Nancy Caroline’s Emergency Care in the Streets – 8th edition Test Bank CHAPTER 1 1. EMS stands for: a. b. c. d.
Evolve Medical Service Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medical School European Medical Services ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 4
2. The first recorded use of an ambulance was by the military during the Siege of Malaga in: a. b. c. d.
At the beginning of 1400 In the mid of 1400 At the start of 1500 At the end of 1400 ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: pg. 4
3. (CoAEMSP) is the only accrediting body for paramedic programs which stands for: a. b. c. d.
Committee on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Committee on Association of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Conference on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Committee on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS People ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg. 10
4. A registry system which is used to test and establish licensure is: a. b. c. d.
NREMT NREMS NREMP NREMR ANS: A
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 9
5. What is Reciprocity?
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a. b. c. d.
Granting certification to a provider from same state or agency Granting certification to a provider from another state or agency Granting certification to a provider both from same or another state No need of granting certification from any state ANS: B
DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 10
6. Select the correct ranking: a. b. c. d.
The Dispatcher, EMT, Paramedic, Advanced EMT, Emergency Medical Responder Emergency Medical Responder, Paramedic, EMT, Advanced EMT, The Dispatcher Paramedic, Advanced EMT, EMT, Emergency Medical Responder, The Dispatcher The Dispatcher, Emergency Medical Responder, EMT, Advanced EMT, Paramedic ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg. 12, 13
7. Who launched the first rescue squad called Roanoke Life Saving in 1928? a. b. c. d.
Nancy Lee Caroline Baron Dominique-Jean Larrey Julian Stanley Wise Dr. David Boyde ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 6
8. The first National Standard Curriculum for paramedics was developed by: a. b. c. d.
NHTSA US DOT AHRQ EMS ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 8
9. At the emergency scene, what would be the initial assessment of patient? a. b. c. d.
Respiration, Pulse, Blood pressure Pulse, Skin, Blood test Pupil, Respiration, Temperature Blood pressure, Allergen test, Pulse
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ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 15 10.If a patient is facing diminished breath sounds and distented necks veins and his radial pulses are weakening and increasing in rate and you insert an oral airway and starts ventilating him with bag-mask device and 100% oxygen but still the patient is feeling difficult to breath. So with further findings, you assessed that he is facing tension pneumothorax, what would you do? a. b. c. d.
Rushed him to hospital Perform chest compressions Perform needle thoracotomy Mouth to mouth breathing ANS: C
DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 15
11. Choose the correct sequence of procedures for each emergency call? a. b. c. d.
Preparation, Response, Scene Management, Patient Assessment Response, Preparation, Scene Management, Patient Assessment Scene Management, Preparation, Response, Patient Assessment Patient Assessment, Scene Management, Response, Preparation ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 19
12. A treatment plan for specific illness or injury: a. b. c. d.
Direct Medical Control Standing order Protocol Indirect Medical Control ANS: C
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg. 21
13. CQI stands for: a. b. c. d.
Control Quality Improvement Continuous Quality Improvement Control Quantity Improvement Continuous Quantity Improvement ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg. 22
14. How many points are there for good CQI process? a. 5
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b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 22
15. The first step in conducting EMS research: a. b. c. d.
Research domain Research agenda Research consortium Research area ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 25
16. Which board approval is required before starting the research? a. b. c. d.
Institutional Review Board Institutional Research Board International Review Board International Research Board ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: 25
17. Types of Survey research: a. b. c. d.
2 3 4 5 ANS: 3
DIF: Easy
REF: 26
18. Which research uses available data? a. b. c. d.
Retrospective Research Prospective Research Cohort Research Case study
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ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 26 19. Which is called snapshot of events and information? a. b. c. d.
Longitudinal design Cross-sectional design Case study Literature Review ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 26
20.A form of research in which the existing literature is reviewed, and the researcher analyzes the collection of research to draw a conclusion. a. b. c. d.
Prospective Research Cohort Research Case Study Literature Review ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg27
21. Types of sampling: a. b. c. d.
2 3 4 5 ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: 27
22.Tool in which investigators are unaware of the study arm into which the subject being interviewed has been enrolled: a. b. c. d.
Unblinded Study Case study Descriptive study Blinded study ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg27
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23. Where all parties are blinded, study is: a. Single-blinded b. Double-blinded c. Triple-blinded d. Blinded ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 27
24. ILCOR stands for: a. b. c. d.
International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation International Liaison Conference on Resuscitation International Liaison Committee of Resuscitation International Liaison Conference of Resuscitation ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg29
25. In adults, chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of: a. b. c. d.
120 to 140 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) 100 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 3 to 3.4 inches (7 to 8 cm) 100 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) 110 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: 29
26. An early title given to an ambulance-style unit: a. b. c. d.
mobile intensive care units medical intensive care units mandatory intensive care units mobile intensive care services ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg34
27.Guideline that is a written document signed by the EMS system’s medical director that outlines specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care that is rendered prior to contacting medical control: a. Protocol
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b. Standing order c. Indirect control d. Direct control ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg21
28. When the documentation is required in procedures for each emergency call? a. b. c. d.
After the patient assessment and care After the patient transfer and report After the management and disposition After the Scene management ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg19
29. What makes you a health care professional? a. b. c. d.
Empathy and integrity Injury prevention Time management All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg18
30. Normal Blood pressure range a. 120/80 mm Hg b. 100/80 mm Hg c. 120/100 mm Hg d. 110/80 mm Hg ANS: A
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 16
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CHAPTER 2 31. How many hours being awake is equal to being legally intoxicated? a. b. c. d.
18hr 10hr 21hr 24hr ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg39
32. Components of wellness: a. b. c. d.
2 3 4 5 ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 39
33.The Life’s Simple list from the American Heart Association (AHA) includes factors that have been found to improve heart health: a. b. c. d.
Reduce blood sugar Control cholesterol Manage blood pressure All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 39
34. How many calories a moderately active woman age 19 to 30 years requires? a. b. c. d.
1500kcal 1800kcal 2000kcal None of the above ANS: C
DIF: Easy REF: Pg40
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35. Which eatable is used in least quantity in maintaining diet? a. b. c. d.
Apple Cucumber Milk Nuts ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg39
36. The amount you need from each of food groups is directly dependent to: a. b. c. d.
Age Sex Physical activity All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy REF: Pg40
37.If a man age 25 with height 5’2 and weighs 80kg, what would be the best strategy to have healthy weight? a. b. c. d.
Crash dieting Exercise/Walking Controlled Portions of meal Both b and c ANS: D
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg41
38. A man having age 30years, what would be his target heart rate? a. b. c. d.
90 to 124 beats/min 92 to 128 beats/min 95 to 131 beats/min 98 to 135 beats/min ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg42
39. A 40-year-old man has a resting heart rate of60 beats/min. Calculate his target heart rate? a. 121 to 157 beats/min b. 118 to 154 beats/min c. 122 to 158 beats/min
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d. None of the above ANS: D (120 to 156 beats/min) DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 42
40. E-cigarettes or electronic cigarettes are also called: a. b. c. d.
Alternative to tobacco cigarette Electronic nicotine delivery system Personal vaporizes All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 43
41. The sleep wake cycle is an example of: a. b. c. d.
Circadian rhythm Ultradian rhythm Exogenous zeitgeber Infradian rhythm ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg. 43
42. Circadian rhythms are controlled by special area of brain: a. b. c. d.
Hypothalamus Cerebrum Suprachiasmatic nuclei Cerebellum ANS: C
DIF: Moderate Pg. 43
43. When lifting, head should be kept upright and facing forward with legs spread about: a. b. c. d.
10inches 12inches 15inches 17inches ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
Pg. 44
44. Which is the correct statement? a. All contagious diseases are infectious diseases
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b. All infectious diseases are contagious diseases c. Some infectious diseases are contagious diseases d. Both a and c ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
pg. 46
45. Pneumonia caused by pneumococcus bacteria, which statement fits this example a. b. c. d.
Some infectious diseases are contagious diseases All infectious diseases are contagious diseases Both None ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg46
46. If the baby is born and tested positive with HIV, it indicates: a. b. c. d.
Airborne transmission Direct contact transmission Indirect contact transmission None of the above ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg.46
47. Tetanus-diphtheria boosters immunization is performed every: a. b. c. d.
Year 5 years 10 years 7 years ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg48
48. Which mask is effective in preventing TB bacillus? a. b. c. d.
Surgical mask Fabric/cloth mask N95 P100 ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg49-50
49.If you have been exposed to a patient’s blood or body fluids, what would be first guideline you would follow?
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a. b. c. d.
Follow your department’s infection control plan Obtain proper immunization boosters Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water Turn patient care over to another EMS provider ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg51
50.If you are in a hostile situation and comes in contact with a hostile patient, what would be you best strategy? a. b. c. d.
You will talk him out of the situation and convinced him to cooperate with you You will review surroundings and listen to him You will listen to him by de-escalating his emotions with tactful reasoning and empathy You will just follow your instincts according to the situation ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg51
51.If there is a road accident of an oil tanker hit with a car and 3 people critically injured, what would be you best strategy to act? a. b. c. d.
You will park the ambulance near the incident area and rush to the injured people You will review the surrounding and hazards and then act according to them You will wait for the traffic obstacles to be solved You will wait for the other units to arrive as there is oil leaking ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg52
52. Select the situation which fits the eustress: a. b. c. d.
You lost a loved one and tried to suicide You faced poverty in early childhood and overcome it by becoming successful entrepreneur You failed in marriage and never try again You lost your ability to walk in accident and blame it on people ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg53
53.If a house caught fire and you manage to make out safe with all family members but after that you feel fear and trembling, what would be the situation: a. b. c. d.
Acute stress reaction Delayed stress reaction Cumulative stress reaction None of the above
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ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg55
54.If a woman lost his spouse and doing all the norms in routine without grieving and also don’t talk about it, it would be: a. b. c. d.
Denial Regression Projection Displacement ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg56
55. A patient subconsciously converts anxiety into a bodily dysfunction is called: a. b. c. d.
Depression Overreaction Displacement Conversion hysteria ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg57
56.If a paramedic after 5-6 years of his work feels exhausted in the morning while waking up for work and easily gets irritated during work. Moreover, not enjoying his hobbies and favorite food, it suggests: a. b. c. d.
Conversion hysteria Depression Burnout Stress ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg59
57. Select the correct sequence of grieving process: a. b. c. d.
Denial, Anger, Depression, Bargaining, Acceptance Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance Depression, Denial, Bargaining, Anger, Acceptance Anger, Depression, Denial, Bargaining, Acceptance ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg61
58.If a man has cancer and he has accept that he is going to die soon but still hope to see his daughter child who is going to be born soon, is stage of:
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a. b. c. d.
Acceptance Hope Bargaining None of the above ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg61
59.If a child wants to know the details of the incident that results in the loss of loved one, what would be his/her age? a. b. c. d.
9 to 11 year 9 to 10 year 9 to 12 year 6 to 9 year ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg63
60. EAP stands for: a. b. c. d.
Emergency Assistance Program Employee Assistance Program Employee Authority Program Employee Assistance Practice ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Pg63
61. If a paramedic is experiencing flashbacks of horrific event and disturbed sleep, it indicates: a. b. c. d.
Depression Anxiety PTSD Burnout ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: pg63
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CHAPTER 3: 62.The American Heart Association suggests the limited use of iodine, controlled diet and regular exercise for hypertensive patients, indicates: a. b. c. d.
Public health Community nutrition Emergency Medical Service Clinical Nutrition ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 72
63.If a person is standing on the top floor and is not responding to the people who are calling him/her out to get down and suddenly he falls, it indicates: a. b. c. d.
Unintentional injury Intentional injury Suicide Accident ANS: B
DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 72
64. Recently, which is the leading cause of death after cancer and heart disease in United States? a. b. c. d.
Unintentional injuries Diabetes COVID-19 Alzheimer Disease ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg. 72
65. Calculate the YPLL of 28 year old: a. b. c. d.
35 36 37 38 ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg. 74
66.If a man hits with the car while crossing the road but luckily he survived without any injuries. What would you do as EMSparamedic?
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a. b. c. d.
You will make sure that no injury happened and document and leave You will make him feel responsible for the accident You will give him a positive reinforcement without being judgmental You will check him making sure that no injury happened by giving him positive advice ANS: D
DIF: Hard REF: Pg77
67.Education Environment Economic incentives Select the 4th E of prevention: a. b. c. d.
Public Health Safety guidelines Education Laws and Regulations ANS: C
DIF: Easy REF: Pg77
68.Those preventive measures that do not require conscious effort on the part of a potential victim are called: a. b. c. d.
Economic incentive prevention Environment intervention Passive intervention Intervention ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg78
69. How many states of US has the rule of wearing motorcycle helmets? a. b. c. d.
16 17 18 19 ANS: D DIF: Moderate
REF: pg80
70. Which state has no rule of wearing seat belts for adults? a. b. c. d.
Puerto Rico US Virgin New Hampshire District of Columbia
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ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg80
71. Administering epinephrine to a patient having an allergic reaction to a bee sting, is example of: a. b. c. d.
Passive intervention Primary prevention Secondary prevention None of the above ANS: C
DIF: Easy REF: pg81
72. Who started the awareness campaign called ‘Stop Heroin’? a. Lisa Cassidy b. Hardy Charles c. Frank Cassidy d. Thomas Saint ANS: A
DIF: Easy REF: Pg82
73.Information regarding the number and nature of medical cases is compared with an expected volume of calls for the community at a given time and place, is called: a. b. c. d.
Injury surveillance Epidemiology Case study Syndromic surveillance ANS: D
DIF: Moderate REF: pg83
74. Who was the first director of National Highway Traffic Safety Administration’s? a. b. c. d.
Charles Haddon William Haddon Thomas Haddon Franklin Haddon ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg83
75. How many components are in Haddon matrix to analyze injury? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8
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d. 9 ANS: D
DIF: Easy REF: Pg84
76. The steps to develop prevention program is advocated by: a. b. c. d.
Emergency Medical Services for Children (EMSC) Emergency Medical Services for Adults (EMSA) Emergency Medical Services for Teenagers (EMST) None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg86
77. Choose the correct sequence of five steps to develop preventive program: a. Define the problem, Conduct community assessment, Set goals and objectives, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate b. Conduct community assessment, Set goals and objectives, Define the problem, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate c. Conduct community assessment, Define the problem, Set goals and objectives, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate d. Set Goals and Objectives, Define the problem, Conduct community assessment, Plan and test, Implement and Evaluate ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: 86-87
78. Which includes in the community? a. b. c. d.
Law enforcement The media EMS groups All of them ANS: D
DIF: Easy REF: Pg86-87
79. Which one is the objective in preventive program? a. b. c. d.
Decrease preventable injuries to children on the community’s roadways Increase number of helmets to prevent bicycle injuries in children Increase number of influenza vaccines to prevent influenza in young children 1,000 child safety seats distributed to low income families within 18 months ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg87
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80. Which one is the best funding system in prevention program? a. b. c. d.
Partnering with the local media Seeking grants from regional, state, or national sources Seeking sponsorships Networking with other organizations interested in prevention programs ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg88
81. Which includes the Haddon matrix to apply? a. b. c. d.
Pre-event Post- event Event All of them ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg89
82. If an infant is ejected from vehicle as a result of accident and mother is distressed, what it would be? a. b. c. d.
A teachable moment Non-teachable moment Emergency moment Both b and c ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg. 89
83. Which are secondary injury preventions? a. b. c. d.
IV access Warning systems Monitoring vital signs Both a and c ANS: D
DIF: Easy REF: Pg89
84. MVC stands for: a. b. c. d.
Motor vehicle collision Motor vehicle counter None of them Both of them
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ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg75
85. Out of 10, how many American die each year from chronic diseases? a. b. c. d.
6 7 5 8 ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Pg74
86. Cause of death by unintentional injury: a. b. c. d.
Choking and suffocation Self-harm by knife Sleeping pills Assault ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg72
CHAPTER 4 87. HIPAA stands for: a. b. c. d.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Health Insurance Policy and Accountability Act Health Insurance Policy and Account Act Health Insurance Portability and Account Act ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 96
88.The branch of philosophy that deals with the study and understanding of the distinction between right and wrong and the manner in which people apply concepts of right and wrong to their personal and professional lives is called: a. b. c. d.
Morality Ethics Both a and b Applied ethics
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ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 97
89.As EMS paramedic, if you are treating a person who is not of your race and against your beliefs. What would you choose? a. b. c. d.
Personal ethics Medical ethics Professional ethics None of them ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg97
90. When was The Declaration of Geneva, first drafted by the World Medical Association? a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg97
91.When Code of Ethics was for EMS Practitioners, was issued by the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT)? a. b. c. d.
1976 1977 1978 1979 ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 98
92. How many code of ethics are pledged by EMS practitioner? a. b. c. d.
8 9 10 11 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 98
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93. The ethical principles are: a. b. c. d.
Be professional Do no harm Always act in patient’s best interest Both b and c ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg98
94. The practitioner who falsely represents himself or herself will face charges: a. b. c. d.
Suspension and revocations of licensure Criminal charges Civil charges All of them ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg99
95. Each level of Government has: a. b. c. d.
The legislative branch The judicial branch The executive branch All of them ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg100
96.The branch which —reports to the president or the governor and is made up of various cabinets and agencies (the bureaucrats) that carryout and administer the laws is: a. b. c. d.
The legislative branch The administrative branch The judicial branch None of them ANS: B
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 100
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97.A decision that has been made by a judge through a court case based on his or her interpretation of the statutes and constitutions is: a. b. c. d.
Common law Case law Both a and b None of them ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg100
98.Court decisions, that establish precedent and become the law of the state in which you live and practice as a paramedic are issued by: a. Trial courts b. Appellate courts c. Civil courts d. Common law ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
DIF: Pg100
99. If as a paramedic, you have sexually assault a patient. Which law would apply? a. b. c. d.
Common law Civil law Criminal law Tort law ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg100
100. Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment: a. b. c. d.
Due process Abandonment Compensatory damages Implied consent ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg100
101. What is the age of consent?
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a. b. c. d.
14 16 18 20 ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg100
102. An action instituted by a private person or entity: a. b. c. d.
Liability Comes under criminal law The plaintiff None of them ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg100
103. If a paramedic has neglected the patient’s pulse which is indicating that his pulse are dropping and he needs oxygen mask device. It would come under: a. b. c. d.
Tort Intentional tort Unintentional tort Civil lawsuit ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg100
104. if the misconduct of the EMS provider was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public, then court awarded: a. b. c. d.
Punitive damage Monetary compensation Both a and b None of them ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg100
105. Threatening to restrain a patient who does not want to be transported is considered: a. Assault
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b. Defamation c. Battery d. Criminal prosecution ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg101
106. If EMS provider touches a 18year old conscious injured girl without her consent, is considered: a. b. c. d.
False imprisonment Defamation Battery Assault ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg101
107. If EMS provider write in a document that the patient was drunk, and patient was just dizzy due to some allergic response to any food, is considered: a. b. c. d.
Libel Slander Battery False imprisonment ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg101
108. If EMS provider uses the judgmental and offensive statements in speaking to the patient, is considered: a. b. c. d.
False imprisonment Assault Battery Slander ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg102
109. When the civil lawsuit begins? a. When dissatisfied patient files complaint against EMS provider b. When summons happens c. When discovery period begins
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d. When legal action is been taken ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg102
110. Time period for discovery period: a. b. c. d.
10day-1month 1month-1year 1year-2year More than 2 year ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg103
111. Who is attorney? a. b. c. d.
Dissatisfied patient EMS provider Complaint filer Judge ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg102
112. As a paramedic, you have lines of authority to answer to within the EMS system but which one of these is not that line? a. b. c. d.
The Medical director The employer The physician The licensing agency ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg103
113. Which statement is true about ‘borrowed service doctrine’: a. b. c. d.
When you follow physician order which doesn’t falls under your training When conflict happens between you and physician When you take action which doesn’t fall under your training/practice When you don’t follow physician order which doesn’t falls under your training/practice ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg103
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114. As a paramedic, once you have license to work but the service for which you are seeking work may impose additional requirements as part of its eligibility standards like CPR. It comes under: a. b. c. d.
Certification License by State Credentialing None of them
ANS: C DIF: Hard REF: Pg104 115. Components of due process: a. b. c. d.
Notice Action Opportunity to be heard Both a and c ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg104
116. Which statement is true about HIPAA policy: a. b. c. d.
Patient information shared to the people who are not involved in care of patient Patient information shared to the media and public Patient information shared for medical need and for betterment of society as whole Patient information shared to other paramedics ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg105
117. EMTALA stands for: a. b. c. d.
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Agency Evolved Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Authority ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg106
118. Policy of EMTALA: a. Paramedic should do his duty considering patient health insurance
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b. Paramedic should treat patient as his financial status c. Paramedic should do his duty regardless of any financial issues of patient d. Paramedic should transfer patient to nearest hospital regardless of patient’s need ANS: C
DIF: Moderate REF: Pg106
119. If a 20year old young girl is raped and murdered and you reached the scene as paramedic. What would you do? a. b. c. d.
You will inform the police You will examine the body by removing blood and any liquid You will remove the furniture and stuff from her body and examine her You will inform police, check if she is alive without disturbing any potential evidence ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg108
CHAPTER 5 120. The final step in effective communication which gives clarification about message is: a. b. c. d.
Establish trust Never assume anything Learn how to talk business Feedback ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg135
121. The EMS dialing number in USA is: a. b. c. d.
911 112 311 211 ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg135
122. What was the cause of airline crash in 1980s that was investigated by airline industry? a. Lack of communication b. Management issue
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c. Internal affair d. Engine fault ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg136
123. Calls to 911 for emergency medical assistance are answered in most EMS systems by a program called: a. EMS b. EMD c. CRM d. PSAP ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg136
124. The system which is used by most of the EMS systems for the use of linked dispatch center computer consoles is: a. CAD b. MDT c. MOI d. ERS ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg137
125. The most suitable communication system used by EMS is: a. Two-way radio system b. Sophisticated radio system c. Landline d. Cell phone
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg138
126. The basic radio wave onto which a signal is encoded is called a: a. Transverse wave b. Longitudinal wave c. Carrier wave d. Sound wave
ANS: C
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
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127. Number of oscillations of carrier wave is usually measured in: A. Hertz B. Coulomb C. Henry D. Ohm
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
128. One megahertz (MHz) equals to: a. 1 billion cycles per second b. 1 micro cycles per second c. 1 million cycles per second d. 1 trillion cycles per second
ANS: C
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
129. The typical operation frequency band of EMS and public safety communication systems is a. 30 MHz to 300 MHz b. 35 MHz to 200 MHz c. 20 MHz to 150 MHz d. 40 MHz to 400 MHz
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
130. Ultra-High Frequency Band (UHF) ranges from: a. 200 MHz to 2 GHz b. 300 MHz to 3GHz c. 150 MHz to 1.5 MHz d. 400 MHz to 3 GHz
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
131. The higher frequency bands generally have: A. Moderate Interference B. Less Interference
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C. High Interference D. High Distortion
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
132. The public safety radio spectrum frequency is assigned with a spacing of: a. 11 KHz b. 12 KHz c. 13 KHz d. 12.5 KHz
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
133. Which is the limiting factor affecting radio signals? a. Output power b. Line of sight c. Range d. Location of antenna
ANS: C
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
134. Radio receivers are equipped with a filtering system known as: a. Filter circuit b. Squelch c. Low pass filter d. Amplifier
ANS: B
DIF: EASY REF: Pg139
135. The transmitter output power of base station radios is: a. 275 watts b. 300 watts c. 375 watts d. 250 watts
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg139
136. The 911 caller reporting the collision is agitated and yelling. What should the dispatcher do to obtain the necessary information from the caller? a. Ask the caller to put someone else on the phone. b. Ignore the caller and attempt to determine the location of the call using GPS data. c. Ask specific questions in calm voice, such as exact location of the incident and number of vehicles involved. d. Send a law enforcement officer to the location to confirm the collision before dispatching the ambulance.
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg167
137. Any system that relies on technology has the potential to fail. What would be the important step that you take to overcome this problem? a. Backup communication system b. Alternative system c. Helper organization d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg143
138. Which terminology is used in EMS to utilize specialized onboard computers in motor vehicles to send data to a monitoring station in the event of crash? a. Automatic Crash Notification (ACN) b. GIS c. PASP d. All of these ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg142
139. Which is the best method that provides direct access to hospitals and other services that may not have direct radio communications? a. Cell phones b. Two-way radio system c. GPS d. Walkie-talkie
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ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg142
140. Trunked Radio Systems are sophisticated communication networks usually operating in the frequency range of: a. 800 and 900 MHz b. 500 to 600 MHz c. 400 to 500 MHz d. All of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg141
141. Which radio signals allow multiple users to share frequencies and repeaters? a. Compressed radio signals b. Encoded radio signals c. Resonating radio signals d. Ordinary radio signals
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg141
142. In the career of a paramedic, one can likely be involved in such large scale events like natural disasters. What would you do in that situation? a. Mutual aid b. Follow protocols c. Wait for orders d. None of these
ANS: A DIF: HARD REF: Pg141 143. The transmitter output power can vary from 5to 50 watts having a line range of up to: a. 11 miles b. 12 miles c. 33 miles d. 15 miles
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg140
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144. Portable Transceivers have a low output power typically between: a. 1 and 5 watts b. 2 and 4 watts c. 5 and 7 watts d. 3 and 6 watts
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg140
145. Portable Transceivers have short antennas that limits the range of signal to: A. 3 to 5 km B. 4 to 5 km C. 2to 3 km D. 5 to 8 km
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg140
146. In circumstances when frequency of radio systems are not operating in visible range, which radio system will be most suitable for that condition? a. Simplex radio system b. Two-way radio system c. Mobile transceivers d. Multiplex radio system
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg140
147. In medical terminology communication ‘’yes’’ and ‘’no’’ may be easily missed during talk. Which pair will you use to overcome this problem? a. ‘’True’’ and ‘’false’’ b. ‘’Affirmative’’ and ‘’negative’’ c. ‘’Confirm’’ and ‘’discard’’ d. All of these
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg146
148. The ten codec system in EMS communication was phased out due to one biggest drawback which was: A. Same code often has different meanings in different jurisdictions
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B. Difficult to understand C. Lack of accessibility D. All of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: 146
149. You send a 12-lead ECG to the medical control physician. The technology used to send this tracing is called: a. b. c. d.
Biotelemetry Biophysics Tele-cardiology Direct media control
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg168
CHAPTER 6 150. What is an EMS report called? a. b. c. d.
Patient Care Report Pre-hospital care report Both a and b None ANS: C
DIFF: Easy
REF: Pg. 170
151. The Objective information in the report include? a. b. c. d.
Information that is told to you, but cannot be seen Information that can be observed and recorded Information that is neither told, observed or recorded Information that is told, observed and recorded ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 170
152. The Subjective information in the report include?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Information that is told to you, but cannot be seen Information that can be observed and recorded Information that is neither told, observed or recorded Information that is told, observed and recorded ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 170
153. From 0 to 10, at what scale of the patient’s pain, you should record both subjective and objective information? a. b. c. d.
6 7 8 9 ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 170
154. Which of the following systems store standardized EMS data from each individual state? a. Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) b. National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS) c. Both a and b d. None ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 172
155. Patient data includes which of the following patient information? a. b. c. d.
Chief complaint Assessment Level of consciousness All of the above ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 173
156. The care prior to arrival is called a. b. c. d.
Emergency Medical Care Emergency Medical School Emergency Medical Dispatch Emergency Medical Service
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ANS: C
DIFF: DIF
REF: Pg. 174
157. EMS is a --------- element of patient care. a. b. c. d.
Optional Fun Required and necessary All of the above ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 179
158. How many methods of narrative documentation exist? a. b. c. d.
3 4 5 6 ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 179
159. Chronological method is explained as a. b. c. d.
Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions Documentation of each body system ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: 179
160. Soap Method includes a. b. c. d.
Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions Explain the call in story format Assessment and Documentation of each body system ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: PG 179
161. CHARTE Method includes
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a. b. c. d.
Assessment and Documentation of each body system Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 179
162. Body systems/ parts approach a. b. c. d.
Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Assessment and Documentation of each body system Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg.179
163. The accuracy of documentation depends on a. b. c. d.
Clean uniform of paramedics Completeness and precision of report Proper sanitization Accurate body language ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: PG 181
164. The ink of handwritten report should be of a. b. c. d.
Red and blue Blue and pink Black and blue Black and red ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 182
165. A false statement in written form that could be harmful to a person’s current or future reputation is called:
a. b. c. d.
Flattery Complement Libel Laud ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 182
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166. Which of the following adversely affects the quality of care received by patients after arrival at the hospital?
a. b. c. d.
Proper care and insufficient medication Proper reporting and care Improper reporting but sufficient care Inaccurate and proper documentation ANS: D
DIFF: HARD
REF: 183
167. Well written report shows: a. b. c. d.
Inaccurate skills and mishandling Improper intellectual skills Organizational skills Poor documentation ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: 184
168. The paramedics is advised: a. b. c. d.
To erase the information Scribble through the error Not to erase but scribble the information Not to erase information or scribble the error ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 184
169. The error in handwritten report should be
a. Underlined and bold b. Italicized c. Underlined with different color ink d. None ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 184
170. An analysis published in 2016 suggests -------------- is the third leading cause of death in U.S. annually
a. b. c. d.
Medical errors Driving errors Food poisoning All of the above
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ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 184
171. The EMS Voluntary Event Notification Tool is an anonymous and confidential system whose aim is to
a. b. c. d. ANS: A
Identify flawed processes and systems that require improvement Understand the paramedics and describe their financial issues Treat the patients and deal with their health disorders Take care of the incidents of accidents DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 185
172. If you forgot to include important information then you need to write
a. b. c. d. ANS: C
Complete story Rewrite the report Addendum Drawback DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 185
173. Lost reports pose huge legal implications for
a. b. c. d. ANS: D
Patients and paramedics EMS agencies and departments EMS agencies and medical directors Both b and c DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 185
174. . Your report is a reflection of your
a. b. c. d. ANS: D
Actions Professionalism Financial stability Both a and b DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 185
175. What should be your first consideration regarding the patient
a. b.
Whether the patient is looking presentable If the patient is responding with smile
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c. d.
If the patient is well enough to stand up If the patient is courageous to describe his injury
ANS: C DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 186
176. One of your most important jobs is to
a. b. c. d.
Ensure that your patient is fully informed about his current situation Ensure that the patient is temporarily fine Make sure your life is out of danger Make sure you are stable
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg. 174
177. Unresponsive patients may be treated under
a. b. c. d.
Their consent Their implied consent Without their consent Irrespective of their attitude
ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg. 174
CHAPTER 7 178. The medical terms for bursitis and tongue are derived from: a. b. c. d.
Gloss and lingua Hepatic and Ren Lingua and bruso Bruso and dorso ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg193
179. How can one identify LASA medications like magnesium sulfate and morphine [MS and MS04])? a. Improved handwriting b. Electronic prescriptions c. Separating LASA medications into different storage areas
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d. All of them ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg193
180. Which one is eponym? a. b. c. d.
Celiac disease Crohn disease Cast saw COVID-19 ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg193
181. What are words for breast in mammogram and mastectomy? a. b. c. d.
Reno and masto Mammo and corono Mammo and masto Masto and angio ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg194
182. There is a woman age 25year old, who is feeling dizzy with severe headache and you checked her pulse which is 90beats/min and her blood pressure 150/100mmhg. What would be the correct medical term for her condition? a. b. c. d.
Hyperglycemia Hypervolemia Hypertension Blood pressure is high ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg195
183. What would be the color for following terms: Poliomyelitis Cirrhosis a. Black and Yellow b. White and Orange c. Blue and Green d. Gray and yellow-orange ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg197
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184. If a patient has fallen from a bike and after examining him, you diagnose bruises on gluteal, popliteal injury and inflammation on volar. What parts these medical terms present? a. b. c. d.
Shoulder, Buttocks, Hands Skull, Knee, Feet Buttocks, Knee, Sole of hand and feet Sole of foot, Lowest portion of spine, Skull ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg201
185. If a person fingers form the hand into fist, what range of motion it is? a. b. c. d.
Flexion Extension Abduction Apex ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg203
186. A patient having a stroke in the right hemisphere of the brain will usually have facial drooping on the same side. Which lateral it represents? a. b. c. d.
Bilateral Unilateral Contralateral Ipsilateral ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg204
187. If a patient has pain in its right lower quadrant. Which organs are involved? a. b. c. d.
Liver Appendix Gallbladder Both a and c ANS: B DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg205
188. If a patient is diagnosed with tumor retroperitoneal. What does it mean? a. Tumor near the sternum
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b. Tumor at top of the sternum c. Area above the peritoneum d. None of them ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg206
189. What is left lateral recumbent position? a. b. c. d.
Supine Fowler Recovery Prone ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg207
190. If a paramedic has reached the hospital with patient and has abbreviations in documentation like IVPB and SVN. What does these stand for: a. b. c. d.
Intra venous push, Set volume nebulizer Intra venous piggyback, Small Nebulizer Intra venous piggyback, Small-Volume Nebulizer None of them ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg210
191. If a patient has injury in infra area. What does it mean? a. b. c. d.
Below Above Top Bottom ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg211
192. If a paramedic use pur- in documentation to explain the infected surgical wound. What does it represent: a. Pertaining to disease b. Pertaining to eating c. Pertaining to pus
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Pertaining to rectum ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg212
193. If a person has tracheostomy, what would it mean simply? a. b. c. d.
Surgical creation of opening or hole Surgical incision Both of them None of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg213
194. What does these word root define: Callus Digit a. b. c. d.
Hip and Toe Sac and finger Hard thick skin and Finger/toe Fever and Hand ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg214
195. Select the aspirin abbreviation: a. b. c. d.
SAS ASA ASS SSA ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg216
196. AICD stands for: a. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome b. Automated implantable circulator defibrillator c. Automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator d. Automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 216
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197. Possible meanings of CA: a. b. c. d.
Cancer, chronologic age Coronary artery bypass Cardiac arrest, Circulation Coronary artery disease ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg216
198. Alert and oriented to person is abbreviated as: a. AO × 4, A/O × 4 b. A/O × 4, A&O × 4 c. AO × 4 d. A&O × 4 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg216
199. If a patient has to go through a surgery, he needs anesthesia which is given by: a. b. c. d.
NA RNA CRNA AS ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg217
200. Symbol for family history: a. b. c. d.
Hx Fx FHx FH ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg218
201. How many pounds are equal to 5.5kg? a. 12lb
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b. 12.0lb c. 11.5lb d. 12.1lb ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg209
202. According to location, in how many regions abdomen is divided? a. b. c. d.
4 6 8 9 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg205
203. In fowler position, what is angle at which head is positioned to control airway? a. 45° b. 60° c. 90° d. 0° ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg206
204. In examining and documenting, which right and left is used to present their injury: a. b. c. d.
Paramedic right/left Patients right/left Both of them Not necessary ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg202
205. According to superior and inferior position, thigh is ……………. To knee and ............to waist: a. b. c. d.
Inferior and superior Both superior Superior and inferior Both inferior
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg201
206. The ventral cavity encloses: a. b. c. d.
Cranial cavity Abdominopelvic cavity Retroperitoneal cavity Both b and c ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg201
207. The patient’s blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is the appropriate term for this reading? a. b. c. d.
Hypotensive Normotensive Hypertensive Hemotensive ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg205
CHAPTER 8 208. Which elements make up 96% of a human’s body weight? a. b. c. d.
Carbon, Copper, Oxygen Hydrogen, Iron, Carbon Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen Oxygen, Nitrogen, Fluorine ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg232
209. The atomic weight of an atom of an element equals the number of: a. b. c. d.
Protons and electrons Electrons and neutrons Protons and neutrons All of them ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg232
NURSING TEST BANK
210. Which mineral has the daily dietary requirement of 100 milligrams (mg) or more: a. b. c. d.
Calcium Iron Zinc Iodine ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg233
211. Which is called blue-print of cell? a. b. c. d.
Ribosomes DNA Cytosol Mitochondria ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg233
212. Which polysaccharide provides bulk (fiber, or roughage) that helps the muscular digestive system walls to push food through its tubes? a. b. c. d.
Cellulose Starch Glycogen None of them ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg233
213. Which one of these is example of partially complete protein? a. b. c. d.
Corn Egg Meat Wheat ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg234
214. Which of these lipids are not good for health?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Saturated fats Unsaturated fats LDL HDL ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg234
215. Which vitamin convert folacin to folinic acid? a. b. c. d.
Vitamin C Thiamine Riboflavin Folate ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg234
216. Which part has the encoded and genetic information to build further protiens? a. b. c. d.
RNA Genes DNA mRNA ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg235
217. RBCs carry the largest amount of oxygen to the tissues, are also called: a. Leukocytes b. Erythrocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg236
218. Potassium ions play role in: a. b. c. d.
Assists in maintaining water balance Used in formation of bone tissue Assists in acid-base balance Used in cell membrane polarization
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg236
219. The enzymes inactivation and denaturation temperature: a. b. c. d.
37°C and 40°C 40°C and 42°C 45°C and 55°C 47°C and 50°C ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg238
220. AB + CD → AD + CB, symbol used for: a. b. c. d.
Decomposition reaction Exchange reaction Synthesis reaction Reversible reaction ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg238
221. Which is the powerful energy source of the body and is used to drive chemical reactions? a. b. c. d.
ATP Glucose FADH NADH ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg239
222. The unit of measurement for electrolytes: a. b. c. d.
mmol/L mg/dL ng/mL mEq ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg239
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223. The sodium-potassium pump is helped by presence of: a. b. c. d.
Insulin Cortisol Adrenaline Dopamine ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg239
224. pH of stomach acid: a. b. c. d.
0 1 2 3 ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg240
225. pH of blood: a. b. c. d.
5.5 6.6 7.5 7.8
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Pg240 226. If the pH of human body falls below 7, what could happen? a. b. c. d.
Abnormal psychological state Coma Alter cell functions Sustained skeletal muscles and contraction ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg240
227. Number of functions, a cell perform: a. b. c. d.
5 6 7 8 ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg240
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228. The substances which are able to pass through cell membrane: a. b. c. d.
CO₂ Water Sugar Proteins ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg241
229. Which one of these is calcium channel blocker? a. b. c. d.
Lidocaine Amlodipine Tocainide Moricizine ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg242
230. The process glycolysis, the first step in cellular respiration occurs in: a. b. c. d.
Cytoplasm Cell membrane Nucleus Organelles ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg242
231. Which cells are incapable of dividing: a. b. c. d.
Sperm cells Nerve cells Skin cells Cancer cells ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg242
232. Which organelle perform house-keeping tasks? a. Ribosomes
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Golgi apparatus c. Centrioles d. Lysosomes ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg243
233. The nucleolus is dense with: a. b. c. d.
DNA RNA Chromosomes None of them ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg244
234. Choose the correct sequence of life cycle of cell: a. b. c. d.
Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Differentiation Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokinesis, Differentiation Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase, Differentiation Cytokinesis, Interphase, Differentiation, Mitosis ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg244
235. How many number of chromosomes reduced during meiosis? a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 23 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg244
236. Choose the correct sequence of mitosis: a. b. c. d.
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Anaphase ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg244
237. Oncogenes occur after mutation and it happens in:
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a. b. c. d.
Tumor Benign tumor Malignant tumor Neoplasm ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg245
238. The net result of glycolysis: a. 4 ATP, 2 Pyruvic acid b. 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvic acid c. 2 ATP, 4 Pyruvic acid d. 4 ATP, 4 Pyruvic acid ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg246
239. At the end of cellular respiration, total number of ATP molecules: a. b. c. d.
32 34 36 38 ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg246
240. At birth, the total percentage of fluid in the body is: a. b. c. d.
60%-65% 65%-70% 70%-75% 75%-80% ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg248
241. How many sodium ions are removed to push potassium back in the cell in sodium-potassium pump? a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 4 ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg252
NURSING TEST BANK
242. Which type of tissues are around lines of trachea and lining of fallopian tubes? a. b. c. d.
Simple cuboidal Stratified cuboidal Pseudostratified columnar Transitional ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg254
243. Histamine is secreted from: a. b. c. d.
Fibroblasts Macrophages Mast cells None of them ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg257
244. Which of these following contains nervous tissues? a. b. c. d.
Brain Peripheral nerves Spinal cord All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg260
245. Which of these membrane lines body cavities that lack openings to the outside of the body? a. b. c. d.
Serous membrane Mucous membrane Cutaneous membrane Synovial membrane
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg260
NURSING TEST BANK
246. Which of these processes help the body reduce excess temperature? a. b. c. d.
Convection Conduction None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg261
247. Which of these is considered as the largest system in the body? a. b. c. d.
Skeletal system Muscular system Nervous system Integumentary system
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg262
248. The largest organ of the integumentary system is: a. b. c. d.
Liver Skin Brain Kidney
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg264
249. The stratum corneum are dead cells that have their cytoplasm replaced with: a. b. c. d.
Glucose Keratin Protein Fat
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg264
NURSING TEST BANK
250. Which of these elements is responsible for color variation in blood vessels? a. b. c. d.
Oxygen Hydrogen Carbon-dioxide Nitrogen
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg265
251. Which of these structures mediate the senses of touch? a. b. c. d.
Blood vessels Sebaceous glands Nerves endings Neurons
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg265
252. Which of the following is present between dermis and underlying muscle and bone? a. b. c. d.
Subcutaneous tissue Superficial fascia Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Connective tissue
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg265
253. Each follicle is surrounded by: a. b. c. d.
Arrector pili Fascia Lipids Protein
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg265
NURSING TEST BANK
254. In which region of the nail, epithelial cells divide and become keratinized? a. b. c. d.
Crescent moon shaped nebula Upper nail Outer region of nail None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg265
255. Which of these glands secrete earwax? a. b. c. d.
Ceruminous glands Adrenaline glands Pituitary gland Thyroid gland
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg266
256. What is the function of mammary glands? a. b. c. d.
To secrete milk To produce cerumen To make vasopressin None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg266
257. The matrix that gives the bone its strength is mainly composed of: a. b. c. d.
Calcium phosphate Calcium super-phosphate Phosphorous Magnesium
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg266
NURSING TEST BANK
258. Which of these hormone stimulates the release of calcium from bones when it becomes low in blood and tissue fluid? a. b. c. d.
Vasopressin Estrogen Androgen Parathyroid hormone
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg266
259. Which of the following connective tissues that work with bones to provide frame work of the skeleton? a. b. c. d.
Cartilage Tendons Ligaments All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg266
260. Which shaft of the long bone that is composed of compact bone tissue? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Metaphysis d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg268
261. Which of these form bone and maintain the strength of existing bone? a. b. c. d.
Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Calcium
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg267
NURSING TEST BANK
262. After how much time bones begin to form in utero after fertilization? a. b. c. d.
5 weeks 8 weeks 7 weeks 6 weeks
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg268
263. The total number of joints in the human body are: a. 206 b. 207 c. 210 d. 230
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg271
264. The number of bones which skull is composed of are: a. b. c. d.
30 28 29 31
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg273
265. Which of these divisions of regions of vertebrae is not correct? a. b. c. d.
7 cervical vertebrae 11 thoracic vertebrae 5 lumbar vertebrae 5 sacral vertebrae
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg278
NURSING TEST BANK
266. The central region of the thorax is known as: a. b. c. d.
Mediastinum Medulla Cervix None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg280
267. Which of these is strongest bone of the body? a. b. c. d.
Ribs Femur Fibula Skull bone
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg284
268. The number of bones present in tarsus is: a. b. c. d.
7 8 10 None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg285
269. The process by which cells activate in response to the action potential is referred as: a. b. c. d.
Depolarization Repolarization None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg290
NURSING TEST BANK
270. The amount of blood glucose metabolizes by brain in in the portion of: a. b. c. d.
60mg/min 80mg/min 100mg/min 45mg/min
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg297
271. Which of the following receptors primarily cause vasoconstriction? a. b. c. d.
Alpha1 receptors Alpha2 receptors Beta1 receptors Beta2 receptors
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg313
272. Which of these hormones are considered as derivatives of cholesterol? a. b. c. d.
Steroid hormones Growth hormone Amine hormones Local hormones
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg325
273. The length of the esophagus is about: a. b. c. d.
10 inches 25cm 15 inches Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg378
NURSING TEST BANK
274. Which of the following is considered function of vagina? a. b. c. d.
Holds the spermatozoa Serves as the passageway for childbirth Serves as the passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg396
CHAPTER 9 275. The reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type is called: a. b. c. d.
Metaplasia Dysplasia Hyperplasia Hypertrophy ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg. 420
276. Edema is caused by: a. b. c. d.
Arteriolar dilation Venous obstruction Pregnancy All of them ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg. 421
277. A serum sodium level greater than or equal to 143 mEq/Lis: a. b. c. d.
Hyponatremia Hypernatremia A hypotonic fluid deficit Both a and c ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg422
278. Hypophosphatemia symptoms include:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Rhabdomyolysis Tremor Paresthesia Seizures ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg425
279. Signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis: a. b. c. d.
Vertigo Bradypnea CNS depression Tachypnea ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg427
280. Higher level carbon mono-oxide is fatal in: a. b. c. d.
1hr 2hr 3hr 4hr
ANS: B DIF: Moderate DIF: Pg430 281. Apoptosis activated prematurely by: a. b. c. d.
Death of hepatocytes Aging Menses Thymus involution ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg433
282. Areas of necrosis where the gross and microscopic tissue and some of the cells are recognizable and caused by acute ischemia, acute toxicity: a. b. c. d.
Caseation necrosis Dry gangrene Fat necrosis Simple necrosis ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg433
NURSING TEST BANK
283. The hormones released in response to hypo perfusion: a. b. c. d.
Aldosterone Dopamine Serotonin Epipherine ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg434
284. Tension pneumothorax is also called: a. b. c. d.
Blood clot in lung Vena cava syndrome Lung collapse Clot in vessels ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg436
285. Types of disruptive shock: a. b. c. d.
2 3 4 5 ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: 437
286. To test the capillary refill time, briefly squeeze the toenail or fingernail, and then observe the time it takes for color to return. If a person has shock, how much time will it take to return : a. b. c. d.
More than 1 sec More than 2 sec More than 3 sec More than 4 sec ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg438
287. MODS stand for and described in: a. b. c. d.
Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, 1978 Multi Organ Disruption Syndrome, 1976 Multiple Organ Disruption Syndrome, 1977 Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, 1975
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg438
288. Function of kallikrein-kinin system: a. b. c. d.
Influence cardiac remodeling Contracts smooth muscle Hypotension Sepsis ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg438
289. Stomach acid include in body’s line of defense: a. b. c. d.
Inflammatory barrier Anatomic barrier Immune barrier All of them ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg439
290. A type of white blood cell that phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells, and cellular debris: a. b. c. d.
Basophil Macrophage Mast cells Monocytes ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg440
291. Cells that are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus and destroy antigens: a. b. c. d.
Plasma cells T cells Killer T cells B cells ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg440
292. The trans placental passage of antibodies and the passage of antibodies in colostrum which protects the infant until his or her immune system matures sufficiently to take over is an example of: a. Natural immunity b. Adaptive immunity
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Hormonal response d. Cell-mediated immunity ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg441
293. Prostaglandins comprise a group of lipids: a. b. c. d.
5 10 15 20 ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg447
294. Serum prothrombin conversion accelerator has a factor number: a. b. c. d.
5 6 7 8
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Pg448 295. If a person is suffering from tuberculosis, which type of hypersentivity reaction would activate: a. b. c. d.
Delayed hypersensitivity Immune complex disease Cytotoxic hypersensitivity Immediate hypersensitivity ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg451
296. Bleeding is the main symptom of: a. b. c. d.
Graves’ disease Neutropenia ITP Myasthenia gravis ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg453
297. If a person is taking corticosteroids and having compromised immune system would indicate: a. Nutritional deficiency b. Trauma stress
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Iatrogenic immunodeficiency d. None of them ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg455
298. Which one of them is uncontrollable risk factor diseases? a. b. c. d.
Genetics Smoking Stress Alcohol consumption ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg455
299. Inflammation of the lungs, ranging from mild to severe; cough and fever, shortness of breath at rest, chills, sweating, chest pain, blood-tinged mucus indicates: a. b. c. d.
Emphysema Sinusitis Asthma Pneumonia ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg457
300. Tay-Sach’s disease trait includes in: a. b. c. d.
Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Both of them None of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg458
301. A floppy mitral valve, mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is relatively common, affecting male and female: a. 2.5% and 7.6% b. 3.5% and 7.0% c. 2.0% and 7.5% d. 3.0% and 8.2% ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg461
302. Biliary colic pain occurs in the area:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Upper left quadrant Lower left quadrant Upper right quadrant Lower right quadrant ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg463
303. An adult who is 5 feet 9 inches tall (2 m), weighs more than 270 pounds categorize in: a. b. c. d.
Overweight Obesity Morbid obesity Both b and c ANS: C
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg463
304. The neuromuscular disorder which only affects male: a. b. c. d.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy Huntington disease Multiple sclerosis Alzheimer disease ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg466
305. Correct the sequence of general adaptation syndrome: a. b. c. d.
Alarm, Exhaustion, Resistance Exhaustion, Alarm, Resistance Resistance, Alarm, Exhaustion Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg467
CHAPTER 10 306. The time duration of an infant ranges from: a. 1 month to 2 years b. 2 months to 3 years c. 4 months to 2.5 years
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 1 month to 1 year
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg477
307. At the time of birth, the average pulse rate of born baby is: a. b. c. d.
100 beats/min 120 beats/min 130 beats/min 140 beats/min
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg478
308. The normal oxygen saturation rate in infant is: a. 94% b. More than 90% c. 91% d. 94% or greater
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg478
309. Which of the following best matches the normal blood glucose level of new born baby? a. b. c. d.
45mg/dl 55mg/dl 34mg/dl 60mg/dl
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg478
310. At birth, systolic blood pressure of an infant is usually in the range of: a. 67 to 84 mm Hg b. 65 to 85 mm Hg c. 60 to 75 mm Hg
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg478
311. You respond to a call for an infant who is choking, what would you analyze first? a. b. c. d.
Nasal passages Chest analysis Blood pressure Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg478
312. You provided bag-mask ventilation to an infant, mistakenly you have applied excessive force. Which of the following you can’t rule out? a. b. c. d.
Barotrauma Heart attack Seizures Epilepsy
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg479
313. Which of these statements best matches with the Moro-reflex? a. b. c. d.
Happens when infant is caught off Occurs when an object is placed in infant’s hand Occurs when something touches an infant’s cheek None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg479
314. Which of the following is suitable statement for rooting reflex? a. When something touches an infant’s cheek b. When infant’s lips are stroked c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of above
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg479
315. Which of these durations is correct for early infant’s teething? a. b. c. d.
4 and 7 months 8 and 9 months 3 and 4 months 11 and 13 months
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg479
316. The child keeps the set of ‘baby teeth’ until around the age of about: a. b. c. d.
8 years 9 years 11 years 6 years
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg480
317. Which of the following is a phase of situational crisis of an infant’s reaction? a. b. c. d.
Protest phase Despair phase With-drawl All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg481
318. In most children, ages from 3 to 5 years, the systolic blood pressure is approximately: a. 105 mm Hg b. 100 mm Hg c. 140 mm Hg
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 120 mm Hg
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg482
319. At what age, the child’s brain develop weight 90% of its final adult weight? a. b. c. d.
5 years 4 years 7 years 3 years
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg483
320. A child is of 3 years age. How much words are possible for him to use in his sentence? a. b. c. d.
Three-word sentences Two-word sentences Can’t make sentence Can make whole sentence
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg483
321. Which of these parenting style demands absolute obedience from child no matter what the situation? a. b. c. d.
Authoritarian Permissive Easy going None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg484
322. ‘’ Parents doesn’t impose many rules, if any, on the child. The child is in control and the parent takes a tolerant approach to the child’s behavior ’’. Which type of parenting style is this? a. Authoritarian b. Insecure c. Permissive
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of these
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg484
323. ‘’ Children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want’’. Which type of reasoning best matches the above statement? a. b. c. d.
Pre-conventional reasoning Conventional reasoning Post-conventional reasoning All of above
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg485
324. The systolic blood pressure in adolescents in within the range of: a. 110-131 mm Hg b. 120-130 mm Hg c. 130-150 mm Hg d. 90-100 mm Hg
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg485
325. Which of the following phases includes the change in blood chemistry? a. b. c. d.
Adolescence Infant Early adults None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg485
326. In early adults, the pulse rate is around: a. 80 beats/min b. 90 beats/min
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 100 beats/min d. 70 beats/min
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg487
327. Which of the following disease affects coronary vessels, cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of blood vessels? a. b. c. d.
Atherosclerosis Arthritis Delirium Diabetes
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg488
328. The condition aneurysm involves which of the following statement? a. b. c. d.
Weakening of blood vessel wall High cholesterol level Lack of insulin None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg488
329. Which of these are considered as capillaries and responsible for basic filtering in the kidneys? a. b. c. d.
Alveoli Nephrons Hadrons Leptons ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg490
330. An adolescent is classified as: a. 12 to 18 years b. 10 to 19 years c. 13 to 21 years
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 8 to 18 years
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg496
331. Which of the following characteristics describe the development of an adolescent? a. b. c. d.
Permanent teeth come in and remain Privacy issues arise especially regarding parents and siblings The human body is functioning at its peak performance A decreased interest in sexual relations occurs
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg496
332. Adolescents typically struggle with creating their own identities, and which of the following psychosocial concerns? a. b. c. d.
Public image Career success Education Family
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg496
333. Hormonal changes in adolescent girls cause which of the following developments? a. b. c. d.
Beginning of menopause Production of testosterone Menarche Release of gonadotropin ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg496
334. Adolescents are at a higher risk than other population groups for: a. Pneumonia and bronchitis b. Cardiovascular disease c. Prostate and breast cancer
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Suicide and depression
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg496
335. Personal ethics are usually developed during the adolescent phase, and are often primarily influenced by: a. b. c. d.
Childhood friends Siblings Teachers Parents
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATEREF: Pg496
336. By the age of 80, in CNS, brain weight may shrink up to: a. 10% to 20% b. 40% to 50% c. 20% to 25% d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg496
CHAPTER 11 337. In patient’s assessment, differential diagnosis based upon: a. b. c. d.
Scene safety Patient’s examination Treatment plan Reassessment
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg501
338. Which of the function is not a part of scene size-up? a. b. c. d.
Ensure scene safety Take standard precautions Determine number of patients Physical exam
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg502
339. Which critical system balance the body like a legged stool? a. b. c. d.
Respiratory Cardiovascular system Neurologic system All of these
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg503
340. As you are a paramedic, how would you start the dynamic scene management? a. b. c. d.
Scene size-up Primary survey History taking Reassessment
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg505
341. What would you do as a paramedic when scene doesn’t appear safe before you begin the patient care? a. b. c. d.
Secure the scene Call additional resources Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg505
342. What is the possible value of certified high visibility safety vest according to (ANSI) American National Standard Institute? A. 107 or 207 B. 207or 307 C. 109 or 605 D. 104 or 405
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg506
343. Methamphetamine stimulates a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.
Anxiety Vomiting Fatigue Sleepless
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg507
344. Delirium is characterized by acute sudden change in: a. b. c. d.
Mental status Heart condition Lungs infection Tuberculosis ANS: A DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg507
345. Examination technique included in primary survey is: a. b. c. d.
Inspection Palpation Auscultation All of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg510
346. In how much time will you get the general impression of a patient in primary survey? a. b. c. d.
1 minute 2 minutes 50 seconds 60 to 90 seconds
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg510
347. Which of the following usually follows the ABCDE (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure) ? a. b. c. d.
History taking Primary survey Secondary assessment Re-assessment
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg510
348. You are examining a patient having respiratory airway problem, which problem will happen if you are suctioning for too long? a. b. c. d.
Hypoxia Delirium Tuberculosis Bronchitis ANS: A DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg512
349. If you determine as a paramedic that patient’s airway is not maintaining by other means, then what would you do as an alternative? a. b. c. d.
Suctioning Endotracheal intubation Oxygen Invasive technique
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg512
350. The normal pulse rate in resting adults is: a. b. c. d.
60 to 100 beats/min 50 to 90 beats/min 100 to 150 beats/min None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg513
351. You experience that the patient’s skin color is red (flushed), what would be the possible cause of this? a. b. c. d.
Hypertension Excessive blood loss Liver dysfunction Anxiety
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg514
352. The patient’s skin is warm and dry, what is the cause of this? a. b. c. d.
Fever Exposure to cold Shock Excessive body heat ANS: A DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg514
353. A quick assessment for neurological deficits is done by: a. b. c. d.
GCS ( Glasgow coma scale) Ventilator Stoichiometry None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg515
354. As a paramedic, how would you control the angry situation of the patient who is not responding to you calmly? a. b. c. d.
Control your anger Ask for help Call another paramedic Leave the patient un-attended
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg528
355. How would you obtain the patient’s present illness history? a. b. c. d.
Open-ended questions What prescription medicines are you taking? Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg533
356. Severe diplopia is a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.
Double vision Sensitivity to light Myopia Night-blindness ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg537
357. What is photophobia? a. b. c. d.
Sensitivity to light Ringing in the ears Blood in vomit None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg537
358. Rhinorrhea is a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.
Sensitive epilepsy Deafness Runny nose Trauma
ANS: C
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg537
359. Which one of these is similar to polyuria? a. b. c. d.
Increased frequency of urination Swelling of hands and feet Weight changes Increased thirst
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg538
360. Dysuria is a condition in which person feels: a. b. c. d.
Painful urination Sudden need to urinate Waking in the middle of night for urination Increased appetite
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg538
361. What question would you ask first from the neurologically effected patient? a. b. c. d.
History of seizures Loss of sensation Historical paralysis Current illness
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg539
362. Secondary assessment involves the following except: a. b. c. d.
Baseline vital signs Monitoring device Full body scan Reassessment
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg540
363. Rapid full body scan of a patient requires time about: a. b. c. d.
60 to 90 seconds 1 to 2 minutes 90 to 120 seconds 4 minutes
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg541
364. During full body scan, a series open wounds are examined. Which is not a part of this examination? a. b. c. d.
Abrasions Lacerations Punctures Burns ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg541
365. The grinding sensation or sound made when two pieces of broken bone rub together is known as: a. b. c. d.
Crepitus Arthritis Delirium None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg541
NURSING TEST BANK
366. Arterial oxygen saturation is determined via : a. b. c. d.
Pulse oximetry Stethoscope Blood pressure monitor Sphygmomanometer
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg547
367. You are examining some patients, on which patient will you perform a focused assessment? a. b. c. d.
Neurologically damaged patient Patient having epilepsy Patient having seizures Responsive patient
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg549
368. What’s the function of skin referred to as largest organ? a. b. c. d.
Transmit information from environment to brain Protect the body from environment Regulate body temperature All of these ANS: D DIF: EASY REF: Pg554
369. Anisocoria is accompanied by asymmetric pupils with greater than: a. b. c. d.
2-mm difference 1-mm difference 3-mm difference None of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg558
NURSING TEST BANK
370. Which of the following systolic blood pressure in mm of Hg represents stage 2 hypertension? a. <120 b. 120-139 c. 140-159 d. Greater than and equal to 160
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg570
371. What would you do as a paramedic when a patient feels shortness of breath in certain position? a. b. c. d.
Elevate back of stretcher to a 30 degree angle Give sudden oxygen mask Pumping and suctioning All of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg591
372. As a paramedic, after how much time would you come to see unstable patients? a. b. c. d.
Every 10 minutes Every 5 minutes Every 3 minutes Every 2 minutes
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg593
373. You are examining a patient having chest. As a part of your secondary assessment you should obtain: a. b. c. d.
A blood glucose test A 12-lead ECG Prehospital Stroke Scale Complete assessment of bowel sounds
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg602
NURSING TEST BANK
374. Which method is used to check neurological function? a. b. c. d.
Babinski Dialysis MRI None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg584
375. When taking the patient’s history having chest pain, what is the best phrase questions about pain? a. b. c. d.
Use open-ended questions Begin with yes or no questions Pose indirect questions Focus on location, not severity
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg602
CHAPTER 12 376. Which of the following crucial steps are involved in cookbook medicine? a. b. c. d.
Identify problems Set patient care priorities Develop treatment plan All of these
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg603
377. As a paramedic, which step would you follow first in the cornerstone of your paramedic practice? a. Evaluating
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Synthesizing c. Gathering d. Making hypothesis
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg603
378. What would you do in a situation where a patient with a minor sprained ankle asks you for morphine for pain? a. Deny his/her demand b. Ask about its knowledge of medications c. Make decision and tell that why the drug can’t be administered d. None of these
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg604
379. Comorbidity is severe condition happen when: a. b. c. d.
The patient have bowel movements Epilepsy Seizures The patient has two or more diseases
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg604
380. Diabetes often leads to the condition of: a. b. c. d.
Vascular diseases Trauma Heart attack High cholesterol level
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg604
381. High Blood glucose level can cause which condition to diabetic patient? a. Thickening blood stickier
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Heart attack c. Heat stroke d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg604
382. In your paramedic practice, which is the third cornerstone involving in practice? a. b. c. d.
Independent decision making React Working under pressure Clear thinking process
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg606
383. You see a substantial amount of blood gushing from the area of his femoral artery with every contraction of his heart. What would you do to the patient in this condition? a. b. c. d.
Recognize severe artery and apply pressure Put hemostatic dressing to ensure bleeding control Call another paramedic for help Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg606
384. You are a paramedic and see a patient who is in cardiac arrest on her front porch. What you should immediately do to handle the scene? a. b. c. d.
Take patient to the hospital Do suctioning Perform high quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation Perform cardiac shocks
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg606
385. Which is the fourth and final cornerstone of your paramedic practice?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Ability to think Work under pressure Analyze range of patient conditions Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg606
386. Patients in critical condition need immediate care and transport to survive. With what tags they are indicated by? a. Green tags b. Red tags c. White tags d. Black tags
ANS: B
DIF: MODERTE
REF: Pg606
387. Patients in unstable conditions are second priority and are indicated by: a. b. c. d.
Yellow tags Green tags Red tags Black tags
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg606
388. The groups of patients who are left with nonsurvivable injuries or the obviously dead are termed in: a. b. c. d.
Black tags Green tags White tags None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg606
389. The patients who are minimally injured are considered in:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Green tags White tags Red tags Yellow tags
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg606
390. Which is not the example of patients having diseases that may cause life threats? a. b. c. d.
Major multisystem trauma Devastating single system trauma End stage disease presentation Simple abrasions
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg607
391. In your paramedic practice, during the second stage of critical thinking, you must evaluate all the information and form a conclusion. This is called: a. b. c. d.
Final survey Data interpretation Conclusion History making
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg608
392. If your patient is having considerable difficulty breathing then you would apply non-rebreathing mask with oxygen flowing at: a. b. c. d.
15L/min 20L/min 16L/min 22L/min
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg609
NURSING TEST BANK
393. To effectively read the scene, which following would you must evaluate? a. b. c. d.
Overall safety Environmental conditions Immediate surroundings All of these
ANS: D DIF: EASY REF: Pg611 394. As a paramedic, what will you feel after making a mistake? a. b. c. d.
Feel successful Learn how to avoid repeating a mistake Certain feels good None of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg614
395. Which of the following is not involved in reading the scene? a. b. c. d.
Evaluating the scene safety Evaluating environmental conditions Evaluating the location of the ambulance Evaluating access and egress issues
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg618
396. After reading the desired scene, the next step in the Six RS of clinical decision making is: a. b. c. d.
Relieving the patient of worry Reading the ambulance for transport Requesting advance life support Read the patient
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg618
397. The third step of critical thinking called react involve which of the following steps as your first priority in patient care is:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Correct life threats Consider the worst-care scenario Complete a full-body scan Establish command of the scene
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg618
398. If you arrived on a scene and found the fight occurring and no police presence, using your best judgement what would you do? a. b. c. d.
Stop your vehicle and remain inside Get out of your vehicle and stop the fight Stop the vehicle and yell for them to stop Leave the scene until police arrive
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg618
399. The chest pain of the 58-year old man having no history of cardiac disease can be relieved by: a. b. c. d.
Simply sitting Give him nitroglycerine Give him oxygen therapy Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg618
CHAPTER 13 400. According to, Controlled Substances Act cocaine comes under the category/schedule: a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 4 ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg623
401. The medication streptokinase and morphine comes from the source:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Animal, Plant Micro-organism, Mineral Plant, Micro-organism Animal, Mineral ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg624
402. Tetra Caine comes in form of: a. b. c. d.
Tablet Droplet Parenteral Solution Suppository ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg624
403. The number of components of medication profile: a. b. c. d.
5 8 10 12 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg626
404. Which class indicates that the evidence does not support that there is a benefit and may support that there is a harmful consequence; the treatment is not helpful and may be harmful? a. b. c. d.
Class 1 Class 2a Class 2b Class 3 ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg627
405. Which drug when binds to the receptor site, blocks cellular activity? a. b. c. d.
Natural chemical Antagonist drug Agonist drug None of them ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg629
NURSING TEST BANK
406. Which receptor is present at neuromuscular junction, allowing acetylcholine to stimulate muscle contraction? a. b. c. d.
Alpha-2 Beta-2 Nicotinic Opioid ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg630
407. If a medication is water-soluble, higher weight-based doses must be administered to: a. b. c. d.
Adults Older people Infants All of them ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg632
408. Which medication precipitate hemolysis in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency? a. b. c. d.
Aspirin Lasix Lidocaine Esalgan ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg633
409. Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, or both, and the risk of the use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant, this implication is categorized by letter: a. b. c. d.
A C X D ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg634
410. Certain antibiotics and anti-seizure medications are known to cause possibly fatal medication reaction that mimics a burn and cause syndrome called:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Lyell’s syndrome Steven-Johnson syndrome Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis All of them ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg637
411. Repeated doses of medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, making the medication virtually ineffective is called: a. b. c. d.
Cross-tolerance Anaphylaxis Tolerance Tachyphylaxis ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg638
412. Fluconazole (Diflucan), an antifungal medication, inhibits the function of cytochrome P-450 enzyme CYP3A4 is an type of interaction: a. b. c. d.
Altered absorption Altered metabolism Altered distribution Altered elimination ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg640
413. A single dose of aspirin is rapidly eliminated by the body, usually within several hours, but can cause an inhibition of platelet activity lasting for: a. b. c. d.
3-10days 5-12days 8-15days 10-15days ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg641
414. Midazolam is administered through the route: a. b. c. d.
Endotracheal Intranasal Intravenous Intramuscular
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg642
415. The intraosseous site proximal humerus has a targeted vein: a. b. c. d.
Popliteal vein Femoral vein Great saphenous vein Axillary vein ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg643
416. Xopenex is administered through the route: a. b. c. d.
Transdermal Sublingual Inhaled Ophthalmic
ANS: C DIF: Hard REF: Pg644 417. For larger medication molecules, cells use a process called: a. b. c. d.
Pinocytosis Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Active transport ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg645
418. The cytochrome in the liver uses a complex, enzyme-based process to alter the chemical structure of a medication or other chemical: a. b. c. d.
P-420system P-430 system P-440 system P-450 system ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg646
419. Ethanol is an example of: a. First-order elimination b. Zero-order elimination c. Half life
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg648
420. What would be the first step in medication administration? a. b. c. d.
Right time Right route Right dose Right patient ANS: D
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg648
421. Correct the sequence of rights of medication Administration: a. b. c. d.
Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right assessment, Right evaluation, Right reporting Right reporting, Right Assessment, Right to refuse, Right evaluation, Right patient education Right Assessment, Right Evaluation, Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right reporting Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right evaluation, Right assessment, Right reporting ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg648
422. In the word SC, what could be the possible misinterpretation? a. b. c. d.
Subcutaneous Sublingual Sodium chloride All of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg650
423. Which receptor type cause sympathetic stimulation in heart? a. b. c. d.
Alpha Beta -1 Beta – 2 Alpha – 1 ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg650
424. Which one is parasympathetic blocker? a. Atropine b. Levophed
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Isuprel d. Adrenalin ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg653
425. Vermox lies under the medication class: a. b. c. d.
Antacids AntIhelmintics Antidiarrheals Antiflatulents ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg654
426. Which medication class has the primary body affection on endocrine and immune system? a. b. c. d.
Corticosteroids Cholinergics Beta-agonists Diuretics ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg655
427. Which diuretic comes under vasodilator category? a. b. c. d.
Furosemide Triamterene Chlorothiazide hydralazine ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg667
428. Benazepril comes under the category of anti-hypertensive agents: a. b. c. d.
Alpha blocker Alpha agonist ACE inhibitors Nonselective beta-blockers ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg668
429. In cardiac arrest situations, magnesium sulfate can be given by slow IV push during 1 to 2 minutes: a. 1-2 g
NURSING TEST BANK
b. 2-3g c. 3-4g d. 4-5g ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg676
CHAPTER 14 430. If the provider 1 says that he is going to give dose, drug name, route, rate, reason then what would be the response of provider 2? a. b. c. d.
Ready Volume Contraindications Sounds good ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg688
431. The cardinal sign of over hydration is : a. b. c. d.
Shortness of breath Puffy eyelids Edema Acute weight gain ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg691
432. In lactate ringer, the quantity of sodium and calcium: a. b. c. d.
135 meq/L , 8meq/L 130meq/L, 3meq/L 513meq/L, 0meq/L 154meq/L, 0meq/L ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg693
433. Which blood type is universally compatible? a. b.
A negative AB positive
NURSING TEST BANK
c. d.
O negative O positive ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg694
434. Micro drip sets allow (drops) per milliliter (mL) through the needlelike orifice inside the drip chamber: a. b. c. d.
60gtt 80gtt 90gtt 100gtt ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg696
435. In preparing administration set, once you set the precautionary standard and ensure everything, what would be the next step? a. b. c. d.
Squeezing the drip and running the fluid into line to flush air out Removal of protective coverings Twist the protective cover of the opposite end of the IV tubing to allow air to escape Check the drip chamber ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg697
436. The largest gauge in over-the-needle catheters: a. b. c. d.
14-guage 22guage 25guage 27guage ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg699
437. The constricting band above the intended IV site should be placed approximately: a. b. c. d.
2 to 4 inches 4 to 8 inches 8 to 10 inches 10 to 12 inches ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg703
438. the physical blockage of a vein or catheter is called:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Occlusion Infiltration Vein irritation Thrombophlebitis ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg710
439. If the hematoma develops as a result of discontinuing the IV line, then apply direct pressure with: a. b. c. d.
2-inch × 2-inch gauze pad to the site 4-inch × 4-inch gauze pad to the site 6-inch × 6-inch gauze pad to the site 4-inch × 4-inch gauze pad to the site ANS: B
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg710
440. The lavender blood tube top contains: a. b. c. d.
Clot activator used for serum-based tests Heparin used for some plasma-based determinations Anticoagulant EDTA used for blood count Citrate required for blood clotting ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg712
441. The FAST devices stands for: a. b. c. d.
First Access for Shock and Trauma Fast Access for Shock and Trauma First Ability for Shock and Trauma Fast Ability for Shock and Trauma ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg715
442. To attach the FAST1 device, apply approximately ................. of pressure until you feel the infusion tube separate from the FAST1 introducer: a. b. c. d.
5kg 10kg 15kg 20kg ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg719
NURSING TEST BANK
443. The IO needle should be inserted in bone at an angle of: a. b. c. d.
30° 45° 60° 90° ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg720
444. The formula to calculate fluid infusion rate: a. b. c. d.
Volume to be infused × gtt/mL of administration set/ total time of infusion in minutes = gtt/min Volume to be infused/gtt/mL of administration set/ total time of infusion in minutes= gtt/min Volume to be infused ×gtt× mL of administration set / total time of infusion in minutes = gtt/min Volume to be infused×gtt/mL of administration set× total time of infusion in minutes= gtt/min ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg727
445. Drugs taken by mouth are absorbed at a slow rate from the stomach and intestines—usually somewhere between: a. b. c. d.
20-30 mins 30-60mins 30-90mins 90-120mins ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg729
446. The saline solution that goes directly into the digestive tract with a temperature of: a. b. c. d.
90°F 94°F 96°F 98°F ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg730
447. When the paramedic administered the medication through nasogastric tube, draw 30-60ml of saline solution and irrigate the gastric tube, what would be the next step? a. b. c. d.
Taking standard precautions Drawing up the appropriate amount of medication and it’s slow injection Injecting 30-60ml ensuring tube is flushed and patient received the medication Clamping off the proximal end of the gastric tube
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg731
448. Hypodermic needle lengths vary from: a. b. c. d.
0.9 to 5cm 1 to 5cm 0.5 to 1 cm 0.2 to 0.5 cm ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg733 449. Small glass or plastic bottles with a rubber stopper top; that contain single or multiple doses of a medication are called:
a. b. c. d.
Ampules Vials Prefilled syringes None of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg736
450. For intradermal injection, the syringe used is of: a. b. c. d.
0.2 – 0.5cm 0.4 – 0.6cm 0.9- 3cm 1 – 5cm ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg737
451. The buttocks, specifically the upper lateral aspect of either side area comes in: a. b. c. d.
Gluteal area Deltoid muscle Rectus femoris muscle Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: A
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg739
452. Nitroglycerin medication comes under the class:
a. b.
Nasal route Ocular route
NURSING TEST BANK
c. d.
Buccal route Transdermal route ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg750
453. Earwax removal preparations—are administered via the mucous membranes of: a. b. c. d.
Intranasal Aural Both of them None of them ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: 753
454. Patients with respiratory emergencies may be breathing inadequately, in this case will use: a. b. c. d.
Beta-agonist medication via nebulizer MDI Small-volume nebulizer in-line with the assistive device All of them ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg755
455. Devices that have been inserted by direct venipuncture through the skin directly into a selected vein are called: a. b. c. d.
Tunneling devices Non-tunneling devices Implanted devices None of them ANS: B
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg759
456. The rate of absorption of intravenous route: a. b. c. d.
10-20 sec 20-30 sec 30-60 sec 1-2min ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg762
457. The rate of absorption of sublingual route: a.
1-2min
NURSING TEST BANK
b. c. d.
2-3min 3-5min 5-6min ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg762
458. The drug naloxone through IV route has absorption duration: a. b. c. d.
20-40min 20-60min 20-80min 20-120min ANS: D
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg762
459. The drug sublimaze through IM route take duration: a. b. c. d.
72h 20-40min 1-2hr 60min ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg762
CHAPTER 15 460. How much time can brain survive without oxygen before permanent damage occurs to it? a. b. c. d.
8 minutes 6 minutes 7 minutes 12 minutes
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg776
461. Which of the following can be a part of pharynx? a. Nasopharynx b. Oropharynx c. Laryngopharynx
NURSING TEST BANK
d. All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg776
462. Which side of the thyroid cartilage lies the cricoid ring? a. b. c. d.
Inferior Posterior Frontal Anterior
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: 776
463. You are performing ET intubation, which of the following you must visualize before inserting ET tube? a. b. c. d.
Epiglottis Abdomen Nasal cavity Oropharynx
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg777
464. Oxygenation process can’t take place without: a. b. c. d.
Ventilation Suctioning Oximetry None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg777
465. Hypoxia is a dangerous condition usually accompanied by: a. Low blood sugar b. Inadequate hemoglobin c. Excess carbon-dioxide
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Lack of oxygen
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg778
466. How much time is enough to cause cardiac irritability due to lack of oxygen in blood? a. b. c. d.
0-1 min 2-3 minutes 4-6 minutes 10 minutes
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg779
467. Which of these is termed as the early symptoms of hypoxia? a. b. c. d.
Irritability Weak pulse Dyspnea Change in mental status
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg779
468. The normal resting minute ventilation in most people is: a. b. c. d.
7L/min 6L/min 9L/min 10L/min
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg779
469. The resting alveolar volume is: a. 4L/min b. 5L/min c. 6L/min
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg779
470. In pulmonary artery, blood flow is approximately 5L/min with overall ventilation to perfusion ratio of: e. f. g. h.
8:9 L/min 4:5 L/min 6:9 L/min 2:3 L/min
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg779
471. Medications that depress the central nervous system (CNS) include: a. b. c. d.
Opioids Benzodiazepines Aspirin Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg779
472. Which of the following is a neuromuscular disorder and affect the ability of nervous system to control breathing? a. b. c. d.
Poliomyelitis Hypoxia Hypercapnia Hypoventilation
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg779
473. You are assessing a patient having excess carbon-dioxide production in his body. Which of these terms fit correct on his condition? a. Hyperventilation
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Hypoventilation c. Delirium d. Hypoxia
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg780
474. What would happen when carbon-dioxide elimination exceeds than normal from a body? a. b. c. d.
Hyperventilation Acidosis Heart attack None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg780
475. How much times the affinity of CO is more than O2 in binding to hemoglobin? a. b. c. d.
200 times 300 times 100 times 250 times
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg780
476. What’s the effect of excess lactic acid in blood? a. b. c. d.
Cardiac dysrhythmias Coma Hypoglycemia All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg781
477. If the levels of hormone insulin decrease in the body then the cellular uptake of glucose will decrease and this results the condition which is accompanied by:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Ketoacidosis Delirium Adrenaline rush Heart attack
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg781
478. Which is the best and quick technique to eliminate excess acid from the body? a. b. c. d.
Dialysis MRI Eliminate it through respiratory system All of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg782
479. As a paramedic, you are assessing a patient having respiratory problem. What would you do first of all? a. b. c. d.
Suctioning Intubation Remove carbon-dioxide from lungs Determine that airway is patent
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg782
480. Vomitus is the term related to: a. b. c. d.
Stomach contents Airway patency Bronchitis Lack of exhaled carbon-dioxide
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg783
481. The normal breathing rate in an adult who is at rest is:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
13-25 breaths/min 12-20 breaths/min 16-35 breaths/min None of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg783
482. Respiratory distress may cause by which of the mentioned statements?? a. b. c. d.
Upper airway obstruction Lower airway obstruction Respiratory muscle impairment All of these
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg783
483. Which of these statements urged you to declare a patient as apneustic? a. b. c. d.
Ineffective exhalation Deep respirations Irregular pattern of breathing None of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg785
484. The normal inspiratory/expiratory (I/E) ratio is: a. 1:2 b. 2:3 c. 4:5 d. 4:7
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg786
485. A patient is having asthma. Which is the value of (I/E) ratio is correct?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. 1:4 or 1:5 b. 2:3 c. 1:9 d. 4:5
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg786.
486. You are assessing a patient’s ventilation process and don’t know about the hemoglobin saturation of his body. Which device will you use to obtain it? a. b. c. d.
Pulse oximeter Sphygmomanometer ET tube Suctioning device
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg787
487. The peak expiratory flow rate in healthy adults is: a. b. c. d.
300-700 ml 320-650 ml 300-600 ml 350-750 ml
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg790
488. Which is the best device that you will use to check the exhaled carbon-dioxide levels of a patient? a. b. c. d.
Capno-meter Capnographer Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg791
NURSING TEST BANK
489. In assessing a patient who has not sustained trauma, and you have to open his airway. Which is the best technique for this type of patient? a. b. c. d.
Jaw-thrust maneuver Head tilt-chin lift maneuver Tongue-jaw lift maneuver All of above can be performed
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg795
490. Which of the following technique you wouldn’t use to open the patient’s airway when his mouth or throat is filled with vomitus, blood and secretions? a. b. c. d.
Suctioning Ventilating Intubation None of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg797
491. As we know nasal airways are measured in French catheter scale which ranges in size from: a. 12-36 Fr b. 25-80 Fr c. 15-45 Fr d. 30-50 Fr
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg801
492. You are in a condition where a patient is having severe airway obstruction and becoming unresponsive. What will you do now? a. b. c. d.
Ask another paramedic for help Perform 30 chest compressions Face to face ventilation Arrange oxygen cylinder immediately
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg804
CHAPTER 16 493. Which of these diseases are included in top 10 chronic condition that causes restricted activity? a. b. c. d.
Asthma COPD None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg904
494. How much Americans have COPD? a. b. c. d.
15 million 20 million 25 million 10 million
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg904
495. How many people are suffered to death due to asthma in USA? a. 3500 b. 3000 c. 2000 d. 1000 ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg904
496. Which person described pneumonia? a. b. c. d.
Hippocrates Ibn-e-Nafees William Harvey None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg904
497. Hippocrates described pneumonia in: a. b. c. d.
400 BC 121 BC 122BC 341 BC
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg904
498. Which of these diseases have a genetic cause? a. b. c. d.
Cystic fibrosis Asthma Delirium Pneumonia
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg904
499. The typical length of the trachea is: a. 4-5 inches b. 10-13 cm c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d. 5m ANS: C DIF: MODERATE REF: Pg905 500. The ridge like point at which the tracheal cartilage bifurcates is known as: a. b. c. d.
Bolus Cervix Carina None of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg905
NURSING TEST BANK
501. Two parts of the lungs named bronchioles and alveoli are collectively known as? a. b. c. d.
Lung parenchyma Parenchyma Carina Sphincter
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg907
502. The people with which of these conditions often cause a surplus of red blood cells overtime? a. b. c. d.
Hypoxia Delirium Asthma Pneumonia
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg907
503. The patients having which condition can have thickened blood? a. b. c. d.
Polycythemia Hypoxia Delirium Heart attack
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg907
504. Which chronic lung disease can cause right-sided heart failure? a. b. c. d.
TB Asthma Corpulmanole None of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg907
NURSING TEST BANK
505. Severe hypoxia can cause a condition known as: a. b. c. d.
Tachycardia Bradycardia Delirium Seizures
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg908
506. Which of the following condition is caused by lower airway obstruction? a. b. c. d.
Trauma Pneumothorax Flail chest Pleural effusion
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg909
507. The condition which is the result of chest wall impairment is considered as: a. b. c. d.
Pneumothorax Narcosis Overdose All of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg909
508. Which bacteria can cause botulism? a. b. c. d.
Cyano Clostridium Serous None of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg909
NURSING TEST BANK
509. Which of the following ailments can cause rapid-onset dyspnea? a. b. c. d.
Bronchospasm Delirium Asthma Hypoxia
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg911
510. What we call to a wheezing sound which have many notes vibrating? a. b. c. d.
Monophonic sound Polyphonic sound Shrill sound Grave sound
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg916
511. The term snoring indicates which part of obstructed airway? a. b. c. d.
Lower airway Upper airway Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg917
512. A patient is having blood-tinged sputum, this is the warning sign of: a. b. c. d.
TB Severe asthma Lung cancer Hypoxia
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg918
NURSING TEST BANK
513. The hemoglobin level of healthy adults is: a. b. c. d.
12-14g/dl 10-12g/dl 8-9g/dl 8-13g/dl
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg918
514. What causes the pale skin of the patient? a. b. c. d.
Increased blood flow to the vessels Decreased blood flow to the vessels Lack of oxygen Increased glucose level
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg920
515. The blood pressure in distended jugular veins of a trauma patient is usually: a. b. c. d.
80/40mm Hg 40/80mm Hg 120/60mm Hg All of above
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg924
516. The diaphragm of stethoscope is designed for which type of sounds? a. b. c. d.
High pitched sounds Low pitched sounds Shrill sound Grave sound
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg925
NURSING TEST BANK
517. Which device would you use to check patient’s hemoglobin percentage? a. b. c. d.
Pulse oximeter Stethoscope MRI Ultra-sound
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg926
518. Why asthma is considered a reactive airway disease? a. b. c. d.
Patient reacts poorly to asthma It occurs when a person is exposed to some trigger Asthma interacts with other diseases Patient experiences asthma only in response to environmental triggers
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg957
519. Which of the following best defines status asthmaticus? a. b. c. d.
A short asthma attack A long asthma attack Pseudo asthma attack A severe prolonged asthma attack
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg957
520. The breathing treatment you administer to asthmatic patient is primarily to help: a. b. c. d.
Reduce mucous Eliminate the response to trigger Reduce bronchospasm Reduce anxiety
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg958
NURSING TEST BANK
521. The wheezing you hear during an asthma attack is due to: a. b. c. d.
Air trapped in the lungs Air forced through constricted tubes which causes them to vibrate Air moving normally Air moving through mucous
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg958
522. Which other medication can help the asthmatic patient during the next few hours? a. b. c. d.
Antibiotics Corticosteroids Epinephrine Oxygen
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg958
523. As the asthmatic patient is woman, you know which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.
Her asthma attacks are normally self-limiting She is more likely than a man to have asthma She is at less risk than a man to have asthma She has a greater risk than a man of having a severe attack
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg958
CHAPTER 17 524. Acute myocardial infraction is a severe heart condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.
Sudden narrowing of coronary arteries Low blood supply to the heart Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Damage to the aorta
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg961
525. Dysrhythmias is a condition related to: a. b. c. d.
Heart rhythm disturbances Heart pumping problem Damage to vessels Damage to coronary artery
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg961
526. The point at which the heartbeat is most strongly felt is known as: a. b. c. d.
Point of minimal impulse Point of maximal impulse Carina Point nemo
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg961
527. The internal wall of connective tissue is called: a. b. c. d.
Septum Septa Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg961
528. What is the function of coronary arteries? a. b. c. d.
To supply blood to the tissues of heart To supply blood to the epithelial tissue Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg963
529. Angina pectoris is the condition happens when: a. b. c. d.
When heart muscles doesn’t receive enough oxygen When coronary arteries dilate When coronary arteries block None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg964
530. Which type of patients may have dyspnea? a. b. c. d.
Patients with chronic heart failure Patients with asthma Patients with delirium Patients with TB
ANS: A
a. b. c. d.
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg965
531. Orthopnea is caused by dyspnea due to: Change in position Sudden attack Heart failure Exposed to cold
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg965
532. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea begins after how much hours of onset of sleep? a. b. c. d.
2-4 hours 1-2 hours 1-5 hours 6-7 hours
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg965
NURSING TEST BANK
533. The symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is: a. b. c. d.
Coughing Wheezing Sweating All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg965
534. Pre-hypersensitive patients have a systolic blood pressure of: a. b. c. d.
120-139 mm Hg 100-120 mm Hg 90-110 mm Hg None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg968
535. Which of the following is the process of discharging resting cardiac muscle fibers by means of electrical impulse? a. b. c. d.
Depolarization Repolarization Ventilation None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg968
536. What is the role of Na+ electrolyte in cardiac function? a. b. c. d.
Flows into the cell to initiate depolarization Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia To increase blood flow
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg970
537. Role of potassium in cardiac function is: a. b. c. d.
Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg970
538. Role of magnesium in cardiac function is: a. b. c. d.
Hypomagnesemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg970
539. The period during which the cell is depolarized or in the process of repolarizing is known as: a. b. c. d.
Refractory period Absolute refractory period Relative refractory period All of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg970
540. The network of cardiac tissue that initiates and conducts electrical impulses is called: a. b. c. d.
Electrical system Electrical conduction system Autonomous conduction system ABO blood group system
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
a. b. c. d.
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg971
541. In how much time electrical impulses generated in the node spread across the atria? 0.08 seconds 1 second 3 seconds 0.5 seconds
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg971
542. SA node pacemaker have an intrinsic rate of: a. b. c. d.
60-100 beats/min 100-185 beats/min 50-60 beats/min 20-40 beats/min
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg972
543. AV junction pacemaker have an intrinsic rate of: a. b. c. d.
40-60 beats/min 20-40 beats/min 60-100 beats/min None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg973
544. ECG representation is showing P wave. Which of the following statement is true? a. b. c. d.
Depolarization of the atria Delay at the AV junction ST segment Ventricular polarization
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg985
NURSING TEST BANK
545. ECG representation is PRI. Which of the cardiac event statement is correct? a. b. c. d.
Delay at the AV junction Depolarization of the ventricles Beginning of repolarization Ventricular repolarization
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg985
546. ECG is showing T wave. This matches which cardiac arrest statement? a. b. c. d.
Time between two successive ventricular depolarizations Rr interval Ventricular repolarization Depolarization of atria
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg985
547. ECG representation is indicating QRS complex. Which statement matches its cardiac event? a. b. c. d.
Depolarization of the ventricles Beginning of repolarization Depolarization of the atria Period between ventricular depolarization
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg985
548. Sinus dysrhythmia is a slight variation in cycling of a sinus rhythm, usually exceeding the time interval of: a. b. c. d.
0.12 seconds 0.51 seconds 2 seconds 3.15 seconds
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg992
549. You are experiencing that QRS is narrow in ECG. What would you conclude that the patient is: a. b. c. d.
Having severe heart failure Stable Un-stable None of these
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg995
550. AV junction takes over as the pacemaker of the heart at a rate of: a. b. c. d.
50-60 beats/min 40-60 beats/min 30-35 beats/min All of above
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1002
551. What is the function of wearable cardioverter defibrillator? a. b. c. d.
Designed for patients at a risk of sudden cardiac death For delirium For asthma For AMI
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1014
552. When you are at the scene of management of adult cardiac arrest, which devices you should have? a. b. c. d.
Defibrillator Portable oxygen cylinder Drug box All of above
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1015
553. Which of the following is the indication for using a 12-lead ECG? a. b. c. d.
Chest pain Epilepsy Seizures Asthma ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1023
CHAPTER 18
554. Which of the following is not a symptom of depressed nervous system? a. b. c. d.
The eye lids do not blink The tongue goes slack The larynx causes gagging Limb does seek comfortable position ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1082
555. The central nervous system (CNS), is responsible for a. b. c. d.
Thought Feeling Perception None of these ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1085
556. The peripheral nervous system (PNS), is responsible for a. b. c. d.
Thought Feeling Perception None of these ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1087
NURSING TEST BANK
557. The brainstem is one of the portions of the brain that .......... the cerebral cortex for higher activities a. Frees b. Enables c. Disables d. Detects ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1089
558. The ...... is the most sensitive organ within the body a. b. c. d.
Brain Heart Stomach Tongue ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1091
559. When you are trying to determine whether your patient has a neurologic condition, you need to look for ........ changes. a. b. c. d.
Obvious Hidden Both of above None of above ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1093
560. Which one among following is responsible for airway control? a. b. c. d.
Trigeminal nerves Glossopharyngeal nerves Vagus nerves All of above ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1095
561. Trismus can occur in a. Responsive patients b. Unresponsive patients
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1097
562. Delusions are ……… to hallucinations. a. b. c. d.
Similar Different Neither similar nor different Sometimes similar, sometimes different ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1099
563. The patient becomes so minimal that he can no longer determine what is real and what is inside his or her mind. This state is called a. Psychosis b. Hemiparesis c. Hemiplegia d. None of above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1102
564. Weakness of one side of the body is called a. Psychosis b. Hemiparesis c. Hemiplegia d. None of above ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1104
565. The left side of the brain controls the a. b. c. d.
Right side of the body and the left eye. Left side of the body and the left eye Right side of the body and the right eye Left side of the body and the right eye ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1106
NURSING TEST BANK
566.............. is the term used to describe alteration of a person’s ability to perform coordinated motions such as walking. a. b. c. d.
Ataxia Jerk Dystonia None of above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1108
567..............is a form of bizarre movement in which a part of the body contracts and remains contracted: a. b. c. d.
Ataxia Jerk Dystonia None of above ANS: B
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1110
568. Tremors are example of an alteration in smooth motion and involve the motion of: a. b. c. d.
Joints Bones Muscles Tissues ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1112
569.......... activity is characterized by rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle groups. a. b. c. d.
Tonic Clonic Bizarre None of above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1114
570.......... is a serious medical condition in which blood supply to areas of the brain is interrupted, causing ischemia. a. Stroke
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1115
571. The MAP, or mean arterial pressure, is the average (mean) pressure within the blood vessels at any given time. Typically, MAP is about: a. b. c. d.
80 to 90 mmHg 90 to 120 mmHg 60 to 90 mmHg 60 to 80 mmHg ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1118
572. Coughing, vomiting, or bearing down, tends to a. Increase ICP b. Decrease ICP c. Maintain ICP d. None of above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1119
573. The common signs and symptoms of diminished LOC and imminent coma are a. b. c. d.
Cognitive effects Speech effects Movement effects All of above ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1120
574. A seizure can be limited to the: a. Shaking of one hand b. A metallic taste c. The movement of every limb d. A and B ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1122
575. Which of the following is not the cause of headache?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Tumor Inflammation of the temporal artery Stroke All of above are causes of headache ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1123
576........... is a rare disease in which the immune system attacks portions of the nervous system: a. b. c. d.
Guillain-Barre syndrome Parkinson disease Postural Instability Rigidity ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1123
577. Infectious causes for encephalitis and meningitis are the result of……gaining access to the body which then reproduce and cause damage. a. b. c. d.
Bacteria Viruses Fungi All of above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1123
578. Poliomyelitis is a.......... infection transmitted by the fecal–oral route. Its incidence peaked in the United States in the1950s. Since then, an effective vaccine has been developed. a. b. c. d.
Viral Bacterial Fungal Algal ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1124
579. Fibrinolytic (clot-busting) agents need to be administered within ........... hours of the onset of a stroke for the agents to be effective. a. 1-2.5 b. 2-3.5
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 3-4.5 d. 4-5.5 ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1124
580............ is caused by a brief interruption in cerebral blood flow that can be traced to cardiac rhythm disturbances, other cardiac causes, or non-cardiac causes. a. b. c. d.
Syncope Headache Migraine Seizure ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1125
581. Polio is a viral infection that can cause long-term damage to the brain and brainstem (postpoliosyndrome), leading to: a. b. c. d.
Muscle weakness Paralysis Both of above None of above ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1126
582....... is a progressive, organic condition in which neurons in the brain die, causing dementia. a. b. c. d.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Alzheimer disease Ataxia Dementia ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1127
583. Hemorrhagic stroke, one of the two main types of stroke; occurs as a result of bleeding: a. b. c. d.
Inside the brain Outside the brain Near the brain Far from brain ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1128
NURSING TEST BANK
584. …is the process by which cells from a malignant neoplasm break away from the site of origin, such as the lung, and move through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to other body sites, such as the brain. a. Alzheimer disease b. Multiple sclerosis (MS) c. Metastasis d. Parkinson disease ANS: C
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1129
585............... is severe renal failure resulting in the buildup of waste products within the blood a. b. c. d.
Uremia Tremor Jaundice Sugar ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1130
CHAPTER 19 586. Whenever an object is lodged in the eye, ear, nose, or throat, the patient must be: a. b. c. d.
Treated at home Treated with 1st aid Transported to hospital All of the above ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg1140
587. Lasik surgery is a procedure related to a. b. c. d.
Eye surgery Ear surgery Nose surgery Neck surgery ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1141
NURSING TEST BANK
588.............. is the leading cause of new cases of blindness in adults. a. b. c. d.
Hepatitis Tiredness Viral action Diabetes ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1140
589. According to the CDC, the prevalence of diabetic retinopathy is expected to increase from ........ million cases (all levels of severity) in 2005 to 9.9 million cases by 2050 among Americans 65 years. a. 1.5 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 4.5 ANS: B
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1142
590. While forming a general impression of the patient, one most note: a. Environmental clues at the scene b. The approximate age and sex of the patient, c. Degree of distress. d. All of above ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1143
591. Eye drops can be used for: a. Conjunctivitis b. Glaucoma c. Itchy eyes d. All of above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1143
592............ Is a condition in which the pupils are not of equal size, is a significant finding in patients with ocular injuries or closed head trauma: a. Anisocoria b. Orbital rim
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Conjunctivae d. Abnormal pigmentation ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1144
593. The .......... consists of a concave mirror and a battery-powered light, which is usually contained in the device’s handle: a. b. c. d.
Ophthalmoscope Stethoscope Telescope Anemoscope ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1145
594. The monocular eyepiece is usually equipped with a ....... disk of lenses. a. b. c. d.
Rotating Sliding Light Transparent ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1146
595........... is also known as “pink eye,” is a condition in which the conjunctiva becomes inflamed and red. a. b. c. d.
Anisocoria Orbital rim Conjunctivitis Abnormal pigmentation ANS: C
DIF: Moderate
REF: Pg1146
596. In open-angle glaucoma, the aqueous fluid drains too slowly. Over time, pressure builds up within the eye (intraocular pressure) and damages the optic nerve. a. b. c. d.
Open-angle glaucoma Narrow-angle glaucoma Secondary glaucoma Wide-angle glaucoma
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg1146
597. Possible causes of central retinal artery occlusion include: a. An embolus from the carotid artery b. Valvular heart disease c. Drug abuse d. All of above ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1147
598. If a branch of the central retinal artery is blocked, then the patient will likely develop: a. Partial loss of vision in one eye b. Complete loss of vision in one eye c. Partial loss of vision in both eyes d. Complete loss of vision in both eyes ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1147
599. Periorbital and orbital cellulitis are most commonly caused by: a. Staphylococcus bacterial infections b. Streptococcus bacterial infections c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1148
600. Which of the following increases the patient’s risk of developing per orbital cellulitis? a. b. c. d.
Insect bites Upper respiratory disorders Trauma All of the above ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1148
601. Papilledema results from ............ at the rear part of the eye.
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Swelling of the optic nerve Inflammation of the optic nerve Both of the above None of the above ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1149
602. A tumor that grows on the eighth cranial nerve (acoustic neuroma) can affect the inner ear and balance. Such a tumor is usually slow growing, but if it grows larger, other cranial nerves can be affected, including the fifth, sixth, and seventh cranial nerves. This kind of damage can affect: a. b. c. d.
Facial sensation Eye movement Facial movement All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1150
603. Otitis is more common in children than in adults partially because as humans grow, the angle of the Eustachian tube becomes: a. b. c. d.
Vertical Horizontal Inclined All of the above ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1150
604. Auditory canal blockage from excessive cerumen or lack of enough cerumen can lead to …… growth that can cause infection. a. b. c. d.
Bacterial Viral Algal Fungal ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1151
605. Meniere Disease Meniere disease is a chronic condition of the inner ear disorder characterized by symptom of:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Dizziness described as spinning vertigo b. Low-frequency hearing loss c. Tinnitus d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1152
606. Loss of smelling sensation may have causes of: a. b. c. d.
Aging Smoking Allergies All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1153
607. One of the most common causes of nosebleeds is: a. b. c. d.
Digital trauma Dryness Hypertension All of the above ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg1154
608........... have the greatest incidence of exploring their nasal cavities with foreign objects. a. b. c. d.
Youngsters Elders Young Children Old aged men ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1155
609. Acute rhinitis most commonly occurs as a result of a.......... infection and is accompanied by symptoms of the “common cold:” a. b. c. d.
Viral Bacterial Microbial Intestinal
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg1156
610. The weaker immune systems of older adults, coupled with a diminished cough and gag reflex, make them generally more prone to ........... infections. a. b. c. d.
Respiratory Digestive Visual Intestinal ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1157
611. Throat infections (pharyngitis) are particularly common among: a. Children b. Adults c. Women d. Men ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1158
612. Diabetes, leukemia, cancer, heart disease, and kidney disease may manifest with: a. Mouth ulcers b. Swollen gums c. Dry Mouth d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg11158
613. Which of the following is a yeast infection that causes white patches on the oral mucosa involving the mouth, tongue, palate, gums, and sometimes the throat. a. b. c. d.
Cold sores Canker sores Oral candidiasis Vascular candidiasis ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1158
NURSING TEST BANK
614. Symptoms of Ludwig angina may include: a. b. c. d.
Difficulty in breathing Difficulty in swallowing Neck pain All of the above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1159
615. The nose is a highly vascular structure, which contains nasal mucosa that provides a short route to the a. Head b. Forehead c. Brain d. Eyes ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1160
CHAPTER 20 616. Which of the following statements is not correct about GI disorders. a. b. c. d.
Most of these are deadly These are related to a generalized infection of the bloodstream GI disorders are not among the top 10 diseases that cause death within the United States. At one time or another, everyone has had abdominal pain or GI distress ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1171
617. If the pressure of ventilation is too great, the esophagus will: a. b. c. d.
Dilate Contract Sometimes it will dilate and sometimes it will contract Neither dilates nor contracts ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1172
618. Air follows the path of least resistance. Given the choice of moving through a broad tube into a large open space—the stomach—or winding its way down through a series of progressively smaller tubes, from a.
The trachea into the bronchi
NURSING TEST BANK
b. The bronchi into the trachea c. The trachea into the bronchioles d. The bronchioles into the trachea ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1173
619. The liver promotes carbohydrate a. b. c. d.
Metabolism Catabolism Both of the above None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1174
620. If the blood glucose level falls, the liver can convert a. Glycogen into glucose b. Glucose into glycogen c. Fructose into glucose d. Glycogen into fructose ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1175
621. Dramatic decreases in glucose stores will prompt the liver to convert a. b. c. d.
Fats into glucose Proteins into glucose Fats and proteins into glucose None of the above ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1176
622. The large intestine, or colon, contains the remaining waste products, called a. Feces b. Facets c. Facies d. Faces ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1177
623. A patient who is vomiting has a greater chance of
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Aspiration Respiration Diarrhea Viral infection ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1178
624. A patient who has been bleeding internally may have a severely decreased level of hemoglobin. The oxygen saturation may read ………, but if the hemoglobin level is low, oxygen is still needed. a. 93 % b. 94% c. 95% d. 96% ANS: D
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1179
625. Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ……… peristalsis of the intestines (hypoperistalsis) a. b. c. d.
Decreased Increased Sometimes increased and sometimes decreased Neither decreased nor increased ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1180
626. When you are providing pain management for GI conditions, the goal should be a. To make the patient more comfortable b. To abolish the pain c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1181
627. Enough medication to completely remove the pain may result in severe hemodynamic compromise. Which of the the following medication provides tools to manage abdominal pain? a. b. c. d.
Intraosseous Demerol Toradol All of the above
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1182
628. Which of the following medication may be administered to address nausea? a. Zofran b. Benadryl c. Vistaril d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1183
629. Which of the following medication is typically used for allergic reactions, but also has antiemetic properties? a. b. c. d.
Diphenhydramine Hydroyzine Promethazine None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1184
630. Which of the following medication is more sensitive to patients who have taken any medication that has CNS depressive effects? a. b. c. d.
Hydroyzine Diphenhydramine Promethazine None of above ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1185
631. The guidelines for emergent filling of the vascular space and refilling the vascular space due to hemorrhage are the a. b. c. d.
Same Different Sometimes same and sometimes different Neither same nor different ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1186
632. As blood pressure falls, the amount of bleeding
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Decreases Increases Sometimes decreases and sometimes decreases Remains same ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1187
633. As the patient loses fluid, the body continues to shift water from inside the cells to interstitial space and finally into the vascular space to maintain adequate fluid volume in the blood vessels, until the patient has reached the limits of effectively fluid. a. b. c. d.
Moving Constant Thick Thin ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1188
634. The ....... is the first organ to show the effects of shock, and the patient becomes anxious and restless a. b. c. d.
Brain Heart Stomach Liver ANS: A .
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1189
635. If a patient is bleeding from a gastric ulcer and transit time of the blood to the rectum is short, instead of melena, the patient will have a. Hematochezia b. Melena c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1190
636. Which of the following is an example of medication that affects bleeding? a. Aspirin b. Warfarin
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Clopidogrel d. All of the above ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1191
637. In most patients, even those with stable vital signs, it is prudent to establish an IV line, providing …… of normal saline solution or lactated Ringer solution using a macro drip tubing. a. b. c. d.
1000 mL 2000 mL 3000 mL 4000 mL ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1192
638. If the liver is damaged and blood cannot flow through it easily, the blood will begin to back up into the portal vessels, which can ultimately lead to …… of the vessels. a. b. c. d.
Rupture Dilation Contraction None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1192
639. Ulcers caused by the stress related to burns are called …… ulcers. a. b. c. d.
Curling Cushing Both of above None of above ANS: A
DIF: Medium
REF: Pg1193
640. An opening between two portions of the body or between a body part and the outside of the body is called a a. Fistula b. Trachea c. Esophagus d. None of the above
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1194
641. If an infectious agent causes the inflammation, the peritonitis can be a sign of movement of .......... Into the abdomen and eventually into the bloodstream (sepsis). a. b. c. d.
Bacteria Virus Both of above None of above ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1195
642. Though the elderly experience appendicitis less often, they have a ........ mortality rate. a. b. c. d.
Higher Lower Zero None of above ANS: A
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg1196
643. Which of the following statement is correct regarding rectal abscess? a. Men are twice as likely to have this condition as women. b. Women are twice as likely to have this condition as men. c. Children are twice as likely to have this condition as adults. d. Adults are twice as likely to have this condition as children. ANS: A
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1199
644. The liver is a very resilient and important organ. Beyond its role in the metabolism of fats, proteins, and glucose, the liver is responsible for .......... the blood, creating coagulation factors, recycling dead red blood cells, storing vitamins, and creating hormones needed in growth. a. b. c. d.
Detoxifying Oxygenating Deoxygenating None of the above ANS: A
DIF: Hard
REF: Pg1200
645. Which of the following is the main cause of mesenteric ischemia?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Acute arterial embolism b. Acute arterial thrombus c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C
DIF: Difficult
REF: Pg1203
Chapter 21 646. UTIs occur in women: a. b. c. d.
More than 50% More than 60% More than 70% More than 80% ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1214
647. ---------- surrounds the glomerulus: a. b. c. d.
Bowman capsule Glomerular capsule Loop of Henle Both a & b ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1214
648. Patients who are experiencing renal and genital conditions may exhibit many of the same symptoms as a patient with other abdominal conditions: a. b. c. d.
Flank pain Abdominal pain Constipation All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1217
649. Excessive amounts of urea and other waste products in blood: a. Testicular torsion b. Hyperkalemia
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Uremia d. All of them ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1217
650. Visceral pain is defined as: a. b. c. d.
Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in outer areas of body enclosed within a cavity Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a cavity Pain that feels as if it is originating from a body part other than the side being stimulated All of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1218
651. Question about when pain started and what person was doing at that time. This comes under: a. b. c. d.
Onset Provocation Severity Timing ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1218
652. Severity of pain is evaluated by: a. b. c. d.
Scale of 0 to 5 Scale of 0 to 10 Scale of 0 to 15 Scale of 0 to 20 ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg. 1218
653. Polynephritis is: a. b. c. d.
Inflammation of kidney lining Collection of pus around the kidney Inflammation of liver All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1220
654. Conditions that may cause urinary retention don’t include: a.
Kidney stones
NURSING TEST BANK
b. c. d.
Nerve damage Muscle damage Urinary tract infections ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1221
655. Incomplete emptying of the bladder: a. b. c. d.
Urinary retention Urinary obstruction Acute kidney injury None of these ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1221
656. Person having history of gout and gastric bypass surgery have chances of developing: a. b. c. d.
Arthritis Calcium phosphate stones Calcium oxalate stones Both b & c ANS: D
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1222
657. Complete cessation of urine production: a. b. c. d.
Oliguria Anuria Both a & b None of them ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg. 1223
658. Thirst is seen in : a. b. c. d.
Pre renal Intra renal Post renal All of them ANS: A
Dive: Hard
REF: Pg. 1223
659. Confusion is seen in:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Pre renal Intra renal Post renal All of them ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg. 1223
660. Injury that is caused by obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys. The source of this obstruction is often a blockage of urethra by an enlarged prostate, kidneys stones, blood clots or strictures. a. b. c. d.
Post renal acute kidney injury Pre renal acute kidney injury Intra renal acute kidney injury Post renal chronic kidney injury ANS: D
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1224
661. Oliguria is a condition in which urine output is: a. b. c. d.
500 ml/ day 400 ml/ day 300 ml/ day 200 ml/ day ANS: A Diff: Easy 662. Azotemia is :
a. b. c. d.
REF: Pg. 1223
Increased concentration of urea Increased concentration of chlorine Increased concentration of nitrogenous waste Increased concentration of sodium ANS: C
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1225
663. 50 ml of saline is administered in patient of dialysis facing: a. b. c. d.
Hypotension Potassium imbalance Air embolism Hemorrhage from the fistula or shunt ANS: A
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1228
664. Painful , tender and persistent erection can result from:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Fournier gangrene Priapism Disequilibrium syndrome Air embolism ANS: B
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1229
665. Inability to retract the distal foreskin over the glans penis: a. b. c. d.
Phimosis Para phimosis Orchitis None of them ANS: A
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1229
666. Infection causing inflammation of epididymis: a. b. c. d.
Epididymitis Orchitis Phimosis Para phimosis
ANS: A
Dif: EASY
REF: Pg. 1229
667. Urine is stored in: a. b. c. d.
Urethra Urinary bladder Both of them None of them ANS: B
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1214
668. By age 50 years, how many men are prone to enlargement of prostate: a. b. c. d.
50% 60 % 70% 80%
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1214
669. Referred pain is defined as: a. b. c. d.
Pain that feels as if it is originating from a body part other than the site being stimulated Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a cavity Deep pain caused by deactivation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a body All of these ANS: A
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1218
670. During renal failure, if renal failure is suspected, you should obtain vital signs for : a. b. c. d.
Every 20 minutes Every 15 minutes Every 10 minutes Every 5 minutes ANS: D
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1218
671. The route by which urine exit the body: a. b. c. d.
Urethra Urinary bladder Ureter None of them ANS: A
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1214
672. Peri-nephric abscess is : a. b. c. d.
Inflammation of kidney linings Collection of pus around the kidney Both of them None of them ANS: B
Diff: Moderate
REF: Pg. 1220
673. Urge incontinence is : a. b. c.
Sudden intense urge to urinate followed within second to minutes by in voluntary urine loss A constant continual flow of urine due to medical causes such as damage bladder blocked urethra Both of them
NURSING TEST BANK
d.
None of them ANS: A
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1221
674. Latex or plastic tube through the urethra and in to the bladder : a. b. c. d.
Bladder catheterization Ureter catheterization Both of them None of them ANS: A
Diff: moderate
REF: Pg. 1221
675. Which type of injury involve damage to the small blood vessels and cells of kidney tubules : a. b. c. d.
Acute kidney injury Intra renal acute kidney injury Pre renal acute kidney injury None of these ANS: B
Diff: Easy
REF: Pg. 1223
676. High energy shock waves break up stones from outside of the body, resulting in uch smaller stone fragments and dust that can pass easily: a. b. c. d.
Extra corporeal lithotripsy Cystoscopy with stent replacement Percutaneous nephrostomy tube replacement All of these ANS: A
Dif: hard
REF: Pg 1223
677. Increased concentration of uremia and nitrogenous wastes in blood : a. b. c. d.
Uremia Azotemia Both a & b None of them ANS: C
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1225
NURSING TEST BANK
Chapter 22
678. Pear shaped organ where embryo implants and grow: a. b. c. d.
Uterus Fallopian tube Cervix None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1238
679. Which of the following shed during menstruation? a. b. c. d.
Myometrium Endometrium Perimeum Mons pubis ANS: B
Dif: B
REF: Pg 1238
680. The onset of first menses : a. b. c. d.
Menarche Menopause Amenorrhea None of them ANS: A
a. b. c. d.
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1239
681. The absence or cessation of menses due to pregnancy: Amenorrhea Menarche Perimeum Menopause ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1239
682. Inflammation of vagina that is caused by infection:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Vagina yeast infection Vulvovaginitis Vaginitis None of then ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1243
683. Vaginal yeast infections are typically caused by: a. b. c. d.
Candida albicans Trychophytan mentagrophyte T. rubrum None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1243
684. Bladder infection caused by bacteria that ascend from the perineum through the genital tract into urethral opening: a. b. c. d.
Vulvovaginitis Cystitis Polynephritis None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1243
685. Fluid filled sac within an ovary: a. b. c. d.
Ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion Cystitis None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1244
686. Twisting of ovary: a. b. c. d.
Ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion Cystitis None of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1244
NURSING TEST BANK
687. Inflammation of endometrium: a. b. c. d.
Endometritis Endometriosis Uterine prolapsed All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1245
688. Fever, chills, vomiting are symptoms of: a. b. c. d.
Uterine prolapse Endometritis Endometriosis None of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1245
689. Possible cause of traumatic vaginal bleeding: a. b. c. d.
pelvic fracture direct blow to perineum abortion attempts all of these ANS: D
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1246
690. women that experience brown or dark red intermittent vaginal bleeding: a. b. c. d.
60% 70% 80% 90% ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1247
691. A rounded pad of fatty tissue that overlies the symphysis pubis and is anterior to urethral and vaginal openings a. b. c. d.
Labia minora Mons pubis Ovarian torsion None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1253
692. A pair of organs that release eggs: a. b. c. d.
Ovaries Fallopian tube Cervix All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1238
693. Tissue between vaginal opening and anus: a. b. c. d.
Endometrium Perineum Both a & b None of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1238
694. The uterine wall consists of muscular layer: a. b. c. d.
Myometetrium Endometrium Perimeum None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1238
695. The region of sexual stimulation: a. b. c. d.
Labia minora Clitoris Hymen All of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1239
696. Ovulation occurs after : a.
14 days of the previous menstrual cycle
NURSING TEST BANK
b. c. d.
15 days of the menstrual cycle 16 days of the menstrual cycle None of them ANS: A Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1239 697. In menstruation, blood loss is:
a. b. c. d.
25 to 65 ml 65 to 75 ml 25 to 75 ml All of these ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1239
698. Average time for mittelschmerz is: a. b. c. d.
Few minutes to 48 hours One day 6- 8 hours 3-4 hours ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1239
699. Luteal phase is: a. b. c. d.
Day 14 to day 28 Day 1 to day 13 Day 5 to 14 Day 15 to 28 ANS: A
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1239
700. The cessation of ovarian function and of menstrual cycle: a. b. c. d.
Female climacteric Menopause Menarche Both a & b ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1239
701. Imperforate hymen is a condition in which :
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Hymen partially covers the vaginal orifice Hymen completely covers the vaginal orifice Both of then None of then ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1239
702. The most common cause of amenorrhea : a. b. c. d.
Emotional problems Extreme stress Pregnancy None of them ANS: C
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1239
703. When you access gynecologic history of patients, you ask patient for: a. b. c. d.
LMP Gravidity Parity All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1240
704. Ecchymosis at the umbilicus: a. b. c. d.
Cullen sign Grey turner sign Both a & b None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1241
705. Infection of the woman’s reproductive organs: a. b. c. d.
PID STD Both a & b None of these A NS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1242
NURSING TEST BANK
706. Vaginitis can spread upward to; a. b. c. d.
Cervix Uterus Fallopian tubes All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1243
Chapter 23
707. Calcitonin is secreted by: a. Thymus gland b. Thyroid gland c. Parathyroid gland d. None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1259
708. Decrease in body’s water content triggers the release of: a. b. c. d.
Calcitonin Anti diuretic hormone Thymus gland None of these ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1259
709. Help the immune system identify and destroy the foreign intruders is function of: a. b. c. d.
Thymus gland Pituitary gland Parathyroid gland Thyroid gland ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1259
710. Concentration of salt in body fluids is sensed by:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Thymus gland Parathyroid gland Hypothalamus Pituitary gland ANS:C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1259
711. Prolactin is component of:
a. b. c. d.
Thymus gland Pituitary gland Hypothalamus Parathyroid gland ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1259
712. . insulin is secreted from:
a. b. c. d.
Alpha cells Beta cells Delta cells None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1260
713. Body changes associated with sexual development including growth spurts, deepening of the voice, growth of facial and public hair, and muscle growth and strength
a. b. c. d.
Androgens Estrogens Progesterone Testosterone ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1260
714. --------- signals the anterior pituitary gland to secrete ---------- when an egg is developing in an ovarian follicle
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Estrogens, LH Progesterone, LH Oxytocin, LH None of these ANS: A
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1260
715. A toxic condition caused by excessive levels of circulating thyroid hormone: a. b. c. d.
Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Thyrotoxicosis None of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1261
716. An auto immune disorder that causes thyroid gland hypertrophy and severe hyperthyroidism
a. b. c. d.
Graves disease Crushing syndrome Panhypopituitarism All of these ANS: A
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1261
717. A form of acidosis in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available:
a. b. c. d.
Diabetes type 1 Diabetes type 2 DKA All of these ANS: C
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1263
718. Diabetes that develop during pregnancy:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes type 1
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Diabetes type 2 d. Gestational diabetes ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1264
719. An increased appetite caused by the inability of glucose to be transported across the cell membrane:
a. b. c. d.
Polyuria Polyphagia Polydipsia All of them ANS:B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1265
720. A significant thirst cause by dehydration brought about by increase in dieresis
a. b. c. d.
Polyphagia Polydipsia Polyphagia None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1265
721. Dislipidemia is:
a. b. c. d.
Reduced fat level Raised fat level Reduced carbs Raised fats ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1265
722. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome :
a. Blood glucose level greater than 500mg/dl
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Blood glucose level greater than 600mg/dl c. Blood glucose level greater than 700mg/dl d. None of then ANS:B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1274
723. Excess amount of ketone bodies in blood: a. b. c. d.
Ketosis Ketonemia None of these All of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1275
724. In hypoglycemia, insulin dosage is:
a. b. c. d.
Insufficient Excessive Normal Low ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1276
725. . HHS is: a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. both of then d. none of them
ANS: B
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1278
726. . The type of diabetic disease that usually starts in childhood and requires daily injections of supplemental synthetic insulin to control blood glucose formerly called juvenile diabetes: a. type 1 diabetes
NURSING TEST BANK
b. type 2 diabetes c. hypoglycemia d. adult onset diabetes
ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1290
Chapter 24 728. Bleeding and clotting abnormalities: a. b. c. d.
Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder None of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
729. Disease processes that cause break down of RBCs : a. b. c. d.
Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder None of above ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
730. Plasma accounts for total blood volume: a.45% b. 50% c. 55% d. 60% ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
731. Blood accounts for body weight: a. 8% b. 5% c. 9% d. 10%
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
732. Normal value of RBCs count in children : a. 3.5 – 4.0 b. 3.5-4.5 c. 3.5-5 d. 3.5-5.5
ANS: D
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1295
733. Neutropenia is abnormal low number of: a. b. c. d.
Basophils Neutrophils Both a & b None of them ANS:B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1296
734. Mast cells are: a. b. c. d.
Basophils Neutrophils Eosinophils None of then ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1296
735. The condition in which body produces too much platelets that can lead to dangerous body conditions: a. b. c. d.
Thrombocytosis Thrombosis Coagulopathy None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1297
736. The process by which clotting factors work together to ultimately form fibrin called: a. Coagulopathy b. Clotting cascade
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Thrombosis d. None of these ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1297
737. Common findings with blood disorders related to cardio vascular system may not be: a. b. c. d.
Tachycardia Chest pain Dyspnea Uncontrolled bleeding ANS: D
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1300
738. The body temporarily stops RBCs production: a.leukocytosis b. aplastic crises c. hemolytic crises d. none of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1301
739. When blood flow to an organ becomes restricted causing pain, ischemia and often organ damage a. b. c. d.
Vasooclusive crises Leuko cytosis Hemolytic crises Aplastic crises ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1301
740. Symptoms of acute chest syndrome include: a. b. c. d.
Chest pain Fever Cough All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1302
741. Reduction in WBCs: a. Thrombocytopenia
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Leucopenia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Leukocytosis ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1303
742. In ---------------------------, abnormal mature lymphoid cells accumulate in bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen and peripheral blood . a. Acute leukemia b. Chronic leukemia c. Sub chronic leukemia d. Sub acute leukemia ANS: B
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1304
743. The number of plasma in the bone marrow increases abnormally, leading to formation of tumors in the bone : a. b. c. d.
Myolema Multiple myolema Both a & b None of these ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1307
744. Infection that is result of poor blood product handling, or contamination during the infusion process: a. b. c. d.
Febrile reaction Allergic reaction Bacterial infection Hemolytic reaction ANS: C Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1308
745. A simple ------------------------------ is most common transfusion complication a. b. c. d.
Febrile reaction Allergic reaction Hemolytic reaction Bacterial infection ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1308
NURSING TEST BANK
746. Any disorder of blood : a. b. c. d.
Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
747. Simple study of blood: a. b. c. d.
Hematology Hemostatic Hemolytic All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
748. The RBCs take time to mature: a. b. c. d.
4 days 5 days 6 days 7 days ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
749. Plasma is water : a. b. c. d.
90% 91% 93% 94% ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1294
750. Percentage of hematocrit in children includes: a. 40- 50 b. 35- 45 c. 32-55 d. None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1295
751. The normal value of neutrophils ranges from: a. 50- 60 % b. 60- 70% c. 70-80% d. 90-100%
ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1296
752. The normal level of monocytes ranges from:
a. 1-4% b. 2-4% c. 2-6% d.
6-8%
ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1296
753. Clotting factors found in blood is produced by:
a. Liver b. Kidney c. Head d. All of them
ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1298
754. In patients suspected with hemophilia, be alert for signs of:
a. Weak pulse
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Hypotension c. Hypertension d. Both a & b
ANS: D
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1299
755. Common findings with blood disorders related to skeleton include:
a. Tachycardia b. Chronic joint or bone pain c. Hematuria d. Uncontrolled bleeding
ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1300
756. Sickle cell disease lead to:
a. Aplastic crises b. Hemolytic crises c. Vaso occulusive crises d. Both a & b
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1301
757. Crises when acute RBCs destruction leads to jaundice:
a. Vaso occulusive crises b. Hemolytic crises c. Aplastic crises d. None of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF : Pg 1301
Chapter 25
758. Anaphylactic reaction has incidence of about: a. b. c. d.
5% 6% 7% 8% ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1316
759. Antibody responsible for allergic reaction: a. b. c. d.
Ig G IgM Ig E None of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1317
760. Anaphylaxis symptoms that continue over time, with time frame anywhere from 5 to 72 hours: a. b. c. d.
Allergic reaction Biphasic reaction Prolonged reaction None of these ANS: C
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1317
761. The final way allergens enter the body is through the gastro intestinal tract via: a. b. c. d.
Inhalation Ingestion Absorption Injection ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1317
NURSING TEST BANK
762. Foods that cause allergies in children don’t include: a. b. c. d.
Wheat Soy Eggs Tree nuts ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1318
763. The first encounter with foreign substance begin the: a. b. c. d.
Primary response Secondary response Sensitivity response All of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1320
764. Histamine as a mediator does not cause: a. b. c. d.
Systemic vasodilation Broncho constriction Attract neutrophils None of these ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1321
765. Pruritus is : a. b. c. d.
Rashes Edema Itching Urticaria ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1323
766. Risk factor for severe anaphylaxis include: a. b. c. d.
Asthma Tree nut allergy Mast cell disease All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1324
NURSING TEST BANK
767. If you encounter a patient with allergic reaction, look for: a. b. c. d.
Patients anxiety level Increasing work of breathing Wheezing All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1326
768. Hypo perfusion and hypoxia commonly cause: a. b. c. d.
Bronchospasm Abdominal cramping Dysrhythmias Laryngospasm ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1326
769. Symptoms in anaphylaxis related to respiratory symptoms: a. b. c. d.
Shortness of breadth Dyspnea Tightness in throat and chest All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1327
770. Sign and symptoms of anaphylaxis related to skin don’t include: a. b. c. d.
Swollen, red eyes Hives Warm Crackles ANS: D
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1328
771. Severe anxiety and respiratory distress is associated with: a. Flushing b. Panic attacks c. Heart attacks d. All of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1328
772. Headache, hives, numbness around the mouth, sweating and upset stomach is seen in person with: a. b. c. d.
Wheezing and respiratory distress Monosodium glutamate poisoning Scrombroid fish poisoning Lung injury ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1328
773. The condition which can mimic food induced anaphylactic reactions: a. b. c. d.
Monosodium glutamate poisoning Scrombroid fish poisoning Wheezing Lung injury ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1328
774. The typical dose of Benadryl is: a. b. c. d.
25 to 50 mg 50 to 100 mg 100 to 150 mg 150 to 200 mg ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1330
775. Auto immune disease which means the body perceives its own tissue or cells , in this case, collagen tissue as a dangerous invader and attacks that tissue . the attack can be chronic , causing long term inflammation or severe enough to result in death. a. b. c. d.
Collagen vascular disease Systemic lupus erythematosus Both of them None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1331
776. Which one of the following is an autoimmune disorder? a. Myositis
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Restless legs syndrome c. Crohn disease d. All of them ANS: D
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1331
777. Sclera mean: a. b. c. d.
Soft Hard Rigid None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1332
778. Liver transplant patients have tendency to develop: a. b. c. d.
Hepatitis C Hepatitis A Hepatitis B None of these ANS: A
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 1334
779. Encouragement of patients to monitor themselves for signs of infection and take these signs seriously includes in: a. b. c. d.
Self-monitoring Immunosuppressive regimen Knowing the signs of life threatening concerns All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1335
780. In reactions, foreign substance are breadthed in through the respiratory system: a. b. c. d.
Ingestion Inhalation Injection All of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1339
781. Incidence of biphasic reactions includes:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. 1- 10 % b. 10- 20 % c. 1- 23% d. None of them ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1317
782. A foreign substance that produce allergic symptoms in patients: a. b. c. d.
Allergen Anti body Anti gen None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1317
783. Allergic reaction involving single, two or more body systems: a. b. c. d.
Prolonged reactions Anaphylaxis Biphasic reaction None of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1317
784. Sensitivity is : a. b. c. d.
Ability to recognize the antigen the next time it is encountered Ability t recognize the anti body the next time it is encountered Both a & b None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1320
785. Effects of platelet activating factor include: a. Pulmonary vasoconstriction b. Broncho constriction c. Histamine release d. Systemic vasodilation ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 1321
NURSING TEST BANK
786. Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis related to: a. b. c. d.
Warm Flushed Itching All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1328
787. Addison disease is : a. b. c. d.
Auto immune disorder Respiratory disorder Cardiac disorder None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 1331
CHAPTER 26 788. ‘’We can become as much slaves to precaution as we can to fear’’. Who said this statement relative to EMS? a. b. c. d.
Randolph borne Ibn-e-Nafees William Harvey Karl Landsteiner
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1345
789. Which of these methods is essential to protect patient from health care associated infections? a. b. c. d.
Bleach water Disinfectants Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1346
NURSING TEST BANK
790. Semi-critical equipment are cleaned with bleach water with the dilution ratio of: a. 1:10 b. 1:100 c. 2:50 d. 3:90
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1346
791. Which of these is included in non-critical equipment? a. b. c. d.
Cleaning surfaces Floors Ambulance seats All of above
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1346
792. Which of the following pathogenic micro-organisms causes infectious diseases? a. b. c. d.
Bacteria Virus Parasite All of above
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1347
793. Pathogens transmitted by airborne transmission can travel up to: a. b. c. d.
5 feet 2m 6 feet 2.5m
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1347
NURSING TEST BANK
794. To which diseases type, droplet precautions are applied? a. b. c. d.
Medium to large sized particles Tuberculosis Chicken-pox Measles
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1348
795. Which of the following statement is included in list of exposure to blood-borne pathogens? a. b. c. d.
A contaminated needle-stick injury Blood or OPIM spattered into the eye Cuts with a sharp object covered with blood All of these
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1352
796. Which of these numbers of colonies of bacteria per mm is considered not indicating infection? a. 150000 b. 200000 c. 180000 d. Equal toor less than 100000
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1355
797. The time duration of multiplication of bacteria like Salmonella is: a. b. c. d.
15-20 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes 1 hour
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1355
NURSING TEST BANK
798. How much time will it take from a susceptible person’s exposure to the mumps virus until the person begins to feel feverish? a. b. c. d.
12 days 12 to 26 days 10 days approx. Not defined
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1356
799. The incubation period for influenza virus is: a. b. c. d.
24 hours 24 to 72 hours 4 days 15 hours
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1356
800. Which of these pairs of cells type work together to fight infection? a. b. c. d.
B and T cells C and T cells A and T cells None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1357
801. Which of the following is the symptoms of sepsis? a. b. c. d.
Shortness of breath Elevated heart rates Confusion All of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1357
802. Which of these is not a component of qSOFA score in assessment of sepsis? a. b. c. d.
Respiratory rate Altered mentation Blood pressure Suctioning
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1357
803. Which type of membranes cover brain and spinal cord? a. b. c. d.
Meninges Epithelial Mucous Serous
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1357
804. The incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is between: a. b. c. d.
1-2 days 3-4 days 5-10 days 2-10 days
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1358
805. After how much time the micro-organisms disappear from respiratory tract after antibiotic treatment begins? a. b. c. d.
1 hour 15 hours 24 hours None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1358
806. Symptoms of meningitis includes: a. b. c. d.
Fever Severe headache Stiff neck All of above
ANS: D
a. b. c. d.
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1358
807. Which of the following is not a symptom of influenza? Headache Muscle pain Malaise Stiff neck
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1359
808. Which type of bacteria causes pertussis? a. b. c. d.
Cyano-bacteria Aquificae Bordetella Fuso
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1359
809. The incubation period of pertussis disease is: a. b. c. d.
7-10 days 3-5 days 1-2 days None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1359
810. The incubation period for mumps virus is: a. b. c. d.
16-18 days 12-13 days 20-25 days 3-5 days
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1360
811. The incubation period for TB is : a. b. c. d.
3-4 weeks 4-12 weeks 3-6 weeks 5-6 weeks
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1361
812. Which of these viruses is caused by cotton rat? a. b. c. d.
Hanta-virus Corona virus Influenza virus Zika virus
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1378
813. As a paramedic, before you physically assess the hepatitis patient, what type of precautions should be taken? a. b. c. d.
Standard precautions Special precautions Barrier precautions Cutaneous precautions
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: 1396
814. The yellow coloring of patient’s skin in hepatitis is caused by: a. b. c. d.
Decrease in red blood cell count Increase in bilirubin level in blood Decrease in bilirubin level Increase in red blood cell count
ANS: B
a. b. c. d.
DIF: HARD
REF: 1396
815. The most common blood-borne infection and reason for liver transplant in USA is: Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C None of these
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1396
816. Which of the following type of hepatitis is enteric? a. b. c. d.
A B C D
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1396
817. The ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host is called : a. b. c. d.
Indirect transmission Direct transmission Vector transmission Virulence
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1396
CHAPTER NO 27 818. Which substance damage structures or impair function when introduced in a body? a. b. c. d.
Drug Toxin Poison Bacteria
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1398
819. Which of these is a harmful substance produced by bacteria? a. b. c. d.
Toxin Poison Drug None of these
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1398
820. Which one of these is the heading of toxicologic emergencies? a. b. c. d.
Intentional Un-intentional Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Alert
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1399
821. According to the National Capital Poison Center, 79.4% of all poison exposures reported in 2014 were: a. Intentional b. Un-intentional c. Out of order
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of these
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1399
822. Which of these drugs is used to facilitate sexual assault? a. b. c. d.
Flunitrazepam Cipro Anti-biotic Methyl alcohol
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1399
823. Which of these is a primary method of route of entry? a. b. c. d.
Ingestion Inhalation Injection All of above
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1400
824. A person ingested a toxin accidentally, what will you do to eliminate toxin from body? a. b. c. d.
Suctioning Activated charcoal Gastric decontamination None of these
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1401
825. What would be the first general management will you do when dealing with inhalation incident? a. b. c. d.
Scene safety Primary survey Reassessment Call for another paramedic
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1402
826. Which of these followings is not an example of narcotic? a. b. c. d.
Morphine Codeine Heroin Atropine
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1404
827. Which of the followings is cholinergic toxidrome? a. b. c. d.
Parathion Phenylephrine Zolpidem Atropine
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1404
828. Which of the following is considered as sedative-hypotonic? a. b. c. d.
Phenobarbital Seco-barbital Lorazepam All of above
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1404
829. Sarin drug is considered as: a. b. c. d.
Cholinergic Sedative Anticholinergic Narcotic
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1404
830. Propofol drug falls in the category of: a. b. c. d.
Cholinergic Anticholinergic Sedative Narcotic
ANS: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1404
831. Which of the following is not a part of basic terms and concepts of substance abuse? a. b. c. d.
Drug abuse Habituation Tolerance Seizure
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1404
832. The bitter almonds odor is present in: a. b. c. d.
Cyanide Arsenic Methyl salicylate Camphor
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1405
833. Which of the following best matches with Turpentine? a. b. c. d.
Violets Camphor Alcohol Pears
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1405
834. Which agent causes tachycardia? a. b. c. d.
Digitalis Gasoline Lead Amphetamines
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1405
835. Which of these agents causes seizures? a. b. c. d.
Camphor Atropine Mushrooms Botulism
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1405
836. Bradycardia is a condition related to: a. b. c. d.
Cardiovascular Respiratory Skin Mouth
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1405
837. A molecule that blocks the ability of a given chemical to bind to its receptor is considered as: a. b. c. d.
Antagonist Potentiation Synergism None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1405
838. Hypoglycemia is the result of: a. b. c. d.
Inflammation Secretion of enzymes Burns Damage to the liver
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1411
839. The contributing factors to the pancreatitis condition is: a. b. c. d.
Secretion of enzymes Irritation of stomach lining Gastritis None of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1411
840. The symptoms of delirium tremens usually starts after: a. b. c. d.
1-2 hours 48-72 hours 4-5 days All of above
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1412
841. Which of these is the symptom of delirium tremens? a. b. c. d.
Confusion Tremors Fever All of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1412
842. What would you do to treat the patient of delirium tremens? a. b. c. d.
Protecting the patient from injury Scene safety Reassessment Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1412
843. Which of the following drug is extremely addictive? a. b. c. d.
Methamphetamine Morphine Propofol Cipro
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1414
844. The amount of ketamine that is given intravenously is of amount: a. b. c. d.
2mg/kg 1mg/kg 5mg/kg 10mg/kg
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1415
845. Ketamine given intramuscularly is of amount: a. b. c. d.
4mg/kg 3mg/kg 1mg/kg None of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1415
846. Smoking marijuana usually causes euphoria and relaxation that can last up to: a. b. c. d.
2-3 days 1-2 hours 4-5 hours 4-6 hours
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1416
847. Lysergic acid diethylamide is derived from: a. b. c. d.
Fungus Bacteria Virus All
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1417
CHAPTER NO 28 848. Which of the following statement matches with the covert behavior? a. b. c. d.
Open and generally understood Hidden meanings or intentions Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1452
849. Which of the following terms is correct for delusions? a. True beliefs
NURSING TEST BANK
b. False beliefs c. Super-sticious beliefs d. All of these
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1452
850. Which of these symptoms is not suitable for toxic and deficiency states? a. b. c. d.
Digitalis Disulfiram Amphetamines Parasites
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1454
851. Which of these doesn’t cause neurologic disease? a. b. c. d.
Syphilis Dementia Stroke Closed head injury
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1454
852. Which of these causes endocrine disorders? a. b. c. d.
Thyroid hyper-function Adrenal hyper-function Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Low cardiac output
AND: C
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1454
853. Which of these is considered responsible for metabolic orders? a. Electrolyte imbalances
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Hypoglycemia c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. All of above
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1454
854. Which of these can’t be held responsible for infections? a. b. c. d.
Seizures Syphilis Parasites Brain abscess
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1454
855. Which of the following is an alternative for a person who is facing threats by his crisis? a. b. c. d.
Cope with it Attempt to alleviate the discomfort All above None of these
ANS: C
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1454
856. Which of these medical conditions cause abnormal behaviors? a. b. c. d.
Severe infections Electrolyte imbalances Stress copying All of above
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1455
857. Which of these symptoms doesn’t affect function of consciousness? a. Delirium
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Stupor and coma c. Confusion d. Slow movements
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1455
858. Which of the following is a psychiatric sign of function of motor activity? a. b. c. d.
Restlessness Stereotyped movements Compulsions All of these
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1455
859. A person is having amnesia and confabulation, which of the function of him will be affected? a. b. c. d.
Memory Motor activity Speech Perception ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1455
860. A patient is experiencing illusions and hallucinations, which of the following matches these symptoms? a. b. c. d.
Intelligence Perception Mood and effect Motor activity
ANS: B
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1455
861. Which is the best time for reassessment to further explore your patient’s mental status? a. During transport b. While asking open-ended questions
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Scene-size up d. None of these
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1460
862. Which of the following guidelines should be apply to the care of patient with a psychiatric emergency? a. b. c. d.
Be as calm and direct as possible Exclude disruptive people Sit down All of these
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1462
863. The best position in which to secure the patient to the stretcher is: a. b. c. d.
Supine position Prone position Sims position Lateral position ANS: A DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1464
864. Which of the following conditions is caused by dementia? a. b. c. d.
Severe deficits in memory Abstract thinking Judgement All of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1470
865. Suicide is considered the second leading cause of death among people ages from: a. b. c. d.
10 to 25 years 11 to 21 years 20 to 31 years 10 to 34 years
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1470
866. In which of the following scenarios violence is more likely include: a. b. c. d.
Situations where alcohol or illicit drugs are being consumed Incidents involving large crowds Incidents in which violence is already occurring All of these
ANS: D
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1471
867. What percentage of the US population experience a mood disorder? a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 20%
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1472
868. Patients who experience either depression or mania have a mood disorder of type: a. b. c. d.
Unipolar Bipolar Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1472
869. How the patients of GAD are often treated with: a. b. c. d.
Counselling Medicine Anxiety disorder centers Rehabilitation
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1474
870. The world population having schizophrenia is estimated to be in percentage of: a. 0.2 to 1.5% b. 1 to 5% c. 0.5 to 3% d. 0.6 to 2%
ANS: A
DIF: EASY
REF: Pg1474
871. Which of these is not a symptom of panic attack? a. b. c. d.
Sweating Fear of dying Chills or hot flashes None of these
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1475
872. What is the trade name of citalopram antidepressant? a. b. c. d.
Lexapro Prozac Effexor Celex
ANS: D
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1479
873. Which of the four causes of behavioral emergencies fits to a women patient having mood swings problem? a. Biologic b. Environment c. Acute injury or illness
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Substance related
ANS: B
DIF: MODERATE
REF: Pg1491
874. What is always your first step in the assessment and treatment of the patient having a behavioral emergency? a. b. c. d.
Determine the patient’s mental status Obtain vital signs Assess the scene carefully Contact medical control for orders
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1491
875. Which term best describes a state of delusion in which the person is out of touch with reality? a. b. c. d.
Depression Panic disorder Organic brain syndrome Psychosis
ANS: D
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1491
876. Which is the safest type of medication to use for chemical restraint? a. b. c. d.
Antipsychotics Benzodiazepines Opiates Antidepressants
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1491
877. Which of the following is not typically a cause of agitated delirium? a. Alzheimer disease b. Drug toxicity
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Sepsis d. Metabolic disorders
ANS: A
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1491
878. Which interview technique would not be appropriate to use with a patient experiencing a behavioral emergency? a. b. c. d.
Ask open-ended questions Don’t argue with the patient Allow silence Ask closed-ended questions
ANS: B
DIF: HARD
REF: Pg1491
CHAPTER 29
879. Trauma is physiological and structural change that occurs in patient’s body when an external source of energy affects the body beyond its ability to dissipate and sustain it. a. Acute b. Chronic c. Subacute d. Subchronic ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE
REF: PG 1542
880. Mechanical energy is subdivided into categories: a. b. c. d.
2 3 4 5 ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: PG 1543
881. Barometric energy can result from sudden and radial changes in:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Temperature b. Pressure c. Volume d. Heat ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: PG 1543
882. The way of analyzing the mechanics and results of trauma sustained by human body is provided by: a. b. c. d.
Kinetics Mechanics Biomechanics Biochemistry
ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1543
883. External factors determine the type of injuries include: a. force and pressure b. force and mass c. pressure and energy d. force and energy ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: 1543
884. Which one has greater effect on KE than mass: a. b. c. d. ANS: A
Velocity Pressure Both a & b None DIFF: MODERATE
REF: 1544
885. The speed at which object travels in given unit of time: a. b. c. d.
Acceleration Gravity Velocity None
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: 1544
NURSING TEST BANK
886. Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can change form: a. b. c. d.
Law of conservation of Energy Law of conservation of Mass Newton’s First Law of Motion Newton’s Second Law of Motion
ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF: 1544
887. According to Newton’s Second Law, Force is directly proportional to: a. b. c. d.
Mass Acceleration Both a & b Gravity
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1545 888. The human limit to deceleration is about: a. b. c. d.
10g 20g 30g 40g
ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF: 1545 889. Difference in the speed between two vehicles: a. Moving speed b. Closing speed c. Velocity d. None ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1545 890. Trauma to head and spine is an example of: a. b. c. d.
Blunt trauma Multisystem trauma Penetrating trauma All of these
ANS: B
DIFF: HARD REF: 1545
NURSING TEST BANK
891. Injuries in which body tissues are not affected by external object: a. b. c. d.
Blunt trauma Multisystem trauma Penetrating trauma All types
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: 1546
892. The severity of injuries may be increased by : A. B. C. D.
Secondary collisions Additional impacts Deceleration of vehicle Deceleration of internal organs
ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1547 893. Lateral or side impacts imparts energy to the near side occupant directly to the: a. b. c. d.
Pelvis & chest Head & spine Shoulder & rib Clavicle and spine
ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1550 894. The chance of death increases when occupant is ejected from vehicle: a. b. c. d.
Two times Three times Eight times Four times ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF: 1552
895. The part of vehicle which stops the forward motion of any vehicle’s occupant who is travelling at the same speed as the vehicle: a. Seat belts b. Steering c. Seats d. Breaks ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1552
NURSING TEST BANK
896. Airbags reduces deaths in direct frontal MCVs by; a. 0% b.30% c. 40% d.50% ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1553 897. Helmets are designed to protect against impact forces to: a. Head b. Throat c. Jaws d. Face ANS: A DIFF:EASY REF: 1554
898. Organs susceptible to pressure changes: a. Heart b. Lungs c. Middle ear d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: 1563
899. Long term damage from biologic contaminants results from: a. b. c. d.
Primary blast injuries Secondary blast injuries Tertiary blast injuries Quinary blast injuries
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1561 900. TNT stands for: a. b. c. d.
Tetranitrotoluene Trinitrotoluene Benzenetrinitrotoluene None
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1562
NURSING TEST BANK
901. CPR stands for: a. b. c. d.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation Cardiopulmonary rescue Cardiopulmonary receptors Cardiopulmonary receivers
ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF: 1565
902. Patients suffering from trauma should have thorough physical examination: a. b. c. d. ANS: C
Blunt trauma Penetrating trauma Multisystem trauma All of these DIFF: HARD
REF: 1567
903. The scoring system used to determine the likelihood of patient survival: a. b. c. d.
Trauma score CGS score Revised Trauma Score None of these
ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1568 904. Standardize trauma related data is collected by: a. b. c. d.
National trauma data standard National trauma registry Both a & b National trauma data bank
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1573 905. Coagulopathy refers to: a. b. c. d.
Poor blood clotting Sodium clotting Fluid imbalances in veins Sugar clotting ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF: 1569
NURSING TEST BANK
906. A physiologic scoring system used to assess injury severity patients with head trauma: a. RTS b. CGS c. TS d. None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1568 907. The patient survival is calculated on scale of range: a. 1-16 b. 1-17 c. 1-18 d. 1-19 ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1568 908. Common causes of death from blast injuries are due to: a. b. c. d.
Neurologic injuries and head trauma Head and spinal injuries Limb injuries Lung injuries
ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: 1563
CHAPTER 30
909. A metabolic system which doesn’t require oxygen is : a. Aerobic metabolism b. anaerobic metabolism c. photosynthesis d. cellular respiration ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: 1582
910. In the lungs, the blood unloads: a. b. c. d.
Carbon dioxide Oxygen Nitrogen Urea
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: 1582
911. Blood unloads oxygen in: a. b. c. d.
Lungs Peripheral tissues Kidneys Heart
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1582 912. CO is expressed in : a. b. c. d.
ml/mint mg/mint l/mint all of these
ANS:C DIFF:MODERATE REF: 1583 913. Myocardial contraction results in pressure changes causing the blood to flow from: a. b. c. d.
High pressure to low pressure Low pressure to high pressure Pressure don’t affect the flow None of these
ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1583 914. Hematocrit values for women range from: a. 40.7-50.3 % b. 36.1-44.3% c. 35.1-42.4% d. 37.2-45% ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg1584 915. The component of blood involved in most of the coagulation: a. b. c.
WBCs RBCs Platelets
NURSING TEST BANK
d.
All of these
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Pg1584 916. The loss of total blood volume resulting in death: a. b. c. d.
Blood tissue trauma Hemorrhage Exsanguination Muscle tearing
ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg1586
917. An artery doesn’t recoil and continues to bleed if: a. Cut vertically along its length b. Partially transected c. Incised directly or in transverse manner d. Both a & b ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: 1586 918. Blood from an open vein is much darker because of: a. b. c. d.
Low oxygen content High oxygen content Low carbon content High oxygen and carbon content ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1587
919. Hemostasis proceeds through steps: a. b. c. d.
One Two Three Four ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: 1587
920. Anxiety, agitation and restlessness are symptoms of: a. b. c.
Compensated shock Decompensated shock Irreversible shock
NURSING TEST BANK
d.
None of these
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: 1589
921. The signs of non-traumatic internal bleeding in older adults patients include: a. b. c. d.
Dizziness, faintness, fatigue Dizziness, faintness, weakness Faintness and fatigue Nervousness and unconsciousness ANS: B DIFF: HARD
REF: 1590
922. Which acid is used in controlling internal bleeding: a.Tranexamic acid b. EDTA c. Tranquilizers d. Hydrochloric acid ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: 1591
923. A mass of blood in soft tissues beneath the skin; it indicates bleeding into soft tissues and may be the result of minor and severe injuries. a. hematemesis b. hematauria c. hemoptysis d. hematoma ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE
REF: 1592
924. Coughed up blood usually bright red: a. b. c. d.
Hemoptysis Hematoma Melena Hematuria ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: 1592
925. To measure the cardiac rhythm of patient, most appropriate method will be: a.
Oximeter
NURSING TEST BANK
b. c. d.
Electrograph Electrocardiography Pulse meter
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: 1593
926. To confirm that you have fund all patient’s problem and injuries quickly use: a. b. c. d.
Secondary assessment Primary assessment Reassessment Physical examination
ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: 1593 927. If you are dealing a patient who is showing symptoms of skull fracture, what you will do: a. b. c. d.
Stop the blood flow by applying pressure Not try to stop the blood flow Cover the bleeding site loosely Both b & c
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1595 928. CSF has higher: a. b. c. d.
Protein content Fat content Glucose content Calcium content
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1595 929. While applying tourniquet, keep in mind that don’t apply directly on: a. b. c. d.
Muscles Limbs Joints Proximal to the zone of injury
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1597 930. To prevent damage to tissues and vessels by broken bones, which one of the following is used?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Tourniquets Splints Hemostatic agents Compression devices
ANS: b DIFF: EASY REF: 1599 931. In junctional areas, which technique is suitable: a. Splints b. Wound packing c. Tourniquets d. Regular bandaging ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1600 932. Which one isn’t the function of hemostatic agents? a. b. c. d.
Absorbs water component of blood Contracting the clotting factors Deactivating platelets Enhancing the coagulation cascade
ANS: C DIFF; MODERATE REF: 1600 933. Titration of systolic blood pressure preferred for hemorrhagic shock is: a. b. c. d.
80 to 90mmHg 90 to 100mmHg 100 to 110mmHg 110 to 120 mmHg
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: 1602
934. TBI stands for: a. b. c. d.
Traumatic Brain Injury Tick borne illness Total body irradiation To be inactivated
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: 1602
935. Hypo perfusion (shock) occurs when the level of tissue perfusion:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. C. d.
Decreases Increases Remains same Sometimes increase and sometimes decrease below normal
ANS: A
DIFF: MOODERATE REF: 1605
936. Hemorrhage simply means: a. Bleeding b. Leaking c. Professing d. All of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1605 937. Splints design to stabilize femur fractures: a. b. c. d.
Air splints Rigid splints Traction splints None of above
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1599 938. Tachycardia is sign of hypo perfusion suggesting: a. b. c. d.
External hemorrhage Internal hemorrhage Spine damage Muscle damage
ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1591
Chapter 31 939. Injury occurs when an object, such as bullet or knife breaks through the skin and enters the body creating an entrance wound and possibly an exit wound. a. b. c. d.
Blunt injury Penetrating injury Soft tissue injury Infection
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIFF: Easy REF: Pg 1610
940. The skin is composed of layers: a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 4 ANS: B DIFF: Easy REF: Pg 1611
941. Desquamation is the process in which: a. Shedding of soft living cells b. Shedding of soft non-living cells c. Shedding of hard living cells d. Shedding of hard non-living cells ANS: D DIFF: Moderate
REF: Pg 1612
942. Stratum Corneum have their cytoplasm replaced with: a. b. c. d.
Keratin Actin Mysosin Fibrin ANS: A
DIFF: Easy REF: Pg1612
943. Subcutaneous tissue stores energy in the form of: a. b. c. d.
Fat Protein Carbohydrates Minerals
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg1612
NURSING TEST BANK
944. Granulocytes and macrophages engulf: a. b. c. d.
Bacteria through phagocytosis Bacteria through hydrolysis Viruses through hydrolysis Viruses through phagocytosis
ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1614
945. Histamine is released by: a. b. c. d.
Platelets Lymphocytes Mast cells None of these
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1614
946. Tough, fibrous protein found in scar tissue: a. b. c. d.
Actin Myosin Fibrin Fibroblast
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1614
947. Dressing high risk wounds and allowing them to heal from inside out:
a. b. c. d.
Primary closure Secondary intention Delayed primary closure Delayed secondary closure
ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1615
NURSING TEST BANK
948. The correct sequence is: a. b. c. d.
Exposure, disability, circulation ,breathing ,airway Disability, breathing, airway, circulation, exposure Airway, circulation, disability, breathing, exposure Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure
ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1616 949. Ice or cold pack helps: a. Dilate blood vessels b. Promotes bleeding c. Slows bleeding d. Constrict blood vessels, slowing the bleeding
ANS:D DIFF:EASY REF: Pg1617
950. A bandage: a. b. c. d.
Covers the wound Controls bleeding Covers wound and controls bleeding Keeps the dressing in place
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1618
951. Methods to control external bleeding: a. b. c. d.
Direct/even pressure Pressure dressings or splints Tourniquets All of these
ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1618
952. In case of arterial bleeding, it is best to use:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Air splints b. Any type of splints c. Tourniquets d. Any bandage ( sterile)
ANS: C DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1619
953. It is important to remove all other dressings before applying: a. b. c. d.
Splints Tourniquets Hemostatic agents Bandages
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1621
954. Blood tends to be heavy on facial areas because of: a. Rich blood supply b. Less blood supply c. Blood with more oxygen d. Blood with less oxygen
ANS: A DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1622
955. A superficial wound that occurs when the skin is rubbed or scraped over a rough surface and part of epidermis is lost is: a. b. c. d.
Lacerations Incisions Abrasions Infection
ANS:C DIFF:EASY REF: Pg 1623
NURSING TEST BANK
956. Which of them is intentional: a. b. c. d.
Lacerations Incisions Abrasions All of these
ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1623
957. The first priority in treating lacerations Is to control bleeding by: a. b. c. d.
By applying direct manual pressure Loose dressing Reducing pressure Applying chemicals
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1624
958. Serosanguineous drainage ( serum and blood) has hue: a. b. c. d.
Red Pink Purple Brown
ANS:B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1626
959. Partial or complete blood loss of body part: a. Amputation b. Avulsion c. Hemorrhage d. Wounds
ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1626
NURSING TEST BANK
960. Open wounds can be irrigated by: a. b. c. d.
Saline water Sterile water Distilled water Both a & b
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1628
961. Myositis is: a. b. c. d.
Tearing of muscle Weakening of muscle Inflammation of muscle Internal bleeding
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1630
962. Gangrene is: a. b. c. d.
Live tissues Dead tissues Live cells Dead cells
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1630
963. Tetanus is caused by: a. b. c. d.
C. tetani C. botulinum S. aureus Salmonella
ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1630
NURSING TEST BANK
964. Necrotizing fecitis is caused by: a. b. c. d.
Viral infection Bacterial infection Fungal infection Molds
ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1630
965. Paronychia is infection of: a. hairs b. hands c. face d. eyes
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1630
966. Bruise is an example of: a. b. c. d.
Open wound Closed wound Infection None
ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1633
967. Inflammation is the stage of healing: a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1633
NURSING TEST BANK
968. Rabies is caused by: a. Dog bite b. Cat bite c. None d. Both a & b
ANS:D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1634 969. Inner layer of skin containing hair follicles roots, sweat glands, blood vessels, nerve endings and sebaceous glands a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Sebum d. Endodermis
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1634
Chapter 32 970. Function of nerve endings include: a. b. c. d.
Mediate the sense of touch Mediate the sense of pain Mediate the sense of temperature and pressure All of these
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1640
971. Ocular damage is injury which is: a. Alkali based b. Acid base c. Salt based
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Carbon based
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1640
972. Thermal burns occurs when skin is exposed to temperature more than: a. b. c. d.
44c 34c 35c 40c ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1641
973. Scald burns are caused by: a. b. c. d.
Hot metals Hot liquids Hot solid foods All of these
ANS: B
DIFF:EASY
REF: Pg 1642
974. Exposing a person to very intense heat may be the reason for: a. b. c. d.
Flash burns Steam burns Contact burns Scald burns
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1642
975. Zone of coagulation is the area which suffers: a. b. c. d.
Least damage Most damage Moderate damage No damage
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1642
976. Zone of hyperemia: a. b. c. d.
Least affected area Most affected area Decreased blood flow area None
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1643
977. You are dealing with a person whose skin is red and swollen. When you touch the skin, color of skin blanch and become normal. What type of burn it is? a. b. c. d.
Superficial burn Partial thickness burn Full thickness burn None
ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1644
978. Which type of burn destroys both layers of skin: a. b. c. d.
Superficial burn Partial thickness burn Full thickness burn All of these
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1644
979. Hydrogen cyanide has odor similar to: a. b. c. d.
Bitter almonds Olive oil Palm oil Hydrogen fluoride
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1645
NURSING TEST BANK
980. Cyanide is produced by incomplete combustion of: a. carbon and hydrogen b. carbon and nitrogen c. nitrogen an hydrogen d. hydrogen and carbon
ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1645
981. Hydrogen chloride is a by-product of combustion of: a. b. c. d.
PVC Vinyl chloride PET Polystyrene ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1645
982. Level of CO in heavy smokers: a. b. c. d.
4-5% 4-6% 4-7% 4-8% ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1646
983. Anyone suspected of having a burn to the upper airway may benefit from the administration of humidified, cool: a. b. c. d.
Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Chlorine
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1647
984. Rule of nines is based on dividing body into: a. b. c. d.
Nine sections 10 sections 11 sections 12 sections ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1648
985. Rule of Palm represents patient’s TBSA ( total body surface area): a. b. c. d.
1% 2% 3% 4%
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1648
986. Full thickness burns covering less than 2% of TBSA: a. b. c. d.
Major burns Minor burns Partial burns Complete burns
ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1649
987. A person is transferred to burn unit when he is suffering from: a. Chemical burns b. Inhalation burns c. Burns involving face, hand, feet d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1650
NURSING TEST BANK
988. Airways are secured in: a. b. c. d.
First 72 hours Day 1 through 7 Day 7 through week 6 Entire hospitalization ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1651
989. Consensus formula measures: a. Degree of burn b. Amount of blood c. Amount medicines d. Amount of fluid
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1652
990. In any patient with burns, medication is best given via: a. b. c. d.
Intravenous Intramascular Intraperitoneal All of these
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1653
991. Applying ice to burns may lead: a. b. c. d.
Organ damage Muscle damage Tissue injury Hypothermia
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1654
992. Hydrogen peroxide applied on cuts is solution:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. 6-10% b. 10-20% c. 6-9% d. 3-6% ANS:D
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1655
993. In which type f burning, a layer of dead tissue is formed: a. b. c. d.
Acid burn Akali burn Cold burn Flash burn
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1656
994. Which one is used for etching glass and plastic: a. b. c. d.
Hydrochloric acid Hydrofluoric acid Sodium metals Dry lime
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1657
995. Immersed the affected area in cold water in case of: a. b. c. d.
Chemical burn Alkali burn Hot tar None of these
ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1567
996. Tingling sensation/ perception is received when amount of current is:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. 1 b. 5 c. 6-25 d. more than 25 ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1660 997. The temperature of arc- type: a. 3000c -20000c b. 3000c – 10000c c. 10000c-20000c d. 2000c-5000c ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1661 998. Hypoxia causes: a. b. c. d.
Cardiac arrest Respiratory muscle contraction Respiratory muscle relaxation None
ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1662
999. Lightning strikes when a massive discharge of electricity occurs between two bodies that have: a. b. c. d.
Same charges Different charges Neutral charge Charge at rest ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1663
1000. There are types of radiation: a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C DIFF:EASY
REF: Pg 1664
Chapter 33 1001. There are bones in structure of face: a. b. c. d.
12 13 14 15
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1677
1002. Motion of eyeballs and upper eyelids relates to: a. b. c. d.
Globe Oculomotor nerve Optic nerve First cranial nerve
ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1677
1003. Ophthalmoscope is used to evaluate: a. b. c. d.
Retina Cornea Sclera Iris
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1678
1004. Major arteries of the neck supply blood to brain which: a. Oxygenated b. Deoxygenated c. Carbonated d. Decarbonated ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1679
1005. Brachial plexus is responsible for: a. Functioning of hand b. Functioning of arm c. Both a & b d. Function of brain
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1680
1006. A Patient’s oxygen saturation level is maintained at: a. 91% b. 92% c. 93% d. 94%
ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1680
1007. Blunt Force Trauma to the lower third of the face: a. b. c. d.
TMJ dislocations Lee Fort fractures Nasal fractures Mandibular Fractures ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1684
NURSING TEST BANK
1008. Le Fort fractures are classifies into: a. b. c. d.
One Two Three Four ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1684
1009. A horizontal fracture of maxilla that involves the hard palate and inferior maxilla: a. Le Fort 1 fracture b. Le Fort 2 fracture c. Le Fort 3 fracture d. All of these
ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1684
1010. Zygomatic fracture is a fracture of: a. b. c. d.
Nose Hand Leg Cheekbones
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1686
1011. Massive facial swelling is a result of: a. b. c. d.
Multiple facial bone fractures Zygomatic and orbital fractures Nasal fractures Mandibular fractures
ANS: A DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1686
NURSING TEST BANK
1012. Medications that stimulate alpha adrenergic receptors causing localized vasoconstriction in the nasal mucosa include: a. b. c. d.
Oxymetazoline hydrochloride Phenylnephrine hydrochloride Both a & b None ANS: C DIFF: MODEATE
REF: Pg 1687
1013. Applying pressure to the damaged eye may: a. b. c. d.
Lessen pain Lessen the damage Increase the damage No effect ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1688
1014. Eye injuries my cause by: a. Blunt trauma b. Penetrating trauma c. Burns d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1688
1015. Patients with hyphema reports: a. b. c. d.
Blurred vision Photophobia Pain All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1690
1016. Symptoms of ocular injury include: a. Vision loss b. Double vision
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Severe eye pain d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1692
1017. Photophobia means: a. b. c. d.
Sensitivity to heat Sensitivity to light Sensitivity to temperature None
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1693
1018. For irrigating eyes, use: a. Sterile water b. Saline water c. Vinegar d. Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1694
1019. If burn is caused by alkali or acid, irrigate the eye for: a. b. c. d.
10 minutes 20 minutes 30 minutes 40 minutes ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1694
1020. During the process of cooking methamphetamine: a. b. c. d.
ammonia is used anhydrous ammonia is used nitrogen is used carbon is used
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1694
1021. contact lenses are of:
a. b. c. d.
One type Two types Three types Four types ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1696
1022. Pinna tends to heal poorly because of: a. b. c. d.
Poor blood supply Poor oxygen supply Excess oxygen supply Excess blood supply ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1697
1023. Otoscope is used to: a. b. c. d.
Look into ear Look into mouth Look into eyes All of these ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1698
1024. Leakage of gastric contents into thoracic cavity results in: a. b. c. d.
Vascular injury Esophagul perforation Neurologic impairment Mediatinitis
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1702
1025. Fractures of first rib are associated with: a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1702
1026. Stretching and tearing of ligaments is: a. b. c. d.
sprains strains cramps none ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1704
1027. Stretching and tearing of muscles or tendons: a. b. c. d.
Strains Sprains Cramps None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1704
1028. Whiplash is common form of: a. b. c. d.
cervical sprain cervical strain both a & b none ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1707
NURSING TEST BANK
1029. The part of the tooth that is external to gum: a. b. c. d.
Crown Dentin Cusps None
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1707
1030. Following help to prevent injuries: a. b. c. d.
Helmets Face shields Mouth guards All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1704
Chapter 34
1031. Injury to soft tissue of scalp and bones of skull: a. b. c. d.
Head trauma Head injury Traumatic brain injury None of them ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1713
1032. Skull is composed of bones: a. b. c. d.
25 26 27 28
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1713
1033. Which one is not the brain region? a. Cerebrum b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. Fosa
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1714
1034. The largest portion of brain is: a. b. c. d.
Cerebrum Brainstem Cerebellum Frontal lobe ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1714
1035. Speech center is located in: a. b. c. d.
Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Temporal lobe Frontal lobe
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1715
1036. Which part of brain is “Athlete’s Brain”? a. b. c. d.
cerebrum cerebellum brainstem frontal lobe ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1716
NURSING TEST BANK
1037. Which part of brain connects spinal cord to brain? a. b. c. d.
Brainstem Cerebrum Cerebellum Frontal lobe ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1716
1038. Second meningeal layer is transparent, delicate membrane called: a. b. c. d.
Dura mater Tentorium Arachnoid Pia meter ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1716
1039. Hemorrhage occur between dura mater and skull is caused by rupture of: a. b. c. d.
Rupture of middle meningeal artery Rupture of bridging veins Below the arachnoid membrane Above the arachnoid membrane ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1716
1040. The vertebral column can extend and flex up to: a. 60-70% b. 70-80% c. 80-90% d. 90-100% ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1717
NURSING TEST BANK
1041. Cervical plexus includes vertebral levels: a. C1 through C5 b. C5 through T1 c. L1 through L4 d. L4 through S4 ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1718
1042. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for: a. b. c. d.
Sweating Pupil dilation Temperature regulation All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1719
1043. Seeing stars ( flashes of light) is a symptom of : a. Brain trauma b. Head injury c. Traumatic brain injury d. None of them ANS: C DIFF : MODERATE REF: Pg 1720
1044. Cerebral perfusion pressure is defined as: a. Pressure of blood flow through veins b. Pressure of blood flow thorough lungs c. Pressure of blood flow through bones d. Pressure of blood flow through brain ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1722
NURSING TEST BANK
1045. Recommended rates of hyperventilation for adults: a. b. c. d.
20 breaths/ mint 30 breaths / mint 25 breaths mint 20-30 breaths/ mint ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1722
1046. Patients with closed head injury may become: a. Hypotensive b. Hypertensive c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B DIFF: MODERTE
REF:Pg 1723
1047. In a non- critical patient, you may apply the immobilization after: a. b. c. d.
Primary assessment Secondary assessment Tertiary assessment Quaternary assessment ANS: B DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1725
1048. If patients exhibits diaphragmatic breathing, use: a. b. c. d.
Comforter Foam Mattress Vacuum mattress ANS: D DIFF: HRD REF:Pg 1726
1049. Bruising behind the ears: a. Drainage of ear
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Retroauricular ecchymosis c. Battle sign d. Both b & c ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1727 1050. Increased blood pressure and decreased pulse rate is shown in level of intracranial pressure: a. Moderate elevation b. Mild elevation c. Marked elevation d. e. None of them ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1728
1051. Hyperesthesia is: a. b. c. d.
Abnormal sensation Electric shock Hyper acute pain to touch All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1730
1052. Babinski reflex is positive when: a. b. c. d.
Toes move upward Toes move downward Don’t move All of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1730
1053. Impairment of brain function by external force such as fall: a. b. c. d.
Head trauma TBI Head injury All of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1732
1054. Intentional self harm is done by people between age: a. 65 years and older b. 50 years and older c. 25 to 64 years d. No specific age ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1732
1055. Skull fractures are of : a. b. c. d.
Two types Three types Four types Five types ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1734
1056. Fracture in which skull displays no gross physical signs: a. b. c. d.
Linear skull fractures Basilar skull fractures Depressed skull fractures Open skull fractures ANS: A DIIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1734
1057. Of depressed skull fractures, open fractures are: a. 75-80% b. 60-70% c. 75-90% d. 90-100% ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1734
NURSING TEST BANK
1058. Brain tissues are exposed to environment in: a. b. c. d.
Linear skull fractures Basilar skull fractures Open skull fractures Depressed skull fractures ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1734
1059. TBI is divided into: a. b. c. d.
Two categories Three categories Four categories Five categories ANS: A DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1736
1060. The bran receives cardiac output: a. 10% b. 15 % c. 20 % d. 25 % ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1736
CHAPTER 35
1061. Functions of thorax and its contents include: a. maintain oxygenation b. maintain ventilation c. maintain circulation
NURSING TEST BANK
d. all of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1789
1062. Thoracic trauma may: a. b. c. d.
Increase blood pressure Decrease blood pressure Increase blood loss Decrease blood loss
ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1790
1063. The delicate issue arises due to thoracic injury: a. Blood issue b. Ventilation c. Muscle tear d. All of these ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1794
1064. Mortality rates associated with flial chest: a. 40% b. 50 % c. 60% d. 70% ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1794
1065. Principle of golden period: a. Shock injuries are critical b. Traumatic injuries are critical c. Shock or traumatic injuries are critical d. Shock or traumatic injuries are least painful ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1794
NURSING TEST BANK
1066. Flial segments threats the patient’s ability to: a. b. c. d.
Walk Sit Sleep Breath ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1796
1067. Accumulation of air or gas in pleural cavity occurs in: a. b. c. d.
Pneumothorax Clavicle fracture Sternum fracture Rib fracture ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1797
1068. PPV stands for: a. b. c. d.
Positive pressure ventilation Positive predictive value Points plus value Proportionimg valve ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1798
1069. Inability to eliminate carbon dioxide: a. b. c. d.
Hypertension Hycercapnia Pneumothorax Open pneumothorax
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1798
NURSING TEST BANK
1070. Continued air accumulation within inter-pleural space: a. b. c. d.
Open pneumothorax Tension pneumothorax Hypoxia Hypercapnia
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1800 1071. A condition when potential space between the parietal and visceral pleura is violated and blood begins to accumulate within this space: a. Hypothermia b. Tension pneumothorax c. Hemothorax d. Open pneumothrax ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1804
1072. When blood and air are present in pleural space: a. b. c. d.
Hemopneumothorax Hemothorax Tension pneumothorax Open pneumothrax ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1805
1073. You are dealing with patient who upon physical assessment shows signs of ventilatory insufficiency and hypovolemic shock with the lack of tracheal deviation possible bloody sputum. He/ she is suffering from: a. Hemoptysis b. Hemothorax c. Open pneumonothorax d. Tension pneumonothorax ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1805
NURSING TEST BANK
1074. Hypoxia and carbon dioxide retention leads to: a. Respiratory distress b. Dyspnea c. Agitation d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1806 1075. Upon physical findings, we may see that person suffering from breathing sounds:
tension pneumothorax have
a. Equal on both sides b. Increased c. Decreased or absent on side of injury d. Decreased ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1807
1076. Pericardiocentesis is a treatment of: a. b. c. d.
Cardiac temponade Hemothorax Pneumothorax None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1807
1077. Sharp, retrosternal chest pain is common in patients of: a. b. c. d.
Myocardial rupture Myocardial contusion Pneumonia Tuberculosis ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1808
1078. A patient present with acute pulmonary edema and showing signs of cardiac temponade is suffering from:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Myocardial contusion Blunt trauma Myocardial rupture All of them ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1808
1079. Patients who are unresponsive, apniec, and pulseless may experience: a. b. c. d.
Traumatic aortic disruption Diaphragmatic injuries Commotio cordis Myocardial infarction ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1809
1080. The aorta include layers: a. b. c. d.
Two Three Four Five ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1809
1081. A patient showing signs of hypovolemic shocks, hemothorax and cardiac temponade if bleeding is not prevented. He is suffering from: a. Great vessel injury b. Diaphragmatic injuries c. Commotion cortis d. Traumatic aortic disruption ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1809
1082. If hematoma is formed in area of esophagus, the patient may present with: a. Stridor b. Hoarseness
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Dysphagia d. All of these ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1810
1083. Liver protects diaphragm from:
a. Right side b. Left side c. Center d. All sides ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1811 1084. A patient experiencing pleuritic chest pain, and particular pain that is worsen by swallowing or flexion on the neck. He is suffering from: a. b. c. d.
Great vessel injury Brain traumatic injury Traumatic Asphyxia Esophageal injury ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1812
1085. The injury to carina: a. b. c. d.
Great vessel injury Esophageal injury Tracheobronchial injury Traumatic asphyxia ANS: C
DFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1812
1086. Bleeding into anterior surface of eye: a. subconjunctival hematoma b. exophthalmos
NURSING TEST BANK
c. asphyxia d. none of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1813
1087. A patient with asphyxia comes to you, you will treat him by: a. Oxygen via breathing mask b. Nitrogen via breathing mask c. Nitrogen via non- breathing mask d. Supplemental oxygen via breathing mask ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1813
1088. By ventilation, we mean: a. b. c. d.
Delivery of oxygen Removal of oxygen Delivery of carbon dioxide Removal of carbon dioxide ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1815
1089. A condition in which heart becomes compressed and stroke volume is compromised: a. b. c. d.
Cardiac failure Cardiac temponade’ Cardiac arrest Hematoma ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1815
1090. A grating sensation when two broken bones rub together: a. b. c. d.
crepitus hemothrax flails needle decompression ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1816
NURSING TEST BANK
CHAPTER 36
1091. The abdominal cavity contains:
a. b. c. d.
Digestive tract Urinary tract Genitourinary systems All of these ANS: D
DIFF:EASY REF: Pg 1820
1092. Which one is not a part of genitourinary system? a. b. c. d.
Kidneys Ureter Bladders Heart ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1821
1093. The area in abdomen encased in peritoneum: a. Reperitoneal space b. Peritoneal cavity c. Perium bilical area d. Epidermis ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1821
1094. Diaphragm curves at : a. b. c. d.
9th rib 10th rib 11th rib 12th rib ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1824
NURSING TEST BANK
1095. Chemical peritonitis caused by: a. b. c. d.
Release of bacteria in abdomen Release of feces in abdomen Release of stomach acid in abdomen Release of viruses in abdomen ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1824
1096. Mortality caused by abdominal injury: a. 10-20% b. 10-30% c. 30-40% d. 40-50% ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1824
1097. In the rapid deceleration of a patient during motor vehicle crash or fall from height, a shearing force can be created which results the internal organs to move forward. This MOI results in damage of: a. b. c. d.
Spleen Kidney Liver All of these ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1825
1098. An accident in which an un-belt driver or front seat passenger often is pushed down and under the dash board. This is : a. Lateral impact b. Frontal impact c. Rear d. Rollover ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1826
1099. Diaphragm, liver, spleen are injured in:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Rollover b. Lateral c. Rotational d. Rear ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1826
1100. Hemoperitoneum is: a. Collection of blood in lungs b. Collection of blood in heart c. Collection of blood in brain d. Collection of blood in peritoneal cavity ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1829
1101. Tenderness on palpation and percussion of the abdomen along with abdominal pain is a symptom of: a. b. c. d.
Hetroperitoneum Hemoperitoneum Cardiac arrest Cardiac contusion ANS: B
DIFF: SAME
REF: Pg 1829
1102. Blood in the urine: a. b. c. d.
Hematauria Mensentery Both a & b None of them
ANS: A
DIFF: SAME
REF: Pg 1830
1103. Somatic pain comes from: a. Joints
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Muscle c. Ligaments d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1831
1104. There are main areas where abdominal pain is felt: a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1831
1105. In absence of traumatic brain injury, the goal of fluid replacement is: a. b. c. d.
Maintain blood sugar level Maintain systolic blood pressure Maintain diastolic blood pressure None of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1832
1106. Over the top of evisceration, apply: a. b. c. d.
Splints Tourniquets Saline soaked dressing Sterile soaked sterile dressing ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1832
1107. The amount of circulatory blood filters through spleen: a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1833
1108. The intestines are most commonly injured from: a. b. c. d.
Penetrating trauma Blunt trauma Both a & b None of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1834 1109. The stomach is rarely injured from: a. Penetrating trauma b. Blunt trauma c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B
DIFF: easy REF: Pg 1834
1110. Which structure is not present in reperitoneal cavity: a. Pancreas b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. Kidneys
ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1834
1111. Which part of body require more force to damage: a. Pancreas b. Spleen c. Liver d. Heart
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1834
1112. The first part of small intestine:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Duodenum Jejunum Ileum All of these
ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1835
1113. In active hemorrhage, patient experience: a. Hypotension b. Tachycardia c. Shock d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1836 1114. Patients usually experience vague upper and mid abdominal pain that radiates to back. It is a sign of injury of: a. b. c. d.
Spleen Pancreas Kidney Liver ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1836
1115. Bladder injury may be suspected if: a. Person is unable to urinate 1116. b. Blood is noted at penile opening 1117. c.Trauma to the lower abdomen or pelvis 1118. d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1836
1119. Pressure necrosis: a. Cell death b. Tissue death c. Vital organs failure
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of above ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1837
1120. Signs of vaginal trauma may include: a. hematomas b. bleeding from vagina c. tenderness on palpitation of lower pelvis d. all of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1837
1121. Signs and symptoms of pelvic fractures include: a. b. c. d.
Pain in pelvis groin and hips Hematomas Both a & b None of these ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1838
1122. Solid organs has large blood supply and cen be easily crushed by: a. b. c. d.
Penetrating trauma Blunt trauma Gunshot injury None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1840
1123. Blunt trauma to penis cause: a. b. c. d.
Hematoma Pain Both a & b None of these ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1840
NURSING TEST BANK
Chapter 37
1124. Skeleton is divided into: a. b. c. d.
Two distinct portions Three distinct portions Four distinct portions Five portions ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1845
1125. Decrease in bone density: a. b. c. d.
Osteoposrosis Osteomalacia Rickets Arthritis ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1846
1126. Repetitive stress causes: a. Twisting injuries b. Stress fractures c. Fatigue fractures d. Dislocation ANS: B & C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1847 1127. Each end of fracture is not aligned in a straight line and that an angle has formed between them. This is: a. b. c. d.
Closed fracture Open fracture Angulation Deformity ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1848
NURSING TEST BANK
1128. Injuries encountered together because of the way causative forces are transmitted: a. b. c. d.
fatigue fractures associated fractures twisting injuries dislocation ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1847
1129. when broken ends of the bond override one another a. b. c. d.
shortening deformity angulation closed fracture ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1850
1130. Partial dislocation of joint is: a. b. c. d.
Crepitus subluxation luxation diastasis ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1851
1131. A sound or sensation caused by bone end touching:
a. b. c. d.
Crepitus Diastasis Luxation Subluxation ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1851
1132. Injuries in which ligaments are stretched or torn:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Dislocation Luxation Subluxation Sprains ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1851
1133. Pale or delayed capillary refill in children: a. b. c. d.
Pulseness Pain Paralysis Pallor ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1854
1134. While looking for point tenderness, identify the points which are: a. b. c. d.
More painful Less painful Senseless All of above ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1854
1135. RICES stands for: a. Rest, ice, Compression, elevation, splinting b. Rest, ice, complicate, elevation, splinting c. Race , ice, complicate, elevation, splinting d. Rest, ice, compression ,elevation, splinting
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1857
1136. Cooling the injured area: a. Increases the rate of inflammation
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Decreases the rate of inflammation c. Decreases the rate of inflammatory mediators d. Increases the rate of inflammatory mediators
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1858
1137. Heating during initial phase of injury is avoided because: a. b. c. d.
Increase pain Decrease pain Increase pain & swelling Decrease pain & swelling ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1858
1138. Sling is not used when patient has: a. b. c. d.
Arm injury Neck injury Hand injury All of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1860
1139. Air splints expands when: a. b. c. d.
Going to higher altitude When it gets warmer When is gets colder Both a & b
ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1861
1140. The splint in which the suction pump is attached to splint which is used to evacuate the air. This characteristics is present in:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Air splints b. Vacuum splints c. Pneumatic splints d. Rigid splints ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1861
1141. Which type is used for femur fracture? a. b. c. d.
Air splints Traction splints Vacuum splints Buddy splints ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1862
1142. A patient having injury to toe require to apply a splint. Which type will you prefer? a. b. c. d.
Traction splints Buddy splints Vacuum splints Air splints ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1863
1143. Which one of the following is not a symptom of compartment syndrome? a. Severe pain b. Tenderness c. Sensory changes d. Nausea and vomiting ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1864
1144. Prolonged compressive force that impairs muscle metabolism and circulation and presents following the extrication or release of an entrapped limb. This condition is called: a. Compartment syndrome b. Crush syndrome
NURSING TEST BANK
c. De-vascularization d. None of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1864
1145. The process in which toxins and waste products are removed from circulating blood: a. b. c. d.
Glomerular filtration Rhabdomylosis Hyperphosphatemia Kidney filtration ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1865
1146. A condition in which fat droplets become lodged in vasculature of lungs. a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyperphosphatemia c. Pulmonary embolism d. Fat embolism ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1865
1147. Fracture of the neck of fifth meta carpal: a. Scaphoid b. Ulna fracture c. Boxer’s fracture d. Mallet finger fracture ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1867
1148. Pelvis fracture accounts for: a. 1% b. 2%
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 3% d. 4% ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1868
1149. Injuries occur when a major force is applied to pelvis from above or below, such as when a person falls from significant height and lands on the feet. a. Straddle fracture b. Open pelvis fracture c. Vertical Shear fracture d. Scaphoid ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1869
1150. Large volume bleeding from pelvic cavity leads to a blood loss of: a. 2L b. 3L c. 4L d. 5L ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1871
1151. The bone of foot that articulates with the tibia: a. fibula b. femur c. Talus d. None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1873
1152. Thompson test can be used to identify:
a. Achilles tendon rupture b. Achilles ligament rupture
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Achilles joint rupture d. All of these ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1877
1153. A condition in which significant bone erosion at the effected joints makes them more susceptible to fractures and dislocation: a. b. c. d.
Arthritis Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1878
CHAPTER 38
1154. A process that balance the supply and demand of body needs: a. Thermoregulation b. Homeostasis c. Metabolism d. Respiration ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1889
1155. The human body maintain a constant core temperature of: a. b. c. d.
37c 38c 39c 37F ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1890
1156. Decreased core body temperature: a. Hyperthermia
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Hypothermia c. Thermoregulation d. All of above ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1890
1157. The thermolytic tissues are mediated by: a. Sympathetic nervous b. Para sympathetic nervous system c. body muscles d. Body organs ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1890
1158. Transfer of heat from hotter object to cooler object by physical means: a. b. c. d.
Convection Conduction Radiation Evaporation ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1891
1159. Sweating and heat dissipation by evaporation accounts for cooling:
a. b. c. d.
10% 20% 30% 40% ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1891
1160. The production of heat and energy for the body:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Photosynthesis b. Thermo -paralysis c. Hyperthermia d. Thermogenesis ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1892
1161. Old age group respond more to heat stress because: a. b. c. d.
They perspire less They feel thirst less readily in response to dehydration They acclimatize more slowly All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1892
1162. Acute, involuntary painful muscle spasms, usually in lower extremities, the abdomen or both that occurs because of the profuse sweating and sodium losses in sweat: a. b. c. d.
Heat strokes Hypothermia Heat syncope heat cramps ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1893
1163. Severe disturbance in body’s thermoregulation: a. b. c. d. e.
Heat stroke Heat syncope Heat cramps Hyperthermia ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1896
1164. In a heat stroke, the body temperature is elevated upto: a. 104K b. 103c
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 104F d. 104c ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1897
1165. Permanent cell death: a. b. c. d.
Permanent cell death Permanent tissue death’ Permanent organ dysfunction None of above ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1901
1166. Trench foot can occur at temperature: a. b. c. d.
60F 16c 17c Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 1901
1167. Which factor does not decrease heat production: a. Age b. Hypoglycemia c. Malnutrition d. Wet clothes ANS: D
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1902
1168. People have risk for hypothermia: a. Decreased thermogenesis b. Increased thermogenesis c. Increased thermolysis
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Both a & c ANS: D
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1902
1169. Moderate hypothermia ranges between: a. b. c. d.
34 c and 30c 24c and 20c 24f and 20f 34f and 30f ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1903
1170. Primary hypothermia is caused by: a. b. c. d.
Heat exposures Cold exposures Exposure to pressure All of above ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1903
1171. Cooling of tissues induces a flow of water from: a. b. c. d.
Intravascular to extravascular spaces Extrvascular to intravascular spaces Flow is reversible None of above ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1904
1172. During transport, the ideal patient compartment temperature:
a. b. c. d.
25c 26c 27c 28c
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1904
1173. Initial therapy for patients include: a. b. c. d.
Remove wet garments Maintain horizontal position Monitor CBT All of these ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1905
1174. The process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. a. b. c. d.
Drowning Pneumonia Asphyxia None of these ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1907
1175. The accumulation of carbon dioxide and inability to oxygenate the lungs: a. Acute lung Injury b. Laryngospasm c. Hypoxemia d. None of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1908
1176. CAB stands for:
a. Circulation, airway, breathing b. Citizen advisory board c. Cellulose acetate butyrate d. None of above
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1909
1177. Which type of diving does not require any equipment? a. b. c. d.
Surface tended diving Scuba diving Breadth hold diving Saturation diving ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1911
1178. At constant temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. This is: a. b. c. d.
Charles’ law Boyle’s law Dalton’s law Henry’s law ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1912
1179. Amount of gas dissolved in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid. This is: a. b. c. d.
Charles’ law Boyle’s law Henry’s law Dalton’s law ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1912
1180. The injury results from pressure imbalances between gas filled spaces inside the body and the external atmosphere: 1181. a. Barotraumas b. Hematoma c. Hematocysts d. Pulmonary overpressurization syndrome
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1913 1182. Symptoms of arterial gas embolism include: a. Seizure activity b. Unresponsiveness c. Uncontrolled ascent d. All of above ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1916
1183. Illness caused by affect on CNS and pulmonary system due to effect of low atmospheric pressure: a. b. c. d.
Acute mountain sickness Altitude illness Chronic mountain sickness Illness is temperature related not of the pressure ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 1919
1184. A valuable resource for emergency medical personnel dealing with underwater diving accidents is: a. b. c. d.
DAN NAD DANN None of above ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1918
1185. Most venomous spider is:
a. Brown recluse spider b. Brown widow spider c. Black widow spider
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Hobo spiders ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 1927
1186. Loxoscelism is caused by: a. b. c. d.
Brown recluse spider Black widow spider Hobo spiders None of above ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1928
1187. Tick bite may be life threatening if: a. b. c. d.
Bite on neck Bite on back Bite on spine All of above ANS: D DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 1929
CHAPTER 39
1188. The objectives of developing out of hospital program include: a. Specific, measureable, attainable, realistic and relevant, timely b. Specific, measureable, attainable and achievable, realistic and relevant ,timely c. Specific, measureable, attainable, realistic, timely d. Specific, measureable, attainable and achieve able , relevant, timely ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1945 1189. Resuscitation pyramid is built on a strong base of high quality CPR based on: a. Drugs b. ET tube c. Single shock for VT/VF
NURSING TEST BANK
d.
High quality compressions ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF :Pg 1947
1190. The device which is used to reduce excessive pressure within chest: a. b. c. d.
Automatic transport ventilator Automatic ventilator Impedance threshold device CPR ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1947
1191. Compression of sternum raises the pressure in entire chest cavity: a. b. c. d.
Thoracic pump theory Heart pump theory Active compression Active compression decompression ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1948
1192. Brain damage begins after some time when patients experience cardiac arrest:
a. 2-3 minutes b. 3-4 minutes c. 4-6 minutes d. 8-10 minutes ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1948
1193. To perform high quality CPR, compression rate is maintained between: a. b. c. d.
100 and 120 compressions per hour 100 compressions per minute 100 and 120 compressions per minute None of these ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1950
NURSING TEST BANK
1194. When you use two or more rescuers, ventilators should rotate every : a. Two minutes b. Three minutes c. Four minutes d. Five minutes ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1951
1195. An infant within first month after birth: a. b. c. d.
Newly born Neonate Infant Child ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1953
1196. Causes to cardio pulmonary arrest in children :
a. b. c. d.
Submersion Electrocution Poisoning or drug overdose All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1953
1197. Defibrillation is: a. b. c. d.
A process by which surge of electric energy is delivered to kidneys A process by which surge of electric energy is delivered to lungs A process by which a surge of electric energy is delivered to pelvis A process by which a surge of electric energy is delivered to heart ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1957
NURSING TEST BANK
1198. AED unit is used for: a. b. c. d.
Infants Children Adults Newborn ANS:C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1958
1199. Selected dose for manual defibrillation is: a. 100 J b. 200 J c. 300 J d. 400 J ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1959
1200. Rescuers in CPR include:
a. b. c. d.
Ventilator Active compressor On deck compressor All of these ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1966
CHAPTER 40 1201. A tendency to gather and rely on information that confirms your existing views and avoids or downplays information that does not confirm your pre existing hypothesis or differential diagnosis. a. Anchoring bias b. Confirmation bias
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1985
1202. The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cell’s current need for oxygen, nutrients and waste removal: a. Perfusion b. Hypoperfusion c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988
1203. The volume of blood that the heart pumps per minute: a. Stroke volume b. Myocardial contractility c. Cardiac output d. Preload ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988 1204. The force or resistance against which the heart pumps:
a. Preload b. After load c. Myocardial contractility d. Cardiac output ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988
1205. Difference between SBP and DBP is: a. Mean arterial pressure b. Pulse pressure
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Both a & b d. None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1989
1206. Increased salvation and motility is a function of ( The parasympathetic system) a. Heart b. Lungs c. GI tract d. Arteries ANS : C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 1990
1207. According to Fick principle, movement and use of oxygen in body depend on: a. Proper tissue perfusion b. Adequate number of red blood cells c. Adequate concentration of inspired oxygen d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1990
1208. To form carbonic acid, carbon dioxide combine with:
a. Hydrogen b. Oxygen c. Water d. None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1991 1209. Which one of following is not a cause of shock? a. Inadequate cardiac output
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Decreased systemic vascular resistance c. Ability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissue d. inability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissue ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1991
1210. Tissues with similar functions: a. Tissues b. Organs c. Organ system d. All of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1992
1211. Shifts in amount of carbon dioxide in blood is measured by: a. b. c. d.
Baro receptors Chemo receptors Sensory organs All of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1993
1212. Capillary sphincters that regulate blood flow through capillary beds are under control of:
a. b. c. d.
Sympathetic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Autonomic nervous system None of above ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1994
1213. MODS stands for:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Multiple organ disease syndrome b. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome c. Microscopic observation drugs susceptibility d. None of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1996 1214. The system in which plasma proteins system to eliminate invading bacteria, that is, these components are the part of immune response:
a. The coagulation system b. The complement system c. The kallikrein – kinin system d. None of above ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1997
1215. Oliguria is a condition in which urine output is: a. More than 20 mL/ h b. Less than 20 mL/ h c. More than 30 mL/h d. Less than 30 mL/ h ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 1997
1216. The stage of shock in which blood pressure is falling:
a. b. c. d.
Irreversible shock Compensated shock De-compensated shock None of above ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1999
1217. Type of shock which occurs when there is widespread dilation of resistance vessels, the capacitance vessels or both:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Irreversible shock Septic shock Distributive shock Neurogenic shock ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2009
1218. Cardiac temponade causes accumulation of blood within: a. b. c. d.
Pericardium Pericardial sac Pancreas Lungs ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2009
1219. The type of shock which results from spinal cord injury: a. b. c. d.
Neurogenic shock Septic shoock Distributive shock Irreversible shock ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2010
1220. A shock in which there is no loss of blood, no vascular damage and only a slight possibility of direct cardiac muscle injury: a. Neurogenic shock b. Psychogenic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Hypovolemic shock ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2011
1221. A person experiencing dehydration, burn injury, crush injury, anaphylaxis. He is suffering from: a. Anaphylactic shock b. Hypovolemic shock c. Non hemorrhagic shock
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Hemorrhagic shock ANS: C
DIFF: MODEARTE REF:Pg 2013
1222. Anemia occurs when there is: a. b. c. d.
Abnormally low number of RBCs Abnormally high number of RBCs Abnormally low number of WBCs Abnormally high number of WBCs ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2014
Chapter 41 1223. The hormone which stimulates the release of egg: a. b. c. d.
Follicle stimulating hormone Oxytocin Luteinizing Hormone None of them ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2027
1224. If ovum is not fertilized, it dies and degenerate between: a. 20 to 40 hours b. 36 to 40 hours c. 36 to 42 hours d. 36 to 48 hours ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2027
1225. Muscular, inverted, pear shaped organ that lies between urinary bladder and rectum: a. b. c. d.
Uterus Fetus Uterine cavity Cervical canal ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2027
NURSING TEST BANK
1226. The placenta begin to develop after: a. b. c. d.
First week After four week Around four week Second week ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2028
1227. The due date can be obtained by: a. Identifying the first day of last menstrual cycle b. Identifying last day of last menstrual cycle, adding one year, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days c. Identifying the first day of last menstrual cycle, adding one year, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days d. Identifying date of last menstrual cycle, subtracting one year, adding 3 months and subtracting 7 days ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2029
1228. In a non- pregnant patient, the uterus weighs up to:
a. b. c. d.
50g 60g 70g 80g ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2030
1229. Parity means: a. b. c. d.
Total number of times a woman has been pregnant Number of live births Current pregnancy Previous pregnancy excluding current pregnancy ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2030
NURSING TEST BANK
1230. Women may lose blood during vaginal delivery: a. 200mL b. 300mL c. 500mL d. 1000mL ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2030
1231. Maternal oxygen consumption increase by: a. 10- 20 % b. 20- 30% c. 30-40% d. 20-40%
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF :Pg 2031
1232. Fetal growth leads to weight gain of:
a.
2 pounds
b. 3 pounds c. 5 pounds d. 7 pounds
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2032
1233. A woman who has two or more deliveries:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Primigravida b. Multigravida c. Multipara d. Nullipara
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2032
1234. If signs of shock are apparent in pregnant woman, what should be done?
a. Control the bleeding b. Give oxygen c. Keep patient warm d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2033
1235. Which occurs in true labor?
a. Irregularly spaced contractions b. Contractions remains long c. Intensity of contractions remain same d. Contractions gradually shortens
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2034
1236. If a pregnant patient faces seizures, which one of the following is used as a treatment?
a. Valium b. Phenol barbital c. Magnesium sulfate d. Magnesium carbonate
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2037
1237. Women facing severe and persistent vomiting in excess of three to four times daily. Vomiting is usually projectile and generally consist of bile and blood. This condition is:
a.
Hyperemesis gravidarum
b. Hypertension c. Respiratory distress d.
Gestational hypertension
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2038
1238. Rh factor is a:
a. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. Lipid d. Minerals
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2038
1239. An infection caused by a parasite that a pregnant women may get from handling or eating contaminated food or exposure from handling cat litter.
a. HIV b. CMV c. Cholestasis d. Toxoplasmosis
ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2039
NURSING TEST BANK
1240. Abortion carried out intentionally:
a. Spontaneous abortions b. Elective abortions c. Habitual abortions d. Threatened abortions
ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2040
1241. A fetus died in first 20 weeks but remains in utero. This is a case of:
a.
Incomplete abortion
b. Complete abortion c. Missed abortion d. Septic abortion
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2041
1242. Thinning and shortening of cervix: a. Lightning b. Effacement c. Bloody show d. None of above
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: 2043
1243. The duration of second stage of multipara: a. 6 to 8 hours b. 5 to 30 minutes c. 5 to 60 minutes d. 8 to 12 hours
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: 2044
1244. The position which ensures that the uterus and fetus are moved away from inferior aorta. a.
Side lying position
b. Kneeling birth c. Standing birth d. Lithotomy position
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: 2046
1245. A component used to treat nausea and vomiting: a. Oxytocin b. Valium c. Zofran d. Calcium chloride
ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 2050 1246. A mature oocyte: a. Ovary b. Ovum c. Uterus d. None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2064
1247. The state of pregnant woman before birth:
a. Prenatal b. Lightning c. First stage of labor d. Placenta
ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2064
NURSING TEST BANK
1248. The stage of labor in which placenta is expelled:
a.
First stage of labor
b. Second stage of labor c. Third stage of labor d. All of these
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2065
1249. The interior of body of uterus:
a. Umbilical cord b. Uterine cavity c. Lochia d. None of above
ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2065
1250. The delivery in which buttocks comes out first:
a. Breech presentation b. Crowning c. Episiotomy d. Ectopic pregnancy
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2063
1251. In case of vaginal bleeding, which of the measure is not accurate to do? a.
Keep the woman lying on her left side
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Keep the woman lying on her right side c. Administer supplemental oxygen d. Intravenous fluids
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2062
1252. Complications related to high risk pregnancy include:
a. Post term pregnancy b. Multiple gestation c. Fetal macrosomia d. All of these
ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2062
CHAPTER 42
1253. Infant within first month after birth:
a. Newborn b. Premature c. Neonate d. Toddler
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2070
1254. A newborn delivered fewer than 37 completed weeks of gestation:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Preterm b. Term c. Post term d. None of above
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2071
1255. If a newborn is delivered in ambulance and more extensive resuscitation is needed, what should be done?
a. Cover baby with clean warm blanket b. Confirm adequate patency of airway, breathing c. Covered with a cold blanket d. Shift to an ambulance equipped with neonatal transport incubator to allow maintenance of thermo neutral environment ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 2072
1256. If umbilical cord comes out ahead of new born, the blood supply through umbilical cord may be cut off. What would be most appropriate in this case?
a. Relieving pressure on the cord b. Relieving pressure on fetus c. Providing pressure on the cord d. Providing pressure on fetus
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2074
1257. Examination of newborn or neonate include:
a. Inspect skin for any abnormalities
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Examine the head for symmetry and abnormalities c. Examine the eyes of neonate for irregularities d. All of above
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2074
1258. According to Apgar Score, if skin of baby is completely pink, it will carry score:
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None of above ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2075
1259. If ventilation and chest compression don’t improve bradycardia, epinephrine is administered preferably via:
a. Intravenous line b. Intramuscular line c. Intra peritoneal line d. All of these
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF :Pg 2077
1260. In 10 minutes, oxygen saturation level ranges from:
a.
60-65%
b. 75-80% c. 85-95% d. 80-85%
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 2077
1261. If a newborn is cyanotic or pale:
a.
Provide supplemental oxygen
b. Provide supplemental carbon c. Provide supplemental nitrogen d. Provide supplemental carbon dioxide
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2078
1262. Which of the following device don’t need an oxygen source? a. Self inflating bag with an oxygen reservoir b. Flow inflating bag c. T – piece resuscitator d. All of above
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2079
1263. In resuscitation, the concentration & time combination for oxygen includes:
a. 21% for 100 seconds b. 100% for 100 seconds c. 100% for 21 seconds d. 21% for 90 seconds
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2080
1264. Which of the following signs shows that newborn is depressed?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. No respiratory effort b. Poor muscle tone c. Inadequate ventilation d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2088
1265. Overall survival of infants born with diaphragmatic hernia is:
a.
67%
b. 68% c. 69% d. 70%
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2089
1266. If respiratory depression is a result of mother being treated acutely with narcotics, and there is no chronic narcotic exposure, which would be appropriate to administer to newborn and through which route?
a. Amoxillin via intra muscular b. Narcotics via intra vascular c. Naloxone via intra venous d. Naloxone via intra peritoneal
ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2090
1267. Which one may be the cause of premature birth?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Maternal illness leading to dehydration b. Urinary tract infection c. Placental insufficiency d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2090
1268. Application of gentle pressure to limb:
a. Stop jitteriness b. Stop seizures c. Effective on both conditions d. Not effective at all
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2091
1269. The persistent posturing of one limb, the neck, or the trunk with horizontal eye deviation is a characteristic of:
a.
Subtle seizure
b. Tonic seizure c. Myo clonic seizure d. Spasms
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2092
1270. Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than:
a. 60 mg/ dl b. 50 mg/ dl c. 45 mg/ dl
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 40 mg/ dl
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2093
1271. A new born having symptoms of irritability, poor sucking and feeding, limpness or floppiness, hypothermia and decreased response to stimuli. This new born is suffering from:
a. Respiratory distress b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypertension d. None of these
ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2094
1272. Vomitus indicates bleeding in: a.
Gut
b. Intestine c. Stomach d. Oral cavity
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2094
1273. Congenital anomaly or rotation of midgut:
a. Intestinal atresia b. Intestinal stenosis c. Diarrhea d. Malrotation
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2095
NURSING TEST BANK
1274. The most common cause of diarrhea in children is due to:
a. S. aureus bacteria b. Mycobacterium c. Rota virus d. Salmonella
ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2095
1275. Which one of the following is not a cause of cholestasis?
a. Hepatitis b. Metabolic disorders c. Prolonged total parenteral nutrition d.
Fever ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2096
1276. Fever is a rectal temperature greater than:
a.
35C
b. 35F c. 38F d. 38C
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2096
1277. The drop in body temperature:
a. Hypothermia
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Hyperthermia c. Fever d. All of these
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2097
1278. An abnormal opening present in the wall separating the atrial chambers of heart. This condition is:
a. Ventricular septal defect b. Arterial septal defect c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. None of them
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2101
1279. The patient lacks tricuspid valve, which normally separates the right atrium and right ventricle.
a.
Truncus arteriosus
b. Tricuspid atresia c. Congenital heart disease d. None of them
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2102
1280. The condition in which pulmonary valve located near the right ventricle of the heart becomes damaged:
a.
Tricuspid atresia
b.
Truncus arteriosus
c. Pulmonary stenosis
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Ventricular septal defect
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2101
1281. The complete under development of left side of heart:
a.
Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Hypoplastic heart syndrome c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. None of them
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2102
1282. Which one is not included in Tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Ventricular septal defect c. Right ventricular hypertrophy d. Tricuspid atresia
ANS: D
DIFF: MODEATE
REF:Pg 2102
CHAPTER 43
1283. Physical development from birth to two months:
a.
Makes eye contact
b. Uses both hands c. Most sleep through the night d. Turns head
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2118
1284. Cognitive development between 12 to 18 months include:
a. Begin to understand cause and effect b. Knows 4 to 6 words c. Labels objects d. Speech picks up to approximately 100 words by 24 months e. ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2119
1285. If you are facing sick or injured infant, sunken fontanels suggest:
a.
Increased intra cranial pressure
b. Decreased intra cranial pressure c. Dehydration d. None of these
ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2121
1286. Infants during respiratory distress are susceptible to hypoxia because of:
a. Decreased functional residual capacity b. Increased oxygen demand c. Easily fatigued respiratory muscles d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2122
1287. The kidneys of children are vulnerable to injury for following reasons:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. They are more mobile and less well supported in adults than in children b. They are large in proportion to the abdomen c. The lower ribs do not shield them from injury d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2124
1288. Many burns that are classified as minor or moderate in adults are classified as severe in children. This is due to: a. Higher ratio of body surface area b. More elastic skin c. Less subcutaneous tissue d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2124
1289. Musical tone caused by air being forced through constricted or partially blocked airways:
a. Grunting b. Wheezing c. Sniffing d. None of these
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2127
1290. A child snoring, grunting or wheezing, in this case characteristics may be:
a. Abnormal airway sounds b. Abnormal posturing
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Retractions d. Flaring
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2127
1291. The exaggerated opening of nostrils during labored inspiration and indicates moderate to severe hypoxia:
a. Retractions b. Abnormal posturing c.
Nasal flaring
d. None of these
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2128
1292. Blue hands and feet in infant younger than two months:
a. Cyanosis b. Acro cyanosis c. Blue baby syndrome d. True cyanosis
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2129
1293. A child having abnormal appearance, abnormal work of breathing and abnormal circulation to skin. He is suffering from:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Decompensated shock b. Respiratory distress c. Cardiopulmonary failure d. Respiratory failure
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2129
1294. To access patient level of perfusion in conjunction with other assessment of circulation which test is preferred?
a. PAT test b. Blanching test c. Both a & b d. None of these
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2130
1295. The breathing component of primary survey involves:
a. Calculating the respiratory rate b. Checking pulse oximetry for oxygen saturation c. Auscultating breath sounds d.
All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2130
1296. Which one of the following indicate harsh breadth sounds or sounds that may be transmitted from upper airways?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Inspiratory crackles b. Wheezes c. rhonchi d. all of these
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2130
1297. Which one of the following indicate tachycardia?
a. Early hypoxia b. Shock or less serious condition c. Fever anxiety pain d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: MODEARTE
REF:Pg 2131
1298. Poor peripheral circulation is indicated when capillary refill takes time more than:
a. 1 second b.
2 seconds
c. 3 seconds d. 4 seconds
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2131
1299. To access the brainstem response, we do not note for:
a.
Dilated pupils
b. Constricted pupils c. Blood sugar levels d. Reactive pupils
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 2132
1300. During pediatric history taking, which feature is not looked in medication as a major?
a.
Exact names and doses of ongoing drugs
b. Timing and amount of last dose c. Immunization d. Time and dose of analgesics ANS: C
DIFF: MODEATE
REF:Pg 2133
1301. A sunken fontanel suggest:
a. Dehydration b. Nasal flaring c.
Leaking blood
d. None of them
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2134
1302. Tenting is a condition in which:
a. Skin immediately retracts after being pinched and pulled away slightly from the body b. Skin don’t retracts after being pinched and pulled away slightly from the body c.
Skin slowly retracts after being pinched and pulled slightly away from the body
d. All of them
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2134
NURSING TEST BANK
1303. Diastolic blood pressure for neonate:
a.
67 to 84 mmHg
b. 35 to 53 mmHg c. 72 to 104 mmHg d. 37 to 56 mmHg
ANS: B
DIFF:HARD REF: Pg 2135
1304. Systolic blood pressure for pre schoolers:
a.
72 to 104 mmHg
b.
37 to 56 mmHg
c.
89 to 112 mmHg
d. 46 to 72 mmHg
ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2135
1305. The Wong Baker pain rating scale suggests that point 10 shows that:
a. Hurts little more b. Hurts worst c. Hurts whole lot d. Hurts even more
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2135
NURSING TEST BANK
1306. Which one of following route is more effective for reducing pain?
a. Intramuscular b. Intraperitoneal c. Dermal d. Intravenous
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2135
1307. The patient is nor breathing spontaneously. This is:
a. Respiratory arrest b. Respiratory distress c.
Respiratory failure
d. None of them
ANS: A
DIFF: 2137 REF: Pg 2137
1308. Which one the following is classified as mild moderate or severe?
a.
Respiratory arrest
b. Respiratory distress c.
Respiratory failure
d. None of them
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2137
1309. A condition that causes epiglottis to swell:
a. Epiglottitis
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Bacterial tracheitis c. Anaphylaxis d. Croup
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2141
1310. Which one is not included in lower airway emergencies?
a.
Asthma
b. Croup c. Bronchiolitis d. Respiratory syncytial virus infection
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2142
1311. A genetic disease that affect the respiratory and digestive system:
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Pneumonia c. Pertussis d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2144
1312. Which technique is used when only small amount of supplemented oxygen is needed:
a.
Airway management
b.
Bag mask ventilation
c.
Blow- by technique
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of them
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2147
1313. Seizures that involve entire brain:
a. Partial seizures b. Simple partial seizures c.
Tonic clonic seizures
d. Generalized seizures
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2168
1314. Larger purple or black spots in meningitis:
a. Sepsis b. Petechial c. Purpuric d. None of them
ANS: C
DIFF: MODEARTE
REF: Pg 2170
1315. Inflammation of peritoneum which lines the abdominal cavity:
a. Appendicitis b. Peritonitis c. Viral gastroenteritis d. All of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2172
1316. Antidote for beta blockers include:
a. Calcium b.
Oxygen
c. Naloxone d. Glucagon
ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2181
1317. Antidote for carbon monoxide include:
a. Oxygen b. Calcium c. Glucagon d. Bicarbonate ANS: A
DIFF: MODEATE
REF:Pg 2181
1318. Improper or excessive action that injures or otherwise harms a child or infant:
a. Child abuse b. Neglect c. Abandonment d. All of them
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2183
1319. The sudden death of infant younger than one year because of suffocation by soft bedding:
NURSING TEST BANK
a.
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
b. Unknown cause c. Accidental suffocation and strangulation in bed d. None of them
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2186
1320. Component that are placed directly into stomach through patients skin:
a. Central Venous catheters b. G tubes c. Ventricular shunts d. All of them
ANS: B
DFF: EASY REF: Pg 2194
CHAPTER 44
1321. Geriatrics is the assessment and treatment of disease and injury in someone with age of :
a. 40 years b. 50 years c. 60 years d. 65 years or older
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2207
NURSING TEST BANK
1322. Organ and tissue related aging may be accelerated due to:
a. genetic qualities b. pre existing diseases c. diet d. all of them
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2208
1323. A person’s respiratory capacity decreases with age due to:
a. Decrease in elasticity of lungs b. Decrease in size of respiratory muscles c. Decrease in strength of respiratory muscles d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2208
1324. The PaO2 is the amount of oxygen in:
a. Blood b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Liver ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2209
1325. In older adults during exercise, cardiac outputs may decline by as much as:
a. 20 – 30% b. 30- 40% c. 40- 50%
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 50- 60%
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2209
1326. The brain weight by 80 years shrink up to:
a. 10- 20 % b. 20-30 % c. 30-40% d. 40-50%
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2210
1327. Presbycusis:
a. Muscle functioning loss b. Blood loss c.
Hearing loss
d. None of them
ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2210
1328. With increasing age, the acid present in stomach may cause heart burn, indigestion or acid reflux. This is due to: a. b. c. d.
Esophageal sphincter’s weakening Decreased ability to hold back stomach contents Both a & b Rigidity of esophageal sphincter ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2211
NURSING TEST BANK
1329. As aging proceeds:
a. b. c. d.
Insulin production increases Insulin production decreases Glucose metabolism increases Insulin production decreases and glucose metabolism decreases ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2212
1330. Which one of the following don’t occur as aging proceed? a. Skin become thinner b. Skin become less elastic c. Skin become more fragile d. Subcutaneous fat becomes more thick as aging proceeds ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2212
1331. Menopause results in: a. b. c. d.
Decreased estrogen Increased estrogen Decreased anti diuretic hormone Increased diuretic hormone ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2212
1332. Which one of the does not happen in aging? a. b. c. d.
Increase of muscle mass Decrease in height Ligaments began to lose elasticity Narrowing of intervertebral disc ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2213
NURSING TEST BANK
1333. Older people face problems:
a. b. c. d.
Medical Psychologic Social All of them ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2214
1334. Which of the following is not included in GEMS assessment? a. Recognition of geriatric patient b. Environmental assessment c. Psychological assessment d. Medical assessment ANS: C DIFF: MODEARTE
REF: Pg 2215
1335. Which one of following may contribute to breathing problems? a. b. c. d.
Weakening of airway musculature Increased chest wall stiffness Both a & b None of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2215
1336. Which one of following is not a component of social assessment? a. b. c. d.
Present atypically Assess activities of daily living Does the patient have social network Are their delays in obtaining food, medication or toileting?
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2216
1337. Elements of comprehensive patient’s history: a. b. c. d.
Present illness or injury the patient’s chief complaint pertinent medical history all of above ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2217
1338. While obtaining past medical history, which component you will not consider much important? a. b. c. d.
Previous illness or injuries Timing of the last food or drink Immunizations Important family history ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2218
1339. COPD don’t include: a. Chronic bronchitis b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. Pulmonary embolism ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2221
1340. To minimize intracranial pressure, the patient’s head should placed at angle: a. b. c. d.
40 30 20 60 ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2222
1341. The weakness in artery that produces a balloon defect:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Dysrhythmias Hypertension Aneurysms all of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2222
1342. Which one of following is not a disease? a. b. c. d.
Acute brain syndrome Delirium Dementia Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2223
1343. Irreversible brain failure is produced by: a. b. c. d.
Dementia Delirium Alzheimer disease Acute brain syndrome ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2225
1344. Which one of the following is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease? a. b. c. d.
Resting tremor of an extremity Slowness of movement Poor balance All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2226
1345. Which one of the following is not a cause of large bowel obstruction? a. Gallstones b. Cancer
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Impacted stool d. Sigmoid volvulus ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2226
1346. Jaundice is more profound in paler patients because:
a. b. c. d.
More melanin Less melanin Both of conditions may cause jaundice None f them ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2227
1347. The most common presenting symptom of GI bleeding include: a. Hematemesis b. Melena c. Hypotension d. Agitation ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2228
1348. Cystocele is : a. b. c. d.
Prolapsed bladder into the vagina Prolapsed urethra into the vagina Kidney obstruction Indwelling urinary catheters ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2229
1349. Hyperglycemia occurs when: a. Blood glucose drops to 45 mg/ dl b. Blood glucose rise from 60mg /dl
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Blood glucose drops to 50 mg/dl d. Blood glucose rise from normal range ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2230
1350. Signs of dehydration in older adults include: a. Dry tongue b. Strong upper body musculature c. Sunken eyes d. Both a & c ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2231
1351. A partial thickness of skin is lost and may appear as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater. The stage of pressure ulcer is: a. b. c. d.
Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:pg 2235
CHAPTER 45 1352. The person with age of 85 years and more use long term care service : a. 16 % b. 18% c. 29% d. 37% ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2251
1353. Which one of following does not require on going medication to control the disease process? a. Typhoid b. Diabetes
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Hypertension d. AIDS
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2252
1354. Throwing, striking, hitting, burning and biting a child comes under: a. b. c. d.
Sexual abuse Physical abuse Emotional abuse Neglect ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2254
1355. Threats, blaming, humiliation comes under category of: a. b. c. d.
Sexual abuse Emotional abuse Abandonment Physical abuse ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2254
1356. HIPAA stands for: a. b. c. d.
Health insurance portability and accountability act Heparin induced platelets activation assay Heparin induced platelet aggregation assay None of these ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2257
1357. Terminal illness is expected to cause death in: a. 2 months b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 6 months
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2258
1358. Patients with terminal illness often receive continued medical care. Some continue aggressive medical treatment, hoping for a statistically improbable medical recovery or attempting to prolong life as much as possible. This approach is known as: a. b. c. d.
Comfort care Palliative care Curative care None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2258
1359. Causes of obesity include: a. b. c. d.
Hormonal changes Inadequate sleep Lack of exercise All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2259
1360. People having morbid obesity is considered to have BMI of: a. b. c. d.
30 kg per meter squared 40 kg per meter squared 50 kg per meter squared Between 40 and 49 kg per meter squared ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2259
1361. Heads and shoulders are elevated to which degrees to ensure successful airway management? a. 35 to 40 b. 25 to 30
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 20 to 30 d. 30 to 40 ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2260
1362. The disease that can be transferred from one person to another by variety of modes: a. b. c. d.
Communicable disease Non- communicable disease Contagious diseases All of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2260
1363. The largest part of tracheostomy tube that passes from anterior neck surface: a. b. c. d.
Inner cannula Outer cannula Flange None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2262
1364. Tracheostomy tubes may be fenestrated which means: a. b. c. d.
Holes or opening are present in outer cannula Holes or opening are present in inner cannula Holes or opening are present in both outer and cannula None of these
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2262
1365. Which of them in following is not associated with long term ventilator use? a. Spinal cord injury b. Neuromuscular disease
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Lung injury d. All of these
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2264
1366. The catheter is placed into upper extremity and is not as long as PICC not reaching central circulation: a. b. c. d.
Midline catheter Double or triple lumen central catheter Implanted ports Peripheral inserted central catheter ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2266
1367. Devices are thick walled high volume catheter, usually placed into patients neck or groin for dialysis. a. b. c. d.
Implanted ports Midline catheter Dialysis catheter PICC ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2266
1368. Vascular devices can not be used for long term due to: a. b. c. d.
Devices can be clogged with blood clots Limited life span Cause infection All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2268
1369. Colostomy bag is a plastic bag with a hard, circular opening that is attached around: a. Stoma b. Intestines
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Pancreas d. Appendix ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2269
1370. Kidney function declines due to accumulation of: a. b. c. d.
Fluids Electrolytes Toxins All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2272
1371. Digoxin increase: a. Serum potassium level b. Serum glucose level c. Serum sodium level d. None of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2273
1372. Increased ICP leads to: a. b. c. d.
Headaches Visual disturbances Nausea All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: pg 2274
1373. In hemodynamic monitoring, electrical impulses are interpreted by: a. b. c. d.
Transducer Monitor Waveforms Numerical
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2275
1374. Intra aortic balloon pump is not used for:
a. b. c. d.
Decrease cardiac workload Increase cardiac workload Structural abnormalities in heart Myocardial infarction ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2276
1375. The function of ICP monitor do not includes: a. b. c. d.
Evaluate the appearance of CSF Allow the drainage of CSF to maintain lower ICP Allow the accumulation of CSF to maintain higher ICP All of them ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2277
1376. A genetic disorder that is responsible for developmental delay, cognitive impairment and a pattern of unusual physical features: a. Down syndrome b. Intellectual disability c. Autism and autism spectrum disorders d. Emotional impairment ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2279
1377. Which one of the following are types of hearing aids: a. Conventional body b. Behind the ear c. In the ear
NURSING TEST BANK
d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2280
1378. Visual impairment caused by brain abnormality:
a. b. c. d.
Amblyopia Blindness Cortical visual impairment Myopia ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2283
1379. Area missing from the visual field: a. b. c. d.
Scotoma Hyperopia Myopia Blindness ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2283
1380. Muscle in affected areas of body become flaccid or fail to move because of continued spasm known as: a. b. c. d.
Quadriplegia Paraplegia Spastic paralysis None of above ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2284
1381. A birth defect caused by improper development of fetal neural tube consisting of brain and spinal cord :
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Spina bifida Myasthenia gravis Postpolio syndrome All of these ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2289
CHAPTER 46 1382. Standard van, forward control integral cab body comes under the category of:
a. b. c. d.
Type 1 emergency medical vehicle Type 2 emergency medical vehicle Type 3 emergency medical vehicle Type 4 emergency medical vehicle
ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2305
1383. Which one of the following is not a component of four ? a. Start b. Steer c. Stop d. Straight ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2306
1384. A sensation that emergency vehicle has lost its power brakes a. b. c. d.
Brake fade Belt noise Brake pull Drift ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2307
NURSING TEST BANK
1385. The sensation of looseness or sloppiness in vehicle’s steering: a. Wheel bounce b. Steering pull c. Steering play d. Drift ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2308
1386. Common finding at low speed when vehicle has bent wheel:
a. Wheel wobble b. Drift c. Steering pull d. Steering play ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2308
1387. System status management was developed in: a. 1981 b. 1982 c. 1983 d. 1984 ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2309
1388. The objectives of directing traffic includes: a. b. c. d.
Warn other drivers Prevent other crashes To keep vehicle moving in orderly fashion All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2310
NURSING TEST BANK
1389. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or visible contaminants from surface: a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. High level disinfection d. Sterilization ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2311
1390. The cleaning of pathogenic agents by using potent means of disinfection.
a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. High level disinfection d. Sterilization ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2311
1391. Safe driving practices include: a. Use of safety restraints b. Route planning and navigation c. The cushion of safety d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2313
1392. Which of the following is a risk while driving emergency vehicle? a. b. c. d.
Fatigue Driver anticipation Safety restraints All of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2313
1393. Road positioning refers to: a. b. c. d.
Position of the vehicle on the roadway Position of vehicle on roadway relative to inside edge of paved surface Position of vehicle on roadway relative to inside and outside edge of paved surface None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2317
1394. The brakes of which emergency vehicle are more heavy?
a. b. c. d.
Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 Type 1 and type 3 ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2317
1395. Most emergency vehicle have tendency to tip over if curves or turns are taken at too great of a speed. a. Because of lower center of gravity b. Because of higher center of gravity c. Because of low friction d. Because of high friction ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2317
1396. At night, use light with: a. Visibility with reflection b. Visibility without reflection c. Visibility with little reflection
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of above ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2318
1397. Which one of the following don’t include in the principle which governs the use of warning lights and signs: a. The unit must be on true emergency call to the best of their knowledge b. The unit must be operated with due regard for safety of all others c. Both audible and visual warning devices can not be used simultaneously d. Both audible and visual warning devices must be used simultaneously ANS:C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2318
1398. Intersection hazards occurs approximately:
a. 70% b. 71% c. 72% d. 73% ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2319
1399. Emergency vehicles are operated at lower speed when facing conditions such as: a. Passing through school zones b. Near school buses c. Unpaved roadways and rural settings d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2319
1400. Transport of patients over long distance is commonly done by: a. Fixed winged aircraft b. Rotor wing aircraft
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Both of them d. None of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2320
1401. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using helicopter transport? a. b. c. d.
Reduced transport time Airspeed limitations Ability to access patients in remote areas Availability of medical crew with advance skills and equipment ANS:B
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2320
1402. Disadvantages for helicopter include:
a. b. c. d.
Weather or environment related challenges Aircraft cabin size limitation Potential for crash All of them ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2321
1403. Medevac is exclusively performed by: a. Airplanes b. Helicopters c. Submarines d. Trains ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2321
1404. A bed sheet tightly secured to tree or pole mat be used to help determine crew:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Wind direction Wind strength Landing zone Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF:HARD
REF: Pg 2323
1405. Smoking open lights or flames are prohibited within: a. 10m to aircraft b. 15m to aircraft c. 20 m to aircraft d. 25 m to aircraft ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2324
1406. The DO’s of night landing include: a. b. c. d.
shine spotlight, flashlight or any other light in air to help pilot Direct light beam towards the ground at landing site Keep light flames near the plane at night times All of above ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: pg 2325
1407. An area of road that is blocked from your sight by your own vehicles or mirror: a. b. c. d.
Blind spot Faded spot Both of them None of them ANS:A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2328
1408. A finding that when operator lets go of the steering wheel, a vehicle consistently vanders left or right. a. b. c. d.
Brake pull Brake fade Drift None of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2328
1409. Aircraft transport is used to evaluate: a. b. c. d.
Medical patients Trauma patients Both of them None of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2328
1410. To remove or neutralize radiation, chemical or other hazardous material from clothing equipment vehicles and personnel. a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. Sterilization d. Decontamination ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2328 1411. Specialty van, forward control integral cab body a. b. c. d.
Type 1 emergency vehicle Type 2 emergency vehicle Type 3 emergency vehicle Type 4 emergency vehicle ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2329
CHAPTER 47 1412. Any situation with more than one patient, but which will not overwhelm available resources. a. Multiple casualty incident b. Mass casualty incident c. Disaster
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2334
1413. Important features of NIMS include: a. Standardization b. Flexibility c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2334
1414. National fire service incident management system consortium is created in: a. 1973 b. 1990 c. 1987 d. 2003 ANS: B
DIFF: MODEARTE
REF: Pg 2334
1415. Organizing principles of ICS is:
a. duplication of effort and freelancing b. Span of control c. Communication and information management d. Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2335
1416. Which one is not included in command function? a. b. c. d.
Accounts officer Public information officer Safety officer Liaison officer ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2336
NURSING TEST BANK
1417. The procedures which allow responders to return to their facilities when event has ended: a. b. c. d.
Termination Demobilization Transfer of command None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2337
1418. Oral airways, nasal airways, are used in: a. b. c. d.
Airway control Breathing Circulation Exposure ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2338
1419. Rigid collars, head beds, wide tape, backboard straps are used in:
a. b. c. d.
Circulation Breathing Disability Exposure ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2338
1420. If an agency is nit represented in the command structure, questions should be asked from: a. b. c. d.
Safety officer Public information officer Joint information center Liaison officer
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2339
1421. The decision made and basic planning done before an incident occurs: a. b. c. d.
Preparedness Establishing command Mobilization and deployment Communications ANS: A
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2340
1422. Which is not the component of EMS branch? a. Triage b. Treatment c. Transportation d. Therapy ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REFPg : 2342
1423. In charge of counting and prioritizing patients: a. b. c. d.
Triage unit leader Treatment unit leader Transportation unit leader Staging area manager ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: pg 2342
1424. When MCIs or scenes require response by numerous emergency vehicle or agencies. What should be assigned? a. Triage unit leader b. Treatment unit leader c. Transportation unit leader d. Staging area manager
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2343
1425. An incident in which patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more patients than initially present. a. b. c. d.
Contained incident Uncontained incident Closed incident Both a & c ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2344
1426. A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patient, the focus is on speed as you work on locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their condition warrants. a. b. c. d.
Primary triage Secondary triage Tertiary triage None of these ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2346
1427. According to triage, patients of third categories marked as:
a. b. c. d.
Red tag Yellow tag Green tag Black tag ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2346
1428. The intermediate category between critical and non critical , non- ambulatory categories of patients: a. Orange tag category b. Red tag category
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Yellow tag category d. None of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2346
1429. Burns without airway problems, major or multiple joint or bone injuries comes under: a. Red tag b. Yellow tag c. Green tag d. Black tag ANS: B
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2347
1430. Minor fractures, minor soft tissue injuries comes under: a. Red tag b. Yellow tag c. Green tag d. Black tag ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2347
1431. Jump start triage is intended to use in patients younger than: a. b. c. d.
10 yr 8yr 5 yr 4 yr ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2349
1432. CISM stands for: a. b. c. d.
Critical incident stress management Critical immediate stress management Critical intermediate service management None of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2350
1433. In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting of all expenditures: a. Extrication task force leader b. Finance section chief c. Command d. All of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2355
CHAPTER 48 1434. At which level, you are directly involved in rescue operation itself. a. b. c. d.
Awareness Operations Technicians All of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2361
1435. Technical rescue team responds in: a. b. c. d.
Rescue squad Ambulance Fire engine All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2363
1436. The area that is only for entry teams and rescue teams. This zone immediately surrounds the site or incident and its size is proportional to its hazard. a. Hot zone b. Warm zone c. Cold zone d. None
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2364
1437. The cold zone is outer perimeter in which vehicles and equipment staged and the command post is located. a. Cold zone b. Warm zone c. Hot zone d. All of these ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2364
1438. This may require special tools such as reciprocating saw, hydraulic arm, spreader or cutter: a. Simple access b. Complex access c. Accountability d. None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2366
1439. Back boards are helpful for patients with: a. Spine injury b. Cramps c. Brain injury d. Bone injury
ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2367
1440. Uni body construction: a. Body of vehicle are fused into single component b. Body and frame of vehicle are fused into single component c. Body of vehicle are joined as multiple components d. Body and frame of vehicle are joined as multiple components ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2369
NURSING TEST BANK
1441. Electric vehicles are powered by: a. b. c. d.
Hydrogen fuel cells All electric batteries Combination of gasoline and electric power All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2369
1442. Auto gas is a mixture of: a. Propane and butane b. Hexane and butane c. Propane and hexane d. Hexane propane and butane ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2369
1443. The percentage of ethanol blended with gasoline: a. 70% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90% ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2369
1444. The alternative fuels for gasoline and diesel engine is: a. Flex fuel b. Biodiesel c. Both of them d. None of them ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2369
1445. Hooks , piles and poles are categorized as: a. Striking tools b. Cutting tools c. Lifting tools
NURSING TEST BANK
d. Spreading tools ANS: C
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2370
1446. Tapered shaft of wood or other material used to snug loose cribbing under a load or fill a void. a. Step chocks b. Wedges c. Box cribs d. Shims ANS:B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2371
1447. Similar to wedges but slimmer profile: a. b. c. d.
Cribbing Step chocks Wedges Shims ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2371
1448. Side and rear windows are typically made of glass which is easily break into small pieces: a. tampered glass b. laminated glass c. both of them d. None of them ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2374
1449. Which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.
An airbag that has deployed during crash present safety hazards for rescuers An airbag that has deployed during crash present no safety hazards for rescuers Place a hard object between patient and un deployed bag Attempt to cut a steering wheel if steering column contains an un deployed airbag ANS:B
DIFF: HARD
REF: Pg 2376
1450. Which of the following is used to make dry ice?
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane Ethyl alcohol ANS: A
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2378
1451. The principle compon3ent of natural gas: a. b. c. d.
Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane Hydrochloric acid ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2378
1452. The gas released as bacteria breakdown organic matter: a. b. c. d.
Hydrogen sulfide Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2378
1453. A collapse that occurs after the initial collapse: a. Primary collapse b. Secondary collapse c. Tertiary collapse d. None of them ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2379
1454. The HELP position can decrease body heat loss by: a. 40% b. 50%
NURSING TEST BANK
c. 60% d. 70% ANS: C
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2380
1455. Cold protective response is a response when temperature of water is colder than: a. 70 F b. 21 C c. 21 F d. Both a & b ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2380
1456. Submersion in cold water: a. Slows heart rate b. Fast heart rate c. No effect d. All of these ANS: A
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2381
1457. The hydraulics of moving water change with variables such as: a. Depth b. Velocity c. Obstruction of flow d. All of these ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2381
1458. Low angle operations are situations in which slope of ground over which the rescuers are working is less than : a. 30 degree b. 45 degree c. 40 degree
NURSING TEST BANK
d.
50 degree ANS: B DIFF: EASY
REF: 2382
1459. A method used to ascend rocky faces and ridges, can be describes as cross between hill climbing and rock climbing.
a. b. c. d.
Rappelling Scrambling Scrapping None of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2384
1460. The term wilderness can cover: a. Forest b. Mountain c. Deserts d. All of them ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2384
1461. SWAT stands for:
a. Special warriors and tactics team b. Special weapons and tactics teams c. Strength weakness analysis threats d. None of them ANS: B
DIFF: HARD
REF:Pg 2386
1462. Supplies for off road medical pack do not include: a. b. c. d.
Face mask Hand sanitizer Clothing Blanket
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2388
1463. A circumstance in which a patient is unable to extricate himself or herself from an impediment such as debris or soil a. b. c. d.
Cribbing Entrapment Disentanglement None of them ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2394
CHAPTER 49 1464. The primary regulation for hazardous material response are put forth by : a. b. c. d.
OSHA EPA Both a & b None of them ANS: C
DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2398
1465. Which one of the following is not included in OSHA HAZWOPER regulation?
a. An understanding of what hazardous substances are and risk associated with them b. Ability to recognize the potential outcomes of an incident c. To ability to determine the hazardous substances if possible d. To ability to determine the need for additional resources is not necessary ANS: D
DIFF: MODERATE
REF: Pg 2399
1466. Hazardous material incidents are not limited to:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. A highway or railroad accident in which substance is leaking from a cargo tank or railroad tank car b. A leak or rupture of underground natural gas pipe c. An incident with criminal intent in which a suspected hazardous material is intentionally released d. All of them ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2400
1467. Gases comes under DOT class: a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3 d. Class 4 ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF:Pg 2401
1468. Radioactive materials comes under DOT class: a. b. c. d.
Class 5 Class 6 Class 7 Class 8 ANS: C
DIFF: MODERATE
REF:Pg 2402
1469. DOT class 9 contains: a. b. c. d.
Oxidizing substances Toxic substances Corrosive substances Miscellaneous hazard ANS: D
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2402
1470. Intermodal tanks hold between: a. 4000-5000 gallons
NURSING TEST BANK
b. 5000- 6000 gallons c. 6000-7000 gallons d. All of these ANS: B
DIFF: EASY
REF: Pg 2406
1471. Materials used for construction of drums is: a. Cardboard b. Stainless steel c. Nickel d. All of these ANS: D
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg 2407
1472. Cement powder may be stored in: a. b. c. d.
Carboys Cylinders Bags Drums ANS: C
DIF: Easy
REF: Pg 2407
1473. Corrosive chemicals are stored in :
a. b. c. d.
Carboys Cylinders Drums None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2407
1474. MC- 306 / DOT 406 flammable liquid tanker carry: a. Gasoline b. Flammable liquids
NURSING TEST BANK
c. Food grade products d. All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2408
1475. Concentrated sulfuric acid, phosphoric acid are carried in: a. MC-306/ DOT 406 flammable liquid tanker b. MC -307 / DOT 407 chemical hauler c. MC- 312 / DOT 412 corrosive tanker d. MC – 331 pressure cargo tanker ANS: C
Dif: hard
REF: Pg 2409
1476. Cryogens are carried in: a. MC – 331 pressure cargo tanker b. MC- 338 cryogenic tanker c. MC 312/ DOT 412 corrosive tanker d. None of them ANS: B
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 2409
1477. Compressed gases are carried in: a. b. c. d.
Dry bulk cargo container Corrosive tankers Tube trailers All of them ANS: C Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2410
1478. Protective clothing standards to provide guidance of the performance of certain types of chemical protective garments are given by: a. OSHA b. EPA c. NFPA
NURSING TEST BANK
d. None of them ANS: C Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2411
1479. When responder needs high level respiratory protection, but the released substances don’t pose a lethal threat via skin absorption a. Level A ensemble b. Level B ensemble c. Level C ensemble d. Level D ensemble ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2414
1480. Ensemble designed to protect against known substance: a. b. c. d.
Level A Level B Level C Level D ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2414
1481. This level of protection is worn where there is little nor no threat posed by released substance and the responder is wearing no respiratory protection other than perhaps a dust mask. a. Level A b. Level B c. Level C d. Level D ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2414
1482. Direct exposure of material to hazardous material: a. b. c. d.
Primary Combination Secondary Combination Local effect Systemic effect ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2415
NURSING TEST BANK
1483. The greater the length of time or greater the concentration of material, the greater the effect will probably be on the human body. This is: a. Local effect b. Systemic effect c. Dose effect d. None of them ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2415
1484. Expression of temperature at which a liquid fuels give off sufficient vapors that when an ignition source is present, will result in flash fire. a. b. c. d.
Flash point Ignition temperature Smoke point None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2415
1485. Lower flammable limit is: a. 2% b. 1.9% c. 1.5% d. 1.4% ANS: D
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 2416
1486. A single dose that causes the death of a specified number of groups of test animals exposed by any route other than inhalation. a. b. c. d.
Lethal concentration Lethal dose Threshold limit value None of these ANS: B Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2417
1487. The use of chemicals to change hazardous material into less harmful substances. a. Absorption
NURSING TEST BANK
b. Neutralization c. Disposal d. Dilution ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2418
1488. Which one of following use copious amount of water? a. Absorption b. Neutralization c. Disposal d. Dilution ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2418
1489. A process used by responders to clean PPE, tools and equipment: a. b. c. d.
Technical decontamination Emergency decontamination Mass decontamination None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: 2420
1490. The substances that are capable of dissolving other substances: a. Acids b. Bases c. Solvents d. Solutes ANS: C Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2420 1491. Anti dote for cyanide poisoning is: a. b. c. d.
Cobalamin Hydroxocobalamin Cobalt NaOH ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2420
1492. Type of de contamination that is done with larger pads that the hazardous material team uses to soak up liquid and remove it from patient
NURSING TEST BANK
a. Absorption b. Neutralization c. Dilution d. None of them ANS: A
Dif:
Easy
REF: Pg 2427
1493. LD 50 is a dose that would be lethal to: a. b. c. d.
100% population 50% population 75 % population 25% population ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2427
CHAPTER 50 1494. Cross- border terrorism is also called: a. Domestic terrorism b. International terrorism c. Terror committed by foreign agents d. Both b & c ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2434
1495. Terrorism originating within the borders of the country : a. Domestic terrorism b. International terrorism c. Inter border terrorism d. None of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2435
1496. These groups often represents a violent fringe or splinter group of a legitimate non- violent group or movement that seeks to effect change through legal or socially acceptable means. a. Religious extremist b. Right wing extremist c. Issue oriented groups d. Left wing extremist
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2436
1497. Systematic use of terror by an established government to control all parts of its populace. a. Religious extremist b. State terrorists c. Issue oriented groups d. Pathologic terrorist ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2436
1498. The use of terror to take control of a region, its politics, or government with goal of manufacturing, distributing and selling drugs> a. Narco terrorism b. Religious extremist c. Issue oriented group d. State terrorism ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2436
1499. Terrorist with no motivation beyond their own desire to control and terrorize others. a. b. c. d.
Religious extremist State terrorism Pathologic terrorists Left wing extremist ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2436
1500. Which one of the following is an example of potential high value targets for terrorist include the following: a. b. c. d.
Locations where attack provoke extreme emotional reactions such as day care centers, schools Location that are crucial to transportation such as airports, tunnels or bridges Power plants, water treatment plants, shipping facilities All of these ANS: D
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2437
1501. In determining the potential for terrorist attack, we should observe:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
Pre incident indicators Type of location Type of call All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2438
1502. Cross contamination is also called: a. Primary contamination b. Secondary contamination c. Tertiary contamination d. None of them ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2439
1503. In a triage, black tag shows: a. b. c. d.
Walking wounded Urgent Immediate Deceased ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2440
1504. In a triage, orange tag means: a. Immediate b. Urgent c. Delayed d. Deceased ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2440
1505. The region for law enforcement may include: a. b. c. d.
Ro canvass witness who may have valuable information To provide site security To monitor all victims in the event All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2440
NURSING TEST BANK
1506. Phosphene or chlorine is used as: a. b. c. d.
Nerve agents Choking agents Metabolic or blood agents All of these ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2441
1507. Hydrogen cyanide or cyanogens chloride are: a. b. c. d.
Blister agents Metabolic or blood agents Irritating agents Nerve agents ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2441
1508. Vesicants include: a. b. c. d.
Sarin, soman Mustard gas Mace Chlorine ANS: B
Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2441
1509. Agents with vapor hazard enters the body through: a. Digestive tract b. Respiratory tract c. Oral cavity d. Dermal route ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2442
1510. Skin irritation, burning, reddening occurs when person is exposed to: a. b. c. d.
Mustard gas Mace Samon Phosphene ANS: A
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 2442
NURSING TEST BANK
1511. The military abbreviation of Sarin is: a. b. c. d.
GB CL GC All of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2443
1512. Which of the following looks like a baby oil? a. b. c. d.
Soman Tabun VX nerve agents Sarin ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2444
1513. GA is a military abbreviation of : a. b. c. d.
Soman Tabun VX nerve agent Sarin ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2444
1514. Which of the following is not included in killer B’s? a. b. c. d.
Bradycardia Bronchospasm Bronchorrea Bronchitis ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2445
1515. Which one of the following has high volatility ? a. b. c. d.
Sarin Tabun Soman VX nerve agent
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2446
1516. Which one of the following has no odor? a. b. c. d.
Sarin Soman Tabun VX nerve agent
ANS: D Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2446 1517. The period between person exposure to agent and onset of symptoms is: a. b. c. d.
Dissemination Vector Incubation None of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2447
1518. Biologic agent that may come in contact during biologic event: a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Neurotoxins d. All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2447
1519. Nerve agents has odor: a. b. c. d.
Fruity or none Garlic Almonds Irritating ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2448
1520. In smallpox, body temperature ranges from: a. 101 -104F b. 95-98 F c. 101-104C
NURSING TEST BANK
d. 95-98 C ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2448
CHAPTER 51 1521. A way to maintain communications with all of the members as well as backup methods of communication with all involved parties. a. b. c. d.
Training standards Infrastructure Internal communications All of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF : Pg 2469
1522. Considerations during a disaster include: a. b. c. d.
Inventory Patient tracking Hospital updates All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2470
1523. Recording every patient you see or assist with help of triage tag. This comes under: a. b. c. d.
Patient tracking Equipment resupply Triage and classification Personal protective and safety equipment ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2471
1524. Considerations after the event include: a. b. c. d.
Accountability Brainstorm Stress reaction review All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2473
NURSING TEST BANK
1525. A strong concerned unit commander can do a lot to bolster morale by listening the field pulse. This is: a. b. c. d.
Legal issues Inventory Unit leadership reinforcement Stress reaction review ANS: C
Dif: Hard
REF: Pg 2473
1526. Official internal report to entire event. It should contain a chronologic and accurate description of the facts of the incidents. a. b. c. d.
Acknowledgement After action report Stress reaction review All of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2473
1527. Examples of natural disaster include: a. b. c. d.
Snow and ice storms Hurricanes Cave-ins All of these A NS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2475
1528. APR stands for: a. b. c. d.
Air plug respirator Air purifier relief Air purifying respirator None of these ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2475
1529. Tsunamis can hit the shore at speed of: a.
400-500mph
NURSING TEST BANK
b. 500-600mph c. 600-700mph d. 700-800mph ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2477
1530. Dust suffocation can occur during: a. b. c. d.
Earth quack Tsunamis Hurricanes Ice storms ANS: A
Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2478
1531. Component of forward surgical team is: a. b. c. d.
Physicians Nurses EMS providers All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2479
1532. Cause of cave in: a. b. c. d.
Rapid freezing and thawing Heavy rain Excess vibration All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2479
1533. Ash fall is residue left behind from: a. Volcanic eruption b. Flooding c. Cave ins d. Earth quacks ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2480
NURSING TEST BANK
1534. ARPs and N 95 are used during: a. Volcanic eruptions b. Flooding c. Sandstorms and dust storms d. All of them ANS: C Dif: Moderate
REF: Pg 2481
1535. Lack of water available to public causes: a. Drought b. Famine c. Flooding d. Tsunami ANS: A
Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2482
1536. Heat injury can be categorized: a. Heat cramps b. Heat exhaustion c. Heat stroke d. All of them ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2482
1537. Power failure or disruptions is an example of: a. Natural disaster b. Man made disaster c. Man made natural disaster d. None of them ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2483
1538. An illness or disease that affects high proportion of population over a broad or potentially worldwide geographic area. a. b. c. d.
Epidemic Pandemic Both a & b None of them
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2483
1539. Which one of the following cause ECG abnormalities ? a. b. c. d.
Carbon dioxide CO Cyanide poisoning Both b & c ANS: D
Dif: Moderate REF: Pg 2484
1540. Internet technology has helped EMS : a. b. c. d.
You can transmit ECGs Send real time ECGs Visual patients presentations All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2487
CHAPTER 52 1541. vest that protect you from knife or blade attack: a. Stab proof b. Spike proof c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2495
1542. Tunnel vision is: a. b. c. d.
you must completely involve in patient care that you failed to see the possibility of physical harm to patients or other EMS providers you must not completely involve in patient care that you failed to see the possibility of physical harm to patients or other EMS providers both a & b none of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2496
1543. weapon locations may be:
NURSING TEST BANK
a. b. c. d.
glove box arm rest in the center console all of these
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2497
1544. When you exit the unit with the jump kit, move away from the passenger side of the van:
a. 3-5 m b. 5-7m c. 7-9m d. 9-11m ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF : Pg 2498
1545. The door that was used to enter the building: a. primary exit b. secondary exit c. both a & b d. none of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2500
1546. Youth usually join gangs for: a. b. c. d.
identity love money all of them
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2501
1547. A gunman who has begun to fire on people and is still at large : a. b. c. d.
active shooter passive shooter both a & b none of these
NURSING TEST BANK
ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2503
1548. Don’t change your position of cover just for sake of changing. This is included in:
a. b. c. d.
Using walls as cover Evasive tactics Concealment techniques None of these ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2507
1549. Which one of following is considered as area of concealment? a. b. c. d.
tall grass dark shadows shrubberies all of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2508
1550. Oral documentation by a witness of a criminal act: a. testimonial evidence b. physical evidence c. both a & b d. none of these ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2509
1551. Your documentation includes that what were you told?
a. b. c. d.
by the patient by police or fire personnel by family or care givers all of these
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF : Pg 2511
NURSING TEST BANK
1552. Protection from being seal:
a. b. c. d.
contact and cover concealment cover all of these
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2514
1553. Windows and rear doors comes under: a. primary exit b. secondary exit c. both a & b d. none of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2514
1554. Situational awareness:
a. b. c. d.
knowing the surroundings knowing people of groups climate or violence or strife all of these
ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2515
CHAPTER 53 1555. CPs stands for: a. Control points b. Community paramedics c. Critical points d. None of them ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2521
1556. MIHPs stands for:
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a. b. c. d.
Mobile integrated horizon care providers Mobility integration health care providers Mobile integrated health care providers None of them ANS: C
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2521
1557. CCP stands for: a. Critical control points b. Critical care paramedic c. Critical care programs d. Critical care points ANS: b
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2522
1558. Responsibility of MIHP/ CP are to: a. Advance life support care activities b. Monitor or manage chronic diseases c. Provide wellness checks d. All of these ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2522
1559. Paramedics that work as a part of an air rescue team that provides either on scene care in remote field settings or interfacility transports from one clinical settings to another: a. b. c. d.
Flight paramedic Tactical paramedic Wilderness paramedics None of them ANS: A
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2523
1560. Which one is not included in tactical paramedics:
a. Combat casualty assessment
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b. Flight physiology c. Rescue techniques d. Weapons training and management ANS: B
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2523
1561. Responsibility of wilderness paramedics include: a. b. c. d.
Survival skills Expedition medicine Toxic exposure management Both a & b ANS: D
Dif: Easy
REF: Pg 2524
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