Chapter 01: Introduction to the Body Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”? a. Dissection b. Physiology c. Pathology d. Anatomy ANS: D REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts? a. Dissection b. Physiology c. Pathology d. Anatomy ANS: B REF: p. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
3. Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease? a. Dissection b. Physiology c. Pathology d. Anatomy ANS: C REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
4. Cells a. are more complex than tissues. b. are the first level of organization in the body. c. are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body. d. both B and C. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 6
5. A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n) a. molecule. b. organ. c. tissue. d. organism. ANS: C REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
6. The heart is an example of a(n) a. organ. b. tissue. c. organism. d. system. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 6
7. The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are a. cell chemical organ tissue system. b. tissue cell chemical organ system. c. chemical tissue cell organ system. d. chemical cell tissue organ system. ANS: D REF: p. 5
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
8. When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position? a. Supine b. Anatomical c. Lateral d. Prone ANS: B REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
9. The supine position a. describes the body lying face up. b. is also called anatomical position. c. describes the body lying face down. d. both A and B. ANS: A REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
10. The prone position a. describes the body lying face up. b. is also called the anatomical position. c. describes the body lying face down. d. both B and C. ANS: C REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
11. Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term a. inferior. b. posterior. c. anterior. d. distal.
ANS: B REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
12. The opposite term for posterior in humans is a. superior. b. anterior. c. ventral. d. both B and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
13. The opposite term for superficial is a. deep. b. inferior. c. posterior. d. medial. ANS: A REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
14. The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section. a. frontal b. sagittal c. coronal d. transverse ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
15. The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section. a. frontal b. sagittal c. midsagittal d. transverse ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
16. A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section. a. frontal b. coronal c. midsagittal d. transverse ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections 17. The two major body cavities are called a. thoracic and abdominal. b. thoracic and pelvic.
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
c. dorsal and ventral. d. mediastinum and pleural. ANS: C REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
18. The liver can be found in the a. upper right quadrant. b. epigastric region. c. hypogastric region. d. both A and B. ANS: D PTS: TOP: Body cavities
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 10
19. The word “leg” correctly describes the a. area from the hip to the foot. b. area from the knee to the ankle. c. area between the hip and the knee. d. femoral area. ANS: B REF: p. 13
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body regions
Memorization
20. The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of a. homeostasis. b. a positive feedback loop. c. an effector. d. a sensor. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 14
21. The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called a. homeostasis. b. the effector. c. the sensor. d. the control center. ANS: B REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
22. The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called a. homeostasis. b. the effector. c. the sensor. d. the control center. ANS: C REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
23. The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition within a body part or region to its homeostatic condition is called a. homeostasis. b. the effector. c. the sensor. d. the control center. ANS: D REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
24. When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the a. sensor. b. effector. c. control center. d. both A and C. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 14
25. Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop? a. Maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body b. Forming a blood clot c. Uterine contractions during labor d. Both B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 15-16
26. The level of organization that precedes the organ level is the _____ level. a. system b. cellular c. tissue d. chemical ANS: C REF: p. 5
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
27. Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position? a. Dorsal b. Posterior c. Supine d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
28. Which term means toward the head? a. Anterior b. Superior c. Superficial
d. Ventral ANS: B REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
29. Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow? a. The elbow is proximal to the wrist. b. The elbow is distal to the wrist. c. The elbow is superficial to the wrist. d. The elbow is lateral to the wrist. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
30. A coronal plane or section is another term for a _____ plane. a. sagittal b. midsagittal c. transverse d. frontal ANS: D REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections
31. The muscular sheet called the diaphragm divides the a. right and left pleural cavities. b. thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavities. c. abdominal and pelvic cavities. d. thoracic cavity and mediastinum. ANS: B REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
32. Which is not a part of the upper abdominopelvic region? a. Right hypochondriac region b. Epigastric region c. Hypogastric region d. All of the above are part of the upper abdominopelvic region. ANS: C REF: p. 10
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Chemical level b. Cellular level c. Tissue level d. Organ level e. System level f. Organism
REF: p. 7
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
The smallest “living” part of the body A word used to denote a living thing Level that includes atoms and molecules Level made up of groups of tissues working together to perform a task Level that is the most complex unit within the organism Level that is made up of a group of cells working together to perform a task
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF:
B p. 6 F p. 5 A p. 5 D p. 6 E p. 6 C p. 6
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization 1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization 1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization 1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization 1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization 1 DIF: Memorization Structural levels of organization
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Superior b. Anterior c. Medial d. Proximal e. Superficial f. Inferior g. Posterior h. Lateral i. Distal j. Deep 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
Nearer to the surface of the body Toward the head or above Toward the midline of the body Away from the trunk or point of origin Toward the feet or below Toward the back Farther away from the surface of the body Toward the side Toward the front Nearest to the trunk or point of origin
7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS:
E p. 7 A p. 7 C
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization
10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 7 I p. 7 F p. 7 G p. 7 J p. 7 H p. 7 B p. 7 D p. 7
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical direction
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Frontal plane b. Transverse plane c. Sagittal plane d. Diaphragm e. Thoracic cavity f. Abdominopelvic cavity g. Cranial cavity h. Mediastinum 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
A muscular sheet dividing the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities The lower part of the ventral body cavity Divides the body into right and left sides Part of the dorsal cavity that contains the brain Divides the body into upper and lower parts A subdivision of the thoracic cavity Divides the body into front and rear parts Cavity that is subdivided into pleural cavities
17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS:
D p. 9 F p. 9 C p. 9 G p. 9 B p. 9 H p. 9 A
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Body cavities 1 DIF: Memorization Body cavities 1 DIF: Memorization Planes or body sections 1 DIF: Memorization Body cavities 1 DIF: Memorization Planes or body sections 1 DIF: Memorization Body cavities 1 DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 9 24. ANS: E REF: p. 9
TOP: Planes or body sections PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Body cavities
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the difference between anatomy and physiology. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
REF: P. 3
2. Name and explain the structural levels of organization of the body and give an example of each. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Structural levels of organization
REF: pp. 5-6
3. Describe the anatomical position. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 7
4. Define or explain the words “prone” and “supine.” ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
REF: p. 7
5. Name and describe the three planes or body sections. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections 6. Name the two major body cavities, and describe what is in each.
REF: p. 9
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
REF: p. 9
7. Explain the three parts of a negative feedback loop. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 15
8. What is meant by a negative feedback loop? Give an example of a negative feedback loop in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: p. 15
9. What is meant by a positive feedback loop? Give an example of a positive feedback loop in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: The balance of body functions
REF: pp. 15-16
10. List the anatomical directions, and explain each of them. If there are alternate terms for an anatomical direction, give those terms also. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
REF: p. 7
TRUE/FALSE 1. Anatomy is defined as the study of the structure of an organism. ANS: T REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. The word “dissection” comes from Greek word meaning “cutting up.” ANS: F REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
3. Anatomy deals with the study of structure, whereas physiology deals with the study of function. ANS: T REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
4. Pathology is the scientific study of disease. ANS: T REF: P. 3
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
5. A protein molecule is considered to be at the cellular level of organization. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization
DIF:
Analysis
REF: pp. 5-6
6. The cell is the simplest level of organization in the human body. ANS: F REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
7. Cells are considered to be the smallest living unit of structure and function in the body. ANS: T REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
8. A group of cells working together to perform a specific function is called an organ. ANS: F REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
9. A group of several different tissues working together to perform a specific function is called an organ. ANS: T REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
10. The organ is the highest level of organization in the human body. ANS: F REF: p. 6
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural levels of organization
11. Anatomical position is the reference position for the directional terms of the body.
ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
12. If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the supine position. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
13. Doctors recommend putting babies to sleep on their backs to help prevent breathing problems. This is the supine position. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical position
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
14. The anatomical position can be described as the body being erect with the arms held at shoulder level with the palms of the hands facing down. ANS: F REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical position
15. The ankle is distal to the knee. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
16. Dorsal and anterior are interchangeable terms when referring to humans. ANS: F REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
17. The lungs are medial to the heart. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
18. The elbow is proximal to the wrist. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 19. The skin is superficial to the muscles. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction 20. Proximal and medial are opposite terms. ANS: F REF: p. 7
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
21. The knee is distal to the ankle. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
22. The middle toe is medial to the big toe but lateral to the smallest toe. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 7
23. Frontal and coronal sections refer to the same thing. ANS: T REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections
24. Sagittal and midsagittal sections refer to the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections
25. A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a transverse plane. ANS: T REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections
26. A plane dividing the body into front and back portions is a sagittal plane. ANS: F REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Planes or body sections
27. A midsagittal plane divides the right shoulder from the left shoulder. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
28. A transverse plane divides the eyes from the back of the head. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
29. A frontal section divides the eyes from the back of the head. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Planes or body sections
DIF:
Application
30. The ventral cavity is one of the main cavities of the body. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 9
REF: p. 9
TOP: Body cavities
31. The mediastinum is a subdivision of the abdominal cavity. ANS: F REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
32. The pleural cavities are subdivisions of the thoracic cavity. ANS: T REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
33. The abdominal cavity is inferior to the thoracic cavity. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body cavities
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 9
34. The abdominal cavity and the pelvic cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm. ANS: F REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
35. The thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm. ANS: T REF: p. 9
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
36. The right hypochondriac region is completely in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body cavities
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 10
37. The left hypochondriac region is completely in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Body cavities
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 10
38. The right lumbar region is superior to the right iliac region. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body cavities
1
DIF:
Application
39. The dorsal cavity includes the spinal cavity. ANS: T REF: p. 10
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
40. The brain is located in the dorsal cavity.
Memorization
REF: p. 10
ANS: T REF: p. 10
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body cavities
Memorization
41. Homeostasis is the relative consistency of the internal environment of the body. ANS: T REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
42. One method the body has of maintaining homeostasis is a positive feedback loop. ANS: F REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
43. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that compares the actual condition to the controlled condition is called the sensor. ANS: F REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
44. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that effects a change in the controlled condition is called the effector. ANS: T REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
45. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that detects a change in the controlled condition is called the sensor. ANS: T REF: p. 14
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
46. A negative feedback loop stimulates and amplifies a change in the internal environment. ANS: F REF: p. 15
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
47. A negative feedback loop opposes or negates a change in the internal environment. ANS: T REF: p. 15
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
48. The body has more positive feedback loops than negative feedback loops. ANS: F REF: p. 15
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The balance of body functions
49. The formation of a blood clot is an example of a negative feedback loop.
ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 16
50. The pH of the body must remain within a very narrow range. It would more likely be controlled by a negative feedback loop. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 15
51. Women have one more positive feedback loop than do men. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The balance of body functions
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 15
52. Both the heart and the blood vessels are considered to be organs in the cardiovascular system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structural levels of organization
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 14
53. An “L” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Left” or “Lateral” depending on what is opposite it. ANS: T REF: p. 8
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
54. An “S” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Superior” or “Supine” depending on what is opposite it. ANS: F REF: p. 8
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomical direction
55. When you look at an anatomical compass rosette in the text, the “R” on the rosette is on your right side. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomical direction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 8
Chapter 02: Chemistry of Life Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Nucleus ANS: A REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
2. Which subatomic particle has no charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Nucleus ANS: B REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
3. Which subatomic particle has a negative charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Nucleus ANS: C REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
4. Which subatomic particle is found in the nucleus? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
5. Electrons are found a. in the nucleus. b. in orbitals. c. at various distances from the nucleus called energy levels. d. both B and C. ANS: D TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
6. The atomic number of an atom is the number of
REF: p. 25
a. b. c. d.
protons. neutrons. electrons. both A and B.
ANS: A REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
7. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of a. protons. b. neutrons. c. electrons. d. sum of A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
8. The subatomic particle that determines how an atom unites with other atoms is the a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 26
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
9. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic number of a. 20. b. 41. c. 40. d. 61. ANS: A TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
10. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic mass of a. 20. b. 41. c. 40. d. 61. ANS: B TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
11. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has a. a positive charge. b. a negative charge. c. no charge (electrically neutral). d. not enough information is given to determine its charge. ANS: C TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
12. Which of these elements is not one of the four elements that make up most of the human
body? a. Carbon b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Calcium ANS: D REF: p. 26
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
13. Bonds that usually dissociate in water to form electrolytes are _____ bonds. a. ionic b. covalent c. organic d. both B and C ANS: A REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF: Memorization
14. The bonds formed when electrons are shared are called a. electrolytes. b. ionic bonds. c. covalent bonds. d. inorganic bonds. ANS: C REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent bonds
15. The process of dehydration synthesis a. uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones. b. adds a molecule of water to the reactants. c. converts smaller molecules into larger ones by removing water. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
16. The process of hydrolysis a. uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones. b. removes a molecule of water from the reactants. c. converts smaller molecules into larger molecules by removing water. d. both B and C. ANS: A REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
17. Acids have a. a pH less than 7. b. more H+ ions than OH ions. c. more OH than H+ ions. d. both A and B. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 30
TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
18. Bases have a. a pH less than 7. b. more H+ ions than OH ions. c. a pH greater than 7. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
19. A solution with a pH of 4 a. has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2. b. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2. c. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 6. d. is basic. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 30
20. The end product of a reaction between a strong acid and a strong base is a. water. b. a salt. c. a weak acid and a weak base. d. both A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
21. Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide? a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Lactose d. Glycogen ANS: B REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
22. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Lactose d. Glycogen ANS: D REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
23. Triglycerides a. are steroid lipids. b. have a phosphorus-containing unit on one end. c. have two fatty acids. d. have three fatty acids.
ANS: D REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
24. Phospholipids a. contain glycerol. b. contain two fatty acids. c. contain three fatty acids. d. both A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
25. Cholesterol a. contains three fatty acids. b. contains two fatty acids. c. is a steroid lipid. d. contains glycerol. ANS: C REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
26. Which of the following is not true of proteins? a. They have water-repelling tails. b. They are made up of amino acids. c. They contain nitrogen. d. They contain peptide bonds. ANS: A REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
27. Which of the following is a structural protein? a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Enzymes d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: p. 34
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
28. Which of the following is a functional protein? a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Enzymes d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 34
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
29. Which of the following substances is not found in a DNA nucleotide? a. Phosphate unit b. Glycerol molecule c. Nitrogen base d. A sugar
ANS: B REF: p. 35
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
30. Which substance is found only in DNA? a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Cytosine ANS: C REF: p. 35
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
31. The nitrogen atom has a total of seven electrons. To have a full outer energy level, it would
have to a. add one electron. b. lose one electron. c. add three electrons. d. lose two electrons. ANS: C TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 26
32. Which type of chemical bond does not result in the formation of a new molecule? a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond c. Covalent bond d. None of the above; all chemical bonds result in the formation of a new molecule. ANS: A REF: p. 28
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hydrogen bonds
MATCHING
Match each part of the atom with its corresponding description. a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Both protons and neutrons 1. 2. 3. 4.
Part of the atom that is found in the nucleus Part of the atom that is found in orbitals around the nucleus Part of the atom that gives an atom its atomic number Part of the atom that when combined with the protons gives the atom its atomic mass
1. ANS: D REF: p. 25 2. ANS: C REF: p. 25 3. ANS: A REF: p. 25 4. ANS: B
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 Atoms 1 Atoms 1 Atoms 1
DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 25
TOP: Atoms
Match each organic compound with its corresponding description. a. Carbohydrates b. Triglycerides c. Phospholipids d. Cholesterol e. Proteins f. RNA g. DNA 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Compound whose basic unit is a monosaccharide Nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base uracil Lipid that is used to make hormones such as estrogen and testosterone Nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base thymine Lipid that is composed of a molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids Lipid that has two fatty acids and is important in the cell membrane Can be enzymes
5. ANS: A REF: p. 31 6. ANS: F REF: p. 35 7. ANS: D REF: p. 33 8. ANS: G REF: p. 35 9. ANS: B REF: p. 32 10. ANS: C REF: p. 32 11. ANS: E REF: p. 34
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Carbohydrates 1 DIF: Nucleic acids 1 DIF: Lipids 1 DIF: Nucleic acids 1 DIF: Lipids 1 DIF: Lipids 1 DIF: Proteins
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Nucleus b. Ionic bond c. Atomic mass d. Compound e. Electrolyte f. Atomic number g. Covalent bonds h. Orbitals i. Hydrolysis j. Dehydration synthesis k. Acid l. Base 12. Part of the atom in which electrons are found 13. Equal to the number of protons an atom has
14. Molecules that form ions when dissolved in water 15. Process by which reactants combine only after hydrogen and oxygen atoms have been 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.
removed Compound that produces H+ ions Part of the atom in which protons are found Bond formed when oppositely charged atoms are attracted to one another Compound that produces OHions Equal to the number of protons and neutrons in an atom Process by which water is used to break larger molecules into smaller molecules Bond that is formed when electrons are shared A molecule that contains more than one type of atom
12. ANS: H REF: p. 25 13. ANS: F REF: p. 25 14. ANS: E REF: p. 27 15. ANS: J REF: p. 29 16. ANS: K REF: p. 30 17. ANS: A REF: p. 25 18. ANS: B REF: p. 27 19. ANS: L REF: p. 30 20. ANS: C REF: p. 25 21. ANS: I REF: p. 29 22. ANS: G REF: p. 27 23. ANS: D REF: p. 26
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Atoms 1 DIF: Memorization Atoms 1 DIF: Memorization Ionic bonds 1 DIF: Memorization Water 1 DIF: Memorization Acids, bases, and salts 1 DIF: Memorization Atoms 1 DIF: Memorization Ionic bonds 1 DIF: Memorization Acids, bases, and salts 1 DIF: Memorization Atoms 1 DIF: Memorization Water 1 DIF: Memorization Covalent bonds 1 DIF: Memorization Elements, molecules, and compounds
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of the atom, and give a description of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
2. Explain how an ionic bond forms. ANS:
REF: p. 25
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 27
3. Explain how a covalent bond forms. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent bonds
REF: pp. 27-28
4. Explain the processes of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 29
5. Describe the difference between an acid solution and a base solution by comparing the types
and relative concentrations of ions in each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 30
6. Explain the relationship among H+ ion concentration, OH ion concentration, and pH. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
REF: p. 30
7. Describe the structures of carbohydrates, and explain their use in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
REF: p. 31
8. Describe the three types of lipids, and give the function of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 32-33
TOP: Lipids 9. Describe the structure of a protein, and give examples of structural proteins and functional
proteins. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 33-34
10. Explain the structure of a nucleic acid, and list the differences between RNA and DNA. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
REF: p. 35
TRUE/FALSE 1. Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass. ANS: T REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of chemical organization
2. The mass of an atom is determined by the total number of protons and electrons. ANS: F REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
3. The two subatomic particles found in the nucleus of the atom are protons and neutrons. ANS: T REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
4. A full atomic orbital always contains eight electrons. ANS: F REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
5. The atomic number of an atom is the number of protons plus the number of electrons. ANS: F REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
6. The closer an orbital is to the nucleus of an atom, the higher its energy level. ANS: F REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
7. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic number of 11.
ANS: T TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
8. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic mass of 21. ANS: F TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
9. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has a +1 charge. ANS: T TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 25
10. An element is a substance composed of only one type of atom. ANS: T REF: p. 26
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
11. All molecules are not necessarily compounds. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
REF: p. 26
12. Chemical bonds form when atoms share, donate, or borrow electrons. ANS: T REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chemical bonding
13. Ionic bonds result from atoms sharing electrons. ANS: F REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF: Memorization
14. When an ionic compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions. ANS: T REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 TOP: Ionic bonds
DIF: Memorization
15. Covalent bonds are formed when atoms share electrons. ANS: T REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent bonds
16. When a covalent compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions. ANS: F REF: p. 27
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Covalent bonds
17. For a compound to be considered an organic compound it must have a C-O or an H-O bond. ANS: F REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inorganic chemistry
18. Water is the most abundant organic compound in the body. ANS: F REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
19. The process of dehydration synthesis makes bigger molecules from smaller molecules. ANS: T REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
20. The process of dehydration synthesis has water as one of its end products. ANS: T REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
21. The process of hydrolysis has water as one of its end products. ANS: F REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
22. One of the end products of hydrolysis would have one more hydrogen atom than it did at the
beginning of the reaction. ANS: T TOP: Water
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 29
23. Acids have a higher concentration of H+ ions than OH ions. ANS: T REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
24. Bases have a higher concentration of OH ions than H+ ions. ANS: T REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
25. A solution with a pH of 8 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 4. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
DIF: Application
REF: p. 30
26. A solution with a pH of 5 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 7. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
DIF: Application
REF: p. 30
27. A solution with a pH of 2 has 10 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 3. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
DIF: Application
REF: p. 30
28. When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is water. ANS: T REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
29. A weak acid almost completely dissociates in water. ANS: F REF: p. 30
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
30. When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is a salt. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
31. A buffer is a substance that resists a sudden change in pH. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Acids, bases, and salts
32. The basic unit of a carbohydrate is a monosaccharide. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
33. A molecule of glucose is larger than a molecule of sucrose. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrates
DIF: Application
REF: p. 31
34. Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
35. Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
36. The process of dehydration synthesis could be used to convert a monosaccharide into a
disaccharide. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Water and carbohydrates
DIF: Synthesis
37. Both fats and oils are lipids. ANS: T REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
38. A triglyceride contains two fatty acid molecules.
REF: p. 29 | p. 31
ANS: F REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
39. A triglyceride contains a molecule of glycerol. ANS: T REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
40. Phospholipids contain three fatty acids. ANS: F REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
41. Phospholipids are important molecules in the cell membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
42. Cholesterol is a steroid lipid. ANS: T REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
43. Cholesterol contains two fatty acid molecules. ANS: F REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
44. Cholesterol is needed for the formation of several hormones in the body. ANS: T REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
45. The basic building block of proteins is nucleotides. ANS: F REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
46. The basic building blocks of protein are held together by peptide bonds. ANS: T REF: p. 33
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
47. Structural proteins include collagen, keratin, and enzymes. ANS: F REF: p. 34
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
48. Enzymes are functional proteins that act as chemical catalysts. ANS: T REF: p. 34
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
49. The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides. ANS: T REF: p. 35
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
50. DNA and RNA molecules are identical except that DNA contains thymine and RNA contains
uracil. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleic acids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 35
51. The nitrogen bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine can be found in both RNA and DNA. ANS: T REF: p. 35
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
52. One difference between DNA and RNA is the type of sugar found in the nucleotides. ANS: T REF: p. 35
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nucleic acids
53. The smallest unit of matter is the electron. ANS: F REF: p. 25
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Levels of chemical organization
54. The oxygen atom has a total of eight electrons. That means it has six electrons in its outer
energy level. ANS: T TOP: Atoms
PTS: 1
DIF: Analysis
REF: p. 26
55. The number of electrons in the outer energy level of an atom determines how it behaves
chemically. ANS: T REF: p. 26
PTS: 1 TOP: Atoms
DIF: Memorization
56. The formula for glucose is C6H12O6. This indicates that there are 24 atoms in a molecule of
glucose. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds
REF: p. 27
57. The electrolyte most often formed by magnesium (Mg) is Mg++. This shows that the ion has
two more electrons than protons. ANS: F TOP: Ionic bonds
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
58. Water is the most common solute in the human body.
REF: p. 27
ANS: F REF: p. 29
PTS: 1 TOP: Water
DIF: Memorization
59. Both sucrose and lactose are examples of disaccharides. ANS: T REF: p. 31
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrates
60. Fats tend to be solids at room temperature. ANS: T REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
61. Both cholesterol and phospholipids form part of the structure of the cell membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 32
PTS: 1 TOP: Lipids
DIF: Memorization
62. The lock-and-key model describes how two strands of DNA are able to join so precisely to
form a double helix. ANS: F REF: p. 34
PTS: 1 TOP: Proteins
DIF: Memorization
Chapter 03: Cells Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not part of the cell? a. Plasma membrane b. Interstitial fluid c. Nucleus d. All of the above are part of the cell. ANS: B REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Parts of the cell
2. Which of the following is not part of the plasma membrane? a. Phospholipids b. Cholesterol c. Triglycerides d. Neither B nor C is part of the cell membrane. ANS: C REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
3. Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane? a. Protein synthesis b. Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell c. Identifying the cell d. Communication between cells ANS: A REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
4. Tissue typing uses information a. stored in the nucleus. b. found on the plasma membrane. c. found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. d. found in the Golgi apparatus. ANS: B REF: p. 45
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
5. Which organelles can be called the “digestive bags” of the cell? a. Ribosomes b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondria d. Lysosomes ANS: D REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
6. What are the protein factories of the cell?
a. b. c. d.
Mitochondria Lysosomes Ribosomes Golgi apparatus
ANS: C REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
7. Which are small fingerlike projections on the plasma membrane that increase the cell’s ability
to absorb substances? a. Microvilli b. Cilia c. Flagella d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A REF: p. 48
PTS: 1 TOP: Microvilli
DIF: Memorization
8. Which structure makes new membranes for the cell? a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Mitochondria ANS: B REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
9. Which organelle has a subunit made of RNA? a. Ribosome b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Lysosomes ANS: A REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
10. Which of the following are called the “power plants” of the cell? a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Lysosomes ANS: B REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
11. Which are rod-shaped structures that are important in cell division? a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Centrioles ANS: D REF: p. 48
PTS: 1 TOP: Centrioles
DIF: Memorization
12. Which structure has ribosomes attached to it and helps transport proteins throughout the cell? a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Mitochondria ANS: A REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
13. Which organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the
cell? a. Ribosome b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Lysosome ANS: C REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Golgi apparatus
14. Cellular respiration occurs in which organelle? a. Ribosome b. Centrioles c. Golgi apparatus d. Mitochondria ANS: D REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
15. Which are extremely fine hairlike structures on the surface of the cell? a. Cilia b. Microvilli c. Flagella d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A REF: p. 49
PTS: 1 TOP: Cilia
DIF: Memorization
16. Only about half the population has which of the following organelles? a. Microvilli b. Cilia c. Flagella d. The entire population has all of the above organelles. ANS: C TOP: Flagella
PTS: 1
DIF: Analysis
REF: p. 49
17. What is the process by which substances scatter themselves evenly throughout an available
space? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Filtration
d. Dialysis ANS: B REF: p. 51
PTS: 1 TOP: Diffusion
DIF: Memorization
18. What is the movement of water from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower
water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Filtration d. Dialysis ANS: A REF: p. 52
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis
19. What is the movement of water and solutes through a membrane because of hydrostatic
pressure? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Filtration d. Dialysis ANS: C REF: p. 53
PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
20. If one side of the DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence of adenine—guanine—adenine
—cytosine—thymine, the other side would be a. adenine—guanine—adenine—cytosine—thymine. b. cytosine—thymine—cytosine—adenine—guanine. c. thymine—cytosine—thymine—guanine—adenine. d. There is no way to determine the other side of the molecule. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
REF: p. 56
21. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—guanine, the messenger RNA sequence would be a. adenine—thymine—guanine. b. thymine—adenine—cytosine. c. thymine—uracil—cytosine. d. uracil—adenine—cytosine. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 57
22. If the messenger RNA code is adenine—uracil—cytosine, the transfer RNA bringing the
amino acid would have which code? a. Adenine—uracil—cytosine b. Uracil—adenine—guanine c. Uracil—thymine—guanine d. Thymine—adenine—guanine ANS: B TOP: Translation
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 57
23. During which phase of mitosis does a cleavage furrow begin to appear? a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Interphase ANS: B REF: p. 60
PTS: 1 TOP: Anaphase
DIF: Memorization
24. During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes aligned in the center of the cell? a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Prophase ANS: C REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 TOP: Metaphase
DIF: Memorization
25. DNA replication occurs during which phase? a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Interphase ANS: D REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell division
26. Chromatin becomes “organized” during which phase of mitosis? a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Prophase ANS: D REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 TOP: Prophase
DIF: Memorization
27. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telophase ANS: A REF: p. 60
PTS: 1 TOP: Anaphase
DIF: Memorization
28. During which phase of mitosis do two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less
distinct? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Interphase d. Telophase
ANS: D REF: p. 60
PTS: 1 TOP: Telophase
DIF: Memorization
29. Which organelle contains its own DNA molecule? a. Ribosome b. Mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
30. Which structure programs the formation of ribosomes? a. Mitochondria b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum c. Nucleolus d. Golgi apparatus ANS: C REF: p. 50
PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleolus
DIF: Memorization
31. Which process does not rely on active transport? a. Sodium-potassium pump b. Phagocytosis c. Pinocytosis d. Filtration ANS: D REF: p. 53
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Active transport
32. A codon consists of which number of nucleotides? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C REF: p. 57
PTS: 1 TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
33. Which term refers to an increase in cell size? a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Atrophy d. Anaplasia ANS: B REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
34. Which term refers to an increase in the number of cells? a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Atrophy d. Anaplasia
ANS: A REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
MATCHING
Match each organelle or cell structure to its corresponding function or description. a. Plasma membrane b. Nucleus c. Ribosomes d. Mitochondria e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum f. Rough endoplasmic reticulum g. Lysosomes h. Centrioles i. Microvilli j. Nucleolus Organelles that are called the “protein factories” of the cell Structure made up of phospholipids and cholesterol molecules Organelles that are called the “digestive bags” of the cell Organelle named as such because of the ribosomes attached to it Cell structure that controls every organelle in the cytoplasm and contains chromatin Small rods that are important in cell division The “power plants” of the cell Small fingerlike projections in the plasma membrane that increase the efficiency of absorption of materials into the cell 9. A small structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes 10. Organelle that produces new membranes for the cell 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
1. ANS: C REF: p. 47 2. ANS: A REF: p. 44 3. ANS: G REF: p. 47 4. ANS: F REF: p. 47 5. ANS: B REF: pp. 49-50 6. ANS: H REF: p. 48 7. ANS: D REF: p. 47 8. ANS: I REF: pp. 48-49 9. ANS: J REF: p. 50 10. ANS: E REF: p. 47
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Ribosomes 1 DIF: Memorization Plasma membrane 1 DIF: Memorization Lysosomes 1 DIF: Memorization Endoplasmic reticulum 1 DIF: Memorization Nucleus 1 DIF: Memorization Centrioles 1 DIF: Memorization Mitochondria 1 DIF: Memorization Microvilli 1 DIF: Memorization Nucleolus 1 DIF: Memorization Endoplasmic reticulum
Match each phase of the cell life cycle to its corresponding description. a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Chromosomes are pulled to opposite sides of the cell DNA replication occurs The spindle fibers form The chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cells The cleavage furrow completely divides the cell into two parts
11. ANS: D REF: p. 60 12. ANS: A REF: p. 59 13. ANS: B REF: p. 59 14. ANS: C REF: p. 49 15. ANS: E REF: p. 60
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 Anaphase 1 Cell division 1 Prophase 1 Metaphase 1 Telophase
DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the structure and function of the plasma membrane. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
REF: pp. 44-45
2. Describe or give the function of the following organelles: ribosomes, smooth and rough
endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, lysosomes, centrioles, microvilli, and cilia. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Cytoplasm
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 47-49
3. Explain the structure and function of the nucleus, including the function of the nucleolus. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 49-50
TOP: Nucleus 4. Define or explain passive transport and active transport and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
REF: p. 50
5. Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis
REF: p. 52
6. Explain the process of filtration and give an example of a body process that depends on
filtration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 53
7. Explain the functioning of an ion pump, and give an example of one in the plasma membrane.
Why are they considered active transport mechanisms? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 54
8. Define or explain pinocytosis and phagocytosis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
REF: pp. 54-55
9. Explain the role of ion pumps in both cystic fibrosis and cholera. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell transport and disease
REF: pp. 55-56
10. What is meant by specific base pairing? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
REF: p. 56
11. What is a gene? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
REF: p. 56
12. Briefly describe the process of transcription. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription
REF: p. 57
13. Briefly describe the process of translation. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 57-58
14. If one side of a DNA molecule is thymine—cytosine—guanine—adenine, what would the
nucleotides on the other side be? ANS:
Adenine—guanine—cytosine—thymine. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 56 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 15. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine—thymine—guanine, what would the messenger
RNA nucleotides be if this piece of DNA were transcribed? ANS:
Uracil—adenine—cytosine. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 16. If a messenger RNA molecule contains the sequence uracil—adenine—cytosine, what would
be the nucleotide sequence for the transfer RNA it would attract?
ANS:
Adenine—uracil—guanine. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information 17. List the phases of mitosis and explain what occurs in each phase. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell division
REF: pp. 59-60
18. Define or explain the following terms: hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, neoplasm, anaplasia,
benign neoplasm, and malignant neoplasm. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
REF: pp. 61-62
TRUE/FALSE 1. The fluid inside the cell is called interstitial fluid. ANS: F REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Composition
2. Both phospholipids and cholesterol are important parts of the cell membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
3. One function of the cell membrane is to identify the cell as belonging to a particular
individual. ANS: T REF: p. 45
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Plasma membrane
4. The term organelle refers to proteins that are embedded in the cell membrane. ANS: F REF: p. 46
PTS: 1 TOP: Cytoplasm
DIF: Memorization
5. One of the jobs of the Golgi apparatus is to make new membranes for the cell. ANS: F REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
6. The “protein factory” is another name for the ribosomes. ANS: T REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes
DIF: Memorization
7. The difference between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum is that the rough
endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to it. ANS: T REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum
8. Lysosomes are the “digestive bags” of the cell. ANS: T REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
9. Microvilli are small hairlike structures on the outer surface of the cells. ANS: F REF: p. 48
PTS: 1 TOP: Microvilli
DIF: Memorization
10. The only cells in humans that have flagella are sperm cells. ANS: T REF: p. 49
PTS: 1 TOP: Flagella
DIF: Memorization
11. The Golgi apparatus consists of two small rods that play an important role in cell division. ANS: F REF: p. 48
PTS: 1 TOP: Centrioles
DIF: Memorization
12. The nucleus is the only structure in the cell that contains DNA. ANS: F REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
13. The nucleolus is a structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes. ANS: T REF: p. 50
PTS: 1 TOP: Nucleolus
DIF: Memorization
14. Both chromatin and chromosomes are made up of DNA. ANS: T REF: p. 50
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes
15. The passive transport of material across the cell membrane requires the breakdown of ATP. ANS: F REF: p. 50
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes
16. Diffusion of a substance across a cell membrane is an example of active transport.
ANS: F REF: p. 51
PTS: 1 TOP: Diffusion
DIF: Memorization
17. The simplest definition of dialysis is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane. ANS: F REF: p. 52
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis
18. Osmosis and dialysis are both specialized examples of diffusion. ANS: T REF: p. 52
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Osmosis and dialysis
19. Filtration requires different levels of hydrostatic pressure across a membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 53
PTS: 1 TOP: Filtration
DIF: Memorization
20. Active transport moves material by a mechanism that is opposite that of diffusion. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Active transport processes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 53
21. The cell membrane is able to efficiently move material because each ion pump can move a
number of different substances. ANS: F REF: p. 54
PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps
DIF: Memorization
22. Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis are examples of active transport mechanisms. ANS: T REF: pp. 54-55
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
23. Pinocytosis comes from the Greek word meaning “cell eating.” ANS: F REF: p. 55
PTS: 1 TOP: Pinocytosis
DIF: Memorization
24. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that results from a failure of a passive transport mechanism in the
cell membrane. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cell transport and disease
DIF: Application
REF: p. 55
25. The inability of the cell membrane to control the movement of the chloride ion into and out of
the cell is the cause of both cystic fibrosis and cholera. ANS: T REF: pp. 55-56
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cell transport and disease
26. The term complementary base pairing refers to the ability of the DNA nucleotide adenine to
pair only with the nucleotide cytosine. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
REF: p. 56
27. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine—guanine—cytosine—cytosine, the opposite side
would be thymine—cytosine—guanine—cytosine. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
REF: p. 56
28. A gene and a nucleotide are the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 56
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
29. DNA and RNA differ in the number of strands they have, the type of sugar they have, and the
types of nitrogen bases they have. ANS: T REF: pp. 56-57
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: RNA molecules and protein synthesis
30. The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus. ANS: T REF: p. 57
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Transcription
31. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—cytosine, the messenger RNA code would be thymine
—adenine—guanine. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 57
32. The process of translation occurs in the nucleus. ANS: F REF: p. 57
PTS: 1 TOP: Translation
DIF: Memorization
33. If the messenger RNA code is uracil—adenine—guanine, the transfer RNA code would be
adenine—uracil—cytosine. ANS: T TOP: Translation
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 57
34. The end product of the process of transcription is a messenger RNA molecule. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription
DIF: Analysis
REF: p. 57
35. The end product of the process of translation is an amino acid chain or protein.
ANS: T TOP: Translation
PTS: 1
DIF: Analysis
REF: p. 57
36. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—guanine, the transfer RNA code that would be called
for would be adenine—uracil—guanine. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Transcription and translation
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 57
37. DNA replication occurs during prophase of mitosis. ANS: F REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA replication
38. During anaphase, the chromosomes align in the center of the cell. ANS: F REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 TOP: Metaphase
DIF: Memorization
39. Chromatids form during prophase. ANS: T REF: p. 59
PTS: 1 TOP: Prophase
DIF: Memorization
40. The cleavage furrow begins to appear during telophase. ANS: F REF: p. 60
PTS: 1 TOP: Anaphase
DIF: Memorization
41. During telophase, two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less distinct. ANS: T REF: p. 60
PTS: 1 TOP: Telophase
DIF: Memorization
42. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are interchangeable terms. ANS: F REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and development
43. The term hypertrophy means that there has been an increase in size of individual cells. ANS: T REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
44. The term hyperplasia means a decrease in the size of individual cells. ANS: F REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
45. Atrophy can be defined as a decrease in the size of individual cells. ANS: T REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
46. Both hyperplasia and hypertrophy can cause an increase in the size of a tissue or organ. ANS: T REF: p. 61
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
47. In anaplasia, cells fail to mature normally and do not differentiate as they should. ANS: T REF: p. 62
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
48. Atrophy is a characteristic of many neoplasms. ANS: F REF: p. 62
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction
49. The terms interstitial fluid and tissue fluid refer to the same thing. ANS: T REF: p. 44
PTS: 1 TOP: Cells
DIF: Memorization
50. Both mitochondria and ribosomes contain nucleic acids. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Ribosomes and mitochondria
DIF: Application
REF: p. 47
51. Cellular respiration occurs in the Golgi apparatus. ANS: F REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mitochondria
52. The lysosome plays an important role in apoptosis (cell suicide). ANS: F REF: p. 47
PTS: 1 TOP: Lysosomes
DIF: Memorization
53. Flagella are extremely fine hairlike extensions on the exposed surface of certain cells. ANS: F REF: p. 49
PTS: 1 TOP: Cilia
DIF: Memorization
54. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of an active transport mechanism. ANS: T REF: p. 54
PTS: 1 TOP: Ion pumps
DIF: Memorization
55. Genes regulate cellular activity by determining what type of proteins will be made. ANS: T REF: p. 56
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information
Chapter 04: Tissues Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue allows for rapid communication between various parts of the body? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: D REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous tissue
2. Which type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: A REF: p. 72
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
3. Which is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: B REF: p. 76
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
4. Which type of tissue specializes in movement of the body? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: C REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
5. Which type of tissue can be classified by the shape of its cells? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: A REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Shape of cells
6. Which type of tissue frequently has few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix?
a. b. c. d.
Epithelial Connective Muscle Nervous
ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
7. Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves? a. Epithelial and muscle b. Connective and muscle c. Epithelial and connective d. Muscle and nervous ANS: C REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
8. Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: C REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
9. The tissue connected and supported by glia cells is a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: D REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
10. Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue. d. nervous tissue. ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
11. The ideal body-fat percentage is considered to be a. 8% to 12% for men and 12% to 15% for women. b. 12% to 18% for men and 18% to 24% for women. c. 15% to 18% for men and 20% to 22% for women. d. 18% to 24% for both men and women. ANS: C REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissues and fitness (Health and Well-Being box)
12. What type of tissue is simple columnar tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
13. What type of tissue is bone tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
14. What type of tissue is simple squamous tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
15. What type of tissue is pseudostratified tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 76
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
16. Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 72
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
17. Which tissue forms a continuous sheet of cells with no blood vessels? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 72
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
18. Cells of which tissue have the ability to shorten? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: C REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
19. Which tissue contains few cells found in intercellular material called matrix? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
20. Which tissue is subdivided according to the shape and the arrangement of cells? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
21. Which tissue allows rapid communication between body structures? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: D REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
22. Glands are usually made up of which tissue? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue ANS: A REF: p. 75
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
23. Select the type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix. a. Areolar b. Bone c. Blood d. Fibrous connective ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 80
TOP: Tissues
24. How does cartilage differ from other connective tissues? a. Its matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic. b. Its matrix is fluid. c. Cartilage has more cells. d. Cartilage consists of hematopoietic cells. ANS: A REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
25. Adipose tissue performs which of the following functions? a. Insulation b. Protection c. Support d. All of these are correct. ANS: D REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
26. The types of tissues that have the greatest capacity to regenerate are a. epithelial and nervous. b. epithelial and connective. c. connective and nervous. d. muscular and epithelial. ANS: B REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
27. An unusually thick scar that develops in the lower layer of the skin is called a a. tumor. b. collagen bundle. c. keloid. d. neoplasm. ANS: C REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
28. These cartilage cells are located within many tiny spaces throughout the matrix. a. Osteons b. Hematopoietic c. Glial d. Chondrocytes ANS: D REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
29. Since the bladder can expand and return to its normal size, which type of epithelial tissue
might you find lining the wall of the bladder? a. Cuboidal b. Transitional c. Pseudostratified d. Simple squamous
ANS: B TOP: Tissues
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 76
30. You examine an epithelial tissue specimen, and it has multiple layers of thin, irregularly
shaped cells. What type of tissue is this? a. Simple squamous b. Stratified cuboidal c. Stratified columnar d. Stratified squamous ANS: D TOP: Tissues
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 73
MATCHING
Match each tissue type to its corresponding description or example. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nerve 1. 2. 3. 4.
Tissue that covers the body and many of its parts Tissue that contains glia cells Tissue that makes up most of the heart Tissue that has few cells embedded in the intercellular matrix
1. ANS: A REF: p. 72 2. ANS: D REF: p. 83 3. ANS: C REF: p. 82 4. ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Epithelial 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match each category of epithelial cells with its corresponding definition. a. Simple squamous b. Simple cuboidal c. Simple columnar d. Pseudostratified columnar e. Stratified squamous f. Transitional Single layer of cube-shaped cells Multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface Single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not Layers of cells that appear cubelike when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid 9. Single layer of flat, scalelike cells 10. Single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet-shaped 5. 6. 7. 8.
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 6. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 8. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Classification based on layers of cells 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: REF: p. 75 TOP: Simple epithelium
Application
REF: p. 75
Application
REF: p. 73
Application
REF: p. 76
Application
REF: p. 76
Application
REF: p. 73
Memorization
Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. Neuron b. Neuroglia c. Axon d. Cell body e. Dendrite 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
The structure to which dendrites and axons attach Supportive cells of nervous tissue Cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body The conducting cells of the nervous system Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body
11. ANS: D REF: p. 83 12. ANS: B REF: p. 83 13. ANS: C REF: p. 83 14. ANS: A REF: p. 83 15. ANS: E REF: p. 83
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nerve 16. 17. 18. 19.
Bone and adipose tissue Neurons and neuroglia Tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm Tissue that propels material through the digestive tract
16. ANS: B REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
17. ANS: D REF: p. 83 18. ANS: C REF: p. 82 19. ANS: A REF: p. 83
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial tissue
Identify the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding definition. a. Cardiac muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Smooth muscle 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Cylindrical, striated, voluntary cells Nonstriated, involuntary, narrow fibers with only one nucleus per cell Striated, branching, involuntary cells with intercalated disks Responsible for willed body movements Also called visceral muscle Found in the walls of hollow internal organs
20. ANS: B REF: p. 81 21. ANS: C REF: p. 82 22. ANS: A REF: p. 82 23. ANS: B REF: p. 81 24. ANS: C REF: p. 82 25. ANS: C REF: p. 83
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue
Match the type of connective tissue with its corresponding definition. a. Areolar connective tissue b. Adipose c. Fibrous connective tissue d. Bone e. Cartilage f. Blood 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.
Matrix is liquid Contains numerous structural building blocks called osteons Consists mainly of bundles of strong, white collagen fibers arranged in parallel rows Specialized to store lipids Consists of delicate webs of fibers and a variety of cells Matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic or a gristle like gel
26. ANS: F REF: p. 80 27. ANS: D REF: p. 80
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue
28. ANS: C REF: p. 78 29. ANS: B REF: p. 78 30. ANS: A REF: p. 78 31. ANS: E REF: p. 80
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match the term with its corresponding definition. a. Collagen b. Osteons c. Glands d. Goblet cells e. Scar 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
Dense fibrous mass Clusters of tubes of secretory cells Structural building blocks of bone tissue Strong fibers found in dense fibrous connective tissue Specialized cells that produce mucus
32. ANS: E REF: p. 84 33. ANS: C REF: p. 75 34. ANS: B REF: p. 80 35. ANS: A REF: p. 72 36. ANS: D REF: p. 75
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match the type of epithelial tissue with its location. a. Surface of the skin b. Wall of the urinary bladder c. Kidney tubules d. Trachea e. Air sacs in lungs f. Inner surface of the large intestine 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
Transitional Simple cuboidal Pseudostratified Stratified squamous Simple squamous Simple columnar
37. ANS: B REF: p. 76
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
38. ANS: C REF: p. 75 39. ANS: D REF: p. 76 40. ANS: A REF: p. 74 41. ANS: E REF: p. 73 42. ANS: F REF: p. 75
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match the type of connective tissue with its location. a. Areolar b. Fibrous connective tissue c. Hematopoietic tissue 43. Red marrow cavities of bones 44. Most widely distributed 45. Tendons 43. ANS: C REF: p. 81 44. ANS: A REF: p. 78 45. ANS: B REF: p. 79
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue
Match the term with its corresponding description. a. Regeneration b. Keloid c. Glia d. Chondrocyte e. Matrix 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
Intracellular material found between cells Cartilage cell Growth of new tissue Thick scar that develops in lower layer of the skin Supporting nervous tissue cell
46. ANS: E REF: p. 72 47. ANS: D REF: p. 80 48. ANS: A REF: p. 84 49. ANS: B REF: p. 84 50. ANS: C REF: p. 83
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Nervous tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match the general tissue type with its corresponding description. a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nervous tissue 51. 52. 53. 54.
High degree of contractibility Exists in more varied forms than any of the other tissue types Function is rapid communication Covers the body and many of its parts
51. ANS: C REF: p. 81 52. ANS: B REF: p. 76 53. ANS: D REF: p. 83 54. ANS: A REF: p. 72
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding location. a. Skeletal muscle tissue b. Smooth muscle tissue c. Cardiac muscle tissue 55. Heart 56. Attached to bones 57. Helps form the walls of blood vessels 55. ANS: C REF: p. 82 56. ANS: A REF: p. 82 57. ANS: B REF: p. 83
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body. Give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 71-83
2. Describe the ability of each tissue to regenerate. Include an explanation of a keloid. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
REF: pp. 83-85
3. Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 73 | p. 76
TOP: Epithelial tissue
4. Explain why body composition is a good indicator of health and fitness. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 84
TOP: Health and well-being
5. Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 80
TOP: Blood tissue
6. Describe the three types of muscle tissue, and give a location and function of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 81-83
TOP: Muscle tissue
7. Briefly describe the connective tissue types, and give their location in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
REF: pp. 76-81
8. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 lb. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her
doctor advised her that she is overweight. What might be the explanation for this assessment? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 84
9. List at least three functions of epithelial tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary.
TOP: Health and well-being
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: pp. 72-73
10. What are the three basic shapes of epithelial cells? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 73
11. How do exocrine glands secrete their products? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple cuboidal epithelium
REF: p. 75
12. Name the two types of involuntary muscle tissue. Where is each found in the body? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: pp. 82-83
13. Classify epithelium according to the arrangement of the cells. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: p. 73
14. List the types of simple and stratified epithelium, and give examples of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
REF: pp. 73-74
15. Discuss the microscopic structure of bone tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 80
16. Identify the two basic types of cells in nervous tissue.
TOP: Bone tissue
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous tissue
REF: p. 83
17. Summarize the structural characteristics of epithelial tissues that enable them to perform their
specific functions. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 73-76
TOP: Epithelial tissue
18. Explain tissue typing and describe what occurs when a donated tissue is rejected. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 81
TOP: Clinical application
19. Explain the importance of measuring body composition. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 84
TOP: Health and well-being
20. Many athletes work to reduce their body fat to the lowest possible percentage. What would
happen if too little body fat were present? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 84
TOP: Health and well-being
21. Explain why epithelial and connective tissues have the greatest capacity to regenerate. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 84
TOP: Tissue repair
22. Describe the different types of matrix found within connective tissue cells. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TRUE/FALSE
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 78
TOP: Connective tissue
1. There are three types of muscle tissues in the body: skeletal, voluntary, and smooth. ANS: F REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
2. One type of cell that makes up nerve tissue is a glia cell. ANS: T REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve tissue
DIF: Memorization
3. Connective tissue usually contains few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix. ANS: T REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
4. Epithelial tissue can be classified based on the shape of the cells. ANS: T REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
5. Nervous tissue and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate. ANS: F REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
6. Because of muscle tissue’s ability to repair itself, someone who has survived a heart attack
will eventually have cardiac muscle tissue that is fully healed and as good as new. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Tissue repair
DIF: Application
REF: p. 84
7. It would be expected that squamous epithelial tissue would have a flat and scalelike
appearance. ANS: T REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
8. Stratified squamous epithelium often contains goblet cells that produce mucus that helps
protect the tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 75
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple columnar epithelium
9. Cuboidal epithelium most often can be found in glands. ANS: T REF: p. 75
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cuboidal epithelium
10. Alveolar connective tissue specializes in the storage of lipid or fat. ANS: F REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Adipose
DIF: Memorization
11. Cartilage tissue gets its strength from the osteons that make up its matrix. ANS: F REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone and cartilage
12. Intercalated disks are found in skeletal muscle tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 82
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue
13. Connective tissue covers the body and many of its parts. ANS: F REF: p. 72
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
14. Glia cells are an example of connective tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
15. Smooth, striated, and cardiac tissues are examples of muscle tissues. ANS: T REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
16. An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells. ANS: F REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
17. Both neurons and glia cells make up nervous tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
18. Areolar, blood, bone, and cartilage are all examples of connective tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues
DIF: Memorization
19. Goblet cells are found in squamous epithelial tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 75
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
20. Pseudostratified epithelial tissue looks like it is two cell layers thick, but it is actually only one
cell layer thick. ANS: T REF: p. 76
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
21. The most abundant tissue in the body is muscle tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 76
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
22. The building block of bone tissue is called an osteon. ANS: T REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
23. Hematopoietic tissue is a connective tissue responsible for blood cell formation. ANS: T REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
24. A nerve cell usually has more axons extending from the cell body than dendrites. ANS: F REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous tissue
25. Substances can readily pass through simple squamous epithelial tissue because of its structure. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial tissue
DIF: Application
REF: p. 73
26. Epithelium is richly supplied with blood. ANS: F REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
27. Exocrine glands discharge their products directly into the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 75
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cuboidal epithelium
28. The terms osteon and haversian system are synonymous. ANS: T REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue
DIF: Memorization
29. Bones are a storage area for calcium and provide support and protection for the body. ANS: T REF: p. 80
PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue
DIF: Memorization
30. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells. ANS: F REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial tissue
31. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified,
or layered, epithelial sheet.
ANS: T REF: p. 73
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification based on layers of cells
32. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
33. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of
contractility. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle tissue
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 81
34. The structural quality and appearance of the matrix and fibers determine the qualities of each
type of connective tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 78
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue
35. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop. ANS: F REF: p. 84
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissue repair
36. Both axons and dendrites are found in nervous tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 83
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous tissue
37. Hematopoietic tissue is the bloodlike connective tissue found in the red marrow cavities of
bones, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes. ANS: T REF: p. 81
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood and hematopoietic tissue
Chapter 05: Organ Systems Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The body’s heaviest organ is the a. liver. b. brain. c. large intestine. d. skin. ANS: D REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
2. Which of the following is not considered an appendage of the skin? a. The nails b. The tongue c. Sweat-producing glands d. Sensory cells that respond to pain ANS: B REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
3. The primary function of the skin is a. protection. b. temperature regulation. c. acting as the main sense organ. d. the synthesis of important chemicals. ANS: A REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
4. The skeletal system includes all but which of the following? a. Bones b. Cartilage c. Ligaments d. All of the above are included in the skeletal system. ANS: D REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
5. Muscle is connected to bone by a. ligaments. b. tendons. c. cartilage. d. squamous epithelial tissue. ANS: B REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
6. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach?
a. b. c. d.
Skeletal Voluntary Smooth Cardiac
ANS: C REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
7. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart? a. Skeletal b. Voluntary c. Smooth d. Cardiac ANS: D REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
8. Signals generated by the nervous system are called a. stimuli. b. nerve impulses. c. sense organs. d. nerves. ANS: B REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
9. Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system? a. Thyroid b. Pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Salivary ANS: D REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
10. Which of the following substances is not carried by the cardiovascular system? a. Lymph b. Hormones c. Carbon dioxide d. Nutrients ANS: A REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system
11. The thymus gland is part of the _____ system. a. digestive b. lymphatic c. endocrine d. nervous ANS: B REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
12. Which part of the respiratory system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide? a. Pharynx b. Bronchi c. Alveoli d. Trachea ANS: C REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory system
13. Which of these organs is an accessory organ of the digestive system? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Esophagus d. Small intestine ANS: B REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
14. Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Esophagus d. Both A and C ANS: C REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
15. Immunosuppressive drugs are given after a. cochlear implants. b. organ transplants. c. hip replacement surgery. d. all of the above procedures. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Organ transplants
DIF: Application
REF: p. 104
16. Which of the following is not considered part of the central nervous system? a. The brain b. The spinal cord c. The cranial nerves d. All of the above are part of the central nervous system. ANS: C REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
17. Which structure is not part of the lymphatic system? a. Tonsils b. Spleen c. Thymus gland d. Pancreas ANS: D REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
MATCHING
Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description. a. Integumentary system b. Skeletal system c. Muscular system d. Nervous system e. Endocrine system f. Cardiovascular system 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
System that contains the body’s heaviest organ Primary system for transporting materials from one part of the body to another System that has the ability to contract by conscious nerve regulation System that has a secondary function of storing calcium and phosphorus for the body System that regulates body functions rapidly but for a short duration System that regulates body functions slowly but for a longer duration
1. ANS: A REF: p. 93 2. ANS: F REF: p. 96 3. ANS: C REF: p. 95 4. ANS: B REF: p. 94 5. ANS: D REF: p. 95 6. ANS: E REF: p. 96
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Integumentary system 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiovascular (circulatory) system 1 DIF: Memorization Muscular system 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal system 1 DIF: Memorization Nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Endocrine system
Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description. a. Lymphatic and immune systems b. Respiratory system c. Digestive system d. Urinary system e. Male reproductive system f. Female reproductive system 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
The urethra belongs to this one system in the female System in which the liver is an accessory organ System that produces ova System that works with the urinary system to regulate the pH of the body System other than the urinary system that includes the male urethra System that helps move fat-related nutrients from the digestive system
7. ANS: D REF: p. 99 8. ANS: C REF: p. 98
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Urinary system 1 DIF: Memorization Digestive system
9. ANS: F REF: p. 100 10. ANS: B REF: p. 98 11. ANS: E REF: p. 100 12. ANS: A REF: p. 97
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Respiratory system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Lymphatic and immune systems
SHORT ANSWER 1. Give a brief description of the integumentary system, and explain its functions. ANS:
Answers will vary PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
REF: pp. 93-94
2. List the types of tissues found in the skeletal system, and explain the function of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
REF: p. 94
3. Explain why it is useful to think of the muscular system as the skeletomuscular system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
REF: p. 95
4. List the organs and functions of the nervous system, and explain the difference between the
nervous system and endocrine system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
REF: pp. 95-96
5. List the organs of the endocrine system, and explain the difference between the endocrine
system and nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
REF: p. 96
6. Explain the similarities between nerve impulses and hormones. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 95-96 TOP: Nervous system and endocrine system 7. List the structures and explain the function of the lymphatic system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
REF: p. 97
8. What is the function of the body’s immune system? What proteins are involved in the
functioning of the immune system? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
REF: pp. 97-98
9. List the structures and explain the functions of the respiratory system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory system
REF: p. 98
10. List the primary and accessory organs of the digestive system, and explain the functions of the
digestive system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
REF: pp. 98-99
11. List the structures and explain the functions of the urinary system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary system
REF: p. 99
12. How is the reproductive system different from other systems in the body?
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive system
REF: p. 99
13. List the structures and explain the functioning of the male reproductive system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 100
14. List the structures and explain the functioning of the female reproductive system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 100
15. Name three “artificial organs.” Explain how they effectively replace a damaged organ. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Artificial organs
REF: p. 101 | p. 103
16. What is organ transplantation? List several rejection problems. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation
REF: p. 104
17. Explain how stem cells can be used to address the issue of insufficient organ donors. What are
other possible uses for stem cells? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation
REF: p. 104
TRUE/FALSE 1. Organs are the largest and most complex structural units in the body.
ANS: F REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ systems of the body
2. The skin accounts for almost 10% of the body’s weight. ANS: F REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
3. The skin is the body’s heaviest organ. ANS: T REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
4. Sweat glands are part of the integumentary system. ANS: T REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
5. The primary function of the integumentary system is protection. ANS: T REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
6. One important function of intact skin is to keep out harmful bacteria. ANS: T REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Integumentary system
7. The skeletal system is composed only of bones. ANS: F REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
8. Cartilage, tendons, and ligaments are also part of the skeletal system. ANS: F REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
9. The skeletal system provides a place for the formation of blood cells. ANS: T REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
10. The bones of the skeletal system store calcium and sodium needed by the body. ANS: F REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
11. Bones are considered the main organs of the skeletal system. ANS: T REF: p. 94
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skeletal system
12. Tendons are part of the muscular system. ANS: T REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
13. The skeletal muscles are also called smooth muscles. ANS: F REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
14. Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
15. Ligaments attach muscle to bone. ANS: F REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
16. The heart is composed of cardiac muscle. ANS: T REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
17. The muscular system is composed of four types of muscle tissue: voluntary, smooth, skeletal,
and cardiac. ANS: F REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscular system
18. The organs of the nervous system include the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. ANS: T REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
19. The function of the nervous system is accomplished by special signals called stimuli. ANS: F REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
20. The sense organs of the body are part of the nervous system. ANS: T REF: p. 95
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nervous system
21. The endocrine and nervous systems perform the same general function. ANS: T REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
22. Hormones of the endocrine system and nerve impulses of the nervous system perform the
same general function. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Endocrine system and nervous system
REF: pp. 95-96
23. Hormones are produced by the ductless glands of the endocrine system. ANS: T REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
24. The action of the endocrine system causes a rapid but short-term effect on the body. ANS: F REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
25. The thymus gland and thyroid gland are located in the neck. ANS: F REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine system
26. The pituitary gland and the hypothalamus gland are endocrine glands that are located in the
skull. ANS: T REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Endocrine glands
27. The cardiovascular system contains the heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries. ANS: T REF: p. 96
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system
28. Antibodies are white blood cells that fight infection. ANS: F REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
29. The primary function of the cardiovascular system is to transport material from one part of the
body to another. ANS: T REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system
30. The lymphatic system circulates lymph the way the circulatory system circulates blood. ANS: F REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
31. The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems. ANS: T REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
32. The lymphatic system eventually returns lymph back to the bloodstream. ANS: T REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
33. Antibodies and complements are protein compounds that are important in the immune system. ANS: T REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
34. The respiratory system includes the pharynx, trachea, and esophagus. ANS: F REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory system
35. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the alveoli of the respiratory system. ANS: T REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory system
36. The respiratory system helps balance blood pH. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Respiratory system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 98
37. Both absorption and digestion are functions of the digestive system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Digestive system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 99
38. The esophagus is an accessory organ of the digestive system. ANS: F REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
39. The primary organs of the digestive system form a tube that is called the gastrointestinal tract. ANS: T REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
40. The liver is an accessory organ of the digestive system. ANS: T REF: p. 98
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Digestive system
41. The urinary system is composed of the kidney, bladder, ureters, and urethra. ANS: T REF: p. 99
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary system
42. The male urethra is the only organ in the body that is part of two systems.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Urinary system and lymphatic and immune systems
REF: p. 99
43. The urinary system plays a role in regulating the body’s pH. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Urinary system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 100
44. In the male reproductive system, the gonads are the testes; in the female, the gonads are the
ovaries. ANS: T REF: p. 100
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Reproductive system
45. The prostate gland and the scrotum are classified as accessory organs of the male reproductive
system. ANS: F REF: p. 100
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
46. The vas deferens is a gland that adds fluids to the sperm as they pass through the reproductive
system. ANS: F REF: p. 100
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
47. The uterus and fallopian tubes are accessory organs of the female reproductive system. ANS: T REF: p. 100
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
48. The reproductive cells produced by the ovaries are called ova. ANS: T REF: p. 101
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
49. An artificial organ that replaces a nonfunctioning organ is called a prosthesis. ANS: T REF: p. 103
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Artificial organs
50. A cochlear implant is a device that aids in hearing. ANS: T REF: p. 104
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Artificial organs
51. A hemopump filters the blood of a person suffering from kidney failure. ANS: F REF: p. 104
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Artificial organs
52. In a kidney transplant, the diseased kidney is removed and the transplanted kidney is put in its
place. ANS: F REF: p. 104
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation
53. Immunosuppressive drugs are given after transplant surgery to prevent the body from
rejecting the newly transplanted organ. ANS: T REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ transplantation
54. Because the function of an organ is so specific, it can be part of only one organ system. ANS: F REF: p. 93
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organ systems of the body
55. The thoracic duct helps return lymph back to the cardiovascular system. ANS: T REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
56. Lymph nodes help filter the blood and remove bacterial cells. ANS: T REF: p. 97
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems
Chapter 06: Mechanisms of Disease Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a sign? a. A red rash b. A headache c. A pain in the chest d. Both B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
2. Which of the following is a symptom? a. A red rash b. A headache c. A pain in your chest d. Both B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology
3. Another name for the latent stage in an infectious disease is the _____ stage. a. etiology b. communicable c. incubation d. pathogenic ANS: C REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
4. An infectious disease that affects a large number of people worldwide is described as a. endemic. b. pandemic. c. epidemic. d. idiopathic. ANS: B REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Patterns of disease
5. Another term for the word neoplasm is a. tumor. b. parasite. c. inflammation. d. degeneration. ANS: A REF: p. 116
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
6. Which of these factors is a mechanism of disease?
a. b. c. d.
Degeneration Inflammation Malnutrition All of the above
ANS: D REF: p. 116
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
7. Which of these factors is not a risk factor? a. Autoimmunity b. Lifestyle c. Stress d. Pre-existing condition ANS: A REF: p. 117
PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors
DIF: Memorization
8. Organisms that are called microbes include a. fungi. b. bacteria. c. protozoa. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
9. Which of the following pathogens are considered nonliving? a. Protozoa b. Viruses c. Bacteria d. All of the above are considered living. ANS: B REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
10. Mad cow disease is caused by a a. bacterium. b. virus. c. prion. d. protozoon. ANS: C REF: p. 120
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
11. Which type of pathogen can be classified by whether it has RNA or DNA as its nucleic acid? a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Prion d. Protozoon ANS: B REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
12. Which type of pathogen is a microscopic living organism that does not have a nucleus? a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Prion d. Protozoon ANS: A REF: p. 120
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
13. Which type of pathogen can be classified based on its reaction to Gram stain? a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Prion d. Protozoon ANS: A REF: p. 120
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
14. Bacteria that are rod-shaped are called a. cocci. b. spiral. c. bacilli. d. rickettsia. ANS: C REF: p. 121
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
15. Athlete’s foot is caused by a a. bacterium. b. virus. c. protozoon. d. fungus. ANS: D REF: p. 123
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
16. The pathogenic animal most likely to be a vector is a(n) a. arthropod. b. nematode. c. roundworm. d. flatworm. ANS: A REF: p. 124
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic animals
17. An example of a benign tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is a. osteoma. b. melanoma. c. adenoma. d. lymphoma. ANS: C REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
18. An example of a benign tumor that arises from connective tissue is a. osteoma. b. melanoma. c. adenoma. d. lymphoma. ANS: A REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
19. An example of a malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is a. osteoma. b. melanoma. c. adenoma. d. lymphoma. ANS: B REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
20. An example of a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is a. osteoma. b. melanoma. c. adenoma. d. lymphoma. ANS: D REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
21. Abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells are often produced by a process called a. hyperplasia. b. anaplasia. c. metastasis. d. edema. ANS: B REF: p. 130
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Causes of cancer
22. Which of these is not a diagnostic imaging method used to detect cancer? a. Radiography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Laser therapy d. Computed tomography ANS: C REF: p. 131
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
23. Inflammation mediators include all of the following except a. antibodies. b. histamines. c. prostaglandins. d. kinins. ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 135
TOP: Inflammatory response
24. The movement of white blood cells in response to a chemical attractant released during the
inflammatory response is called a. edema. b. inflammatory exudate. c. chemotaxis. d. phagocytosis. ANS: C REF: p. 135
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
25. Which of the following is not an example of a chronic inflammatory disease? a. Arthritis b. Asthma c. Chronic bronchitis d. All of the above are examples of chronic inflammatory disease. ANS: D REF: p. 136
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory disease
26. A syndrome is a a. collection of signs and symptoms. b. disease that lasts for a long time. c. disease that lasts for a short time. d. set of subjective abnormalities that are felt only by the patient. ANS: A REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
27. HIV cannot be spread by a. sharing drinking fountains. b. sexual contact. c. the birth process. d. All of the above can spread HIV. ANS: A REF: p. 119
PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses
DIF: Memorization
28. The mosquito is necessary for the spread of a. HIV. b. West Nile virus. c. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). d. mad cow disease. ANS: B REF: pp. 119-120
PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses
DIF: Memorization
29. Which of these bacteria are considered obligate intracellular parasites? a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci c. Escherichia coli d. Chlamydia
ANS: D REF: p. 121
PTS: 1 TOP: Bacteria
DIF: Memorization
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation. a. Sign b. Symptoms c. Syndrome d. Etiology e. Idiopathic f. Pathogenesis g. Latent stage h. Endemic i. Epidemic j. Pandemic 1. Actual pattern of a disease’s development 2. The “hidden” period of a disease before signs and symptoms become evident 3. Objective abnormalities caused by a disease that can be seen or measured by someone other 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
than the patient A disease that is native to a local region The study of all factors involved in causing a disease The spread of a disease to many people in a more limited geographical area A disease with an undetermined cause Subjective conditions of a disease that are felt only by the patient The spread of a disease to a very large number of people in a large or worldwide geographical area A collection of different signs and symptoms that provides a clear picture of a pathological condition
1. ANS: F REF: p. 114 2. ANS: G REF: p. 114 3. ANS: A REF: p. 114 4. ANS: H REF: p. 114 5. ANS: D REF: p. 114 6. ANS: I REF: p. 114 7. ANS: E REF: p. 114 8. ANS: B REF: p. 114 9. ANS: J REF: p. 114
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Patterns of disease 1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Patterns of disease 1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Disease terminology 1 DIF: Memorization Patterns of disease
10. ANS: C REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
Match each disease-causing agent to its corresponding definition or characteristic. a. Virus b. Prion c. Bacterium d. Fungus e. Protozoan f. Nematode g. Platyhelminth h. Arthropod 11. Group that includes flatworms and an organism that causes schistosomiasis 12. Group of agents that can be classified according to whether it contains RNA or DNA as its 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
nucleic acid Group that includes yeast and mold and includes the organism responsible for athlete’s foot Group that includes “nonliving” pathogenic protein particles Group that includes large parasites known as roundworms Group that includes small organisms without nuclei that can be classified by their response to Gram stain Group that includes small organisms with nuclei that can be classified by their means of locomotion Group that includes ticks and fleas that are frequently vectors for other pathogens
11. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 18. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Neoplasm b. Benign c. Malignant d. Metastasis e. Carcinoma f. Sarcoma
19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
Usually refers to malignant tumors arising from epithelial tissue Another term for a tumor that actually means “new matter” A tumor that remains localized in the tissue from which it arose Refers to the spreading process of a tumor Refers to a type of tumor that spreads to other parts of the body Term that usually denotes a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue
19. ANS: E REF: p. 129 20. ANS: A REF: p. 128 21. ANS: B REF: p. 128 22. ANS: D REF: p. 129 23. ANS: C REF: pp. 128-129 24. ANS: F REF: p. 129
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 Neoplasms 1 Neoplasms 1 Neoplasms 1 Neoplasms 1 Neoplasms 1 Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the difference between a symptom and a sign, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
TOP: Disease terminology
2. Define or explain the following terms: endemic, epidemic, and pandemic. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Patterns of disease
REF: p. 114
3. List and explain the eight mechanisms of disease discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
REF: pp. 115-117
4. List and explain the risk factors of disease discussed in this chapter. Which risk factors are
capable of being avoided? ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 117
TOP: Risk factors
5. Describe a virus, and list the ways in which a virus can be classified. Name a disease that is
caused by a virus. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: pp. 118-120
6. Describe a prion. Name a disease that is caused by a prion. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: p. 120
7. Describe a bacterium, and list the ways in which a bacterium can be classified. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: pp. 120-121
8. Explain why bacteria that form spores are potentially more dangerous than bacteria that do not
form spores. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 122 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles 9. Describe a fungus. Name a disease caused by a fungus, and list the two forms that fungi can
take. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: p. 123
10. List and briefly describe the four classes of protozoa described in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: pp. 123-124
11. List and briefly describe the three pathogenic animals discussed in the chapter. Which of these
groups is most likely to be a vector? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: p. 124
12. List and briefly describe the four methods of disease prevention and control discussed in the
chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and control
REF: pp. 125-126
13. Define or explain the following terms: neoplasm, benign, malignant, metastasis, carcinoma,
and sarcoma. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 128-129
14. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from epithelial tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 129
15. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from connective tissue. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 129
16. List and briefly explain the causes of cancer discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Causes of cancer
REF: pp. 130-131
17. Explain the means of cancer detection discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
REF: pp. 131-133
18. Explain the treatment methods for cancer discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
REF: pp. 133-134
19. What are the four primary signs of inflammation? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
REF: pp. 134-135
20. Explain why it is helpful in the inflammatory response to dilate the blood vessels and make
the vessel walls more permeable. Include a definition of chemotaxis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 135
TOP: Inflammatory response
21. What causes fever, and what advantage does fever give the body in fighting disease? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory disease
REF: pp. 135-136
TRUE/FALSE 1. A symptom is an objective abnormality that can be seen or measured by someone else. ANS: F REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
2. One sign of measles is the rash that it sometimes causes. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
3. One sign of the flu is that the patient feels tired the entire time he or she has it. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
4. A collection of signs and symptoms of a disease can be called a syndrome. ANS: T REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
5. A disease with an undetermined etiology is called idiopathic. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disease terminology
DIF: Application
REF: p. 114
6. In infectious diseases, the latent stage is also called the incubation period. ANS: T REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
7. The terms endemic and epidemic mean the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Patterns of disease
8. An epidemic usually involves more people than a pandemic. ANS: F REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Patterns of disease
9. Pathophysiology is the organized study of the physiological process associated with disease. ANS: T REF: p. 115
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
10. The fungus that causes athlete’s foot is a parasite, and the person who has the condition is the
host. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of disease
DIF: Application
11. Risk factors increase the likelihood of contracting a disease. ANS: T REF: p. 117
PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors
DIF: Memorization
12. Increasing age is a risk factor in all diseases. ANS: F REF: p. 117
PTS: 1 TOP: Risk factors
DIF: Memorization
13. With effort, all risk factors for a disease can be avoided.
REF: p. 123
ANS: F TOP: Risk factors
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 117
14. Viruses and prions are considered nonliving. ANS: T REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
15. The transmission of West Nile virus requires a vector. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: p. 120
16. One of the unique characteristics of viruses is their use of only RNA as a nucleic acid. ANS: F REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
17. One of the unique characteristics of bacteria is their lack of a nucleus. ANS: T REF: p. 120
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
18. Gram staining is used as a method to classify viruses. ANS: F REF: p. 120
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
19. Bacilli are round bacteria that can be found singly, in pairs, or in strings. ANS: F REF: p. 121
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
20. Rickettsia is an example of a small bacterium. ANS: T REF: p. 121
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
21. A number of human diseases are caused by a special type of microbe called archaea. ANS: F REF: p. 122
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
22. Fungal infections are also called mycotic infections. ANS: T REF: p. 123
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
23. Both yeasts and molds are considered fungi. ANS: T REF: p. 123
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
24. Flagellates, sporozoa, and nematodes are examples of protists that cause disease. ANS: F REF: pp. 123-124
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
25. A fluke is a type of flatworm. ANS: T REF: p. 124
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
26. The spread of Lyme disease by a tick is an example of a disease spread by an arthropod
vector. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles
REF: p. 124 | p. 126
27. Streptomycin, penicillin, and acyclovir are examples of antibiotics used to fight bacterial
infection. ANS: F REF: p. 128
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and control
28. Another word for a neoplasm is a tumor. ANS: T REF: p. 128
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
29. Malignant tumors are less likely to spread than benign tumors. ANS: F REF: pp. 128-129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
30. The spread of a tumor to another part of the body is called metastasis. ANS: T REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
31. A lymphoma is more likely to spread than a lipoma. ANS: T TOP: Neoplasms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 128 | p. 129
32. An osteoma is more likely to spread than an osteosarcoma. ANS: F TOP: Neoplasms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 128 | p. 129
33. A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is usually called a carcinoma. ANS: T REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
34. A malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is usually called a sarcoma. ANS: T REF: p. 129
PTS: 1 TOP: Neoplasms
DIF: Memorization
35. A melanoma is an example of a sarcoma. ANS: F TOP: Neoplasms
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 129
36. Carcinogens are substances that affect genetic activity in some way. ANS: T REF: p. 130
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Causes of cancer
37. The risk of contracting all cancers increases with increasing age. ANS: F REF: p. 130
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Causes of cancer
38. A biopsy is the removal of a piece of the neoplasm to determine whether it is benign or
malignant. ANS: T REF: p. 132
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
39. A prognosis is a statement regarding the likely outcome of a disease. ANS: T REF: p. 133
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
40. For a cancer patient, cachexia is a positive prognostic sign. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer
DIF: Application
REF: p. 133
41. The inflammatory response has four primary signs: redness, heat, swelling, and pain. ANS: T REF: p. 134
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
42. Histamines and prostaglandins are two examples of inflammation mediators. ANS: T REF: p. 134
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
43. The decrease in permeability in the blood vessel walls allows white blood cells and water to
more easily leave the bloodstream. ANS: F REF: p. 134
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
44. An increase in inflammatory exudate being carried through the lymphatic system causes the
lymph nodes to enlarge. ANS: T REF: p. 135
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
45. An increased amount of chemotaxis can lead to an increased amount of pus in an area of
inflammation. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Inflammatory response
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 135
46. Fever is detrimental to the body’s immune system and should be treated aggressively to return
the body to a more normal temperature. ANS: F REF: p. 135
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory disease
47. The difference between an acute and chronic disease is the length of time the disease lasts. ANS: T REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
48. The terms etiology and pathogenesis are interchangeable. ANS: F REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disease terminology
49. Because of the advances in medicine, pandemics are less common than they once were. ANS: F REF: p. 114
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Patterns of disease
50. A disease can be described as a fluctuation in the homeostasis of the body that goes beyond
what is considered a normal fluctuation. ANS: T REF: pp. 115-116
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
51. A broken leg would be considered a traumatic mechanism of disease. ANS: T REF: p. 116
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
52. Both autoimmune disorders and degenerative disorders are considered inflammatory
disorders. ANS: T REF: p. 116
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of disease
53. One characteristic of viral diseases is their rapid onset after the initial infection.
ANS: F REF: p. 118
PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses
DIF: Memorization
54. To prevent the spread of HIV, persons who are HIV positive should have their own bathroom
and drinking glasses. ANS: F REF: p. 119
PTS: 1 TOP: Viruses
DIF: Memorization
55. Spores allow some viruses to survive adverse environmental conditions. ANS: F REF: p. 122
PTS: 1 TOP: Bacteria
DIF: Memorization
56. Organisms that cause opportunistic infections require specific environmental conditions
before they can become infectious. ANS: T REF: p. 125
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and control
57. Oncogenes are cancer-causing genes. ANS: T REF: p. 130
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Causes of cancer
58. Edema occurs when water leaves the blood vessels and enters the tissues. ANS: T REF: p. 135
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Inflammatory response
Chapter 07: Skin and Membranes Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not an epithelial membrane? a. Cutaneous b. Mucous c. Synovial d. Serous ANS: C REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
2. Which of the following is not a connective tissue membrane? a. Cutaneous b. Mucous c. Synovial d. Neither A nor B is a connective tissue membrane. ANS: D REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes
3. The pleura in the thoracic cavity is an example of a _____ membrane. a. mucous b. serous c. cutaneous d. synovial ANS: B REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
4. The skin is an example of a _____ membrane. a. mucous b. serous c. cutaneous d. synovial ANS: C REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
5. The lining of the mouth is an example of a _____ membrane. a. mucous b. serous c. cutaneous d. synovial ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
6. Which type of membrane contains connective tissue?
REF: p. 147
a. b. c. d.
A mucous membrane A serous membrane A synovial membrane All of the above
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of body membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
7. The visceral peritoneum covers the _____ of the _____ cavity. a. wall; chest b. organs; abdominal c. wall; abdominal d. organs; chest ANS: B REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
8. Which type of membrane lines the space between bones in joints that move? a. Cutaneous membrane b. Mucous membrane c. Synovial membrane d. Epithelial membrane ANS: C REF: p. 147
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes
9. Which statement is not true of the epidermis? a. It is a cutaneous membrane. b. It is composed mostly of connective tissue. c. It is the outermost layer of skin. d. It contains the stratum germinativum. ANS: B REF: p. 148
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
10. Which statement is not true of the dermis? a. It is a cutaneous membrane. b. It is composed mostly of connective tissue. c. It contains the stratum germinativum. d. All of the above are true of the dermis. ANS: C REF: p. 148
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
11. The stratum corneum a. is composed of dead cells. b. is the innermost layer of the epidermis. c. contains melanocytes that give the skin color. d. Both B and C describe the stratum corneum. ANS: A REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
12. The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the _____ in the stratum _____. a. keratin; germinativum b. melanin; germinativum c. keratin; corneum d. melanin; corneum ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of the skin
DIF: Application
REF: p. 149
13. A blister forms at the junction of the a. dermis and epidermis. b. stratum corneum and stratum germinativum. c. dermis and the subcutaneous tissue. d. both A and C. ANS: A REF: p. 150
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
14. Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin? a. Collagen fibers b. Nerve endings c. Melanocytes, which give the skin color d. Sweat glands ANS: C REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
15. Hair growth begins from a small bump called the a. hair follicle. b. lanugo. c. hair papilla. d. hair shaft. ANS: C REF: p. 152
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
16. The arrector pili muscle causes a. alopecia. b. goose pimples. c. lanugo. d. male pattern baldness. ANS: B REF: p. 153
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
17. The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail is called the a. nail body. b. cuticle. c. lunula. d. nail bed. ANS: D REF: p. 153
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
18. Which of the following is not an example of an eccrine gland? a. Sweat gland b. Sudoriferous gland c. Sebaceous gland d. Perspiration gland ANS: C REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
19. Which type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair? a. Sebaceous gland b. Sudoriferous gland c. Eccrine gland d. Apocrine gland ANS: A REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
20. Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ____
degree burns. a. firstb. secondc. thirdd. fourthANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 157 | p. 160
DIF: Memorization TOP: Burns
21. The rule of nines is used to determine the a. depth of burns. b. degree of burns. c. body surface area that has been burned. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
22. The general name given to mycotic skin infections is a. tinea. b. impetigo. c. warts. d. scabies. ANS: A REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
23. Which skin infection is also called furuncles? a. Tinea b. Impetigo c. Warts d. Boils
ANS: D REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
24. Which skin infection is caused by a papillomavirus? a. Tinea b. Impetigo c. Warts d. Boils ANS: C REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
25. What is another term for a pressure sore? a. Plaque b. Scleroderma c. Urticaria d. Decubitus ulcer ANS: D REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders
26. Which skin disorder results from an autoimmune disease? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Scleroderma c. Urticaria d. Eczema ANS: B REF: p. 162
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders
27. Which is the most common type of skin cancer? a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Melanoma d. Kaposi sarcoma ANS: A REF: p. 163
PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer
DIF: Memorization
28. Which is the most serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a mole? a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Melanoma d. Kaposi sarcoma ANS: C REF: p. 164
PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer
DIF: Memorization
29. Which of the following membranes do not contain epithelial tissue? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. All of the above membranes contain epithelial tissue.
ANS: C REF: p. 147
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of the body membranes
30. The parietal pleura covers the _____ of the _____ cavity. a. wall; chest b. organs; chest c. wall; abdominal d. organs; abdominal ANS: A REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Serous membranes
31. A membrane that lines a body surface that opens to the exterior of the body is most likely a
_____ membrane. a. synovial b. serous c. mucous d. serous or mucous ANS: C REF: p. 147
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mucous membranes
32. A membrane that lines a closed body cavity is most likely a _____ membrane. a. synovial b. serous c. mucous d. serous or mucous ANS: B REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Serous membranes
33. The crescent-shaped white area near the root of the nail is called the a. cuticle. b. nail bed. c. lunula. d. nail body. ANS: C REF: p. 153
PTS: 1 TOP: Nails
DIF: Memorization
34. Which of the following is not true of apocrine glands? a. They are skin glands. b. They are sweat glands. c. They are found primarily in the axilla and genital area. d. They are found distributed over most of the body surface. ANS: D REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) glands
35. Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis? a. Helps insulate the body. b. Contains receptors for deep pressure touch.
c. Can be used as an energy source. d. Helps protect the underlying tissue ANS: B REF: p. 151
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Cutaneous membrane b. Visceral pleura c. Parietal pleura d. Visceral peritoneum e. Parietal peritoneum f. Mucous membrane g. Synovial membrane h. Bursae 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Membrane that lines the spaces between bones in joints Membrane that lines the walls of the chest cavity Membrane that lines the tubes of the respiratory and digestive systems Small cushionlike sacs that are lined with synovial membrane Membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal cavity Tissue that covers the organs in the chest cavity Membrane of which the skin is made Tissue that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity
1. ANS: G REF: p. 147 2. ANS: C REF: p. 146 3. ANS: F REF: p. 147 4. ANS: H REF: p. 147 5. ANS: E REF: p. 146 6. ANS: B REF: p. 146 7. ANS: A REF: p. 146 8. ANS: D REF: p. 146
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Connective tissue membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes 1 DIF: Memorization Epithelial membranes
Match each skin disease with its corresponding symptoms or cause. a. Impetigo b. Acne c. Tinea d. Warts e. Boils
f. g. h. i. j. k. l. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Scabies Decubitus ulcer Squamous cell carcinoma Scleroderma Psoriasis Melanoma Kaposi sarcoma
An autoimmune disease that affects blood vessels and connective tissues in the skin Condition caused by a papillomavirus Virulent skin cancer that can develop from a mole Condition that usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 19 and results from a fivefold increase in production of sebum Another term for a pressure sore A common chronic skin disease that is characterized by silvery white scalelike plaques A highly contagious skin infection that occurs most often in young children The most common form of skin cancer; a slow-growing cancer of the epidermis Infections of the hair follicle that are also called furuncles A skin condition caused by itch mites Skin cancer most commonly seen in people with immune deficiencies A general term used to describe fungal infections of the skin
9. ANS: I REF: p. 162 10. ANS: D REF: p. 161 11. ANS: K REF: p. 164 12. ANS: B REF: p. 155 13. ANS: G REF: p. 161 14. ANS: J REF: p. 162 15. ANS: A REF: p. 161 16. ANS: H REF: p. 164 17. ANS: E REF: p. 161 18. ANS: F REF: p. 161 19. ANS: L REF: p. 165 20. ANS: C REF: p. 161
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Skin infections 1 DIF: Memorization Skin cancer 1 DIF: Memorization Appendages of the skin 1 DIF: Memorization Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Skin infections 1 DIF: Memorization Skin cancer 1 DIF: Memorization Skin infections 1 DIF: Memorization Skin infections 1 DIF: Memorization Skin cancer 1 DIF: Memorization Skin infections
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Hypodermis b. Hair papilla
c. Dermal papillae d. Meissner corpuscle e. Stratum corneum f. Lanugo g. Melanin h. Eccrine gland i. Stratum germinativum j. Arrector pili k. Sebaceous gland l. Lunula m. Apocrine gland n. Pacini corpuscle 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Outer layer of the epidermis made of dead cells Muscle attached to the side of the hair follicle Small bump from which hair growth begins Skin receptor that detects light touch Layer of fat below the dermis; also called subcutaneous tissue Parallel rows of peg like projections in the dermis Sweat glands that are found only in the axillae and around the genitals Crescent-shaped white area of the nail Pigment that gives the skin its color Skin gland that secretes an oil called sebum Inner layer of the epidermis that is in constant mitosis Sweat gland that is the most numerous Soft, fine hair that is found on newborn infants Skin receptor that detects pressure deep in the dermis
21. ANS: E REF: p. 149 22. ANS: J REF: p. 153 23. ANS: B REF: p. 152 24. ANS: D REF: p. 154 25. ANS: A REF: p. 149 26. ANS: C REF: p. 150 27. ANS: M REF: p. 154 28. ANS: L REF: p. 153 29. ANS: G REF: p. 149 30. ANS: K REF: p. 154 31. ANS: I
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Epidermis 1 DIF: Memorization Hair 1 DIF: Memorization Hair 1 DIF: Memorization Receptors 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of the skin 1 DIF: Memorization Dermis 1 DIF: Memorization Sweat (sudoriferous) glands 1 DIF: Memorization Nails 1 DIF: Memorization Epidermis 1 DIF: Memorization Sebaceous glands 1 DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 149 32. ANS: H REF: p. 154 33. ANS: F REF: p. 151 34. ANS: N REF: p. 154
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Epidermis 1 DIF: Memorization Sweat (sudoriferous) glands 1 DIF: Memorization Hair 1 DIF: Memorization Receptors
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe and give the location of the epithelial membranes of the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
REF: pp. 146-147
2. Describe the connective tissue membranes of the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes
REF: p. 147
3. Describe the epidermis of the skin. Explain how the epidermis contributes to the protective
function of the skin. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 149
TOP: The skin
4. Describe the dermis of the skin. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 150
5. Describe the three types of birthmarks discussed in the chapter and the likelihood of each
resolving without treatment. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 151
6. Describe the structure of hair. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: pp. 151-152
7. Describe the different types of alopecia. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: pp. 152-153
8. Describe the structure of nails. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: p. 153
9. Describe the two different types of sweat glands in terms of their location and the type of fluid
they secrete. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: p. 154
10. Describe the location and secretions of the sebaceous glands. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: pp. 154-155
11. Explain the causes of acne and give some possible treatments for the condition. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
REF: p. 155
12. Explain the role of the skin in the body’s temperature regulation. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skin
REF: pp. 155-156
13. Explain why the skin has more difficulty regulating body temperature on humid days than on
dry days. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 155-156
TOP: Functions of the skin
14. Explain the differences among first-, second-, third-, and fourth-degree burns. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 157 | p. 160
15. If a person was burned on the front and back of both legs, about what percentage of the body
surface area would be burned? ANS:
About 36%. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 161
TOP: Burns
16. List the characteristics and causes of the five skin infections discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
REF: p. 161
17. Explain why pressure sores are a problem for people who are bedridden. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 161-162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders 18. Briefly describe the disorders hives, scleroderma, psoriasis, and eczema. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders
REF: pp. 162-163
19. Describe the four types of skin cancer identified in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 163-165
TRUE/FALSE 1. Epithelial membranes contain both epithelial and connective tissues. ANS: T REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of body membranes
2. Connective tissue membranes contain both epithelial and connective tissues. ANS: F REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of body membranes
3. The skin is considered to be a cutaneous epithelial membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
4. The lungs are covered by the parietal pleura. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
5. The stomach and intestines are covered by the visceral pleura. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
6. The membranes lining the thoracic and abdominal cavities are both parietal serous
membranes. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 146
7. Both pleurisy and peritonitis are inflammations of parietal serous membranes. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
8. Serous membranes line the digestive and respiratory tracts. ANS: F REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Epithelial membranes
REF: pp. 146-147
9. Mucocutaneous junctions are the meeting place of two epithelial membranes. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Epithelial membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 147
10. The bursae contain both epithelial and connective tissues. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Connective tissue membranes
DIF: Application
REF: p. 147
11. Synovial membranes are connective tissue membranes. ANS: T REF: p. 147
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Connective tissue membranes
12. The skin is made up of two layers: the epidermis and the dermis. ANS: T REF: p. 148
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
13. The hypodermis is another term for the epidermis. ANS: F REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
14. The stratum germinativum allows injury to the skin to heal rapidly. ANS: T TOP: The skin
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 149
15. The protein keratin gives the dermis the strength and toughness to protect the tissues
underneath the skin. ANS: F REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
16. The ability of the skin to tan depends on the functioning of the melanocytes. ANS: T TOP: The skin
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 149
17. The loss of melanocytes leads to a condition called vitiligo. ANS: T REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
18. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by a loss of melanocytes. ANS: F REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
19. Albinism and vitiligo are both indicated by the absence of pigment in the skin.
ANS: T TOP: The skin
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 149-150
20. A separation of the dermis from the subcutaneous tissue results in a blister. ANS: F REF: p. 150
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
21. The dermis contains more connective tissue than the epidermis. ANS: T REF: p. 148
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
22. The dermis is thicker than the epidermis. ANS: T REF: p. 148
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
23. The arrangement of the dermal papillae can be used as a method of identification. ANS: T REF: p. 150
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
24. Port-wine stain birthmarks usually disappear by age 7 with no treatment. ANS: F REF: p. 151
PTS: 1 TOP: The skin
DIF: Memorization
25. Lanugo is the fine hair that a newborn begins to grow at about 3 months of age. ANS: F REF: p. 151
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
26. The cap-shaped cluster of cells where hair growth begins is called the hair follicle. ANS: F REF: p. 151
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
27. The part of the hair that we see is called the hair shaft. ANS: T REF: p. 152
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
28. Male pattern baldness is a type of alopecia. ANS: T REF: p. 152
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
29. The contraction of the arrector pili muscle causes the skin to recoil back if it is pulled away
from the underlying tissue. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 153
TOP: Appendages of the skin
30. The visible part of the nail is called the nail bed. ANS: F REF: p. 153
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
31. The nail root is hidden because it is covered by a fold of skin called the lunula. ANS: F REF: p. 153
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
32. The fingernails can be used to evaluate whether the blood is carrying enough oxygen. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Appendages of the skin
DIF: Application
REF: p. 153
33. Sweat glands of the body include two varieties: eccrine and apocrine glands. ANS: T REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
34. Apocrine glands greatly outnumber the eccrine glands. ANS: F REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
35. Eccrine glands contribute to the temperature-regulating function of the skin. ANS: T REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
36. Antiperspirants are used to suppress the functioning of the apocrine glands. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Appendages of the skin
DIF: Application
REF: p. 154
37. Sebaceous glands produce an oil-like substance called sebum. ANS: T REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
38. One of the causes of acne is the overproduction of oil from the apocrine glands. ANS: F REF: p. 155
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
39. The topical application of tretinoin is a treatment of acne. ANS: T REF: p. 155
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendages of the skin
40. Both keratin and melanin assist the skin in its function of protection.
ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of the skin
DIF: Application
REF: p. 155
41. The temperature-regulating function of the skin can only be accomplished by a high
concentration of blood vessels in the skin. ANS: T REF: pp. 155-156
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skin
42. The skin more effectively cools the body on drier days than on days with high humidity. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of the skin
DIF: Synthesis
REF: pp. 155-156
43. One of the most damaging effects of a major burn is its effect on fluid and electrolyte balance
of the body. ANS: T TOP: Burns
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 157
44. A typical sunburn causes a second-degree burn. ANS: F REF: p. 157
PTS: 1 TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
45. Blisters, severe pain, and swelling are characteristics of a third-degree burn. ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p. 157 | p. 160
DIF: Memorization TOP: Burns
46. The “rule of nines” divides the body into nine areas to estimate body surface area. ANS: F REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 TOP: Burns
DIF: Memorization
47. Impetigo is caused by the papillomavirus. ANS: F REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
48. Tinea is a general term for a mycotic infection. ANS: T REF: p. 161
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Skin infections
49. Lying in one position too long can cause a pressure sore called a decubitus ulcer. ANS: T REF: pp. 161-162
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders
50. Wheals are a characteristic sign of scleroderma.
ANS: F REF: p. 162
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders
51. Melanoma is a serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a mole. ANS: T REF: p. 164
PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer
DIF: Memorization
52. Many pathophysiologists believe that exposure to the sun’s UV rays is a contributing cause of
skin cancer. ANS: T REF: p. 163
PTS: 1 TOP: Skin cancer
DIF: Memorization
53. Mucous membranes are found only in the closed cavities of the body. ANS: F REF: p. 146
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Serous membranes
54. Mucous membranes line the respiratory and digestive tracts of the body. ANS: T REF: p. 147
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mucous membranes
55. One function of the hypodermis is to store energy. ANS: T REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the skin
56. The upper layer of the stratum corneum is made up of dead cells. ANS: T REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: Epidermis
DIF: Memorization
57. The hereditary condition that is characterized by a total lack of melanin is called vitiligo. ANS: F REF: p. 149
PTS: 1 TOP: Epidermis
DIF: Memorization
58. Most of the skin covering the body is thick skin; thin skin is found only on the face and on the
fingertips. ANS: F REF: p. 150
PTS: 1 TOP: Dermis
DIF: Memorization
59. Hair follicles are necessary for hair to grow. ANS: T REF: p. 151
PTS: 1 TOP: Hair
DIF: Memorization
60. The Meissner corpuscle detects pressure deep in the dermis.
ANS: F REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 TOP: Receptors
DIF: Memorization
61. Pacini corpuscles are also called tactile corpuscles. ANS: F REF: p. 154
PTS: 1 TOP: Receptors
DIF: Memorization
62. Vitamin A acid is used to treat acne. ANS: T REF: p. 155
PTS: 1 TOP: Acne
DIF: Memorization
Chapter 08: Skeletal System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Hematopoiesis refers to the skeletal system’s ability to a. store calcium for the body. b. form blood cells. c. attach to muscles for movement. d. protect the more delicate structures of the body. ANS: B REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
2. Which term refers to the shaft of a long bone? a. Epiphysis b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum ANS: C REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
3. Which is the strong fibrous membrane covering most of the long bone? a. Epiphysis b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum ANS: B REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
4. Which term refers to the ends of a long bone? a. Epiphyses b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum ANS: A REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
5. Which membrane lines the medullary cavity? a. Epiphysis b. Periosteum c. Diaphysis d. Endosteum ANS: D REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
6. Where in the long bone does hematopoiesis occur?
a. b. c. d.
Epiphysis Periosteum Diaphysis None of the above
ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 177
7. The structural unit of compact bone is called the a. lamella. b. canaliculus. c. osteon. d. trabecula. ANS: C REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
8. The needlelike threads of spongy bone are called a. lamellae. b. canaliculi. c. osteons. d. trabeculae. ANS: D REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
9. The rings of calcified matrix that make up the haversian system are called a. lamellae. b. canaliculi. c. osteon. d. trabeculae. ANS: A REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
10. Which structures allow nutrients to reach the osteocytes through the haversian system? a. Lamellae b. Canaliculi c. Osteons d. Trabeculae ANS: B REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
11. Bone-building cells are called a. osteoblasts. b. osteoclasts. c. osteocytes. d. chondrocytes. ANS: A REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
12. Which of the following are cartilage cells? a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteocytes d. Chondrocytes ANS: D REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
13. Which of these are bone-resorbing cells? a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteocytes d. Chondrocytes ANS: B REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
14. The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the a. haversian system. b. diaphysis. c. epiphyseal plate. d. chondrocytes. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Bone formation and growth
DIF: Application
REF: p. 179
15. Which bone of the skull does not contain sinuses? a. Zygomatic b. Frontal c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid ANS: A REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
16. How many bones are in the adult vertebral column? a. 12 b. 19 c. 24 d. 26 ANS: D REF: p. 187
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
17. An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called a. lordosis. b. kyphosis. c. scoliosis. d. convexities. ANS: C REF: p. 188
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
18. There are _____ pairs of true ribs. a. 12 b. 14 c. 5 d. 7 ANS: D REF: p. 189
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
19. The sutures are an example of which type of joint? a. Diarthroses b. Synarthroses c. Amphiarthroses d. None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations)
DIF: Analysis
REF: p. 196
20. Which type of joint uses cartilage to connect bones? a. Diarthroses b. Synarthroses c. Amphiarthroses d. None of the above ANS: C REF: p. 196
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
21. Diarthrotic joints a. make up the vast majority of joints in the body. b. allow the least amount of movement. c. are surrounded by a joint capsule. d. both A and C. ANS: D REF: p. 197
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
22. A synovial membrane would most likely be found in a. the suture of the skull. b. a hinge joint. c. at the symphysis pubis. d. All of the above joints would have a synovial membrane. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations)
DIF: Analysis
23. Which joints permit the widest range of movement? a. Hinge b. Pivot c. Saddle d. Ball-and-socket ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 198
REF: p. 198
TOP: Joints (articulations)
24. Which bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium
deficiencies? a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Paget disease ANS: C REF: p. 201
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease
25. What condition is caused by insufficient vitamin D in infants and children? a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Paget disease ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic bone disease
DIF: Application
REF: p. 201
26. People with what condition go through episodes of “frenzied” bone resorption and bone
growth? a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis d. Paget disease ANS: D REF: p. 202
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease
27. Another name for a compound fracture is a(n) _____ fracture. a. open b. closed c. comminuted d. impacted ANS: A REF: p. 203
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone fractures
28. Bouchard nodes are a common sign of which of the following conditions? a. Sprain b. Strain c. Osteoarthritis d. Dislocation ANS: C REF: pp. 204-205
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
29. Subluxation is another term for a. sprain. b. strain. c. avulsion fracture.
d. dislocation. ANS: D REF: p. 205
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
30. Which of the following is not a form of inflammatory arthritis? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. Gouty arthritis d. Infectious arthritis ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Joint disorders
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 205-207
31. The storage function of the skeletal system refers to the storage of the a. red marrow which forms blood cells. b. mineral sodium. c. mineral calcium. d. both B and C. ANS: C REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
32. The humerus is an example of a(n) _____ bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: A REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of bones
33. The frontal bone of the skull is an example of a(n) _____ bone. a. long b. short c. flat d. irregular ANS: C REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of bones
34. What is the name of the spongy bone found inside flat bone? a. Trabecula b. Diploë c. Cancellous d. Osteon ANS: B REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of flat bones
35. Which suture is found at the junction between the parietal bones and the frontal bone? a. Fontanel b. Lambdoidal
c. Squamous d. Coronal ANS: D REF: p. 185
PTS: 1 TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
36. The region of the vertebral column that contains the largest number of bones is the a. cervical. b. thoracic. c. lumbar. d. sacrum. ANS: B REF: p. 187
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)
37. The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the a. vertebral foramen. b. foramen magnum. c. spinous process. d. transverse process. ANS: A REF: p. 186
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)
38. Which of the following bones is not part of the upper extremity? a. Humerus b. Scapula c. Ulna d. Radius ANS: B REF: p. 190
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper extremity
39. Which of the following is not one of the bones that makes up the hip bone? a. Ilium b. Acetabulum c. Ischium d. Pubis ANS: B REF: p. 191
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower extremity
40. Which of the following is the longest bone of the body? a. Humerus b. Fibula c. Tibia d. Femur ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 191 | p. 193 MATCHING
DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower extremity
Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation. a. Hematopoiesis b. Diaphysis c. Epiphyses d. Periosteum e. Endosteum f. Osteocytes g. Osteoclasts h. Osteoblasts i. Osteon j. Trabeculae 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Main structural unit of compact bone Process of blood cell formation Tough connective tissue covering of the bone Bone-resorbing cells Ends of a long bone Bone-building cells Support structures in spongy bone Shaft of the long bone Bone cells that live in the haversian system Layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity
1. ANS: I REF: p. 177 2. ANS: A REF: p. 176 3. ANS: D REF: p. 177 4. ANS: G REF: p. 179 5. ANS: C REF: p. 177 6. ANS: H REF: p. 179 7. ANS: J REF: p. 177 8. ANS: B REF: p. 176 9. ANS: F REF: p. 177 10. ANS: E REF: p. 177
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage 1 DIF: Memorization Functions of the skeletal system 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones 1 DIF: Memorization Bone formation and growth 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones 1 DIF: Memorization Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones 1 DIF: Memorization Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of long bones
Match each bone with its corresponding description or location. a. Femur b. Radius c. Carpals d. Ischium e. Metacarpals
f. g. h. i. j. k. l. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Scapula Tarsals Patella Humerus Phalanges Tibia Metatarsals
Ankle bones Bone that joins with the clavicle to make up the shoulder girdle Thigh bone Wrist bones One of the bones that joins with two others to form the hip Bone of the upper arm Bones of the foot One of the bones of the forearm Bones of the fingers Bones of the hand Shinbone Kneecap
11. ANS: G REF: p. 182 12. ANS: F REF: p. 182 13. ANS: A REF: p. 182 14. ANS: C REF: p. 182 15. ANS: D REF: p. 182 16. ANS: I REF: p. 182 17. ANS: L REF: p. 182 18. ANS: B REF: p. 182 19. ANS: J REF: p. 182 20. ANS: E REF: p. 182 21. ANS: K REF: p. 182 22. ANS: H REF: p. 182
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton 1 DIF: Memorization Appendicular skeleton
Match each bone disorder with its corresponding description. a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteosarcoma c. Paget disease
d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
Rickets Osteoporosis Osteomyelitis Chondrosarcoma Sprain Strain Rheumatoid arthritis
An injury to a ligament around a joint A disease that has “frenzied” bone growth and resorption Cancer of the bone An infection of the bone Occurs in children as a result of a vitamin D deficiency Can be caused by overstretching a muscle The most common noninflammatory joint disease Cartilage cancer An autoimmune disease type of arthritis A bone condition usually found in postmenopausal women resulting from calcium deficiency
23. ANS: H REF: p. 205 24. ANS: C REF: p. 202 25. ANS: B REF: p. 200 26. ANS: F REF: p. 202 27. ANS: D REF: p. 201 28. ANS: I REF: p. 205 29. ANS: A REF: p. 204 30. ANS: G REF: p. 200 31. ANS: J REF: p. 205 32. ANS: E REF: p. 201
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Joint disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic bone disease 1 DIF: Memorization Tumors of bone and cartilage 1 DIF: Memorization Bone infection 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic bone disease 1 DIF: Memorization Joint disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Joint disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Tumors of bone and cartilage 0 DIF: Memorization Joint disorders 0 DIF: Memorization Metabolic bone disease
SHORT ANSWER 1. List and explain the five functions of the skeletal system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
REF: pp. 175-176
2. List and define the six structures of the long bone discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
REF: pp. 176-177
3. Describe the structure of the osteon. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
REF: p. 177
4. Describe the structure of cartilage. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
REF: p. 177
5. Explain why bone heals better than cartilage. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 177 | p. 179 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage 6. Explain the process of endochondral ossification. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
REF: p. 179
7. A teenager wants to be given growth hormone to increase his height. The doctor took an x-ray
of his wrist to determine whether treatment could be started. Explain what the doctor was looking for. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 179
TOP: Bone formation and growth
8. How is the difference in the role of reproduction reflected in the difference between the male
skeleton and female skeleton?
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 194-195 TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton 9. Explain synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints, and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
REF: pp. 196-197
10. Explain the structure of a diarthrotic joint, and give three examples of diarthrotic joints. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
REF: pp. 197-198
11. Name and explain the types of metabolic bone diseases discussed in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease
REF: pp. 201-202
12. Explain the joint disorder osteoarthritis. Include signs of the condition and risk factors for the
condition. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
REF: pp. 204-205
13. Name and describe the three types of inflammatory arthritis discussed in this chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disease
REF: pp. 205-207
TRUE/FALSE 1. A function of the skeletal system is to act as a reservoir for calcium. ANS: T
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 176
TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
2. The skeletal system provides a place for blood cell formation. ANS: T REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of the skeletal system
3. The medullary cavity is the site for blood cell formation in the adult skeleton. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones
DIF: Application
REF: p. 177
4. The periosteum is deep to the endosteum. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones
DIF: Application
REF: p. 177
5. Long bones have one diaphysis and two epiphyses. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones
DIF: Application
REF: p. 176
6. Yellow marrow is stored in the medullary cavity of an adult long bone. ANS: T REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of long bones
7. The medullary cavity is deep to the periosteum. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of long bones
DIF: Application
REF: p. 177
8. Trabeculae and osteons have similar functions in the two types of bones. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
REF: p. 177
9. The lamellae of the osteon surround the central canal. ANS: T REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
10. Osteocytes live in the canaliculi of the osteon. ANS: F REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
11. Nutrients needed by osteocytes are carried through canaliculi. ANS: T REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
12. Cartilage cells are called chondrocytes.
ANS: T REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
13. Unlike osteocytes, chondrocytes are located in lacunae. ANS: F REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage
14. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts have opposite functions in bone formation and growth. ANS: T REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
15. The repair of a broken bone increases the activity of osteoblasts. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Bone formation and growth
DIF: Application
REF: p. 179
16. If the body requires more calcium in the blood, the activity of osteoclasts will increase. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Bone formation and growth
DIF: Application
REF: p. 179
17. Growth of a bone can only continue if there is cartilage in the center of the diaphysis. ANS: F REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
18. Growth of a bone occurs at the epiphyseal plates. ANS: T REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
19. There are more than 20 bones in the skull. ANS: T REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
20. The skull contains eight sinuses. ANS: T REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
21. An infection of a sinus is called mastoiditis. ANS: F REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
22. The soft spots on a baby’s skull are called fontanels. ANS: T REF: p. 185
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
23. The lambdoidal suture is located at the junction of the temporal and occipital bones of the
skull. ANS: F REF: p. 185
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
24. In the vertebral column, the coccyx is inferior to the sacrum. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Axial skeleton
DIF: Application
REF: p. 186
25. The sacral and cervical parts of the vertebral column form convex curves. ANS: F REF: p. 187
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
26. Scoliosis results from an exaggerated lumbar curve. ANS: F REF: p. 188
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
27. Floating ribs join the costal cartilage of the seventh rib. ANS: F REF: p. 189
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
28. Floating ribs are named “floating” because they are not joined to any other bone. ANS: F REF: p. 189
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Axial skeleton
29. The scapula and clavicle form the pectoral girdle. ANS: T REF: p. 190
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendicular skeleton
30. The most important functional difference between the male and the female skeleton is the
size. ANS: F REF: pp. 194-195
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton
31. The major functional difference between the male and the female skeleton is related to its role
in reproduction. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton
REF: pp. 194-195
32. The hyoid bone forms both a diarthrotic and a synarthrotic joint. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 196 | p. 197
TOP: Joints (articulations) 33. Nonmoving joints are called diarthrotic joints. ANS: F REF: p. 196
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
34. The symphysis pubis is an example of an amphiarthrotic joint. ANS: T REF: p. 196
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
35. A skeleton composed of nothing but synarthrotic joints would have virtually no movement. ANS: T REF: p. 196
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
36. A slipped disk damages a diarthrotic joint. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Joints (articulations)
DIF: Application
REF: p. 197
37. All diarthrotic joints have joint capsules. ANS: T REF: p. 197
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
38. Ligaments are strong bands of connective tissue that connect bones to other bones. ANS: T REF: p. 198
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
39. The articular cartilage has two functions: to act as a shock absorber and to reduce friction in
the joint. ANS: T REF: p. 198
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
40. Flexion is a characteristic movement of a pivot joint. ANS: F REF: p. 198
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
41. The hip joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint. ANS: T REF: p. 198
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
42. Extension is a characteristic movement of a hinge joint. ANS: T REF: p. 198
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joints (articulations)
43. Osteosarcoma is a very aggressive cancer that usually affects men between the ages of 50 and
70. ANS: F REF: p. 200
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage
44. Chondrosarcoma is a cancer of cartilage tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 200
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage
45. An adequate amount of vitamin D in a child’s diet can prevent Paget disease. ANS: F REF: p. 202
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease
46. One of the signs of osteoporosis is “dowager’s hump.” ANS: T REF: p. 201
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic bone disease
47. Osteomyelitis is more likely to result from a closed fracture than from an open fracture. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Bone infection and bone fractures
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 202-203
48. A sprain involves ligaments, and a strain usually involves muscle tissue. ANS: T REF: p. 205
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
49. Uric acid is the usual cause of infectious arthritis. ANS: F REF: p. 207
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
50. Lyme disease or Lyme arthritis is an example of infectious arthritis. ANS: T REF: p. 207
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Joint disorders
51. The patella is an example of a flat bone. ANS: F REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of bones
52. The patella is an example of a sesamoid. ANS: T REF: p. 176
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of bones
53. The diploë are the bony portions of spongy bone that surround the open spaces.
ANS: F REF: p. 177
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of the flat bone
54. All bones begin as cartilage. ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p. 177 | p. 179
DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
55. Because of the continuous wear and stress on the bones of athletes, their bones tend to be
weaker than the bones of less active people. ANS: F REF: p. 179
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bone formation and growth
56. The skull, vertebrae, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle make up the axial skeleton. ANS: F REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Divisions of the skeleton
57. There are more bones in the facial part of the skull than in the cranium. ANS: T REF: p. 181
PTS: 1 TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
58. Mastoiditis occurs in the temporal bone. ANS: T TOP: Skull
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 181
59. There are four fontanels in the skull of a newborn. ANS: F REF: p. 185
PTS: 1 TOP: Skull
DIF: Memorization
60. The cervical region of the vertebral column contains more bones than any other region. ANS: F REF: p. 187
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)
61. The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the vertebral foramen. ANS: T REF: p. 186
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Spine (vertebral column)
62. The first seven ribs are called true ribs. ANS: T REF: p. 189
PTS: 1 TOP: Thorax
DIF: Memorization
63. The olecranon process is found in the skeleton of the upper extremity. ANS: T
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 190
TOP: Upper extremity
64. There are 28 phalanges in the human skeleton. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Upper extremity and lower extremity 65. The acetabulum is part of the hip bone. ANS: T REF: p. 193
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lower extremity
REF: p. 190
Chapter 09: Muscular System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Voluntary muscle is _____ muscle. a. striated b. cardiac c. skeletal d. both A and C ANS: D REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
2. Intercalated disks are found in _____ muscle. a. striated b. cardiac c. smooth d. all of the above ANS: B REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
3. Which type of muscle tissue contains striations? a. Voluntary muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
4. Another name for visceral muscle is _____ muscle. a. cardiac b. voluntary c. smooth d. striated ANS: C REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
5. When bending the elbow, the a. triceps brachii is the synergist. b. biceps brachii is the prime mover. c. biceps brachii is the antagonist. d. brachialis is the prime mover. ANS: B REF: p. 223
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
6. In extending the elbow, the
a. b. c. d.
triceps brachii is the prime mover. biceps brachii is the prime mover. brachialis is the prime mover triceps brachii is the antagonist.
ANS: A REF: p. 224
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
7. The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii a. are synergistic for each other. b. both have their origins on the forearm. c. are antagonistic to one other. d. both have their insertions in the shoulder. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 224 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle | Functions of skeletal muscle 8. Tonic contractions a. help maintain posture. b. cause an oxygen debt in the body. c. produce large amounts of lactic acid. d. both B and C. ANS: A REF: p. 224
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
9. During strenuous exercise a. an oxygen debt can occur. b. lactic acid can be created in the muscle. c. almost all the contractions are tonic contractions. d. both A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
10. Which of the following does not happen when a muscle contracts? a. A motor neuron stimulates a muscle cell. b. The muscle cells partially contract based on the amount of resistance. c. Neurotransmitters are used to trigger the contraction process on a skeletal muscle
fiber. d. The stimulus rises above threshold. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle stimulus
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
11. What type of muscle contraction occurs when someone lifts a book off a desk? a. Isometric b. Twitch c. Isotonic d. Both A and B ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
REF: p. 226
12. What type of muscle contraction occurs when someone tries to lift a 500-pound weight? a. Isometric b. Twitch c. Isotonic d. Both A and B ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
REF: p. 226
13. Muscle hypertrophy a. results from long periods of disuse. b. results from endurance training. c. is an increase in muscle size. d. results from an increase in blood vessels to a muscle. ANS: C REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
14. Endurance training results in a. muscle atrophy. b. an increase in blood vessels to a muscle. c. muscle hypertrophy. d. an increase in muscle fibers. ANS: B REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
15. Strength training causes a. muscle atrophy. b. an increase in blood vessels to a muscle. c. muscle hypertrophy. d. an increase in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell. ANS: C REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
16. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the marathon runner
would have a. more mitochondria in each muscle cell. b. larger muscle cells. c. more muscle cells. d. both A and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
REF: p. 228
17. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the weightlifter would
have a. more mitochondria in each muscle cell. b. larger muscle cells. c. more muscle cells.
d. both B and C. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
REF: p. 228
18. The movement that is opposite of flexion is a. abduction. b. rotation. c. extension. d. supination. ANS: C REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
19. Shaking your head “no” is what type of movement? a. Supination b. Rotation c. Abduction d. Dorsiflexion ANS: B REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
20. The autoimmune disorder of the muscular system characterized by muscle weakness,
especially in the face and throat, is called a. fibromyositis. b. myalgia. c. myasthenia gravis. d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy. ANS: C REF: p. 237
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
21. Which type of muscle is characterized by cells with tapered ends and a single nucleus? a. Cardiac b. Smooth c. Striated d. Voluntary ANS: B REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
22. Which type of muscle tissue specializes in contraction or shortening? a. Cardiac b. Smooth c. Striated d. All of the above ANS: D REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
23. A muscle’s origin is on the a. more movable bone.
b. more stationary bone. c. muscle most responsible for a specific movement. d. both A and C. ANS: B REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
24. A muscle’s insertion is on the a. more movable muscle. b. more stationary muscle. c. muscle most responsible for a specific movement. d. both B and C. ANS: A REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
25. The “heads” of which molecules form crossbridges during muscle contraction? a. Actin b. The thin filament c. Myosin d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure and function
26. Which substance is released from the endoplasmic reticulum after a nerve signal stimulates
the muscle fiber? a. Myoglobin b. Calcium ions c. ATP d. Sarcomeres ANS: B REF: p. 222
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure and function
27. Which of the following is not a primary function of the muscular system? a. Protection of internal organs b. Movement c. Maintaining posture d. Producing heat to maintain body temperature ANS: A REF: pp. 222-223
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
28. Which of the following contractions is seen in an isolated muscle fiber in the laboratory but
plays a minimal role in normal muscle activity? a. Isometric b. Twitch c. Isotonic d. Tectonic ANS: B REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
29. Moving a body part away from the midline of the body is called a. abduction. b. pronation. c. rotation. d. adduction. ANS: A REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
30. Damage to a ligament results in which type of injury? a. Strain b. Myalgia c. Cramps d. Sprain ANS: D REF: p. 235
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle injury
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Voluntary muscle b. Visceral muscle c. Intercalated disks d. Origin e. Sarcomere f. Insertion g. Actin h. Z line i. Bursae j. Myosin 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Protein that makes up the thick myofilament Another name for smooth muscle Structures that are found only in cardiac muscle Structures that separate one sarcomere from another Protein that makes up the thin myofilament Usually the nonmoving attachment point of a muscle Another term for skeletal muscle Usually the moving attachment point of a muscle A small fluid-filled sac that lies between some tendons and bones Functional unit of contraction of a skeletal muscle
1. ANS: J REF: p. 221 2. ANS: B REF: p. 220 3. ANS: C REF: p. 220
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue
4. ANS: H REF: p. 222 5. ANS: G REF: p. 221 6. ANS: D REF: p. 220 7. ANS: A REF: p. 220 8. ANS: F REF: p. 220 9. ANS: I REF: p. 220 10. ANS: E REF: p. 221
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle 1 DIF: Memorization Structure of skeletal muscle
Match each muscle with its corresponding description or location. a. Triceps brachii b. Pectoralis major c. Masseter d. Sternocleidomastoid e. Zygomaticus f. Deltoid g. Biceps brachii h. Latissimus dorsi 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
One of the muscles used to close the jaw Muscle that forms the thick rounded prominence over the shoulder and upper arm Can be referred to as the “smiling muscle” Muscle on the front of the upper arm responsible for flexion of the elbow Large fan-shaped muscle that covers the upper chest Pair of muscles that allow a person to flex the head to the chest Large muscle on the lower back Muscle on the back of the upper arm that is responsible for elbow extension
11. ANS: C REF: p. 232 12. ANS: F REF: p. 232 13. ANS: E REF: p. 232 14. ANS: G REF: p. 232 15. ANS: B REF: p. 232 16. ANS: D REF: p. 232 17. ANS: H REF: p. 232 18. ANS: A REF: p. 232
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups
Match each muscle to its corresponding location or description. a. External oblique b. Gastrocnemius c. Quadriceps d. Intercostal muscles e. Tibialis anterior f. Hamstring muscles g. Gluteus maximus h. Rectus abdominis 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.
Muscle that makes up much of the substance of the buttock Primary calf muscle Muscles that are located between the ribs Group of muscles that includes the biceps femoris One of the three layered muscles on the side of the abdominal wall Muscle group made up of the rectus femoris and the three vastus muscles Strap-shaped muscle that runs down the center of the abdomen Muscle located on the front surface of the lower leg
19. ANS: G REF: p. 234 20. ANS: B REF: p. 234 21. ANS: D REF: p. 233 22. ANS: F REF: p. 234 23. ANS: A REF: p. 233 24. ANS: C REF: p. 234 25. ANS: H REF: p. 233 26. ANS: E REF: p. 234
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle groups
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction e. Supination f. Pronation g. Rotation h. Plantar flexion i. Dorsiflexion 27. Moving a body part toward the midline of the body 28. Turning the hand so the palm is facing anteriorly 29. Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
The movement that decreases the angle between two bones Movement around a longitudinal axis Movement that points the toes Turning the hand so the palm is facing posteriorly Movement that increases the angle between two bones Movement that moves the toes toward the shin
27. ANS: D REF: p. 228 28. ANS: E REF: p. 228 29. ANS: C REF: p. 228 30. ANS: A REF: p. 228 31. ANS: G REF: p. 228 32. ANS: H REF: p. 229 33. ANS: F REF: p. 228 34. ANS: B REF: p. 228 35. ANS: I REF: p. 229
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions 1 DIF: Memorization Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the three types of muscle tissues, and explain where each is found. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
REF: p. 220
2. Explain how intercalated disks allow the heart to contract more efficiently. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 220
TOP: Muscle tissue
3. Explain the similarities between bursae and tendon sheaths. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 220
4. Explain the microscopic structure of the skeletal muscle.
TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
REF: pp. 221-222
5. Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
REF: p. 222
6. Explain the roles of the prime mover, the synergist, and the antagonist in muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
REF: p. 223
7. Explain muscle fatigue and oxygen debt, and describe how oxygen debt is “paid.” ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
REF: pp. 224-225
8. What makes up a motor unit, and what is the neuromuscular junction? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 225
9. Define isotonic and isometric contractions and give an example of each. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 226 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions 10. Explain the different effects that strength training and endurance training have on a muscle. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
REF: p. 228
11. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from strength exercise. Explain your
answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles 12. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from endurance exercise. Explain your
answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles 13. Name and explain the movements produced by skeletal muscle contraction. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
REF: pp. 228-229
14. Explain the differences among a sprain, a strain, and a cramp. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
REF: p. 235
15. Explain how a severe muscle injury can lead to kidney damage. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
REF: p. 235
16. Describe the progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
REF: p. 236
17. Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy usually affects boys. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 236
TOP: Major muscular disorders
18. Explain the progression of myasthenia gravis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
REF: p. 237
19. Explain the cause of myasthenia gravis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
REF: p. 237
TRUE/FALSE 1. Both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle have striations. ANS: F REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
2. Both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle have striations. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
3. Both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle have intercalated disks. ANS: F REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
4. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle cells have only one nucleus. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
5. Skeletal muscle is also called striated or visceral muscle. ANS: F REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle tissue
6. The muscle responsible for bending the elbow has its insertion in the forearm.
ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
7. The muscle responsible for bending the elbow has its insertion in the shoulder. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
8. Tendons attach bone to bone. ANS: F REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
9. Bursae and tendon sheaths perform the same function. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
10. Tendons attach muscle to bone at both the origin and insertion sites. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
11. The basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle is a myofilament. ANS: F REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
12. The thick myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin. ANS: F REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
13. The thin myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin. ANS: T REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
14. Another name for a muscle cell is a muscle fiber. ANS: T REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
15. The model that explains how a muscle contracts is called the sliding filament model. ANS: T REF: p. 222
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
16. Sarcomeres are separated from each other by dark bands called myofilaments. ANS: F REF: pp. 221-222
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
17. During a muscle contraction, the Z lines of that muscle fiber come closer together. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 222
18. ATP is produced by muscle contraction. ANS: F REF: p. 222
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
19. Both calcium and ATP are needed for a muscle to contract. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 222
20. The prime mover for bending the elbow is the biceps brachii. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
21. The prime mover for bending the elbow is the triceps brachii. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
22. When the elbow is straightened, the triceps brachii becomes the antagonistic muscle. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
23. A muscle can be a prime mover or an antagonist, depending on the movement of the joint. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 223
24. Muscle tone maintains posture. ANS: T REF: p. 224
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
25. Shivering helps a person with hypothermia because muscle contractions produce heat. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
DIF: Application
REF: p. 224
26. Almost all of the ATP energy used in muscle contraction is released in the form of heat. ANS: F REF: p. 224
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
27. When insufficient oxygen is supplied to a working muscle, lactic acid is used to produce ATP.
ANS: F REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
28. Lactic acid is produced when insufficient oxygen is available to meet the energy demands of
muscle cells. ANS: T REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
29. The continued heavy breathing after strenuous exercise is an attempt by the body to “repay”
the oxygen debt. ANS: T REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
30. All the motor neurons that stimulate a single muscle are referred to as a motor unit. ANS: F REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit
DIF: Memorization
31. Chemicals released at the neuromuscular junction stimulate the muscle to contract. ANS: T REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 TOP: Motor unit
DIF: Memorization
32. The least amount of stimulus required for a muscle to contract is called the threshold stimulus. ANS: T REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle stimulus
33. Muscle cells will contract slightly for a weak stimulus and much more forcefully for a
stronger stimulus. ANS: F REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle stimulus
34. When a person picks up a 5-pound weight, muscle cells contract less forcefully than when a
person picks up a 20-pound weight. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Muscle stimulus
DIF: Application
REF: p. 225
35. More motor units are needed to pick up a 20-pound weight than are needed to pick up a 5-
pound weight. ANS: T REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Muscle stimulus
36. Twitch contractions are normally used in most actions. ANS: F REF: p. 225
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
37. In an isotonic contraction, the bone of origin moves toward the bone of insertion. ANS: F REF: p. 226
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
38. In an isotonic contraction, the muscle itself actually shortens. ANS: T REF: p. 226
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
39. The muscle does not shorten in an isometric contraction, so there is no tension on the muscle. ANS: F REF: p. 226
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions
40. The result of strength training is muscle atrophy. ANS: F REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
41. The result of endurance training is muscle hypertrophy. ANS: F REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
42. The result of endurance training is an increase in the number of blood vessels in a muscle. ANS: T REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
43. A football lineman exercises to develop hypertrophy, and a marathon runner exercises to
increase blood supply to a muscle. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles
REF: p. 228
44. If a prime mover causes extension, the antagonist would cause flexion. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions and functions 45. Abduction moves a body part toward the midline of the body. ANS: F REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
46. In the anatomical position, the hands are supinated. ANS: T REF: p. 228
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
47. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion refer to movements of the ankle that change the position of
the foot. ANS: T REF: p. 229
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions
48. A strain is usually a muscle injury, and a sprain is usually a ligament injury. ANS: T REF: p. 235
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
49. A severe muscle injury can have a negative effect on kidney function. ANS: T REF: p. 235
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
50. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle disorder caused by a viral infection. ANS: F REF: p. 236
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
51. A full family history would be most helpful in determining the risk for myasthenia gravis. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Major muscular disorders
DIF: Application
REF: p. 237
52. Girls are more likely to have Duchenne muscular dystrophy than are boys. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Major muscular disorders
DIF: Application
REF: p. 236
53. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by the body’s inability to make the protein
dystrophin. ANS: T REF: p. 236
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
54. Myasthenia gravis is a condition that is carried on the X chromosome. ANS: F REF: p. 237
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
55. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease. ANS: T REF: p. 237
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Major muscular disorders
56. Bursae and tendon sheaths are lined with synovial membrane. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle
57. The “heads” that form crossbridges during muscle contraction are part of the actin molecule. ANS: F REF: p. 221
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure and function
58. When a muscle contracts, its insertion bone moves toward its origin bone. ANS: T REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
59. Both antagonist muscles and synergist muscles act to oppose the movement of the prime
mover. ANS: F REF: p. 220
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle
Chapter 10: Nervous System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The eye is considered part of the _____ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. sympathetic ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system
REF: p. 270
2. The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the _____ nervous system. a. central b. sympathetic c. peripheral d. parasympathetic ANS: C REF: p. 249
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system
3. Axons a. are usually highly branched. b. carry nerve impulses toward the cell body. c. carry nerve impulses away from the cell body. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
4. Dendrites a. are usually highly branched. b. carry impulses away from the cell body. c. are usually surrounded by myelin. d. all of the above. ANS: A REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
5. Sensory neurons are also called a. interneurons. b. efferent neurons. c. afferent neurons. d. glia cells. ANS: C REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
6. Motor neurons are also called
a. b. c. d.
interneurons. efferent neurons. afferent neurons. glia cells.
ANS: B REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
7. Another name for connecting neurons is a. interneurons. b. efferent neurons. c. motor neurons. d. afferent neurons. ANS: A REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
8. Which type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain? a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Astrocytes d. Neurolemma ANS: B REF: p. 252
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
9. Which type of glia cell turns into a microbe-eating cell in inflamed brain tissue? a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocyte c. Astroglia d. Neurolemma ANS: A REF: p. 251
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
10. Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis? a. It is considered a myelin disorder. b. Oligodendrocyte injury or death occurs. c. The disease is most common in women between the ages of 20 and 40. d. It is usually the result of a neuroma. ANS: D REF: p. 252
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue
11. Which of the following statements is not true of nervous system tumors? a. Most tumors develop from neurons. b. Neuroma is a general name for a nervous system tumor. c. Multiple neurofibromatosis is an example of a nervous system tumor. d. Most tumors in the nervous system result from the metastasis of other types of
tumors. ANS: A REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous system
12. The outermost covering of a nerve is called the a. epineurium. b. endoneurium. c. perineurium. d. fascicles. ANS: A REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
13. The most basic reflex arc is a. a one-neuron pathway. b. a two-neuron pathway. c. a three-neuron pathway. d. an interneuron. ANS: B REF: pp. 253-254
PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs
DIF: Memorization
14. During a nerve impulse a. the interior of the neuron becomes more negative. b. sodium ions are pumped out of the neuron. c. sodium ions are allowed into the neuron. d. the entire neuron becomes positively charged. ANS: C REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses
15. Saltatory conduction a. is called “saltatory” because it is caused by sodium chloride. b. is much slower than nonsaltatory conduction. c. occurs only in the dendrites. d. occurs only in the axons. ANS: D REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses
16. Which of the following structures is not part of a synapse? a. Synaptic knob b. Synaptic cleft c. Neurotransmitter d. Plasma membrane of the postsynaptic cell ANS: C REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
17. Which of the following neurotransmitters is not considered a catecholamine? a. Norepinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 257-258
TOP: The synapse
18. The vital centers are located in the a. medulla oblongata. b. pons. c. spinal cord. d. midbrain. ANS: A REF: p. 260
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
19. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? a. Produces antidiuretic hormone. b. Helps regulate body temperature. c. Plays a part in the “arousal or alerting mechanism.” d. Helps regulate water balance. ANS: C REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
20. Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus? a. Controls appetite. b. Relays impulses to the cerebral cortex from sense organs. c. Associates sensations with emotions. d. Plays a part in the “arousal or alerting mechanism.” ANS: A REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
21. Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum? a. It is the second largest part of the brain. b. It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum. c. It is responsible for muscle coordination. d. It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles. ANS: D REF: pp. 260-261
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
22. Which of the following statements is not true of the spinal cord? a. It is the primary reflex center. b. It contains both gray and white matter. c. It extends from the occipital bone to the third sacral vertebra. d. It transmits impulses to and from the brain. ANS: C REF: pp. 266-267
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
23. The outermost layer of the meninges is the a. pia mater. b. choroid plexus. c. arachnoid mater. d. dura mater.
ANS: D REF: p. 268
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
24. Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the a. skull and the dura mater. b. dura mater and the arachnoid mater. c. arachnoid mater and the pia mater. d. pia mater and the brain. ANS: C REF: p. 269
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
25. Another name for tic douloureux is a. sciatica. b. shingles. c. Bell palsy. d. trigeminal neuralgia. ANS: D REF: p. 273
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nerve disorders
26. A person who has never had chicken pox is less likely to develop a. sciatica. b. shingles. c. Bell palsy. d. trigeminal neuralgia. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nerve disorders
DIF: Application
REF: p. 273
27. The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to a. cardiac muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. smooth muscle. d. all of the above. ANS: B REF: p. 275
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system
28. Somatic motor neurons a. use a single-neuron pathway to connect the spinal cord to the effector organ. b. produce epinephrine as their neurotransmitter. c. synapse at the collateral ganglia. d. both A and B. ANS: A REF: p. 254
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system
29. Which of the following neurons is classified as a cholinergic fiber? a. Parasympathetic preganglionic axon b. Sympathetic preganglionic axon c. Sympathetic postganglionic axon d. Both A and B
ANS: D REF: pp. 277-278
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
30. Which of the following neurons is classified as an adrenergic fiber? a. Parasympathetic preganglionic axon b. Sympathetic preganglionic axon c. Sympathetic postganglionic axon d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 278
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters
31. The outer membrane of a Schwann cell is called the a. neurilemmal. b. myelin. c. node of Ranvier. d. glia. ANS: A REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
32. The indentations between Schwann cells are called a. neurilemmas. b. myelin. c. nodes of Ranvier. d. glias. ANS: C REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
33. A nerve is a. also called a tract. b. a group of peripheral axons. c. considered gray matter. d. both A and C. ANS: B REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
34. The perineurium is a. a tough, fibrous sheath covering the whole nerve. b. another name for a fascicle. c. a thin wrapping of fibrous tissue around each axon. d. a thin fibrous tissue surrounding a group of axons. ANS: D REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
35. A reflex arc may not have which of the following? a. A sensory neuron b. An interneuron c. A motor neuron
d. All reflex arcs must have all of the above. ANS: B REF: p. 254
PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs
DIF: Memorization
36. Which of the following is an example of a morphine like neurotransmitter? a. Enkephalin b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Serotonin ANS: A REF: p. 258
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurotransmitters
37. Parkinson disease is a nervous disorder resulting from a deficiency of which neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Enkephalin c. Serotonin d. Dopamine ANS: D REF: p. 259
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Neurotransmitters
38. Which of the following is not considered part of the brainstem? a. Medulla oblongata b. Cerebellum c. Pons d. Midbrain ANS: B REF: p. 260
PTS: 1 TOP: Brainstem
DIF: Memorization
39. Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system? a. Cranial nerves b. Spinal nerves c. The autonomic nervous system d. All of the above are part of the peripheral nervous system. ANS: D REF: p. 270
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
MATCHING
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description. a. Microglia b. Axon c. Dendrites d. Oligodendrocyte e. Afferent neuron f. Astrocytes g. Efferent neuron h. Interneurons
i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Nodes of Ranvier Schwann cells
Another term for a sensory neuron Cells that produce myelin for axons outside the central nervous system Numerous branching projections of the neuron Cells that can become “microbe-eating” cells in the brain Neurons that can also be called “connecting” neurons Another term for motor neuron Star-shaped cells that hold neurons and blood vessels close to each other in the brain Usually a single elongated projection of a neuron Indentations between adjacent Schwann cells Cells that produce myelin for the neurons in the central nervous system
1. ANS: E REF: p. 250 2. ANS: J REF: p. 250 3. ANS: C REF: p. 250 4. ANS: A REF: p. 251 5. ANS: H REF: p. 250 6. ANS: G REF: p. 250 7. ANS: F REF: pp. 250-251 8. ANS: B REF: p. 250 9. ANS: I REF: p. 250 10. ANS: D REF: p. 252
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system 1 DIF: Memorization Cells of the nervous system
Match each part of the central nervous system with its corresponding description or function. a. Midbrain b. Spinal cord c. Medulla oblongata d. Thalamus e. Hypothalamus f. Cerebellum g. Sulcus h. Corpus callosum i. Cerebrum j. Gyrus k. Basal ganglia 11. Connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum 12. The most superior part of the brainstem
13. The main reflex center of the central nervous system 14. Structure that is part of the central nervous system but also produces hormones for the 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
endocrine system Lies just below the occipital lobe of the cerebrum and is responsible for muscle coordination A shallow groove in the outer surface of the cerebrum Islands of gray matter in the white matter of the cerebrum Brain structure that associates sensations with emotions A ridge on the surface of the cerebrum Part of the brainstem that contains the “vital centers” The largest and uppermost part of the brain
11. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 268 TOP: Central nervous system 14. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 261 TOP: Central nervous system 15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system 16. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system 17. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system 18. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system 19. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system 21. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the functions of efferent neurons, afferent neurons, and interneurons. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
REF: p. 250
2. Name and explain the function of the three types of glial cells in the central nervous system.
Name and explain the function of the glial cell found only in the peripheral nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
REF: pp. 250-252
3. Explain the role of oligodendrocytes in multiple sclerosis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the nervous system
REF: p. 252
4. Explain how benign gliomas can still be life-threatening. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the nervous system
REF: p. 253
5. Explain the structure of a nerve. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 253
6. Explain the structure and functioning of a reflex arc. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 253-254
7. What is the efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex? ANS:
The efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex is the quadriceps muscle of the thigh which extends the knee. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 254
TOP: Reflex arcs
8. Explain a nerve impulse. What is saltatory conduction? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses
REF: p. 255 | p. 256
9. Explain a synapse between two neurons. Describe the methods by which neurotransmitters are
inactivated. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 256-258
10. A class of antidepressant drugs called SSRIs works by preventing the removal of the
neurotransmitter serotonin from the synapse. Explain how that would affect the postsynaptic neuron. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 258
TOP: The synapse
11. Describe and give the function of the brainstem. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: p. 260
12. Describe the structure, location, and functions of the hypothalamus. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: pp. 261-262
13. Describe the structure, location, and functions of the thalamus. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: p. 262
14. Describe the structure, location, and function of the cerebellum. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system 15. Explain the structure and function of the cerebrum.
REF: pp. 260-261
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: pp. 262-264
16. Describe cerebral palsy, and list its possible causes. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: pp. 264-265
17. Explain the structure and function of the spinal cord. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: pp. 266-268
18. Name and describe the three layers of the meninges. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
REF: p. 268
19. Describe the structure and function of spinal nerves. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
REF: pp. 270-273
20. Explain the symptoms and causes of trigeminal neuralgia and Bell palsy. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
REF: p. 273
21. Explain the structure and function of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 276-277
TOP: Autonomic nervous system 22. Explain the structure and function of the parasympathetic nervous system. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: p. 277
23. Why is it necessary for both the parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous
system to function properly to maintain normal body function? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 276-277
TOP: Autonomic nervous system
24. Explain the effect that stress has on the function of the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Autonomic nervous system
REF: pp. 278-279
TRUE/FALSE 1. The endocrine system and the nervous system both help regulate body function. ANS: T REF: p. 249
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
2. The autonomic nervous system is considered a subdivision of the central nervous system. ANS: F REF: p. 249
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system
3. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes share a common function. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
4. The axon of a sensory neuron usually transmits an impulse to an interneuron. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
5. The axon of a motor neuron usually transmits an impulse to a muscle. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
6. The dendrite of a sensory neuron receives impulses from an interneuron. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
7. The dendrite of a motor neuron receives impulses from an interneuron. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
8. Nodes of Ranvier are found only on dendrites. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cells of the nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
9. Myelin surrounds the dendrites of both afferent and efferent neurons. ANS: F REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
10. The “star cells” produce myelin for axons of the central nervous system. ANS: F REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
11. Inflammation of brain tissue increases the activity of microglia. ANS: T REF: p. 251
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cells of the nervous system
12. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that results from improper functioning of oligodendrocytes. ANS: T REF: p. 252
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue
13. Because gliomas are usually benign tumors, they are never life threatening. ANS: F REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of nervous system
14. The cause of multiple neurofibromatosis is an autoimmune response or a viral infection. ANS: F REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the nervous system
15. Nerves are mostly composed of dendrites. ANS: F REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
16. Gray matter is gray because it does not have myelin.
ANS: T REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
17. Each axon in a nerve is surrounded by a thin sheet of fibrous connective tissue called the
perineurium. ANS: F REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Nerves
DIF: Memorization
18. The endoneurium is deep to the perineurium, which is deep to the epineurium. ANS: T TOP: Nerves
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 253
19. The difference between a two- and a three-neuron reflex is that a three-neuron reflex contains
an interneuron. ANS: T REF: p. 254
PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs
DIF: Memorization
20. The knee-jerk reflex goes from receptor neuron to interneuron to effector neuron. ANS: F TOP: Reflex arcs
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 254
21. The effector organ of the knee-jerk reflex is the muscle that extends the knee. ANS: T TOP: Reflex arcs
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 254
22. All interneurons are entirely within the gray matter. ANS: T REF: p. 254
PTS: 1 TOP: Reflex arcs
DIF: Memorization
23. The resting neuron has a more positive charge inside than outside. ANS: F REF: p. 255
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses
24. The interior of a neuron that is carrying a nerve impulse has more sodium ions in it than the
interior of a neuron that is not carrying a nerve impulse. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve impulses
DIF: Application
REF: p. 256
25. Only myelinated axons undergo saltatory conduction. ANS: T REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nerve impulses
26. The synaptic knob is the small space separating the pre- and postsynaptic neurons.
ANS: F REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
27. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that attach to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. ANS: T REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
28. The function of most neurotransmitters is to cause the interior of the neuron to become more
positively charged. ANS: T TOP: The synapse
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 256
29. A neurotransmitter is inactivated when it is either broken down by enzymes or reabsorbed by
the presynaptic neuron. ANS: T REF: p. 256
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
30. Serotonin and dopamine are morphine like neurotransmitters that lessen the sensation of pain. ANS: F REF: pp. 257-258
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
31. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine both belong to a group of compounds called
catecholamines. ANS: F REF: pp. 257-258
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
32. Viagra can be considered a man-made nitric oxide. ANS: T REF: p. 258
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
33. Parkinson disease can be considered a neurotransmitter-deficiency disease. ANS: T TOP: The synapse
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 259
34. Parkinson disease is treated by trying to get more dopamine into the brain. ANS: T REF: p. 259
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
35. Injections of dopamine and levodopa are equally effective in treating Parkinson disease
because they are both able to enter the brain. ANS: F REF: p. 259
PTS: 1 TOP: The synapse
DIF: Memorization
36. The medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain make up the brainstem. ANS: T REF: p. 260
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
37. The vital centers of the brainstem are located in the midbrain. ANS: F REF: p. 260
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
38. Because of its function, the hypothalamus could also be considered part of the endocrine
system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Central nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 262
39. Ridges on the surface of the cerebrum are called sulci. ANS: F REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
40. Fissures are deep sulci. ANS: T REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
41. The basal ganglia in the brain is an island of white matter found in the gray matter in the
brain. ANS: F REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
42. The right half of the brain “talks” to the left half of the brain through the corpus callosum. ANS: T REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Central nervous system
43. A stroke to the temporal lobe would lead to the loss of sight. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Central nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 264
44. Both stroke and cerebral palsy could be caused by a lack of oxygen to the neurons of the
brain. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Brain disorders
DIF: Application
45. Alzheimer disease is a type of dementia. ANS: T
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 264 | p. 265
REF: p. 265
TOP: Brain disorders
46. Both Alzheimer disease and Huntington disease have no known cause. ANS: F REF: pp. 265-266
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Brain disorders
47. A family history of the disease is a more important risk factor for Alzheimer disease than it is
for Huntington disease. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Brain disorders
DIF: Application
REF: p. 266
48. Epilepsy is considered a seizure disorder. ANS: T REF: p. 266
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Brain disorders
49. Epilepsy is usually an inherited disorder. ANS: F REF: p. 266
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Brain disorders
50. The spinal cord consists of both white and gray matter. ANS: T REF: p. 267
PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord
DIF: Memorization
51. The spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the level of the third sacral vertebra. ANS: F REF: pp. 267-268
PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord
DIF: Memorization
52. The dura mater is deep to both the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord
REF: p. 268
53. The pia mater, the arachnoid mater, and the dura mater are part of the meninges. ANS: T REF: p. 268
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord
54. The ventricles of the brain produce cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: F REF: p. 269
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord
55. Blood vessels produce and reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid. ANS: T REF: p. 269
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord
56. Even though the cranial nerves attach to the brain, they are considered part of the peripheral
nervous system. ANS: T REF: p. 270
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
57. Most of the cranial nerves attach to the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain. ANS: F REF: p. 270
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
58. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebrae, there are eight cervical spinal nerves. ANS: T REF: p. 270
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
59. Sometimes nerve fibers from several spinal nerves are reorganized to form a single peripheral
nerve. This reorganization occurs in a structure called a spinal tract. ANS: F REF: pp. 272-273
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
60. Skin surfaces that are supplied by a single spinal nerve are called dermatomes. ANS: T REF: p. 273
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
61. The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches: the sympathetic nervous system and
the parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: T REF: p. 275
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
62. The only adrenergic fibers in the autonomic nervous system are the postganglionic fibers of
the parasympathetic nervous system. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 277
63. Most of the neurons in the autonomic nervous system produce acetylcholine. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 278
64. The stress disorders that are linked to the autonomic nervous system are usually caused by the
activity of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Peripheral nervous system
DIF: Application
REF: p. 279
65. Neuroblastoma is an inherited disorder of the sympathetic nervous system.
ANS: F REF: p. 279
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Peripheral nervous system
66. The highly branched projections of the neuron are called axons. ANS: F REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
67. Axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body. ANS: T REF: p. 250
PTS: 1 TOP: Neurons
DIF: Memorization
68. Only cells with myelin have nodes of Ranvier. ANS: T TOP: Neurons
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 250
69. Multiple neurofibromatosis is a malignant tumor of the nervous system. ANS: F REF: p. 253
PTS: 1 TOP: Tumors
DIF: Memorization
70. The process of axon repolarization returns the negative charge to the interior of the axon. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve impulses
DIF: Application
REF: p. 256
71. Functions of the hypothalamus include assisting in maintaining proper body temperature and
playing an important role in the arousal or alerting mechanism of the brain. ANS: F REF: pp. 261-262
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypothalamus
72. One function of the thalamus is associating sensations with emotions. ANS: T REF: p. 262
PTS: 1 TOP: Thalamus
DIF: Memorization
73. The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. ANS: T REF: p. 260
PTS: 1 TOP: Cerebellum
DIF: Memorization
74. Spinal tracts are composed of gray matter. ANS: F REF: p. 267
PTS: 1 TOP: Spinal cord
DIF: Memorization
75. The sympathetic nervous system is also called the cerebrosacral system. ANS: F REF: p. 276
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic nervous system
76. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the “fight-or-flight” response. ANS: T REF: p. 277
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sympathetic nervous system
77. Responses to the parasympathetic nervous system are much more localized than the responses
to the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T REF: p. 277
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Parasympathetic nervous system
Chapter 11: Senses Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The eye can be considered a a. general sense. b. special sense. c. chemoreceptor. d. both B and C. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 292
DIF: Application
REF: p. 292
DIF: Application
REF: p. 291
2. The sense of smell can be considered a a. general sense. b. special sense. c. chemoreceptor. d. both B and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs 3. The sense of touch can be considered a a. general sense. b. special sense. c. chemoreceptor. d. both B and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs
4. The part of the body that is least able to distinguish a one-point stimulus from a two-point
stimulus is the a. fingertip. b. palm of the hand. c. back. d. All areas of the body do equally well. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs
DIF: Application
5. Muscle spindles can be considered a a. special sense. b. chemoreceptor. c. thermoreceptor. d. proprioceptor. ANS: D REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
REF: p. 293
6. Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that form the eyeball wall? a. Conjunctiva b. Sclera c. Choroid d. Retina ANS: A REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
7. Which of the following is an involuntary muscle that makes up the front part of the vascular
layer? a. The iris b. The pupil c. The ciliary muscle d. Both A and C ANS: D REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
8. Which of the following is not associated with the retina? a. Rods b. Lens c. Cones d. Macula ANS: B REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
9. Light passes through all of the following structures to get to the retina except the a. pupil. b. lens. c. palpebral fissure. d. cornea. ANS: C REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
10. If the eyeball is elongated, it causes which of the following conditions? a. Myopia b. Hyperopia c. Nearsightedness d. Both A and C ANS: D REF: p. 299
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
11. If the eyeball is too short from front to back, it causes which of the following conditions? a. Myopia b. Hyperopia c. Nearsightedness d. Both A and C ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 299
TOP: The eye
12. Which of the following is not a refraction disorder? a. Glaucoma b. Myopia c. Hyperopia d. Astigmatism ANS: A REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
13. The leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly is a. cataract. b. glaucoma. c. macular degeneration. d. retinal detachment. ANS: C REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
14. The external ear ends at the a. auricle. b. tympanic membrane. c. external auditory canal. d. tragus. ANS: B REF: p. 303
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
15. Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear? a. Cochlea b. Stapes c. Incus d. Malleus ANS: A REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
16. Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing? a. Bony labyrinth b. Semicircular canal c. Vestibule d. Organ of Corti ANS: D REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
17. Which of the following is not a hearing loss caused by nerve impairment or damage? a. Ménière disease b. Presbycusis c. Otitis media d. All of the above are caused by nerve impairment or damage.
ANS: C REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
18. Which of the following is a progressive hearing loss usually associated with aging? a. Tinnitus b. Presbycusis c. Otitis d. Otosclerosis ANS: B REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
19. Which of the following is untrue about the sense of taste? a. It involves chemoreceptors. b. It is generated by cells in the taste buds called gustatory cells. c. There are four primary tastes. d. All of the above are true about the sense of taste. ANS: D REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors
20. Which of the following is untrue about the sense of smell? a. It involves chemoreceptors. b. The olfactory receptors are very sensitive. c. The olfactory receptors maintain their sensitivity for a long period of time. d. All of the above are true about the sense of smell. ANS: C REF: pp. 308-309
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The smell receptors
21. Which of the following is not a classification of sense organs? a. Sound receptor (audioreceptor) b. Chemical receptor (chemoreceptor) c. Light receptor (photoreceptor) d. All of the above are classifications of sense organs. ANS: A REF: p. 292
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of sense organs
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a general sense organ? a. Receptors are scattered all over the body. b. Receptors are most concentrated in the skin. c. Receptors include proprioceptors. d. All of the above are characteristics of a general sense organ. ANS: D REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
23. Which of the following is the “white” of the eye? a. Cornea b. Sclera c. Conjunctiva d. Pupil
ANS: B REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
24. Which of the following is sometimes called the “window” of the eye? a. Cornea b. Sclera c. Conjunctiva d. Pupil ANS: A REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
25. Which is not a type of cone found in the retina? a. Red b. Blue c. Yellow d. Green ANS: C REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
26. Which disorder of the eye is caused by an abnormal accumulation of aqueous humor in the
eye? a. Macular degeneration b. Glaucoma c. Cataracts d. Nyctalopia ANS: B REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the retina
27. Which condition is also called “night blindness”? a. Macular degeneration b. Glaucoma c. Cataracts d. Nyctalopia ANS: D REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the retina
28. Which structure is important to your sense of balance and equilibrium? a. Cochlea b. Organ of Corti c. Crista ampullaris d. Tragus ANS: C REF: p. 306
PTS: 1 TOP: Inner ear
DIF: Memorization
MATCHING
Match each structure of the eye with its corresponding description or function.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Rod Sclera Lens Pupil Cone Choroid Iris Fovea Cornea Optic disk
Contains the highest concentration of cones The “white” of the eye The clear part of the sclera, sometimes called the “window of the eye” Receptor that responds in dim light and is used for night vision A hole in the eye that lets in light The blind spot, where the optic nerve leaves the eye Receptor that responds in bright light and is able to distinguish colors The colored part of the eye; able to constrict or dilate the pupil The middle layer of the eyeball that contains dark pigment Structure directly behind the pupil; used to focus light
1. ANS: H REF: p. 296 2. ANS: B REF: p. 295 3. ANS: I REF: p. 295 4. ANS: A REF: p. 296 5. ANS: D REF: p. 295 6. ANS: J REF: p. 297 7. ANS: E REF: p. 296 8. ANS: G REF: p. 295 9. ANS: F REF: p. 295 10. ANS: C REF: p. 295
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye 1 The eye
DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization
Match each structure of the ear to its corresponding function or description. a. Organ of Corti b. Tympanic membrane c. Eustachian tube d. Stapes e. Semicircular canal f. Cochlea
g. h. i. j. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Malleus Auricle Perilymph Endolymph
Part of the inner ear that is responsible for the sense of balance Appendage on the side of the head; also called the pinna Connects the middle ear and the throat and helps regulate pressure on the eardrum Ossicle that comes into contact with the oval window The thick fluid that fills the membranous labyrinth Structure that separates the outer ear from the middle ear; also called the “eardrum” Snail-shaped structure that contains the organ of Corti Watery fluid that fills the bony labyrinth Ossicle that attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane The organ of hearing
11. ANS: E REF: p. 306 12. ANS: H REF: p. 302 13. ANS: C REF: p. 304 14. ANS: D REF: p. 304 15. ANS: J REF: p. 304 16. ANS: B REF: p. 303 17. ANS: F REF: p. 304 18. ANS: I REF: p. 304 19. ANS: G REF: p. 304 20. ANS: A REF: p. 304
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear 1 The ear
DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization DIF: Memorization
Match each of the following disorders of the eye or ear with its corresponding definition or description. a. Glaucoma b. Tinnitus c. Cataracts d. Nyctalopia e. Otosclerosis f. Presbyopia g. Astigmatism h. Otitis i. Myopia j. Macular degeneration k. Ménière disease
l. Hyperopia m. Conjunctivitis 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
Also called “night blindness” The leading cause of blindness in the elderly Caused by irregularities in the cornea or lens of the eye A structural irregularity of the stapes that impairs conduction Caused by excessive intraocular pressure A chronic ear disease of unknown cause that is characterized by nerve deafness and vertigo Refers to an ear infection Another term for “pinkeye” Another term for “farsightedness” Refers to ringing in the ear “Old sightedness” “Nearsightedness” Caused by cloudy spots in the lens of the eye
21. ANS: D REF: p. 301 22. ANS: J REF: p. 302 23. ANS: G REF: p. 299 24. ANS: E REF: p. 307 25. ANS: A REF: p. 297 26. ANS: K REF: p. 307 27. ANS: H REF: p. 307 28. ANS: M REF: p. 300 29. ANS: L REF: p. 299 30. ANS: B REF: p. 307 31. ANS: F REF: p. 299 32. ANS: I REF: p. 299 33. ANS: C REF: p. 300
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the retina 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the retina 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Hearing disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the retina 1 DIF: Memorization Hearing disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Hearing disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Hearing disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Refraction disorders
SHORT ANSWER 1. Distinguish between a general sense organ and a special sense organ. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: pp. 291-292
2. Give an example of a photoreceptor, a chemoreceptor, a pain receptor, and a mechanoreceptor. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Classification of sense organs
REF: pp. 292-293
3. What parts of the body are most and least sensitive to two-point discrimination? Explain your
answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
TOP: General sense organs
4. Give the location and function of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
REF: pp. 293-294
5. Explain what would happen to the iris and the pupil and list the types of receptors stimulated
if you went from a sunny day into a darkened theater. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 295
TOP: The eye
6. Explain why looking directly at something in a very dark room makes what you are looking at
more difficult to see. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 296
TOP: The eye
7. Describe the visual pathway. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 297
8. Explain myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism and what means are used to correct these vision
disorders. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 299
9. Why are newborns given antibiotic eye drops? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 300
TOP: The eye
10. Explain the two types of strabismus. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 301
11. What are possible treatments for a detached retina? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 301
12. What is glaucoma, and what are some of its signs and symptoms? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 301
13. What is macular degeneration, and what are some risk factors for this condition? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 302
14. Explain why males are more likely to be color blind than females. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 302
TOP: The eye
15. Describe the structure of the external ear. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 302-304
16. Explain how sound is transmitted through the middle ear. Why is the ear called a
mechanoreceptor? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 304
TOP: The ear
17. Describe the inner ear. Which parts of the inner ear are involved in the sense of balance, and
which parts are involved in the sense of hearing? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 304
18. Explain why an infection that clogs the eustachian tube makes flying in an airplane more
uncomfortable. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 304
TOP: The ear
19. Explain the function of the sense of smell. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The smell receptors
REF: pp. 308-309
20. Explain why when you first enter a newly painted room, the smell of paint seems very strong,
but the longer you are there the less you smell the paint. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 309
TOP: The smell receptors
21. Consider the pathway for the sense of smell, and explain why the smell of a traditional
Thanksgiving dinner can generate such strong emotional memories. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 309
TOP: The smell receptors
TRUE/FALSE 1. A general sense organ can respond to many different stimuli; a special sense organ can
respond to only one. ANS: F REF: pp. 291-292
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification of sense organs
2. There are more chemoreceptor special senses than photoreceptor special senses. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
3. One of the main functions of a sense receptor is to convert some physical stimulus into a
nerve impulse. ANS: T REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Converting a stimulus into a sensation
4. The skin has the highest concentration of special senses. ANS: F REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
5. If a two-point discrimination test uses two needles 5 mm apart, a person could probably feel
them on the fingertips and the palms of the hands but not on the back. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
6. Proprioceptors respond to stimuli from inside the body rather than from outside the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 293
7. You are able to touch your nose because of the proprioceptors in your body. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: General sense organs
DIF: Synthesis
8. The “white” of the eye is the sclera. ANS: T REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 293
9. If a person has brown eyes, it is because the cornea is brown. ANS: F REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
10. In diabetic retinopathy, small hemorrhages in retinal blood vessels disrupt the oxygen supply
to the photoreceptors. ANS: T REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
11. The lacrimal gland produces the aqueous fluid for the eye. ANS: F REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
12. The mucous membrane that covers the inside of the eyelid and also covers the front of the
sclera is called the conjunctiva. ANS: T REF: p. 295
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
13. The pupil is not really a structure but is the lack of a structure. ANS: T TOP: The eye
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 295
14. The circular fibers of the iris would be more likely to contract in dim light. ANS: F TOP: The eye
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 295
15. As outside light progresses from day to night, our vision switches from rod vision to cone
vision. ANS: F TOP: The eye
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 296
16. Cones have their highest concentration in the fovea of the retina. ANS: T REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
17. Rods have their highest concentration in the optic disk. ANS: F REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
18. The vitreous body is found in the posterior chamber of the eye. ANS: T
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 296-297
TOP: The eye
19. Aqueous humor is found in the anterior chamber of the eye and is constantly replenished by
the lacrimal gland. ANS: F REF: pp. 296-297
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
20. The first refractory structure light passes through as it enters the eye is the lens. ANS: F REF: p. 297
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
21. The photoreceptors of the eye are the rods and cones. ANS: T REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
22. The last part of the visual pathway exists in the brain, not in the eye. ANS: T REF: p. 297
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
23. Another name for nearsightedness is hyperopia. ANS: F REF: p. 299
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
24. An elongated eye can cause myopia. ANS: T REF: p. 299
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
25. An irregularity in the cornea or lens is called presbyopia. ANS: F REF: p. 299
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
26. Astigmatism, myopia, hyperopia, and presbyopia can all be corrected by glasses. ANS: T TOP: The eye
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 299
27. People with cataracts have corneas that are so cloudy that they have trouble with their night
vision. ANS: F REF: p. 300
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
28. “Pinkeye” is an infection of the sclera. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 300
TOP: The eye
29. Newborns are given antibiotic eye drops because there can be infection-causing organisms in
the birth canal. ANS: T REF: p. 300
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
30. People with vision in only one eye would have difficulty driving because of the loss of depth
perception. ANS: T REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
31. Increasing the internal pressure of the eye is a treatment for retinal detachment. ANS: T REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
32. Glaucoma is a condition caused by increased internal pressure of the eye. ANS: T REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
33. One of the late symptoms of glaucoma is the loss of vision in the center of the visual field,
which then progresses out toward the edge of the visual field. ANS: F REF: p. 301
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
34. Excess fluid build-up in glaucoma can damage the optic nerve. ANS: T TOP: The eye
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 301
35. Glaucoma is the leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly. ANS: F REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
36. Because color blindness is an inherited trait carried on the X chromosome, it is more common
in women because they have two X chromosomes. ANS: F REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
37. Brain injuries that damage the temporal lobe can result in what is called acquired cortical
blindness. ANS: F REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
38. The ear can be considered a special sense that is a mechanoreceptor. ANS: T REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
39. The external ear consists of three parts: the auricle, the external auditory canal, and the tophi. ANS: F REF: p. 302
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
40. The three bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and stapes. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
41. The handle of the malleus attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane and moves when
the tympanic membrane vibrates. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
42. The oval window separates the outer from the middle ear. ANS: F REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
43. The membrane covering the oval window vibrates in response to pressure applied by the
stapes. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
44. The auditory tube has no direct role in hearing. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
45. If the auditory tube were clogged, it might make a plane ride uncomfortable. ANS: T TOP: The ear
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 304
46. The inner ear consists of the vestibule, the semicircular canal, and the cochlea. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
47. Two of the three parts of the inner ear deal with balance rather than hearing. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
48. If you feel dizzy when you come off of an amusement park ride, it is because your
semicircular canals are doing their job. ANS: T TOP: The ear
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 304
49. The organ of Corti is the organ of hearing. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
50. The organ of Corti is surrounded by a bony structure called the semicircular canals. ANS: F REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
51. Another name for “ringing in the ear” is otitis. ANS: F REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
52. Presbycusis is a progressive hearing loss associated with aging. ANS: T REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
53. As people age, they lose the ability to hear mid-frequency sounds first, which is why they
have such difficulty hearing quiet conversations. ANS: F REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
54. The senses of taste and smell are both considered chemoreceptors. ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p. 307 | p. 308
DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors
55. The receptors for the sense of taste are called papillae. ANS: F REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors
56. There are three primary tastes to which the sense of taste can respond, but more are likely to
be discovered. ANS: F REF: p. 307
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors
57. Much of the sense of taste is actually the sense of smell. ANS: T REF: p. 309
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors
58. The olfactory receptors are responsible for the sense of smell. ANS: T REF: p. 308
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The smell receptors
59. Because of the route of the olfactory pathway, there is a close link between odor and emotion. ANS: T REF: p. 309
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The smell receptors
60. The sense organ that responds to light is a special sense organ. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 292
61. A sense organ that responds to touch is most likely a special sense organ. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Classification of sense organs
DIF: Application
REF: p. 291
62. General sense organs tend to be more localized than special sense organs. ANS: F REF: p. 292
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
63. The back is one of the least sensitive areas of the body for the sense of touch. ANS: T REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
64. The temporal lobe interprets two-point discrimination in the skin. ANS: F REF: p. 293
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
65. Chemoreceptors in the aorta can detect changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. ANS: T REF: p. 294
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: General sense organs
66. There are more rods in the eye than cones. ANS: T REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
67. The fovea is a small depression in the macula. ANS: T REF: p. 296
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
68. Aqueous humor is found in the posterior cavity of the eye.
ANS: F REF: pp. 296-297
PTS: 1 TOP: The eye
DIF: Memorization
69. The incus presses against a membrane that covers the oval window of the inner ear. ANS: F REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
70. Both the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth are part of the inner ear. ANS: T REF: p. 304
PTS: 1 TOP: The ear
DIF: Memorization
Chapter 12: Endocrine System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system? a. The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body. b. All organs in the endocrine system are glands. c. Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities. d. Endocrine glands produce hormones. ANS: C REF: p. 319
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. Which of the following is not true of a nonsteroid hormone? a. It is carried through the blood to the target organ cell. b. Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell. c. It requires a second messenger. d. All of the above are true of nonsteroid hormones. ANS: B REF: pp. 320-321
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonsteroid hormones
3. Which of the following is true of a steroid hormone? a. Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell. b. It requires a second messenger. c. It converts ATP into cyclic AMP. d. All of the above are true of steroid hormones. ANS: A REF: p. 321
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones
Memorization
4. Which of the following statements is not true of prostaglandins? a. They can also be called tissue hormones. b. They function like nonsteroid hormones because they cause the production of cyclic AMP. c. They function like steroid hormones because they stimulate protein synthesis. d. They travel a much shorter distance than most hormones. ANS: C REF: pp. 325-326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prostaglandins
Memorization
5. Which of the following is not true of luteinizing hormone? a. It is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. Its target organ cells are in the ovaries. c. It stimulates ovulation. d. All of the above are true of luteinizing hormone. ANS: A REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
6. ACTH a. causes the ovaries to begin forming follicles. b. stimulates the production of adrenal cortex hormone. c. stimulates the release of adrenaline. d. targets cells in the thyroid gland. ANS: B REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
7. Acromegaly is caused by a. hypersecretion of ACTH. b. hyposecretion of ACTH. c. hypersecretion of growth hormone. d. hyposecretion of growth hormone. ANS: C REF: p. 327
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
8. Dwarfism can be caused by a. hypersecretion of ACTH. b. hyposecretion of ACTH. c. hypersecretion of growth hormone. d. hyposecretion of growth hormone. ANS: D REF: p. 327
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
9. Which of the following is not true of oxytocin? a. It is produced in the posterior pituitary gland. b. It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor. c. It is one of the few hormones that are regulated by a positive feedback loop. d. It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers. ANS: A REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
10. The hypothalamus a. is composed of a glandular portion and a nerve portion. b. produces ADH. c. releases ADH. d. is located in the sella turcica. ANS: B REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Memorization
11. Thyroxine a. has fewer iodine atoms than triiodothyronine. b. stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone. c. has more target cells than ADH. d. All of the above are true of thyroxine.
ANS: C PTS: TOP: Thyroid gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 329
12. Calcitonin a. is released by the parathyroid glands. b. prevents hypercalcemia. c. increases the calcium level in the blood. d. can cause Graves disease if it is hypersecreted. ANS: B REF: p. 331
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
13. An inadequate intake of iodine in the diet can a. lead to hyperthyroidism. b. cause Graves disease. c. cause exophthalmos. d. cause a goiter. ANS: D REF: p. 330
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
14. Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone? a. It is made in the thyroid gland. b. It decreases the amount of calcium in the blood. c. It increases the amount of calcium in the blood. d. It stimulates the formation of bone. ANS: C REF: p. 331
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Parathyroid gland
Memorization
15. Which of the following is not true of glucocorticoids? a. They are produced in the adrenal cortex. b. They help regulate the blood sodium and potassium level. c. They increase the amount of glucose in the blood through gluconeogenesis. d. They have an anti-allergy effect. ANS: B REF: p. 332
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
16. Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla? a. It is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system. b. It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response. c. It releases epinephrine. d. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla. ANS: D REF: p. 333
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
17. Which of these is not a symptom of Cushing syndrome? a. Moon face b. Buffalo hump
c. Virilization in women d. All of the above are symptoms of Cushing syndrome. ANS: C REF: p. 334
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
18. Which of the following statements is true? a. The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete insulin. b. Hypersecretion of insulin causes diabetes mellitus. c. Insulin causes an increase in the blood sugar level. d. Glucagon and insulin are antagonists of each other. ANS: D REF: pp. 334-335
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Memorization
19. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland? a. It is located in the neck. b. It is composed of a cortex and a medulla. c. It produces thymosin. d. It is important in the body’s immune system. ANS: A REF: p. 337
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
20. Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland? a. It is located in the brain. b. It produces melatonin. c. It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.” d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland. ANS: D REF: p. 338
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pineal gland
Memorization
21. Which of the following is not true of the pituitary gland? a. It is composed of two endocrine glands. b. Its posterior portion is called the adenohypophysis. c. It is located in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. d. All of the above are true of the pituitary gland. ANS: B REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
22. Which of the following is not considered a tropic hormone? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Follicle-stimulating hormone ANS: C REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
23. Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla?
a. b. c. d.
It is the inner portion of the adrenal gland. It secretes epinephrine. It is the target organ for ACTH. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.
ANS: C PTS: REF: p. 331 | p. 333
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Adrenal medulla
24. Which of the following is not true of the ovaries? a. The ovarian follicle secretes both estrogen and progesterone. b. The corpus luteum secretes both estrogen and progesterone. c. Each ovary contains two types of glandular structures. d. All of the above are true of ovaries. ANS: A REF: p. 336
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Female sex glands
Memorization
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Endocrine gland b. Negative feedback c. Target organ cell d. Steroid hormone e. Prostaglandin f. Exocrine gland g. Nonsteroid hormone h. Cyclic AMP i. Positive feedback 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
A second messenger for some hormones Can be called a “tissue hormone” Releases hormones into the interstitial fluid or the blood Hormone that requires a second messenger Has a receptor for a specific hormone Hormone-regulating system that tries to return the body to homeostasis Releases its products into ducts leading to the body surface or a body cavity Receptor site for this type of hormone is inside the nucleus of the cell Hormone regulation that moves the body farther away from homeostasis
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS:
H p. 321 E p. 325 A p. 319 G p. 320 C
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of hormone action 1 DIF: Memorization Prostaglandins 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of hormone action 1 DIF: Memorization
6. 7. 8. 9.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 320 B p. 324 F p. 320 D p. 321 I p. 324
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization Regulation of hormone secretion 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms of hormone action 1 DIF: Memorization Regulation of hormone secretion
Match each hormone with its corresponding function or description. a. Glucocorticoid b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Calcitonin d. Triiodothyronine e. ADH f. Aldosterone g. Luteinizing hormone h. Oxytocin i. Epinephrine j. Insulin k. Growth hormone l. Parathyroid hormone m. Thymosin n. Glucagon o. Melatonin p. ACTH 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
Reduces the level of calcium in the blood Hypersecretion of this hormone causes acromegaly Plays an important role in the development and functioning of the immune system Released by the posterior pituitary and increases water retention in the body Released by the adrenal cortex, increases the glucose level of the blood, and is an antiinflammatory An increase in the level of this hormone causes ovulation Made in the pineal gland and affects the biological clock Released by the adrenal medulla and reinforces the effects of the sympathetic nervous system Produced in the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex Stimulates muscle contraction in the pregnant uterus and brings about labor Thyroid hormone that contains three atoms of iodine Increases the level of calcium in the blood Released by the pancreatic islet cells and increases the level of glucose in the blood Begins the development of an egg in the ovary An example of a mineralocorticoid Released by the pancreatic islets and causes a drop in the blood sugar level
10. ANS: REF: 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF:
C p. 330 K p. 327 M p. 337 E p. 328 A p. 332 G p. 326 O p. 338 I p. 333 P p. 326 H p. 328 D p. 329 L p. 331 N p. 335 B p. 326 F p. 332 J p. 335
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Thyroid gland 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Thymus 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Adrenal glands 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Pineal gland 1 DIF: Adrenal glands 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Thyroid gland 1 DIF: Parathyroid gland 1 DIF: Pancreatic islets 1 DIF: Pituitary gland 1 DIF: Adrenal glands 1 DIF: Pancreatic islets
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the difference between an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. Explain the functioning of a nonsteroid hormone. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: p. 320
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: pp. 320-321
3. Explain the functioning of a steroid hormone. Why is a second messenger not necessary with steroid hormones? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
REF: p. 321
4. Explain and give an example of a negative feedback regulation of a hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 324
5. Explain and give an example of a positive feedback regulation of a hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
REF: p. 324
6. What is a prostaglandin? How are prostaglandins different from hormones? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prostaglandins
Memorization
REF: p. 325
7. List and explain the functions of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
REF: pp. 326-327
8. If a person was working hard on a hot day and drank very little water, would the blood concentration of ADH be high or low? Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 328
TOP: Pituitary gland
9. Explain why the hypothalamus, a brain structure, is included in this chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 328-329
TOP: Hypothalamus
10. Explain the function of thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Explain what happens if there is a hypersecretion or a hyposecretion of these hormones. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
REF: p. 329
11. Explain how calcitonin and parathyroid hormone work together to regulate blood calcium levels. What effect would each hormone have on bone density? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 330-331 TOP: Thyroid gland and parathyroid glands 12. Explain the function of mineralocorticoids. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
REF: p. 332
13. Explain the functions of glucocorticoids. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
REF: p. 332
14. Describe the symptoms and causes of Cushing syndrome and Addison disease. ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
REF: p. 334
15. Explain how insulin and glucagon work together to regulate blood sugar level. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 334-335
TOP: Pancreatic islets
16. Explain the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Memorization
REF: p. 335
17. Give the location of the thymus gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 337
18. Give the location of the pineal gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pineal gland
Memorization
REF: p. 338
19. Explain the role ghrelin and leptin may have in regulating body weight. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Other endocrine structures
REF: p. 339
20. A doctor found that a patient had a low level of thyroid hormone in the blood. A test was given to determine the level of TSH in the blood. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were high. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were low.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Pituitary gland and thyroid gland
REF: pp. 326-327
TRUE/FALSE 1. The endocrine system and the nervous system perform the same general function, but the activity of the endocrine system is slower and longer-lasting. ANS: T REF: p. 319
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. The endocrine system is made up of both endocrine and exocrine glands. ANS: F REF: p. 320
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
3. A target organ cell has a receptor for a particular hormone. ANS: T REF: p. 320
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
4. Because nonsteroid hormones are unable to pass through the cell membrane, a second messenger is needed. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 320-321
5. Cyclic AMP is the second messenger for some nonsteroid hormones. The first messenger is the hormone itself. ANS: T REF: p. 321
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
6. If a hormone receptor is on the cell membrane, it is a receptor for a nonsteroid hormone. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 320-321
7. If a hormone receptor is in the nucleus, it is a receptor for a steroid hormone. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 321
8. The result of the interaction between a nonsteroid hormone and a target cell is the formation of a new protein.
ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 321
9. The first action of some nonsteroid hormones after they attach to their receptors is to cause a change in the cell’s ATP. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 321
10. In order to function, some steroid hormones must penetrate two membranes in a cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 321
11. Most nonsteroid hormones are regulated by a positive feedback mechanism. ANS: F REF: p. 324
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
12. The negative feedback mechanism of hormone regulation helps maintain the body’s homeostasis. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 324
13. The term tissue hormone is another name given to prostaglandins. ANS: T REF: p. 325
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prostaglandins
Memorization
14. Most prostaglandins have a mechanism of action similar to that of steroid hormones. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Prostaglandins
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 325
15. One of the main differences between a hormone and a prostaglandin is the distance traveled to the target cell. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Prostaglandins
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 325
16. Part of the pituitary gland is not really a gland at all. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Pituitary gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 326
17. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone both have target cells in the ovaries. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 326
TOP: Pituitary gland
18. Because follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone have target cells in the ovaries, neither is produced in males. ANS: F REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
19. The pituitary gland is protected by a depression in the sphenoid bone called the “Turkish saddle.” ANS: T REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
20. A hypersecretion of growth hormone has the same effect on the body as the hypersecretion of insulin. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Pituitary gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 327
21. The hypersecretion of growth hormone can produce a condition called acromegaly. ANS: T REF: p. 327
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
22. Oxytocin is also called the lactogenic hormone. ANS: F REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
23. Both ADH and oxytocin are produced in the posterior pituitary gland. ANS: F REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
24. The action of ADH is to increase the production of urine to help eliminate toxins in the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
25. Oxytocin is one of the few hormones in the body that is regulated by a positive feedback mechanism. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Pituitary gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 328
26. Both oxytocin and prolactin have a role in the ability of a mother to breastfeed.
ANS: T PTS: REF: p. 327 | p. 328
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Pituitary gland
27. A hypersecretion of ADH can cause a condition called diabetes insipidus. ANS: F REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
28. The posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin and ADH, but they are made in the hypothalamus. ANS: T REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Memorization
29. Thyroxine contains more iodine than triiodothyronine. ANS: T REF: p. 329
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
30. Of the two thyroid hormones, T3 is more abundant but T4 is more potent. ANS: F REF: p. 329
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
31. Thyroid-stimulating hormone has a greater number of target cells than thyroxine. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Thyroid gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 329
32. Calcitonin is produced in the thyroid gland. ANS: T REF: p. 330
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
33. Someone who consumes a large amount of dietary calcium would likely have a low blood level of calcitonin. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Thyroid gland
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 331
34. Graves disease is one possible result of hypothyroidism. ANS: F REF: p. 330
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
35. Graves disease and myxedema have the same cause; it just depends on when in life the deficiency occurs. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 330
TOP: Thyroid gland
36. The use of iodized salt in the United States has greatly reduced the incidence of goiter. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Thyroid gland
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 330
Application
REF: p. 329
37. The parathyroid glands are found in the neck. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Parathyroid gland
1
DIF:
38. Parathyroid hormone acts with calcitonin to increase the level of calcium in the blood. ANS: F REF: pp. 330-331
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Parathyroid gland
Memorization
39. A hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone might cause the bones to become weak and fragile. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Parathyroid hormone
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 331
40. ADH and aldosterone both increase the reabsorption of water in the kidneys. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Adrenal glands
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 328 | p. 332
41. A high level of aldosterone causes a high level of sodium to be excreted in the urine. ANS: F REF: p. 332
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
42. Glucocorticoids increase the amount of glucose in the blood and act as anti-inflammatory agents. ANS: T REF: p. 332
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
43. The adrenal medulla functions like a large postganglionic fiber of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Adrenal glands
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 333
44. Cushing syndrome, virilization of women, and Addison disease can all be the results of hypersecretion of the adrenal gland. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 334
TOP: Adrenal glands
45. Cushing syndrome and Addison disease have opposite causes. ANS: T REF: p. 334
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal glands
Memorization
46. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Pancreatic islets
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 335
47. In a healthy person, an increase in blood sugar stimulates the activity of the alpha cells. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Pancreatic islets
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 335
48. Glucagon and insulin are antagonistic hormones. ANS: T REF: pp. 334-335
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Memorization
49. Glycosuria suggests insufficient insulin production or improper functioning of insulin receptors. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Pancreatic islets
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 336
50. Type 1 diabetes is a pancreatic problem; type 2 diabetes is a receptor problem. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Pancreatic islets
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 335
51. The ovary secretes three hormones: estrogen, progesterone, and follicle-stimulating hormone. ANS: F REF: p. 336
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Female sex glands
Memorization
52. The thymus is found in the center of the chest and produces the hormone thymosin. ANS: T REF: p. 337
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
53. The main function of thymosin is to help regulate the body’s biological clock. ANS: F REF: p. 337
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
54. The thymus plays an important role in the immune system. ANS: T REF: p. 337
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
55. The hormone that indicates pregnancy is released by the ovaries. ANS: F REF: p. 338
PTS: 1 TOP: Placenta
DIF:
Memorization
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pineal gland
Memorization
56. The pineal gland is found in the brain. ANS: T REF: p. 338
57. Melatonin, the pineal gland hormone, is affected by the amount of light to which a person is exposed. ANS: T REF: p. 338
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pineal gland
Memorization
58. The hyposecretion of melatonin is linked to depression. ANS: F REF: p. 338
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pineal gland
Memorization
59. One of the functions of the heart is to produce a hormone that regulates body fat. ANS: F REF: p. 339
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures
60. Atrial natriuretic hormone and aldosterone have opposite effects on both blood sodium level and water retention by the kidney. ANS: T REF: p. 339
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures
61. A nerve impulse is similar in function to a hormone. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Introduction
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 319
62. Exocrine glands pass their secretions through ducts to reach a body cavity or the body surface. ANS: T REF: p. 320
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
63. If a given hormone causes the production of a new protein in a cell, the hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone. ANS: F REF: p. 321
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Steroid hormones
Memorization
64. Diabetes mellitus is caused by a hypersecretion of insulin. ANS: F REF: p. 325
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of endocrine disease
65. The two parts of the pituitary gland are the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis. ANS: T REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
66. Tropic hormones stimulate other endocrine glands. ANS: T REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
67. Follicle-stimulating hormone is also called the ovulating hormone. ANS: F REF: p. 326
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pituitary gland
Memorization
68. The releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus regulate hormone release by the posterior pituitary gland. ANS: F REF: p. 328
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypothalamus
Memorization
69. The thyroid gland is unusual because it is able to store a considerable amount of its hormone. ANS: T REF: p. 329
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Thyroid gland
Memorization
70. The outer zone of the adrenal cortex secretes the mineralocorticoid aldosterone. ANS: T REF: p. 332
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal cortex
Memorization
71. Hormones produced and released by the adrenal cortex help reinforce the “fight-or-flight” response. ANS: F REF: p. 333
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Adrenal medulla
Memorization
72. Glycosuria is the result of a hypersecretion of the hormone insulin by the pancreas. ANS: F REF: p. 336
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Pancreatic islets
Memorization
73. The corpus luteum in the ovary secretes both estrogen and progesterone. ANS: T REF: p. 336
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Female sex glands
Memorization
74. Thymosin released by the thymus gland is actually a group of hormones with similar functions. ANS: T REF: p. 337
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
75. Both ANH and leptin help regulate appetite and food intake. ANS: F REF: p. 339
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Other endocrine structures
Chapter 13: Blood Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If a person’s body contained 5 L of blood, about _____ L would be plasma and _____ L would be formed elements. a. 4; 1 b. 2.6; 2.4 c. 2.4; 2.6 d. There is no way to determine the proportion of plasma to formed elements. ANS: B REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
2. The pH of blood must stay a. slightly acid. b. neutral. c. slightly basic. d. moderately acid. ANS: C REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
3. A person with type A blood has a. anti-A antibodies. b. A antigens. c. anti-B antibodies. d. both B and C. ANS: D REF: pp. 355-356
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
4. A person with type AB blood has a. anti-A antibodies. b. anti-B antibodies. c. B antigens. d. both A and B. ANS: C REF: p. 356
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
5. A person with type O blood has a. anti-A antibodies. b. anti-B antibodies. c. A antigens. d. both A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 356
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
6. The blood type considered the universal donor is type a. A. b. B+. c. O. d. AB+. ANS: C REF: p. 357
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
7. The blood type considered the universal recipient is type a. A. b. B+. c. O. d. AB+. ANS: D REF: p. 357
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
8. An Rh-positive mother should be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis under which circumstance? a. If the father is Rh negative, the Rh-positive mother should be concerned. b. If this is her second child and she has not taken RhoGAM, the Rh-positive mother should be concerned. c. She should not be at all concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis. d. Both A and B are correct. ANS: C TOP: Blood types
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
9. Which of the following substances is not found in plasma? a. Hormones b. Food c. Oxygen d. All of the above are found in plasma. ANS: D REF: pp. 350-351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
10. Which of the following substances is not found in plasma? a. Albumin b. Globulins c. Serum d. All of the above are found in plasma. ANS: C PTS: TOP: Blood plasma
1
DIF:
11. Which of the following is not a white blood cell? a. Neutrophil b. Thrombocyte
Application
REF: p. 350
c. Lymphocyte d. All of the above are white blood cells. ANS: B REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
12. What is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter (mm3)of blood? a. 1 million b. 3 million c. 5 million d. 7 million ANS: C REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
13. One sign of infection in the body is an increase in the number of white blood cells. A doctor would be concerned about an infection if the white blood cell numbers were which of the following? a. 1,000/mm3 b. 4,000/mm3 c. 7,000/mm3 d. None of these values indicates an infection. ANS: D PTS: TOP: Formed elements
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 351
14. A red blood cell that is smaller than normal and has less hemoglobin than normal would be called a. microcytic and hypochromic. b. macrocytic and hypochromic. c. microcytic and hyperchromic. d. macrocytic and hyperchromic. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
DIF:
Application
15. The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to carry a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. hormones. d. both A and B. ANS: D REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
16. Blood loss anemia is also known as _____ anemia. a. aplastic b. pernicious c. hemorrhagic d. hemolytic ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 354 | p. 359
REF: p. 358
TOP: Red blood cell disorders
17. Injections of vitamin B12 are used successfully to treat _____ anemia. a. aplastic b. pernicious c. hemorrhagic d. hemolytic ANS: B REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
18. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are examples of _____ anemia. a. aplastic b. pernicious c. hemorrhagic d. hemolytic ANS: D REF: p. 360
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
19. Which of the following is not a granulocyte? a. Monocyte b. Neutrophil c. Basophil d. Eosinophil ANS: A REF: p. 360
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
20. Which of the following is not an agranulocyte? a. Eosinophil b. Lymphocyte c. Thrombocyte d. Neither A nor C is an agranulocyte. ANS: D REF: p. 361
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
21. Which of the following is a cancer of the plasma cells and is one of the most common and one of the most deadly of the blood cancers? a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia b. Multiple myeloma c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia d. Chronic myeloid leukemia ANS: B REF: p. 363
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
22. Which of the following is the most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and 7? a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
b. Multiple myeloma c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia d. Chronic myeloid leukemia ANS: C REF: p. 363
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
23. The final product in the process of blood clot formation is a. thromboplastin. b. thrombin. c. fibrinogen. d. fibrin. ANS: D REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
24. Which of the following substances is given to patients to dissolve blood clots? a. Vitamin K b. Tissue plasminogen activator c. Heparin d. Warfarin ANS: B REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
25. Which clotting disorder is an inherited X-linked disorder? a. Thrombosis b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemophilia d. Embolism ANS: C REF: p. 366
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
26. Which combination of parents might have a child with erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Both parents are Rh positive. b. Both parents are Rh negative. c. The mother is Rh positive; the father is Rh negative. d. The mother is Rh negative; the father is Rh positive. ANS: D TOP: Rh system
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
27. Which of the following plasma proteins is necessary for blood clotting to occur? a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Fibrinogen d. Both A and C are necessary for blood clotting to occur. ANS: C REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
28. Which of the following tissues is not involved in blood cell formation? a. Myeloid tissue b. Lymphatic tissue c. Red bone marrow d. All of the above tissues are involved in blood cell formation. ANS: D REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
29. Which of the following nutrients is not needed for the manufacture of hemoglobin? a. Iron b. Calcium c. Folate d. All of the above nutrients are needed for hemoglobin formation. ANS: B REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
30. Which of the following is not a method used to transport carbon dioxide in the blood? a. Carried by hemoglobin b. Dissolved in the plasma c. Carried as the bicarbonate ion d. All of the above are methods used to transport carbon dioxide. ANS: D PTS: REF: p. 350 | p. 354
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
31. If whole blood is spun down in a centrifuge tube, the layers of blood components from top to bottom would be a. plasma—buffy coat—red blood cells. b. buffy coat—plasma—red blood cells. c. plasma—red blood cells—buffy coat. d. red blood cells—plasma—buffy coat. ANS: A REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
32. Which type of anemia is related to high-dose exposure to toxic chemicals and radiation? a. Aplastic anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. Hemorrhagic anemia d. Hemolytic anemia ANS: A REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
33. Which agranulocyte can produce antibodies? a. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte c. Neutrophil d. Basophil
ANS: B REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions
34. Which granulocyte is the most numerous phagocyte? a. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte c. Neutrophil d. Basophil ANS: C REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions
35. Which granulocyte secretes the chemical histamine? a. Monocyte b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Basophil ANS: D REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions
36. Which granulocyte helps protect against infections caused by parasites? a. Monocytes b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Basophil ANS: B REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Leukocyte types and functions
37. Which substance must be present at all times in the blood for the blood to clot properly? a. Thrombin b. Fibrin c. Calcium d. All of the above substances must be present at all times for the blood to clot properly. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 365
MATCHING Match each of the following terms with its corresponding description or definition. a. Hemoglobin b. Buffy coat c. Plasma d. Eosinophil e. Basophil f. Monocyte g. Thrombocyte
h. Erythrocyte i. Serum j. Fibrin 1. An agranulocyte that becomes a macrophage as it moves into tissue 2. The layer of white blood cells and platelets between the plasma and red blood cells in “spun down” blood 3. The liquid part of the blood that contains all of the functional proteins of the blood 4. Another name for a red blood cell 5. The liquid part of the blood with the clotting factors removed 6. Another name for platelets 7. White blood cell that protects against parasitic worms 8. The specialized red pigment found in red blood cells 9. An important protein in blood clot formation 10. White blood cell that produces heparin and histamine 1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF:
F PTS: p. 361 | p. 362 B PTS: p. 353 TOP: C PTS: p. 350 TOP: H PTS: p. 351 TOP: I PTS: p. 351 TOP: G PTS: p. 351 TOP: D PTS: p. 362 TOP: A PTS: pp. 351-352 TOP: J PTS: p. 350 TOP: E PTS: p. 362 TOP:
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes) 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cells (erythrocytes) 1 DIF: Memorization Blood composition and volume 1 DIF: Memorization Formed elements 1 DIF: Memorization Blood plasma 1 DIF: Memorization Formed elements 1 DIF: Memorization White blood cells (leukocytes) 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cells (erythrocytes) 1 DIF: Memorization Platelets and blood clotting 1 DIF: Memorization White blood cells (leukocytes)
Match each blood disorder to its description or symptoms. a. Hemophilia b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia c. Polycythemia d. Hemorrhagic anemia e. Acute myeloid leukemia f. Pernicious anemia g. Sickle cell anemia h. Multiple myeloma i. Erythroblastosis fetalis j. Thalassemia
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Condition caused by a lack of vitamin B12 Can be caused by an Rh-negative mother carrying her second Rh-positive baby Most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and 7 An inherited blood clotting disorder that can be treated with the replacement of clotting factor VIII A type of anemia caused by severe bleeding A type of inherited anemia that has major and minor forms and is usually found in people of Mediterranean descent The most common form of acute leukemia in adults A common and very serious cancer of plasma cells Inherited anemia caused by the presence of an abnormal type of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S Blood disorder characterized by a dramatic increase in the number of red blood cells
11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF:
F p. 359 I p. 361 B p. 363 A pp. 366-367 D p. 358 J p. 360 E p. 364 H p. 363 G p. 360 C p. 358
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization White blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Clotting disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization White blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization White blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Red blood cell disorders
SHORT ANSWER 1. Why is blood acidosis not really acidic? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood composition
Application
REF: p. 350
2. List the four major blood types and explain the types of antigen and antibodies in each type.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 355-356
3. Many emergency rooms have a ready supply of type O blood. Explain why this is so. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 357
TOP: Blood types
4. A woman who is pregnant with her second child is concerned about her baby developing erythroblastosis fetalis. She is Rh positive, her husband is Rh negative, and she did not receive RhoGAM after her first baby. Does she need to be concerned? Why or why not? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
TOP: Blood types
5. What are the major proteins found in plasma, and what is the function of each? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
REF: pp. 350-351
6. Describe the structure of the red blood cell, and explain how its structure assists in accomplishing its function. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
REF: pp. 352-353
7. Describe a microcytic, hyperchromic red blood cell. ANS: Smaller than normal, more hemoglobin than normal. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
REF: pp. 352-353
8. What is polycythemia, and what are some possible treatments?
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
REF: p. 358
9. Explain the treatments for pernicious and iron-deficiency anemia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
REF: pp. 359-360
10. Describe sickle cell anemia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
REF: p. 360
11. Describe thalassemia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
REF: pp. 360-361
12. Name and explain the function of the three granulocytes. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
REF: p. 362
13. What are the functions of the B and T lymphocytes? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes) 14. What is multiple myeloma? ANS:
REF: p. 362
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
REF: p. 363
15. List and briefly describe the four types of leukemia discussed in the chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
REF: pp. 363-364
16. Explain the process of blood clot formation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
REF: p. 365
17. A patient was being treated for a heart attack caused by a blood clot. Both heparin and tissue plasminogen activator were administered to the patient during the 4-day hospital stay. When were each of these drugs used, and what is the function of each? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
REF: pp. 365-366
18. What is the INR, and what is its use? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
REF: p. 366
19. Explain hemophilia, its cause, and traditional treatment methods. Why are new treatments being explored? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
REF: pp. 366-368
20. What is thrombocytopenia, and what are some treatments for this condition?
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
REF: p. 368
21. Explain the difference between agglutination resulting from blood type incompatibility and a blood clot formed as the result of an injury. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 355 | p. 357 TOP: ABO system and platelets and blood clotting TRUE/FALSE 1. Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements. ANS: T REF: p. 349
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
2. In whole blood, there is a greater volume of formed elements than of plasma. ANS: F REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
3. Even when a person has a condition of blood acidosis, the pH of the blood is still above 7. ANS: T REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
4. Blood clot formation and blood agglutination are two terms for the same process. ANS: F TOP: Blood types
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 355
5. Type B blood has A antigen and anti-B antibody. ANS: F REF: p. 356
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
6. Type AB blood has both A and B antigens and no antibodies. ANS: T REF: p. 356
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
7. Type O blood is considered the universal donor blood type because it has no antibodies.
ANS: F REF: p. 357
PTS: 1 TOP: Blood types
DIF:
Memorization
8. A person with B antigen and A antibodies would have type A blood. ANS: F TOP: Blood types
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
9. Only women who are Rh negative need to be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis. ANS: T TOP: Blood types
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
10. Even women who are Rh negative rarely have a problem with erythroblastosis fetalis with their first child. ANS: T TOP: Blood types
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 356
11. Blood plasma is able to carry small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the cells. ANS: T REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
12. Blood plasma with the albumin and globulins removed is called serum. ANS: F REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
13. Lymphocytes and monocytes are both considered formed elements of the blood. ANS: T REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
14. Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes. ANS: F REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
15. In a 1 mm3 sample of blood, there are more platelets than red blood cells. ANS: F REF: p. 351
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
16. Hematopoiesis occurs in both lymphatic tissue and myeloid tissue. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 351
TOP: Formed elements
17. A bone marrow transplant can restore hematopoiesis. ANS: T REF: p. 352
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms of blood diseases
18. Red blood cells are able to replicate so rapidly because they have a very large nucleus. ANS: F REF: p. 352
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
19. A normocytic, hypochromic red blood cell is smaller and has less hemoglobin than a typical red blood cell. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 354
20. A macrocytic, hyperchromic red blood cell is larger and has more hemoglobin than a typical red blood cell. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 354
21. Oxyhemoglobin and carbaminohemoglobin are names given to hemoglobin when it is transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide, respectively. ANS: T REF: p. 354
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
22. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in a blood sample. ANS: T REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
23. The buffy coat is found at the very bottom of a test tube of blood that has been “spun down.” ANS: F REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
24. The buffy coat in a test tube of blood that has been “spun down” is composed of white blood cells and platelets. ANS: T REF: p. 353
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
25. Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by blood loss.
ANS: T REF: p. 358
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
26. Exposure to high doses of radiation or toxic chemicals such as mercury can cause pernicious anemia. ANS: F REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
27. Adding iron to the diet can successfully treat pernicious anemia. ANS: F REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
28. Vitamin B12 injections can successfully treat pernicious anemia. ANS: T REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
29. Jaundice can be a symptom of aplastic anemia. ANS: F REF: p. 359
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
30. Sickle cell anemia has a milder form called sickle cell trait and a more severe form called sickle cell disease. ANS: T REF: p. 360
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
31. Both sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are inherited diseases. ANS: T REF: p. 360
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
32. Like sickle cell anemia, thalassemia is inherited; but unlike sickle cell anemia, it does not have a milder form. ANS: F REF: p. 360
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cell disorders
33. Leukopenia almost always indicates an infection. ANS: F REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
34. A white blood cell count of 5,000 to 7,000/mm3 of blood usually indicates an infection. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 362
TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes) 35. Neutrophils are phagocytic granulocytes. ANS: T REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
36. Someone taking antihistamines is blocking the effects of histamine, which can be released by eosinophils. ANS: F REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
37. A person who is infected by a parasitic worm is likely to have an increased level of eosinophils. ANS: T REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
38. Basophils release heparin, which helps the blood clot. ANS: F REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
39. Monocytes and macrophages are actually the same cell in different parts of the body. ANS: T REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
40. B and T cells are two different types of lymphocytes. ANS: T REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)
41. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of mature T lymphocytes. ANS: F REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
42. The common symptom of all leukemias is the drop in the number of white blood cells in the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 363
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
43. Leukemia can be classified as either acute or chronic and as either lymphocytic or myeloid. ANS: T REF: p. 363
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
44. A person with chronic lymphocytic leukemia is likely to be between the ages of 3 and 7. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: White blood cell disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 363
45. Most adult leukemia is acute myeloid leukemia. ANS: T REF: p. 364
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
46. A person with mononucleosis can have a white blood cell count as high as 18,000/mm3 of blood. ANS: T REF: p. 364
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
47. Both prothrombin and fibrin are found in normal, nonclotted blood. ANS: F REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
48. The function of fibrin is to convert prothrombin into thrombin. ANS: F REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
49. In addition to various other problems, a person with a severe calcium deficiency has a slower than normal clotting time. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 366
50. Vitamin K is used to stimulate the cells of the spleen to increase their production of prothrombin. ANS: F REF: p. 368
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
51. Heparin, warfarin, and tissue plasminogen activator prevent blood clot formation. ANS: F REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
52. As the INR number gets larger, the amount of time it takes for the blood to clot gets longer. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 366
53. The difference between a thrombus and an embolus is whether it is moving. ANS: T REF: p. 365
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
54. If a person has a thrombus, heparin or tissue plasminogen activator works equally well in getting rid of the clot. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Clotting disorders and platelets and blood clotting
REF: pp. 365-366
55. Hemophilia is an inherited disorder passed on by the father. ANS: F REF: p. 366
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
56. Because hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome, women are twice as likely to have it as men. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Clotting disorders
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 366
57. Clotting factor VIII is used to treat hemophilia. ANS: T REF: p. 367
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
58. Thrombocytopenia is the hereditary condition that results in insufficient platelets. ANS: F REF: p. 368
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
59. Thrombocytopenia can occur as a side effect of aspirin. ANS: T REF: p. 368
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
60. Thrombocytopenia can be treated by removing the spleen. ANS: T REF: p. 368
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clotting disorders
Memorization
61. Most adults have between 4 and 6 L of blood. ANS: T REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood composition and volume
62. In type A blood, the A antigen is in the blood plasma and the anti-B antibody is on the red blood cell.
ANS: F REF: p. 355
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: ABO system
Memorization
63. Albumins include a group of plasma proteins called antibodies that help the body fight infection. ANS: F REF: p. 350
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood plasma
Memorization
64. Myeloid tissue is also called red bone marrow. ANS: T REF: p. 352
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formed elements
Memorization
65. Iron, vitamin B12, and folate are all needed to manufacture hemoglobin. ANS: T REF: p. 354
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
66. Mature T cells produce antibodies that help the body fight infection. ANS: F REF: p. 362
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Agranulocytes
Memorization
67. Infectious mononucleosis is usually caused by a virus. ANS: T REF: p. 364
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: White blood cell disorders
Chapter 14: Heart Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The apex of the heart lies _____, pointing toward the _____ lung. a. just below the clavicle; right b. on the diaphragm; left c. just below the clavicle; left d. on the diaphragm; right ANS: B REF: p. 380
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart
2. The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve a. between the left atrium and left ventricle. b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery. c. between the right atrium and right ventricle. d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery. ANS: A REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
3. The aortic semilunar valve is the valve a. between the left atrium and left ventricle. b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery. c. between the right atrium and right ventricle. d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery. ANS: D REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
4. The pulmonary semilunar valve is the valve a. between the left atrium and left ventricle. b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery. c. between the right atrium and right ventricle. d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery. ANS: B REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
5. The tricuspid valve is the valve a. between the left atrium and left ventricle. b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery. c. between the right atrium and right ventricle. d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery. ANS: C REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
6. The first heart sound is caused by the closing of the _____ valve(s). a. mitral b. semilunar c. tricuspid d. both A and C ANS: D PTS: TOP: Heart sounds
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
7. The second heart sound is caused by the closing of the _____ valve(s). a. mitral b. semilunar c. tricuspid d. both A and C ANS: B REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart sounds
Memorization
8. Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is a. angina pectoris. b. myocardial infarction. c. atherosclerosis. d. embolism. ANS: C REF: p. 385
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
9. Which structure is known as the “pacemaker” of the heart? a. Purkinje fibers b. Sinoatrial node c. Atrioventricular node d. Bundle of His ANS: B REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
10. Which component of the conduction system actually contracts the ventricles? a. Purkinje fibers b. Sinoatrial node c. Atrioventricular node d. Bundle of His ANS: A REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
11. The T wave in an electrocardiogram results from a. depolarization of the ventricles. b. depolarization of the atria. c. repolarization of the ventricles. d. repolarization of the atria. ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 389
TOP: Electrocardiography
12. The P wave in an electrocardiogram results from a. depolarization of the ventricles. b. depolarization of the atria. c. repolarization of the ventricles. d. repolarization of the atria. ANS: B REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
13. The QRS complex in an electrocardiogram results from a. depolarization of the ventricles. b. depolarization of the atria. c. repolarization of the ventricles. d. repolarization of the atria. ANS: A REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
14. A heart beat that is less than 60 beats per minute is called a. tachycardia. b. bradycardia. c. sinus dysrhythmia. d. fibrillation. ANS: B REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
15. Which of the following is not a cause of heart failure? a. Valve disorder b. Cardiomyopathy c. Cor pulmonale d. All of the above can cause heart failure. ANS: D REF: pp. 394-395
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
16. Which of the following is not true of atria? a. They are the upper chambers of the heart. b. They are called the discharging chambers. c. They have thinner walls than the ventricles. d. All of the above are true of atria. ANS: B REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart chambers
Memorization
17. Which of the following is not true of ventricles? a. They are the lower chambers of the heart. b. They are called the discharging chambers of the heart. c. They have thicker walls than the atria.
d. All of the above are true of ventricles. ANS: D REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart chambers
Memorization
18. Which of the following is not true of the pericardium? a. The parietal pericardium is also called the epicardium. b. The pericardium is made up of two layers of fibrous tissue. c. The fluid between the two layers of the pericardium helps reduce the friction caused by the beating heart. d. All of the above are true of the pericardium. ANS: A REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The pericardium and pericarditis
19. Blood passing through the tricuspid valve has just left which heart chamber? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle ANS: C REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
20. Blood entering an artery has just left which heart chamber? a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Either A or C ANS: D REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
21. Blood returning from the lung enters which heart chamber? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium ANS: A REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
22. Blood leaving the superior vena cava enters which heart chamber? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Right atrium ANS: D REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
23. The sequence of an impulse moving through the conduction system of the heart is
a. b. c. d.
sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His. atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His, sinoatrial node. sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, bundles of His, Purkinje fibers. sinoatrial node, bundles of His, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers.
ANS: C REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Visceral pericardium b. Systole c. Atria d. Stroke volume e. Diastole f. Cardiac output g. Ventricles h. Parietal pericardium i. Sinoatrial node j. Endocardium 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A loose-fitting sac around the heart The receiving chambers of the heart The volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during each beat A thin layer of smooth tissue that lines the chambers of the heart Part of the conduction system of the heart called the pacemaker Another term for the epicardium Term that describes contraction of the heart The discharging chambers of the heart The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle per minute The resting time of the heart between beats
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS:
H p. 381 C p. 381 D p. 393 J p. 381 I p. 388 A p. 381 B p. 383 G
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac cycle 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Conduction system of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomy of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Heart action 1 DIF: Memorization
REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF:
p. 381 F p. 392 E p. 383
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Anatomy of the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac cycle 1 DIF: Memorization Heart action
Match each structure in the heart with its corresponding description or function. a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle e. Aortic semilunar valve f. Pulmonary semilunar valve g. Tricuspid valve h. Mitral valve i. Aorta j. Pulmonary artery k. Pulmonary veins l. Superior vena cava 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Valve that keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle Chamber into which blood from the inferior vena cava drains Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart from the lungs Valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium Heart chamber that pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve Blood vessel attached to the right ventricle Heart chamber into which blood returning from the lungs enters Valve through which blood leaving the right ventricle passes on its way to the lung Blood vessel connected to the left ventricle Blood vessel that empties into the right atrium Heart chamber that blood enters after passing through the tricuspid valve Valve that prevents blood from backing up into the right atrium
11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS:
E p. 383 A p. 384 K p. 384 H p. 383 D p. 383 J p. 384 B p. 383 F
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization
19. 20. 21. 22.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 383 I p. 383 L p. 384 C p. 384 G p. 383
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Heart valves and valve disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Blood flow through the heart 1 DIF: Memorization Heart valves and valve disorders
Match each disorder of the circulatory system with its definition or description. a. Incompetent heart valve b. Angina pectoris c. Pericarditis d. Dysrhythmia e. Atherosclerosis f. Myocardial infarction g. Fibrillation h. Stenosed heart valve i. Congestive heart failure j. Cardiac tamponade k. Tachycardia l. Bradycardia m. Cor pulmonale 23. A serious compression of the heart caused by too much fluid between the layers of the pericardium 24. A slow heart rhythm 25. A type of hardening of the arteries 26. A heart valve that is narrower than normal 27. Inflammation of the pericardium 28. Condition in which the cardiac muscle fibers contract out of step with each other 29. Left-sided heart failure 30. Any abnormality of heart rhythm 31. Medical term for a heart attack 32. Caused by lung disorders that obstruct blood flow through the lung, which overloads the right side of the heart 33. A leaky heart valve 34. A rapid heart rhythm 35. Severe chest pain that occurs when the myocardium is deprived of adequate oxygen 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS:
J p. 382 L p. 390 E p. 385 H
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization The pericardium and pericarditis 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia 1 DIF: Memorization Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease 1 DIF: Memorization
27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 385 C p. 381 G p. 390 I p. 395 D p. 389 F p. 385 M pp. 394-395 A p. 383 K p. 390 B p. 386
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Heart valves and valve disorders 1 DIF: Memorization The pericardium and pericarditis 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia 1 DIF: Memorization Heart failure 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia 1 DIF: Memorization Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease 1 DIF: Memorization Heart failure 1 DIF: Memorization Heart valves and heart valve disease 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac dysrhythmia 1 DIF: Memorization Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the location, size, and position of the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart
REF: pp. 379-380
2. Explain how the location of the heart allows for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 380 TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart 3. What is the myocardium? What is the endocardium? Describe the structure of the pericardium. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart 4. What is cardiac tamponade? How does it occur?
REF: p. 381
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart
REF: p. 382
5. Name the four valves of the heart, and give the function of each. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
REF: p. 383
6. Explain the difference between an incompetent heart valve and a stenosed heart valve. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
REF: p. 383
7. Briefly describe rheumatic heart disease and mitral valve prolapse. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
REF: p. 383
8. If a heart murmur were discovered during the first heart sound, what heart valve may be defective? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders | Heart sounds 9. Trace a drop of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. Include all the heart chambers, valves, and blood vessels through which the blood passes. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
REF: p. 384
10. Explain how the heart muscle is supplied with blood. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
REF: p. 385
11. Explain why extreme tachycardia might restrict blood flow to the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 390 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease 12. What is atherosclerosis, and what are some risk factors for this condition? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
REF: pp. 385-386
13. What is angina pectoris, and what are some treatments for this condition? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
REF: p. 386
14. Explain the conduction system of the heart. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
REF: p. 388
15. Explain the deflections of an electrocardiogram. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
REF: p. 389
16. If a person has an abnormality in the QRS complex, what part of the heart might not be functioning correctly? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Electrocardiography
REF: p. 389
17. Define or explain bradycardia, tachycardia, and sinus dysrhythmia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
REF: p. 390
18. What is ventricular fibrillation? What is atrial fibrillation? Explain what is meant by defibrillation, and explain how it can be accomplished. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
REF: p. 390
19. What is cor pulmonale, and what is its cause? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
REF: pp. 394-395
20. What is congestive heart failure, and what is pulmonary edema? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
REF: p. 395
TRUE/FALSE 1. The heart is located in the mediastinum. ANS: T REF: p. 379
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart
2. The apex of the heart is the most superior part of the heart located just below the clavicle. ANS: F REF: p. 380
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart
3. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is successful because of the heart’s location in the body. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart
Application
REF: p. 380
Application
REF: p. 381
4. The myocardium is the working part of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Anatomy of the heart
DIF:
5. The ventricles are the receiving chambers of the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart
6. The thin layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart is called the visceral pericardium. ANS: F REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart
7. Another name for the parietal pericardium is the epicardium. ANS: F REF: p. 381
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart
8. There is always a small amount of fluid between the visceral and parietal pericardium, but excessive accumulation of fluid can lead to a serious condition called cardiac tamponade. ANS: T REF: p. 382
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Anatomy of the heart
9. The heart is working hardest during systole. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Heart action
1
DIF:
Application
10. The heart rests during systole. ANS: F REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
11. The semilunar valves separate the atria from the ventricles.
REF: p. 383
ANS: F REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
12. The tricuspid valve is on the left side of the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 383
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
13. An incompetent mitral valve allows blood to flow back to the right atrium. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 383
14. A stenosed pulmonary semilunar valve slows the movement of blood into the artery that leads to the lung. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 383
15. A mitral valve prolapse is an example of an incompetent atrioventricular valve. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 383
16. The two heart sounds are caused by the closing of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves. ANS: T REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart sounds
Memorization
17. A mitral valve prolapse might cause an unusual first sound of the heart. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Heart sounds
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
18. Both the superior and inferior venae cavae enter the left atrium of the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 384
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood flow through the heart
19. Like most arteries, the pulmonary arteries carry blood that is rich in oxygen. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
20. Like most arteries, the aorta carries blood that is rich in oxygen. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
21. Unlike most veins, the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
22. The force that pushes the blood through pulmonary circulation is the right atrium. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Blood flow through the heart
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 384
23. The right and left coronary arteries are the first branches of the aorta. ANS: T REF: p. 385
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
24. An embolism in the coronary arteries can lead to a myocardial infarction. ANS: T REF: p. 385
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
25. Atherosclerosis or “hardening of the arteries” is mostly caused by hereditary factors. ANS: F REF: pp. 385-386
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
26. Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by the heart’s inability to obtain enough oxygen. ANS: T REF: p. 386
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease
27. Stroke volume is usually larger than cardiac output. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Cardiac cycle
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 392-393
28. It takes about 72 cardiac cycles to determine the cardiac output. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Cardiac cycle
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 387 | p. 393
29. The cardiac output is always larger than the stroke volume. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Cardiac cycle
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 393
30. The average cardiac output for a resting adult is about 2 L of blood. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 392
TOP: Cardiac cycle
31. The atrioventricular node is sometimes called the pacemaker for the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
32. The sinoatrial node initiates contraction in the atria. ANS: T REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
33. The bundle of His conducts impulses from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node. ANS: F REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
34. The Purkinje fibers directly cause the contraction of the ventricles of the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
35. Intercalated disks are structures in heart cells that improve the efficiency of impulse conduction through the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 388
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Conduction system of the heart
36. The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the atria. ANS: F REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
37. The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: T REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
38. The QRS complex of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the ventricles. ANS: T REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
39. The repolarization of the atria is not indicated on an electrocardiogram because the repolarization is hidden by the T wave of the ventricles. ANS: F REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrocardiography
40. If damage to the heart caused an unusual deflection of the P wave, the damage probably occurred in one of the atria of the heart. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Electrocardiography
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 389
41. AV node heart block can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a large distance between the QRS complex and the T wave. ANS: F REF: p. 389
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
42. In AV node heart block, there is no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex in an electrocardiogram. ANS: F REF: pp. 389-390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
43. If an electrocardiogram shows no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex, an artificial pacemaker might be implanted to treat the condition. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 390
44. If a patient has an AV node block, the electrocardiogram will show that the ventricles are beating at a faster rate than the atria. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 389
45. A heart rate less than 60 beats per minute indicates bradycardia. ANS: T REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
46. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute indicates tachycardia. ANS: T REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
47. A person with sinus dysrhythmia should be treated with an implanted artificial pacemaker. ANS: F REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
48. A premature contraction can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a longer than normal time between the T wave and the next P wave. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 390
TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia 49. A person with bradycardia has more QRS complexes per minute on an electrocardiogram than a person with tachycardia. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 390
50. Fibrillation occurs when heart muscle cells lose coordination and beat out of step with each other. ANS: T REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
51. Because the atria set the pace for the heart beat, atrial fibrillation is much more life threatening than ventricular fibrillation. ANS: F REF: p. 390
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
52. Both electric shock and medication are used to treat fibrillation. ANS: T REF: p. 392
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
53. An automatic external defibrillator requires training as an EMT or a paramedic for it to be effective. ANS: F REF: p. 392
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia
54. Cor pulmonale is a type of heart failure that is actually caused by a lung problem. ANS: T REF: pp. 394-395
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
55. Right-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema. ANS: F REF: p. 395
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
56. Congestive heart failure is another term for left-sided heart failure. ANS: T REF: p. 395
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Heart failure
Memorization
57. The chordae tendineae attach the semilunar valves to the wall of the heart. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 383
TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders
Chapter 15: Blood Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Blood moves through blood vessels in which of the following sequences, starting from the heart? a. Arteries arterioles venules capillaries veins b. Arterioles arteries capillaries veins venules c. Arteries arterioles capillaries venules veins d. Arteries capillaries veins arterioles venules ANS: C REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
2. Which layer of the blood vessel is composed of muscle and usually thicker in arteries than in veins? a. Tunica media b. Tunica intima c. Tunica externa d. Endothelium ANS: A REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
3. Which of the following is the smooth inner layer of the blood vessels? a. Tunica media b. Tunica intima c. Endothelium d. Both B and C ANS: D REF: pp. 404-405
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
4. Which layer of the blood vessel is made of tough connective tissue? a. Tunica media b. Tunica externa c. Tunica intima d. Endothelium ANS: B REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
5. Which of the following is not true of arteries? a. The endothelium has one-way valves. b. They have a thicker tunica media than veins. c. They carry blood away from the heart. d. They carry blood to arterioles. ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 403-404
TOP: Blood vessels
6. Which of the following is not true of veins? a. The endothelium has one-way valves. b. They have a thinner tunica media than arteries. c. They carry blood away from the heart. d. They receive blood from venules. ANS: C REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
7. Which of the following is not true of capillaries? a. They are made up only of endothelium. b. The endothelium has one-way valves. c. They receive blood from arterioles. d. They are where material is exchanged with the cells. ANS: B REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
8. A large area of necrosis that has progressed to decay is called a. an aneurysm. b. ischemia. c. gangrene. d. phlebitis. ANS: C REF: p. 406
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
9. The condition in which an artery becomes abnormally widened due to a weakness in the arterial wall is called a. an aneurysm. b. ischemia. c. gangrene. d. phlebitis. ANS: A REF: pp. 406-407
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
10. Which of the following is an inflammation of a vein? a. An aneurysm b. Phlebitis c. Varicose veins d. Gangrene ANS: B REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
11. Which of the following is a condition in which blood pools in the veins due to incompetent valves? a. An aneurysm
b. Phlebitis c. Varicose veins d. Gangrene ANS: C REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
12. The first blood vessel of systemic circulation is the a. pulmonary artery. b. aorta. c. superior vena cava. d. inferior vena cava. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 408
13. The first blood vessel of pulmonary circulation is the a. pulmonary artery. b. aorta. c. superior vena cava. d. pulmonary vein. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 408
14. Which of the following is not true of hepatic portal circulation? a. It routes blood from several digestive organs to the liver. b. Blood traveling through hepatic portal circulation is sent through two capillary beds rather than one. c. It is important in maintaining blood homeostasis. d. All of the above are true of hepatic portal circulation. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 409-410
15. Which structure in the fetus allows blood to bypass the immature liver? a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus c. Ductus arteriosus d. Umbilical vein ANS: B REF: pp. 412-413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
16. Which structure in the fetus allows blood to be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium? a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus c. Ductus arteriosus d. Umbilical vein ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 413
TOP: Circulation of blood
17. Which structure in the fetus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta? a. Umbilical vein b. Umbilical artery c. Ductus arteriosus d. Ductus venosus ANS: C REF: p. 413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
18. Which structure in the fetus carries oxygen-rich blood from the mother to the baby? a. Umbilical vein b. Umbilical artery c. Ductus arteriosus d. Ductus venosus ANS: A REF: p. 412
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
19. Blood pressure is highest in the a. capillaries. b. large veins. c. large arteries. d. small veins. ANS: C PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 414
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 418
20. Blood pressure is lowest in the a. capillaries. b. large veins. c. large arteries. d. small arteries. ANS: B PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
21. What is the direct cause of blood pressure? a. Blood volume b. Strength of the heart contraction c. Heart rate d. Blood viscosity ANS: A REF: p. 414
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
22. An increase in which of the following can actually decrease blood pressure? a. Blood volume b. Strength of the heart contraction c. Heart rate
d. Blood viscosity ANS: C REF: p. 415
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
23. Polycythemia has a direct effect on which of the following factors that influence blood pressure? a. Blood volume b. Strength of the heart contraction c. Heart rate d. Blood viscosity ANS: D REF: p. 416
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
24. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the upper limb? a. Popliteal artery b. Radial artery c. Axillary artery d. Brachial artery ANS: A REF: p. 419
PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse
DIF:
Memorization
25. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the lower limb? a. Popliteal artery b. Femoral artery c. Dorsalis pedis artery d. Brachial artery ANS: D REF: p. 419
PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse
DIF:
Memorization
26. Which type of shock results from blood loss? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Hypovolemic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septic shock ANS: B REF: p. 419
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
27. Which type of shock results from an acute type of allergic reaction? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Hypovolemic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septic shock ANS: C REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
28. Which type of shock results from the effects of infectious agents, such as bacteria, releasing toxins in the blood? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Neurogenic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septic shock ANS: D REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
29. Which type of shock results from a loss of sympathetic impulses sent to the smooth muscles of the blood vessels? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Neurogenic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septic shock ANS: B REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
30. Which type of shock results from any type of heart failure? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Neurogenic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Septic shock ANS: A REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
31. Which blood vessel carries blood away from the capillaries? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Venules d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
32. Which blood vessel carries blood toward the capillaries? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Venules d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: pp. 403-404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
33. Which term refers to a decrease in blood supply to a tissue, leading to gradual cell death? a. Aneurysm b. Ischemia c. Gangrene
d. Phlebitis ANS: B REF: p. 406
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of arteries
34. Another term for a cerebrovascular accident is a. a stroke. b. an aneurysm. c. a varix. d. phlebitis. ANS: A REF: p. 407
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of arteries
35. Which factor influences resistance to blood flow? a. Blood viscosity b. Blood volume c. Muscle tension in blood vessel walls d. Both A and C ANS: D REF: p. 416
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
36. Which of the following does not increase the risk of developing hypertension? a. Genetics b. Being female c. Being African American d. All of the above increase the risk of developing hypertension. ANS: B REF: p. 420
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypertension
Memorization
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Ductus arteriosus b. Artery c. Ductus venosus d. Vein e. Tunica media f. Capillary g. Tunica externa h. Hepatic portal vein i. Tunica intima j. Foramen ovale 1. 2. 3. 4.
Blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart Vessel that carries blood from the digestive system to capillaries in the liver Structure in the fetus that allows blood to bypass the immature liver Blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart
5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
The outermost layer of the blood vessel A structure in the fetus that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta Layer of the blood vessel also called the endothelium Blood vessel in which the exchange of material between the blood and the body occurs Structure in the fetus that shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium The muscle layer of the blood vessel
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF:
D p. 404 H p. 409 C pp. 412-413 B p. 403 G p. 404 A p. 413 I pp. 404-405 F p. 404 J p. 413 E p. 404
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Blood vessels 1 DIF: Circulation of blood 1 DIF: Circulation of blood 1 DIF: Blood vessels 1 DIF: Blood vessels 1 DIF: Circulation of blood 1 DIF: Blood vessels 1 DIF: Blood vessels 1 DIF: Circulation of blood 1 DIF: Blood vessels
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match each disorder or condition with its corresponding description or definition. a. Gangrene b. Aneurysm c. Cardiogenic shock d. Arteriosclerosis e. Anaphylactic shock f. Phlebitis g. Septic shock h. Varicose veins i. Hypovolemic shock j. Neurogenic shock 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
Condition that occludes arteries and weakens the arterial wall Type of shock that can occur as a complication of septicemia Disorder caused by incompetent valves in the veins Condition caused by necrosis that has progressed to the point of decay Type of shock that results directly from some type of heart failure An inflammation of a vein Type of shock that results from blood loss Type of shock that results from a severe allergic reaction
19. An abnormal widening of the artery caused by weakness of the arterial wall 20. Type of shock that results from a loss of sympathetic tone to the muscles of the blood vessels 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF:
D p. 406 G p. 421 H p. 408 A p. 406 C p. 421 F p. 408 I p. 421 E p. 421 B pp. 406-407 J p. 421
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels 1 DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels 1 DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels 1 DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock 1 DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of blood vessels 1 DIF: Memorization Circulatory shock
SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the structure of the blood vessels. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
REF: pp. 404-405
2. Relate the structure of each type of blood vessel to its particular function. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 404-405
TOP: Blood vessels
3. Explain the role of capillaries in the proper functioning of the circulatory system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 404
TOP: Blood vessels
4. What is arteriosclerosis? Identify its risk factors, and list some possible treatments for this condition? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
REF: p. 406
5. What is an aneurysm? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
REF: pp. 406-407
6. What are varicose veins, and what is their cause? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
REF: p. 408
7. What is phlebitis, and why is the formation of a thrombus more likely in a vein than in an artery? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
REF: p. 408
8. Describe systemic circulation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
REF: p. 408
9. Describe pulmonary circulation. How is blood in the pulmonary arteries and veins different from blood in the systemic arteries and veins? ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
REF: p. 408
10. Because many medications are inactivated by liver enzymes, they are almost always administered intravenously or by injection into a muscle rather than orally. Explain why these medications must be given this way. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Circulation of blood
REF: p. 420
11. Describe the ductus venosus, the ductus arteriosus, and the foramen ovale. How do these structures make fetal circulation more efficient? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Circulation of blood
REF: pp. 412-413
12. Explain the blood pressure gradient in the body. Why must the gradient be as it is? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 414
TOP: Blood pressure
13. List and briefly describe the four factors that influence blood pressure, and explain what would happen to blood pressure if each of them increased. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
REF: pp. 414-416
14. What is a pulse? Name two places in the head and neck and two places on the upper and lower extremities where a pulse can be felt. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 419
15. Explain the five mechanisms that help move blood in the veins back to the heart.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
REF: p. 418
16. Name and explain the five types of circulatory shock described in the chapter. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
REF: p. 421
TRUE/FALSE 1. Capillaries empty into arterioles. ANS: F REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
2. The thick tunica externa in arteries enables them to deal with higher blood pressure. ANS: F REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
3. The tunica media in the arteries helps maintain blood pressure and blood distribution in the body. ANS: T REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
4. The tunica intima is also called the endothelium. ANS: T REF: pp. 404-405
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
5. The tunica intima of both veins and arteries has one-way valves to prevent the backflow of blood. ANS: F REF: p. 405
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
6. Although capillaries have no tunica media, they have a tunica intima and tunica externa that are similar in thickness to those found in arterioles and venules. ANS: F REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
7. The precapillary sphincter regulates the amount of blood that flows into a capillary bed. ANS: T REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
8. Veins serve as the blood reservoirs for the body. ANS: T REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
9. Arteriosclerosis can lead to ischemia. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 406
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 406
10. Ischemia can lead to necrosis and gangrene. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
11. A varix is a section of an artery that has become abnormally wide. ANS: F REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
12. A saclike extension in an arterial wall that results from a weakness in the wall is called an aneurysm. ANS: T REF: pp. 406-407
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
13. Incompetent valves in veins cause varices. ANS: T REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
14. The term phlebitis refers to an inflammation of a vein. ANS: T REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
15. A thrombus (blood clot) is more likely to form in an artery than in a vein because of the greater blood flow through the artery. ANS: F REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of blood vessels
16. All arteries carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart
ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 408
17. All veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 408
18. In systemic circulation, arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. In pulmonary circulation, arteries carry oxygen-poor blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Circulation of blood
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 408
19. Blood that enters the liver from the hepatic portal vein has already been through one set of capillaries. ANS: T REF: p. 409
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
20. Blood leaving the liver has been detoxified and has the homeostatic level of glucose. It drains into the abdominal aorta so it can be distributed throughout the rest of the body. ANS: F REF: p. 410
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
21. The two umbilical arteries carry nutrients and oxygen from the mother to the fetus. ANS: F REF: p. 412
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
22. The single umbilical vein carries metabolic waste and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the mother. ANS: F REF: p. 412
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
23. The ductus arteriosus acts as a shunt for blood around the immature fetal liver. ANS: F REF: p. 413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
24. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. ANS: T REF: p. 413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
25. The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.
ANS: F REF: p. 413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
26. If the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus continue to function after birth, blood may bypass the lungs, which will deprive the baby of oxygen. ANS: T REF: p. 413
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Circulation of blood
27. Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in capillaries. ANS: F REF: p. 414
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
28. Blood pressure in the inferior and superior venae cavae is essentially zero. ANS: T REF: p. 414
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
29. Very high or very low blood pressure can be damaging to the body. ANS: T REF: p. 414
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
30. Blood pressure and blood volume are inversely related. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 414
Application
REF: p. 415
Application
REF: p. 415
31. As stroke volume goes up, blood pressure goes up. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
32. As cardiac output goes up, blood pressure goes up. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
33. An increase in heart rate always increases blood pressure. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 415-416
34. An increase in heart rate increases blood pressure only if there is no change in stroke volume. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 415
35. All other factors being equal, a person with polycythemia has higher blood pressure than someone without that condition. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Blood pressure
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 416
36. A person with heart failure can have a dangerously low central venous pressure. ANS: F REF: p. 418
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
37. A strong heart beat and normal arterial blood pressure assist in getting venous blood back to the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 415
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
38. Incompetent valves in veins can make it difficult for blood to return to the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 408
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
39. Because of the expansion of the lungs, deep breathing hinders the return of blood to the heart. ANS: F REF: p. 418
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood pressure
Memorization
40. The presence of a pulse depends on the beating of the heart. ANS: T TOP: Pulse
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 419
41. A pulse can be found in the head, neck, arms, and legs. ANS: T REF: p. 419
PTS: 1 TOP: Pulse
DIF:
Memorization
42. The most distal pulse can be found in the popliteal artery behind the knee. ANS: F TOP: Pulse
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 419
43. Circulatory shock can be defined as the failure of the circulatory system to deliver an adequate amount of oxygen to the tissues. ANS: T REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
44. A person who has suffered a serious loss of blood would be most at risk for cardiogenic shock. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Circulatory shock
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 421
45. A person who has suffered a severe heart attack would be most at risk of cardiogenic shock. ANS: T REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
46. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be neurogenic shock. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Circulatory shock
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 421
47. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be anaphylactic shock. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Circulatory shock
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 421
Application
REF: p. 421
48. A person with septicemia is at risk for septic shock. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Circulatory shock
1
DIF:
49. Failure of the sympathetic nervous system to maintain proper muscle tone in the arteries can lead to hypovolemic shock. ANS: F REF: p. 421
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Circulatory shock
Memorization
50. A drop in blood pressure is characteristic of all types of circulatory shock. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Circulatory shock
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 421
51. Venules receive blood from capillaries. ANS: T REF: p. 404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
52. Blood passes through blood vessels in this sequence: arteries arterioles capillaries veins venules. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 404
TOP: Blood vessels
53. Arteries and arterioles both distribute blood from the heart to the capillaries. ANS: T REF: pp. 403-404
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Blood vessels
Memorization
54. Necrosis that has progressed to tissue decay is called gangrene. ANS: T REF: p. 406
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of arteries
55. The ductus venosus shunts blood around the immature inferior vena cava to the heart. ANS: F REF: pp. 412-413
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Fetal circulation
Memorization
56. Blood with high viscosity increases the peripheral resistance of the circulatory system. ANS: T REF: p. 416
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Resistance to blood flow
57. Hypertension exists when blood pressure exceeds 130/75. ANS: F REF: p. 419
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypertension
Memorization
58. Risk factors for hypertension include age, African-American descent, and being female. ANS: F REF: p. 420
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypertension
Memorization
Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Blood capillaries and lymph capillaries have all the following in common except a. they are microscopic. b. the fluid in them continues to recirculate through the same vessels. c. they are made of endothelial tissue. d. All of the above are true of both blood capillaries and lymph capillaries. ANS: B REF: p. 431
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic that veins in the circulatory system and veins in the lymphatic system share? a. Both carry fluid toward the heart. b. Both have one-way valves. c. Both drain into the thoracic duct. d. All of the above are true of both veins of the circulatory system and veins of the lymphatic system. ANS: C REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
3. Which of the following does not help return lymph to the blood vessels? a. Lacteals b. Cisterna chyli c. Thoracic duct d. Right lymphatic duct ANS: A REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
4. The condition in which tissues swell due to the accumulation of lymph is called a. lymphadenitis. b. lymphedema. c. lymphoma. d. Hodgkin disease. ANS: B REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
5. Where do T lymphocytes mature? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Spleen c. Palatine tonsils d. Thymus ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 435
TOP: The lymphatic system
6. Which of the following is the largest lymphatic organ? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Spleen c. Palatine tonsils d. Thymus ANS: B REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
7. Which structures are also referred to as adenoids? a. Pharyngeal tonsils b. Lingual tonsils c. Palatine tonsils d. None of the above structures are referred to as adenoids. ANS: A REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
8. Which of the following is not part of nonspecific immunity? a. Tears b. Plasma cells c. Phagocytic white blood cells d. The mucous membranes of the respiratory tract ANS: B REF: p. 436
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
9. Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of _____ immunity. a. natural passive b. natural active c. artificial active d. artificial passive ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
10. The antibodies passed from the mother to the fetus protect the fetus for several weeks after birth. This is an example of _____ immunity. a. natural passive b. natural active c. artificial active d. artificial passive ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
11. If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of __________ immunity. a. natural passive
b. natural active c. artificial active d. artificial passive ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
12. If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of _____ immunity. a. natural passive b. natural active c. artificial active d. artificial passive ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
13. Which of the following is not true of antibodies? a. They are specific to an antigen. b. They release histamine to assist in the inflammation process. c. They stimulate the complement cascade. d. All of the above are true of antibodies. ANS: B REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
14. Which of the following is not true of complement? a. The complement cascade can be stimulated by antibodies. b. Complement proteins bore holes in foreign cells. c. Complement is only triggered by innate, nonspecific mechanisms. d. All of the above are true of complement. ANS: C REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
15. Which cells develop into macrophages after they move out of the circulatory system and into the tissues? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Plasma cells d. Monocytes ANS: D REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
16. Once exposed to an antigen, B lymphocytes develop into antibody-producing cells called _________ cells. a. plasma b. memory c. bursa d. Kupffer
ANS: A REF: p. 442
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
17. After birth, B cells transform from stem cells to immature B cells in a. bursa cells. b. memory cells. c. bone marrow. d. thymus gland. ANS: C REF: p. 442
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
18. In which organ do stem cells transform into T cells? a. The bursa cells b. The liver c. The spleen d. The thymus gland ANS: D REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
19. Poison ivy reactions are an example of a(n) _____ condition. a. autoimmune b. isoimmune c. allergic d. phagocytic ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
Application
REF: p. 445
20. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n) _____ condition. a. autoimmune b. isoimmune c. T cell–mediated d. B cell–mediated ANS: A REF: p. 445
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
21. The rejection of a transplanted organ is an example of a(n) _____ condition. a. autoimmune b. isoimmune c. T cell–mediated d. B cell–mediated ANS: B REF: p. 446
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
22. HIV damages the immune system by invading _____ cells. a. B b. plasma
c. T d. memory ANS: C REF: p. 448
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
23. Which of the following is not usually found in lymph? a. Excess fluid b. Protein molecules c. Platelets d. All of the above are found in lymph. ANS: C REF: p. 429
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
24. The inflammation of a lymph vessel is called a. lymphangitis. b. elephantiasis. c. lymphedema. d. cisterna chyli. ANS: A REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphedema
Memorization
25. Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes? a. The lymph node filters the lymph to remove bacteria. b. There are more afferent vessels bringing lymph into the node than efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node. c. There are more efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node than afferent vessels bringing lymph to the node. d. Lymph passes through spaces called sinuses. ANS: C REF: pp. 430-431
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymph nodes
Memorization
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic sign of inflammation? a. Heat b. Redness c. Swelling d. All of the above are characteristic signs of inflammation. ANS: D REF: p. 436
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonspecific immunity
27. Which of the following is not true of antibodies? a. They can neutralize toxins. b. They must mature in the thymus gland. c. They can stimulate the complement cascade. d. They can agglutinate “enemy” cells. ANS: B REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 TOP: Antibodies
DIF:
Memorization
28. Which of the following is not considered an antigen-presenting cell? a. Macrophages b. Plasma cells c. Dendritic cells d. Neither B nor C is an antigen-presenting cell. ANS: B REF: p. 441
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
TRUE/FALSE 1. The ultimate source of lymph is blood plasma. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 430
2. Interstitial fluid that enters the lymphatic system is called lymph. ANS: T REF: p. 429
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
3. Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made up of loose-fitting endothelium cells to allow material to move in and out easily. ANS: F REF: p. 431
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
4. Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made of endothelium. ANS: T REF: p. 431
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
5. The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct each carry about 50% of the lymph to blood vessels. ANS: F REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
6. Both the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into arteries in the neck region. ANS: F REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
7. The cisterna chyli is a storage area for lymph moving through the thoracic duct. ANS: T REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
8. The lacteals are special lymph capillaries found in the liver. ANS: F REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
9. Lymphedema is an abnormal swelling of tissue due to an accumulation of lymph. ANS: T REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
10. In rare situations, a parasitic worm can cause lymphedema. ANS: T REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
11. Efferent vessels deliver lymph to a lymph node where damaged cells and bacteria are removed. ANS: F REF: p. 433
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
12. The major function of the lymph node is to filter the lymph and remove damaged cells and bacteria. ANS: T REF: p. 433
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
13. Valves that promote fluid movement in one direction only are found in veins of the lymphatic system and veins of the circulatory system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 431
14. Lymph in the efferent vessels is “cleaner” than the lymph in the afferent vessels. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The lymphatic system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 433
15. Special clusters of lymph nodes in the intestine are called lacteals. ANS: F REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
16. Inflammation, tenderness, and swelling of a lymph node is called a lymphoma. ANS: F REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
17. One of the functions of the lymph node is to trap and destroy cancer cells.
ANS: T REF: pp. 433-434
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
18. Because it is so extensive, the lymphatic system can promote the spread of cancer from one area of the body to another. ANS: T REF: p. 434
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
19. Lymphomas are fairly common but typically benign tumors of the lymphatic system. ANS: F REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
20. Two types of malignant lymphomas are Hodgkin disease and non-Hodgkin lymphoma. ANS: T REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
21. The largest lymphatic organ is the thymus. ANS: F REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
22. The thymus is located in the neck and is important in the development of B cells after birth. ANS: F REF: pp. 434-435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
23. The thymus is located in the chest and is important in the development of T cells after birth. ANS: T REF: pp. 434-435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
24. The thymus reaches its maximum size and function in late middle age. ANS: F REF: p. 434
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
25. The thymus can also be considered an endocrine gland because it releases the hormone thyroxine. ANS: F REF: pp. 434-435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
26. There are three sets of tonsils: the palatine on each side of the throat, the lingual at the base of the tongue, and the pharyngeal near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity.
ANS: T REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
27. The palatine tonsils are also known as the adenoids. ANS: F REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
28. The spleen is the largest of the lymphatic organs. ANS: T REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
29. The spleen acts as a reservoir for blood and salvages iron from the hemoglobin of worn-out red blood cells. ANS: T REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
30. A serious infection such as scarlet fever can cause the spleen to shrink, making it difficult for the body to fight off the infection. ANS: F REF: p. 435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
31. Tears and the mucous membrane of the respiratory system can function as part of the body’s nonspecific immune system. ANS: T REF: p. 436
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
32. A person cannot get Dutch elm disease because of an inherited immunity. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 436
33. A baby getting antibodies from mother’s milk is an example of active artificial immunity. ANS: F REF: p. 438
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
34. Being protected from polio because of a polio vaccine is an example of artificial active immunity. ANS: T REF: p. 438
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
35. Being immune from mumps because you had them as a child is an example of artificial active immunity.
ANS: F REF: p. 438
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
36. A person with a severe immune system deficiency would not be able to develop natural or artificial active immunity. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
37. A person who received an injection of antibodies made by another person would have artificial active immunity. ANS: F REF: p. 438
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
38. The main difference between active and passive immunity is the source of antibodies. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
39. Both natural and artificial active immunity require a functioning immune system. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
40. Both natural and artificial passive immunity require a functioning immune system. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
41. “Lifelong” immunity would most likely be natural or artificial active immunity. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: The immune system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 438
42. Antibodies and complement are protein molecules that are important in the immune system. ANS: T REF: pp. 439-440
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
43. The combining sites on an antibody are uniquely shaped convex regions. ANS: F REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
44. Antibodies fit a specific antigen because the shape of the antigen occupies a unique site on the antibody.
ANS: T REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
45. When antibodies “agglutinate” foreign cells, they combine with antigens on the surfaces of the threatening cells to form antigen-antibody complexes that are easier for macrophages to destroy. ANS: T REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
46. An antibody cannot stimulate the complement cascade unless it is attached to an antigen. ANS: T REF: p. 439
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
47. Complement destroys foreign cells by poking holes in them and causing them to “bleed” to death. ANS: T REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
48. Macrophages and dendritic cells are considered antigen-presenting cells. ANS: T REF: p. 441
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
49. The primary function of macrophages and neutrophils is phagocytosis. ANS: T REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
50. B cells reach maturity in the thymus gland. ANS: F REF: p. 442
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
51. When a B cell comes into contact with an antigen, it develops into a plasma cell or a memory cell. ANS: T REF: p. 442
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
52. Once a B cell is transformed into a plasma cell, it can release as many as 50,000 antibodies an hour. ANS: F REF: p. 442
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
53. Lifelong immunity to a particular illness results from the formation of memory B cells, which form following an initial exposure to the disease antigen. ANS: T REF: p. 443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
54. T cells mature in the thymus gland. ANS: T REF: p. 443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
55. T cells and B cells are activated when a specific antigen attaches to them. ANS: T REF: p. 443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
56. T cells and B cells release about the same number of antibodies after they have been stimulated by an antigen. ANS: F REF: pp. 442-443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
57. Some T cells kill foreign cells by releasing toxic chemicals in the area of the antigen. ANS: T REF: p. 443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
58. B cells and T cells leave the lymph node and move to tissues to destroy antigens. ANS: F REF: pp. 442-443
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
59. The first bee sting a person experiences is not likely to generate an allergic reaction. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
Application
REF: p. 445
60. An anaphylactic reaction is most likely caused by the release of antibodies by B cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
Application
REF: p. 445
61. An allergic response caused by T cells occurs more rapidly than an allergic response caused by B cells. ANS: F REF: p. 445
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
62. In an organ transplant, the alloimmune response of the recipient must be suppressed or the organ will be rejected. ANS: T REF: p. 446
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
63. Graft-versus-host rejection occurs only if the transplanted tissue contains viable immune or stem cells. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
Application
REF: p. 447
64. One identical twin can donate an organ to the other without fear of it being rejected because their human lymphocyte antigens match. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
Application
REF: p. 447
65. Severe combined immune deficiency is an example of an acquired immune deficiency. ANS: F REF: p. 447
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
66. The only proven cause of an acquired immune deficiency is a viral infection. ANS: F REF: p. 448
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
67. The immune cell most affected by HIV is the T cell. ANS: T REF: p. 448
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
68. A person who has had an organ transplant is more likely to be considered immune deficient than a person who has not had a transplant. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Immune system deficiency
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 448
69. Excess fluid and protein molecules are returned to the blood by the lymphatic system. ANS: T REF: pp. 429-430
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
70. Lymphatic vessel inflammation is called elephantiasis. ANS: F REF: p. 432
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphedema
Memorization
71. After puberty, the thymus continues to enlarge but at a much slower rate. ANS: F REF: p. 434
PTS: 1 TOP: Thymus
DIF:
Memorization
72. Nonspecific immunity is also called humoral immunity. ANS: F REF: p. 436
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonspecific immunity
73. Heat, redness, pain, and swelling are the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response. ANS: T REF: p. 436
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nonspecific immunity
74. Specific immunity is sometimes called adaptive immunity. ANS: T REF: p. 437
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Specific immunity
Memorization
75. When neutrophils leave the blood and enter the tissue, they are called macrophages. ANS: F REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 TOP: Phagocytes
DIF:
Memorization
76. Dendritic cells are produced in the bone marrow and can be found in the blood, skin, or lining of the digestive tract. ANS: T REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 TOP: Phagocytes
DIF:
Memorization
77. The most numerous cells of the immune system are the macrophages. ANS: F REF: p. 440
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Lymphocytes
Memorization
78. T cells mediate the contact dermatitis associated with exposure and reaction to poison ivy. ANS: T REF: p. 445
PTS: 1 TOP: Allergy
DIF:
Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain how lymph is formed and how it returns to the blood. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 429-430
TOP: The lymphatic system 2. Explain how blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are similar. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: p. 431
3. Explain how blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are different. How is this difference important to the function of the lymph system? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: p. 431
4. Explain the functioning of the lymph node. Explain its role in both fighting and spreading cancer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: pp. 433-434
5. Explain the two types of lymphoma, and list the signs and symptoms of lymphoma. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: p. 435
6. Explain the location and function of the thymus. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system 7. Explain the location and function of the tonsils. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: pp. 434-435
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: p. 435
8. Explain the location and function of the spleen. Describe and give the cause of splenomegaly. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system
REF: p. 435
9. Briefly describe the inflammatory response. Explain the causes of the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response and how this response assists the immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The immune system
REF: pp. 436-437
10. Describe and give examples of natural active, natural passive, artificial active, and artificial passive immunity. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: The immune system
REF: p. 438
11. Describe the functions of antibodies. How do they activate the complement cascade? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules
REF: pp. 439-440
12. Explain the functions of complement proteins in the immune system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system molecules 13. Explain the functions of macrophages in the immune system. ANS:
REF: p. 440
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
REF: p. 440
14. Explain the development and functioning of B cells. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
REF: pp. 442-443
15. Explain how memory cells can confer lifelong immunity against a disease. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Immune system cells
REF: p. 443
16. Explain the development and functioning of T cells. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system cells
REF: p. 443
17. Explain why an allergic reaction is unlikely after the first exposure to an allergen. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system 18. Explain the difference in an allergic reaction caused by B cells and an allergic reaction caused by T cells. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system 19. What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
REF: p. 445
20. What is isoimmunity? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
REF: p. 446
21. Explain the difference between graft-versus-host rejection and host-versus-graft rejection. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
REF: p. 447
22. What can be done to prevent the rejection of transplanted tissue? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system
REF: p. 447
23. If one identical twin donates an organ to the other, why is rejection unlikely? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 447 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system 24. Give an example of a congenital immune deficiency. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency 25. Describe HIV, and explain its effect on a cell. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: p. 447
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
REF: p. 448
26. How is HIV spread? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
REF: p. 448
27. What can be done to treat an HIV infection? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Immune system deficiency
REF: p. 448
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Lacteals b. Hodgkin disease c. Thymus d. Right lymphatic duct e. Lymph node f. Thoracic duct g. Spleen h. Lymphadenitis i. Pharyngeal tonsil j. Cisterna chyli 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Largest lymphatic organ found in the abdomen Small filtering structures to which afferent lymph vessels carry lymph Lymphatic capillaries in the walls of the small intestine Also called adenoids Structure that carries most of the lymph to the blood vessels Name given to swelling and tenderness of lymph nodes Structure where T cells mature A type of malignant lymphoma Structure that returns about 25% of the lymph from the body back to the blood Part of the thoracic duct; serves as a storage area for lymph
1. ANS: G REF: p. 435 2. ANS: E
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The lymphatic system PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization
3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 433 A p. 432 I p. 435 F pp. 431-432 H p. 433 C pp. 434-435 B p. 435 D pp. 431-432 J p. 432
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system 1 DIF: Memorization The lymphatic system
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Natural active immunity b. T cell c. Antigen d. Artificial active immunity e. Macrophage f. Natural passive immunity g. B cell h. Complement i. Artificial passive immunity j. Antibody 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
One of the major phagocytic cells of the immune system Usually a foreign protein that stimulates the formation of an antibody Immunity conferred by a mother passing on antibodies to her baby through breast milk A group of proteins (activated by B cells) that can drill holes in foreign cells Immunity conferred by getting the measles and subsequently being immune to getting the disease again Lymphocytes that mature in the thymus gland Proteins, produced in great numbers by the immune system, that attach to antigens and help destroy them Immunity conferred by getting a polio vaccine that provides you with immunity to polio Lymphocytes that can become plasma cells when activated by an antigen Immunity conferred by getting a shot of hepatitis A antibodies
11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS:
E p. 440 C p. 439 F
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Immune system cells 1 DIF: Memorization Immune system molecules 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438
14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
TOP: ANS: REF: ANS: TOP: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: TOP: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
The immune system H PTS: p. 440 TOP: A PTS: The immune system B PTS: p. 434 TOP: J PTS: p. 439 TOP: D PTS: The immune system G PTS: p. 442 TOP: I PTS: p. 438 TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Immune system molecules 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438 1 DIF: Memorization Immune system cells 1 DIF: Memorization Immune system molecules 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438 1 DIF: Memorization Immune system cells 1 DIF: Memorization The immune system
Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. a. Autoimmunity b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome c. Lymphedema d. Isoimmunity e. Anaphylactic shock f. Elephantiasis g. Systemic lupus erythematosus h. Urticaria i. Contact dermatitis j. Lymphangitis 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
A life-threatening allergic reaction caused by an antigen-antibody reaction An inappropriate response to self-antigens Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel A condition caused by the HIV retrovirus Swelling in the lymphatic system that results from a parasitic worm infestation A delayed allergic reaction such as the reaction to poison ivy, triggered by T cells An excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different individual of the same species 28. An abnormal condition in which tissue exhibits swelling due to an accumulation of lymph 29. A common autoimmune disease named for the rash that often develops on the face 30. Another term for hives 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF:
E p. 445 A p. 445 J p. 432 B p. 448
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Allergy 1 DIF: Memorization Autoimmunity 1 DIF: Memorization Lymphedema 1 DIF: Memorization Acquired immune deficiency
25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS: REF: 30. ANS: REF:
F p. 432 I p. 445 D p. 446 C p. 432 G p. 445 H p. 445
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Lymphedema 1 DIF: Allergy 1 DIF: Isoimmunity 1 DIF: Lymphedema 0 DIF: Autoimmunity 0 DIF: Allergy
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
Chapter 17: Respiratory System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a respiratory organ? a. Larynx b. Diaphragm c. Bronchi d. Nose ANS: B REF: p. 460
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural plan
2. Which of the following does not directly assist in the exchange of gases between blood and
the air? a. Thin walls of the alveoli b. Thin walls of the capillaries in the lung c. Viscosity of the respiratory mucosa d. Alveolar surface area ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Structural plan
DIF: Application
REF: p. 461
3. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Pharynx d. Nose ANS: A REF: pp. 462-464
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory tracts
4. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Bronchi d. Lungs ANS: B REF: pp. 466-468
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory tracts
5. The respiratory mucosa a. helps trap contaminants found in inspired air. b. acts as a thin barrier between the blood capillaries and alveoli. c. helps humidify inspired air. d. both A and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Respiratory mucosa
DIF: Application
REF: p. 461
6. Another term for nostrils is a. nasal cavities b. nasal septum c. external nares d. internal nares ANS: C REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
7. Which of the following bones does not contain a paranasal sinus? a. Ethmoid b. Mandible c. Maxilla d. Frontal ANS: B REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
8. Which structure does not drain into the nasal cavity? a. Ethmoid sinus b. Eustachian tube c. Frontal sinus d. Lacrimal sacs ANS: B REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
9. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx? a. Tracheopharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Oropharynx d. Laryngopharynx ANS: A REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
10. Which structure is not a part of the larynx? a. Thyroid cartilage b. Vocal cords c. Epiglottis d. Eustachian tube ANS: D REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
11. Cartilage is a component of all of the following except a. primary bronchi. b. secondary bronchi. c. bronchioles. d. trachea. ANS: C REF: pp. 466-467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
12. The movement of air into and out of the lung is called a. cellular respiration. b. external respiration. c. internal respiration. d. pulmonary ventilation. ANS: D REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
13. The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called a. cellular respiration. b. external respiration. c. internal respiration. d. pulmonary ventilation. ANS: C REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
14. The use of oxygen for cell metabolism is called a. cellular respiration. b. external respiration. c. internal respiration. d. pulmonary ventilation. ANS: A REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
15. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood is called a. cellular respiration. b. external respiration. c. internal respiration. d. pulmonary ventilation. ANS: B REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
16. The two phases of pulmonary ventilation are a. inspiration and expiration. b. external respiration and internal respiration. c. external respiration and cellular respiration. d. internal respiration and cellular respiration. ANS: A REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
17. External respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the _____ than in the _____. a. blood; lungs b. blood; cells c. cells; blood d. lungs; blood ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 473
TOP: Respiration 18. Internal respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the _____ than in the _____. a. blood; lungs b. blood; cells c. cells; blood d. lungs; blood ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Breathing patterns
DIF: Application
REF: p. 480
19. The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called _____
volume. a. tidal b. residual c. inspiratory reserve d. expiratory reserve ANS: C REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
20. Which volume of air is not included in the vital capacity? a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume c. Inspiratory reserve volume d. Expiratory reserve volume ANS: B REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
21. The two most important respiratory control centers for regulating breathing are located in
which part of the brain? a. Medulla b. Pons c. Cerebral cortex d. Cerebellum ANS: A REF: p. 476
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
22. Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found in the a. medulla oblongata. b. carotid artery. c. aorta. d. both B and C. ANS: D REF: p. 476
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
23. Normal breathing is referred to as a. apnea. b. dyspnea. c. eupnea.
d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration. ANS: C REF: p. 477
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of breathing
24. Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as a. apnea. b. dyspnea. c. eupnea. d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration. ANS: B REF: p. 478
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of breathing
25. Critically ill patients often experience a repetitive cycle of alternating hyperventilation and
apnea called a. apnea. b. dyspnea. c. eupnea. d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration. ANS: D REF: p. 478
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Types of breathing
26. Besides air distribution and gas exchange, the respiratory organs a. facilitate the sense of olfaction. b. filter inhaled air. c. warm inhaled air. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 459
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
27. The total surface area of all the alveoli in the lungs would be about _____ m2. a. 58 b. 84 c. 250 d. 520 ANS: B REF: p. 468
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural plan
28. The shelflike structures that protrude into the nasal cavity on each side are called a. nasal septa. b. conchae. c. turbinates. d. both B and C. ANS: D REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
29. The vocal cords are found in the a. larynx.
DIF: Memorization
b. oropharynx. c. laryngopharynx. d. trachea. ANS: A REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
30. Croup is a type of a. rhinitis. b. pharyngitis. c. laryngitis. d. epiglottitis. ANS: C REF: p. 465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Upper respiratory infections
31. All of the following are true of the trachea except a. it is lined with a respiratory mucosa that produces mucus that continuously moves
upward. b. its framework is composed of 15 to 20 C-shaped cartilage rings. c. it is also called the windpipe. d. All of the above are true of the trachea. ANS: D TOP: Trachea
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 466
32. The respiratory tree includes all of the following except a. bronchioles. b. trachea. c. right and left bronchi. d. All of the above are a part of the respiratory tree. ANS: B REF: pp. 466-467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
33. A collapse or incomplete expansion of a lung for any reason is called a. pneumothorax. b. hemothorax. c. atelectasis. d. pleurisy. ANS: C REF: p. 470
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lungs and pleura
34. Which is a broad term to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of
expiratory airflow? a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Bronchitis d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ANS: D REF: p. 471
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders
MATCHING
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description. a. Pharynx b. Bronchi c. Alveoli d. Respiratory mucosa e. Respiratory membrane f. Bronchioles g. Lung h. Trachea i. Pleura j. Larynx 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Structure, also known as the windpipe, that connects the larynx and bronchi A thin layer of tissue that separates the air in the lungs from the blood in the lung capillaries Structures in which gas exchange between the blood and air in the lungs takes place Structure to which the auditory tubes from the middle ear lead; also called the throat Tubes that branch from the trachea and contain cartilage as part of their structure A thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs A membrane that lines most of the tubes of the air distribution system Structure that the primary bronchi enter Structure that contains the vocal cords Small air distribution tubes that have walls without cartilage
1. ANS: H REF: p. 460 2. ANS: E REF: pp. 467-468 3. ANS: C REF: p. 467 4. ANS: A REF: p. 462 5. ANS: B REF: p. 467 6. ANS: I REF: p. 469 7. ANS: D REF: p. 461 8. ANS: G REF: p. 469 9. ANS: J REF: p. 464 10. ANS: F REF: p. 467
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Trachea 1 DIF: Memorization Structural plan 1 DIF: Memorization Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli 1 DIF: Memorization Pharynx 1 DIF: Memorization Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli 1 DIF: Memorization Lungs and pleura 1 DIF: Memorization Respiratory mucosa 1 DIF: Memorization Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli 1 DIF: Memorization Larynx 1 DIF: Memorization Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description. a. Oxyhemoglobin
b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Vital capacity Pulmonary ventilation Chemoreceptors Tidal volume External respiration Bicarbonate ion Residual volume Internal respiration Pulmonary stretch receptors
The amount of air moved in and out of the lung during normal breathing The movement of air into and out of the lungs How most of the oxygen is carried in the blood Prevent damage to the lung from overinflation by inhibiting inspiration The sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume How most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lung The amount of air left in the lungs after the most forceful expiration The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissues Structures that stimulate an increase in breathing when there is too little oxygen in the blood, too much carbon dioxide in the blood, or a drop in pH in the blood
11. ANS: E REF: p. 475 12. ANS: C REF: p. 473 13. ANS: A REF: p. 481 14. ANS: J REF: p. 477 15. ANS: B REF: p. 475 16. ANS: G REF: p. 481 17. ANS: F REF: p. 471 18. ANS: H REF: p. 475 19. ANS: I REF: p. 473 20. ANS: D REF: pp. 476-477
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Blood transportation of gases 1 DIF: Memorization Respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Regulation of respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Blood transportation of gases 1 DIF: Memorization Respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Blood transportation of gases 1 DIF: Memorization Respiration 1 DIF: Memorization Regulation of respiration
Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. a. Epistaxis b. Atelectasis c. Rhinitis d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease e. Infant respiratory distress syndrome f. Pharyngitis
g. h. i. j.
Hemothorax Asthma Chronic bronchitis Epiglottitis
21. Inflammation or swelling of the nasal mucosa 22. A life-threatening condition caused by a lack of surfactant in the lung that affects premature 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
infants A broad term used to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow A life-threatening upper respiratory infection caused by a Hib infection that often strikes children between the ages of 3 and 7 A chronic inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles An incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung for any reason Another term for a sore throat An obstructive disorder characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscle of the walls of the bronchial air passages Another term for a nosebleed Refers to blood in the pleural space
21. ANS: C REF: p. 464 22. ANS: E REF: p. 468 23. ANS: D REF: p. 471 24. ANS: J REF: p. 465 25. ANS: I REF: p. 472 26. ANS: B REF: p. 470 27. ANS: F REF: p. 465 28. ANS: H REF: p. 472 29. ANS: A REF: p. 466 30. ANS: G REF: p. 470
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Upper respiratory infections 1 DIF: Memorization Respiratory distress 1 DIF: Memorization Obstructive pulmonary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Upper respiratory infections 1 DIF: Memorization Obstructive pulmonary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Lungs and pleura 1 DIF: Memorization Upper respiratory infections 1 DIF: Memorization Obstructive pulmonary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Anatomical disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Lungs and pleura
SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the respiratory membrane? Why is it so important that this membrane be thin? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 467-468
TOP: Structural plan
2. What structures are included in the upper respiratory tract? In the lower respiratory tract? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory tracts
REF: pp. 462-468
3. What is the respiratory mucosa? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory mucosa
REF: p. 461
4. Explain the function of the cilia that line the respiratory air distribution system. Explain the
effect of cigarette smoking on the cilia and why the smoke is particularly harmful to the smoker. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 461
TOP: Respiratory mucosa
5. Briefly describe the structure of the nose. Describe the paranasal sinuses and their function. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 462
6. Describe the structure of the pharynx. Explain its role in equalizing the pressure across the
eardrum. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 462-464
TOP: Pharynx
7. Explain why the number of tonsillectomies has dropped in recent years. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 463-464
8. Describe the structure of the larynx. What is the function of the epiglottis? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 464
9. Describe rhinitis. What are some of its causes? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
REF: pp. 464-465
10. What is pharyngitis? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
REF: p. 465
11. What is laryngitis? What is epiglottitis? Who is most at risk for these, and what are the
symptoms? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
REF: p. 465
12. Describe the structure of the trachea. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Trachea
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 466
13. Describe the structure and location of the primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, and
bronchioles. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
REF: pp. 466-467
14. During a severe asthma attack, the bronchioles narrow but the bronchi do not narrow nearly as
much. Explain why you would expect this to be the case. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
REF: pp. 472-473
15. Explain how the structure of the alveoli increases the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
REF: p. 468
16. What is the cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome? Who is most at risk, and how is it
treated? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory distress
REF: p. 468
17. Air passing through the upper respiratory tract must overcome some resistance to get to the
lung. If an injury caused an opening in the chest wall, what mechanisms promote a possible pneumothorax? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Lungs and pleura | Respiration
REF: pp. 469-470
18. Explain the process of normal inspiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 475
19. Explain the process of normal expiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 475
20. Explain the difference between normal inspiration and expiration and the type of inspiration
and expiration that would be needed to blow up a balloon in as few breaths as possible. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 475
TOP: Respiration
21. Explain the process of gas exchange in the lung. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: pp. 478-479
22. Explain the process of gas exchange in the tissues. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 480
23. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin than does oxygen. Why does this
make exposure to carbon dioxide so dangerous? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Blood transportation of gases
REF: p. 481
24. List and explain the volumes in pulmonary ventilation. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood transportation of gases
REF: pp. 474-475
25. Explain the role of the medulla oblongata and the pons in regulating respiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
REF: pp. 475-476
26. Explain the role of the cerebral cortex in regulating respiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
REF: p. 476
27. Explain the role of the chemoreceptors and the pulmonary stretch receptors in regulating
respiration. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
REF: pp. 476-477
28. Name and explain four types of breathing explained in the chapter. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
REF: pp. 477-478
29. Explain the symptoms and causes of pneumonia and tuberculosis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
REF: p. 471
30. Define and give an example of a restrictive pulmonary disorder. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
REF: p. 471
31. Explain the symptoms and causes of chronic bronchitis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
REF: p. 472
32. Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
REF: pp. 472-473
33. Describe lung cancer. What is the most common cause, and how can it be treated? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
REF: p. 473
TRUE/FALSE 1. The two major functions of the respiratory system are gas exchange and air distribution. ANS: T REF: p. 459
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
2. One of the reasons for the efficiency of the respiratory system is the thin layer of tissue
between the alveoli and the blood capillary. This layer is called the respiratory mucosa. ANS: F REF: p. 461
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural plan
3. The total area for gas exchange in the lung is about 10 m2, larger than the entire surface of the
body. ANS: F REF: p. 468
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Structural plan
4. The upper respiratory tract refers to structures that are outside the chest cavity. ANS: T REF: p. 460
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory tracts
5. The mucous blanket covers all of the structures of the respiratory system except the epiglottis. ANS: F REF: p. 461
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory mucosa
6. One of the functions of the mucous blanket is the removal of contaminants from inhaled air. ANS: T REF: p. 461
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory mucosa
7. The cilia found in the lower part of the respiratory system push contaminated mucus up to the
pharynx. ANS: T REF: p. 461
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory mucosa
8. Irritants such as cigarette smoke stimulate mucus production and cilia activity in an effort to
help clear the respiratory tract. ANS: F REF: p. 461
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory mucosa
9. External nares is another name for nostrils.
ANS: T REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
10. The nasal septum divides the right and left paranasal sinuses. ANS: F REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
11. The paranasal sinuses drain into the pharynx. ANS: F REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
12. It is possible for a sinus infection to infect the brain. ANS: T TOP: Nose
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
13. Tears drain into the nasal cavity. ANS: T TOP: Nose
PTS: 1
14. The functions of the conchae include warming and humidifying inspired air. ANS: T REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
15. When a person is winded and breathing through the mouth, the inspired air has a higher level
of humidity because of the higher amount of moisture in the mouth. ANS: F TOP: Nose
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
16. A person with severe respiratory problems may be put on a ventilator and have oxygen
supplied through a tube in the trachea. The oxygen must be “bubbled” through water to replace one of the functions of the upper respiratory tract. ANS: T TOP: Nose
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
17. The pharynx may also be called the throat. ANS: T REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
18. From superior to inferior, the parts of the pharynx are oropharynx, nasopharynx, and
laryngopharynx. ANS: F TOP: Pharynx
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
19. The pharynx is actually part of two body systems. ANS: T REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
20. The auditory tubes connect the middle ear and the oropharynx. ANS: F REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
21. If the auditory tubes were blocked, it could make an airplane flight very uncomfortable. ANS: T TOP: Pharynx
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 462
22. The pharynx contains tonsils. ANS: T REF: p. 463
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
23. Larynx is another name for pharynx. ANS: F REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
24. The “Adam’s apple” is part of the larynx. ANS: T REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
25. The vocal cords are found in the larynx. ANS: T REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
26. The space between the vocal cords is called the epiglottis. ANS: F REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
27. The epiglottis is made of cartilage. ANS: T REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
28. When a person swallows, the epiglottis closes to prevent food from entering the esophagus. ANS: F REF: p. 464
PTS: 1 TOP: Larynx
DIF: Memorization
29. Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same cause.
ANS: F REF: pp. 464-465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
30. Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same symptoms. ANS: T REF: pp. 464-465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
31. Pharyngitis is another name for a sore throat. ANS: T REF: p. 465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
32. Laryngitis can be caused by either bacteria or a virus. ANS: T REF: p. 465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
33. Croup is the most serious form of laryngitis and is frequently life threatening. ANS: F REF: p. 465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
34. Epiglottitis is the most serious form of laryngitis and usually occurs in the early teens. ANS: F REF: p. 465
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
35. A deviated septum results from the nasal septum being significantly “deviated” from the
midsagittal plane. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
REF: p. 465
36. Epistaxis is another name for a nosebleed. ANS: T REF: p. 466
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract
37. The trachea, or windpipe, connects the larynx to the bronchi. ANS: T REF: p. 466
PTS: 1 TOP: Trachea
DIF: Memorization
38. In order to keep the trachea open in any position, the trachea is made of O-shaped cartilage
rings stacked one on top of the other. ANS: F REF: p. 466
PTS: 1 TOP: Trachea
DIF: Memorization
39. There are two primary bronchi, one entering each lung.
ANS: T REF: pp. 466-467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
40. The primary and secondary bronchi have similar structures. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
DIF: Application
REF: pp. 466-467
41. Bronchioles are the smallest of the air distribution tubes. ANS: F REF: p. 467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
42. Bronchioles do not contain cartilage. ANS: T REF: p. 467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
43. The gas exchange function of the respiratory system occurs in the alveoli. ANS: T REF: p. 467
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
44. Surfactant is a substance that helps increase the surface tension in the alveoli to keep them
from collapsing during expiration. ANS: F REF: p. 468
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
45. The lack of surfactant causes both infant and adult respiratory distress syndrome. ANS: T REF: p. 468
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
46. There are four lobes of the lung: two on the right lung and two on the left lung. ANS: F REF: p. 469
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lungs and pleura
47. The visceral pleura is deep to the parietal pleura. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Lungs and pleura
DIF: Application
REF: p. 469
48. Pleurisy occurs when part of the lung collapses or cannot completely expand. ANS: F REF: p. 470
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lungs and pleura
49. Both a pneumothorax and a hemothorax can cause a portion of the lung to collapse. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Lungs and pleura
DIF: Application
REF: p. 470
50. Pulmonary ventilation and external respiration refer to the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
51. Neither internal respiration nor cellular respiration occurs in the lung. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 473
52. Internal respiration and cellular respiration refer to the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 473
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
53. The contraction of the diaphragm increases the size of the thoracic cavity. ANS: T REF: pp. 473-474
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
54. For inspiration to occur, the interior of the chest cavity must be below atmospheric pressure. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
PTS: 1
DIF: Synthesis
REF: p. 473
55. For normal, quiet breathing, only the abdominal muscles are needed for respiration. ANS: F REF: p. 474
PTS: 1 TOP: Respiration
DIF: Memorization
56. To blow out all of the candles on a birthday cake, a person would use the abdominal muscles
and the internal intercostals. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 474
57. For gas exchange to occur in the lungs, the alveoli must have a higher oxygen content than the
blood and a lower carbon dioxide content than the blood. ANS: T TOP: Respiration
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 478
58. If external respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the lung will have more
oxyhemoglobin and less carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the lung. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood transportation of gases
DIF: Application
REF: p. 481
59. Most of the oxygen in the blood is carried as oxyhemoglobin and most of the carbon dioxide
in the blood is carried as carbaminohemoglobin.
ANS: F REF: p. 481
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Blood transportation of gases
60. If internal respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the tissues will have less
oxyhemoglobin and more carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the tissues. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Blood transportation of gases
DIF: Application
REF: p. 480
61. The amount of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing is called
tidal volume. ANS: T REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
62. The sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume is equal
to the residual volume. ANS: F REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
63. Residual volume is considered part of expiratory reserve volume. ANS: F REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
64. If you have exercised very vigorously and are breathing very hard, your tidal volume has
increased, but your inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume has decreased. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Breathing patterns
DIF: Application
REF: p. 475
65. When the cells need more oxygen, the rate and depth of breathing increase and the heart rate
increases. ANS: T REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
66. The two most important respiratory control centers in the body are in the cerebral cortex. ANS: F REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
67. The brainstem has the most important role in the control of respiration. ANS: T REF: p. 475
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
68. A rise in pH will stimulate the chemoreceptors of the carotid artery and aorta and cause an
increase in breathing rate. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 476
TOP: Regulation of respiration 69. The pulmonary stretch receptors act to inhibit inspiration so the lungs do not become
overinflated. ANS: T REF: p. 477
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of respiration
70. Restrictive pulmonary disorders inhibit inspiration. ANS: T REF: p. 471
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract
71. The respiratory system assists in the sense of olfaction. ANS: T REF: p. 459
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
72. The trachea is part of the upper respiratory tract. ANS: F REF: p. 460
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Respiratory tracts
73. The four paranasal sinuses are found in the frontal, maxillary, mandibular, and sphenoid
bones. ANS: F REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
74. Conchae and turbinates are the same structures. ANS: T REF: p. 462
PTS: 1 TOP: Nose
DIF: Memorization
75. The palatine tonsils are also called adenoids. ANS: F REF: p. 463
PTS: 1 TOP: Pharynx
DIF: Memorization
76. The trachea is lined with the respiratory membrane to trap dust and pollen in the air. ANS: F TOP: Trachea
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 466
77. Atelectasis is defined as the incomplete expansion or collapse of the lung for any reason. ANS: T REF: p. 470
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Lungs and pleura
78. Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate. ANS: T
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 477
TOP: Breathing patterns
79. Dyspnea that is relieved by moving to an upright or sitting position is called apnea. ANS: F REF: p. 478
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Breathing patterns
Chapter 18: Digestive System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following types of food processing occurs only in the digestive system? a. Metabolism b. Absorption c. Digestion d. Both B and C ANS: D REF: p. 493
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. The cone-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the a. frenulum. b. papilla. c. uvula. d. palatine tonsil. ANS: C REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
3. Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities when a person swallows? a. Frenulum b. Uvula c. Hard palate d. Both B and C ANS: B REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
4. Which bone is not part of the hard palate? a. Mandibular bone b. Maxillary bone c. Palatine bone d. All of the above bones are part of the hard palate. ANS: A REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
5. Which substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown? a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Dentin d. Pulp ANS: B REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
6. Which substance is the outer covering of the neck and root of the tooth? a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Dentin d. Pulp ANS: A REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
7. Which bonelike material makes up the portion of the tooth exposed in the mouth? a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Dentin d. Pulp ANS: C REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
8. Which is one of the most common diseases of the mouth and teeth in the developed world? a. Periodontitis b. Dental caries c. Gingivitis d. Thrush ANS: B REF: p. 500
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
9. Which condition results from an infection by a yeastlike fungal organism? a. Periodontitis b. Dental caries c. Gingivitis d. Thrush ANS: D REF: p. 501
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
10. Which of the following is not a salivary gland? a. Sublingual gland b. Submandibular gland c. Submaxillary gland d. Parotid gland ANS: C REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
11. Which enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates? a. Salivary amylase b. Salivary maltase c. Salivary sucrase
d. Salivary lactase ANS: A REF: p. 499
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
12. Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis? a. Serosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Mucosa ANS: C REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
13. In the abdominal cavity, which layer of the wall of the digestive tract consists in part of the visceral peritoneum? a. Serosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Mucosa ANS: A REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
14. Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract contains blood vessels and nerves? a. Serosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis d. Mucosa ANS: B REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
15. Which part of a full stomach may prevent the diaphragm from moving downward and possibly cause difficulty with taking a deep breath? a. Body b. Pylorus c. Fundus d. Rugae ANS: C TOP: Stomach
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 504
16. The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following? a. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum b. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum c. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum d. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum ANS: D REF: p. 506
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
17. Which structure does not increase the surface area of the lining of the small intestine? a. Microvilli b. Lacteals c. Villi d. Plicae ANS: B REF: p. 508
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
18. To get to the small intestine, bile produced by the liver would have to pass through all of the following structures except a. cystic duct. b. hepatic duct. c. common bile duct. d. Bile would have to pass through all of these structures. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 509
19. The effect of cholecystokinin is to a. stimulate the liver to produce bile. b. stimulate the liver to release bile. c. cause contraction of the gallbladder to release bile. d. inhibit the production of bile in the liver. ANS: C REF: p. 509
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder
20. What might result if untreated gallstones block the bile ducts? a. Hepatitis A b. Jaundice c. Hepatitis B d. Cirrhosis ANS: B REF: p. 510
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
21. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. proteins. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 511
PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Memorization
22. The order in which material passes through the large intestine is a. descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum. b. ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon. c. cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon.
d. cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon. ANS: D REF: p. 512
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Memorization
23. The splenic flexure joins the _____ colon to the _____ colon. a. ascending; descending b. ascending; transverse c. transverse; descending d. descending; sigmoid ANS: C REF: p. 512
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Memorization
24. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease of the digestive system? a. Crohn disease b. Diverticulitis c. Dysentery d. None of the above is an autoimmune disease. ANS: A REF: p. 515
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine
25. Which of the following is not an important extension of the peritoneum? a. Greater omentum b. Mesentery c. Fundus d. All of the above are extensions of the peritoneum. ANS: C REF: p. 516
PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum
DIF:
Memorization
26. The process of carbohydrate digestion primarily takes place in the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. ANS: C TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
27. Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion? a. Fatty acids b. Glycerol c. Simple sugars d. Amino acids ANS: D REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
28. Protein digestion begins in the a. mouth.
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 518
b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. ANS: B REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
29. Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion? a. Amino acids b. Glycerol c. Simple sugars d. Both A and B ANS: B REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
30. Most fat digestion occurs in which organ? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: C REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
31. Which of the following is a general term for inflammation or infection of the gums? a. Periodontitis b. Gingivitis c. Caries d. Candidiasis ANS: B REF: p. 501
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
32. The largest of the salivary glands is the _____ gland. a. sublingual b. submaxillary c. parotid d. submandibular ANS: C REF: p. 499
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
33. Mumps is a viral infection of which salivary gland? a. Sublingual gland b. Parotid gland c. Submandibular gland d. Submaxillary gland ANS: B REF: p. 500
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
34. The stomach wall has how many layers of muscle? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C REF: p. 504
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
35. Pyloric stenosis is a. an obstructive narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. b. a condition in which the pyloric sphincter muscles do not relax, so food cannot leave the stomach. c. caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. d. both A and C. ANS: A REF: p. 505
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
36. Which of the following are lymph capillaries in the small intestine? a. Plicae b. Lacteals c. Villi d. Duodenal papillae ANS: B REF: p. 508
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
37. Which duct drains bile from the gallbladder? a. Hepatic duct b. Common bile duct c. Cystic duct d. Papillary duct ANS: C REF: p. 509
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder
38. Which of the following is not true of the pancreas? a. It is an endocrine gland. b. It is an exocrine gland. c. It secretes enzymes that help digest the three major kinds of food. d. All of the above are true of the pancreas. ANS: D REF: p. 511
PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Memorization
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding function or description. a. Large intestine b. Pancreas
c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Liver Stomach Esophagus Salivary gland Gallbladder Mouth Pharynx Small intestine
Structure through which food enters the digestive tract Structure that concentrates and stores bile Absorbs water, salts, and some vitamins Produces amylase, which begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates Produces bile Contains sections called the body, the pylorus, and the fundus Tubelike structure that connects the mouth and esophagus Structure that has villi and microvilli lining its interior walls to assist in absorption A collapsible tube that carries food to the stomach Produces a digestive juice containing enzymes that digest all three types of food
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: TOP: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF:
H PTS: p. 496 TOP: G PTS: p. 509 TOP: A PTS: p. 514 TOP: F PTS: Salivary glands C PTS: p. 509 TOP: D PTS: p. 504 TOP: I PTS: p. 501 TOP: J PTS: p. 508 TOP: E PTS: p. 502 TOP: B PTS: p. 511 TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Mouth 1 DIF: Memorization Liver and gallbladder 1 DIF: Memorization Large intestine 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 499 1 DIF: Memorization Liver and gallbladder 1 DIF: Memorization Stomach 1 DIF: Memorization Pharynx 1 DIF: Memorization Small intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Esophagus 1 DIF: Memorization Pancreas
Match each term with its corresponding description or function. a. Enamel b. Muscularis layer c. Villi d. Hard palate e. Splenic flexure f. Common bile duct
g. h. i. j. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Cementum Submucosa Mesentery Hepatic flexure
Increases the surface area of the interior wall of the small intestine Covers the neck and root regions of the tooth Forms by the joining of the cystic and hepatic ducts Covers the crown area of the tooth Layer of the wall of the digestive tract that generates peristalsis One of the extensions of the peritoneum Part of the large intestine that joins the ascending and transverse colon Part of the large intestine that joins the transverse and descending colon Forms the roof of the mouth Layer of the wall of the digestive tract that contains nerves and blood vessels
11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF:
C p. 508 G p. 498 F p. 509 A p. 498 B p. 496 I p. 516 J p. 512 E p. 512 D p. 496 H p. 496
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Small intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Teeth 1 DIF: Memorization Liver and gallbladder 1 DIF: Memorization Teeth 1 DIF: Memorization Wall of the digestive tract 1 DIF: Memorization Peritoneum 1 DIF: Memorization Large intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Large intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Mouth 1 DIF: Memorization Wall of the digestive tract
Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description. a. Ulcer b. Cholelithiasis c. Mumps d. Hepatitis e. Caries f. Gastroenteritis g. Leukoplakia h. Crohn disease i. Gingivitis j. Peritonitis
k. Ascites l. Diverticulitis 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
One of the most common diseases of the enamel, dentin, and cementum of the teeth Condition of having gallstones White patches in the mouth that can develop in users of smokeless tobacco An inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall A craterlike sore in the stomach or duodenum frequently caused by H. pylori A viral infection of the parotid salivary gland Inflammation of the peritoneum A general term for infection or inflammation of the gums Inflammation of both the stomach and small intestine A general term referring to inflammation of the liver An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space A type of autoimmune colitis
21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS: REF: 30. ANS: REF: 31. ANS: REF: 32. ANS: REF:
E p. 500 B p. 509 G p. 499 L p. 514 A p. 505 C p. 500 J p. 517 I p. 501 F p. 508 D p. 510 K p. 517 H p. 515
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the mouth and teeth 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the liver and gallbladder 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the mouth and teeth 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the large intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the stomach 1 DIF: Memorization Salivary glands 1 DIF: Memorization Peritoneum 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the mouth and teeth 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the small intestine 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the liver and gallbladder 1 DIF: Memorization Peritoneum 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the large intestine
SHORT ANSWER 1. Why can material in the digestive tract be considered outside the body? ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
REF: p. 493
2. List the three kinds of processing that food undergoes after entering the body and explain where each occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
REF: p. 493
3. Explain the structure of the mouth. What is the uvula? What is the frenulum? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 496-497
4. List and describe the four types of teeth. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 497
5. Why would fewer Asians than Americans need to have their wisdom teeth (third molars) removed? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 497-498
TOP: Teeth
6. Describe the typical tooth. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
7. Describe two disorders of the mouth and teeth. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
REF: pp. 499-501
8. Name and describe the salivary glands, including where each gland drains into the mouth. What do salivary glands contribute to chemical digestion? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 498-499
TOP: Salivary glands
9. What is the name of the infection of the parotid salivary gland? ANS: Mumps PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
REF: p. 500
10. Name and describe the four layers of the wall of the digestive tract. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
REF: pp. 495-496
11. Describe the structure of the esophagus. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 502
12. What is GERD? How is it treated, and what are some serious consequences of untreated GERD? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 503
13. Describe the structure of the stomach. What is the role of hydrochloric acid in the chemical digestion of protein? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Stomach | Digestion
REF: p. 504 | p. 518
14. What is an ulcer? List some possible causes of ulcers, and explain what is meant by triple therapy. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
REF: pp. 505-506
15. Describe the small intestine. What structures in the small intestine assist in its function of absorption? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Application
REF: p. 506 | p. 508
16. Describe the role of the liver and gallbladder in digestion. What is the function of cholecystokinin? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder
REF: p. 509
17. What are gallstones? What are possible consequences of untreated gallstones? How can gallstones be treated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
REF: pp. 509-510
18. What is hepatitis, and what are some possible causes? What is cirrhosis, and what are some possible causes? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
REF: pp. 510-511
19. Describe the pancreas, and explain its role in digestion. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 511
20. Describe the large intestine. What things are absorbed in the large intestine? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Memorization
REF: pp. 512-514
21. Explain why a person on long-term antibiotic therapy might develop blood-clotting problems. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: pp. 513-514
TOP: Large intestine
22. Name and explain two disorders of the large intestine. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine
REF: pp. 514-515
23. Describe the peritoneum. What are the two major extensions of the peritoneum? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 516
24. What is peritonitis? What is ascites? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 517
25. Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Digestion | Absorption
REF: p. 517 | p. 519
26. Fully explain the process of carbohydrate digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 518
27. Fully explain the process of protein digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 518-519
28. Fully explain the process of fat digestion. Include the substances used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. How is bile different from the other substances used in the digestion of foods? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 519
TOP: Digestion
29. People who are lactose intolerant (unable to digest lactose) are treated by ingesting an enzyme before a meal containing dairy food. Which enzyme are they given? ANS: Lactase PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 518
TOP: Digestion
30. Explain the process of absorption. Why is this process so important? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 519-520
TOP: Absorption
TRUE/FALSE 1. Another name for the gastrointestinal tract is the alimentary canal. ANS: T REF: p. 493
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. Digestion and metabolism occur only in the digestive system, whereas absorption occurs in every cell in the body. ANS: F REF: p. 493
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
3. The soft and hard palates make up the roof of the mouth. ANS: T REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
4. The soft palate and the frenulum prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing. ANS: F REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
PTS:
DIF:
Application
5. All teeth have cusps. ANS: F TOP: Teeth
1
REF: p. 497
6. By the age of 2, most children have 20 teeth, their full set of baby teeth. ANS: T REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
7. Most of the crown of the tooth is made of enamel. ANS: F TOP: Teeth
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 498
8. The neck and root of the tooth are covered by cementum. ANS: T TOP: Teeth
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
9. The crown of the tooth is mostly composed of dentin. ANS: T REF: p. 498
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 498
10. Leukoplakia, primarily caused by tobacco use, can develop into cancer. ANS: T REF: p. 499
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
11. Dental caries is one of the most common diseases of underdeveloped countries. ANS: F REF: p. 500
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
12. Untreated periodontitis can lead to gingivitis. ANS: F REF: p. 501
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
13. People who have had organ transplants and are taking immunosuppressive drugs have an increased risk of thrush. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 501
14. The salivary glands begin the process of chemical digestion. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Salivary glands
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 499
15. The largest of the salivary glands is the submandibular gland. ANS: F REF: p. 499
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
16. The muscularis layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for moving food though the digestive tract. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 496
17. In the abdominal cavity, the submucosa is composed of the visceral peritoneum. ANS: F REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
18. The lower esophageal sphincter separates the stomach and the esophagus. ANS: T REF: p. 502
PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus
DIF:
Memorization
19. An ineffective lower esophageal sphincter could lead to Barrett esophagus.
ANS: T TOP: Esophagus
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 503
20. In a hiatal hernia, the esophagus passes through the diaphragm muscle. ANS: F REF: p. 503
PTS: 1 TOP: Esophagus
DIF:
Memorization
21. The gastric glands secrete gastric juices and hydrochloric acid to raise the pH of the stomach. ANS: F TOP: Stomach
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 504
22. The stomach is divided into three parts: the body, the fundus, and the pylorus. ANS: T REF: p. 504
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
23. With a hiatal hernia, the fundus will likely pass through the opening of the diaphragm. ANS: T TOP: Stomach
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 503-504
24. The pyloric sphincter prevents food and gastric juice from backing up into the esophagus. ANS: F REF: p. 505
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
25. A pylorospasm, a fairly common condition in infants, can prevent food from leaving the stomach and moving into the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 505
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
26. Spicy foods and smoking are the primary causes of ulcers. ANS: F REF: p. 505
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
27. Chewing tobacco, consuming excessive alcohol, and eating smoked or preserved foods are risk factors in developing stomach cancer. ANS: T REF: p. 506
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
28. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals add surface area to the inner layer of the small intestine.
ANS: F REF: p. 506
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
29. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals assist in the absorptive function of the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 508
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
30. The perfectly smooth walls of the small intestine ensure food moves through it more efficiently. ANS: F REF: p. 508
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
31. Products from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas empty into the duodenum of the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 506
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Small intestine
Memorization
32. People who are lactose intolerant do not have enough lactase to digest lactose sugar. This is a type of malabsorption syndrome. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the small intestine
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 509
33. The liver produces bile. ANS: T REF: p. 509
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Liver and gallbladder
34. All bile going to the small intestine must pass through the cystic duct, the hepatic duct, and the common bile duct. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 509
35. The end result of cholecystokinin release is more fat emulsification in the small intestine. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Liver and gallbladder
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 509
36. Gallstones that block the common bile duct can lead to jaundice. ANS: T REF: p. 509
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
37. Rapid weight loss greatly reduces the risk of gallstones.
ANS: F REF: p. 510
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
38. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cirrhosis are all liver conditions caused by viruses. ANS: F REF: pp. 510-511
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder
39. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland. ANS: T TOP: Pancreas
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 511
40. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that can digest carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. ANS: T REF: p. 511
PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Memorization
41. The ileocecal valve separates the ileum of the small intestine from the cecum of the large intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 512
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Memorization
42. Because the large intestine is important in the absorption of water, salts, and vitamins, the walls of the large intestine are covered with villi, just like the walls of the small intestine. ANS: F REF: p. 512
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Large intestine
Memorization
43. Materials moving through the large intestine will pass through the splenic flexure before they pass through the hepatic flexure. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Large intestine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 512
44. Both diarrhea and constipation can be peristalsis problems. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 514
45. People with colonic polyps have an increased risk of colon cancer. ANS: T REF: p. 515
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine
46. The parietal peritoneum is deep to the visceral peritoneum. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 516
TOP: Peritoneum 47. The stomach is covered by the visceral peritoneum. ANS: T TOP: Peritoneum
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 516
48. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space is called peritonitis. ANS: F REF: p. 517
PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum
DIF:
Memorization
49. The greater omentum and the mesentery are the two most prominent extensions of the peritoneum. ANS: T REF: p. 516
PTS: 1 TOP: Peritoneum
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
50. Amylase breaks down starch to glucose. ANS: F REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
51. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. ANS: F REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
52. Simple sugars are the end product of carbohydrate digestion. ANS: T REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
53. The process of protein digestion begins in the stomach. ANS: T REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
54. Pepsinogen and trypsin are enzymes that digest protein. ANS: F TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 518
55. Protein digestion begins in the stomach but is completed in the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 518
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
56. Amino acids are the end product of fat digestion.
Memorization
ANS: F REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
57. Carbohydrate digestion begins and ends in the small intestine. ANS: F TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 518
58. Fat digestion primarily begins and ends in the small intestine. ANS: T REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
59. Bile and lipase are the enzymes involved in the chemical digestion of fat. ANS: F TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 519
60. Bile causes mechanical rather than chemical digestion of fat. ANS: T TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 517
61. The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and glycerol. ANS: T REF: p. 519
PTS: 1 TOP: Digestion
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Application
62. Trypsin would be considered a protease. ANS: T TOP: Digestion
PTS:
1
REF: p. 518
63. Digestion is necessary only because the food molecules cannot be absorbed as ingested. ANS: T TOP: Absorption
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 519
64. Because the concentration of digested food is much higher in the small intestine than it is in the blood, absorption occurs by diffusion. ANS: F REF: p. 520
PTS: 1 TOP: Absorption
DIF:
Memorization
65. Lacteals are lymphatic vessels that are important in the absorption of fats. ANS: T REF: p. 520
PTS: 1 TOP: Absorption
DIF:
Memorization
66. The digestion of food includes both mechanical and chemical digestion. ANS: T REF: p. 493
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
67. Bacteria in the large intestine make vitamin C for the body. ANS: F REF: p. 493
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
68. The hard palate is made up of two bones, the maxillary and the sphenoid. ANS: F REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
69. The word deglutition means swallowing. ANS: T REF: p. 502
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
70. Taste buds are located on the sides of papillae. ANS: T REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Mouth
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
71. The word mastication means chewing. ANS: T REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
72. It is considered normal for adults to have either 32 or 36 teeth depending on the presence of wisdom teeth. ANS: F REF: p. 497
PTS: 1 TOP: Teeth
DIF:
Memorization
73. Mumps is a viral infection of the submandibular salivary gland. ANS: F REF: p. 500
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Salivary glands
Memorization
74. Although the mouth is considered part of the digestive system, only mechanical digestion takes place there. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Salivary glands
1
DIF:
75. The hollow space in a tube is called the lumen.
Application
REF: p. 499
ANS: T REF: p. 495
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
76. The mesentery anchors the loops of the digestive tract to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity. ANS: T REF: p. 496
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Wall of the digestive tract
77. The semisolid mixture of food and gastric juice in the stomach is called chyme. ANS: T REF: p. 504
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
78. Rugae in the stomach are seen only when the stomach is full. ANS: F REF: p. 504
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
79. The upper right border of the stomach is known as the greater curvature. ANS: F REF: p. 504
PTS: 1 TOP: Stomach
DIF:
Memorization
80. Most gastric and duodenal ulcers result from infection with the bacterium H. pylori. ANS: T REF: p. 505
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the stomach
81. The pancreatic duct enters the small intestine about 3 cm proximal to the entry of the common bile duct. ANS: F REF: pp. 511-512
PTS: 1 TOP: Pancreas
DIF:
Memorization
82. Colitis is an inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall. ANS: F REF: p. 514
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the large intestine
83. The vermiform appendix was named as such because it looks like a worm. ANS: T REF: p. 515
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Appendix and appendicitis
84. As a person ages, the likelihood of developing appendicitis increases. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 516
TOP: Appendix and appendicitis
85. Peritonitis is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space. ANS: F REF: p. 517
PTS: 1 TOP: Ascites
DIF:
Memorization
Chapter 19: Nutrition and Metabolism Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not considered part of metabolism? a. Assimilation b. Catabolism c. Anabolism d. All of the above are part of metabolism. ANS: A REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Producing plasma proteins b. Producing bile for the chemical digestion of fat c. Helping maintain the proper blood glucose level d. All of the above are functions of the liver. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 534
3. Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Detoxifying bacterial toxins b. Detoxifying certain drugs c. Storing iron d. All of the above are functions of the liver. ANS: D REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
4. Which of the following proteins produced by the liver is not involved in blood clot formation? a. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin c. Albumin d. All of the above proteins are involved in blood clot formation. ANS: C REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
5. Which of the following is not true of the process of glycolysis? a. It is the first step in carbohydrate metabolism. b. It occurs in the mitochondria. c. Its end product is pyruvic acid. d. It does not require oxygen. ANS: B REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
6. Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle? a. It is the last step in carbohydrate metabolism. b. It occurs in the mitochondria. c. One of its end products is carbon dioxide. d. It requires oxygen. ANS: A REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
7. Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain? a. It occurs in the mitochondria. b. It takes the high-energy electrons and converts them to energy in the form of ADP. c. It is the third step in carbohydrate metabolism. d. All of the above are true of the electron transport chain. ANS: B REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
8. Glycogenesis a. is also called glucose anabolism. b. can occur in liver cells. c. can occur in muscle cells. d. All of the above are true of glycogenesis. ANS: D REF: p. 536
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
9. Which is the only hormone that can reverse hyperglycemia? a. Glucagon b. Growth hormone c. Insulin d. Hydrocortisone ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
10. Which hormone raises blood sugar levels? a. Glucagon b. Growth hormone c. Insulin d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: p. 537
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
11. Which of the following is not true of fat metabolism? a. Metabolized fat is used as a source of energy. b. Fat is catabolized by the process of glycolysis. c. Anabolized fat is stored in adipose tissue. d. All of the above are true of fat metabolism.
REF: p. 537
ANS: B REF: pp. 537-538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
12. Which is not true of protein metabolism? a. In a healthy person, protein anabolism occurs more often than protein catabolism. b. In a healthy person, protein catabolism occurs more often than protein anabolism. c. Nonessential amino acids are needed in the formation of proteins. d. Amino acids can be built into complex proteins. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
13. Which of the following is not true of vitamins? a. They are inorganic molecules. b. They attach to enzymes to help them function. c. They can act as antioxidants. d. Too little or too much of a vitamin can be harmful. ANS: A REF: p. 538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
14. The body is unable to store which of the following vitamins? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin K ANS: B REF: p. 539
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
15. The condition scurvy results from a lack of vitamin a. A. b. E. c. C. d. K. ANS: C REF: p. 539
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
16. Which statement about minerals is untrue? a. They are inorganic substances. b. They are as important as vitamins. c. They assist in the function of enzymes. d. Unlike vitamins, large amounts of minerals are not harmful. ANS: D REF: p. 540
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
17. Which of the following is not part of basal conditions? a. Not digesting a meal b. Being asleep
REF: p. 538
c. Being in a comfortably warm room d. All of the above are basal conditions. ANS: B REF: p. 541
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Memorization
18. Which of the following statements is true? a. The BMR must be lower than the TMR. b. The TMR must be lower than the BMR. c. Consistent caloric intake above the BMR will cause a gain in weight. d. Both A and C are true. ANS: A PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 541
19. The condition that results from a diet that is sufficient in calories but deficient in protein is called a. anorexia nervosa. b. marasmus. c. kwashiorkor. d. bulimia. ANS: C REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
20. Which type of heat loss is the flow of heat waves away from the body? a. Evaporation b. Radiation c. Convection d. Conduction ANS: B REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
21. Which type of heat loss occurs when liquid water turns to water vapor? a. Evaporation b. Radiation c. Convection d. Conduction ANS: A REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
22. Which type of heat loss occurs when body heat is used to heat the air flowing away from the skin? a. Evaporation b. Radiation c. Convection d. Conduction ANS: C REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
23. Which of the following is a method used by the body to conserve or generate heat? a. Reducing blood flow to the skin b. Shivering c. Increasing the level or metabolism-stimulating hormone d. All of the above are methods to conserve heat. ANS: D REF: p. 545
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
24. Which of the following is a rise in body temperature that is used to help the immune system fight a pathogen? a. Malignant hyperthermia b. Heat exhaustion c. Fever d. Hypothermia ANS: C REF: p. 545
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
25. Which is an inherited condition that causes a rise in body temperature in response to some types of anesthesia? a. Malignant hyperthermia b. Heat exhaustion c. Fever d. Hypothermia ANS: A REF: pp. 545-546
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
26. Which of the following is not true of catabolism? a. Catabolism releases energy. b. It is part of metabolism. c. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules. d. All of the above are true of catabolism. ANS: C REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
27. Which of the following is not true of anabolism? a. Anabolism releases energy. b. It is part of metabolism. c. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules. d. All of the above are true of anabolism. ANS: A REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
28. Which of the following is not true of ATP? a. It contains an adenosine group. b. It stores energy for the body.
Memorization
c. It can be used by the cell directly for energy. d. All of the above are true of ATP. ANS: B REF: pp. 535-536
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Glycolysis b. Glycogenesis c. Catabolism d. Mineral e. ATP f. Assimilation g. TMR h. Citric acid cycle i. Anabolism j. Glucose k. Electron transport chain l. BMR m. Vitamin 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
The second process of glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and uses oxygen The number of calories needed per hour to keep the body alive, awake, and comfortable The food the cell would prefer to use for energy The process of glucose anabolism Term that refers to food entering the cell and undergoing many chemical changes An inorganic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function The last process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and produces ATP Substance the body uses as its source of immediate energy An organic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function The first process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the cytoplasm and does not use oxygen Process used to release energy from food The total amount of energy used by the body per day Process that builds simple food molecules into more complex compounds
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS:
H p. 535 L p. 541 J p. 535 B p. 536 F p. 533 D
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic rates 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 540 K p. 535 E p. 535 M p. 538 A p. 535 C p. 533 G p. 541 I p. 533
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic rates 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction
Match each of the following vitamins with its function. a. Vitamin D (calciferol) b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin E (tocopherol) e. Vitamin B3 f. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) g. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Helps in the manufacture of collagen fibers Helps maintain epithelial tissue and produces visual pigments Protects cell membranes from being catabolized Aids in calcium absorption Involved in blood production and other processes Helps enzymes in the citric acid cycle Helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids
14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF:
F p. 540 B p. 540 D p. 540 A p. 540 C p. 540 E p. 540 G p. 540
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals
Match each disorder with its corresponding definition or description. a. Malignant hyperthermia b. Heat exhaustion c. Hyperthermia d. Scurvy e. Marasmus f. Heatstroke g. Bulimia h. Fever i. Kwashiorkor j. Anorexia nervosa 21. A serious condition in which the body is unable to maintain normal body temperature in a very warm environment; body temperature can rise to dangerous levels 22. Results from too little vitamin C 23. Results from a diet that has enough calories but too little protein 24. An inherited condition that causes an increase in body temperature in response to certain anesthetics 25. A behavioral disorder characterized by a chronic refusal to eat, often because of an abnormal fear of becoming obese 26. Condition that occurs when the body loses a large amount of fluid resulting from heat-loss mechanisms in warm conditions; normal body temperature is usually maintained 27. Results from an insufficient intake of both protein and calories 28. The inability to maintain normal body temperatures in very cold environmental conditions; characterized by a body temperature lower than 95° F 29. A behavioral disorder characterized by insatiable craving for food followed by periods of self-deprivation 30. An abnormally high body temperature brought about by a systemic inflammation response 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS: REF: 30. ANS:
F p. 546 D p. 539 I p. 544 A pp. 545-546 J p. 543 B p. 546 E p. 543 C p. 546 G p. 543 H
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 545
TOP: Body temperature
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define and give examples of the processes of anabolism and catabolism. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 533
TOP: Introduction
2. List the functions of the liver. Which of these are specifically related to nutrition and metabolism? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
REF: p. 534
3. Explain the role of the hepatic portal system in helping to maintain a constant source of nutrients for the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
REF: p. 534
4. Explain the process of glycolysis. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 535
5. Explain the citric acid cycle. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism 6. What occurs in the electron transport chain?
REF: p. 535
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 535
7. Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: pp. 535-536
8. Explain the process of glucose anabolism. Where does it occur? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 537
9. What is the result of fat anabolism? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: pp. 537-538
10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. How can nonessential amino acids be obtained? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 538
11. Explain how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 537
12. What are vitamins, and what is their function in the body?
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
REF: pp. 538-539
13. Name and give the function of four vitamins needed by the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
REF: p. 540
14. What are minerals, and what is their function in the body? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
REF: p. 540
15. Name and give the function of four minerals needed by the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
REF: p. 541
16. What is the BMR? What is meant by basal conditions? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Memorization
REF: p. 541
17. If a person’s TMR is 2,400 calories, would the BMR be more or less than this? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 541
TOP: Metabolic rates
18. Describe anorexia nervosa. Who is most at risk and how is it treated?
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
REF: p. 543
19. Explain the cycle of bulimia. What harmful consequences can result from bulimia? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
REF: p. 543
20. What is obesity? List the conditions for which obesity is a risk factor. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
REF: p. 543
21. Explain the protein-calorie malnutrition conditions marasmus and kwashiorkor. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
REF: pp. 543-544
22. List and explain the four ways that heat is lost from the body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
REF: p. 544
23. Why is sweating an inefficient way of cooling the body in a humid environment? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 544
TOP: Body temperature
24. Explain the four conditions that occur when body temperature rises or there is a problem associated with the heat-loss mechanisms. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
REF: pp. 545-546
25. Explain the two conditions that occur when the body is unable to keep itself sufficiently warm. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
REF: p. 546
TRUE/FALSE 1. The way the body uses food is one definition for metabolism. ANS: T REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. The end products of catabolism are simpler molecules than the original reactants. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Introduction
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 533
3. The end products of anabolism are simpler molecules than the original reactants. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Introduction
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 533
4. Bile is made in the liver and breaks down fat to glycerol and fatty acids. ANS: F REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
5. The liver makes the plasma proteins albumin and fibrinogen, both of which are important in blood clot formation. ANS: F REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
6. The liver makes the plasma protein albumin, which helps maintain blood volume. ANS: T REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
7. The liver is able to store the fat-soluble vitamins A and E.
ANS: F REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
8. The three consecutive phases of glucose metabolism are glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system. ANS: T REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
9. Glucose is the cell’s first choice of energy because it can be used directly by the cell. ANS: F REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
10. The starting substance for glycolysis is glucose; the end product is carbon dioxide. ANS: F REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
11. The end product of glycolysis is the starting substance of the citric acid cycle. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 535
12. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis does not occur in the mitochondria. ANS: T REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
13. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis requires oxygen. ANS: F REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
14. In most people, glucose catabolism occurs more often than glucose anabolism. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
15. One of the end products of the electron transport system is ATP. ANS: T REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
16. The ATP molecule is used as a direct source of energy. ANS: T REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
REF: p. 535
17. ADP has fewer phosphates than ATP, but it contains more energy. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 536
18. Glycogenesis is an anabolic process that forms glucose. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 536
19. The main function of the electron transport chain is to supply energy for the reattachment of the third phosphate onto ADP. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 536
20. Insulin, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that reduces the level of glucose in the blood. ANS: T REF: p. 537
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
21. Glucagon, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that increases the level of glucose in the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 537
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
22. The primary function of fat in the body is to be catabolized for energy. ANS: T REF: pp. 537-538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
23. Adipose tissue results from the anabolism of fat. ANS: T REF: p. 538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
24. In most people, protein anabolism occurs at a greater rate than protein catabolism. ANS: T REF: p. 538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
25. Nonessential amino acids are not needed by the body because they are not used to build human proteins. ANS: F REF: p. 538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
26. The reason nonessential amino acids do not need to be in the diet is because other substances can be converted to the nonessential amino acids. ANS: T REF: p. 538
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism
27. Nonessential amino acids are needed by the body as much as essential amino acids. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 538
28. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins are organic compounds and minerals are inorganic compounds. ANS: T PTS: REF: p. 538 | p. 540
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
29. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins attach to enzymes and minerals attach to cell membrane receptors. ANS: F PTS: REF: p. 538 | p. 540
1
DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
30. The body can store the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K. ANS: T REF: p. 539
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
31. Scurvy results from a lack of vitamin K. ANS: F REF: p. 539
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
32. Minerals are helpful in maintaining good health, but they are not as necessary as vitamins. ANS: F REF: p. 540
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals
33. The basal condition assumes that a person is awake, has not just eaten, and is in an environment with a comfortable temperature. ANS: T REF: p. 541
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates
Memorization
34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is always less than the total metabolic rate (TMR). ANS: T PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 541
35. A person who consistently has a caloric intake greater than his or her BMR will gain weight. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 541
36. Both too little thyroid hormone and too much thyroid hormone have a profound impact on a person’s BMR. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 542
37. Both marasmus and kwashiorkor result from an insufficient number of calories in the diet. ANS: F REF: pp. 543-544
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
38. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from kwashiorkor. ANS: T REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
39. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from marasmus. ANS: F REF: p. 543
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
40. About 40% of the energy released from food is converted to heat. ANS: F REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
41. The flow of heat waves away from the body defines conduction. ANS: F REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
42. The transfer of heat energy to the air that is flowing away from the body defines convection. ANS: T REF: p. 544
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
43. An environment that has very high humidity would interfere with evaporative cooling. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body temperature
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 544
44. Because fever is always harmful to the body, every effort should be made to immediately reduce the fever to normal body temperature.
ANS: F REF: p. 545
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
45. A person who has never had surgery has a low risk of malignant hyperthermia. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body temperature
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 546
46. Even though they are not used for energy or structure, vitamins and minerals are required for proper nutrition. ANS: T REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
47. One end product of the anabolic process is energy release. ANS: F REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
48. Assimilation occurs when food moves out of the digestive tract and into the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 533
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
49. The function of bile is mechanical digestion of fat rather than chemical digestion. ANS: T REF: p. 534
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
50. By the time blood from the digestive organs reaches the liver, it has already been through one capillary bed. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 534
51. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. ANS: T REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
52. Most of the energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP. ANS: F REF: p. 535
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
53. One function of ATP is to store energy for the body. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 535
TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
54. Glucose anabolism is called glycolysis. ANS: F REF: p. 536
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
55. The hypersecretion of insulin by the pancreas can lead to diabetes mellitus. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 537
56. The secretion of too little insulin can lead to hyperglycemia. ANS: T REF: p. 537
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
57. If a person had a blood glucose level of 95 mg/100 mL of blood, it would indicate that too little insulin was being secreted by the pancreas. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 537
58. Hypervitaminosis is much more likely to occur with fat-soluble vitamins than with watersoluble vitamins. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Vitamins and minerals
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 539
59. Both anorexia nervosa and bulimia are classified as behavioral disorders. ANS: T REF: p. 543
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders
60. Heatstroke and heat exhaustion are equally severe conditions. ANS: F REF: p. 546
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
61. The condition in which damage to tissue results from the formation of ice crystals is called hyperthermia. ANS: F REF: p. 546
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature
Memorization
Chapter 20: Urinary System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? a. Removing waste products from the blood b. Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood c. Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood d. All of the above are functions of the urinary system. ANS: D PTS: TOP: Introduction
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 555
2. Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys? a. The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney. b. The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity. c. The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat. d. All of the above are true statements. ANS: A REF: p. 556
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
3. To properly clean the blood, the kidneys must receive how much of the blood pumped by the heart? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% ANS: B REF: p. 556
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
4. The outermost layer of the kidney is called the a. renal pelvis. b. renal medulla. c. renal cortex. d. calyx. ANS: C REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
5. The inner portion of the kidney is called the a. renal pelvis. b. renal medulla. c. renal cortex. d. calyx. ANS: B REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
6. Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter? a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Calyx ANS: A REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
7. The papilla of the renal pyramids opens into which of the following structures? a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Calyx ANS: D REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
8. Which of the following is one of the structures in the renal corpuscle? a. Bowman capsule b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Loop of Henle ANS: A REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
9. Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Collecting duct ANS: B REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
10. Which of the following structures drains into the collecting duct? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Loop of Henle ANS: C REF: p. 558
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
11. Which structure is included in the discussion of the urinary system even though it is part of the circulatory system? a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Bowman capsule d. Loop of Henle ANS: A TOP: Kidneys
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 557
12. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys releases an enzyme a. called antidiuretic hormone. b. that dilates blood vessels. c. that constricts blood vessels. d. that increases the absorption of sodium from the filtrate. ANS: C REF: p. 560
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Renal physiology
Memorization
13. Glycosuria is a failure in a. filtration. b. reabsorption. c. secretion. d. micturition. ANS: B PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 562
14. The process that moves blood plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule is called a. filtration. b. reabsorption. c. secretion. d. micturition. ANS: A PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 560
15. Substances are added to the urine in the distal and collecting tubules through what process? a. Filtration b. Reabsorption c. Secretion d. Micturition ANS: C REF: p. 562
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
16. The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called a. filtration. b. reabsorption. c. secretion. d. micturition. ANS: B REF: p. 561
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
17. Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Both A and B ANS: D PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 563
18. Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Atrial natriuretic hormone d. Both A and B ANS: C REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
19. The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the a. urethra. b. collecting tube. c. ureter. d. bladder. ANS: C REF: p. 564
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
20. The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the a. urethra. b. collecting tube. c. trigone. d. ureter. ANS: A REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra
DIF:
Memorization
21. The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called a. urination. b. voiding. c. micturition. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
22. Which condition occurs when the kidneys are no longer producing urine? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary suppression c. Incontinence d. Enuresis ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 566
TOP: Micturition
23. What condition occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder cannot empty the urine? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary suppression c. Incontinence d. Enuresis ANS: A REF: p. 566
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
24. Which of the following conditions can be treated by the insertion of a urinary catheter? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary suppression c. Incontinence d. Enuresis ANS: A TOP: Micturition
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 566
25. Which of the following is considered an obstructive disorder of the urinary system? a. Cystitis b. Pyelonephritis c. Renal calculi d. Urethritis ANS: C REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
26. Which condition refers to an inflammation of the bladder? a. Cystitis b. Pyelonephritis c. Urethritis d. Renal calculi ANS: A REF: p. 569
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
27. Which of the following are extensions of the cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids? a. Renal columns b. Renal papillae c. Renal pelvis d. Calyces ANS: A REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
28. Which structure is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules? a. Bowman capsule
b. Loop of Henle c. Glomerulus d. Renal corpuscle ANS: B REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
29. Which of the following is not true of erythropoietin? a. It is secreted by the kidneys. b. It stimulates the formation of red blood cells. c. It acts on the blood-forming tissue of the spleen. d. All of the above are true of erythropoietin. ANS: C REF: p. 560
PTS: 1 TOP: Function
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Application
30. Filtration occurs in a. the renal corpuscle. b. the loop of Henle. c. the collecting duct. d. all parts of the kidney. ANS: A PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
REF: p. 560
31. The hormone ADH is released from the a. kidney. b. hypothalamus. c. adrenal cortex. d. pituitary gland. ANS: D REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
32. Which of the following is not true of RAAS? a. It is initiated by the kidney. b. It stimulates the secretion of aldosterone. c. It causes constriction of blood vessels. d. All of the above are true of RAAS. ANS: D REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
MATCHING Match each of the structures of the urinary system with its corresponding function or description. a. Calyx b. Urinary bladder c. Bowman capsule d. Loop of Henle
e. Renal cortex f. Collecting tubule g. Proximal convoluted tubule h. Renal medulla i. Ureters j. Renal pyramids k. Juxtaglomerular apparatus l. Glomerulus m. Urethra n. Distal convoluted tubule o. Renal pelvis 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Tubes that connect the kidney and the urinary bladder A cup-shaped structure that catches the filtrate in the nephron Formed by the tubules of a number of different nephrons; the last tubule in the nephron The inner portion of the kidney The outer portion of the kidney Triangular-shaped structures in the inner portion of the kidney Part of the nephron that lies between the distal and proximal convoluted tubules The blood vessel in the Bowman capsule A muscular sac that stores urine until it is released from the body An extension of the ureters into the kidney The first of the tubules in the nephron Tube that carries urine out of the body Tube that drains into the collecting tubule Structure into which the papilla of the pyramids of the kidney opens Structure that releases hormones that can cause constriction of blood vessels and raise blood pressure
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS:
I p. 564 C p. 557 F p. 558 H p. 557 E p. 557 J p. 557 D pp. 557-558 L p. 557 B p. 565 O
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Ureters 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 1 DIF: Kidneys 0 DIF: Urinary bladder 1 DIF:
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 557 G p. 557 M p. 565 N p. 558 A p. 557 K pp. 559-560
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Kidneys 1 Kidneys 1 Urethra 1 Kidneys 1 Kidneys 1 Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Secretion b. Polyuria c. Filtration d. ADH e. Oliguria f. Uremia g. ANH h. Reabsorption i. Micturition 16. Actions of this hormone result in the production of a smaller volume of urine 17. Refers to the production of a large amount of urine 18. The movement of material from the blood to the urine in the distal convoluted or collecting tubules 19. The production of a small amount of urine 20. Another term for urination or voiding 21. Moves water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule 22. The accumulation of toxic substances in the blood from the catabolism of food; functioning kidneys prevent this from happening 23. Actions of this hormone result is an increase in the amount of urine 24. The moving of substances out of the tubules of the nephron back into the blood 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS:
D p. 563 B p. 563 A p. 562 E p. 563 I p. 565 C p. 560 F
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF: Micturition 1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF:
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF:
p. 555 G p. 563 H p. 561
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Introduction 1 DIF: Formation of urine 1 DIF: Formation of urine
Memorization Memorization
Match each disorder to its corresponding description or definition. a. Renal calculi b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Cystitis d. Urinary retention e. Glycosuria f. Hydronephrosis g. Urinary suppression h. Glomerulonephritis i. Incontinence j. Nephritis 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34.
Symptoms of this condition result from the loss of protein from the blood Refers to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions Refers to the lack of production of urine by the kidney Occurs when there is glucose in the urine; a sign of diabetes mellitus Describes a bladder infection Results from damage to the glomerular-capsular membrane; can be caused by an immune mechanism, heredity, or a bacterial infection Another term for kidney stones Describes pathological swelling or enlargement of the renal pelvis and calyces caused by blockage of the urine outflow Occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder is unable to release it Refers to the involuntary voiding or loss of urine in an older child or adult
25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS: REF: 30. ANS: REF: 31. ANS: REF: 32. ANS: REF: 33. ANS:
B p. 570 J p. 570 G p. 566 E p. 562 C p. 565 H p. 570 A p. 567 F p. 567 D
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Micturition 1 DIF: Memorization Formation of urine 1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Renal and urinary disorders 1 DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 566 34. ANS: I REF: p. 566
TOP: Micturition PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define uremia, and explain how it occurs. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
REF: p. 555
2. Describe the location of the kidneys, and explain the ways in which the kidneys are protected. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 556
TOP: Kidneys
3. Explain why kidney surgery is less likely to cause peritonitis than is stomach surgery. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 556
TOP: Kidneys
4. List and describe the internal structures of the kidney. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 557
5. List and describe the microscopic structures of the nephron. Which structures make up the renal corpuscle? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 557-558
6. What are the physical and functional differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 558-559
TOP: Kidneys
7. Explain the functions of the kidneys. What substances do the kidneys help regulate? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 559-560
8. Explain how the juxtaglomerular apparatus helps maintain proper blood flow to the kidney. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: pp. 559-560
TOP: Kidneys
9. Explain the process of filtration in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in filtration? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Application
REF: pp. 560-561
10. Explain the process of reabsorption in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in reabsorption? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Application
REF: pp. 561-562
11. Explain the process of secretion in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in secretion? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Application
REF: p. 562
12. Name the hormones that affect urine production. Give the function and source of each.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
REF: p. 563
13. If a person is becoming dehydrated, would that person’s blood have high levels of ADH or ANH? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Application
REF: p. 563
14. Describe the structure and function of the ureters. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 564
15. What is urinalysis? What conditions can be detected by the physical examination of urine, the chemical examination of urine, and the microscopic examination of urine? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 567
16. Describe the structure and function of the urinary bladder. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder
Memorization
REF: p. 565
17. Describe the structure and function of the urethra. Explain the differences between the male and female urethra. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 565
18. Explain the process of micturition. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 565
19. Explain why the insertion of a urinary catheter would be an ineffective treatment for urinary suppression. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 566
TOP: Micturition
20. Define incontinence. Name and explain three types of incontinence. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 566-567
21. What is hydronephrosis, and what are some of its causes? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: p. 567
22. What is cystitis? Explain how a person’s gender affects the risk of developing cystitis. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: pp. 569-570
23. What is pyelonephritis? Explain the difference between the acute and chronic form. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: p. 570
24. Explain the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. How are all of these symptoms related to the loss of protein from the blood? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: p. 570
25. What is glomerulonephritis? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: pp. 570-571
26. Describe the three stages in chronic renal failure. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
REF: p. 573
27. What is erythropoietin? What stimulates its release, and what effect does it have on the body? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 560
28. What is RAAS? Explain how it functions. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
REF: p. 563
TRUE/FALSE 1. The regulation of blood pH is an important function of the urinary system. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Introduction
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 555
2. The kidneys are protected by the lower part of the rib cage and the muscles of the back. ANS: T REF: p. 556
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
3. The kidneys are protected by the parietal peritoneum and a heavy layer of fat. ANS: F REF: p. 556
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
4. Because of the location of the kidneys, there is less risk of peritonitis after kidney surgery than there is after stomach surgery. ANS: T TOP: Kidneys
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 556
5. The outer layer of the kidney is called the renal medulla. ANS: F REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
6. Even though they are often considered to be part of the structure of the kidney, the renal pyramids are actually part of the ureters. ANS: F REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
7. The calyces drain urine from the renal pyramids into the pelvis of the kidney. ANS: T TOP: Kidneys
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 558
8. The order in which filtrate flows through the nephron is the Bowman capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and the collecting tubule. ANS: F TOP: Kidneys
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 557-558
9. Even though it is included as part of the nephron, the glomerulus is actually part of the circulatory system. ANS: T TOP: Kidneys
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 557
10. The loop of Henle separates the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct. ANS: F REF: pp. 557-558
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
11. Both the glomerulus and the loop of Henle make up the renal corpuscle. ANS: F REF: pp. 557-558
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
12. The collecting tubules of most nephrons remain within the renal cortex, but the collecting tubules of juxtamedullary nephrons dip deeply into the renal medulla. ANS: F REF: pp. 558-559
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
13. The catabolism of carbohydrates can cause nitrogen wastes to accumulate in the blood. If the kidneys do not clear these wastes, they can quickly reach toxic levels. ANS: F REF: p. 559
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
14. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that helps the body regulate the pH of the blood. ANS: F REF: pp. 559-560
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
15. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict and blood pressure to rise. ANS: T REF: pp. 559-560
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Application
16. Filtration occurs only in the renal corpuscle. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
REF: p. 560
17. Reabsorption and secretion occur only in the tubules of the nephron. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 561 | p. 562
18. The amount of fluid reabsorbed is only slightly less than the amount of fluid filtered. ANS: T REF: p. 561
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
19. The function of reabsorption is to move the filtrate back to the peritubular capillaries. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 561
20. A failure in reabsorption causes glycosuria. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 562
21. Both active and passive mechanisms are used to move materials from the nephron back to the blood. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 561
22. The amount of filtrate can never be more than the amount reabsorbed. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 561
23. The processes of filtration and secretion both move material into the nephron. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 560 | p. 562
24. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to reduce the amount of urine produced. ANS: T REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
25. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to decrease the amount of material reabsorbed back into the blood. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 563
26. ADH and ANH have opposite effects on the amount of urine produced. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 563
27. The adrenal gland produces both ADH and aldosterone. ANS: F REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
28. ANH is a unique hormone because it is produced by the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
29. Someone with anuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.
ANS: F REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
30. Someone with polyuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Formation of urine
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 563
31. Ureters are tubes connecting the kidney to the urinary bladder. ANS: T REF: p. 564
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
DIF:
Memorization
32. Gravity moves urine through the ureters. ANS: F REF: p. 564
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
33. Renal colic results from a streptococcal infection of the urinary tract. ANS: F REF: p. 564
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
34. Urinalysis is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine. ANS: T REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
35. Chemical analysis is used to determine whether there are casts in the urine. ANS: F REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
36. Urinalysis can sometimes be used to detect inborn errors of metabolism. ANS: T REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 TOP: Ureters
DIF:
Memorization
37. Urinalysis can be used to help diagnose diabetes mellitus. ANS: T TOP: Ureters
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 572
38. A full bladder contains folds in its wall called rugae. ANS: F REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Urinary bladder
Memorization
39. The trigone consists of three openings: two leaving the bladder and one entering the bladder.
ANS: F PTS: TOP: Urinary bladder
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 565
Application
REF: p. 565
40. The urethra is the last part of the urinary system. ANS: T TOP: Urethra
PTS:
1
DIF:
41. The urethra in the female is about half as long as the urethra in the male. ANS: F REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra
DIF:
Memorization
42. In the male, the urethra is part of two systems: the urinary system and the reproductive system. ANS: T REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Urethra
DIF:
Memorization
43. Micturition and voiding mean the same thing. ANS: T REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
44. The voluntary internal urethral sphincter and the involuntary external urethral sphincter regulate urination. ANS: F REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
45. The adult bladder can hold more than 300 mL of urine. ANS: T REF: p. 565
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
46. Urinary suppression is a kidney problem, whereas urinary retention is more of a bladder problem. ANS: T TOP: Micturition
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 566
47. The emptying reflex causes contraction of the muscle of the bladder and relaxation of the two sphincter muscles. ANS: F REF: p. 566
PTS: 1 TOP: Micturition
DIF:
Memorization
48. Renal calculi are considered an obstructive disorder.
ANS: T REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
49. Renal calculi can cause both renal colic and hydronephrosis. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 567
50. Bladder cancer is much more common than kidney cancer. ANS: F REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
51. Tumors in the kidney are very rare and are almost always benign. ANS: F REF: p. 567
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
52. Pyelonephritis is a general term referring to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions. ANS: F REF: p. 570
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
53. All the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome are caused by the loss of protein in the blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 570
54. Glomerulonephritis usually occurs several weeks after a systemic viral infection and is caused by a delayed immune response. ANS: F REF: p. 570
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
55. In chronic renal failure, the first two stages have no symptoms. ANS: F REF: p. 573
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Renal and urinary disorders
56. The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two urethras, one bladder, and one ureter. ANS: F REF: p. 555
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
57. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 556
TOP: Kidneys
58. Normally, more than 30% of the total blood pumped by the heart each minute enters the kidneys. ANS: F REF: p. 556
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
59. Extensions of cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids are called the renal papillae. ANS: F REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
60. The calyces are the narrow, innermost ends of the pyramids. ANS: F REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 TOP: Kidneys
DIF:
Memorization
61. The renal corpuscle is made up of two structures. ANS: T REF: p. 557
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Microscopic structure
62. Besides the excretion of waste products, the kidneys help regulate blood levels of chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate. ANS: T REF: p. 559
PTS: 1 TOP: Function
DIF:
Memorization
63. One function of erythropoietin is to help reduce the amount of oxygen carried by the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 560
PTS: 1 TOP: Function
DIF:
Memorization
64. Erythropoietin stimulates red bone marrow to produce red blood cells. ANS: T REF: p. 560
PTS: 1 TOP: Function
DIF:
Memorization
65. Secretion can be defined as the movement of water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule. ANS: F REF: p. 562
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Formation of urine
Memorization
66. Reabsorption and secretion move material in opposite directions. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 562
TOP: Formation of urine 67. The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme angiotensin to initiate the RAAS. ANS: F REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
68. The end result of the RAAS is constriction of blood vessels and the secretion of aldosterone. ANS: T REF: p. 563
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Control of urine volume
Chapter 21: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which group of people has the highest percentage of body water? a. Young adult males b. Young adult females c. Babies d. The elderly ANS: C REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
2. Which group of people has the lowest percentage of body water? a. Young adult females b. Young adult males c. Babies d. The elderly ANS: D REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
3. Which type of body tissue contains the least amount of water? a. Adipose tissue b. Bone tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nerve tissue ANS: A REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
4. Which of the following is not considered part of the extracellular fluid? a. Interstitial fluid b. Plasma c. Lymph d. All of the above are considered extracellular fluid. ANS: D REF: p. 585
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
5. The largest volume of water in the body is located in a. lymph. b. intracellular fluid. c. interstitial fluid. d. blood plasma. ANS: B REF: p. 585
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
6. Which of the following is not a source of water for the body?
a. b. c. d.
Food Ingested liquids Anabolism of food Catabolism of food
ANS: C REF: p. 586
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
7. Water is not lost from the a. catabolism of food. b. lungs. c. kidneys. d. skin. ANS: A REF: p. 586
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
8. Which of the following hormones does not play a role in fluid regulation? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. ACTH d. ANH ANS: C REF: p. 587
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
9. The positively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is a. calcium. b. sodium. c. magnesium. d. potassium. ANS: B REF: pp. 589-590
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
10. The negatively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is a. protein. b. bicarbonate. c. chloride. d. phosphate. ANS: C REF: pp. 589-590
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
11. The hormone aldosterone causes the _____ by the kidneys. a. loss of sodium ions b. loss of water c. reabsorption of sodium ions d. both A and B ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
12. Aldosterone causes the kidneys to reabsorb a. chloride ions. b. sodium ions. c. water. d. both B and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
13. The volume of which fluid is the most variable? a. Interstitial fluid b. Blood plasma c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Intracellular fluid ANS: A REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
14. Which of the following increases interstitial fluid volume? a. A drop in capillary blood pressure b. A drop in blood protein levels c. An increase in capillary blood pressure d. Both B and C ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
15. Which of the following decreases interstitial fluid volume? a. A drop in capillary blood pressure b. A drop in blood protein levels c. An increase in capillary blood pressure d. Both B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
16. An increase in blood protein levels _____ volume. a. increases blood plasma b. increases interstitial fluid c. decreases interstitial fluid d. both A and C ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
17. An increase in capillary blood pressure _____ volume. a. increases blood plasma b. increases interstitial fluid c. decreases interstitial fluid d. both B and C ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
18. Loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign of a. edema. b. dehydration. c. overhydration. d. hypersecretion of aldosterone. ANS: B REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
19. Hyperkalemia is a(n) _____-normal level of _____ in the blood. a. above; sodium b. below; sodium c. above; calcium d. above; potassium ANS: D REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
20. Hyponatremia is a(n) _____-normal level of _____ in the blood. a. above; sodium b. below; sodium c. below; calcium d. below; potassium ANS: B REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
21. The most abundant compound in the body is a. protein. b. lipids. c. carbohydrates. d. none of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
22. In a newborn, water can account for as much as _____% of body weight. a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 50 ANS: C REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
23. Which of the following organs do not contribute to fluid output? a. Skeletal muscles b. Kidneys c. Skin d. Lungs ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 586
TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
24. Which of the following is not considered a major factor for controlling plasma, interstitial
fluid, and intracellular fluid? a. The concentration of electrolytes in extracellular fluid b. The concentration of protein in the blood c. The absorption of fluid by the small intestine d. All of the above are major factors for controlling plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid. ANS: C REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
MATCHING
Match each term or phrase with its corresponding description or definition. a. Ion b. Dehydration c. Intracellular fluid d. Hypokalemia e. ADH f. Decrease in capillary blood pressure g. ANH h. Hypocalcemia i. Drop in blood protein levels j. Electrolyte k. Hyponatremia l. Overhydration m. Aldosterone n. Interstitial fluid o. Edema 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Substance that dissociates into ions when it dissolves in water A fluid-regulating hormone that is released by the pituitary gland Condition in which the blood sodium level is below normal An atom or molecule with a positive or negative charge Condition of which loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign Type of fluid that is the most variable of the body fluids One mechanism that can cause an increase in the interstitial fluid volume Condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood concentration of potassium One of the two major fluid compartments in the body A fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the heart One mechanism that causes a decrease in the interstitial fluid volume Condition that can be caused by the rapid infusion of intravenous fluid A fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the adrenal cortex Condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood level of calcium Condition caused by an abnormal increase in interstitial fluid causing swelling in parts of the body, frequently the lower limbs
1. ANS: J REF: p. 583 2. ANS: E REF: p. 587 3. ANS: K REF: p. 592 4. ANS: A REF: p. 589 5. ANS: B REF: p. 588 6. ANS: N REF: p. 585 7. ANS: I REF: p. 588 8. ANS: D REF: p. 592 9. ANS: C REF: p. 585 10. ANS: G REF: p. 587 11. ANS: F REF: p. 588 12. ANS: L REF: p. 589 13. ANS: M REF: p. 587 14. ANS: H REF: p. 593 15. ANS: O REF: p. 588
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Electrolyte imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Fluid imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Electrolyte imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization Body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Fluid imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 1 DIF: Memorization Electrolyte imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the term fluid balance. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 583
2. Explain what variables affect the percentage of body water a person might have. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 584
3. What types of fluid make up the extracellular fluid compartment?
ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 585
4. List the sources of water for the body and the ways in which water can be lost from the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 586
5. List the names and the sources of the hormones that play a role in fluid regulation. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
6. Explain the mechanism that regulates fluid intake. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: pp. 587-588
7. Define and give an example of an electrolyte and a nonelectrolyte. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 589 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 8. If a person is diagnosed with hypertension (high blood pressure), one of the first
recommendations a health care provider makes is for the person to reduce the amount of salt in the diet. Explain why following this recommendation will reduce blood pressure. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 591 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 9. What is edema? Explain the cause of edema. What are some organs that might be affected? ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588 | p. 590
10. Explain the mechanism by which aldosterone helps maintain fluid homeostasis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587 | p. 591
11. Certain kidney diseases allow large amounts of protein to be passed out of the body in urine.
One result of this condition is edema. Explain the mechanism that causes the edema. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 12. Would a drop in capillary blood pressure or an increase in capillary blood pressure be more
likely to cause edema? Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 13. Explain why prolonged diarrhea is more likely to lead to serious dehydration in a baby than in
an adult even though the baby has a higher percentage of body water than an adult does. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 584
TOP: Fluid imbalances
14. What is overhydration? Give one possible cause of overhydration. What organ is stressed by
overhydration? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
REF: p. 589
15. List the normal blood concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium. ANS:
Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
REF: p. 592
16. List the causes of hypernatremia and hyponatremia. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
REF: p. 592
17. What are the symptoms of sodium imbalance? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
REF: p. 592
18. List the causes of hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
REF: p. 592
19. What are the symptoms of calcium imbalance? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
REF: pp. 592-593
20. Some diuretics cause the body to excrete large amounts of potassium. If a person is taking
such a diuretic, what symptoms of potassium deficiency might be evident? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 591
TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
TRUE/FALSE 1. Fluid balance means that the total volume and distribution of water in the body remain
relatively constant and within normal limits. ANS: T REF: p. 583
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
2. Women tend to have a higher percentage of body water than do men.
ANS: F REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
3. Babies tend to have a higher percentage of body water than the elderly do. ANS: T REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
4. Muscle tissue has the least amount of water compared with any other body tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
5. Obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water than slender people do. ANS: T REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
6. Because muscle tissue has less water than adipose tissue, a person who is overweight has a
higher percentage of body water than does a person in better physical condition. ANS: F TOP: Body fluids
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 584
7. There is more fluid inside the cells of the body than outside the cells of the body. ANS: T TOP: Body fluids
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 585
8. Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph are all considered interstitial fluids. ANS: F REF: p. 585
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
9. Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph all considered extracellular fluids. ANS: T REF: p. 585
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
10. The kidneys, the lungs, and the catabolism of food all contribute to water loss in the body. ANS: F REF: p. 586
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
11. The food that we eat, the fluids we drink, and the catabolism of food all contribute to an input
of water to the body. ANS: T REF: p. 586
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
12. The chief mechanism used by the body to maintain fluid balance is adjusting fluid intake.
ANS: F REF: p. 587
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
13. The hormone ADH is produced by the adrenal cortex and acts to reduce the amount of urine
produced. ANS: F REF: p. 587
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
14. The hormone ANH is produced by the heart and acts to increase the amount of urine
produced. ANS: T REF: p. 587
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
15. When the body is severely dehydrated, hormones in the body can prevent the kidneys from
producing urine until fluid loss is reduced to zero. ANS: F REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
16. No matter how dehydrated a person becomes, fluid will still be lost by the lungs. ANS: T REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
17. Table salt (NaCl) is an electrolyte. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 589
18. Because glucose dissociates into ions when it is dissolved in water, it is called an electrolyte. ANS: F REF: p. 589
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
19. When NaCl is dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions. ANS: T REF: p. 589
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
20. Sodium has the highest concentration of any negative ion in the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 590
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
21. Potassium has the highest concentration of any positive ion in the blood. ANS: F REF: p. 590
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
22. Aldosterone increases the absorption of sodium from the kidneys and thereby increases the
amount of urine produced. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
23. If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, the volume of blood increases. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
24. If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, edema could result. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
25. If sodium levels in the blood increase, the volume of blood would increase. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 587
26. Salt must consistently be consumed because there is a loss of about 1,000 mEq per day
through the digestive system. ANS: F REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
27. An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of fluid in the blood. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
28. An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of interstitial fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
29. An increase in capillary blood pressure increases the volume of interstitial fluid. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
30. An increase in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein have opposite effects
on the interstitial fluid volume. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
31. An increase in capillary blood pressure and a decrease in blood protein have opposite effects
on the interstitial fluid. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 588
TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance 32. A decrease in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein both increase
interstitial fluid volume. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
REF: p. 588
33. Because they have the lowest percentage of body water, the elderly are most at risk for severe
dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group. ANS: F REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
34. Because they have the smallest amount of water in their body, babies are most at risk for
severe dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group. ANS: T REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
35. Blood plasma is the body fluid that varies the most. ANS: F REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
36. Interstitial fluid is the body fluid that varies the most. ANS: T REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
37. Giving intravenous fluids too rapidly can cause overhydration, which can put a heavy burden
on the kidneys. ANS: F REF: p. 589
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
38. One of the organs that is most stressed from overhydration is the heart. ANS: T REF: p. 589
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fluid imbalances
39. An overdose of vitamin D can cause hyperkalemia. ANS: F REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
40. Having enough table salt in the diet can prevent hyponatremia. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances
DIF: Application
REF: p. 592
41. To maintain proper homeostasis, all body fluids must have the same level and types of
electrolytes. ANS: F REF: p. 583
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
42. The most abundant compound in the human body is water. ANS: T REF: p. 584
PTS: 1 TOP: Body fluids
DIF: Memorization
43. Through diet and exercise, Jane lost more than 50 lb. This means she also reduced her
percentage of body water. ANS: F TOP: Body fluids
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 584
44. Drugs frequently are less effective in the elderly than they are in younger people because the
elderly have a higher percent of body water, which overdilutes the drug. ANS: F TOP: Body fluids
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 584
45. Both aldosterone and ADH reduce the amount of urine produced. ANS: T REF: p. 587
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance
46. When a person becomes dehydrated, both the volume of the extracellular fluid and the
electrolyte concentration of the extracellular fluid are reduced. ANS: F REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
47. When a person starts to become dehydrated, signals from the hypothalamus cause a reduction
in the amount of saliva produced, which makes a person feel thirsty. ANS: T REF: p. 588
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Regulation of fluid intake
48. Nonelectrolytes do not generate ions. ANS: T REF: p. 589
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Importance of electrolytes in body fluids
49. Both too much and too little potassium can cause muscle weakness and heart problems. ANS: T REF: p. 592
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Potassium imbalance
50. Too little calcium can decrease neuromuscular irritability resulting in fatigue, muscle
weakness, and diminished reflexes.
ANS: T REF: p. 593
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Calcium imbalance
Chapter 22: Acid-Base Balance Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The function of H+ ions in the body is a. maintenance of the cell membrane. b. conduction of nerve impulses. c. function of cellular enzymes. d. stimulation of muscle contraction. ANS: C REF: p. 601
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
2. A solution with a pH of 3 a. is an acid solution. b. is an alkaline solution. c. has more OH ions than H+ ions. d. both B and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
3. A solution with a pH of 9 a. is an acid solution. b. is an alkaline solution. c. has more OH ions than H+ ions. d. both B and C. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
4. Which of the following body fluids has the lowest pH? a. Arterial blood b. Stomach acid c. Venous blood d. Saliva ANS: B REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
5. Which of the following body fluids has the highest pH? a. Arterial blood b. Venous blood c. Stomach acid d. Both A and B have the same pH, which is higher than stomach acid. ANS: A REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
6. A solution with a pH of 4
a. b. c. d.
has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2. is considered an alkaline solution. both B and C.
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
7. A solution with a pH of 8 a. is more alkaline than arterial blood. b. is more acidic than arterial blood. c. contains more H+ ions than arterial blood. d. both B and C. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
8. Which of the following is not considered a mechanism for regulating the pH of body fluids? a. Buffers in the blood b. The stomach absorbing acid c. The lungs removing carbon dioxide d. The kidneys removing H+ and OH ions ANS: B REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
9. The slightly lower pH of venous blood compared with arterial blood comes primarily from a. absorbing hydrochloric acid from the digestive system. b. the lactic acid from muscle metabolism. c. the higher concentration of carbonic acid from cell metabolism. d. all of the above. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
10. Which of the following is considered a physiological pH control mechanism? a. The buffers in the blood b. The kidneys c. The lungs d. Both B and C ANS: D REF: p. 603
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
11. Which of the following is considered a chemical pH control mechanism? a. The buffers in the blood b. The kidneys c. The lungs d. Both B and C ANS: A REF: p. 603
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
12. The buffering of HCl by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair would a. convert the strong HCl into the weaker H2CO3. b. cause a smaller increase of H+ ions in the blood. c. decrease the amount of NaHCO3 in the blood. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 604
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
13. The buffering of NaOH by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair would a. convert a strong base into a weak acid. b. decrease the amount of H2CO3 in the blood. c. cause the pH to rise to its normal value. d. cause all of the above. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 605
14. Blood leaving the lungs has a _____ than blood entering the lungs. a. lower pH b. lower concentration of carbon dioxide c. higher concentration of H+ ions d. both A and C ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
15. One unique aspect of kidney regulation of pH is that it a. is the only site of carbonic anhydrase that can quickly convert carbon dioxide and
water to carbonic acid. b. can excrete excess acid. c. can excrete excess base. d. both A and B. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 606-607
16. In blood acidosis, the a. number of H+ ions in the blood increases. b. pH of the blood falls below 6.5. c. number of OH ions in the blood increases. d. both A and B. ANS: A REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
17. Blood alkalosis a. causes the pH of the blood to drop. b. occurs more often than blood acidosis. c. is caused by an increase in base or a loss of acid. d. both B and C. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 607
TOP: pH imbalances 18. Which of the following is caused by bicarbonate deficit? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis ANS: B REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
19. Which of the following is caused by H2CO3 deficit? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis ANS: C REF: p. 609
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
20. Which of the following is caused by H2CO3 excess? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis ANS: A REF: p. 608
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
21. A water solution with a pH of 7 a. is an acid. b. has equal numbers of OH and H+ ions. c. is a base. d. contains neither OH nor H+. ANS: B REF: p. 601
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
22. Which of the following statements is true? a. Arterial blood and venous blood are slightly alkaline. b. Arterial blood and venous blood are slightly acidic. c. Arterial blood is slightly acidic, and venous blood is slightly basic. d. Venous blood is slightly acidic, and arterial blood is slightly basic. ANS: A REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
23. Carbonic anhydrase is a(n) a. buffer that works in the blood. b. enzyme. c. buffer that works in the lungs. d. buffer that works in the kidneys.
ANS: B REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
24. The lungs are able to remove the equivalent of _____ L of carbonic acid a day. a. 50 b. 60 c. 40 d. 30 ANS: D REF: p. 603
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
25. Which of the following statements is true? a. The lungs can remove larger amounts of acid from the body than the kidneys. b. The kidneys can remove larger amounts of acid from the body than the lungs. c. Unlike the lungs, the kidneys can remove base from the body. d. Both B and C are true. ANS: D REF: p. 606
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Urinary mechanism of pH control
MATCHING
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Buffer b. Metabolic acidosis c. Acid solution d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Respiratory system f. Metabolic alkalosis g. Alkaline solution h. Kidney system i. Respiratory acidosis j. Neutral solution 1. Solution that has a pH of 7 with an equal number of H+ and OH ions 2. The only pH-regulating system that can excrete base 3. A substance that prevents a sharp change in the pH of a solution when a strong acid or base is 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
added to it A solution with a pH greater than 7 and a higher concentration of OH ions than H+ ions System that helps regulate the pH of the blood by removing carbon dioxide Solution that has a pH less than 7 and a higher concentration of H+ ions than OH ions Condition that is caused by a carbonic acid excess Condition that is caused by a bicarbonate excess Condition that is caused by a bicarbonate deficit Condition that is caused by carbonic acid deficit
1. ANS: J REF: p. 601 2. ANS: H
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization
3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
REF: p. 606 ANS: A REF: p. 603 ANS: G REF: p. 602 ANS: E REF: p. 606 ANS: C REF: p. 602 ANS: I REF: p. 608 ANS: F REF: p. 607 ANS: B REF: p. 607 ANS: D REF: p. 609
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization pH of body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization pH of body fluids 1 DIF: Memorization pH imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization pH imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization pH imbalances 1 DIF: Memorization pH imbalances
SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the definition of acid-base balance? What proteins are most affected if the acid-base
balance is not maintained? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 601
2. Explain the pH scale. Which body fluid has the highest pH? Which has the lowest? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 601-602
3. If one solution has a pH of 5 and a second solution has 10 times more H+ ions than the first
solution, what would the pH level of the second solution be? ANS:
4 PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
TOP: pH of body fluids
4. What two pH-regulating systems are referred to as physiological pH control mechanisms? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1
DIF: Memorization
REF: p. 603
TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 5. What is the function of carbonic anhydrase? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 602-603
6. Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong acid. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
7. Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong base. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 603-604
8. What is a fixed acid? Give an example of a fixed acid and a nonfixed acid found in the body. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 605 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 9. List the four changes in the blood that result from the buffering of a fixed acid in the tissue
capillaries. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 605-606
10. Explain how the respiratory mechanism controls blood pH. What effect would a prolonged
period of decreased respiration have on blood pH? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 606
11. Would you expect the blood in the pulmonary artery or in the pulmonary vein to have the
higher pH? Explain your answer. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids 12. Explain how the urinary mechanism controls blood pH. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 606-607
13. Define blood acidosis and blood alkalosis. ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 607
14. A condition called metabolic acidosis can be caused by a bicarbonate deficit. What can cause
a bicarbonate deficit? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 607
15. A condition called metabolic alkalosis can be caused by a bicarbonate excess. What can cause
a bicarbonate excess? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 607
16. A condition called respiratory acidosis can be caused by a carbonic acid excess. What can
cause a carbonic acid excess? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 608
17. A condition called respiratory alkalosis can be caused by a carbonic acid deficit. What can
cause a carbonic acid deficit? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 609
18. What is uncompensated metabolic acidosis? How does it become compensated metabolic
acidosis? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: pp. 609-610
19. In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, what mechanism removes the excess H2CO3? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
REF: p. 610
20. Suppose the 20:1 ratio needed by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair is disrupted and the
concentration of NaHCO3 in the blood needs to be lowered. What mechanism could accomplish this? ANS:
Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 603-606 TOP: pH imbalances | Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids TRUE/FALSE 1. Maintaining acid-base balance means keeping the concentration of hydrogen ions in body
fluids relatively constant. ANS: T REF: p. 601
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
2. Because the functioning of proteins such as enzymes and hemoglobin depends on a proper pH
level, pH must be regulated closely. ANS: T REF: p. 601
PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction
DIF: Memorization
3. The pH scale measures the concentration of OH ions in solution.
ANS: F REF: p. 601
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
4. A solution with a pH of 9 has more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
5. A solution with a pH of 9 is considered an alkaline solution. ANS: T REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
6. A solution with a pH of 13 contains more hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 11. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
7. A solution with a pH of 5 contains more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 2. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
8. A solution with a pH of 5 is considered an acid. ANS: T REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
9. A solution with a pH of 5 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 3. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
10. A solution with a pH of 2 has 1,000 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 5. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
11. Venous blood is the body fluid with the highest pH. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH of body fluids
DIF: Application
REF: p. 602
12. Stomach acid is the body fluid with the lowest pH. ANS: T REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH of body fluids
13. Pure water, with a pH of 7, is neither acid nor base because it contains neither hydrogen ions
nor hydroxide ions. ANS: F
PTS: 1
DIF: Application
REF: p. 601
TOP: pH of body fluids 14. The body has three mechanisms for regulating pH: the buffer mechanism, the respiratory
mechanism, and the digestive mechanism. ANS: F REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
15. The function of carbonic anhydrase is to convert carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid. ANS: T REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
16. The physiological pH control mechanisms react more quickly to stabilize pH than do the
chemical pH control mechanisms. ANS: F REF: p. 603
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
17. The lungs work more rapidly to stabilize pH than do the kidneys. ANS: T REF: p. 606
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
18. The function of a buffer pair is to convert a strong acid into a weak acid. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
19. When acid is added to a buffered solution, the pH will actually rise. ANS: F REF: p. 604
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
20. If a base were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO3, the concentration of NaHCO3 would
drop. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
21. If a base were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO3, the concentration of H2CO3 would
drop. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
22. If an acid were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO2, the concentration of NaHCO3 would
drop. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
23. The NaHCO3 buffer system buffers lactic acid. ANS: T REF: p. 604
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
24. Lactic acid and carbonic acid are referred to as fixed acids. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 604
25. Because carbonic acid can be broken down to carbon dioxide and water, it is not considered a
fixed acid. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
26. The contribution of the lungs to pH control is the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood. ANS: T REF: p. 602
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
27. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
28. Blood in the pulmonary vein has a lower pH than the blood in the superior vena cava. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
29. The amount of carbonic acid is lower in the pulmonary vein than it is in the pulmonary artery. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: p. 602
30. Anything that decreases respiration will eventually cause alkalosis. ANS: F REF: p. 606
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
31. One of the things that the kidneys can do that the lungs cannot do is to excrete base. ANS: T REF: p. 606
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
32. When the kidneys work to raise the pH of the blood, the blood becomes more alkaline and the
urine becomes more acidic. ANS: T REF: p. 606
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
33. One of the ways the kidneys help raise the pH of the body is by excreting NaH2PO4 rather
than Na2HPO4. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 606-607
34. When the kidneys have acidified the urine, the level of NaHCO3 in the blood leaving the
kidneys is much lower than the level of NaHCO3 in the blood entering the kidneys. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
REF: pp. 606-607
35. Acidosis in the blood begins to occur when the pH falls below 6.8. ANS: F REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
36. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 10 times more NaHCO3 than there is
H2CO3. ANS: F REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
37. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 20 times more H2CO3 than there is
NaHCO3. ANS: F REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
38. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 20 times more NaHCO3 than there is
H2CO3. ANS: T REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
39. Hyperventilation syndrome can cause metabolic alkalosis. ANS: F REF: pp. 607-608
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
40. Excessive vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis. ANS: T REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
41. A sustained drop in breathing rate can cause respiratory acidosis. ANS: T REF: p. 608
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
42. A prolonged period of uncontrolled diabetes would have the same effect on the blood pH as a
prolonged period of depressed breathing rate.
ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: pH imbalances
DIF: Application
REF: p. 607
43. A prolonged period of gastric suctioning would have the same effect on the blood pH as a
prolonged period of uncontrolled diabetes. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH imbalances
DIF: Application
REF: p. 607
44. A person with only 10 times more NaHCO3 than H2CO3 is in a condition called
uncompensated metabolic acidosis. ANS: T REF: p. 610
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
45. A person with only 10 times more H2CO3 than NaHCO3 is in a condition called
uncompensated metabolic acidosis. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: pH imbalances
DIF: Application
REF: p. 610
46. Metabolic acidosis is compensated with the loss of enough NaHCO3 to bring the ratio back up
to 20 times more H2CO3. ANS: F REF: p. 610
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
47. The lung can remove the equivalent of 50 L of carbonic acid a day. ANS: F REF: p. 603
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids
48. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a higher pH than blood in the pulmonary vein. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Respiratory mechanism of pH control
REF: p. 606
49. The urine can have an H+ concentration 100 times higher than the concentration in the blood. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Urinary mechanism of pH control
DIF: Application
REF: p. 606
50. A person can develop acidosis of the blood even if the pH is above 7. ANS: T REF: p. 607
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: pH imbalances
Chapter 23: Reproductive Systems Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The reproductive cells are called a. ova. b. sperm. c. gametes. d. all of the above. ANS: D REF: p. 618
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual reproduction
2. The essential organ of the male reproductive system is the a. testis. b. prostate gland. c. penis. d. All of the above are essential organs. ANS: A REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
3. Each testis is surrounded by a tough, whitish membrane called the a. scrotum. b. seminiferous tubule. c. tunica albuginea. d. interstitial cells. ANS: C REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
4. The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis is a. testosterone. b. follicle-stimulating hormone. c. luteinizing hormone. d. androgenic hormone. ANS: B REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
5. The function of the acrosome in the sperm is to a. store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm. b. store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum. c. reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23. d. propel the sperm. ANS: B REF: p. 621
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
6. The function of the midpiece of the sperm is to a. store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm. b. store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum. c. reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23. d. propel the sperm. ANS: A REF: p. 621
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
7. The function of testosterone is to a. masculinize the male. b. promote and maintain the development of the male accessory organs. c. stimulate protein anabolism. d. All of the above are functions of testosterone. ANS: D REF: pp. 621-622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
8. Which is a comma-shaped coiled tube structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis? a. Seminiferous tubule b. Ductus deferens c. Ejaculatory duct d. Epididymis ANS: D REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
9. Which tube is found in the lobes of the testis and makes up most of the mass of testicular tissue? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Ductus deferens c. Ejaculatory duct d. Epididymis ANS: A REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
10. Which tube permits sperm to exit the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord? a. Seminiferous tubules b. Ductus deferens c. Ejaculatory duct d. Epididymis ANS: B REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
11. Which gland lies just below the bladder and produces a thin milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid? a. Seminal vesicle b. Prostate gland
c. Bulbourethral gland d. Ejaculatory gland ANS: B REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
12. Which gland produces a thick, yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid? a. Seminal vesicle b. Prostate gland c. Bulbourethral gland d. Ejaculatory gland ANS: A REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
13. Which gland is also called the Cowper gland and supplies only about 5% of the seminal fluid? a. Seminal vesicle b. Prostate gland c. Bulbourethral gland d. Ejaculatory gland ANS: C REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive gland
14. Which of the following is not true of the corpus spongiosum? a. It is erectile tissue in the penis. b. It surrounds the urethra. c. There are two columns of corpus spongiosum in the penis. d. All of the above are true of the corpus spongiosum. ANS: C REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
15. Which of the following is not found in the scrotum? a. Testis b. Epididymis c. Lower part of the ductus deferens d. All of the above are found in the scrotum. ANS: D REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
16. Oligospermia can cause a. sterility. b. cryptorchidism. c. infertility. d. All of the above conditions can be caused by oligospermia. ANS: C REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
17. The condition in which the testes fail to descend into the scrotum is called a. oligospermia. b. cryptorchidism. c. benign prostatic hypertrophy. d. hypospadias. ANS: B REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
18. Which of the following is a condition in which the opening of the urethral meatus is on the dorsal surface of the gland or penile shaft? a. Cryptorchidism b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy c. Hypospadias d. Epispadias ANS: D REF: p. 626
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
19. Viagra would have its greatest effect on the a. number of sperm cells produced. b. corpus spongiosum and cavernosum. c. amount of testosterone in the blood. d. quantity of seminal fluid produced. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system | Male reproductive system 20. The gonads include the _____ in the _____ and the _____ in the _____. a. ova; female; sperm; male b. penis; male; vulva; female c. testes; male; ovaries; female d. both A and C ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 | p. 627 TOP: Male reproductive system | Female reproductive system 21. A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a(n) a. oocyte. b. primary follicle. c. graafian follicle. d. ovarian follicle. ANS: C REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
22. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the a. corpus luteum.
b. antrum. c. graafian follicle. d. granulosa cells. ANS: A REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
23. Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that in oogenesis a. cells with only 23 chromosomes are formed. b. there is only one functional gamete produced. c. there are four functional gametes produced. d. both A and C. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Female reproductive system | Male reproductive system
REF: p. 628
24. Which of the following is not a function of estrogen? a. Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs b. Initiation of the first menstrual cycle c. Appearance of pubic hair and breast development d. All of the above are functions of estrogen. ANS: D REF: p. 629
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
25. The hormone progesterone a. is produced by the corpus luteum. b. causes the development of the secondary sex characteristics. c. is responsible for the development of the female body contours. d. All of the above are true of progesterone. ANS: A REF: p. 629
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
26. The muscular layer of the uterus is called the a. endometrium. b. fundus. c. cervix. d. myometrium. ANS: D REF: pp. 630-631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
27. Which of the following is not another name for the uterine tubes? a. Oviduct b. Fimbriae c. Fallopian tubes d. All of the above are alternate names for the uterine tubes. ANS: B REF: p. 630
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
28. The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the a. body. b. cervix. c. fundus. d. myometrium. ANS: C REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
29. The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the a. body. b. cervix. c. fundus. d. myometrium. ANS: B REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
30. Which of the following is not true of the vagina? a. It is part of the female external genitalia. b. It receives sperm during intercourse. c. It is the last part of the birth canal. d. All of the above are true of the vagina. ANS: A REF: p. 632
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
31. Which of the following structures in the female external genitalia is composed of erectile tissue? a. Labia majora b. Labia minora c. Clitoris d. Mons pubis ANS: C REF: p. 633
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
32. The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly follows ovulation is called a. the secretory phase. b. the proliferative phase. c. menses. d. menarche. ANS: A REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
33. The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called a. the secretory phase. b. the proliferative phase. c. menses. d. menarche.
ANS: B REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
34. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: C REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
35. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: D REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
36. A sharp drop in which of the following hormones causes menstruation? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Both A and B ANS: D REF: p. 635
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
37. The absence of normal menstruation is called a. dysmenorrhea. b. amenorrhea. c. dysfunctional uterine bleeding. d. endometriosis. ANS: B REF: p. 635
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
38. An inflammation of the uterine tubes is called a. salpingitis. b. oophoritis. c. vaginitis. d. endometriosis. ANS: A REF: p. 636
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
39. Which statement does not describe a characteristic of asexual reproduction? a. It requires only one parent.
b. It produces offspring with greater variability. c. It produces offspring that age genetically like the parent. d. All of the above are true of asexual reproduction. ANS: B REF: p. 617
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual reproduction
40. Which of the following statements is not descriptive of the accessory structures of the male reproductive system? a. They produce spermatozoa. b. They are passageways that carry sperm to the exterior. c. They are the external reproductive organs. d. All of the above statements describe accessory structures of the male reproductive system. ANS: A REF: p. 618
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
41. Testosterone is secreted by the a. tunica albuginea. b. seminiferous tubules. c. interstitial cells. d. prostate gland. ANS: C REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
42. The sperm precursor cell or stem cell is called the a. spermatogonia. b. primary spermatocyte. c. spermatid. d. spermatozoa. ANS: A REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 TOP: Testes
DIF:
Memorization
43. Which of the following is not part of a sperm cell? a. The head of the sperm that contains the nucleus b. The acrosome that contains enzymes c. The midpiece that generates energy d. The cilia, which allow the sperm to swim ANS: D REF: pp. 620-621
PTS: 1 TOP: Testes
DIF:
Memorization
44. Which of the following is not true of seminal fluid? a. It contains secretions of accessory glands. b. It contains gametes. c. It is slightly acidic. d. All of the above are true of seminal fluid. ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 623
TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands
45. Which of the following is not true of the corpus cavernosum? a. It is erectile tissue. b. It surrounds the urethra. c. There are two columns of corpus cavernosum in the penis. d. All of the above are true of the corpus cavernosum. ANS: B REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: External genitals
Memorization
46. Which is not a cause of swelling of the scrotum? a. Hydrocele b. BHP c. Inguinal hernia d. All of the above are causes of swelling of the scrotum. ANS: B REF: p. 626
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the penis and scrotum
47. Which of the following does not describe an accessory structure of the female reproductive system? a. Ducts that extend from near the ovary to the exterior b. External genitals c. Ovaries d. All of the above describe accessory structures of the female reproductive system. ANS: C REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
48. At birth, a baby girl has about 1 million _____ follicles. a. ovarian b. primary c. secondary d. graafian ANS: A REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 TOP: Ovaries
DIF:
Memorization
49. Inflammation of the ovaries is called a. pelvic inflammatory disease. b. oophoritis. c. salpingitis. d. candidiasis. ANS: B REF: p. 636
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Infection and inflammation
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k.
Seminiferous tubules Seminal vesicles Interstitial cells Scrotum Testes Ductus deferens Prostate gland Sperm cell Epididymis Tunica albuginea Corpus spongiosum
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A column of erectile tissue in the penis The male gonads The tube that carries sperm cells out of the scrotum and forms part of the spermatic cord Part of the testes that produces testosterone Produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid The male gamete Structures in which sperm cells develop A tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis A saclike structure that contains the testes Produces a yellowish fluid that is rich in fructose and that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid 11. A tightly coiled, comma-shaped tube that lies along the top of and behind the testes
1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF: 11. ANS: REF:
K p. 624 E p. 619 F p. 622 C p. 619 G p. 623 H pp. 620-621 A p. 622 J p. 619 D p. 619 B p. 623 I p. 622
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Impotence b. Oligospermia c. Epispadias d. Sterility e. Cryptorchidism f. Hydrocele g. Infertility h. Hypospadias i. Inguinal hernia j. Phimosis 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
Causes scrotal swelling due to an accumulation of fluid A decrease in sperm production An abnormally low ability to reproduce Condition that occurs when the foreskin fits so tightly over the glans that it cannot be retracted Condition that occurs when the testes do not descend from the abdominal cavity to the scrotum Condition that occurs when there is a failure to achieve an erection of the penis adequate to permit sexual intercourse The opening of the urethral meatus on the underside of the glans The opening of the urethral meatus on the dorsal or top surface of the glans The complete inability to reproduce A swelling of the scrotum caused by part of the intestine that has pushed through the abdominal wall into the scrotum
12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF:
F p. 626 B p. 625 G p. 625 J p. 624 E p. 625 A p. 626 H p. 625 C p. 626 D p. 624 I p. 626
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the male reproductive system
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Follicle-stimulating hormone b. Fimbriae c. Cervix d. Vulva e. Graafian follicle f. Proliferative phase g. Oviduct h. Ovaries i. Luteinizing hormone j. Corpus luteum k. Vagina l. Ova m. Secretory phase n. Fundus o. Menarche 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
Part of the menstrual cycle that begins at ovulation and ends at menses The part of the fallopian tube that catches the ova at ovulation The female gonads Carries the ova from the ovaries to the uterus Another term for the female external genitalia The female gametes Produces the hormone progesterone after ovulation A mature ovum in its sac Lower part of the uterus Phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between menses and ovulation Part of the uterus that is above the entrance of the fallopian tubes Structure that receives sperm during intercourse and is the last part of the birth canal The first menses Main hormone responsible for ovulation Hormone that causes several immature ovarian follicles to start growing
22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF: 26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS:
M p. 634 B p. 630 H p. 627 G p. 630 D p. 632 L p. 627 J p. 628 E
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:
1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization
30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF: ANS: REF:
p. 628 C p. 631 F p. 634 N p. 631 K p. 631 O p. 633 I p. 634 A p. 635
TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Female reproductive system
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Salpingitis b. Oophoritis c. Amenorrhea d. Ovarian cysts e. Uterine myoma f. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding g. Dysmenorrhea h. Premenstrual syndrome i. Endometriosis 37. Benign enlargements on one or both ovaries 38. Involves a collection of symptoms that regularly occur in some women during the secretory phase of their reproductive cycle 39. Painful periods 40. An inflammation of the uterine tubes 41. The absence of normal menstruation 42. Irregular or excessive uterine bleeding that most often results from a hormonal imbalance 43. The presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus 44. Benign tumors of the uterine fibrous or smooth muscle tissue 45. An inflammation of the ovaries 37. ANS: REF: 38. ANS: REF: 39. ANS: REF: 40. ANS: REF: 41. ANS: REF:
D p. 637 H p. 636 G p. 635 A p. 636 C p. 635
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system
42. ANS: REF: 43. ANS: REF: 44. ANS: REF: 45. ANS: REF:
F p. 635 I p. 637 E p. 636 B p. 636
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of the female reproductive system
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual reproduction
REF: p. 617
2. Explain the different roles that the male and female reproductive systems have in reproduction. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 617-618 TOP: Common structural and functional characteristics between the sexes 3. List the essential and accessory organs of the male reproductive system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: pp. 618-619
4. Describe the structure and location of the testes. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system 5. Explain the process of spermatogenesis. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: pp. 619-620
6. Explain why it is necessary that gametes have only 23 chromosomes rather than the normal 46. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 628
7. Describe the structure of the spermatozoa. Include the function of the acrosome and the midpiece. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 619
8. List and explain the functions of testosterone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: pp. 621-622
9. Many steroids that are illegal for athletes are testosterone-based. Which of the functions of testosterone would help an athlete perform better? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: pp. 621-622
10. List, describe, and explain the functions of the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 622
11. List, describe, and explain the functions of the accessory or supportive sex glands of the male reproductive system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: p. 623
12. Describe the male external genitalia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
REF: pp. 623-624
13. Explain the difference between infertility and sterility. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 624
14. What is cryptorchidism, and how can it be treated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 625
15. What is benign prostatic hypertrophy? How can it lead to urinary retention? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system 16. What are some treatments for cancer of the prostate? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 625
17. What is hypospadias? What is epispadias? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: pp. 625-626
18. What is impotence? How can it be treated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 626
19. What are the essential organs of the female reproductive system? What are the accessory organs of the female reproductive system? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 627
20. Explain the steps in the formation and release of an ovum. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 627-628
21. Explain the process of oogenesis. How is it different from spermatogenesis? What is the function of the polar bodies? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 628-629
22. Explain the functions of estrogen and progesterone. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 629-630
23. Describe and give the function of the uterine tubes. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 630
24. How can the structure of the female reproductive system increase the risk of abdominal infection? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 627-630
25. Describe the structure of the uterus. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 630-631
26. Describe the vagina. What are its functions? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: p. 631
27. Describe the structure of the breast. Explain how the size of the breast affects the ability to produce milk. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 631-632
28. Describe the female external genitalia. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 632-633
TOP: Female reproductive system 29. Explain the menstrual cycle including the role of all hormones involved. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
REF: pp. 633-635
30. Explain dysmenorrhea and amenorrhea. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: p. 635
31. What is dysfunctional uterine bleeding, and how can it be treated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: pp. 635-636
32. Name and explain the two types of ovarian cysts. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: p. 637
33. Explain the various treatments for breast cancer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: pp. 637-638
34. What are the risk factors of ovarian cancer, and how is it treated? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: p. 638
35. What are the two types of uterine cancer? Explain who would be most at risk for each type. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: p. 638
36. Give the name, pathogen, and description of three sexually transmitted diseases. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
REF: pp. 639-641
TRUE/FALSE 1. Both the ova and sperm are considered gametes. ANS: T REF: p. 618
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexual reproduction
2. The union of gametes produces a zygote. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 618
3. Zygotes are only produced by organisms that reproduce sexually. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 618
4. The penis is the essential organ of the male reproductive system. ANS: F REF: p. 618
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
5. The main reason that the testes are located in the scrotum is to ensure that the increased temperature needed for sperm development can be maintained. ANS: F REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
6. The tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis is called the tunica albuginea. ANS: T REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
7. Sperm cells mature within the interstitial cells. ANS: F REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
8. The seminiferous tubules make up the bulk of the tissue of the testes. ANS: T REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
9. The interstitial cells produce testosterone. ANS: T REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
10. The stem cells for spermatogenesis are the primary spermatocytes. ANS: F REF: pp. 619-620
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
11. The primary spermatocyte contains 23 chromosomes. ANS: F REF: p. 620
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
12. The spermatids contain 23 chromosomes. ANS: T REF: p. 620
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
13. It is important for human gametes to have only 23 chromosomes so that the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 617-618
14. The sperm cell is one of the largest and most specialized cells in the male body. ANS: F REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
15. The acrosome stores mitochondria that provide energy for the sperm. ANS: F REF: p. 621
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
16. The mitochondria in the sperm’s midpiece supply energy by breaking down ATP.
ANS: T REF: p. 621
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
17. The function of the acrosomes of the sperm is digestion. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 621
18. One function of testosterone is the promotion and maintenance of the male accessory organs. ANS: T REF: pp. 621-622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
19. Chemically, testosterone is a steroid and because of its function, it can be called an anabolic steroid. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Male reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 622
20. Sperm cells develop in the walls of the seminiferous tubules. ANS: T REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
21. The epididymis carries sperm out of the scrotum and becomes part of the spermatic cord. ANS: F REF: pp. 622-623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
22. The epididymis is contained completely within the scrotum. ANS: T REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
23. The ductus deferens and the vas deferens are the same structure. ANS: T REF: p. 622
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
24. The ductus deferens is contained completely within the scrotum. ANS: F REF: pp. 622-623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
25. The ductus deferens carries sperm out of the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord. ANS: T REF: pp. 622-623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
26. The prostate gland produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid. ANS: F REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
27. Each 3 to 5 mL of seminal fluid contains up to 10 million sperm. ANS: F REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
28. The seminal vesicles produce a yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid. ANS: F REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
29. The bulbourethral gland produces a lubricating secretion that makes up about 5% of the seminal fluid. ANS: T REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
30. The corpus spongiosum and cavernosum are erectile tissues in the penis. ANS: T REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
31. There are two columns of the corpus spongiosum and one column of the corpus cavernosum. ANS: F REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
32. The scrotum contains the testes, the epididymis, and part of the ductus deferens. ANS: T REF: p. 624
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
33. Oligospermia causes sterility. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 625
34. Oligospermia causes infertility. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 625
35. A baby born with undescended testes has the condition of cryptorchidism. ANS: T REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
36. Testes will not function properly in the abdominal cavity because the body temperature is too high. ANS: T REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
37. Testicular cancer is most common in men between the ages of 50 and 70. ANS: F REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
38. A major concern with benign prostatic hypertrophy is the constriction of urine flow through the urethra. ANS: T REF: p. 625
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
39. Both hypospadias and epispadias are conditions in which the urethral meatus opens in an abnormal location. ANS: T REF: pp. 625-626
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
40. A hydrocele is a condition in which fluid has accumulated in the scrotum. ANS: T REF: p. 626
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
41. Most cases of erectile dysfunction have a psychological cause. ANS: F REF: p. 626
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
42. Medical treatment of erectile dysfunction focuses on the functioning of the corpus cavernosum and spongiosum. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
REF: p. 626
43. An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine pushes through the abdominal wall into the scrotum. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 626
TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system
44. The gonads of the female are the ovaries. ANS: T REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
45. Unlike the gonads of the male, the gonads of the female are in the pelvic cavity. ANS: T REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
46. There are more primary follicles than ovarian follicles. ANS: F REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
47. A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a graafian follicle. ANS: T REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
48. The hollow chamber called the antrum and the ovum together make up a structure called the corpus luteum. ANS: F REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
49. The outcome of oogenesis is one large egg containing 23 chromosomes and three polar bodies. ANS: T REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
50. The egg is one of the largest cells in the body. ANS: T REF: p. 628
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
51. The main function of the polar bodies is to help reduce the chromosome number to 23 for the egg. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 628
52. The hormone estrogen is produced in the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the development and maturation of the female reproductive organs. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 629
TOP: Female reproductive system
53. One of the functions of estrogen is to help in the initiation of menarche. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 629
54. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum. ANS: T REF: p. 629
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
55. The uterine tubes, oviducts, and fallopian tubes are all the same structure. ANS: T REF: p. 630
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
56. The oviducts are attached to the ovaries by special structures called fimbriae. ANS: F REF: p. 630
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
57. Fertilization usually occurs in the uterus. ANS: F REF: p. 630
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
58. The muscular layer of the uterus is called the myometrium. ANS: T REF: pp. 630-631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
59. The fundus is located below the body of the uterus, but above the cervix. ANS: F REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
60. The lower part of the uterus is called the cervix. ANS: T REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
61. The fundus is the area of the uterus above the attachment of the oviducts. ANS: T REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
62. The vagina acts as the last part of the birth canal.
ANS: T REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
63. The amount of milk produced is directly related to the size of the breasts. ANS: F REF: pp. 631-632
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
64. Another name for the female external genitalia is the vulva. ANS: T REF: p. 632
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
65. The labia minora is the part of the female external genitalia that is composed of erectile tissue. ANS: F REF: p. 633
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
66. The first menses is called menarche. ANS: T REF: p. 633
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
67. The proliferative phase is the phase between menses and ovulation. ANS: T REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
68. The secretory phase is the phase between ovulation and menses. ANS: T REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
69. The proliferative phase is always longer than the secretory phase. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 634
70. The secretory phase is always longer than the proliferative phase. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Female reproductive system
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 634
71. Although the proliferative phase can vary in length, the secretory phase is almost always 14 days long. ANS: T REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
72. Both follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are secreted by the pituitary gland. ANS: T REF: p. 635
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
73. The hormone most responsible for ovulation is follicle-stimulating hormone. ANS: F REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
74. The function of follicle-stimulating hormone is to stimulate the growth of immature ovarian follicles. ANS: T REF: p. 635
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
75. Amenorrhea is a term used to describe painful periods. ANS: F REF: p. 636
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
76. Salpingitis is the inflammation of the oviducts, and oophoritis is the inflammation of the ovaries. ANS: T REF: p. 636
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
77. Uterine myoma is another term for uterine cancer. ANS: F REF: p. 637
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
78. An ovarian cyst is the first stage of ovarian cancer. ANS: F REF: p. 637
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
79. Cervical cancer can be detected by a screening test called a Papanicolaou test, or Pap test. ANS: T REF: p. 638
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
80. The terms infertility and sterility mean the same thing. ANS: F REF: pp. 638-639
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system
81. The granulosa cells in the female and the interstitial cells in the male both produce sex hormones. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 | p. 627 TOP: The male reproductive system | The female reproductive system 82. Sexually transmitted diseases and venereal diseases refer to the same types of diseases. ANS: T REF: p. 639
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases
83. The function of the reproductive system is very different from any other system because it does not deal with the survival of the individual. ANS: T REF: p. 617
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
84. The primary function of the male and female reproductive systems is to transfer genes to the next generation of offspring. ANS: T REF: p. 617
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
85. The siblings produced by sexual reproduction are more alike than siblings produced by asexual reproduction. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Sexual reproduction
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 617-618
86. Spermatozoa are the gonads of the male. ANS: F REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Male reproductive system
87. Follicle-stimulating hormone causes a spermatogonium to undergo spermatogenesis. ANS: T REF: p. 619
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Spermatogenesis
Memorization
88. Seminal fluid contains gametes and secretions from accessory glands. ANS: T REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands
89. Another name for the seminal vesicles is the Cowper glands. ANS: F REF: p. 623
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands
90. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system. ANS: T REF: p. 627
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
91. The corpus luteum secretes a hormone that stimulates ovulation. ANS: F REF: p. 634
PTS: 1 TOP: Ovaries
DIF:
Memorization
92. Progesterone stimulates proliferation and vascularization of the uterine lining. ANS: T REF: p. 629
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
93. The part of the uterine tube that enters the uterus is called the fimbriae. ANS: F REF: p. 630
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Reproductive ducts
Memorization
94. The uterus plays an important role in menstruation, pregnancy, and labor. ANS: T REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 TOP: Uterus
DIF:
Memorization
95. The lesser vestibular glands are also called the Bartholin glands. ANS: F REF: p. 631
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Female reproductive system
96. The area between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the perineum. ANS: T REF: p. 633
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: External genitals
Memorization
97. The most frequent cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is infection. ANS: F REF: p. 635
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Hormonal and menstrual disorders
98. One possible symptom of vaginitis is leukorrhea. ANS: T REF: p. 637
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Infection and inflammation
99. The presence of functional endometrial tissue outside the uterus is called endometriosis. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 637
TOP: Tumor and related conditions
100. The terms sexually transmitted disease and sexually transmitted infection mean the same thing. ANS: F REF: p. 639
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases
Chapter 24: Growth, Development, and Aging Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms refers to a fertilized ovum? a. Blastocyst b. Embryo c. Zygote d. Morula ANS: C REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
2. Which structure is a solid ball of cells that forms about 3 days after fertilization? a. Blastocyst b. Embryo c. Zygote d. Morula ANS: D REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
3. Which structure is a hollow ball of cells that develops and implants into the uterus? a. Blastocyst b. Embryo c. Zygote d. Morula ANS: A REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
4. Fertilization usually occurs in the a. uterus. b. outer third of the oviduct near the ovary. c. inner third of the oviduct near the uterus. d. ovarian follicle. ANS: B REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
5. The function of the yolk sac is to a. provide food until the blastocyst implants in the uterus. b. develop into a protective structure called the “bag of waters.” c. help in the production of blood cells. d. All of the above are functions of the yolk sac. ANS: C REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
6. The blastocyst undergoes rapid cell division and is _______________ as the fertilized egg. a. about twice as large b. about four times as large c. almost eight times as large d. the same size ANS: D REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
7. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta? a. Acting as the nutrient bridge between mother and baby b. Acting as an excretory organ c. Acting as an endocrine organ d. All of the above are functions of the placenta. ANS: D REF: p. 655
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
8. The sequence of development for the fertilized egg is a. fertilization, zygote, morula, implantation, and blastocyst. b. fertilization, zygote, morula, blastocyst, and implantation. c. fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, morula, and implantation. d. fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, implantation, and morula. ANS: B REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
9. Which of the following is not formed by the mesoderm? a. Dermis of the skin b. Kidneys c. Bladder d. Muscles ANS: C REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
10. Which of the following is not formed by the endoderm? a. Lining of the lungs b. Nasal bones c. Thymus gland d. Tonsils ANS: B REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
11. Which of the following is not formed by the ectoderm? a. Dermis of the skin b. Epidermis of the skin c. Brain d. Spinal cord ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 658
TOP: Prenatal period
12. The time from maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina is the _____ stage of labor. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
13. The time from the onset of uterine contractions to the complete dilation of the cervix is the _____ stage of labor. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: A REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
14. The process of the expulsion of the placenta occurs in the _____ stage of labor. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: C REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
15. Blood type is an inherited trait; therefore a. identical twins must have the same blood type. b. fraternal twins must have the same blood type. c. identical twins may have the same blood type, but do not have to have the same blood type. d. both A and B. ANS: A PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
16. Identical twins a. are the result of a single fertilized egg. b. usually share an umbilical cord. c. usually share a placenta. d. both A and C. ANS: D REF: p. 661 17. Fraternal twins
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
REF: p. 661
a. b. c. d.
are the result of two fertilized eggs. must be of the same sex. must have the same blood type. All of the above are true.
ANS: A PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 661
18. The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called a. placenta previa. b. abruptio placentae. c. ectopic pregnancy. d. preeclampsia. ANS: C REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
19. If a blastocyst implants too close to the cervical opening, which of the following conditions can develop? a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Preeclampsia ANS: A REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
20. Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall after 20 weeks’ gestation is a condition called a. placenta previa. b. abruptio placentae. c. ectopic pregnancy. d. preeclampsia. ANS: B REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
21. Toxemia of pregnancy is another term for which of the following? a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Preeclampsia ANS: D REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
22. Which of the following is not a teratogenic cause of birth defects? a. Alcohol b. Genes c. Radiation d. Infection
ANS: B REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
23. The period of infancy occurs for a. 4 weeks after birth. b. 1 year. c. 18 months. d. 2 years. ANS: C REF: p. 665
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
24. Childhood a. occurs from infancy to age 10. b. occurs from the end of infancy to sexual maturity. c. is usually longer in boys than girls. d. both B and C. ANS: D PTS: TOP: Postnatal period
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 666
25. Adolescence is a. generally considered to be the teenage years. b. characterized by the completion of the deciduous teeth. c. characterized by the full closure of the bone growth plates. d. All of the above are true of adolescence. ANS: A REF: p. 666
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
26. Which of the following is true of the embryo after 35 days of development? a. The heart is beating. b. The eyes are visible. c. The limb buds are visible. d. All of the above are true. ANS: D REF: p. 657
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of development
27. Which of the following does not contribute to a newborn’s Apgar score? a. Weight of the baby at birth b. Heart rate c. Muscle tone d. All of the above contribute to the Apgar score. ANS: A REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
28. Which of the following is considered a postpartum disorder? a. Abruptio placentae b. Puerperal fever
c. Preeclampsia d. Both A and B are considered postpartum disorders. ANS: B REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Postpartum disorders
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Yolk sac b. Fraternal twins c. Zygote d. Histogenesis e. Amniotic cavity f. Identical twins g. Morula h. Primary germ layers i. Blastocyst j. Placenta 1. The endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm 2. Structure that becomes a fluid-filled, shock-absorbing structure sometimes called the “bag of waters” 3. The newly fertilized egg 4. The formation of tissues 5. The hollow ball of cells that implants in the uterus 6. Structure that supplies food for the embryo in some creatures, but in humans it functions in the formation of blood cells 7. Structure that anchors the embryo to the uterus and exchanges material between the mother and baby 8. The solid ball of cells that develops from the fertilized egg 9. Twins that develop from one fertilized egg and are genetically identical 10. Twins that develop from two fertilized eggs and are no more alike than other siblings 1. ANS: REF: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF:
H p. 657 E pp. 654-655 C p. 654 D p. 658 I p. 654 A p. 654 J p. 655
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Prenatal period
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF:
G p. 654 F p. 661 B p. 661
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Prenatal period 1 DIF: Birth or parturition 1 DIF: Birth or parturition
Memorization Memorization Memorization
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio placentae c. Eclampsia d. Ectopic pregnancy e. Teratogen f. Preeclampsia g. Mastitis h. Puerperal fever 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
An inflammation of the breast that can cause problems in lactation Condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus An environmental cause of birth defects Condition that can occur when the fertilized egg implants too near the cervix of the uterus Condition that occurs in about 1 in 20 pregnancies; characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema 16. A condition in which the placenta has pulled away from the uterine wall 17. A syndrome of postpartum mothers characterized by bacterial infection that progresses to septicemia 18. A life-threatening form of toxemia that causes severe convulsions, coma, and kidney failure and is potentially fatal to mother and baby 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF:
G pp. 663-664 D p. 662 E p. 663 A p. 662 F p. 662 B p. 662 H p. 663 C p. 662
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy 1 DIF: Memorization Disorders of pregnancy
Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Glaucoma
b. c. d. e. f. g.
Osteoarthritis Menopause Atherosclerosis Lipping Cataract Presbyopia
19. Condition that occurs when old bones develop shaggy-appearing margins with spurs 20. Condition that occurs when fatty deposits build up in blood vessel walls and narrow the passageway for blood 21. Condition that means “old eye” and is caused by a loss of elasticity in the lenses of the eye 22. The cessation of reproductive cycling in women 23. Causes an increase in pressure within the eyeball 24. Condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and significantly impairs vision 25. A common degenerative joint disease in elderly adults 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF:
E p. 668 D p. 669 G p. 669 C p. 670 A p. 669 F p. 669 B p. 668
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging 1 DIF: Effects of aging
Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the events from fertilization to the implantation of the blastocyst into the uterus. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
REF: p. 654
2. Explain the function of the yolk sac, amniotic sac, chorionic villi, and the placenta. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: pp. 654-656
TOP: Prenatal period 3. Name the three primary germ layers, and name two organs or organ systems that develop from each. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
REF: pp. 657-658
4. Describe the events that occur in the three stages of labor. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
REF: p. 661
5. Bob and his sister Betty are twins. Are they fraternal twins or identical twins? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Application
REF: p. 661
6. Explain how the use of fertility drugs can increase the frequency of multiple births. If twins result from fertility drugs, are they likely to be identical or fraternal? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Application
REF: p. 661
7. Name and explain three types of implantation disorders. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy 8. What is preeclampsia? What is eclampsia? ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
REF: p. 662
9. Define and give three examples of a teratogen. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
REF: p. 663
10. When is infancy? What changes or developmental events occur during infancy? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
REF: pp. 665-666
11. When is childhood, and what changes or developmental events occur during childhood? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
REF: p. 666
12. When is adolescence, and what changes or developmental events occur during adolescence? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
REF: p. 666
13. What changes or developmental events occur during adulthood? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
14. Explain two theories of aging. ANS: Answers will vary.
REF: pp. 666-667
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
REF: p. 668
15. Select four body systems, and explain the effects of aging on each system. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
REF: pp. 668-670
16. What are stem cells? Where can they be found in the embryo? Where can they be found in an adult? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 TOP: Stem cells
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 657
17. What are Apgar scores used for? What criteria are used to determine the Apgar score? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
REF: p. 661
TRUE/FALSE 1. The event that divides the prenatal and postnatal periods is birth. ANS: T REF: p. 653
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Introduction
Memorization
2. The union of the sperm and egg creates a zygote. ANS: T REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
3. After ovulation, the ovum immediately enters the fallopian tube. ANS: F REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
4. Fertilization usually occurs at the segment of the oviduct nearest the uterus. ANS: F REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
5. The morula is larger and has more cells than the zygote. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Prenatal period
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 654
6. The blastocyst implants into the uterine wall. ANS: T REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
7. One of the reasons the egg cell is so large is to supply food for the zygote until it implants in the uterus. ANS: T REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
8. One of the primary functions of the yolk sac is to provide food for the blastocyst until it implants in the uterine wall. ANS: F REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
9. The chorionic villi allow the blood of the mother to mix with the blood of the baby so there can be an exchange of material. ANS: F REF: p. 655
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
10. One of the functions of the placenta is to act as an endocrine gland. ANS: T REF: p. 655
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
11. One of the most important functions of the placenta is to act as a barrier to keep potentially harmful materials such as alcohol or viruses from hurting the baby. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Prenatal period
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 655
12. The length of the pregnancy is referred to as the gestation period. ANS: T REF: p. 656
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
13. The developing baby is called a fetus for the last 3 months of pregnancy. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Prenatal period
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 656
14. By day 35 of gestation, the embryo has a beating heart. ANS: T REF: p. 656
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
15. By 4 months of gestation, all of the organ systems are complete and in place. ANS: T REF: pp. 656-657
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
16. The primary germ layers of the body produce the gametes that join to form the zygote. ANS: F REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
17. The mesoderm forms the muscles of the body. ANS: T REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
18. The ectoderm forms the dermis and epidermis of the skin. ANS: F REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
19. The endoderm forms the brain and spinal cord. ANS: F REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
20. Histogenesis must precede organogenesis. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Prenatal period
1
DIF:
Application
21. Organogenesis must precede histogenesis. ANS: F REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
22. Another term for birth is parturition. ANS: T REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
23. Stage three of labor starts when the cervix is fully dilated. ANS: F
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 658
REF: p. 661
TOP: Birth or parturition
24. Stage one of labor ends when the cervix is fully dilated. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
25. Stage two of labor ends with the birth of the baby. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
26. Stage three of labor ends with the birth of the baby. ANS: F REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
27. Stage three of labor ends with the expulsion of the placenta. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
28. Stage two of labor is usually the longest of the three stages. ANS: F REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
29. Stage three of labor is usually the shortest. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
30. A woman who delivers her baby by cesarean section cannot go through any of the three stages of labor. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 661
31. Identical twins must have the same color eyes and hair. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 658
32. It is possible for identical twins to have different biological fathers. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
33. Identical twins usually share one umbilical cord and one placenta.
REF: p. 661
ANS: F REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
34. Fraternal twins can be of different sexes. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 661
35. Fraternal twins can have different biological fathers. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
36. Identical twins come from one fertilized egg. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
37. Fertility drugs increase the likelihood of having identical twins. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 661
38. If the fimbriae do not catch the ovum, an ectopic pregnancy could occur. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 661
39. Ectopic pregnancies are always fatal to the embryo and are usually life threatening to the mother. ANS: F REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
40. A tubal pregnancy is considered an ectopic pregnancy. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
41. If the blastocyst implants too close to the cervix, a condition called placenta previa can occur. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
42. Placenta previa has the highest risk for mother and baby during the first trimester of pregnancy.
ANS: F REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
43. Abruptio placentae occur when the placenta pulls away from the uterine wall. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
44. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include high blood pressure and edema. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
45. Preeclampsia can develop into eclampsia, which can be fatal to both mother and baby. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
46. Birth defects can result from genetic or environmental causes. ANS: T REF: p. 662
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
47. All teratogens are also mutagens. ANS: F REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
48. Mutagens cause a change in the genetic code in the cells of the developing embryo. ANS: T REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
49. Teratogens are most damaging to the fetus during the last trimester of pregnancy. ANS: F REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Disorders of pregnancy
50. Infancy begins at birth and lasts about 18 months. ANS: T REF: p. 665
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
51. The first 4 months after birth are referred to as the neonatal period. ANS: F REF: p. 665
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
52. The stimulus for a baby’s first breath is the lack of oxygen coming through the umbilical cord. ANS: F REF: p. 665
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
53. Two systems that undergo very rapid development during infancy are the muscular system and the nervous system. ANS: T REF: pp. 665-666
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
54. The deciduous (baby) teeth both appear and are lost during childhood. ANS: F REF: p. 666
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
55. One of the most important changes during adolescence is the completion of the development of the secondary sex characteristics. ANS: T REF: p. 666
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
56. The full closure of the growth plates of the skeletal system occurs during early adulthood. ANS: T REF: p. 666
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Postnatal period
Memorization
57. The number of nephrons in the kidney decreases by 25% between the ages of 30 and 75. ANS: F REF: p. 670
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Memorization
58. As a person ages, the rib cage becomes fixed and less able to expand and contract. This causes a condition called “barrel chest,” which actually adds to the efficiency of breathing. ANS: F REF: p. 669
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Memorization
59. The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults. ANS: T REF: p. 669
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Memorization
60. Only about 40% of the taste buds present at age 30 remain in a person at age 75. ANS: T REF: p. 669
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Effects of aging
Memorization
61. The science of the development of the individual before birth is called neonatology. ANS: F REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Prenatal period
Memorization
62. The fimbriae are the parts of the oviducts that are nearest the ovary. ANS: T REF: p. 654
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization to implantation
63. The placenta contains tissue from both mother and baby. ANS: T REF: p. 655
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Fertilization to implantation
64. A woman who delivered a baby after 35 weeks of gestation would have had a full-term pregnancy. ANS: F REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Periods of development
65. The morula would be made exclusively of stem cells. ANS: T TOP: Stem cells
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 657
66. Because the adult body has fully differentiated cells, it contains no stem cells. ANS: F REF: p. 657
PTS: 1 TOP: Stem cells
DIF:
Memorization
67. If a fetus presents in the breech position, a cesarean section may be necessary. ANS: T REF: p. 658
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
68. Five criteria are used to determine an Apgar score. ANS: T REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
69. An Apgar score of a completely healthy baby would be 5. ANS: F REF: p. 661
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Birth or parturition
Memorization
70. If all other criteria for the Apgar score were equal, a baby who is underweight would have a lower score than a baby of normal weight.
ANS: F PTS: TOP: Birth or parturition
1
DIF:
Application
71. Puerperal fever is considered a postpartum disorder. ANS: T REF: p. 663
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Postpartum disorders
REF: p. 661
Chapter 25: Genetics and Genetic Diseases Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During cell division, each replicated strand of chromatin coils to form a compact mass called a a. gene. b. messenger RNA. c. chromosome. d. both A and C. ANS: C REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
2. The final product of a gene is a a. chromatin strand. b. protein. c. messenger RNA molecule. d. chromosome. ANS: B REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
3. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called the a. genome. b. karyotype. c. chromosomes. d. both B and C. ANS: A REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
4. The human genome contains about how many genes? a. 100,000 b. 75,000 c. 50,000 d. 20,000 ANS: D REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
5. The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the _____-arm. a. l b. p c. q d. s ANS: B REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
6. The longer segment of a chromosome is called the _____-arm. a. l b. p c. q d. s ANS: C REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
7. The structure that divides the chromosome into longer and shorter segments is called the a. centromere. b. genome. c. mitochondria. d. centrioles. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 680
8. The process by which gametes have their chromosome number reduced by half is called a. mitosis. b. crossing-over. c. meiosis. d. linkage. ANS: C REF: p. 682
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
9. A mechanism that helps ensure genetic variation is a. sperm cells not sharing the same genome. b. egg cells not sharing the same genome. c. crossing-over. d. all of the above. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 681-682
10. If both the mother and father are carriers for albinism, the probability that their offspring will be albino is a. 0%. b. 25%. c. 50%. d. 100%. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 11. The mother is a carrier for albinism and the father has two dominant genes for normal skin color. The probability that their offspring will be albino is a. 0%. b. 25%.
c. 50%. d. 100%. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 682 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 12. If both the mother and father are albino, the probability that their offspring will be albino is a. 0%. b. 25%. c. 50%. d. 100%. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 13. A mother who is a carrier for red-green color-blindness and a father with normal vision will produce which of the following offspring? a. 25% of their daughters will be color-blind b. 50% of their daughters will be color-blind c. 25% of their sons will be color-blind d. 50% of their sons will be color-blind ANS: D PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 684
14. A mother with normal vision (not a carrier for color-blindness) and a father who is colorblind will produce which of the following offspring? a. 100% of the sons will be color-blind b. 50% of the sons will be color-blind c. 100% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness d. 50% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684 TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 15. Which of the following can be a genetic mutagen? a. Radiation b. Virus c. Chemicals d. All of the above can be genetic mutagens. ANS: D REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
16. A person with trisomy has _____ chromosomes. a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48 ANS: C PTS: TOP: Genetic diseases
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 688
17. A person with monosomy has _____ chromosomes. a. 45 b. 46 c. 47 d. 48 ANS: A PTS: TOP: Genetic diseases
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 690
18. Which of the following conditions results from trisomy? a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Both A and C ANS: D PTS: TOP: Genetic diseases
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 688
19. Which of the following conditions results from monosomy? a. Down syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Both A and C ANS: B PTS: TOP: Genetic diseases
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 689
20. Which of the following is a photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart and used to detect chromosomal disorders? a. Pedigree b. Karyotype c. Punnett square d. Plasmid ANS: B REF: pp. 690-691
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
21. Which of the following is a grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait? a. Pedigree b. Karyotype c. Punnett square d. Plasmid ANS: C REF: p. 690
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
22. Which of the following is a chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations? a. Pedigree
b. Karyotype c. Punnett square d. Plasmid ANS: A REF: p. 690
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
23. Which of the following does not describe a gene? a. A sequence of DNA nucleotide bases b. Used to transcribe a specific mRNA molecule c. Used to determine the structure of regulatory enzymes for the cell d. All of the above describe a gene. ANS: D REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
24. What percent of DNA carries functional genes? a. Less than 2% b. Close to 5% c. About 10% d. More than 25% ANS: A REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The human genome
25. Which of the following terms describes a noncoding part of DNA that may be a fragmented or a nonfunctional gene? a. Genome b. Pseudogene c. Genomic d. Proteome ANS: B REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The human genome
26. Which of the following genetic diseases results from a recessive gene that fails to produce an enzyme needed to convert an amino acid into tyrosine? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Phenylketonuria d. Turner syndrome ANS: C REF: p. 686
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-gene diseases
27. Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by a recessive gene that causes impairment of chloride ion transport across the cell membrane? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Phenylketonuria d. Turner syndrome
ANS: B REF: p. 686
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-gene diseases
28. Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by a recessive gene that fails to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Phenylketonuria d. Turner syndrome ANS: A REF: p. 688
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Single-gene diseases
29. Which of the following would be most useful in detecting Turner syndrome? a. A pedigree b. A Punnett square c. A karyotype d. Both A and B would be useful in detecting Turner syndrome. ANS: C TOP: Karyotype
PTS:
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 690
MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Proteome b. Crossing-over c. Dominant gene d. Gene e. p-arm f. Trisomy g. Genetics h. Recessive gene i. Genome j. q-arm k. Sex-linked trait l. Genetic mutation m. Monosomy n. Autosome o. Nondisjunction 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Gene that does not get expressed in an individual who is a carrier The shorter segment of a chromosome The scientific study of genetic inheritance The entire collection of genetic material in each cell in the human body The group of proteins encoded by the genes of the human cell A condition in which a cell has only one member of a chromosome pair The discrete unit of DNA that is passed from parent to offspring and carries a genetic trait Gene that expresses itself whenever it is in a cell
9. A process in which parts of chromosomes are exchanged between chromosome pairs during meiosis 10. The longer segment of the chromosome 11. A nonsex chromosome 12. A trait found on the X chromosome 13. Occurs during meiosis and can lead to monosomy or trisomy 14. A change in the genetic material 15. A condition in which a cell has three members of a chromosome pair 1. ANS: TOP: 2. ANS: REF: 3. ANS: REF: 4. ANS: REF: 5. ANS: REF: 6. ANS: REF: 7. ANS: REF: 8. ANS: REF: 9. ANS: REF: 10. ANS: REF: 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF:
H PTS: Gene expression E PTS: p. 680 TOP: G PTS: pp. 679-680 TOP: I PTS: p. 680 TOP: A PTS: p. 680 TOP: M PTS: p. 686 TOP: D PTS: p. 680 TOP: C PTS: p. 682 TOP: B PTS: p. 682 TOP: J PTS: p. 680 TOP: N PTS: p. 682 TOP: K PTS: p. 683 TOP: O PTS: pp. 685-686 TOP: L PTS: p. 684 TOP: F PTS: pp. 685-686 TOP:
1
DIF:
Application
1 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 1 DIF: Memorization Genetics and human disease 1 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 1 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 1 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 0 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 0 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 0 DIF: Memorization Chromosomes and genes 0 DIF: Memorization Gene expression 0 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 0 DIF: Memorization Gene expression 0 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases
Match each term with its corresponding definition or description. a. Turner syndrome b. Cystic fibrosis c. Down syndrome d. Pedigree e. Single-gene disease f. Klinefelter syndrome
REF: p. 682
g. h. i. j.
Karyotype Genetic predisposition PKU Punnett square
16. The condition of having a gene that makes it more likely that you will develop a disease 17. Condition that causes the presence of an extra 21st chromosome 18. Condition caused by having a gene that makes a faulty protein that prevents the movement of sodium ions into and out of the cell 19. A chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations 20. A grid used to determine the probability of inheriting genetic traits 21. A photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart in pairs according to size 22. Disease that occurs because of the presence of a single gene 23. Condition of people with only a single X chromosome (XO) 24. Condition of people who are missing an enzyme that should convert one amino acid into another 25. Condition of people with XXY chromosomes 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF:
H p. 685 C pp. 688-689 B p. 686 D p. 690 J p. 690 G p. 690 E p. 686 A p. 689 I p. 686 F p. 689
PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:
1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases 1 DIF: Memorization Genetic diseases
SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain how genes control the activity of a cell. ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
REF: p. 680
2. Draw an ideogram of a hypothetical chromosome and label the p-arm and q-arm. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Chromosomes and genes
REF: pp. 680-681
3. Explain the ways in which genetic variation is increased when passing genetic information on to the next generation. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Chromosomes and genes
REF: pp. 681-682
4. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of albinism in offspring from a mother who has normal skin color but carries the albinism trait and a father who is an albino. ANS: Fifty percent of the children will be albino; 50% of the children will have normal skin color. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Synthesis
REF: p. 690 | p. 692
5. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of sickle cell disease in offspring from a mother and father who both have sickle cell trait. ANS: 25% normal blood cells, 50% sickle cell trait, and 25% sickle cell anemia. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Synthesis
REF: p. 690 | p. 692
6. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of color-blindness in offspring from a mother who is a carrier for color-blindness and a color-blind father. ANS: 25% color-blind female, 25% color-blind male, 25% carrier female, and 25% normal vision male. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Synthesis
REF: p. 690 | p. 692
7. What is a genetic mutation? List three possible genetic mutagens.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
REF: p. 684
8. Which is more likely to stay in a population: a helpful mutation or a harmful mutation? Explain your answer. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
REF: p. 684
9. Explain the difference between a genetic disease and a genetic predisposition. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
REF: p. 685
10. Explain the cause and symptoms of cystic fibrosis. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
REF: p. 686
11. Explain the cause of and treatment for PKU. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
REF: pp. 686-688
12. Explain the cause and symptoms of Down syndrome. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
13. Explain the cause and symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome.
REF: pp. 688-689
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
REF: p. 689
14. Explain the cause and symptoms of Turner syndrome. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
REF: p. 689
15. Turner syndrome is caused by monosomy of the sex chromosome XO. Why is there no corresponding condition for monosomy of the sex chromosome YO? ANS: Answers will vary. PTS:
1
DIF:
Synthesis
REF: p. 689
TOP: Gene expression
16. What is a pedigree? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 17. What is a Punnett square? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 18. What is a karyotype? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 690-691 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases 19. Explain the difference between gene replacement therapy and gene augmentation therapy.
ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
REF: pp. 692-693
20. Explain the methods used by gene therapists to insert genetic material into a patient’s body. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
REF: pp. 692-693
21. Evaluate the current success of gene therapy. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
REF: pp. 692-693
22. Define or describe what is meant by a pseudogene. ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The human genome
REF: p. 680
TRUE/FALSE 1. The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics. ANS: T REF: pp. 679-680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetics and human disease
2. Another term for a chromatin strand is a gene. ANS: F REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
3. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete independent units called genes. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
4. The first step in gene expression is the formation of a molecule of mRNA.
ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
5. All DNA in a human cell is found in the nucleus. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 680
6. The entire collection of genetic material in a cell is called the genome. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
7. The final step in gene expression is frequently an enzyme. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
8. The human genome contains about 100,000 genes. ANS: F REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
9. Only slightly more than 25% of the genetic material contains functional genes; the other 75% is filler. ANS: F REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
10. The study of the proteins that are made by the human genome is called proteomics. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
11. An ideogram is a drawing of a chromosome. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
12. The p-arm is the long segment of the chromosome. ANS: F REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
13. The q-arm is the long segment of the chromosome. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
14. The p-arm and q-arm are determined by the location of the centromere. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 680
15. A gene can be reduced to a sequence of DNA nucleotides. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 680
16. Sperm from the same father will always carry the same set of chromosomes. ANS: F REF: p. 681
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
17. Ova from the same mother will always carry the same set of chromosomes. ANS: F REF: p. 681
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
18. Human gametes contain 23 chromosomes each. ANS: T REF: p. 681
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
19. The exchange of genetic material between pairs of autosomes is called crossing-over. ANS: T REF: p. 682
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
20. The process of crossing-over helps prevent genetic variation in the offspring. ANS: F REF: p. 682
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
21. Two genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be linked. ANS: T REF: p. 682
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
22. The human genome contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. ANS: T REF: p. 681
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Chromosomes and genes
23. A dominant gene will prevent the recessive gene from being expressed. ANS: T
PTS:
1
DIF:
Memorization
REF: p. 682
TOP: Gene expression
24. A recessive trait on an autosome will be expressed only if both chromosomes have a recessive gene. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 682
Application
REF: pp. 682-683
25. Two albino parents will have all albino children. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
26. An albino father and a mother with normal skin color who carries the gene for albinism have the probability of having 25% of their offspring be albino. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 682-683
27. A father and mother who both have normal skin color but carry the gene for albinism will have only offspring with normal skin color. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: pp. 682-683
28. A person with one dominant gene for normal skin color and one gene for albinism will look the same as a person with two dominant genes for normal skin color. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 682
29. Because sickle cell anemia is a codominant trait, people who have one gene for sickle cell anemia are different from people with two genes for normal blood. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 683
30. Because the father has both X and Y chromosomes, it is his gamete rather than the mother’s that determines the sex of the offspring. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 683
31. A recessive trait carried on the X chromosome acts like a dominant trait in a male offspring. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 684
32. A color-blind mother and a normal vision father will have both sons and daughters who are color-blind. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 684
33. A color-blind father and a normal vision mother who did not carry the gene for colorblindness will have 50% of the sons color-blind and 100% of the daughters as carriers for color-blindness. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 684
34. A mother who is a carrier of the color-blind trait and a father with normal color vision will pass on color-blindness to 50% of their sons. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Gene expression
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 684
35. The terms sex-linked and X-linked trait mean the same thing. ANS: T REF: pp. 683-684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
36. A genetic mutation is a change in the DNA code. ANS: T REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
37. All mutations are harmful to the organism. ANS: F REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
38. A mutagen is an agent that causes a mutation. ANS: T REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Gene expression
Memorization
39. Monosomy and trisomy are considered a genetic predisposition for disease. ANS: F REF: pp. 685-686
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
40. Both monosomy and trisomy result from nondisjunction. ANS: T REF: pp. 685-686
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
41. The term genetic disease means the same thing as genetic predisposition. ANS: F REF: p. 685
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
42. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene that prevents the proper movement of sodium into and out of the cell. ANS: F REF: p. 686
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
43. PKU can be managed by careful dietary restrictions of certain amino acids. ANS: T REF: p. 687
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
44. Down syndrome results from nondisjunction of the 21st chromosome. ANS: T REF: pp. 688-689
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
45. People with Down syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes. ANS: T REF: pp. 688-689
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
46. People with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes. ANS: F REF: pp. 688-689
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
47. A photograph of chromosomes that have been cut out and pasted onto a chart in pairs according to size is called a pedigree. ANS: F REF: p. 690
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
48. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a pedigree. ANS: T REF: p. 690
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
49. A grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait is called a pedigree. ANS: F REF: p. 690
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
50. A karyotype can be used to detect Down syndrome.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
REF: pp. 689-690
51. A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of two carriers of albinism having an albino offspring. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
REF: p. 690
52. Viruses and bacterial plasmids have been used to get genetic material into the cell to treat genetic diseases. ANS: T REF: p. 692
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
53. Adenosine deaminase deficiency and cystic fibrosis have been successfully cured with gene therapy. ANS: F REF: p. 693
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases
54. A person can inherit genetic diseases and genetic risk factors. ANS: T REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Genetics and human disease
55. When DNA is in its chromosome form, transcription cannot occur. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Chromosomes and genes
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 680
56. Fragments of formerly functioning genes in the DNA are called genomics. ANS: F REF: p. 680
PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: The human genome
57. If a creature normally has 32 chromosomes in its cells, the gametes it produces would have 16 chromosomes. ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Distribution of chromosomes to offspring
Application
REF: p. 681
58. If both parents have sickle cell trait, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia. ANS: F PTS: TOP: Hereditary traits
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 683
59. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Hereditary traits
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 683
60. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, all of their offspring will have sickle cell trait. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Hereditary traits
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 683
61. Because mutations occur at the chemical level, they can never be seen under the microscope. ANS: F REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic mutations
Memorization
62. Both viruses and bacteria can be mutagens. ANS: F REF: p. 684
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic mutations
Memorization
63. Nondisjunction can produce gametes with 22 and 24 chromosomes. ANS: T PTS: TOP: Genetic diseases
1
DIF:
Application
REF: p. 686
64. Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a failure to make an enzyme that converts an amino acid into tyrosine. ANS: F REF: p. 688
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
65. People who are carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher-than-normal resistance to tuberculosis. ANS: T REF: p. 688
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization
66. A woman younger than 19 has a higher likelihood of producing a child with Down syndrome than a woman older than 20. ANS: F REF: pp. 688-689
PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Genetic diseases
Memorization