NCLEX-PN Test Prep Questions And Answers 100% Correct Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member. A. Occupational therapist: Gait exercises B. Physical therapist: The provision of assistive devices to facilitate the activities of daily living C. Speech and language therapist: The treatment of swallowing disorders D. Case manager: Ordering medications and treatments - *Correct Response: C* Speech and language therapists assess and treat patients with a swallowing disorder; they also assess and treat patients with speech and communication problems as often occurs after a cerebrovascular accident, or stroke. *Occupational therapists assist patients with their activities of daily living and they also provide patients with assistive devices to facilitate eating and dressing. *Physical therapists perform rehabilitation and restorative care including help with ambulation and balance/gait exercises. *Lastly, case managers coordinate care along the continuum of care and they manage insurance reimbursements. The recommended daily caloric intake for sedentary older men, active adult women and children is: A. 2400 calories B. 1600 calories C. 2800 calories D. 2000 calories - *Correct Response: D* Sedentary older men, active adult women and children should all have 6 ounces of grains, 2½ cups of vegetables, 2 cups of fruits, and 3 cups of milk to help make up their 2000 calorie requirement. Sedentary adolescents require 2400 calories, sedentary women and children require 1600 calories and active adolescents need 2800 calories daily. Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with: A. Surgical asepsis B. Catabolism C. Cachexia D. Venous stasis - *Correct Response: C* Ill health, malnutrition, and wasting as a result of chronic disease are all associated with cachexia. Cachexia can also result from dehiscence of a surgical incision or rupture of wound closure. *Surgical asepsis refers to using a sterile technique to protect against infection before, during, and after surgery. The breakdown of tissue, especially after severe trauma or crush injuries is known as *catabolism.
*Venous stasis is a disorder related to pooling of blood in a vein of the body; venous stasis typically occurs in the lower extremities and it is one of the many hazards, or complications, of immobilization. Select all the possible opportunistic infections that adversely affect HIV/AIDS infected patients: A. Visual losses B. Kaposi's sarcoma C. Wilms' sarcoma D. Tuberculosis E. Peripheral neuropathy F. Toxoplasma gondii - *Correct Response: B, D, F* Kaposi's sarcoma, tuberculosis, toxoplasma gondii, mycobacterium avium, herpes simplex, histoplasmosis and salmonella infections are HIV/AIDS associated opportunistic infections. *Although many affected patients can experience blindness and peripheral neuropathy, these disorders result from impaired nervous system damage rather than an infection. *Lastly, Wilms' tumor (sarcoma) is a pediatric form of kidney cancer and it is neither an infection nor something that typically affects the patient with HIV/AIDS What can help reduce a patient's anxiety and postsurgical pain? A. Preoperative teaching B. Preoperative checklist C. Psychological counseling D. Preoperative medication - *Correct Response: A* Patient teaching before surgery not only helps to reduce a patient's anxiety and postsurgical pain but it also decreases the amount of anesthesia needed and a lack of anxiety additionally speeds up wound healing. Preoperative checklists are a form of nursing documentation that is used to guide and document the care of the patient before surgery. Psychological counseling is typically NOT necessary except under highly unusual circumstances and preoperative medication can decrease the amount of anesthetic needed and respiratory tract secretions but it does not help with postoperative pain. Which disease decreases the metabolic rate? A. Cancer B. Hypothyroidism C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Cardiac failure - Answer: B- hypothyroidism. When caring for an infant during cardiac arrest, which pulse must be palpated to determine cardiac function? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Radial - Brachial (B).
The patient after surgery should be sitting when deep breathing and coughing because this position: A. Is physically more comfortable for the patient B. Helps the patient to support their incision with a pillow C. Loosens respiratory secretions D. Allows the patient to observe their area and relax - Supports their incision! (B) Which procedures necessitate the use of surgical asepsis techniques? Select all that apply. A. Intramuscular medication administration B. Central line intravenous medication administration C. Donning gloves in the operating room D. Neonatal bathing E. Foley catheter insertion F. Emptying a urinary drainage bag - B, C, F. What is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities? A.To increase efficiency B.To contain costs C.To improve processes D.To improve policies - C. Even if you don't know the information in the question, be sure to use common sense & process of elimination. Example: "goal performance *IMPROVEMENT* activities". The key word here is improvement. You can instantly remove A & B. Now, read further into the question. Your next hint is going to be the word performance. so, performance improvement matches with improve process the best. The primary difference between practical nursing licensure and a nursing certification in an area of practice is that nursing licensure is: A. Insures competency and a nursing certification validates years of experience. B. Mandated by the American Nurses Association and a nursing certification are not. C. Is legally mandated by the states and a nursing certification is not. D. Renewed every two years and a nursing certification is renewed every five years. - C. What intervention is the best to relieve constipation during pregnancy? A.Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables B.Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative C.Lying flat on back when sleeping D>Reduction of iron intake by half or more - A- remember! DARK, LEAFY GREEN VEGTABLES IS ALMOST ALWAYS THE RIGHT ANSWER! Process of elimination- B= medication is always the last option (you don't want them to become dependent.) C= doesn't really have anything to do with bowel movements. D= You never want to decrease your iron intake during pregnancy! You are the LPN working on 2 east with adult medical surgical patients. Your unit has been instructed to perform a horizontal evacuation of your patients because there is a fire on 1 east. Where will you evacuate your patients to? A. 3 west
B. 3 east. C. 2 west D. 1 west - C- think logically. The number usually indicates the floor number. So use your head! pick out the word horizontal, which means side to side. (long ways, hot dog, etc.) Now, think of a compass. North and south are vertical on a compass. East and West are horizontal. Process of elimination, a-different floor. b-different floor, d-different floor.... Which electrolyte is essential for enzyme and neurochemical activities? A.Chloride B.Magnesium C.Potassium D.Phosphate - B, magnesium. Number the choices below to reflect the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher: A. Aim at the base of the fire B. Squeeze the handle C. Sweep back and forth D. Pull the pin - remember- PASS. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep!!! D, A, B, C. As you are working you suspect that another licensed practical nurse is verbally and physically abusing a patient. What is the first thing that you will do? A.Nothing because you are not certain that it is occurring B.Nothing because you only suspect the abuse C.Call the police or the security department D.Report your suspicions to the charge nurse - D, process of elimination. instantly get rid of A & B. DON'T be a bystander! Always do something, big or small. And then get rid of C, you don't want to jump the gun and possibly make false accusations. Which of the following is the World Health Organization's (WHO) definition of health? A. The absence of all illness and disease B. The absence of any comorbidities C. A holistic state of wellbeing D. A use of health promotion activities - C, full definition: Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Which nursing theorist believes that most patients are capable of performing self care? A. Dorothea Orem B. Madeleine Leininger C. Martha Rogers D. Sister Callista Roy - A. What element is minimally assessed during a basic prenatal physical examination? A. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen B. Examination of the anus and rectum C. Urinalysis for glucose, protein and ketones
D. Visual assessment of cervix and vagina - C, think logically. Although UA's are always done on a pregnant woman, the question being asked is focusing on a BASIC PHYSICAL EXAMINATION. First key word is basic. Second, is going to be the physical aspect of the exam. Think back to physical assessments. You didn't collect UA's, draw blood, or do anything other than what is considered "basic." All of the other choices (other than C) are very basic pieces to an examination. A positive over-the-counter pregnancy test is considered a: A. Possible sign of pregnancy. B. Presumptive sign of pregnancy. C. Probable sign of pregnancy. D. Positive sign of pregnancy. - C. Select all of the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. A. Cool skin B. Thickened bodily hair C. Heat intolerance D. Constipation E. Insomnia F. Increased appetite G. Palpitations - C, E, F, G. HYPER vs HYPO: Hyper- hot, skinny, increased appetite +weight loss, trouble sleeping, not tired, palpitations. Hypo- cold, overweight, lesser appetite, increased tiredness/sleep. During which phase of the nursing process does data get collected and validated with the patient and/or family members by the nurse? A. The implementation phase B. The assessment phase C. The evaluation phase D. The planning phase - B- data collection = assessment. remember ADPIE. Which of the following is the best worded expected outcome? A. "The nurse will provide for adequate hydration" B. "The nurse will insure that the patient is safe" C. "The patient will cough and deep breathe every two hours" D. "The patient will value health" - C. Provides the most information, worded the best. What is a major difference between a problem oriented medical record and a source oriented medical record? A. The problem oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the source oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession's progress notes.
B. The problem oriented medical system consists of narrative progress notes and the source oriented medical record uses SOAP. C. The source oriented medical system uses charting by exception and the source oriented medical record system does not. D. The source oriented medical system has a centralized part of the chart for interdisciplinary progress notes and the problem oriented medical record has separate areas for each profession's progress notes. - A. Source VS. Problem medical records: Source= one in which each healthcare group keeps data on its own separate form. Sections designed for nurses, physicians, lab, x-ray, etc. Disadvantages include: Fragmented data -making it difficult to track problems chronologically with input from different groups of professionals. Advantages include: Each discipline can easily find and chart pertinent data. Problem= Organized around a patient's problems rather than around sources of information. Advantages include: Entire healthcare team works together in identifying a master list of patient problems and contributes collaboratively to the plan of care. Which of the following are necessary elements of malpractice? Select all that apply. A. A breach of duty B. An intentional act C. A unintentional act D. Foreseeability E. Patient harm F. Causation - A, D, E, F. -Can be intentional OR unintentional. Select the following fire emergency interventions in correct sequential order. A. Pull the fire alarm. B. Contain the fire. C. Rescue patients in danger. D. Extinguish the fire. - C,A, B, D. Remember RACE! Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.! After your patient has been told that they have Cushing's syndrome, the patient asks you what Cushing's syndrome is. How would you respond to this patient's question? A. "Cushing's syndrome is a type of irritable bowel syndrome." B. "Cushing's syndrome is a disorder of the adrenal gland." C. "Cushing's syndrome often occurs among patients who are getting radiation therapy." D. "Cushing's syndrome often occurs among patients who are chemotherapy." - Bcondition of the adrenal disorder. Review Cushing's vs. Addison's. Cushing's: HYPER adrenal disorder. Too much cortisol or ACTH being produced. Buffalo Hump, Moon Face, Pink/Purple Striate. Addison's: HYPO adrenal disorder. Too little cortisol or ACTH being produced. Bronzing skin especially in areas normally not exposed to the sun, thin, fatigued.
You are preparing a sterile field for a operating room surgical procedure. When should you stop the preparation of this sterile field? A. When you have placed a sterile item only 1 inch and not 2 inches from the edge of the sterile field B. When you have completely finished the field. You cannot stop the set up until it is all done. C. When you have accidentally poured a sterile liquid into a container that was on the sterile field D. When you turn your upper body only away from the field because the surgeon calls your name - *D! BROKE STERILE FIELD.* A- 1 inch around perimeter is okay. B- if you break the field, you MUST begin again. C- Sterile liquid into a sterile container is STILL STERILE. Field not broken. D- NEVER. TURN. YOUR BACK. TO YOUR FIELD. Avulsed teeth should be placed in: A. Normal saline. B. Cold water. C. Milk. D. Warm water. - C. Avulsion- complete removal of the tooth R/T trauma. First aid for tooth avulsion includes: avoid touching the root, attempt to replant the tooth by placing it back on the hole (after ensuring it is an ADULT tooth) and instructing pt. if possible to bite down on something, i.e. handkerchief. If pt. is a child, or unconscious do not attempt replanting. Tooth should then be kept in MILK until reaching further emergency services or ER. Water or ice has been shown to damage the roots of the tooth. Milk has calcium & other good bacteria and such that will help keep the root alive. You are working in a pediatric unit of the hospital and caring for a six year old boy who is hospitalized with cystic fibrosis and respiratory compromise. Which developmental task is the challenge for this boy at his age? A. To cough, deep breathe and improve respiratory status B. To establish industry and self confidence C. To develop autonomy and self control D. To develop initiative and a sense of purpose - C. Erickson's developmental theories.! Trust vs. Mistrust (birth-1yr) Autonomy vs. Shame & doubt (1-2) Initiative vs. Guilt (2-6) Industry vs. Inferiority (6-12yrs) Identity vs. Role Confusion (12-18) Intimacy vs. Isolation (18-40) Generativity vs. Stagnation (40-65) Integrity vs. Despair (65+)
The embryonic period during pregnancy takes place from: A. Weeks 1 to 12. B. Weeks 1 to 10. C. Weeks 3 to 5. D. Weeks 6 to 10. - D- weeks 6-10. Stages of fetal development: Zygote (3-5 days) Blastocyst (1-5wks.) Embryo (6-10wks.) Fetus (10wks-expulsion) Place these human needs in order from the greatest priority to the least priority using # 1 as the greatest priority and # 5 as the least of all in terms of priority. A. Self esteem and esteem by others B. Self actualization C. Psychological needs D. Love and belonging E. Physiological needs - PYRAMID! 1. Physiological needs. 5 basic needs. 2. Psychological needs. Safety, security. 3. Love and belonging relationships. 4. Self-esteem & esteem by others. 5. Self actualization, growth & fulfillment. During which week does the fetal heart begin pumping its own blood? A. 3rd week B. 5th week C. 9th week D. 6th week - A! Baby's heart begins to beat around 18 days after conception. Which of the following is a vector of infection? A. A contaminated ball B. A contaminated thermometer C. An infected person D. An infectious fly - D.! Remember DAVID (Modes of transmission). Droplet (resp. secretions) Airborne (air is contaminated) Vector (Animal i.e. tick, mosquito.) Indirect (Contaminated ball, pen, etc.) Direct contact. (Touching an infected person) Which oral disorder appears as yellow or white spots on the oral mucosa that are not possible to scrape off without bleeding? A. Herpes simplex
B. Candidiasis C. Alphthous ulcers D. Leukoplakia - CORRECT ANSWER: B- Candidiasis. A- a viral infection, caused by a group of herpes viruses, that may produce cold sores, genital inflammation, or conjunctivitis. B- "Thrush" fungal infection. Usually covers the tongue & roof of mouth. C- "Canker Sores." D- a mucous membrane disorder characterized by white patches, especially on the cheek, tongue, vulva, or penis. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Breast cancer C. Pancreatic cancer D. Gastric cancer - C. A cesarean mode of delivery, often utilized for various reasons, is the most common mode for females with which pelvic type? A. Android B. Anthropoid C. Gynecoid D. Platypelloid - A- Android. Pelvis Types: A- most common for C-Section. Triangular. B- Oval shape, can slow down progression of labor. C- easiest & most common type for vaginal delivery. Round. D- Kidney shaped pelvis. How many bones make up a newborn's skull? A. 8 B. 4 C. 6 D. 5 - D. Your patient has just returned from the diagnostic imaging department and the doctor has told the patient that they have a Mallory-Weiss tear. The patient asks you what a MalloryWeiss tear is. How should you respond to this patient? A. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a kind of diverticulitis." B. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is an esophageal tear" C. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a lacrimal gland disorder." D. "A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear that results from a peptic ulcer." - B- Esophageal tear. Mallory-Weiss syndrome or gastro-esophageal laceration syndrome refers to bleeding from a laceration in the mucosa at the junction of the stomach and esophagus.
You have been asked to speak at a new nursing assistants' orientation class about infection control and hand washing techniques. What would you include in this teaching? A. Demonstrate the correct one minute hand washing procedure using soap and running water. B. Demonstrate the correct 2 minute hand washing procedure using soap and running water. C. Using hot water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. D. Using cold water so that the natural fats on the skins are emulsified with the soap. - Btwo min hand washing steps. How many minims are contained in 1 milliliter? A. Between 10-11 B. 12 C. 20 D. 15 or 16 - Between 15-16. Periwound maceration occurs when: A.The skin around the wound softens and is damaged. B.Selecting a dressing individualized to the type of wound. C.Negative-pressure to "air out" the wound is used. D.The skin around the wound dries out and hardens. - A. Maceration is defined as the softening and breaking down of skin resulting from prolonged exposure to moisture. Which patient is at greatest risk for cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis? A.A 70 year old male patient who has liver disease B.A 70 year old female patient who has liver disease C.A 50 year old male patient who is Asian D.A 50 year old female patient who is Asian - B, occurs more often in females rather than males. Select the method of special precautions that is accurately paired with the personal protective equipment that is minimally required in order to prevent the spread of infection. A. Contact precautions: Gowns, gloves and mask B. Droplet precautions: Face mask C. Airborne transmission precautions: Negative pressure room D. Contact precautions: Gloves - B- face mask. Read question "minimally" is your key word. Droplet precautions need face mask to prevent respiratory secretion transmission. Which statement about Meniere's disease is accurate and true? A. Meniere's disease most commonly occurs among members of the elderly population. B. Meniere's disease is insidious and it always affects both ears. C.Meniere's disease occurs with an impairment of the second cranial nerve. D. Antiemetic drugs are used for the treatment of patients affected with Meniere's disease. D. Remember Meniere's disease presentation. It is an inner ear disorder that cases episodes of vertigo & tinnitus.
Meniere's can affect only one ear, its an impairment of the 8th cranial nerve, not the 2nd. Which of these patients is affected with a healthcare acquired infection? A. A 18 year old male patient who developed a intravenous line infection two days after insertion B. A 72 year old male patient who is at risk for infection secondary to AIDS/HIV C. A 67 year old female patient who was admitted with a urinary tract infection D. A 5 year old pediatric patient who develops the measles rash 3 days after admission - A. Develops iv infection 2 days after insertion. B- never gets an infection, just at risk for R/T impaired immune system. C- Admitted with the infection, not acquired. D- Yes, develops infection but not R/T something the hospital did directly, makes choice "A" a better option. Plus the incubation period for measles is MUCH longer. The stages of infection in correct sequential order are: A. The prodromal, incubation, illness and convalescence stages B. The incubation, prodromal, illness and convalescence stages C. The prodromal, primary, secondary and tertiary stages D. The inflammation, infection and immunity stages - B. Think of the acronym, IPIC (I pee, I see!) Incubation always occurs first, that's the time in which the virus/etc. enters the body. Then, the prodromal period begins. This is the time before the full blown infection with nonspecific symptoms. After the prodromal, the illness hits the person. What is the single most important thing that nurses do in order to prevent the spread of infection? A. Applying standard precautions B. Using personal protective equipment C. Adhering to the principles of asepsis D. Hand washing - D!!!!!!!! Hand washing is almost always going to be the answer, just like dark leafy green veggies & quit smoking! Rh negative maternal blood indicates: A. An incompatibility in the blood between the mother and fetus. B. That antibodies in the mother's blood are attacking her baby's blood. C. The mother will require a blood transfusion at the time of delivery. D. The mother does not have a specific marker on her red blood cells. - D. A is wrong because we do not know the fetal blood type B is wrong because baby and mommys blood never mix. C is wrong because Rh factor has nothing to do with requiring a transfusion. D is CORRECT because the mothers blood is Rh NEGATIVE, not positive. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of: A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age. D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age. - A. birth weight never has anything to do with gestational age. LBW= 2500g or less @ birth. VLBW= 2000g or less @birth. ELBW= 1500g or less @birth. If you are administering a Snellen Eye Test, what score would you expect to see if your patient is legally blind? A. 20/20 B. 20/40 C. 20/15 D. 20/200 - D. 20/200 is legally blind. Your 54 year old male HIV positive patient has just passed. How should you care for this deceased patient? A. Bathe the patient but it is no longer necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased. B. Place the patient in an negative pressure isolated area of the morgue. C. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection. D. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive. - D, same precautions apply to the dead or alive. The infection/disease is still present. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is: A. 8 to 12 months of age. B. 20 to 24 months of age. C. 16 to 20 months of age. D. 12 to 16 months of age. - A, correction occurs early. The sooner the better, but not while baby is still a newborn. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors? A. Social demographic B. Environmental C. Biophysical D. Psychosocial - D, Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of: A. 1 in 85 births. B. 1 in 5400 births. C. 1 in 2700 births. D. 1 in 540 births. - A, twins are much more common.
When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion? A. Inevitable B. Missed C. Habitual - C, Habitual. Your long term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely to be affected with? Drug addiction Drug interactions Drug side effects Drug tolerance - Drug tolerance. The normal sodium level in the body is: A. 135 to 145 milliequivalents. B. 3 to 5 milliequivalents. C. 135 to 145 microequivalents. D. 3 to 5 microequivalents. - LAB VALUES ARE VERY IMPORTANT. A. You are caring for a patient with multiple-trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, it the most serious? A. A deviated trachea B. Gross deformity of a lower extremity C. Hematuria D. Decreased bowel sounds - A! Remember your ABC's (Airway, Bleeding, & Circulation!!) Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true? A.Appendicitis is more common among females than males. B.A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis. C.Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis. D.Mc Burney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. - D, Mc Burney's point! Appendix is on your right, not let. RLQ. Which skin disorder most closely resembles and mimics dandruff? Lice infestation Scabies Dematitis Acne vulgaris - LICE. You have just learned that another nurse was fired for taking photographs of patients without their permission using a cell phone and posting them on Face book. This nurse was fired because the nurse has: A. Violated the law B. Acted in a negligent manner
C. Not completed the proper documentation D. Violated an ethical principle - Violated a Law! HIPPA. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease? A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum and ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum. B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations and ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining. C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease and it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis. D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement and it is trans mural with ulcerative colitis. - C. Crohn's disease is segmented. Your patient has been diagnosed with orchititis. What information about this disorder should you inform the patient about? This disorder often occurs as the result of a streptococcus. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with ice. This disorder can be symptomatically treated with heat. This disorder is typically treated with surgery. - ICE. Orchitis (or-KIE-tis) is an inflammation of one or both testicles. It is usually caused by a bacterial infection or by the mumps virus Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a "need to know"? Select all that apply. A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient C. The Vice President for Nursing who is investigating a patient fall D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient E. A quality assurance nurse collecting data for a performance improvement activity A,C,D,E. A nurse gives a women a rubella vaccination while in the hospital, with the discharge instructions what should be included? A. Refrain from breastfeeding for 48hrs. B. Accept no visitors for 2 weeks. C. Refrain from becoming pregnant for at least 28 days. D. Avoid consuming eggs. - C! Refrain from becoming pregnant. There is a chance that the child will contract congenital rubells syndrome. The patient should be instructed to use effective birth control for at least 28 days following the vaccine. A Pt is diagnosed with having an MI. When the nurse asks about pain, she should expect to hear the patient complain about referred pain in the: -Sternum. -Head. Left shoulder.
-LLQ of the abdomen. - Left Shoulder. Referred pain is pain that is felt in an area other that the stimulus. During an MI, pain is commonly felt in the chest put also radiates to the left shoulder or arm, neck or jaw. What educational background is required for a nurse to serve as a group therapist? - Baccalaureate degree in nursing -Doctorate degree in nursing - Masters degree in leadership. - Masters degree in psychiatric nursing. - D, psychiatric nursing. A 25 year old pt was admitted with a complete c7 transection of the spinal cord injury. What must the nurse include in the care plan of this patient during the immediate post injury period.? A. Ventilator support B. Bladder & bowel training. C. Prevention of autonomic dysreflexia. D. Diaphragm pacing. - A, ventilator support. (ABC's!) Airway! Which of the following foods should a pt with CKD (chronic kidney disease) be advised to eat? Select all that apply. A. Small amounts of fresh chicken. B. peaches. C. Cheese. D. Chips. E. Pizza. F. Peanut butter. - A&B. No fast foods, no pizza. no phosphorus rich foods like cheese. Fresh foods & fruits are acceptable. The mother of a 2yr old child comes into the ED and tells the nurse that she found her daughter on the floor with an open aspirin bottle that was empty, with pieces of aspirin in her mouth. The nurse should be observant of symptoms of salicylate poisoning, which include? A. Diplopia B. Hyperventilation. C. Facial flushing D. Photophobia. - B hyperventilation. It is a symptom of salicylate poisoning. (ABC's! Airway, bleeding, circulation!) A frantic father presents to the ED holding a limp child bleeding from the head. The nurse takes them back to the treatment room, what should the nurse do next? A. Ask the father to leave and go to the waiting room. B. call security. C. assess the child for circulation and breathing. D. call the physician. - C airway, bleeding, circulation.
A surgical floor nurse is caring for a post op client who has undergone a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following are important nursing measures during post op care? Select all that apply. A. Administer o2 as ordered. B. Assess the surgical site & area under the clients neck and shoulders for drainage. C. Place the client in semi fowlers or flowers position with arms supported by pillows. D. Monitor the client for Chvostek's sign E. Check for trousseau's sign. F. administer meperidine & morphine as ordered. - A, B, D, E. The nurse is assessing a pt with SLE ( systemic Lupus). Which of the following would the nurse expect to note? A. Alopecia. B. Butterfly rash on face. C. Muscle pain and weakness. D. Hyperthyroidism E. Excessive hair growth. F. Recurrent DVT. - A, B, C. Butterfly rash is classic sign of lupus. Alopecia= hair loss. A nurse is reviewing a patient's history and notes that the pt is taking valsartan. The nurse determines that the pt. has which disorder? A. Hyperlipidemia. B. Hypertension. C. Atrial Fibrillation D. Asthma - B, Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat hypertension. A 13 year old girl who was diagnosed with structural scoliosis after a routine screening at school is being fitted with a brace. Which of the following statements made by the pt indicates effective use of the brace? A. I sure am glad that I only have to wear this awful thing at night. B Ill look forward to taking this thing off to take my bath everyday. C. I wonder if I can take my brace off when I go out and party. D. I'm really glad that I can take this thing off whenever I get tired. - B, the brace should be removed for only 1 hour a day for hygiene and skin care. The nurse is creating a care plan for a pt with idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), an autoimmune condition. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included? Select all that apply. A. Administer stool softeners to prevent straining. B. Administer aspirin to reduce inflammation and pain. C. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. D. Monitor blood glucose during treatment. E. Administer a platelet transfusion. - A, D.
A man in a psych unit, experiencing a state if mania, is walking the halls completely naked. How should the nurse initially respond? A. quietly escort the pt. to his room and help him dress. B. ask the other pts. to go to their rooms. C.Confront the pt and demand he gets dressed. D. Confront the pt. and threaten him with seclusion. - A, the nurse should take control of the situation without causing and more anxiety in the pt. A Dr. not involved in the care of your clients asks you, the LPN, to see your pt's HbA1C. How should you respond? A. Ask the clerk that information. B. It is 8.5 C. You can look it up in the computer. D.I can't give you that information. - D. I can't give you that information. HIPPA. A 15 year old male's left leg is placed in skeletal traction. The primary purpose of this measure is for him to: A. Reduce pain. B. Align the ends of the fractured bone. C. Promote bone healing. D. Control bleeding into tissues. - B. A nurse received an order to initiate early ambulation with a patient post appendectomy. The nurse recognizes this activity to be helpful in preventing possible complications associated with prolonged bed rest. To assist her to start walking after surgery, the nurse will: A. Tell the pt. to pull herself up and start walking. B. Assist the pt. to sit at the edge of the bed, then instruct her to stand at the bedside and then walk around the room. C. With 15 min intervals, begin to position the pt in semi fowlers, then dangles her feet over the edge of the bed, then assists her to move from the bed to the chair and then she starts walking with the pt around the room. - C. When planning care for a 10 month old infant with dehydration, which of the following interventions would be most accurate for monitoring hydration status? A. Checking electrolyte status. B. Assessing skin turgor. C. Monitoring daily weight. D. Measuring Intake & Output. - C. changes in weight is the most objective method to measure volume depletion. An acute loss or gain or weight indicates fluid loss or gain. 1 kg in weight loss reflects 1 liter of weight loss. The nurse is providing care for an adult pt. with ALS. The pt understands the nature of the disease if he or she asks which of the following questions?
A. How do I execute an advanced directive? B. How do I halt worsening of the disease? C. How do I prevent contamination of other people with the virus? D. How many pts achieve remission with chemotherapy? - A. Asking ABOUT ADVANCED DIRECTIVES AND PLANNING FOR EXECUTION OF A LIVING WILL INDICATES UNDERSTANDING OF THE PROGRESSIVE AND TERMINAL REALITY OF ALS. **Not meant to be in caps lock, sorry.* The nurse is administering an influenza vaccine to a pt. Before administering, the nurse warns the patient of which common side effect? A. Pain at the injection site. B. Tinnitus C. Constipation. D. Blurred vision. - A. the most common side effect associated with the flu vaccine are pain, redness, and swelling a the injection site. A pt has developed SIADH after suffering a TBI. After treatment has been initiated, the nurse assesses the pt for signs of improvement including: select all that apply. A. Rise in blood pressure. B. Increased urine output. C. Increased urine osmolality. D. Decrease in body weight. E. Decreased edema. F. Decreased urine output. - B, D, E. A pt. is being treated with a heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse checks a PTT and the result is 60 second with a control of 30 seconds. What is the appropriate nursing action? A. Administer protamine sulfate B. Stop the infusion for 1 hour. C. Notify the physician immediately. D. Do nothing, the PTT is therapeutic. - D, heparin infusions require close monitoring of the patient's partial thromboplastin time (ptt). The goal is a PTT of 1.5-2.5. Nurse is suctioning a pt with a mechanical ventilator. Before suctioning, the nurse hyperoxygenates the patient because this: A. Prevents cardiac arrhythmias. B. Prevents pulmonary hypertension. C. Prevents subcutaneous emphysema. D. Prevents gagging. - A, prevents cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse is providing instructions to a pt with a muscle strain of the right biceps femirs. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply: A. Apply heat packs for the first 24hrs, then ice packs for 24hrs. B. Apply ice packs for the first 48hrs, then use heat packs. C. Elevate the extremity on a pillow when resting.
D. Start weight lifting immediately. E. Rest the muscle, avoid activities that are painful. - B, C, E. For soft tissue injuries, rest, ice, compression & elevation can reduce the swelling and discomfort. After straining a muscle the patient should apply ice packs for the first 24-48 hours to reduce the swelling. After it is reduced, the patient should use heat packs to promote healing and reduce discomfort. A pts x-ray indicates acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse understands that this condition results from: A. Severe acidosis. B. Pulmonary hypertension. C. Increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries. D. Pulmonary edema. A seven year old girl has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. She appears bloated, weak, and eats less than expected. The Dr. recommends dietary protein in each meal to supplement the losses. In order to achieve a healthy diet, and prevent worsening the condition which of the following should be done? A. serve her favorite food. B. play with her while eating. C. avoid giving snacks, it will alter the child's feeding pattern. D. Giver her some candy as a reward when the meals are finished. - A. Serving the child's favorite food increases appetite and is more appealing. Nutritious foods like fish and poultry, fruits and veggies should be included in each meal. The nurse is educating a pt. recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient asks about the cause of this disorder, the nurse in informs her that the cause is? A. Genetic Factors. B. Environmental factors. C. Physiological factors. D. All of the above. - D. A pt on Digoxin accidently ingested 2 doses of the medication. He is now in the hospital and is being treated for possible drug toxicity. Since the pt is stable, which of the following treatments is indicated? A. Symptomatic treatment. B. Digoxin immune fab. C. Charcoal. D. Atropine. - A. Symptomatic Treatment The nurse is assessing a 5 year old diagnosed with hemolytic uremic syndrome. Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with this disease.? A. Hematuria, Fever, generalized rash. B. Extreme fatigue, decrease urinary output, bloody stools. C. Fever, dyspnea, decreased urine output. D. Extreme fatigue, tachypnea, generalized rash. - B. HUS is a disease characterized by hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute renal injury. Generally cause by
gastrointestinal infection, such as e. coli. Bloody diarrhea and fever develop followed by symptoms of hemolytic anemia such as :fatigue and low urinary output due to acute renal injury. The nurse is assessing a child with coarchtation of the aorta. The nurse would expect to find which of the following.? A. Cyanosis. B. Diminished or delayed femoral pulses. C. Exercise intolerance. D. Poor feeding pattern. - B. In which stage of separation anxiety does the child act sad and apathetic.? A. Despair. B. Detachment. C. Stoicism D. Disassociation. - A. Older adults are at risk for excessive fluid loss for several reasons. The nurse is correct by giving which of the following reasons when asked by her elderly client.? Select all that apply. A. Increased thirst. B. Altered antidiuretic hormone response. C. Increase in body fat. D. Decreased renal concentration of the urine. E. Ingestion of high sodium foods. F. Anasarca. - B, C, D. A schizophrenic pt. is receiving haloperidol =. It is expected that the pt will start to develop which of the following extrapyramidal side effects.? A. Pacing. B. Seizures. C. Tremors and shuffling gait. D. Tics. - C. A child is brought to the ED with a high fever, photophobia and a headache. What important sign would a nurse use to check for meningeal irritation? A. McBurney's sign B. Ortolani Sign C. Brudzinski's sign - C. A confused patient is being admitted to the hospital and the nurse is attempting to gather his heath history. The patient denies the presence of any diseases, but he admits to discontinuing donepezil. The nurse understands that this medication is used to treat: A. Alzheimer's Disease. B. Bipolar Disorder C. COPD
D. Cancer - A. A nurse is preparing a blood transfusion for an anemic toddler. Which of the following blood transfusion matches would cause a hemolytic reaction? A. O-Negative blood to a B-Negative patient. B. A-Negative blood to an AB-Negative patient. C. B-Positive blood to a B-Negative patient. D. B-Negative blood to a B-Negative patient. - C. A patient had been prescribed diltiazem and asks the nurse why he needs the drug. The nurse explains that the drug is used in the treatment of: A. Deep Vein Thrombosis B. Congestive Heart Failure C. Hyperlipidemia D. Arrhythmias - D. A patient with severe anemia has orthostatic hypotension. This is indicated by: A. Rise in heart rate and a drop in blood pressure. B. Drop in heart rate and drop in blood pressure. C. Rise in heart rate and a rise in blood pressure. D. Drop in heart rate and rise in blood pressure. - A. A patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy is admitted to the hospital for a scheduled surgery. Which of the following surgeries is the least invasive? A. Retropubic prostatectomy B. Perineal Prostatectomy C. Suprapubic Transvesical prostatectomy. D. Transurethral resection of the prostate. - D. An 80-year old patient with hemiplegia was transferred by the nurse aid from a sitting position on the bed to the wheelchair. Which of the following interventions needs correction by the home health nurse who was observing the aide? A. Moving the patient towards their unaffected side B. Pulling the patient to a standing position by his arms. C. Telling the patient to lean forward before standing. D. Assisting the patient to stand by bracing the affected knee and foot. - B. Could cause injury. You are caring for a patient who has no cognitive functioning but only basic human functions such opening the eyes and the sleep - wake cycle. What level of consciousness does this patient have? A. Obtunded B. A persistent vegetative state C. Locked in syndrome D. Brain death - B.
Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development? A. Erikson B. Piaget C. Freud D. Lister - B. Which is considered an internal disaster? A. A patient fall B. The massive spread of pneumonia C. A computer hacking episode D. Unexpected staff absences due to illness - C. INTERNAL. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing. A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears C. Two point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs - C. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse? A. Apical pulse B. Inspection C. Auscultation D. Percussion - C. What is the softening and thinning of the cervix during labor known as? A. Dilation B. Symphysis C. Effacement D. Hyperplasia - C. Effacement vs dilation. The fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead are known as: A. Vernix. B. Lanugo. C. Milia. D. Vibrissea. - B. Lanugo-hair like. Vernix- cheese like covering. Milia- small white dots/rash. Which position will you place your patient in when they are demonstrating the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock? A. The Trendelenberg position
B. The supine position C. The left lateral position D. The right lateral position - A.