Maternal Newborn OB Final Exam Questions And Answers (Solved) b. Correct. Pregnant women and women who are attempting pregnancy should avoid contact with cat feces. Exposure occurs when the protozoan parasite found in cat feces and uncooked or rare beef and lamb is ingested. Wearing a mask will not decrease the risk through ingestion of the parasite. - Which of the following statements by a pregnant woman indicates she needs additional teaching on ways to reduce risks to her unborn child from the potential effects of exposure to toxoplasmosis?a. "I will avoid rare lamb."b. "I will wear a mask when cleaning my cat's litter box."c. "I understand that exposure to toxoplasmosis can cause blindness in the baby."d. "I will avoid rare beef." c. Correct. - The fetal circulatory structure that connects the pulmonary artery with the descending aorta is known as which of the following?a. Ductus venosusb. Foramen ovalec. Ductus arteriosusd. Internal iliac artery d. Correct. Oligohydramnios refers to a decreased amount of amniotic fluid of less than 500 mL at term or 50% reduction of normal amounts. - A woman at 40 weeks' gestation has a diagnosis of oligohydramnios. Which of the following statements related to oligohydramnios is correct?a. It indicates that there is a 25% increase in amniotic fluid.b. It indicates that there is a 25% reduction of amniotic fluid.c. It indicates that there is a 50% increase in amniotic fluid.d. It indicates that there is a 50% reduction of amniotic fluid C - The nurse takes the history of a client, G2 P1, at her first prenatal visit. The client is referred to a genetic counselor, due to her previous child having a diagnosis of __________. a. Unilateral amblyopia b. Subdural hematoma c. Sickle cell anemia d. Glomerular nephritis D - A nurse is teaching a woman about her menstrual cycle. The nurse states that __________ is the most important change that happens during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. a. Maturation of the graafian follicle b. Multiplication of the fimbriae c. Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin d. Proliferation of the endometrium A - An ultrasound of a fetus' heart shows that "normal fetal circulation is occurring." Which of the following statements is consistent with the finding? a. A right to left shunt is seen between the atria. b. Blood is returning to the placenta via the umbilical vein. c. Blood is returning to the right atrium from the pulmonary system. d. A right to left shunt is seen between the umbilical arteries.
C - The clinic nurse knows that the part of the endometrial cycle occurring from ovulation to just prior to menses is known as the: a. Menstrual phase b. Proliferative phase c. Secretory phase d. Ischemic phase C - A clinic nurse explains to the pregnant woman that the amount of amniotic fluid present at 24 weeks' gestation is approximately: a. 500 mL b. 750 mL c. 800 mL d. 1000 mL B - Information provided by the nurse that addresses the function of the amniotic fluid is that the amniotic fluid helps the fetus to maintain a normal body temperature and also: a. Facilitates asymmetrical growth of the fetal limbs b. Cushions the fetus from mechanical injury c. Promotes development of muscle tone d. Promotes adherence of fetal lung tissue A - During preconception counseling, the clinic nurse explains that the time period when the fetus is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogens occurs from: a. 2 to 8 weeks b. 4 to12 weeks c. 5 to 10 weeks d. 6 to 15 weeks D - A major fetal development characteristic at 16 weeks' gestation is: a. The average fetal weight is 450 grams b. Lanugo covers entire body c. Brown fat begins to develop d. Teeth begin to form A - A couple who has sought infertility counseling has been told that the man's sperm count is very low. The nurse advises the couple that spermatogenesis is impaired when which of the following occur? a. The testes are overheated. b. The vas deferens is ligated. c. The prostate gland is enlarged. d. The flagella are segmented. True - The perinatal nurse explains to the student nurse that in the fetal circulation, the lowest level of oxygen concentration is found in the umbilical arteries.
B, C, D - A woman seeks care at an infertility clinic. Which of the following tests may this woman undergo to determine what, if any, infertility problem she may have? (Select all that apply.) a. Chorionic villus sampling b. Endometrial biopsy c. Hysterosalpingogram d. Serum FSH analysis A, B - Which of the following places a couple at higher risk for conceiving a child with a genetic abnormality? (Select all that apply.) a. Maternal age over 35 years b. Partner who has a genetic disorder c. Maternal type 1 diabetes d. Paternal heart disease C - During a routine prenatal visit in the third trimester, a woman reports she is dizzy and lightheaded when she is lying on her back. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:a. Order an EKG. b. Report this abnormal finding immediately to her care provider. c. Teach the woman to avoid lying on her back and to rise slowly because of supine hypotension. d. Order a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being. D - Blood volume expansion during pregnancy leads to: a. Iron-deficiency anemiab. Maternal iron stores being insufficient to meet the demands for iron in fetal developmentc. Plasma fibrin increase of 40% and fibrinogen increase of 50%d. Physiological anemia of pregnancy A - A woman presents to the prenatal clinic at 30 weeks' gestation reporting dysuria, frequency, and urgency with urination. Appropriate nursing actions include:a. Obtain clean-catch urine to assess for a possible urinary tract infection.b. Reassure the woman that the signs are normal urinary changes in the third trimester.c. Teach the woman to decrease fluid intake to manage these symptoms.d. Perform a Leopold's maneuver to assess fetal position and station. B - At the end of her 32-week prenatal visit, a woman reports discomfort with intercourse and tells you shyly that she wants to maintain a sexual relationship with her partner. The best response is to: a. Reassure woman/couple of normalcy of responseb. Suggest alternative positions for sexual intercourse and alternative sexual activity to sexual intercoursec. Recommend cessation of intercourse until after delivery due to advanced gestationd. Suggest woman discuss this with her care provider at her next appointment D - The clinic nurse talks to a 30-year-old woman at 34 weeks' gestation who complains of having difficulty sleeping. Jayne has noticed that getting back to sleep after she has been up at night is difficult. The nurse's best response is: a. "This is abnormal; it is important that you describe this problem to the doctor."
b. "This is normal, and many women have this same problem during pregnancy; try napping for several hours each morning and afternoon." c. "This is abnormal; tell the doctor about this problem because diagnostic testing may be necessary." d. "This is normal in pregnancy, particularly during the third trimester when you also feel fetal movement at night; try napping once a day." A. a. The progesterone-induced prolonged emptying time of bile from the gallbladder, combined with elevated blood cholesterol levels, may predispose the pregnant woman to gallstone formation (cholelithiasis). Pain in the epigastric region following ingestion of a high-fat meal constitutes the major symptom of these conditions. The pain is self-limiting and usually resolves within 2 hours. - A 26-year-old woman at 29 weeks' gestation experienced epigastric pain following the consumption of a large meal of fried fish and onion rings. The pain resolved a few hours later. The most likely diagnosis for this symptom is: a. Cholelithiasis b. Influenza c. Urinary tract infection d. Indigestion B. During pregnancy the woman's hematocrit values may appear low due to the increase in total plasma volume (on average, 50%). Because the plasma volume is greater than the increase in erythrocytes (30%), the hematocrit decreases by about 7%. This alteration is termed "physiologic anemia of pregnancy," or "pseudo-anemia." The hemodilution effect is most apparent at 32 to 34 weeks. The mean acceptable hemoglobin level in pregnancy is 11 to 12 g/dL of blood. - The clinic nurse reviews the complete blood count results for a 30year-old woman who is now 33 weeks' gestation. Tamara's hemoglobin value is 11.2 g/dL, and her hematocrit is 38%. The clinic nurse interprets these findings as: a. Normal adult values b. Normal pregnancy values for the third trimester c. Increased adult values d. Increased values for 33 weeks' gestation C - The clinic nurse is aware that the pregnant woman's blood volume increases by: a. 20% to 25% b. 30% to 35% c. 40% to 45% d. 50% to 55% A - The clinic nurse uses Leopold maneuvers to determine the fetal lie, presentation, and position. The nurse's hands are placed on the maternal abdomen to gently palpate the fundal region of the uterus. This action is best described as the: a. First maneuver b. Second maneuver c. Third maneuver d. Fourth maneuver
B - The clinic nurse talks with Kathy about her possible pregnancy. Kathy has experienced amenorrhea for 2 months, nausea during the day with vomiting every other morning, and breast tenderness. These symptoms are best described as: a. Positive signs of pregnancy b. Presumptive signs of pregnancy c. Probable signs of pregnancy d. Possible signs of pregnancy A - Lina is an 18-year-old woman at 20 weeks' gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Lina is complaining of fatigue and listlessness. Her vital signs are within a normal range: BP = 118/60, pulse = 70, and respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. Lina's fundal height is at the umbilicus, and she states that she is beginning to feel fetal movements. Her weight gain is 25 pounds over the prepregnant weight (110 lb), and her height is 5 feet 4 inches. The perinatal nurse's best approach to care at this visit is to: a. Ask Lina to keep a 3-day food diary to bring in to her next visit in 1 week. b. Explain to Lina that weight gain is not a concern in pregnancy, and she should not worry. c. Teach Lina about the expected normal weight gain during pregnancy (approximately 20 pounds by 20 weeks' gestation). d. Explain to Lina the possible concerns related to excessive weight gain in pregnancy, including the risk of gestational diabetes. B - A woman presents to a prenatal clinic appointment at 10 weeks' gestation, in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following symptoms would be considered a normal finding at this point in pregnancy? a. Occipital headache b. Urinary frequency c. Diarrhea d. Leg cramps C - The nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a group of diverse pregnant women. One woman, who indicates she smokes two to three cigarettes a day, asks about its impact on her pregnancy. The nurse explains that the most significant risk to the fetus is: a. Respiratory distress at birth b. Severe neonatal anemia c. Low neonatal birth weight d. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia C - While performing Leopold's maneuvers on a woman in early labor, the nurse palpates a flat area in the fundal region, a hard round mass on the left side, a soft round mass on the right side, and small parts just above the symphysis. The nurse concludes which of the following? a. The fetal position is right occiput posterior. b. The fetal attitude is flexed. c. The fetal presentation is scapular. d. The fetal lie is vertical.
A. Soft cheese may harbor Listeria. The patient should avoid consuming uncooked soft cheese. - A nurse is reviewing diet with a pregnant woman in her second trimester. Which of the following foods should the nurse advise the patient to avoid consuming during her pregnancy? a. Brie cheese b. Bartlett pears c. Sweet potatoes d. Grilled lamb A - A gravida, G4 P1203, fetal heart rate 150s, is 14 weeks pregnant, fundal height 1 cm above the symphysis. She denies experiencing quickening. Which of the following nursing conclusions made by the nurse is correct? a. The woman is experiencing a normal pregnancy. b. The woman may be having difficulty accepting this pregnancy. c. The woman must see a nutritionist as soon as possible. d. The woman will likely miscarry the conceptus. B. The EDC is calculated as April 13, 2008. Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period. - A pregnant woman informs the nurse that her last normal menstrual period was on July 6, 2007. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following would the nurse determine to be the patient's estimated date of delivery (EDC)? a. January 9, 2008 b. April 13, 2008 c. April 20, 2008 d. September 6, 2008 B - Which of the following findings, seen in pregnant women in the third trimester, would the nurse consider to be within normal limits? a. Diplopia b. Epistaxis c. Bradycardia d. Oliguria C. The incidence of spina bifida is much higher in women with poor folic acid intakes. It is a priority that this patient receives nutrition counseling. - The nurse has taken a health history on four multigravida patients at their first prenatal visits. It is high priority that the patient whose first child was diagnosed with which of the following diseases receives nutrition counseling? a. Development dysplasia of the hip b. Achondroplastic dwarfism c. Spina bifida d. Muscular dystrophy
A, B, D - An 18-year-old woman at 23 weeks' gestation tells the nurse that she has fainted two times. The nurse teaches about the warning signs that often precede syncope so that she can sit or lie down to prevent personal injury. Warning signs include (select all that apply): a. Sweating b. Nausea c. Chills d. Yawning A, D. - The clinic nurse advocates for smoking cessation during pregnancy. Potential harmful effects of prenatal tobacco use include (select all that apply): a. Preterm birth b. Gestational hypertension c. Gestational diabetes d. Low birth weight C - What is the most common expected emotional reaction of a woman to the news that she is pregnant? a. Jealousy b. Acceptance c. Ambivalence d. Depression D - Which of the following information regarding sexual activity would the nurse give a pregnant woman who is 35 weeks' gestation? a. Sexual activity should be avoided from now until 6 weeks postpartum.b. Sexual desire may be affected by nausea and fatigue. c. Sexual desire may be increased due to increased pelvic congestion.d. Sexual activity may require different positions to accommodate the woman's comfort. C - Which statement best exemplifies adaptation to pregnancy in relation to the adolescent?a. Adolescents adapt to motherhood in a similar way to other childbearing women.b. Social support has very little effect on adolescent adaptation to pregnancy. c. The pregnant adolescent faces the challenge of multiple developmental tasks.d. Pregnant adolescents of all ages can be capable and active participants in health-care decisions. B - Cathy is pregnant for the second time. Her son, Steven, has just turned 2 years old. She asks you what she should do to help him get ready for the expected birth. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?a. Steven will probably not understand any explanations about the arrival of the new baby, so Cathy should do nothing.b. If Steven's sleeping arrangements need to be changed, it should be done well in advance of the birth.c. Steven should come to the next prenatal visit and listen to the fetal heartbeat to encourage sibling attachment. d. Steven should be encouraged to plan an elaborate welcome for the newborn. B - A woman presents for prenatal care at 6 weeks' gestation by LMP. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see? a. Multiple pillow orthopnea b. Maternal ambivalence c. Fundus at the umbilicus d. Pedal and ankle edema
A - Taboos are cultural restrictions that: a. Have serious supernatural consequences b. Have serious clinical consequences c. Have superstitious consequences d. Are functional and neutral practices D - Jenny, a 21-year-old single woman, comes for her first prenatal appointment at 31 weeks' gestation with her first pregnancy. The clinic nurse's most appropriate statement is: a. "Jenny, it is late in your pregnancy to be having your first appointment, but it is nice to meet you and I will try to help you get caught up in your care." b. "Jenny, have you had care in another clinic? I can't believe this is your first appointment!" c. "Jenny, by the date of your last menstrual period, you are 31 weeks and now that you are finally here, we need you to come monthly for the next two visits and then weekly." d. "Jenny, by your information, you are 31 weeks' gestation in this pregnancy. Do you have questions for me before I begin your prenatal history and information sharing?" b. Fetal growth and size are fairly consistent during the first trimester and are a reliable indicator of the weeks of gestation. - Your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound. When explaining the rationale for early pregnancy ultrasound, the best response is: a. "The test will help to determine the baby's position."b. "The test will help to determine how many weeks you are pregnant."c. "The test will help to determine if your baby is growing appropriately."d. "The test will help to determine if you have a boy or girl." b. When a neural tube defect is present, AFP is absorbed in the maternal circulation, resulting in a rise in the maternal AFP level. - Your pregnant patient is having maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. She does not understand how a test on her blood can indicate a birth defect in the fetus. The best reply by the nurse is:a. "We have done this test for a long time."b. "If babies have a neural tube defect, alpha-fetoprotein leaks out of the fetus and is absorbed into your blood, causing your level to rise. This serum blood test detects that rise."c. "Neural tube defects are a genetic anomaly, and we examine the amount of alpha-fetoprotein in your DNA."d. "If babies have a neural tube defect, this results in a decrease in your level of alpha-fetoprotein." D - The primary complications of amniocentesis are:a. Damage to fetal organsb. Puncture of umbilical cordc. Maternal paind. Infection D - Your patient is a 37-year-old pregnant woman who is 5 weeks pregnant and is considering genetic testing. During your discussion, the woman asks the nurse what the advantages of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) are over amniocentesis. The best response is:a. "You will need anesthesia for amniocentesis, but not for CVS."b. "CVS is a faster procedure."c. "CVS provides more detailed information than amniocentesis."d. "CVS can be done earlier in your pregnancy, and the results are available more quickly."
A. a. All women should be offered screening with maternal serum markers. The Triple Marker screen and the Quadruple Marker screen test for the presence of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), estradiol, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and other markers. These tests screen for potential neural tube defects, Down syndrome, and Trisomy 18. If the screen is positive, the woman should be referred to a genetics specialist for counseling, and further testing, such as chorionic villus sampling (CVS) or amniocentesis, should be performed. The clinic nurse meets with Rebecca, a 30-year-old woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy. Rebecca's quadruple marker screen result is positive at 17 weeks' gestation. The nurse explains that Rebecca needs a referral to: a. A genetics counselor/specialist b. An obstetrician c. A gynecologist d. A social worker D - A 37-year-old woman who is 17 weeks pregnant has had an amniocentesis. Before discharge, the nurse teaches the woman to call her doctor if she experiences which of the following side effects? a. Pain at the puncture site b. Macular rash on the abdomen c. Decrease in urinary output d. Cramping of the uterus a - A laboratory report indicates the L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) results from an amniocentesis of a gravid patient with preeclampsia are 2:1. The nurse interprets the result as which of the following? a. The baby's lung fields are mature. b. The mother is high risk for hemorrhage. c. The baby's kidneys are functioning poorly. d. The mother is high risk for eclampsia. D - A client on 2 gm/hr of magnesium sulfate has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Identify the priority nursing assessment to ensure client safety.a. Assess uterine contractions continuously.b. Assess fetal heart rate continuously.c. Assess urinary output.d. Assess respiratory rate. C - A pregnant client with a history of multiple sexual partners is at highest risk for which of the following complications:a. Premature rupture of membranesb. Gestational diabetesc. Ectopic pregnancyd. Pregnancy-induced hypertension A - Identify the hallmark of placenta previa that differentiates it from abruptio placenta.a. Sudden onset of painless vaginal bleedingb. Board-like abdomen with severe painc. Sudden onset of bright red vaginal bleedingd. Severe vaginal pain with bright red bleeding a. A decrease in BP accompanied by bradycardia or tachycardia is an indication of hypovolemic shock. - Which of the following assessments would indicate instability in the client hospitalized for placenta previa?a. BP <90/60 mm/Hg, Pulse <60 BPM or >120
BPMb. FHR moderate variability without accelerationsc. Dark brown vaginal discharge when voidingd. Oral temperature of 99.9°F b. Compromised pulmonary function can lead to decompensation and hypoxia that decrease oxygen flow to the fetus and can cause intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). During pregnancy, poorly controlled asthma can place the fetus at risk for:a. Hyperglycemiab. IUGRc. Hypoglycemiad. Macrosomia a. Correct. The client is at high risk for hypovolemia which is life threatening and takes precedence over any psychosocial or less pressing diagnoses. - Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority for a client with an ectopic pregnancy who has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?a. Risk for deficient fluid volumeb. Risk for family process interruptedc. Risk for disturbed identityd. High risk for injury B - Which of the following laboratory values is most concerning in a client with pregnancyinduced hypertension?a. Total urine protein of 200 mg/dLb. Total platelet count of 40,000 mm c. Uric acid level of 8 mg/dLd. Blood urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL B - Which of the following medications administered to the pregnant client with GDM and experiencing preterm labor requires close monitoring of the client's blood glucose levels?a. Nifedipineb. Betamethasone c. Magnesium sulfated. Indomethacin B - While educating the client with class II cardiac disease, at 28 weeks' gestation, the nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if she experiences which of the following conditions? a. Emotional stress at workb. Increased dyspnea while restingc. Mild pedal and ankle edemad. Weight gain of 1 pound in 1 week D . Blurred vision is a sign of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). This finding should be reported to the woman's health-care practitioner. - The nurse working in a prenatal clinic is providing care to three primigravida patients. Which of the patient findings would the nurse highlight for the physician? a. 15 weeks, denies feeling fetal movement b. 20 weeks, fundal height at the umbilicus c. 25 weeks, complains of excess salivation d. 30 weeks, states that her vision is blurry D - The perinatal nurse is assessing a woman in triage who is 34 + 3 weeks' gestation in her first pregnancy. She is worried about having her baby "too soon," and she is experiencing uterine contractions every 10 to 15 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 136 beats per minute. A vaginal examination performed by the health-care provider reveals that the cervix is closed, long, and posterior. The most likely diagnosis would be D - The perinatal nurse knows that the term to describe a woman at 26 weeks' gestation with a history of elevated blood pressure who presents with a urine showing 2+ protein (by dipstick) is: a. Preeclampsia
b. Chronic hypertension c. Gestational hypertension d. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia D - A woman in labor and delivery is being given subcutaneous terbutaline for preterm labor. Which of the following common medication effects would the nurse expect to see in the mother? a. Serum potassium level increases b. Diarrhea c. Urticaria d. Complaints of nervousness A - Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a woman with concealed abruptio placentae? a. Increasing abdominal girth measurements b. Profuse vaginal bleeding c. Bradycardia with an aortic thrill d. Hypothermia with chills C - A woman who has had no prenatal care was assessed and found to have hydramnios on admission to the labor unit and has since delivered a baby weighing 4500 grams. Which of the following complications of pregnancy likely contributed to these findings? a. Pyelonephritis b. Pregnancy-induced hypertension c. Gestational diabetes d. Abruptio placentae A - or the patient with which of the following medical problems should the nurse question a physician's order for beta agonist tocolytics? a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus b. Cerebral palsy c. Myelomeningocele d. Positive group B streptococci culture D - The nurse is caring for two laboring women. Which of the patients should be monitored most carefully for signs of placental abruption? a. The patient with placenta previa b. The patient whose vagina is colonized with group B streptococci c. The patient who is hepatitis B surface antigen positive d. The patient with eclampsia D - The nurse is caring for a woman at 28 weeks' gestation with a history of preterm delivery. Which of the following laboratory data should the nurse carefully assess in relation to this diagnosis? a. Human relaxin levels b. Amniotic fluid levels
c. Alpha-fetoprotein levels d. Fetal fibronectin levels D - Which of the following statements is most appropriate for the nurse to say to a patient with a complete placenta previa? a. "During the second stage of labor you will need to bear down." b. "You should ambulate in the halls at least twice each day." c. "The doctor will likely induce your labor with oxytocin." d. "Please promptly report if you experience any bleeding or feel any back discomfort." C - A woman at 32 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome. The nurse will identify which of the following as a positive patient care outcome? a. Rise in serum creatinine b. Drop in serum protein c. Resolution of thrombocytopenia d. Resolution of polycythemia B - A woman at 10 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatiform mole). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see? a. Platelet count of 550,000/ mm3 b. Dark brown vaginal bleeding c. White blood cell count 17,000/ mm3 d. Macular papular rash C - After an education class, the nurse overhears an adolescent woman discussing safe sex practices. Which of the following comments by the young woman indicates that additional teaching about sexually transmitted infection (STI) control issues is needed? a. "I could get an STI even if I just have oral sex." b. "Girls over 16 are less likely to get STDs than younger girls." c. "The best way to prevent an STI is to use a diaphragm." d. "Girls get human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) easier than boys do." B - A 34-weeks' gestation multigravida, G3 P1 is admitted to the labor suite. She is contracting every 7 minutes and 40 seconds. The woman has several medical problems. Which of the following of her comorbidities is most consistent with the clinical picture? a. Kyphosis b. Urinary tract infection c. Congestive heart failure d. Cerebral palsy A - A primiparous woman has been admitted at 35 weeks' gestation and diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. Which of the following laboratory changes is consistent with this diagnosis? a. Hematocrit dropped to 28%. b. Platelets increased to 300,000 cells/mm3.
c. Red blood cells increased to 5.1 million cells/mm3. d. Sodium dropped to 132 mEq/dL. B - A labor nurse is caring for a patient, 39 weeks' gestation, who has been diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of the following physician orders should the nurse question? a. Type and cross-match her blood. b. Insert an internal fetal monitor electrode. c. Administer an oral stool softener. d. Assess her complete blood count. D - A type 1 diabetic patient has repeatedly experienced elevated serum glucose levels throughout her pregnancy. Which of the following complications of pregnancy would the nurse expect to see? a. Postpartum hemorrhage b. Neonatal hyperglycemia c. Postpartum oliguria d. Neonatal macrosomia A - The perinatal nurse is providing care to Marilyn, a 25-year-old G1 TPAL 0000 woman hospitalized with severe hypertension at 33 weeks' gestation. The nurse is preparing to administer the second dose of beta-methasone prescribed by the physician. Marilyn asks: "What is this injection for again?" The nurse's best response is: a. "This is to help your baby's lungs to mature." b. "This is to prepare your body to begin the labor process." c. "This is to help stabilize your blood pressure." d. "This is to help your baby grow and develop in preparation for birth." c. The weight gain may be due to fluid retention. Fluid retention may occur in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension and in patients with congestive heart failure. The physician should be notified. - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the labor and delivery unit with a history of congestive heart disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the primary health-care practitioner? a. Presence of chloasma b. Presence of severe heartburn c. 10-pound weight gain in a month d. Patellar reflexes +1 A - Your antepartal patient is 38 weeks' gestation, has a history of thrombosis, and has been on strict bed rest for the last 12 hours. She is now experiencing shortness of breath. What about the patient may be a contributing factor for her shortness of breath? a. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasodilation, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. b. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in vasoconstriction, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. c. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in anemia, which increases the tendency to form blood clots.
d. Physiologic changes in pregnancy result in decreased perfusion to the lungs, which increases the tendency to form blood clots. A - Metabolic changes during pregnancy __________ glucose tolerance. a. lower b. increase c. maintain d. alter False - T/F Immediately postpartum, the insulin needs in diabetic women increase dramatically. False Placenta previa should be suspected in all patients who present with bleeding after 24 completed weeks of gestation. Because of the risk of placental perforation, vaginal examinations are not performed. - It is critical for the perinatal nurse to learn, as part of the facility's policies and procedures, to immediately perform a vaginal examination on a woman who presents with vaginal bleeding after 24 weeks' gestation. True - The perinatal nurse knows that the survival rate for infants born at or greater than 28 to 29 gestational weeks is greater than 90% A, B, C - The perinatal nurse describes risk factors for placenta previa to the student nurse. Placenta previa risk factors include (select all that apply): a. Cocaine use b. Tobacco use c. Previous caesarean birth d. Previous use of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) A, B, D - Betamethasone is a steroid that is given to a pregnant woman with signs of preterm labor. The purpose of giving steroids is to (select all that apply): a. Stimulate the production of surfactant in the preterm infant b. Be given between 24 and 34 weeks' gestation c. Increase the severity of respiratory distress d. Accelerate fetal lung maturity C - In caring for a primiparous woman in labor, one of the factors to evaluate is uterine activity. This is referred to as the __________ of labor.a. Passengerb. Passagec. Powersd. Psyche B - The mechanism of labor known as cardinal movements of labor are the positional changes that the fetus goes through to best navigate the birth process. These cardinal movements are:a. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Extension, Internal rotation, External rotation, Expulsion b. Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Expulsion c. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation,
Descent, Expulsion d. Engagement, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Flexion, Expulsion A - A woman you are caring for in labor requests an epidural for pain relief in labor. Included in your preparation for epidural placement is a baseline set of vital signs. The most common vital sign to change after epidural placement:a. Blood pressure, hypotension b. Blood pressure, hypertension c. Pulse, tachycardia d. Pulse, bradycardia C - The labor patient you are caring for is ambulating in the hall. Her vaginal exam 1 hour ago indicated she was 4/70/-1 station. She tells you she has fluid running down her leg. Your priority nursing intervention is to:a. Assess the color, odor, and amount of fluid.b. Assist your patient to the bathroom.c. Assess the fetal heart rate.d. Call the care provider. D Perform a vaginal exam to assess the progress of labor. The urge to have a bowel movement and feeling like pushing indicate that birth may be imminent. - You are in the process of admitting a multiparous woman to labor and delivery from the triage area. One hour ago her vaginal exam was 4/70/0. While completing your review of her prenatal record and completing the admission questionnaire, she tells you she has an urge to have a bowel movement and feels like pushing. Your priority nursing intervention is to:a. Reassure the patient and rapidly complete the admission.b. Assist your patient to the bathroom to have a bowel movement.c. Assess the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions.d. Perform a vaginal exam. A. Accelerations are a sign of fetal well-being. - The nurse uses the external electronic fetal heart monitor to evaluate fetal status. The fetal heart tracing shows accelerations. Accelerations in the fetal heart are: a. Associated with fetal well-being and oxygenation b. An indication of potential fetal intolerance to labor c. Never associated with the uterine contraction pattern d. A reason to notify the care provider A - The nurse knows that a FHR monitor printout indicates a Category III abnormal fetal heart rate pattern when: a. Baseline variability is minimal or absent with decelerations. b. FHR mirrors the uterine contractions. c. Occasional periodic accelerations occur. d. Baseline variability is 6 to 25 bpm with decelerations C - 4. Early decelerations are probably caused by: a. Decreased maternal-fetal exchange b. Umbilical cord occlusion c. Momentary increase in intracranial pressure due to head compression d. Compression of umbilical cord
A - After assessing the FHR tracing shown below, which of the following interventions should the nurse perform? a. Turn the woman on her side. b. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula. c. Encourage the patient to push with each contraction. d. Provide the patient with caring labor support. B - A nurse is preparing to monitor a patient who is to receive an amnioinfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse make at this time? a. Attach the patient to an electronic blood pressure cuff. b. Assist in insertion of an internal uterine pressure catheter. c. Attach the patient to an oxygen saturation monitor. d. Perform an amniotic fluid Nitrazine test. A - The perinatal nurse providing care to a laboring woman recognizes a category II, fetal heart rate tracing. The most appropriate initial action is to: a. Assist the laboring woman to a left lateral position b. Decrease the intravenous solution c. Request that the physician/certified nurse-midwife come to the hospital STAT d. Document the fetal heart rate and variability C - During labor induction with oxytocin, the fetal heart rate baseline is in the 140s with moderate variability. Contraction frequency is assessed to be every 2 minutes with duration of 60 seconds, of moderate strength to palpation. Based on this assessment, the nurse should take which action? a. Increase oxytocin infusion rate per physician's protocol. b. Stop oxytocin infusion immediately. c. Maintain present oxytocin infusion rate and continue to assess. d. Decrease oxytocin infusion rate by 2 mU/min and report to physician. D - If the umbilical cord prolapses during labor, the nurse should immediately: a. Type and cross-match blood for an emergency transfusion. b. Await MD order for preparation for an emergency cesarean section. c. Attempt to reposition the cord above the presenting part. d. Apply manual pressure to the presenting part to relieve pressure on the cord. A - Augmentation of labor: a. Is part of the active management of labor instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory and uterine contractions are inadequate b. Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed c. Is elective induction of labor d. Is an operative vaginal delivery that uses vacuum cups B - Your patient is a 28-year-old gravida 2 para 1 in active labor. She has been in labor for 12 hours. Upon further assessment, the nurse determines that she is experiencing a
hypotonic labor pattern. Possible maternal and fetal implications from hypotonic labor patterns are: a. Intrauterine infection and maternal exhaustion with fetal distress usually occurring early in labor. b. Intrauterine infection and maternal exhaustion with fetal distress usually occurring late in labor. c. Intrauterine infection and postpartum hemorrhage with fetal distress early in labor. d. Intrauterine infection and ruptured uterus and fetal death. B - A primigravida woman at 42 weeks' gestation received Prepidil (dinoprostone) for induction 12 hours ago. The Bishop score is now 3. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? a. Perform Nitrazine analysis of the amniotic fluid. b. Report the lack of progress to the obstetrician. c. Place the woman on her left side. d. Ask the doctor for an order for oxytocin. A - The nurse is assisting a physician in the delivery of a baby via vacuum extraction. Which of the following nursing diagnoses for the gravida is appropriate at this time? a. Risk for injury b. Colonic constipation c. Risk for impaired parenting d. Ineffective individual coping A - Four women are close to delivery on the labor and delivery unit. The nurse knows to be vigilant to the signs of neonatal respiratory distress in which delivery? a. 42-week-gestation pregnancy complicated by intrauterine growth restriction b. 41-week-gestation pregnancy with biophysical profile score of 10 that morning c. 40-week-gestation pregnancy with estimated fetal weight of 3200 grams d. 39-week-gestation pregnancy complicated by maternal cholecystitis D - A patient, G1 P0, is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor. The following assessments were made on admission: Bishop score of 4, fetal heart rate 140s with good variability and no decelerations, TPR 98.6ºF, 88, 20, BP 120/80, negative obstetrical history. A prostaglandin suppository was inserted at that time. Which of the following findings, 6 hours after insertion, would warrant the removal of the Cervidil (dinoprostone)? a. Bishop score of 5 b. Fetal heart of 152 bpm c. Respiratory rate of 24 rpm d. Contraction frequency of every 2 minutes A - The perinatal nurse notes a rapid decrease in the fetal heart rate that does not recover immediately following an amniotomy. The most likely cause of this obstetrical emergency is: a. Prolapsed umbilical cord
b. Vasa previa c. Oligohydramnios d. Placental abruption A - During the postpartum assessment, the perinatal nurse notes that a patient who has just experienced a forceps-assisted birth now has a large quantity of bright red bleeding. Her uterine fundus is firm. The nurse's most appropriate action is to notify the physician/certified nurse midwife and describe a: a. Need for vaginal assessment and repair b. Requirement for an oxytocin infusion c. Need for further information for the woman/family about forceps d. Requirement for bladder assessment and catheterization C - The perinatal nurse is providing care to Carol, a 28-year-old multiparous woman in labor. Upon arrival to the birthing suite, Carol was 7 cm dilated and experiencing contractions every 1 to 2 minutes which she describes as "strong." Carol states she labored for 1 hour at home. As the nurse assists Carol from the assessment area to her labor and birth room, Carol states that she is feeling some rectal pressure. Carol is most likely experiencing: a. Hypertonic contractions b. Hypotonic contractions c. Precipitous labor d. Uterine hyperstimulation True - T/F The perinatal nurse includes the following when explaining the physiology of artificial rupture of membranes to the student nurse: rupture of membranes causes a release of arachidonic acid, which converts to prostaglandins, substances known to stimulate oxytocin in the pregnant uterus A - A post-cesarean birth woman has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to see? a. Abdominal distension b. Polyuria c. Diastasis recti d. Dependent edema B - The perinatal nurse is preparing a woman for a scheduled cesarean birth. The woman will be receiving spinal anesthesia for the birth. In order to prevent maternal hypotension, the nurse: a. Assists the woman to lie down in a supine position. b. Administers a rapid intravenous infusion of 500 mL of normal saline. c. Assesses blood pressure and pulse every 5 minutes, three times, before the spinal insertion. d. Encourages frequent cleansing breaths after the patient has been placed in the correct position for the anesthesia administration.
B - The perinatal nurse understands that the purpose of combining an opioid with a local anesthetic agent in an epidural is primarily to: a. Increase the total anesthetic volume b. Preserve a greater amount of maternal motor function c. Increase the intensity of the motor and sensory block d. Decrease the number of side effects A - Tanya, a 30-year-old woman, is being prepared for an elective cesarean birth. The perinatal nurse assists the anesthesiologist with the spinal block and then positions Tanya in a supine position. Tanya's blood pressure drops to 90/52, and there is a decrease in the fetal heart rate to 110 bpm. The perinatal nurse's best response is to: a. Place a wedge under Tanya's left hip. b. Discontinue Tanya's intravenous administration. c. Have naloxone (Narcan) ready for administration. d. Have epinephrine ready for administration. D - The perinatal nurse listens as Chantal describes her labor and emergency cesarean birth. Providing an opportunity to review this experience may assist Chantal in: a. Her role development in the "letting go" stage b. Decreasing her ambivalence about her labor and birth c. Understanding her guilt involved in her labor and birth d. Developing more positive feelings about her labor and birth B - During a cesarean section, which action by the nurse is done to prevent compression of the descending aorta and vena cava? a. Right lateral tilt b. Left lateral tilt c. Elevate head of gurney at 30 degrees d. Administration of IV fluid preload of 500 to 1000 mL B - A 25 year-old woman gave birth to her second child 6 hours ago. She informs the nurse that she is bleeding more than with her previous birth experience. The initial nursing action is to: a. Explain that this is normal for second-time moms. b. Assess the location and firmness of the fundus. c. Change her pad and return in 1 hour and reassess. d. Give her 10 units of oxytocin as per standing order. B - During a postpartum assessment, the nurse notes that the uterus is midline and boggy. The immediate nursing action is:a. To notify the patient's midwife or physician b. Massage the fundus until firm and reevaluate within 30 minutes c. Give Syntocinon as per orders d. Assist the patient to the bathroom and ask her to void D - On day four following the birth of an average size baby, the nurse would expect the fundus to be at:
a. 1 cm below umbilicus b. 2 cm below umbilicus c. 3 cm below umbilicus d. 4 cm below umbilicus C - A nurse is performing a postpartum assessment 30 minutes after a vaginal delivery. Which of the following actions indicates that the nurse is performing the assessment correctly? a. The nurse measures the fundal height in relation to the symphysis pubis. b. The nurse monitors the client's central venous pressure. c. The nurse assesses the client's perineum for edema and ecchymoses. d. The nurse performs a sterile vaginal speculum exam. C - Which of the following clients is most likely to complain of afterbirth pains during her postpartum period? a. G1 P0, diagnosed with preeclampsia b. G2 P0, group B streptococci in the vagina c. G3 P2, gave birth to a 4100-gram baby d. G4 P1, diagnosed with preterm labor B - The perinatal nurse demonstrates for the student nurse the correct technique of postpartum uterine palpation. Support for the lower uterine segment is critical, as without it, there is an increased risk of: a. Uterine edema b. Uterine inversion c. Incorrect measurement d. Intensifying the patient's level of pain D - The perinatal nurse teaches the postpartum woman about the normal process of diuresis that she can expect to occur approximately 6 to 8 hours after birth. A decrease in which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for the diuresis? a. Prolactin b. Progesterone c. Oxytocin d. Estrogen A - A 16-year-old woman delivers a healthy, full-term male infant. The nurse notes the following behaviors 2 hours after the birth: Woman holds baby away from her body; woman refers to baby as "he"; woman verbalizes she wanted a baby girl; woman requests that baby be placed in the bassinet so she can eat her lunch. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this woman is: a. At risk for impaired parenting related to disappointment with baby as evidenced by verbalizing she wanted a girl b. At risk for impaired parenting related to nonnurturing behaviors as evidenced by holding baby away from body
c. At risk for impaired mother-infant attachment as evidenced by woman requesting baby being placed in bassinet d. At risk for impaired mother-infant attachment related to disappointment as evidenced by calling baby "he" B - The nurse notes that a new father gazes at his baby for prolonged periods of time and comments that his baby is beautiful and he is very happy having a baby. These behaviors are commonly associated with: a. Bonding b. Engrossment c. Couvade syndrome d. Attachment A - The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is in the "taking-in" phase after delivering a healthy baby boy. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan? a. Provide the client with a nutritious meal. b. Teach baby care skills like diapering. c. Discuss the pros and cons of circumcision. d. Counsel her regarding future sexual encounters. B - The perinatal nurse observes the new mother watching her baby daughter closely, touching her face, and asking many questions about infant feeding. This stage of mothering is best described as: a. Taking in b. Taking hold c. Taking charge d. Taking time False - T/F Bonding is bidirectional from parent to infant and infant to parent. A - A postpartum woman has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform? a. Supervise all infant care. b. Maintain client on strict bed rest. c. Restrict visitation to her partner. d. Carefully monitor toileting. D - A client is 1 hour postpartum from a vacuum delivery over a midline episiotomy of a 4500-gram neonate. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for this mother? a. Risk for altered parenting b. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements c. Risk for ineffective individual coping d. Risk for fluid volume deficit
C - The perinatal nurse accurately defines postpartum hemorrhage by including a decrease in hematocrit levels from pre- to postbirth by: a. 5% b. 8% c. 10% d. 15% B - The perinatal nurse teaches the postpartum woman about warning signs regarding development of postpartum infection. Signs and symptoms that merit assessment by the health-care provider include the development of a fever and: a. Breast engorgement b. Uterine tenderness c. Diarrhea d. Emotional lability B - Karen, a G2, P1, experienced a precipitous birth 90 minutes ago. Her infant is 4200 grams and a repair of a second-degree laceration was needed following the birth. As part of the nursing assessment, the nurse discovers that Karen's uterus is boggy. Furthermore, it is noted that Karen's vaginal bleeding has increased. The nurse's most appropriate first action is to: a. Assess vital signs including blood pressure and pulse. b. Massage the uterine fundus with continual lower segment support. c. Measure and document each perineal pad changed in order to assess blood loss. d. Ensure appropriate lighting for a perineal repair if it is needed. D - The nurse is massaging a boggy uterus. The uterus does not respond to the massage. Which medication would the nurse expect would be given first: a. Methergine b. Ergotrate c. Carboprost d. Oxytocin or pitocin A - Approximately 8 hours ago, Juanita, a 32-year-old G1 P0, gave birth after 2 ½ hours of pushing. She required an episiotomy and an assisted birth (forceps) due to the weight and size of her baby (9 lb. 9 oz.). The perinatal nurse is performing an assessment of Juanita's perineal area. A slight bulge is palpated and the presence of ecchymoses to the right of the episiotomy is noted. The area feels "full" and is approximately 4 cm in diameter. Juanita describes this area as "very tender." The most likely cause of these signs and symptoms is: a. Hematoma formation b. Sepsis in the episiotomy site c. Inadequate repair of the episiotomy d. Postpartum hemorrhage C - The perinatal nurse notifies the physician of the findings related to Juanita's assessment. The first step in care will most likely be to: a. Prepare Juanita for surgery
b. Administer intravenous fluids c. Apply ice to the perineum d. Insert a urinary catheter D - The clinic nurse sees Xiao and her infant in the clinic for their 2-week follow-up visit. Xiao appears to be tired, her clothes and hair appear unwashed, and she does not make eye contact with her infant. She is carrying her son in the infant carrier and when asked to put him on the examining table, she holds him away from her body. The clinic nurse's most appropriate question to ask would be: a. "What has happened to you?" b. "Do you have help at home?" c. "Is there anything wrong with your son?" d. "Would you tell me about the first few days at home?" A - Which of the following is an indication for the administration of methylergonovine? a. Boggy uterus that does not respond to massage and oxytocin therapy b. Woman with a large hematoma c. Woman with a deep vein thrombosis d. Woman with severe postpartum depression A, B, C - Which of the following are primary risk factors for subinvolution of the uterus? (Select all that apply.) a. Fibroids b. Retained placental tissue c. Metritis d. Urinary tract infection C - When assessing the apical pulse of the neonate, the stethoscope should be placed at the: a. First or second intercostal space b. Second or third intercostal space c. Third or fourth intercostal space d. Fourth or fifth intercostal space A - Which of the following breath sounds are normal to hear in the neonate during the first few hours postbirth? a. Scattered crackles b. Wheezes c. Stridor d. Grunting A . This blood glucose level is normal. The nurse should provide routine nursing care. - An infant admitted to the newborn nursery has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform at this time? a. Provide the baby with routine feedings. b. Assess the baby's blood pressure. c. Place the baby under the infant warmer.
d. Monitor the baby's urinary output. C. The baby's temperature is low; therefore, the baby could develop cold stress syndrome. In addition, the baby is short and, therefore, could be preterm. - Four babies have just been admitted into the neonatal nursery. Which of the babies should the nurse assess first? a. The baby with respirations 52, oxygen saturation 98% b. The baby with Apgar 9/9, weight 2960 grams c. The baby with temperature 96.3°F, length 17 inches d. The baby with glucose 60 mg/dL, heart rate 132 A - The nurse is about to elicit the rooting reflex on a newborn baby. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? a. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is touched. b. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby's foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan outward. c. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate's arms straighten outward and the knees flex. d. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side extends. D - A mother refused to allow her son to receive the vitamin K injection at birth. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the nurse observe in the baby as a result? a. Skin color is dusky. b. Vital signs are labile. c. Glucose levels are subnormal. d. Circumcision site oozes blood. A - A nurse is assisting a physician during a baby's circumcision. Which of the following demonstrates that the nurse is acting as the baby's patient care advocate? a. The nurse requests that oral sucrose be ordered as a pain relief measure. b. The nurse restrains the baby on the circumcision board. c. The nurse wears a surgical mask during the procedure. d. The nurse provides the physician with an iodine solution for cleansing the skin. C - The nurse is about to elicit the Moro reflex. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? a. When the cheek of the baby is touched, the newborn turns toward the side that is touched. b. When the lateral aspect of the sole of the baby's foot is stroked, the toes extend and fan outward. c. When the baby is suddenly lowered or startled, the neonate's arms straighten outward and the knees flex. d. When the newborn is supine and the head is turned to one side, the arm on that same side extends.
B - A nurse is doing a newborn assessment on a new admission to the nursery. Which of the following actions should the nurse make when evaluating the baby for developmental dysplasia of the hip? a. Grasp the inner aspects of the baby's calves with thumbs and forefingers. b. Gently abduct the baby's thighs. c. Palpate the baby's patellae to assess for subluxation of the bones. d. Dorsiflex the baby's feet. D - A pregnant patient at 35 weeks' gestation gives birth to a healthy baby boy. What factors regarding the development of the normal respiratory system should the nurse consider when performing an assessment of the neonate? a. As the fetus approaches term, there is an increase in the secretion of intrapulmonary fluid. b. Lung expansion after birth suppresses the release of surfactant. c. Surfactant causes an increased surface tension within the alveoli, which allows for alveolar reexpansion following each exhalation. d. Under normal circumstances, by the 34th to 36th weeks of gestation, surfactant is produced in sufficient amounts to maintain alveolar stability. D - The perinatal nurse explains to a student nurse the cardiopulmonary adaptations that occur in the neonate. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the sequence of these changes? a. As air enters the lungs, the PO2 rises in the alveoli, which causes pulmonary artery relaxation and results in an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance. b. As the pulmonary vascular resistance increases, pulmonary blood flow increases, reaching 100% by the first 24 hours of life. c. Decreased pulmonary blood volume contributes to the conversion from fetal to newborn circulation. d. Once the pulmonary circulation has been functionally established, blood is distributed throughout the lungs. C - The nurse is assessing the neonate's skin and notes the presence of small, irregular, red patches on the cheeks that will develop into single, yellow pimples on the chest or abdomen. The name for this common neonatal skin condition is: a. Milia b. Neonatal acne c. Erythema toxicum d. Pustular melanosis A - The nursery nurse notes the presence of diffuse edema on a baby girl's head. Review of the birth record indicates that her mother experienced a prolonged labor and difficult childbirth. By the second day of life, the edema has disappeared. The nurse documents the following condition in the infant's chart. a. Caput succedaneum b. Cephalhematoma c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
d. Epstein pearls D - The perinatal nurse contacts the pediatrician about a heart murmur that was auscultated during a routine newborn assessment. This finding would be abnormal at: a. 8 to 12 hours b. 12 to 24 hours c. 24 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours D - Heat loss through radiation can be reduced by: a. Closing door to room b. Warming equipment used on the neonate c. Drying the neonate d. Placing crib near a warm wall A, B, C - A healthy, full-term baby is scheduled for a circumcision. Nursing actions prior to the procedure include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain written consent from the mother. b. Administer acetaminophen PO 1 hour before procedure per MD order. c. Feed the neonate glucose water 30 minutes before the procedure. d. Obtain the neonate's protime. D - A nurse is making a home visit on the seventh postpartum day to assess a 23-year-old primipara woman and her full-term, healthy baby. Breastfeeding is the method of infant nutrition. The woman tells the nurse that she does not think her milk is good because it looks very watery when she expresses a little before each feeding. The nurse's best response is: a. "This is normal. You only have to be concerned when your baby does not gain weight." b. "What types of foods are you eating? A lack of protein in the diet can cause watery looking breast milk." c. "How much fluid are you drinking while you are nursing your baby? Too much fluid during the feeding session can dilute the breast milk." d. "This is normal and is referred to as foremilk which is higher in water content. Later in the feeding the fat content increases and the milk becomes richer in appearance." C - A postpartum woman, who gave birth 12 hours ago, is breastfeeding her baby. She tells her nurse that she is concerned that her baby is not getting enough food since her milk has not come in. The best response for this patient is: a. "I understand your concern, but your baby will be okay until your milk comes in." b. "Your baby seems content, so you should not worry about him getting enough to eat." c. "Milk normally comes in around the third day. Prior to that, he is getting colostrum which is high in protein and immunoglobulins which are important for your baby's health." d. "You can bottle feed until your milk comes in."
A. Having the woman lying on her side to breastfeed prevents pressure on her abdomen and the pain that can result from the pressure. - Which of the following positions for breastfeeding is preferred for a 2-day post-cesarean-birth woman? a. Lying down on side b. Sitting c. Cradle d. Cross-cradle A. Correct. All of the answers are correct, but problems with latching-on are a primary cause of nipple irritation. - Painful nipples are a major reason why women stop breastfeeding. A primary intervention to decrease nipple irritation is: a. Teaching proper techniques for latching-on and releasing of suction b. Applying hot compresses to breast prior to feeding c. Instructing woman to express colostrum or milk at the end of the feeding session and rub it on her nipples d. Air drying nipples for 10 minutes at the end of the feeding session B - The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a 21-year-old first-time mom. This was an unplanned pregnancy. She had a prolonged labor and an early postpartum hemorrhage. The woman plans to breastfeed her baby. She plans to return to work when her baby is 3 months old. Based on this information, the three primary learning needs of this woman are: a. Breastfeeding, bathing of the newborn, and infant safety b. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and nutrition c. Breastfeeding, contraception, infant safety d. Breastfeeding, storage of milk, and rest D. The foreskin will fully retract on its own around 5 years of age. - Instructions to a mother of an uncircumcised male infant should include which of the following? a. Instruct her to use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin. b. Instruct her to clean the penis by retracting the foreskin. c. Instruct her to clean the penis with alcohol. d. Instruct her not to retract the foreskin. A. green stools indicate that the baby is having diarrhea. - A mother of a 10-day-old infant calls the clinic and reports that her baby is having loose, green stools. The mother is breastfeeding her infant. Which of the following is the best nursing action? a. Instruct the woman to bring her infant to the clinic. b. Instruct the woman to decrease the amount of feeding for 24 hours and to call if the stools continue to be loose. c. Explain that this is a normal stool pattern. d. Instruct the woman to eat a bland diet for the next 24 hours and call back if the stools continue to be loose and green. B - The perinatal nurse is teaching her new mother about breastfeeding and explains that the most appropriate time to breastfeed is:
a. 3 to 4 hours after the last feeding b. When her infant is in a quiet alert state c. When her infant is in an active alert state d. When her infant exhibits hunger-related crying D - Felicity Chan, a new mother, is accompanied by her mother during her hospital stay on the postpartum unit. Felicity's mother makes specific, various requests of the nurses including bringing warm tea, a cot to sleep on, and that the baby not be bathed at this time. Felicity's mother is also concerned about the amount of work that Felicity may be doing in the provision of infant care. Felicity asks for help with breastfeeding. After Felicity has finished breastfeeding, her mother asks for a bottle so they can warm it and "feed" the baby. How would the perinatal nurse best respond to Felicity's mother in a culturally sensitive way? a. Ask Felicity's mother to leave for 30 minutes to allow for some private time with Felicity to explore her learning needs privately. b. Ask both Felicity and her mother about the preferred infant feeding method, and assess what they already know. c. Convey to Felicity and her mother an understanding of the concepts of "hot" and "cold" within their belief system. d. Ask Felicity what she knows about breastfeeding, and provide information to both women to support Felicity's decision. A - A neonatal nurse caring for newborns knows that the best time for a mother to first attempt breastfeeding is during which one of the following stages of activity? a. First period of reactivity b. First period of inactivity and sleep c. Second period of reactivity d. Second period of inactivity and sleep C - A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-day-old neonate. Which of the following information should be included in the discharge teaching on umbilical cord care? a. Cleanse the cord twice a day with hydrogen peroxide. b. Remove the cord with sterile tweezers if the cord does not fall off by 10 days of age. c. Call the doctor if greenish discharge appears. d. Cover the cord with sterile dressing until it falls off. A - The nurse is advising parents of a full-term neonate being discharged from the hospital regarding car seat safety. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan? a. Put the car seat facing forward only after the baby reaches 20 pounds. b. The infant car seat should be placed facing the rear seat in the front seat of the car. c. A fist should fit between the straps of the seat and the baby's body. d. Seat belt adjusters should always be used to support infant car seats. D - The nurse is teaching the parents of a healthy newborn about infant safety. Which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?
a. Water temperature for the infant's bath should be 39°C. b. Crib slates should be a maximum of 3 inches apart. c. Cover electrical outlets once the infant is crawling. d. Remove strings from infant sleepwear. C - Which of the following statements indicates that a new mother needs additional teaching? a. "I need to supervise my cat when she is in the same room as my baby." b. "I will place my baby on her back when she is sleeping." c. "I will not leave my baby on an elevated flat surface after she is able to turn over on her own." d. "I have asked my husband to install safety latches on the lower cabinets." B, C, D - The let-down reflex occurs in response to the release of oxytocin. Which of the following can stimulate the release of oxytocin? (Select all that apply.) a. Prolactin release b. Infant suckling c. Infant crying d. Sexual activity A, B - The clinic nurse teaches expectant mothers about the differences between breast milk and commercially prepared infant formulas. When compared to commercially prepared formulas, breast milk has (select all that apply): a. More carbohydrates b. Less protein c. Fewer nutrients d. Less cholesterol A, B, C - The perinatal nurse describes infant feeding cues to a new mother. These feeding cues include (select all that apply): a. Vocalizations b. Mouth movements c. Moving the hand to the mouth d. Yawning B, C, D - Typical signs of abusive head trauma (Shaken Baby Syndrome) include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Broken clavicle b. Poor feeding c. Vomiting d. Breathing problems True - T/F It is a common custom for traditional Chinese women to bottle feed their infants until their milk comes in.
A. Neonates with a birth weight of less than 2500 grams but greater than 1500 grams are classified as low birth weight - A neonate is born at 33 weeks' gestation with a birth weight of 2400 grams. This neonate would be classified as: a. Low birth weight b. Very low birth weight c. Extremely low birth weight d. Very premature D. Assessment findings related to NEC include abdominal distention, bloody stools, abdominal distention, vomiting, and increased gastric residual. These signs and symptoms are related to the premature neonate's inability to fully digest stomach contents and limitation in absorptive function. - A nurse assesses that a 3-day-old neonate who was born at 34 weeks' gestation has abdominal distention and vomiting. These assessment findings are most likely related to :a. Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) b. Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD) c. Periventricular Hemorrhage (PVH) d. Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC) B. Adequate hydration promotes excretion of bilirubin in the urine. - A full-term neonate who is 30 hours old has a bilirubin level of 10 mg/dL. The neonate has a yellowish tint to the skin of the face. The mother is breastfeeding her newborn. The nurse caring for this neonate would anticipate which of the following interventions? a. Phototherapy b. Feeding neonate every 2 to 3 hours c. Switch from breastfeeding to bottle feeding d. Assess red blood cell count C - A NICU nurse is caring for a full-term neonate being treated for group B streptococcus. The mother of the neonate is crying and shares that she cannot understand how her baby became infected. The best response by the nurse is: a. "Newborns are more susceptible to infections due to an immature immune system. Would you like additional information on the newborn immune system?" b. "The infection was transmitted to your baby during the birthing process. Do you have a history of sexual transmitted infections?" c. "Approximately 10% to 30% of women are asymptomatic carries of group B streptococcus which is found in the vaginal area. What other questions do you have regarding your baby's health?" d. "I see that this is very upsetting for you. I will come back later and answer your questions." D - A nursery nurse observes that a full-term AGA neonate has nasal congestion, hypertonia, and tremors and is extremely irritable. Based on these observations, the nurse suspects which of the following? a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypercalcemia
c. Cold stress d. Neonatal withdrawal D. dusky skin color is abnormal in any neonate, whether or not the respiration rate is normal, although this baby is also slightly tachypneic. - The following four babies are in the neonatal nursery. Which of the babies should be seen by the neonatologist as soon as possible? a. 1-day-old, HR 170 bpm, crying b. 2-day-old, T 98.9°F, slightly jaundice c. 3-day-old, breastfeeding q 2 h, rooting d. 4-day-old, RR 70 rpm, dusky coloring C. Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress. - The nurse is assessing a baby girl on admission to the newborn nursery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the neonatologist? a. Intermittent strabismus b. Startling c. Grunting d. Vaginal bleeding C. The baby needs to be intubated in order for deep suctioning to be performed by the physician - It is noted that the amniotic fluid of a 42-week gestation baby, born 30 seconds ago, is thick and green. Which of the following actions by the nurse is critical at this time? a. Perform a gavage feeding immediately. b. Assess the brachial pulse. c. Assist a physician with intubation. d. Stimulate the baby to cry. A - A 42-week gestation neonate is admitted to the NICU (neonatal intensive care unit). This neonate is at risk for which complication? a. Meconium aspiration syndrome b. Failure to thrive c. Necrotizing enterocolitis d. Intraventricular hemorrhage C - A 1-day-old neonate in the well-baby nursery is suspected of suffering from drug withdrawal because he is markedly hyperreflexic and is exhibiting which of the following additional sign or symptom? a. Prolonged periods of sleep b. Hypovolemic anemia c. Repeated bouts of diarrhea d. Pronounced pustular rash A - A baby boy was just born to a mother who had positive vaginal cultures for group B streptococci. The mother was admitted to the labor room 30 minutes before the birth. For which of the following should the nursery nurse closely observe this baby?
a. Grunting b. Acrocyanosis c. Pseudostrabismus d. Hydrocele B. An elevated bilirubin level adversely affects the central nervous system. Babies are often sleepy and feed poorly when the bilirubin level is elevated. - Which of the following neonatal signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a neonate with an elevated bilirubin level? a. Low glucose b. Poor feeding c. Hyperactivity d. Hyperthermia A - The perinatal nurse is assisting the student nurse with completion of documentation. The laboring woman has just given birth to a 2700 gram infant at 36 weeks' gestation. The most appropriate term for this is: a. Preterm birth b. Term birth c. Small for gestational age infant d. Large for gestational age infant D - The NICU nurse is providing care to a 35-week-old infant who has been in the neonatal intensive care unit for the past 3 weeks. His mother wants to breastfeed her son naturally but is currently pumping her breasts to obtain milk. His mother is concerned that she is only producing about 1 ounce of milk every 3 hours. The nurse's best response to the patient's mother would be: a. "Pumping is hard work and you are doing very well. It is good to get about 1 ounce of milk every 3 hours." b. "Natural breastfeeding will be a challenging goal for your baby. Beginning today, you will need to begin to pump your breasts more often." c. "Your baby will not be ready to go home for at least another week. You can begin to pump more often in the next few days in preparation for taking your child home." d. "You have been working hard to give your son your breast milk. We can map out a schedule to help you begin today to pump more often to prepare to take your baby home." A, C - A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old neonate who was born at 31 weeks' gestation. The neonate has a diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following medical treatments would the nurse anticipate for this neonate? (Select all that apply.) a. Exogenous surfactant b. Corticosteroids c. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) d. Bronchodilators A, B, C - Nursing actions that decrease the risk of skin breakdown include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Using gelled mattresses b. Using emollients in groin and thigh areas c. Using transparent dressings d. Drying thoroughly C, D - Nursing actions that minimize oxygen demands in the neonate include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Providing frequent rest breaks when feeding b. Placing neonate on back for sleeping c. Maintaining a neutral thermal environment (NTE) d. Clustering nursing care A, B, C, D - Which of the following are common assessment findings of postmature neonates? (Select all that apply.) a. Dry and peeling skin b. Abundant vernix caseosa c. Hypoglycemia d. Thin, wasted appearance A, B, D - A nurse is caring for a 40 weeks' gestation neonate. The neonate is 12 hours postbirth and has been admitted to the NICU for meconium aspiration. The nurse recalls that the following are potential complications related to meconium aspiration (select all that apply): a. Obstructed airway b. Hyperinflation of the alveoli c. Hypoinflation of the alveoli d. Decreased surfactant proteins