CHAPTER 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The property of living organisms that involves a unique and complex molecular organization is called A) B) C) D) E)
2)
growth. development. metabolism. reproduction. chemical uniqueness.
A characteristic of science is A) B) C) D) E)
it is not explained by natural laws. its hypotheses are testable. its conclusions are final. it is not falsifiable. it seeks to define the vitalistic forces of life.
3) A cell dies and its complex organic molecules degrade into a mass of simple molecules no more organized than the nonliving matter outside the cell. This feature of life, which is now lost, is A) B) C) D) E)
growth and reproduction. adaptability. metabolism. irritability. complexity and hierarchical organization.
4) Which hierarchy of organization is seen in multicellular organisms such as animals, going from smallest to largest?
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A) B) C) D) E)
cell, organ, tissue, organism cell, organ, organ system, tissue cell, tissue, organ system, organism organism, organ system, organ, tissue tissue, organ system, cell, organism
5) The structure of a brick does not predict the design of a home. Study of muscle tissues does not allow you to predict the design of a bird or snake. Such examples demonstrate A) B) C) D)
the essential properties found in all forms of life. the hierarchy of organization from atom to biosphere. deterministic philosophy or how all phenomena are predictable effects of causes. emergent properties that cannot be predicted by examining component parts.
6) Which of the following characteristics is NOT required for the life of an individual organism to continue? A) B) C) D)
7)
chemical uniqueness and organization response to stimuli evolution a genetic program to control cell processes
Which statement about living things is FALSE?
A) Living things are made up of cells. B) Living things obey the laws of chemistry and physics. C) Living things show organization and other common characteristics of life. D) Emergent properties arise from interactions among the components of a system. E) Living things are composed only of organic elements, whereas nonliving things are made up of inorganic elements.
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8) "Self-replicating molecular assemblage" is a classic definition of life. However, clay particles in clay soil contain aluminum and iron compounds that determine the pattern of particles in adjacent layers over time and, therefore, represent a self-replicating molecular assemblage. What can we conclude? A) Clay soil is living. B) Clay soil is not living because there was no molecular change involved. C) Clay soil is not living because no carbon is involved; otherwise, such replication would be living. D) Clay soilis not living because what is described is a simple repetitive process without the ability to evolve or respond to the environment.
9)
All of the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell constitute A) B) C) D)
evolution. metabolism. adaptation. homeostasis.
10) "Cryptobiosis" is a state of almost total water loss found in some roundworms, rotifers, and tardigrades and was previously considered a near cessation of metabolism. Recently, a British Museum botanist accidentally spilled fluid on a120+year-old herbarium mount of a lichen. Fearing damage to the specimen, he immediately inspected it under the microscope and found tardigrades "waking up." This observation A) supports the claim that the tardigrades were dead but began respiring again at a very slow rate after the fluid was added. B) makes it possible that we can bring most dead animals back to life. C) contradicts both the cell theory and evolutionary theory. D) indicates metabolism did not stop, and that organization and water made it sufficient to maintain the possibility for "life."
11)
Reproduction of organisms involves the apparently contradictory phenomena of
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A) B) C) D)
12)
cellular and noncellular structures. catabolism and anabolism. adaptation and evolution. variation and heredity.
The main function of a genetic program is to A) B) C) D)
maintain metabolism in living systems. respond to environmental stimuli. provide fidelity of inheritance and allow for genetic variation. regulate development of multicellular creatures.
13) A molecular pathway in the liver that is responsible for breaking down complex molecules into simple molecules for excretion as wastes is an example of A) B) C) D)
anabolism. catabolism. adaptation. entropy.
14) Embryos, larvae, and metamorphosis are related to which characteristic of living systems? A) B) C) D)
15)
development metabolism movement environmental interaction
Irritability is related to which general property of living systems?
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A) B) C) D)
16)
Which statement about environmental interaction is NOT correct?
A) ecology. B) C) D)
17)
To study ecology, we must separate living organisms from their environment. The evolutionary history of a lineage is connected to the environment where it lived. Organisms are intimately connected with their physical environment.
Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. Useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one form to
The second law of thermodynamics, or entropy law, means that for living organisms A) B) C) D)
19)
The study of organisms and their interactions with the environment is called
Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) another. B) C) D) another.
18)
development metabolism evolution environmental interaction
maintaining cellular organization requires continual energy input. there is a tendency in nature to greater molecular organization. energy stored by plants is unavailable for animals. energy is of less concern than matter.
Which is consistent with the laws of physics governing energy?
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A) As a car burns gasoline, 100% of the fuel energy goes into moving the car along the road. B) You eat a "quarter-pounder" hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter pound of additional body weight on your body. C) Sunlight that is absorbed on the earth eventually returns to space as dispersed heat. D) Chemical bonds are an example of converting energy to matter; breaking the bonds converts matter to energy.
20) Science cannot yet describe "thinking" in physical terms. However, we know that it involves metabolism within brain cells. With positron emission tomography (PET) scan or activity nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) it is possible to image the regions of the brain that are most metabolically active during various mental activities. For different mental functions, different regions and nerve cells become active. However, A) the cellular energy expended in "thinking" must be less than the chemical bond energy supplied in food to these brain cells. B) "thought" cannot be linked to cell processes because energy is not related to matter. C) since thoughts can repeat, the requirement for a continual input of energy to prevent entropy does not apply to this cell activity. D) "thinking" is beyond the scope of science to study.
21) Living organisms represent stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When they die, what happens to this stored energy? A) Chemical compounds immediately begin to lose their high energy bonds. B) Chemical compounds immediately begin to degrade into basic elements. C) Macromolecules in cells begin to lose their organization because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain the organized state. D) Macromolecules in cells remain in place and ready for use unless digested by a consumer or decay organism.
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22) Eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant star. This red giant will engulf the earth and then "burn out." All forms of energy will be dispersed in a final "heat death." Compared with conditions today, the total entropy of the universe then will A) B) C) D)
23)
have increased only slightly. have decreased greatly. have increased greatly. None of the choices are correct.
Which kingdom contains multicellular organisms that ingest their food? A) B) C) D)
protista animalia plantae fungi
24) Which kingdom contains organisms that obtain their food by absorption through hyphae and never develop from embryos? A) B) C) D)
protista animalia plantae fungi
25) During the creation court case in Arkansas, Judge Overton defined the essential properties of science. Which statement is NOT true about science? A) B) C) D)
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Science is concerned about understanding the natural world. Science approaches data in a personal or subjective manner. Conclusions of science are subject to change based on new findings. Science establishes hypotheses that have the potential to be tested and disproved.
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26)
Much of science is based on an approach known as the __________ method. A) B) C) D)
27)
natural inductive-deductive hypothetical hypothetico-deductive
What is a hypothesis?
A) A tentative statement, based on information or data, that explains a large number of observations and guides experimentation B) A report of the findings of scientific experiments C) A general statement made to infer a specific conclusion, often in an "if . . . then" format D) Using isolated facts to reach a general idea that may explain a phenomenon
28)
Which statement about a hypothesis is NOT correct?
A) Experiments or observations are conducted to test a hypothesis. B) A hypothesis can be tested many times using different methods. C) Data that support a hypothesis actually prove the hypothesis to be true. D) If data from experimentation does not lend support to a hypothesis, the hypothesis must be rejected or revised.
29) Which of the following terms best describes a conceptual scheme in science that is strongly supported, has not yet been found incorrect, and is based on the results of many observations?
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A) B) C) D)
30)
Powerful theories that guide a broad range of research are A) B) C) D)
31)
a scientific paradigm descriptive research a scientific theory experimental results
scientific models. scientific revolutions. scientific principles. scientific paradigms.
When the paradigms of science are shifted or replaced, we consider this a A) B) C) D)
scientific discovery. scientific revolution. change in scientific principles. theoretical breakthrough.
32) Attempting to understand proximate or immediate causes in biology requires a(n) __________ approach. A) B) C) D)
evolutionary descriptive theoretical experimental
33) What is the goal of using the experimental method to investigate proximate causes in biology?
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A) B) C) D)
34) must
To have a frame of reference against which to compare experimental findings, a scientist
A) B) C) D)
35)
to disprove biological principles or theories to test our understanding of a biological system to better mankind by inventing something unique to prove or disprove the existence of God
study two groups: a control group and an experimental group. eliminate all expectations that might cause a biased interpretation of the results. have other scientists look at the results. do nothing; a "frame of reference" is not necessary.
Which statement is NOT correct about experimental design?
A) All conditions are held the same except for the condition being tested for in the experimental group. B) It is best to use identical subjects (except for the treatment in the experimental group) in order to reduce the uncontrolled factors. C) The condition being tested in an experiment is the "control". D) Statistical comparisons are made between groups to determine if any difference is beyond random chance.
36)
Which best describes a control group in an experiment? A) B) C) D)
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a group with the condition that is being tested a non-random sample taken through all experimental steps a variable that is being deliberately varied in the experiment a group that lacks the disturbance experienced by the experimental group
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37) Some ecologists study complex interactions of animals and plants in forests. Such field research produces slightly different results for different researchers. In contrast, ecology experiments performed indoors with one organism in a terrarium usually produce results that are repeatable. What is the most likely explanation? A) B) C) D)
The scientific method is only useful in laboratory settings. It is not possible to establish a control group outside of a laboratory. It is easier to hold all but one variable constant in a laboratory. Fieldwork is evolutionary; laboratory work is experimental.
38) A person goes around banging a drum each day. You ask him why. He replies, "To drive off the tigers!" You reply "But there aren't any tigers around here." He replies, "See, it works!" From a science viewpoint, this conclusion A) is science because it is predictive of what will happen tomorrow morning. B) is scientifically valid because there is probably a connection between loud noise and absence of tigers. C) is not valid unless there is the potential for tigers to be here, or a test is run with tigers. D) cannot be scientifically treated because it involves human behavior.
39) From Missouri to central Ohio to Pennsylvania, many people believe that they have water moccasins ("cottonmouth snakes") in their farm ponds. Many have "seen them" although they are not so foolish as to try to capture one alive. Meanwhile, the wildlife officers and the range maps in the herpetology books say that cottonmouths do not breed this far north. What is the most scientific attitude to assume on this issue?
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A) Observations by both the public and the fish and game officers are subjective, so this is not possible to resolve objectively. B) A field trip to the pond locations to confirm the identity of the snakes would settle the matter. C) Scientific books with range maps are based on field research and, therefore, determine the truth in this case. D) Because living organisms are active, scientific theories in biology always change and the older books are therefore wrong.
40) Which of the following questions addresses an ultimate cause in biology that could be studied using the comparative method? A) How does an animal maintain a constant body temperature in different environmental conditions? B) What are the evolutionary factors that caused some species of birds to acquire complex patterns of seasonal migration between North and South America? C) What are the environmental factors that signal the birds of a particular species to begin their seasonal migration? D) What are the receptors for geomagnetism in Monarch butterflies?
41)
The theory of evolution, along with all other theories in science A) B) C) D)
has been proven in a mathematical sense. is mere speculation. is testable, tentative, and potentially falsifiable. is so powerful that no conceivable evidence could possibly refute it.
42) The theory that all forms of life descended from a common ancestor through a branching of lineages constitutes Darwin's theory of
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A) B) C) D)
perpetual change. common descent. multiplication of species. natural selection.
43) The statement that the large anatomical differences that separate the major groups of animals originated through the accumulation of many small incremental changes over long periods of time illustrates Darwin's theory of A) B) C) D)
44)
perpetual change. multiplication of species. gradualism. All of the choices are correct.
The principle of natural selection is founded in which of the following statements? A) B) C) D)
Organisms vary, and some variations provide an advantage for survival. All organisms tend to overproduce their kind. There is a struggle for existence among varying organisms in a population. All of these choices together represent the principle of natural selection.
45) Which of these is a variation of form, function, or behavior that promotes the likelihood of a species' continued existence? A) B) C) D)
evolution metabolism adaptation homeostasis
46) What was the major obstacle that Darwin's theory of natural selection faced when first proposed in 1859? Version 1
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A) B) C) D)
It lacked a valid theory of heredity. It was unable to explain adaptation. It could not explain the origins of new anatomical structures. It required unreasonably long periods of time to operate.
47) Although antibiotics are a very valuable resource in fighting infection, sometimes their use results in gastrointestinal upsets such as diarrhea. Why might this upset occur? A) B) C) D)
48)
They may kill components of the microbiome which aid digestion. They may block absorptive sites in the intestine. They may kill protozoan colonists of the intestine. They may act on muscle tissue to increase the rate of peristalsis of the intestine.
Which is an illustration of heritability without variability?
A) A wood frog has a white stripe under her eye, and her offspring also have white stripes under their eyes. B) An albino wood frog produces offspring without albinism. C) A population of wood frogs in a pond increases in size over time. D) Wood frog tadpoles that are reared in the laboratory on a meat-based diet are brown in color, while tadpoles from the same clutch of eggs that are reared on a plant-based diet are tan in color.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 49) A group within an experimental design that is subjected to all the conditions except the experimental variable is called the ______________.
50) A broad concept in science that is strongly supported by many forms of evidence, is accepted by an overwhelming number of scientists, and has not yet been found to be incorrect is a __________________.
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51) The appearance of new characteristics at a given level of biological organization is known as emergence, and these characteristics are known as __________ properties.
52) Physiological sciences ask questions about the ____________ causes underlying a biological system whereas the evolutionary sciences ask questions about the ultimate causes that have produced the system.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 53) Explain Darwinian evolution as an emergent property of the population level of biological organization.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_18e 1) E 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) D Version 1
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27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) control 50) theory 51) emergent properties 52) proximate 53) Answers will vary but should reflect the lack of ability to predict evolution from population level features.
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CHAPTER 2 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The hypothesis that simple chemicals may have naturally become complex macromolecules by natural physical forces was first proposed by A) B) C) D)
2)
Stanley Miller. Graham Cairns Smith. Alexander Oparin and J. B. S. Haldane. Sidney Fox.
A solution that has a pH of 5 has A) B) C) D) E)
a concentration of H + 20 times higher than water. a concentration of H + 100 times higher than water. a concentration of H + the same as water. a concentration of H + 20 times lower than water. a concentration of H + 100 times lower than water.
3) A dissolved substance that has the ability to either remove or add H + and OH - ions to resist pH changes is A) B) C) D)
a solution. pure water. a buffer. a solvent.
4) Most organic molecules are associated with living organisms. Which of the following statements is NOT related to the general distinctions between these types of molecules?
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A) Carbon dioxide (CO 2) lacks hydrogen atoms found in most organic molecules and therefore is usually not considered to be "organic." B) Formaldehyde (CH 2O) is a small molecule compared to most organic molecules but does have carbon and hydrogen covalently bonded together and therefore is considered to be "organic." C) Salt (Na +Cl) is not an organic molecule but is important to the life of many organisms. D) Organic carbon atoms are more diverse than inorganic carbon molecules that form the molecular structure of soot or a diamond from pure carbon. E) All of the choices are correct.
5)
Carbohydrates are categorized into A) B) C) D) E)
6)
organic and inorganic carbohydrates. saturated and unsaturated carbohydrates. monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides. primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary carbohydrates. monomer and polymer carbohydrates.
Which of the following is a "structural" carbohydrate molecule? A) B) C) D)
sucrose glycogen cellulose glucose
7) Which of the carbohydrates given below is a major component of the cuticle of arthropods (e.g., insects, crayfish, etc.)?
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A) B) C) D)
starch chitin cellulose glycogen
8) Which of the following carbohydrates is used in animal muscle and liver cells for energy storage? A) B) C) D)
9)
What are the monomers that make up the structure of polysaccharides? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
simple sugars amino acids nucleotides alternating sugar and phosphate groups fatty acids and glycerol
The three principal groups of lipids are triglycerides, phospholipids, and A) B) C) D)
11)
starch chitin cellulose glycogen
glycogen. steroids. amino acids. fatty acids.
A dehydration synthesis reaction is also
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A) B) C) D)
12)
a condensation reaction. a hydrolysis reaction. an isomeric reaction. a reaction that does not require enzymes.
Which of the lipid groups below is structurally unlike the others? A) B) C) D)
steroids unsaturated fats triglycerides phospholipids
13) Which of the following lipids forms a bilayer between two fluid regions, such as in the plasma membrane of a cell? A) B) C) D)
14)
Steroids Waxes Phospholipids Lipoproteins
Which of the following is NOT a steroid? A) B) C) D) E)
vitamin D adrenocortical hormones sex hormones cholesterol All of the choices are steroids.
15) If an animal needs to store high-energy compounds for long-term use with the least amount of extra body weight, which would be the best molecule for storage?
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A) B) C) D)
16)
From what type of monomers is a protein composed? A) B) C) D)
17)
glucose or modified glucose molecules amino acids nucleotides fatty acids and glycerol
Which class of biological molecules has peptide bonds? A) B) C) D)
18)
fructose and glucose in the form of honey high-calorie fat molecules starch glycogen with extensive side branches of glucose
carbohydrates lipids proteins simple sugars
A chain consisting of a number of amino acids is a A) B) C) D)
quaternary structure. dipeptide. polypeptide. None of the choices is correct.
19) In a protein, the folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional structure, usually stabilized by covalent bonds between the side groups of the amino acids, is the
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A) B) C) D)
20)
At which level of protein organization is the alpha helix found? A) B) C) D)
21)
primary structure. secondary structure. tertiary structure. quaternary structure.
primary structure secondary structure tertiary structure quaternary structure
The splitting of one compound into two by the addition of water is called A) B) C) D)
covalent. ionic formation. hydrolysis. condensation.
22) You eat eggs for breakfast and return in the evening to dirty dishes with "dried on" yellow streaks. After soaking awhile, the egg yolk protein molecules easily "wash off." What happened? A) Heating denatured the egg protein molecules, hydrolysis reactions then formed bonds in the dried egg yolk, and soaking in water eventually resulted in condensation reactions where water broke these bonds. B) Heating denatured the egg protein molecules, unorganized condensation reactions formed bonds in the drying egg, and soaking in water resulted in hydrolysis reactions where water broke these bonds. C) Egg monomers were fused to become one polymer, which was easily dissolved by water back into monomers. D) Addition of water converted organic molecules into inorganic molecules.
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23) At the molecular level, a cell's ability to vary in its operational tolerance to temperature and other factors is most closely related to A) B) C) D)
24)
DNA and RNA are polymers composed of repeated units called A) B) C) D)
25)
act as buffers. are the basic units of neutral fats. direct the synthesis of proteins. None of the choices is correct.
Which of these statements is true about DNA? A) B) C) D)
27)
nucleotides. bases. sugars. None of the choices is correct.
Nucleic acids are important because they A) B) C) D)
26)
enzyme activity and protein denaturation. ATP efficiency. replication of nucleic acids. extent of saturation of fatty acids.
It is the genetic material of the cell. It forms a protein. It is pure amino acid. It contains no sugar.
Fish sperm is mostly made of male DNA. A chemical test would find high amounts of
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A) B) C) D) E)
28)
nitrogenous bases, sugar, and phosphate groups. phospholipids and steroids. amino acids and unsaturated fats. triglycerides and ATP. globular proteins and stored fats.
Prions are infectious A) B) C) D)
carbohydrates. proteins. lipids. Prions are not actually infectious.
29) Which of the following forms of energy is NOT one of those thought to have been involved in the production of large organic molecules in the primitive reducing atmosphere? A) B) C) D)
30)
radioactivity electrical energy radiation from the sun sound
The term "reducing atmosphere" for the early earth means that the atmosphere A) B) C) D)
was much thinner around the surface of the earth than now. contained only two or three kinds of gases. contained little or no free oxygen. contained little or no free nitrogen.
31) Who first performed an experiment that proved that amino acids could be produced in the laboratory from a reducing atmosphere and electrical sparks?
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A) B) C) D)
32)
Which molecule is thought to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere? A) B) C) D)
33)
Water has a high specific heat capacity. Water has high surface tension. Water is an excellent solvent. All of the choices are correct.
A molecule of RNA that has enzymatic or catalytic properties is called a A) B) C) D)
35)
water vapor (H 2O) carbon dioxide (CO 2) oxygen (O 2) nitrogen (N 2)
What explains the key role of water in living systems? A) B) C) D)
34)
Stanley Miller and Harold Urey Graham Cairns Smith Thomas Cech Alexander Oparin and J. B. S. Haldane
deoxyribose. nucleotide. ribonucleic acid. ribozyme.
The fact that nucleic acids are very complicated molecules suggests that
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A) B) C) D)
36)
the RNA-first hypothesis is impossible. the protein-first hypothesis is therefore the only plausible hypothesis. no natural system could ever generate them. None of the choices is correct.
The ancestral protocells
A) may have contained RNA or DNA as their genetic material. B) may have evolved before the development of a true cell. C) may have had a lipid and protein membrane surrounding them, forming a proteinoid microsphere. D) may have contained a biochemical pathway for energy metabolism. E) All of the choices are correct.
37)
Heating dry mixtures of amino acids and then mixing them with water forms small A) B) C) D)
strands of DNA. living cells. proteinoid microspheres. plasma membranes.
38) If the hypothesis that protocells were based on an "RNA world" is correct, what would be necessary to shift to a "DNA world"? A) B) C) D) E)
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an enzyme or reaction capable of removing one oxygen from ribose in nucleotides enzymes for reverse transcription of RNA into DNA new enzymes to replicate the DNA new enzymes for transcribing DNA back to RNA All are necessary to switch to a "DNA world."
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39) Scientists once assumed that the earliest protocells would have been autotrophs. This concept appears to be A) correct, since heterotrophs would depend upon eating autotrophs. B) correct, since glycolysis and fermentation only occur after oxygen is present from photosynthesis. C) incorrect, since the primordial soup likely contained many preformed food molecules suitable for heterotrophic metabolism. D) incorrect, since glycolysis and fermentation require complex enzymes for catalytic reactions.
40) Prokaryotic cells are represented by fossils that are dated back as far as __________ billion years ago. A) B) C) D)
41)
The first eukaryotic cells probably arose about ___________ billion years ago. A) B) C) D)
42)
1.5 2.8 3.8 4.8
1.5 2.5 3.5 4.5
Which pairing of occurrence and date is correct? A) B) C) D)
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Beginning of Cambrian—600 million years ago Origin of life—3.8 billion years ago Origin of eukaryotic cells—1.5 billion years ago All of the choices are correct.
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43) Our current understanding of the origin of eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria is that they A) B) C) D)
were copies of a cell nucleus that failed to be separated by cytokinesis. were prokaryotes that were taken into a cell and now live there symbiotically. were variations of the plasma membrane. were new forms of life that arose inside other cells.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 44) The term ____________ refers broadly to compounds that contain carbon.
45) The most important of the energy-storing carbohydrate monomers is the molecule _______________.
46) The molecule ___________ is an important form for storing sugar in animals and is found mainly in the liver and muscle cells of animals.
47)
A(n) _______________ fatty acid has two or more carbon atoms joined by double bonds.
48) When hemoglobin takes up or releases oxygen, it undergoes a change in its _________ structure.
49) Submarine hot springs where seawater seeps through cracks in the bottom and comes close to the hot magma are called __________ vents.
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50) Most biological polymerizations are ___________ dehydration reactions in which monomers are linked together by removal of water.
51) Sidney Fox studied the synthesis of polypeptides into polymers which in water formed small spherical bodies called ____________ microspheres.
52) A critical answer to the chicken-or-the-egg problem formed by the nucleic-acid-orenzyme-first dilemma is potentiallysolved by the discovery of catalytic RNAs called _______________.
53) The earliest source of reduced compounds for oxidative metabolism was probably ____________ _____________.
54)
Bacteria contain a single, large molecule of DNA in the ____________ region.
55) The ______________ theory proposes that pre-eukaryotes are the result of anaerobic bacteria ingesting aerobic bacteria and subsequently a symbiotic relationship was formed.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 56) Describe the first evidence for chemical evolution that came from Stanley Miller's experiment.
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57) This chapter began with Pasteur disproving spontaneous generation, the theory that life could arise from non-living material. Then Miller and Urey test the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis and suggest that the organic compounds required for life could be formed from the simpler molecules present in the prebioticenvironment. Are these experiments contradictory? Explain how the science community recognize both as valid.
58) The Miller-Urey experiments demonstrated the formation of larger molecules from simple molecules. Why is there still a need for concentration in order to make formation of a protocell more likely?
59) Assumptions that the earliest life forms had to make their own food have been replaced with the belief that the earliest microorganisms were definitely primary heterotrophs. How could these earliest cells have lived if they did not make their own food, and why do we feel certain that they were not photosynthetic?
60) What evidence do scientists have that the earth's primeval atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere?
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61) Why can't we set up an experiment that would again duplicate the conditions that were present at the early origin of protocells?
62) Describe the chicken-or-the-egg dilemma with enzymes and hereditary molecules, and detail how the "RNA world" proposal offers a solution.
63)
What are the essential properties of a "protocell"?
64)
Describe the endosymbiotic theory for the origin of eukaryotes.
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65)
What may have been the "reason" for the "Cambrian explosion"?
66) What evidence leads researchers to believe that there was a diversity of animal life before the Cambrian if we cannot find extensive fossils of earlier animals?
67)
Compare and contrast the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cellular structures.
68) If eukaryotes are more complex than prokaryotes, then why are there prokaryotes living today?
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69) Does the recognition of prokaryotes as two major lineages, Archaebacteria and Eubacteria, result in any major changes to the internal taxonomic arrangement of the fungi, protozoan, plant, oranimal groups?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_18e 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) E 37) C 38) E 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) organic 45) glucose 46) glycogen 47) unsaturated 48) quaternary 49) hydrothermal 50) condensation 51) proteinoid 52) ribozymes 53) hydrogen sulfide 54) nucleoid 55) endosymbiotic 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 3 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The Dutch microscopist who sent letters to the Royal Society of London describing his many detailed observations of life, including units later known to be cells, was A) B) C) D)
2)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek. Robert Hooke. Matthias Schleiden. J. Purkinje.
Which of the following is NOT true about the Cell Theory? A) B) C) D)
It states that all organisms are composed of cells It states that all cells come from preexisting cells It states that small organisms can arise spontaneously It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life
3) The surface of some parasitic flatworms and some insect tissues is a "syncytium" or living layer that contains many nuclei and cell organelles but is not partitioned by plasma membranes. These tissues consume food, respire, and produce wastes. Since the cell theory states that "all living things are composed of cells" what is the best statement to accompany this question? A) These tissues are not living because they are not cellular B) These tissues are obviously a bridge between nonliving and primitive living cells C) The general concept of "life is cellular" still holds because these organisms still utilize cells sometime in their life, but this shows that plasma membrane partitions can be abandoned in some animals D) This proves that a "vital force" beyond cell chemistry gives life to substances
4) A high-powered microscope that produces a surface image from scattered secondary electrons is the Version 1
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A) B) C) D)
brightfield light microscope. transmission electron microscope (TEM). scanning electron microscope (SEM). confocal microscope.
5) You are a biologist who is studying the importance of a specific nutrient from the diet to a metabolic pathway associated with lipid metabolism and plasma membrane formation. Which technique would allow you to trace the fate of a specific chemical in a metabolic pathway? A) B) C) D)
of the immunofluorescence microscope of radioactive isotopes of time lapse photography of centrifugation
6) The current theory of the structure of the plasma membrane is best described by which of the following models? A) B) C) D)
7)
the fluid-mosaic model the unit membrane model the electrochemical model the nuclear envelope model
Major functions of the plasma membrane do NOT include A) B) C) D)
regulating molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell. recognizing and communicating between different cells and tissues. maintaining connections between adjacent cells. producing proteins used in construction of the cell.
8) If you were shrunken down to smaller than the size of a cell what would you notice if you were viewing the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane? Version 1
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A) Cholesterol is on the outside and plays a critical role in maintaining the fluidity of the membrane. B) Glycoproteins are on the inside providing a supporting site for adhesive functions. C) Glycoproteins are anchored in the plasma membrane to assist in their transport functions. D) Water-soluble ends are oriented toward the exterior and interior of the cell, whereas the fat-soluble fatty acids are oriented toward the inside of the membrane.
9) Biologists can label carbohydrates, fats and amino acids with radio-isotopes. The labeled macromolecules can then be added to a culture of cells and allowed time to enter the metabolic pathways of the cells. Later, the cells can be disrupted in a blender and then spun in a centrifuge to separate out the various cell organelles. When Biologists complete this procedure they find the radioactive molecules can be detected as part of various cellular compounds and that the visible cell structures appear unchanged. Therefore, A) B) C) D)
10)
Which correctly describes ribosomes? A) B) C) D)
11)
these "food" molecules are used only for energy. most cell components are constantly being broken down and rebuilt. molecules diffuse at random through the cytoplasm and into cell organelles. radioactivity has an unusual role in metabolism of living cells.
Ribosomes contain both DNA and protein Ribosomes are active in carbohydrate synthesis Ribosomal subunits leave the nucleolus and form ribosomes in the cytoplasm Ribosomes are found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotic cells
Which is true concerning the Golgi complex?
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A) B) C) D)
it consists of a stack of membranous vesicles Golgi complexes in animal cells have a forming face and a maturing face lysosomes are enzyme-filled vesicles that bud from the Golgi complex All of the choices are correct.
12) When water in a cell freezes slowly, sharp crystals spear through the membranes of the cell. The most likely explanation for the bad taste of meat that has "freezer burn" from repeated freeze/thaw cycles is the destruction of A) B) C) D)
the Golgi bodies and their vesicles. lysosomes and resultant autodigestion. rough endoplasmic reticulum causing the release of ribosomes. the nuclear membrane causing mixing of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm.
13) Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the comparison of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A) mitosis is common to both groups B) flagella and cilia of both groups are identical with a "9 + 2" microtubular pattern C) the DNA nucleoid of a prokaryote is not membrane bound; the nucleus of a eukaryote is membrane bound D) All of the choices are correct.
14) Which of the following is a correct statement comparing prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A) B) C) D)
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both must provide for transfer of genetic information both must have some individuals that reproduce both must separate their interior world from the external world All of the choices are correct.
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15)
Which is NOT a characteristic of mitochondria? A) B) C) D)
a mitochondrion has two membranes mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration mitochondria contain their own genome mitochondria are replicated by nuclear chromosomes
16) Movement is not only a feature of animal cells but of all eukaryotic cells. Which of the following are involved in a cell's ability to move? A) B) C) D)
17)
Which element is NOT correctly associated below? A) B) C) D)
18)
microtubules microfilaments actin and myosin All of the choices are correct.
cilia have nine pairs of microtubules surrounding a central pair microtubules are made up of a protein called tubulin pseudopodia stream without the involvement of any microfilaments centrioles have a microtubule structure
The best definition of diffusion is
A) movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration. B) movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from high water concentration to lower water concentration. C) movement of molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration. D) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.
19)
Technically, osmosis is
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A) movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration. B) movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from high water concentration to lower water concentration. C) movement of molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration. D) movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from low water concentration to higher water concentration. E) movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP.
20)
Which is the best definition of active transport?
A) movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration B) movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from high water concentration to lower water concentration C) movement of molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration D) movement of a substance against its concentration with the energy released from ATP
21)
A paramecium is placed in a hypotonic solution. Which will occur? A) B) C) D)
22)
Salts will move into the paramecium from the surrounding solution Water will move into the paramecium from the surrounding solution Salts will move out of the paramecium into the surrounding solution Water will move out of the paramecium into the surrounding solution
If a fish is placed in an isotonic solution, which will occur? A) B) C) D) E)
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salts will move into the fish from the surrounding solution water will move into the fish from the surrounding solution salts will move out of the fish into the surrounding solution water will move out of the fish into the surrounding solution None of the choices are correct.
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23) The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane by A) B) C) D)
24)
facilitated transport. active transport. cotransport. endocytosis.
Sugars and amino acids move into the cell by means of A) B) C) D)
facilitated transport. active transport. simple diffusion. endocytosis.
25) The specific form of endocytosis wherein small areas of the surface membrane are invaginated to form tiny vesicles containing fluids. A) B) C) D)
26)
Cell products such as undigested residues are removed from the cell through A) B) C) D)
27)
pinocytosis cotransport endocytosis exocytosis
facilitated transport. cotransport. endocytosis. exocytosis.
The two stages of cell division are
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A) B) C) D)
28)
If the nucleus divides many times without cytokinesis occurring, the result is A) B) C) D)
29)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
Which occurs during metaphase? A) B) C) D)
31)
cell death. interphase. a multinucleate cell. an incomplete spindle.
Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct? A) B) C) D)
30)
initiation and completion. duplication of chromosomes and division of chromosomes. mitosis and cytokinesis. None of the choices is correct.
centrioles move to opposite poles chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell chromosomes move to opposite poles the nuclear envelope disappears
Which occurs during anaphase?
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A) B) C) D)
32)
Which does NOT occur in telophase? A) B) C) D)
33)
cytokinesis is underway nuclear envelope is reconstructed centromeres split apart chromosomes decondense into chromatin
In most animal cells, the majority of the cell cycle is spent in A) B) C) D)
34)
centrioles move to opposite poles chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell chromatids move to opposite poles the nuclear envelope disappears
metaphase. anaphase. interphase. prophase.
Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle? A) B) C) D)
S, G 1, G 2 G 2, S, G 1 G 1, S, G 2 G 1, G 2, S
35) Dermal stem cells divide, with some cells continuing the stem cell line and others being pushed toward the surface to flatten and die and be sloughed off. In the bone marrow, other stem cells produce cells such as the red blood cells that lose their nucleus and function for a short time before they too die. These cells that reproduce no further
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A) B) C) D)
36)
leave the cell cycle in a G 0 phase, which immediately follows telophase. leave the cell cycle in a G 3 phase, which immediately follows G 2. halt in the midst of the S phase. continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.
At the completion of mitosis,
A) each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid once more. B) the daughter cell nuclei have acquired the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell nucleus. C) the cell may not have yet undergone cytokinesis. D) All of the responses are correct.
37)
Cyclin-dependent kinases and cyclins are most closely associated with A) B) C) D)
38)
maintaining interphase. regulating the cell cycle. cytokinesis. programmed cell death.
Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is receiving much research attention because
A) B) C) overcome. D)
it is a normal part of embryonic development. it is the cause of most animal diseases. "death" is bad and this is one of the few remaining causes of natural death to be
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it is caused by a fault in the cell cycle at G
1or G
2 phase.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 39) The model of the plasma membrane that provides for the fluidity of materials embedded in its surface is the ________
40) Phospholipids in a plasma membrane are oriented such that the water-soluble or _________ ends face outside and the fat-soluble or hydrophobic ends face inward.
41) Pinocytosis involves invaginated units called ________ that contain concentrations of specific binding receptors on their surface.
42) A multinucleate mass formed by the fusion of many cells rather than by nuclear proliferation is called a ____________.
43) During the tug-of-war of early metaphase, condensed sister chromatids move to the middle of the cell and line up along a __________ ___________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 44) How is the cell theory related to the principle of evolution? Describe how principles of the cell theory are important to understand evolution.
45) Distinguish between a nucleus and a nucleoid, identifying where each is found and what each contains, and why it is important to distinguish between the two.
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46) Describe the structure and function of a ribosome, and describe how they differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
47) Identify the various cell structures that have an endomembrane system; identify the function of each. What is unusual about eukaryotic organelles that have an endomembrane system?
48) Describe the structure of cilia and flagella in eukaryotic cells. How do a eukaryotic and a prokaryotic flagella differ?
49) Compare and contrast the various stages of mitosis and meiosis. Hypothesize which process arose first (explain your reasoning).
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50) Cancer occurs in somatic (or body) cells. Explain how the process of mitosis might be railroaded into producing cancerous cells.
51) If there is life on other planets, would it necessarily resemble life that has evolved on Earth? Why or why not?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_18e 1) A 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1
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27) C 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) fluid mosaic. 40) hydrophilic 41) caveolae 42) syncytium 43) metaphase plate 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 4 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Cellular ____________ refers to the collective total of chemical processes that occur within living cells. A) B) C) D)
energy thermodynamics potential metabolism
2) Pretend that you are explaining basic thermodynamic principles to your roommate. Which of the following pairs could you use as an example of an INCORRECT pairing? A) B) C) D)
3)
The first law of thermodynamics states that
A) B) another. C) D) to another.
4)
kinetic energy: glucose kinetic energy: muscle movement potential energy: water held behind a dam kinetic energy: a ball rolling down a hill
energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form
The second law of thermodynamics states that
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A) B) another. C) D)
5)
energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to energy organizes in a closed system and moves toward increasing order. energy dissipates in a closed system and moves toward increasing disorder.
According to the laws of physics governing energy
A) when a liter of gasoline is burned in a car engine, 100% of its energy moves the car along the road. B) when you eat a kilogram of food, you will assemble exactly a kilogram of additional body weight on your body. C) sunlight that is absorbed on the earth eventually returns to space as dispersed heat. D) a calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, when eaten by an animal, becomes a calorie of heat used in muscle "power."
6) Living organisms contain stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When organisms die, what happens to this stored energy? A) All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements. B) All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds. C) Cells lose their organization over time and macromolecules break down because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain an organized state. D) Chemical compounds remain intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decomposer.
7) You have been asked to be a tutor for the freshman biology course. An exam is approaching and several students have approached you to get assistance understanding metabolic reactions. Which of the following is an example of an endergonic reaction?
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A) B) C) D)
are always coupling reactions. occur spontaneously. can only occur if there is an input of energy. are associated with the release of energy.
8) You have been asked to be a tutor for the freshman biology course. An exam is approaching and several students have approached you to get assistance understanding metabolic reactions. Which of the following is an example of an exergonic reaction? A) B) C) D)
9)
Enzymes A) B) C) D)
10)
are always coupling reactions. can occur spontaneously. can only occur if there is an input of energy. All of the choices are correct.
lower the amount of energy present in the substrate. raise the amount of energy present in the substrate. lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate. raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
How do an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
A) The enzyme breaks down as product is released B) The whole enzyme is a key that fits into the substrate that is a lock forming a new molecule product C) Any active site is permanently changed when it interacts with the substrate D) As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction
11)
Which is true about the activity of an enzyme?
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A) B) C) D)
Lower temperatures generally increase enzyme activity. Enzymes are altered or destroyed by the reaction. Enzymes are not products of the reactions they catalyze. Rates of reactions are independent of substrate concentration.
12) If there are ten different intermediate products produced in stages leading to a molecule in a cell, we can expect that there A) product. B) C) D) pathway.
13)
an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it. a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it. an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. a nonprotein organic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
Which of the following is a coenzyme? A) B) C) D)
15)
is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis. may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product. are about ten enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic
A coenzyme is A) B) C) D) E)
14)
is one enzyme that carries this process through each of the ten stages to the end
ATP potential energy FAD kinetic energy
The enzyme-substrate complex is
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A) not strong and will freely dissociate after it stresses certain chemical bonds in a substrate. B) secured by covalent bonds to one or more points in the active site of the enzyme. C) able to display unique spectroscopic characteristics not seen by either the enzyme or thesubstrate alone. D) proved by the saturation effect in which the reaction rate reaches a maximum even through more substrate is added. E) All of the choices are correct.
16)
How specific are enzymes?
A) Many enzymes can "cross over" to catalyze reactions of different substrates in the same chemical family B) There are 20 amino acids and therefore 20 enzymes that control all protein metabolic reactions C) An enzyme catalyzes one reaction but it may produce one product one time, another product another time D) An enzyme catalyzes one reaction and it produces a distinct product
17)
Which is true of enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
A) All enzymes promote only catabolic reactions. B) Reactions catalyzed by most enzymes tend to go predominantly in one direction. C) All enzymatic reactions are reversible and produce equal amounts of products in both directions. D) All enzymes promote only anabolic reactions.
18)
The net direction of any chemical reaction depends on the
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A) B) C) D)
19) a/an
When an energy-requiring reaction is driven by an energy-yielding reaction, it is called
A) B) C) D)
20)
used to drive another exergonic reaction. used to drive an endergonic reaction. lost as nonusable heat to the environment. used to decrease the entropy of the universe.
The subunits from which ATP is made are A) B) C) D)
22)
exergonic reaction. endergonic reaction. endo-exergonic reaction. coupled reaction.
Coupling occurs when energy released by an exergonic reaction is A) B) C) D)
21)
relative energy contents of the substances involved. amount of enzyme present. amount of substrate present. amount of ATP present.
ADP and inorganic phosphate. FAD and NAD +. FAD and NADPH. ADP and FAD.
ATP is
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A) an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells. B) a driver of both sides of the coupled reaction that forms ADP. C) a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in the bond between the terminal two phosphates. D) the building block of all other cell structures.
23)
Which organelle contains ATP synthetase complexes in its membrane? A) B) C) D)
24)
golgi complexes mitochondria vesicles endoplasmic reticulum
The most accurate portrayal of ATP is that A) B) C) D)
ATP is a fuel. ATP is a storehouse of energy set aside for some future need. ATP is an energy-coupling agent and is formed and used asneeded. ATP is produced and consumed by the same reaction.
25) What establishes an electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production? A) B) C) D)
26)
The mitochondrion's electron transport system provides the ions. Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the outside of the organelle membrane. Hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane by carrier proteins. All of the choices establish the electrochemical gradient.
Which is the true statement about oxidation-reduction reactions?
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A) B) C) D)
27)
Which process occurs in the cytoplasm outside the mitochondria? A) B) C) D)
28)
Krebs cycle glycolysis electron transport system substrate level phosphorylation
Glycolysis produces a net yield of ____ ATP molecules. A) B) C) D)
29)
Reduction is the loss of electrons. Reduction is the loss of hydrogen atoms. Oxidation is the loss of electrons and reduction is theaddition of electrons. Reduction and oxidation sometimes occur together, but not always.
2 4 8 10
The first process in breaking down glucose is A) B) C) D)
the Krebs cycle. glycolysis. the electron transport system. fermentation.
30) Following glycolysis, the two molecules of pyruvic acid enter a mitochondrion where each molecule is oxidized to produce
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A) B) C) D)
31)
Both NADH and FADH 2 are produced by A) B) C) D)
32)
the Krebs cycle. glycolysis. the electron transport system. oxidative phosphorylation.
Full oxidative breakdown of glucose results in a net of ______ ATP molecules. A) B) C) D)
33)
glucose. acetyl CoA and carbon dioxide. acetyl CoA and water. pyruvates and carbon dioxide.
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Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces A) B) C) D)
2 NADH, 2 FADH 2, 2 ATP. 3 NADH, 1 FADH 2, 1 ATP. 1 NADH, 3 FADH 2, 2 ATP. 3 NADH, 2 FADH 2, 1 ATP.
34) Some desert mammals and beetles can live their life without ever drinking liquid water; they survive on "metabolic water." Which is the most likely source of "metabolic water?"
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A) B) C) D)
is absorbed from the air along with respiratory oxygen results from oxidative phosphorylation inside the mitochondria is a breakdown product from glycolysis in the cytoplasm is water that was never allowed to pass out the cell
35) Which of the following metabolic pathways can be used as a partial answer to the question, 'why do animals need to exhale?' A) B) C) D)
36)
Which process involves chemiosmotic coupling? A) B) C) D)
37)
glycolysis the electron transport system lactate fermentation the Krebs cycle
the Krebs cycle glycolysis the electron transport system fermentation
Which pairs of processes are anaerobic? A) B) C) D)
glycolysis and the electron transport system fermentation and the Krebs cycle glycolysis and the Krebs cycle fermentation and glycolysis
38) The critical factor that drives many microorganisms to use fermentation to metabolize sugar is
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A) B) C) D)
39)
inability to carry on glycolysis. lack of free oxygen. lack of any enzymes. intolerance to alcohol.
When animals use anaerobic fermentation, which process must occur first? A) B) C) D)
the Krebs cycle glycolysis the electron transport system fermentation
40) In high levels, alcohol is toxic. Why would a creature utilize fermentation if it were wasteful of the energy in food molecules and posed the threat of killing itself? A) The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction. B) If glucose levels are not high, there may be time to disperse the alcohol "waste". C) Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP since it does not have to go through the full breakdown cycle. D) All of the choices are advantages.
41)
Which process produces alcohol or lactate? A) B) C) D) E)
42)
the Krebs cycle glycolysis the electron transport system fermentation oxidative phosphorylation
For fatty acids to be able to enter the pathways of cellular respiration, they must be
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A) B) C) D)
deaminated. combined with glycerol. combined with ATP. broken into 2-carbon units to form acetyl coenzyme A.
43) Because there is a constant need for amino acids to synthesize proteins, it is important to maintain ________ in the ________. A) B) C) D)
the Krebs cycle; mitochondria glycolysis; cytoplasm the electron transport system; mitochondria an amino acid pool; blood
44) Based on what you know about carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism which animal diet is most similar to the 'keto diet' that some humans utilize for weight loss? A) B) C) D)
carnivore herbivore omnivore detritovore
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 45) Stored energy that is not doing work but has the capacity to do work is called __________ ___________.
46)
Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break, ___________ must be supplied.
47) For some enzymes to function, small nonprotein groups called ________ must participate along with the enzyme molecule. Version 1
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48)
Aerobic organisms use _______ as the final electron acceptor in cellular respiration.
49) Aerobic metabolism requires oxygen consumption and the ultimate source of this free oxygen is generated by autotrophic organisms by the process of _______.
50) Glycolysis involves the conversion of 6-carbon glucose into 3-carbon fragments of ________ ________.
51) In the absence of oxygen, glycolysis and fermentation result in glucose being degraded into two 3-carbon molecules of ______ _______.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 52) If the second law of thermodynamics states that a closed system moves toward increasing disorder, then how can a living system not only maintain organization but also increase it?
53) When exergonic and endergonic reactions are coupled, which reaction involves more energy and why are the reaction energies not exactly the same?
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54) If anaerobic glycolysis is only one-eighteenth as efficient as complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide, then why would an organism use such an inefficient pathway?
55) Why do some animals degrade amino acids to ammonia and others dispose of them as urea or uric acid?
56)
Can virtually any organic compound be broken down (assuming it is nontoxic)?
57)
Outline a hypothetical scenario of the evolution of metabolism.
58) Discuss research that claims that food intake, and therefore the amount of fat deposition, is creating a "set point" in specific parts of the brain.
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59) Research on lipid metabolism has resulted in pharmaceutical drugs that could help fight the obesity epidemic. Explain how these drugs might help someone lose weight.
60) Generate a hypothesis about the regulation of enzymes that control glucose use/storage and breakdown from storage.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_18e 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) E 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) potential energy 46) energy 47) cofactors 48) oxygen 49) photosynthesis 50) pyruvic acid 51) lactic acid 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 5 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Because genes may code for antibodies, structural proteins, enzymes and other proteins, and various RNAsthe most appropriate definition of agene is a "nucleic acid sequence that encodes a functional polypeptide." ⊚ ⊚
true false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Gene mutation is a phenomenon that occurs in all creatures. Select the statements below that correctly apply to gene mutation. A) Mutation in the intronic sequence is more common than mutation in the exonic sequence. B) Mutations in intronic sequence can directly affect the mRNA that is produced. C) Mutations are often silent, meaning that the mutation has no effect on what amino acid is specified by the codon present in mRNA. D) Mutations are one source of variation upon which natural selection can act to affect evolution of a species.
3) Cancer is a disease of uncontrolled cell division. Additionally, cancerous cells may detach from their neighbors and move to new areas of the body where they continue to divide in an uncontrolled manner. Select the statements/scenarios below that correctly apply to cancer.
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A) You have been diagnosed with a mutation that makes a proto-oncogene less effective. This mutation is considered grave news and has your physician concerned. B) You have been diagnosed with a mutation that makes a tumor suppressor gene more effective. This mutation is considered grave news and has your physician concerned. C) During a Biology exam your friend answers "True" to the following question:"P53 is a tumor suppressor gene product that is only rarely associated with human cancers." When discussing this with your friend you disagree with her response. D) During a Biology exam your friend answers "True" to the following question:"Ras is a normally occurring cellular protein that conveys growth factor signals to promote cell division." When discussing this with your friend you disagree with hisresponse.
4)
Which of the statements below correctly describe cancer? Choose all that apply.
A) The results of a lab test demonstrate a silent mutation within aproto-oncogene of the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer. B) The results of a lab test demonstrate an inversion within aproto-oncogene of the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer. C) The results of a lab test demonstrate a silent mutation within a tumor suppressorof the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer. D) The results of a lab test demonstrate an inversion within a tumor suppressorof the liver cells—you predict this will be associated with liver cancer.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) What was the relationship between Gregor Mendel's work and Charles Darwin's publication on evolution?
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A) Mendel's work came before Darwin's and gave Darwin a critical piece of the evolutionary puzzle. B) Mendel read Darwin's work and this inspired him to experiment with principles of heredity. C) Both were contemporaneous and worked back-and-forth, providing ongoing feedback for each other's work. D) Mendel's discoveries were shortly after Darwin's publication, but the implications of his work were not understood for over 30 years.
6) What was the relationship between Gregor Mendel's work and the growing understanding of cells and chromosomes? A) Mendel's work immediately generated great interest in what was the genetic material. B) Mendel was unaware of chromosomes and genes, both of which were identified decades after his death. C) Breakthroughs in cytology and the structure of chromosomes were the factor that led Mendel to his experiments. D) Mendel's work led cell biologists to discover the nucleus and its role.
7)
At its simplest, meiosis could be described as A) B) C) D)
duplication-division. duplication-duplication-division. duplication-division-division. division.
8) If an egg of a worm contains 6 chromosomes following meiosis, it comes from a worm that has ______ chromosomes in each body cell.
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A) B) C) D)
3 6 12 24
9) Sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes _____, or come into "sideby-side contact" to form a tetrad. A) B) C) D)
10)
The location of a gene on a chromosome is called the gene __________. A) B) C) D)
11)
tetrad locus dyad synapsis
Which of the following are sex chromosomes of a normal human male? A) B) C) D)
12)
crossing-over locus dyad synapse
XY XX XO YO
If a gene is not on the sex chromosome, it is found on a(an)
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A) B) C) D)
13)
Which is a correct usage of phenotype and genotype? A) B) C) D)
14)
autosome. locus. dyad. asexual chromosome.
Phenotype is the cause of genotype. Phenotype is restricted to characteristics involving size and color. One phenotype may produce many genotypes. Two different genotypes may produce the same phenotype.
Which of the following is NOT part of Mendel's law of segregation? A) B) C) D)
Each individual contains two factors for each trait. One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual. Each gamete contains one copy of each factor. Fertilization restores the presence of the two factors.
15) In a cross of parents with AA and aa genotypes for a particular trait, F 1 offspring would have which genotype(s)? A) B) C) D)
16)
AA and Aa AA, Aa, and aa AA only Aa only
F 2 offspring of a monohybrid cross involving Aa genotype show which genotype(s)?
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A) B) C) D)
Aa only AA and Aa Aa and aa AA, Aa, and aa
17) Since a testcross backcrosses with a pure homozygous recessive strain, the offspring of an Aa genotype crossed by an aa genotype would show which genotype(s)? A) B) C) D)
18)
You expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F 2 offspring in which type of cross? A) B) C) D)
19)
monohybrid cross dihybrid cross test cross sex-linked cross
In the case of tall and dwarf pea plants, if a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype, A) B) C) D)
20)
aa only Aa only AA and Aa Aa and aa
it can be either TT or Tt. it can be either Tt or tt. it can be only TT. it can be only tt.
Alleles are genes that
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A) B) C) D)
are linked. are lethal when homozygous. occupy corresponding places in homologous chromosomes. are never heterozygous.
21) In Mendel's pea plants, round seeds (R) were dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) were recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy, the recessive allele (s). If these genes are not linked, which of the following is true of a heterozygous dihybrid cross? A) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous for both dominant genes. B) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous for both recessive genes. C) It is impossible to obtain offspring that are homozygous dominant for one trait and homozygous recessive for the other trait. D) It is possible to produce offspring that are homozygous dominant for both traits, homozygous dominant for one trait but not the other, and homozygous recessive for both traits.
22) Gene interactions in which an allele at one locus prevents the expression of an allele at another locus is called A) B) C) D)
23)
complete dominance. incomplete dominance. epistasis. pleiotropy.
A trait caused by genes at several loci is an example of which of these? A) B) C) D)
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multiple alleles at one locus epistasis pleiotropy polygenic inheritance
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24)
Which of the following is NOT correct about X-linked characteristics? A) B) C) D)
25)
Males are said to be ________ for traits carried on the X chromosome. A) B) C) D)
26)
codominant polygenic hemizygous homozygous
At which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur? A) B) C) D)
27)
More males than females are affected. If a female exhibits the trait, all of her sons will also inherit and exhibit it. Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it. Males have two copies of the alleles for the trait, but females have only one.
prophase of the first meiotic division anaphase of the first meiotic division prophase of the second meiotic division anaphase of the second meiotic division
Why is crossing-over important?
A) Crossing-over provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells. B) Crossing-over increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain recombined genetic material. C) Crossing-over increases chromosome condensation. D) Crossing-over separates the homologous chromosomes.
28)
What is a synaptonemal complex?
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A) B) C) D)
29)
Turner syndrome (XO) would be an example of A) B) C) D)
30)
the internal structure of nucleoprotein that makes up a chromosome a proteinaceous structure that holds together two sister chromatids the spindle fibers that attach from pole to pole without binding chromosomes the set of cells produced from a single original parent cell in oogenesis
aneuploidy. changes in the linear arrangement of genes within one chromosome. trisomy. polyploidy.
Down syndrome is an example of A) B) C) D)
aneuploidy. changes in the liner arrangement of genes within one chromosome. monosomy. polyploidy.
31) A section of a chromosome breaks out and then reinserts itself into the gap it left, but in the opposite direction. What is this called? A) B) C) D)
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aneuploidy an inversion a translocations a deletion
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32) Beadle and Tatum's mutated Neurospora were unable to grow on minimal media plus metabolite B, but did grow on minimal media plus metabolites C and D, indicating enzyme 2 was missing from the hypothetical pathway.
A) If only enzyme 1 was missing, then growth would occur with just metabolite B. B) From the limited data given here, enzyme 1 could also be missing from the original experiment. C) Any minimal media with metabolite D should grow the Neurospora without revealing if the strain contains or lacks enzymes 1, 2 or 3. D) Failure to grow on minimal media possessing metabolite C reflects a lack of enzyme 3. E) All of the choices are correct.
33)
A codon is composed of _______ bases. A) B) C) D)
34)
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct? A) B) C) D)
35)
two three four six
Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it. Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break. DNA polymerase catalyzes DNA replication. Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
What is the function of DNA ligase?
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A) B) C) D)
To carry DNA into a new cell. To join the end of the new strand to the old one. To make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA. To destroy damaged DNA.
36) Which RNA molecules carry genetic information away from DNA when it is needed for the construction of a protein? A) B) C) D)
37)
Messenger RNA is transcribed using which strand of DNA? A) B) C) D)
38)
sense strand antisense strand messenger RNA is not transcribed from DNA both strands of DNA are typically used
Transfer RNA functions in A) B) C) D)
39)
ribosomal RNA transfer RNA messenger RNA primary mRNAtranscript
delivering amino acids to the mRNA-ribosome complex. synthesizing mRNA. delivering amino acids to DNA. None of the choices is correct.
What is the anticodon for GCG?
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A) B) C) D)
AUA UAU CGC AGA
40) Sections of DNA that do not code for a final product, and which may intervene in a DNA sequence are A) B) C) D)
41)
transcribed into tRNA. exons. introns. interferons.
Which of the following processes synthesizes mRNA, tRNA, or rRNA? A) B) C) D)
translation transcription transposition None of the choices is correct.
42) A complex of mRNA used to allow multiple molecules of the same protein to be synthesized concurrently is called a(n) _______________. A) B) C) D)
anticodon transcription factor intron polysome
43) Which type of RNA molecule forms the large and small subunits of the cytoplasmic structure that builds proteins?
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A) B) C) D)
ribosomal RNA transfer RNA messenger RNA primary mRNAtranscript
44) On the cloverleaf-shaped tRNA, what is exposed to form base pairs with complementary codon bases in the mRNA? A) B) C) D)
45)
a polysome an intron an anticodon RNA polymerase
The first control in gene activity is _______ control. A) B) C) D)
translational transcriptional gene rearrangement DNA modification
46) Which level of control in gene activity involves delay in translation, such as the buildup of oocytes messenger RNA until fertilization activates egg metabolism? A) B) C) D)
47)
translational control transcriptional control gene rearrangement DNA modification
Methylation of cytosine residues is involved in
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A) B) C) D)
48)
Which type of molecule produces variable lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"? A) B) C) D)
49)
feedback control. translational control. gene rearrangement. DNA modification and control.
DNA ligase RNA polymerase reverse transcriptase restriction enzyme
To make recombinant DNA,
A) bacterial DNA is annealed with restriction endonucleases. B) DNA is cleaved with restriction endonucleases and annealed together with plasmid or viral DNA. C) plasmid or viral DNA is cloned in mammalian cells. D) the "sticky ends" of the DNA must be annealed to the nuclear membrane.
50)
The polymerase chain reaction is
A) part of the normal process of DNA replication in the cell. B) a way to amplify small samples of DNA when a short sequence is known. C) a method for constructing complementary DNA by transcribing the base sequence with reverse transcriptase. D) None of the choices is correct.
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51) You are a science journalist writing a piece on the history of our study of DNA. Your editor would like you to summarize your current work so she can evaluate it and determine the readiness of your work for publication. Compare the following statements and determine which best conveys the facts related to your study of DNA. A) Statement 1—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel. Those scientists used knowledge of DNA to determine the mechanisms of evolutionand the principles of heredity, respectively." B) Statement 2—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel. Their work on evolution and the principles of evolution led Beadle and Tatum to propose a link between DNA and metabolism." C) Statement 3—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Beadle and Tatum who, based on other work being completed in the decades surrounding their work, proposed a link between DNA and metabolism." D) Statement 4—"The study of DNA has been ongoing since the time of Beadle and Tatum who, based on other work being completed in the decades surrounding their work, proposed a link between DNA and the principles of heredity."
52)
Which statement related to gene mutations is most accurate?
A) Silent mutations are always found in the intronic DNA. B) Silent mutations are always found in the exonic DNA. C) A change in the coding sequence, that alters the functionality of a protein, is always detrimental. D) Most changes in the DNA sequence of a gene are silent and have no major effect on protein functionality.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 53) Body cells and gametes typically have the diploid and ____________ number of chromosomes, respectively.
54) The phenomenon where an allele at one locus may mask or prevent the expression of an allele at another locus acting on the same trait is called ____________. Version 1
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55)
Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
56) set.
Aneuploidy is the addition or subtraction of a single _____________ to or from a diploid
57) The most familiar form of aneuploidy in humans results in Down Syndrome or ________ _________.
58)
mRNA molecules interact with _______ for the production of proteins.
59) _________ _________ are enzymes derived from bacteria; they cleave double-stranded DNA at a particular site determined by the particular base sequences (recognition site) at that point.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_18e 1) FALSE 2) [B, C, D] 3) [A, C] 4) [B, D] 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) B 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) haploid 54) epistasis 55) hemizygous 56) chromosome Version 1
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57) trisomy 21 58) ribosomes 59) Restriction endonucleases
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CHAPTER 6 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Before the 18th century, theories on the origin of species are best described as A) nonexistent. B) simple, with early Greek philosophers seeing fossils as destroyed life forms, but not placing them into an evolutionary concept. C) foundational, with early Greek philosophers seeing fossils as a continuous lineage but merely lacking the genetic understanding to explain it. D) complete, but poorly explained in modern scientific terms until Darwin wrote more clearly.
2)
Lamarck's theory of evolution was centered on the idea that
A) individuals with genetic variations have different survival rates. B) species are only produced through special creation. C) species are fixed and unchanging over time. D) an individual organism changes during its lifetime, and these changes can be passed on to offspring.
3) Cutting off the legs of toads over several generations should cause the legs of their offspring to become shorter, according to the ideas of which of these scientists? A) B) C) D)
Darwin Lamarck Mayr Lyell
4) Darwin's theory of natural selection to explain evolution is considered _____ because it _____.
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A) B) C) evolution D)
5)
variational; involves descent with selection among varieties variational; explains the variations of fossils transformational; claims individuals can change their characteristics to produce transformational; involves descent with selection among varieties
Lamarck's theory explaining evolution is considered ______ because it ______.
A) B) C) evolution D)
variational; involves descent with selection among varieties variational; explains the variations of fossils transformational; claims individuals can change their characteristics to produce transformational; involves descent with selection among varieties
6) As author of the book Principles of Geology, ______ presented arguments to support a theory of geological change that the earth was subject to slow but continuous erosion and uplift, following the laws of physics and chemistry similar to what is observed today. A) B) C) D)
Archbishop James Ussher Jean Baptiste de Lamarck Charles Darwin Charles Lyell
7) In his voyage on the H.M.S. Beagle, most of Darwin's observations about changes in species over time and in different environments took place in and near where? A) B) C) D)
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North America Africa South America Asia
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8)
What is the most accurate comparison presented?
A) The Galápagos Islands are relatively uniform while the mainland is highly diverse. B) The Galápagos Islands and the mainland are essentially identical habitats which makes it an excellent "controlled" experiment. C) The Galápagos Islands are relatively newly formed and also fragmented into diverse habitats. D) The Galápagos Islands were, until recently, connected by land bridges forming one unified habitat.
9)
Evolution by natural selection was independently proposed by Darwin and __________. A) B) C) D)
Alfred Russel Wallace Jean Baptiste de Lamarck Captain Robert FitzRoy Charles Lyell
10) Both Wallace and Darwin read about the critical concept of overpopulation and limited environmental capacity in a book by A) B) C) D)
11)
Charles Lyell about human populations. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck about the mechanisms of evolution. Ernst Mayr on the synthesis of new biological discoveries. Thomas Malthus about human populations.
Which of the following is a (are) true fossil(s)? A) B) C) D) E)
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the remains of an actual insect in amber or the tissue of a frozen extinct mammoth skeletal parts where bones have been replaced by minerals molds, casts, or impressions fossilized excrements (coprolites) All of the choices are technically fossils.
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12)
Which of the statements is true of the fossil record?
A) All of the stratified layers will be found anywhere a core sample is taken, except for human destruction. B) Provided there is no uplifting, tilt, etc., the deeper the layer, the more recently it was laid down. C) Once fossils are formed in a sedimentary layer, they are then protected from temperature and heat. D) Fossil assemblages are important in identifying sedimentary layers and different layers have different assemblages of fossils.
13)
Radiometric dating methods determine the age of rock formations how? A) B) C) D)
14)
by using guide or index fossils by relating the positions of layers to each other by calculating the ratios of elements and decay products by examining atoms for extent of wear and tear
The evolution of the horse shows what evolutionary trend(s)?
A) The number of structures always increases; therefore complexity always increases. B) Extinctions are often accompanied by the development of new species. C) Animals always evolve from gentle grazers toward more vicious omnivores and carnivores. D) Variations randomly drift from large to small, toward and away from grinding teeth, and to more or fewer toes, proving that evolution is indeed random.
15) Birds and insects both have wings, but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because
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A) B) C) D)
16)
bird wings function on different physics principles of lift. the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin. they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period. there is no fossil link between these groups.
Which of the following statements is true about a modern phylogeny of life's history? A) There are multiple independent origins of the distinct life forms: bacteria, plants,
etc. B) It is only based on living organisms since the reproductive isolation of extinct species cannot be determined. C) All forms of life, including extinct branches, are related. D) Genealogies can only be traced for groups where the primordial ancestor has survived.
17)
Which of the following would form a nested hierarchy or hierarchies of homologies?
A) Humans share most common blood types but we have fewer in common with monkeys and share fewest with rats. B) Birds have feathers, muscles and nucleated cells; fish have muscles and nucleated cells; an amoeba has a nucleus. C) Skeletal measurements cluster among modern apes and humans; ape-man fossil skeletal features also cluster and overlap with both modern apes and humans. D) All of the choices include nested hierarchies of homologies.
18) The concept that each successive stage in the development of an individual represents the adult form that appeared in development of its evolutionary history is termed A) B) C) D)
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Larmarckism. Heterochrony. Paedomorphosis. Recapitulation.
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19) The concept that features of an ancestral ontogeny can be shifted earlier or later in development is termed A) B) C) D)
20)
Retention of ancestral juvenile characters by adult descendants is termed A) B) C) D)
21)
Allopatry. Heterochrony. Paedomorphosis. Recapitulation.
The theory that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny was originally offered by A) B) C) D)
22)
Larmarckism. Heterochrony. Paedomorphosis. Recapitulation.
Alfred Wallace. K. E. von Baer. Charles Darwin. Ernst Haeckel.
The 19th century embryologist K. E. von Baer examined recapitulation and
A) agreed with the theory and added more experimental evidence. B) totally disproved it with new experiments. C) contended that early developmental stages were simply more widely shared among different animals than later, more derived developmental stages. D) refined it to explain heterochrony and paedomorphosis. E) proposed that it was the key to speciation.
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23)
Scientists recognize a species on what criterion(a)?
A) Although individuals within a given species may have variable phenotypes, the individuals within most species usually have similar phenotypes. B) There is similarity of genotype within a species and identifiable differences from members of other species. C) Members of a species can interbreed, but typically do not breed with other species. D) Members of related species have a most recent common ancestor. E) All of the choices are used in a general sense to distinguish species.
24)
Which of the following would result in reproductive isolation?
A) Two populations of crickets are indistinguishable in physical features, but the females in each group only respond to the different songs of their males. B) Fruit flies on one Hawaiian island live for hundreds of generations and do not come in contact with fruit flies on another island except when blown there by rare tropical storms. C) One brood of the seventeen-year cicada emerged in 1987 (and will do so every 17 years) and lives a few months as adults; another brood emerged in 1992 (and will do so every 17 years); the larvae of both feed side-by-side on tree roots. D) A lion and a tiger mate in the artificial confines of a zoo but the offspring is infertile. E) All of the choices are correct.
25) A population of salamanders live along the edge of a north-south mountain range. The populations from the east and west slope eventually join in a low northern pass and interbreed, producing fertile offspring, but they do not circle around the southern edge because of a desert barrier. When glaciers move southward, the populations are pushed south of the northern pass and are isolated. While isolated, the two populations develop enough differences over time that when the glaciers retreat north and the salamanders again share the same pass, they no longer mate at the same time, nor can they produce fertile offspring. These salamanders
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A) B) C) D)
26)
began as one species and therefore remain one species. were originally two species and remain two species. were originally one species but are now two species. cannot be categorized as a specific number of species from the information given.
The essential difference between vicariant speciation versus a founder event is that
A) vicariance involves splitting while a founder effect is fusing of two populations. B) the founder effect is the reverse of vicariant speciation. C) although a population is split by a vicariant event, the population size and environment does not alter gene frequencies as does a founder event. D) although a population is split by a founder event, the population size and environment does not alter gene frequencies as does a vicariant event.
27) If early Native Americans who originated in North Asia had remained the only ancestral settlers in North America, rather than the overwhelming mixture of immigrants from across Europe and other continents, today there would be a much higher incidence of North Asian traits in the U.S. population. Such a scenario would demonstrate A) B) C) D)
28)
gene flow from continent to continent. the founder effect. genetic drift among the original Northern Asians. fitness for the North American environment.
Sibling species are represented by
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A) two species that look very much alike but are actually distantly related. B) offspring that have the same parents but can no longer interbreed. C) the two halves of a population that have been split by a vicariant event but could still interbreed if sympatric. D) species that appear essentially identical in phenotype but have evolved differences in behavior or chemistry that prevent mating. E) a collection of specimens that are similar but have not yet undergone any test of interbreeding to determine if they are truly separate species.
29)
Which of the following constitute premating barrier(s)? A) B) C) D)
30)
Sperm cannot penetrate the egg. Male mating behavior is not correct to attract the female. Egg is fertilized but development is impaired. Offspring are sterile.
Which of the following constitute postmating barrier(s)? A) B) C) D) E)
The sperm does not penetrate the egg. The chromosome numbers of sperm and egg do not match after fertilization. The offspring are sterile. An egg is fertilized but development is impaired. All of the choices are post-mating barriers.
31) On the Galápagos Islands, the tool-using woodpecker finches modify twigs to pry out grubs. With no true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows it to exploit an untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior which is learned from watching other finches. Therefore,
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A) hatchlings will not know how to do this B) it is probably not "hardwired" in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically C) there must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned behavior to be repeated by most descendants of each generation D) as an acquired characteristic, in a strict sense this may not be part of the adaptive radiation of finches on the Galápagos E) All of the choices are correct.
32) In the case of Darwin's finches, an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the Galápagos Islands and later evolved into many new species via adaptive radiation. The ancestral finch species apparently did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland. What is the most plausible biological explanation? A) Directional selection works better on islands. B) Competition from many other bird species on the mainland provided stabilizing selection that was absent on the islands. C) The environment on the mainland was completely uniform. D) The founder effect greatly expanded the variation in alleles in the Galápagos finch gene pool. E) The ancestral mainland finch was reproductively isolated.
33) Which one of the following is NOT an observation of a population where natural selection is at work? A) There is variation that can be inherited in a population. B) The population always becomes adapted to its environment. C) Many more individuals are produced by a population than can survive and reproduce. D) Adaptive characteristics in some individuals make them more likely to survive and reproduce. E) All of the choices are correct.
34)
Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?
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A) It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes. B) It assures the survival of each fit individual. C) On average, it favors the survival of individuals that can produce the most reproductively viable young that possess adaptive characteristics and can themselves reproduce. D) It always selects for more complex forms.
35)
Which of the following is required for natural selection to occur in a population? A) B) C) D) E)
36)
Technically, differential survival and reproduction among offspring with varying traits is A) B) C) D) E)
37)
a strictly random process. another definition of natural selection. orthogenesis. neo-Darwinism. sorting, which is not necessarily equal to natural selection.
Neo-Darwinism A) B) C) D) E)
38)
variation in the population inheritance of genetic variation differential reproduction so that more fit individuals produce more offspring accumulation of adaptive traits so that they increase in the population All of the choices are correct.
means the same thing as "modern Darwinism." consists of Darwin's basic principles coupled with an understanding of genetics. adds microevolution to macroevolution. is based on new RNA molecular similarities. brings together biogeography, embryology, systematics, genetics, etc.
The main accomplishment of Modern Darwinism (The Synthetic Theory) was
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A) to select a new set of scientists to take up the evolution argument after the death of Darwin and Huxley. B) the frantic search for answers to the creationist challenge of the early 1900s. C) the application of new discoveries in genetics, classification, biogeography, paleontology, etc. to Darwin's basic tenets, and which tied these fields together in a new framework. D) to split Darwin's ideas into small details (microevolution) and larger concepts (macroevolution).
39) What is the term used to describe the accumulation of small changes in the gene pool of a species over time? A) B) C) D)
genetic drift founder effect microevolution directional selection
40) Some creationists acknowledge that gene frequencies change in observable time (and accept microevolution) but dispute that larger "kinds" ever evolve. A biologist replies that macroevolution is merely the same processes of gene frequency change continued over a longer time. The creationist's answer is incomplete because it does not recognize what additional phenomena inherent in macroevolution? A) extinctions of huge numbers of taxa B) relationships of species at higher taxonomic levels C) origins of new body plans and structures D) evolutionary trends within lineages E) All of the choices are studied in macroevolution but are not central to microevolution within a species.
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41) For the sake of this genetics problem, consider that right-handedness (RR, Rr) is dominant to left-handedness (rr). A teacher surveys her class of 24 students and finds that six (one-fourth, or 0.25) are left-handed. How many of the remaining right-handed students are likely to be carriers for a left-handedness gene? A) B) C) D)
42)
Which condition is NOT among the requirements of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) B) C) D)
43)
none, they will all be RR for right-handedness since a dominant gene dominates six, same number as are left-handed or 0.25× 24 twelve, since q2 = 0.25, then q = 0.5, and 2pq or 2(0.5 × 0.5) = 0.5 of a class of 24 eighteen will be Rr since 24 - 6 = 18
no mutations no net migration of alleles into or out of the population small population with genetic drift no selection of one genotype over another
If Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect?
A) evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment B) evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment C) very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation D) no evolution because the allele frequencies in the population remain the same from generation to generation
44) You are studying wild horse populations that live in adjacent ranges and demonstrate some gene flow, what can you say about the two populations? A) B) C) D)
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become more similar in their gene pools become isolated from each other develop into different species adapt to different conditions and become separate
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45) When discussing genetic drift with your study group partners various members provide example scenarios. Which of the following is correct? A) B) C) D)
It is more likely to occur in a large population than in a small population It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population It may increase the frequency of rare alleles in a population None of the choices is correct.
46) Research indicates people are most likely to select a mate from a nearby village or city, or high school or college. Therefore, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium does not apply well to human populations because A) allele frequency changes in one direction are balanced by changes in the opposite direction. B) there is no directional trend in selection of mates since most individuals marry someone. C) individuals are not pairing up by chance across the whole population, and therefore mating is not random. D) we accumulate adaptive traits that improve the population.
47)
Which statement is NOT true about nonrandom mating?
A) Inbreeding is mating between relatives more often than by chance. B) Inbreeding is a change in allele frequencies that increases the proportion of heterozygotes in the population. C) An example of positive assortative mating is when a tall man marries a tall woman. D) Assortative mating tends to cause subdivision into two phenotypic classes with reduced gene flow between them.
48)
Which of the following contribute(s) to evolution?
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A) B) C) D) E)
mutations gene flow genetic drift natural selection All of the choices are correct.
49) In the early 1990s, the African honeybee migrated across the Mexican border into the United States. Our domesticated honey bee—originally from Europe—is slow to sting, requires abundant flower nectar, forages later in the morning, does not tolerate subtropical conditions as well as the "Africanized" honey bee, and stores much honey but only produces enough new brood to swarm once a year. Because the European honey bee was performing poorly as a honey producer in South America, the African subspecies had been imported in a breeding experiment. The African honey bee formed small nests, foraged earlier and created more honey using smaller nectar sources, produced less honey stores and more brood, swarmed four or five times a year, and was fast to sting. However, when African queens escaped, the two bee populations interbred and the African genotype spread about 300 kilometers north each year. Unexpectedly, a hundred kilometers behind the expanding range of the African honey bees, the European and hybrid hives died out in subtropical areas and the bees were essentially 100 percent African. How would this be explained in evolutionary genetics terms? A) Gene flow is not occurring and therefore these are two separate species. B) This is a natural consequence of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. C) Obviously the African bee genes are dominant over the European honeybee alleles. D) Gene flow is occurring between these subspecies but the African bee is ecologically better suited for foraging and reproducing in the subtropics, but is not as successful as the European honeybee in temperate areas. E) Migration will counteract the problem and eventually cause the bee to revert back to the European traits.
50) A male peacock that displays showy and cumbersome feathers to attract a mate, but then is more vulnerable to predators, reveals the predicament of
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A) B) C) D)
51)
What is the correct sequence extending down from the phenotype to the genetic unit? A) B) C) D)
52)
polymorphism. disruptive selection. species selection. sexual selection.
phenotype-codon-protein-amino acid-protein phenotype-protein-protein-amino acid-codon phenotype-protein-protein-codon-amino acid phenotype-amino acid-protein-protein-codon
Which statement is NOT true about natural selection?
A) Directional selection occurs when one extreme phenotype is favored over another different extreme phenotype. B) Stabilizing selection favors an intermediate phenotype over either of the extreme phenotypes. C) Directional selection leads to the best fit phenotype in the population when the environment remains the same. D) Disruptive selection leads to polymorphism, favoring different forms of the same species.
53) Based on the text's coverage of the many factors in micro- and macroevolution, you can conclude that the rate of evolution progresses at A) B) C) D)
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a fairly constant rate and would produce the same outcome if "rerun." an uneven rate but would produce the same outcome if "rerun." a fairly constant rate but would produce different outcomes if "rerun." an uneven rate and would produce different outcomes if "rerun."
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54)
Stephen Jay Gould's three "tiers" of evolutionary time are
A) pre-biotic or before-life, prokaryotic life and eukaryotic life. B) microbial, plant and animal phases. C) pre-atmospheric, aquatic and terrestrial evolution. D) not time periods at all, but stabilizing, disruptive and stabilizing evolution processes. E) not time periods at all, but short-term population genetic processes, intermediateterm speciation and extinction rates, and long-term cycles of mass extinctions.
55) Ants that specialize on harvesting one species of tree leaves can optimally exploit that resource but are in trouble if their food tree declines, whereas generalist ant species can switch to other foods. The rate at which these two lineages speciate and go extinct differs, a phenomenon labeled A) B) C) D)
56)
stabilizing selection. directional selection. catastrophic species selection. effect macroevolution.
Overall, how do the effects of the major mass extinctions compare?
A) Large terrestrial animals were always decimated while aquatic species survived. B) Species that required light were always decimated because all extinctions were due to asteroid bombardment resulting in blackened sky. C) Species appear to genetically "wear out" and mass extinctions "re-set" the evolutionary mechanisms. D) Not all cataclysmic events were the same and organismal groups and phenotypes were different in each extinction; however lineages favored by effect macroevolution and species selection were more vulnerable. E) There has not been any detected pattern to extinctions and they are probably random.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 57) A population that undergoes a major reduction in size is said to experience a population ___________.
58) Speciation that results from evolution of reproductive barriers between geographically separated populations is called ___________ speciation.
59) The generation of ecologically diverse species from a common ancestral stock is called ________________ ________________.
60) The use of bird feathers for flight is an example of ________________ which contrasts to adaptation of the feather for its primary evolutionary role, thermoregulation.
61) Niles Eldridge and Stephen Jay Gould proposed that speciation is an episodic event that occurs in variable time periods ranging from thousands to hundreds of thousands of years, all of which are geologically brief time periods, and that there are long periods of evolutionary stasis in between, a theory called _______ ________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 62) Explain Lamarck's theory of evolution and describe how it contrasts with modern Darwinian views.
63) Explain how Malthus' work in socioeconomics applied to the development of Darwin's theory of natural selection.
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64) When we compare amino acid differences to estimate the evolutionary "distance" between organisms, what assumptions are being made about the rate at which mutations occur over time?
65)
Define sexual selection and provide an example.
66) Explain how the earth's rock strata record the irreversible changes we call organic evolution (discuss the processes of fossilization).
67) Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium. Explain how they are similar and different.
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68) Explain why extinction is a necessary aspect of evolution. What would happen if nothing died and there were no extinction?
69) Discuss the views of paleontologist Elisabeth Vrba, who uses the phrase effect macroevolution to describe differential speciation and extinction rates among lineages caused by organismal-level properties.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_18e 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) C 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) B 30) E 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) E 36) E 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) E 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) E 55) D 56) D Version 1
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57) bottleneck 58) allopatric 59) adaptive radiation 60) exaptation 61) punctuated equilibrium 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 7 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Check all of the following that describe the forms of reproduction found in animals. A) B) C) D) E) F)
sexual reproduction asexual reproduction budding binary fission gemmulation fragmentation
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which is NOT true about reproduction? A) B) C) D)
Gametes are produced by meiosis and may be specialized as eggs or sperm Only the germ line reproduces by mitosis Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment is not changing A hermaphrodite produces both male and female gametes in different specialized
E)
Somatic cells serve to provide support and protection for the germ line
gonads
3)
Which is NOT true about asexual reproduction?
A) There is only one parent B) It is less commonly found among vertebrates C) It can occur by budding or by division and regeneration D) A large number of offspring can be produced in this way in a short time E) It produces variation that allows the species to adapt quickly to changing environmental conditions
4)
What is the critical difference between gemmulation and fragmentation?
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A) Gemmulation is sexual and fragmentation is asexual B) Gemmulation is haploid and fragmentation is diploid C) If sponges fragment, it is called gemmulation D) Fragmentation involves providing a resistant layer of cells for a capsule; gemmulation is merely breaking off chunks of tissue to grow a new organism E) Gemmulation involves providing a resistant layer of cells for a capsule; fragmentation is merely breaking off chunks of tissue to grow a new organism
5)
Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that all have the same genotype are called A) B) C) D) E)
germ cells. buds. clones. gonads. gemmules.
6) Since humans have two individual organisms to bear eggs or sperm separately, we are in the biological sense A) B) C) D) E)
7)
asexual. bisexual. monoecious. hermaphroditic. parthenogenetic.
Animals that have both male and female organs in the same individual are called A) B) C) D) E)
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asexual. bisexual. monoecious. dioecious. parthenogenetic.
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8)
Which of the following are primary sex organs? A) B) C) D) E)
9)
Penis and vagina Scrotum and uterus Vas deferens and oviducts Testes and ovaries All of the choices are primary sex organs
By possessing both male and female organs, hermaphrodites
A) are asexual. B) lose all advantages to sexual reproduction. C) gain the ability to mate with any other individual of their species, not just the half that are the opposite sex. D) gain the ability to choose to be either sexual or asexual. E) always have the ability to self-fertilize if no other members of their species are around.
10)
Parthenogenesis is A) B) C) D) E)
11)
asexual but haploid by means of internal self-fertilization. an asexual means of reproduction involving budding. asexual reproduction by splitting or fission into several new individuals. reproduction where eggs develop into mature individuals without fertilization. sexual reproduction by cross-fertilization between hermaphrodites.
When an egg is formed without meiosis, merely a mitotic division, it is
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A) B) C) D) E)
ameiotic parthenogenesis. meiotic parthenogenesis. anti-parthenogenesis. hermaphroditism. bisexual reproduction.
12) In whiptail lizards, only females exist. Two females court and one assumes the posture of the missing male lizard to stimulate the other female to ovulate. No fertilization can occur, so this is a case of A) B) C) D) E)
hermaphroditism. bisexual reproduction. parthenogenesis. sexual reproduction since mating behavior is required. a need for further research since only primitive animals reproduce asexually.
13) In the case of the whiptail lizards, unisexual species were compared with a fully sexual species. Results indicated that A) the unisexual lizard populations were slower growing because they lacked diversity. B) both strategies had the same levels of population growth. C) the unisexual lizard populations were faster growing because all individuals produced eggs. D) more variability is always good despite environmental conditions. E) the more evolved animals always reproduce sexually.
14) What is the most likely evolutionary explanation for the whiptail desert lizards evolving a female only reproduction?
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A) B) C) D)
This species is probably going extinct This is not related to evolution but a biochemical anomaly This is not at all unusual since most reptiles are asexual The desert is uniform, and variation is of little or no advantage and a waste in
energy E) Such a switch in mating behavior is easily understood as a crossing-over in chromosomes
15)
Gonads arise from A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Gametogenesis is the A) B) C) D) E)
17)
proliferation of the SRY gene. genital ridges growing into the coelomic lining on the sides of the hindgut. somatic tissues. different tissues; testes from mesoderm and ovaries from endoderm. a continuous line of meiotic cells.
union of an egg and a sperm. formation of eggs by the female and sperm by the male. cleavage of the embryo. menstrual cycle in the female. None of the choices is correct
In the male reproductive system, the Sertoli (sustentacular) cells A) B) C) D) E)
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become sperm cells through meiosis. activate the sperm cells so they can swim rapidly. nourish the cells that become sperm cells. regulate the rate of semen production. produce an alkaline fluid added to the semen.
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18)
The _______ undergo the first meiotic division in the production of sperm. A) B) C) D) E)
19)
sertoli (sustentacular) cells primary oocytes spermatids primary spermatocytes spermatogonia
The final product of spermatogenesis is four A) B) C) D) E)
sertoli (sustentacular) cells. primary oocytes. spermatids. primary spermatocytes. spermatogonia.
20) The ______ of the sperm is lined with mitochondria and expends the energy to propel the sperm. A) B) C) D) E)
21)
acrosome head tail mid-piece none of the choices is correct
The acrosome functions to
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
In oogenesis, the sequence of the development of an egg is A) B) C) D)
23)
house enzymes that help a sperm head "digest" its way into an egg. increase the sperm's motility. direct the sperm to the egg. transport the chromosomes out of the egg. store energy for swimming to the egg.
ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, oogonium, ovum. primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, oogonium, ovum. oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, ovum. oogonium, ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ovum.
Polar bodies are best characterized as
A) follicles that did not become the graafian follicle. B) one haploid nucleus from the first meiotic division and one haploid nucleus from the second meiotic division. C) two haploid nuclei from the first meiotic division. D) two haploid nuclei from the second meiotic division. E) three haploid nuclei; one from the second division and one from the first that then divided again to form two.
24)
Reptile and bird eggs have A) B) C) D) E)
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no chorion. no amnion. no extra-embryonic membranes because the young are inside an egg. a placental connection since these are advanced animals. a large yolk to support all early development.
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25) During oogenesis, the egg grows in size by accumulating _______ reserves to support future growth and development after fertilization. A) B) C) D) E)
hormone sugar water mitochondrial yolk
26) The egg grows in size well beyond the surface-area-to-volume restrictions of other single cells because it A) is the germ line and is therefore not restricted by this law. B) relies on a placenta to exchange gases and nutrients. C) has a gradually diminishing metabolic rate and often relies on supporting cells to supply nutrition. D) lacks mitochondria. E) does not become living until it is fertilized; this is the definition of "life."
27)
Placental mammals are A) B) C) D) E)
oviparous. ovoviviparous. larviparous. viviparous. nefarious.
28) A rattlesnake holds its eggs internally and the young hatch and crawl out, appearing to be born live; the rattlesnake is
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A) B) C) D) E)
oviparous. ovoviviparous. larviparous. viviparous. nefarious.
29) A strange system of reproduction, where there are no permanent reproductive organs and gametes arise from the lining of the body cavity and spill through ruptures of the body wall is found in some A) B) C) D) E)
insects. marsupial mammals. polychaete annelid worms. whiptail lizards. birds.
30) In reptiles and birds, a common chamber forming the opening of the reproductive, excretory and digestive systems is called the A) B) C) D) E)
31)
vulva. aedeagus. cloaca. labia majora. copulatrix.
Which is NOT part of the mammalian male reproductive system? A) B) C) D) E)
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testes. epididymis. penis. prostate. cervix.
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32)
Mammalian sperm mature inside the A) B) C) D)
33)
In mammals, the ______ carries both sperm and urine. A) B) C) D) E)
34)
seminal vesicles. ejaculatory duct. vas deferens. epididymis.
vas deferens urethra fallopian tube ureter seminiferous tubule
A cross-section through the testes would show A) B) C) D) E)
large chambers lined with wiggling sperm. small tubules lined with developing sperm. flat layers of tissue lined with developing sperm. individual sperm follicles with all future immature sperm present. none of the choices is correct.
35) In larger terrestrial animals, the testes are in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen because A) B) C) D) E)
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there is lack of room in the abdomen. this provides for a shorter sperm path. this provides a more direct blood supply. it provides greater protection to the testes. it keeps the temperature lower for sperm development.
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36)
Which of the following is NOT involved in production of semen? A) B) C) D) E)
37)
Which association concerning structures in the human male is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
38)
Testes-produce sperm Testes-produce testosterone Vas deferens-carries urine Prostate gland-seminal fluid Urethra-conducts sperm
The path of the sperm from the site of production to exiting the male body proceeds from A) B) C) D) E)
39)
seminal vesicles. bulbourethral gland. graafian follicle. testes. prostate gland.
testes to urethra to vas deferens to penis. urethra to vas deferens to seminal vesicles to testes. seminiferous tubules to epididymis to vas deferens to urethra. seminiferous tubules to vas deferens to epididymis to urethra. vas deferens to seminiferous tubules to epididymis to urethra.
Which is NOT part of the human female external genitalia? A) B) C) D) E)
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hymen. clitoris. labia minora. labia majora. uterus.
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40)
The female clitoris is homologous to the male A) B) C) D) E)
41)
An egg moves down an oviduct by A) B) C) D) E)
42)
vas deferens. glans penis. scrotum. prostate gland. testes.
whip-like flagellar action. cilia of nurse cells surrounding the egg. drifting on the current of body fluids. muscle contraction and ciliary motion. suction from the uterine contractions.
Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the A) B) C) D) E)
uterus. vagina. outer third of the oviduct. abdominal cavity between ovary and oviducts. ovarian follicle at time of ovulation.
43) You are explaining the menstrual cycle to your study group partners. During this conversation you indicate the the ______ is the inner lining of the uterus that is discharged during menstruation.
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A) B) C) D) E)
44)
The route of sperm moving through the female reproductive tract is A) B) C) D) E)
45)
androgen and estrogen. testosterone and progesterone. FSH and cortisol. testosterone and estrogen. progesterone and estrogen.
Male sexual behavior is promoted by A) B) C) D) E)
47)
vagina → uterus → oviduct → cervix. urethra → vagina → oviduct → cervix. urethra → uterus → cervix → fallopian tube. cervix → fallopian tube → vagina → uterus. vagina → cervix → uterus → oviduct.
The two major female hormones are A) B) C) D) E)
46)
endometrium perimetrium myocardium endocardium oviduct
inhibin. testosterone. estrogen. ecdysone. progesterone.
Secondary sexual characteristics in the male are developed and maintained by
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A) B) C) D) E)
48)
FSH. TSH. testosterone. estrogen. progesterone.
A metabolite of testosterone that has important hormone effects is A) B) C) D) E)
FSH. TSH. anti-testosterone. dihydrotestosterone. progesterone.
49) You are a fertility specialist working with a 32 year old female that has not been able to conceive. You explain to your patient that intercourse on the ________ day of a 28-day uterine cycle provides the best opportunity for fertilization because that is when ovulation typically occurs. A) B) C) D) E)
50)
first day 4 th day 14 th day 22 nd day last day
An egg is ovulated from a A) B) C) D) E)
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primary follicle. tertiary follicle. corpus luteum. graafian follicle. secondary follicle.
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51)
The luteal phase occurs A) B) C) D) E)
52)
_____________ is closely associated with maturation of the egg. A) B) C) D) E)
53)
on day 15. during days 6 - 13. on day 14. during days 15 - 28. anytime through the cycle.
Follicle stimulating hormone Testosterone Luteinizing hormone Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone
The luteal phase of the uterine cycle is associated with
A) low FSH, high estrogen, developing follicle, and an increase in uterine lining. B) high LH, high estrogen, developing follicle, and uterine lining breakdown. C) an increase in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and the endometrium is shed. D) a decrease in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and a secretory uterine lining. E) a decrease in LH, decrease in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and a secretory uterine lining.
54)
The hormone inhibin
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A) B) C) D)
decreases sexual urges. triggers ovulation in females. prevents or inhibits erection. serves in a negative feedback manner at the anterior pituitary.
55) Male athletes who consider taking synthetic testosterone to add muscle are warned that this may shrink the testes. Why would this effect occur? A) this is the natural effect of testosterone; it normally shrinks testes. B) synthetic chemicals act differently than natural hormones. C) a guilt reaction in the brain causes the opposite hormone action. D) testosterone converts to dihydrotestosterone that has the opposite effect. E) the pituitary detects high levels of testosterone in the bloodstream and, not knowing that it is not self-produced, reduces FSH and LH.
56)
In Latin, the root word(s) for "yellow body" is/are A) B) C) D) E)
57)
Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) B) C) D)
58)
placenta. vagina. corpus luteum. uterus. endometrium.
the follicles in the ovary produce luteinizing hormone. the corpus luteum produces progesterone. a surge of LH is believed to promote ovulation. LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.
Luteinizing hormone stimulates the
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A) B) C) D)
seminiferous tubules of the testis. pituitary to produce FSH. follicle to produce inhibin. corpus luteum to produce progesterone.
59) Approximately how many mature egg cells are released by a woman during her fertile years? A) B) C) D) E)
60)
Following ovulation, a ruptured follicle A) B) C) D) E)
61)
differentiates into the corpus luteum. disappears and all of its cells disintegrate. passes on as waste material down the oviduct with the egg. mends itself and begins the maturation of another egg. becomes a part of the epithelial covering of the ovary.
What initiates menstrual flow? A) B) C) D) E)
62)
20. 120. 400. several thousand. several million.
the pituitary triggers it. luteinizing hormone activity is at its peak. estrogen activity is at a peak. progesterone production is highest. both progesterone and estrogen decline to low levels.
Estrogen and progesterone provide feedback control on the
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A) B) C) D) E)
63)
On day 12, the human uterine cycle is mainly under the influence of A) B) C) D) E)
64)
secretory phase. menstrual period. proliferative phase. ovulation period. fertilization period.
The secretory phase is part of the A) B) C) D) E)
66)
thyroxin. estrogen. progesterone. epinephrine. testosterone.
Days 6-13 of a 28-day uterine cycle are considered the A) B) C) D) E)
65)
ovary. uterus. testes. anterior pituitary. prostate gland.
sexual cycle. pituitary cycle. testicular cycle. ovarian cycle. uterine cycle.
Follicle-stimulating hormone is produced in the
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A) B) C) D) E)
ovary. uterus. anterior pituitary. hypothalamus. interstitial (leydig) cells.
67) After an egg erupts from a follicle, the surrounding tissue that remains to secrete hormones becomes the A) B) C) D) E)
68)
Which is NOT true about estrogen? A) B) C) D) E)
69)
oocyte. stroma. corpus luteum. primary follicle. corpus cavernosum.
estrogen stimulates release of FSH. estrogen causes the endometrium to thicken. estrogen causes the endometrium to become vascular and glandular. estrogen causes a positive feedback on the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH. estrogen causes a negative feedback on the anterior pituitary gland.
What would be associated with animals that produce litters? A) B) C) D) E)
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The uterus would be designed for more implantation sites More nipples and mammary gland tissue would be present More eggs are triggered to develop than in humans There may be a tendency to have identical twins from division of the fertilized egg All of the choices would be possible with an animal that regularly produces litters
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70)
Menstruation begins because A) B) C) D) E)
the pituitary triggers it. luteinizing hormone is at its peak. estrogen activity peaks. progesterone production is highest. progesterone and estrogen levels decline.
71) Milk production in humans is triggered in breasts after several days of ____ and ____ production by the ____. A) B) C) D) E)
estrogen, testosterone, ovaries prolactin, human placental lactogen, hypothalamus prolactin, human placental lactogen, anterior pituitary oxytocin, estrogen, hypothalamus oxytocin, androgen, anterior pituitary
72) The peptide hormone ______ produced by the ______ allows expansion of the pelvis by increasing flexibility of the pubic symphysis. A) B) C) D) E)
73)
estrogen, ovaries prolactin, hypothalamus prolactin, anterior pituitary relaxin, hypothalamus relaxin, placenta
Which statement is incorrect regarding hCG?
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A) B) C) D) E)
hCG appears in the bloodstream after implantation hCG is produced by the placenta hCG stimulates the corpus luteum hCG stimulates the anterior pituitary gland hCG helps maintain estrogen and progesterone levels in the blood
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 74) The kidney of male reptiles, birds, and mammals develops an independent duct, the _______, to carry away nitrogenous waste.
75) Animals with both male and female organs in the same individual are called monoecious or ____________.
76) In mammals, the type of breeding cycle in which the female is receptive to the male only at restricted times of the year is the ________ cycle.
77) Most vertebrates and many invertebrates have separate sexes, a condition that is called dioecious or _______ ________.
78) Development of an embryo from an egg without the participation of a spermatozoa is called _________.
79) The outermost layer of differentiating sex cells in the testes, called ________, divide by ordinary mitosis.
80)
In reptiles and birds the reproductive and excretory ducts empty into the ________.
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81) The proximate cues that trigger labor are not fully understood; however, ________ appears to be involved.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 82) Compare meiotic and ameiotic parthenogenesis and provide an example of each.
83) Discuss how internal fertilization and the production of shelled eggs were important in the development of animals capable of living on land.
84) Why is the haplo-diploid system of bees, wasps, and ants considered to involve parthenogenesis?
85) Describe the differences between asexual and sexual reproduction, and conditions under which each would be advantageous and disadvantageous.
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86) Detail the sequence of events that lead a human male embryo with a Y chromosome in its cells to differentiate into normal male anatomy.
87) Describe two other systems for determining the sex of offspring besides the XX-XY system described for humans, and give an example of the organism(s) that use the system.
88)
Contrast the cloaca of birds and reptiles with the vulva of a mammal.
89) Trace the path taken by human sperm cells as they develop and leave the body, providing the identity of each accessory gland that adds fluids to the semen, and the function of those fluids, in the order they are encountered.
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90) Describe the path taken by a human egg cell as it develops and implants on the wall of the uterus.
91) Describe the stages of the menstrual cycle, including the hormonal control of the ovarian cycle.
92) Birds never developed an internal placental system but are confined to laying eggs. Consider the many physiological burdens and limitations imposed by bearing live young, and then consider all of the adaptations of birds for flight. Given that birds arose from dinosaur-like ancestors that also laid eggs, but birds managed to evolve a high metabolism and other specialized features, discuss one physiological reason that probably limits birds from ever evolving viviparity.
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93) A larger number of synthetic estrogens are showing up in the environment. Speculate on what physiological effects this may have on male animals.
94)
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
95) Is asexual reproduction likely to happen more when the environment is "stable" or in a state of "flux"? Explain.
96) Fish and amphibians tend to have less complex reproductive systems than some reptiles, birds and mammals. Why do you think this might be the case?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_18e 1) [A, B, C, E, F] 2) B 3) E 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) E 26) C Version 1
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27) D 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) E 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) E 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) E 45) E 46) B 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) E 56) C Version 1
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57) A 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) E 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) E 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) E 70) E 71) C 72) E 73) D 74) ureter 75) hermaphrodites 76) estrous 77) bisexual reproduction 78) parthenogenesis 79) spermatogonia 80) cloaca 81) placental corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) 82) Answers will vary. 83) Answers will vary. 84) Answers will vary. 85) Answers will vary. 86) Answers will vary. Version 1
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87) Answers will vary. 88) Answers will vary. 89) Answers will vary. 90) Answers will vary. 91) Answers will vary. 92) Answers will vary. 93) Answers will vary. 94) Answers will vary. 95) Answers will vary. 96) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 8 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The concept that an egg or sperm cell contained a very small but fully developed individual was called A) B) C) D)
induction. pronuclei. preformation. holoblastism.
2) The concept that an egg contains the building material that must somehow be assembled is called A) B) C) D)
induction. pronuclei. preformation. epigenesis.
3) During a review session you ask your study group members to describe fertilization. Specifically, you are trying to determine if they know when the process of fertilization occurs. Which response provided below is the most accurate A) B) C) D)
student 1—when the sperm are deposited in the vagina. student 2—when the sperm reach the outer jelly coat of the egg. student 3—when the sperm tails are shed. student 4—when the sperm nucleus and egg nucleus unite.
4) Before fertilization, as an egg cell matures, its nucleus increases RNA content and it is called
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A) B) C) D)
a pronucleus. a cleavage furrow. a germinal vesicle. a blastomere.
5) You are explaining your undergraduate research project to your parents during spring break. You say that the topic of your project is to evaluate polyspermy in shark eggs and your parents ask why only one sperm fertilizes the egg. What is the best response to this question? A) There are so few sperm that two are unlikely to arrive at the same time. B) Sperm compete and only the most fit one is accepted. C) Many sperm enter but only one set of chromosomes fuses with the egg nucleus; excess sperm are absorbed. D) When the first sperm membrane fuses with the egg membrane, a barrier to other sperm forms.
6)
What prevents a foreign species' sperm from fertilizing an egg?
A) Nothing prevents fertilization if chemical and other behavioral cues allow mating. B) Egg recognition proteins on the acrosomal process bind to specific sperm receptors on the vitelline envelope. C) The size and shape of sperm must fit the hole in the egg membrane. D) The cortical reaction by the egg actively draws in the sperm.
7) After the fusion of sperm and egg membranes, there is the release of enzyme-rich granules from the egg that ultimately causes the separation of the vitelline envelope and the egg membrane; this is called A) B) C) D)
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polyspermy. pronucleation. the cortical reaction. cytoplasmic localization.
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8)
Entrance of more than one sperm A) B) C) D) E)
is called polyspermy and is disastrous for animal zygotes. results in epigenesis. is neutralized by fusion with polar bodies. results in formation of a large pronucleus. initiates cleavage.
9) ___________ occurs when a fertilized egg enters cell division without further growth in volume. A) B) C) D)
10)
Cleavage Gastrulation Differentiation Embryology
The product of cleavage in a zygote produces a cluster of small cells called A) B) C) D)
pronuclei. blastomeres. polar bodies. meroblasts.
11) You are observing early cleavage divisions under a microscope. The label on the petri dish has been removed and you are trying to determine which of several species of animal you are viewing by evaluating the cleavage characteristics of the developing animal. You note that there is very little yolk and that the yolk is evenly distributed during these divisions. What type of cleavage are you viewing?
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A) B) C) D)
12)
mesolecithal holoblastic isolecithal telolecithal
Eggs with a moderate amount of yolk concentrated at the vegetal pole are called A) B) C) D)
mesolecithal. holoblastic. isolecithal. telolecithal.
13) You are observing early cleavage divisions under a microscope. The label on the petri dish has been removed and you are trying to determine which of several species of animal you are viewing by evaluating the cleavage characteristics of the developing animal. You note that there is very abundant yolk that is concentrated at the vegetal pole. What type of cleavage are you viewing? A) B) C) D)
14)
mesolecithal holoblastic isolecithal telolecithal
The effect of yolk on cleavage is that A) B) C) D)
yolk promotes faster cleavage. yolk promotes spiral cleavage in all cases. yolk slows down and indirectly determines the type of cleavage to take place. yolk is the origin of all cleavage planes.
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15) Cleavage on the surface of the yolk of the chicken egg is partial because cleavage furrows cannot cut through; this is called A) B) C) D)
meroblastic. holoblastic. isolecithal. indeterminant.
16) You and your study group members disagree on the proper definition of indirect development in animals. Which student is accurate? A) B) C) D) fertilized.
17)
Radial cleavage is found in A) B) C) D)
18)
Student 1—indirect development occurs only in mammals. Student 2—indirect development lacks a larval stage. Student 3—indirect development involves a larval stage. Student 4—indirect development occurs only when eggs develop without being
birds. mammals. most protostomes. sea stars.
A characteristic of development of Deuterostomia is A) B) C) D)
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spiral cleavage. mosaic development. the mesoderm developing from a special blastomere called the 4d cell. radial cleavage.
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19) During your interview to work in the developmental biology teaching laboratory the professor asks if you recall the various types of cleavage found in developing animals. To test you she asks you to choose which response below is correct related to rotational cleavage. Which answer will help you get the job? A) B) C) D)
20)
Rotational cleavage is found in amphibians. Rotational cleavage is found in mammals. Rotational cleavage is found in sea stars. Rotational cleavage is found in lophotrochozoa.
Cleavage in mammals
A) is faster than most other groups. B) does not begin, like most other animals, with a first cleavage plane through the animal-vegetal axis. C) is asynchronous, meaning that all blastomeres do not divide at the same time. D) is very loose, with cells drifting about in a loose amorphous, bubble-like mass.
21) In the human, which part of the blastocyst will develop into the embryo proper (versus the supporting placenta)? A) B) C) D)
archenteron blastopore trophoblast inner cell mass
22) In preparation for your next exam you are explaining the process of animal cleavage to your room-mate. She took a course similar to this one and has a basic understanding of the process. You describe cleavage in one group of animals as proceeding in the absence of cytokinesis. She quickly chimes in that you are describing which of the following?
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A) B) C) D)
rotational cleavage found in amphibians spiral cleavage found in mammals discoidal cleavage found in sea stars superficial cleavage found in insects
23) When the central mass of yolk restricts cleavage to the surface of the egg, and eight rounds of mitosis without cytoplasmic division pepper the surface with nuclei that eventually are enclosed, this is ______ cleavage. A) B) C) D)
24)
A developmental stage comprised of a hollow ball of cells is the A) B) C) D)
25)
blastula. blastocoel. gastrula. neurula.
The internal pouch representing the developing gut in a gastrula is called a(n) _______ A) B) C) D)
26)
radial spiral superficial trophoblastic
blastocoels. pseudocoelom. coelom. archenteron.
In nearly all metazoa, "germ layers" is a term that describes
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A) B) C) D)
the germ cells. foreign cells that enter the embryonic process. mesoderm, ectoderm and endoderm. the germ line, in contrast to the somatic or body cells.
27) During the presentation of your undergraduate research project you spend some extra time describing the role of the special blastomere labeled the 4-d cell. The underclassmen in your audience are excited that they know the function of this cell to be which of the following? A) B) C) D) E)
28)
A primitive streak appears during gastrulation of A) B) C) D)
29)
sea stars and humans. birds and reptiles. nemerteans. only mammals.
"Diploblastic" refers to ________ where _________. A) B) C) D) E)
30)
The 4-d cells gives rise to the endoderm of many protostomes. The 4-d cells gives rise to the endoderm of many deuterostomes. The 4-d cells gives rise to the mesoderm of many protostomes. The 4-d cells gives rise to the mesoderm of many deuterostomes. The 4-d cells gives rise to the ectoderm of many protostomes.
fish and amphibians, cells divide in two synchronously sea stars and humans, development can proceed in two directions birds and reptiles, the egg must be completely nourished within a shell cnidarians and comb jellies, only two germ layers are formed only mammals, advanced neural structures are formed
An enterocoelous animal has
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A) B) C) D)
31)
a true coelom. a pseudocoelom. no coelom. a schizocoelom.
The difference between schizocoelous and enterocoelus organisms is
A) no difference at all; they are two names for the same eucoelomate structure. B) a difference in how the true coelom forms from mesoderm, from the gut or blastopore region. C) the difference between a pseudocoelom and a true coelom. D) a difference between a split two-chambered coelom and an intact or enterocoelom.
32) The conclusion of Spemann's work, in which he tied off a zygote isolating the nucleus on one side and only cytoplasm on the other, helped prove A) B) C) D)
33)
origin of the coelom. nuclear equivalency. cytoplasmic specification. embryonic induction.
Mosaic development in animals
A) is a type in which each of the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells. B) is synonymous with regulative development. C) is a type in which each of the early blastomeres lacks the potential of developing into a complete organism and removing a blastomere eliminates a future body part. D) None of the choices is correct.
34)
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of regulative development in animals?
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A) is a type in which the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells B) is a type in which removing a blastomere causes the remaining blastomeres to "fill in" for the lost cell C) usually occurs in protostomes D) occurs in most (but not all) deuterostomes
35) Neighboring cells influence the development of each other, either by direct contact or by production of chemical signals, in A) B) C) D)
36)
The difference between primary and secondary induction is a difference between A) B) C) D)
37)
"hard-wired" commands and chance development. effects of the dorsal lip organizer and effects of the subsequent cell's induction. nuclear and cytoplasmic determinants. homeotic pattern formation and regular structural gene effects.
In mammals, the organ of exchange between the mother and fetus is the A) B) C) D)
38)
neurulation. induction. maternal determinants. homeotic pattern formation.
amnion. placenta. chorion. yolk sac.
The allantois
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A) B) C) D)
39)
Which is NOT an extraembryonic membrane? A) B) C) D)
40)
amnion placenta yolk sac allantois
The placenta develops from A) B) C) D)
41)
becomes the chorionic villi. lies next to the shell in chicks. is a structure composed of two germ layers. gives rise to umbilical blood vessels in humans.
fetal membranes only. maternal tissue only. both fetal and maternal tissue. polar bodies that develop just the placental tissues.
In land vertebrates, the function of the chorion is to
A) become umbilical cord. B) enclose the entire embryonic system and then fuse to form the chorioallantoic membrane. C) grow from the embryonic hindgut to become a repository for the wastes of metabolism. D) surround the embryo and provide a marine environment for development.
42) the
The sac that surroundsthe mammalianfetus and usually ruptures just before childbirth is
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A) B) C) D) E)
43)
In an amniotic egg, the amnion A) B) C) D)
44)
folding of ectoderm tissue. migration of mesoderm cells. fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm. extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
At which stage do we begin to see development of the mesoderm germ layer? A) B) C) D)
46)
serves as a repository for wastes produced by the developing embryo. serves as a respiratory surface for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. is a fluid-filled sac that protects the embryo from shocks and adhesions. develops into the chorio-allantoic membrane.
The neural tube of vertebrates develops by A) B) C) D)
45)
amnion. placenta. chorion. yolk sac. allantois.
gastrulation neurulation blastulation cleavage
Somites, which form segmental muscles and vertebrae, develop from which germ layer?
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A) B) C) D)
47)
ectoderm endoderm mesoderm myoderm
The nervous system of vertebrates develops from which germ layer? A) B) C) D) E)
epiderm ectoderm endoderm mesoderm Myoderm
48) Evolutionary Developmental Biology (Evo-Devo) is a relatively new field that links the study of evolution to the study of development. Which statement below is best supported by the emerging principles of Evo-Devo? A) The common ancestor to protostomes and deuterostomes likely had rudimentary eyes. This has been determined by studying the genes associated with eye development from these groups and finding a gene that is identical regardless of the species studied. B) The bilaterally symmetrical animals all appear to be similar with only minor changes in the genes that form the nervous system. These changes are responsible for animal diversity through the use of different inductive strategies. C) The dorsoventral patterning genes, studied in various protostome and deuterostome lineages, demonstrate that these groups used convergent evolution to obtain similar developmental processes. D) The rapid evolution of new animal body forms may rely less on numerous, small mutations and more on a few mutations in genes that regulate development.
49) In an effort to teach the derivatives of each germ layer, you have members of your study group pair adult structures, embryonic germ layers, and, where appropriate, genes involved or sequence information. Which group below has provided the most accurate answer?
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A) Adult brain and epithelial tissue are derived from endoderm, which is formed much later than mesoderm. B) Adult lungs, liver, and pancreas are derived from ectoderm, which forms after the mesoderm. C) Adult gut is initially formed by the archenteron, the lining of which becomes ectoderm that forms after mesoderm. D) Adult muscle and bone are derived from mesoderm, which is formed later than ectoderm.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 50) The concept of ________ suggested that preformed animals in the egg unfolded during development.
51) The abnormal entrance of more than one sperm into an egg, normally prevented by the fertilization membrane, is called _______________.
52) The cortical reaction that follows fertilization causes a hardening of the vitelline envelope to produce the _________ _________.
53) Animals having radial cleavage (echinoderms) also show a type of development, called __________ _________, in which separated blastomeres can develop into complete and normal organisms.
54) The major group of the animal kingdom that includes animals that in their development show spiral cleavage and mosaic development is the __________.
55)
A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 56) If yolk is primarily food storage for the developing embryo, why is it so central to understanding cleavage?
57) Throughout the descriptions of the various major animal taxa, the type of cleavage and the origin of the coelom are of foremost importance. Why are such esoteric developmental features central to classification compared to other prominent anatomical and physiological features that are only mentioned for a few major taxa?
58) Contrast mosaic development with regulative development and indicate what animals would use each pattern of differentiation. Is one form of development "better" than another? Why or why not?
59) Discuss the process of cytoplasmic specification and the role of differently pigmented cytoplasms.
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60)
Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
61) Discuss the significance of Spemann's experiment that demonstrated that every blastomere contains sufficient genetic information for the development of a complete animal.
62) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg. Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.
63)
Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.
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64) Discuss the significance of the homeotic and other homeobox-containing genes that are found in one or more clusters on particular chromosomes in Drosophila.
65) Discuss the significance of mutations in homeotic and other homeobox-containing genes in animal evolution.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_18e 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1
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27) C 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) preformation 51) polyspermy 52) fertilization membrane 53) regulative development 54) protostomes 55) mesoderm 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 9 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which statement most closely represents the diversity of animal patterns resulting from the Cambrian time period? A) The Cambrian saw the first animal ancestor; all animal architecture dates back to these fossils. B) About 33 phyla evolved by the end of the Cambrian and there are now perhaps 100 phyla that have radiated from them. C) About 100 phyla evolved by the end of the Cambrian and there are now about 33 surviving animal phyla. D) Through the Cambrian, only non-animal ancestors existed, but after that time nearly 100 phyla evolved.
2)
A blastula develops into which state as the gut cavity develops? A) B) C) D)
It remains in the blastula stage. gastrula acoelomate pseudocoelomate
3) You are viewing an organism under a low power microscope. Even though you are viewing just one cell you notice organization, distinct supportive structures and locomotor devices. Which creature are you likely viewing? A) B) C) D)
4)
a hydra an amoeba an earthworm an insect
Which of the following is an example of tissue-organ grade of organization?
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A) B) C) D)
5)
organ, tissue, cell, organ system, organism cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism organism, tissue, cell, organ system, organ
As an animal increases in size A) B) C) D)
7)
Volvox
Which gives the correct sequence of increasing organizational complexity? A) B) C) D)
6)
a flatworm a jellyfish a colonial protozoan, such as a sponge
body length increases in direct proportion to body volume. body length increases more rapidly than body volume. body length increases more slowly than body volume. None of the choices is correct.
Which of the following represent(s) a consequence of surface-area-to-volume ratio?
A) When both a large and small bird of the same species hit a microwave tower while migrating at night, the small bird is more likely to die from loss of heat before it can recover from the mild trauma B) A cup of tea poured from a large teapot cools off faster than the larger amount of tea left in the teapot C) An amoeba needs no gills or lungs, an amphibian needs some small gills or lungs, but a horse needs substantial lung surface D) All of the choices represent factors directly related to the surface-area-to-volume ratio
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8)
The two major fluid compartments of the metazoan body are A) B) C) D)
the extracellular space and the interstitial space. the extracellular space and the intracellular space. the extracellular space and the intercellular space. None of the choices is correct.
9) Which of the following is NOT a correct association of the supportive material of an organism and its function? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
The study of tissue types and functions is A) B) C) D)
11)
physiology. histology. molecular biology. entomology.
Which type of tissue lines body cavities and covers body surfaces? A) B) C) D)
12)
The cuticle of an insect provides protection. Cartilage of chordates provides stability and protection. Loose connective tissue generally holds the body together. Blood plasma is an important hydrostatic fluid in mammals. Bone provides stability and protection as well as a storage place for minerals
muscle tissue nervous tissue epithelial tissue connective tissue
Epithelial tissue is classified into
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A) B) C) D)
13)
Which tissue includes the epidermis? A) B) C) D)
14)
connective. circulatory. epithelial. muscular.
Which tissue includes bone and cartilage? A) B) C) D)
16)
muscle tissue nervous tissue epithelial tissue connective tissue
Blood is an example of a tissue known as A) B) C) D)
15)
muscle and nervous tissues. loose and tight connective tissues. simple and stratified epithelia. primary and secondary epithelia.
muscle tissue nervous tissue epithelial tissue connective tissue
Which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue?
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A) B) C) D)
17)
line body surfaces and cavities bind and support body parts store energy (e.g., fat) produce blood cells
Which of the following statements about connective tissue is NOT true?
A) Connective tissues contain cells capable of differentiating into muscle and bone in animals that can regenerate these tissues. B) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, different kinds of fibers, and a nonliving matrix. C) Blood is a connective tissue that contains a fluid matrix. D) Collagen is a fat molecule with little tensile strength but great stretching ability.
18)
Which of the following statements is NOT true about cartilage?
A) Collagen in cartilage is otherwise a relatively rare substance in animals. B) Cartilage is a semi-rigid form of connective tissue with packed fibers embedded in a gel-like matrix. C) The matrix of cartilage includes collagen and elastic fibers. D) The skeleton of the human fetus is originally made up of cartilage.
19) Which of the following types of tissue provides movement for and throughout the entire body? A) B) C) D)
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muscle tissue nervous tissue epithelial tissue neuroglia tissue
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20) You are viewing an unknown tissue sample with a light microscope. You note that the unknown sample has multinucleate cells and appears transversely striped. What type of tissue are you viewing? A) B) C) D)
21)
Nervous tissue is made of A) B) C) D)
22)
only neurons. only neuroglia. brain cells and neurons. neurons and neuroglia.
Which tissue receives, interprets, and produces a response to stimuli? A) B) C) D)
23)
Smooth muscle Adipose tissue Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle
muscle tissue nervous tissue epithelial tissue connective tissue
Animals with bilateral symmetry
A) can be divided into similar halves by any plane through the longitudinal axis. B) are usually very slow-moving organisms. C) are relatively simple in structure. D) are better adapted for directed forward movement than radially symmetrical organisms.
24)
Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics of a vertebrate?
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A) B) C) D)
25)
Flatworms have A) B) C) D)
26)
bilateral symmetry. eucoelomate body plan. tube-within-a-tube body plan. All of the choices are correct.
A basketball would represent A) B) C) D)
28) the
radial symmetry. a tube-within-a-tube body plan. aeucoelomate body plan. None of the choices is correct.
Vertebrates have A) B) C) D)
27)
radial symmetry segmentation extreme cephalization coelom
bilateral symmetry. radial symmetry. spherical symmetry. total lack of symmetry since it is not living.
A view of an x-ray looking straight at a person's lung and heart would represent a view of
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A) B) C) D)
sagittal plane. transverse plane. frontal plane. lateral plane.
29) A slice through the head that shows a sideways view of the nasal and throat passages would be on a A) B) C) D)
30)
Your nose would be considered A) B) C) D)
31)
sagittal plane. transverse plane. pectoral plane. frontal plane.
medial, anterior, and dorsal. medial, anterior, and ventral. medial, posterior, and ventral. lateral, anterior, and ventral.
Your fingers would be considered A) B) C) D)
anterior and distal. medial and distal. lateral and distal. posterior and distal.
32) Animals that have one solid mass of tissue rather than tissues and organs nestled inside a body cavity are
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A) B) C) D)
acoelomate. eucoelomate. pseudocoelomate. coelomate.
33) You are studying an animal in the zoology lab and your lab partner is convinced it is a pseudocoelomate. Which of the following findings would support her conclusions? A) B) C) D)
The animal is triploblastic. The animal has organs in a cavity that is incompletely lined with mesoderm. The animal has no organs, just a solid mass of cells in the body cavity. The animal has organs in a cavity that is completely lined with mesoderm.
34) You are studying an animal in the zoology lab and your lab partner is convinced it is a eucoelomate. Which of the following findings would support her conclusions? A) B) C) D)
35)
The animal is diploblastic. The animal has organs in a cavity that is incompletely lined with mesoderm. The animal has no organs, just a solid mass of cells in the body cavity. The animal has organs in a cavity that is completely lined with mesoderm.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having a true coelom?
A) In some animals, sperm and eggs can be stored before they are released. B) The digestive system can be coiled and provide greater surface area. C) Muscle contractions against the fluid chambers are absorbed to dampen their effect. D) In some animals, fluids here can assist respiration and circulation, and accumulate metabolic wastes.
36)
An enterocoelous animal has
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A) B) C) D)
37)
a true coelom. a pseudocoelom. no coelom. a false coelom.
Which of the following is NOT a statement about metamerism?
A) The insect head, which appears today to be just one segment, is thought to have evolved from many segments with the "legs" of those segments becoming the modern insects' mouthparts. B) Millipedes have two pair of legs per segment and centipedes have one pair per segment; some evolutionarily biologists suggest two segments may have become fused to form one with two pair of legs each. C) Leeches appear to have many external segments but internal inspection reveals fewer segments partitioned by full body septa. D) Each time a rattlesnake sheds its skin, it adds another segment to its tail rattle.
38)
Which is NOT a factor in cephalization? A) B) C) D)
39)
improving food procurement by moving the mouth to the region of greatest sensing directed movement through an environment concentration of sensory organs at the point first likely to encounter the environment concentration of the sensory organs to increase sexual copulatory function
Diploblastic organisms lack which germ layer(s)? A) B) C) D)
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endoderm ectoderm mesoderm mesoderm and endoderm
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) The grouping of single cells into definite patterns or layers represents the level of organization called the _______ grade of organization.
41) An animal that possesses an ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm is called _________________.
42) Differentiation of a head end (found mainly in bilaterally symmetrical animals) is called _________.
43)
Similar cells grouped together to perform a common function are called a ____________.
44)
The study of tissues is called ________________.
45) The tissue type composed of fibers and fixed and wandering cells suspended in a fluid matrix is _________ connective tissue.
46) _________________ is a fibrous protein found in connective tissue, and probably the most abundant protein in the animal kingdom.
47) A variety of nonnervous cells that insulate neurons and serve various supportive functions is _________.
48) In animal anatomy, the term that designates the back side of an animal is _____________.
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49) In animal anatomy, distal parts are farther from the middle of the body than are __________ parts.
50)
A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
51) The chest region, or the region of the body supported by the front legs, is called ___________.
52)
The type of body cavity that represents a persistent blastocoel is the _____________.
53) The eucoelomate bilateria are those animals that possess a true ___________ or body cavity lined with mesodermal peritoneum.
54) Serial repetition of similar body segments along the longitudinal axis of the body is called ___________.
55) True metamerism (segmentation) is found only in Annelida, Arthropoda, and _____________.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_18e 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) C 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) tissue 41) triploblastic 42) cephalization 43) tissue 44) histology 45) loose 46) Collagen 47) neuroglia 48) dorsal 49) proximal 50) sagittal 51) pectoral 52) pseudocoelom 53) coelom 54) metamerism 55) chordata
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CHAPTER 10 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) As an undergraduate you take summer field course in Advanced Zoology. Part of the course involves species identification from a local stream. After struggling to identify a creature from the stream, you conclude it to be a new representative of the taxa deuterostomia. In writing up your research results for the course, which statements given below would support your interpretation of your findings? Select all that apply. A) During embryonic development, the blastopore becomes the anus and the creature lacks a lophophore and/or a trochophore at all times during its development. B) During embryonic development, the blastopore becomes the mouth and the creature demonstrates a lophophore during its development. C) During embryonic development, the blastopore becomes the mouth and the creature demonstrates the presence of a trochophore during its development. D) During embryonic development, the blastopore becomes the anus and the creature lacks a lophophore and/or molting at all times during its development.
2)
Which of the following pairings is correct? Select all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)
Protostomia and Deuterostomia are both Bilaterians. Protostomia includes thePlacozoa, Porifera, Cnidaria, and Ctenophora. Deuterostomia includes thePlacozoa, Porifera, Cnidaria, and Ctenophora. Deuterostomiaincludes the Chordata, Echinodermata, and Hemichordata phyla. Protostomiaincludes the Chordata, Echinodermata, and Hemichordata phyla.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Which is NOT a major goal of systematic zoology?
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A) B) C) D)
4)
A phylogeny based on evolutionary theory will A) B) C) D)
5)
to discover and describe all species of animals to group animals based on their destructiveness or usefulness to human activity to construct the evolutionary relationships among animals to communicate relationships by constructing informative taxonomic systems
explain variations among fossils from rock strata. explain similarities and differences among modern living groups. reflect patterns of shared and unique sections of DNA among groups of animals. All of the choices are correct.
Who developed the present system of classification? A) B) C) D)
Aristotle John Ray Carolus Linnaeus Charles Darwin
6) Which of the following correctly lists the ranks for living creatures, from largest and most inclusive to smallest and least inclusive? A) B) C) D)
domain-kingdom-phylum-order-class-family-genus-species domain-kingdom-phylum-order-family-class-genus-species domain-kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species domain-kingdom-division-order-class-family-genus-species
7) According to the binomial system of nomenclature, the "aegypti" in Aedes aegypti refers to the _____.
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A) B) C) D)
8)
The scientific name of the copperhead is Agkistrodon contortrix. Therefore, A) B) C) D)
9)
species name genus family specific epithet
it belongs to the genus Agkistrodon. it belongs to the species Agkistrodon. it is species Agkistrodon, subspecies contortrix. None of the choices is correct.
The table represents a:
Domain
Eukarya
Kingdom
Animalia
Phylum
Chordata
Class
Amphibia
Order
Anura
Family
Ranidae
Genus
Rana
Species
sphenocephala
A) B) C) D) belongs. E)
classification of the frog Rana sphenocephala. phylogenetic tree of Rana sphenocephala. cladogram of Rana sphenocephala. hierarchical list of the taxonomic ranks and taxa to which listing of the scientific names of
Rana
Rana
sphenocephala
sphenocephala.
10) What is character similarity that results from common embryology, and therefore ancestry, called?
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A) B) C) D)
11)
Homoplasy involves
A) B) that trait. C) D)
12)
analogy taxonomy homology phylogeny
any two organisms with exactly the same trait. two organisms sharing the same trait because they have a common ancestor with two or more lineages having what appears to be the same trait. possession of homologous structures.
_______ character states are present in the common ancestor and all members of a group. A) B) C) D)
Ancestral Analogous Derived Synapomorphous
13) Zoologists used to refer to animals as "simple" and "advanced." Now it is more scientifically accurate to use A) "simple" and "complex," since it is the complexity that evolved. B) "allopatric" and "sympatric," since the reproductive isolation of the species is most important. C) "evolved" and "un-evolved," since everything ties together with evolution. D) "ancestral" and "derived," since some early forms became very complex and some highly evolved forms are derived from them but lost complex characters and secondarily became more "simple".
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14) One way of establishing whether a character of an extant species is ancestral or derived is to locate a/an ______ and if the character occurs in both, it is likely ________. A) B) C) D)
15)
Which of the following terms is NOT correctly associated? A) B) C) D)
16)
It is a branching diagram. It depicts the nested hierarchy of clades within clades. Its structure denotes only real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past. A cladogram may be congruent with that of a corresponding phylogenetic tree.
Characters used to distinguish one group from another can be A) B) C) D)
18) that
synapomorphy—a derived character shared by members of a clade monophyly—one group formed from animals with two separate ancestors adaptive zone—a way of life cladogram—a nested hierarchy of clades represented as a branching diagram
Which of the following is NOT true of a cladogram? A) B) C) D)
17)
fossil, ancestral fossil, derived sister species, derived outgroup, ancestral
morphological or structural features. chromosomal or genetic. molecular and cellular structures. Any or all of these choices are correct.
The ability to use biochemical data to form phylogenetic trees is based on the assumption
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A) B) C) D)
19)
all life uses the same sequences of DNA. there are no mutations in DNA. amino acids are unrelated to evolution. protein and DNA sequences undergo similar rates of divergence through time.
A taxon is paraphyletic if it
A) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants. B) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some, but not all, of its descendants. C) does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group. D) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
20)
A taxon ismonophyletic if it
A) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants. B) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some, but not all, of its descendants. C) does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group. D) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
21)
A taxon is polyphyletic if it
A) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants. B) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some, but not all, of its descendants. C) does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group. D) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
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22)
What is a taxon that comprises a distinct adaptive zone? A) B) C) D)
an ancestral descendant a derived descendent a clade a grade
23) The dispute between evolutionary taxonomy and cladistics can be described as a difference between A) B) C) D)
use of morphology and use of biomolecular data. acceptance or rejection of paraphyletic groups. acceptance or rejection of monophyletic groups. acceptance or rejection of polyphyletic groups.
24) To a cladist, the statement that birds (a monophyletic group) evolved from reptiles (a paraphyletic group) constitutes which of the following? A) a meaningful statement of the evolutionary advancement of the birds over the reptiles B) a meaningful statement that birds represent a different, but not necessarily more advanced adaptive zone than reptiles C) a trivial statement that birds evolved from something that they are not D) an incorrect statement because ancestral groups must be extinct but reptiles are still alive
25) Two different monophyletic taxa are termed _____ if they share common ancestry with each other more recently than either one does with another taxa.
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A) B) C) D)
outgroups sister groups sibling species paraphyletic
26) Which of the following is NOT an important criterion for species recognition among the many definitions? A) B) C) D)
common descent smallest distinct grouping of organisms reproductive community possession of distinct morphological differences
27) Museum type specimens are kept as "name bearers" for comparison when potentially new species are discovered. However, the original use of type specimens reflected a sense of the "ideal" or "perfect" specimen as seen in the ______ species concept. A) B) C) D)
typological biological evolutionary phylogenetic
28) In the scientific name " Didelphis marsupialis Linnaeus, 1758," the section "Linnaeus, 1758" indicates that the specimen was A) B) C) D)
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named after Linnaeus who was born in 1758. named by Linnaeus who was born in 1758. named by Linnaeus and the description was published in 1758. named by Linnaeus and based on a specimen collected in 1758.
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29) The biological species concept by Theodosius Dobzhansky and Ernst Mayr defines a species in the textbook as a group of interbreeding natural populations reproductively isolated from other such groups and occupying a specific niche. Such a definition cannot be used for A) fossils. B) asexual organisms. C) determining species based on dead or preserved specimens. D) organisms that cannot be raised in captivity, easily bred, or with very long generation times. E) All of the choices pose problems for the biological species concept.
30) An entomologist discovered that two morphologically identical crickets sang completely different mating songs and this resulted in the two populations never mating. Thus they were A) B) C) D)
sister groups. sibling species. paraphyletic. polyphyletic.
31) Which of the following concepts of species is most compatible with the goals of cladistic systematics? A) B) C) D)
32)
typological biological evolutionary phenetic
Which is NOT one of the inherent conflicting features of the biological species concept?
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A) A species is both a taxonomic rank and a unit of evolution. B) The functional definition centers on a sexual ability to interbreed but many species are asexual. C) A species can be defined with boundaries among present organisms, or within a changing lineage over time. D) Some scientists disagree over the name of a species.
33)
A species of fern that was only found on one small island would be defined as A) B) C) D)
an outgroup. cosmopolitan. speciating. endemic to the island.
34) The time, usually on a larger or geological time scale, that a species exists before it becomes another species or goes extinct is its A) B) C) D)
adaptive zone. reproductive cohesion. geographic range. evolutionary duration.
35) G.G. Simpson provided a definition of an evolutionary species as "a single lineage of ancestor-descendant populations that maintains its identity from other such lineages and that has its own evolutionary tendencies and historical fate." How does this compare with the biological species concept of Mayr? A) Only Mayr's definition is easily testable for most organisms. B) Only Simpson's definitionis easily testable for living organisms. C) Mayr's definition is limited to sexually reproducing organisms whereas Simpson's theoretically covers all life. D) They are in complete disagreement.
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36) Which kingdom in Whittaker's five-kingdom system must be discontinued and broken up to be compatible with cladistic systematics? A) B) C) D)
plantae fungi animalia protista
37) What biochemical trait varies but is present throughout all of life, allowing the construction of an estimate of phylogeny? A) B) C) D)
DNA in the nucleus DNA in mitochondria messenger RNA ribosomal RNA
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 38) If a taxon includes the most recent common ancestor of a group of organisms and all of the descendants of that ancestor, it is termed ______.
39) If two different taxa share common ancestry with each other more recently than either one does with any other organisms, we call them _______ ______.
40)
A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
41) A branching diagram representing a nested hierarchical pattern of clades is called a(n) ________.
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42) A branching diagram whose branches represent real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past is called a(n) _________ _________.
43) "A characteristic reaction and mutual relationship between environment and organism, a way of life and not a place where life is led" is the classical description of a(n) ___________ _________.
44) Species that have very restricted geographic distributions are called ____________________.
45) "A single lineage of ancestor-descendant populations that maintains its identity from other such lineages and which has its own evolutionary tendencies and historical fate" describes the _________ _________ _________.
46) "An irreducible (basal) grouping of organisms, diagnosably distinct from other such groupings, and within which there is a parental pattern of ancestry and descent" describes the ________ ________ _______.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 47) Discern what classification and systematization of species means to a taxonomist.
48)
Describe the DNA barcoding of species and why it is a useful tool for scientists?
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49) If biology moved to a three domain system and attempted to incorporate the fivekingdom system, which kingdom in the current five-kingdom system would have to be split to become monophyletic, and why?
50) Is it possible that systematists are arguing over definitions that cannot possibly reconcile the state of biological reality? Is it possible that there cannot be a single definition of a species simply because there are so many variables that must go into an encompassing definition? Wouldn't it be better to admit to the reality and adjust the reasoning to fit the reality rather than search for the "perfect" definition?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_18e 1) [A, D] 2) [A, D] 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) D Version 1
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27) A 28) C 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) monophyletic 39) sister groups 40) synapomorphy 41) cladogram 42) phylogenetic tree 43) adaptive zone 44) endemic 45) evolutionary species concept 46) phylogenetic species concept 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 11 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which is NOT a correct description of a member of a protozoan group? A) B) C) D) E)
2)
The most correct usage of the term "protozoa" is as a(n) A) B) C) D) E)
3)
Usually motile Development involves an embryonic stage Mostly microscopic Usually unicellular; if multicellular, without somatic differentiation All of the choices are correct
phylum. class. separate kingdom. synonym for Protista. informal cluster of groups with complicated and uncertain phyletic relationships.
Nutrition in unicellular eukaryotes is best described as A) B) C) D) E)
autotrophic. heterotrophic. saprozoic. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
4) Which of the following is/are correct descriptions of unicellular eukaryote characteristics?
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A) B) C) D) E)
As primitive organisms, they are restricted to asexual reproduction. No germ layers are ever formed. They are all aquatic. When found in other organisms, they are typically parasitic or pathogenic. They all lack symmetry.
5) You are viewing an unfamiliar protozoan through the microscope and notice that the nucleus has chromatin that is clumped, leaving clear areas within the nucleus, the appearance is described as A) B) C) D) E)
pellicular. vesicular. micronuclear. kinetosomic. spicular.
6) Which organelle was once an independent aerobic prokaryote engulfed by an anaerobic prokaryote? A) B) C) D) E)
nucleus mitochondrion plastid ribosome endoplasmic reticulum
7) In your study group session you are asked to compare protozoan organelles with those found in multicellular eukaryotes. You create a side by side comparison table on the board and begin filling it in. When you consider the protozoan dictyosomewhat is the similar structure found in multicellulareukaryotes what you would write in the table?
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A) B) C) D) E)
8)
ribosome mitochondrium endoplasmic reticulum golgi apparatus plastid
Ectoplasm
A) provides the vital force of life. B) is cytoplasm that is outside the cell membrane of protozoans. C) is only found in parasitic amebas. D) is only found in spores of parasitic protozoans. E) contrasts with endoplasm; both ectoplasm and endoplasm are cytoplasmic components.
9) You are setting up a practice quiz for your room-mate. When writing a question about unicellular eukaryotesand movement types you think that you might have made one mistake. Which of the following is NOT correctly linked to the type of movement structure it possesses? A) B) C) D) E)
Amoeboids-pseudopodia Ciliates-cilia Dinoflagellates-flagella Paramecium-flexibility of the pellicle Apicomplexa-reticulopodia
10) When working with a student who has missed class do to an illness you explain how different structures are linked tothe type of movement or podial function? As you review their notes with them you catch an error. Which of the following is not correctly linked?
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A) B) C) D) E)
11)
What are long, thin pseudopodia supported by axial rods of microtubules called? A) B) C) D) E)
12)
lobopodia filopodia axopodia reticulopodia actinopodia
Which of the following represents the arrangement of microtubules in axonemes of cilia? A) B) C) D) E)
13)
Axoneme-actin-binding protein that keeps ectoplasm from gelling Axopodia-thin rods of microtubules Lobopodia-flow of both endoplasm and ectoplasm Filopodia-thin extensions of only ectoplasm Reticulopodia-a thin net-like mesh
nine peripheral triplets of microtubules nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus one central pair nine peripheral triplets of microtubules plus one central pair nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus two central pairs three peripheral pairs of microtubules and no central pairs
What is found at the base of every flagellum or cilium? A) B) C) D) E)
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a kinetosome a kinetid an axopod a kinetoplast a lobopod
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14) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of how the cytoplasm moves in pseudopodia? A) Actin filaments become cross-linked by an actin-binding protein forming a semisolid gel-like state called ectoplasm. B) The nucleus codes for each movement using DNA and protein formation. C) Interaction with lipids in the cell membrane releases actin subunits and allows them to polymerize into actin microfilaments. D) Near the edge of the gel, calcium ions activate an actin-binding protein that releases the actin filaments from the gel. E) Myosin pulling on the edge of the gel causes contraction that forces endoplasm toward the hyaline cap.
15)
What is the function of the contractile vacuole in protozoa? A) B) C) D) E)
16)
water balance digestion locomotion excretion of nitrogen wastes respiration
The most likely mechanism for removing excess water by contractile vacuoles is A) B) C) D) E)
simple osmosis of water across the cell membrane. differential fluid pressure. reverse osmosis. a proton pump that also pulls water into the vacuole. an ampulla that forms suction.
17) The distinction between phagotrophs (or holozoic feeders) and osmotrophs (or saprozoic feeders) is a difference between
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A) eating living and eating dead organic material. B) diffusion of food across the membrane versus engulfing food in a vacuole. C) ingesting visible particles or organisms versus ingesting dissolved substances, sometimes from dead organisms. D) producing your own food versus using the chemical bonds in food molecules made by others. E) direct transport versus indirect transport of food molecules.
18) What is the name of the mouth structure found at the end of the oral groove in a Paramecium ciliate? A) B) C) D) E)
phagosome lysosome cytostome cytoproct paramylon body
19) What is the specific structure in ciliates that serves as the site of expulsion for wastes called? A) B) C) D) E)
20)
phagosome lysosome cytostome cytoproct paramylon body
Protist reproduction
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A) B) C) D) E)
21)
is always asexual and usually binary fission. is always sexual with the adults being haploid. is always sexual with the adults being diploid. is always sexual with alternation of haploid and diploid generations. may be asexual or any of the above sexual cycles.
Most of the time, although they usually have other options, protozoans reproduce by A) B) C) D) E)
conjugation. asexual cell division. fusion of gametes. parthenogenesis. autogamy.
22) When a protozoan alternates between haploid and diploid generations, as occurs in most plants, it is called A) B) C) D) E)
zygotic meiosis. gametic meiosis. intermediary meiosis. mitotic meiosis. parthenogenesis.
23) Usually we expect fission to produce two cells from one, but in Sporozoea and some Sarcodina, multiple fission of the nucleus is followed by rapid division of cytoplasm, releasing many new individuals immediately in a process called A) B) C) D) E)
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amitosis. budding. syngamy. autogamy. sporogony.
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24) While viewing the macronucleus of a ciliate through a microscope you note that it elongates, constricts and divides but does not appear to pass through themitotic stages. How would you describe this? A) B) C) D) E)
amitosis. budding. syngamy. autogamy. sporogony.
25) When the haploid cells or pronuclei are borne in equal-sized cells that look alike, they are called A) B) C) D) E)
26)
anisogametes. syngametes. autogametes. unigametes. isogametes.
Haploid cells that are unequal in size, such as sperm and egg, are called A) B) C) D) E)
anisogametes. syngametes. autogametes. unigametes. isogametes.
27) The strange case of organisms that undergo meiosis after fertilization and live out their adult life in the haploid state is a case of
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A) B) C) D) E)
syngamy. zygotic meiosis. gametic meiosis. autogamy. conjugation.
28) You are completing the final portionof your undergraduate research project, a talk to the underclassmen describing your work. In your project you studied a reproductive strategy used by some protozoans wherein theorganismsundergo meiosis to produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote internally. What has been the reproductive strategy considered during your research project? A) B) C) D) E)
syngamy. zygotic meiosis. gametic meiosis. autogamy. conjugation.
29) Some organisms undergo meiosis to produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote internally without leaving the organism. What is the effect of this process on genetic diversity of the offspring? A) The offspring would be identical clones of the parent. B) The offspring could vary from the parent but there would be less genetic variation because this is inbreeding. C) The offspring would vary from the parent because it would produce different recombinations of each chromosome pair. D) The offspring would become more and more genetically diverse each generation. E) None of the choices is correct.
30)
What happens during conjugation in most ciliates?
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A) B) C) D)
31)
Protective cysts are triggered by A) B) C) D) E)
32)
Haploid micronuclei are exchanged. Macronuclei are formed. Binary fission occurs. The micronuclei disappear.
food shortages. drying out. decreased oxygen. merely being the next stage in a regular life cycle. all of the choices are correct.
Cilia or flagella are resorbed and the Golgi apparatus secretes wall material during A) B) C) D) E)
formation of a contractile vacuole. intermediary meiosis. conjugation. pseudopod streaming. encystment.
33) One of your study partners is completing the final portionof theirundergraduate research project, a talk to the underclassmen describing theirwork. Your study partnerasks youto listen to a practice talk where they describe their studies on the origin of multicellularityfrom unicellular organisms. What type of creature did they likely study? A) B) C) D) E)
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microsporidians choanoflagellates opalinids retortamonads kinetoplastans
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34) During a review session your instructor asks you to match creature types to characteristics provided. When she provides a protozoan with both plant-like photosynthesis and animal-like motility she is likely describing which of the following? A) B) C) D) E)
35)
"Red tides" are caused by massive blooms of A) B) C) D) E)
36)
sporozoan. dinoflagellate. euglenoid. zooflagellate. ciliate.
sporozoans. dinoflagellates. Euglena. ciliates. Plasmodia.
Members of Euglena have starch-like food storage material in the form of A) B) C) D) E)
stigmata. chloroplasts. paramylon granules. flagellar granules. kinetosomes.
37) The early development of a globular colony (with flagella inward) that then turns insideout (with flagella outward) is
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A) called an undulating membrane and is common among ciliates. B) a pseudoplasmodium and only found in protozoans. C) called inversion, and it is very common in early development in many animal groups. D) called inversion, and it is very rare among animals, only occurring in colonial flagellates and sponges. E) called reverse gastrulation and it is very rare among animals.
38)
To what extent are the cells of a colonial Volvox specialized?
A) The cells of Volvox are not specialized at all; all are equivalent in function and to be otherwise would make them like those of the metazoa. B) Somatic cells function in nutrition and locomotion while a few "germ" cells carry out reproduction. C) Germ cells specialize in locomotion, others in nutrition, and others in reproduction. D) Volvox is like two organisms living together symbiotically: one set of cells handles nutrition and locomotion and reproduce their type; another type of cell handles sexual reproduction and reproduce their type. E) A Volvox cell alternates between first being somatic, then being reproductive.
39)
Protozoans in the genus Trypanosoma cause A) B) C) D) E)
40)
malaria in both humans and birds. amebic dysentery and intestinal ailments. African sleeping sickness and Chagas disease. birth defects if infecting a woman at the appropriate stage of pregnancy. Toxoplasmosis, often contracted from cats.
Chagas disease in the Americas is carried by
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A) B) C) D) E)
41)
Giardia lamblia causes A) B) C) D) E)
42)
malaria in both humans and birds; is carried by mosquitoes. dysentery and intestinal ailments; is found in contaminated water. African sleeping sickness; is carried by the tsetse fly. birth defects; is caused by mosquitos. Toxoplasmosis; contracted from cats.
Which is an example of a Ciliophoran protozoa? A) B) C) D) E)
43)
mosquitoes. contaminated water supplies. contact with cats and cat feces. triatomine "kissing" bugs. sexual contact.
Amoeba Trypanosoma Paramecium Plasmodium Giardia
Which describes the mode of action of the causative agent of amebic dysentery?
A) It invades the liver and destroys its function, thus altering the digestive system. B) It ruptures large numbers of red blood cells and the increased fluids are lost across the intestine. C) It invades the intestinal lining and secretes enzymes that cause loss of fluid; it can also cause abscesses on the liver and other organs. D) It invades the brain and destroys the control center that regulates intestinal movement of food. E) All of the choices are correct.
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44)
Chalky fossils that formed the White Cliffs of Dover were produced by A) B) C) D) E)
45)
The great pyramids of Egypt are made from stone formed from fossil A) B) C) D) E)
46)
radiolarians. foraminiferans. ciliates. diatoms (as diatomaceous earth). dinoflagellates.
radiolarians. foraminiferans. heliozoans. snails. endoparasitic amoeboids of insects.
Which is amember of the apicomplexan group of protists? A) B) C) D) E)
Amoeba proteus Plasmodium vivax Chlamydomonas Trypanosoma Paramecium
47) Perhaps half of the U.S. population is infected with this organism that normally resides in tissue cysts containing bradyozoites; embryos of pregnant women are also at risk.
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A) B) C) D) E)
Amoeba proteus Plasmodium vivax Toxoplasma gondii Trypanosoma cruzi Entamoeba histolytica
48) Which protozoan group has a complicated parasitic life cycle that nearly always involves the production of infective spores? A) B) C) D) E)
49)
The chills and fever of malaria are correlated with A) B) C) D) E)
50)
Apicomplexans Zooflagellates Sarcodines Rhizopods Ciliates
cycles of schizogony in the liver cells. release of sporozoites from the oocysts. escape of populations of merozoites from red blood cells. the formation of gametocytes. entrance of trophozoites into red blood cells.
The various species of Plasmodium vary in A) B) C) D) E)
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their incubation period. the intensity of their physical symptoms. the number of times they initiate schizogony in liver cells. mortality, or risk of death, to the human host. All of the choices are variables in Plasmodium.
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51) Mosquitoes that transmit malaria pick up what stage(s) when feeding on the blood of a patient ill with malaria? A) B) C) D) E)
52)
microgametocytes and macrogametocytes that mature into gametes in the insect host sporozoites from the oocysts merozoites that escape from the red blood cells hemozoin stored in red blood cells trophozoites in red blood cells
How does the mosquito transmit malaria from an ill person to a healthy person? A) Plasmodium is taken up from one person's blood and squirted back out into the next
person. B) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood and cross into the saliva duct to be reinjected into the next person. C) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood, fuse to form a zygote that becomes a motile ookinete that enters the saliva ducts. D) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood, fuse to form a zygote that becomes a motile ookinete, that crosses the stomach wall, forms an oocyst that undergoes sporogony and the sporozoites then migrate to the saliva ducts to be injected into the human host. E) Plasmodium gametocytes are sucked from one person's blood, form an oocyst that undergoes sporogony and the sporozoites migrate across the stomach lining to the saliva ducts.
53)
The ciliate group of protists would include A) B) C) D) E)
54)
Amoeba proteus. Plasmodium vivax. Toxoplasma gondii. Entamoeba histolytica. Paramecium caudatum.
Most ciliophoran protozoa
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A) B) C) D) E)
possess flagella. possess a cytostome. are marine. are parasitic. have cyst stages for surviving harsh conditions.
55) What are the functions of the macronucleus and one or more small micronuclei in Paramecium? A) The macronucleus undergoes meiosis to produce haploid micronuclei that are exchanged in conjugation; this then produces a micronucleus for general cell housekeeping. B) The micronucleus undergoes meiosis to produce haploid micronuclei that are exchanged in conjugation; the macronucleus is responsible for the "day-to-day" functions of the cell. C) Diploid micronuclei control the cell and the haploid macronuclei are exchanged in conjugation for reproduction. D) A micronucleus is always (1n) for conjugative reproduction, the macronucleus functions for general cell coding, and the two are otherwise unrelated. E) None of the choices is correct.
56)
Which of the following is NOT a "ciliate?" A) B) C) D) E)
Paramecium Stentor Vorticella Trichodina All of the choices are classified as ciliates.
57) A Paramecium "knows" when it has encountered a noxious substance and backs off to veer away. As a one-celled organism, how does it "know" to do this?
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A) The macronucleus has DNA coding that determines this reaction. B) The micronucleus is dedicated to controlling just such responses. C) This cell is essentially a small neuron, or nerve cell. D) This is a rather simple stimulus that changes the electrical potential difference across the cell membrane and depolarization of the membrane results in cilia reversing their direction of beating. E) None of the choices is correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 58) Osmoregulation in some protozoa is carried out chiefly by a structure called a/an __________ ___________.
59) After phagocytosis, a food particle is held in a food vacuole also called a/an _____________________.
60) Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called ___________.
61) The structure in a Euglena that functions to orient it to light is the _______________________ or eyespot.
62) Foraminiferans are protozoans that form complex, many-chambered tests composed of _____________.
63) Amebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan species with the scientific name __________ ___________.
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64) The protozoan group that contains only endoparasitic forms is the ____________________.
65) A sporozoan parasite of cats that can cause birth defects in humans is called _________ ________.
66) Small spined extrusomes in ciliate protozoa that are discharged apparently to aid in the capture of prey or to serve as a defensive mechanism are called ______________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 67) If you grow Euglena in a jar, and mask off all but a slit of light, they soon congregate at the slit. If you completely cover the jar and prevent exposure to light, they convert to heterotrophy. How are these organisms and these traits problematic for systematists?
68) Generally, the human body creates antibodies in response to foreign substances that invade our blood or interstitial spaces. How can the malaria organism continue to survive in the human host to cause chills and fevers for years; that is, why do we not build up an immunity in a week or so?
69) Explain the scientific reasoning behind the reorganization of the "Protozoa." Why is this important?
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70) Discuss the significance of members of the order Trichomonadida, which possess hydrogenosomes (organelles analogous to mitochondria but which produce molecular hydrogen when oxygen is absent).
71) Discuss the molecular evidence that has allowed protozoologists to completely revise our concepts of unicellular eukaryote phylogeny.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_18e 1) B 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) E 9) E 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) E 21) B 22) C 23) E 24) A 25) E 26) A Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) E 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) D 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) E Version 1
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57) D 58) contractile vacuole 59) Phagosome 60) autogamy 61) stigma 62) calcium 63) Entamoeba histolytica 64) Apicomplexa 65) Toxoplasma gondii 66) trichocysts 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary. 71) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 12 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What would occur if choanocytes were no longer able to function within a sponge? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D)
Ova may not form. Sperm may not form. Water flow would cease. Collagen would not be produced.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which one of the following statements regarding the origin of metazoans has the most support? A) The choanoflagellates share features with the sponges, like having collars of microvilli surrounding a flagellum and being colonial. These shared features suggest a link to at least one metazoan lineage. B) Metazoans are derived from many separate lineages of unicellular organisms. C) Ancient metazoans, similar to members of the phylum Placozoa, have been ruled out as ancestral metazoans. D) Modern sponges have a genetic makeup that reflects their ancestral status.
3)
Which statement about adult sponges is false? A) B) C) D)
4)
Their bodies are aggregations of one cell type. They do not have a mouth. Their bodies areusually asymmetrical. Their apparently simple structure is deceptive.
The sponges date back to
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A) B) C) D) hard parts.
5)
The order in which a drop of ink would pass by the structures in an asconoid sponge is A) B) C) D) E)
6)
the Devonian period or "age of fishes." the early time of anaerobic prokaryotes. the Cambrian period and probably earlier. the time of the first prokaryotes but the sponges left no fossil evidence for lack of
spongocoel-ostia-osculum. osculum-spongocoel-ostia. osculum-ostia-spongocoel. ostia-spongocoel-osculum. ostia-osculum-spongocoel.
The simplest canal system is found in the A) asconoids. B) leuconoids. C) syconoids.
7)
The most complex and the most common body form of sponges is found in the A) asconoids. B) leuconoids. C) syconoids.
8) Flagellated canals of syconoid sponges form by evagination of the body wall. These sponges often develop through a simple vase-like stage. Which of the following is a logical hypothesis based on this evidence?
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A) B) C) D) E)
9)
Asconoid sponges were derived from syconoid ancestors. Leuconoid sponges were derived from syconoid ancestors. Syconoid sponges were derived from leuconoid ancestors. Syconoid sponges were derived from asconoid ancestors. Leuconoid sponges were derived from asconoid ancestors.
The extracellular matrix found in sponges is A) B) C) D)
spongin. collagen. pinacoderm. mesohyl or mesenchyme.
10) Calcareous or siliceous elements of the sponge body wall provide support. These elements are called A) B) C) D) E)
amoebocytes. pinacocytes. choanocytes. spicules. spongin.
11) The outer thin, flat, epithelial-like cells that cover the outside and some inside surfaces of sponges, are A) B) C) D) E)
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amoebocytes. pinacocytes. choanocytes. spicules. spongin.
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12) The modified cells of sponges that form circular bands and provide just a little constriction to control water flow are A) B) C) D)
13)
amoebocytes. choanocytes. spicules. myocytes.
A sponge feeds by
A) using a net to trap food particles. B) squeezing the spongocoel cavity to suck debris in and out through the osculum. C) beating the flagella of collar cells to form a current to bring food in, followed by absorption of the food by collar cells. D) beating the flagella of collar cells to form a current that runs from from the osculum to the pores, followed by the ingestion of food by amoebocytes in the central cavity of the sponge.
14)
Specialized archaeocytes that secrete spicules are A) B) C) D) E)
15)
collencytes. sclerocytes. choanocytes. spongocytes. lophocytes.
Specialized archaeocytes that secrete spongin are
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A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Specialized archaeocytes that secrete large quantities of collagen are A) B) C) D) E)
17)
elastin. collagen. gorgonin. spiculin. None of the choices is correct
Cells responsible for water flow and capture of some particles are the A) B) C) D) E)
19)
collencytes. sclerocytes. choanocytes. spongocytes. lophocytes.
The structural protein found in all sponges is A) B) C) D) E)
18)
collencytes. sclerocytes. choanocytes. spongocytes. lophocytes.
myocytes. archaeocytes. choanocytes. pinacocytes. lophocytes.
Which is NOT a trait of sponges?
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
If a sponge is fragmented and cells are dissociated from one another, the cells will
A) B) C) D) sponge.
21)
They are sessile filter feeders. Their body wall has two incipient "cell layers". Their flagellated collar cells move water. Water enters through the osculum. Amoeboid cells digest food and make skeletal fibers and gametes.
reproduce sexually. die from being separated. form spicules in the pattern of the cloth. reorganize their structure and function, and clumps of isolated cells will form a new
Which of the following statements about sponges is NOT correct?
A) Larvae are ciliated and swim to new locations. B) Sponges are classified by spicule type and material. C) Sponges comprise a sister group to all other animals. D) Sponges share few characteristics with other animals. E) Sponge cells can transform from one cell type to another, a trait not seen in other kinds of animals.
22)
Which of the following is NOT found in at least some sponges? A) B) C) D)
23)
Spicules of calcium carbonate Spicules of silica Spicules of fibrous protein Spongin, a fibrous protein
Which of the following statements about sponges is NOT correct?
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A) Sponges lack nerve fibers. B) Sponges lack fully developed muscle fibers. C) Ameboid cells capture food particles from the water. D) Sponges reproduce asexually by budding or by regeneration from a small piece. E) If a sponge is fragmented and cells dissociate, cells undergo somatic embryogenesis and clumps of cells can form a new organism.
24)
In most sponges, the free-swimming larva produced by sexual reproduction is called a(n) A) B) C) D) E)
25)
bud. gemmule. apopyle. parenchymula. plasmodium.
Reproduction in at least some sponges is A) B) C) D) E)
asexual by budding. asexual by gemmules. sexual with both male and female sex cells in one individual. asexual by fragmentation. All of the choices are correct
26) The unique feature of sponge development in members of the class Calcarea is the amphiblastula which A) B) C) D) E)
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produces new buds. generates gemmules. determines the types of spicules produced. turns inside out during its development. controls the process of regeneration.
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27)
In glass sponges, archaeocytes fuse their pseudopodia to form a A) B) C) D) E)
28)
The demosponges A) B) C) D) E)
29)
constitute only a small number of species. are mostly marine but include the freshwater sponges. have the asconoid-type canal system. are referred to as calcium or chalk sponges. form the most beautiful glass spicule patterns.
The largest impact that the loss of sponges would have on the environment would be A) B) C) D) E)
30)
bud. spongin network. micropyle. leuconoid framework. trabecular reticulum.
collapse of most food chains. extinctions of other species that are symbionts of sponges. alteration of ocean currents. alteration of gases in water and the atmosphere. loss of filtration.
Why are bath sponges so soft? A) B) C) D) E)
Silica is washed away, but the calcium carbonate remains in the sponge. Spongin spicules are washed away, but the silky silica remains in the sponge. The choanocytes and amoebocytes are soft, so the body of the sponge is soft. Bath sponge support is provided primarily by spongin proteins, which are soft. All of the choices are correct.
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31)
Placozoans A) B) C) D)
32)
are flat, plate-like animals with no symmetry. are probably advanced mesozoans. have calcareous spicules. have three germ layers.
Placozoans feed by A) B) C) D)
sharing food produced by symbiotic algae in their diffuse tissues. gliding over their food, secreting enzymes, and absorbing products. filtering food that moves through them in tiny pores. taking food in through a ventral tube, digesting it, and expelling wastes back out the
E)
taking food in through a central tube, digesting it, and moving wastes out the anus.
tube.
33) As a manager of the specimen collection at a natural history museum, you are charged with identifying new specimens that are donated. You are presented with a sponge of unknown origin. When you examine it, you find siliceous spicules. To which class or classes might this sponge belong? A) B) C) D)
Calcispongiae Demospongiae Hexactinellida The only class that could be ruled out is class Calcarea.
34) If you observe an unknown sponge and find that its spongocoel is lined with choanocytes, it must belong to the class __________.
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A) B) C) D)
35)
Calcispongiae Demospongiae Hexactinellida Homoscleromorpha
What would be the effect if the archaeocytes of a sponge were no longer able to function? A) B) C) D)
Digestion would cease. Reproduction would cease. Skeletal support would weaken over time. Water flow into the sponge would not occur.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36) Out of all metazoans, members of the phylum __________________ have the smallest nuclear genome but the largest mitochondrial genome.
37) The tough protein fibers sometimes found in sponge skeletons are of a substance called _____________.
38)
The water outlet in sponges is known as a/an __________________.
39) The flagellated cells embedded in the mesohyl of a sponge are called ___________________.
40) Thin, epithelial-type cells covering the outer surface of sponges are the ________________.
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41) About 80% of particulate organic carbon in the marine environment is in the form of the smallest particles that sponges can consume, and phagocytosis of these particles is carried out by the ____________.
42) All digestion in sponges is intracellular and is carried out by the ____________________.
43) Internal buds of freshwater sponges that can withstand adverse conditions are ____________________.
44) Deep-sea sponges with six-rayed siliceous spicules and a trabecular reticulum belong to the ______________.
45)
About 95% of the sponges belong to the class __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 46) There are a few marine sponges that are large enough that a small person could crawl inside. Would you have to worry about your tissues being digested?
47) Sponge beds have been heavily "fished" for bath sponges and in other cases pollution or an imbalance in organisms has devastated other sponge beds. What is the likely overall consequence of this in the ocean environment?
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48) Explain the concept of monophyly as it applies to the animals. How do the relationships of placozoans and poriferans contribute to our understanding of the base of the animal tree?
49) Describe the characteristics of the Phylum Porifera. Which of those characteristics support the contention that the sponges are the basal group of the Animal kingdom?
50)
Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
51) New evidence suggests that the calcarea belong to a clade separate from other sponges. Discuss the evidence upon which this idea is based.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_18e 1) [A, B, C] 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) D Version 1
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27) E 28) B 29) E 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) Placozoa 37) spongin 38) osculum 39) choanocytes 40) pinacocytes 41) choanocytes 42) archaeocytes 43) gemmules 44) Hexactinellida/Hyalospongiae 45) Demospongiae 46) Answers will vary but should include the explanation that most sponges are filter feeders and digestion is intracellular. 47) Answers will vary but should consider the impact of the loss of sponge filtering on marine environments. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 13 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The traditional view of cnidarians relative to germ layers is that cnidaria possess A) B) C) D) E) ectoderm.
2)
The term "cnidaria" is based on the root words that mean A) B) C) D) E)
3)
only one germ layer, the ectoderm, that differentiates into the two tissue layers. two germ layers, ectoderm and mesoderm. two germ layers, endoderm and mesoderm. two germ layers, ectoderm and endoderm. definitely all three germ layers including the mesoglea as it is derived from
stuck in one place. middle glue. little spear. thread bladder. like nettles.
Nematocysts are
A) widespread among the animal kingdom but first developed by Cnidaria. B) formed and used only by Cnidaria although a few other organisms may "steal" them. C) first found in sponges, most highly developed in cnidarians, but still found as remnants in some higher groups. D) actually free-living symbionts that are most usually taken up by cnidarians, as are many green algae. E) None of the choices is correct
4)
The fossil record of Cnidaria is
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A) about the same as for other primitive animals, beginning in the Cambrian. B) relatively sparse since their bodies are so soft that they leave no skeleton to fossilize. C) one of the longest records, with fossils going back over 700 million years. D) sporadic since the marine environment is not a good substrate to preserve fossils. E) very recent since most of them have symbiotic relationships with advanced animals such as clown fish.
5)
Which of the following is NOT a cnidarian? A) B) C) D) E)
Corals Planaria Sea anemones Hydrozoa Portuguese man-of-war
6) The __________ stage is best adapted for cnidarians living in colonies while the __________ stage helps in dispersal and survival in open oceans. A) B) C) D) E)
7)
gastrozooid, dactylozooid lappet, rhopalium medusa, polyp polyp, medusa dactylozooid, gastrozooid
Which of the following is NOT a correct association?
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A) B) C) D) E)
8)
Nematocyst—stinging organelle Operculum—lid covering the capsule containing the coiled thread Cnidoblast—a developing cnidocyte Cnidocil—poison gland Hydrostatic pressure—pressure inside capsule that forces the nematocyst out
Nematocysts are expelled when the
A) osmotic pressure reaches 140 atmospheres. B) hydrostatic pressure exceeds the osmotic pressure. C) internal hydrostatic pressure increases when water enters. D) cnidocil stimulates the cnidocyte to decrease hydrostatic pressure and increase osmotic pressure. E) None of the choices is correct.
9)
Which of the following is NOT a correct description of cnidarian nervous tissues?
A) Hydrozoan medusae have ring nerves. B) Scyphozoan medusae have marginal sense organs. C) The nerve net synapses with both the nematocysts and the epitheliomuscular cells. D) Scyphozoa have both a fast conducting and a slow conducting system to coordinate movements. E) Cnidaria are the first animals to develop a central nervous system.
10)
Cnidarians are found most abundantly in which of the following habitats? A) B) C) D) E)
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Shallow marine habitats Freshwater habitats Deep ocean habitats Estuary habitats None of the choices is correct.
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11)
The unique feature(s) of a cnidarian nervous system is/are A) B) C) D) E)
12)
A hydra moves by A) B) C) D) E)
13)
vesicles with neurotransmitters located on both sides of the synapse. nerve impulses are transmitted in both directions across a network of nerves. cnidarian nerves lack any myelin surrounding the axons. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
contraction of nematocysts. expelling water from the gastrovascular cavity. contraction of the nerve net. contraction of epitheliomuscular cells in the epidermis. contraction of epitheliomuscular fibers in the mesoglea.
How does Hydra reproduce sexually?
A) Separate male polyps and female polyps produce sperm and eggs, respectively, that fuse and grow into a medusa. B) The swimming medusa stages are male and female and the fertilized eggs develop into planula larvae that become Hydra polyps. C) The polyp body wall can produce both ovaries and testes that make eggs and sperm respectively. D) Hydra sperm fertilize an egg in the body wall and this starts the growth of a bud. E) Hydra do not reproduce sexually since they lost the sexual medusa stage.
14)
Throughout most cnidarian groups, the basal or pedal disc serves to
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A) B) C) D) E)
15)
The class Hydrozoa contains Hydra, Obelia, and A) B) C) D) E)
16)
the Portuguese man-of-war. Aurelia. the sea anemones. most of the corals. None of the choices is correct
Hydra reproduces asexually by forming A) B) C) D) E)
17)
be the base of the tentacles. attach the cnidarian to the substrate. generate buds. perform extracellular digestion. harbor sensory cells.
buds. nematocysts. gland cells. gametes. gastrozooids.
Digestion in hydra is A) B) C) D) E)
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intracellular only. extracellular only. both extracellular and intracellular. neither extracellular nor intracellular. None of the choices is correct.
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18) The Portuguese man-of-war has long tentacles with many nematocysts. These tentacles are called A) B) C) D) E)
19)
dactylozooids. gastrozooids. gonophores. pneumatophores. colloblasts.
The most conspicuous medusa stage is found in the class A) B) C) D) E)
Hydrozoa. Scyphozoa. Anthozoa. Ctenophora. Cubozoa.
20) The presence of amoeboid cells and fibers in the mesoglea, as well as the lack of a velum, would indicate that a medusa was in the class A) B) C) D) E)
21)
Hydrozoa. Scyphozoa. Anthozoa. Ctenophora. Cubozoa.
The correct sequence in the life cycle of the jellyfish Aurelia is
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
Which of the following is a characteristic of stauromedusans? A) B) C) D) E)
23)
digestive. respiratory. food capture. sensory. reproductive.
Which of the following associations of cubozoan traits is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
25)
They have a solitary polyp body. The top of the polyp has nine extensions. Polyps reproduce asexually. The planula swims initially and then becomes sessile. They do not have a mouth.
The function of the rhopalium is A) B) C) D) E)
24)
planula, ephyra, scyphistoma. scyphistoma, planula, ephyra. planula, scyphistoma, ephyra. ephyra, planula, scyphistoma. None of the choices is correct.
Velarium—where the subumbrellar edge turns inward Pedalium—a flat, tough blade at the base of each tentacle Ephyrae—a major stage of cubozoans between polyps and medusae Medusae—in cross section, almost square None of the choices is correct.
Which association of anthozoan traits is NOT correct?
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A) B) C) D) E)
26)
A pharynx and mesenteries are structures found in A) B) C) D) E)
27)
Hexamerous—parts in multiples of six Octomerous—parts in multiples of eight Coupled—septa matched across gastrovascular cavity Hydrostatic skeleton—hard coral secretions Pedal laceration—small pieces break off and regenerate new anemones
Hydra. sea anemones. Aurelia. Obelia. cubozoans.
The function of the siphonoglyph is A) B) C) D) E)
to form water currents into the gastrovascular cavity. to sting the prey. to aid in swimming. to maintain balance or orientation. reproduction.
28) To help overcome prey, some sea anemones have ____________ with nematocysts and gland cells that protrude through the mouth or pores. A) B) C) D) E)
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acontia threads siphonoglyphs pedal lacerations strobila pneumatophores
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29) Hermaphroditic sea anemones that produce sperm first and eggs later, to prevent selffertilization, are called A) B) C) D) E)
asexual. pre-testicular. postgynous. protandrous. precocious.
30) A living anemone must detect non-living debris that floats by from potential food that also move past it. How does it detect the difference? A) The anemone recognizes DNA in living things. B) The anemone has a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine. C) The anemone responds to vibrations that match the frequency of prey. D) There is a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine; additionally the anemone responds to vibrations that match the frequency of prey. E) The anemone samples everything that moves and discard the inorganic debris.
31)
Sea anemones and corals lack A) B) C) D) E)
32)
a sexual stage. an asexual stage. a polyp stage. a medusa stage. None of the choices is correct.
A/An __________ is close to the land and has either no lagoon or a very shallow lagoon.
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A) B) C) D) E)
33)
A/An __________ encircles a lagoon but there is no central island. A) B) C) D) E)
34)
Reproduction is both sexual and asexual. Some forms are sessile and others are motile. They live in either marine or freshwater environments. Tentacles are used to capture prey and to transfer the prey to the mouth. The body plan is tube-within-a-tube, with a distinct mouth and anus.
Hermatypic corals have mutualistic algal cells in their tissues called A) B) C) D) E)
36)
atoll barrier reef bank or patch reef fringing reef reef crest
Which statement about cnidarians is NOT true? A) B) C) D) E)
35)
atoll barrier reef bank or patch reef fringing reef reef crest
coralline algae. zooxanthellae. kelp. Euglena. colloblasts.
Ctenophores capture food by using
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A) B) C) D) E)
nematocysts. collenchyme. colloblasts. comb plates. statocysts.
37) If you removed the statocyst from a ctenophore, the most likely symptom you would notice would be A) B) C) D) E)
they would sting other ctenophores. disorientation or swimming in a haphazard manner. inability to expel wastes. prevention of respiration. lack of reproduction.
38) Your lab group must identify the class of an unknown cnidarian. The cnidarian is colonial, and the colony has a nonliving covering with living stalks that occur underneath the covering. There are hydranths and gastrozoids in the colony. To which class does this colony belong? A) B) C) D)
Hydrozoa Myxozoa Scyphozoa Anthozoa
39) What would happen to an aquatic community if members of the class Myxozoa were removed from that community? A) B) C) D)
The remaining community members would be overcome by parasitic infections. Other species would be unaffected, as myxozoans are solitary. Some of the fish species would increase in number. Tubifex worms would become locally extinct.
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40) Cnidarians are all aquatic, but if a terrestrial cnidarian existed, could it have functional nematocysts? A) changes. B) C) D)
41)
No, because the mechanism for nematocyst discharge relies on water pressure No, because the mechanism for discharge relies on water-soluble chemicals. Yes, because the mechanism for discharge relies on gas pressure changes. Yes, because the mechanism for discharge relies on other organelles.
Predict what would happen to hermatypic corals if their mutualistic algae were removed? A) B) C) D)
The reef structure could degenerate. The corals could not obtain nutrients. The larvae of the corals would not have a place to mature. The corals could not complete their life cycle.
42) What would be the effect of a mutation that caused the lack of comb plates on a ctenophoran? A) B) C) D)
The ctenophoran would be unable to move efficiently. The ctenophoran would be unable to reproduce. The ctenophoran would be unable to feed. The ctenophoran would be unable to produce light.
43) As part of your laboratory study, you charged with the identification of an unknown animal. You realize it either belongs to the phylum Cnidaria or the phylum Ctenophora. What would not be a feature that you could use to distinguish the two phyla?
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A) B) C) D)
44)
The presence of polyp and medusa body forms Cnidocytes Comb plates Radial symmetry
What would happen to a ctenophoran if the functional ability of the colloblasts is lost? A) B) C) D)
Reproduction would cease. Prey could not be gathered. Locomotion would cease. Bioluminescence would increase.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 45) Nematocysts are stinging organelles that are contained inside cells called __________.
46) The morphological type of cnidarian that is adapted to a sedentary or sessile life is the polyp, and the type that is best adapted for floating or free-swimming existence is the __________.
47) The body wall of a hydra consists of an outer epidermis and an inner gastrodermis with __________ between them.
48)
Water in the gastrovascular cavity serves as a __________ skeleton.
49) The tall secretory cells around the pedal disc and mouth of hydra are the __________ cells.
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50)
The mesoglea of scyphozoans has amoeboid cells and fibers and is called a __________.
51) The small organs of equilibrium in scyphozoan jellyfishes are called __________, and these are borne in more complex sense organs called rhopalia.
52)
Gastric filaments bearing __________ are found in scyphozoan medusae.
53)
The polypoid stage of scyphozoans is called __________.
54) A distinguishing characteristic of cubozoan medusae is the presence of flattened blades called __________ at the base of the tentacles.
55) Septa extending from the body wall to the pharynx in sea anemones are designated primary septa or __________.
56) The long thread-like structures that help to overcome prey and provide defense in sea anemones are called __________ threads.
57) Corals important in formation of coral reefs have zoxanthellae in their tissues and are known as __________ corals.
58) The gastrodermal tubes that run through the extensive mesoglea of alcyonarians are called __________.
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59) The part of a coral reef that slopes down into the lagoon is the reef __________ or fore reef slope.
60)
Ctenophores are propelled by eight plates bearing long, fused __________.
61) "Glue" cells in ctenophores that function in catching small animals are called __________.
62) The free-swimming __________ larva is similar to an adult ctenophore and develops directly into an adult.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 63) Describe the trigger mechanism and the process by which nematocysts are ejected at terrific pressure.
64) Consider that you are a biology teacher with limited budget and want to order hydra that can last across many seasons and some irregularity in food supply due to school holidays. You can order regular white hydra or green hydra. Without any further information, which do you order and why?
65)
Describe how food absorption in sponges differs from food absorption in Cnidaria.
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66) Describe the evidence for the likely order of appearance of life-cycle stages in the evolution of Cnidarians. Evaluate the validity of conclusions that are drawn from this evidence.
67) Explain why the presence of a gelatinous layer between the ectoderm and endoderm in ctenophores and cnidarians make understanding the branching order of these phyla difficult.
68)
Analyze the controversy over distinguishing the body symmetry of cnidarians.
69) Discuss the evidence for the phylogenetic placement of Ctenophores and Cnidarians in the metazoan tree.
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70) Discuss the evolution of the Mesozoa, the Parazoa, and the Cnidaria. What are the common features shared by these groups?
71) Offer an explanation as to why myxozoans have one of the smallest genomes in the animal kingdom. Include features of the life cycle of the myxozoans in your answer.
72) Compare and contrast the staurozoans and the myxozoans. Include features of the life cycle in your analysis.
73) Analyze the placement of the myxozoans into to the phylum Cnidaria. What features led to this arrangement, and why might they be questioned?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_18e 1) D 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1
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27) A 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) cnidocytes 46) medusa 47) mesoglea 48) hydrostatic 49) gland 50) mesenchyme 51) statocysts 52) nematocysts 53) scyphistoma 54) pedalia 55) mesenteries 56) acontia threads Version 1
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57) zoantharia 58) solenia 59) reef front 60) cilia 61) colloblasts 62) cydippid 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary. 71) Answer may vary 72) Answer may vary 73) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 14 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which phyla have a characteristic number of cells in the epithelia of different regions? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D)
Rotifera Acanthocephala Mesozoa Gnathostomulida
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Animals with three well-defined germ layers and that have one solid mass of tissue rather than tissues and organs nestled inside a body cavity are A) B) C) D) E)
3)
The flatworms typically have __________ cleavage. A) B) C) D) E)
4)
acoelomate and triploblastic. eucoelomate and diploblastic. pseudocoelomate and triploblastic. quasicoelomate and diploblastic. coelomate and triploblastic.
radial bilateral rotational discoidal spiral
Which of the following is not a class of the phylum Platyhelminthes?
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A) B) C) D) E)
Cestoda Trematoda Nemertea Turbellaria Monogenea
5) Tissues that seem to violate the cell theory because the nuclei are not separated by cell membranes are A) B) C) D) E)
6)
A planarian feeds by A) B) C) D) E)
7)
parenchymal. syncytial. tegumental. rhabdites. vitellaria.
attaching with a sucker and extracting blood. scraping and sucking food particles via a midventral proboscis. engulfing food particles through an anterior mouth and excreting waste via an anus. soaking all nutrients from the environment through its thin epidermal surface. sucking nutrients from the environment through its flame cell system.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trochophore larvae? A) B) C) D) E)
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A prominent circlet of cilia Shaped like a top Are an early developmental stage of annelid marine forms Opaque bodies May contain accessory cilia circlets
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8)
In flame cells, A) light is detected. B) ciliated sperm are stored. C) undigested food is expelled. D) digestion of proteins takes place. E) flagella drive fluids through tubules for excretion.
9)
The nervous system of a freshwater planarian consists of A) B) C) D) E)
10)
only a diffuse subepidermal nerve plexus underneath the ventral skin. a simple brain of ganglion cells leading to a ladder-type nerve network. only sensory and motor neurons, but no association neurons. the first complex central nervous system. no cells since they were lost along with other unnecessary systems in parasites.
Turbellarians, such as the planaria, move by
A) flame cells. B) small pseudopodia. C) lateral undulation of muscles. D) expulsion of fluids as seen in squid. E) secreting a slime track of mucus and pushing against it with epidermal cilia and muscular waves.
11)
Endolecithal describes a situation in which A) B) C) D) E)
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there is no yolk. yolk is contained in separate cells outside the zygote. yolk is provided inside the egg cell. yolk is found around the perimeter of the zygote. yolk is provided by the sperm cell.
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12) Because some turbellarians fail to add yolk to the egg cells as they undergo oogenesis, yolk cells surround the zygote to provide nourishment. This development is referred to as A) B) C) D) E)
13)
The male copulatory organ of a turbellarian is a A) B) C) D) E)
14)
rhabdite. pilidium. cirrus. hydatid. gonopore.
Which of the following statements about planaria is NOT true?
A) B) C) D) ectoderm. E)
15)
endolecithal. ectolecithal. syncytial. oncospherical. hydatid.
The rudimentary circulatory system has a small central heart. A planarian that is cut in half will regenerate to form two complete worms. Movement occurs through ciliary cells and muscle movement. Tissue levels include the inner endoderm, the middle mesoderm, and the outer Cephalization involves a brain and sense organs in a head region.
Monogeneans hatch as
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A) B) C) D) E)
16)
The monogenetic flukes A) B) C) D) E)
17)
egg, miracidium, cercaria, sporocyst. egg, miracidium, sporocyst, cercaria. egg, sporocyst, cercaria, miracidium. egg, cercaria, miracidium, sporocyst. egg, sporocyst, miracidium, cercaria.
The name of the free-swimming, ciliated stage that hatches from a trematode egg is the A) B) C) D) E)
19)
are mostly ectoparasites. are usually found in rabbits. require an intermediate and a definitive host. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
The correct sequence of development in a typical fluke life cycle is A) B) C) D) E)
18)
fully mature adults. free-swimming larvae. flagellated, amoeboid larvae. larvae resembling gemmules of freshwater sponges. None of the choices is correct.
miracidium. sporocyst. cercaria. scolex. proglottid.
Humans become infected with lung flukes by
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The blood fluke Schistosoma is A) B) C) D) E)
21)
eating infected snails. drinking water contaminated with eggs. eating infected fish that is undercooked or uncooked. swimming or wading in infected water, where the cercariae enter the skin. None of the choices is correct.
The intermediate host of the blood fluke is a A) B) C) D) E)
23)
an endoparasite and a monogenean. an endoparasite and a digenean. an ectoparasite and a digenean. an ectoparasite and a monogenean. None of the choices is correct.
A farmer in a rice paddy in Asia becomes infected with the liver fluke by A) B) C) D) E)
22)
eating infected fish. eating infected crabs or crayfish. drinking water contaminated with eggs. wading in infected waters. eating undercooked pork.
crayfish. human. frog. dog. None of the choices is correct.
Which is NOT a correct association of blood flukes?
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A) B) C) D) E)
24)
Schistosoma mansoni—veins of large intestine Schistosoma japonicum—veins of small intestine Schistosoma haematobium—veins of urinary bladder Schistosoma haematobium—least serious Schistosoma japonicum—mild infections, never fatal
How are schistosomes unique, compared to other trematodes? A) They have separate male and female individuals, and the male is larger than the
female. B) C) D) E)
25)
The large posterior attachment organ of the adult monogenean is a/an A) B) C) D) E)
26)
At no stage in their life cycle do they leave the body of the host. Infections are easy to cure by drugs and surgery. They may infect any human. All species must cycle through humans to survive.
rhabdite. pilidium. cirrus. hydatid. opisthaptor.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
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A) Planarians lack a unique larval stage. B) Planarians ingest food through a mouth located in the anterior region. C) Flukes have two suckers by which they attach to host tissues. D) Tapeworms have a scolex with hooks and suckers by which they attach to the host's intestinal tissues. E) Tapeworms can enter the human body through undercooked meat, especially pork, which contains encysted larval forms.
27) The collection of long chains of bags of eggs, which hang behind the head of a tapeworm, is called a A) B) C) D) E)
28)
strobila. cercariae. sporocysts. scolex. hydatid.
The region used for attachment of a tapeworm is called the A) B) C) D) E)
proglottid. cercaria. sporocyst. scolex. hydatid.
29) In tapeworms, the region just behind the scolex where new proglottids are differentiated is the
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A) B) C) D) E)
30)
vitellaria. pilidium. strobila. hydatid. germinative zone.
Humans become infected with Taenia saginatus when they A) B) C) D) E)
eat poorly cooked fish. eat poorly cooked pork. eat poorly cooked beef. eat unwashed salads. All of the choices are correct.
31) A special cysticercus called a __________ grows slowly but can proliferate thousands of scolices to infect a carnivore. A) B) C) D) E)
32)
hydatid cyst pilidium larvae cysticercosis vitellaria rhynchocoel
If eggs or proglottids of the pork tapeworm are ingested by a human,
A) a hydatid cyst may form. B) nothing will happen since we have to contract pork tapeworm from eating undercooked pork. C) cysticercosis may occur with resulting blindness or death. D) adult pork tapeworms may take up residence in the intestines. E) None of the choices is correct.
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33)
Mesozoans A) B) C) D) E)
34)
Platyhelminthes have A) B) C) D)
35)
a flow-through digestive tract. flame cells. a blood-vascular system. an eversible proboscis.
Marine forms of platyhelminths have ciliated larvae that resemble A) B) C) D) E)
36)
have two cell layers. are flat, plate-like animals. gave rise to the sponges. have calcareous spicules. have two germ layers.
trochophore larvae. planulae. miracidia. gemmules. None of the choices is correct.
Platyhelminths are A) B) C) D) E)
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carnivores in most cases. nearly all marine dwellers. nonparasitic. mostly dioecious. All of the choices are correct.
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37) Which of the following organisms lives between sand grains and wasn't described until 2000? A) B) C) D)
38)
Micrognathoozoans Rotifers Gastrotrichs Acanthocephalans
Rotifers are A) B) C) D)
primarily marine. dioecious. animals with a complete digestive tract. animals that can survive if their aquatic environment dries up.
39) Some rotifers have a thick case-like layer arranged in plates or rings called a __________. A) B) C) D)
40)
The mastax of a rotifer is used for A) B) C) D)
41)
mastix trochal lorica trophi
respiration. capturing and grinding food. swimming. pumping blood.
Rotifers that are "hunters" protect their hard jaws or __________ to seize prey.
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A) B) C) D)
42)
mastix trochal lorica trophi
Beside "hunters" that seize prey, some rotifers are A) B) C) D)
"netters" that spread a fishing net to ensnare prey. "trappers" that grasp prey and draw it into the rotifer mouth. "ambushers" that pounce on prey that passes by at a distance. "farmers" that grow food to eat.
43) Rotifers combine ovaries and yolk glands to form a __________ that supplies yolk to eggs through cytoplasmic bridges. A) B) C) D)
44)
Amictic eggs would A) B) C) D)
45)
mastax trochal lorica germovitellaria
be fertile but not develop. be diploid and develop without fertilization. be haploid and only develop if fertilized. lack yolk.
Fertilization in rotifers is achieved
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A) B) C) D)
46)
Acanthocephalans A) B) C) D)
47)
externally with both eggs and sperm shed into the water. by normal copulation of a penis and vaginal pore. by transfer of sperm in a gelatinous spermatophore packet. by hypodermic impregnation injecting sperm into the pseudocoel.
parasitize birds and mammals. are monoecious. have a well developed digestive tract. are found in the host's liver.
Predict the consequences of a gastrostomulidan with an impermeable outer covering. A) B) C) D)
Nothing would change, as the outer cover is already impermeable. Reproduction would become impossible. Exchange of gases would not occur. Ingestion of nutrients would not occur.
48) You are given a culture that contains gastrotrichs and gnathostomulidans. How could you specifically identify the gastrotrichs? A) B) C) D)
Convex dorsum, flattened ventrum Presence of some monociliated cells Specialized respiratory structures Ability to endure low oxygen
49) Your lab partner is examining a slide, and is conflicted about whether the animal on the slide is a rotifer or a gastrotrich. What feature would be characteristic of a gastrotrich but not of a rotifer?
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A) B) C) D)
Syncytial epidermis with cellular regions Body length less than 3mm Presence of muscle Complete digestive system
50) As you are working your way through a taxonomic key that will allow you to identify a specimen, you reach the Clade Gnathifera. You realize your unknown animal is a parasite. Will this information allow you to identify the phylum of your specimen? A) B) C) D)
Yes, the phylum Acanthocepha is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum. Yes, the phylum Rotifera is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum. Yes, the phylum Gnathostomulida is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum. No, because there are no parasitic gnathiferan phyla.
51) What characteristic could not be used to differentiate a gnathostomulidan from a gastrotrich? A) B) C) D)
52)
Ability to tolerate low oxygen levels Habitat Swimming pattern Hermaphroditism
How did it become apparent that Limnognatha belonged to a new phylum? A) B) C) D)
The presence of three pairs of jaws Unique anatomy of jaws Lack of jaws Unique anatomy of three pairs of jaws
53) Predict what would happen if arthropods were not present in the environment of acanthocephalans. Version 1
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A) B) C) D)
Acanthocephalans would not mature. Acanthocephalans would increase in number due to lack of predation. Acanthocephalans would not be affected by this change. Acanthocephalans would increase in number due to lack of competition.
54) Imagine that you have discovered a species with an epidermis that consists of continuous outer cytoplasm with an underlying layer of cells of a definite number. Using this characteristic, to which group is this new species most closely related? A) B) C) D)
Rotifers and acanthocephalans Gnathostomulidans and gastrotrichs Rotifers and gastrotrichs Mesozoans and gastrotrichs
55) Laboratory testing reveals that a patient has a schistosome infection. How could you differentiate which species of Schistosoma is causing the infection? A) The locations to which the patient traveled recently B) The location of the parasites within the circulatory system C) The location of the parasite in nervous system D) Both the location of the parasite in the circulatory system and the location to which the patient traveled recently
56)
Predict the effect of a mutation that caused the lack of microtriches. A) B) C) D)
57)
A tapeworm would be unable to attach to the host. A tapeworm would be unable to reproduce. A tapeworm would be unable to absorb nutrients optimally. A tapeworm would be unable to move.
Predict the immediate effect if the solenocytes of a gastrotrich did not function.
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A) B) C) D)
Osmoregulation would not occur. Eggs would not form. Food could not be digested. Locomotion could not occur.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 58) Since flatworms and ribbon worms lack a coelom or a pseudocoel, they are termed __________ animals.
59)
Because they have three germ layers, flatworms and ribbon worms are __________.
60)
Turbellarians have light-sensitive organs called __________ or eyespots.
61) If an individual turbellarian contains organs of both sexes, it is termed __________ or hermaphroditic.
62)
Trematodes have a body covering known as a __________.
63)
Most monogeneans are external parasites of __________.
64)
The posterior attachment organ of monogeneans is the __________.
65) The free-swimming, ciliated stage that hatches from a digenetic trematode egg is the __________.
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66)
The holdfast of a tapeworm is its __________.
67)
The main reproductive body "segment" of the cestode is called the __________.
68) host.
Taenia solium is a dangerous tapeworm because humans can serve as its __________
69) Minute, wormlike animals that live as parasites in invertebrates and have two cell layers are the __________.
70) Ribbon worms do not regurgitate undigested wastes because their gut ends in an __________.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 71) Explain why the use of molecular characters may be used over morphological features in the Construction of a Phylogeny.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 72) Compare and contrast the internal and external anatomy of the mesozoans and the turbellarians.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_18e 1) [A, B] 2) A 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) E 9) B 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) E 26) B Version 1
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27) A 28) D 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) E 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) A Version 1
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57) A 58) acoelomate 59) triploblastic 60) ocelli 61) monoecious 62) tegument 63) fish 64) opisthaptor 65) miracidium 66) scolex 67) proglottid 68) primary 69) mesozoans 70) anus 71) Answer may vary 72) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 15 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) As part of a laboratory assignment, you must identify the most specific clade to which an unknown lophotrochozoan belongs. You note the presence of a lophophore. What is the most specific clade for this creature? A) B) C) D) creature.
Trochozoa Polyzoa Brachiozoa There is not enough information to more specifically identify a clade for this
2) You are assigned the job of sorting out trochozoan specimens. You encounter a shelled specimen. To which phyla might this animal belong? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D)
Brachiopoda Phoronida Nemertea Mollusca
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Which group is so specialized that they are only found on the mouth parts of marine decapods in the northern hemisphere? A) B) C) D) E)
4)
Micrognathozoans Rotifers Cycliophorans Acanthocephalans Entoprocts
Phoronid worms
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Which is NOT a correct description of the function of the phoronid lophophore?
A) B) C) body wall. D) E)
6)
It can be extended for feeding and completely withdrawn for protection. The mouth lies between the two ridges of the lophophore. Each ridge of a lophophore has hollow ciliated tentacles that are extensions of the Cilia on the tentacles direct the water current down the ridges and toward the mouth. All of the choices are correct.
The digestive system of a phoronid worm has A) B) C) D) E)
7)
are relatively large and usually over 30 cm in length. are tube-dwelling marine animals. are most common in deep tropical oceans near thermal vents. spend a lot of time scavenging across the sea floor. are a serious threat to oyster beds.
cilia in the stomach area of the U-shaped gut. water passing over the anus and nephridiopores before entering the gut. an anus that lies ventral to the mouth and inside the lophophore. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
The phoronid circulatory system
A) is a closed system but lacks a heart. B) has hemoglobin dissolved in the plasma. C) is an open system with pulsatile organs circulating the hemolymph. D) is an open system with no heart and is dependent upon the hemoglobin enclosed in nucleated cells. E) is missing and all food and wastes readily diffuse through the lophophore.
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8)
Reproduction and development in phoronid worms involves A) B) C) D) E)
monoecious species. dioecious species. asexual species. a radial cleavage pattern. All of the choices are correct.
9) Why are entoprocts not included with the ectoprocts since they look nearly identical and were both called bryozoans in earlier times? A) Entoprocts are now known to be cnidarians. B) Entoprocts are acoelomates and lack sexual reproduction. C) Entoprocts are all parasites that lost more advanced characters and only secondarily resemble ectoprocts. D) The fossil record shows they were never related. E) Entoprocts are pseudocoelomates and have the anus within the tentacular crown.
10) The __________ is the secreted body wall of an ectoproct, together with its secreted exoskeleton. A) B) C) D) E)
11)
adhesive sac statoblast cystid polypide zoecium
The __________ includes the lophophore, digestive tract, muscles, and nerve centers.
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A) B) C) D) E)
12)
adhesive sac statoblast cystid polypide zoecium
How can you distinguish an ectoproct from a hydroid?
A) The hydroid colony is very small, perhaps a few millimeters long, while the ectoproct is centimeters long. B) The hydroid has the anus within the tentacular crown and the ectoproct has the anus outside the crown. C) The hydroid lacks any complex digestive gut including any anus. D) The hydroid has more complex musculature and innervation. E) Only hydroids form moss-like colonies.
13)
The respiratory system of an ectoproct involves A) B) C) D) E)
14)
tracheae. gills that form another layer under the tentacles. amebocytes loaded with hemoglobin pigment. circulation of water by opening and closing the epistome. no system at all, merely diffusion across the body surface.
Ectoproct colonies have modified zooids to A) B) C) D) E)
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assist in reproduction. disperse the colony. secrete more exoskeleton. protect the colony and sweep away foreign particles. All of the choices are zooid specializations.
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15)
Reproduction and development in ectoprocts involves A) B) C) D) E)
16)
The lophophore contains an extension of the A) B) C) D) E)
17)
protocoel. metacoel. mesocoel. pseudocoel. None of the choices is correct.
Statoblasts are usually formed A) B) C) D) E)
18)
hermaphrodites. radial cleavage. brooding of eggs inside the coelom or in special ovicells. metamorphosis to the adult form. All of the choices are correct.
in the winter. in the spring. in freshwater ectoprocts. anytime the pools begin to dry up. when the colony ages.
Brachiopoda A) B) C) D) E)
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are called bryozoans. have a mantle and two valves (shells). live in deep ocean bottoms. are wormlike burrowers. are colonial.
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19)
Entoprocts A) B) C) D) E)
20)
Ectoprocta live in A) B) C) D) E)
21)
only freshwater sediment. bivalved shells they secrete. colonies and form protective masses. secreted tubes in sand or attached to rocks. echinoderm intestines as parasites.
The lophophorate phyla are grouped together because
A) B) feeding. C) D) E)
22)
are mostly freshwater. are wormlike. have an incomplete digestive tract. have a crown of ciliated tentacles. are a major disease agent.
they all belong to the deuterostome branch of the bilateral animals. they all possess a specialized crown of tentacles specialized for sedentary filter they all lack a true coelom. all appear to be derived from the Entoprocta ancestors. they simply do not fit anywhere else.
The brachiopods live in
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A) B) C) D) E)
23)
The lophophore is A) B) C) D) E)
24)
two parts: the anteriocoel and posteriocoel. three parts: the protocoel, mesocoel, and metacoel. four parts: the left and right supracoel and subcoel. two parts: the basicoel and the exterocoel extending into the tentacles. a interior hypocoel and a surrounding pericoel.
The larval stages of all three lophophorate phyla are A) B) C) D) E)
26)
an arrangement of ciliated tentacles. an efficient feeding device. extended from a ridge that surrounds the mouth but not the anus. a respiratory surface for the exchange of gases. All of the choices are correct.
The coelom of a lophophorate is divided into A) B) C) D) E)
25)
freshwater sediment. bivalved shells they secrete. colonies and form protective masses. secreted tubes in sand or attached to rocks. echinoderm intestines as parasites.
also sessile, having budded off from the parent. parasitic on other animals. trochophores. bilateral planula larvae. free-swimming.
Lamp shells are not included in Mollusca because they
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A) B) C) D) E)
27)
The fossil record of brachiopods shows A) B) C) D) E)
28)
as a lophophore. to close the two shells. as a stalk to attach it to the substrate. as a respiratory structure. in reproduction.
Brachiopods reproduce and develop A) B) C) D) E)
30)
they have only recently branched off from molluscan bivalves. they have existed nearly unchanged in design since the Ordovician times. they have evolved rapidly to displace many molluscs. they have never been common and are now going extinct. they are now much bigger than they were in earlier times.
The pedicel of a brachiopod functions A) B) C) D) E)
29)
clearly do not resemble any mollusk. lack a hard shell. have a dorsal-ventral shell and gather food on tentacles. lack a coelom. have a fossil record that shows they are totally unrelated.
with separate sexes. usually with external fertilization. with radial cleavage. both with and without metamorphosis. All of the choices are correct.
The valves of brachiopods are
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A) B) C) D)
31)
secreted by the mantle. dorsal and ventral. hinged in some with a tooth-and-socket arrangement. All of the choices are correct.
Nemerteans differ from flatworms in that nemerteans possess A) an incomplete digestive tract. B) male and female reproductive structures in the same body. C) an eversible probsoscis.
32) Although they are trochozoans, molluscs and annelids are discussed separately from the brachiopods, nemerteans, and phoronidans. Explain why the molluscs and annelids separated in this discussion. A) Molluscs and annelids have greater internal and external complexity compared to the rest of the trochozoan phyla. B) Neither the molluscs nor the annelids are worm-like. C) There is no similarity in molecular characters between the molluscs and annelids and the rest of the trochozoan phyla. D) Molluscs and annelids lack a proboscis, while the phoroids, nemerteans, and brachiopods possess a proboscis.
33) If a cycliophoran population was very low in its unusual but favorable habitat, what type of larvae would you expect to be produced? A) B) C) D)
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34)
Predict what would happen to a nemertean that lost its proboscis. A) B) C) D)
35)
The nemertean would no longer be able to feed. The nemertean would no longer have chemosensory abilities. The nemertean would be unable to obtain oxygen. The nemertean would be unable to move.
How does a closed circulatory system specifically benefit a nemertean? A) B) C) D)
It facilitates rapid hunting responses. It makes larger body size possible. It supports greater internal complexity. All of the choices are correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36) The three lophophorate phyla are Phoronida, Ectoprocta, and __________.
37)
A phoronid larva is a/an __________.
38)
The chamber in which each zooid of an ectoproct colony lives is called a __________.
39) Resistant capsules containing germinative cells formed by freshwater ectoprocts are __________.
40) The lophophorate animals that have their bodies covered by a mantle belong to the phylum __________.
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41)
The fleshy stalk of a brachiopod is the ___________.
42)
The formation of the coelom in articulate brachiopods is by __________ development.
43)
Colonies of Ectoprocts begin from a single zooid called an __________.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 44) Some nemerteans produce eggs in which all larval stages develop. In what sort of environment would this be favorable? Explain the advantages and disadvantages of this concept.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 45) Explain why the Brachiopoda are not included with the phylum Mollusca, class Bivalvia since they do have a mantle that secretes two shells.
46) Why are these groups with diverse lifestyles (some with shells and some without, some colonial and some solitary, etc.) considered together? Be sure to list the structures and behaviors they have in common and discuss their evolutionary relationships.
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47) Compare the developmental features of the lophotrochozoans. Do they share a similar body plan?
48) Explain why ectoprocts and entoprocts are no longer classified within the phylum Bryozoa.
49) Explain the importance of the lophophore as a taxonomic character. What taxa does it unite, and what other characters correlate with this grouping?
50) Examine the coelom of the nemertean. Include in your answer an analysis of why it is not a typical coelom.
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51) Compare and contrast the internal and external features of members of the class Enopla with members of the class Anopla.
52) Discuss why there are so many more fossilized brachiopod species than there are living brachiopod species. Include references to their internal and external features as well as reference to their habitat.
53) Compare and contrast solitary and colonial entoprocts. Include anatomical features of both groups in your response.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_18e 1) [C] 2) [A, D] 3) C 4) B 5) E 6) A 7) A 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) E 14) D 15) E 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) E 24) B 25) E 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) C 29) E 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) Brachiopoda 37) actinotroch 38) zoecium 39) statoblasts 40) Brachiopoda 41) pedicel 42) enterocoelic 43) ancestrula 44) Answer may vary 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answer may vary 50) Answer may vary 51) Answer may vary 52) Answer may vary 53) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 16 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) If you were keeping clams in an aquarium, what should you do to be sure that their shells do not become too thin? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D)
Make sure the pH does not become too low Make sure calcium levels are adequate Make sure that the carbon dioxide level in the tank is high Make sure the acidity does not become too low
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which correctly describes the evolutionary origin and adaptive radiation of molluscs? A) Molluscs originated in freshwater and invaded both terrestrial and marine environments. B) Molluscs originated on land, all classes then invaded both freshwater and marine environments. C) Molluscs originated on land, all classes then invaded freshwater and the bivalves and gastropods invaded marine environments. D) Molluscs originated in the sea, both bivalves and gastropods invaded marine environments and the land. E) Molluscs originated in the sea, bivalves and gastropods invaded brackish and freshwater environments, and just gastropods invaded the land.
3)
Where would you locate the coelomic cavity when dissecting a mollusc such as a clam?
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A) The coelom is between the mantle and the shell. B) The coelom is all of the area enclosed by the two shells. C) The cavity around the heart, the kidneys, and the lumen of the gonads form the limited coelom. D) The cavities inside the siphon are the coelom. E) The coelom is the space inside the small tubules that form the gills.
4)
The radula
A) not only rasps off fine food particles but also serves as a conveyor belt to carry food toward the digestive tract. B) replaces worn teeth by secreting new teeth at the posterior end. C) varies in number, pattern, and form of teeth, allowing species to be classified by this trait. D) may be modified to bore through hard materials. E) All of the choices are correct.
5) To prevent taking back in the wastes it has just expelled, a standard sediment-inhabiting bivalve mollusc should position itself A) with the incurrent siphon upstream. B) with the excurrent siphon upstream. C) in any direction, since it can control which way the water flows in either siphon. D) either with the incurrent siphon upstream or with the excurrent siphon upstream, but not in any direction, since it can control which way the water flows in either siphon. E) None of the choices is correct.
6) Imagine a clam that grows but is unable to produce sufficient thickness in the newest regions of the shell. These thinner regions of shell would occur
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A) B) C) D) E)
7)
Because shells require it, land snails are limited to soils that contain some level of A) B) C) D) E)
8)
on the outside so the periostracum is the newest material. on the inside so the inside nacreous layer is the newest. both directions outward from the central prismatic layer. all at once; all layers of shell are the same age. None of the choices is correct.
aluminum. silica. calcium. sodium. carbon.
Clams burrow by using A) B) C) D) E)
adductor muscles. cilia action. gills for jet propulsion. a modified radula. a foot.
9) In some molluscs, the free-swimming larva is a trochophore while in others, it is a veliger with the beginnings of a foot, shell and mantle. What is the relationship of these molluscan juvenile stages? A) B) C) D) E)
A veliger is found strictly in terrestrial molluscs. The trochophore is considered ancestral and the veliger is a derived larval stage. The two larval forms represent two early and distinct branches of molluscs. The veliger is ancestral and the trochophore is a derived larval stage. Only the cephalopods have the veliger stage; all other molluscs have a trochophore
stage.
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10)
The solenogasters A) B) C) D) E)
11)
live free on the sea bottom and feed on cnidarians. have a shell of eight articulating plates. resemble the squids. are called chitons. have the primitive radula and gill mollusc plan.
The caudofoveates
A) are mostly worm-like, burrowing, marine organisms. B) possess an oral shield associated with food selection and intake. C) possess a radula (reduced in some species). D) may have more features in common with the common ancestor of all molluscs than any other living group. E) All of the choices are correct.
12)
The Monoplacophora A) B) C) D) E)
13)
lack a shell. live in fresh water. lack a foot. have several internal organs that are serially repeated. All of the choices are correct.
The Polyplacophora
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A) B) C) D) E)
14)
The Scaphopoda A) B) C) D) E)
15)
lack a shell. lack a mantle. live in fresh water. pursue prey in a manner similar to squid. lack gills.
The central axis around which the shell of a snail coils is called the A) B) C) D) E)
16)
have a coiled shell. live in the ocean, especially in intertidal areas. lack gills. lack a radula. All of the choices are correct.
aperture. columella. sinistral. dextral. torsion.
Torsion A) B) C) D) E)
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involves movement of the shell independent of visceral movements. rotates the shell between 90 and 180 degrees. begins with the contraction of an asymmetrical foot retractor muscle. shifts the anus from posterior to the right side of the body. All of the choices are correct.
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17) Early gastropods had a coiled shell that did not twist to the right or left; this bilaterally symmetrical shell is called A) B) C) D) E)
sinistral. planospiral. conispiral. dextral. scaphopodal.
18) The genus __________ contains some members that have a toxin strong enough to kill humans. A) B) C) D) E)
19)
Some prosobranchs have only one _____________ in their mantle cavity. A) B) C) D) E)
20)
Tegelu Cyphom Halioti Conus Neopilina
Shell Foot Gill Radula Tentacle
The nudibranchs belong to the
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A) B) C) D) E)
21)
The mantle cavity of a pulmonate snail is used A) B) C) D) E)
22)
scaphopoda. pelecypoda. prosobranchia. opisthobranchia. pulmonata.
for propulsion. to produce pearls. as a lung. to store wastes. All of the choices are correct functions.
Cultured pearls are made by
A) cutting spherical balls from the thick shell of oysters and polishing them into circular beads. B) dropping a grain of sand into the incurrent siphon of a pearl oyster. C) tying off the labial palps. D) growing oysters in high-calcium waters where they produce the pearls as unfertilized eggs. E) placing an irritating particle under the shell mantle.
23) Of all of the freshwater organisms, more freshwater clams are becoming endangered than other species. What is the likely reason?
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A) They are a primitive animal and they are due for natural extinction. B) The shellfish industry has moved inland and we are over harvesting them for human food. C) Clams are more heavily parasitized than any other molluscan group. D) As filter-feeders, they concentrate pollutants and are more likely to be harmed by water pollution. E) All of the choices are correct.
24) Most freshwater clams have a bivalve __________ stage that attaches to the gills and lives as a parasite for a few weeks. A) B) C) D) E)
25)
The main structures that taste food and direct it into the mouth of a clam are A) B) C) D) E)
26)
veliger trochophore brachial miracidia glochidia
the gills. labial palps. the siphons. the gastric mill. adductor muscles.
Cephalopods feed on A) B) C) D)
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microscopic organisms. fish, molluscs, crustaceans, and worms. seaweed. whales and porpoises.
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27)
The water current in the body of a cephalopod mollusc provides A) B) C) D)
28)
The cephalopod nervous system is best described as A) B) C) D)
29)
oxygen for respiration. jet power for rapid locomotion. a means of carrying wastes and gametes out of the body. All of the choices are cephalopod uses for their body water currents
absent. primitive and very little advanced from that of a cnidarian. the most advanced among molluscs. more complex than ours.
The intromittent organ of male cephalopods is the A) B) C) D) E)
pedipalp, a modified labial palp. hectocotylus, a modified arm. aedeagus, a modified beak. penis, the first structure homologous to the mammalian reproductive structure. baculum, a modified piece of internal shell.
30) Although snails and some other molluscs are hermaphroditic, most molluscs are either male or female, which means they are A) B) C) D) E)
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asexual. sexual. monoecious. dioecious. parthenogenetic.
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31)
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of cephalopods?
A) B) C) D) molluscs. E)
32)
Most cephalopods have color vision. The underwater visual acuity of cephalopods surpasses that of humans. Cephalopods can be taught to discriminate between shapes. The sensory systems pf cephalopods are more elaborate than those of other The cephalopod brain is the largest of any invertebrate.
Gaseous exchange in gastropods may involve A) B) C) D) E)
gills. lungs. mantle. body surface. All of the choices are correct.
33) The circulatory system of cephalopods is more efficient than that of other molluscs because A) B) C) D)
it places the systemic circulation before the gills. it is a closed network of vessels. all blood is circulated through the gill filaments. accessory or brachial hearts increase blood pressure before blood flows through the
E)
All of the choices are correct.
gills.
34)
When cephalopods hatch from their eggs, they are
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A) B) C) D) E)
trochophore larvae. glochidial parasites. helpless, sessile larvae that must metamorphose into adult forms. juveniles that resemble small adults. All of the choices occur among the various cephalopods.
35) As part of your laboratory assignment, you must identify the class of a shelled mollusc. You believe that the animal is a nautilus, but your lab partner believes that the animal is a large snail. What feature of this animal would both support your idea and disprove your lab partner's idea? A) B) C) D)
36)
A cephalopod that could no longer produce sepia would be unable to A) B) C) D)
37)
Division of the shell into internal chambers Coiling of the shell Mantle Radula
utilize a decoy to elude a predator. digest food. form egg cases. communicate visually.
A snail without a radula would be A) B) C) D)
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unable to eat. unable to move. unaffected, as a snail never has a radula. unable to sense the presence of a food source.
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38) Predict would what occur if the mantle cavity of a mollusc did not open to the external environment. A) B) C) D)
Gases could not be exchanged via the gills. Gases could not be exchanged via the lining of the mantle cavity. Wastes could not be eliminated. All of the choices are correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 39) The internal organs in coelomates are covered with a mesodermal epithelium called the __________.
40) The membranes that hold the internal organs in place in coelomates are called __________.
41)
The tongue-like, rasping organ in the head of many molluscs is the __________.
42) The __________ is the layer on the outside of the clam or mussel shell that provides protection from acidic water and may be colored to hide the clam in the mud.
43) A pair of __________ serve as sense organs for sampling water and are found in the mantle grooves near the anus of many chitons.
44) Among living molluscs, the ancestral condition is most nearly approached by the class __________.
45)
The shell of a polyplacophoran is divided into eight __________ valves.
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46)
Molluscs with a tubular shell that opens at both ends are in the class __________.
47) The shell of a bivalve grows in concentric rings around the __________, which is the oldest part of the shell.
48) The crystalline __________ projects into a bivalve stomach to keep the contents whirling while releasing digestive enzymes.
49) Accessory or __________ hearts at the base of each gill help to maximize the efficiency of the cephalopod circulatory system.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 50) Describe five morphological or developmental features that would most likely be found in the earliest ancestral mollusc.
51) The scaphopods have a shell that resembles a straightened gastropod shell. Why are they not classified with the gastropods?
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52) How are scaphopod tentacles different from the tentacles of cephalopods? Are these two types of tentacles homologous?
53)
How does torsion differ from coiling? Fully explain your answer.
54) Cephalopod eyes and vertebrate eyes are anatomically similar. Evaluate whether or not the similarity is a case of homology or analogy.
55)
What are the morphological features that distinguish the ammonoids from the nautiloids?
56) Opisthobranchs and pulmonates are both gastropods. What are their main distinguishing features?
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57)
How do you account for the enormous radiation of the molluscs?
58) What surface (e.g., dorsal, ventral, anterior, posterior) of the squid faces forward as the animal moves by jet propulsion? What surface faces forward in a swimming cuttlefish? Explain your answers.
59) Give the supporting evidence that shows that the molluscs share a common ancestor with the annelids.
60)
How has the problem of "fouling" been resolved by the various groups of molluscs?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_18e 1) [A, B] 2) E 3) C 4) E 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) B 16) E 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) B 26) B Version 1
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27) D 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) peritoneum 40) mesenteries 41) radula 42) periostracum 43) osphradia 44) Caudofoveata 45) dorsal 46) Scaphopoda 47) umbo 48) crystalline style 49) branchial hearts 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 17 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Select the characteristics that are typical of annelids. A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Segmentation, open circulation, and metanephridia Segmentation, a closed circulatory system, and metanephridia An exoskeleton, metanephridia, and a pseudocoelom An exoskeleton, Malpighian tubules, and a pseudocoelom Metanephridia, a true coelom, and open circulation
Each internal compartment of an annelid is lined with A) B) C) D) E)
amebocytes that serve to distribute food and remove wastes. nephridiocytes that keep the coelomic fluid in circulation. cuticle secreted by the epithelium. peritoneum, a layer of ectodermal epithelium. peritoneum, a layer of mesodermal epithelium.
3) A robin has difficulty pulling an earthworm from its earthen burrow because of small chitinous bristles called A) B) C) D) E)
4)
parapodia. segments. annuli. metanephridia. setae.
The circulatory system of earthworms is
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A) closed with hearts pumping blood to the anterior arteries and veins returning from the posterior. B) open with blood "washing" through the coelomic cavity. C) half closed with hearts pushing blood toward the head but washing posteriorly through an open cavity. D) closed with dorsal and ventral blood vessels joined by five paired "hearts" forcing circulation flow dorsal-ventrally. E) absent and they rely solely on diffusion to absorb gases through the epidermis.
5)
Considering the age of the various segments of an annelid such as an earthworm,
A) they are born with all segments present and these merely grow in size; this allows segment count to be a major feature in their identification. B) new segments are added just behind the prostomium, so the oldest segments are at the posterior end. C) new segments are added just in front of the pygidium, so the oldest segments are at the anterior end. D) each segment doubles several times in life so all of the segments are half or onefourth "new" at any one time. E) segments grow and duplicate in a haphazard fashion preventing their use in identification.
6)
The body wall of an annelid consists of
A) an epidermis and longitudinal muscles only, as is the case with nematodes. B) a non-living cuticle, and inner circular muscles to squeeze the cuticle. C) an epithelium that secretes cuticle, and layers of both longitudinal and circular muscles. D) a bare epidermis with inner circular muscles and outer longitudinal muscles. E) a soft exoskeleton to hold up in the absence of inner fluids, with outer circular muscles and inner longitudinal muscles.
7)
In contrast to roundworms, how do segmented worms elongate or stretch lengthwise?
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A) B) C) D) E)
8)
The polychaetes A) B) C) D) E)
9)
lack any head or specialized sense organs. have paired parapodia on most segments. have a clitellum used for reproductive purposes. lack setae. All of the choices are correct.
Polychaetes crawl by means of leg-like __________which also serve in respiration. A) B) C) D) E)
11)
belong to the smallest and most evolutionarily derived group of annelids. are mostly freshwater inhabitants. are mostly terrestrial, living in moist soil. consist of active predators and sedentary particle feeders. cannot tolerate brackish or marine salinity.
Polychaetes differ from other annelids because polychaetes A) B) C) D) E)
10)
Contracting the longitudinal muscles Contracting circular muscles Forcibly expanding the circular muscles Forcibly expanding longitudinal muscles Snapping back to original shape of the hard cuticle
aortic arches metanephridia clitella palps parapodia
The high degree of development of eyes in the family Alciopidae is related to
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A) their need to detect predators in adjacent soil. B) the large size of their prey. C) the active movement of their prey. D) the different wavelengths of light, the absorption of which varies according to the depth of the water. E) their tube-dwelling existence.
12)
The typical nervous system of a polychaete consists of A) B) C) D) E)
cerebral ganglia and a double ventral nerve cord with ganglia in each segment. a ladder-like pattern similar to that of a flatworm. a distributed nerve net without a central nervous system. a brain, a dorsal nerve cord, and major ganglia in the segments with the clitellum. major digestive ganglia that extend to all parts of the polychaete.
13) You experiment with a live earthworm and notice the following results: - With an intact earthworm, when you "poke" a segment, it contracts. - When you cut off the first segments containing the brain, the remaining worm still crawls. - When you cut the nerve in each septal wall, contractions continue. - If you cut the body wall, leaving the nerve cord intact, crawling still continues. - When you cut both the body wall nerve and the nerve cord, there are no longer any coordinated contractions. What is a reasonable conclusion? A) An earthworm's brain controls crawling. B) The ventral nerve cord controls all contractions. C) Mechanical stimulation of each segment triggers contractions. D) Earthworms use ventral nerve cord to coordinate contractions along the length of the worm and mechanical stimulation of each segment to triggers segmental responses during crawling. E) None of the choices is correct.
14)
The calciferous glands in the earthworm
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A) B) C) D) E)
15)
In the earthworm, the typhlosole A) B) C) D) E)
16)
produce enzymes for digestion. are the respiratory organs. secrete calcium ions into the gut. provide nutritive fluid for the sperm. store glycogen and transport it to body tissues.
is the organ of locomotion. increases the absorptive area of the gut. grinds the food. produces secretions during mating. coordinates the contractions of the digestive system.
Chloragogen cells
A) float free to distribute materials to body tissues. B) accumulate around wounds and regenerating areas where they break down and release their contents into the coelom. C) function in excretion. D) have a function similar to those of liver cells. E) All of the choices are correct.
17)
Giant axons are utilized in the earthworm for A) B) C) D) E)
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coordinating mating. rapid escape movements. preventing drowning. coordinating digestion. improving the visual sensory system.
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18) The Formation of Vegetable Mould Through the Action of Worms is the title of a classic study by Charles Darwin. What is the true role of earthworms in soil formation? A) material. B) C) D) E)
19)
Earthworms consume valuable air that is needed by plant roots. Earthworms are harmful to plant and spread plants root diseases. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
The blood of an earthworm contains A) B) C) D) E)
20)
Earthworms can ingest their weight in soil every day, enriching it with organic
hemoglobin packaged in red blood cells similar to the blood of mammals. only hemolymph with no respiratory pigments, similar to the hemolymph of insects. white blood cells that assume the job of carrying respiratory gases. chloragogen as a substitute respiratory pigment. colorless ameboid cells and hemoglobin molecules dissolved in the fluid.
The circulatory system in the earthworm A) B) C) D)
is absent since all respiration is across the epidermis. is an open system where hemolymph washes through body sinuses. has a dorsal vessel as the main pumping organ. has no pumping structure but depends on the action of body muscles to move the
E)
has five pumps that circulate blood first to the gills and then to the rest of the body.
blood.
21)
Gas exchange in the earthworm occurs through the
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
gills. metanephridia. skin. setae. typhlosole.
Oligochaetes are primarily A) B) C) D) E)
marine. aquatic. terrestrial. parasitic. micropredators.
23) Darwin observed earthworm behavior where a worm would seize a leaf fragment by its narrow end in order to pull the leaf into its burrow. This behavior is A) B) C) D) E)
24)
evidence of high level reasoning. mainly a product of trial and error. genetic or innate. proof of an extensive ability to learn. now known to be totally random.
The cocoon in the earthworm is produced by the A) B) C) D) E)
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clitellum. prostomium. calciferous glands. chloragogen cells. typhlosole.
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25)
Reproduction in the earthworm involves A) B) C) D) E)
26)
When earthworms copulate, each stores the other's sperm in chambers called a/an A) B) C) D) E)
27)
clitellum. egg capsule. nephridiopore. seminal receptacle. seminal vesicle.
Compared to earthworms, freshwater oligochaetes A) B) C) D) E)
28)
asexual budding. self-fertilization. cross-fertilization between two dioecious organisms. cross-fertilization between two hermaphroditic organisms. reproduction by "stem mothers."
have more conspicuous setae. have better-developed sense organs. are more mobile. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
A leech A) B) C) D) E)
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has a clitellum only during the breeding season. has a fixed number of segments. has both anterior and posterior suckers. has a coelomic cavity filled with connective tissue. All of the choices are correct.
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29)
Leeches A) B) C) D) E)
30)
are mostly found in fresh water. are largely "micropredators" but sometimes parasites. may be carnivores on small invertebrates. are more abundant in the tropics. All of the choices are correct.
The remaining valid use of "medicinal leeches" is to
A) apply them to severely-bruised tissue to relieve blood congestion and allow damaged vessels to grow back. B) use them to clean out dead tissue from a wound. C) use them to restore the balance of body fluids or humors. D) apply them to increase circulation or blood flow to a region. E) All of the choices are correct.
31)
A unique feature of the leech nervous system is that A) B) C) D) E)
leeches have good eyesight. leeches have two "brains"; one anterior and one posterior. they can join their nervous system with the nerves in the host tissue. it only has giant axons that provide fast responses. the nerve ladder and ganglia are all dorsal.
32) Conventional external fertilization involves both males and females extruding gametes into the environment where they fertilize separate from the parents; internal fertilization involves sperm being transferred to the female with fertilization inside the female. A leech utilizes
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A) B) C) D) E)
conventional external fertilization. standard internal fertilization. internal fertilization but by hypodermic impregnation that penetrates the integument. no transfer of sperm at all but regenerates asexually. None of the choices is correct.
33) A biologically plausible reason that burrowing earthworms have solid segmental walls but nonburrowing and parasitic annelids often have partial septa is A) the segmentation was selected to enable better expansion during burrowing. Parasitic annelids do not burrow and the loss of the ability to expand segments was not disadvantageous during their evolution. B) the nonburrowing worms were primitive and had not yet developed full walls. C) nonburrowing worms are halfway between roundworms and fully-segmented earthworms. D) that it permits fragmentation and regeneration of body parts, which earthworms need because they are in a dangerous environment, but internal parasites do not need this. E) None of the choices is correct.
34)
The Sipunculans live in burrows and feed on sediment deposits using A) B) C) D) E)
35)
a non-retractile spoon-shaped proboscis. a chitinous cuticle. a segmented opisthosoma. a retractile introvert with ciliated tentacles. None of the choices is correct.
Members of the Phylum Sipuncula are also known as the
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A) B) C) D) E)
bryzoans. beard worms. tongue worms. peanut worms. None of the choices is correct.
36) In terms of the generalpattern of blood vessels within the circulatory system, which animal is most similar toan earthworm? A) B) C) D)
37)
Predict what would occur the radioles of a fanwormwere removed by a predator. A) B) C) D)
38)
An octopus, because like an earthworm it has a closed circulatory system. A clam, because like an earthworm it has a closed circulatory system. An octopus, because like an earthworm it has an open circulatory system. A clam, because like an earthworm it has an open circulatory system.
Food would not be drawn into the fanworm's body. Gametes would not bre produced by the fanworm. The fanworm would be unable to move from the burrow. The tube lining would not be secreted by the fanworm.
What would allow you to determine that an animal is a leech and not an earthworm?
A) Leeches have two suckers, while earthworms lack suckers. B) Leeches lack obvious external evidence of segmentation, while earthworms are obviously segmented. C) Earthworms have a clitellum, while leeches lack a clitellum. D) Leeches have setae, while earthworms lack setae.
39)
If you wanted to quickly locate a sipunculan, where would be the best place to look?
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A) B) C) D)
In a snail shell Under the leaves of terrestrial plants At the surface of an aquatic environment In the soil of a terrestrial environment
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) The anterior-most and posterior-most portions of the annelid body are the __________ and pygidium, respectively.
41) The __________ organs are ciliated sensory pits or slits that appear to be chemoreceptive for food gathering.
42)
Paired appendages used for locomotion in polychaetes are called __________.
43)
The feathery arms of fanworms that trap food particles are called __________ crowns.
44) In the earthworm, food is drawn into the mouth by the pumping action of the __________.
45)
The temporary food storage organ in the earthworm is the __________.
46)
When earthworms mate, the __________ secretes mucus to hold them together.
47) The Hirudinida are unique in that externally they have both an anterior and a posterior ___________.
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48)
The spaces in the coelom of leeches are called the __________.
49) In leeches, a cocoon into which fertilized eggs will be deposited is secreted by the __________.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 50) Explain why cross-fertilization, rather than self-fertilization,is advantageous to hermaphroditic earthworms.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 51)
52)
Why does the wound from the bite of a leech bleed profusely?
53)
Why do zoologists not have a well-accepted theory for the origin of segmentation?
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54) Older taxonomic treatments represent the Annelida as consisting of three classes: Polychaeta, Oligochaeta, and Hirudinea. Compare and contrast that representation to what we know about phylogenetic relationships within the phylum today.
55) The Branchiobdellida, is a group of small annelids that contains parasites or commensals of crayfish. They show similarities to both oligochaetes and leeches in that they bear a head sucker. In your analysis, is the evolution of a head sucker a derived trait in an oligochaete lineage or would the loss of posterior sucker place them in the Hirudinea?
56)
Speculate as towhy polychaetes are overwhelmingly marine organisms.
57)
Discuss the importance of a trochophore larva in both the Annelida and the Mollusca.
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58)
Discuss why segmentation is such an important innovation in the Annelida.
59)
Of what evolutionary significance is the "hydrostatic skeleton"?
60) The most recent molecular evidence suggests that the Annelida and Mollusca are more closely related to each other (in the clade Lophotrochozoa) rather than either phylum is to the Arthropoda (clade Ecdysozoa). Do you think 1) it matters that this distinction is made, and 2) should the use of molecular evidence by itself be the sole means of distinguishing the affinities of these groups? Support your argument.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_18e 1) B 2) E 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) E 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) E 29) E 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) prostomium 41) Nuchal 42) parapodia 43) tentacular crowns 44) pharynx 45) crop 46) clitellum 47) sucker 48) lacunae 49) clitellum 50) Increases in both genetic diversity and the number of offspring can be produced if cross-fertilization occurs. Additionally, crossfertilization allows the resulting offspring to mature in different locations with different variables, which may increase the chances of survival for at least some offspring. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. Version 1
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53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answer may vary 56) Answers will vary. 57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 18 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) "If all the matter in the universe except the were swept away, our world would still be dimly recognizable, and if, as disembodied spirits, we could then investigate it, we should find its mountains, hills, vales, rivers, lakes, and oceans represented by a film of. The location of towns would be decipherable, since for every massing of human beings there would be a corresponding massing of certain. Trees would still stand in ghostly rows representing our streets and highways. The location of the various plants and animals would still be decipherable, and, had we sufficient knowledge, in many cases even their species could be determined by an examination of their erstwhile parasites." The missing term in this passage is A) B) C) D) E)
flatworms. bacteria. nematodes. rotifers. protozoans.
2) The nematode Caenorhabditis elegans has allowed scientists to develop "fate maps" tracing cell lines back to cell origins. The trait of nematodes and some other related groups where they have a set number of cell divisions leading to the same number of body cells in an adult is called 4-12-2013 A) B) C) D) E)
3)
anisogamy. apoptosis. cryptobiosis. gastrulation. eutely.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about nematodes?
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A) B) C) D) E)
There are three layers of tissues in the body. Nematodes lack circular muscles under the tegument. The body cavity provides a hydrostatic skeleton. Nematodes have a smooth unsegmented outside body wall. Nematodes are all carnivores but may be free-living or parasitic.
4) Which of these parasites does NOT enter the mouth of its human host and leave as eggs with the human feces? A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Tapeworm Pinworm Ascaris Hookworm None of the choices is correct.
In contrast to the function of our bodies, the nematode is unusual insofar as it
A) lacks circular muscles to antagonize the longitudinal muscles and must rely on the rigid cuticle and hydrostatic pressure. B) extends muscle cells to the nerve process, rather than nerves to the muscle cells. C) does not utilize the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain in anaerobic parasitic species. D) moves food through its alimentary tract without direct muscle contractions on the intestine. E) All of the choices are "unusual" nematode adaptations.
6)
Amphids and phasmids
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A) B) C) D) E)
7)
are two kinds of nematodes. perform a sensory function. are found in the intestine. are acquired by eating uncooked beef. are reproductive stages in nematodes.
If you are infected with Ascaris worms, the most likely complication is A) B) C) D) E)
anemia. destruction of tissues as it migrates through your body. blockage of the intestines. starvation from lack of nutrition because it is absorbing all your food. lymph blockage.
8) Which two parasites have life stages that are coughed up and swallowed in order to complete the life cycle? A) B) C) D)
Ascaris and trichina Ascaris and hookworm Elephantiasis and trichina Hookworm and trichina
9) If the main disease symptom is anemia (low red blood cell count), the most likely nematode parasite is A) B) C) D) E)
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Trichinella. Ascaris. pinworm. elephantiasis. hookworm.
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10)
The name "hookworms" is due to the fact thatthey A) B) C) D) E)
11)
How do you become infected with Necator americanus hookworms? A) B) C) D) E)
12)
Consumption of contaminated water or food Eating uncooked meat Larvae burrow into your feet Mosquitoes inject them into your bloodstream Transfer from the anal region after lack of hand washing
The parasite found in the U.S. where people contract it by eating poorly cooked pork is A) B) C) D) E)
13)
cluster in blood vessels in the liver and clog the veins. burrow constantly through muscle tissues. hook onto the intestine and consume blood and tissue fluids causing anemia. clog the lymph glands and expand the legs and arms. have an anterior end that curves dorsally like a hook.
Trichinella. Ascaris. Pinworm. Elephantiasis. Hookworm.
Juvenile Trichinella worms live in the A) B) C) D) E)
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liver. lungs. intestines. lymph glands. skeletal muscle.
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14) The mild nematode infection that is somewhat common among children in the southern U.S., and that is transmitted as eggs from anal to oral regions by the hands is A) B) C) D) E)
15)
Dog heartworm is caused by A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Trichinella. Ascaris. Pinworm. Elephantiasis. Hookworm.
Dirofilaria nematodes. a tapeworm consumed in raw meat. eating raw meat infected with Trichinella. nematodes consumed as eggs in contaminated water. None of the choices is correct.
Elephantiasis is an enlargement of legs, arms, scrotum, and other tissues caused by
A) an infection of the human coelom by Ascaris. B) a large number of Trichinella worms encysting in our muscles. C) contracting a disease that usually occurs in elephants. D) microscopic nematodes that reproduce and clog lymph glands, causing infection and limbs to swell. E) a protozoan that lives in tropical roundworms and which, when ingested by humans, causes muscles to bloat.
17)
Elephantiasis is transferred by
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A) B) C) D) E)
eating uncooked elephant meat. worms burrowing into skin of feet. drinking contaminated water or food. mosquitoes injecting larval worms into the bloodstream. exchanging body fluids with an infected person.
18) Which of the following is NOT a factor that protects North Americans from many parasitic worm infections? A) B) C) D) E)
19)
Nematomorphs A) B) C) D) E)
20)
Much of the U.S. has bitter cold winters. Most of the population wears shoes. We usually cook our meat and there are few raw meat dishes. We have superior drugs and surgeons. We do not use human excreta ("night soil") to directly fertilize crops.
are called spiny-headed worms. are rare. are found in the host's liver. are free-living as adults but parasitic on vertebrates as juveniles. are free-living as adults but parasitic on arthropods as juveniles.
Kinorhynchs A) B) C) D) E)
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are relatively large (10 to 12.5 cm [4 to 5 in.]). live in fresh water. possess external cilia. have a vestigial digestive system and absorbs food through its epidermis. are marine worms.
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21)
Members of the phylum Priapulida A) B) C) D) E)
22)
Loriciferans A) B) C) D) E)
23)
are tiny, about 0.10 to 0.50 mm long. live in spaces between grains of marine gravel. widely distributed in the world. are dioecious. All of the choices are correct.
What feature do Tardigrades and arthropods share? A) B) C) D) E)
24)
are metameric. are coelomate because they have a peritoneum. are hermaphroditic. have a proboscis. are active predators that pursue prey.
Three caudal lobes on the posterior end Muscles that insert on setae A small retractable proboscis A thick non cellular cuticle All of the choices are shared features.
Imagine that an onychophoran is threatened by a predator. Predict what will happen.
A) The onychophoran will excrete a slime-like substance that will disable the predator. B) The onychophoran will become dormant. C) The onychophoranuse poison fangs toattack the predator. D) The onychophoran will be consumed by the predator due to the onychophoran's lack of defenses.
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25) In your study group you are discussing the clade Panarthropoda. Your classmates are trying to identify a single developmental feature that would differentiate the onychophorans from the tardigrades. What could you say to clarify this issue? A) The coelom of an onychophoran develops by the splitting of mesodermal bands, while the coelom of a tardigrade develops from pouches that arise fromthe mesodermal bands. B) The coelom of an tardigradedevelops by the splitting of mesodermal bands, while the coelom of a onychophoran develops from pouches that arise fromthe mesodermal bands. C) The developmental pattern of the coelom of a tardigrade can vary, but an onychorphoran always has the coelom form from pouches that arise from mesodermal bands. D) Onychophorans cannot be distinguished by a single developmental feature.
26) Predict what would be the most immediate effect if arthropods were not present in the environment of a nematomorph. A) The nematomorph would not undergo development into an adult. B) The chances of survival would increase for thenematomorph, since arthropods prey on netmatomorphs. C) Since adult nematomorphs eat arthropods, the removal of arthropods would cause adult nematomorphs to lose their food source. D) Since arthropods and nematomorphs rarely interact, there would be no immediate effect.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 27) The outer body covering of a nematode is a relatively thick, noncellular cuticle, which is constructed primarily of a protein known as __________.
28)
Nematodes have a fluid-filled pseudocoel that serves as a _____________ skeleton.
29) Nematodes have no circular muscles in the body wall; therefore, the __________ antagonizes the longitudinal muscles. Version 1
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30) Most male nematodes bear a pair of copulatory__________at their posterior end to aid in insemination of the female.
31)
Adult Ascaris worms are found in the host's __________.
32) The infective stage of Ascaris is the __________, which is resistant to adverse conditions.
33)
Infective juveniles of hookworms gain access to a host by penetration of the __________.
34) Humans are infected with Trichinella spiralis by eating insufficiently cooked __________.
35)
The most common helminth parasite in the United States is the __________.
36)
Filarial worms ( Wuchereria and Brugia) are transmitted by __________.
37) Tiny marine worms that burrow through mud by extending the head and anchoring it by recurved spines are __________.
38)
The entire forepart of the body of a loriciferan can be withdrawn into the __________.
39) The __________ are burrowing marine worms with a proboscis, trunk, and usually one or two caudal appendages. Version 1
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40)
Onychophorans are also known as __________ or walking worms.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 41) Compare and contrast the onychorphorans and the tardigrades. Include developmental and morphological features in your answer.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 42) Describe the life cycle of a Trichinella worm.
43) What specific factors protect the average North American from all of the parasitic cycles of flukes, tapeworms, and roundworms, etc.? Be sure to address social attitudes, clothing, climate, food preparation, use of human wastes as fertilizer, general medical care, sanitation facilities, and economics.
44) Give the reasoning behind the more recent classification of the clades Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.
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45)
Why do scientists suspect that the nematodes may be even more diverse than the insects?
46)
Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
47) Outline the mode of infection of two of the following: hookworm, pinworm, intestinal roundworm, and trichina worm.
48)
Outline the life cycle of Wuchereria bancrofti.
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49) Explain why the Tardigrada and Onychophora are lumped with Arthropoda in the clade Panarthropoda.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_18e 1) C 2) E 3) E 4) D 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) E 10) E 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) E 20) E 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1
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27) collagen 28) hydrostatic 29) pseudocoel 30) spicules 31) intestines 32) egg 33) skin 34) meat 35) pinworm 36) mosquitoes 37) kinorhynchs 38) lorica 39) Priapulids 40) Velvet 41) Answer may vary 42) Answers will vary. 43) Answer may vary 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answer may vary 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answer may vary
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CHAPTER 19 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term "myriapod" includes A) B) C) D) E)
2)
all arthropods, gastropods, and brachiopods. just the millipedes and centipedes. insects and their ancestors. all arthropods except arachnids and crustaceans. centipedes, millipedes, pauropods and symphylans but not insects.
The arthropods
A) make up more than three-fourths of all the known species of animals. B) are more widely and more densely distributed throughout the world than members of any other phylum of animals. C) are segmented eucoelomate protostomes with well-developed organ systems. D) are limited in size and generally are smaller than 60 centimeters in length. E) All of the choices are correct.
3)
Arthropods are A) B) C) D) E)
4)
carnivorous. herbivorous. omnivorous. both carnivorous and herbivorous. All of the choices are correct.
Arthropods are successful because they have
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
The correct order for layers of ectoskeleton from outside to inside is A) B) C) D) E)
6)
It contains chitin which is hard and inflexible. The procuticle is impregnated with calcium salts. It is due solely to a tanning process. The procuticle and epicuticle are laminated. The shell protein contains more lipid.
Trilobites exist today as A) B) C) D) E)
8)
endocuticle-epicuticle-exocuticle. endocuticle-exocuticle-epicuticle. exocuticle-endocuticle-epicuticle. epicuticle-exocuticle-endocuticle. exocuticle-epicuticle-endocuticle.
What makes the shell of a lobster so hard? A) B) C) D) E)
7)
a very efficient respiratory system. highly developed sensory organs. reduced competition through metamorphosis. a protective exoskeleton that allows both protection and mobility. All of the choices are correct.
freshwater dwellers. terrestrial crustaceans. aquatic insects. horseshoe crabs. fossils only; they are all extinct.
Chelicerate arthropods possess
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A) B) C) D) E)
9)
Eurypterids A) B) C) D) E)
10)
are, like their relatives the trilobites and eurypterids, now extinct. are poisonous to humans. live in freshwater habitats. have a long, spine-like telson. are adult forms of trilobites.
Sea spiders A) B) C) D) E)
12)
resembled insects. are extinct. are called sea spiders. were very small aquatic scorpions. were huge ancient scorpions that wandered on land.
Horseshoe crabs A) B) C) D) E)
11)
pedipalps. antennae. mandibles. three pairs of walking legs. All of the choices are chelicerate features.
are extinct. feed on fluids of soft-bodied animals such as cnidarians. resemble crustaceans. have an unusually large abdomen. are marine arachnid spiders.
You could collect a sea spider
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A) B) C) D) E)
13)
Members of the class Arachnida have A) B) C) D) E)
14)
a cephalothorax and abdomen. antennae. mandibles. five pairs of walking legs. All of the choices are arachnid features.
Spiders and insects have an excretory system composed of A) B) C) D) E)
15)
as an ectoparasite on a whale. grazing in kelp beds. from intertidal zones to over 6000 meters deep, especially in polar waters. as an endoparasite in the gut of echinoderms. in underwater webs in coral reefs.
permeable surface cuticle. enclosed book lungs. flame cells. green glands. malpighian tubules.
The excretory system of insects and spiders works by
A) excreting wastes across the digestive system membrane. B) active transport of just the waste molecules across the tubules. C) transport of all ions and solutes across the tubule and retrieval of water and useful ions in the rectum. D) excretion of only ions and wastes in the rectum. E) packaging and sealing off toxic wastes until the organism dies.
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16)
How do spiders eat?
A) B) C) stomach. D) E)
17)
gills. diffusion across the soft cuticle. an extensive system of tracheae more complex than is found in insects. book lungs or primitive tracheae. coxal glands.
Spider silk
A) B) C) needed. D) E)
19)
Food is stored in a crop and ground up in a gizzard. Food is swallowed whole.
Spiders breathe by means of A) B) C) D) E)
18)
A spider mashes and manipulates food with its fangs so it can be swallowed whole. Food is soaked into silk threads which are then consumed. Food is partly digested externally and the nutritive juices are sucked into the
is very strong but cannot be stretched without breaking. is onlyproduced by those orb web spiders that form webs to catch insects. is formed as solid coiled threads internally that can be uncoiled and used whenever is used differently by different spider species. All of the choices are correct.
Which arachnid has a bite or sting that is neurotoxic and causes paralysis?
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
Scorpion Brown recluse spider Black widow spider All arachnids have such a toxin. No arachnid has a dangerous neurotoxic bite.
A male spider inseminates a female spider by A) B)
normal abdomen to abdomen mating. external fertilization where a male spider dances a female over a spermatophore
packet. C) injecting sperm with his pedipalps and then rapidly retreating before being eaten. D) transferring sperm via silk. E) avoiding the dangerous female spider altogether and fertilizing the eggs after they are laid in an egg case.
21)
Scorpions A) B) C) D) E)
22)
feed during the day. are most common in the temperate areas of the world. are docile animals that, in spite of their reputation, cannot harm humans. are sensitive to surface waves produced by movement on the ground. All of the choices are correct.
Which is NOT a correct association of scorpion structures and functions? A) B) C) D) E)
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Pectines—tactile organs to explore the ground Spermatophore—a packet of sperm Chelicerae—large six-jointed pincers Cephalothorax—bears the appendages Postabdomen—bears a tail with sting
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23) For scorpions, mating is particularly risky for the male since the female can eat the male. Therefore, the male scorpion A) uses the same procedure as male spiders. B) holds the females pincers in a "dance" position, deposits a spermatophore on the ground and dances her over it. C) transfers a spermatophore from between his body segments directly into hers. D) fertilizes her by hypodermic insemination where the sperm is injected inside her body cavity. E) still uses regular mating since this copulatory position keeps her facing away safely.
24)
The Acari A) B) C) D) E)
25)
The mites and ticks carry their mouthparts on a little anterior projection called the A) B) C) D) E)
26)
have a distinct head, thorax, and abdomen. are of great economic and medical importance. are a limited and well known order of about 2,000 species. are all terrestrial. All of the choices are correct.
hypostome. rostrum. capitulum. pedipalp. pectin.
Scabies mite ( Sarcoptes scabei) infections
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A) B) C) D) E)
27)
What carries the bacteria that cause Lyme disease? A) B) C) D) E)
28)
their circulatory system became closed. their hemocoel took on a new function as a hydrostatic skeleton. there was an expansion of surfaces for respiration and excretion. Intersegmental septa became unnecessary. a closed circulatory system became necessary.
Centipedes A) B) C) D) E)
30)
Dermacentor Boophilus annulatus Trombicula Demodex Ixodes
As the arthropod ancestors underwent "arthropodization," A) B) C) D) E)
29)
are harmless and live in human hair follicles. cause intense itching. are the causative agent of "chiggers." are fatal infections because they carry Lyme disease. are fatal infections because they carry Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
are herbivorous. have poison claws. have five pairs of legs. use gills for respiration. are parthenogenetic and always oviparous.
The millipedes
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A) B) C) D) E)
31)
bear two pairs of legs on most body segments. are very beneficial because they feed on insects. are more active than centipedes because they have more legs. have flattened bodies in contrast to centipedes. lack spiracles and tracheae and therefore differ from centipedes.
Reproduction in millipedes is A) B) C) D) E)
external in moist moss or soil. internal and the young are born live. internal and the eggs are abandoned under rocks and rotting logs. internal and eggs are laid in a nest and guarded by the female. by asexual segmentation.
32) You are given a large tropical millipede to raise in a humid terrarium lined with soil and leaf litter. What should you feed it? A) B) C) D) E)
33)
Insects Sliced apples and dead soft plant tissues Freshly cut wood Fresh meat or dog food All of the choices would be food for a millipede.
You would be most likely to find a pauropod if you examined A) B) C) D) E)
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the fur of a mammal, since they are parasites. under a rock in a stream. moist soil, leaf litter, or decaying debris. inside the juicy tissues of a host plant. an intertidal pool.
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34)
Pauropods lack A) B) C) D) E)
eyes. tracheae. a circulatory system. spiracles. All of the choices are lacking in pauropods.
35) You find a white, soft-bodied myriapod in the soil in a flower pot. It has long antennae but lacks eyes and fang-like claws. It most likely is a A) B) C) D) E)
pauropod. symphylan. centipede. millipede. None of the choices is correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 36) Groups of segments fused or combined into functional groups are called __________.
37) The tough, resistant, nitrogenous polysaccharide in the cuticle of arthropods is __________.
38)
Members of the subphylum __________ were abundant during the Cambrian period.
39) Male sea spiders have a subsidiary pair of legs called __________ on which they carry developing eggs.
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40)
Most spiders feed on __________.
41)
The excretory system of spiders and insects is a structure known as __________ tubules.
42) Two poisonous spiders in the United States that are dangerous to humans are the black widow and the brown __________.
43)
Another name for the harvestman is __________ longlegs.
44) Acarines differ from all other arachnids in having complete fusion of the __________ and abdomen.
45)
The parasitic or micropredatory arachnids belong to the order __________.
46) Some mites, such as __________ mites from the family Tetranychidae, are very destructive to plants.
47)
Tactile organs on the ventral side of scorpions are __________.
48) During mating in spiders, the male inserts his __________ into the genital opening of the female.
49) During the process of "arthropodization," the role of the coelomic compartments as a __________ skeleton was lost.
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50)
Four classes of myriapods are Chilopoda, Pauropoda, Symphyla and __________.
51) Many millipedes defend themselves by secreting toxic or repellant fluids from __________ glands.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 52) The exoskeleton is a "suit of armor" with muscles attached from inside. Yet the exoskeleton must be periodically shed. Imagine that a spider is going through such a shed. Describe the layers of the exoskeleton and the process of molting for that spider.
53) There are animal groups that have smaller individuals than arthropods and they have a few hundred or a few thousand species. And there are animal groups that contain much larger organisms, and they have a few hundred or a few thousand species. Why do the intermediatesized arthropods have over a million species?
54) Why is the formation of the cuticular exoskeleton with jointed appendages considered central to the success of arthropod diversity?
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55) What features constitute "arthropodization" and what evidence exists that these features evolved once rather than several times independently?
56) What is the evolutionary significance of arthropodization? Aren't tetrapods such as humans as successful as arthropods? Explain your reasoning.
57) The arthropodan cuticle is not entirely hardened. Why not? Include reasons forthe need to be mobile and flexible in your answer.
58) Arthropodan cephalization is pronounced. Would this have anything to do with tagmatization? If an organism is highly cephalized does it always exhibit tagmatization? If an organism exhibits tagmatization, is it always highly cephalized?
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59) Outline the apparent reasons why arthropods have achieved such incredible diversity and abundance.
60) Discuss the Importance of the exoskeleton to a Spider. What does it allow the spider to accomplish, and how would the spider be vulnerable without a hardened exoskeleton?
61) How does a small organism such as a beetle retard water loss? Discuss both structural and physiological mechanisms.
62) There is a hypothesis that euryterid predation on early fish induced the selection for armor in these vertebrates. What kind of evidence would you require to show that there might be a causation here, rather than just a correlation in the fossil record?
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63) What is the evidence that suggests pycnogonids are more closely related to crustaceans than to other arthropods? Why is this evidence contrary to molecular evidence that suggests otherwise?
64)
Discuss the ecological position of the spiders as a group.
65)
Discuss the importance of cuticular mechanoreceptors in the spiders.
66) You are fortunate to be able to observe a garden spider on campus. You note the large spinnerets at the end of her abdomen. Another student wonders about the use of silk by the spider. Explain the different purposes for which this spider might use her silk.
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67) Why are the Opiliones considered to be in a clade with the scorpions and not so closely aligned with the Acari?
68) Describe the bite of the chigger mite. How long are the nymphs actually attached, and why is it that some people have such intense reactions to their bites yet others have none?
69) Discuss features of ticks that make them such excellent vectors of human arthropodborne diseases.
70) Do you believe our current understanding of the phylogeny of the arthropods is the correct one? Why or why not?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_18e 1) E 2) E 3) E 4) E 5) D 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1
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27) E 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) E 35) B 36) tagmata 37) chitin 38) Trilobita 39) ovigers 40) insects 41) malpighian 42) recluse 43) daddy 44) cephalothorax 45) Acari 46) spider 47) pectines 48) pedipalps 49) hydrostatic 50) Diplopoda 51) repugnatorial glands 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answer may vary 54) Answer may vary 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 20 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) How do crustaceans differ from other arthropod groups? A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Crustaceans possess a telson. Crustaceans have two pairs of antennae. Crustaceans have chitinous exoskeletons. Crustaceans possess a two-part body plan of cephalothorax and abdomen. Crustaceans possess a hemocoel.
Crustacea are biramous, meaning they possess A) B) C) D) E)
a telson. two large pincers. two pair of antennae. jointed appendages having two branches. a body divided into two regions, the cephalothorax and abdomen.
3) The various specialized body structures along the malacostracan body are thought to be derived from a common biramous appendage, which suggests A) B) C) D) E)
4)
serial homology. telsonization. arthropodization. analogous homology. convergent evolution.
The major body space in arthropods is the
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
coelom. pseudocoelom. hemocoel. blastocoel. telson.
The tail fan of many malacostracans is A) B) C) D) E)
the rostrum. the postcarapace. the endopod. a combination of uropods and telson. a fusion of the last biramous appendages.
6) The segments of crustaceans are covered with a dorsal plate that is known as a/an __________ and a ventral plate that is known as a/an __________. A) B) C) D) E)
epiproct, underproct flexor, extensor endopod, exopod endite, exite tergum, sternum
7) The generalized appendage of a crustacean has a basal portion or protopod that has a lateral __________ and a medial __________. A) B) C) D) E)
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epiproct, underproct flexor, extensor exopod, endopod endite, exite tergum, sternum
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8) Medial and lateral processes on a crustacean limb are called __________ and __________ respectively. A) B) C) D) E)
epiprocts, underprocts flexors, extensors exopods, endopods endites, exites terga, sterna
9) As part of your lab assignment, you are charged with summarizing the characteristics of the appendages of a crayfish. After you observe the appendages, you can conclude that the appendages include A) B) C) D) E)
10)
two pairs of abdominal swimmerets that are different in males and females. a telson. two large pincers. two branches on all appendages. All of the choices listed are crayfish appendages.
The "bailer" of a crayfish that draws water over the gill filaments is a part of the A) B) C) D) E)
second maxillae. caudal furca. third maxilliped. first walking leg. first swimmeret.
11) Since the hemolymph of crustaceans leaves the heart by arteries, why is it considered an open rather than a closed system?
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A) The hemolymph lacks any respiratory pigments. B) The hemolymph flows through the hemocoel and returns via venous sinuses rather than enclosed veins. C) The heart does not pump hemolymph but it moves by ciliary action instead. D) The arteries "dead end" and the hemolymph must backflow through the arteries. E) The hemolymph lacks any respiratory function.
12)
The respiratory apparatus of a crayfish is A) B) C) D) E)
a set of gills under the carapace. book lungs inside the carapace. a set of gills along the underside of the tail. tracheal tubes throughout the body. a cluster of alveoli under the tail.
13) The first pair of walking legs in a crayfish, lobster, crab, and their relatives, that is enlarged with a terminal claw is the A) B) C) D) E)
14)
protopodite. statocyst. cheliped. pedipalp. exopodite.
What is the function of the green glands in the crayfish? A) B) C) D) E)
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Secretion of fluids to aid digestion Increasing oxygen absorption for respiration Sensing vibrations in water Reproduction Excretion
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15) The most accurate explanation of the management of nitrogenous wastes and ion balance in the crayfish is A) the nitrogenous waste of crustaceans is excreted by the green glands and ion diffusion takes place by diffusion across thin areas of cuticle and the gills. B) both ion balance and elimination of nitrogenous wastes is managed by the green glands. C) hydrostatic pressure in the green glands forces fluid into the hemocoel and both ions, and nitrogenous wastes diffuse across thin areas of cuticle and the gills. D) None of the choices is correct. E) the nitrogenous waste of crustaceans is excreted by diffusion across thin areas of cuticle and the gills, while the so-called excretory organs regulate ion composition of the hemolymph.
16)
The green glands form an effective "flood control" device in the freshwater crayfish by A)
forming a dilute, low-salt urine to unload the water that diffuses into the crayfish
B) C) D) E)
forming a high-salt urine to unload the high salt built up in the crayfish body. keeping the urine isosmotic to the blood. keeping the interior hemocoel dry. producing extra sodium and chloride ions to maintain the ionic balance.
body.
17)
The nerves of the eyes and the two pairs of antennae connect to the A) B) C) D) E)
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statocyst. supraesophageal ganglion. subesophageal ganglion. thoracic ganglion. antennal glands.
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18) If crayfish are raised in a very clean aquarium that only has iron filings in the floor, and they are allowed to go through several molts so that an iron filing is now serving as a statolith, what would be the effect of a large magnet suspended above the aquarium? A) B) C) D) E)
19)
The photoreceptor cells in the crustacean compound eye are called A) B) C) D) E)
20)
There would be no effect at all. The crayfish would swim sideways. The crayfish would swim upside down. The crayfish would be unable to detect food. The crayfish would be blind.
statocysts. statoliths. tactile hairs. gastroliths. ommatidia.
Which is a correct association of pigment and function in an arthropod compound eye? A) Strong light—distal retinal pigment disappears B) Strong light—each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited
area C) Strong light—distal and proximal pigments separate D) Dim light—each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited area E)
21)
Dim light—distal and proximal pigments fuse
The oldest ancestral and most widely-occurring crustacean larva is
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
a juvenile resembling the adult. the trochophore. the veliger. the nauplius. a planula.
Molting and subsequent ecdysis in crustaceans
A) involves production of a new cuticle and shedding of the old one. B) is initiated by a stimulus perceived by the central nervous system. C) involves a molt-inhibiting hormone produced by the X-organ of the eye stalk, and a molting hormone produced by the Y-organs near the mandibles. D) cues on stimuli such as day length, temperature, or humidity. E) All of the choices are correct.
23)
Androgenic glands in the amphipod function to A) B) C) D) E)
regulate ion balance. stimulate expression of male characteristics. control pigmentation for camouflage. secrete digestive fluids. control ecdysis.
24) The crustacean group with the most ancestral features, including a long trunk with fairly uniform appendages, is A) B) C) D) E)
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maxillopoda. cirripedia. isopoda. decapoda. remipedia.
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25) A small group of hermaphroditic crustaceans that is unique in discharging both eggs and sperm through a common duct is A) B) C) D) E)
26)
Marine crustaceans that are sessile, secrete calcareous plates and filter-feed are A) B) C) D) E)
27)
maxillopoda. cirripedia. cephalocarida. decapoda. remipedia.
ostracods. barnacles. copepods. decapods. isopods.
The order that has been successful invading terrestrial environments is the A) B) C) D) E)
amphipoda. euphausiacea. cladocera. decapoda. isopoda.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 28) The appendages of a crayfish are examples of serial __________.
29) The dorsal cuticle of the head of many crustaceans extends posteriorly to form a covering called the __________. Version 1
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30)
The two joints of the protopod are the lateral __________ and medial endopod.
31)
The procuticle of crustaceans is often impregnated with __________.
32) A characteristic that is unique to crustaceans is the possession of two pairs of __________.
33) The process which culminates with arthropods regularly shedding their exoskeleton because it has become too small for the growing body is called __________.
34)
Most appendages of crustaceans are two-branched, or __________.
35)
Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfish are called __________.
36) Crustaceans have better-developed sense organs than do the annelids because they have __________ hairs, which are delicate projections of cuticle distributed over the body.
37) When the juvenile that hatches from an egg resembles a miniature adult, the development is described as __________.
38) Water fleas, which belong to the branchiopodan order __________, often reproduce by parthenogenesis.
39)
In crustaceans, the molt-inhibiting hormone is produced in the __________ -organ.
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40)
The individual units of compound eyes in crustaceans are called __________.
41) In the parasitic barnacle order Rhizocephala, the larvae metamorphose into a __________stage that injects cells into the hemocoel of the crab.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 42) Describe the sequence of events that occur during molting and ecdysis in a crayfish and explain why a "soft craw" is vulnerable until it has hardened its shell.
43)
How does the statocyst work to communicate position to the crayfish?
44) Working with variable amounts of light, how do the various pigments in the ommatidium provide images of a variable field of vision or a continuous image?
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45) Even though they are anchored in one place as adults, barnacles considered crustaceans. Explain why this is accepted.
46)
Explain why pentastomids were placed in Ecdysozoa.
47) Crustaceans are often referred to as the "insects of the sea." This is partially because crustaceans are so abundant in the sea, as insects are on land, and because insects never successfully invaded the marine environment. Discuss why crustaceans 1) are so abundant in the ocean, and 2) why they did not radiate extensively into terrestrial environments.
48) Based on a count of individual organisms, a species in the copepod genus Calanus is likely the most abundant animal in the world. What features do copepods possess and what environmental factors contribute to this record status?
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49) Both clams and crabs are referred to in common terminology as "shellfish." However, zoologists do not consider them to be closely related. Provide a contrasting list of the differences between the crustacean decapods and the molluscan bivalves.
50) Crustaceans and molluscs of course do have a common ancestor at some point. Draw a reasonable phylogeny that includes the molluscs, annelids and arthropods including the crustacea, and describe the distinguishing features on each branch. There are several legitimate phylogenies.
51) Discuss how modulation in expression of the Distal -less gene determines the location of distal ends of arthropod limbs. Why is this significant?
52) Why is the adaptive diversification of the crustaceans so great, while that of other groups, such as the annelids, so much less?
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53)
Discuss the evolutionary significance of the serial homology of crustacean appendages.
54)
What is the evidence that the major tagmata in crustaceans are not homologous?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_18e 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) D 9) E 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) E 15) E 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) E 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) E 25) C 26) B Version 1
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27) E 28) homology 29) carapace 30) lateral exopod 31) calcium 32) antennae 33) molting 34) biramous 35) statocysts 36) tactile 37) direct 38) diplostraca 39) X 40) ommatidia 41) kentrogon 42) Answers will vary. 43) Answers will vary. 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answer may vary 54) Answers will vary. Different segments fuse in forming tagmata in many groups.
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CHAPTER 21 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following statements apply to the direct flight muscles of insects but do not apply to the indirect flight muscles? Select all that apply. A) All flight muscles act on wing bases. B) Downstroke of the wing is accomplished when longitudinal muscles of the thorax contract, sternotergal muscles relax, and the tergum arches upward. C) Flight in bees and wasps relies uponthese flight muscles. D) Flight in dragonflies relies onthese muscles.
2) You are walking along the shoreline of a lake enjoying a cool autumn evening. Your only annoyance is the healthy mosquito and midge populations present along the lake shore. You know of their presence by the hum of their wings as they fly around your head. This hum is created by wing beats in the range of 1,000 cycles per second. Which of the following statements help to explain this extremely high wing-beat frequency? Check all that apply. A) A high frequency of nerve impulses (up to 1,000 per second) to flight muscles causes muscles to contract and relax at this frequency. B) Resiliency of the exoskeleton contributes to the ability of these indirect flight muscles to contract and relax at this frequency. C) Direct flight muscles of these flies are stimulated to contract when they are stretched by changes in shape of the thorax. D) In the indirect flight muscles present in these flies, only a few nerve impulses are required to maintain many cycles of muscle contraction and relaxation. E) These flies are using an asynchronous flight mechanism. F) These flies are using a synchronous flight mechanism.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Primitively wingless hexapods are the
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A) B) C) D) E)
4)
Entomology is the study of A) B) C) D) E)
5)
neuropterans. thysanurans. zorapterans. isopterans. hemipterans.
the growth and development of animals. millipedes and centipedes. insects. all arthropods. all invertebrates.
The class Insecta A) B) C) D)
has more species than any other group of animals. is of major medical importance to humans. is of major economic importance to humans. are critical in ecology that the loss of all insects would cause a major disruption in
E)
All of the choices are correct.
nature.
6)
Insects differ from other arthropods because insects A) B) C) D) E)
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have paired, jointed legs. have ectognathous mouthparts. have a single pair of antennae. have mandibles. have tagmata or fused segments.
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7)
The exoskeleton of insects is A) B) C) D) E)
8)
Insect legs are attached to the A) B) C) D) E)
9)
head, thorax, and abdomen (one pair each). thorax and abdomen (two pairs on the thorax and one on the abdomen). thorax with one pair on the prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax. thorax with all three pairs on the mesothorax. thorax with two pairs on the mesothorax and one pair on the metathorax.
When insects have two pairs of wings, they are attached to the A) B) C) D) E)
10)
very soft and pliable. rigid due to deposits of calcium. rigid due to chitin. rigid due to unique scleroproteins. variable depending on the thickness of the chitin.
thorax and abdomen (one pair each). thorax with one pair on the prothorax and one pair on the mesothorax. thorax with one pair on the mesothorax and one pair on the metathorax. thorax with both pairs on the mesothorax. thorax with both pairs on the metathorax.
Insect wings are A) B) C) D) E)
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an extension of the cuticle formed by the epidermis. a double membrane stiffened with veins. reduced to a pair of wings and a pair of balancing halteres in true flies. a feature of adult but not larval insects. All of the choices are correct.
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11)
In insects, the genital appendages are located A) B) C) D) E)
12)
at the end of the abdomen. on the thorax next to the abdomen. on the abdomen near the thorax. in many locations including the pedipalps as occurs in spiders. None of the choices are correct.
Insect wings operate by
A) only pulling the wing upward and letting gravity pull it downward. B) small thin muscles actually contracting within the wing membrane itself. C) either attaching to the wing directly or moving the wing by distorting the thoracic components. D) extending the wing in and out of the thorax. E) whirling the wing in a circle.
13)
The major flight muscles of insects such as flies and bees A) B) C) D) E)
14)
are all indirect. are all synchronous. do not require nervous stimulation to operate. beat at a slow rate (under 100 beats per second) but with great efficiency. None of the choices are correct.
The majority of insects
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A) B) C) D) E)
15)
When a parasitic insect is itself parasitized by another insect, A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Sucking mouthparts—water scorpion Sponging mouthparts—house fly Biting mouthparts—grasshopper Sponging mouthparts—butterfly Sucking mouthparts—mosquito
When an insect larva slowly consumes and eventually kills its host, it is called a A) B) C) D) E)
18)
this is called a superparasite. this is hyperparasitism. this is co-parasitism. the second parasite is a parasitoid. the first insect is the host-parasite.
Which is NOT a correct association of insect mouthparts? A) B) C) D) E)
17)
are parasitic. feed on plant juices and tissues. are carnivorous. are omnivorous. are detritivores.
hyperparasite. phytophagous. saprophagous. hyperpredaceous. parasitoid.
Saprophagous insects feed on
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A) B) C) D) E)
19)
plant juices. dead animals. other insects. any living organism. None of the choices are correct.
How is an insect circulatory system best described?
A) The open system uses a dorsal aorta and accessory pulsatory organs to push hemolymph through the body cavities and wings, etc. but the hemolymph has little respiratory function. B) The system is totally closed like ours with arteries and veins and the amebocytes aid in respiratory function. C) The system is similar to ours with general closed sinuses but no distinct arteries and veins. D) A circulatory system is totally absent and each body cell is on its own to gain food and get rid of wastes. E) None of the choices are correct.
20)
Insect tracheae are kept from collapsing by A) B) C) D) E)
having walls of thick chitin. having spirals of cuticle called taenidia. being filled with water all the way to the spiracle. being inflated and under higher air pressure. being wrapped in insect muscle.
21) Thin and threadlike tubes extend into the hemolymph from where they join the digestive tract between the midgut and hindgut. These are
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
tracheal gills. sensilla. segmental ganglia. accessory pulsatile organs. malpighian tubules.
The nervous system of an insect consists of
A) a brain where all ganglia extend out to communicate with each organ. B) a minimal brain with neurosecretory functions and a nerve cord with ganglia extending down the dorsum. C) a minimal brain with neurosecretory functions and a nerve cord with ganglia extending down the ventral surface. D) no brain but coordination handled by ganglia in each segment and a nerve ladder for coordination. E) None of the choices are correct.
23) A male silkworm that locates a female by detecting the odor of her pheromone is using a sensory system located in his A) B) C) D) E)
antennae. abdomen. legs. wings. thorax.
24) Based on proportionate body length, a flea's jump is the equivalent of a 6-foot human jumping 600 feet. This is
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A) B) C) D)
evidence of the superior strength of insect muscle on a cross-section comparison. partially due to the protein resilin that stores energy in insects. an advantage of anchoring muscles inside an exoskeleton. due to the superior ability of insects to deliver both food and oxygen to muscle
E)
related to the length of muscles; the shorter they are, the more powerful they are.
tissues.
25) Which is an advantage of a more complex form of metamorphosis where an adult is very different from the larvae? A) B) C) D) E)
This would allow an insect species to exploit two different food sources. An insect could evade a predator specialized for one stage. It allows an insect to overwinter in resistant stage. All of the choices are advantages. None of the choices is correct.
26) Examples of holometabolous, hemimetabolous and direct development would be, respectively A) B) C) D) E)
27)
a dragonfly, grasshopper, and butterfly. a springtail, beetle, and butterfly. a wasp, beetle, and butterfly. a butterfly, grasshopper, and springtail. a grasshopper, springtail, and butterfly.
Insects undergo a period of dormancy in winter or summer called A) B) C) D) E)
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ecdysis. trophallaxis. metamorphosis. diapause. the pupal stage.
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28)
The protection possessed by a monarch butterfly is due to
A) the fact that it has a stinging proboscis. B) a natural bad taste possessed by all butterflies. C) a toxic chemistry acquired from ingesting milkweed cardenolids when it was a caterpillar. D) mimicry of another butterfly that has a bad taste. E) orange pigments that are always toxic, which is why orange animals are always protected.
29) Termites transfer inhibiting pheromones to suppress female offspring from becoming fertile through a mutual feeding process called A) B) C) D) E)
30)
mimicry. trophallaxis. biological control. diapause. saprophagous behavior.
Integrated pest management
A) never uses pesticides for insect control. B) combines use of resistant plants, crop rotation, timing of sowing, and use of biological controls with limited insecticide use. C) is synonymous with organic farming. D) requires a willingness to harvest far less food of poorer quality. E) All of the choices are correct.
31)
Fleas and springtails both lack wings
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A) because they never evolved wings and are both primitive insects. B) because they are both parasites and lost wings from winged ancestors. C) fleas are primitive but springtails lost wings when they gained their springtails. D) springtails never had wings but fleas are derived from winged fly-like ancestors and secondarily lost wings when they became parasites. E) None of the choices are correct.
32)
The distinction between entognathous and ectognathous insects is a distinction between
A) diplurans, springtails, and proturans versus the rest of the insect orders. B) holding the mandibles and maxillae internally in a pouch versus having external mouthparts. C) adaptation for feeding on very small particles versus a wider ability to feed on larger food. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.
33)
The relationship between many insects and flowers is
A) neutral, and of neither harm nor benefit. B) a case of herbivores eating host plants. C) co-evolutionary, with flowers evolving to attract insects and the insects adapting to pollinate flowers and harvest pollen and nectar. D) always harmful to the plants. E) None of the choices are correct.
34)
Which is NOT a human disease using an insect as the vector?
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A) B) C) D) E)
Malaria Plague Chagas' disease Yellow fever AIDS
35) All of the following statements regarding the function of Malpighian tubules and excretion are true except one. Select the exception. A) Alkaline conditions in the upper tubules make the urate found there relatively water soluble. B) Reabsorption of KHCO 3 by Malpighian tubules creates an acidic environment within the tubules that causes uric acid to precipitate. C) As uric acid passes into the hindgut, water is normally secreted into the hindgut to aid in elimination of the uric acid. D) Sap-feeding insects, like aphids, reabsorb very little water through the hindgut.
36) Reproduction in one of the following orders involves the use of externally deposited spermatophores. From the choices below, select the order and the correct explanation of the evolutionary significance of this observation. A) Siphonaptera. The parasitic lifestyle of fleas makes it unlikely that male and female fleas will come into close enough contact to exchange sperm through copulation. B) Hymenoptera.Bees, ants, and wasps are often social insects. In Hymenopteran caste systems, the use of spermatophores means that more individuals are workers. Deposition of spermatophores by reproductives means fewer reproductive males are needed in a colony. C) Thysanura. Primitive groups of insects are more likely to use spermatophores. This observation is most likely tied to the use of spermatophores by the marine ancestors of terrestrial arthropods. D) Lepidoptera. Male butterflies and moths are attracted to, and deposit spermatophores on, the plants upon which eggs will be laid and caterpillars will feed.
37)
An absence of trophallaxis in a termite colony would result in which of the following?
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A) The termite colony would produce more workers. B) The termite colony would produce more reproductives. C) The termite colony would produce more soldiers. D) The amount of inhibiting hormone distributed through the colony would increase causing the king and queen to initiate a mating flight.
38) An obvious difference between crustaceans and insects is the absence of abdominal appendages in insects and their presence in crustaceans. Recent research has found a relatively straight-forward explanation for this apparently striking difference in the two body forms. Which of the following observations helps explain the difference in body forms? A) Abdominal segments of insects are not homologous to the superficially similar abdominal segments of crustaceans. B) Abdominal appendages of ancestral arthropods have become fused into cerci and genitalia of insects. C) Abdominal appendages in crustaceans are a derived character that evolved later in the Pancrustacea. D) Certain Hox genes prevent the expression of D istal-less genes in the abdomen of insects but not crustaceans. Minor changes in the activity of these Hox genes produced striking morphological differences.
39) Your mother, an avid gardener, does not like to use insecticides. Which would be a logical explanation for her lack of enthusiasm for these chemicals? A) Subsequent generations of insects would have widespread resistance to the insecticide. B) Although insecticides can be effective against insects, they can also cause harm to plants. C) Generally the efficacy of insecticides is very low, so they are not cost-effective.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 40) The dorsal sclerite of a body segment is the ________________.
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41) Wing muscles that are attached to the wing itself are considered ____________ flight muscles.
42) The majority of insects are phytophagous or ______________, which means that they feed on plant juices or tissues.
43) The stages in the life cycle of a hemimetabolous insect are egg, ______________, and adult.
44) The major endocrine organs involved in development of insects are the brain, ecdysial glands, and corpora cardiaca and corpora __________.
45)
Each stage of an insect between molts is called a/an __________.
46)
Brain hormone stimulates the corpora __________ to secrete ecdysone.
47) A genetically programmed arrest in development of some insects is called _____________.
48) Substances secreted by one individual that affect the behavior or physiology of another individual are called _____________.
49)
In honeybees, the caste of sexually mature males are called ______________.
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50)
Wings of butterflies, order _________________, are covered with minute scales.
51)
Flies and mosquitoes belong to the order _________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 52) Provide a biologically reasonable explanation for why insects never exploited the marine environment.
53) Decades ago, newspaper headlines announced that scientists concluded that bumblebees could not fly. The actual situation involved measurements of the nerve impulses to the flight muscles. This count of nerve impulses, translated to one wing beat per impulse, was too low for the surface area of the bumblebee wing to lift the big bumblebee body off the ground. The formula for calculating the lift of a wing surface was well-demonstrated for airplane wings. From our present knowledge of insect wing control, did scientists actually prove that bumblebees could not fly, and why do we no longer consider this aerodynamic calculation a problem?
54) What adaptations do insects have that make the use of respiratory pigments unnecessary or of less value?
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55)
Explain how the contraction of muscles of the jaw or limbs aid in insect respiration.
56)
Describe the philosophy and the strategies used in integrated pest management.
57) Explain why some entognathans may be more closely related to insects than other entognathans.
58)
Discuss hypotheses for the evolution of insect wings.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_18e 1) [A, D] 2) [B, D, E] 3) B 4) C 5) E 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) E 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) E 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) tergum 41) direct 42) herbivorous 43) nymph 44) allata 45) instar 46) cardiaca 47) diapause 48) pheromones 49) drones 50) Lepidoptera 51) Diptera 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 22 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The functions carried out by the water vascular system of the echinoderms are numerous. At a very basic level, this singlesystem in the echinoderms carries out the roles of the appendages, muscular system, excretory systemand respiratory system of arthropods. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) The Chaetognaths A) B) C) D) E)
3)
have radial symmetry. feed on clams. are small ancestors of fish. are mostly pelagic plankton feeders. are solidly advanced deuterostomes.
The common name for chaetognaths is A) B) C) D) E)
arrow worms. acorn worms. spoon worms. lancelets. elvers.
4) As part of your work as a laboratory technician, you are responsible for keeping a population of arrow worms well-fed. What would be the best indication that these animals are eating well?
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
What is the best explanation for how arrow worms are unlike any other invertebrate? A) B) C) D) E)
6)
Plankton and small fish disappear from the tank. The animals can be observed retracting a hood and snapping onto food items. The animals are seen surfacing at night and drifting transparently among plankton. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
Arrow worms lack any coelom. Arrow worms lack a complete digestive tract. Arrow worms have gills. Arrow worms have well-developed circulatory and excretory systems. Arrow worms have a many-layered epidermis.
Unique characteristics of echinoderms include all of the following EXCEPT A) B) C) D) E)
an endoskeleton of plates or ossicles. marine, freshwater, and terrestrial species. pedicellariae. dermal brachiae. a water vascular system.
7) As you analyze the fossilized echinoderm specimens in a museum collection on a class field trip, your lab partner seems unsure of the relationship between the extinct species and modern echinoderms. How can you explain this to your lab partner?
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A) The echinoderm fossil record is sparse with few representatives, so no connections can be made to modern species. B) The fossils record shows that echinoderms were a fairly modern group to arise, and no major changes have occurred over time. C) Like modern echinoderms, early echinoderms were sessile and pentaradial, but they did have a bilateral ancestor. D) Early echinoderms were free-swimming and bilateral but became sessile and pentaradial in recent times.
8) If you need to quickly gather echinoderms from their natural habitat, where do you think you would find the greatest number of specimens? A) B) C) D)
free-swimming in open ocean in the benthos as parasites as sedentary particle feeders
9) As part of a laboratory investigation, you must identify a series of unknown echinoderms. The first echinoderm is far more active than the others. Based on this information alone, what is this animal? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
a sea urchin a sea star a sea cucumber a brittle star a crinoid
Which of the following are considered "irregular" urchins?
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A) B) C) D) E)
11)
Ecologically, sea stars are at what trophic level? A) B) C) D) E)
12)
sea urchins that swim sand dollars and heart urchins sea cucumbers crinoids brittle stars
producer herbivore top carnivore omnivore detritivore
Within basic research, sea urchins have been a standard research animal in A) B) C) D) E)
immunology. study of respiratory systems. study of bone. digestive anatomy. molecular embryology.
13) Treating sea urchin eggs with hypertonic seawater or subjecting them to other stimuli causes them to develop without the presence of sperm, a phenomenon called A) B) C) D) E)
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isogamy. polyspermy. artificial insemination. artificial parthenogenesis. fertilization sensitivity.
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14)
The orientation of a sea star is A) B) C) D) E)
a dorsal mouth and a ventral spiny surface facing upward. an oral mouth facing downward and an aboral spiny surface. an anterior mouth and a posterior spiny surface. a dorsal oral mouth and a ventral-aboral spiny surface. a ventral mouth and an anti-ventral spiny surface.
15) Tube feet run along the this groove that extends along the oral side from the mouth to the tip of each arm. A) B) C) D) E)
16)
ambulacral hemal radial dermal lateral
Pedicellariae are
A) larval sea stars. B) the mouth-like openings into the center of the bottom of the sea star. C) structures linking the madreporite and the ring canal. D) small pincer-like projections clustered on the skin of a sea star that serve to keep it clean of parasites and aquatic growth. E) soft and delicate projections of the coelomic cavity covered with epidermis.
17)
What do you think would occur if the papulae of a sea star were removed?
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A) B) C) D) E)
18)
The calcareous plates found underneath the epidermis are called the A) B) C) D) E)
19)
Respiration would be greatly decreased. Excretion would be lessened. Reproduction would not occur. Digestion would not occur. Defense and protection would be significantly more difficult.
ambulacrae. tiedemann's bodies. madreporite. pedicellariae. ossicles.
The meshwork of fiber-filled spaces that penetrate the ossicles of echinoderms is called a A) B) C) D) E)
pyloric cecum. radial canal. polian vesicle. coelomocyte. stereom.
20) If you went to the ocean and brought back a sea star to keep in a marine aquarium, what would you feed it? A) B) C) D) E)
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algae live clams live fish water in plankton since they are filter feeders living coral
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21)
Which is NOT a correct association of structure and function in sea star anatomy? A) B) C) D) E)
ampullae—end of the tube foot that bears the sucker polian vesicles—fluid storage Tiedemann's bodies—production of coelomocytes lateral canals—connects the radial canal to the tube feet and has one-way valves stone canal—joins the madreporite and ring canal
22) If the radial nerve in an arm is cut, the podia in that arm lose coordination; if the circumoral nerve ring is cut, podia in all arms are uncoordinated and movement ceases. This indicates that A) the hydraulic system is not involved in movement of tube feet. B) the radial nerve controls the nerve ring. C) part of the function of tube feet is hydraulic and part is controlled by the nerve stimulation. D) water pressure in the hydraulic system is directly controlled by the nervous system. E) the sea star is aware of the extent it is damaged and can change behaviors to compensate.
23) Structures in each arm of a sea star include the gonads, the system that works the tube feet, and A) B) C) D) E)
24)
kidneys. hearts of a circulatory system. pyloric ceca that produce digestive fluids for extracellular digestion. the intestine that collects large amounts of wastes to expel through the anus. gills.
What best describes the nervous system of a sea star?
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A) A complex of nerve ganglia in each ray B) A central nervous system including a brain C) A simple nerve ring and radial nerves leading to simple sensory cells scattered over the epidermis D) No genuine nerve cells are found in echinoderms; they operate completely by a hydraulic system.
25) As you observe a sea star, you are amazed by the ability of the animal to open the shell of its prey, which is a bivalve mollusc. A classmate who is also observing the sea star wonders how the animal will feed, because its arms are all involved in keeping the shell of the mollusc open. How can you explain the feeding ability of the sea star to your classmate? A) The sea star has tentacles that it will use to draw food into its mouth. B) The sea star will use one of its arms to scoop out the soft body of the mollusc. C) The sea star will use its arms to create a water current to draw food particles into its mouth. D) The sea star can evert the lower part of stomach.
26)
Explain what would occur if the hemal system of a sea star was absent. A) B) C) D) E)
Circulation would not occur. Excretion would not occur. Gametes would not be released. Digestion would not occur. It is impossible to say, as the function of the hemal system is still not known for
certain.
27)
Sea stars reproduce mostly
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A) by budding. B) only asexually by intentionally breaking off appendages. C) sexually, usually with separate sexes. D) sexually, with both sex organs on same organism, similar to earthworms, with cross-fertilization. E) sexually, with both sex organs on same organism, but by self-fertilization.
28)
"Bipinnaria" describes the A) B) C) D) E)
29)
larval form of many echinoderms. central two-branched reproductive structures of sea stars. hydraulic system that controls the tube feet of sea urchins and sea stars. ability of these animals to grow into either males or females. underlying bilateral symmetry of an adult although it appears to be pentaradial.
In echinoderms, the main coelomic compartment is A) B) C) D) E)
missing. a somatocoel. completely converted into the water-vascular system. the pyloric stomach. restricted to a small space around the gonads.
30) As part of your study of echinoderms, you are trying to identify a specimen. You and your lab partner do not agree on the identification of this animal. You believe it is a brittle star, but your lab partner believes it is a sea star. What features can you point to to support your idea that this animal is a brittle star and not a sea star?
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A) B) C) D) E)
The specimen lacks pedicellariae. The specimen lacks papulae, intestine, and an anus. The specimen has ambulacral grooves taht are closed and covered with arm ossicles. The specimen has tube feet without suckers. All of the choices support the idea that the specimen is a brittle star but not a sea
star.
31)
The five pairs of bursae in brittle stars are used for A) B) C) D) E)
32)
The echinoids A) B) C) D) E)
33)
digestion and excretion. respiration and reproduction. reproduction and digestion. circulation and digestion. circulation and excretion.
have five long, slender arms. are enclosed in an endoskeletal test or shell. lack tube feet. lack ambulacral areas. are unable to move because of their spines.
The complex chewing apparatus found in many sea urchins is the A) B) C) D) E)
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ampulla. Aristotle's lantern. hydrocoel. pedicellariae. petaloid.
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34)
The oral tentacles of the sea cucumber are A) B) C) D) E)
35)
The respiratory tree of a sea cucumber is A) B) C) D) E)
36)
modified tube feet. actually primitive lophophores. elaborated pedicellariae. also part of its respiratory tree. completely new structures evolved in this group.
not present in other echinoderms. branches off the cloaca of the animal. also serving in excretion. not a replacement for gas exchange through the skin and tube feet. All of the choices are correct.
The crinoids A) B) C) D) E)
have the most primitive characters. have far fewer living species than are found in the fossil record. include the shallow-water feather stars of tropical oceans. include sea lilies that resemble a stalked flower. All of the choices are correct.
37) Echinoderm evolution is controversial but most zoologists agree that __________ are related and form one clade. A) B) C) D) E)
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sea stars and brittle stars sea stars and sea urchins sea stars and sea cucumbers sea urchins and sea cucumbers crinoids and sea urchins
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38)
The designation of hemichordates as primitive chordates in 1885 by Bateson is viewed as
A) accurate using new molecular data. B) overenthusiastic since the structure he interpreted as a notochord does not have notochord embryology. C) completely wrong since new research indicates that all features he interpreted as chordate features are actually other structures. D) as puzzling today as in 1885. E) None of the choices are correct.
39)
The hemichordate "notochord" is A) B) C) D) E)
40)
the feature proposed by Bateson to include this animal with the chordates. a buccal diverticulum. not homologous with the chordate notochord. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
Hemichordates live
A) in the open ocean with a similar lifestyle to arrow-worms (which is why they are considered related). B) in kelp beds. C) in deep oceans, especially the rich and oxygenated Arctic Ocean. D) on the bottom of shallow oceans, sometimes colonially and in secreted tubes. E) just around thermal vents.
41)
Hemichordates were not recognized until the 1800s because they
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A) B) C) D) E)
42)
were considered roundworms. are very rare. are common but only around deep ocean vents. have recently dramatically increased in numbers. had secretive habits and fragile bodies.
Hemichordates seem to be related to A) B) C) D) E)
arrow-worms. arthropods and annelids. molluscs and echinoderms. annelids and echinoderms. both the echinoderms and the chordates.
43) The pores leading to both the protocoel and paired coelomic cavities of the enteropneust hemichordates allow A) B) C) D) E)
44)
fertilization of eggs by sperm. exchange of fluids for a low efficiency respiratory system. water to be drawn in to stiffen the chambers to aid in burrowing. excretion of wastes. movement of ions and water to keep an osmotic balance.
The gill slits of enteropneust hemichordates function to A) B) C) D) E)
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house gills. strain food out of the water on the mucus-coated gill slits. allow water to exit after food has been gathered from the inflow. orient the animal in the water. excrete wastes.
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45)
The excretory system of an enteropneust hemichordate (or acorn worm) consists of
A) a glomerulus or network of blood vessels that surround the sinus and buccal diverticulum. B) a rich supply of blood vessels in the gill slits. C) a network of flame cells at the periphery. D) a simple metanephridium that empties into the cloaca. E) a network of vessels under the epidermis.
46)
The nervous system of an enteropneust hemichordate (or acorn worm) consists of
A) a small brain and a dorsal ladder network of ganglia for each body segment. B) a network or plexus that runs underneath the epithelial cells that fuse to become ventral and dorsal neurochords. C) a small brain and a ventral ladder network of ganglia for each body segment. D) no brain but an extensive network of ganglia transferring information from sensory organs to the digestive system. E) no specialized nerves; the epetheliomusculature must respond to stimuli itself in a manner similar to the cnidarians.
47)
The larva of an acorn worm is A) B) C) D) E)
always a juvenile that grows into a bigger adult. a tornaria larvae that resembles an echinoderm bipinnaria larvae. very close in structure to a tunicate larva. nearly identical to a lancelet. None of the choices are correct.
48) On a laboratory practical exam, you are presented with an unknown specimen. You know it either belongs to the Phylum Chaetognatha or to the Phylum Echinodermata. What characteristic would you look for that would tell you that the specimen is from the Phylum Chaetognatha and not the Phylum Echinodermata?
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A) B) C) D)
bilateral symmetry diffuse nervous system endoskeleton of ossicles lack of cephalization
49) Why would taxonomists think that vertebrate animals (such as mammals)are more closely related to a sea starthan an octopus? After all, the octopus has a brain, well-developed eyes and other attributes that seem more like vertebrates. A) The reason stems from early embryological development patterns that sea starand vertebrates have in common. B) It is because of the structure of the skin of sea star. C) The reason stems from the fact that the original vertebrates had pentaradial symmetry. D) Sea starswere the first to evolve terrestrial forms that could be the original vertebrate type.
50) Predict what would happen to a chaetognath if a bacterial infection caused the loss of the sensory bristles. A) B) C) D)
The chaetognath would be unable to sense prey. The chaetognath would be unable to filter feed. The chaetognath would be unable to respire. The chaetognath would be unable to recognize a potential mate.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 51) Clade Ambulacraria contains two deuterostome phyla: Echinodermata and __________.
52)
Minute, pincer-like __________ are found on the surfaces of many sea stars.
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53)
On the inner end of each tube foot is a muscular sac called an __________.
54) A system of unknown function consisting of tissue strands enclosing unlined channels is the __________ system.
55) During metamorphosis of sea stars, the left side of the larva becomes the oral surface of the adult, and the right side becomes the __________ surface.
56) The mouth of the brittle star is surrounded by five movable plates that serve as __________.
57)
In brittle stars, water circulates into the __________ for gaseous exchange.
58)
The respiratory tree of sea cucumbers opens into the __________.
59)
The madreporite of sea cucumbers is located in the __________.
60) The basic five arms of crinoids are usually branched to form many more, each of which bears barblike __________.
61) These odd little echinoderms were formerly considered a class of their own. They possess tube feet distributed around the periphery of their disclike body and belong to the group __________.
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62) __________ larvae of nonbrooding echinoids may live a planktonic existence for several months and then metamorphose into young urchins.
63)
The ancestor of the echinoderms had __________ symmetry.
64) A feature of the earliest echinoderms apparently was the development of endoskeletal plates with __________ structure.
65)
Hemichordates do not have a kidney, but they do have a single __________.
66) Characteristics of the hemichordates that are shared with the echinoderms and are the basis for the clade Ambulacraria are a diffuse epidermal nervous system and a(n) __________ coelom.
67)
Water for filter feeding in the hemichordates is driven by __________ currents.
68)
The larva of enteropneust hemichordates is known as a __________.
69)
The __________ live in secreted tubes on the ocean bottom.
70)
The early embryology of hemichordates is much like that of the __________.
71)
The hemichordates and echinoderms apparently form a sister group to the _________.
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72) Of all the animals we have studied there are two groups that the nonbiologist ocean scuba diver would be the most likely to confuse with a plant. One are some of the members of the class Anthazoa (a cnidarian). The other belongs to what echinoderm class?
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 73) Explain how a molecule of water moves through the body of a sea star. Begin with the entry of the water molecule into the body, and end with the presence of the water molecule in a tube foot.
74) Compare and contrast the internal features of the enteropneustans and the pterobranchians.
75)
Compare and contrast the internal features of a sea star with those of a sea cucumber.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 76) Describe the human response to the impact of sea star predators in oyster beds and include how the remedy for eliminating sea stars does not also eliminate the oysters.
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77) If you examined a biology class chart from the first half of the last century, the echinoderm sheet would be found immediately following the cnidarian sheet, a very primitive location in the survey of the phyla. Today we discuss echinoderms as one of the last invertebrate groups before studying chordates. Describe why we have changed our perspective on the evolutionary placement of echinoderms.
78) Outline the phylogeny and adaptive diversification of the hemichordates and discuss the latest data of small subunit rRNA supporting a deuterostome phylogeny for this group.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_18e 1) TRUE 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) E 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) E Version 1
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27) C 28) A 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) E 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) E 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) Hemichordata 52) pedicellariae 53) ampulla 54) hemal 55) aboral 56) jaws Version 1
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57) bursae 58) cloaca 59) coelom 60) pinnules 61) Concentricycloidea 62) Echinopluteus 63) bilateral 64) steroem 65) glomerulus 66) tripartite 67) ciliary 68) tornaria 69) enteropneusts 70) echinoderms 71) Chordata 72) Crinoidea 73) Answer may vary 74) Answer may vary 75) Answer may vary 76) Answers will vary. 77) Answers will vary. 78) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 23 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) All chordates have A) B) C) D) E)
2)
a single, dorsal, tubular, nerve cord. a ventral heart. pharyngeal slits. a postanal tail as some stage. All of the choices are chordate features.
Chordates typically have A) B) C) D) E)
a notochord. radial cleavage. the anus derived from the blastopore. a coelom that is either enterocoelous or schizocoelous. All of the choices are typical chordate features.
3) Several invertebrate groups have been proposed as chordate ancestors. However, if embryological evidence is prioritized, from which group do most zoologists now believe the chordates probably descended? A) B) C) D) E)
Arthropoda Cnidaria Annelida-Mollusca Lophophorate Echinodermata
4) The extant group likely to be the most closely related to the basal chordates are the echinoderms because
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A) there is direct fossil evidence for a lineage from sea stars to tunicates. B) tunicates are advanced echinoderms. C) early embryonic development of echinoderms is similar to that of chordates. D) although there are few similarities between echinoderms and chordates, there are even fewer between chordates and any other group. E) new molecular evidence shows they are nearly identical at the rRNA level.
5) The difference between the traditional and cladistic classification of chordates and their extant sister groups is a difference in A) B) C) D) E)
6)
the addition of new and comparative rRNA and DNA molecular sequence data. fossil evidence that clearly shows that the traditional classification is simply wrong. the insistence in traditional systematics that all taxa be paraphyletic. the insistence in cladistics that all taxa be monophyletic. All of the choices are points of argument.
What is the main focus of the definition of a monophyletic group? A) B) C) D) E)
There is evidence of transitional fossils in the geological record. There is a description of the majority of species in each higher taxon. The described animals are actually real species. All higher taxa contain all known descendants of their single common ancestor. All of the taxa fit into the seven ranks of the Linnaean taxonomic hierarchy.
7) One example of why a cladist is not satisfied with the traditional classification scheme is because it A) B) C) D)
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includes too many levels of classification. includes humans among the mammals. includes birds with the reptiles. does not include birds with the reptiles.
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8)
A notochord is most correctly defined as A) B) C) D) E)
9)
a primitive spine. the tissue that becomes the dorsal nerve. a flexible stiffening rod extending the length of the body. embryonic tissue that develops into bone and cartilage. any tissue that functions in the role of a dorsal tubular nerve cord.
A dorsal tubular nerve cord is
A) another name for the notochord. B) a strip of cartilage that forms a back and tail. C) primitive tissue that forms bone vertebrae. D) an early nerve cord that enlarges at one end to form the brain and also extends through vertebrae. E) None of the choices are correct.
10)
The perforated pharynx of chordates first evolved as a device for A) B) C) D) E)
11)
support. respiration. suspension or filter feeding. detecting odors. All of the choices are correct.
Modification of the pharyngeal slits for first use in respiration occurred in early
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A) B) C) D) E)
12)
The name Urochordata means literally A) B) C) D) E)
13)
Ascidiacea, Cephalaspidomorphi, and Myxini. Appendicularia, Cephalochordacea, and Myxini. Ascidiacea, Myxini, and Thaliacea. Thaliacea, Cephalaspidomorphi, and Calcichordata. Ascidiacea, Appendicularia, and Thaliacea.
The urochordates are A) B) C) D) E)
15)
"tail chordates." "head chordates." "kidney chordates." "tunic chordates." "larval swimmer."
The phylum Urochordata includes the classes A) B) C) D) E)
14)
fish with the development of gills. amphibians with the development of external gills. reptiles with the development of the modern lung. lophophorates well before we reach the chordates. echinoderms as a new respiratory apparatus.
called tunicates. marine animals. sessile as adults, but tadpole-like as larvae. often abundant in intertidal organisms. All of the choices are correct.
Reproduction in sea squirts is
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A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Salps in the class Thalacea A) B) C) D) E)
17)
asexual, with new individuals budding off the adults. hermaphroditic with internal fertilization. hermaphroditic with external fertilization. with separate sexes and internal fertilization. with separate sexes and external fertilization.
are barrel-shaped open-ocean organisms. have larger transparent bodies. may be luminous at night. may occur singly or in long chains. All of the choices are correct.
Appendicularians A) B) C) D) E)
are sexually mature individuals that have retained the larval body form. are pelagic. build a delicate, transparent, and hollow sphere of mucus to trap food. replace feeding houses every 3-4 hours. All of the choices are correct.
18) Organisms that retain the larval form of their evolutionary ancestors when they are sexually mature are called A) B) C) D)
19)
larviparous. paedomorphic. nymphogenic. precocial.
Cephalochordates
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The lancelets or Branchiostoma are found A) B) C) D) E)
21)
are small fish-like, freshwater animals. have a notochord only in their immature stage. digest food in a hepatic cecum or liver diverticulum. have a ventral nerve cord. have a heart that circulates blood cells with hemoglobin in a closed system.
very rarely and are about extinct. as parasites inside the tracts of fish. commonly in the sandy bottoms of coastal waters around the world. in tropical freshwater streams. near deep ocean thermal vents.
The lancelet reproduces A) B) C) D) E)
byasexual processes alone. by budding. sexually with both sex organs on the same organism, similar to earthworms. sexually but with separate sexes and internal fertilization. sexually but with separate sexes and external fertilization.
22) Development of the vertebrate head and sense organs was largely the result of two innovations, which are the A) B) C) D) E)
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appearance of an outer epidermis and an inner dermis. neural crest and ectodermal placodes. living endoskeleton and highly differentiated brain. 10 to 12 pairs of cranial nerves and an autonomic nervous system. pharynx and endocrine system.
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23) Pikaia gracilens, the earliest known chordate collected from the Burgess Shale of British Columbia, closely resembles A) B) C) D) E)
24)
Walter Garstang's hypothesis of vertebrate evolution could be described as the A) B) C) D) E)
25)
annelid-vertebrate hypothesis. echinoderm-vertebrate hypothesis. amphioxus-vertebrate hypothesis. ascidian larva-vertebrate hypothesis. ammocoete larva-vertebrate hypothesis.
The larva of the freshwater lamprey, that closely resembles the amphioxus lancelet, is the A) B) C) D) E)
26)
the amphioxus lancelet. living sessile tunicates. the ammocoete larva. an adult larvacean. the lamprey.
ammocoete. Branchiostoma. cephalaspidomorph. heterostracan. ostracoderm.
What feature can be found in the ammocoete but not in amphioxus? A) B) C) D) E)
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a true liver with a gallbladder a two-chambered heart a three-part brain eyes, nostrils, and auditory vesicles All of the choices are ammocoete features lacking in the amphioxus lancelet.
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27)
The ammocoete larva is important in zoology because it
A) is the "missing link" between chordates and vertebrates. B) represents the features of the most advanced chordate that is not a vertebrate. C) represents the features of the first vertebrates that are not obscured by advanced vertebrate development. D) is identical to the earliest Burgess shale fossil vertebrate. E) possesses all features found in derived vertebrates, and evolution from this point forward was a matter of losing different features.
28)
The ostracoderms A) B) C) D) E)
are the adult form of the ammocoete. were the first vertebrate to have jaws. are an extinct group of heavily armored, jawless fish. were the first fish with paired fins that led to paired appendages. were the first jawed animals.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 29) While several invertebrate groups (phyla) have in the past been proposed as chordate ancestors, embryological evidence indicates the chordates are most probably a sister group to the _____________.
30)
In the chordates, the __________ forms in the vicinity of the embryological blastopore.
31) Unlike most invertebrate phyla, the nerve cord of chordates is single, tubular, and located __________ to the alimentary canal.
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32) In both tunicates and cephalochordates, the ventral side of the branchial sac contains a ciliated, mucus-secreting groove, the __________.
33)
Tunicates belong to the subphylum __________ (Tunicata).
34) Of the five chordate hallmarks, adult tunicates have only two, the __________ slits and the endostyle.
35) Pelagic tunicates with barrel-shaped bodies and complex life histories belong to the class __________.
36)
"Sea squirts," the most common kind of tunicate, belong to the class __________.
37)
Lancelets belong to the subphylum __________.
38) The development of a new vertebrate head was largely the result of two embryonic innovations: the neural crest and the ectodermal __________.
39) The earliest known vertebrate fossil, from the Burgess Shale of British Columbia, is an amphioxus-like creature called __________.
40) The jawless vertebrates are called Agnatha, and the jawed vertebrates are called __________.
41) The early vertebrate fossils belong to an extinct group of jawless fish known as __________. Version 1
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42)
The oldest jawed fish are extinct and are called __________.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 43) Compare and contrast the internal features of an ammocoete larva and Amphioxus.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 44) Describe the core difference between the traditional and cladistic classification systems as they relate to chordates.
45) The characteristics of the chordates and the characteristics of the vertebrates are not the same. List the features that distinguish these two groups.
46) Usually we think of evolution acting on organisms with different structures. How could evolution select the developmental pattern seen in paedomorphosis?
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47) Outline the five chordate features. What is the fate of the endostyle in the higher vertebrates?
48) Larval and adult tunicates look virtually nothing alike. How can you explain this dramatic metamorphosis in evolutionary terms?
49) Discuss the contention that the ammocoete larva of lampreys is a successful model of the primitive vertebrate body plan.
50)
Are the jawless ostracoderms a real taxon (that is, are they a monophyletic group)?
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51) Outline the process that may explain how vertebrates evolved jaws. Be sure to discuss Meckel's cartilage and the significance of that structure.
52) Why are traditional grouping such as Reptilia and Agnatha not recognized in cladistics? Explain why that does or does not make evolutionary sense.
53) Explain why fossil specimens of Haikouella lanceolata offer many clues to understanding the evolution of vertebrates from cephalochordates.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_18e 1) E 2) E 3) E 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) E 15) C 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) E Version 1
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27) C 28) C 29) cephalochordates 30) anus 31) dorsal 32) endostyle 33) Urochordata 34) pharyngeal 35) Thaliacea 36) Ascidiacea 37) Cephalochordata 38) placodes 39) Pikaia 40) gnathostomes 41) ostracoderms 42) placoderms 43) Answer may vary 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 24 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Shark characteristics include A) having internal fertilization. B) having blood solute concentration equal to that of marine water due to high concentrations of urea and trimethylamine oxide. C) having teeth of modified placoid scales. D) being able to detect bioelectric fields. E) having a swim bladder to control buoyancy.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) The cladistic use of the term "fish" A) applies to a monophyletic group of aquatic vertebrates. B) includes all swimming animals from the amphioxus lancelet up to, but not including, the true amphibians. C) would also include the common ancestor with land vertebrates (including us) and a strict cladist would then include us in "fish." D) only includes aquatic vertebrates with gills. E) reflects any vertebrate that is adapted to water.
3)
The most primitive of the early fishes were the A) B) C) D) E)
4)
Agnathans. Gnathostomes. Acanthodians. Lobe-finned fishes. Ray-finned fishes.
The "Age of Fishes" was in the __________ period.
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
The Teleostomi fishes consist of what three major groups? A) B) C) D) E)
6)
Acanthodii, actinopterygii, and sarcopterygii Chondricthyes, agnatha, and myxini Myxini, placoderms, and holocephali Agnatha, craniata, and osteichthyes None of the choices is correct
The cartilaginous fishes do NOT include A) B) C) D) E)
7)
Permian Cambrian Carboniferous Devonian Silurian
skates. rays. sharks. eels. All of the choices are cartilaginous fishes
Cartilaginous fishes
A) lost the heavy dermal armor of their ancestors. B) had ancestors with bone but moved to an all cartilage skeleton. C) flourished in the Devonian and Carboniferous but nearly went extinct at the end of the Paleozoic. D) lack a swim bladder. E) All of the choices are correct
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8)
Hagfishes A) B) C) D) E)
9)
Unlike other vertebrates, the body fluids of hagfishes are A) B) C) D) E)
10)
strongly hypoosmotic to seawater. strongly hyperosmotic to seawater. in osmotic equilibrium with seawater. very concentrated, with over 80% blood solids. under high internal pressure near the surface.
The hagfish has a keen sense of A) B) C) D) E)
11)
are entirely fresh water animals. are parasitic. have a complex but well-researched reproductive cycle. generate enormous quantities of slime if disturbed. All of the choices are correct
depth and water pressure in order to control its swim bladder. smell and touch in order to locate dead and dying fish. sight in order to locate dying fish and annelids, molluscs, and crustaceans. hearing in order to locate prey in dark depths. All of the choices are well-developed in hagfish
In North America, knowledge of the biology of lampreys
A) has led to the understanding that all native lampreys are parasitic. B) led to the limited control of lampreys by larvicides and release of sterile males. C) led to understanding that prey fish always die after lamprey has gorged and abandoned the prey. D) All of the choices are correct
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12)
The lateral-line of a shark is used for A) B) C) D) E)
13)
Sharks have __________ scales. A) B) C) D) E)
14)
detecting and locating objects and moving animals in the water. excretion of urea and water. detecting odors. secreting mucus as a swimming lubricant. detecting the heat of prey animals.
placoid ctenoid cycloid ganoid polyploid
Shark reproduction and development involves
A) clearing a bottom area in order that the female can lay eggs and the male can deposit sperm over them. B) no production of yolk at all but the first development of a primitive placenta in all sharks. C) substantial care of young after the eggs are laid or young are born. D) cases of oviparous, ovoviviparous, and viviparous strategies. E) a larval stage quite different from the adult.
15)
The spiral valve in the intestine of a shark serves to
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A) B) C) D) E)
16)
Ampullary organs of Lorenzini A) B) C) D) E)
17)
are located along the lateral-line of a shark. help the shark see prey at night. help the shark detect bioelectric fields at a close range. detect orientation similar to that perceived by our semicircular canals. amplify sounds of struggling prey from great distances.
The large spiracles on the top of the head of skates and rays are for A) B) C) D)
18)
release strong acids to aid digestion. function as a liver in producing bile salts. entrap food molecules in a mucus strand. slow passage of food and increase absorptive surface area. propel food through the tract at a faster rate.
air intake for respiration. water intake to prevent clogging the gills. detection of bioelectric fields from prey buried in the sea bottom. detection of chemical odors in the water.
The ovoviviparous sharks are those that
A) lay eggs after external fertilization. B) bear their young alive after retaining the eggs in the oviduct but with no further nourishment except from that of the yolk. C) lay eggs after internal fertilization. D) bear their young alive after external fertilization. E) feed developing young a nutritious "uterine milk."
19)
The chimaera
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The most diverse fish group is the A) B) C) D) E)
21)
gar. sturgeon. coelacanth. bowfin. carp.
Representatives of the most primitive non-teleost neopterygians are the A) B) C) D) E)
23)
ray-finned fishes. lung-fishes. lobe-finned fishes. cartilaginous fishes. None of the choices is correct
A representative of the ray-finned fish group, the chondrosteans, is the A) B) C) D) E)
22)
include representatives called ratfish and ghostfish. have an odd mixture of shark-like and their own unique characteristics. were more common in the Cretaceous than they are now. have the upper jaw fused to the cranium. All of the choices are correct
gar and bowfin. sturgeon and paddle-fish. coelacanths. minnows and suckers. carp and buffalo fish.
What feature(s) separates a shark from a ray-finned fish?
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A) B) C) D) E)
Gill slits versus operculum Cartilage versus bones Internal versus external fertilization No swim bladder versus swim bladder All of the choices are correct distinctions
24) In schooling, fish rely on sensitivity to vibration and water currents. This is provided by cells called neuromasts located inside what structure? A) B) C) D) E)
Caudal fin Gills Swim bladder Lateral-line Placoid scales
25) Darters are fish that live in fast-running rapids. They eat surface insects, rest on the bottom avoiding the push of the water, and make brief dashes to the surface to feed. If they swam midstream, they would expend a huge amount of energy. What physiological strategy allows them to live on the bottom? A) B) C) D) E)
26)
Lack of gills Loss of a lateral-line Loss of a swim bladder Reduction in fin size and number Expansion of a swim bladder into a lung
The lungfishes
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A) B) C) D) E)
27)
The primary propulsive mechanism of a fish is A) B) C) D) E)
28)
are all extinct. do not really have functional lungs. live only in Australia, Africa, and South America. are an aberrant branch of the cartilaginous fishes. are survivors of primitive ray-finned fishes.
its trunk and caudal musculature. movement of water into the mouth and forced out the gills. movement of the pectoral fins. movement of the pelvic fins. None of the choices is correct
The mechanism whereby buoyancy is achieved in different kinds of fishes is
A) through the presence of a large, oily liver when a swim bladder is not present. B) through the presence of a swim bladder that is kept filled as the fish periodically swims to the surface and gulps air. C) through the presence of a swim bladder that is regulated internally by structures that add or remove gas from the bladder by capillary beds. D) All of the choices are methods for achieving buoyancy. E) None of the choices is correct.
29)
Marine bony fishes are A) B) C) D) E)
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hypoosmotic regulators. in osmotic equilibrium with seawater. hyperosmotic regulators. osmotic adjustors. None of the choices is correct
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30)
To replace water lost osmotically, marine fish
A) pump water inward across the gill surface by means of special absorptive cells. B) drink seawater and then pump extra salt outward across the gill surface by means of salt secretory cells, and excrete the remaining ions in the feces. C) increase glomerular filtration by the kidney. D) drink much more seawater and accumulate unwanted salts in crystalline form. E) produce water metabolically by the oxidation of food stuffs.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 31) Eel-like, jawless fishes with both marine and freshwater species belong to the class ____________.
32) The class __________ is composed of vertebrates having eel-like bodies, a rasping mouth with two keratinized plates, and numerous slime glands.
33) The group designation __________ was formerly considered a class name and designated bony fishes that possessed a swim bladder or lungs. Cladistic analysis has resulted in the division of this group into two classes. One includes ray-finned fishes and the other lobe-finned fishes.
34) The class ____________ is composed of vertebrates having placoid scales, a heterocercal caudal fin, a ventral mouth, and a cartilaginous endoskeleton.
35) Great Lakes fisheries nearly collapsed last century due to an invasion by sea _____________.
36)
In the elasmobranchs, the sexes are separate and fertilization is _________.
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37) The lateral-line system of sharks contains special receptor organs, called __________, that are sensitive to vibrations and currents in water.
38) Sharks remove excess sodium chloride from blood by means of the kidney and the ____________ gland.
39)
Lobe-finned fishes are the sister group of the __________.
40) A lobe-finned fish thought to have been extinct for 70 million years, but discovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938, is called the __________.
41)
Teleost fishes have a symmetrical type of tail that called a __________ tail.
42) The gas gland of the teleost swim bladder contains a remarkable network of blood capillaries called the __________.
43)
The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
44) Adult eels from both Europe and North America swim enormous distances to spawn at great depths in the __________.
45) Migratory fishes, such as the Atlantic salmon, that spend their adult lives at sea but return to freshwater to spawn are called __________.
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46) Experiments have shown that homing salmon are guided upstream by the characteristic _________ of the parent stream.
47) Some sharks that develop a placental-like attachment for the nourishment of the embryo in the mother's reproductive system exhibit __________ reproduction.
48) The term for external fish reproduction where eggs are released and sperm (milt) is exuded over the eggs is __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 49) How does a shark detect potential prey or distinguish it from floating non-living debris?
50) Why has the coelacanth apparently changed so little from its fossil ancestor of 70 million years ago?
51) Why is there a relationship between fish size and speed? Does this not start an evolutionary speed race driving predator and prey to grow to ever increasing lengths? Why do any small fish survive?
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52) How is gas moved into and out of the teleost swim bladder? Describe the physiological process in detail.
53) Describe the life cycle of the catadromous freshwater eel. Contrast this migration with the Pacific salmon.
54)
Explain how fish scales can be used by researchers to determine the age of a fish.
55) Technically a teleost fish has a four-chambered heart. Yet this is not the same as a fourchambered heart of a bird or mammal. Compare and contrast these two "four-chambered" hearts.
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56) Discuss the efficiency of swimming versus walking or flying, in energy cost per kilogram per unit distance covered. How does this translate into advantages for being small or large?
57)
Explain why some fish die if they are prevented from continuously swimming forward.
58)
Compare the ammocoete larva with the fry of a teleost fish.
59) Compare the swimming mechanisms of invertebrates such as cnidarians, flatworms, and annelids with those of the fishes. Is one form superior to another? Why or why not?
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60) Discuss the vascularization of the gills of fish. Is this homologous or analogous to the vascularization of mammalian lungs?
61) Outline and compare the life histories of Pacific Salmon and the freshwater eel. Which of these two life histories is the more evolutionary successful in your opinion?
62) Discuss the difficulty of sound detection faced by fish and the adaptations that have evolved in certain groups to help increase their hearing sensitivity.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_18e 1) [A, B, C, D] 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) D 7) E 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) C Version 1
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27) A 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) Petromyzontida 32) Myxini 33) osteichthyes 34) Chondrichthyes 35) lampreys 36) internal 37) neuromasts 38) rectal 39) tetrapods 40) coelacanth 41) homocercal 42) rete mirabile 43) operculum 44) Sargasso sea 45) anadromous 46) odor 47) viviparous 48) spawning 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answer may vary 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 25 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Tetrapods originated in the ______________ period. A) B) C) D) E)
2)
The term "tetrapods" A) B) C) D) E)
3)
Permian Cambrian Carboniferous Devonian Silurian
refers to the organisms that form the superclass Tetrapoda. includes the amphibians and amniotes. does not include the fish. includes humans. All of these choices are correct.
Which is true regarding the oxygen content of air?
A) It is less than the oxygen dissolved in an equal volume of water. B) It is equal to the oxygen content of an equal volume of water at the same pressure. C) It is 20 times greater than in an equal volume of water. D) It is irrelevant to the animal lung since it must still diffuse across the wet surface of membranes. E) It is approximately 1000 times greater than in an equal volume of water.
4)
What change(s) does an animal that moves from water to land have to accommodate?
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Change in oxygen content Regulation of body temperature in a more extreme environment Wider diversity of habitats About 1000 times less buoyant density and 50 times less viscosity than water All of the choices are challenges of life out of water
The evolutionary contribution of amphibians to life on land was the development of A) B) C) D) E)
the amniotic egg and shell. lungs and limbs. a watertight skin. a life cycle independent of a need for water to breed. All of the choices are amphibian "innovations".
6) The sequence of Eusthenopteron, Acanthostega, and Ichthyostega fossils show a progression in which of these? A) B) C) D) E)
7)
Lung development Egg-shell development Loss of tail and gills Limb development All of the choices developed together.
Adaptations for terrestrialism in early tetrapods resulted in an air-filled cavity along with A) B) C) D) E)
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mucous membrane-lined nostrils. a complex nervous system. internal embryo gestation. an abdominal cavity. double circulation.
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8)
What was the 350 million-year-old fossil called Ichthyostega?
A) A lobe-finned fish that represents the likely ancestor to the amphibians B) One of the earliest known tetrapods C) A lizard-like stem reptile D) A ray-finned fish that gave rise to the amphibians E) The first fish-to-amphibian transitional form to have lost fin rays and gill bones, thus committing itself to a land existence
9) The earliest tetrapod fossils show that they possessed a basic pattern of _________ digits per limb. A) B) C) D) E)
three four five more than five more than ten
10) Temnospondyls are a group that generally have only four digits on the forelimb. Which one of the following is a lineage that includes all modern members of the Temnospondyl ancestors? A) B) C) D) E)
11)
Anthracosauria Gymnophiona Anura Lissamphibia Urodela
Moving from fish to amphibians, we see which general conversion?
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A) B) C) D) E)
A 3-chambered to a 4-chambered heart All-eggs-in-water to all-eggs-on-land The lateral line to senses of smell and hearing Moist skin to skin protective of water loss All of the choices are correct.
12) Amphibians were the first vertebrate invaders of land, but most still must return to the water to _____. A) B) C) D)
breed breathe feed excrete
13) All of the following are characteristics of modern amphibians except one. Select the exception. A) B) C) D) E)
14)
Ten pairs of cranial nerves Separate sexes Smooth moist skin Endothermic Bony skeleton
Caecilians A) B) C) D) E)
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live in the tropics around the world. are blind or nearly blind as adults. are elongate, burrowing animals. use copulation for internal fertilization. All of the choices are correct.
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15)
The Urodela A) B) C) D) E)
16)
are hermaphroditic. are tadpoles when young. retain their tail permanently. live only in the tropics. never have to return to water to breed.
Most terrestrial salamanders fertilize eggs using which method?
A) Internal fertilization after the female has picked up spermatophores deposited by the male in the environment B) External fertilization in the water similar to fish C) Internal fertilization by copulation with a male D) External fertilization in the water similar to frogs utilizing amplexus E) None of the choices is correct
17)
Completely terrestrial salamanders A) B) C) D) E)
have succeeded in avoiding the need for moisture. convert from the adult form back to the newt form. hold their eggs internally until they hatch. undergo paedomorphosis. undergo direct development where the larval stage is bypassed.
18) Lungless salamanders lack lungs and breathe through their skin after they lose their gills. You would expect lungless salamanders to
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A) B) C) D) E)
19)
The Amphiumidae salamanders A) B) C) D) E)
20)
prefer drier habitats. be restricted to a smaller or thinner body design. be larger than most salamanders. prefer stagnant water. None of the choices is correct.
are terrestrial throughout their lifetime. have eliminated lungs. absorb oxygen through their skin. have greatly reduced metamorphosis. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following regulates amphibian metamorphosis? A) B) C) D) E)
Calcitonin hormone from the adrenals Thyroxine, a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland Estrogen and testosterone from the gonads Growth hormone by the thyroid gland Salt levels from the environment
21) When a salamander retains juvenile features while it matures into an adult, what is the process called? A) B) C) D) E)
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Precociousness Spontaneous regeneration Senescence Prematurity Paedomorphosis
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22) The __________ is a gilled adult of the Ambystoma genus found in Mexico and the southwestern United States. In dry conditions it may metamorphose to an air-breathing adult. A) B) C) D) E)
Axolotl Amphioxus Coelacanth Lungless salamander Mudskipper
23) Consider the case of some large salamanders that live a long time, produce fewer young, and do not metamorphose into adults without gills, but maintain the juvenile body form as reproductive adults (e.g., hellbender, mudpuppy, sirens). In contrast, "normal" salamanders undergo metamorphosis rather rapidly and have short lives and many young. In what habitat would you expect the large salamanders that retain the juvenile body form to live? A) B) C) D) pressures E)
24)
None of the choices is correct
The Anura differ from the Urodela because the Anura A) B) C) D) E)
25)
In permanent ponds or streams providing a stable environment In slow-moving streams and rivers with stagnant water In temporary ponds with an unstable environment As salamanders, both types would have exactly the same habitat and evolutionary
lack a tail in the adult stage. have hind legs adapted for jumping. have a tadpole larval stage. have mostly herbivorous young. All of the choices are correct.
Most of our familiar frogs belong to which large family?
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A) B) C) D) E)
26)
If you used an aquarium to raise most tadpoles, what should you feed them? A) B) C) D) E)
27)
Hylidae Bufonidae Ranidae Plethodontidae Anuridae
Algae Small insects Decaying debris on bottom of pond Fish blood Small chunks of meat
Which is true regarding frog skin?
A) The dermis contains chromatophores, which provide skin color. B) The dermis contains large granular glands derived from the inner epidermis that produce a skin poison. C) The epidermis contains keratin. D) The epidermis has mucous glands that secrete mucus to waterproof the skin. E) All of these choices are correct.
28) It grows legs and loses a tail. It changes from an herbivore with a long digestive tract to a carnivore with a shorter one. It loses its gills and lateral line system and uses its skin, mouth, and lungs for gas exchange. What is it? A) B) C) D) E)
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Lancelet Sea squirt larva Lung-fish Tadpole Primitive reptile
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29)
Which of the following is NOT a correct association of amphibian pigment cells? A) B) C) D) E)
30)
Xanthophores—orange, yellow, and red pigment Chromatophores—on the top of the epidermis Melanophores—brown or black pigment Iridophores—silvery light-reflecting pigment All of the choices are correct associations
A frog skeleton
A) has a vertebral column consisting of only nine vertebrae and a urostyle. B) has a highly flexible vertebral column, an adaptation for transmitting force from the hindlimbs of the body. C) is, like that of crossopterygian, entirely cartilaginous. D) bears limbs with four digits on each hand and foot. E) All of these choices are correct.
31)
The urostyle of the frog skeleton represents A) B) C) D) E)
32)
a backward extension of the cranium. several fused caudal vertebrae. a relocation and fusion of the "missing" ribs. a newly evolved feature of anurans. an enigmatic structure of unknown origin.
Frogs breathe using
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A) B) surfaces. C) D) E)
33)
negative pressure, similar to reptiles and mammals. various absorptive surfaces but with no pneumatic system to ventilate those positive pressure breathing during which air is forced into the balloon-like lungs. a bird-like circular air circulation. gill modifications.
Frog singing A) B) C) D) E)
is more common in males than females. is produced by passing air back and forth between the lungs and vocal pouches. uses the large vocal sacs as resonators. involves vocal cords in a larynx. All of the choices are correct.
34) What is the process called in which the male frog grasps a female in order to be present for external fertilization? A) B) C) D) E)
Amplexus Neoteny Coitus Copulation Paedomorphosis
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 35) In addition to the sinus venosus and the conus arteriosus the heart of a frog has two __________ and one __________.
36) Tropical, burrowing, limbless amphibians belong to the order _______ or (alternate order name) ________.
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37)
Salamanders and newts are in the order __________.
38) Most salamanders are fertilized internally after a female picks up a sperm packet or ______________.
39) Some salamanders retain larval features (e.g., gills) throughout life, a condition called __________.
40)
Frogs and toads belong to the order _________, a name that means "without a tail."
41)
Frog skin color is produced by cells called ________.
42)
In frogs the most posterior vertebrae are fused together to form a rod-like ____________.
43) The lungs of a frog are supplied by the ______ arteries, vessels derived from the sixth aortic arches.
44) A specialized structure in the conus arteriosus of the frog heart, called the ______ valve, is thought to maintain selective distribution of oxygenated and unoxygenated blood.
45) The ______ of the amphibian hindbrain is concerned with equilibrium and movement coordination.
46)
______ glands in amphibians secrete defensive compounds.
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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 47) Why have amphibians never become independent of water, or at least a moist environment?
48)
Describe five factors likely leading to the worldwide decline in amphibians.
49) Discuss the transition from an aquatic environment to a terrestrial environment. What are the structural and physiological features required for such a move?
50) Discuss the contributions of Icthyostega, Eusthenopteron, Acanthostega, and Limnoscelis in the evolution of tetrapods.
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51)
Compare and contrast the sensory systems of bony fish with those of adult anurans.
52)
Outline the circulatory pathways of amphibians.
53)
What is the significance of paedomorphosis in the evolution of tetrapods?
54) What are the limitations of the amphibian skin? How do these limitations prevent them from inhabiting certain habitats?
55) How would you present the argument that the amphibians represent a "transitional" group — the very kind of group that "creation scientists" claim does not exist?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 25_18e 1) D 2) E 3) C 4) E 5) B 6) D 7) E 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) E 15) C 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) E 22) A 23) A 24) E 25) C 26) A Version 1
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27) E 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) E 34) A 35) [atria, ventricle] 36) [Gymnophiona, Apoda] 37) Urodela 38) spermatophore 39) paedomorphosis 40) Anura 41) chromatophores 42) urostyle 43) pulmonary 44) spiral 45) cerebellum 46) Granular 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 26 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of these terms would be used by cladists to describe a group composed of turtles, squamates, tuataras, and crocodilians? A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Nonavian reptiles are a paraphyletic group because A) B) C) D)
3)
they do not have a common ancestry. they have a common ancestry. they do not include all descendants of their most recent common ancestor. they include all descendants of their most recent common ancestor.
The Age of Reptiles consisted of the A) B) C) D) E)
4)
monophyletic polyphyletic paraphyletic a subset of the class Aves None of the choices is correct.
Silurian, Permian, and Jurassic. Permian, Triassic, and Jurassic. Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous. Permian, Jurassic, and Cretaceous. Paleocene, Miocene, and Eocene.
Amniotes arose from the ____________ during the early Carboniferous.
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Which association of lineages and eventual derived groups is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
6)
Anthracosaurs Anaspids Diaspids Lepidosaurs Synapsids
dinosaurs—icthyosaurs and pterosaurs diapsids—turtles and tuataras lepidosaurs—lizards and snakes synapsids—mammals archosaurs—dinosaurs, crocodilians, and birds
The anapsid skull is characterized by
A) B) C) D) system. E)
two pairs of openings separated by a bony arch. a single pair of openings and a bony arch. no temporal openings and the skull roofed with dermal bone. three pairs of openings to accommodate the nerves from an expanding sensory a beak -like process that associates the turtles and the birds.
7) Birds and _____________ belong to a monophyletic group apart from other reptiles and are assigned to the clade ___________. A) B) C) D) E)
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dinosaurs, therapsida mammals, therapsida crocodilians, therapsida crocodilians, archosauria turtles, sauropterygia
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8)
Which list below includes the four monophyletic nonavian reptilian groups? A) B) C) D) E)
dinosaurs, modern reptiles, birds, and mammals turtles, crocodilians, lizards, and snakes dinosaurs, turtles, squamates, and crocodilians turtles, crocodilians, squamates, and tuataras dinosaurs, tuataras, crocodilians, and all other modern reptiles
9) Nonavian reptiles are different from amphibians in that reptiles possess which of the following? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
The nonavian reptile scale is A) B) C) D) E)
11)
a tough, scaly skin that provides protection against desiccation some form of copulatory organ permitting internal fertilization a shelled egg that can be laid on dry land more muscular jaws All of the choices are nonavian reptilian characteristics.
mostly made of beta keratin. derived from dermis. contains chromatophores. an important protective surface. All of the choices are correct.
Turtle fossils appear in the
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A) B) C) D) E)
Permian. Triassic. Carboniferous. Jurassic. Cretaceous.
12) What is thename of the bottom plate on a turtle, which is continuous with the breastbone (sternum)? A) B) C) D) E)
13)
A unique anatomical design in turtles is that the A) B) C) D) E)
14)
costal plastron carapace dorsum ventrum
cranium is fused to the ribs. ribs articulate with the backbone. ribs have been totally lost. limb girdles are inside the ribs. sternum is fused with the ribs.
Since a turtle's shell essentially immobilizes the ribs, how does the turtle breathe?
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A) A turtle resorts to the amphibian system of positive pressure breathing. B) The turtle has such a low metabolic rate that all oxygen requirements can be met by passive absorption without ventilation mechanisms. C) The turtle wags its tail to change the volume within the shell and assist ventilation. D) The turtle draws its shoulder girdle back to exhale and contracts limb flank muscles to inhale. E) The ribs are allowed a small amount of leeway to move; rhythmic compression of the carapace on the plastron accomplishes this.
15)
For reproduction, a sea turtle A) B) C) D) E)
16)
reverts to amphibian strategies and lays eggs in the water. must return to shore to lay eggs on land. retains the eggs until they hatch, or is ovoviviparous. has resorted to full viviparity. None of the choices is correct.
When do lizards appear and radiate in the fossil record?
A) Lizards appeared in the Permian and rapidly radiated to give rise to the dinosaurs that dominated the next time periods. B) Lizards appeared in the Jurassic but did not radiate until the Cretaceous when dinosaurs were near the end of their reign. C) Lizards appeared in the Jurassic as a branch of small dinosaurs and radiated rapidly in the Cretaceous. D) Lizards appeared in the Cretaceous and rapidly radiated. E) Snakes took to the surface in the Permian and gradual selection for limbs allowed lizards to radiate in the Triassic.
17) The evolution of joints between the skull and jaw, as well as new joints allowing the jaws to separate and manipulate food, has resulted in a(n) __________ jaw.
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A) B) C) D) E)
18)
Which describes viviparity in living reptiles? A) B) C) D) E)
19)
anaspid mandibular laterally independent diaspid kinetic
It has evolved at least 100 times. It increases the length of time the eggs are kept in the oviduct. It isusually associated with cold climates. It is only found in squamates. All of these choices are correct.
Lecithotrophy and placentotrophy are strategies for
A) B) C) D) reptiles. E)
supplying nutrients in eggs before they are laid. determining the sex of offspring. incubating a nest of reptile eggs. providing nutrients to the developing young of viviparous and ovoviviparous disposing of the placenta of newly born reptiles.
20) We don't find the eggs of garter snakes, rattlesnakes, and copperheads because they retain the eggs internally. Theiryoung appear to be born alive, but actually "hatch" inside. These snakes are A) B) C) D) E)
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nulliparous. viviparous. oviparous. ovoviviparous. placentotrophic.
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21) The __________ is a small, agile, mostly nocturnal lizard that has adhesive toe pads that enables itto walk upside down on a ceiling. A) B) C) D) E)
22)
iguana skink chameleon gecko gila monster
To differentiate a limbless (glass) lizard from a real snake, what could you look for? A) B) C) D) E)
Ear openings on the lizard, missing in snakes. Rough scales on lizards, smooth scales on snakes. Lizards at night, snakes in the daytime. Lizards in trees, snakes on the ground. All of the choices are differences between lizards and snakes.
23) Lizards and snakes are closely related; there are a number of venomous snakes. How common are venomous lizards? A) Many venomous tropical species exist. B) No lizards are venomous. C) All lizards are at least a little venomous but only the big ones have enough venom to be worrisome. D) They are uncommon: In North America, the Gila Monster and Mexican Beaded lizards are the only lizards venomous to humans. E) None of the choices is correct.
24) When a snake flicks its tongue out to "taste" the air or my hand, it must return the tips of the tongue past the __________ in the roof of its mouth to detect the "taste."
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A) B) C) D) E)
heat-sensitive pits kinetic skull parietal eye fangs Jacobson's organ
25) What is the form of snake movement that allows it to move in a narrow passage, extending forward while bracing S-shaped loops against the sides of the passageway? A) B) C) D) E)
26)
When a snake is swimming, it is using what kind of movement? A) B) C) D) E)
27)
rectilinear movement sidewinding lateral undulation concertina movement None of the choices is correct.
rectilinear movement sidewinding lateral undulation concertina movement None of the choices is correct.
Which of the following families contains venomous snakes? A) B) C) D) E)
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Viperidae—pit vipers and Old World vipers Elapidae—mambas, coral snakes and kraits Hydrophiidae—sea snakes Colubridae—common snakes, a few poisonous species All of the choices are correct
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28)
Snake venoms are generally of two types (or a mixture of the two) that include A) B) C) D) E)
29)
The tuatara A) B) C) D) E)
30)
is found in southwestern United States. is snakelike in its features. is the only surviving dinosaur relative. has a well-developed parietal eye. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is least related to the others? A) B) C) D) E)
31)
kidney toxins and neurotoxins. hemorrhagins and paralytic toxins. kidney toxins and paralytic toxins. hemorrhagins and neurotoxins. venoms and antivenin.
Great Plains skink Tokay gecko iguana New Zealand tuatara Gila monster
Crocodiles have a complete secondary palate that allows them to A) B) C) D) E)
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cool off in hot weather by "gaping". breathe while the mouth is filled with water or food. smell the animal that they have seized. make loud mating calls. detect the warmth of prey.
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32)
Which of the following is a feature of alligator reproduction? A) B) C) D) E)
The female hears the young and digs open the nest to help them escape. The male alligator bellows during mating season. Incubation temperature determines the sex ratio of the offspring. The mother guards the area where the eggs are incubating. All of these choices are correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 33) Amniotes having a skull with two temporal openings on each side are called __________.
34)
The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day __________.
35)
The dermal layer of the reptile skin contains color-bearing cells called ____________.
36) Rather than urea or ammonia, the nitrogenous wastes of many desert reptiles are excreted as __________.
37)
The scales of nonavian reptiles are derived from the __________.
38) In the nonavian reptilian egg, the embryo is bathed in a fluid contained within an extraembryonic membrane called the __________.
39)
In turtles, the ribs are fused to the dorsal portion of the shell, called the __________.
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40)
The order Squamata is divided into two suborders, the Serpentes and the __________.
41)
Snakes that have special heat-sensitive pits on their heads are called __________.
42) Nonavian reptiles that lay shelled eggs with development occurring outside the mother's body are __________.
43) __________ is the name of the organ in the roof of a snake's mouth that is used to detect taste/smell.
44) Surviving tuataras ( Sphenodon) are mostly restricted to a group of islands off the coast of __________.
45) The nonavian reptilian kidney is of the advanced ___________ type with their passageways (ureters) to the exterior.
46) Crocodile teeth are set in sockets, a type of dentition called __________ that was typical of archosaurs and early birds.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 47) Discuss the two distinct views of reptile-bird-mammal classification held by cladists and evolutionary phylogeneticists. Since the "family tree" that they would draw is the same, clarify what classification concept(s) is controversial.
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48) Draw and label a simple cladogram or phylogenetic tree and describe the traits turtles possess that are different from the other reptilian groups.
49) Describe the unique morphological characteristics of amphisbaenians and explain how these differ from snakes.
50) Outline the biological contributions of the Reptilia. What advances do they exhibit over the Amphibia?
51) Give support to the contention that the traditional class "Reptilia" is paraphyletic. If it is paraphyletic, what would you do to fix the situation?
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52)
Discuss the origin and adaptive diversification of Reptilian groups.
53) Discuss the shared derived characteristics of nonavian reptiles and birds (e.g., type of skull, type of skin, etc.).
54) If beta-keratin is unique to nonavian reptiles, how can one say that keratin is a shared feature of nonavian reptiles, birds, and mammals?
55) Describe the advances of the amniotic egg of nonavian reptiles. Explain clearly why this is such a momentous evolutionary advance.
56) Describe sex determination in the Crocodilia. Speculate on the evolution of such a system.
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57) Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of being either endothermic or ectothermic. Are there endothermic nonavian reptiles?
58) Discuss the probable parental care of the dinosaurs. What kinds of evidence are used to support this claim?
59)
Why should limbs be secondarily lost in so many lineages of nonavian reptiles?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 26_18e 1) C 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) E 10) E 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) E 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) C Version 1
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27) E 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) diapsids 34) mammals 35) chromatophores 36) uric acid 37) epidermis 38) amnion 39) carapace 40) Lacertilia 41) pit vipers 42) oviparous 43) Jacobson's organ 44) New Zealand 45) metanephric 46) thecodont 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answer may vary 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answer may vary 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 27 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In order to fly, birds must have which of the following adaptation(s)? A) B) C) D) E)
2)
a lightweight skeleton a highly efficient respiratory system a high-pressure circulatory system well-developed nervous and sensory systems All of these adaptations are necessary for flight.
Archaeopteryx is
A) an extinct "bird-like" dinosaur. B) an insect-eating bird that is rare in the United States but somewhat common in South America. C) the most primitive of the living birds. D) a primitive therapsid from which birds eventually evolved. E) a hoax made to resemble an intermediate between reptiles and birds.
3)
Archaeopteryx resembled modern birds in having A) B) C) D) E)
a large keel or breastbone for pectoral muscle insertion. pneumatic bones. fused clavicles or "wishbone." a beak. All of the choices were Archaeopteryx features
4) Many insects, most birds, a few nonavian reptiles such as the pterodactyl, and bats all can fly. What is the most correct statement concerning their relationships?
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A) Insects evolved flight independently but the pterodactyl is a probable ancestor of both the birds and bats B) All four groups have wings because of a common winged ancestor C) All four developed flight independently from non-winged ancestors D) Insects and birds evolved flight independently but pterodactyls are the winged ancestor of bats E) None of the choices is correct
5)
Which is NOT one of the general features that make birds and reptiles similar?
A) Both birds and nonavian reptiles have a single middle ear bone B) The skulls articulate with the first neck vertebra by a single occipital condyle C) Both have a lower jaw composed of five or six bones D) Both birds and reptiles lay eggs and the early embryo develops on the surface by shallow cleavage divisions E) All of the choices are similarities that distinguish birds and reptiles from mammals
6)
Bird species outnumber species in all other vertebrate groups except the A) B) C) D)
7)
mammals. reptiles. amphibians. fishes.
Evidence indicates that birds are the sister group of the A) B) C) D) E)
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pterosaurs. theropod dinosaurs. therapsid reptiles. stem diapsids. anaspids.
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8)
Flightless birds A) B) C) D) E)
9) have
Birds fly through the air at relatively high speeds. This is possible in part because they
A) B) C) D) E)
10)
a crop and gizzard. highly sensitive sensory systems. less power per unit weight. ability to store large amounts of water. All of the choices are the result of having to accommodate flight
Feathers are A) B) C) D) E)
11)
have evolved mostly on islands without predators. include the ratite or paleognathous birds. have appeared independently in many different groups of birds. tend to become large. All of the choices are correct
living structures that continue to grow longer as the bird gets older. never shed, except by accident. shed in a highly ordered manner. usually shed all at once, and then gradually replaced. replaced only after one is lost.
What permits the feather to "zip" and "unzip"?
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A) B) C) D)
the cohesive force of water molecules barbules and hooks oil from skin glands sticks the vanes together magnetic attraction due to charges built up from the feathers rubbing against each
E)
bird saliva acting as a temporary glue
other
12)
Which type of feathers are long and extend beyond the body for lift? A) B) C) D) E)
altricial feathers powder-down feathers filoplume feathers down feathers flight feathers
13) Which type of feather disintegrates as it grows, releasing a talc-like substance to waterproof the feathers? A) B) C) D) E)
14)
altricial feathers powder-down feathers filoplume feathers down feathers flight feathers
What two features determine the color of feathers? A) B) C) D) E)
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surface and underlying colors. absorptive and reflective colors. melanins and chromatins. pigments and structural colors. iridescent and structural colors.
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15)
If flight is such an advantage, how do we account for the evolution of flightless birds?
A) They were primitive ancestors of the winged birds. B) Flight is costly in terms of energy so birds abandon flight if they live in areas with food and without substantial predators, such as islands. C) This is always an inferior situation if they can't fly, so wingless birds occur only where winged birds are missing. D) Birds give up flight if they can avoid having to lay eggs. E) None of the choices is correct.
16)
The vertebral column of a bird has been modified so it is A) B) C) D) E)
17)
much longer and more flexible. springy and elastic to store energy for flight. rigid with many vertebrae fused together. broad to assist in aerodynamic lift. no longer connected to the ribs.
The distribution of weight in the bird skeleton is A) B)
top-heavy to improve flight. heavier compared to a mammal of the same size, since a bird has to be lightweight
to fly. C) similar to or lighter in overall weight than a mammal, but heavier in the leg bones, which lowers the bird's center of gravity. D) loaded into a heavier bird skull, since the high speed requires a "safety helmet." E) roughly the same as a mammal of the same size.
18)
Where would you locate the supracoracdoieus and pectoralis muscles of a bird?
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A) B) C) D) E)
under its tail feathers in the neck controlling the voice box in the legs, anchoring a bird's feet in the breast, where they control upstroke and downstroke of the wing in the wing itself, running along the wing bones
19) The thick thigh and skinny lower leg of a bird, as in the case of a chicken leg, is an advantage because it A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The most complex and delicate muscles in a bird are located in the A) B) C) D) E)
21)
loads the muscle mass near the body's center of gravity for flight. only leaves bone, tendon and tough skin exposed to freezing conditions. keeps the slender, lightweight feet from being muscle-bound and restricted. All of the choices are advantages. None of the choices is correct.
leg. wings. neck and tail. beak. reproductive area.
What is the function of the large sheet-like pectoralis muscles of a bird? A) B) C) D) E)
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It controls flight by the moving the tail It moves the neck It anchors a perching bird's feet It provides the wing upstroke It provides the downstroke of the wing
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22) Owl pellets are commonly found around owl roosting sites and are examined in school lessons to detect the skeletal remains of their prey to determine owl eating habits. One student questions if the owl pellets are a serious bacterial concern. What is a reasonable and accurate reply? A) Owl pellets would be a serious hygienic concern since they have gone through the bird's intestine and, similar to a human intestine, would be mixed with many gut bacteria. B) Owl pellets are probably not too serious a problem because bacteria in an owl's intestine are probably not disease agents for humans. C) Owl pellets have not been through the owl intestine but stopped at the highly acidic stomach where most environmental bacteria would have been killed; they were then regurgitated enclosed in sloughed owl gut lining and any bacteria would be environmental, but brief sterilization in an oven should suffice. D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices is correct.
23)
The digestive system contributes to the success of birds as flying animals because A) B) C) D) E)
24)
it is long. the crop can store huge quantities of food. it digests food quickly. it is penetrated by air sacs. it has a high sense of taste to reject toxic foods.
We don't see a crop and gizzard in many vertebrates; why do we see them in most birds?
A) Birds are more closely related to earthworms than we are and therefore did not lose this structure. B) Any animal that eats earthworms and insects needs these organs. C) Birds lack hands and teeth to reduce the size of food, and they need to gather food fast to avoid predators and competition. D) The bird "crop" and "gizzard" are really just names for the stomach and intestine and therefore other vertebrates actually have them. E) None of the choices is correct.
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25)
Birds have what type of red blood cells? A) B) C) D)
Like mammals, birds have enucleated, biconcave erythrocytes. Unlike mammals, birds have nucleated, biconcave erythrocytes. Unlike mammals, birds have nucleated, biconvex erythrocytes. Unlike mammals, birds have enucleated, biconvex erythrocytes.
26) In comparing the bird circulatory system to the mammal circulatory system, the bird system has A) B) C) D) E)
a cross vein in the neck to keep blood flowing to the brain as the head is turned. a much faster heartbeat. the right aortic arch, instead of the left as in mammals, leading to the dorsal aorta. larger arteries to the wings and breast. All of the choices are correct.
27) Anyone who has washed a car knows that bird wastes are different from mammal feces and urine. This is because A) birds lack kidneys. B) birds mainly eat berries and insects. C) birds excrete ammonia. D) birds produce urine with urea just as in mammals but they don't drink much water so it is more concentrated. E) a bird's waste is uric acid with most water removed.
28)
Birds have highly developed eyes that help them
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A) B) C) D) E)
locate mates. fly through the air at a fast speed. locate food from a distance. avoid predators and defend territory. All of the choices are correct.
29) Which of the following is NOT a correct association of bird nervous system and function? A) B) C) D) E)
30)
The movement of air over the upper curved surface of the wing causes A) B) C) D) E)
31)
dorsal ventricular ridge of cerebrum—integrates eating, singing, flying cerebellum—coordinates muscle—position, equilibrium, visual cues pecten—controls pecking and perching columella—transmits vibrations optic lobes—visual associations
lift. drag. stalling. drift. None of the choices is correct.
The wing slots on the wings of many birds function A) B) C) D) E)
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as brakes. in preventing or delaying stalling. to increase speed. to increase lift at high speeds. in diving.
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32)
An example of a bird with high-aspect ratio or soaring wings would be A) B) C) D) E)
33)
An example of a bird with high-lift wings is A) B) C) D) E)
34)
a humming bird. a woodpecker. a hawk. an albatross. All of the choices are correct.
a humming bird. a woodpecker. a hawk. an albatross. All of the choices are correct.
Migration in birds A) B) C) D) E)
is inborn and instinctive. allows these organisms to live in favorable climates and use more resources. is triggered by external stimuli such as day length. is closely linked to reproductive cycles. All of the choices are correct.
35) Newly hatched birds that lack down and are nest-bound, unable to feed on their own, as with baby wrens or robins, are A) B) C) D) E)
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altricial. derived. carinate. precocial. ratites.
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36)
Bird mating is unique since A) B) C) D) E)
the male copulatory organ is kept folded internally. mating is primarily a matter of bringing male cloaca to female cloaca. fertilization is completely external. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 37) Most paleontologists agree that birds descended from a lineage of dinosaurs called __________.
38) The one unique feature that separates living species of birds from other animals is __________.
39)
Flying birds with keeled sternums are known as Neognathae or __________.
40) The famous fossil bird from the Jurassic period that demonstrates the reptilian ancestry of birds is __________, a name that means "ancient wing".
41)
The seasonal loss of bird feathers is __________.
42)
The large breast muscle that depresses the wing during flight is the __________ muscle.
43) The __________ muscle elevates the bird's wing by means of a tendon running through a pulley-like arrangement in the shoulder.
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44) The enlargement at the lower end of the esophagus that serves as a food storage chamber in birds is called the ____________.
45) The stomach of a bird is comprised of the enzyme-secreting proventriculus and the muscular __________.
46) The white meat on both sides of the keel of a chicken or turkey breast serves the bird in flight. The large outer layer of muscle that pulls the wing downward is called the __________ muscle.
47) task.
Birds lack teeth to grind up food, but they possess a __________ that accomplishes this
48) The exchange region in the bird lung is the tube-like __________ through which air flows continuously.
49) A unique feature of the bird respiratory system is the extensive system of nine interconnecting __________.
50)
The major nitrogenous waste excreted by the bird kidney is __________.
51) Because the kidneys of sea birds don't concentrate much salt in the urine, excess sodium chloride is removed by special __________ located above the bird's eyes.
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52) The common chamber that receives material from the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems is the __________.
53) The integration of muscle-position sense, equilibrium sense, and visual cues for movement and balance occurs in the __________ of the bird's brain.
54) The photoreceptors in the retina that are more numerous in nocturnal birds are the __________.
55)
Predatory, land-soaring birds have wing types that are referred to as __________ wings.
56) In flapping flight, the feathers at the wing tips that generate thrust are the __________ feathers.
57) The high-speed wings of plovers and sandpipers have swept-back wings that come to a tip, an adaptation that reduces drag-creating turbulence called __________.
58) The ___________, a group of small feathers on the first digit (or "thumb") of the bird's wing, functions to prevent stalling at low flight speeds.
59) The bird that makes the longest known migration, between the Arctic and the Antarctic, is the __________.
60) More than 90% of all birds follow a type of mating system called __________, in which an individual has only one mate.
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61) Newly hatched birds that are covered with down and are active within a short time are called __________.
62)
The geological age when birds first arose is called __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 63) Give some examples of birds with high-lift wings.
64) If it is an advantage to be a food specialist and thereby avoid the extra competition that generalists face from other generalists, then why aren't all birds specialists?
65) Trace the air flow through a bird from inhaling to exhaling, indicating where absorption of gases occurs and for what percent of the time. Why does it take two cycles of breathing to move a molecule in the air through this system?
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66) A bird's respiratory system is more efficient than the respiratory system of nearly any other vertebrate. Explain the attributes of the bird lifestyle that selected for this highly efficient gas-exchange system.
67) Why have birds not evolved a wing design that allows for the best of all properties including fast and slow flight, soaring and flapping, all in one bird?
68)
Detail four nontrivial likely reasons for the recent decline in songbirds.
69) Discuss the evolution of birds as it is currently understood. Why would some theropod dinosaurs have feathers? Did feathers evolve just once? Did feathers evolve specifically for flight? Is Archaeopteryx really a bird?
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70) Discuss the derived characters shared by birds with theropods such as Velocirapor. How do the newly discovered Chinese fossils such as Protarchaeopteryx, Caudipteryx, and Sinosauropteryx fit into the evolutionary picture of birds?
71)
Discuss the relative merits of the two competing hypotheses for the origin of avian flight.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 27_18e 1) E 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) E Version 1
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27) E 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) E 35) A 36) B 37) theropods 38) feathers 39) carinate 40) Archaeopteryx 41) molting 42) pectoralis 43) supracoracoideus 44) crop 45) gizzard 46) pectoralis 47) gizzard 48) parabronchi 49) air sacs 50) uric acid 51) salt glands 52) cloaca 53) cerebellum 54) rods 55) passive soaring 56) primary Version 1
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57) tip vortex 58) alula 59) Arctic tern 60) monogamy 61) precocial 62) Jurassic 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary. 71) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 28 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) All mammals share the following characteristic(s): A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Mammals belong to the A) B) C) D) E)
3)
anapsid lineage. synapsid lineage. diapsid lineage. polydont lineage. dinosaur lineage.
The most successful therapsid group that survived to enter the Mesozoic was the A) B) C) D) E)
4)
hair mammary glands a diaphragm middle ear bones All of the choices are correct.
cynodonts. pelycosaurs. sphenacodontines. theropods. mesopods.
Which is NOT one of the cynodont modifications?
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
The teeth of mammals are A) B) C) D) E)
6)
were endothermic, although probably not as warm as modern mammals. had two sets of teeth, deciduous and permanent teeth. were small mouse-sized animals. arose in the late Triassic. All of the choices are correct.
Mammals began a dramatic expansion in the A) B) C) D) E)
8)
homodont. placoid. diphyodont. polydont. continuously replaced.
The earliest mammals A) B) C) D) E)
7)
heterodont dentition a secondary bony palate that allowed breathing while holding prey a stronger bite a high metabolic rate All of the choices are cynodont modifications.
Pleistocene. Paleocene. Oligocene. Triassic. Eocene.
The adaptive diversification of early mammals was due to
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A) B)
their homeothermic advantage. their metabolic efficiency that allowed lower food consumption per unit of body
C) D) E)
the independence of their young. the extinction of many competing amniote groups at the end of the Cretaceous. their larger size which made them better predators.
mass.
9)
The fur of mammals A) B) C) D) E)
10)
Some northern mammals have a white winter fur that A) B) C) D) E)
11)
consists of underhair and guard hair. is molted twice annually in most mammals. is composed of keratin. is used for a variety of purposes such as protection, temperature regulation, etc. All of the choices are correct.
serves to conserve body heat by reducing radiation loss. represents living rather than dead hair cells. serves to camouflage the animal insulates the body better. All of the choices are correct.
White fur of winter animals is due to A) B) C) D) E)
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albinism, where a recessive gene blocks formation of pigments. chromatophores, just as occurs in amphibians and reptiles that change their colors. leukemism, a simple seasonal change in pigment. aging of hair follicle cells induced by cold temperatures. None of the choices is correct.
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12) The specialized hairs on the nose that are tactile in function (e.g., used to "measure" width of passageways) are A) B) C) D) E)
13)
True horns are A) B) C) D) E)
14)
the same as antlers. restricted to males. not normally shed. usually branched. seasonal and not continuously grown.
The growth of antlers causes an animal to A) B) C) D) E)
15)
guard hairs. underfur. vibrissae. quills. filamentous hairs.
become aggressive. become anemic. increase intake of protein. increase intake of calcium salts. All of the choices are correct.
Rhinoceros horns differ from other horns or antlers because they
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A) are not attached to the skull. B) are shed annually. C) consist of hair-like keratinized filaments that arise from dermal papillae cemented together but not attached to the skull. D) are one big hair follicle. E) can be easily harvested from living animals without harming the animal.
16)
The glands that are NOT derived from the mammalian integument are A) B) C) D) E)
17)
Which is NOT a correct association of mammalian glands and functions? A) B) C) D) E)
18)
sebaceous glands. sweat glands. scent glands. mammary glands. All of the choices are derived from integument.
scent glands—mark territory, defense, etc. eccrine glands—cool by evaporation apocrine glands—secrete a milky film in cue with the reproductive cycle sebaceous glands—form an oil that keeps the skin pliable mammary glands—sexual attraction
Mammals have a variety of teeth specialized for different functions, a pattern called A) B) C) D) E)
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heterodont. diphyodont. homodont. multicuspid. ambidontous.
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19) lack
A grazing animal, such as a cow, that mainly had to shear off grass and grind it would
A) B) C) D) E)
molars. incisors. canines. This animal would need all these teeth. This animal would only need molars.
20) Although there are exceptions, which of the following teeth are never deciduous in most mammals? A) B) C) D) E)
21)
Hares, rabbits, and some rodents pass food through their digestive tract twice because A) B) C) D) E)
22)
incisors canines premolars molars All mammal teeth are deciduous.
their food supply is scarce and limiting. it saves on energy for chewing. it decreases the impact on the environment by half. fermentation occurs after food has passed through the small intestine. they are just animals with disgusting habits.
Which is NOT a strategy for mammalian herbivores digesting cellulose?
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A) regurgitation and rechewing B) special anaerobic bacterial "vats" where cellulose-digesting bacteria can break down grasses, etc. C) consuming feces in order to pass food through the digestive system twice D) a side-pocket or diverticulum called a cecum E) directly digesting cellulose by stomach enzymes
23)
Which is NOT a correct association of ruminant stomach organ and its function? A) B) C) D) E)
24)
A raccoon or bear that eats both plants and animals for food is A) B) C) D) E)
25)
abomasum—true acid stomach with proteolytic enzymes reticulum—final chamber where undigested pulp is stored for disposal omasum—water, soluble food, and microbial products are absorbed rumen—first chamber where cud is formed All of the choices are correct ruminant associations.
multivorous. ambivorous. carnivorous. omnivorous. facultatively herbo-carnivorous.
The smaller the mammal A) B) C) D) E)
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the less oxygen it uses per gram of body weight. the lower its metabolic rate. the less food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight. the more food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight. the less it needs lungs.
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26) The barren-ground _____ undergo annual migrations from winter ranges on the tundra to summer ranges in the boreal forest. A) B) C) D) E)
antelope lemmings caribou snowshoe hare polar bears
27) The mammal that makes one of the longest migrations to breeding areas in the Pribilof Islands is the A) B) C) D) E)
28)
The calls of echolocating bats are "frequency modulated," meaning that A) B) C) D) E)
29)
barren-ground caribou. northern fur seal. humpback whale. sperm whale. lemming.
each pulse repeatedly rises and falls in frequency. the rate of pulse production declines as the bat nears an object. the frequency of the pulse is high at the beginning and drops toward the end. the transmission-to-reception time increases as the bat nears an object. None of the choices is correct.
In mammals, estrus is the time when the animals are
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A) B) C) D) E)
30)
Which of the following is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
31)
mating. pregnant. menstruating. giving birth to young. None of the choices is correct.
Most mammals have definite mating seasons. Many male mammals are capable of fertile copulation at any time. The estrous cycle allows females to mate at any time of the year. Estrus is a short period of mammalian "heat." All of the choices are correct.
A duck-billed platypus differs from most mammals because it A) B) C) D) E)
doesn't give live birth but lays eggs. is "cold-blooded" or not homeothermic/endothermic. lacks hair. doesn't secrete milk. All of the choices are correct.
32) Examples of density-dependent and density-independent factors that affect mammal populations would be, respectively, A) B) C) D) E)
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fires and hurricanes. disease and fires. fires and disease. food supply and disease. disease and food supply.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 33) The red blood cells of mammals typically lack a __________.
34)
Hair is produced by the layer of skin called the __________.
35) The secretion that serves as a dressing for the skin and hair is produced by the ______ glands.
36) The so-called mammal-like reptiles of the early Mesozoic from which the modern mammals descended were the ____________.
37) Mammals belong to an amniote lineage, the __________, characterized by a skull having a single pair of lateral openings in the temporal region of the skull.
38) Animals, such as most mammals, that generate a high body temperature by an internal heat source are called __________.
39)
Hair is produced by the ___________ layer of the skin.
40) During their annual growth, antlers develop beneath a covering of highly vascular skin called ___________.
41) The four kinds of teeth that are generally recognized in mammals are molars, premolars, canines, and ________.
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42) Of the two kinds of mammalian sweat glands, the one that produces a watery sweat is called the ____ gland.
43)
All mammalian skin glands are derivatives of the __________.
44) Typically, mammals produce two sets of teeth during their lifespan, a kind of dentition called ___________.
45)
Which is missing from this list: incisors, molars, canines, and ___________?
46)
The multichambered stomach of some grazing animals is called the ________________.
47) The final chamber of the four-chambered ruminant stomach is a "true" stomach where normal digestion takes place, called the __________.
48) A species of North American mammal that makes mass migrations of several hundred miles between the boreal forests and the tundra is the ___________.
49)
The only mammals having true flight are the __________ or Chiroptera.
50) Egg-laying mammals, such as the duck-billed platypus, are collectively called ___________.
51)
The seasonal fertility cycle of the female mammal is referred to as the __________ cycle.
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52) An area occupied and defended against invasion by other members of the same species is called a mammals' __________.
53) The North American mammal that shows 10-year cycles in population density, and that is preyed upon by lynx and other predators, is the ______.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Discuss a possible scenario of early mammal evolution that would have favored the evolution of hair and endothermy.
55) Discuss the significance of the evolution of a true placenta. Why would this have been an evolutionary milestone?
56) Discuss the significance of the evolution of heterodonty—the specialization of mammalian teeth.
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57) Discuss the importance of NOT overhunting wild stocks of animals. What might happen if the world's predatory species decline precipitously because of overhunting?
58) Explain the changes in morphology of the lower jaw, and its joint with the rest of the skull, that occurred during the evolution of mammals.
59)
Compare the morphology and likely physiology of pelycosaurs and therapsids.
60) Why should the loss of lumbar ribs in cynodonts be correlated with the evolution of a diaphragm? What else may have been provided by the loss of lumbar ribs in this lineage?
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61) Explain why the mammalian lineage, alive and well during the "reign of the dinosaurs," may have been evolutionarily "depressed" in the ecological sense of the word.
62) With the evolution of a new jaw joint between the dentary and squamosal (temporal) bones in mammals, bones of the previous jaw joint, the articular and quadrate continued their gradual reduction in size and became relocated. Identify what these two bones became.
63) Discuss the recent fossil evidence on the origin of whales. What evidence suggests that they are the sister group to the hippopotamus?
64) Compare the horns of the pronghorn antelope with the true horns of bovids and the horns of the giraffe.
65)
What evidence do we have that mammary glands evolved from apocrine glands?
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66) Place Paranthropus robustus , Ardipithecus ramidus, Sahelanthropus tchadensis, Australopithecus anamensis, Australopithecus africanus, Australopithecus afarensis, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, and Homo sapiens in a general phylogeny. Where do the Neanderthals fit into this scheme, and why?
67) Discuss the relationship between mammalian size and the amount of energy intake needed.
68) Discuss the significance of the evolution of echolocation in bats. Could that partially explain why bats are the most diverse group of mammals today?
69) Give evidence that suggests that a chorioallantoic placenta was present in the common ancestor of marsupials and placental mammals, but later was lost in most marsupials.
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70) How does a home range differ from a territory? What is the ecological significance of these two terms?
71) Explain how density independent and density dependent factors differ in their effects on mammalian populations.
72) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of placental and marsupial modes of reproduction.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 28_18e 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) C 6) E 7) E 8) D 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) E 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) C Version 1
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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) nucleus 34) epidermis 35) sebaceous 36) therapsids 37) synapsids 38) endothermic 39) epidermal 40) velvet 41) incisors 42) eccrine 43) epidermis 44) diphyodont 45) premolars 46) rumen 47) abomasum 48) caribou 49) bats 50) monotremes 51) estrous 52) territory 53) snowshoe hare 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary. 71) Answers will vary. 72) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 29 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The epidermis of the vertebrate integument contains a tough, fibrous protein called A) B) C) D) E)
sclerotin. keratin. calcitin. dermatin. chitin.
2) The epidermis is derived from __________, while the dermis is derived from __________. A) B) C) D) E)
3)
Which is NOT a correct association of epidermal and dermal structures and origins? A) B) C) D) E)
4)
ectoderm, endoderm endoderm, ectoderm ectoderm, ectoderm as well ectoderm, mesoderm endoderm, mesoderm
fish scales—modified collagen claws—combination of epidermal and dermal components armor of crocodilians—dermal bones stratum corneum—callused epidermis cornified cells—dead keratinized skin cells
Dust on bookshelves and elsewhere in a house is composed primarily of
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
The reflective properties of surface tissue may form A) B) C) D) E)
6)
dry mucous. white blood cells. dried sweat and uric acid crystals. dead skin cells. pulverized minerals and "dirt."
organic pigments. structural colors such as iridescence. chromatophores. the melanin effect. None of the choices is correct.
Which is NOT a correct association of animal pigments? A) B) C) D)
Melanins—black or brown pigments Carotenoids—yellow and red pigments Iridophores—blue and green pigments All of the choices are correct
7) When you get a suntan, why does it soon fade away if you do not consistently spend time in the sun?
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A) The melanin breaks down if not kept warm. B) The melanin is absorbed at a constant rate and you have to build it up faster than it is absorbed. C) "Tanned" cells are eventually sloughed off (although melanin is produced in living stem cells that continue to divide, half the melanin is lost into each daughter cell that dies and is pushed to the surface). D) Sunlight suppresses the lighter skin pigments and they can again return to mask the melanin. E) Ultraviolet radiation destroys melanin.
8)
An example of a hydrostatic skeleton is A) B) C) D) E)
9)
How does an elephant extend a trunk that has no bone structure in it? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
an elephant's trunk. the earthworm's body. the human tongue. a squid tentacle. All of the choices are hydrostatic skeletons.
muscles forcibly expand the trunk is an empty chamber and water is forced into it the elephant trunk is an example of a muscular hydrostat this is a hydraulic system similar to what was found in echinoderms antagonistic muscles operate in pairs across flexible cartilage
Hyaline cartilage contains
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A) B) C)
collagenous fibers surrounding numerous blood vessels. osteocytes surrounded by a calcium gel and a meshwork of collagenous fibers. chondrocytes surrounded by a protein gel complex and a meshwork of collagenous
D) E)
lacunae containing osteocytes and a meshwork of collagenous fibers. a highly variable mixture of protein gel and carbohydrate crystals.
fibers.
11)
Which is NOT a correct association of bone features? A) B) C) D) E)
replacement bone—bone repair after a break cancellous bone—first stage of all bone growth compact bone—most dense form to withstand stress in long bones intramembranous bone—from sheets of embryonic cells; mostly facial bones endochondral bone—replaces cartilage
12) Compact bone is composed of a matrix arranged in concentric rings. The rings contain cavities interconnected by small passages called A) B) C) D) E)
13)
lacunae. osteocytes. canaliculi. osteons. haversian system.
Bone tissue should be characterized as A) B) C) D) E)
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merely nonliving secretions of calcium. a dead cell product similar to the keratin of hair. active tissue with a rich blood supply. a barely active, low metabolism, tissue. the equivalent of a calcium carbonate clam shell.
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14)
Bone growth involves its destruction internally by bone resorbing cells called A) B) C) D) E)
chondrocytes. osteons. osteoblasts. osteoclasts. canaliculi.
15) Bone growth depends on a supply of calcium in the blood and bone also serves as a reservoir for stored calcium. What is responsible for maintaining a constant level of calcium in the blood? A) B) C) D)
16)
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal refer to A) B) C) D) E)
17)
a derivative of vitamin D parathyroid hormone calcitonin All of the choices are involved in regulating blood calcium levels.
categories of body muscle. ways of walking. regions of the brain. regions of the vertebral column. types of bone tissues.
Which statement about ribs is correct?
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A) possible B) C) D) E)
18)
fishes have a pair of ribs for every vertebra leopard frogs lack ribs altogether most humans have twelve pairs of ribs but about one-in-twenty has a thirteenth pair All of the choices are correct.
The ________ is part of the appendicular skeleton of a vertebrate. A) B) C) D) E)
19)
ribs prevent collapse of the lungs and help make negative pressure breathing
neurocranium atlas humerus sacrum mandible
The most important protein contractile system is the A) B) C) D) E)
contractile vacuole. actomyosin system. ectoplasm-endoplasm system. flagellar system. microtubular system.
20) "Dynein arms link to adjacent microtubules, then swivel and release in repeated cycles, causing microtubules on the concave side to slide outward past microtubules on the convex side" describes the action moving a A) B) C) D) E)
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muscle fiber. cilium or flagellum. contractile vacuole. pseudopodium. cell organelle.
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21)
The difference between a cilium and flagellum is A) B) C) D) E)
22)
The organization of a muscle, from largest unit to smallest, is A) B) C) D) E)
23)
their internal structure and rate of beat. their internal and external structure. their external structure only. their size, number, and beating pattern. their primary source of energy.
discrete muscle-fiber-fascicle-myofibrils-myofilaments. discrete muscle-myofibrils-myofilaments-fiber-fascicle. discrete muscle-fiber-fascicle-myofilaments-myofibrils. discrete muscle-fascicle-fiber-myofibrils-myofilaments. discrete muscle-fascicle-myofibrils-fiber-myofilaments.
Each striated muscle cell is A) B) C) D) E)
composed of keratin and collagen. a multinucleate cell. a fully-formed muscle. a myofilament. a fascicle.
24) The protein complex located at intervals along the actin strand of skeletal muscle is a calcium-dependent switch called ___________ that acts as the control point in the contraction process.
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A) B) C) D) E)
25)
In each myofibril of striated muscle, the sarcomere is the entire area between two A) B) C) D) E)
26)
myosin tropomyosin sarconin troponin myoglobin
Z lines. A bands. I bands. myofilaments. troponin molecules.
What begins muscle contraction?
A) high levels of oxygen and sugar. B) release of acetylcholine at a synapse that directly causes actin and myosin to slide. C) release of surplus ATP by a nerve motor unit. D) a nerve releases acetylcholine, which triggers flow of calcium, which unblocks troponin. E) a nerve releases troponin which triggers flow of calcium which unblocks acetylcholine.
27)
A motor unit is A) B) C) D) E)
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the functional unit of smooth muscle. the whole muscle that is supplied by a motor nerve. only the muscle fibers it innervates. a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it innervates. the part of a muscle cell that acts independently during muscle contraction.
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28)
Which best describes muscle action?
A) A nerve stimulus causes the muscle to jerk as a reflex response. B) A nerve stimulus releases ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction. C) The release of acetylcholine from the nerve junction flows across the muscle cell and the calcium released causes the actin and myosin molecules to spread apart. D) Myosin and actin molecules will use ATP and catch-pull-release as long as nerve stimuli prevent troponin from blocking the action. E) None of the choices is correct.
29)
Which of the following chemicals provides the "energy reserve" for muscle contraction? A) B) C) D) E)
actin myosin creatine phosphate troponin calcium
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 30) In crustaceans, the cuticle is stiffened by the deposition of _____________ carbonate.
31) Cells become cornified when the fibrous protein ___________________ accumulates within the cells.
32) In ectothermic vertebrates and crustaceans, pigments that provide color to animals are contained within large, branching cells called __________.
33)
Cartilage cells are called ______________________.
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34) Bone that develops from cartilage is called _________ bone, a word meaning "within cartilage."
35) Bone that develops directly from sheets of embryonic cells and is mostly restricted to bones of the face and cranium, is called _______________ bone.
36)
The first two cervical vertebrae are the ___________ and the axis.
37)
The functional unit of a myofibril is the __________.
38)
The thick filament of striated muscle is composed of the protein _____________.
39) The backbone of the thin filament of striated muscle is a double strand of the protein _____________.
40) In a myofibril of striated muscle, the sarcomere is the entire area between two __________.
41) At intervals along the actin strand of skeletal muscle is a complex of protein called ___________ that acts as a calcium-dependent switch.
42) All the skeletal muscle fibers under the control of a single motor neuron form a __________.
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43) There is more than one type of skeletal muscle fiber in vertebrates. The red muscle fibers that are capable of slow, sustained contractions are the __________ fibers.
44) The type of muscle cell that sllows some insects to achieve far faster wing beats than could be sustained with one-impulse-per-beat is __________ muscle.
45)
The immediate source of energy in muscle is __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 46) A grasshopper can jump a height of 50 times the length of its body. Yet, muscles of small and large animals exert the same force per cross-sectional area. Explain how the grasshopper can still jump a relatively greater distance than can a human.
47) Imagine that we could successfully replace all the bone in the human body with a metal framework that was equivalent or better at withstanding stress and anchoring muscles. What functions of bone would not be accomplished with such a replacement, and how would this affect our normal life?
48) Is there a limit to the size of animal that can evolve? Why are certain mechanical advantages not available to animals larger than a horse?
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49) Compare the integument of an arthropod with that of a vertebrate. How are they different? How are they similar?
50) Outline the various layers of human skin. What function(s) does each layer perform? What layers does intensive sunburn affect?
51) Differentiate between calcification and sclerotization. In which groups of animals are these processes found?
52) Define the following terms: keratin, keratinization, cornification, stratum corneum, dermis, epidermis.
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53) Discern between colors produced by organic pigments and those created by structural features. How do these two forms of color differ? Which type of color would be responsible for the beautiful iridescent blue of the tropical Morpho butterfly?
54) How does a hydrostatic skeleton differ from a rigid skeleton? Explain which skeleton may perform better under given conditions of the environment.
55) Why is the endoskeleton of vertebrates superior to the exoskeleton of insects when it comes to size? Discuss the physical limitations of each.
56) How does endochrondral bone differs from intramembranous (e.g., dermal) bone? List the general derivatives of each type of bone.
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57) Outline the microscopic structure of compact bone. Be sure to include a discussion of the functions of the various parts.
58) Compare the skeletal features that comprise the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton? Why are these skeletal features separated into two distinct categories? Is there any difference in the way they are formed?
59) The number of cervical vertebrae is nearly constant in all mammals, whether the neck is short or long. Explain this evolutionary phenomenon.
60)
Discuss the modification of the basic pentadactyl limb for life in different environments.
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61) What is the effect of body size on bone stress? Does it appear reasonable, as recent research claims, that Tyrannosaurus rex could not run because of this size and stress limitation? Explain your line of reasoning.
62) Outline the basic sequence of chemical and physiological events involved in the contraction of a muscle fiber.
63) How do cilia and flagella differ morphologically? Explain why this difference may be strictly a superficial distinction.
64) Compare and contrast the structure and function of the following muscle types: smooth, cardiac, and skeletal.
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65) Discuss the function of the fibrillar muscles of insects. How do they differ from vertebrate skeletal muscles?
66)
Outline the function of the two actin-binding proteins tropomyosin and troponin.
67) Describe in detail the morphology and function of the myoneural or neuromuscular junction.
68) Discuss how the energy for muscle contraction involves both ATP and creatine phosphate.
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69) Compare the operation of fast and slow fibers. What are the functions of each type of muscle?
70)
Describe the importance of tendons in energy storage during movement.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 29_18e 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) E 18) C 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) D 29) C 30) calcium 31) keratin 32) chromatophores 33) chondrocytes 34) endochondral 35) intramembranous 36) atlas 37) sarcomere 38) myosin 39) actin 40) Z lines 41) troponin 42) motor unit 43) slow oxidative 44) fibrillar 45) ATP 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answer may vary 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answer may vary Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answer may vary 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 30 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The marine invertebrates that have surfaces permeable to salts and water (and are thus always in osmotic equilibrium with their saltwater environment) are called A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Animals that are restricted to living in a narrow salinity range are A) B) C) D) E)
3)
hyperosmotic. hypoosmotic. osmoconformers. osmoregulators. stenohaline.
euryhaline. osmotic conformers. stenohaline. hyperosmotic regulators. hypoosmotic regulators.
Eriocheir, a bracksh-water shore crab
A) is a hyperosmotic regulator that maintains a higher salt concentration in their internal fluids than that found in the dilute seawater outside. B) is a hypoosmotic regulator that maintains a lower salt concentration than the surrounding seawater. C) tends to gain salt from the seawater. D) is an osmotic conformer and is euryhaline. E) is anosmotic conformer and is stenohaline.
4)
Freshwater animals
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A) B) C) D) E)
lose water from their bodies osmotically. lose salt by outward diffusion. must keep the salt concentration of their body fluids lower than that of fresh water. must drink water to maintain dilute body fluids. are permanent and highly efficient hypoosmotic regulators.
5) Replacement of needed salt or disposal of excess salt against its concentration gradient requires A) B) C) D) E)
6)
facilitated diffusion. active transport. a kidney system. impervious membranes, usually covered with mucus. a hydrogen ion pump.
In the evolution of bony fish,
A) modern freshwater bony fish originated from marine bony fish ancestors. B) modern marine bony fish originated from freshwater bony ancestors. C) modern marine bony fish had marine bony ancestors and modern freshwater bony fish had freshwater bony ancestors. D) modern marine bony fish has bony freshwater ancestors and modern freshwater bony fish had marine bony fish ancestors. E) None of the choices is correct.
7) Sharks maintain osmotic equilibrium with the ocean water by the kidney conserving _______, allowing it to accumulate in the blood until osmolarity is near that of seawater.
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A) B) C) D) E)
8)
ammonia sodium ions calcium all salts urea
Marine bony fishes A) B) C) D) E)
gain water by osmosis. absorb salt through the gills. must drink water to compensate for water loss. neither lose nor gain salt. use active transport to expel water.
9) Terrestrial animals can replace water losses by getting some liquid from their food, drinking water, and by A) B) C) D) E)
absorbing moisture from the air. swimming in water periodically. forming metabolic water in the cells by oxidation of organic compounds. eating salt to retain water. forming water from the hydrogen and oxygen secured by the lungs from the air.
10) You notice that some flour beetles have been living in a kitchen canister of "dry" flour for a year. As animals, beetles must have water for internal cellular metabolism, hemolymph, etc. How are they probably getting their water?
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A) B) C) D)
By flying to a water source at night By cannibalism By breakdown of sugar into water and carbon dioxide They are probably 100% efficient and can continually recycle the water in their
E)
None of the choices is correct.
body
11)
The most likely mechanism operating a contractile vacuole is A) B) C) D) E)
12)
What is the flatwormexcretory organ called? A) B) C) D) E)
13)
proton pumps actively moving water. microtubules actively moving water molecules. sodium pumps keeping the sodium ions on the outside of the membrane. simple osmosis of water. proton pumps forming an ion gradient.
Protonephridium Mesonephridium Metanephridium Nephridium Eunephridium
The ___________ of annelids and molluscs is an open, or "true," nephridium. A) B) C) D) E)
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protonephridium mesonephridium metanephridium nephridium eunephridium
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14)
Compared to kangaroo rats, humans A) B) C) D)
15)
Ciliated flame cells propel fluids through the excretory system in A) B) C) D) E)
16)
evaporate a higher proportion of water. have considerably more water in their feces. urinate considerably more. All of the choices are correct.
earthworms. insects. humans. planarians. marine fish.
In many modern animals, the ancient archinephric duct became A) B) C) D) E)
a duct for sperm transport. the urethra. the ureter. the loop of Henle. the whole kidney.
17) What is the name of the tube that transports urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder? A) B) C) D) E)
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urethra ureter proximal convoluted tubule loop of Henle renal pelvis
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18)
Blood pressure in the capillaries forces a protein-free filtrate out of the A) B) C) D) E)
19)
glomerulus. proximal tubule. loop of Henle. distal tubule. renal pelvis.
The transport maximum is the upper limit to the amount of a substance that can be A) B) C) D) E)
dissolved in the plasma before it will filter across the glomerulus. reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. eliminated in the urine per hour. withdrawn from the blood per hour. cycled through the kidney per day.
20) After drinking tea, reabsorption of fluids in the tubules drops from 99% to 98%. This would A) B) C) D) E)
21)
reduce urine volume 1%. increase urine volume by 1%. increase urine by 98%. double urine volume. make no change in urine flow.
Why is glucose found in glomerular filtrate but NOT in the urine?
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A) B) C) D) E)
22)
The secretion of aldosterone is regulated by the enzyme renin, which is produced by the A) B) C) D) E)
23)
aldosterone angiotensin renin androgen None of the choices is correct.
The effect of renin release will A) B) C) D) E)
25)
juxtaglomerular apparatus. glomerulus. juxtanephritic apparatus. loop of Henle. renal pelvis.
Which hormone promotes the secretion of antidiuretic hormone? A) B) C) D) E)
24)
The kidney stores glucose as glycogen. Kidney cells require glucose because energy is needed for active transport. Glucose is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. Glucose is converted to amino acids in the kidney. Glucose molecules are too large to pass through the tubules.
lower the number of red blood cells. lower blood volume by reducing angiotensin. result in production of angiotensin. inhibit aldosterone secretion. eliminate sodium and water.
An increased amount of ADH leads to
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A) B) C) D) E)
an increased amount of urine. a decreased amount of urine. no change in the amount of urine. kidney failure. None of the choices is correct.
26) Animals maintaining a constant and elevated body temperature independent of ambient conditions are A) B) C) D) E)
homeothermic. poikilothermic. ectothermic. mesothermic. None of the choices is correct.
27) An animal having a body temperature that is determined solely by the temperature of the environment is said to be A) B) C) D) E)
poikilothermic. homeothermic. ectothermic. endothermic. None of the choices is correct.
28) The capacity of most ectotherms to adjust their metabolic rates to the prevailing temperature such that the intensity of metabolism remains mostly unchanged is called A) B) C) D) E)
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poikilothermy. temperature compensation. metabolic ectothermy. homeothermy. behavioral thermoregulation.
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29) The flow of arterial blood downward alongside the ascending venous blood in the leg of the arctic wolf illustrates the concept of A) B) C) D) E)
universal cell metabolism. behavioral thermoregulation. countercurrent exchange. nonshivering thermogenesis. augmented muscular activity.
30) A large mammal, such as an eland, can cool itself physiologically in a hot, arid environment when the environmental temperature exceeds the body temperature by A) B) C) D) E)
evaporative cooling (sweating and panting). voiding urine. drinking water. nonshivering thermogenesis. augmented muscular activity.
31) In a cold environment, many species of birds and mammals maintain homeothermy by decreasing conductance and A) B) C) D)
32)
increasing heat production. allowing the extremities to operate at low temperatures. augmented muscle activity (e.g., muscular thermogenesis). All of the choices are correct.
Hummingbirds are able to reduce energy expenditure when inactive by
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A) B) C) D) E)
hibernation. decreasing insulation. becoming torpid while asleep. employing nonshivering thermogenesis. sweating and panting.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 33) The term "homeostasis" was coined by the American physiologist ______ ______.
34) Animals incapable of regulating their body fluid osmotic pressure are referred to as __________.
35) In freshwater fish, water that enter the gills osmotically is pumped out by the ___________.
36) Sharks solve their water balance problems by having their blood carry large amounts of trimethylamine oxide and __________.
37)
Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.
38) In Amoeba and Paramecium, water balance is achieved by a tiny, spherical organ called the __________.
39) In the metanephridium, the tubule is open at both ends and fluids are swept in through a funnel-like _____________.
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40)
Insects and spiders have a unique excretory system consisting of ____________ tubules.
41) It is believed that in flatworms, water enters the protonephridia (flame cells) from the surrounding tissue by negative pressure generated by the beating of __________.
42)
The ancestral kidney of vertebrates is the __________, a name that means "first kidney."
43)
Urine is produced continuously by the kidney and stored in the _________.
44) The area of a nephron that constitutes a countercurrent multiplier system is called the ________.
45) The amount of water retained and the final concentration of the urine depend on the permeability of the walls of the __________.
46)
Animals having a variable body temperature are said to be _____________.
47) Animals that conserve their own metabolically derived heat to elevate their body temperature are called __________.
48) The only vertebrate endotherms to have body temperatures higher than those of mammals are _________.
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49) Hummingbirds may reduce the energetic cost of homeothermy by allowing their body temperature to drop at night, an adaptation called ____________.
50) Some animals enter a state of summer dormancy, or __________, when food is scarce or there is a potential for dehydration.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 51) Why is it so physiologically distressing for freshwater aquarium fish to be dumped into the ocean, or a marine aquarium fish to be dumped into a local city park freshwater pond?
52) In cases of heart disease, where the physician desires to ease the burden on the heart, why would a medication be given that dramatically affects the amount of water that is urinated? Should this medication be a diuretic (increase urine flow) or an antidiuretic?
53) Why is homeostasis so important to animals? Why should any kind of constancy of the internal environment be important?
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54) Describe what is meant by an organism functioning in an integrated way to maintain a constant internal environment around a "setpoint."
55) Briefly describe how marine invertebrates meet and solve the problems of salt and water balance. If many invertebrates can survive in marine environments, why can't insects?
56)
What is the difference between an osmoregulator and a hyperosmotic regulator?
57) What kind of osmoregulatory problems were encountered by the ancestors of marine bony fishes (that apparently evolved in freshwater ecosystems)?
58) Why should stored fat become an important source of metabolic water in diving mammals? Would glucose be a better solution because it can be "burned" almost immediately?
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59)
Why does the excretion of wastes present a special problem in water conservation?
60) Compare excretory structures of single-celled organisms with those of marine invertebrates and terrestrial vertebrates.
61) Compare and contrast the arthropod Malpighian tubules with a human kidney. Be sure to outline the function of both organs.
62)
Explain the physiological process of glomerular filtration.
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63) Briefly describe the function of the following: aldosterone, renin, angiotensin, and antidiuretic hormone.
64) Compare and contrast ectotherms with endotherms. How do ectotherms achieve temperature independence, and what would be the "metabolic cost" to them if they evolved homeothermy?
65) Some insects are "facultative endotherms," which means they can warm up parts of their body, such as the thorax, by muscular thermogenesis.How does this compare to the endothermy found in most mammals and birds?
66) Outline various adaptive strategies for survival in cold environments used by both invertebrates and vertebrates.
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67) What is so "adaptive" about adaptive hypothermia in birds and mammals? Why not just become ectothermic?
68) Why does temperature have such a profound effect on biochemical reactions, and subsequently all of metabolism?
69) Based on what you know, is it likely that the larger dinosaurs were ectotherms or endotherms? Think of their entire lifestyle and how that might reflect their thermoregulatory strategies.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 30_18e 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1
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27) C 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) Walter Cannon 34) osmoconformers 35) kidneys 36) urea 37) water 38) contractile vacuole 39) nephrostome 40) Malpighian 41) flagella 42) archinephros 43) urinary bladder 44) loop of Henle 45) collecting ducts 46) poikilotherms 47) endotherms 48) birds 49) torpor 50) estivation 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 31 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In multicellular animals, body fluids are divided into two main phases, A) B) C) D) E)
2)
Extracellular fluid is subdivided into A) B) C) D) E)
3)
blood plasma and interstitial fluid. blood plasma and lymph. bloodstream and digestive fluids. bloodstream and cerebrospinal fluids. intracellular and extracellular.
Interstitial fluid is constantly formed by A) B) C) D) E)
4)
blood plasma and interstitial fluid. blood plasma and lymph. bloodstream and digestive fluids. bloodstream and cerebrospinal fluids. intracellular and extracellular.
the lymphatic system producing it. lightweight elements in the blood plasma filtered through capillary walls. absorption across the gut lining. absorption across the lung surface. reabsorption in the kidney tubules.
Which of the following is correct?
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Blood in vertebrates constitutes A) B) C) D) E)
6)
an organ. an organ system. a tissue. a cell assemblage. merely a fluid matrix.
Which of the following associations of blood components and functions is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
7)
blood plasma—fewer large protein molecules interstitial spaces—three times more water than bloodstream intracellular—sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions extracellular—potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions blood plasma—half of the body's water
albumin—large protein that maintains osmotic balance serum—plasma minus the proteins involved in clotting fibrinogen—large protein for blood clotting erythrocytes—red blood cells globulins—carriers of simple sugars
Which statement of red blood cell (RBC) structure or function is correct?
A) In mammals and birds, RBCs continuously form from erythroblasts in the red bone marrow. B) Mammal RBCs do not lose their nucleus when they mature. C) Over 90% of the cell by weight is hemoglobin. D) The completely flat shape of RBCs provides greater surface area for osmosis. E) The average life of an RBC is several years after which its components are salvaged by the liver.
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8)
A blood clot is formed by a fibrin meshwork in a reaction that is catalyzed by the enzyme A) B) C) D) E)
9)
Platelets A) B) C) D) E)
10)
are specialized red blood cells. carry the blood type protein. initiate clotting by releasing thromboplastin. transport carbon dioxide in the blood. are responsible for the buildup of plaques on artery walls.
The long, insoluble threads of fibrin of a blood clot originate from A) B) C) D) E)
11)
platelet factor. prothrombin. thrombin. fibrinogen. fibrinase.
fibrinogen. thrombin. collagen. prothrombin. platelets.
__________ carry blood away from the heart. A) B) C) D) E)
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Capillaries Venules Veins Arteries Lymph vessels
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12)
The __________ is involved with pumping blood to and from the lungs. A) B) C) D) E)
13)
The systemic circuit ultimately circulates blood from the A) B) C) D) E)
14)
right ventricle to left atrium. left ventricle to left atrium. right ventricle to right atrium. left ventricle to right atrium. pulmonary artery to the lungs.
The pulmonary semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood into the A) B) C) D) E)
15)
systemic circuit internal respiration circuit hepatic circuit pulmonary circuit renal circuit
right atrium. left atrium. ventricles. aortic arch. pulmonary trunk.
Oxygenated blood enters the heart at the A) B) C) D) E)
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left atrium. left ventricle. right atrium. right ventricle. None of the choices is correct.
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16)
Contraction of the right ventricle forces blood initially into the A) B) C) D) E)
17)
In the tetrapod heart, the pacemaker is the A) B) C) D) E)
18)
left atrium. right atrium. aorta. pulmonary vein. pulmonary artery.
atrioventricular bundle. purkinje fibers. vagus nerves. cardiac control center. Sinoatrial (SA) node.
The heart rate is controlled by the cardiac center located in the A) B) C) D) E)
cerebellum. medulla. cerebrum. midbrain. heart wall.
19) In some invertebrates, the heart will stop beating if the nerves leading to the heart are cut. Such hearts are considered
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A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The blood vessel that provides oxygen to the heart tissue is the A) B) C) D) E)
21)
an open system. myogenic. neurogenic. a deferred pacemaker. asynchronous.
pulmonary artery. coronary artery. left carotid artery. renal artery. left subclavian artery.
If a person has a blood pressure of 110/60, the "110" refers to the A) B) C) D) E)
diastolic pressure. systolic pressure. pulse pressure. capillary pressure. venous pressure.
22) The exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and wastes (including carbon dioxide) takes place across the walls of the A) B) C) D) E)
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lymph vessels. arteries. capillaries. veins. lymphatic vessels.
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23)
Which blood vessels will have walls only one cell thick? A) B) C) D) E)
24)
Opposing the blood hydrostatic pressure that forces water across capillaries is the A) B) C) D) E)
25)
capillaries venules veins arterioles arteries
cellular hydrostatic pressure. albumin concentration gradient. colloid osmotic pressure. lymphatic hydrostatic pressure. law of coupled balanced flow.
The lymphatic system drains lymph back into the A) B) C) D) E)
large intestine. heart. vena cava. veins of the liver. veins of the lower neck.
26) Specialized tubules in insects that make direct contact with the tissues to provide oxygen and remove carbon dioxide are called A) B) C) D) E)
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dermal branchiae. tracheae. gills. lungs. branchial tufts.
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27) A dung beetle journeys into a ball of dung to lay eggs. To avoid being poisoned by the noxious gases, it closes its A) B) C) D) E)
28)
Which association is NOT correct? A) B) C) D) E)
29)
papulae. branchial tufts. book lungs. bronchi. spiracles.
pleura—lung and chest epithelium trachea—windpipe alveoli—gas exchange esophagus—vocal cords nasal—inhalation
What would happen to the respiratory rate of a mammal that is masked?
A) B) C) D) mammals. E)
Its breathing rate would increase in response to more carbon dioxide. Its breathing rate would increase in response to less oxygen in the blood. Its breathing rate would slow down as it suffocated. It is not possible to predict since breathing rate is controlled consciously in None of the choices is correct.
30) At sea level, air pressure is 760 mm of mercury (Hg). If we altered the oxygen content in a hospital room to 30% oxygen and 70% nitrogen, the partial pressure of oxygen would be
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A) B) C) D) E)
31)
70% - 30% = 40%. 760 x 30% = 228 mm Hg. 760 x 40% = 304 mm Hg. 760 x 70% = 532 mm Hg. There is not enough information to calculate it.
Oxygen is carried in circulation primarily A) B) C) D) E)
as a dissolved gas in the plasma. as carbonic acid. bound to hemoglobin in the red blood cells. by white blood cells. None of the choices is correct.
32) About two-thirds of waste carbon dioxide is carried back to the lungs in higher animals by which method given below? A) B) C) D) E)
33)
by red blood cells on the empty hemes dissolved in blood plasma as bicarbonate and hydrogen ions dissolved in lymph in lymph ducts on myoglobins None of the choices is correct.
Which of the following can NOT serve as a respiratory pigment? A) B) C) D) E)
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hemoglobin hemocyanin chlorocruorin hemerythrin All of the choices can function as respiratory pigments.
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34) You are a genetic counselor and need to meet with a couple that recently had a baby boy who has hemophilia. As part of the conversation, you explain the basic genetics of the condition and provide advice for the future. Which statement below if most accurate? A) Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited on the Y chromosome. Because males have one Y chromosome, should you choose to have subsequent children, males and females have an equal chance of being afflicted with hemophilia. B) Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited on the Y chromosome. Because males have one Y chromosome, should you choose to have subsequent children, only males would be afflicted with hemophilia. C) Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited on the X chromosome. Because females have two X chromosomes, should you choose to have subsequent children, females are more likely to be afflicted with hemophilia than males. D) Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited on the X chromosome. Because males only have one X chromosome, should you choose to have subsequent children, male children are more likely to be afflicted with hemophilia.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 35) ______________ engulf spent erythrocytes.
36) Extracellular fluid in animals with a closed circulatory system is subdivided into blood plasma and _________________ (intercellular) fluid.
37) The major intracellular electrolytes are potassium, magnesium, and phosphate ions, while the chief extracellular electrolytes are sodium, chloride, and __________ ions.
38) The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is ___________________.
39) The _____________ are minute, incomplete cells that release substances to initiate the process leading to blood coagulation. Version 1
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40) In the efficient double circulation of birds and mammals, the blood goes through a systemic circuit and a completely separate _______________ circuit.
41) The atrioventricular valves separate the atria from the ventricles in the heart, and the ___________ valves prevent backflow from the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
42)
The contraction of the heart is known as __________ , and the relaxation is diastole.
43)
The volume of blood forced from either ventricle each minute is known as __________.
44) The heartbeat originates in specialized muscle tissue called __________ in the sinoatrial node.
45)
The blood vessel that delivers oxygen and nutrients to the heart is the __________ .
46)
The name of the instrument that we use to measure blood pressure is the __________.
47) In very small organisms, or those with a large surface area relative to mass, substantial exchange of respiratory gasess can take place by __________ directly between the organism and the environment.
48)
The external openings to the tracheal systems of arthropods are called __________.
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49) The rhythm and depth of breathing normally are controlled by the level of __________ in the blood.
50) Oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood capillaries by a process called __________ along partial pressure gradients.
51)
The mammailian lung is filled with millions of small air sacs called __________.
52) The lower affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the presence of increased carbon dioxide is called the __________ effect.
53)
An alternate name for the mouth is the __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 54) Why is the catalytic sequence leading to blood clotting so complex? Wouldn't it mtake evolutionary and metabolic sense to have a more immediate and much shorter biochemical sequence?
55) Trace the path of a drop of blood from where it picks up oxygen in the lung to when it returns to the lung, naming the vessels and heart chambers and valves along the way.
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56)
Compare and contrast the internal fluid compartments within a vertebrate organism.
57) Briefly discuss the functions of the many inorganic and organic substances in solution within body fluids.
58)
Describe the plasma and cellular components of vertebrate blood.
59) Outline the formation of red blood cells and white blood cells.Why have red blood cells (erythrocytes) lost the nucleus?
60) What are the physiological roles of fibrinogen, fibrin, prothrombin, and thromboplastin? Where, why, and when are these compounds made? Version 1
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61) Compare the structure of a major vein with that of a major artery. Why are the two so different?
62) Is the completely separate double circulation of a mammal really superior to that of the incompletely separate circulation of amphibians? Explain your reasoning.
63)
Explain the reason for the differences in blood pressure during systole and diastole.
64) Discuss the physiological mechanism by which the heartbeat is set (e.g., discuss the pacemaker cells, Purkinje fibers, and the cardiac control center in the brain).
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65) Discern between a myogenic and a neurogenic heart. What types of organisms possess each?
66) Why should arteries farther away from the heart possess more smooth muscle and fewer elastic fibers than arteries closer to the heart?
67)
Outline the functions of the lymphatic system.
68)
What are the inherent problems involved in aquatic and aerial breathing?
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69)
Describe the differences between insect and vertebrate ventilation.
70)
Outline the structures and functions of the mammalian respiratory system.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 31_18e 1) E 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) E 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) B Version 1
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27) E 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) Macrophages 36) interstitial 37) bicarbonate 38) thrombin 39) platelets 40) pulmonary 41) semilunar 42) systole 43) cardiac output 44) pacemaker cells 45) coronary artery 46) sphygmomanometer 47) diffusion 48) spiracles 49) carbon dioxide 50) diffusion 51) alveoli 52) Bohr effect 53) Buccal cavity 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 32 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Examples of a suspension feeder and a deposit feeder would be, respectively, A) B) C) D) E)
2)
clams and fish. polychaete annelid and earthworms. earthworms and rotifers. basking sharks and rotifers. earthworms and clams.
The evolution of an alimentary system is primarily to allow A) B) C) D) E)
storage of food before digestion. intracellular digestion. extracellular digestion. filter feeding. fluid feeding.
3) Compare a small animal that soaks up food from its external environment with an animal with a tube type digestive system. What is/are the major advantage(s) of having a tube? A) it isolates the food the organism ingests. B) it permits development of specialized enzymes and concentration of digestive juices in different regions. C) it permits more time for chemical action. D) additional physical cutting and grinding of the food bolus is made possible. E) All of the choices are advantages.
4)
Digestive enzymes
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
When a food molecule is split by a digestive enzyme A) B) C) D) E)
6)
water is produced. water is used. proteins are produced. food calories are produced. simple sugars are broken apart.
The end products of fat digestion are A) B) C) D) E)
7)
are hydrolases. break chemical bonds by adding water across them. break specific bonds. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
simple sugars. amino acids. only long chain fatty acids. fatty acids, glycerol, and monoglycerides. water and carbon dioxide.
The distinction between segmentation and peristalsis (as digestive processes) is mainly A) B) C) D)
separating versus rejoining lumps of food. forward movement versus backward movement. holding useful food versus moving wastes along. dividing and squeezing contents of the intestine in one place versus moving food
E)
before versus after saliva is added.
along.
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8)
Salivary amylase begins the digestion of A) B) C) D) E)
fats. milk. starches. proteins. All of the choices would begin to digest.
9) You are studying a mammalian jaw and note that all of the types of teeth that could be present, are present. Which represents the proper sequence of teeth, from the front to the back, of the mammalian jaw you are studying? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the A) B) C) D) E)
11)
incisors, canine, molars, premolars incisors, canine, premolars, molars canine, incisors, premolars, molars canine, incisors, molars, premolars incisors, premolars, canine, molars
pharynx. uvula. epiglottis. glottis. soft palate.
The main function of the esophagus is to
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A) B) C) D) E)
12)
digest proteins. digest carbohydrates. transport food from the small intestine to the large intestine. transport food from the mouth to the stomach. transport food from the stomach to the large intestine.
In the stomach A) B) C) D) E)
most of the food is digested. most of the nutrients are absorbed. protein digestion begins. carbohydrate digestion is completed. None of the choices is correct.
13) An egg-eating snake carefully retracts its teeth and engulfs a bird egg whole. Once it has completely closed its mouth, it can then break the eggshell internally and let the liquid contents move down the digestive tract. To avoid having the sharp pieces of eggshell proceed to the stomach, it must regurgitate them before they pass the A) B) C) D) E)
14)
small intestine. epiglottis. cardiac sphincter. pyloric sphincter. esophagus.
A bird, insect or worm gizzard is a A) B) C) D)
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food storage area. site of food molecule absorption comparable to our small intestine. food crushing and grinding organ. site of water absorption similar to our large intestine.
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15)
What is the role of HCl in the stomach? A) B) C) D) E)
16)
symptom of a digestive disorder. only to cause stomach ulcers. digestive enzyme that hydrolyzes fats. aids in the digestion of starch. activates the digestive enzyme pepsinogen.
Which of the following digestive enzymes is incorrectly matched to its substrate? A) B) C) D) E)
pepsin-protein trypsin-nucleic acid salivary amylase-starch lipase-fat rennin-milk
17) Which of the following is an inward folding of the dorsal intestinal wall of an earthworm that enhances food absorption by increasing the surface area of the intestine? A) B) C) D) E)
18)
villi cannula pylorus typhlosole fistula
In the small intestine
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A) B) C) D) E)
19)
Fat absorption differs from other foods because its breakdown products are A) B) C) D) E)
20)
absorb nutrients. secrete bile. produce antibodies. synthesize vitamins. None of the choices is correct.
Microvilli form a brush-like border on the cells of the A) B) C) D) E)
22)
formed in the large intestine. absorbed directly into the blood. absorbed into the lacteals &thenthe lymphatic system. absorbed only when glucose is not present. None of the choices is correct.
Villi serve to A) B) C) D) E)
21)
food is digested and the nutrients are absorbed. there is no digestion, but nutrients are absorbed. mostly water is absorbed. considerable bacterial action occurs on the food. None of the choices is correct.
esophagus. stomach. small intestine. tongue. pharynx.
Which of these do the pancreatic enzymes digest?
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A) B) C) D) E)
23)
The large intestine functions mainly in A) B) C) D) E)
24)
digestion of fats and proteins. digestion of carbohydrates. absorption of water and vitamin production. absorption of amino acids. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following absorb water and ions in insects? A) B) C) D) E)
25)
proteins. carbohydrates. lipids. All of the choices are correct. The pancreatic enzymes do not digest any of these molecules.
typhlosole malpighian tubules micelles rectal glands None of the choices is correct.
Brown fat appears to be specialized for which function? A) B) C) D) E)
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the storage of carbohydrates the storage of fatty acids the storage of glycerol the storage of glycogen generation of heat
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26) Starches are digested to _______, which is/are converted to ______ in the liver, which is/are broken down to be released as _______ in the blood, respectively. A) B) C) D) E)
27)
The liver produces bile, which functions to A) B) C) D)
28)
eliminate particles of dead red blood cells. helps emulsify fats for digestion. color the feces. All of the choices are correct.
Secretin, gastrin, and CCK in mammals are all A) B) C) D) E)
29)
glucose, glycogen, glucose glucose, amino acids, glucose glycogen, glucose, glucose amino acids, glucose, glycogen glucose, glycogen, glycogen
enzymes used to digest food. hormones that control digestive secretions. breakdown products of digestion. produced in the gut by an acidic pH. All of the choices are correct.
The release of secretin is stimulated by the action of A) B) C) D) E)
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the alkaline material in the duodenum. the bile. muscular contractions in the stomach. nerves to the duodenum. strong acid in the small intestine.
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30)
Secretin functions to stimulate the A) B) C) D) E)
31)
CCK is A) B) C) D) E)
32)
a polypeptide hormone. very similar to gastrin. secreted by endocrine cells in the walls of the upper small intestine. secreted in response to fatty acids and amino acids in the duodenum. All of the choices are correct.
Vitamins are A) B) C) D) E)
33)
release of bile to hydrolyze proteins. release of alkaline pancreatic juices. release of gastrin. release of CCK. pituitary to control the pancreas.
complex proteins. required in large amounts. a ready source of energy. associated with some enzymes. All of the choices are correct.
Vitamins are classified based on A) B) C) D) E)
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whether they affect carbohydrates or proteins. how much they are required. the amount of energy they contain. whether they are water or fat soluble. None of the choices is correct.
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34)
Vitamins
A) enzymes. B) C) D) E)
are not sources of energy but are often associated with activity of important are chemicals which all animals can synthesize. are chemicals which only humans need. are the basic 20 amino acids that an animal cannot synthesize itself. are considered sources of energy similar to carbohydrates and fats.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 35) Nearly all animals are ________ organisms that depend on already synthesized organic compounds.
36)
Saliva contains the enzyme ____________.
37)
Canine teeth are adapted for seizing and piercing prey and then _________ meat.
38) Digestion in the small intestine is accomplished by enzymes produced by the intestine and the ________.
39) With normal people an increased caloric intake is dissipated as excess heat by a diffuse tissue called ______ ______.
40) Nutrients that are needed for normal growth and maintenance and that must be supplied in the diet are called ____________.
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41) The diet of animals must include carbohydrates, proteins, fats, water, mineral salts, and ___________.
42) The small plants and animals that drift in the ocean's current and provide food for many filter feeders are collectively called ____________.
43)
The most characteristic gut movement is _________.
44)
Gastric juice contains both hydrochloric acid and ____________.
45)
A milk-curdling enzyme found in the stomach of ruminant mammals is ____________.
46)
The pancreatic juice contains two powerful proteases, trypsin and ____________.
47) One of the membrane enzymes that originates in the microvillus membrane of the small intestine splits terminal amino acids from the amino end of short peptides and is called ____________.
48) The earthworm increases the surface area of its intestine by this dorsal fold called a _____________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 49) Blood is a rich food supply but it also readily clots. How does a mosquito or leech solve this problem?
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50) Describe the unique pathway for the digestion of fat molecules and indicate why they are not completely broken down, as are other food molecules.
51) The feces of a horse are rather dry and fiber laden while the feces of a cow are diarrheic and eventually dry into a "cowpie." Why would the feces of two animals grazing on the same pasture be so different in water content?
52)
Describe one mechanism for regulating food intake.
53) Create a table that compares and contrasts the following: autotroph, phototroph, chemotroph, heterotroph.
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54)
Create a table that compares and contrasts the following: herbivory, carnivory, omnivory.
55)
Compare and contrast the feeding strategies of suspension feeders versus filter feeders.
56) Is the fact that humans are classified as omnivores supported by the fact that humans have variable tooth morphology?
57)
Outline the action of the major digestive enzymes.
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58) Describe the major compartments and functions of the human digestive system, beginning with the tongue and pharynx.
59)
Outline the process of protein digestion.
60)
Outline the process of carbohydrate digestion.
61)
Outline the process of fat digestion.
62) Discuss the factors that have been positively correlated with the prevalence of obesity in developed countries such as the US.
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63)
Discuss the functions of white adipose and brown adipose tissue.
64)
List and explain the roles of each of the hormones involved in the regulation of digestion.
65) What is the difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins? How does this affect the dosage recommended for human consumption?
66) Discuss the possible relationship between fatty diets and the disease known as atherosclerosis.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 32_18e 1) B 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) E 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) A Version 1
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27) B 28) B 29) E 30) B 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) heterotrophic 36) amylase 37) tearing 38) pancreas 39) brown fat 40) vitamins 41) vitamins 42) plankton 43) segmentation 44) pepsin 45) rennin 46) chymotrypsin 47) aminopeptidase 48) typhlosole 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 33 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Both nerves and hormones serve in biological communication. A) Generally, nerves serve where speed is vital, hormones act slower but have longerterm effects. B) Both are equally speedy but hormones last longer. C) Nerve responses are more reliable than chemical and are used for the more important functions. D) Primitive animals use hormones, advanced ones use nerves. E) None of the choices is correct.
2)
Which statement is NOT true about the cells of the nervous system? A) B) C) D) E)
A dendrite is a cytoplasmic extension of a neuron There may be multiple dendrites on a single cell A neuroglial cell supports or protects a neuron A neuron typically has only one axon All of the above are correct statements.
3) The extension of a nerve cell that generally carries action potentials away from the cell body is the A) B) C) D) E)
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axon. schwann cells. synapse. dendrite. myelin.
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4) A neuron in a cat's leg was stimulated electrically. The primary reaction was a contraction of some muscles in the same leg. The neuron was most likely A) B) C) D) E)
5)
Which of the following is NOT a glial cell? A) B) C) D) E)
6)
microglial cells oligodendrocytes astrocytes neuromasts schwann cells
The inside of the neuron membrane at rest is A) B) C) D) E)
7)
afferent or sensory only. efferent or motor only. both motor and sensory. an interneuron. None of the choices is correct
negatively charged. positively charged. neutral or equal to the exterior charge. None of the choices are true since neurons never rest. None of the choices is correct.
A nerve action potential A) B) C) D)
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involves a depolarization of the neuron membrane. involves movement of sodium ions from the outside to the inside of the membrane. is self-propagating. All of the choices are correct.
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8)
Which statement is NOT true about the action potential of the neuron?
A) Repolarization occurs as movement of potassium ions occurs across the cell membrane. B) The action potential moves more slowly along a myelinated neuron than along one with no myelin sheath. C) The action potential travels the length of the axon in a self-propagating fashion. D) Saltatory conduction occurs from one node of Ranvier to another along a myelinated axon. E) Large fibers in neurons of some invertebrates carry very rapid nerve action potentials.
9) The ultimate limitation to the number of nerve action potentials we can send to a muscle per second is A) B) C) D) E)
10)
Which of the following affect the speed of conduction from nerve to nerve? A) B) C) D)
11)
the speed with which sodium ions can be pumped back outside the nerve membrane. the strength of the nerve action potential. whether action potential is detected as being pain, sound, or some other sense. the number of neurons and synapses involved. the type of muscle.
Temperature Large diameter axons Myelin sheaths All of the choices are correct.
The nodes of Ranvier are
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A) B) C) D) E)
motor nerve terminations on muscle fibers. tiny vesicles on the postsynaptic membrane of synapses. interruptions in the myelin sheath surrounding axons. ganglia in the flatworm nervous system. the interneurons in our cerebral cortex that allow us to "think."
12) Why is the giant squid or the marine snail Aplysia so important when studying the nervous system? A) They were the first primitive organisms to have neurons. B) They are the first primitive organisms to "think." C) They lack sensory or motor neurons so all their neurons are uniform and easy to study. D) They have large neurons that allow us to probe neuron physiology and trace pathways. E) Their neurons are different from neurons of other animals.
13)
The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the nerve cell membrane involves A) B) C) D) E)
14)
no energy since it involves simple osmotic gradients. simple diffusion. a substantial amount of cell energy to provide active transport. dialysis. neurotransmitters.
What keeps a nerve action potential from flowing "backward" in a neuron? A) B) C) D) E)
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Schwann cells keep action potentials flowing one direction. Sodium ions can only move toward a synapse. There is a refractory period after sodium ions are pumped back out. The axon and dendrite have completely different membrane structures. All of the choices are correct.
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15)
The event at the chemical synapse
A) B) C) dendrite. D) E)
always involves acetylcholine. always involves some neurotransmitter that stimulates the next neuron. is a simple continuous "domino" flow of negativity or ions from the axon to the next involves either an inhibitory or stimulating neurotransmitter chemical. All of the choices are correct.
16) If a nerve to an isolated heart is stimulated and the heartbeat slows, the most reasonable conclusion is that the heart A) B) C) D) E)
is responding to a nerve control that inhibits heartbeat. is dying since nerves can only stimulate muscle action. is unaffected by the nerve but responding to some unknown chemical factor. is normal as all nerve stimulation results in decreased muscle activity. None of the choices is correct.
17) In a chemical synapse, when the wave of depolarization reaches the presynaptic membrane, it triggers the release of A) B) C) D) E)
18)
sodium ions. neurotransmitter molecules. electricity. nerve action potentials. None of the choices is correct.
The event at an electrical synapse
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A) B) C) D) E)
19)
always involves acetylcholine. always involves some neurotransmitter that stimulates the next neuron. is a point at which ionic currents flow directly across a narrow gap junction. involves either an inhibitory or stimulating neurotransmitter chemical. None of the choices is correct.
You spray an insect with an organophosphate insecticide. How does it kill the insect?
A) It prevents diffusion of acetylcholine at the synapse. B) It destroys the ability of acetylcholinesterase to recycle acetylcholine and allows erratic stimulation and disruption of life activities. C) It kills the insect's neurons and ends its ability to control essential life activities. D) It stops respiration in nerve cells similar to the effect of cyanide. E) None of the choices is correct.
20)
The evolutionary trend toward larger size and capacity of the brain in vertebrates is called A) B) C) D) E)
cranial expansion. cortex evolution. cephalization. centralization. encephalization.
21) You are explaining the concept of a reflex arc to your study group members. During the conversation you lay out the sequence of steps for a fellow student that missed lecture the day this topic was covered. Which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of events? A) B) C) D) E)
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receptor, efferent nerve, nerve center, afferent nerve, effector effector, afferent nerve, nerve center, efferent nerve, receptor receptor, afferent nerve, nerve center, efferent nerve, effector effector, efferent nerve, nerve center, afferent nerve, receptor All of the choices are correct.
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22) An animal with a simple net-like nervous system is generally _______, an example would be _______. A) B) C) D) E)
23)
Which of the following wraps the spinal canal in three layers? A) B) C) D) E)
24)
radially symmetrical, earthworm radially symmetrical, dog radially symmetrical, hydra bilaterally symmetrical, octopus bilaterally symmetrical, flatworm
white matter black matter meninges yellow matter None of the choices is correct.
The brain of early fishes consisted of three principal regions called A) B) C) D) E)
pons, cerebellum, cerebrum. prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. protoganglia, mesoganglia, and metaganglia. ichthyospinal region, ichthyocerebrum, and ichthyocerebellum. premedulla, medulla oblongata, and postmedulla.
25) A cat learns to walk and take steps when young without having to think through "liftpaw-move-leg-set-down-paw" because the sequence has been practiced and coordinated automatically in its
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A) B) C) D) E)
26)
autonomic nervous system. midbrain. hind brain. forebrain. spine.
Which statement about the conscious brain is NOT correct?
A) The conscious brain is contained within the cerebrum B) The corpus callosum is the bridge that connects the two cerebral hemispheres C) The cerebral cortex is composed of gray matter, with cell bodies and unmyelinated neurons D) The limbic system is a center for mathematical ability and other non-emotional activities E) Association areas of each lobe of the cerebrum receive information from other parts of the brain and integrate the information into higher levels of consciousness
27) The part of the brain responsible for deep seated drives such as sex, hunger, thirst, anger and pleasure is the A) B) C) D) E)
medulla oblongata. reticular formation. parasympathetic system. limbic system. None of the choices is correct since these all originate in endocrine glands.
28) While studying for your zoology exam you begin to get tired and have to reread a sentence in your notes because it does not seem to make sense with how you understand the autonomic nervous system. Which false statement below is likely to cause this response during your studying?
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A) B) C) D) E)
The autonomic nervous system is a completely motor system. The functions of the autonomic system are generally involuntary and subconscious. The sympathetic nervous system deals with "fight or flight" responses. The parasympathetic nervous system promotes actions associated with relaxation. The neurotransmitter associated with the parasympathetic system is norepinephrine.
29) If we crossed over the nerves leading from the eye and from the ear before they reached the appropriate section of the brain, what would happen? A) Nerves send vision at the speed of light, hearing at the speed of sound, etc. B) The main difference is in the origin and destination of the nerves involved so the experiment above would "see" flashes of loud noises and "hear" bright light. C) The code sent along the nerves from vision is a different dot-and-dash sequence from the action potentials from hearing. D) They are completely different types of nerve cells and send different action potentials. E) None of the choices is correct.
30) Internal chemicals communicate from one organ to another target organ or tissue. However, _________ are chemicals released by individuals to influence the behavior of other members of their own species A) B) C) D) E)
interio-hormones pheromones excretions releasing stimuli biological symbol systems
31) You are watching a horror movie, and you notice that your heart is beating fast, your mouth is dry, and you are breathing rapidly. What division of the nervous system is directly responsible for these reactions?
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A) B) C) D) E)
32)
spinal since this is a reflex arc between sensory and motor nerves the sympathetic nervous system which is responsible for fight-or-flight reactions the cerebellum which maintains all unconscious control the forebrain where symbols are interpreted None of the choices is correct.
The sense of smell is
A) coded by genes with each of 500–1000 genes coding for a separate odor receptor. B) poor in humans when compared to other mammals such as dogs. C) detected with olfactory endings in a special epithelium covered by a thin film of mucus deep in the nasal cavity. D) analyzed by olfactory cortex that is connected to centers of emotions. E) All of the choices are correct.
33) Pacinian corpuscles adjusting to new shapes, no longer responding to constant pressure, is a condition called A) B) C) D) E)
34)
adaptation. fatigue. timbre. inhibition. redundancy.
The organ of Corti is A) B) C) D) E)
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the internal part of the cochlea with hair cells that are stimulated by sound waves. the part of the eye that contains rods, cones, and bipolar cells. the point of the eye at which color vision is most acute. part of the inner ear which recognizes dynamic equilibrium and movement. None of the choices is correct.
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35) The crayfish has a cavity or ___________ lined with sensory seta or hairs. A grain in the cavity is pulled downward by gravity; the pressure against the bottom hairs of the cavity gives the crayfish a perception of being upright and when it changes orientation, the grain touches side hairs that make it realize it is not upright. Thus the crayfish "knows" which way is up in the dark. A) B) C) D) E)
ampulla labyrinth saccule statocyst statolith
36) A fly will start flapping its wings if its feet are not touching the ground, and stop flapping its wings when its feet touch the ground, even when its head has been cut off. This "decision" to fly has therefore likely been made by A) B) C) D) E)
37)
interneurons in the ganglia. the wing and foot muscles themselves. motor nerves. sensory nerves. the fly's brain.
The fovea centralis is A) B) C) D) E)
part of the choroid coat of the eye that is attached to the lens and the iris. the internal part of the cochlea with hair cells that are stimulated by sound waves. any part of the eye that contains rods, cones, and bipolar cells. the point of the eye at which color vision is most acute. the part of the inner ear which recognizes dynamic equilibrium and movement.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 38) Non-neuron cells that outnumber neurons but are very important in neuron function are ____________ cells. Version 1
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39) A nerve signal is a rapidly moving change in electrical potential called the ______ ______.
40) The myelin sheath that insulates the axon is formed by special glial cells called ______ ______.
41) The active transport device whereby sodium is moved from inside the axon to the outside is referred to as the ______ ______.
42) Synapses where ionic currents flow directly across a narrow gap junction are called ______ ______.
43) The leaping of the action potential from node to node in vertebrate high-speed neurons is known as ____________ conduction.
44) The most common neurotransmitter at synapses in the vertebrate nervous system is __________.
45)
The simplest pattern of invertebrate nervous system is the _____ _____ of cnidarians.
46) A cross-section of the spinal cord shows two zones, the outer one called white matter, and an inner zone containing interneurons and cell bodies, called _____ _____.
47) The most posterior region of the brain, really an extension of the spinal cord, is the _______ ________.
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48) Several autonomic centers that regulate body temperature, water balance, appetite and thirst are located in the ____________.
49) The subdivision of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord is called the ______ ______ ______.
50) The efferent nervous system is subdivided into the somatic nervous system and the ________ _________ __________.
51) The midbrain consists mainly of the ____________, which contains centers for visual and auditory reflexes.
52) The autonomic nervous system consists of two subdivisions, the _________ and the parasympathetic.
53) Insects possess chemoreceptors that are located in sensory hairs called __________________.
54) Receptors located in muscles, tendons, and joints that provide the organism with a sense of body position are called ____________.
55)
The vertebrate ear functions in hearing and in ____________.
56)
The organ of hearing in the inner ear of tetrapod vertebrates is the ______ ___ ______.
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57)
The light-sensitive layer inside the vertebrate eye is the ____________.
58) The arthropod compound eye is composed of numerous independent visual units called _________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 59) Trace the neuromuscular sequence of events that occur from when your finger tip touches a sharp tack to the action of pulling your hand back and feeling the pain.
60) If you were placed in a space suit and drifted away from your spacecraft, which stimuli would be unable to reach you?
61) If you destroyed the neuromasts in a fish's lateral line, how would you expect this to affect its ability to school?
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62) Explain how some insects are better at detecting motion while others can see a fuller field.
63) Identify the following and their functions: afferent neurons, efferent neurons, interneurons, receptors, effectors, neuroglial cells, myelin, microglial cells.
64) Discuss what is meant by "action potential"—be sure to discuss the properties of selfpropagation, depolarization, and repolarization.
65)
What function does the sodium pump play in neural transmission?
66)
Discuss the difference between electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
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67) What roles do acetylcholine and acetylcholinesterase play in the transmission of neural action potentials?
68) Describe how the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system interact to provide a vertebrate organism with complete information about the internal and external environments.
69) What is the difference between a reflex arc and a reflex act? List the components and functions of each.
70) Explain how the parasympathetic and sympathetic subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are similar and different.
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71) Compare the senses of chemoreception and olfaction. What is the difference between the two and how are taste receptors classified today?
72)
Discuss the function(s) of the vomeronasal organ.
73) Outline the components and the physiological processes of either (1) hearing, (2) taste, or (3) vision. Be sure to list the basic components of the sensory system and their functions.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 33_18e 1) A 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D Version 1
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27) D 28) E 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) neuroglial 39) action potential 40) Schwann cells 41) sodium pump 42) electrical synapses 43) saltatory 44) acetylcholine 45) nerve net 46) gray matter 47) medulla oblongata 48) forebrain 49) central nervous system 50) autonomic nervous system 51) tectum 52) sympathetic 53) sensilla 54) proprioceptors 55) balance 56) organ of Corti Version 1
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57) retina 58) ommatidia 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary. 68) Answers will vary. 69) Answers will vary. 70) Answers will vary. 71) Answers will vary. 72) Answers will vary. 73) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 34 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which pair below lists the two English physiologists who first demonstrated the action of a hormone? A) B) C) D) E)
Bayliss and Starling Bayliss and Cannon Banting and Best Banting and Starling Watson and Crick
2) What is the term for chemicals produced by cells to affect their own immediate region or local tissue factors? A) B) C) D) E)
second messengers pheromones neurotransmitters kinase parahormones
3) You are explaining how the nervous and endocrine systems differ from one another. When describing the endocrine system you indicate that most hormones travel by A) B) C) D) E) presence.
4)
intentionally seeking out the tissue they will affect. only traveling down the bloodstream in the direction of the target tissues. the lymphatic system. seeking the neurons that are going to the target tissue and using them as pathways. the bloodstream throughout the body, but only the target tissues will respond to their
Peptide hormones and epinephrine
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A) B) C) D) E)
readily diffuse through the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane. readily diffuse through the plasma membrane but not the nuclear membrane. are too large to pass across the plasma membrane. are steroid hormones. are second messengers.
5) The second messenger that relays a hormone's message to the cell's biochemical machinery A) B) C) D) E)
6)
The difference in hormone effects on two different tissues is due to A) B) C) D)
7)
is cyclic ATP. is kinase. can be any of six different molecules. is GMP. is DNA or RNA.
receptor molecules on the hormone molecule. receptor molecules on the target cell. presence of a second messenger. presence of a compatible gene.
Peptide hormones
A) are lipid-soluble and easily pass through a plasma membrane. B) bind selectively to receptor molecules in the cytoplasm. C) bind selectively to receptor molecules in the nucleus. D) form a hormone-receptor complex that is a gene regulatory protein that activates or inhibits a specific gene. E) bind to transmembrane protein receptors.
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8)
The actual affect of hormones on cellular functions is accomplished by A) B) C) D) E)
9)
affecting enzyme activity. changing membrane permeability. regulating synthesis of cellular proteins. stimulating release of hormones from other glands. All of the choices are hormone actions.
Hormone control is by A) B) C) D) E)
negative feedback systems similar to a house thermostat. positive feedback systems that require a shut-off mechanism. input from the nervous system. response to input of hormones and metabolites. All of the choices control hormone levels.
10) You study partner is confused about how there can be a nervous system, an endocrine system, and a system that combines the two (neurosecretory). To help them understand you explain that the neurosecretory cells A) B) C) D)
11)
are discharged directly into the circulation. link the nervous and endocrine systems. occur in all animal groups. All of the choices are correct.
The molting hormone,ecdysone, in insects A) B) C) D) E)
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favors the development of adult structures. favors the development of larval structures. does not appear to act directly on the chromosomes. is not a steroid hormone. is toxic to humans.
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12) If you are interested in developing a "pesticide" hormone spray that will prevent insects from developing into adult pests, you would need to synthesize A) B) C) D)
the hormone created by the prothoracic gland. juvenile hormone. PTTH. ecdysone.
13) You approach your instructor to ask question about how the hypothalamus can be a brain structure that is part of the endocrine system. In her response she indicates the following about the hypothalamus A) B) C) D) E)
14)
The posterior pituitary A) B) C) D) E)
15)
is a ventral portion of the brain. contains neurosecretory cells. produces hormones that stimulate the pituitary. has a direct linkage, or portal communication, with the anterior pituitary gland. All of the choices are correct.
is the source of releasing hormones. produces four major tropic hormones. secretes oxytocin andantidiuretic hormone. produces growth hormone and prolactin. All of the choices are correct.
What hormone is NOT a product of the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
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A) B) C) D) E)
antidiuretic hormone thyroid stimulating hormone gonadotropic hormones adrenocorticotropic hormone growth hormone
16) A fast-acting hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the pituitary and that promotes dispersion of pigment in fishes, amphibians, and reptiles is A) B) C) D) E)
pineal gland stimulating hormone (PGSH). vasotocin. melatonin. melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH). oxytocin.
17) The posterior pituitary lobe hormone that has the widest distribution and is probably the parent hormone from which many others evolved is A) B) C) D) E)
18)
prolactin. vasotocin. melatonin. insulin-like growth factor. oxytocin.
Which hormone stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone? A) B) C) D) E)
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antidiuretic hormone thyroid stimulating hormone luteinizing hormone adrenocorticotropic hormone growth hormone
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19)
The preparation of the mammary glands for secretion of milk requires the action of A) B) C) D)
progesterone. prolactin. estrogen. human chorionic gonadotropin.
20) What hormone stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor or somatomedin by the liver in humans? A) B) C) D) E)
21)
The maintenance of circadian rhythms is related to A) B) C) D) E)
22)
antidiuretic hormone thyroid stimulating hormone gonadotropic hormones adrenocorticotropic hormone growth hormone
prolactin. melatonin. oxytocin. prostaglandins. vasotocin.
The perception of pain can be relieved by A) B) C) D) E)
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endorphins. prolactin. oxytocin. prostaglandins. vasotocin.
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23)
Menstrual cramps are caused by overproduction of A) B) C) D) E)
endorphins. prolactin. oxytocin. prostaglandins. vasotocin.
24) Cells involved in the immune response communicate with each other through a large group of polypeptide hormones called A) B) C) D) E)
25)
The thyroid gland A) B) C) D) E)
26)
endorphins. growth hormones. cytokines. prostaglandins. glucocorticoids.
regulates the gonads. is the smallest endocrine gland in humans. acts on the kidney to restrict urine flow. stimulates metabolic rate and promotes normal growth. has a high concentration of calcium.
Tadpoles metamorphose into frogs because of
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A) B) C) D) E)
decreases in iodine leading to less thyroid hormone. decreases in juvenile hormone from the corpora alata. increases in epinephrine from the adrenals. activation of the thyroid gland and increases in growth hormone. sex hormones.
27) In a physiology laboratory experiment you remove the parathyroid glands from a rat. Your hypothesis about the impact this will have on the rat includes which of the following? A) B) C) D)
28)
Calcium levels in the blood and bone are controlled by A) B) C) D) E)
29)
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. parathyroid hormone. calcitonin. All of the choices above are correct. None of the choices is correct.
The glucocorticoid hormones A) B) C) D) E)
30)
an increase of calcium in the blood severe muscle spasms and death stimulation of the thyroid to maintain proper calcium level in the blood no noticeable effect
are involved with inflammation and stress. are produced by the adrenal medulla. are involved with salt balance. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
Hormones of the adrenal medulla
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A) B) C) D) E)
act as neurotransmitters at the endings of sympathetic nerve fibers. effect emergency body functions such as fear and rage. have the same general effects as the sympathetic nervous system. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
31) The pancreas produces two hormones that regulate sugar metabolism by antagonistic action: A) B) C) D) E)
insulin and glucagon insulin and diabetogenic hormone estrogen and insulin insulin and cortisone epinephrine and norepinephrine
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 32) Many hormones are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms that operate between the endocrine gland and the ______ ______.
33) The two hormones involved in insect metamorphosis are molting hormone and the __________ hormone.
34)
The most common invertebrate hormones are peptides and _____________________.
35) Many hormones, upon arriving at a target cell, combine with a receptor site on the membrane to promote the activity of an enzyme thatproduces molecules called the ______ ______.
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36) Steroid hormones diffuse directly into target cells where, after combining with cytoplasmic receptors, they translocate to the nucleus and act on specific genes to cause an increase or decrease in _____________________ synthesis.
37)
Growth hormone is produced by the _______ ________ gland.
38) The intermediate lobe of an amphibian pituitary produces a pigment-dispersing hormone called ___________ - ___________ hormone.
39) A neurosecretory hormone, stored and released from the posterior pituitary, that has important specialized reproductive functions, is ____________.
40) The posterior pituitary hormone that acts on the kidney to restrict urine flow is _________________.
41) The condition in humans called goiter is caused by an insufficiency of ____________ in the food and water.
42) The hormone produced by the adrenal cortexthat regulates salt balance in the body is called ____________.
43) The maintenance of a normal level of calcium in the blood is under the control of a hormonereleased from the _________ glands.
44) A hormone that lowers the blood calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption by the osteoclasts is ____________.
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45) Cortisol causes the conversion of nonglucose compounds, especially amino acids and fats, into glucose by a process called ___________________.
46)
The male sex hormone testosterone is produced by the ____________ cells of the testes.
47) The pituitary gonadotropins are _______ _______ ________ and luteinizing hormone (LH).
48) Early in the menstrual cycle of human females, the blood levels of ______ ______ hormone and luteinizing hormone begin to rise slowly, prompting the ovarian follicles to grow and release estrogen.
49) In the human menstrual cycle, ovulation is induced by a surge of ________ ________ from the anterior pituitary gland.
50) After birth, suckling by the baby induces the pituitary gland to release ____________, which stimulates the secretion of pre-formed milk.
51) _____________ is a hormone that regulates eating behavior and energy balance through communication with the hypothalamus.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 52) Generally we consider hormones "untargeted" or adrift in the bloodstream until they float past a target cell or tissue. How is the hypothalamus-pituitary system an exception to this? Why might this system differ?
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53) Create a table that compares and contraststhe functions of neurotransmitters with those of parahormones.
54) Outline the basic operational mechanisms of a generalized hormone. Be sure to consider mode of transport, receptors, and target cells.
55)
Discuss membrane-bound receptors and the concept of second messengers.
56) Recent evidence suggests that lipid-soluble hormones such as estrogen, may also bind to membrane-bound receptors that activate second messenger systems in the same way as peptide hormones. Explain how a hormone such as this can exhibit multiple and complex systems of control of target cells.
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57) Provide an example to explain how a negative feedback system works and why it is so highly effective in preventing hormonal flux.
58) Outline the process of molting in an insect. Show how juvenile or adult features are reached strictly by the titer of specific hormones present.
59) Create a table that list the hormones of the neurohypophysis andtheir target tissues and actions.
60) Why do you suppose there is only one hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the anterior pituitary?
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61)
How does the pineal gland regulate sleep cycles and circadian rhythms?
62) Defend the following statement, "brain neuropeptides blur the distinction between the endocrine and nervous systems."
63) Create a table that compares and contrasts the following according to their functions: cytokines, prostaglandins, throxine, and parathyroid hormone.
64) Create a table that compares and contrasts the following according to their functions: cholesterol, glucocorticoids, gluconeogenesis, mineralocorticoids, and aldosterone.
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65)
Discuss the potential effects of anabolic steroid abuse by teenagers.
66) What role does growth hormone play in metabolism? How is leptinrelated to the storage of energy?
67)
Discuss hormonal control of diapause in insects.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 34_18e 1) A 2) E 3) E 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) E 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) E 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) B 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) target cells 33) juvenile 34) neuropeptides 35) second messengers 36) mRNA 37) anterior pituitary 38) melanocyte-stimulating 39) oxytocin 40) vasopressin 41) iodine 42) aldosterone 43) parathyroid 44) calcitonin 45) gluconeogenesis 46) interstitial 47) follicle stimulating hormone 48) follicle stimulating 49) luteinizing hormone 50) oxytocin 51) Leptin 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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57) Answers will vary. 58) Answers will vary. 59) Answers will vary. 60) Answers will vary. 61) Answers will vary. 62) Answers will vary. 63) Answers will vary. 64) Answers will vary. 65) Answers will vary. 66) Answers will vary. 67) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 35 CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What type(s) of cell(s) conduct(s) phagocytosis? A) B) C) D) E) F)
macrophages in lymph nodes kupffer cells in sinusoids microglial cells in the brain neutrophils mast cells natural killer cells
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Low-molecular weight glycoproteins that are released by many eukaryotic cells in response to invasion by intracellular parasites are called _____. A) B) C) D) E)
complement lysozymes macrophages interferons tissue necrosis factors
3) _________________ is produced by macrophages, is a mediator of inflammation, and may help cause fever. A) B) C) D) E)
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Complement Lysozymes A major histocompatibility complex Interferon Tumor necrosis factor
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4) _________________ is/are a series of proteins activated in a sequence as a response to invading organisms. A) B) C) D) E)
Complement Lysozymes A major histocompatibility complex Interferons Tumor necrosis factors
5) When a phagocyte engulfs a bacterium or other foreign particle, how does it destroy the foreign material in the vacuole? A) By being denied its natural food and surface respiration the bacterium simply ceases to live and breaks apart over time. B) The phagocyte's nuclear coding is stronger than that of the bacterium. C) The Golgi body proceeds to use molecules from the foreign body for cell products. D) A cell lysosome is fused with the foreign particle and digestive enzymes destroy the particle. E) Cell mitochondria use the foreign material as a fuel for aerobic respiration.
6)
What type(s) of cell(s) conduct(s) phagocytosis? A) B) C) D) E)
7)
macrophages in lymph nodes kupffer cells in sinusoids microglial cells in the brain neutrophils All of the choices are able to phagocytize.
Neutrophils and lymphocytes are types of _____.
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A) B) C) D) E)
8)
The terms "neutrophil" and "basophil" and "eosinophil" refer to A) B) C) D) E)
9)
They are phagocytic. They are polymorphonuclear. They are made in lymphoid tissue. They do not produce antibodies. They are the most abundant white blood cell.
The acquired immune response in vertebrates has two arms: A) B) C) D) E)
11)
whether they are active in acidic, neutral, or basic conditions. their tissue origins. the type of chemical they use to kill cells. stains that are used to identify them. the researchers who described them.
Which statement is NOT true about neutrophils? A) B) C) D) E)
10)
platelets red blood cells white blood cells plasma cells epithelial cells
antibodies and antigens. B and T lymphocytes. cellular and humoral. T H1 and T H2. immunoglobulins and T-cell receptors.
Immunoglobulins have a structure that resembles which letter?
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A) B) C) D) E)
A B S T Y
12) In a process called __________, an antibody becomes coated with antibody molecules and then macrophages recognize the projecting antibody regions and are stimulated to engulf the particle. A) B) C) D) E)
13)
co-receptor toxicity cytokinesis antigen-presentation opsonization inflammation
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Inflammation is a very specific response to a limited number of antigens. B) All immune responses involve antibodies. C) There are an equal number of memory cells and activated B cells that gave rise to the memory cells. D) Inflammation is a vital process to defend and repair tissues. E) All of these choices are correct.
14)
The blood typing test relies on ________ of red blood cells. A) B) C) D) E)
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agglutination staining microscopic inspection culturing nuclear identification
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15) In a young individual who has never been exposed to a blood transfusion, why does Atype blood have anti-B antibody, whileB-type blood has anti-A antibody? A) B) C) intestine. D) E)
16)
The fetus is exposed to the mother's blood antigens during pregnancy. All individuals already have all possible antibodies at birth so this is normal. That antibodies develop to A and B epitopes on intestinal microorganisms in the The antibodies are transferred in the saliva from parent to child. The antibodies are made to the recessive blood type that is not expressed.
Which of the following invertebrate examples is most like an acquired immune response?
A) American cockroaches reject allografts from the same source more quickly upon second exposure. B) Most invertebrates reject xenografts. C) Hemocytes of molluscs release degradative enzymes during phagocytosis. D) Bacterial infections in some insects stimulate production of antimicrobial peptides that show broad-spectrum activity.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 17) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a(n) _____________.
18) Cells bear substances on their surfaces that are the basis of nonself recognition. These substances are _______ ________ _______.
19) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.
20)
Antibodies are large protein molecules classified as ______________.
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21)
The cells that secrete antibodies are called __________________.
22) Certain proteins in the blood that, together with antibodies, lyse or break up invading cells are called ________________.
23) Many immune responses involve little, if any, ________ and depend on the action of cells only.
24) An immune response against an invading organism or other tissue damage that involves mobilizing leukocytes from capillaries to the site of injury is called the ___________ response.
25)
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is commonly called ________.
26)
The causative agent of AIDS is _______________ _________ __________.
27) Blood cells differ from one another, and when two different and incompatible blood types are mixed, _________________ happens.
28) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.
29) One of the principal tests of the ability of invertebrate tissues to recognize nonself is grafting a tissue from another individual of the same species. This is called a(n) _________.
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30) _________ cells are responsible for retaining antigen memory for faster future immune response.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 31) If lysozyme is found in sweat, saliva, and tears, why can't it be usedas an antibiotic against serious disease agents?
32) Explain why hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) is a problem if the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive, but not if the reverse is true.
33)
Discuss the following terms: susceptible, resistant, infective, noninfective, immunity.
34) Distinguish between innate immunity and acquired immunity. How are innate mechanisms influenced and sometimes strengthened as a consequence of acquired immune responses?
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35)
Identify the following: tumor necrosis factor, complement, phagocytosis, leukocytes.
36)
How do the following granulocytic leukocytes differ: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 35_18e 1) [A, B, C, D] 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) C 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) antigen 18) major histocompatibility complexes 19) antibodies 20) immunoglobulins 21) lymphocytes 22) cytokines 23) antibody 24) inflammatory 25) AIDS 26) human immunodeficiency virus Version 1
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27) agglutination 28) erythroblastosis fetalis 29) allograft 30) T-memory 31) Answers will vary. 32) Answer may vary 33) Answer may vary 34) Answers will vary. 35) Answers will vary. 36) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 36 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Questions concerned with proximate causation of a behavior would focus on A) B) C) D) E)
2)
its evolutionary origin using comparative methodology. its genetic origin using recombinant DNA techniques. its physiological cause and effect using experimentation. its ancestry using a cladogram. None of the choices is correct.
Ethologists carry out all of the following except
A) attempt to study the behavior of an animal in its natural habitat. B) have demonstrated that behavioral traits can be isolated and measured. C) have demonstrated that behavioral traits have evolutionary histories. D) attempt to study the behavior of an animal in a laboratory environment where all variables can be controlled. E) identify general laws of behavior that apply to many species.
3) The effort to experiment with animals to determine general laws of behavior that might also apply to humans is A) B) C) D) E)
4)
sociology. behavioral ecology. comparative psychology. sociobiology. ethology.
Sociobiology, the ethological study of social behavior, was originated by
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A) B) C) D) E)
5)
What is a stimulus that triggers a stereotypical behavior called? A) B) C) D) E)
6)
Konrad Lorenz. Edward O. Wilson. Niko Tinbergen. Charles Darwin. Karl von Frisch.
a goal or accomplishment a release or sign stimulus imprinting a drive or innate stimulus a reflex arc
Tinbergen's male stickleback fish would attack models of other males if the models had A) B) C) D) E)
a wide gaping mouth. a red underside. a fat pregnant profile. three spines. the exact full shape of a normal stickleback fish.
7) If a behavior is most closely associated with an organism's genetic makeup and is identical to behavior in other members of the species, the behavior is referred to as A) B) C) D)
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innate. conditioned. trial-and-error. learned.
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8) At first puppies crouch in fear when a leaf flutters overhead. Later they learn to disregard it. What is this called? A) B) C) D) E)
9)
imprinting habituation conditioned response sensitization cooperative behavior
Imprinting includes all of the following except A) B) C) D)
illustrates another form of learned behavior. is confined to a brief sensitive period in the individual's early life. is permanent once it is established. can be modified base on experience.
10) If a male white-crowned sparrow is hatched and reared in isolation but allowed durding a critical period of imprinting (10 to 50 days after hatching) to hear the song of a male from another species, the bird will most likely A) only learn the appropriate song of its own species. B) sing the appropriate song of the other species. C) try to modify the crude song it was "born with" with the other-species song and produce a unique song. D) not sing at all. E) develop an abnormal song.
11)
A benefit of social organization may be
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A) B) C) D) E)
12)
An example of social organization is A) B) C) D) E)
13)
is rare in mammals. is characteristically nonviolent and ritualized. usually results in death or injury of one opponent. occurs equally among females as among males. None of the choices are correct.
The function of territoriality may be A) B) C) D) E)
15)
barnacles attached to a boat bottom. a beehive in full activity. a cloud of moths attracted to a light. a swarm of mosquitoes hovering around a sweaty person. All of the choices are social gatherings.
Aggressive behavior between sexual rivals A) B) C) D) E)
14)
protection from predators. cooperation in hunting for food. to facilitate contact between males and females. all of the choices are benefits. None of the choices is correct.
to reduce intraspecific fighting. to ensure food supply. for mating and rearing of young. All of the choices are correct. None of the choices are correct.
A territory
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A) B) C) D) E)
is a defended area from which animals of the same species are excluded. is a defended area from which animals of all species are excluded. is the same as an animal's home range. is much more common among mammals than birds. None of the choices is correct.
16) When many female seals gather on a small island so the few dominant males can gain access and defend their groupings of females, this represents A) B) C) D) E)
a lek. female defense polygyny. male defense polyandry. male dominance polygyny. resource defense polygyny.
17) The leader of a troop of baboons defends his family or honeybees defend their hive "to the death". What do we call this apparent behavior of risking one's life for others? A) B) C) D) E)
18)
altruism. sexual selection. ritualization. competition. agonistic behavior.
Altruistic behaviors between closely related animals
A) growth. B) C) D) E)
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force individuals to cooperate with one another and thereby increase population increase the frequency of the altruistic genes in the next generation. reduce cooperation between species. ensure the survival of the altruistic individual but not his close relatives. All of the choices are correct.
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19) Evolutionary modification of a normal behavior into a display to improve communication is called A) B) C) D) E)
20)
The waggle dance helps bees A) B) C) D) E)
21)
altruism. ritualization. imprinting. sensitization. habituation.
communicate when they are hungry. show aggression. communicate the location of food. sound the alarm to protect the hive when it is invaded. find mates.
If food is close to the hive, A) B) C) D) E)
no dance is necessary to communicate a source that is within eyesight. the bees dance in a very small figure-8. the bees perform a round dance. the bees dance in a straight "bee line." None of the choices is correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 22) The ethological study of social behavior in animals, originated by E.O. Wilson in 1975, is called __________.
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23) The three ethologists who were awarded the Nobel Prize are von Frisch, Lorenz, and __________.
24)
Egg-rolling movement of gray-lag geese is an example of fixed or __________ behavior.
25) Behavior carried out in an orderly, predictable sequence is referred to as __________ behavior.
26) Behavior carried out in an orderly, predictable sequence is referred to as ___________ behavior.
27) The invariable, predictable behavior of animals that does not require learning is called __________ behavior.
28) A simple kind of learning in which there is a reduction or elimination of a response in the absence of any reward or punishment is called __________.
29) An activity related to fighting, whether it be aggression, defense, submission, or retreat, is called __________ behavior.
30) One kind of learning behavior, illustrated by goslings that will follow the first moving object they see (usually their mother) is called __________.
31) The social ranking that serves to reduce social tensions within a social order is called the __________.
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32) The undefended area over which many mammals move in their daily travels is called a __________.
33) Honeybees communicate the location of food resources by two types of dances: the round dance and the __________ dance.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 34) Why is territoriality considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
35) Explain the difference between proximate causation and ultimate (evolutionary) causation.
36) Why does the concept of sociobiology, a subdiscipline founded on basic biological principles and comparative behavior, run into such a public buzz saw of disapproval?
37) Compare the properties of innate behavior with those of learned behavior. How does a researcher separate the two in nature?
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38) Explain the complexity of the hereditary transmission of most innate behavior. Why is it so difficult to study?
39) What properties of organisms, species, and ecosystems make the study of behavior so much more complex than the study of a single reaction under controlled conditions in a test tube?
40) Compare and contrast habituation and sensitization. Are the two concepts really different? If so, explain how.
41)
Discuss the properties of imprinting. How could any kind of imprinting have evolved?
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42) Identify the significance of the following: aggression, agonistic behavior, ritualized displays, ritualization, and dominance hierarchy.
43) How are territories and home ranges different? What is the purpose of distinguishing between the two when neither territory nor home range can be exactly quantified?
44) Many people believe that kin selection, group selection, and mutual altruism are not controlled by genes. What evidence would you present to show that this is or is not so?
45) Outline the "language of the bees" according to the different types of dances expressed from foraging workers.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 36_18e 1) C 2) E 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) sociobiology 23) Niko Tinbergen 24) stereotypical 25) releasers 26) stereotypical Version 1
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27) innate 28) habituation 29) agonistic 30) imprinting 31) dominance hierarchy 32) home range 33) waggle 34) Answers will vary. 35) Answers will vary. 36) Answers will vary. 37) Answers will vary. 38) Answers will vary. 39) Answers will vary. 40) Answers will vary. 41) Answers will vary. 42) Answer may vary 43) Answers will vary. 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 37 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The relatively thin layer on the earth's surface where life is possible is known as the A) B) C) D) E)
2)
ecosystem. biosphere. biome. biopreserve. lithosphere.
Which is NOT a correct association of earth components and properties? A) B) C) D) E)
hydrosphere—lakes, oceans atmosphere—oxygen—ozone screening layer lithosphere—source of mineral elements atmosphere—78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen All of the choices are correct.
3) The phenomenon where visible and U-V radiation are absorbed at the earth's surface and reemitted as longer infrared wavelengths that are then absorbed by water vapor, carbon dioxide, and methane, is known as A) B) C) D)
the ozone layer. the greenhouse effect. global warming. the atmospheric cycle.
4) The present concern over the apparent increase in the temperature of the biosphere is an intensification of the "greenhouse effect" caused primarily by the
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A) B) C) D) E)
decrease in the human population on earth. increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere from the burning of fossil fuels. increased photosynthesis from increased carbon dioxide. conversion of grasslands to farmlands. increases in the tropical forest biome.
5) A terrestrial environment represented by a major biotic unit consisting of a characteristic and easily recognized variety of plant life is called A) B) C) D) E)
6)
a zoogeographical realm. an ecocline. an ecosphere. a biome. None of the choices is correct.
Which is a correct description of the air circulation patterns of the earth? A) Warm air rises at the equator and moves all the way to the poles where it cools and
sinks. B) In the Northern Hemisphere, the surface air moving northeast from 30 to 60 degrees is moist and encounters cold air moving south to form a stormy region. C) Air evaporating at the equator is dry and therefore causes deserts when it sinks at 30 degrees north. D) The polar cells are cold and cause rainfall as they descend to the equator. E) The Coriolis effect deflects moving air to the left in the northern hemisphere.
7)
What is a characteristic of a temperate deciduous forest?
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A) B) C) D) E)
the presence of such trees as pine, fir, spruce, and cedar that the trees shed their leaves and become dormant during the winter that the rainfall is low that the forest floor has very little litter to serve as habitat for animals All of the choices are correct.
8) As the latitude increases in the Northern Hemisphere, which biome sequence would you generally expect? A) B) C) D) E)
9)
A characteristic of a tropical forest is that A) B) C) D) E)
10)
Tundra, coniferous forest, deciduous forest, tropical forest Tundra, deciduous forest, coniferous forest, tropical forest Tropical forest, deciduous forest, coniferous forest, tundra Tropical forest, coniferous forest, deciduous forest, tundra Tropical forest, deciduous forest, tundra, coniferous forest
there is much vegetation but relatively few species of plants and animals are present. the growing season is short. the animals such as deer, moose, and elk are common. the soil rapidly deteriorates when the forest is removed. All of the choices are correct.
What biome has the highest agricultural productivity? A) B) C) D) E)
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Prairie grassland Temperate deciduous forest Tropical rain forest Tundra Tropical rain forest and estuaries
3
11)
Tundra is A) B) C) D) E)
12)
an area of high precipitation and high humidity. a mixed forest composed of evergreen and deciduous trees. the treeless Arctic regions and high mountain tops. composed of very little plant life and no animal life. None of the choices is correct.
The biome that contains the greatest variety of plants and animals is the A) B) C) D) E)
grassland. deciduous forest. tundra. tropical forest. coniferous forest.
13) About how much of the earth's water supply is freshwater, including ice caps, rivers, freshwater lakes, etc.? A) B) C) D) E)
14)
25% 10% 2.5% 0.25% 0.0025%
High-oxygen, bubbly streams are described as A) B) C) D) E)
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benthic. pelagic. lotic. lentic. estuarine.
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15)
Lake Baikal in southern Siberia is unique as a lake because it is A) B) C) D) E)
16)
What benthic area is deepest? A) B) C) D) E)
17)
continental margins continental shelf continental slope abyssal plain continental rise
What ocean zone experiences the most frequent fluctuations? A) B) C) D) E)
18)
very old. lentic. lotic. salty. an upwelling.
intertidal pelagic upwelling bathypelagic None of the choices is correct.
What causes the geographic distribution of animals? A) B) C) D) E)
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extinction geological changes migration climate change All of the choices contribute to zoogeography.
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19)
Vicariance is a method of animal distribution that A) B) C) D) E)
20)
involves active movement on the part of the animals. could result in allopatric speciation. fully explains how animals have become distributed as they are today. is referred to as continental drift. None of the choices is correct.
Which is NOT correct concerning animal dispersal?
A) Emigration involves leaving an area. B) Immigration entails coming into a new area. C) Animals would move northward into favorable territory as a glacier retreated. D) Animal reproduction is slow and there is constant outside pressure from others to immigrate. E) Knowing the routes of dispersal is critical to understanding disjunct distributions.
21)
To trace distribution by dispersal, a researcher must first establish the A) B) C) D) E)
22)
rate of dispersal. mode of dispersal. center of origin. reason for dispersal. speciation event.
Which of the following would NOT be a vicariance event? A) B) C) D)
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The ancestral Darwin finch is blown to the Galapagos Islands. Salamander populations are split by a glacier in the last ice age. Australia drifts away before placental mammals arise. All of the choices would be vicariance events.
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23)
A family tree based on known vicariant events would be called a(n) A) B) C) D) E)
vicariant phylogeny. dispersal map. evolutionary template. general area cladogram. None of the choices is correct.
24) It is thought that the northern landmass that resulted from the division of Pangaea fragmented and gave rise to A) B) C) D) E)
25)
North America, most of Eurasia, and Greenland. North America and Central and South America. Eurasia, Africa, and Australia. South America, Antarctica, and Australia. All of the choices are correct.
The theory of continental drift is supported by A) B) C) D) E)
similarity of fossils in Africa and South America. paleomagnetic surveys. mid-ocean ridges that are spreading between Africa and South America. the fit of the continental shelves of South America and Africa, among others. All of the choices fit with continental drift theory.
26) Why does continental drift theory not help explain the distribution of placental mammals?
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A) B) C) D) E)
Placental mammals were agile enough to cross all continental barriers. Placental mammals evolved after the breakup of the major plates. Their fossils were subject to more deformation. We just haven't located enough fossils of them. None of the choices is correct.
27) What happened when a land bridge was reestablished between North and South American at the end of the Pliocene? A) Nothing happened because the major mammal groups had not evolved differently since the previous connection had been broken. B) Only the porcupine, armadillo, and opossum invaded from the south and survived. C) Both continents immediately dropped in diversity. D) Many hoofed animals moved north and displaced North American fauna. E) There was an enormous exchange of species in both directions.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 28) Life on earth is confined to a narrow area called the ____________.
29) The terrestrial environments of the earth that are divided into large units based on their distinctive vegetation are called __________.
30) Water vapor and __________ in the atmosphere absorb heat energy rereadiated from the earth, leading to warming of atmospheric air.
31)
The terrestrial biome having the greatest diversity of tree species is the __________.
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32) Lotic refers to running-water habitats, while standing-water habitats are called __________.
33)
The area of the ocean where most productivity occurs is the ___________ zone.
34)
The vast open ocean is known as the __________ zone.
35) An aquatic habitat that is a transition zone where fresh water flows into the sea is called an __________.
36) Animals have become distributed around the earth by dispersal, continental drift, and __________.
37) According to the theory of continental drift, all of the continents of the earth were once joined together as one large landmass (called Pangaea) that split into two smaller masses: a northern Laurasia and a southern __________.
38)
__________ are rocky subtidal zone habitats dominated by brown seaweeds.
39)
Deep-sea communities on the abyssal plain are centered around __________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 40) What are the physical factors that make the biosphere so relatively thin?
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41)
Why are so many deserts located between 15 and 30 degrees latitude?
42)
Deserts and tundra have about the same rainfall, yet the tundra is not "dry." Why?
43) A famous ecologist, Dan Jantzen, has proposed that temperate forests can have a few dominant tree species in high density because winter keeps the insect populations suppressed so that they cannot build up the numbers to decimate all the tree seeds. Meanwhile, the tropical forest insect populations can increase until they have destroyed all seeds because there is no winter to interrupt their population growth. Propose a test for this hypothesis.
44) Contrast dispersal with seasonal migration. Why would the annual migration of monarch butterflies from Canada to Mexico not constitute dispersal? Why would its return to the summer breeding grounds more accurately be called a dispersal than a migration?
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45)
Discuss the contributions of Alfred Russel Wallace to modern historical biogeography.
46) How do the various physical features of the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere interact to produce a viable biosphere?
47)
Which biome is the most diverse in terms of numbers of species? Why?
48) Compare the animal species diversity of a temperate deciduous forest with that of a tropical rainforest. Why is the diversity of one so much more than the other?
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49)
Explain the significance of the following: lotic vs. lentic; planktonic vs. benthic
50) Why is the intertidal zone paradoxically both the harshest and the richest of all marine environments?
51) How would you explain the vicariant distribution of the dawn redwood (restricted to a small area of China) with the disjunct distribution of its fossils and close living relatives in California?
52) Explain the salient features of the Continental Drift Theory. Why did it take so long for it to be accepted?
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53)
Discuss what is meant by the "Great American Interchange."
54) Of what value is knowing the former positions of the tectonic plates and their continental passengers?
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 37_18e 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) B Version 1
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27) E 28) biosphere 29) biomes 30) carbon dioxide 31) rainforest 32) lentic 33) photic 34) pelagic 35) estuary 36) vicariance 37) Gondwana 38) Kelp forests 39) hydrothermal vents 40) Answers will vary. 41) Answers will vary. 42) Answers will vary. 43) Answers will vary. 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answers will vary. 54) Answers will vary.
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CHAPTER 38 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term "ecology" was first introduced by whom? A) B) C) D) E)
2)
An animal population is a group of animals that form which of the following? A) B) C) D)
3)
George Gaylord Simpson Charles Elton Ernst Haeckel Lawrence J. Henderson E. O. Wilson
a disparate community within an ecosystem a reproductive community with members of the same species individuals in a family that do not reproduce various species living in a community
An ecological community is made up of A) B) C) D)
different populations of organisms living in the same area. living organisms and the nonliving environment. ecosystems. just the nonliving environment.
4) A study of both a living community and all of its physical factors would focus on what level of organization?
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A) B) C) D)
trophic levels various biomes the biosphere ecosystem
5) A frog is found along the edge of a pond. The location where the frog lives would be the frog's __________. A) B) C) D)
niche habitat biotic component abiotic component
6) A species of bat is found in (1) groves and grasslands, (2) has a four-degree temperature limitation, and (3) is a second-level carnivore. This defines its A) B) C) D)
range and habitat. habitat and niche. range and ecology. ecology.
7) While an animal can survive (determined by lab tests) between the temperatures of 10 oC and 30 oC, we find in nature that the animal only exists between 16 oC and 28 oC. This is a difference between the __________________ and __________________. A) B) C) D)
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fundamental habitat; realized habitat fundamental niche; realized niche realized habitat; fundamental habitat realized niche; fundamental niche
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8) When adding sterilized screw-worm flies to populations in an attempt to eradicate them from the United States, scientists found that not all of the adult screw-worm flies from different areas were not mating with each other. Each of the internally mating populations constituted a A) B) C) D) E)
9)
lineage. limiting resource. clone. deme. cohort.
The sponge constitutes an animal that is A) B) C) D) E)
unitary due to cloning. modular due to cloning. a cohort due to cloning. unitary due to fragmentation. unitary due to age structure.
10) Whether most young of an animal die soon after they are born or grow up such that most of the population dies in old age is called A) B) C) D) E)
carrying capacity. intrinsic rate of growth. cohort. survivorship. the limiting resource.
11) Mary bought a hummingbird feeder, filled it with sugar water, and put it on her front porch. Her friends enjoyed watching the hummingbirds hover at the feeder so much, that soon many homes in the neighborhood sported such feeders. This immediately changed which numerical value in the logistic growth equation?
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A) B) C) D)
r N K None of the choices is correct.
12) A year after many hummingbird feeders were installed, there are twice as many hummingbirds in the neighborhood. This is a change in which value of the logistic growth equation? A) r B) N C) K
13) According to the logistic growth model, what is the most likely result when N approaches the value of K? A) B) C) D)
14)
The population grows as fast as it can, or r(N). The population levels off near carrying capacity. The population has exceeds carrying capacity and begins to decline. The population may grow or decline quickly, depending upon the value of r.
The maximum number of individuals of a species that an area can support is the A) B) C) D)
growth rate. carrying capacity. net productivity. gross productivity.
15) Natural populations are controlled by density-dependent and density-independent forces. Which of the following is an exaxmple of a density-independent factor?
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A) B) C) D)
16)
Commensalism differs from mutualism by the fact that in commensalism, A) B) C) D)
17)
adverse weather food supply supply of nest sites supply of mates
one organism is not affected. one organism is always harmed. both organisms benefit. neither organism benefits.
The carrying capacity of the environment is determined by
A) the limiting resource in the environment. B) the reproductive rate of an animal group. C) the occurrence of disease. D) a complex "balance of nature" that remains to be explained in terms that scientists can calculate. E) the resources that are in surplus in the environment.
18) Two species of caterpillar feed on the same species of corn. On close inspection, the two insects are found to be feeding on different parts of the corn: one eats the root, while the other eats the stem. What principle does this support? A) B) C) D)
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competitive exclusion niche overlap resource partitioning Batesian mimicry
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19) MacArthur observed that five species of similar warblers coexisted on spruce trees, in feeding guilds, because they A) B) C) D)
20)
What is a keystone species? A) B) C) D) E)
21)
ate different kinds of insects. were kept below their carrying capacities by predators. foraged in different places on the tree. cooperated in their foraging habits.
a predator that preys upon many different species in a community a species whose removal causes major shifts in other species in a community a mimic that has the same appearance as another, poisonous species a prey species that must be present for its predator to survive the most abundant species in a particular community
The energy storage in an animal's tissues is called A) B) C) D)
primary productivity. gross productivity. standing crop. biomass.
22) We could state a biological "law" that all food chains begin with photosynthetic producers if it wasn't for the exception of A) B) C) D)
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lichens that make their own food energy. anaerobic bacteria such as the tetanus agent. chemosynthetic bacteria found around deep ocean thermal vents. humans making synthetic food.
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23) In tidal pools, a food pyramid is inverted with a small base of phytoplankton supporting zooplankton consumers. How can this be explained? A) The pyramid is an energy pyramid and the trophic level occupied by zooplankton contains more energy than the level occupied by phytoplankton. B) The pyramid is a numbers pyramid showing that only few phytoplankton support many zooplankton. C) These phytoplankton are actually deriving their food from dying animals, thus the pyramid is inverted. D) The pyramid is a pyramid of biomass and the standing crop of phytoplankton has less biomass than the standing crop of zooplankton.
24)
Most energy enters the ecosystem as A) B) C) D) E)
25)
The producers in deep-sea thermal vent communities are A) B) C) D)
26)
cell respiration. plant growth. chemical bond energy. oxygen. light energy.
bivalve molluscs. giant pogonophoran worms. deep-sea kelp. chemoautotrophic bacteria.
Ecologists have found that
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A) B) C) glucose. D)
life as we know it does not match the energy laws of physics. ecology cannot be explained using principles from chemistry and physics. it is possible to capture all the photosynthetic energy absorbed as molecules of energy flows one way through ecosystems and requires external input.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 27) An assemblage of living organisms sharing the same habitat is referred to as a __________.
28)
Almost all life depends on the energy from the __________.
29) The deep-sea rift communities in the Pacific depend on the action of chemoautotrophic __________ to derive energy from the oxidation of hydrogen sulfide.
30)
The energy accumulated by plants, less that used in respiration, is the __________.
31) A series of steps in which plants are eaten by consumers which are themselves eaten by other consumers is called the __________.
32) There can usually be no more than four or five trophic levels in a food chain, because there is such a great loss of __________ between trophic levels.
33) A species that, when removed, changes the structure of the community is called a __________ species.
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34) An interaction in which one species derives benefit but the second species neither benefits nor is harmed is called __________.
35) In the logistic equation to describe the growth of populations, r is the instrinsic rate of population growth per capita, and __________ is the carrying capacity of the environment.
36) Some conditions that can limit population size are severe cold, drought, and fire. Such conditions are regarded as density __________.
37)
Habitat __________ increases rates of both speciation and local extinction.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 38) What prevents all species from evolving toward a pattern of survivorship where most individuals live to old age?
39) When pioneers settled in Midwest and Plains states, they killed or drove off grizzly bears, cougars, wolf, etc. Why does the elimination of such natural predators cause ecological problems?
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40) What is the role of decomposers in the cycling of carbon? What would eventually occur if decomposers lost the ability to break down plant and fungal matter?
41) Can the biomass of all animals on earth ever exceed the biomass of all of the plants? Why? or why not?
42) Explain the concept of "competitive exclusion." Give several examples that clearly illustrate this concept.
43)
Distinguish between a habitat and a niche. Can these terms ever refer to the same thing?
44) What is the difference between a species' fundamental niche and its realized niche? Why is this important to the study of ecology?
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45) Explain the following concepts: age structure, survivorship curves, and intrinsic rate of increase.
46) Identify the following terms: r, K, and N. Why does the term (K - N)/K approach zero as N approaches the value of K?
47) Compare logistic growth with exponential growth. Would a pest insect species more likely exhibit a logistic growth curve or an exponential growth curve? Explain your reasoning.
48) Discuss the different ecological effects of density independent factors and densitydependent factors on animal populations.
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49) Discuss the paradox of biodiversity concerning species isolation and potential for both speciation and extinction.
50) How does mutualism differ from commensalism? How would you experimentally determine if two species are living in a commensal or mutualistic relationship?
51)
Does competition promote speciation? Why or why not?
52) Discuss how the following terms are interrelated: niche overlap, competition exclusion, character displacement, and guild.
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53)
Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
54) Are the benefits derived from Müllerian mimics always equal for each member of the mimicry complex?
55)
Discuss how ecosystems are based on energy transfer at different trophic levels.
56)
Describe the functioning and possible patterns associated with metapopulation dynamics.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 38_18e 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) D Version 1
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27) community 28) sun 29) bacteria 30) net productivity 31) food chain 32) energy 33) keystone 34) commensalism 35) K 36) independent 37) fragmentation 38) Answers will vary. 39) Answers will vary. 40) Answers will vary. 41) Answer may vary 42) Answers will vary. 43) Answers will vary. 44) Answers will vary. 45) Answers will vary. 46) Answers will vary. 47) Answers will vary. 48) Answers will vary. 49) Answers will vary. 50) Answers will vary. 51) Answers will vary. 52) Answers will vary. 53) Answer may vary 54) Answers will vary. 55) Answers will vary. 56) Answers will vary. Version 1
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