expenses is know as (A) an unfunded mandate. (B) a crossover sanction. (C) passing the bill. (D) devolution. Answer: (A) an unfunded mandate. 27 _____ is a process that returns the policy power and responsibility to the states from the national government. (A) Crossover sanction (B) Grants-in-aid (C) Devolution (D) Revolution

Answer: (C) Devolution 28 The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act marks the end of what model of federalism? (A) New federalism (B) Duel federalism (C) Cooperative federalism (D) None of the above Answer: (A) New federalism 29 The term _____was first used by President Richard Nixon and was intended to prompt a reversal of the trend of federal government expansion triggered by the Great Society Programs of the 1960's 1960s. (A) dual federalism (B) cooperative federalism (C) new federalism (D) state-centered federalism Answer: (C) new federalism 30 Polisciland is divided into four distinct political units. Each one of these units is only allowed to exercise the powers granted to it by a central government. Polisciland is a (A) confederal system. (B) federal system. (C) unitary system. (D) single-member district system. Answer: (C) unitary system. 31 Ad hoc federalism is (A) an approach to federalism that means advocating state or federal supremacy on an issue-byissue basis depending on ideological or partisan preference. (B) an approach to federalism that completely ignores state's rights. (C) an approach to federalism that advocates returning power to the states. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) an approach to federalism that means advocating state or federal supremacy on an issueby-issue basis depending on ideological or partisan preference. 32 The philosophy that national and state governments are independent sovereign powers with separate and distinct powers is (A) the definition of dual federalism. (B) a doctrine established by Supreme Court justice Roger B. Taney. (C) almost certainly an impractical and unworkable approach to state/federal relations. (D) all of the above.

Answer: (D) all of the above. 33 Considered independently, (A) states are a federal government. (B) states are confederal governments. (C) states are unitary governments. (D) none of the above. Answer: (C) states are unitary governments. 34 Polisciland is divided into four distinct political units. Each one of these units is a sovereign government and the central government must get their approval to make any policy decision. Polisciland is a (A) democracy. (B) oligarchy. (C) confederacy. (D) federal system. Answer: (C) confederacy. 35 The current conception of federalism, which emphasizes funding arrangements, might best be characterized as (A) state-centered federalism. (B) competitive federalism. (C) nation-centered federalism. (D) dual federalism. Answer: (B) competitive federalism. 36 Which of the following has become more common since the Reagan administration? (A) General revenue sharing (B) Grants-in-aid (C) Unfunded mandates (D) Unmandated funding Answer: (C) Unfunded mandates 37 Beginning with the New Deal in the 1930s and continuing up to the present day, the scope of federal authority has come to be interpreted even more broadly. During this period we have seen the rise of all of the following federal aid arrangements EXCEPT: (A) Unmandated funding. (B) Block grants. (C) General revenue sharing. (D) Grant-in-aid. Answer: (A) Unmandated funding.

38 McCulloch v. Maryland affirmed the implied powers of the national government by ruling that (A) the creation of a national bank was constitutional under the “necessary and proper” provision of the Constitution. (B) the creation of a national bank was unconstitutional. (C) jack-booted thugs could seize the property of citizens who “looked shady.” (D) states had a right to tax branches of the national bank. Answer: (A) the creation of a national bank was constitutional under the “necessary and proper” provision of the Constitution. 39 Among the advantages of federalism listed in your text is: (A) The national government can change state boundaries or merge two states together without the consent of the state legislatures. (B) Subnational governments can serve as the “laboratories of democracy” by trying out new policies on a small scale before they are implemented on a national level. (C) The national government can exercise complete control over states. (D) Laws in every state are exactly the same, so there is no confusion when one moves from one state to another. Answer: (B) Subnational governments can serve as the “laboratories of democracy” by trying out new policies on a small scale before they are implemented on a national level. 40 The division of power between the national government and state and local governments is known as (A) federalism. (B) a confederal system. (C) colonialism. (D) classical democracy. Answer: (A) federalism. 41 Categorical grants give state governments significant freedom in the operation of federallyfunded programs. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 42 The Supremacy Clause of the United States Constitution specifies that the Constitution carries more authority than state laws. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 43 Dispersal of power, policy experimentation, and accommodation of diverse interests are an advantages of

(A) an oligarchy. (B) federalism. (C) a unitary government. (D) a republic. Answer: (B) federalism. 44 The disadvantages of federalism include (A) faction, complexity, and inefficiency. (B) the dispersal of power and factions. (C) the representation of diverse interests and policy experimentation. (D) the dispersal of power and complexity. Answer: (A) faction, complexity, and inefficiency. 45 The term crossover sanction refers to (A) conditions placed on receipt of federal grants that have nothing to do with the purpose of the grant such as taking away a state's federal highway fund if it does not raise the drinking age to 21. (B) states punishing the federal government for taking action that infringes on states' rights. (C) the federal government punishing states for taking action that infringes on the federal government's authority. (D) state and federal laws that punish cross-dressing. Answer: (A) conditions placed on receipt of federal grants that have nothing to do with the purpose of the grant such as taking away a state's federal highway fund if it does not raise the drinking age to 21. 46 Using state and federal government spending as an indicator of governmental power and activity, we find that (A) federal power has expanded by taking away most of the important powers of states. (B) activity at all levels of government has grown over time. (C) government spending at the state level has been increasing at a faster rate than federal spending. (D) federal spending is higher than state spending only during periods of crisis such as the Great Depression in the 1930s and World Wars I and II. Answer: (B) activity at all levels of government has grown over time. 47 Which of the following is NOT part of the process of adding a new state to the Union? (A) Congress forms and incorporated territory (B) Residents of the territory petition Congress (C) Congress passes an enabling act (D) Three-fourths of the existing states approve the admission of the new state Answer: (D) Three-fourths of the existing states approve the admission of the new state

48 The notion that federal and state governments have separate and distinct jurisdictions is knows as (A) the doctrine of nullification. (B) duel federalism. (C) cooperative federalism. (D) new federalism. Answer: (B) duel federalism. 49 Washington, D.C. is (A) neither a state nor part of a state. (B) a sovereign power with rights equal to those of states. (C) constitutionally guaranteed equal representation in the Senate. (D) All of the above. Answer: (A) neither a state nor part of a state. 50 The U.S. Constitution, laws passed by Congress, and treaties made by the national government (A) can be legally nullified by state constitutions. (B) are the supreme law of the land. (C) are equal to, but not superior to, state laws and state constitutions. (D) All of the above. Answer: (B) are the supreme law of the land. 51 The authority of states to pass laws safeguarding “health, safety, and morals” of citizens is called (A) police power. (B) concurrent power. (C) power of moral authority. (D) new federalism. Answer: (A) police power. 52 A division of political power occurs (A) only in federal systems. (B) only in confederate systems. (C) in federal systems and confederate systems. (D) in unitary systems, federal systems, and confederate systems. Answer: (D) in unitary systems, federal systems, and confederate systems. 53 A political system in which the central government has only those powers that the regional governments choose to give it is called a (A) confederation.

(B) unitary government. (C) federation. (D) democracy. Answer: (A) confederation. 54 The Tenth Amendment (A) essentially recognizes the states as sovereign governments. (B) gives states the right to nullify federal laws. (C) gives states the right to secede from the Unites States and form a new nation. (D) All of the above are found in the Tenth Amendment. Answer: (A) essentially recognizes the states as sovereign governments. 55 Powers “not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited to it by the states, are reserved to the states respectively or to the people” is a state's rights principal found in the (A) Eighth Amendment. (B) Tenth Amendment. (C) Fourteenth Amendment. (D) elastic clause. Answer: (B) Tenth Amendment. 56 If you drive 75 miles per hour in Nebraska, you are following the law. If you drive the same speed in Iowa, you are breaking the law. This is an example of which disadvantage of federalism? (A) Factions (B) Complexity and inefficiency (C) Lack of accountability (D) None of the above Answer: (B) Complexity and inefficiency 57 States dislike the limitations and specifications of categorical grants; the federal government likes the control such grants gives it. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 4 1

___ discrimination is set forth in the law. ___ discrimination exists in fact, in real life, or in practice.

Answer: De jure De facto 2

The ________ authorized the federal government to ensure that eligible voters were not denied access to a ballot. (A) Voting Rights Act of 1965 (B) Americans with Disabilities Act (C) Civil Rights Act of 1964 (D) none of the above

Answer: (A) Voting Rights Act of 1965 3

Suffrage is defined as one's right to do what? (A) Work (B) Marry (C) Vote (D) Attend schools

Answer: (C) Vote 4

A nonviolent technique of protests that entails resisting government laws of practices that are believed to be unjust is known as (A) civil disobedience. (B) passive resistance. (C) by any means necessary. (D) none of the above.

Answer: (B) passive resistance. 5

Jim Crow laws (A) were used mainly by southern states. (B) disenfranchised African Americans by requiring them to pass literacy tests. (C) disenfranchised African Americans by requiring them to pay poll taxes. (D) all of the above.

Answer: (D) all of the above. 6

All are true of the grandfather clause, EXCEPT: (A) The clause was ruled unconstitutional in 1964. (B) The clause was used in conjunction with literacy tests to prevent African Americans from voting. (C) People whose ancestors were entitled to vote in 1866 (i.e., whites) were exempt from passing the literacy test. (D) African Americans, whose ancestors were slaves, had to pass the literacy test in order to vote.

Answer: (A) The clause was ruled unconstitutional in 1964. 7

Genocide is the (A) racial profiling of an entire race of people. (B) segregation of an entire race of people. (C) killing of an entire race of people. (D) persecution of an entire race of people.

Answer: (C) killing of an entire race of people. 8

Discrimination that is set forth in law is known as (A) de minimus discrimination. (B) ""reverse"" discrimination. (C) de facto discrimination. (D) de jure discrimination.

Answer: (D) de jure discrimination. 9

Discrimination that exists in fact, in real life, or in practice is known as (A) de jure discrimination. (B) de facto discrimination. (C) de minimus discrimination. (D) ""reverse"" discrimination.

Answer: (B) de facto discrimination. 10 What landmark law outlawed racial segregation in schools and public places and barred discrimination in employment based on sex? (A) Civil Rights Act of 1972 (B) Jim Crow Laws (C) Voting Rights Act of 1965 (D) Civil Rights Act of 1964 Answer: (D) Civil Rights Act of 1964 11 Deliberately disobeying laws viewed as morally repugnant is known as (A) civil disobedience. (B) signing a petition. (C) boycotting. (D) passive resistance. Answer: (A) civil disobedience. 12 The________ specifically extended to citizens with disabilities the civil rights and protections that were the cornerstone of the 1964 Civil Rights Act. (A) Affordable Healthcare Act

(B) Americans with Disabilities Act (C) Nineteenth Amendment (D) Voting Rights Act of 1965 Answer: (B) Americans with Disabilities Act 13 The court case that prohibited universities from using race as the sole criterion for admissions was (A) Baker v. Carr. (B) Plessy v. Ferguson. (C) Brown v. Board of Education. (D) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke. Answer: (D) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke. 14 Opponents of California's Proposition 8, which prohibits gay marriage, would contend that this law is an example of (A) de facto discrimination. (B) de jure discrimination. (C) ""reverse"" discrimination. (D) both a and b. Answer: (D) both a and b. 15 The American Civil War reflected a deep disagreement between the southern states and the federal government over several fundamental principles. Based on your knowledge of the Constitution and the core principles of democracy, what do you think was the fundamental disagreement that led to the Civil War? How important was the issue of slavery in precipitating the conflict? What role did civil rights and civil liberties play in conflict? Explain your answer in detail and be sure to discuss the rat Answer: 16 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of federalism. In what ways does a federal system protect core democratic values like individual liberty and political equality? How does federalism improve the policy making policy-making process and foster innovation? Of the many interpretations of federalism described in your text (e.g., state-centered, nationcentered, etc.), which one do you find to be most appropriate, and why? Answer: 17 The issue of campaign finance reform seems to bring two important democratic values into conflict: individual liberty and political equality. On the one hand, the First Amendment grants people freedom of expression, and opponents of campaign finance reform argue that giving money to candidates is an exercise of free speech. On the other hand, advocates of campaign finance reform argue that democracy should be for all citizens, not just the rich, and therefore the only way to protect political eq Answer: 18 Discuss how the “core principles” of American democracy are reflected in the Constitution, particularly the Bill of Rights. How are the rights of citizens protected by the Bill of Rights? Are citizens’ rights limited to those discussed in the Constitution and the Bill of Rights? Can you name any specific rights that are not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution or Bill of

Rights? Have the protections against government intrusion on individual liberties always applied equally to both state and Answer: 19 The United States is often described as a “melting pot” of diverse cultures brought together in one society. How does this diversity affect politics in the United States? What aspects of our governmental system (both structural and institutional) are designed to deal with the competing demands of these diverse groups in our society? Your answer should cover the following topics: pluralism, federalism, political culture, and the need to respect the rights of those in the political minority. Answer: 20 In which case did the Supreme Court strike down the use of a point system as a way of considering race in the college admissions process? Answer: 21 The Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals program, supported by civil rights activists, is controversial in the eyes of some because it allows for prosecutorial discretion in enforcing what set of laws? Answer: 22 Title IX requires that (A) women's athletics be given equal standing with men's athletics in schools. (B) women must receive equal pay for performing the same job as men. (C) the military must eliminate distinctions between men and women in terms of combat assignments. (D) both men and women must be equally eligible for family leave. Answer: (A) women's athletics be given equal standing with men's athletics in schools. 23 The earnings and educational attainment of African Americans and Latinos relative to that of white citizens is (A) higher. (B) roughly the same. (C) lower. (D) unknown, since the Census Bureau is forbidden from considering race. Answer: (C) lower. 24 The NAACP relied primarily on which of the following strategies in its fight to end segregation? (A) Armed insurrection (B) Legal challenges to state laws (C) Direct lobbying of members of Congress (D) constitutional amendments Answer: (B) Legal challenges to state laws 25 The primary motivation for creating Affirmative Action policies was to address which type of discrimination?

(A) De facto discrimination (B) De jure discrimination (C) ""Reverse"" discrimination (D) Both a and b. Answer: (A) De facto discrimination 26 _______ policies serve to help minorities compete on an equal basis and overcome the effects of discrimination in the past. (A) Literacy tests (B) Affirmative action (C) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (D) The Americans with Disabilities Act Answer: (B) Affirmative action 27 Women were guaranteed the right to vote by (A) the Nineteenth Amendment. (B) the 1964 Voting Rights Act. (C) an act of Congress passed in 1924. (D) the Fifteenth Amendment. Answer: (A) the Nineteenth Amendment. 28 The metaphor of the “shield and sword” represents the distinction between (A) freedom and liberty. (B) civil liberties and civil rights. (C) the president and Congress. (D) discrimination and affirmative action. Answer: (B) civil liberties and civil rights. 29 The Fourteenth Amendment guaranteed all the following EXCEPT: (A) Equal protection under the law. (B) Citizenship to people regardless of race. (C) Forty acres and a mule. (D) Due process of law. Answer: (C) Forty acres and a mule. 30 The Plessy v. Ferguson decision upheld the so-called Jim Crow laws by establishing the (A) “due process of law” clause. (B) “separate but equal” doctrine. (C) right of assembly even for racist organizations. (D) Emancipation Proclamation.

Answer: (A) “due process of law” clause. 31 In Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, the Supreme Court ruled that what practice was legal? (A) racial discrimination (B) affirmative action (C) separation of church and state (D) warrantless wiretaps Answer: (B) affirmative action 32 Which constitutional amendment states that “the right of citizens of the United States to vote…shall not be denied or abridged on account of sex”? (A) Fifteenth (B) Ninth (C) Nineteenth (D) Twenty-Sixth Answer: (C) Nineteenth 33 Which of the following college admissions practices has been ruled constitutional by the Supreme Court? (A) Setting racial quotas to determine which students get admitted (B) Considering the race of an applicant in order to build a diverse student body (C) Awarding points during the admission process based on the race of a student (D) Declining to admit a student solely on the basis of race Answer: (B) Considering the race of an applicant in order to build a diverse student body 34 Which of the following is true about the Equal Rights Amendment? (A) It has not been ratified. (B) Its goal is to prevent discrimination based on age. (C) Its goal is to prevent discrimination based on race. (D) It is the unofficial name given to the Eighth Amendment. Answer: (A) It has not been ratified. 35 The Voting Rights Act of 1965 ensured that the federal government would take proactive steps to enforce which amendment? (A) Tenth (B) Fifteenth (C) Second (D) Twenty-Second Answer: (B) Fifteenth

36 Which Supreme Court ruling overturned the “separate but equal” doctrine which had been established in Plessy v. Ferguson? (A) Roe v. Wade (B) Gideon v. Wainwright (C) Guinn v. United States (D) Brown v. Board of Education Answer: (D) Brown v. Board of Education 37 Women were granted the right to vote by the Third Amendment, which was ratified in 1864. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 38 The Dredd Scott decision upheld Scott's claim that he was a free man, even though he was black and had been a slave, because he had been taken to a state in which slavery was illegal. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 39 Civil rights are obligations placed on the government to take certain steps to protect the freedom of the people. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 40 The court case that reversed the “separate but equal” doctrine was (A) Plessy v. Ferguson. (B) Goldberg v. Kelly. (C) McCulloch v. Maryland. (D) Brown v. Topeka Board of Education. Answer: (D) Brown v. Topeka Board of Education. 41 Affirmative action is intended to promote which of the following values? (A) Reparations for slavery (B) Equality of opportunity (C) Majority rule (D) Color blindness Answer: (B) Equality of opportunity 42 At the founding of the United States slaves were considered ______ for the purpose of taxation and representation.

(A) three-fifths of a person (B) foreigners (C) full U.S. citizens (D) the same as children and women Answer: (A) three-fifths of a person 43 Civil rights matters deal specifically with (A) minority rights and political equality. (B) majority rights and equality of results. (C) minority rights and equality of results. (D) majority rights and political equality. Answer: (A) minority rights and political equality. 44 Which type of government is most likely to use capital punishment? (A) Democracies generally (B) Western representative democracies most like the United States (C) Nondemocratic nations (D) Democracies and nondemocracies are about equally likely to use capital punishment. Answer: (C) Nondemocratic nations 45 Before adoption of the Nineteenth Amendment in 1920, which guaranteed a woman’s right to vote, (A) women were not allowed to vote anywhere in the United States. (B) fifteen states allowed women to vote before the Nineteenth Amendment was adopted. (C) only married women could not vote because it would in effect give their husbands two votes.. (D) married women gained full rights of citizenship including the right to vote if their husband was a citizen. Answer: (B) fifteen states allowed women to vote before the Nineteenth Amendment was adopted. 46 The ruling in Gideon v. Wainwright (1964) (A) established the exclusionary rule exception. (B) articulated the “good faith” expansion of the exclusionary rule. (C) required state governments to provide an attorney to a defendant who would not afford one. (D) stated that state governments are not required to provide legal assistance. Answer: (C) required state governments to provide an attorney to a defendant who would not afford one. 47 Women are different from other groups that have fought extended civil rights battles because (A) numerically, they are not a minority. (B) they were always guaranteed property rights.

(C) they were never prevented from voting. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) numerically, they are not a minority. 48 The U.S. government's legal relationship with Native Americans is based in (A) English common law. (B) federal civil rights laws. (C) hundreds of treaties made with tribal authorities. (D) none of the above. Answer: (C) hundreds of treaties made with tribal authorities. 49 Government actions that seek to help women and minorities overcome the present-day effects of past discrimination and achieve equality in hiring and school admissions are known as (A) de jure discrimination. (B) affirmative action. (C) Jim Crow laws. (D) discrimination nullification. Answer: (B) affirmative action. 50 Questions of civil rights center on issues in which (A) the government is obligated to act in order to protect individual freedoms. (B) the government is prevented from acting in order to protect individual freedoms. (C) the government is compelled to act by order of the Supreme Court. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) the government is obligated to act in order to protect individual freedoms. 51 Civil rights are (A) the rights of all citizens to legal, social, and economic equality. (B) guaranteed regardless of citizenship. (C) not guaranteed by the U.S. Constitution. (D) the rights of those who have been charged with a crime. Answer: (A) the rights of all citizens to legal, social, and economic equality. 52 Which of the following amendments protects women's right to vote? (A) Twenty-First Amendment (B) Thirteenth Amendment (C) Eighteenth Amendment (D) Nineteenth Amendment Answer: (D) Nineteenth Amendment

53 The Americans with Disabilities Act extended the protections of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to people with disabilities. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 5 1

___ discrimination is set forth in the law. ___ discrimination exists in fact, in real life, or in practice.

Answer: De jure De facto 2

Answer: (A) Voting Rights Act of 1965 3

Suffrage is defined as one's right to do what? (A) Work (B) Marry (C) Vote (D) Attend schools

Answer: (C) Vote 4

Answer: (B) passive resistance. 5

Answer: (D) all of the above. 6

Answer: (A) The clause was ruled unconstitutional in 1964. 7

Genocide is the (A) racial profiling of an entire race of people. (B) segregation of an entire race of people. (C) killing of an entire race of people. (D) persecution of an entire race of people.

Answer: (C) killing of an entire race of people. 8

Discrimination that is set forth in law is known as (A) de minimus discrimination. (B) ""reverse"" discrimination. (C) de facto discrimination. (D) de jure discrimination.

Answer: (D) de jure discrimination. 9

Discrimination that exists in fact, in real life, or in practice is known as (A) de jure discrimination. (B) de facto discrimination. (C) de minimus discrimination. (D) ""reverse"" discrimination.

53 The Americans with Disabilities Act extended the protections of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to people with disabilities. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 6 1

Group efforts to generate supportive or sympathetic public opinion are referred to as (A) indirect lobbying. (B) political efficacy. (C) direct lobbying. (D) collective bargaining.

Answer: (A) indirect lobbying. 2

Someone who invests resources (such as time, money, and skill) to create and build an organization that offers various types of benefits to entice others to join the group is known as (A) a lobbyist. (B) a free rider. (C) an opportunist. (D) a group entrepreneur.

Answer: (D) a group entrepreneur. 3

_____ explains the formation of interest groups as a rational quid pro quo between supplier and consumer. (A) Pluralist explanation (B) Exchange theory (C) Solidary benefits (D) Selective benefits

Answer: (B) Exchange theory 4

Direct contact by lobbyists with government officials in a effort to influence policy is known as (A) logrolling. (B) indirect lobbying. (C) direct lobbying. (D) coalition building.

Answer: (C) direct lobbying. 5

A means of expanding an interest group's influence that involves working with other group is called (A) indirect lobbying. (B) coalition building. (C) logrolling. (D) purposive benefits.

Answer: (B) coalition building.

In ________ the Supreme Court ruled that corporations and labor unions have a First Amendment right to spend unlimited amounts of money from their general treasuries to advocate the election or defeat of political candidates. (A) Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission (B) McConnell v. Federal Election Commission (C) Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life (D) Engel v. Vitale

Answer: (A) Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission 7

What is the name of the theory which holds that most people will not engage in collective action with the sole aim of producing public goods, but rather that groups build membership by offering selective benefits available only to group members? (A) Return theory (B) Exchange theory (C) Pluralist explanation (D) By-product theory

Answer: (D) By-product theory 8

What is the name of the law that limits hard-money contributions during each election cycle to $2,000 from individuals and $5,000 from PACs? (A) Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA) (B) Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) (C) The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (D) 1964 Voting Rights Act

Answer: (A) Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA) 9

Which act allowed unions and corporations to form political action committees to raise and contribute campaign funds to candidates? (A) Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA) (B) Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) (C) The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (D) 1964 Voting Rights Act

Answer: (B) Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) 10 A legal brief filed by someone or some organization who holds an interest in a case but is not an actual party is called a/an (A) test case. (B) trial brief. (C) free rider. (D) amicus curiae brief. Answer: (D) amicus curiae brief.

11 All of the following is true regarding 501 (c) groups, EXCEPT: (A) They are tax-exempt organizations. (B) They can raise and spend unlimited amounts of money to promote “social welfare”."" (C) Their primary purpose is political activities. (D) They can keep their donors and names of members secret. Answer: (C) Their primary purpose is political activities. 12 All of the following is true regarding 527 groups, EXCEPT: (A) They are tax-paying organizations. (B) They can raise and spend unlimited amounts of money to influence elections. (C) They can engage in voter mobility and issue advocacy. (D) They cannot expressly advocate the election or defeat of a federal candidate. Answer: (A) They are tax-paying organizations. 13 Campaign contributions made directly to candidates and regulated by law are known as (A) hard money. (B) material benefits. (C) soft money. (D) solidary benefits. Answer: (A) hard money. 14 Campaign contributions given to political parties rather than directly to candidates are known as (A) hard money. (B) material benefits. (C) soft money. (D) solidary benefits. Answer: (C) soft money. 15 Interest groups often offer exclusive benefits to members in order to encourage their membership. They do this in order to overcome what Mancur Olson called (A) the “collective action” problem. (B) the “checkbook participation” problem. (C) the “social capital” problem. (D) the “civil disobedience” problem. Answer: (A) the “collective action” problem. 16 Satisfaction gained from membership in interests groups, such as friendship and sense of belonging to a group or meeting people with similar interests are known as _____ benefits. (A) material (B) purposive

(C) solidary (D) selective Answer: (C) solidary 17 Which is an example of a single-issue group? (A) American Civil Liberties Union (B) Amnesty International (C) The Heritage Foundation (D) The National Right to Life Committee Answer: (D) The National Right to Life Committee 18 Benefits provided by interest groups that are available to members only are known as (A) material benefits. (B) purposive benefits. (C) selective benefits. (D) solidary benefits. Answer: (C) selective benefits. 19 In the context of political science, rational means (A) making choices that maximize benefits and minimize costs. (B) making choices that minimize benefits and maximize costs. (C) making choices that incite excitement. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) making choices that maximize benefits and minimize costs. 20 Benefits that interest group members derive from feeling good about the actual mission of the group, as opposed to more material benefits, are known as (A) material benefits. (B) purposive benefits. (C) tangible rewards. (D) solidary benefits. Answer: (B) purposive benefits. 21 Organizations specifically created to raise money and make political contributions on behalf of an interest group are called (A) single-issue groups. (B) political action committees (PACs). (C) fan clubs. (D) lobbyists. Answer: (B) political action committees (PACs).

22 The idea that interest groups form in reaction to problems created by particular social or economic events is (A) exchange theory. (B) disturbance theory. (C) the by-product theory. (D) the pluralist explanation. Answer: (D) the pluralist explanation. 23 The activity of a group or person that attempts to influence public policymaking on behalf of the individual or the group is known as (A) teaching. (B) lobbying. (C) logrolling. (D) protesting. Answer: (B) lobbying. 24 An individual whose job is to contact government officials on behalf of someone else is a (A) lobbyist. (B) political scientist. (C) lawyer. (D) party leader. Answer: (A) lobbyist. 25 The use of intermediaries by lobbyists to speak to government officials, with the intent to influence policy is known as (A) direct lobbying. (B) indirect lobbying. (C) logrolling. (D) coalition building. Answer: (B) indirect lobbying. 26 A _______ is a type of political committee that can raise unlimited sums of money from corporations, unions, associations, and individuals to independently support or oppose political candidates. (A) political action committee (PAC) (B) Super PAC (C) 527 group (D) 501 (c) group Answer: (B) Super PAC 27 The most important distinction between political parties and interest groups is

(A) parties are large, while interest groups are always small. (B) interest groups seek to lobby the existing government, while parties strive to get their members elected into government. (C) parties seek to influence government, while interest groups do not. (D) interest groups care about issues, while parties do not. Answer: (B) interest groups seek to lobby the existing government, while parties strive to get their members elected into government. 28 The population ecology explanation of interest groups suggests that (A) interest groups are limited by the number of constituencies available to support them. (B) the number of interest groups is determined by the carrying capacity of political environment. (C) interest groups adapt themselves to a “niche” in the political environment. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 29 Which of the following can be classified as a political interest group? (A) A people who share an interest in classical literature and ask a local school board to include certain books in the curriculum (B) A student gay rights organization that organized a demonstration to promote gay rights on a university campus (C) A Mozart fan club that organizes concerts and asks the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) to require radio stations to play Mozart (D) all of the above Answer: (D) all of the above 30 The most effective group influence on legislation is (A) on issues that attract little attention and have few to no opposing viewpoints. (B) on issues that involve unions and nonprofit citizens' groups. (C) on issues involving professional associations, government organizations, and institutions. (D) on issues that attract a large number of groups presenting opposing viewpoints. Answer: (A) on issues that attract little attention and have few to no opposing viewpoints. 31 Pluralist theory suggests that no single interest group will become too powerful because (A) opposing interest groups watch each other and exercise countervailing power. (B) they persuade government to pass control regulations. (C) they take control of the leaders of opposing groups. (D) all of the above . Answer: (A) opposing interest groups watch each other and exercise countervailing power. 32 An AARP member's discounted hotel rate is an example of (A) a material benefit.

(B) a solidary benefit. (C) a purpose benefit. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) a material benefit. 33 Interest group activity in the policy-making process is a key aspect of which theory of democracy? (A) Pluralism (B) Populism (C) Elitism (D) Direct democracy Answer: (A) Pluralism 34 Interest groups attempt to influence federal judges by (A) contributing money to their election campaigns. (B) filing test cases and amicus curiae briefs. (C) lobbying the judge in his office. (D) none of the above because courts are not political and not subject to interest group pressure. Answer: (B) filing test cases and amicus curiae briefs. 35 Logrolling refers to (A) protecting the interest of the timber industry. (B) a coalition of groups with similar and overlapping interests. (C) a coalition of environmental groups. (D) a coalition of uncommon interests. Answer: (D) a coalition of uncommon interests. 36 Interest groups tend to focus their efforts on (A) pressuring opponents in Congress to change their minds. (B) getting the attention of party leaders in Congress. (C) providing information and support to those who are sympathetic to the group's interest. (D) trying to defeat those who oppose the group in election. Answer: (C) providing information and support to those who are sympathetic to the group's interest. 37 Groups can overcome the “free rider problem” by (A) providing benefits that are available only to members who pay dues. (B) ignoring free riders. (C) reducing the price of membership. (D) increasing the price of membership.

Answer: (A) providing benefits that are available only to members who pay dues. 38 The “free rider problem” is characteristic of (A) private goods. (B) public goods. (C) cheap, imported products. (D) those who use frequent flier miles to get free plane tickets. Answer: (B) public goods. 39 Johnny is a member of the NRA because he likes the company of people who share his interests in hunting and recreation shooting. Johnny is an NRA member because of (A) solidary incentives. (B) material benefits. (C) political socialization. (D) indirect lobbying. Answer: (A) solidary incentives. 40 Johnny joins the Whigs because he genuinely believes U.S. independence was the product of an illegal rebellion, and that the United States rightfully belongs to the United Kingdom. Johnny is a Whig because of (A) second-order benefits. (B) solidary benefits. (C) purpose benefits. (D) he's a wacko limey. Answer: (C) purpose benefits. 41 Interest group efforts to influence government action are known as (A) logrolling. (B) blackmail. (C) checkbook participation. (D) lobbying. Answer: (D) lobbying. 42 Which of the following categories of interest group is most likely to adopt an indirect lobbying strategy? (A) Labor unions (B) Professional organizations (C) Business and trade groups (D) Civil rights groups Answer: (D) Civil rights groups

43 The proliferation of interest groups in America competing for government attention exemplifies which of the following theories? (A) Elitism (B) Pluralism (C) Populism (D) Totalitarianism Answer: (B) Pluralism 44 Civil disobedience is a tactic used by groups who (A) want to overthrow the government in a violent struggle. (B) want to “frame” their issues in such a way that the public will support their cause. (C) lack the necessary resources and connections to directly lobby the government. (D) both b and c. Answer: (D) both b and c. 45 Interest group members can have direct influence on Supreme Court decisions by (A) contributing money to a justice's reelection campaign. (B) filing a “friend of the court” (amicus curiae) brief. (C) participating in jury selection. (D) attempting to influence the appointment process. Answer: (B) filing a “friend of the court” (amicus curiae) brief. 46 Interest group members whose only participation in the group is paying dues engage in (A) influence peddling. (B) teledemocracy. (C) checkbook participation. (D) active participation. Answer: (C) checkbook participation. 47 Interest groups are (A) organizations that seek to influence government in order to achieve some or all of their goals. (B) clubs that get together mainly for the purposes of social interaction. (C) groups that are singled out by the government as particularly interesting. (D) unlikely to expend their time and resources attempting to influence the government. Answer: (A) organizations that seek to influence government in order to achieve some or all of their goals. 48 The free rider problem is characteristic of issues involving (A) private goods. (B) cheap, imported products.

(C) frequent flier miles to get free plane tickets. (D) public goods. Answer: (D) public goods. 49 When large numbers of people work together to ensure that a public good is actually produced, this is an example of (A) collective action. (B) minimizing material benefits. (C) collateral activity. (D) maximizing material benefits. Answer: (A) collective action. 50 People join interest groups for which three primary reasons? (A) Material benefits, solidary benefits, and tangible rewards (B) Solidary benefits, purposive benefits, and psychological benefits (C) Material benefits, solidary benefits, and purposive benefits (D) Personal reasons, public reasons, and corrupt reasons Answer: (C) Material benefits, solidary benefits, and purposive benefits 51 Students living in the dorms want a game room, so they form an organization: the “University Gamers.” This organization has the explicit aim of contacting university officials and student government representatives to try and persuade them to fund the game room. The “University Gamers” organization is (A) a special interest group. (B) a political party. (C) both of the above. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) a special interest group. 52 The most important characteristic in defining an interest group is (A) a shared physical characteristic. (B) a shared attitude. (C) a federal organization. (D) a closed membership. Answer: (B) a shared attitude.

Chapter 7 1

Most modern democracies have (A) one-party systems. (B) two-party systems. (C) multiparty systems. (D) third-party systems.

Answer: (C) multiparty systems. 2

If you were to design a political system for a representative democracy that would produce a multiparty system with coalition governments, what form of electoral process would you choose? (A) Proportional representation (B) Single-member districts (C) A “first past the post” system (D) A “last past the post” faction system

Answer: (A) Proportional representation 3

_____ is a method of selecting representatives in which one person will win the single position based on obtaining more votes than any other candidate. (A) A single-member district plurality (SMDP) system (B) A merit system (C) A one-party system (D) A parliamentary system

Answer: (A) A single-member district plurality (SMDP) system 4

_____ is a behavioral model of politics based on the assumption that human beings have a psychological need for predictability in their relations with each other. (A) Duverger's Law (B) Game theory (C) Role theory (D) Political theory

Answer: (C) Role theory 5

The _______ is a political system in which the chief executive and the legislature are elected independently. (A) multiparty system (B) presidential system (C) one-party system (D) parliamentary system

Answer: (B) presidential system 6

A political machine

(A) is a political organization. (B) is headed by a “party boss.” (C) is characterized by a reciprocal relationship between voters and officeholders. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 7

All of the following describes a policy-motivated activist, EXCEPT: (A) Their incentives for participating in party activities are primarily purposive and social. (B) They are dedicated to implementing certain principles in public policies (C) They are less willing to compromise their principles than are party professionals (D) they are more willing to compromise their principles than are party professionals

Answer: (D) they are more willing to compromise their principles than are party professionals 8

Party activists whose incentives for participating in party activities are primarily material and social in nature are referred to as (A) the party in the electorate. (B) party professionals. (C) the party in government. (D) the party organization.

Answer: (B) party professionals. 9

The ______ is the component of a political party that is made up of elected and appointed government officeholders who belong to a political party. (A) party in the electorate (B) party organization (C) party in government (D) party professionals

Answer: (C) party in government 10 Which of the following is a defining difference that sets interest groups and political parties apart? (A) Political parties are private organizations. (B) Political parties have known membership lists. (C) Political parties run candidates for office under party labels. (D) Political parties tend to focus on narrower issues. Answer: (C) Political parties run candidates for office under party labels. 11 Political parties are important to democracy because they (A) aggregate citizen interests and help translate them into political action. (B) overcome the problem of factions. (C) require no purposive benefits to prosper.

(D) reduce the need for government accountability. Answer: (A) aggregate citizen interests and help translate them into political action. 12 There are three major divisions of political parties associated with different activities and different people. They are (A) nomination, primary election, and general election. (B) the in-group, the out-group, and the undecided. (C) party in the electorate, party in government, and party organization (D) the electorate, the primary constituency, and the government constituency. Answer: (C) party in the electorate, party in government, and party organization 13 Under a direct primary system, who has the power to decide which candidate runs as the party's nominee in the general election? (A) Rank-and-file voters (B) The party in organization (C) Political patronage appointees (D) The self-centered candidate Answer: (A) Rank-and-file voters 14 Evidence such as the percentage of roll call votes that are “party-line votes” in Congress indicates that the strength of party in government (A) was low in the 1970s, but has been increasing from the 1980s to the present. (B) was very high in the 1960s and 1970s, but has been declining since the 1980s. (C) has usually been about as strong as party voting in the British Parliament. (D) none of the above because there is no way to measure party voting in Congress. Answer: (A) was low in the 1970s, but has been increasing from the 1980s to the present. 15 Three major elements of political parties are (A) the party in the electorate, the party in the government, and the party organization. (B) the party in office, the party organization, and the party in the electorate. (C) the party in government, the party factions, and the party in the electorate. (D) the party in popular opinion, the party factions, and the party government. Answer: (A) the party in the electorate, the party in the government, and the party organization. 16 The 1900s marks a time when partisanship and split-ticket voting by the general public has (A) increased. (B) decreased. (C) held steady. (D) never occurred in the United States. Answer: (B) decreased.

17 _____ remains a significant predictor of vote choice and shapes how voters perceive candidates and issues. (A) Interest group activity (B) Polarization (C) Partisan identification (D) Divided government Answer: (C) Partisan identification 18 Voters who cast votes for the same party's candidates in presidential and congressional races are called (A) the faithless electorate. (B) leaners. (C) independents. (D) straight-ticket voters. Answer: (D) straight-ticket voters. 19 Single-member districts, the electoral college system, and a plurality, winner-take-all system make it hard for ______ to be successful. (A) parliamentary systems (B) democratic systems (C) two-party systems (D) third parties Answer: (D) third parties 20 The first two political parties formed largely as a response to (A) the ratification of the Articles of Confederation. (B) Madison's proposals to amend the Constitution. (C) Alexander Hamilton's economic program. (D) Thomas Jefferson's drive for lower taxes. Answer: (C) Alexander Hamilton's economic program. 21 The means to require party members in public office to promote or carry through on a partisan agenda and punish those who do not toe the party line is known as (A) party discipline. (B) political patronage. (C) party professionals. (D) Duverger's Law. Answer: (A) party discipline. 22 In a _______, the party that controls the majority of legislative seats chooses the chief executive.

(A) proportional representation (B) single-member district plurality system (C) merit system (D) parliamentary system Answer: (D) parliamentary system 23 Evidence such as the percentage of strong partisans and straight-ticket voters indicate that the strength of party in the electorate (A) was low in the 1970s, but increased during the 1980s, 1990s and 2000s. (B) reached the lowest levels in the 1990s. (C) was low in the 1940s and 1990s , and highest in the 1970s. (D) none of these because the strength of party in the electorate has been relatively stable from the 1940s to the present. Answer: (A) was low in the 1970s, but increased during the 1980s, 1990s and 2000s. 24 Because we have only two major parties in the United States, the major parties must (A) be broad alliances of many different interests. (B) be either liberal or conservative. (C) take opposing positions on major domestic and foreign problems. (D) take sharp ideological positions. Answer: (A) be broad alliances of many different interests. 25 The strength of American political parties (A) varies of time. (B) is the same as English parties. (C) has been declining from the 1980s to the 2000s. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) varies of time. 26 Political parties facilitate participation and communication because they (A) simplify the alternatives. (B) stimulate interest in politics when they distribute party propaganda. (C) provide a channel for the peaceful resolution of conflict. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 27 Which of the following is true concerning independents? (A) The number of true independents has increased greatly over the last 40 years. (B) Independents are rapidly becoming a new political party. (C) About two-thirds of independents actually “lean” toward one of the major political parties.

(D) Independents are more conservative than either Republicans or Democrats. Answer: (C) About two-thirds of independents actually “lean” toward one of the major political parties. 28 Third parties in the United States (A) have had little success in winning national office. (B) have sometimes affected who wins the presidency. (C) have sometimes shaped the policies advocated by the major political parties. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 29 Which of the following makes it hard for third parties to be successful in the U.S? (A) Single-member districts (B) The electoral college system (C) A plurality, winner-take-all system (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 30 For the majority of its history, American politics has been characterized by competition between two major parties. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 31 An important function of political parties is (A) to recruit candidates for elective office. (B) to secure lucrative employment for their members as lobbyists. (C) to ensure that “soft money” is not channeled through their state and local offices. (D) to provide cute animals mascots for voters to identify with. Answer: (A) to recruit candidates for elective office. 32 In a “responsible party government” system parties should (A) be guided by the rules of decorum and propriety when debating matters of public policy. (B) have clear and distinct policy positions. (C) not required strict discipline on the part of their members. (D) support “middle of the road” policies. Answer: (B) have clear and distinct policy positions. 33 The “party in the electorate” can best be best described as (A) voters who identify with a party. (B) the celebration by members of a party when their candidate wins.

(C) the grassroots efforts of minor parties to rally support. (D) those who are appointed or elected to office as members of a political party. Answer: (A) voters who identify with a party. 34 A political system in which representatives of one political party hold all or most of the major offices in government is known as a (A) two-party system (B) multiparty system (C) one-party system (D) none of the above Answer: (C) one-party system 35 A political system in which 3 or more political parties effectively compete for political office, and no one party can win control of all is known as a (A) two-party system. (B) multiparty system. (C) one-party system. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) multiparty system. 36 _____ refers to the connection between the electoral system and the number of parties and explains why the single-member plurality system tends to favor a two-party system. (A) Role theory (B) Duverger's Law (C) Parliamentary system (D) Zeno's paradox Answer: (B) Duverger's Law 37 Divided government is a term that describes (A) partisan bickering in Congress, which contributes to “gridlock.” (B) when one party controls the House and the other controls the Senate. (C) different parties controlling the executive and legislative branches. (D) our federalist system. Answer: (C) different parties controlling the executive and legislative branches. 38 Each of the following contribute to our two-party system EXCEPT: (A) single-member districts. (B) winner-take-all electoral system. (C) the financial difficulties faced by minor parties. (D) proportional representation.

Answer: (D) proportional representation. 39 The most important distinction between political parties and interest groups is that (A) parties are large, while interest groups are always small. (B) interest groups seek to lobby the existing government, while parties strive to get their members elected into government. (C) parties seek to influence government, while interest groups do not. (D) interest groups care about issues, while parties do not. Answer: (B) interest groups seek to lobby the existing government, while parties strive to get their members elected into government. 40 The “party in government” can best be described as (A) those who identify with a party. (B) the celebration by members of a party when their candidate wins. (C) the misuse of public funds to wine and dine lobbyists. (D) those who are appointed or elected to office as members of a political party. Answer: (D) those who are appointed or elected to office as members of a political party. 41 A transition from one stable pattern of party support to another is called (A) dealignment. (B) reconstruction. (C) realignment. (D) a paradigm shift. Answer: (C) realignment. 42 Most Americans are dues-paying members of a political party. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False

Chapter 8 1

In the United States, government's authority to control the press is unlimited. (A) True (B) False

Answer: (B) False 2

A ____ is a revelation of information that officials want kept secret. (A) leak (B) scoop (C) public sphere (D) propaganda model

Answer: (A) leak 3

ALL the means used to transmit information to masses of people is known as (A) print media. (B) electronic media. (C) podcasts. (D) mass media.

Answer: (D) mass media. 4

_____ is the tendency to present an unbalanced perspective so that information is conveyed in a way that consistently favors one set of interests over another. (A) Objective journalism (B) Media bias (C) Misinformation (D) Strategic framing

Answer: (B) Media bias 5

The belief that incorrect information is true is called (A) political bias. (B) media bias. (C) misinformation. (D) political bias.

Answer: (C) misinformation. 6

____ is the accounts of timely and specific events. (A) Soft news (B) News (C) Hard news (D) Agenda setting

Answer: (B) News 7

The organizations and journalists that cover the news are known as (A) the public. (B) none of the above. (C) the news media. (D) the gatekeepers.

Answer: (C) the news media. 8

_____ is an approach to journalism that places emphasis on reporting facts rather than on analysis or a partisan point of view. (A) Framing (B) Prior restraint (C) Media bias (D) Objective journalism

Answer: (D) Objective journalism 9

The tendency to favor a political party or ideological point of view is known as (A) political bias. (B) strategic framing. (C) agenda setting. (D) objective journalism.

Answer: (A) political bias. 10 The ____ is the print and electronic media that are partially or wholly devoted to collecting and reporting news in the United States. (A) mass media (B) public sphere (C) press (D) news media Answer: (C) press 11 Media consisting of newspapers, magazines, and books is called the (A) electronic media. (B) mass media. (C) press. (D) print media. Answer: (D) print media. 12 A governmental order to prohibit or censor a news story prior to publication or broadcast is known as

(A) a leak. (B) prior restraint. (C) agenda setting. (D) political bias. Answer: (B) prior restraint. 13 The ______ suggests that because most mainstream media are corporately owned, the media are biased toward corporate and conservative interests. (A) propaganda model (B) mass media (C) gatekeeper theory (D) public sphere theory Answer: (A) propaganda model 14 The ______ is a forum where information on matters important to civic life can be freely accessed and exchanged. (A) open market (B) private market (C) mass media (D) public sphere Answer: (D) public sphere 15 Stories characterized by opinion, human interest, and often entertainment value are known as (A) objective journalism. (B) soft news. (C) hard news. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) soft news. 16 Giving prominence in media stories to who is gaining or losing on a issue is known as (A) political bias. (B) leaking. (C) strategic framing. (D) prior restraint. Answer: (C) strategic framing. 17 Efforts by reporters to hold government officials accountable to the people by asking tough questions and conducting thorough investigations of official conduct reflect (A) the information and education role of the press. (B) the watchdog role of the press.

(C) the propaganda role of the press. (D) the profit-seeker role of the press. Answer: (B) the watchdog role of the press. 18 News stories reporting the latest exploits of the Kardashians or Honey Boo Boo are most accurately characterized as (A) soft news. (B) hard news. (C) op-ed pieces. (D) investigative journalism. Answer: (A) soft news. 19 Stories that focus on factual information about important decisions or events are defined as (A) soft news. (B) hard news. (C) puff pieces. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) hard news. 20 A person or institution that controls access to something is known as (A) a journalist. (B) a Very Important Person (VIP). (C) the “Key Box.” (D) a gatekeeper. Answer: (D) a gatekeeper. 21 An objective and unbiased news media is necessary if a political system is going to uphold the core principles of democracy. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 22 A free press is considered critical to democracy because (A) it is an important “linkage” mechanism connecting citizens and government. (B) it informs and educates citizens about government activities and policies. (C) it helps insure freedom of speech and expression. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 23 Four friends gather to discuss politics. One gets all their political information from newspapers, one gets all their political information from television, one gets all their

information from talk radio, and one gets all their political information from the internet. Who is the most likely to actually have the most comprehensive and factual knowledge about politics? (A) Newspaper boy (B) Internet girl (C) Radio dude (D) Television head Answer: (A) Newspaper boy 24 What is the biggest threat to a free press in the United States? (A) Government censorship (B) Private control of media (C) Antipornography special interests groups (D) All of the above Answer: (B) Private control of media 25 Research consistently shows that the news media has a (A) liberal bias. (B) conservative bias. (C) positive bias. (D) negativity bias. Answer: (D) negativity bias. 26 Lindsey Lohan's new political action group (Occupy Rehab) is the talk of the dorm. It is the lead story on all the news channels, a central topic of talk radio, and front page on all the big newspapers. Everyone in the dorm discussing Occupy Rehab is an example of the media's (A) “spin” factor. (B) agenda-setting power. (C) framing power. (D) liberal bias. Answer: (B) agenda-setting power. 27 The term “mass media” refers to (A) newspaper and television. (B) newspapers, radio, and television. (C) television only. (D) all means by which information is transmitted to the masses of people. Answer: (D) all means by which information is transmitted to the masses of people. 28 A ______ requires citizens to be able to express their opinions and preferences, but also to be knowledgeable and informed.

(A) free press (B) mass media (C) healthy democracy (D) rational choice Answer: (C) healthy democracy 29 The news media sees its primary role as (A) informing and educating the public. (B) providing facts and socializing the public. (C) concealing government agendas. (D) providing information to support their views. Answer: (A) informing and educating the public. 30 About what percentage of voters get their information about elections from television news? (A) 33 percent (B) 51 percent (C) 70 percent (D) 89 percent Answer: (C) 70 percent 31 The burden of judging information for reliability and honesty has shifted (A) toward the individual and away from the gatekeeper. (B) away from the individual and toward the gatekeeper. (C) toward the media and way from the gatekeeper. (D) to government. Answer: (A) toward the individual and away from the gatekeeper. 32 What effect has increases in technology and the proliferation of media sources had on the level of political information and political involvement of the American people, to date? (A) People have become less informed and less involved. (B) People have become more informed and more involved. (C) It is still undetermined what effect this phenomenon has had on the amount of political information and involvement. (D) The people are more informed but less involved. Answer: (C) It is still undetermined what effect this phenomenon has had on the amount of political information and involvement. 33 The mass media promote democratic values in all of the following ways EXCEPT: (A) Providing information and education. (B) Acting as a watchdog and public advocate.

(C) Promoting a partisan political agenda. (D) Directing attention to important matters of public policy. Answer: (C) Promoting a partisan political agenda. 34 Voters are more likely to remember information obtained from which of the following sources? (A) Television news (B) Newspapers (C) Talk radio (D) C-SPAN Answer: (A) Television news 35 The process of selecting the issues or problems that government will pay attention is known as (A) framing. (B) agenda setting. (C) misinformation. (D) leaking. Answer: (B) agenda setting. 36 Which of the following could be considered electronic media? (A) Radio (B) Newspapers (C) Magazine (D) Books Answer: (A) Radio 37 Emphasizing certain aspects of a story to make them more important is defined as (A) agenda setting. (B) leaking. (C) framing. (D) misinformation. Answer: (C) framing. 38 News stories reporting factual information about the passage of legislation or the ratification of treaties are most accurately characterized as (A) soft news. (B) hard news. (C) op-ed pieces. (D) investigative journalism.

Answer: (B) hard news.

Chapter 9 1

Public opinion is most influential with public officials who follow the (A) trustee model of representation. (B) politico model of representation. (C) delegate model of representation. (D) None of the above.

Answer: (C) delegate model of representation. 2

The ________ is the chance , measured in percent, that the results of a survey will fall within the boundaries set by the margin of error. (A) salience (B) intensity (C) confidence level (D) stability

Answer: (C) confidence level 3

A ______ is a group of poll respondents that does not accurately represent the target population and provides inaccurate estimates of the true opinions and attitudes of the target population. (A) biased sample (B) unbiased sample (C) random sample (D) none of the above

Answer: (A) biased sample 4

The term “ideology” refers to (A) the study of political ideas. (B) the prevailing popular opinion regarding an issue. (C) an artificial distinction between the two major parties. (D) a coherent set of attitudes about politics and government.

Answer: (D) a coherent set of attitudes about politics and government. 5

Which of the following approaches represents the most reliable method of estimating public opinion? (A) Straw polls (B) Push polls (C) Internet polls (D) Random sampling

Answer: (D) Random sampling 6

Public opinion is best defined as (A) an individual's opinion about a particular issue.

(B) the sum of all citizens' opinions about a matter of general interest. (C) a threat to democracy. (D) impossible to measure. Answer: (B) the sum of all citizens' opinions about a matter of general interest. 7

Political socialization refers to (A) the deterministic influence of SES in shaping one's political views. (B) the charisma of some candidates for public office. (C) the process by which one develops opinions and attitudes about politics. (D) mind control techniques used by communist and totalitarian regimes.

Answer: (C) the process by which one develops opinions and attitudes about politics. 8

With respect to public opinion, intensity refers to (A) whether the public likes or dislikes an issue. (B) how strongly the public feels about an issue. (C) how lasting the public's opinion is regarding an issue. (D) how many people support an issue.

Answer: (B) how strongly the public feels about an issue. 9

All of the following can potentially undermine the validity of poll EXCEPT: (A) A nonrandom sample. (B) A large sample size. (C) Question wording. (D) The ordering of the questions.

Answer: (B) A large sample size. 10 The beliefs that make up political culture are (A) stable, with low intensity and unclear direction. (B) unstable, with high intensity. (C) stable and enduring. (D) None of the above. Answer: (C) stable and enduring. 11 _______ refers to the attitudes of people with large measures of political influence or expertise. (A) Public opinion (B) Elite opinion (C) Issue public (D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Elite opinion 12 Instrumentation is the process of (A) speech writing. (B) time management. (C) framing public opinion. (D) designing survey questions. Answer: (D) designing survey questions. 13 How strongly people hold the attitudes and beliefs is the _____ of public opinion. (A) stability (B) direction (C) intensity (D) salience Answer: (C) intensity 14 An internet poll on the Fox News website indicates that 83 percent of Americans disapprove of President Obama's job performance. This poll is likely unreliable, however, because (A) the survey is likely to suffer from the problem of systematic bias. (B) the survey is a modern example of a straw poll. (C) only people who visit the Fox News will participate, and they are likely more conservative, on average, than the target population. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 15 In a ______, public officials are to make decisions based on their own expertise and judgment, and not just make decisions based on the wishes and preferences of their constituents. (A) delegate model of representative democracy (B) political culture (C) hyperdemocracy (D) trustee system of democracy Answer: (D) trustee system of democracy 16 Polls based on nonrandom samples are often referred to as (A) biased sample (B) straw polls (C) push polls (D) None of the above Answer: (B) straw polls 17 The element of ______ is the likelihood of changes in the direction of public opinion.

(A) stability (B) ideology (C) confidence level (D) intensity Answer: (A) stability 18 _____ influence/s the political attitudes of non-group members. (A) Confidence level (B) Elite opinion (C) Reference groups (D) None of the above Answer: (C) Reference groups 19 A _____ is a method of selecting a subset of the population in which every person in the target population has an equal chance of being selected. (A) reference group (B) biased sample (C) push poll (D) random sample Answer: (D) random sample 20 _____ is the translation of personal preference into a voluntary action designed to influence public policy. (A) Public opinion (B) Ideology (C) Political participation (D) Political socialization Answer: (C) Political participation 21 The ______ is the amount by which the sample responses are likely to differ from those of the population within very tight boundaries that are know as the confidence level. (A) intensity (B) margin of error (C) salience (D) None of the above Answer: (B) margin of error 22 _____ is the section of the population with a strong interest in a particular issue. (A) An issue public (B) A reference group (C) A biased sample

(D) A ross reference Answer: (A) An issue public 23 A poll finds 52 percent of voters supporting candidate A, and 48 percent supporting candidate B, with a 3 percent margin of error. Given this information, we can say that (A) more voters support candidate A than candidate B. (B) more voters support candidate B than candidate A. (C) Candidate A is much more likely to win the race than Candidate B. (D) the range of opinion makes it difficult to assess who has more support. Answer: (D) the range of opinion makes it difficult to assess who has more support. 24 A poll on tuition finds 82 percent of college students opposed to tuition increases, 70 percent say that tuition cost is one of their most important concerns, and 75 percent feel strongly enough about tuition to register their opinions with university administration. On this issue, public opinion among college students can be described as (A) salient, unstable, low intensity. (B) clear, direction, high intensity, high salience. (C) stable, low intensity, high salience. (D) None of the above. Answer: (B) clear, direction, high intensity, high salience. 25 Which of the following is more likely to produce a reliable measure of public opinion? (A) Straw poll (B) Random sample (C) Nonrandom sample (D) Push poll Answer: (B) Random sample 26 _____ refers to the prominence and visibility of an issue. (A) Intensity (B) Stability (C) Salience (D) Direction Answer: (C) Salience 27 The ____ of public opinion refers to whether public opinion is positive or negative. (A) stability (B) intensity (C) salience (D) direction

Answer: (D) direction 28 Elected officials who view their job as becoming experts on the issues and making decisions that they believe are in the public's best interests regardless of what their constituents believe are called (A) push pollers. (B) logrollers. (C) trustees. (D) delegates. Answer: (C) trustees. 29 Why does government often seem so unresponsive public opinion? (A) Public opinion is uninformed. (B) Public opinion lacks stability and or salience. (C) Public opinion is divided. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 30 There is mounting evidence that mass political attitudes and behaviors are (A) genetically influenced. (B) products of reasoned and rational thought by civic-minded citizens. (C) largely independent of ideology. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) genetically influenced. 31 Rituals such as the pledge of allegiance are an example of what? (A) Public opinion (B) Salience (C) Socioeconomic indoctrination (D) Political socialization Answer: (D) Political socialization 32 What are the four dimensions of public opinion? (A) Direction, stability, salience, intensity (B) Direction, salience, margin of error, sampling frame (C) Sampling frame, stability, salience (D) None of the above Answer: (A) Direction, stability, salience, intensity 33 As part of an election-year survey you are asked: “If you knew Candidate A had donated money to al-Qaeda, would you be more or less likely to vote for her?” This survey is a

(A) a straw poll. (B) a push poll. (C) a panel survey. (D) a benchmark survey. Answer: (B) a push poll. 34 A consistent set of values , attitudes, and beliefs about the appropriate role of government in society is called (A) political culture. (B) ideology. (C) a unifying source. (D) straw poll. Answer: (A) political culture. 35 Major agents of political socialization include (A) labor unions, professional associations, and the media. (B) political parties, interest groups, and the media. (C) family, schools, and peers. (D) reference groups and the media. Answer: (C) family, schools, and peers. 36 Political participation may not be an accurate reflection of the will of the people because (A) not all people participate equally, so some interests are disproportionately represented in the political process. (B) poor people are so much more numerous than rich people that the interests of the wealthy get outvoted. (C) elected officials lie in order to get elected and do not respond to the will of the people once they are in office. (D) an increase in cynicism makes people more likely to vote. Answer: (A) not all people participate equally, so some interests are disproportionately represented in the political process. 37 The size of the margin of error in a random sample is determined by (A) the size of the population from which the sample is taken. (B) the size of the random sample. (C) the number of questions asked in the survey. (D) All of the above. Answer: (B) the size of the random sample. 38 Which of the following would be a random sample in which we could determine the sampling error? (A) People at a shopping mall are chosen at random to be interviewed.

(B) People mail in their opinions on a form in a magazine. (C) We take a sample in which every person in the nation has an equal chance of being selected to be interviewed. (D) All of the above would qualify as random samples. Answer: (C) We take a sample in which every person in the nation has an equal chance of being selected to be interviewed. 39 Polls measuring public opinion (A) are completely useless and inaccurate because a sample of only 2,000 cannot be representative of the nation. (B) are useful and accurate if they are based on a random sample. (C) should be trusted only if conducted by candidates because candidates want the most accurate information. (D) have been highly accurate since the early 1930s. Answer: (B) are useful and accurate if they are based on a random sample. 40 On which of the following is the direction of public opinion clearest? (A) Abortion (B) The Iraq War (C) The direction of public opinion is about equally clear on both of these issues. (D) The direction of public opinion is not clear on either of these issues. Answer: (B) The Iraq War 41 On which of the following issues is public opinion most stable? (A) Abortion (B) The Iraq War (C) Public support for President Obama (D) Public opinion is stable on all of these. Answer: (A) Abortion 42 Democratic government is made aware of public preferences through (A) voting. (B) public opinion polls. (C) circulating petitions. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 43 Translating public opinion into public policy is complicated because (A) public opinion is often based on ignorance rather than knowledge of a issue. (B) public opinion can change quickly.

(C) the process of arriving at policy decisions as well as the decisions themselves must meet public expectations. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 44 The majority of people who participate in politics are (A) less confident that their views will be taken into account by policy makers. (B) older, better educated, and more prosperous. (C) racially and ethnically diverse. (D) less trustful of the government and more moderate. Answer: (B) older, better educated, and more prosperous. 45 Using data based on twin studies, researchers found that some political opinions and beliefs could be attributed to (A) environment. (B) schools. (C) genetics. (D) religion. Answer: (C) genetics. 46 Compared with people in other industrialized democracies, Americans tend to have low levels of political knowledge and information. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 10 1

The process of adjusting the number of House seats among the states based on population shifts Is known as (A) reapportionment. (B) redistricting. (C) gerrymandering. (D) frontloading.

Answer: (A) reapportionment. 2

“Soft money” is campaign money that has channeled to candidates through (A) Political Action Committees (PACs). (B) offshore accounts. (C) savings and loans. (D) party organizations.

Answer: (D) party organizations. 3

The elimination of the electoral college is unlikely because (A) most voters prefer the current system. (B) changing it would require an act of Congress. (C) changing it would require a constitutional amendment. (D) it would violate the parties' right of association.

Answer: (C) changing it would require a constitutional amendment. 4

Parties officially announce their candidates for president in meetings known as (A) national conventions. (B) party caucuses. (C) town meetings. (D) committee hearings.

Answer: (A) national conventions. 5

According to Kessel, the first stage of the presidential nomination process includes (A) the national conventions. (B) the “invisible primary.” (C) mist clearing. (D) initial contests.

Answer: (B) the “invisible primary.” 6

The most common contemporary method of nominating candidates for public office is (A) signature drives. (B) party caucuses. (C) direct primaries.

(D) runoff elections. Answer: (C) direct primaries. 7

Which state is MOST likely to attract a lot of attention from presidential candidates? (A) Texas (B) Nebraska (C) Florida (D) North Dakota

Answer: (C) Florida 8

The “district plan” for reforming the electoral college (A) divides a state's electoral votes in proportion to the popular vote. (B) groups states into regional districts to automatically pool electoral votes. (C) allocates one electoral vote to the presidential candidate who wins a plurality in a congressional district. (D) calls for the direct popular election of the president.

Answer: (C) allocates one electoral vote to the presidential candidate who wins a plurality in a congressional district. 9

______ calls for the racial and ethnic makeup of Congress to reelect that of the nation. (A) Substantive representation (B) Majority-minority districts (C) True representation (D) Descriptive representation

Answer: (D) Descriptive representation 10 What electoral college reform is most likely to result in third parties getting electoral votes? (A) The automatic plan. (B) The district plan (C) The proportional plan (D) Direct election Answer: (C) The proportional plan 11 Which proposed reform of the electoral college will guarantee that the winner of the national popular vote will be elected president? (A) The district plan (B) The proportional plan (C) Direct election (D) All of the above Answer: (C) Direct election

12 Which states have the most voting weight in the electoral college relative to their populations? (A) The largest states (B) The smallest states (C) The states that have average size populations (D) None of the above because states all have equal voting weight in the electoral college Answer: (B) The smallest states 13 The electoral college is (A) the institution that nominates the parties' candidates for president. (B) the method by which we elect our president. (C) both a and b. (D) neither a nor b. Answer: (B) the method by which we elect our president. 14 _____ are the congressional and gubernatorial contests that occur in the middle of a presidential term. (A) Mist-clearing elections (B) Direct primaries (C) Midterm elections (D) None of the above Answer: (C) Midterm elections 15 The “legislative caucus” method of presidential nominations violated the “separation of powers” principle because (A) it delegated presidential nominations to a panel of retired judges. (B) it stipulated that the Speaker of the House would head the executive branch. (C) it allowed the state legislatures to determine the presidential nominees. (D) it gave members of Congress too much influence over presidential elections. Answer: (D) it gave members of Congress too much influence over presidential elections. 16 ______, or perks, are benefits and support services that members of Congress receive in order to help them perform their job. (A) Incumbency advantages (B) Advertising (C) Pork-barrel benefits (D) Perquisites Answer: (D) Perquisites 17 The day in early March, called _____ is when several states hold their primaries. These states choose a significant portion of delegates to the national convention.

(A) Magic Day (B) Super Thursday (C) Super Tuesday (D) Make-it Monday Answer: (C) Super Tuesday 18 Some states hold _____ in which independents—and in some cases voters from other parties—participate in a party's primary. (A) closed primaries (B) open primaries (C) invisible primaries (D) caucuses Answer: (B) open primaries 19 ______ is the process through which political parties winnow down a field of candidates to a single one who will be the party's standard-bearer in the general election. (A) The nomination (B) The general election (C) A runoff election (D) Primary elections Answer: (A) The nomination 20 ______ is a type of election in which candidates from all political parties run in the same primary, and the candidate who receives the majority obtains the office. (A) The Louisiana primary (B) A state presidential primary (C) An open primary (D) Nonpartisan primary Answer: (D) Nonpartisan primary 21 Legislative seats for which there is no incumbent running for reelection are known as (A) vacant seats. (B) magic seats. (C) open seats. (D) none of the above. Answer: (C) open seats. 22 The _____ is a plan to revise the electoral college that would distribute a state's electoral college votes by giving one vote to the candidate who wins a plurality in each House district and two votes to the winner statewide. (A) direct popular election plan

(B) district plan (C) proportional plan (D) none of the above Answer: (B) district plan 23 _____ is a collective decision-making process in which citizens choose an individual to hold and exercise the powers of public office. (A) An election (B) A nomination (C) The proportional plan (D) Reapportionment Answer: (A) An election 24 In _____ the Supreme Court overturned the political question doctrine, holding that legislative apportionment was a justiciable issue that the courts had jurisdiction to hear and decide. (A) Wesberry v. Sanders (B) Colgrove v. Green (C) Mapp v. Ohio (D) Baker v. Carr Answer: (D) Baker v. Carr 25 Which of the following determines the number of electoral votes a state will receive? (A) State law (B) The number of delegates it sends to the national party conventions (C) The size of its representation in Congress (D) The Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) Answer: (C) The size of its representation in Congress 26 The electoral contest in which the largest number of Americans participate is (A) the midterm congressional election. (B) the presidential election. (C) the off-year congressional election. (D) none of the above. Answer: (B) the presidential election. 27 The drawing of district boundaries to benefit one interest and hinder another is known as (A) redistricting. (B) gerrymandering. (C) reapportionment. (D) frontloading.

Answer: (B) gerrymandering. 28 To be elected president, a candidate must receive (A) a plurality of the electoral votes, (more than any other candidate, not necessarily a majority). (B) electoral votes from over half of the states. (C) a majority of electoral votes. (D) a majority of popular votes. Answer: (C) a majority of electoral votes. 29 Members of Congress use their offices to make three kinds of appeals to the constituents. These appeals include: (A) pork-barrel projects, perks, and credit claiming. (B) perks, advertising, and credit claiming. (C) advertising, credit claiming, and position taking. (D) advertising, pork-barrel projects, and perks. Answer: (C) advertising, credit claiming, and position taking. 30 Seats in the U.S. House of Representatives are apportioned to the states on the basis of (A) the proportion of a state's citizens who vote. (B) the number of electoral college votes constitutionally guaranteed a state. (C) changes in state population. (D) changes in the nation's population. Answer: (C) changes in state population. 31 The most widely supported proposal to reform the process to elect the president is (A) the automatic plan. (B) the proportional plan. (C) the district plan. (D) direct popular election. Answer: (D) direct popular election. 32 The proportional plan as a potential reform of the electoral college (A) divides a state's electoral votes in proportion to the popular vote. (B) groups states into regional districts to automatically pool electoral votes. (C) calls for direct popular election of the president. (D) allocates one electoral vote to the presidential candidate who wins a majority in a congressional district. Answer: (A) divides a state's electoral votes in proportion to the popular vote. 33 Specifically, what institution is used to decide who becomes president? (A) The popular vote

(B) The partisan vote (C) Adding the votes from state parties (D) The electoral college Answer: (D) The electoral college 34 ______ has/have decreased the time for candidates to raise money and obtain a nationally recognized name. (A) Frontloading (B) National Party Conventions (C) Caucuses (D) Primaries Answer: (A) Frontloading 35 A state in which independent voters, or even voters from other parties, can participate in a party primary has (A) a closed primary. (B) a blanket primary. (C) a jungle primary. (D) an open primary. Answer: (D) an open primary. 36 In national party caucuses, who make the key decisions regarding candidate selection? (A) Previously elected officials (B) Delegates (C) Rank-and-file members (D) Party bosses Answer: (D) Party bosses 37 _____ remain(s) a significant predictor of vote choice and shape(s) how voters perceive candidates and issues. (A) Interest group activity (B) Polarization (C) Partisan identification (D) Divided Government Answer: (C) Partisan identification 38 What is the big problem with “King Caucus”? (A) Monarchy was not compatible with liberal democracy. (B) James Caucus was not descended from royalty. (C) Thomas Caucus threatened to concentrate too much power in his own hands.

(D) King Caucus threatened to create a “back door” parliamentary system by making the president a creature of Congress. Answer: (D) King Caucus threatened to create a “back door” parliamentary system by making the president a creature of Congress. 39 Pretty much everyone seems to agree Congress is a dysfunctional, partisan mess. Who or what is ultimately to blame for this? (A) Political parties (B) House-Senate differences (C) Voters (D) Special interest groups Answer: (C) Voters 40 Since about 1960, voter turnout in the United States (A) appears to be slowly rising. (B) appears to have declined at least through the 1990s. (C) has held steady. (D) has fluctuated around a stable average. Answer: (D) has fluctuated around a stable average. 41 The period between the election of one president and the first contests to pick up party nominees for the next one is known as (A) mist clearing. (B) the shadow convention. (C) the invisible primary. (D) the incumbent's grace period. Answer: (C) the invisible primary. 42 What method do most states use to choose delegates to the National Democratic and Republican Party conventions? (A) Party caucuses (conventions) in the states (B) Presidential primaries in the states (C) Party leaders in the states (D) Random drawings of party members in the states Answer: (B) Presidential primaries in the states 43 What or who decides how many members of the electoral college are chosen? (A) National party conventions (B) The Federal Elections Campaign Act (FECA) (C) State constitutions (D) State legislatures

Answer: (D) State legislatures 44 The number of electoral votes a state has is (A) determined by state legislatures. (B) determined by Congress. (C) determined by the formula in Article II of the Constitution. (D) equal to the number of representatives the state has in the U.S. Senate and the U.S. House of Representatives. Answer: (D) equal to the number of representatives the state has in the U.S. Senate and the U.S. House of Representatives. 45 What determines how many delegates states send to the national Republican and Democratic conventions? (A) Each state has an equal number of delegates at both conventions. (B) State delegations at the Republican convention are equal in size, but Democrats give “blue states” much bigger delegations. (C) Both parties use population and party loyalty to determine states' delegation size. (D) Both parties use population and how much campaign money has been raised in a state to determine states' delegation size. Answer: (C) Both parties use population and party loyalty to determine states' delegation size. 46 “Balancing the ticket” refers to (A) fashioning a party platform that includes appeals to a broad variety of voters. (B) nominating a presidential candidate who takes balanced, middle-of-the-road positions on the issues. (C) selecting a vice presidential running mate who appeals to different party interests or sets of voters than the presidential nominee. (D) none of the above. Answer: (C) selecting a vice presidential running mate who appeals to different party interests or sets of voters than the presidential nominee. 47 The absolute majority of delegates a candidate needs to secure a party's presidential nomination is called (A) the keynote proportion. (B) the magic number. (C) the roll-call tipping point. (D) the platform faction. Answer: (B) the magic number. 48 In recent elections, about what percentage of delegates to national party conventions were chosen in state presidential primaries? (A) Less than 20 percent (B) 30 to 40 percent

(C) About half (D) More than two-thirds Answer: (D) More than two-thirds 49 The Iowa caucuses and the New Hampshire presidential primary are important because (A) they are first. (B) Democrats and Republicans in Iowa are very representative of voters nationwide. (C) every victorious presidential candidate since 1948 has won the Iowa caucuses and the New Hampshire primary. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) they are first. 50 What happens during the “mist clearing” phase of the presidential nominating process? (A) Weaker candidates drop out (B) Super Tuesday (C) Delegate counts become the major criterion for determining who is ahead (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above 51 What factors are typically used to determine the “winner” of the invisible primary? (A) How many delegates the candidate wins (B) How much publicity the candidate's campaign receives (C) How much money the candidate has raised and standing in the polls (D) The candidate's performance at the debate Answer: (C) How much money the candidate has raised and standing in the polls 52 In _____ the Supreme Court invalidated unequal congressional districts, saying that all legislative districts must contain about equal numbers of people. (A) Baker v. Carr (B) Shaw v. Reno (C) Wesberry v. Sanders (D) Reynolds v. Sims Answer: (C) Wesberry v. Sanders 53 Frontloading refers to (A) states moving their caucuses and primaries to an earlier date in order to influence choice of presidential nominees. (B) electing nation convention delegates at state presidential primaries. (C) the shift in power over the nomination process and professional to amateurs. (D) the ability to successfully fundraise early in the campaign.

Answer: (A) states moving their caucuses and primaries to an earlier date in order to influence choice of presidential nominees. 54 In Polisciland's general election for Congress there are two candidates, a very conservative Republican and a very liberal Democrat. Most voters would prefer a more moderate candidate. What's the most likely reason a more moderate candidate is NOT in the general election? (A) As a general rule, moderates never do well in general elections. (B) Moderates have a harder time winning primary elections. (C) Hard-core partisans are better campaigners. (D) All of the above. Answer: (B) Moderates have a harder time winning primary elections.

Chapter 11 1

Political participation depends heavily on a well-informed citizenry. Do the news media, in your view, perform their informational role as well as they should? What are the strengths and weakness of current approaches to news reporting the United States? How might we improve the performance of news media in this country? What are the respective roles of government, business, and consumers in holding news media accountable for the quality of their reporting? Explain.

Answer: 2

Efforts to stimulate higher voter turnout are known as (A) indirect lobbying. (B) direct lobbying. (C) electioneering. (D) mobilization.

Answer: (D) mobilization. 3

People who feel great trust and support for the political system are said to be (A) quiescent. (B) allegiant. (C) conformist. (D) stooges.

Answer: (B) allegiant. 4

People who feel isolated from the political system suffer from (A) political alienation. (B) political efficacy. (C) political correctness. (D) political ostracism.

Answer: (A) political alienation. 5

All of the following are reasons cited for low voter turnout in the U.S. EXCEPT: (A) The two-party system. (B) Elections are on Tuesdays. (C) Compulsory voting. (D) Registration is too time consuming.

Answer: (C) Compulsory voting. 6

When voters in compulsory voting systems simply check the first name on the ballot for each office they are casting what kind of vote? (A) A strategic vote (B) A mini-max vote (C) A primary vote (D) A ""donkey vote""

Answer: (D) A ""donkey vote"" 7

Countries that require citizens to vote or else face a fine or other legal penalty utilize (A) checkbook voting. (B) compulsory voting. (C) rational choice voting. (D) totalitarian voting.

Answer: (B) compulsory voting. 8

The law that enables citizens to register to vote at public offices (e.g., the DMV) is known as the (A) Federal Election Campaign Act. (B) “Motor Voter” law. (C) voter registration law. (D) Fifteenth Amendment.

Answer: (A) Federal Election Campaign Act. 9

The political scientists of the “Michigan School” of voting behavior found that _____ ______ was the best predictor of vote choice. (A) social class (B) annual income (C) education level (D) party identification

Answer: (D) party identification 10 The sociological perspective of the “Columbia school” suggested that the most important determinant of an individual's vote choice is (A) political socialization. (B) peer pressure. (C) socioeconomic status (SES). (D) party identification. Answer: (C) socioeconomic status (SES). 11 Resources found to be related to higher levels of participation include (A) leisure time. (B) money. (C) civic skills like communication. (D) all of the above. Answer: (D) all of the above. 12 Among the unrealistic assumptions made by the rational choice model of voting behavior is that voters will have high levels of knowledge about

(A) issues. (B) candidate positions. (C) both a & b. (D) neither a nor b. Answer: (C) both a & b. 13 According to the social-psychological (""Michigan School"") model of vote choice, voters decisions are influenced by which of the following attitudes? (A) Candidate image (B) Partisan identification (C) Issue positions (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above 14 Of the many linkages between citizens and government described in your text, which do you think is the most important for the healthy functioning of our democracy, and why? Which of the linkages do you find to be least important, and why? What role does accurate, unbiased information play in keeping citizens connected to their government? What, in your view, can be done to improve the connections between citizens and government? Explain your answer in detail. Answer: 15 Discuss the role of political parties in American politics. In what ways do parties differ from interest groups? Do parties provide an effective means of helping voters make sense of political decisions? What effect does our electoral system have on parties in America? What effect do parties have on the electoral process in America? Answer: 16 Briefly critique the American electoral system. What are some of the major criticisms made against our current system for nominating and electing the president? What problems exist with our system for congressional elections? What potential remedies (or reforms) would be possible for the current system, and what impact would these remedies have for our electoral process? Would reforming the system affect the conduct and outcome of the campaigns? What effect would reform efforts have on the quali Answer: 17 Discuss the state of political participation in the United States. What opportunities do citizens have to participate in and influence government action? What do you think is the most effective way a citizen can make his or her voice heard? Based on the evidence presented in this course do you believe that most Americans actively participate in politics? Why or why not? Be sure to take a broad view of “participation” and consider the many linkages between citizens and government that we have cov Answer: 18 Voter perceptions of the qualities of a candidate are known as (A) candidate charisma. (B) candidate image. (C) prospective evaluations. (D) retrospective evaluations.

Answer: (B) candidate image. 19 Early formal rational choice models tended to conclude that (A) the benefits of voting outweigh the costs. (B) voting is rational for most citizens. (C) one vote often determines the outcome of an election. (D) the costs of voting outweigh the conceivable benefit. Answer: (D) the costs of voting outweigh the conceivable benefit. 20 The social-psychological model of vote choice suggests that an individual's vote depends on many attitudes and characteristics that interact with each other in a (A) ""funnel cake."" (B) ""funnel of socialization."" (C) ""funnel of causality."" (D) ""funnel of heuristics."" Answer: (C) ""funnel of causality."" 21 Voting that is based on an individual's estimation of how well a candidate will perform duties in the future is called (A) retrospective voting. (B) prospective voting. (C) heuristic voting. (D) party-line voting. Answer: (B) prospective voting. 22 An election that brings about major political change over the long term is called (A) a realigning election. (B) a dealigning election. (C) a maintaining election. (D) a deviating election. Answer: (A) a realigning election. 23 Ironically, as the right to vote has been extended to nearly all adult citizens over time, voter turnout among those citizens has (A) increased. (B) stayed the same. (C) decreased. (D) ceased altogether. Answer: (C) decreased. 24 A “heuristic” is

(A) a strategic political maneuver designed to divide one's opposition. (B) a psychological shortcut to aid in decision making. (C) a political prognosticator. (D) a new drug approved by the FDA to provide relief for seasonal allergies. Answer: (B) a psychological shortcut to aid in decision making. 25 The right to vote is known as (A) access to the ballot. (B) popular sovereignty. (C) the franchise. (D) all of the above Answer: (C) the franchise. 26 A family's influence on political socialization (A) generally has a lasting influence on a individual's feeling about politics and political issues. (B) is greatest during the high school years. (C) declines greatly after children learn to read and make up their own minds about politics. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) generally has a lasting influence on a individual's feeling about politics and political issues. 27 In the ____, the electorate became noticeably more partisan. (A) 1960s (B) 1950s (C) 1990s (D) 1970s Answer: (C) 1990s 28 In 2012 less than _____ percent of voters identified themselves with one of the two major parties. (A) 95 (B) 60 (C) 45 (D) 30 Answer: (B) 60 29 A basic problem with the rational choice explanation for voting behavior is that (A) it fails to account for the large number of independents. (B) it leans to heavily on socioeconomic status as a way to calculate costs. (C) many voters do not have enough information about candidates or issues to make rational calculations.

(D) many voters do not consider voting an important civic duty. Answer: (C) many voters do not have enough information about candidates or issues to make rational calculations. 30 For many Americans _______ is/are a quick and easy way to make sense of complicated elections. (A) incumbency (B) party labels (C) guessing (D) advertisements Answer: (B) party labels 31 Party identification, opinions about the candidates, and feelings about the issues of a particular election affect individual voting behaviors according to the (A) social-psychological model. (B) Minnesota model of voting behavior. (C) Columbia voter behavior model. (D) Rational choice model of voting behavior. Answer: (A) social-psychological model. 32 The belief that participating in politics makes a difference is called (A) political allegiance. (B) political salience. (C) psychological framing. (D) political efficacy. Answer: (D) political efficacy. 33 The ______ framework suggests that our attitudes and opinions are products of our environment. (A) socioeconomic (B) psychological (C) social-psychological (D) public opinion Answer: (C) social-psychological 34 Compared to other industrialized democracies, voter turnout in the United States is (A) higher. (B) lower. (C) about the same. (D) none of the above.

Answer: (B) lower. 35 Compared to other industrialized democracies, Americans contact public officials and participate in political campaigns at (A) higher rates. (B) lower rates. (C) about the same rates. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) higher rates. 36 The National Voter Registration Act (the motor voter bill) (A) makes voting compulsory in certain federal elections. (B) requires all citizens to register to vote. (C) requires states to provide registration services when citizens renew their driver's license. (D) all of the above. Answer: (C) requires states to provide registration services when citizens renew their driver's license. 37 Most Americans (A) are largely uninformed or misinformed about government and politics. (B) are surprisingly knowledgeable about political matters. (C) follow elections closely and vote on election days. (D) have a positive view of Washington politics and political debate. Answer: (A) are largely uninformed or misinformed about government and politics. 38 Political socialization refers to (A) the deterministic influence of SES in shaping one's political views. (B) the charisma of some candidates for public office. (C) the process by which one develops opinions and attitudes about politics. (D) mind control techniques used by communist and totalitarian regimes. Answer: (C) the process by which one develops opinions and attitudes about politics. 39 Suffrage is most accurately defined as (A) the right to vote. (B) the right to die. (C) the right to suffer. (D) a woman's right to vote. Answer: (A) the right to vote. 40 The rational choice model considers which factor in predicting vote choice? (A) Candidate image

(B) Gender (C) Party identification (D) Sharing a candidate's views on the issues Answer: (D) Sharing a candidate's views on the issues 41 Voting based on a evaluation of a candidate's past performance in office is known as (A) prospective voting. (B) retrospective voting. (C) merit-based voting. (D) issue-experience voting. Answer: (B) retrospective voting. 42 In recent presidential elections, minority voters have tended to vote for which of the following parties? (A) Republican (B) Democratic (C) Libertarian (D) Green Party Answer: (B) Democratic 43 Which of the following groups is most likely to have the lowest levels of voter turnout? (A) Farmers (B) Government employees (C) College graduates (D) Young people Answer: (D) Young people 44 The trend in voter turnout in presidential elections from the 1950s to present (A) fluctuated greatly from election to election, falling below 50 percent in some and exceeding 65 percent in others. (B) stayed within a band of roughly 10 percentage points around 50 percent to 60 percent. (C) is always greater than 75 percent because in America voting is a civic duty. (D) none of the above because we cannot accurately estimate voter turnout in the U.S. Answer: (B) stayed within a band of roughly 10 percentage points around 50 percent to 60 percent. 45 In the United States, voter turnout is higher in (A) presidential elections. (B) mid-term congressional elections. (C) state and city elections. (D) referendum elections.

Answer: (A) presidential elections. 46 Compared with people in other industrialized democracies, Americans tend to have low levels of political knowledge and information. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 12 1

The Informational Model of congressional organization argues that committees are agents of (A) the chamber floor. (B) the majority party. (C) the minority party. (D) party leaders.

Answer: (A) the chamber floor. 2

Congress can impeach the president and federal judges for (A) treason. (B) bribery. (C) high crimes and misdemeanors. (D) all of the above.

Answer: (D) all of the above. 3

A representative whose philosophy of representation combines elements of all of Edmund Burke's representational styles is best described as a (A) delegate. (B) politico. (C) trustee. (D) maverick.

Answer: (B) politico. 4

A representative who makes legislative decisions based on the interests and views of his or her constituents, regardless of personal preferences is said to be a (A) delegate. (B) politico. (C) trustee. (D) maverick.

Answer: (A) delegate. 5

A representative who uses his or her own judgment to make decisions promoting the best interests of the nation as a whole is said to be a (A) delegate. (B) politico. (C) trustee. (D) maverick.

Answer: (C) trustee. 6

Representation that takes the form of members of Congress ensuring that their district gets a share of federal benefits is best described as

(A) policy representation. (B) allocation representation. (C) service representation. (D) symbolic responsiveness. Answer: (B) allocation representation. 7

The people living within a Congress member's House district who can be counted on for their votes are referred to by Fenno as the (A) reelection constituency. (B) geographical constituency. (C) primary constituency. (D) personal constituency.

Answer: (A) reelection constituency. 8

The way a member of Congress behaves, explains legislative actions, and presents himself or herself when visiting the district is known as (A) home cooking. (B) branding. (C) home style. (D) electioneering.

Answer: (C) home style. 9

Government expenditures and programs that concentrate benefits in specific geographical areas are known as (A) symbolic benefits. (B) partisan benefits. (C) casework. (D) distributive benefits.

Answer: (D) distributive benefits. 10 When members of Congress help constituents deal with problems they are having with administrative agencies, they are engaging in (A) ""pork-barrel"" politics. (B) casework. (C) gerrymandering. (D) symbolic responsiveness. Answer: (B) casework. 11 The relationship between elected officials and the people who elected them, and the extent to which officials are responsive to the people, is known as (A) representation.

(B) republicanism. (C) police patrol oversight. (D) fire alarm oversight. Answer: (A) representation. 12 The most powerful person in the Senate is (A) the president pro tempore. (B) the vice president of the United States. (C) The majority party leader. (D) the Speaker. Answer: (C) The majority party leader. 13 The benefit that allows members of Congress to use their signatures instead of buying stamps to send mail to their constituents is know as (A) the postal perk. (B) the signature post. (C) the John Hancock mailing privilege. (D) the franking privilege. Answer: (D) the franking privilege. 14 What can we say about the party ratio on committees in the House? (A) The party ratio on these committees is very close to the ratio in the chamber. (B) The majority party takes more than its fair share of seats on the top committees. (C) The Republicans assign seats on these committees based on merit and competence. (D) When the Republicans are the majority party, they give the Democratic minority their fair share of seats on these committees. Answer: (B) The majority party takes more than its fair share of seats on the top committees. 15 Where are the “top” or most powerful and prestigious committees in the House? (A) Intelligence, Armed Services, Banking, and Appropriations (B) Appropriations, Rules, and Ways & Means (C) Finance, Presidential Oversight, International Relations, and Ways & Means (D) None of the above because House committees are all equally important Answer: (B) Appropriations, Rules, and Ways & Means 16 In the Senate, a “hold” is (A) a request by a Senator to be notified before a bill is scheduled for a floor vote. (B) a threat to filibuster. (C) sometimes used to prevent a presidential nomination from being voted on. (D) all of the above.

Answer: (D) all of the above. 17 Expulsion of a member of Congress requires (A) a two-thirds vote. (B) a majority vote. (C) a unanimous vote of the Ethics Committee. (D) a presidential proclamation. Answer: (A) a two-thirds vote. 18 The benefits and support activities that members of Congress receive in order to help them perform their job are known as (A) earmarks. (B) pork. (C) perquisites (or ""perks""). (D) swag. Answer: (C) perquisites (or ""perks""). 19 David Rohde's ""conditional party government"" theory suggests that the power of party leaders is conditional on (A) bipartisan compromise. (B) party unity and cohesion. (C) broad ideological diversity within the party. (D) strategic use of House rules by the Speaker. Answer: (B) party unity and cohesion. 20 The conditions under which a bill will be considered in the Senate may be negotiated by party leaders in what are called (A) summit meetings. (B) cloture agreements. (C) unanimous consent agreements. (D) omnibus measures. Answer: (C) unanimous consent agreements. 21 A vote of at least 60 senators to end a filibuster is known as (A) a hold. (B) cloture. (C) adjournment. (D) recess. Answer: (B) cloture. 22 When a single senator delays the business of the chamber by making long speeches and refusing to yield the floor, that senator is engaging in

(A) a hold. (B) cloture. (C) a closed rule. (D) a filibuster. Answer: (D) a filibuster. 23 Bills that may be amended when they are under consideration on the House floor have been brought to the floor under (A) an open rule. (B) a special rule. (C) a closed rule. (D) a structured rule. Answer: (A) an open rule. 24 A rule that prohibits amending a bill when it is on the floor of Congress for consideration is called (A) an open rule. (B) a special rule. (C) a closed rule. (D) a structured rule. Answer: (C) a closed rule. 25 A committee can be reluctantly forced to report a bill for consideration on the floor of the House through the use of a (A) cloture vote. (B) discharge petition. (C) unanimous consent agreement. (D) polite request from the Speaker. Answer: (B) discharge petition. 26 Nongermane amendments that are added to popular bills in hopes that the desirability of the proposed legislation will help the amendment pass are known as (A) riders. (B) omnibus measures. (C) continuing resolutions. (D) sunset provisions. Answer: (A) riders. 27 Which of the following would be considered a ""prestige"" committee? (A) Interior (B) Agriculture

(C) Education & Labor (D) Ways & Means Answer: (D) Ways & Means 28 Permanent committees in Congress that are responsible for legislation in a specific policy area are called (A) standing committees. (B) select committees. (C) prestige committees. (D) conference committees. Answer: (A) standing committees. 29 The person who presides over the House of Representatives is called the (A) majority leader. (B) Speaker of the House. (C) President of the House. (D) Whip. Answer: (B) Speaker of the House. 30 The assistants to the majority and minority leaders of both the House and Senate, who seek to encourage party unity and cohesion, are referred to as (A) aides. (B) watchdogs. (C) whips. (D) caporegimes. Answer: (C) whips. 31 The only circumstance in which the president of the Senate is allowed to vote is (A) when there is a tie vote. (B) when there is a filibuster. (C) when a declaration of war has been proposed. (D) when the Senate majority leader requests it. Answer: (A) when there is a tie vote. 32 A legislature consisting of two chambers is best described as (A) unicameral. (B) tricameral. (C) adversarial. (D) bicameral. Answer: (D) bicameral.

33 When members of Congress send free mail home to their constituents, they are exercising the (A) postal privilege. (B) franking privilege. (C) bulk mail prerogative. (D) fringe benefit prerogative. Answer: (B) franking privilege. 34 To invoke cloture requires (A) 218 signatures in the House and 51 signatures in the Senate. (B) votes from two-thirds of House members. (C) votes from two-thirds of Senators. (D) votes from 60 Senators. Answer: (D) votes from 60 Senators. 35 A filibuster is (A) an attempt of one or a few senators to talk a bill to death. (B) an attempt of one or a few House members to talk a bill to death. (C) an effort to push legislation through Congress quickly. (D) how interest groups influence legislation. Answer: (A) an attempt of one or a few senators to talk a bill to death. 36 The House Rules Committee (A) regulates the flow of bills from other standing committees to the floor. (B) frequently uses its rule making power to frustrate the policy goals and objectives of the Speaker. (C) has the same power and functions of the Senate Rules Committee. (D) all of the above. Answer: (A) regulates the flow of bills from other standing committees to the floor. 37 Which of the following is true concerning the length of time members of Congress have served? (A) The average length of service has increased from about 8-10 years in the 1960s to about 25-30 years by the 1990s. (B) The average length of service has remained at about 8-10 years throughout the period since 1953. (C) The average length of service has declined from a high of 25-30 years in the 1950s to about 4-6 in recent years. (D) We don't know because there is no information available on how long members of Congress serve. Answer: (B) The average length of service has remained at about 8-10 years throughout the period since 1953.

38 According to your textbook, the proposal to limit the terms of members of Congress (A) would make Congress much more responsive and effective. (B) is justified because we have limits on presidential terms. (C) Both a and b are correct. (D) is a bad idea because it would deprive Congress of experience and expertise. Answer: (D) is a bad idea because it would deprive Congress of experience and expertise. 39 The most important reason incumbents have an advantage over challengers in congressional elections is because incumbents (A) do constituency service. (B) have the “perks” of office to advertise. (C) usually face underfinanced, politically inexperienced challengers. (D) receive more money form PACs. Answer: (C) usually face underfinanced, politically inexperienced challengers. 40 In which Supreme Court case did the Supreme Court invalidate unequal legislative districts for the U.S. House? (A) Baker v. Carr (B) Reynolds v Sims (C) Wesberry v. Sanders (D) All of these Answer: (C) Wesberry v. Sanders 41 The principal of “one person, one vote” as used by the Supreme Court in the reapportionment decisions means that (A) each voter may cast only one vote in a election. (B) each legislative district must contain approximately the same number of people. (C) proxy voting where one person casts a vote for another person is permissible as long as both are qualified voters. (D) all of the above have been included in the principle in different court cases. Answer: (B) each legislative district must contain approximately the same number of people. 42 Reciprocity, or “logrolling,” is the dominant behavioral norm under the ______ model of congressional organization. (A) informational (B) distributive (C) partisan (D) proportional Answer: (B) distributive 43 Expressions such as “unelected representatives” and “member enterprises” have been used to describe which of the following units of congressional organization?

(A) Staff organizations (B) Party whips (C) Party leaders (D) Campaign workers Answer: (A) Staff organizations 44 The real leader of the Senate in terms of power is (A) the president pro tempore. (B) the majority whip. (C) the majority leader. (D) the chair of the appropriations committee. Answer: (C) the majority leader. 45 Getting money added to the budget for a post office back home is an example of (A) a “pork barrel” project. (B) casework. (C) position taking. (D) gerrymandering. Answer: (A) a “pork barrel” project. 46 Senators have a ___ year term. House members have a ___ year term. (A) two, two (B) six, two (C) four, eight (D) four, four Answer: (B) six, two 47 A bicameral legislature serves two purposes: (A) to broaden representation and cause greater efficiency in legislative matters. (B) to broaden representation and cause greater deliberation of legislative matters. (C) to reduce representation and cause greater deliberation of legislative matters. (D) to reduce representation and cause greater efficiency in legislative matters. Answer: (B) to broaden representation and cause greater deliberation of legislative matters. 48 The franking privilege (A) allows members of Congress to mail letters using their signature instead of a postage stamp. (B) allows members of Congress to decide which special interests are allowed to testify in committee hearings. (C) allows members of Congress to edit their comments in the Congressional Record. (D) allows members to speak their minds in closed sessions.

Answer: (A) allows members of Congress to mail letters using their signature instead of a postage stamp. 49 How many members of Congress are there, House of Representatives and Senate combined? (A) 270 (B) 440 (C) 680 (D) 535 Answer: (D) 535 50 Generally, members of Congress develop home styles that fit (A) their constituency. (B) their ideology. (C) their party's preferences. (D) their personal preferences. Answer: (A) their constituency. 51 To keep members insulated from popular influence, longer terms in office were instituted for (A) the Senate. (B) the House of Representatives. (C) district court judges. (D) state legislators. Answer: (A) the Senate. 52 According to the evidence presented in class, how could congressional terms be limited? (A) The president can limit congressional terms with an executive order. (B) Any state legislature has the authority to place limits on the terms of the U.S. House members and Senators from the state. (C) State legislatures can adopt term limits only with approval of both houses of Congress. (D) Limiting congressional terms would probably require a constitutional amendment. Answer: (D) Limiting congressional terms would probably require a constitutional amendment. 53 Which the following statements correctly describes the success of incumbents in congressional elections? (A) Incumbents in both House and Senate are about equally likely to be reelected. (B) Incumbents in the Senate are more likely to be reelected than incumbents in the House. (C) Incumbents in the House are more likely to be reelected that incumbents in the Senate. (D) Incumbency is not an advantage in congressional elections. Answer: (C) Incumbents in the House are more likely to be reelected that incumbents in the Senate. 54 What are the chances of a presidential veto being overridden by Congress?

(A) Almost always overridden (more than 80 percent of the time) (B) Overridden about half the time (C) Seldom overridden (fewer than 10 percent) (D) Good presidents have fewer vetoes overridden than bad presidents, so the chances depend on whether the president is good or bad. Answer: (C) Seldom overridden (fewer than 10 percent) 55 How often are discharge petitions successful in the House? (A) They succeed only when the original sponsor of the bill is the first to sign the discharge petition. (B) They are rarely successful. (C) They are successful most of the time. (D) They succeed when the president supports the effort. Answer: (B) They are rarely successful. 56 If a House committee refuses to report a bill, what is the procedure to bring the bill to the floor for a vote? (A) Get 218 signatures on a discharge petition. (B) Attach the bill as an amendment to another unrelated bill that is being voted on. (C) Filibuster other bills that the committee reports until they report the pigeonholed bill. (D) There is no way to pull a bill out of committee without its permission. Answer: (A) Get 218 signatures on a discharge petition. 57 The practice of selecting congressional committee chairs based on seniority meant that the chair of a congressional committee was (A) the member of the majority party with the longest continuous service on the committee. (B) elected by the committee members. (C) the oldest member on the committee. (D) the person on the committee who has the most seniority in Congress. Answer: (A) the member of the majority party with the longest continuous service on the committee. 58 According to class discussion, the legislative process in Congress is best described as one governed by (A) presidential persuasion. (B) operational efficiency. (C) majority rule. (D) minorities' consent. Answer: (D) minorities' consent. 59 Who determines what committee a Republican House member serves on? (A) The House Parliamentarian (B) The president

(C) The chair of the committee (D) A committee of House Republicans Answer: (D) A committee of House Republicans 60 The party ratio refers to (A) the ratio of majority to minority party members on the standing committees. (B) the ratio of majority party bills that pass Congress. (C) the proportion of members of the president's party in Congress. (D) all of the above are definitions of the party ratio. Answer: (A) the ratio of majority to minority party members on the standing committees. 61 What is the most common thing that happens after a bill is introduced and assigned to a committee? (A) The committee holds public hearings. (B) The committee amends the bill in order to get it passed. (C) The Supreme Court reviews it to determine if it is constitutional. (D) Inaction. Answer: (D) Inaction. 62 The most important determinant of the fate of legislative proposals in Congress is (A) what the standing committee does. (B) what the majority of the members of Congress desire. (C) whether the president supports it or not. (D) what the majority leader and minority agree to. Answer: (A) what the standing committee does. 63 Members of the House are more likely than members of the Senate to be (A) policy specialists. (B) policy generalists. (C) authors of nongermane amendments. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) policy specialists. 64 If the vice presidency becomes vacant, who must approve the president's nominee to fill the vacancy? (A) The House (B) The Senate (C) Both houses of Congress (D) The voters in a special election Answer: (C) Both houses of Congress

65 What sort of representative is more likely to vote for the pork-barrel project? (A) A trustee (B) A delegate (C) A partisan (D) None of the above Answer: (B) A delegate 66 Which entity is charged with resolving differences between House and Senate versions of a proposal? (A) The differences committee (B) The elite committee (C) The joint conference committee (D) The standing committee Answer: (C) The joint conference committee 67 A bill that comes to the House floor with a closed rule (A) cannot be amended. (B) can be amended only by members of the majority party. (C) may have only germane amendments. (D) can be amended only if the president requests it. Answer: (A) cannot be amended. 68 About how many people live in each of the 435 U.S. House districts? (A) Less than 300,000 (B) Over 600,000 (C) Over a million (D) Difficult to determine since the sizes of House districts vary widely from state to state Answer: (B) Over 600,000 69 Americans tend to like Congress, even if they dislike their own representative. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False

Chapter 13 1

Presidents who impose clear lines of authority within the White House and delegate important responsibilities to a chief of staff utilize which of the following organizational models? (A) Partisan model (B) Spokes-of-the-wheel model (C) Hierarchical model (D) Distributive model

Answer: (C) Hierarchical model 2

Presidential submission of a bill to Congress is a means of (A) significantly expanding the powers of the president beyond what was designed by the framers. (B) vice president. (C) circumventing the will of the majority. (D) setting the legislative agenda.

Answer: (D) setting the legislative agenda. 3

Which of the following takes the legal form of a contract between two nations, but does not require two-thirds approval from the Senate? (A) Treaties (B) Diplomatic agreements (C) Executive agreements (D) Executive arrangements

Answer: (C) Executive agreements 4

The argument that the oath of office requires a president to preserve the Constitution, even if it means taking unconstitutional actions to do so, is (A) the oath paradox view of presidential power. (B) the restrictive view of presidential power. (C) the stewardship doctrine. (D) the prerogative view of presidential power.

Answer: (D) the prerogative view of presidential power. 5

The president has more autonomy in the exercise of the power as ______ than the exercise of other executive powers. (A) chief executive (B) chief diplomat (C) commander-in-chief (D) chief of state

Answer: (C) commander-in-chief 6

At the Constitutional Convention, supporters of the strong-executive model were helped by

(A) the examples of strong governors in New York and Massachusetts. (B) the assumption that George Washington would be the first president. (C) the historical legacy of legislative limitations on the monarchy. (D) all of these choices. Answer: (A) the examples of strong governors in New York and Massachusetts. 7

The presidential cabinet includes (A) the Speaker of the House and the president pro tempore of the Senate. (B) the heads of the executive agencies. (C) two representatives of the Supreme Court chosen by the chief justice. (D) all of these choices.

Answer: (B) the heads of the executive agencies. 8

Under the Articles of Confederation, the executive branch of government (A) did not exist. (B) was controlled by Congress. (C) was controlled by the judiciary. (D) had broad powers.

Answer: (A) did not exist. 9

In his formal constitutional role as the head of government, responsible for overseeing the executive branch and administering the laws of the land, the president is regarded as (A) chief of state. (B) chief executive. (C) commander-in-chief. (D) chief diplomat.

Answer: (B) chief executive. 10 The concept of positive government means that (A) government is expected to play a major role in dealing with the problems of society. (B) government is expected to avoid negative issues. (C) the president is expected to avoid making negative comments. (D) power is expected to shift from the legislature branch to the executive branch. Answer: (A) government is expected to play a major role in dealing with the problems of society. 11 Presidential scholar George Edwards found that president's speeches ______ moved public opinion. (A) never (B) seldom (C) often

(D) significantly Answer: (B) seldom 12 How does party polarization affect presidential success in winning roll call votes in Congress? (A) Party polarization has made it more difficult to get votes from opposition party members. (B) In the House, party polarization increases the success rates of majority party presidents and decreases the success rates of minority party presidents. (C) In the Senate, party polarization decreases the success rates of both majority and minority party presidents. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 13 Presidents who prefer their advisers to report directly to the president, without using a chief of staff as an intermediary, utilize which of the following organizational models? (A) Hierarchical model (B) Distributive model (C) Partisan model (D) Spokes-of-the-wheel model Answer: (D) Spokes-of-the-wheel model 14 The agency within the Executive Office of the President that is responsible for assisting the president in his budget recommendations is the (A) Congressional Budget Office. (B) General Accounting Office. (C) Council of Economic Advisers. (D) Office of Management and Budget. Answer: (D) Office of Management and Budget. 15 What perspective on presidential power did Lincoln articulate to justify taking actions that were otherwise unconstitutional, but that he believed were necessary to preserve the Constitution? (A) Stewardship doctrine (B) Restrictive view (C) Prerogative view (D) Imperial presidency Answer: (C) Prerogative view 16 Which of the following perspectives on presidential power suggests that the president can take any action the nation needs as long as it is not explicitly prohibited by the Constitution? (A) Stewardship doctrine (B) Restrictive view

(C) Prerogative view (D) Imperial presidency Answer: (A) Stewardship doctrine 17 Which of the following perspectives on presidential power suggests that the president can only exercise powers that are explicitly listed in the Constitution? (A) Stewardship doctrine (B) Restrictive view (C) Prerogative view (D) Imperial presidency Answer: (B) Restrictive view 18 A president whose power is significant and independent from the Congress reflects which of the following models of the presidency? (A) Weak executive model (B) Strict constructionist model (C) Strong executive model (D) Bureaucratic politics model Answer: (C) Strong executive model 19 A person or group that has administrative and supervisory responsibilities in an organization or government is called (A) an executive. (B) a legislator. (C) a judge. (D) a bureaucrat. Answer: (A) an executive. 20 How does party control of Congress affect presidential success? (A) Presidents whose party holds a majority in Congress are more likely to get their policies enacted into law. (B) Party control of Congress has only a small affect on presidential success. (C) If the president is bipartisan, he will be more successful if Congress is controlled by the opposition party. (D) If the president is highly popular, party control of Congress makes no difference in his success. Answer: (A) Presidents whose party holds a majority in Congress are more likely to get their policies enacted into law. 21 Richard Neustadt argued that in order to achieve their goals presidents need (A) the power to persuade. (B) the line-item veto. (C) to “go public.”

(D) conditional party government. Answer: (A) the power to persuade. 22 In his symbolic role as the ceremonial leader of the American people, the president is regarded as the (A) chief of state. (B) chief executive. (C) commander-in-chief. (D) chief legislator. Answer: (A) chief of state. 23 Presidential directives that have the same weight as law but are not voted on by Congress are called (A) executive agreements. (B) executive privilege. (C) executive orders. (D) impoundment. Answer: (C) executive orders. 24 When parties ideologically homogeneous and their policy positions move farther apart, this situation is known as (A) party realignment. (B) party polarization. (C) party dealignment. (D) responsible party government. Answer: (B) party polarization. 25 If the president takes no action within 10 days of a bill being passed by Congress, and Congress has adjourned, the bill (A) has been ""pocket-vetoed."" (B) becomes a law. (C) remains in limbo until Congress readjourns, at which point the 10-day clock resumes. (D) has been vetoed. Answer: (A) has been ""pocket-vetoed."" 26 Presidents who make direct appeals to the public in order to put pressure on Congress to support presidential initiatives are engaging in which of the following strategies? (A) Direct lobbying (B) Logrolling (C) Going public (D) Campaigning

Answer: (C) Going public 27 Which of the following presidential responsibilities does NOT have an explicit foundation in the Constitution? (A) Chief executive (B) Chief of state (C) Chief diplomat (D) Party leader Answer: (D) Party leader 28 Agreements between the United States and other nations, negotiated by the president, that have the same weight as a treaty but do not require Senate approval are called (A) executive orders. (B) executive agreements. (C) treaties. (D) continuing resolutions. Answer: (B) executive agreements. 29 The 1973 law that attempted to limit the power of the executive to send troops into combat without congressional approval is the (A) War Powers Act. (B) Commander-in-Chief Reform Act. (C) Gulf of Tonkin Resolution. (D) Patriot Act. Answer: (A) War Powers Act. 30 The threat of a veto is an important tool for presidential persuasion. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 31 Executive orders, signing statements, executive agreements, and national security directives are all examples of (A) shared powers. (B) enumerated powers. (C) regulatory powers. (D) unilateral powers. Answer: (D) unilateral powers. 32 Pronouncements of how the president intends to interpret and apply a law when he signs a bill are called (A) signing statements.

(B) executive orders. (C) executive agreements. (D) letters-of-intent. Answer: (A) signing statements. 33 The period in which presidents enjoy their highest approval ratings is (A) the final year of their term. (B) the first-year ""honeymoon"" period. (C) their second term in office. (D) the midterm elections. Answer: (B) the first-year ""honeymoon"" period. 34 According to Neustadt, which of the following influences a president's ability to persuade? (A) Professional reputation (qualifications) (B) Public prestige (C) Both a and b (D) None of the above Answer: (C) Both a and b 35 Compared to the prime minister in a parliamentary democracy, the president’s legislative preferences (A) are approved more often. (B) are approved less often. (C) are considered in many and not just a few policy areas. (D) are considered only in a handful of policy areas. Answer: (B) are approved less often. 36 Much of the time, the threat of a veto provides the president with _______ leverage in Congress. (A) little (B) no (C) considerable (D) unchecked Answer: (C) considerable 37 The cabinet is more a product of ____ than a constitutional design. (A) presidential failure (B) bureaucratic growth (C) congressional failure (D) historical accident

Answer: (D) historical accident 38 The notion that the president should do anything and everything to address the needs of the nation except that which is specifically prohibited by the Constitution is (A) the “restrictive view” of presidential power. (B) consistent with the stewardship doctrine. (C) the “prerogative view” of presidential power. (D) the “bargaining view” of presidential power. Answer: (B) consistent with the stewardship doctrine. 39 Which of the following is a formal power of the presidency (A) Partisan support (B) Prestige (C) Professional reputation (D) The veto Answer: (D) The veto 40 How frequently does the Constitution mandate that the president shall advise Congress on the state of the union? (A) Annually (B) The first Tuesday in November every four years (C) At least once every four years (D) From ""time to time"" Answer: (D) From ""time to time"" 41 Presidential approval ratings almost always __________ over time. (A) increase (B) fluctuate wildly (C) decrease (D) remain relatively stable Answer: (C) decrease 42 Frequent use of the veto is a sign of presidential strength. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False

Chapter 14 1

All of the following are problems identified within the principal-agent model EXCEPT: (A) Transparency. (B) Adverse selection. (C) Multiple principals. (D) Moral hazard.

Answer: (A) Transparency. 2

The 15 largest and most influential bureaucratic institutions are known as (A) independent regulatory boards and commissions. (B) government corporations. (C) cabinet departments. (D) independent agencies.

Answer: (C) cabinet departments. 3

When agencies base their hiring and promotion decisions on job-specific skills rather than political connections, they are promoting which of the following values? (A) Executive leadership (B) Responsiveness (C) Representativeness (D) Neutral competence

Answer: (D) Neutral competence 4

Bureaucratic appointments made based on technical expertise and skills rather than political allegiances are an example of (A) the spoils system. (B) the merit system. (C) patronage. (D) nepotism.

Answer: (B) the merit system. 5

Bureaucratic appointments made based on political connections rather than skills and qualifications exemplify which of the following? (A) The spoils system (B) The civil service system (C) The merit system (D) Neutral competence

Answer: (A) The spoils system 6

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) exemplify which of the following characteristics of bureaucracy? (A) Division of labor

(B) Professionalization (C) Formal rules (D) Hierarchy Answer: (C) Formal rules 7

The division of labor characteristic in all bureaucracies helps to promote (A) narrow-minded ignorance. (B) specialization and expertise. (C) transparency. (D) the ""politics-administration dichotomy.""

Answer: (B) specialization and expertise. 8

The pejorative phrase ""red tape"" relates to which of the following characteristics of bureaucracy? (A) Division of labor (B) Formal rules (C) Hierarchy (D) Maintenance of files and records

Answer: (D) Maintenance of files and records 9

Executive branch agencies tasked with the responsibility of implementing public policy are collectively known as (A) the bureaucracy. (B) the Executive Office of the President. (C) the Congressional Budget Office. (D) the General Accounting Office.

Answer: (A) the bureaucracy. 10 A congressional hearing called in response to evidence of bureaucratic wrongdoing is an example of (A) police patrol oversight. (B) adjudication. (C) barn door oversight. (D) fire alarm oversight. Answer: (D) fire alarm oversight. 11 Systematically monitoring bureaucracy to ensure that it is acting in accordance with democratically expressed preferences is (A) fire alarm oversight. (B) Police patrol oversight. (C) adjudication.

(D) none of the above. Answer: (B) Police patrol oversight. 12 An agency that is seeking to ascertain whether an organization violated a rule is engaged in the process of (A) lawmaking. (B) adjudication. (C) legislating. (D) rulemaking. Answer: (B) adjudication. 13 Which of the following is NOT required in rulemaking by government bureaucracies? (A) Public notice of rules (B) Provide an opportunity for interested parties to comment on the rules (C) Publish the rules in the Federal Register (D) Hold congressional hearings on the rules Answer: (D) Hold congressional hearings on the rules 14 The president's most influential advisors and agencies comprise the (A) Executive Office of the President (EOP). (B) Office of Management and Budget (OMB). (C) White House Office. (D) State Department. Answer: (A) Executive Office of the President (EOP). 15 Federally established businesses that are at least partly self-supporting are known as (A) independent agencies. (B) government corporations. (C) regulatory agencies. (D) cabinet departments. Answer: (B) government corporations. 16 When a president delays agency expenditures that have been approved by Congress, he is exercising a limited executive power known as (A) the pocket veto. (B) the veto. (C) sequestration. (D) impoundment. Answer: (D) impoundment.

17 A ___________________ is a measure that gives Congress the ability to reject an action or decision of the bureaucracy. (A) legislative mandate (B) legislative veto (C) rule (D) cloture vote Answer: (B) legislative veto 18 Laws requiring agency meetings be open to the public are known as (A) Sunshine laws. (B) sunset provisions. (C) open secrets laws. (D) collective action laws. Answer: (A) Sunshine laws. 19 When a regulatory agency seems to identify more closely with the industry it is regulating than with the interests of the people, it is an example of (A) iron triangles. (B) policy subsystems. (C) agency capture. (D) overhead democracy. Answer: (C) agency capture. 20 Reactive oversight of the bureaucracy, in which elected officials only check up on agency performance when there is evidence of wrongdoing, is known as (A) fire alarm oversight. (B) Police patrol oversight. (C) ambulance chaser oversight. (D) the public advocate role. Answer: (A) fire alarm oversight. 21 The active oversight of the bureaucracy by elected officials to make sure that agency performance is meeting public expectations is known as (A) fire alarm oversight. (B) Police patrol oversight. (C) ambulance chaser oversight. (D) the public advocate role. Answer: (B) Police patrol oversight. 22 When elected officials, who are chosen by the people, conduct bureaucratic oversight, they are engaging in

(A) overhead democracy. (B) stealth democracy. (C) interbranch meddling. (D) pluralism. Answer: (A) overhead democracy. 23 If a bureaucratic agency decides to adopt a policy approach that is merely acceptable, rather than optimal, then it is (A) adopting a ""mini-max"" strategy. (B) satisficing. (C) maximizing utility. (D) minimizing utility. Answer: (B) satisficing. 24 Herbert Simon's theory that humans are not ""utility maximizers"" is known as (A) rational choice . (B) the collective action problem. (C) game theory. (D) bounded rationality. Answer: (D) bounded rationality. 25 The term used to refer to the interdependent relationship among the bureaucracy, interest groups, and congressional committees is (A) clientele groups. (B) issue networks. (C) iron triangles. (D) political action committees (PACs). Answer: (C) iron triangles. 26 The process of determining whether a law or rule passed by the bureaucracy has been broken is called (A) rulemaking. (B) adjudication. (C) judicial review. (D) fire alarm oversight. Answer: (B) adjudication. 27 Bureaucratic statements that carry the force of law are known as (A) laws. (B) recommendations. (C) verdicts.

(D) rules. Answer: (D) rules. 28 The principal-agent model is (A) based on the notion that the primary role of the bureaucracy is to implement the mandates issued to it by its political principals (e.g., Congress, the president). (B) a way for the president to control the bureaucracy by selecting the people who will head its agencies. (C) a way to make government bureaucracies more efficient. (D) a way to ensure fair treatment and protect constitutional rights similar to the way school principals are supposed to enforce rules fairly. Answer: (A) based on the notion that the primary role of the bureaucracy is to implement the mandates issued to it by its political principals (e.g., Congress, the president). 29 Organizing public agencies along bureaucratic lines helps ensure (A) efficiency. (B) equal treatment. (C) profitability. (D) all of these. Answer: (B) equal treatment. 30 Pursuit of “representativeness” during the first major period of bureaucratic growth was reflected in (A) the patronage system. (B) the merit system. (C) The Progressive system. (D) the Brownlow Committee. Answer: (A) the patronage system. 31 Public bureaucracies derive their policymaking authority from (A) delegated legislative authority. (B) quasi-judicial authority. (C) The Civil Service Commission. (D) implied powers. Answer: (A) delegated legislative authority. 32 The Brownlow Committee recommendations best reflect the pursuit of which value? (A) Neutral competence (B) Congressional oversight (C) Executive leadership (D) Bureaucratic autonomy

Answer: (C) Executive leadership 33 Which of the following calls for open meetings by government agencies and advance notification of the date, time, place, and agenda of future meetings? (A) The Sunset Act (B) The Freedom of Information Act (C) The Twenty-sixth Amendment (D) The Sunshine Act Answer: (D) The Sunshine Act 34 _____ require(s) that bureaucratic decisions be made in public meetings. (A) Sunshine laws (B) Police patrol oversight (C) Overhead democracy (D) Agency capture Answer: (A) Sunshine laws 35 The problem with fire alarm oversight is (A) there is too much bureaucratic incompetence and corruption for any single legislator to keep up with. (B) bureaucracies rarely exercise their rulemaking authority, making it difficult for a legislator to assess bureaucratic intent. (C) the costs outweigh the benefits because most of the time bureaucracies do what they are supposed to do. (D) it is reactive instead of proactive. Answer: (D) it is reactive instead of proactive. 36 Through implementation decisions, _____, are active in the initiation of new policies and actively participate in the broader political process. (A) congressional committees (B) lobbyists (C) interest groups (D) bureaucracies Answer: (D) bureaucracies 37 “The single most important function performed by agencies of government” is (A) amending laws. (B) adjudication. (C) rule making. (D) lobbying. Answer: (C) rule making.

38 Which of the following was the most recently created agency in the Executive Office of the President? (A) Homeland Security (B) National Security Council (C) Council of Economic Advisers (D) Drug Enforcement Agency Answer: (B) National Security Council 39 According to the notion of neutral competence, what function does the bureaucracy perform? (A) Decide public policy (B) Implement public policy (C) Take sides (D) Appropriate funds for public policies Answer: (B) Implement public policy 40 ____ occurs when work is assigned according to a task specialization. (A) Organization centralization (B) Inefficiency (C) Profitability (D) Division of labor Answer: (D) Division of labor 41 Federal bureaucracies are political institutions. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 42 Congressional willingness to grant policymaking authority to agencies stems partly from their (A) neutral competence. (B) expertise. (C) presidential appointment. (D) representativeness. Answer: (B) expertise. 43 Court-like proceedings in which agencies enforce laws and regulations are an example of (A) executive orders. (B) regulations. (C) adjudication. (D) administration.

Answer: (C) adjudication. 44 One source of bureaucratic power is (A) party politics. (B) bureaucratic expertise. (C) political alliance with the president. (D) budget control. Answer: (B) bureaucratic expertise. 45 The stereotype that the federal bureaucracy is ineffective and incompetent (A) is generally supported by systematic research. (B) is true for agencies that administer welfare programs, but not true for the Foreign Service and the military. (C) is largely inaccurate. (D) was accurate until president George W. Bush reformed the federal government to run like a business. Answer: (C) is largely inaccurate. 46 Overhead democracy requires elected officials to (A) engage in rulemaking. (B) adjudicate. (C) exercise their oversight responsibilities. (D) occasionally monitor elected officials. Answer: (C) exercise their oversight responsibilities. 47 The practice of staffing government bureaucracies on the basis of political connections and political loyalty is known as (A) the merit system. (B) the good old boy network. (C) the spoils system. (D) the bureaucratic system. Answer: (C) the spoils system. 48 Public and private bureaucracies differ mainly in (A) their underlying goals. (B) their organizational characteristics. (C) their general approach to the division of labor. (D) All of the above. Answer: (A) their underlying goals. 49 The basic characteristics of the bureaucratic model of organization apply to

(A) The Roman Catholic Church. (B) Texas A&M University. (C) The Department of Defense. (D) All of the above. Answer: (D) All of the above. 50 The federal bureaucracy (A) is centralized under the Executive Office of the President. (B) is government by centralized boards of control in each branch of government. (C) is overseen by Congress. (D) consists of numerous departments, independent agencies, and advisory committees. Answer: (D) consists of numerous departments, independent agencies, and advisory committees. 51 A public agency that makes decisions based solely on its technical expertise is an example of (A) patronage. (B) neutral competence. (C) technical policy. (D) neutral politics. Answer: (B) neutral competence. 52 The merit system is based on (A) political loyalty. (B) patronage. (C) demonstrated ability or expertise. (D) all of these choices. Answer: (C) demonstrated ability or expertise. 53 Which of the following is at the top of the executive branch hierarchy? (A) Cabinet departments (B) Independent agencies (C) Advisory committees (D) The Executive Office of the President Answer: (D) The Executive Office of the President 54 _______ established the first merit system for the federal bureaucracy. (A) Andrew Jackson (B) The Pendleton Act (C) Franklin Roosevelt (D) the Garfield Rule

Answer: (B) The Pendleton Act 55 The advantages or organizing public agencies along bureaucratic lines include (A) stability. (B) impartiality. (C) predictability. (D) all of these. Answer: (D) all of these. 56 Government bureaucracies are largely responsible for the performance of the governing/political system. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True

Chapter 15 1

All of the following are potential constraints on judicial power EXCEPT: (A) constitutional amendments. (B) impeachment. (C) reelection concerns. (D) the Court's inability to initiate policy making.

Answer: (C) reelection concerns. 2

A decision of the Supreme Court in which a majority of the Court agrees on the decision, but there is no majority agreement on the decision is a (A) majority opinion. (B) concurring opinion. (C) plurality opinion. (D) dissenting opinion.

Answer: (C) plurality opinion. 3

An opinion written by a Supreme Court justice who agrees with the ruling of the Court but not the reason behind it is a (A) majority opinion. (B) concurring opinion. (C) plurality opinion. (D) dissenting opinion.

Answer: (B) concurring opinion. 4

A decision of the Supreme Court in which five or more justices agree on which party to the dispute should win the case and agree on the reason that party should win is a (A) majority opinion. (B) concurring opinion. (C) plurality opinion. (D) dissenting opinion.

Answer: (A) majority opinion. 5

How many Supreme Court justices are needed to issue a writ of certiorari? (A) Zero (B) Four (C) Five (D) Nine

Answer: (B) Four 6

Courts in which groups of judges decide cases based on a review of the record of the lowercourt trial are (A) civil courts.

(B) courts of original jurisdiction. (C) collegial courts. (D) intramural courts. Answer: (C) collegial courts. 7

The 1803 case in which the Court asserted the power of judicial review was (A) McCulloch v. Maryland. (B) Plessy v. Ferguson. (C) Baker v. Carr. (D) Marbury v. Madison.

Answer: (D) Marbury v. Madison. 8

Courts that review the decisions of lower courts are (A) courts of appellate jurisdiction. (B) courts of original jurisdiction. (C) civil courts. (D) the Supreme Court.

Answer: (A) courts of appellate jurisdiction. 9

Trial courts that hear cases for the first time and determine issues of fact and law are (A) courts of appellate jurisdiction. (B) courts of original jurisdiction. (C) civil courts. (D) the Supreme Court.

Answer: (B) courts of original jurisdiction. 10 How many Supreme Court justices have been impeached and removed from office? (A) Zero (B) Two (C) Twenty-three (D) Fifty-eight Answer: (A) Zero 11 According to evidence presented in the text, the average length of time it takes for the Senate to consider the presidential nominations to federal appellate courts (A) has consistently averaged about one to two months since the mid-1960s. (B) increased to nearly a year during the presidencies of Bill Clinton and George W. Bush. (C) is much shorter for highly skilled presidents than for those who are not skilled. (D) is shorter if the nominee has had experience as a judge on a lower federal or state court.

Answer: (B) increased to nearly a year during the presidencies of Bill Clinton and George W. Bush. 12 An opinion written by a Supreme Court justice who is in the minority that presents the logic and thinking of the justices who opposed the majority opinion is a (A) majority opinion. (B) concurring opinion. (C) plurality opinion. (D) dissenting opinion. Answer: (D) dissenting opinion. 13 The practice that allows senators from states with federal district courts to recommend individuals for the president to nominate is known as (A) senatorial courtesy. (B) presidential courtesy. (C) the ""nuclear option."" (D) ""home cooking."" Answer: (A) senatorial courtesy. 14 A Supreme Court justice who believes that the Court has a responsibility to use its rulings to articulate new policy when other branches fail to do so is practicing (A) judicial activism. (B) judicial restraint. (C) judicial incrementalism. (D) judicial apathy. Answer: (A) judicial activism. 15 A Supreme Court justice who believes that the Court should defer policymaking decisions to elected branches of government is a proponent of (A) judicial activism. (B) judicial restraint. (C) judicial incrementalism. (D) judicial apathy. Answer: (B) judicial restraint. 16 The theory that assumes the Constitution was meant to be a dynamic document that should be interpreted in its contemporary social and political context is (A) originalism. (B) textualism. (C) strict constructionism. (D) the living Constitution. Answer: (D) the living Constitution.

17 The idea that Supreme Court justices should interpret the Constitution in terms of the original intentions of the framers is (A) originalism. (B) active liberty. (C) textualism. (D) libertarianism. Answer: (A) originalism. 18 A court order requiring a public official to perform an official duty over which he or she has no discretion is a (A) writ of habeas corpus. (B) writ of certiorari. (C) writ of mandamus. (D) rule of stare decisis. Answer: (C) writ of mandamus. 19 The theory of judicial decision making that suggests judges sometimes vote against their own personal preferences in order to reach a compromise acceptable to other institutional actors is (A) the attitudinal model. (B) the legal realist model. (C) the institutionalist model. (D) the strategic model. Answer: (D) the strategic model. 20 Segal and Spaeth's theory that the decisions of judges are largely determined by their personal ideological and policy preferences is known as (A) the attitudinal model. (B) the strict constructionist model. (C) the legal model. (D) the slot machine theory. Answer: (A) the attitudinal model. 21 Scholars who argue that the decision making of judges is influenced by personal values and ideology favor which of the following models? (A) The legal model (B) The legal realist model (C) The strategic model (D) The originalist model Answer: (B) The legal realist model

22 An approach to judicial decision making in which a judge sets a constitutional provision alongside a statute in order to ""decide whether the latter squares with the former"" is known as (A) the roulette theory. (B) the square deal theory. (C) the slot machine theory. (D) the inter-ocular theory. Answer: (C) the slot machine theory. 23 The view of judicial decision making in which judges set aside their own values and make decisions based solely on legal criteria is called (A) neutral competence. (B) the legal model. (C) active liberty. (D) the sociological model. Answer: (B) the legal model. 24 Based on evidence presented in class, which of the following is true regarding judicial activism? (A) Liberals are much more activist in overturning laws than conservatives. (B) Conservatives are much more activist in overturning laws than liberals. (C) Strongly ideological justices are more activist than moderates. (D) None of the above. Answer: (C) Strongly ideological justices are more activist than moderates. 25 A justice who interprets the Constitution by weighing the original concerns of the founders is using (A) the slot machine theory. (B) a legal realist view. (C) judicial restraint. (D) none of these choices. Answer: (D) none of these choices. 26 Evidence that the attitudinal model accurately explains decision making on the Supreme Court is (A) that most Supreme Court decisions are unanimous. (B) the Republican judges overlook partisan ideology. (C) that justices exhibit significant differences of opinion on highly controversial issues. (D) all of these choices. Answer: (C) that justices exhibit significant differences of opinion on highly controversial issues.

27 Judges who believe that the making of public policy should be left to the more democratic branches of government exercise a(n) ______ approach to jurisprudence. (A) activist (B) partisan (C) restrained (D) independent Answer: (C) restrained 28 Presidential nominations to the federal courts must be approved by (A) both chambers of Congress. (B) the House of Representatives. (C) the Senate. (D) the Executive Office of the President (EOP). Answer: (C) the Senate. 29 The authority of a criminal or appeals court to hear and decide cases is called (A) standing. (B) judicial discretion. (C) jurisdiction. (D) a mandate. Answer: (C) jurisdiction. 30 The conflict pitting judicial restraint against judicial activism is (A) a battle of slot machine theorists against proponents of original intent. (B) primarily a battle of political rather than judicial philosophy. (C) usually resolved by legal precedent. (D) ultimately resolved in the court of public opinion. Answer: (B) primarily a battle of political rather than judicial philosophy. 31 The attitudinal model suggest that judicial decision making is driven by (A) legal criteria. (B) a judge's personal preferences. (C) public opinion. (D) public ideology. Answer: (B) a judge's personal preferences. 32 Federal judges (A) are appointed by the president and must be confirmed by the Senate. (B) are nominated by the president and confirmed by the House of Representatives. (C) are elected using a majority rule in special elections.

(D) are nominated by the Senate and must have the full approval of the Congress. Answer: (A) are appointed by the president and must be confirmed by the Senate. 33 Which court represents the highest level to which a case involving a question of state law can be carried? (A) The U.S. Supreme Court (B) A state court of last resort or state Supreme Court (C) The Judicial Conference (D) A U.S. circuit court Answer: (B) A state court of last resort or state Supreme Court 34 ____ has the power to establish lower courts, determine what cases courts can hear, and regulates which matters decided in lower courts the Supreme Court can review. (A) The Senate (B) A panel of three judges (C) The president (D) Congress Answer: (D) Congress 35 The Supreme Court asserted its power of judicial review in which of the following court cases? (A) Roe v. Wade (B) Marbury v. Madison (C) Brown v. Board of Education (D) Plessy v. Ferguson Answer: (B) Marbury v. Madison 36 Courts of appellate jurisdiction (A) hear cases for the first time. (B) review the decisions of lower courts. (C) have original jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors. (D) are trial courts. Answer: (B) review the decisions of lower courts. 37 What is the most important consideration in the selection of Supreme Court justices? (A) Party affiliation and political philosophy (B) Age (C) Judicial experience (D) Geography Answer: (A) Party affiliation and political philosophy

38 The power of judicial review (A) was established by an act of Congress. (B) is explicitly provided for in Article III of the Constitution. (C) was established by the supreme court in Marbury v Madison (1803). (D) was implied in the Nineteenth Amendment. Answer: (C) was established by the supreme court in Marbury v Madison (1803). 39 The Supreme Court's exercise of judicial review is (A) very infrequent. (B) more common when the judge is liberal . (C) mainly preoccupied with issues of business-government relations. (D) mainly concerned with civil rights. Answer: (A) very infrequent. 40 Probably the most effective restraint on the exercise of judicial review is (A) passing a law to increase the number of seats on the Supreme Court. (B) adding constitutional amendments. (C) self-restraint. (D) impeaching the judges that abuse the power. Answer: (C) self-restraint. 41 The qualifications set by the Constitution to serve as a Supreme Court justice include (A) being at least 35 years old. (B) being a member of the bar. (C) being a qualified trial lawyer. (D) there are no qualifications set by the Constitution. Answer: (D) there are no qualifications set by the Constitution. 42 Cases in U.S. courts of appeals are usually decided by (A) juries. (B) a panel of three judges. (C) the solicitor general . (D) the Judicial Conference. Answer: (B) a panel of three judges. 43 The power of judicial review conflicts with which of the following basic democratic values? (A) Economic equality and majority rule (B) Political equality and popular sovereignty (C) Economic equality and popular sovereignty (D) Majority rule and popular sovereignty

Answer: (D) Majority rule and popular sovereignty 44 Congress may restrain the U.S. Supreme Court by (A) reducing the Court's original jurisdiction. (B) exercising judicial review. (C) reducing the Court's appellate jurisdiction. (D) reducing the Justice's salaries. Answer: (C) reducing the Court's appellate jurisdiction. 45 The Supreme Court formally exercises it discretionary power to hear a case by (A) issuing a writ of certiorari. (B) claiming the right of stare decisis. (C) issuing a writ of mandamus. (D) none of the above. Answer: (A) issuing a writ of certiorari. 46 Which of the following federal courts can hear appeals made from the state supreme courts? (A) Federal district courts (B) Federal circuit courts of appeals (C) The U.S. Supreme Court (D) All of the above Answer: (C) The U.S. Supreme Court 47 Who sets the jurisdictional boundaries of the federal courts? (A) Congress (B) The president (C) The Supreme Court (D) The states Answer: (A) Congress 48 The number of Supreme Court justices is: (A) set at nine by the Article III of the Constitution. (B) determined by Congress. (C) limited to not more that nine by the Twenty-fourth Amendment. (D) determined by the formula found in the Eleventh Amendment. Answer: (B) determined by Congress. 49 Courts of original jurisdiction (A) are trial courts that hear cases for the first time.

(B) review decisions of the lower courts. (C) have jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors. (D) review case that have been appealed. Answer: (A) are trial courts that hear cases for the first time.

Chapter 16 1

Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) is the policymaking approach most often used by public officials. (A) True (B) False

Answer: (B) False 2

The decision-making approach in which policymakers ignore last year's spending levels and begin current year budgeting from scratch, justifying every single dollar of proposed spending is called (A) zero-based budgeting. (B) incrementalism. (C) five year plans. (D) satisficing.

Answer: (A) zero-based budgeting. 3

Herbert Simon's concept of ""bounded rationality"" asserts that decision making will never be perfectly rational because decision makers never have (A) common sense. (B) freedom from political pressure. (C) complete information. (D) the courage to put national goals ahead of reelection goals.

Answer: (C) complete information. 4

Process evaluations are intended to assess whether a program or policy is (A) being implemented according to its stated guidelines. (B) satisfying the interest groups who lobbied for the program. (C) achieving its overall objectives. (D) resulting in a high rate ofreelection for members of Congress.

Answer: (A) being implemented according to its stated guidelines. 5

Impact evaluations assess whether a program or policy is (A) being implemented according to its stated guidelines. (B) satisfying the interest groups who lobbied for the program. (C) achieving its overall objectives. (D) resulting in a high rate of reelection for members of Congress.

Answer: (C) achieving its overall objectives. 6

Which of the following is an example of a bad public policy that resulted from majority rule? (A) The League of Nations (B) Jim Crow laws (C) The Equal Rights Amendment

(D) Roe v. Wade Answer: (B) Jim Crow laws 7

The political influence of wealthy lobbying groups is most detrimental to which of the following core values of democracy? (A) Political freedom (B) Majority rule (C) Popular sovereignty (D) Political equality

Answer: (D) Political equality 8

Neither the courts nor the bureaucracy are directly accountable to the public through electoral means, yet each branch plays a vital policymaking role in our government. Describe the ways in which both the courts and government agencies make policy. What is the source or origin of policymaking authority for each of these institutions? What are the similarities and differences between the way the courts make policy and the way agencies make policy? Why would elected branches of government allow t

Answer: 9

At the beginning of this course, we examined four core values of democracy – individual liberty, political equality, popular sovereignty, and majority rule (balanced with a respect for minority rights). Since then, you have been asked to evaluate various processes and institutions of American government in terms of how well the core values of democracy are reflected in each of those processes or institutions. Based on what you have learned about politics and government in this course, how well d

Answer: 10 In your view, does American democracy function better or worse with a strong, aggressive executive who exerts power over other branches? Are the core principles of democracy better served by a strong executive or a strong legislature? Which branch of government do you think is a more natural or proper advocate for the American people? Does your conception differ from what the founding fathers envisioned? Explain your answer with evidence from the course readings and be careful to point out the p Answer: 11 Congress is often referred to as ""the people's branch,"" yet it is routinely rated by Americans as the least popular, least trusted institution in government. What do you think are the primary reasons for public dissatisfaction and mistrust of Congress? Do you believe the criticisms leveled against Congress are fair, or are they attacking Congress for doing exactly what the framers designed it to do? What, if any, reforms would recommend to improve the performance of Congress? Explain your answ Answer: 12 The decision-making approach characterized by current decisions that are small adjustments to past decisions is known as (A) zero-based budgeting. (B) incrementalism. (C) five year plans. (D) satisficing.

Answer: (B) incrementalism. 13 The rational-comprehensive decision-making approach involves considering all possible alternatives to a problem or issue and choosing the one with (A) the highest costs and the least benefit. (B) the lowest cost and the lowest benefit. (C) the most benefit and the highest cost. (D) the most benefits at the least cost. Answer: (D) the most benefits at the least cost. 14 All of the following are forces that can move a policy problem onto the public agenda EXCEPT: (A) Indicators. (B) Focusing events. (C) Realignment. (D) Feedback. Answer: (C) Realignment. 15 Public policy is a relatively stable, purposive course of action pursued by government officials or agencies. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 16 ""Police patrol"" oversight is an example of the policy evaluation stage of public policymaking. (A) True (B) False Answer: (A) True 17 Congress is primarily responsible for the policy implementation stage of public policymaking. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False 18 The ""punctuated equilibrium"" theory of policymaking argues that radical changes to the status quo are impossible. (A) True (B) False Answer: (B) False

19 The first stage of the policymaking process, which produces the list of issues and problems the government will pay attention to, is (A) policy formulation and adoption. (B) policy implementation. (C) policy evaluation. (D) agenda setting. Answer: (D) agenda setting. 20 The second stage of the policymaking process, wherein government considers the various alternatives to the issue at hand and formally approves a particular alternative, is (A) policy formulation and adoption. (B) policy implementation. (C) policy evaluation. (D) agenda setting. Answer: (A) policy formulation and adoption. 21 The third stage of the policymaking process, in which the government translates approved policy alternatives into action, is (A) policy formulation and adoption. (B) policy implementation. (C) policy evaluation. (D) agenda setting. Answer: (B) policy implementation. 22 The final stage of the policymaking process, wherein government and nongovernment actors assess the successes and problems of public policies, is (A) policy formulation and adoption. (B) policy implementation. (C) policy evaluation. (D) agenda setting. Answer: (C) policy evaluation. 23 Which of the following is a formal proof that no decision-making system can guarantee that the rank-ordered preferences of a group will reflect the rank-ordered preferences of the set of rational individuals who make up that group? (A) Duverger's law (B) Arrows impossibility theorem (C) Nash equilibrium (D) The ""garbage can"" model of decision making Answer: (B) Arrows impossibility theorem

24 The theory of policymaking that seeks to explain why decision making in large, complex institutions (such as universities) often seems irrational is known as (A) the ""garbage can"" model. (B) the ""recycle bin""."" (C) the ""policy windows"" theory. (D) the ""satisficing"" theory. Answer: (A) the ""garbage can"" model. 25 Presidents have become much more powerful and active over the last one hundred years, leading some scholars to view their growing powers as ""imperial"" in nature. What unilateral powers does the president exercise in today's government? Why are these powers considered controversial? Do you believe that the system of checks and balances created by the Constitution is still sufficient to prevent presidents from exercising excessive unilateral power? In what ways do you think the Congress and the Answer: