Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Test Bank by QuentinAxel

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 1 Organizational Behavior TRUE/FALSE 1.

Current research suggests that the average employee will change jobs 12 times in their career.

(True) 2.

Organizational behavior is the systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work.

(True) 3.

Emile is seated in a lecture where the instructor is discussing personality. She is most likely in a sociology class.

(False) 4.

The three levels of analysis examined by organizational behavior research are individual, organization, and society.

(False) 5.

If I am examining how my manager’s behavior influences my work group, I am looking at the organizational level of analysis in the organizational behavior discipline.

(False) 6.

Organizational behavior matters because it analyzes what you care about, what employers care about, and what organizations care about.

(True) 7.

Successful organizations tend to limit the amount of information shared by maintaining a centralized structure.

(False) 8.

Research shows that those organizations that are more effective limit the amount of feedback they provide employees, limit the amount of information shared, and allow roles to be ambiguous.

(False) 9.

Those firms that are categorized as successful tend to pay employees well, train employees, and reduce status differences.

(True) 10.

Financially there is little incentive to attain a higher level degree.

(False) 11. The unemployment rate decreases as the level of education attained increases. (True) 12.

In general, the more training you have, the more financial success you will achieve.

(True) 13.

Journaling is a technique that helps you chart your progress as you learn new skills.

(True) 14. The discipline of organizational behavior is simply common sense. (False) 15.

Michael is an auditory learner. He prefers to learn by actually doing things and from trial and error.

(False) 16.

A kinesthetic (tactile) learner is very likely to avoid taking once a week classes as they require too much sitting and listening time.

(True) 17.

Close-ended survey questions can be very time consuming to summarize and very hard to interpret.

(False) 18.

Glen is interested in finding out how effective a new incentive program might be in an organization. He chooses two departments to focus on in a company. One department works under the incentive program, one does not. This is an experimental design study.

(True) 19.

A primary criticism of case studies is that the results of one organization may not be generalizable to other situations and organizations.

(True) 20.

Meta-analysis has shown that the relationship between job satisfaction and job performance is moderately strong.

(True) 21.

Reliability refers to consistency of measurement, while validity assesses whether the measurement accurately captures what it was intended to measure.

(True) 22. Most of management research addresses causation. (False)

23.

The federal government passed the Sarbanes-Oxley Act as a long-term solution to dealing with unethical behavior.

(False) 24. Employee engagement has a significant impact on the corporate bottom line. (True) 25.

Research by Gallup indicates that only 20% of employees are disengaged from their organization.

(False) 26. Moore’s Law suggests that computing power doubles every two years. (True) 27.

Because of information overload, some organizations, like Intel, have introduced “No e-mail Fridays” as a way to address the issue.

(True) 28.

Access to information has led to an increase in innovation and a “flattening of the world.”

(True) 29.

The triple bottom line refers to evaluating organizations against the three performance criteria of social viability, economic viability, and demographic viability.

(False) 30.

One of the major challenges facing organizations today is how to reconcile the accountability publicly owned firms have in generating wealth for shareholders while attending to the triple bottom line.

(True) 31. In general terms, the American workforce is growing younger. (False) 32.

Outsourcing is becoming an increasingly common practice in many organizations.

(True) 33.

A “shamrock organization” is comprised of one-third regular employees, one-third temporary employees, and one-third consultants and contractors.

(True) 34.

Offshoring and the development of a shamrock organization structure challenges organizational behavior to manage teams made up of employees separated by culture, language, time and space.

(True) 35.

A primary challenge to be addressed by organizational behavior is managing people of different generations who have different values with regard to teamwork, rewards, and work-life balance.

(True) 36.

Organizational behavior provides organizations the tools to address the technological, societal, and cultural issues arising today and create an environment that is mutually beneficial to the firm and its employees.

(True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Employee Engagement in Organizational Change Toward B Corp Status: The Case of Townshend’s Tea Company 37.

(a) 38.

(a) 40.

(a)

*The Townshend Tea Company attributes its quality product to a. having a trusted partner from whom to source their tea. b. greenhouses that grow the product in bulk. c. finding the product in unique areas and paying very little for it. d. owning its own tea farms. Easy/Knowledge *A company operating as a B Corp is for-profit, but has chosen to a. donate over 50% of its profits to charity. b. hire at least 50% of its work force from the welfare roles. c. meet rigorous standards of social and environmental performance, accountability, and transparency. d. meet rigorous standards of employee income equality. Moderate/Comprehension *When Townshend’s fell short of meeting the requirements for B Corp status, it proceeded to a. convene a self-selected team of employees to analyze how to improve Townshend in the areas of governance, workers, community, and environment. b. file for LLC status c. assign four managers to analyze how to improve Townshend in the areas of governance, workers, community, and environment. d. seek to become a non-profit corporation Moderate/Comprehension *The environmental subcommittee for the project eventually developed a a. standard for the sustainable procurement of goods b. internal recycling plan c. list of sustainable alternatives d. permanent committee for environmental concerns Moderate/Comprehension

Section I: Understanding Organizational Behavior 41.

(d) 43.

(b) 44.

(b)

According to the authors of Organizational Behavior, a company’s greatest asset is a. its product. b. its financial resources. c. its people. d. its location. Easy/Knowledge Maurice is enrolled in a career development class at his university. Which of the following statements best reflects important themes in the course? a. All students have common experiences and capabilities so an organization’s career development activities should look the same for everyone. b. Learn as much as you can in as many areas as you can in college because you will not learn much more throughout your worklife. c. Once individuals choose their first job and the organization in which they work, they make very few changes in either throughout the rest of their worklives; so choose carefully. d. Career paths will look different for different people, so it’s best to focus on transferrable skills, such as the ability to diagnose situations, ask tough questions, evaluate answers, and act in effective and ethical manners. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is a key level of analysis investigated in Organizational Behavior a. industry. b. individual. c. meta. d. society. Easy/Knowledge The systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work is a. clinical psychology. b. organizational behavior. c. sociology. d. economics. Easy/Knowledge

45.

(d) 46.

(b) 47.

(b) 48.

(a) 49.

(c)

Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary field that draws on all of the following areas except: a. psychology. b. sociology. c. economics. d. all of the above. Easy/Recall Which of the following best describes how psychology can be applied to enhance our understanding of organizational behavior? a. Psychology is primarily focused on society, so it helps us understand how organizations influence the world we live in. b. Psychology is primarily focused on individuals, so it helps us understand how the work environment impacts employees’ experiences and behavior. c. Psychology is primarily focused on group processes, so it helps us understand how teams of employees interact with one another. d. Psychology is primarily focused on systems, so it helps us understand how organizations impact other organizations. Difficult/Synthesis Organizational behavior is: a. common sense. b. a systematic approach to understanding human behavior. c. only relevant for large businesses. d. most important for executives. Medium/Comprehension Organizational behavior draws heavily on personality and motivation studies from what other discipline? a. Psychology b. Physiology c. Economics d. Political Science Easy/Comprehension Work on decision making has been conducted in what area? a. Anthropology b. Humanities c. Economics d. Philosophy Easy/Comprehension

50.

(a) 51.

(b) 53.

(d)

Work on team processes has been carried out in what area? a. Sociology b. Finance c. Economics d. Physics Easy/Comprehension During the first day of an organizational behavior class at your university, the instructor tells the students that during the term they will learn all of the following EXCEPT: a. How to work effectively on team projects. b. How to make more effective decisions about their academic and social lives. c. How different organizations interact with each other. d. How to cope with the stress of finals week. Easy/Comprehension A recent National Association of Colleges and Employers survey indicated all of the following are important skills for evaluating job candidates EXCEPT: a. Ability to verbally communicate. b. Ability to dress the part. c. Ability to work in a team structure. d. Ability to analyze data. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is accurate according to organizational behavior research? a. Successful companies are more centralized. b. Successful companies emphasize the status differences between their employees. c. Successful companies have very simple and informal hiring systems. d. Successful companies treat their employees well. Easy/Knowledge

54.

(d) 55.

(d) 56.

(a) 57.

(d)

Which of the following is likely to help produce an effective organization? a. A firm that controls its labor costs by limiting training opportunities to only a few employees. b. A firm that maintains two separate cafeterias for employees; one for executives and managers and one for everyone else. c. A firm where information is shared on a “need-only” basis. d. A firm that employs selective hiring practices. Difficult/Evaluation Research indicates that all of the following characteristics produce healthy organizations EXCEPT: a. reducing status differences. b. participative decision making. c. information sharing. d. limited feedback. Medium/Analysis Rosario is examining a summary chart on four firms’ organizational characteristics. She feels which of the organizations below is most likely to have the greatest chance to be successful in the next year? a. Organization A uses self-managed teams, pays its workers a little above the average for the industry and has regular “state of the business meetings.” b. Organization B has a pay policy that matches the industry average for each job category, maintains special parking, cafeteria, and restroom facilities for its managers, and conducts performance appraisals every two years. c. Organization C has gone through regular quarterly lay-offs the last few quarters, established a policy last month where all decisions involving the expenditure of fifty dollars or more must be approved by two managers and has temporarily suspended all performance evaluations for the year. d. Organization D maintains a training program that is very selective with regard to employee involvement. They recently instituted a large-scale job flexibility program that “blurs” the lines between job duties and passed a strict pay secrecy policy last month. Difficult/Synthesis Research indicates that effective organizations tend to a. centralize their entire decision making. b. have a very large differential in pay between the lowest paid employee and the CEO. c. hire the first person available for any job opening. d. provide training and other developmental opportunities to employees. Medium/Application

Unemployment and Earnings for Workers 25 and older by Educational Attainment, 2017 Unemployment Rate Educational Degree Median Weekly Earnings (Percent) (U.S. Dollars) 1.5 Doctoral Degree 1,743 1.5 Professional Degree 1,836 2.2 Master’s Degree 1,401 2.5 Bachelor’s Degree 1,173 3.4 Associate’s Degree 836 4.0 Some College 774 4.6 High School Diploma 712 6.5 Some High School 520 58.

The information on the preceding table indicates a. the higher the educational level, the higher the pay. b. there is a negative return to investment in education. c. the level of educational degree does not matter, it is whether you have a degree or not. d. unemployment rates increases as you increase educational attainment level. (a) Difficult/Evaluation

(a) 60.

Which is likely, given the data in the preceding table? a. The more training an individual has, the more financial success he enjoys. b. There is a negative financial return to higher-level degree attainment. c. Unemployment levels increase as educational level increases. d. Financially, there is little incentive to achieve a higher-level degree. Difficult/Synthesis Tom Peters, management expert, suggests individuals think of themselves like a brand to be managed. Such brand management might include all of the following actions EXCEPT: a. Appreciate new technology. b. Avoid uncertainty. c. Master something. d. Network.

(b) 61.

(d) 62.

(d) 63.

(b) 65.

Medium/Comprehension To be effective in keeping up your skill set in the future, make sure to a. purchase and use every new technological gadget that comes out on the market. b. make as many connections as you can on Facebook, MySpace or LinkedIn. c. avoid change as much as you can. d. excel at something so it sets you apart. Difficult/Synthesis Journaling is an effective developmental technique. Which of the following is true about the process of journaling? a. Writing your thoughts down increases your stress level as you re-live the events you write about. b. Thinking about your day is as effective as writing it down. c. You must write down your thoughts a minimum of 30 minutes a day to derive any benefits from the process. d. Tracking changes in yourself can be motivating. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is accurate according to Organizational Behavior research? a. We all have excellent perception and readily attend to those things we should. b. We all understand and use the logical approach to decision making. c. People perform better if goals are difficult rather than easy. d. Brainstorming in a group is more effective than brainstorming alone. Difficult/Synthesis *Identify this executive, who realized the value of people in the organization, delivering this quote: “Innovation has nothing to do with how many R&D dollars you have. It’s not about money. It’s about the people you have, how you’re led, and how much you get it.” a. Mary Kay Ash b. Steve Jobs c. Warren Buffet d. Bill Gates Easy/Knowledge *What is the common denominator of how work is accomplished within organizations? a. money b. time c. people d. executive leadership Easy/Knowledge *Stress and how it affects individuals is related to _____ and its contributions to organizational behavior.

a. b. c. d. (d) 67.

(a)

finance economics sociology medical science Easy/Knowledge

*Five key personal qualities or skills were identified through a survey with the National Association of Colleges and Employers as critical for a. evaluating candidate for a job b. identifying committee members c. recruiting for college admissions d. selecting fraternity or sorority members Easy/Knowledge

Section II: Understanding Your Learning Style 68.

(a) 69.

(a) 70.

(b) 71.

A kinesthetic learner a. has a preference for doing things and learning by actively engaging with the material. b. retains information by reading and seeing diagrams and flow charts. c. learns primarily by listening to others. d. learns best by attending videotaped lectures. Easy/Knowledge Visual learners prefer to learn a. from reading and seeing diagrams. b. by doing things and learning by trial and error. c. based upon the circumstances of the situation. d. by listening to a lecture.. Easy/Knowledge An auditory learner has a preference for a. learning by taking tests. b. learning by by listening to others. c. learning by reading and seeing diagrams and graphs. d. learning through trial and error. Easy/Knowledge To facilitate his learning in a college course, a visual learner would prefer to a. join a study group. b. tape his professor’s lectures. c. take notes during class. d. avoid scheduling classes that meet for long time periods. Medium/Comprehension A(n) _____ learner is a student who prefers to take breaks during his study sessions and who to move around after reading a chapter in his textbook. . a. visual

b. c. d. (c) 73.

(d) 74.

(d) 75.

(b)

auditory kinesthetic (tactile) emotional Medium/Comprehension

Auditory learners have a preference for learning by a. drawing pictures to help them understand material. b. taking notes during lectures to force them to pay attention. c. using charts to summarize the main points of class material. d. recording lectures to refer back to them later. Medium/Comprehension *By using a combination of oral and visual modes in a presentation, the audience a. will probably be bored. b. tends to become overwhelmed with information. c. will typically only retain the part that is presented visually. d. has a better chance of improved retention than using only oral or visual modes. Medium/Comprehension *A good habit when attempting to learn something new is a. have the information presented to you in your learning style b. use a variety of learning styles and train yourself to be able to process information in different ways c. allow the presenter to use their preferred learning style d. use the learning style most opposite your preferred one Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Understanding How OB Research is Done 76.

(d) 77.

(b) 78.

(a)

Hypotheses are a. entities that take on different values. b. research tools that elicit respondents’ reactions to specific questions. c. the process of writing out thoughts and emotions on a regular basis. d. tentative guesses for expected observations that can be tested. Easy/Knowledge An entity that takes on different values is a. a hypothesis. b. a variable. c. a survey. d. a field study. Easy/Knowledge Research conducted in an actual organization and with real employees is a. a field study. b. a survey. c. a lab study. d. a meta-analytic study. Easy/Knowledge

79.

(b) 80.

(d) 81.

(d) 83.

(a)

Which of the following statements about surveys is INCORRECT? a. Either open-ended or close-ended questions can be used in surveys. b. Close-ended question responses are difficult to summarize. c. Surveys involve asking individuals to respond to questions. d. Many effective online survey tools are available free of charge. Medium/Comprehension Research that is conducted outside the workplace and performed under very controlled conditions is called a. a case study. b. a survey. c. a field study. d. a lab study. Easy/Comprehension A control group a. receives experimental manipulation. b. is an entity that can take on different values. c. receives no experimental manipulation. d. is a tentative guess on an observation that can be tested. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements about case studies is true? a. They involve a study conducted under controlled conditions. b. They offer the researcher a very simple and effective way to generalize what worked in a single situation to many other situations. c. They are a technique employed by researchers to summarize what other researchers found on a topic. d. They are a way to gather data and explain a single event or situation in detail. Medium/Analysis Marcus wants to thoroughly understand the issues that created the severe economic straits General Motors currently finds itself experiencing. He should consider what kind of a research study? a. A case study. b. A survey. c. A field study. d. A laboratory study. Medium/Application

84.

(a) 86.

One Big Ten University wanted to determine whether a Wellness Program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Liberal Arts department were invited to participate and received a $25 gift card to Best Buy for taking part in the program. Employees in the Engineering department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data was examined for both departments. The scenario described above represents which type of research study? a. A case study. b. A survey. c. An experimental field study. d. A laboratory study. Medium/Application One Big Ten University wanted to determine whether a Wellness Program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Liberal Arts department were invited to participate and received a $25 gift card to Best Buy for taking part in the program. Employees in the Engineering department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data was examined for both departments. In the scenario described above, the Liberal Arts school employees are a. the treatment group. b. the control group. c. the survey group. d. the case group. Medium/Application One Big Ten University wanted to determine whether a Wellness Program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Liberal Arts department were invited to participate and received a $25 gift card to Best Buy for taking part in the program. Employees in the Engineering department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data was examined for both departments.

The Engineering school employees, described in the scenario above, could be labeled the a. control group. b. treatment group. c. case group. d. survey group. (a) Medium/Application 87.

Meta-analysis is a. a study with a group that receives a treatment and a comparison group that receives no treatment. b. a study conducted in an actual organization.

c. d. (c) 88.

(d) 89.

(b) 90.

(a) 91.

(d) 92.

the process of summarizing research findings from studies on related topics. an in-depth analysis of a single industry or company. Easy/Knowledge

Validity is a. an entity that can take on different values. b. the consistency in measurement. c. the strength of the relationship between two variables. d. the degree to which a measure captures what it is intended to measure. Easy/Knowledge Natalia administered a test to a job candidate three different times. She is looking at the scores and sees that they are 85, 87 and 85 out of 100. She notes that the scores are fairly consistent. In other words, the test is a. valid. b. reliable. c. strong. d. relevant. Medium/Application In analyzing the data, the researcher notes that as employee absences increase, scores on performance evaluations decrease. This suggests a. there is a correlation between employee absenteeism and employee performance. b. employee absence causes poor performance. c. employee absence is a reliable measure. d. employee performance is a valid measure. Difficult/Application Datum refers to a. multiple observations. b. the consistency of a measure. c. the degree to which a measure captures what it is intended to measure. d. a single observation. Easy/Knowledge

(d)

The likelihood that findings in a given study would be found in another setting or study is known as a. reliability. b. validity. c. meta-analysis. d. generalizability. Easy/Knowledge

93.

*All of these are part of the four V’s of Big Data except a.

visibility

variety

veracity

d. (a) 94.

(b) 95.

(d) 96.

(b)

volume Easy/Knowledge

*Predictive analytics refers to a. using an approach to understand what has happened b. focusing on what is likely to happen c. determining what should be done in the future d. identifying what changes should happen Easy/Knowledge *An analytic approach that focuses on understanding what has happened in the past is a. descriptive analytics b. prescriptive analytics c. data analytics d. predictive analytics Easy/Knowledge *The size and complexity of information to be processed and analyzed is referred to as a. raw data b. big data c. analytical data d. quantitative data Medium/Analysis

Section IV: Trends and Challenges 97.

(a) 99.

Research indicates that the most important determinant of ethical behavior in an organization is a. the establishment of policies prohibiting unethical behavior. b. the passage of laws requiring ethical behavior. c. manager commitment to ethical behavior. d. the establishment of rules requiring greater accountability. Medium/Analysis An ethics audit would ask all the following questions of a firm EXCEPT: a. Do you make sure to hide any examples of unethical behavior so others do not repeat the behavior? b. Do you ensure that pay is equitable for all employees? c. Do you question whether employees are seeing any examples of unethical behavior occurring in the workplace? d. Do you ensure that daily decisions are assessed for ethical compliance? Medium/Application Trends in all of the following areas represent challenges for organizational behavior EXCEPT: a. Increasing technological innovation. b. Increasing employee engagement. c. Increasing access to information.

d. (b) 100.

(a) 101.

(a) 102.

(b)

Increasing attention to sustainable business practices. Medium/Application

The triple bottom line refers to evaluating an organization on all of the following performance criteria EXCEPT: a. Demographic. b. Economic. c. Social. d. Environmental. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to trends that organizational behavior is addressing? a. The workforce is getting younger and thus their integration into most organizations will be seamless. b. Organizations will likely become “shamrock-shaped” in the future. c. The world is “flattening” so information access is increasing. d. Outsourcing is becoming a way of life in many organizations. Medium/Application A shamrock organization a. prevents flexible staffing in an organization. b. is comprised of one-third regular employees, one-third temporary employees, and one-third offshore employees. c. is the current structure of most organizations in the United States. d. increases full-time employment rates in the overall economy. Difficult/Analysis

103.

(b) 104.

(b) 105.

(a) 106.

(b) 107.

(c)

Offshoring is a. asking an outside organization to perform functions that could have been performed within the organization. b. the movement of a business practice from one country to another country. c. purchasing a firm from a foreign country. d. most prevalent in the auto industry. Easy/Comprehension In analyzing trends that present challenges for organizational behavior, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Outsourcing offshore presents a challenge managing teams of different nationalities and culture. b. A flattening world creates an uneven playing field with regard to information access. c. Sustainable business practices are those that meet present needs without compromising the needs of future generations. d. “Moore’s Law” suggests that computing power doubles every two years. Difficult/Synthesis *The control an individual has over their own online information collection, storage, and reporting is a. data privacy b. online permissions c. ethical data d. flatworld sourcing Easy/Comprehension *How a company manages your data and respects your privacy is a(n) _____ decision. a. investor b. ethical c. human resources d. accounting Difficult/Synthesis *As a way to identify trust factors for information, Santa Clara University helped to establish The Trust Project, which recommends all of these practices EXCEPT: a. checking the source of the information b. know what you are reading-differentiate between opinion and fact c. only read information from the same source d. know who wrote the story and their expertise Medium/Application Closing Section:

108.

*At Les Schwab Tire Centers, Inc., the founder built a corporate culture based on

a. b. c. d. (b) 109.

(a) 110.

(d) 111.

(b)

low prices excellent customer service big dividends to shareholders tax incentives from the town where the business is located Easy/Comprehension

*Schwab used a profit sharing plan to a. maintain job satisfaction b. keeps his investors happy c. reward only the sales team d. reward only the mechanics Easy/Comprehension *The new management team at Les Schwab Tire Centers, Inc. appears to be changing from a customer service focus to a a. environmental focus b. job generating focus c. employee-ownership focus d. administrative focus Medium/Comprehension *Which of these management eras was most like the Les Schwab era? a. Dick Borgman era b. G. Phillip Wick era c. Jack Cuniff era d. Jeremiah Cook era Easy/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 112.

*_____ are for-profit companies which seek to use the power of the markets to help environmental and social issues while maintaining rigorous standards of transparency, accountability, and social and environmental performance. (B Corps) 113. *Townshend’s Tea Company has created a corporate culture of _____ practices. (sustainable and fair) 114.

Because it is likely that U.S. employees will change jobs 12 times in their career, employees should be ___________ learners and continually upgrade their skill set.

(life-long) 115.

The systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work is called ________ _____________. (organizational behavior)

116.

The three key levels of analysis in organizational behavior are ________, _______________ and _________________. (individuals, groups, organizations) 117.

Maurice is trying to understand why Mary agrees with him about the cost of the manufacturing program when he talks with her on the phone, but is vehemently opposed when they are in a department meeting. Maurice needs to analyze this issue at the ____________ level. (group) 118.

Nancy is the new employee and Maureen has decided to talk to her about the dress policy in the firm, the manner in which expense reports are filled out, the employees that tend to sit together at lunch, and various other related issues. Maureen is offering a look at the company’s culture that is at the ______________ level of analysis. (organization) 119.

Effective organizations feature role __________, information sharing and performance feedback.

(clarity) 120.

In general, as level of degree attainment increases, the unemployment rate __________. (decreases) 121. In general, the higher the ________, the more money you will make. (degree you attain) 122.

_____________ is the process of writing out thoughts and emotions on a regular basis. (Journaling) 123.

If you prefer to learn by lectures, conversations and videos, you are a(n) __________ learner.

(auditory) 124.

A(n) ________ learner draws pictures and diagrams and summarizes main points by using charts to help him understand material.

(visual) 125. *Learners who participate _____, by demonstrating, practicing or through a group discussion, typically have a higher retention rate. (actively) 126. ________ are tentative guesses on an expected observation that can be tested. (Hypotheses) 127.

In an experimental design, the group that receives no experimental manipulation is called the __________ group.

(control)

128.

The statistical technique used by researchers to summarize what other researchers have found on a given topic is called __________. (meta-analysis) 129. __________ is to accuracy in measurement, as ___________ is to consistency in measurement. (Validity, reliability) 130. ______________ refers to a relationship between two variables. (Correlation) 131. A single observation is ________, multiple observations are ________. (datum, data) 132.

Maria wonders what the emotional impact of all the downsizing in the auto industry is on the employees. She has made arrangements to interview a dozen employees who have just been downsized from Ford Motor Company. Maria is conducting a ______ _______. (field study) 133.

The downside of a ______ __________ is that it may not be generalizable from one situation to other situations and organizations. (case study) 134.

As job satisfaction increases, so does job performance. This is an example of the ________ between two variables. (correlation) 135. *The veracity, volume, velocity, and variety of information is referred to as _____. (big data) 136. *The three approaches to analytics refer to descriptive, _____, and prescriptive analytics. (predictive) 137. Applying ethical principles to situations that arise at work is _________ ___________. (business ethics) 138.

Alexander is enthused about his firm and consistently uses his talents to further the organization’s success. Alexander is an example of a(n) _____________ employee.

(engaged) 139. __________ _________ says computing power doubles every two years. (Moore’s law) 140.

The triple bottom line refers to evaluating organizations against the three performance criteria of __________, ___________, and ___________ viability. (economic, social and environmental)

141.

Because Wal-Mart is concerned about _________ ________ practices, it is pressuring suppliers to produce compact fluorescent light bulbs and has required all suppliers to make packages smaller. (sustainable business) 142.

The American workforce is _______, which will create opportunities for industries like health care but, at the same time, will create challenges for industries dedicated to basic infrastructure.

(aging) 143.

*While information has become more readily available to more individuals across the globe, there is a major challenge in evaluating the ______ of the information.

(quality) 144.

The ______ ________ is an organization comprised of one-third regular employees, one-third temporary employees and one-third consultants or contractors. (shamrock organization) SHORT ANSWERS 145.

Briefly indicate the manner in which organizational behavior can help you deal with the fact that, on average, you are likely to change jobs12 times in your career. The number of job changes the average student will go through makes it necessary for all employees to be life-long learners. Organizational behavior will help develop critical thinking skills that will help you diagnose situations, ask tough questions, evaluate the resulting answers and act in an effective and ethical manner regardless of situational characteristics.

146.

Identify each of the levels of analysis in organizational behavior and give an example of each. The first level is that of the individual. When I am examining my personality to assess how I handle ambiguity and how flexible I am, I am using individual analysis. The second level is the group level. When I look at how my decision on a topic changes because of who I am working with on a project, I am performing group analysis. Finally, the third level is the organization level. When I look at the dress policy of my company and how it impacts what I wear to work on a daily basis, I am performing organization analysis.

147.

*Write a brief description of why journaling is beneficial and the best practices to follow. Journaling can have health benefits by lowering your blood pressure, heart rate, and stress levels. It’s more accurate to write down information and then review it at a later time rather than just relying on memories.

Good journaling habits include setting up a way to make entries on a regular basis and set a goal for number of daily entries. You should write for at least 10 minutes, 20 if you can. Be clear and specific, but share your emotions. Review the entries weekly and see what changes you think you want to make in your life.

148.

Kunal will be serving as a student teacher in a local school district next term. You are meeting with him this afternoon and want to make certain he recognizes that there are three general learning style preferences that students exhibit. Name and describe those three types of learners. A visual learner is one who prefers to learn by reading and seeing diagrams and flow charts. An auditory learner is one who prefers to learn by listening to others such as in lectures, conversations and videos. A kinesthetic learner is one who has a preference for doing things and learning from trial and error.

149.

Discuss the different kinds of questions a researcher could include on a survey. Researchers use both open- and close-ended questions. Close-ended questions are those that have a series of responses supplied by the researcher. The study participant chooses the response that most closely matches his position. Open-ended questions have no responses offered, leaving it up to the survey participant to supply responses.

150.

What is the difference between a control group and a treatment group? In a study employing an experimental design, the control group is the group that does not receive any experimental manipulation, while a treatment group is the group that does receive the experimental manipulation. A comparison between the two groups indicates the impact the treatment had in the study.

151.

What is a meta-analysis? A meta-analysis is a technique used by researchers to summarize what other researchers have found on a given topic. The analysis is based on taking observed correlations from multiple studies, weighing them by the number of observations in each study, and finding out if the overall effect holds or not.

152.

Describe the difference between reliability and validity. Reliability is the consistency in a measurement. Validity is the truth of the measurement or whether you are measuring what you intended to measure.

153.

Differentiate between a causal and a correlational relationship. A causal relationship is one in which one variable, event or situation causes a second variable, event or situation to occur. For example, individuals in asbestos-insulated buildings often contract cancer, and asbestos has been shown to be a carcinogen. Thus, asbestos causes cancer. A correlational relationship is one in which the strength of the relationship between two variables is measured. For example, research indicates that as job satisfaction increases, so does job performance. Job satisfaction does not cause job performance, it simply increases it.

154.

Define the concept of triple bottom line. A triple bottom line is evaluating organizations against three performance criteria including economic, social and environmental viability. Wal-Mart, for example, looked at the impact packaging for its products had on its costs, on the environment and on its customers. Its findings led to the chain’s requirements for all suppliers to make smaller packages.

155.

What is a “shamrock organization”? A shamrock organization is comprised of one-third regular employees, one-third temporary employees and one-third consultants and contractors. This type of organization presents a challenge to the organization in managing employees of different cultures in different time zones.

ESSAY 156.

Define organizational behavior and discuss some of the other disciplines from which it draws to create its theories and models. Organizational behavior is the systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work. OB is rooted in such disciplines as political science (power and influence), medical science (stress and its impact), sociology (team processes), and psychology (personality and motivation).

157.

Renaldo is choosing his classes for next term at State University. His advisor suggests he take Organizational Behavior. Renaldo says, “Why would I take that class? It’s all common sense anyway.” Take the role of his advisor and sell Renaldo on the value of the course. Organizational behavior matters because of all the things individuals, employers and organizations care about. You care about getting a good job, making better

decisions and keeping your stress level as low as possible. Each of these topics is discussed in the course. Employers care about OB because it prepares employees to be better communicators, enhances their interpersonal skills and enhances a strong work ethic. Organizations care about OB because time and time again it has been found that people make the organization. To learn how to help yourself, your group and your organization, take OB. Now you may say that OB is all common sense, but research continually indicates to us that individuals have faulty memories and that their perceptions do not always match reality. The study of OB addresses all these concerns and assists us in being better employees who are more satisfied and productive. If a course assists you in all these ways, doesn’t it seem like it’s worth taking? 158.

Counsel a newly hired, 22-year-old man on keeping up with his skill set. The world is a much more dynamic place today than it has ever been before. In fact, the one constant in life is change. With change come new demands, so the best way to meet that challenge is to become a life-long learner. Life-long learners keep their skill set fresh. It is suggested that every 6 years your portfolio of skills should be revolutionized. With so many accomplished individuals with whom you are competing, it is imperative that you master some skill that will set you apart from the others. Recognize that with change comes uncertainty and ambiguity. Don’t run from either. Approach the novel situation as an opportunity. Network, network, network. But, recognize that effective networkers are not those who simply have the most “friends” on Facebook or MySpace. Quality trumps quantity any day. Finally, appreciate the new technology. You don’t have to buy every new gadget that comes out, but do keep up with what is new and how it might impact you.

159.

You are an instructor in an organizational behavior course. Discuss how you would prepare a lesson on motivation that would be equally effective for all students in the class whether they are auditory, kinesthetic or visual learners. A motivation lesson might begin with a PowerPoint presentation where the concept of motivation is defined and the types of motivation theories are presented. The PowerPoint presentation might be handed out to the students prior to the presentation so that students can take notes on those handouts. The use of PowerPoint slides, which feature diagrams and notes on motivation concepts and theories, satisfies the visual learner and to some extent, the kinesthetic learners. Since the instructor is talking about each slide and the

information on it, and perhaps giving examples of events from actual firms that underscore that information, an auditory learner will also be satisfied. Following the presentation of basic background information on the subject through the use of the PowerPoint slides, an experiential exercise could be completed wherein participants would role-play scenarios between a boss and his subordinates whom he is working to motivate. Again, the kinesthetic learner will be learning because of the opportunity to participate in the exercise and actually carry out the motivational approaches. Because all of the audience will be exposed to all the learning styles, it will also help them to become better at learning to process information in different ways. 160.

Describe a field study that Meredith could carry out in a 20-person customer service department of a firm to assess the impact a monetary bonus has on the speed with which a task is completed. The researcher could conduct a field study using an experimental design to address this scenario. First divide the department into two groups. One group will be the control group and will not be subjected to any experimental manipulation and will continue to perform its job exactly as it has in the past. The second group will be the treatment group. This group will receive the monetary bonus. Next decide on the monetary bonus. For purposes of this experiment, we will use a $5 gift certificate as the bonus. Next, determine the standards in place that will measure performance. In this scenario, the job is to handle incoming customer phone calls, some positive, some negative. The former standard of performance was to complete each phone call in 12 minutes. The new standard is to complete each call in 10 minutes. All customer service representatives are required to meet the new standard. For the treatment group however, every time a representative does complete a phone call in ten minutes or less, he will receive a gift card. Those in the control group have the new standard but they have no card provided them for calls less than or equal to the 10-minute mark. When comparing the results of the experiment, see how many more calls make the standard established in the treatment group compared to the control group. If there are a higher number of calls in the treatment group than the control group, you have established that the bonus card system is an effective incentive.

161.

What are some of the key trends that produce challenges and opportunities for organizational behavior? In light of the scandals of Wells Fargo, Enron, Facebook and WorldCom, a judgment has to be made on the ethical behavior exhibited in the American workplace. The seemingly endless announcements of unethical behavior represent a challenge to firms as to how to encourage and sustain ethical behavior.

Online data privacy is a concern for individuals, and for the companies that capture this data. Governments are starting to regulate how companies manage data. Technology has transformed the way that work is completed and represents a challenge because of the speed with which that technology advances. The opportunity from this trend, however, is the fact that access to information is very open now and the playing field has been leveled. Determining the quality and accuracy of information in this fast-paced environment can prove very difficult. Companies are beginning to examine their practices not just for greater profitability, but also for greater sustainability. It is of great interest to many firms that the environment is turned over to our future generations in a condition that will not only sustain our children but allow them to grow and prosper. The workforce in America is an aging one. While that represents many work opportunities for young people who will replace retirees, it also threatens many firms as the retirees take with them knowledge which is so vital to the continued growth and development of the firm. The increasing globalization of business, with the regular practice of outsourcing and offshoring to address labor costs, represents challenges of culture integration and acceptance.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 2 Diversity in the Workplace TRUE/FALSE 1.

While the American workforce is becoming more diverse, the world’s workforce is not.

(False) 2.

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in employment with regard to race, color, sex, religion and national origin.

(True) 3.

Legal complaints charging organizations with discrimination have largely been eliminated due to the passage of a number of laws in the U.S. prohibiting discrimination against protected classes.

(False) 4.

A more diverse work team produces higher quality decisions because more alternatives are considered.

(True) 5.

Employees who are discriminated against are no more likely to leave their jobs than those who have not faced discrimination.

(False) 6.

When discrimination complaints are filed, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) acts as a mediator between the company and the complainant.

(True) 7.

In firms pursuing a growth strategy, there is a negative relationship between racial diversity in the firm and company performance.

(False) 8.

The similarity/attraction phenomenon suggests that individuals are attracted to those who are similar to them.

(True) 9. Race, age, and attitudes are examples of surface-level diversity. (False) 10.

Deep-level diversity traits are most important for early interactions in the workplace, but as time goes on, surface-level traits become more important.

(False) 11.

A group with three older males and three younger women will have a strong faultline.

(True) 12.

Research indicates that groups with strong faultlines can perform well if certain norms are established.

(True) 13.

It is a commonly held stereotype that men are more relationship-oriented than women.

(False) 14.

One of the explanations for the wage gap between men and women is that women pursue occupations that are lower-paying than those pursued by men.

(True) 15.

Though the glass ceiling was a legitimate issue a few years ago, today the number of women in executive positions of organizations is roughly the same as the number of men at that level.

(False) 16.

One rationale provided for the existence of the glass ceiling for women is that women are viewed as being more passive and submissive compared to their male counterparts.

(True) 17.

Ethnic minorities experience a wage gap and a glass ceiling even more severe than that faced by women.

(True) 18.

Starbucks responded to a racially-sensitive incident at one of its stores by shutting down all its franchise-owned stores for a training on unconscious bias. (True)

19.

Research indicates that older employees exhibit higher absenteeism than their younger counterparts.

(False) 20.

The Age Discrimination Act makes it illegal to discriminate against employees age 40 or older.

(True) 21.

Research suggests that age diversity in a work team can lead to higher performance.

(True) 22.

Reasonable accommodation for religious reasons does not require schedule modifications although it may require modifications to a firm’s dress code.

(False) 23.

Reasonable accommodation for employees with disabilities may require the firm to purchase equipment for the disabled employees’ use but does not require any schedule or job duty modifications.

(False) 24.

Disclosing sexual orientation is the key to explaining work attitudes of lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender employees.

(False) 25.

To break the ice in an interview situation, an interviewer could legally ask, “What are some of the traditions your family practices for Christmas”?

(False) 26.

One suggestion for building a culture that respects diversity is holding managers accountable for diversity-related goals.

(True) 27.

Affirmative action programs are among the most controversial diversity management methods available.

(True) 28. Preferential treatment programs for minorities can be illegal in some cases. (True) 29.

Research suggests that some employees may be stigmatized if they were hired under an affirmative action program.

(True) 30. In the United States, the workforce is becoming increasingly multicultural. (True) 31.

An expatriate is an employee who is temporarily assigned to work in a foreign country.

(True) 32.

Low power distance societies view an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable.

(False) 33.

Companies high in uncertainty avoidance prefer predictable situations and have low tolerance for ambiguity.

(True) 34.

In collectivist cultures, the importance of family is critical to understanding the nature of the society.

(True)

35.

In high power distance companies, participative decision making is common practice.

(False) 36.

Nurturing (feminine) cultures are more likely to be characterized by a separation of gender roles than aggressive (masculine) cultures.

(False) 37.

Developing an openness to different experiences is a viable method to prepare oneself for a global career.

(True) 38.

To enhance their cultural intelligence, employees should become experts in one culture.

(False) 39. Ethnocentrism is the belief that one’s own culture is superior to other cultures. (True) 40.

Ethical standards held in different societies may emphasize different behaviors as ethical or unethical.

(True) 41. Managing diversity effectively may have different meanings in different cultures. (True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: 41. of

(a) 42.

(d) 43.

*The 1-1-1 system at Salesforce is a plan to give back 1% back to the community a. employee hours, equity, and products b. building space, equity, and products c. employee hours, building space, and socks d. recyclables, products, and office furniture Easy/Knowledge *Rather than using the term diversity, Salesforce uses a. parallelism b. fundamentals c. universal d. equality Easy/Knowledge *The goal of the Employee Resource Groups at Salesforce is a. to analyze whom to hire b. to have an inclusive environment so employees can bring their whole selves to work

(b) 44.

(d) 45.

(d) 47.

(b)

c. to identify gaps in workforce hiring d. to offer help with issues outside of work Medium/Comprehension *To ensure inclusion and equality, Salesforce does all of these except a. take action b. identify areas for improvement c. collect data to assess the status quo d. bring in outside HR consultants Easy/Knowledge *Between their adjustments in 2015 and 2017, how much has Salesforce spent to correct gaps in pay at the company? a. $3 million b. $9 million c. $6 million d. $12 million Easy/Knowledge *Which of these are NOT an example of a program Salesforce offers as part of its inclusive culture? a. Coding workshops for girls b. Leadership programs c. Annual equality award d. Embedding employees in other countries to immerse them in the culture Medium/Comprehension At Salesforce, the Employee Resource Groups are referred to as a. cliques b. ohanas c. cohorts d. clubs Easy/Knowledge

Section I: Demographic Diversity 48.

(b) 49.

(d)

The ways in which people are similar or different from one another is a. culture. b. diversity. c. stereotypes. d. faultlines. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following laws prohibits discrimination based on race, color, sex or national origin? a. Age Discrimination Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Family and Medical Leave Act d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act Easy/Comprehension

50.

(b) 52.

(a) 53.

(d) 55.

(b) 56.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of effective management of diversity? a. Greater creativity in decision making. b. Better service to customers. c. Higher productivity of operations. d. More satisfied workers. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements on the benefits of effective management of diversity is INCORRECT? a. Diverse workforces lead to higher-quality decisions. b. Diverse workforces create cheaper products. c. Diverse workforces lead to lower litigation costs. d. Diverse workforces have led to higher stock prices for firms. Difficult/Synthesis Research on diversity in the workplace substantiated all of the following benefits to firms EXCEPT: a. The presence of faultlines increases cohesiveness at work. b. Award-winning diversity management programs lead to higher stock prices for their companies. c. In companies with a growth strategy, there is a positive correlation between diversity in the firm and company performance. d. Diverse teams make higher quality decisions. Difficult/Comprehension The similarity/attraction phenomenon may explain which of the following? a. Minorities are hired as often as their Caucasian counterparts. b. Individuals with disabilities are hired as often as those without disabilities. c. Women do not earn salaries as high as that of their male counterparts. d. Women and men have equal access to mentoring opportunities. Medium/Evaluation Demographic traits make up a part of a. deep-level diversity. b. cultural diversity. c. collective diversity. d. surface-level diversity. Easy/Knowledge Surface-level diversity traits include a. values. b. gender. c. attitudes. d. beliefs. Easy/Knowledge Deep-level diversity traits include a. gender.

(d) 58.

(a) 60.

(a) 61.

(b) 62.

b. age. c. attitudes. d. race. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a surface-level diversity trait? a. Aggressiveness b. Type A personality c. Being smart d. Being Asian Easy/Application Which of the following is a deep-level diversity trait? a. Middle-aged b. Caucasian c. Aggressiveness d. Amputee Medium/Application Our first interaction with individuals makes us aware of a. Surface-level diversity. b. collective diversity. c. deep-level diversity. d. value-based diversity. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the similarity/attraction phenomenon is INCORRECT? a. Surface-level traits affect interpersonal interactions only after people have known each other for a long time. b. Early in an employee’s tenure, age, race and gender dissimilarity with colleagues are strong predictors of turnover. c. Employees who feel different from other employees in a firm may feel isolated. d. Surface-level traits are attended to because they are assumed to be related to deep-level diversity traits. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following approaches might be used to manage the similarity/attraction phenomenon in an organization? a. Allow new employees to decide for themselves who they work best with. b. Provide management training programs that make managers aware of the similarity/attraction phenomenon. c. Develop a recruiting program based upon peer referrals. d. Match new employees to mentors that are similar in terms of race, gender, or tenure. Difficult/Evaluation A faultline is a. an attribute along which a group is split into subgroups.

(a) 63.

(b) 64.

(b) 67.

b. a generalization about a particular group of people. c. the way in which people are similar or different from each other. d. the values, beliefs and customs that exist in a society. Easy/knowledge A workgroup has three Caucasian males and three African American females. How would you categorize the faultline in this group? a. There is no faultline in the group. b. There will be a strong faultline in the group. c. There will be a weak faultline in the group. d. There will be a faultline of medium strength in the group. Medium/Application If a workgroup contained three males, one over 55, one 20 and another 30 years of age, and three females, one 50 years of age, one 30 and one 20 years of age, how would you categorize the faultlines in the group? a. There is no faultline in the group. b. There will be a strong faultline in the group. c. There will be a weak faultline within the group. d. There will be a faultline of medium strength in the group. Difficult/Application Research indicates that groups with faultlines exhibit which of the following characteristics? a. Teams with faultlines make more effective decisions. b. Teams with strong faultlines are more creative. c. Teams with strong faultlines have the potential to perform well if they can establish certain norms. d. Teams with weak faultlines are more creative Medium/Analysis A stereotype is a. an attribute along which a group is split into subgroups. b. a generalization about a particular group of people. c. a way in which people are similar or different from each other. d. a difference in values, attitudes or beliefs. Easy/Knowledge “Eskimos are bad drivers,” is an example of a a. surface-level diversity trait. b. faultline. c. stereotype. d. deep-level diversity trait. Medium/Application Stereotypes a. often lead to unfair decisions being made. b. are never accurate descriptions of particular groups. c. are assumptions held by only one individual. d. are often verified prior to making decisions based upon them.

(a)

Medium/Analysis

69.

The faculty of a Midwestern business school is comprised of 33 males and 4 females. The past five candidates hired have all been male. There seems to be a (an)__________ diversity issue in this workplace. a. age b. race c. religion d. gender Easy/Application

(d) 70.

(a) 72.

(b) 73.

(a)

Gender discrimination is prohibited by which of the following laws? a. Age Discrimination Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act d. Occupational Safety and Health Act Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is NOT an explanation that has been offered to account for the earnings gap of 19% between females and males? a. Women lack the high-level skill sets that men possess. b. Women have résumé gaps due to time off for childcare. c. Women more often pursue lower-paying occupations than men pursue. d. Women tend to negotiate less than men and when they do negotiate, women attain lower levels of pay than men do. Medium/Analysis The glass ceiling a. is based on a faultline in the employee workgroup. b. is the underrepresentation of women and minorities in executive and upper level management positions of companies. c. is an issue that was a problem until a decade ago. d. is the result of the less effective leadership styles practiced by women. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the explanations for the glass ceiling is INCORRECT? a. The glass ceiling may exist for women because they lack the education levels necessary to assume high-level managerial positions. b. The glass ceiling may be based on the stereotype that the male characteristic of assertiveness is necessary to manage, but women tend to be passive. c. The glass ceiling may exist for women because their accomplishments are often not valued as highly as are those of their male counterparts. d. The glass ceiling may exist for women because they are viewed as displaying submissive characteristics in contrast to their male counterparts who are viewed as possessing more confidence. Medium/Evaluation

74.

(d) 75.

(d) 76.

(a) 77.

Acme Corporation sales associates are generally attractive Caucasian college age men and women. Individuals who work in the stock room unpacking and readying clothing for displays are young, Asian and African American employees. This scenario suggests that Acme may need to examine their recruiting efforts to address __________ diversity in their stores. a. gender b. age c. race d. age and race Medium/Application Which of the following statements regarding race diversity in the American workplace is correct? a. Highly-paid minority managers indicate that they have experienced very few situations in the workplace where race was an issue. b. A majority of American employees surveyed indicate that their firms are quite effective at hiring and promoting minorities. c. Ethnic minorities experience a slight wage gap but no glass ceiling. d. Overt discrimination against ethnic minorities still occurs in many workplaces. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is a research finding about race diversity? According to prior research findings, a. African Americans are more likely to – leave a company than their Caucasian counterparts because the firm doesn’t value diversity b. the sales performance of Hispanics is equal to their Caucasian counterparts. c. Caucasian Americans are more likely to be absent from work than their African American counterparts. d. ethnic minorities are more likely to experience a satisfying work environment than their Caucasian counterparts. Medium/Evaluation Based on employment statistics, age diversity at work will continue into the future. Thus, the findings from research examining age diversity will become increasingly useful in managing the workforce. Which of the following statements about those research findings is accurate? a. Older workers are generally stereotyped as more qualified and having higher potential. b. Older employees are more likely to be absent from their jobs. c. Older workers are less likely to quit their jobs when dissatisfied at work. d. Older workers are stereotyped as being more able to handle stress. Difficult/Evaluation Age is positively correlated with the following work behaviors: a. citizenship behaviors. b. compliance with safety rules. c. performance. d. all of the above.

(d)

Medium/Analysis

79.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act a. prohibits discrimination against employees older than 65. b. prohibits discrimination against employees age 40 or older. c. prohibits discrimination against employees only with regard to pay. d. is seldom cited in lawsuits as age discrimination is largely absent from the American workplace. Easy/Knowledge

(b) 80.

(d) 81.

(d) 82.

(d) 83.

(d) 84.

All of the following are challenges of managing age diversity in the workplace EXCEPT: a. an age-diverse team has differing opinions on fairness than one not agediverse. b. an age-diverse team has different learning styles that vary by generation. c. stereotypes of older workers may contribute to inaccurate beliefs about their capabilities and performance. d. an-age diverse team offers fewer alternatives to a problem than a team where there is limited age diversity. Medium/Analysis Accommodating religious diversity in the workplace does not include a. work schedule modifications. b. dress code modifications. c. work duty modifications. d. pay level modifications. Easy/Comprehension The Americans with Disabilities Act a. requires a firm to hire individuals with disabilities. b. requires a firm to interview individuals with disabilities. c. prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with physical disabilities. d. prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with physical or mental disabilities if these employees are otherwise qualified to do their jobs with or without reasonable accommodation. Medium/Comprehension Examples of discrimination charges filed against employers under the Americans with Disabilities Act have included which of the following impairments? a. back injury b. hearing impairments c. Aspberger’s syndrome d. all of the above Medium/Knowledge Research suggests that employees suffering from disabilities are disadvantaged for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. stereotyped as incapable of performing a job. b. more likely to be locked into a dead end job.

c. (c) 85.

(d) 86.

(d) 87.

(a) 88.

more likely to be employed in jobs with high skill and qualification requirements they do not possess. d. more likely to quit their jobs. Medium/Knowledge Reasonable accommodations for employees with disabilities may include all of the following EXCEPT: a. modifications in employee schedules. b. providing auxiliary equipment like telephone amplifiers. c. physical changes to the company facilities (e.g. wheelchair ramp). d. assignment of their essential job functions to other employees. Medium/Application Which of the following federal laws prohibits discrimination in employment against lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender individuals? a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act b. Family and Medical Leave Act c. Americans with Disabilities Act d. There is currently no federal law protecting lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender individuals. Easy/Knowledge Research findings indicate which of the following statements about issues related to sexual orientation in the workplace is INCORRECT? a. Disclosing one’s sexual orientation is the key to better work attitudes for lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender individuals. b. Fear of disclosing sexual orientation and its possible negative consequences leads to lower job satisfaction among lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender individuals. c. Respect for diversity in sexual orientation can be shown by written company policies prohibiting discrimination based upon sexual orientation. d. In firms with benefits programs extended to lesbians, bisexuals, gays and transgender individuals, discrimination based on sexual orientation is less frequent and job satisfaction is higher. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is an illegal interview question? a. What was your grade point average at XYZ University? b. Tell me about a time when you experienced conflict in a past job. c. What are your childcare arrangements? d. What was your salary at your last place of employment? Difficult/Application Which of the following statements regarding diversity in the workplace is correct? a. The wage gap between Hispanic and Caucasian workers is smaller than the wage gap between male and female workers. b. While female workers face a glass ceiling, other minorities face no such issue to attainment of upper level managerial jobs.

(d) 90.

(a) 92.

(a) 94.

Company policies requiring disclosure of sexual orientation lead to higher job satisfaction and organization commitment among lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender employees. d. Federal law requires reasonable accommodation be considered when an employee brings up a disability. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements regarding diversity in the workplace is accurate? a. Older employees are more prone workplace injury than their younger counterparts. b. Women who negotiate achieve higher salaries than men who negotiate. c. More than 92% of the Fortune 500 companies have non-discrimination policies covering sexual orientation and gender identity d. While employees with physical disabilities are protected by federal law, employees with mental disabilities remain unprotected, and face routine discrimination. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is a valid suggestion for managing demographic diversity? a. Approach diversity as the responsibility of everyone in the company. b. Make the minorities already employed accountable for diversity. c. Institute affirmative action programs with quotas. d. Build a culture that ignores diversity. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the management of demographic diversity is INCORRECT? a. Diversity training programs are most successful in those firms where there are explicit rewards for increasing company diversity. b. Companies can support diversity by reviewing their employment advertising to ensure that diversity is being advocated at all job levels. c. In the most successful companies, diversity is viewed as the responsibility of the Human Resources department. d. Many people see affirmative action programming as a controversial way to manage diversity because it may provide an unfair advantage to minority members. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following groups of programs is not viewed as being part of an overall affirmative action program? a. broad-based recruitment b. simple elimination of discrimination c. preferential treatment d. tie-breakers such that all things being equal preference is given to minority candidates Medium/Analysis The affirmative action program about which the most negative perceptions are held is

(c)

a. simple elimination of discrimination. b. tiebreakers. c. preferential treatment. d. targeted recruitment. Difficult/Evaluation

95.

At some time in your career, you may be different from others in your workplace. Which of the following would be considered a viable piece of advice to offer someone who is “different”? a. Know your rights; you are protected from discrimination in employment on the basis of race, color, sex, religion or national origin. b. Choose a mentor who is who has more experience than you, and is more influential within the company. c. Don’t focus too much on relationships; instead show value through the quality of your work. d. Avoid networking events or interest groups that are directed toward specific groups rather than the whole employee population. (b) Medium/Comprehension

96.

*Diversity in a company can actually complicate the culture for all the reasons listed here EXCEPT: a. High levels of conflict and turnover b. Low levels of team performance c. More difficult to forma cohesive organization d. High levels of creativity in decision making Medium/Comprehension

(a) 97.

(b) 98.

(a) 99.

(c)

*Organizations that value inclusion seek to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. allow all voices to be heard. b. promote minorities above all others c. create a culture where all employees can participate full d. remove barriers so that everyone is treated fairly Medium/Comprehension *A diverse work team is more likely to a. come up with novel solutions to a problem b. spend more money on a project c. be unproductive d. follow a standard decision making process Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is an example of a new product that suffered from a lack of attention to diversity? a. Guacamole-flavored Doritos b. Stitch Fix c. Apple’s Health app d. Wasabi-flavored snacks Easy/Knowledge

100.

(a) 101.

(a) 102.

(d) 103.

(a) 104.

(d)

Generalization that a person has outside of their conscious awareness is a a. unconscious bias b. deliberate bias c. reverse bias d. dynamic stereotype Medium/Comprehension Jeff tells his boss that a member of his team, Leeanne, is having trouble keeping up with her spreadsheet because women just aren’t as good at math. This is a. a stereotype. b. unconscious bias. c. implicit bias d. a faultline Medium/Comprehension Tim reads a report on a new engineering process for his firm and is surprised to find out the author is Gemma. This is a. calculated stereotyping. b. a faultline. c. similarity-attraction bias. d. unconscious bias. Medium/Comprehension What brought the issue of sexual harassment to international awareness in 2017? a. #MeToo movement b. #Justsayno movement c. Yes means yes campaign d. PRIDE campaign Easy/Knowledge Which of these is NOT a repercussion of sexual harassment in the workplace? a. Long lasting depression in person who was harassed b. Higher levels of absenteeism c. Drop out of that industry d. Earnings gap is reduced or closed Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Cultural Diversity 105.

(a)

The values, beliefs, and customs that exist in a society is a. culture. b. diversity. c. power distance. d. affirmative action. Easy/Knowledge

106.

(b) 107.

(a) 109.

(d) 110.

(a) 111.

(c)

Which of the following is not one of Hofstede’s four dimensions that explain variation among cultures? a. individualism/collectivism b. introversion/extraversion c. low uncertainty avoidance/high uncertainty avoidance d. masculinity (aggressive)/femininity (nurturing) Medium/Knowledge Collectivistic cultures are a. cultures where people tend to define themselves as individuals and form looser ties with their groups. b. cultures that tend to value achievement and competitiveness as well as acquisition of money and other material objects. c. cultures where people tend to have strong bonds to their groups and group membership forms a person’s self-identity. d. cultures that tend to value maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak and quality of life. Easy/Knowledge Cultures that are comfortable in unpredictable situations and have high tolerance for ambiguity are best described as a. low uncertainty avoidance cultures. b. collectivistic cultures. c. high uncertainty avoidance cultures. d. individualistic cultures. Medium/Comprehension A culture that values maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak and quality of life is most likely a a. a low power distance culture. b. a masculine (aggressive) culture. c. a high power distance culture. d. a feminine (nurturing) culture. Easy/Comprehension High power distance cultures tend to a. view an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable. b. prefer predictable situations and have low tolerance for ambiguity. c. emphasize caring for the weak and quality of life. d. are comfortable in unpredictable situations and have high tolerance for ambiguity. Easy/Comprehension A culture categorized by high uncertainty avoidance is a. Denmark. b. Jamaica. c. Greece. d. China. Medium/Comprehension

112.

(b) 113.

(d) 115.

(a) 117.

(b)

Which of the following is not a culture that is characterized as feminine (nurturing) in its orientation? a. Norway b. Japan c. Sweden d. Costa Rica Medium/Comprehension Which of the following cultures is most likely to be categorized as individualistic? a. Brazil b. Guatemala c. Australia d. China Medium/Comprehension If a collectivist was told, “Tell me about yourself.”, he might say a. I want to be a doctor when I graduate. b. I like playing video games. c. I am a black belt in karate. d. I am the third child of a doctor and a lawyer. Medium/Application Which of the following statements is MOST likely to come from a person in an individualistic culture? a. “My brother caused the accident, we will cover the costs.” b. “My parents and I live with my grandparents and an aunt and uncle.” c. “I must decide which of the two jobs I am going to accept.” d. “My mother and father must approve of my girlfriend before I can ask her to marry me.” Difficult/Application Which of the following statements about collectivists and individualists is accurate? a. Collectivists are more generous in the assessment of their group members while individualists are relatively more accurate in their evaluation of group members. b. Collectivists are equally friendly with both in-group and out-group members. c. Collectivists use direct communication with their in-groups at all times. d. Collectivists are used to changing groups over the course of their lives and are highly adaptable to new groups. Medium/Analysis In cultures high in power distance a. there is a higher degree of egalitarianism. b. managers are believed to be more powerful and deserving of respect. c. managers and subordinates use first names among each other in the workplace. d. there is higher utilization of participative decision making practices. Medium/Analysis

118.

(b) 119.

(b)

Companies in cultures high in uncertainty avoidance a. have a very short, simple recruiting and selection process for new employees. b. tend to have written employment contracts for employees. c. have limited numbers of policies and procedures in employee handbooks and other manuals. d. tend to enter a large number of foreign markets. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding the masculinity (aggressive)/femininity (nurturing) dimension of cultures? a. In feminine cultures, only women value maintaining good relationships, but in masculine cultures, both males and females value maintaining good relationships. b. In masculine cultures, the ratio of CEO pay to other management level employees is equal. c. In cultures high in femininity, work/life balance programming like telecommuting is more common than in masculine cultures. d. There is greater separation of gender roles in feminine cultures than in masculine cultures. Medium/Analysis Angela is planning on an international business career following graduation. She is meeting with a career counselor to ensure that she is preparing herself as fully as she might for such a career. Which of the following pieces of advice will the counselor offer her? a. There is no need to learn a foreign language; English has become the global business language. b. Become familiar with different cultures by visiting several countries in a short amount of time. c. It is a good idea to plan your return, as well as planning your departure. d. Do not show your limited understanding to locals to avoid losing credibility. Medium/Analysis Cultural intelligence is a. the ways in which people are similar or different from one another. b. the values, beliefs and customs that exist in a society. c. a person’s capability to understand how a person’s cultural background influences one’s behavior. d. the degree to which the society views an unequal distribution of power as acceptable. Easy/Knowledge The belief that one’s own culture is superior to other cultures is a. geocentrism. b. ethnocentrism. c. monocentrism. d. polycentrism. Easy/Knowledge

123.

Which of the following statements is a good suggestion for managing cultural diversity? a. For the most effective international experiences, train individual employees thoroughly in one culture before moving on to another. b. Keep in mind that local employees in the foreign country are too immersed in the culture to help you understand their culture. For a more objective viewpoint, other expatriates are more useful. c. There is a very high probability that problems experienced on an expatriate assignment are due to cultural differences and misunderstandings. d. Culture changes, sometimes quickly; do not assume that what was true a year ago is true today. (d) Medium/Analysis

Section III: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 124.

(b) 125.

(b) 126.

Which of the following statements regarding demographic diversity and ethics is correct? a. Younger employees are more upset by unethical behaviors than older employees. b. When judging the ethicality of hypothetical situations, women and men use similar standards when judging the ethicality of monetary issues. c. Younger employees tend to find negotiation tactics like bluffing to be more unethical than their older counterparts. d. Men and women have similar standards when judging the ethicality of breaking organizational rules. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding cultural diversity and ethics is correct? a. In a study, Koreans suggested that being ethical was compatible with being profitable. b. In a study, American subjects viewed environmental damage as more ethical than their Korean or Indian counterparts. c. In a study, Americans viewed an auditing company sharing a client’s auditing information with another client as more ethical than Russians subjects did. d. In a study, Korean and Indian subjects found software piracy and nepotism less ethical than American subjects did. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements about demographic diversity around the world is INCORRECT? a. In Japan, women face less of a glass ceiling than in the United States. b. In France, a study indicated that resumes with French-sounding names were more likely to get interviews than those with North-African–sounding names. c. Japan is a relatively homogeneous society. d. Overt sexism against women is rampant in Japan

(a)

Medium/Evaluation Closing Section:

FILL IN THE BLANK 127.

____________ refers to the ways in which people are similar or different from each other. (Diversity) 128. *Marc Benioff, CEO and founder of Salesforce, is known for his vision for _____. (philanthropy) 129.

______ ________ _ ___ _______ _________ ______ prohibits discrimination in employment on the basis of race, color, sex, religion or national origin. (Title VII of the Civil Rights Act) 130.

The tendency for individuals to be attracted to similar individuals is called the ____________(similarity-attraction)

131. Demographic traits like race, gender and age are part of _________ diversity. (surface-level) 132. Diversity in values, beliefs and attitudes is called _________ diversity. (deep-level) 133. An attribute along which a group is split into subgroups is called a ___________. (faultline) 134.

*For human beings, it is typically _____ to communicate with others who are similar to us. (easier) 135.

A generalization about a particular group of people, like “men never ask for directions” is an example of a ________________. (stereotype) 136.

The fact that women earn 82% of what men earn demonstrates the _________ _________. (earnings or wage gap) 137.

The ______ __________ is the invisible barrier that prevents women and minorities from advancing to higher and executive level positions. (glass ceiling) 138. Requests for sexual favors or unwelcome sexual advances is _____ _____. (sexual harassment)

139.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits employment discrimination against individuals age __________ and over.

(40) 140.

The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with physical or mental disabilities if they are otherwise qualified to do their jobs with or without _________ _____________. (reasonable accommodation) 141.

__________ __________ programs are those designed to recruit, promote, train and retain employees belonging to a protected class. (Affirmative Action) 142. The values, beliefs and customs that exist in a society are the _________. (culture) 143.

An American citizen working in an American company located in Japan would be called a(n) ____________. (expatriate) 144.

___________ ______________ are cultures where people tend to have stronger bonds to their groups and group membership forms a person’s self-identity, whereas ________ ___________are cultures where people tend to define themselves as individuals and form looser ties with their groups. (Collectivistic cultures, individualistic cultures) 145.

A society that views an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable would be categorized as a _______ _________ ___________culture. (high power distance) 146.

Cultures that are comfortable in unpredictable situations and have high tolerance for ambiguity are called ________ ____________ _________ cultures. (low uncertainty avoidance) 147.

A ________ culture values achievement, competitiveness and the acquisition of money and other material objects. (masculine/aggressive) 148.

_____________ _____________ is a person’s capability to understand how a person’s cultural background influences one’s behavior. (Cultural intelligence) 149. ______________ is the belief that one’s own culture is superior to other cultures. (Ethnocentrism) SHORT ANSWERS

150.

What are some of the benefits to employees and organizations of maintaining a diverse workforce? Higher creativity in decision making, better understanding and service to customers, more satisfied workforce, higher stock prices, lower litigation expenses, and higher company performance.

151.

How can inclusion and diversity combine to be beneficial for an organization? Inclusion not only adds the diverse culture but frees individuals to bring unique aspects of themselves while also being treated as insiders. In organizations that are inclusive, the organization makes efforts to ensure that all individuals are allowed to participate in the organizational life fully, their voices are heard, and concerted efforts are made to remove barriers to fair treatment of everyone. Research has shown that diversity cannot become an advantage for an organization without inclusion. Simply having diversity does not mean that the organization is inclusive, and without inclusiveness, diversity is not sufficient to yield positive outcomes.

152.

Briefly describe the similarity-attraction phenomenon. The similarity-attraction phenomenon is the tendency for individuals to be attracted to similar individuals. So, individuals are more likely to have conflict with those who differ from them with regard to demographic characteristics like race, color, gender, etc. The phenomenon may explain some of the unfair treatment individuals experience. For example, women tend not to be hired into higher-level positions in the firm. To progress to those levels, they may need to have a mentor to “show them the ropes”. But if only men are in those positions, they would, according to the phenomenon, pick others like them, so they would choose men. Hence, women never get the chance to be promoted.

153.

Define and give an example of surface-level diversity. Surface-level diversity includes traits that are visible to those around us and include such demographic traits as gender, race and age.

154.

Define and give an example of deep-level diversity. Deep-level diversity includes values, beliefs mental abilities, and attitudes.

155.

Define and provide an example of a faultline. A faultline is an attribute along which a group is split into subgroups. An example is a group of six, three older women and three younger men. This group has a strong faultline because the group would be divided by gender and age.

156.

Define the term stereotype and give an example.

A stereotype is a generalization about a particular group of people. An example of a stereotype is that women are poor drivers. 157.

What is the earnings gap and who is most likely to be negatively affected by it? The earnings gap is the difference in salary level between men and women or between minorities and Caucasian males (generally). Currently, the wage gap between men and women is that women earn 82% of that earned by men. Minorities differ slightly from that figure with Hispanics making 74 cents for every dollar a Caucasian male earns and African American males earning 76 cents.

158.

What is the glass ceiling? The glass ceiling is an invisible barrier that tends to keep women and minorities at lower levels in the firm. In 2018, the number of Fortune 500 firms had female CEOs was less than the number that had male CEOs named James. Only a handful had African American CEOs.

159.

A number of research studies have focused on older workers in the workplace. What were some of the findings that impact the management of the workplace? Age is correlated with higher levels of citizenship behaviors like volunteering, higher safety rule compliance, lower work injuries, lower counterproductive behaviors and lower rates of tardiness and absenteeism. In addition, older people are less likely to quit their jobs when they are dissatisfied, are able to handle stress effectively and may perform better than their younger counterparts.

160.

What are some accommodations that must be made for those with religious issues in the employment relationship? Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits firms from discriminating in employment on the basis of religion. Employers are required to make reasonable accommodation to ensure the practice of their religious beliefs unless it poses an unreasonable hardship on the employer. Generally, the accommodations that the firm makes have to do with schedule and dress code modifications.

161.

What is an example of a reasonable accommodation for an individual with a disability that a firm might make? One reasonable accommodation has to do with access to the place of employment. Wheelchair ramps, for example, are such an accommodation. Other accommodations, depending on the disability, might include some equipment that the disabled individual could use to assist him in the performance of his job such as a telephone amplifier for those with hearing impairment, schedule modifications, and reassignment of some non-essential job functions.

162.

What is a program that can be a part of a larger affirmative action initiative? Any of the following are possibilities: simple elimination of discrimination, targeted recruitment, tie-breakers and preferential treatment.

163.

Define Hofstede’s individualism-collectivism dimension and give an example of each type of culture. Individualism refers to cultures where people define themselves as an individual and form looser ties with their groups. An example of an individualist culture is the United States where personal independence is valued. Collectivism refers to cultures where people have stronger bonds to their groups and group membership forms a person’s self-identity. An example of this type of culture is Mexico where the family is very important.

164.

Define Hofstede’s low-high power distance dimension and give an example of each type of culture. Low power distance is a society that views an unequal distribution of power as relatively unacceptable. In a low power distance culture, egalitarianism is the norm. A high power distance society views an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable. An example is Turkey, where elementary and high school students stand to greet their teachers when they enter the room.

165.

Define Hofstede’s low-high uncertainty avoidance dimension and give an example of each type of culture. A low uncertainty avoidance culture is comfortable in unpredictable situations and has high tolerance for ambiguity. An example is Russia, where companies do not have rule-oriented cultures. A high uncertainty avoidance culture prefers predictable situations and has low tolerance for ambiguity. An example of this culture is Germany, where people prefer structure in their lives and like rules and procedures that manage situations.

166.

Define Hofstede’s masculinity (aggressive)/femininity (nurturing) dimension and give an example of each type of culture. Masculinity is a culture that values achievement, competitiveness, and the acquisition of money and other material objects. An example of a masculine culture is Japan where there is a separation of gender roles. Femininity is a culture that values maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak and quality of life. An example of a feminine culture is Sweden where work/life balance is important and work arrangements like telecommuting are popular.

167.

IBM was a pioneer in creating programs to value and develop a diverse workforce prior to federal legislation requiring such programs. Briefly discuss one of the programs IBM instituted that values diversity. In 1935, IBM President Thomas Watson promised equal pay between the genders employed by the firm. In 1943, IBM had its first female vice president. The firm granted women unpaid leave for the birth of a child thirty years before

the Family and Medical Leave Act; it then extended that benefit to female employees, raising the leave to one year in the 1960s and three years in 1988. 168.

Briefly discuss the task forces that IBM established under Louis Gerstner to promote diversity in the firm, and address the masculine culture of the firm at the time. The eight task forces established were women and men, Asians, African Americans, lesbian/bisexual/gay/transgender, Hispanic, Native American and employees with disabilities. Each task force had senior and higher level employees on it and each task force was charged with understanding how each constituency felt so they could be made to feel welcome at IBM. Each task force conducted meetings and surveyed employees to arrive at key factors related to each group. The key factors did not have to be based in reality; if employees perceived the issues to exist, IBM designed a program to address it.

ESSAY . 169.

Why would companies consider implementing diversity programs? There are a number of different reasons for such programming, but some of the benefits of diversity initiatives include: Higher creativity in decision making: The more diverse a group, the more options a group considers, which leads to higher-quality decisions. This increased quality could lead to more creative decisions that could positively impact the company’s bottom line. Better understanding and service to customers: The more a firm understands about the breadth of its customer base, the more opportunity is offered for growing a market or tapping a new market segment. More satisfied workforce: When employees feel fairly treated, they are more satisfied. More satisfied workers turnover less. Higher stock prices: Companies with a more diverse workforce find that they have a higher stock price in the days following the announcement of diversity initiatives. Lower litigation costs: If a firm is being fair to its employees, there is no need for employees to file complaints against the firm for discriminating against them with regard to federal law. Obviously a lack of complaints saves substantial litigation fees. Higher company performance: Those firms managing diversity effectively tend to perform better.

170.

Michael is a new manager for a Fortune 500 firm. He is preparing for his first assignment, which is to complete a diversity audit of his firm. What are some of the areas he should consider for assessment?

A number of demographic groups can be investigated in the firm. However, some of the major groups include: gender (what is the number of women in executive or higher level management positions, are there pay differences between women and other groups in the firm); race (again what is the number of minorities in upper management positions in the firm and what is their pay rate); age (how are older workers treated, are they stereotyped); religious (what accommodations are made for religious beliefs); disabled (what accommodations need to be made) and sexual orientation (are same sex benefits offered). 171.

You are being interviewed for a position in a financial services firm. The last three questions that the interviewer asked of you have been illegal questions. What can you do? Some options: Continue to refuse to answer and maybe even point out the illegality of the question. Answer shortly and then change the subject. Answer the intent of the question, not the actual question. Evaluate the situation and what is in your best interest Walk away from the interview.

172.

You are an organizational behavior consultant who has been brought into a firm to present some best practices with regard to managing demographic diversity. What are some best practices you could present to the firm’s executives? Build a culture that respects diversity. All levels of the firm must support diversity. Make managers accountable for diversity. Institute diversity training programs. Review recruitment practices and ensure the firm is targeting a diverse candidate pool. Consider affirmative action programs to enhance diversity.

173.

You are an advisor for international business students. You are meeting with freshmen business students this afternoon. What are some recommendations you could make to these students to prepare them for global careers? Answers will vary but some general responses are: Learn a language. Immerse yourself in different cultures. Develop an openness to different experiences.

Develop a strong social support network. Develop a sense of humor. Plan your return from a foreign assignment to avoid reverse culture shock. 174.

You are an organizational behavior consultant who has been hired to present a training seminar to managers in a Fortune 500 firm about suggestions for managing cultural diversity in the firm. What are some of the topics you will consider presenting during the seminar? Help employees build cultural intelligence; companies are very diverse now and the more cultures you can understand the better prepared your firm will be. Avoid ethnocentrism. Listen to locals. Recognize that culture changes. Do not always assume that culture is the problem. .

175.

What lessons do the IBM diversity management task forces offer to other firms? Answers will vary but some general thoughts include: IBM’s success with diversity management suggests that other firms should consider implementing similar programs. IBM has tripled the number of female executives, doubled minority executives and increased those categorized as lesbian, bisexual, gay and transgender seven-fold. IBM has seen this program to be a competitive advantage. Using the information from the task forces, IBM introduced programs to enhance networking activities for women and Asians, and helped retain African Americans.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 3 Understanding People at Work: Individual Differences and Perception TRUE/FALSE 1. Applicant-matching software reduces the time required to hire candidates. (True) 2.

A risk-averse individual is generally a poor fit for a high-tech firm in a dynamic environment.

(True) 3. Behavior is a function of the person and the situation interacting with each other. (True) 4. Person-job fit is positively related to job satisfaction. (True) 5. When people fit their jobs, they experience higher levels of stress. (False) 6.

There is usually a strong relationship between good person-organization fit and high job performance.

(False) 7. Value orientations change dramatically as individuals age and mature. (False) 8. Instrumental values are end states people desire in life. (False) 9. Family security is a terminal value. (True) 10.

Behavior may be affected as much by what is expected of us as how we want to behave.

(True) 11.

Conscientiousness, more than any other personality trait, predicts how successfully a person performs a variety of jobs.

(True) 12.

People high in openness are more likely to start their own business than those low in openness.

(True) 13.

Extraverts are happier in their work situations and perform much more effectively than introverts.

(False) 14. Extraverts are always model employees. (False) 15. High agreeableness is always a personality trait sought in job candidates. (False) 16. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a very effective employee selection tool. (False) 17.

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies individuals on the basis of types, not traits.

(True) 18. Positive affective people are absent from work less often. (True) 19.

One tip to remember when working with people with negative affectivity is that you can change someone’s personality with relative ease.

(False) 20.

People who are labeled as high social monitors can experience high levels of stress.

(True) 21.

Social monitors are especially good at evaluating the performance of other employees.

(False) 22.

Proactive people understand the political environment in organizations, so they adjust quickly to new jobs.

(True) 23.

Mary said, “I am quite confident in the plan I developed, as I worked quite diligently on it and I have implemented similar programs in similar settings.” Mary seems to have high self-efficacy.

(True) 24.

Self-efficacy is the degree to which people have overall positive feelings about themselves.

(False)

25.

“It was really nothing. These things happen to me because I happen to be in the right place at the right time.” This statement suggests an external locus of control.

(True) 26.

Research indicates that personality tests are an excellent predictor of performance.

(False) 27.

One of the challenges of using personality tests in employee selection is that the rankings of the candidates who take the test may be affected by their ability to fake.

(True) 28. Our visual perception is biased because we do not perceive objects in isolation. (True) 29.

Research suggests that when we do self-evaluations, our scores are consistently higher than the scores given us by our peers and superiors. This is an example of self-enhancement bias.

(True) 30.

Jacqueline is a college freshman. She loves to sleep late on weekends and assumes that college students in general prefer to sleep late. Jacqueline is making a false consensus error.

(True) 31.

A neat, professional appearance and a firm handshake are two important aspects of an interview because of the lasting impact first impressions make.

(True) 32.

If Dan complains about his instructors being boring every time they lecture, he is demonstrating high consistency.

(True) 33. The USA, as a country, is considered to have high self-esteem. (True) 34.

Individuals with an economic value orientation tend to make more unethical choices.

(True) MULTIPLE CHOICE

Opening Section: 35.

Which of these is unique to Netflix when looking at the skill set of new hires? a. seeks an Ivy League degree

(d) 36.

(d) 37.

(d)

b. looks for an extensive resume c. requires previous experience in a similar position d. seeks someone who shares the values and goals of the company Easy/Comprehension What could be an issue when hiring someone who is a good “match?” a. End up with a candidate who is likable but not someone who can solve current and future business problems b. Will have someone who blends in with the corporate culture c. May not be able to place the candidate where needed d. Won’t have the proper degrees Medium/Comprehension Which of these statements is NOT part of the culture of Netflix? a. Believe in empowering people b. Make their corporate culture available for anyone to read and avoid misleading people c. Believe in giving honest, relevant feedback d. Offer benefits like free lunch and spa time Medium/Comprehension

Section I: The Interactionist Perspective: The Role of Fit 38.

(a) 39.

(a) 40.

The interactionist perspective suggests a. behavior is a function of the person and the situation interacting with each other. b. behavior is solely a function of the person’s personality. c. behavior is solely a function of the situation. d. behavior is not predictable and can not be profiled. Easy/Knowledge Person-job fit is the a. degree to which a person’s skill, knowledge, abilities and other characteristics match the job demands. b. degree to which a person likes an organization. c. degree to which a person’s values, personality, goals and other characteristics match those of the organization. d. degree to which a person’s attitude matches the culture of the work group. Easy/Knowledge Person-organization fit is the a. degree to which a person’s skill, knowledge, abilities and other characteristics match the job demands. b. degree to which a person likes an organization. c. degree to which a person’s values, personality, goals and other characteristics match those of the organization. d. degree to which a person’s attitude matches the culture of the work group.

(a) 42.

(b) 43.

(d) 44.

(d) 45.

(a)

Easy/Knowledge Sherri is creative, warm and caring. Person-job fit suggests one job she might be particularly effective at is a. elementary school teacher. b. accountant. c. researcher. d. pharmaceutical sales. Medium/Application An applicant-matching software program would suggest which of the following personality traits would provide the best person-organization fit with a Wall Street firm? a. risk aversion b. risk-taking c. flexibility d. stability Medium/Application Research on the interactionist perspective suggests a. there is a consistent positive relationship between person-organization fit and job performance. b. if there is a misfit between an individual and the organization, there are no extenuating circumstances that eliminate its impact. c. organizational culture is equally important to all individuals. d. people who fit into their organization tend to be more satisfied with their jobs. Difficult/Evaluation Findings of person-organization fit studies indicate a. when people fit their organization, they consistently perform better. b. when people fit their organization, they are less influential in the firm. c. when people fit their organization, they tend to leave an organization at about the same rate as those who are organization misfits. d. when people fit their organization, they are more committed to the organization and more satisfied with their jobs Medium/Analysis Samara has been out of work for 2 years so she accepts a position as a juniorlevel bookkeeper, when in the past she was the Director of Finance. Samara is a. overqualified and most likely to have a negative job attitude. b. overqualified and most likely to be very successful in the position. c. not a fit for the job because her skill set is limited. d. not a fit for the job because her abilities don’t match the job’s demands. Medium/Analysis

Section II: Individual Differences: Values and Personality 46.

Values a. encompass the relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns a person has.

b. c. d. them. (d) 47.

(b) 49.

(a) 50.

(b)

are initial thoughts and perceptions we form about people, which tend to be stable and resilient to contrary information. are generalizations based upon a perceived group characteristic. refer to stable life goals people have, reflecting what is most important to Easy/Knowledge

According to Rokeach, which of the following is not accurate about values? a. Values are grouped into terminal and instrumental categories. b. Values are hierarchically ordered. c. Values are shaped late in life. d. Values are relatively stable over time. Easy/Comprehension __________ is a terminal value. a. Broad-minded b. Inner harmony c. Forgiving d. Obedient Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is an instrumental value? a. clean b. self-respect c. family security d. a world of beauty Easy/Knowledge Removing your hat during the playing of The National Anthem in the United States is an example of the value of ________________. a. benevolence. b. security. c. tradition. d. universalism. Medium/Application Choosing a job that offers health care as part of its benefit package over a position that pays more but has no such health care might reflect the job seeker’s concern about a. inner harmony. b. imaginative. c. family security. d. self-respect. Medium/Application Which instrumental value is most likely to be prevalent in Wall Street brokers? a. forgiveness b. ambition c. obedience d. imagination Difficult/Application

53.

(d) 54.

(d) 55.

(b) 56.

(b) 57.

(a) 58.

Values change over the generations, evolving in response to historical contexts. Which of the following statements is true regarding values of different generations? a. Generation Xers (born between 1965 and 1979) are very group-oriented. b. Generation Xers (born between 1965 and 1979) see work as central in their lives. c. Generation Xers (born between 1965 and 1979) don’t care what they do for work, they just want money. d. Generation Xers (born between 1965 and 1979) have to feel that their personal goals align with organizational ones before they work toward company goals. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements about values is true? a. Values impact the individual, but not how they work. b. Values are not very stable; they change over short periods of time. c. Values affect the decisions people make, but have little impact on their behavior. d. Values are developed early in life and remain stable over a lifetime. Medium/Synthesis Early experiences are important influences over dominant values. If Sharon was raised by an aunt because her parents had both died when she was ten, she most likely would see what value as central to her life? a. an exciting life b. security c. self-respect d. forgiveness Medium/Evaluation The relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns a person has is a. values. b. personality. c. self-esteem. d. conscientiousness. Easy/Knowledge Study findings on personality indicate a. we are more emotionally stable and more organized between the ages of 20 and 40. b. personality is the primary predictor of work behavior. c. although personality impacts us during our youth it has no lasting consequences for us. d. although it is interesting information, employee personality has relatively little impact on placing individuals in jobs. Medium/Analysis Maurice is described as “very curious. He has very original thoughts. He is a bright young man with a very creative flair.” Maurice exhibits the personality trait of ____________.

a. b. c. d. (d) 59.

(b) 60.

(b) 61.

(a) 62.

(a) 63.

(a) 64.

extraversion. agreeableness. conscientiousness. openness. Medium/Application

Lauren takes a personality survey and finds she strongly exhibits the trait of agreeableness. She might be described as being a. organized, punctual, systematic and dependable. b. nice, tolerant, sensitive and kind. c. outgoing, talkative, and sociable. d. curious, creative and original. Easy/Comprehension Jennifer complains to her friends every Friday night about the stresses and hassles of her job. Each week she tells them she is going to leave her company even though she has been working there for five years. Jennifer is likely to be a. high in conscientiousness. b. high in neuroticism. c. low in agreeableness. d. high in extraversion. Difficult/Evaluation __________ is the degree to which a person is anxious, irritable, aggressive and moody. a. Neuroticism b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Openness Easy/Knowledge People who exhibit the Big 5 personality characteristic of openness would be most likely to work in which of the following firms? a. an entrepreneurial start-up in the high tech industry b. a large discount retailer like Wal-Mart c. a large fast food franchise d. a small business that makes cardboard boxes Difficult/Synthesis Across a variety of occupations and jobs, what is the one personality trait that most uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance will be? a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. openness Medium/Analysis Which personality characteristic tends to lead to effectiveness in jobs with a lot of opportunities to interact with others? a. openness

b. c. d. (c) 65.

(d) 67.

(b) 68.

conscientiousness. extraversion agreeableness Medium/Analysis

Which of the following statements about the personality trait agreeableness is accurate? a. People high in agreeableness tend to exhibit strong aggressive behavior. b. All occupations look to hire people who are high in agreeableness. c. People high in agreeableness tend to be less effective at providing constructive criticism. d. People high in agreeableness have difficulty getting along with others. Medium/Analysis Empathy is to agreeableness as sociability is to ______________. a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness. d. extraversion. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the Big 5 personality traits is true? a. Individuals high in extraversion are model employees. b. Individuals high in openness seek feedback on what they are doing and thus adjust to their jobs more quickly. c. Conscientiousness is related to how well employees get along with others. d. Individuals high in neuroticism tend to be better performers. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is a dimension by which individuals are grouped in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)? a. seeing/hearing b. organized/disorganized c. extraversion/intraversion d. emotional instability Easy/Knowledge In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, what dimension describes those who derive their energy from inside? a. intuition b. perception c. introversion d. judgment Easy/Knowledge According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, what dimension describes those who would like to have clarity and closure? a. thinking b. feeling c. intuition

d. (d) 71.

(b) 72.

(b) 74.

(d) 75.

judgment Easy/Knowledge

Which of the following statements about the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is accurate? a. The original objective of the MBTI was to determine whether World War II veterans would successfully readjust to civilian life after the military. b. The MBTI relies on types, not traits. c. The MBTI is a very effective tool to use in making selection decisions. d. The MBTI classifies people based on observing their behavior. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true with regard to research on individual differences? a. Teams dominated by positive affective people experience higher levels of absenteeism. b. People with a low openness trait are more likely to start their own business. c. Agreeable people are less likely to engage in change-oriented communication. d. Social monitors are rated as lower in performance. Medium/Analysis Negative affective people a. see “the glass as half full.” b. experience anxiety. c. are tolerant of others’ opinions. d. have lower rates of absenteeism. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements about positive and negative affectivity is correct? a. Positive affective people see the “glass as half empty”. b. Negative affective people in power tend to find mutually agreeable solutions to problems. c. Positive affective people experience nervousness. d. When negative affective people comprise a team, there tends to be less cooperation among members. Medium/Analysis To work effectively with an individual with a high level of negative affectivity, a. recognize that you can change someone’s personality if you give feedback. b. let them vent without limits. c. ask them for specific examples of what the problem is. d. challenge them; they are seldom right about anything on which they voice a complaint. Medium/Evaluation Self-monitoring is a. the degree to which a person has overall positive feelings about himself.

b. c. d. (b) 77.

(a) 78.

(d) 79.

(b) 80.

(d) 81.

(d) 82.

the extent to which a person is capable of monitoring his/her actions and appearance in social situations. the belief that one can perform a specific task successfully. a person’s inclination to fix what is perceived as wrong, change the status quo, and use initiative to solve problems. Easy/Knowledge

High social monitors a. tend to be more successful in their careers. b. tend to experience lower levels of stress. c. are very accurate at conducting performance evaluations. d. are more committed to their companies. Medium/Comprehension All of the following are accurate about those with a proactive personality EXCEPT: a. they have higher levels of performance in their firms. b. they adjust to new jobs quickly. c. they may try to change things others are not willing to let go. d. they often have difficulty making friends. Medium/Analysis Self-esteem is a. the belief that one can perform a specific task successfully. b. the degree to which a person has overall positive feelings about him or herself. c. the degree to which people feel accountable for their own behaviors. d. the inclination to change the status quo. Easy/Knowledge Ned keeps saying to his coach, “I am really concerned that I won’t be able to remember the plays when you put me in. Maybe you should play someone else.” Ned seems to be demonstrating a. low openness to experience. b. low self-monitoring. c. a proactive personality. d. low self-efficacy. Medium/Evaluation John said, “If I just hadn’t had that argument with my girlfriend last night, I wouldn’t have been so upset and I would have done much better on my finance exam.” John exhibits a. high internal locus of control. b. high self-esteem. c. high self-monitoring. d. high external locus of control. Medium/Synthesis Individuals with an internal locus of control a. have an inclination to change the status quo. b. believe that what happens to them is their own doing.

c. d. (b) 83.

(d) 84.

(b) 85.

(d) 86.

(a) 87.

(b)

understand what the situation demands and act accordingly. feel that things happen to them because of luck. Medium/Synthesis

Which of the following statements about self-efficacy is accurate? a. Self-efficacy is a global evaluation of one’s self. b. People with high self-efficacy tend to procrastinate. c. Self-efficacy is negatively related to job performance. d. Training people to increase their self-efficacy can be effective. Difficult/Analysis Marissa always seems to know who to talk to in her organization to get things done. When her immediate supervisor seemed less than enthusiastic about her proposal, she made sure to mention it to the manager in another department who shared it with his boss. Marissa was just approached about implementing her proposal. Marissa seems to have a. low self-efficacy. b. a proactive personality. c. low self-esteem. d. an internal locus of control. Medium/Synthesis Which of the following would be considered a sound piece of advice to help build your self-confidence? a. Set challenging, not impossible goals. b. Ignore negative advice, especially when it comes from a negative person. c. Take a self-inventory. d. all of the above. Easy/Comprehension All of the following statements regarding personality testing in employee selection are correct EXCEPT: a. job interviewers are very adept at assessing conscientiousness in candidates, so the personality test is not really needed in employee selection. b. there are mixed feelings as to whether candidates’ faking responses on personality tests is a serious problem. c. self-reporting measures of personality may not be the best way to measure personality. d. personality is a better predictor of job satisfaction than job performance. Difficult/Synthesis Among the limitations associated with using personality tests in employee selection is a. candidate inability to understand the purpose of the personality test. b. candidates faking their answers. c. candidates refusing to take personality tests. d. finding that performance cannot be predicted by personality testing. Difficult/Synthesis

88.

(a) 89.

(a) 90.

(d) 91.

(b) 92.

(a) 93.

(b)

Someone who had restrained, distant parents as a child would probably value which of these as an adult? a. Security and stability b. Conformity c. Spontaneity d. Restraint Medium/Comprehension The “Big Five” personality traits can be identified by the acronym? a. OCEAN b. CORNY c. ACORN d. TRADE Easy/Knowledge Which of these is one of the “Big Five” personality traits? a. Amicability b. Acceptability c. Application d. Agreeableness Easy/Knowledge Since Marco is high on the Big Five personality trait of neuroticism, he is stressed and burnout at his job; he most likely will a. approach his boss to seek a solution about work. b. continue to complain to his friends, family and co-workers. c. start actively looking for a new job. d. quit and move int his parents’ basement. Medium/Comprehension Mika sees five of her co-workers going out to lunch together and is sure that they must hate her because no one asked her to go. What she forgot is that she usually isn’t in the office on Tuesdays, so they didn’t even realize she was there. Mika has a. low self-esteem b. low self-monitoring c. low self-efficacy d. low values Easy/Knowledge Which of these is NOT a great method to building self-confidence? a. Be positive and act like you are confident; that should actually make you feel more confident. b. Analyze your failures in detail so that you can understand why something didn’t work out. c. If a negative person gives you negative feedback, consider the source and try not to dwell on it. d. Secure someone to help guide you, a mentor to provide feedback and suggestions. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Perception 94.

(b) 95.

(a) 96.

(b) 98.

When an incomplete figure appears on a sheet of paper, we are able to discern the entire figure because we a. have selective perception. b. extrapolate from the information available to us. c. visualize items in isolation. d. perceive our environment objectively. Difficult/Synthesis Mike went to his friend Abe’s house with Nick. When the pair returned to Mike’s house, Nick said, “Mike, isn’t Abe’s cat the brightest orange cat you’ve ever seen?” Mike replied, “Nick to be honest, I didn’t notice anything but Abe’s dog. I’m afraid of dogs and wasn’t sure if he would bother me or not.” Mike exhibited a. selective visual perception at Abe’s house. b. visual extrapolation at Abe’s house. c. focal contrast at Abe’s house. d. visual objectivity at Abe’s house. Difficult/Synthesis Beth, Ramon and Nandini just walked out of the office where they delivered a mock commercial for a proposed client’s cereal. Beth says to her co-presenters, “I’m so sorry I messed up during the presentation. I really did not mean to put up the slide with last year’s cereal box on it instead of the one for this year. I know we won’t get the account now, and it’s all my fault.” Beth is exhibiting a. self-enhancement bias. b. false consensus error. c. self-effacement bias. d. stereotypes. Medium/Evaluation Self-enhancement bias is a. the tendency for people to underestimate their performance, undervalue capabilities, and see events in a way that puts them in a more negative light. b. the tendency to overestimate our performance and capabilities and see ourselves in a more positive light than others see us. c. the overestimation of how similar we are to other people. d. the process with which individuals detect and interpret environmental stimuli. Easy/Knowledge The car was traveling very slowly on the highway in front of Ned. He turned to Sally and said, “This is ridiculous, we are never going to get there on time. That must be a woman driver in front of us!” Ned is engaging in a. false consensus error. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. stereotyping.

d. (c) 99.

(a) 100.

(b) 101.

(a) 102.

(a) 103.

(d) 104.

first impressions. Easy/Analysis

The professor announced the first day of class: “Students are not good at meeting deadlines. I guarantee you that someone will email me the day after a due date and ask if I will accept a paper for partial credit.” Yesterday the first paper was due in the professor’s class. He just checked his email and a student inquired whether the paper could be turned in for partial credit today. This is an example of a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. self-enhancement bias. c. self-effacement bias. d. selective perception. Medium/Synthesis First impressions a. are fleeting impressions. b. are resilient even in the face of contrary evidence. c. become dependent on the evidence that created them. d. are likely to change over time. Medium/Synthesis When interviewing, keep all of these pieces of advice in mind EXCEPT: a. it is not how you dress, but how confident you are that determines your success. b. have a professional-looking résumé. c. be on time for the interview. d. practice for the interview. Medium/Comprehension Internal attribution a. is the belief that a behavior is caused by the characteristics that are specific to that person. b. is the causal explanation given for an observed behavior. c. explains someone’s behavior by referring to the situation. d. is the tendency to attribute failures to the situation while attributing successes to internal causes. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is one of the three key factors in understanding what kind of attributions we make? a. past experiences b. mood c. perception d. consensus Easy/Knowledge Low distinctiveness is characterized by a. a person acting the same way he always does in that situation. b. a person behaving differently than he usually does in different situations. c. a person behaving the same way in different situations.

d. (c)

everyone else behaving in the same way. Easy/Knowledge

Bill is the quarterback of his college football team. The team was 10-0, but lost this week after what Bill says was a very bad call by the referee. Bill seldom says anything about how the referees called any game, but he is very vocal about this one. You know that Bill works hard both on the field and off. You talk to other players on the team and they complain about the referee’s call also. 105.

(d)

In the preceding story, both Bill and the other players expressed concern about the referee’s call. This demonstrates a. low distinctiveness. b. low consistency. c. high consistency. d. high consensus. Medium/Analysis

(b)

The fact that Bill seldom complains about the referees suggests he has a. low distinctiveness. b. high distinctiveness. c. high consistency. d. low consensus. Medium/Evaluation

(b) 108.

In this scenario, given what you know about the referee’s call, you could explain Bill’s behavior as a. internal attribution. b. external attribution. c. self-serving bias. d. self-fulfilling prophecy. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about attribution is correct? a. Attributions depend only on consensus, distinctiveness and consistency. b. When faced with poor performance, one punishes the person more if we make an external attribution. c. If someone’s failure is due to internal causes, we feel empathy and offer help.

d. (d) 109.

(b)

If we make an external attribution to someone’s goal achievement, we are less likely to reward the individual. Difficult/Synthesis

Internal attribution occurs with a. low consensus, high distinctiveness, and high consistency. b. high consensus, high distinctiveness, and high consistency. c. low consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency. d. high consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency. Medium/Analysis When people consider themselves like other people, and overestimate their similarities to other people, they are making a a. self-enhancement bias b. false consensus error c. stereotyping d self-effacement bias Medium/Analysis

Section IV: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 111.

(d) 112.

(b) 113.

(b) 114.

(b) 115.

(a)

Which of the following statements regarding individual differences and ethics is true? a. People with an economic value orientation tend to make more ethical choices. b. Employees with internal locus of control make more unethical choices. c. We tend to underestimate how ethical we are. d. How we make attributions in a given situation will determine how we respond to others’ actions. Medium/Analysis Hofstede found that countries differ on the equality or hierarchy among people, which he referred to as a. uncertainty avoidance. b. power distance. c. masculinity. d. Individualism. Easy/Knowledge People from Europe and the United States have higher levels of ___________ than that of Asia and Africa. a. introversion b. extraversion c. consensus d. agreeableness Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the universality of personality traits is correct? a. There is no difference in the dominant personality trait in countries across the world. b. In regions that suffered from infectious diseases, openness to experiences is less dominant. c. The five-factor model of personality traits is not universally useful. d. The presence of democratic values in a culture is associated with introversion. Difficult/Evaluation During a conversation, a person from the United States tends to look at the other person’s face to assess their feelings; a person from Japan is more likely to look at the people surrounding the person being addresses. The Japanese person is considering a. context b. commitment c. focus d. attribution Easy/Knowledge

Closing Section: Using Big Data to Match Applicants to Jobs: The Case of Cornerstone OnDemand

116.

(a) 117.

(b)

The Evolv approach is a way to a. find data-driven predictors of how well someone will perform at a job b. develop a social media profile of a potential hire c. use data about employees who were not successful at a position to hire new employees d. assess how managers hire Easy/Knowledge Xerox uses Evolv to develop and deliver a test to job seekers that a. assesses their ability to work well with others b. compares the job applicant’s response to the profile of current high performers c. allows them to write an essay in response to certain questions and Evolv grades the essay d. assesses their morals and ethics Medium/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 118. Matching candidates to jobs is a key way of ensuring ________ performance and ____________ turnover in the workplace. (high, low) 119.

Experts suggest that ____________ answers to questions in applicant-matching software is difficult because the candidate can not predict the desired profile. (faking) 120.

The __________ perspective suggests behavior is a function of the person and the situation interacting with each other. (interactionist) 121.

When hiring individuals, companies are interested in two types of fit: __________________ and __________________. (person/job, person/organization) 122.

Maggie loves routine, repetitive tasks and is very risk averse. She loves working as a cashier. This is an example of person/_________ fit.

(job) 123.

Mark is interviewing with a Wall Street firm. He notes that employees dress in business suits on a daily basis and address each other by Ms. and Mr. He decides that the firm’s culture is too conservative for him. Mark is concerned about person/_______________ fit. (organization)

124.

__________ that are important to people affect the decisions they make, how they perceive their environment, and their actual behavior. (Values) 125.

________ are stable life goals that people have, reflecting what is most important to them. (Values) 126.

Broad mindedness, obedience, forgiveness and imagination are examples of _________ values. (instrumental)

127.

End states that people desire in life such as a prosperous life are examples of ___________ values. (terminal)

128.

__________ suggests that values are arranged in hierarchical order. (Rokeach)

129.

______________ is defined as relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns a person has. (Personality)

130.

A person who is very curious, original, creative and very adaptable to change is high in ________________. (openness)

131.

______________ is the one personality trait that uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance will be across a variety of jobs. (Conscientiousness)

132.

People with high __________ are often effective sales representatives. (extraversion)

133.

Individuals high in ____________ are often effective managers and tend to demonstrate inspirational leadership behaviors. (extraversion)

134.

Individuals high in ___________ are nice, tolerant, kind and warm people who get along well with others and are valuable additions to any team. (agreeableness)

135.

A person who is high in ____________ are anxious, irritable, aggressive, temperamental, and moody. (neuroticism)

136.

The __________________ is an instrument that groups individuals by type, not trait, and is useful for team-building and training purposes. (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator)

137.

Stanley always sees “the glass as half empty.” Stanley is probably a ___________ person. (negative affective)

138.

Gabrielle is a high ________________. She can walk into a meeting and quickly identify the mood and the key interactions between attendees and adapt her behavior accordingly. (self-monitor)

139.

Raul is highly respected by his colleagues. When there is a problem, he quickly takes the initiative to find a solution and tries to remove all barriers to success. Raul has a _____________ personality. (proactive)

140.

“I won’t get this job either. I’ve been on twenty interviews already and I haven’t received one callback. I don’t think I’ll ever get a job. I’m such a failure,” says the graduating college senior. The student is exhibiting low ____________. (self-esteem)

141.

People with high __________set higher goals for themselves. (self-efficacy)

142.

The basketball coach says, “This team has to control its own destiny. You cannot be looking to other teams to lose so you can get into the play-offs. Only we can get ourselves into the tournament. We have to take care of our own house.” The coach likely has ________________________. (internal locus of control)

143.

When people believe that things happen to them because of luck, other people or a higher being, they are classified as high in _____________________________. (external locus of control)

144.

_______________ could be a serious problem when using personality tests in employee selection because it can change the rank ordering of candidates. (Faking)

145.

Harrison was glancing over the list of runners who finished the Boston Marathon and the names of the two runners from his hometown of Richmond, Virginia “jumped” out at him. The phenomenon is an example of the process of ________________________. (selective perception)

146.

You are asked to predict how quickly you will run a mile track. You run on a regular basis to stay in shape. You say you will run the track in five minutes. It takes you eight minutes. Your prediction was an example of ___________________ bias. (self-enhancement)

147.

The assumption that whatever quirks we have are shared by many other people is ____________________________.

(false consensus error) 148.

You are a manager who believes that all young employees “goof off at work.” You therefore limit the number of assignments you give to your young employees. Lately you have noticed that the young employees in your department are texting on their cell phones, playing computer games and just talking to each other quite a bit. This situation is an example of a ____________________. (self-fulfilling prophecy)

149.

The dramatic drop in sales was discussed at the weekly company meeting. The manufacturing manager kept looking at the production-related aspects of the problem while the marketing manager concentrated on the promotional aspects. ____________________ explains why these two managers were focusing on their specific areas and ignoring others. (Selective perception)

150.

Since ____________ _____________ are lasting, make sure your résumé is neat in appearance and error free. When interviewing, dress appropriately and greet the interviewer with a firm handshake. (first impressions)

151.

Three key factors in understanding attribution are ___________, _____________, and ______________. (consensus, distinctiveness, consistency)

152.

Agnes failed her accounting exam and complains that the exam was too difficult. Marta just ignores her because Agnes did not study at all in the three weeks prior to the exam. Marta is making an ___________________ for Agnes’s failure. (internal attribution)

153.

If Indira believes that only the recent college graduates she manages (and not the older workers) understand her new social media plan, she is __________ because of their age. (stereotyping)

154.

Sean spends time every day at his desk checking on his sports fantasy league, and assumes that his co-workers fool around on the internet at work as well. Sean is making a ______. (false consensus error)

155.

Demarco applies for a job but doesn’t really feel he has the proper qualifications. When they do ask him to interview for the position, he arrives in sloppy clothes with an out-of-date resume. Demarco does not get the job. This is an example of a ______. (self-fulfilling prophecy)

156.

Masoud applies for a promotion. While he doesn’t meet the exact qualifications he is sure he will interview well if he gets the chance and he has done a good job in his current position. He does obtain an interview but doesn’t get the promotion. Masoud is sure that the only reason he didn’t get the job is because Deena, the

person who did get the promotion, is good friends with the manager. This is an example of _____ (self-serving bias) 157.

Masoud applies for a promotion. While he doesn’t meet the exact qualifications he is sure he will interview well if he gets the chance and he has done a good job in his current position. He does obtain an interview and does get the promotion. Masoud is sure that the only reason he got the job is because he did so well in the interview. This is an example of _____ (self-serving bias)

SHORT ANSWERS 158.

Name and describe the two types of fit companies are interested in assessing when hiring employees and describe the relationship between each type of fit and work behaviors. The first type of fit is person/job fit. This is the degree to which a person’s skills, knowledge, abilities and other characteristics match the job demands. Person/organization, the second type of fit, is the degree to which a person’s values, personality, goals and other characteristics match those of the organization. When a person fits his/her job, there is greater satisfaction with the work environment and better job performance., When there is fit between a person and the organization where he/she works, he/she tends to be more committed to his/her organization and remains at the firm longer. Clearly turnover is costly, so anything that helps avoid it is beneficial to a firm.

159.

What is the difference between a terminal value and an instrumental value? What impact does an assessment of employee values have upon a firm? A terminal value is an end state people desire in life, such as leading a prosperous life. An instrumental value, in contrast, is a view on an acceptable mode of conduct such as being ethical. Values that are important to people impact their decisions and behaviors. Further, values are stable aspects of a person’s life that influence their perspective on an ongoing basis. Thus, it would be very beneficial for a firm to recognize its employees’ core values to discern the nature of their behavior in the workplace and to determine whether the job and/or organization provides an opportunity to satisfy the dominant values of the employees.

160.

Identify a list of at least 5 terminal values and 5 instrumental values. Student answers may vary, but the textbooks examples include: Terminal Values: A world of beauty, an exciting life, family security, inner harmony, self-respect. Instrumental Values: broad minded, clean, forgiving, imaginative, obedient

161.

Briefly discuss each of the five personality traits and the usefulness each has for personnel selection. Openness is the degree to which a person is curious, original, intellectual, creative and open to new ideas. People high in openness thrive in jobs and positions where they can be flexible and learn new things. Conscientiousness is the degree to which a person is organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented and dependable. High conscientiousness is the trait most desired by recruiters as it uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance on the job will be. Extraversion is the degree to which a person is outgoing, talkative, sociable, and enjoys being in social situations. These individuals are particularly effective in jobs involving sales. Agreeableness is the degree to which a person is nice, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind and warm. Agreeable people help others work consistently; thus they are good team members. Neuroticism is the degree to which a person is anxious, irritable, aggressive, temperamental and moody. These individuals experience a variety of problems at work so identification of them in the interview will help a firm avoid the relationship issues they create as employees.

162.

You work with Ben, one of the most negative individuals you have ever met. How can you work more effectively with him? Begin by recognizing the fact that you are not going to change him. A person’s personality is rather stable so criticizing his negativity will not change it. Be open-minded. Just because someone is negative does not mean he is not right. Set a time limit for your conversations with the negative person. Don’t let them consume you. Empower the person to act on the things he complains about. Ask him what he would do to fix the problematic situation. Ask for specifics. Let him provide details of the problem.

163.

Explain the difference between self-esteem and self -efficacy. Self-esteem is the overall positive feelings a person holds about himself or herself. Self-esteem is a more universal or overall assessment of one’s beliefs while self-efficacy focuses on beliefs related to performance. Self-efficacy is the belief that a person can perform a task. A person with high self-efficacy believes they can do a task and thus have a better chance of succeeding.

164.

Horace completed a locus of control survey in his organizational behavior class. The results indicate he has a high internal locus of control. What might he read about the trait in the profile of high locus of control individuals? High internal locus of control individuals believe they control their own destiny and what happens to them is their own doing. Internals tend to act in ways that increase their chances of success. Thus, they initiate relationships with mentors, become more involved at work and demonstrate higher levels of motivation.

165.

Differentiate between self-enhancement bias and self-effacement bias. Self-enhancement bias is the tendency for people to overestimate their performance and capabilities and see themselves in a more positive light than others see them. This scenario occurs quite frequently in self-assessment in performance evaluations as individuals, in general, rate themselves higher than either their peers or superiors do. Self-effacement bias is the tendency for people to underestimate their performance and see events that put them in a more negative light. They have a difficult time effecting change in their lives because they see things so negatively.

166.

Define the concept of stereotypes and give an example. A stereotype is a generalization based upon group characteristics. The stereotype can be positive, negative or neutral. An example of a stereotype is that women talk too much and that men never ask for directions. Our stereotypes can influence the nature of our communication, decision making and other processes.

167.

What is a self-fulfilling prophecy? A self-fulfilling prophecy is when an established stereotype causes one to behave in a certain way, which leads another party to behave in a way that makes the stereotype come true. In a classic example of the self-fulfilling prophecy, an thirdgrade elementary school teacher is told by a second-grade teacher that the students she is sending into his third-grade class next year are very poor readers. The following year, the third-grade teacher teaches reading to the students from the standpoint of being poor readers. When the scores for their first reading test of third-grade are examined, they indicate the students are poor readers. The self-fulfilling prophecy has been fulfilled. ESSAY

168.

You are a counselor in the career placement office at your university. Jackie, a business student, recently completed a personality survey. You are reviewing the results and find she has low self-esteem and low- to mid-range self-efficacy. Sketch out some possible steps Jackie can begin to undertake to improve both of these personality dimensions.

Individuals with low self-esteem have high levels of self-doubt and frequently question their overall self-worth. Often those with low self-esteem try to become invisible. Thus, Jackie may largely keep to herself at the university, not being part of any clubs or social groups. As a counselor, you might want to encourage her to find a club related to her major and join it, initially attending meetings as a listener and working up to a more participative role. Also, Jackie should attend events on campus where she can meet others and begin to forge ties. Low selfesteem individuals need positive feedback to begin the process of enhancing their self-worth. Putting herself in the aforementioned situations will help Jackie begin to get such feedback. Initial positive feedback from club meetings may be things as simple as smiles of recognition from other club members for regular attendance or acknowledgements of Jackie by those club members when they see her on campus. Later, short conversations will develop both in meetings and on campus as the concept of self-worth will build. Low self-efficacy is the belief that you are unable to perform a specific task successfully. Improving one’s level of self-efficacy begins by placing yourself in the situation where you will have the opportunity to perform the task. Then, set a simple achievable goal for that task. Congratulate yourself on its achievement and set the goal higher the next time you encounter the situation. In Jackie’s case, she may find that she is struggling with finance, as the low grade on her first test indicates. Instead of dropping the course, she might consider a change in study habits, committing herself to reviewing material each day after class and visiting her professor for assistance during office hours. The professor will encourage her as she successfully completes problem sets. Jackie could then set a goal of an average grade on the next exam; as that is achieved, she can continue to place herself in situations where her skills can be honed and tested. 169.

You are a member of a human resource department in a large corporation. One of your colleagues has recently developed a personality test he wants to use along with the cognitive abilities test you have been using to select employees for positions in the firm. He has come to you for help in deciding how to validate the test. What recommendations would you give him? Validation involves ensuring that the test measures what it is intended to measure and looks for the relationship (correlation) between the predictor (the personality test) and some standard or measures of success on the job (criteria). You might, therefore, suggest that the personality test be given to current employees. From the group of current employees tested, you would assess who are your best performers and who are not quite as effective. You then would examine the results of the personality test and look for relationships between the personality profiles and the individual employee’s performance level. For example, do you have an employee who has been rated a very high performer over the last few years in the firm and whose personality profile indicates him to be high in conscientiousness, agreeableness and low in neuroticism? If the answer is yes, then you could assume the personality test has some validity because the research suggests that the traits uncovered tend to produce better performers. Similarly, if the personality test indicated a second worker, a manager, was high in neuroticism and you note that his performance appraisal results suggest his subordinates complain that he does not treat them fairly, you

can again assume the personality test is valid. It predicted what it was supposed to predict. You also must examine the personality test to ensure it is not discriminating in any manner against any of the groups who are legally protected by their characteristics including race, color, sex, religion, national origin, age, and disabilities. 170.

Should personality tests be used in the employee selection process? Though turnover in the job is expensive, and enhancing the person/organization and person/job fit is important, companies should exercise caution in using personality tests in selection, as the research on their validity and reliability is mixed. Some experts believe that personality tests predict performance and other criteria such as job satisfaction and thus advocate their usage. Others believe that the nature of the personality tests themselves allow for the job candidate to fake his/her answers and that personality may not actually be such a good predictor of performance anyway. Some studies indicate that personality predicts only 10-15% of the variation in job performance. In short, companies should avoid relying upon personality tests alone in making their selection decisions, but if used in concert with other selection techniques including cognitive ability tests, personality tests may improve the selection decision.

171.

You are a career development counselor at your university. You have been instructed by your supervisor to develop a program called, “Tips for Your First Interview.” What are some of the tips you could provide students as they prepare for that first interview? Why are these actions important? It is imperative that students recognize the power of first impressions. It must be emphasized multiple times in the presentation that first impressions are lasting impressions. Before ever meeting with a recruiter, students must recognize that their résumés are extensions of themselves and make impressions just as physical meetings make impressions. Therefore, the program should feature a section on resumes focusing on the necessity of a neat appearance to the document and the criticality of ensuring no errors are found on that resume. Further, cover letters should be addressed to a specific individual, not “To Whom It May Concern.” The program should also highlight the pre-interview preparation as important for establishing a positive first impression. Time should be spent talking about how to dress for success, including mention of jewelry, piercings and hair style. The interviewee must be punctual to the interview. It’s even a good practice to be 10 minutes early.. If the interviewee is unfamiliar with the location of the firm at which she/he is interviewing or is unfamiliar with the nature of the traffic in that area, a “dry run” is advised to ensure making the interview in a timely manner when scheduled. Finally, the initial moments of the actual interview should be addressed. It is imperative that students begin their session with a firm handshake and a smile

for the interviewer. The program should feature practice in shaking hands. Though it may seem to be a silly exercise to some students, practice is important to avoid awkward moments. The more aspects of the initial interactions between interviewer and interviewee the student is prepared for, the more successful the interview will be. 172.

Mario has been the cost accountant for a large manufacturing company for ten years. Over his ten-year tenure, Mario has been an outstanding employee. In fact, twice during that time period, Mario was named “Employee of the Year.” However, over the past four months, Mario’s manager, Marielle, has begun to notice changes in his behavior. Interactions with Mario are often unpleasant. Last week Marielle told Mario about a new project that will begin in one month for which he was named team leader. He did not take the news well, complaining bitterly to Marielle about the amount of work that he had, the extra hours that he is expected to put in with no addition in pay, the nature of the individuals on the teams of which he is a part, and just about everything else happening in the firm. Yesterday, Marielle asked him a question about a project that is to be completed by Friday of this week and received the same lengthy complaints. She is stunned by this behavior since no one else voiced such opinions before, and is attempting to discern its root cause so that Mario can return to his former levels of performance. Marielle overheard two junior level accountants talking about Mario’s son being in trouble at school and also heard in the cafeteria last week that Mario’s wife is suffering from a prolonged illness. Using attribution theory, help Marielle provide a preliminary explanation for the behavior as she prepares to counsel Mario. Mario is behaving in a manner that is very different from his norm, and in fact, is very different than most of the employees in the firm. The constant complaining in the face of relative calm from the other employees suggests Mario is exhibiting low consensus. In ten years, Mario has always been an outstanding performer and never complained about anything. The fact that it is occurring now suggests that high distinctiveness is being exhibited. Finally, every time Marielle speaks to Mario about his work, he complains. Since the two have always had a very pleasant relationship before and since Marielle is beginning to hear of potential issues at home, she may make a preliminary assessment that the personal family issues are beginning to spill over into the workplace for Mario. This is an external attribution and Marielle can now decide exactly how to address these delicate issues in a meeting to offer some support and counseling.

173.

What value is added to a firm in knowing the nature of personality traits in other cultures? Diversity in the workforce is a competitive advantage in today’s dynamic, global marketplace. If a firm has an appreciation for market niches available due to the differences in culture, language, sexual orientation, gender, etc., they can address those customers much more effectively by drawing on the diverse nature

of its own workforce. Further, since securing a person/job and person/organization fit facilitates performance, and personality helps determine that fit, understanding the nature of personality traits in other cultures is very important. For example, while some countries seem to have a majority of extraverts, as in the United States and Europe, Asia and Africa do not share the same traits. Clearly the nature of sales and marketing will differ in these countries based upon these traits. Similarly, being cognizant of a country’s culture will assist you in competing more effectively in that market. 174.

Describe how perception informs how we make sense of our environment. Humans have many ways that we respond to our environment. While each person sees the same reality of a tree or a chair, our values, needs, and emotions affect our thoughts of what kind of tree or chair we are seeing. We go beyond the objective information available to us and apply our own perceptions of objects, self, and others. When perceiving the physical environment, we fill in gaps and extrapolate from the available information; we may see a letter in a word that isn’t there just because our brain knows that it should be. When we look at the tree, we may feel it is smaller or larger because of what is surrounding it. As humans, we also skew our assessments of ourselves, assuming characteristics we have are shared by others. We see characteristics in another person that we apply generally to others of the same sex or race, and stereotype them. A negative or positive stereotype can lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy because without realizing it our actions and assumptions will lead to a predictable outcome. How we perceive someone, or how we are perceived, during a first impression is lasting and can impact all future interactions. Our interactions with others are colored by how we make internal and external attributions, assessing if other people act the same way, if a person acts that way consistently, or if the person changes in different situations.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 4 Individual Attitudes and Behaviors TRUE/FALSE 1.

Attitudes are more strongly related to actual behaviors than to intentions to behave.

(False) 2. Behavior is influenced by attitudes and situations. (True) 3.

Based on the number of studies conducted, job satisfaction is the most important job attitude.

(True) 4.

There is a high degree of overlap between job satisfaction and organizational commitment.

(True) 5. Job satisfaction can be fully explained by the work environment. (False) 6.

Maria just completed a series of personality assessments and is found to be high on external locus of control and introversion. Based on findings from research, it is likely she also has positive work attitudes.

(False) 7.

Person-job fit and person-organization fit are positively related to job satisfaction and job engagement.

(True) 8.

People with positive affective dispositions tend to be more satisfied with their jobs and committed to their companies.

(True) 9.

The job characteristics of autonomy and high skill variety are positively related to organizational commitment.

(True) 10. Realistic job previews help prevent breaches of the psychological contract. (True) 11.

Employees are happier at work if they are socially accepted in their work groups.

(True) 12. All stress on the job is bad. (False) 13. The concept of always putting work first is outdated. (True) 14. A happy worker is always a productive worker. (False) 15. The relationship between positive work attitudes and behavior is clear. (False) 16.

Natalia is assisting new employee Jane by showing her around the facility. This is an example of organizational citizenship behavior.

(True) 17. If you don’t like your job, you will definitely reduce your job performance. (False) 18. A departing employee’s manager is the best person to conduct the exit interview. (False) 19.

The success of work attitude surveys depends on the perceived credibility of management by employees.

(True) 20. The most powerful influence on job performance is general mental ability. (True) 21.

The importance of higher general mental ability for high performance is stronger for manual labor positions compared to management positions.

(False) 22.

When an employee is treated well, he wants to reciprocate, so he performs his job more effectively.

(True) 23.

General mental ability is likely the most important factor explaining employee citizenship behaviors.

(False) 24. Young people exhibit higher citizenship behaviors than older people. (False) 25.

Firms with “sick leave” policies tend to have more individuals with unscheduled absences than those with “personal day off” policies.

(True)

26. Age is positively related to both frequency and duration of absenteeism. (False) 27. Personality is the main reason why individuals turnover in a firm. (False) 28.

In organizations that have a pay-for-performance system, overall turnover level will be lower.

(False) 29.

Whistleblowers, or people who report wrongdoing, tend to be those who have very high levels of commitment to a company.

(False) 30. Work-family conflict tends to lower job satisfaction in collectivistic cultures. (False) 31. In China, absence from work due to illness is considered relatively unacceptable. (True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Fostering Positive Job Attitudes and Professional Development: The Case of Enterprise Holdings 32.

(b)

*Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics of Enterprise? a. A belief in promoting from within b. Exceptional customer service c. Bringing in a new hire at the executive level to inject new management styles d. Investing in employees Medium/Comprehension *Typically, after the new recruits at Enterprise complete the management training programs, what percentage of the new hires stay with Enterprise? a. over 25% b. over 50% c. over 75% d. under 25% Easy/Knowledge

Section I: Work Attitudes

34.

(a) 35.

(b) 36.

(a) 37.

(b) 38.

(d) 40.

An attitude is a. our opinions, beliefs and feelings about our environment. b. an outcome of our efforts. c. the drive that energizes an individual. d. the degree to which people have freedom to decide how to act. Easy/Knowledge If one looks at the number of studies conducted on attitudes, which of the following seems to be the most important? a. organizational commitment b. job satisfaction c. satisfaction with supervisors d. cognitive ability Easy/Comprehension Job satisfaction refers to a. the feelings people have toward their jobs. b. the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. c. an unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment. d. the degree of emotional intelligence an employee exhibits. Easy/Knowledge Organizational commitment refers to a. the feelings people have toward their jobs. b. the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. c. an unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment. d. the degree of emotional intelligence an employee exhibits. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements is true? a. There is an exceptionally strong correlation between attitudes and behavior such that attitudes will almost perfectly predict behavior. b. Intention to behave and actual behavior are almost always the same. c. Attitude provides clues to behavior, but situational factors also impact behavior. d. Attitude is weakly related to intention to behave and actual behavior. Difficult/Evaluation Happiness at work can be enhanced by which of the following strategies? a. Pay at all times; pay is always the key aspect to job satisfaction. b. Reaction to organizational life. Work is stressful, just “suck it up.” c. Pulling yourself away from your co-workers and concentrating on the job. d. Knowing yourself and what you want from the job. Medium/Evaluation Research shows that all of the following impact the employee’s satisfaction with the job and commitment to the organization EXCEPT a. how he or she is treated in the firm.

b. c. d. (c) 41.

(d) 42.

(a) 44.

(d) 46.

the actual work the employee performs. the firm’s competitiveness. the relationships formed with colleagues and managers. Medium/Knowledge

Which of the following factors contribute to job satisfaction? a. personality. b. job characteristics. c. work/life balance. d. all of the above. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements is true of organizational commitment? a. There is very little overlap with job satisfaction. b. Organizational commitment is a strong predictor of performance. c. Those with high organizational commitment are absent less often than those who are not so committed. d. Relationships at work have little influence on organizational behavior. Easy/Knowledge Employees with which of the following personality traits would experience high job satisfaction? a. Those with positive affective dispositions. b. Those with neurotic personalities. c. Those with low self-esteem. d. Those who are introverted. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements is true? a. External locus of control and introversion result in positive work attitudes. b. Low self-esteem results in more positive work attitudes. c. People who are critical of themselves experience less job satisfaction. d. People with positive affective dispositions are less committed to their work organizations. Difficult/Synthesis Research on job characteristics indicate that a. people with a minimal variety of skills are always less satisfied with their job. b. people with autonomy on their job are always more satisfied with their job. c. all people want feedback on their jobs. d. people who have high growth need tend to expect their jobs to help them build new skills. Difficult/Evaluation Research on relationships at work indicates a. as long as some of our coworkers are our friends, being treated unfairly by the organization won’t matter that much. b. the development of a trust-based relationship with the manager is related to organizational commitment.

c. d. (b) 47.

(a) 48.

(b) 49.

(a) 50.

(a) 51.

how considerate our manager is impacts our job satisfaction, but not our organizational commitment. our level of social acceptance by our coworkers impacts our performance, but not our commitment to the organization. Difficult/Evaluation

Role conflict, role ambiguity, organizational politics, and job insecurity are indicators of a. stress at work. b. high responsibility at work. c. work-life balance. d. organizational justice. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements about factors that cause work attitudes is accurate? a. Job satisfaction is purely environmental. b. Person-job fit is positively related to job satisfaction. c. Psychological contract breach leads to high job satisfaction. d. Organizational justice results in psychological contract breach. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about factors that cause work attitudes is accurate? a. Role ambiguity can lead to job dissatisfaction. b. Negative affective disposition leads to higher organizational commitment. c. Stress always leads to job dissatisfaction. d. Using too many skills on the job usually leads to job satisfaction because it increases stress. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is related to lower levels of organizational commitment? a. negative affective disposition b. maintenance of the psychological contract between worker and firm c. perceived fairness of company policies d. manager consideration of our opinions and suggestions Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements is true regarding the causes of positive work attitudes? a. The notion of work/life balance is outdated. b. All stressors are bad. c. Job/person fit is positively related to job satisfaction. d. The level of coworker acceptance of an employee has no impact on the employee’s commitment to the organization. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements regarding work attitude and performance is accurate? a. Those with the most positive work attitudes are always strong performers.

b. c. d. (b) 53.

(b) 54.

(d) 55.

(d)

In engineering, there tends to be a stronger link between work attitude and performance than one finds in an assembly line job. The correlation between organizational commitment and performance is strong. Your skill level in performing a job does not matter much if your attitude toward work is positive. Medium/Analysis

Indicate which of the following statements is true. a. A happy worker is always a productive worker. b. Work attitudes are related to organizational citizenship behaviors. c. Work attitudes are the most important factor in performance. d. Work attitudes have no impact on customer satisfaction. Difficult/Synthesis Organizational citizenship behaviors include all of the following EXCEPT a. working voluntary overtime. b. assisting new employees. c. speaking positively about the organization. d. performing the duties in one’s job description. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is accurate for the relationship between attitudes and performance? a. Though you want to perform better, your skill set may prevent that from occurring. b. Though you want to perform better, the equipment used at work may not be functioning properly. c. Though you want to perform better, there may be factors outside your control that make it impossible. d. All of the above. Medium/Comprehension

56.

(d) 57.

(a) 58.

(b) 59.

(b) 60.

(d)

Which of the following statements regarding work attitudes and job performance is accurate? a. Work attitudes are more strongly related to job performance than they are to organizational citizenship behaviors. b. If you want to perform better, you will actually perform better. c. Workforce satisfaction does not have a meaningful impact on profitability. d. People who are happy at work are more satisfied in their overall life too. Difficult/Synthesis Workforce satisfaction is related to a. greater customer loyalty. b. more absenteeism. c. reduced team cohesion. d. more accidents in the workplace. Medium/Analysis Companies track employee work attitudes through a. performance evaluation interviews. b. attitude surveys. c. employee suggestions. d. overhearing workplace conversations. Easy/Knowledge Attitude surveys conducted by companies produce more useful information if a. surveys are completed electronically. b. the management is perceived as credible by employees. c. past surveys were conducted but no action has resulted from them. d. individual survey responses are made public. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements about exit interviews is true? a. A departing employee’s manager should always conduct the exit interview because the immediate supervisor knew the employee best. b. An exit interview always indicates why an employee is departing a firm. c. An exit interview always indicates how management can improve so other employees will not leave. d. An exit interview should be conducted by a member of the human resource department for best results. Medium/Comprehension

61.

(d) 62.

(b) 63.

(d) 64.

(a) 65.

(d) 66.

When analyzing the information on work attitudes and aspects of the work environment, which of the following statements is true? a. Attitudes always predict behavior in the work environment. b. People with negative work attitudes never perform well. c. Personality and organizational citizenship are the two key attitudes that are the most relevant to important outcomes in the work environment. d. Maintenance of the psychological contract helps develop organizational commitment. Difficult/Synthesis *A person’s enthusiasm, involvement, and satisfaction with their work is considered a. job satisfaction b. job engagement c. organizational commitment d. organizational attitude Easy/Knowledge *SHRM conducted a recent study that indicated at least _____ of those who responded are, at the very least, somewhat satisfied with their jobs. a. 9% b. 29% c. 49% d. 89% Easy/Knowledge *Which of these has a low correlation to job satisfaction? a. Level of pay b. Treatment of supervisors c. Fair application of company policies d. Equitable rewards from the company Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a way that managers and coworkers can positively affect employees’ attitudes and commitment? a. Mentorship b. Assist with various tasks c. Friendship and emotional support d. Comments about job performance that are critical and demeaning Easy/Knowledge

(a)

*In the current workforce, a ______ is important to job satisfaction and engagement. a. positive work-life balance b. positive social profile c. critical review from managers d. huge salary Medium/Comprehension

67.

*Which of these are NOT a best practice for conducting an exit interview?

(b)

a. Conduct the meeting halfway between the date the employee resigns and the date the employee is actually leaving b. Have the employee’s manager conduct the interview c. Have the employee’s manager’s manager conduct the interview d. Allow a human resources representative to conduct the interview Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Work Behaviors 68.

(d) 69.

(d) 70.

(b) 71.

All of the following general mental abilities refer to a. reasoning abilities. b. verbal and numerical skills. c. analytical skills. d. all of the above Easy/Knowledge Which of the following factors is a major predictor of job performance? a. work-life balance issues b. employee age c. employee personality d. interpersonal relationships at work Medium/Analysis Which of the following factors is considered a major predictor of organizational citizenship behaviors? a. general mental abilities b. positive work attitudes c. stress d. poor performance Difficult/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding job performance is INCORRECT? a. Measures of job performance include the speed and accuracy with which the job is performed. b. One of the powerful influences on job performance is how we are treated at work. c. Contrary to what most people would think, stress has very little impact on job performance. d. Work attitudes, like job satisfaction, are moderate correlates of job performance. Medium/Analysis Research indicates which of the following factors is the strongest predictor of job performance? a. general mental ability b. work attitudes c. stress d. positive work attitudes

(a) 73.

(a) 74.

(b) 75.

(d)

Medium/Analysis Research on job performance suggests a. when we are treated well, we want to reciprocate, thus when the company treats us well, we perform more effectively. b. positive work attitudes and performance are unrelated. c. conscientious employees do not perform better than those who are not conscientious. d. high stress at work is always associated with lower performance. Medium/Analysis Research on the relationship between personality and job performance indicates a. people who are extraverted perform slightly less well than those who are introverted. b. dependable people are better performers than those less dependable. c. there is little relationship between reliability and job performance. d. achievement-oriented people are so goal-oriented that they often fall short in their performance. Easy/Comprehension Research on work attitudes and performance indicates a. work attitudes are strong correlates of job performance. b. work attitudes are a stronger correlate of performance in complex jobs than in simpler jobs. c. dissatisfied employees always reduce performance level. d. work attitudes are a moderate correlate of performance. Medium/Analysis

76.

(a) 79.

(d) 80.

(b) 81.

Which of the following statements regarding the predictors of organizational citizenship behaviors is accurate? a. The link between ability and citizenship behavior is stronger than the link between motivation and citizenship behavior. b. The most important factor in determining employee citizenship behavior is personality. c. People with positive affectivity tend to exhibit stronger citizenship behaviors. d. Younger people tend to exhibit stronger citizenship behaviors than older people. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following scenarios is likely to produce LOW levels of citizenship behaviors? a. Maria is an agreeable, conscientious employee of a large conglomerate. b. Randall’s boss is extremely family-oriented and recently allowed him to leave work early to attend his son’s after-school soccer game. c. Horatio is a young engineer with negative affectivity. d. Jennifer is a devoted employee who is happy at her work. Difficult/Synthesis Which statement regarding citizenship behaviors is accurate? a. People who are older demonstrate higher levels of citizenship. b. People who are unhappy still perform citizenship behaviors to a very high degree. c. Job attitudes are weakly related to citizenship behaviors. d. People who are treated poorly tend to perform higher levels of citizenship behaviors. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following factors has been shown to be a cause of HIGH levels of absenteeism in a firm? a. positive work attitudes b. personality c. age of the worker d. work-life balance issues Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding absenteeism is accurate? a. Instituting organizational policies that penalize absenteeism are reasonable approaches to controlling the problem. b. Wellness programs are a viable way to address employee absenteeism. c. Flexibility in work scheduling does little to address absenteeism concerns. d. Personality has been consistently linked to absenteeism. Medium/Analysis Research on absenteeism indicates which of the following statements to be accurate? a. Negative work attitudes can result in absenteeism.

b. c. d. (a) 82.

(b) 83.

(b) 84.

(a)

Older individuals, because they are more likely to have health problems, are more likely to be absent from work. Employees who are permitted to manage their work schedules with regard to time at the company are more likely to be absent. Absenteeism saves organizations money because the company does not have to pay employees who are absent from their jobs. Medium/Analysis

Which of the following recommendations might you give to a friend regarding ways to deal with late coworkers? a. Try ignoring lateness and not imposing negative consequences. b. Reward timeliness by verbally recognizing those who arrive on time. c. Schedule meetings when most people can attend, even if it doesn’t work for everyone. d. Consider assigning less work to those who are late, they are probably juggling too many things right now. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following employees is more likely to turnover? a. Those who have been in the company for a long time. b. Those who have negative work attitudes. c. Those who have very little stress. d. Those who are high performers. Easy/Knowledge Research on turnover supports which of the following statements? a. Unhappy employees are more likely to leave than those who are satisfied with the organization. b. Poor work attitudes are not a strong predictor of intentions to quit. c. All turnover is bad for an organization. d. Agreeable and conscientious people are more likely to quit their jobs. Medium/Comprehension

85.

(d) 86.

(b) 87.

(d) 88.

(b) 89.

(c)

Research suggests which of the following relationships between performance and turnover? a. Pay-for-performance systems have no impact on an employee’s likelihood to turnover. b. The establishment of a pay-for-performance system in a company guarantees that high performers will stay in the firm. c. In general, good performers are more likely to leave a firm than poor performers because other firms readily recognize their skills and actively seek their employment. d. Poor performers are more likely to quit their jobs compared to high performers. Medium/Comprehension The primary reason for employee turnover is a. gender. b. work attitudes. c. age. d. general mental abilities. Medium/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding age and turnover is accurate? a. Programming opportunities offered to new hires, such as orientation, often fail to reduce the turnover of this group. b. Older individuals are more likely to turnover than younger individuals. c. Individuals who have been on the job only a short period of time are unlikely to turnover because they just got the job. d. Younger individuals have an easier time, overall, leaving a job than older individuals. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding turnover is true? a. The link between work attitudes and turnover is direct. b. Even though they are very unhappy with a job, employees may not leave an organization. c. Employees will quit their jobs voluntarily only when they feel they will get fired. d. Manager absenteeism causes employee turnover. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is NOT a tip for leaving your job gracefully? a. The world is a small place; don’t let tales of your unprofessional behavior travel. b. Don’t badmouth your employer; why make others feel bad? c. When you decide to leave, leave. Don’t hang around doing work you will not be doing a very good job on. d. Return all office supplies, keys, and anything else that belongs to the company. Medium/Comprehension

90.

(a) 91.

(b) 92.

(d)

*A study done by SHRM/Kronos holds that absenteeism costs employees what percentage of total payroll? a. 21% b. 51% c. 81% d. unknown how much it costs Easy/Knowledge *A factor in whether employees are absent from work, even when they are unhappy at their job, is their level of a. competitiveness b. guilt c. compassion d. knowledge Easy/Knowledge *All of these are reasons for job embeddedness except for a. having a strong connection to coworkers. b. doing well and being a good fit in the position. c. when leaving would mean giving up vacation time or benefits. d. realizing the company is going to have lay-offs in a month. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 93.

(a) 94.

(d) 95.

(d) 96.

(c)

When an ethical climate exists at a firm, studies suggest a. people are less likely to want to leave the firm. b. people are likely to only perform the duties of their job description because they do not want to engage in anything that will upset the balance of the ethical situation in place. c. people are not as satisfied with their jobs. d. people are less committed to the firm. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is an issue to keep in mind with regard to maintaining an ethical environment in an organization? a. Monitoring employee online activity is a good way of creating an ethical climate. b. Use of video cameras in the workplace will make employees feel the firm cares about ethics. c. High levels of employee monitoring increases citizenship behaviors. d. Monitoring employees may increase ethical compliance but may create a culture of mistrust. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding ethical behaviors in the workplace is true? a. High levels of employee monitoring increase employee commitment to the organization. b. High levels of employee monitoring increase work performance. c. High levels of employee monitoring increase citizenship behaviors. d. High levels of employee monitoring may reduce the frequency of unethical behaviors. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding job attitudes and cultural differences is true? a. Work-family conflict lowers job satisfaction in collectivistic cultures. b. High levels of empowerment are related to high job satisfaction in India. c. Work-family conflict lowers job satisfaction in individualistic cultures. d. Low levels of empowerment are related to high job satisfaction in the USA. Difficult/Analysis

Closing Section: 97.

A central issue currently facing long-haul trucking companies is a. low demand for trucking services. b. employee turnover. c. reduced job performance. d. managing a global workforce.

(b)

Easy/Knowledge

98.

SAS Institute has been ranked annually as “one of the best places to work.” The company achieves this ranking by a. providing “perks” such as a full gym and swimming pool. b. giving employees opportunities to work on challenging and interesting projects. c. eight-hour work days. d. all of the above. Easy/Knowledge

(d) 99.

(d)

SAS Institute’s commitment to its employees is demonstrated through which of the following practices? a. Results-oriented pay structures. b. Regular administration of employee satisfaction surveys in which employees provide important feedback. c. Matching perks for employees offered by other similar organizations. d. Paying employees below market salaries but offering additional perks. Medium/Application

FILL IN THE BLANK 100. An _______ is an opinion, belief or feeling about an aspect of the environment. (attitude) 101. The feelings people have toward their job is called ________________. (job satisfaction) 102.

_____________________ is the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. (Organizational commitment) 103.

The tendency to experience positive moods more often than negative ones is __________________________________. (positive affective disposition) 104.

When our __________ match the demands of the job, we tend to be more satisfied. (abilities) 105.

An unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment and what the company will provide in exchange is called a ___________________________. (psychological contract) 106. __________________ is vagueness as to what job responsibilities are in the job. (Role ambiguity) 107.

Helping new employees and working voluntary overtime are examples of _____________________________________. (organizational citizenship behaviors)

108. _________________ are meetings with departing employees. (Exit interviews) 109.

The worst person to conduct an exit interview is the _________ of the departing employee. (direct manager) 110.

________________________ and _________________________ are two key work attitudes that are the most relevant to important outcomes in the work environment. (Job satisfaction, organizational commitment) 111.

______________ is the degree to which an employee successfully fulfills the factors included in the job description. (Job performance) 112. The most powerful influence over job performance is _____________________. (general mental ability or cognitive ability) 113.

_________________ include reasoning abilities, verbal and numerical skills, and analytical skills. (General mental abilities or cognitive abilities) 114. Jobs with high complexity need to have employees with high ___________. (general mental abilities or cognitive ability) 115.

Predictors of _____________ include general mental abilities, how we are treated at work, stress, and positive work attitudes. (job performance) 116.

Predictors of _______________ include how we are treated at work, personality, positive work attitudes and age of the employee. (citizenship behaviors) 117.

Predictors of __________include health problems, work-life balance issues, poor work attitudes and age of the employee. (absenteeism) 118.

Predictors of _____________include poor performance, poor work attitudes, stress, personality, and age of the employee. (turnover) 119.

With regard to age, ___________ individuals typically exhibit better citizenship behaviors at work.

(older) 120. .__________ refers to unscheduled absences from work. (Absenteeism) 121.

With regard to age, ________ employees are less likely to be absent from work.

(older) 122. ___________ refers to an employee leaving an organization. (Turnover) 123.

*SAS Institute advocates its employees create work/life balance by suggesting, “If you are working more than______, you are just adding bugs.” (eight hours) 124. *The level to which an employee invests mental, emotional, and physical energy into their work is _____. (job engagement) 125.

*For an exit interview, the person who would conduct the least successful interview is the employee’s _______. (manager) _____. 126.

*When self-reported personality measures are used, studies have shown that the results are generally _____ than when observer measures of personality are used. (weaker) 127.

*An employee who continually demonstrates good organizational citizenship behavior may end up suffering from _____. (citizenship fatigue) 128.

*When a person has strong links to the organization and leaving would entail significant sacrifices he/she has _____. (job embeddedness) SHORT ANSWERS 129.

Briefly discuss some of the reasons why SAS Institute is ranked on Fortune’s “Best Places to Work” list. SAS Institute successfully manages its employees. The company shows its employees that it cares, and in return, the employees are devoted to the firm. Turnover at SAS is less than 4%. The firm maintains its positive relationship with its employees by providing them opportunities to work on interesting and challenging projects. In working on those projects, barriers are removed by the firm so all the employee has to do is work on the project; no worries about equipment, rules, etc. In addition, the perks offered to the employees are innovative and exciting and determined through employee satisfaction surveys There are company athletic fields, a pool, gym memberships, tennis and basketball courts, on-site health care and the demand that employees go home to their families after a full 8-hour day.

130.

Name and define two work attitudes.

Job satisfaction is one work attitude. Job satisfaction is the feelings people have toward their job. Organizational commitment is a second work attitude. Organizational commitment is the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. 131.

What is the nature of the relationship between attitudes and behavior? Much work has been done on the attitude to behavior link. The strength of this link depends on the particular attitude focused upon. Attitude can influence behavior but not necessarily predict it. In fact, research indicates that attitudes are more strongly related to intentions to behave than actual behaviors. Thus attitudes provide hints as to how employees will behave, but behavior is also strongly influenced by situational constraints.

132.

List three individual or organizational factors that contribute to job satisfaction. The following factors have been shown to contribute to job satisfaction: personality, person/environment fit, job characteristics, psychological contract, organizational justice, work relationships, stress and work/life balance.

133.

List three individual or organizational factors that contribute to organizational commitment. The following factors have been shown to contribute to organizational commitment: personality, person/environment fit, job characteristics, psychological contract, organizational justice, work relationships, stress and work/life balance.

134.

Describe two specific personality traits that have been shown to be related to positive work attitudes. Research has examined a number of personality traits in relationship to positive work attitudes. They include: affective disposition, neurotic personality, emotional stability, conscientiousness, self-esteem, locus of control and extraversion.

135.

What is meant by person-job fit? Person-job fit refers to the degree to which a person’s skill, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics match the job demands.

136.

Give an example of how a psychological contract between an employee and a firm could be breached. When employees do not get what they expect from a company, a psychological contract can be breached. A psychological contract is an unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment and what the company will provide in exchange. For example, if you were told during your initial selection interviews with a firm that the firm was family friendly, but now the boss is wanting you to be available 24/7 and is calling you on your companyissued cell phone at odd hours of the evening, you feel like the contract has been breached and you are sometimes, even often, dissatisfied.

137.

Briefly describe how stress relates to job satisfaction. Stress can be a two-way street. If role ambiguity is experienced (vagueness in relation to what one’s responsibilities are), role conflict (facing contradictory demands at work), organizational politics or lack of job security, satisfaction can be severely reduced. However, some stress can make us happy. Some people work best under deadlines, even tight deadlines. Further some people like having

a great deal of responsibility and the stress which accompanies that simply makes them better at meeting the challenge. 138.

Amanda is a new mother. Briefly describe two programs that her employer might implement to attempt to create a greater degree of work/life balance for Amanda and others like her. Alcoa might be able to offer Amanda a flextime schedule where she would need to be in the office for certain hours or on certain days, but could work her schedule out around those core hours as her personal needs dictate as long as she fulfills the hour requirements for the position as a whole. Again, depending on the specific job she performs, Amanda may be able to work out a telecommuting arrangement with the firm. Work sharing is another option where Amanda and some other employee will share the one position, dividing up hours, pay, or benefits according to the number of hours they work each year. The company could also put an affordable daycare in the office building so that families could have their children close to them at a reasonable cost.

139.

What is the value of an exit interview for a firm? Exit interviews are conducted with employees departing a firm. The intent behind them is to find out why the employee is leaving. The challenge is to make sure the employee is being “honest” with his reason for leaving. For example, if the interview is conducted by the employee’s immediate manager, the reason for leaving could actually involve that individual and to have him asking the questions would not probably gather the kinds of information needed to make appropriate changes. Turnover is very expensive for a firm, both in lost productivity and in the need to engage in another recruiting effort, so every opportunity a firm has to keep turnover low should be addressed.

140.

What influence does general mental ability have on job performance? Research indicates that general mental ability is the most powerful influence on our job performance. Reasoning abilities, verbal and numerical skills, analytical skills and overall intelligence seems to be important across most situations. From the time we are young throughout our later life, the correlation between mental ability and performance is strong.

141.

Why does the way an employee is treated by others in a firm predict citizenship behavior? The motivation/behavior link with regard to citizenship behavior is very clear. We tend to do for others as they do for us. So, if we are treated well by those around us, we, in turn, what to return the favor and thus engage in citizenship behaviors.

142.

John is a 57-year-old employee at XYZ, Inc. Describe the expectations we might have with regard to how often he, and other employees his age, will be absent from work. Since John is older, the expectation is that he will be sick more often and thus will be absent more often. Surprisingly, however, research suggests that age and absenteeism are inversely related. That is, older individuals tend to be absent less than younger employees. Some of the reasons given for this finding include the loyalty older individuals tend to hold for their firms, and their stronger work ethic.

143.

Give an example of when turnover is a problem and when turnover is beneficial to a firm. Turnover is a problem when there is no one to perform a job and the job is critical. Of course, this issue can be further compounded by the difficulty experienced by the firm in filling the open position. Add to that the need to train an employee and wait until he “gets up to speed” on the job and the impact can be quite negative. On the other hand, if you have an employee who simply is not performing well and may, in fact, be reducing the level of performance of those around him, then the turnover of the poor performer becomes a positive opportunity for the firm.

144.

Describe the impact pay-for-performance systems could have on high and low performers in a firm. Pay-for-performance systems can have a positive impact on a firm. First, the opportunity to enhance pay is afforded in these systems to those who perform well. Therefore, high performers will be paid well. Those who are not good performers may hasten their leave-taking from the firm because they are being paid less. However, in the pay-for-performance system, you only get paid less if you perform poorly. So poor performers are leaving, and that may not be all bad!

145.

Describe the link between work attitudes and turnover. The link between work attitudes and turnover is actually fairly simple. If workers are unhappy, they will leave. That said, the linkage between work attitudes and turnover is not direct. Instead, those who are unhappy with a firm have an intention to leave, but whether they will actually act on that intention is a separate issue.

146.

Discuss the impact stress has on turnover in a firm. Stress can cause employees to leave a firm. If the position held by an employee seems to have role ambiguity and role conflict as part of it, then employees are more likely to leave the firm.

147.

Which personality traits tend to be exhibited by those employees who are less likely to turnover?

Employees who are conscientious, agreeable and emotionally stable are less likely to quit their jobs. Why? Some suggest that these personality traits may assist the employee in performing better at work and thus, they quit less. Further, these characteristics may lead them to develop better relationships with coworkers, which again is a factor in retention. 148.

Tyler is a 22-year-old, recent graduate of a large university. Given the research on age and turnover, what are some expectations a manager may have with regard to Tyler’s likelihood of remaining with the firm? Research tends to suggest that younger employees are more likely to leave organizations. Young employees have fewer responsibilities and may be much more able to quit a job they don’t like. They also have been performing job searches more recently and so may find themselves getting job offers. Since young employees experience much more stress there is little bonding them to the firm and they again elect to leave the company. Anything the manager can do to address these issues might help to retain his young recruit.

149.

Discuss the findings of studies examining job attitudes and ethical work climates. Studies examining ethical work climates find that when organizations value doing the right thing, employees tend to be happier at work, are more committed to the firm, and are less likely to leave.

150.

Discuss the dilemma companies face in trying to prevent their employees from behaving unethically by monitoring employees. Preventing unethical behavior in employees can take many forms. One such option is to monitor employees through the use of video cameras and e-mail scanning. Engaging in such monitoring activities, however, leads employees to feel like they are being treated unfairly and are being disrespected. The catch-22 arises that if you increase the level of monitoring in the firm, you do decrease the incidence of unethical behavior, but you will likely decrease job satisfaction and commitment to the firm as well as job performance.

151.

Briefly describe differences in job attitudes held around the world. A study of over 20 countries found that only in individualistic cultures did work/family conflict lower job satisfaction. In collectivist cultures, the bonds created between coworkers counter the sacrifices they make to work, so they are not dissatisfied. Autonomy and empowerment are clearly valued in the United States, but empowerment, when instituted in India, led to lower job satisfaction. A study showed that the use of flexible work arrangements reduced absenteeism and turnover in countries with low power distance and high individualism, like the United States.

152.

Briefly discuss how cultures around the world influence work behaviors. In the United States, helping an individual learn his new job is regarded as a citizenship behavior. In other cultures, it is simply seen as part of the job itself. Similarly, to be absent from work in China for illness, stress or depression is unacceptable. In Canada, unacceptable reasons for absence from work include family reasons.

ESSAY 153.

Is a happy worker always a productive worker? Explain your answer. This question has been the focus of substantial amounts of research over the years and the answer is still not clear. Clearly happy workers seem to want to be better performers as their happiness makes them more engaged workers. However, wanting to perform better and actually performing better are not necessarily the same. One aspect which could prevent a happy worker from being a more productive worker may simply be that the worker lacks the necessary skills to perform better. And sometimes, too, the happy worker is so busy being happy that he fails to perform. While many programs instituted by firms use this statement as their guiding principle, there is no hard evidence to prove that a fruitful endeavor.

154.

Rosaline is the superintendent of a school district. A new board of directors, to whom she is responsible, has just been elected and the philosophical direction the board wishes to take varies from the direction Rosaline has taken the district over the past five years. Rosaline is going to tender her resignation. How can she do so gracefully? After working for five years to make your vision a reality, the likely urge is to vent your frustrations as loudly as you can. However, such an action, while refreshing for maybe five minutes, simply does not serve either party well in the future. Thus, Rosaline should consider the following: Don’t engage in a knee-jerk reaction. Everyone has bad days and an entirely new philosophy may appear to be a mountain that you are unwilling to climb. That said, think of your career. Before tendering the resignation, look to see if there are opportunities for job change. Current economic conditions do not bode well for rash decisions. Find an alternative and then carefully plan your subsequent steps toward it. When you do choose to go, inform your boss (the board president) of your decision first. While dramatic announcements get attention, again they serve few down the road.

Don’t speak poorly of the organization you are departing. The world is a small place and getting smaller. You have no clue what the future will hold or who you might need to contact in the future. Finish what you have started. Don’t leave anyone scrambling to figure out what you are doing or how to do it. Just finish it. Return what is the firm’s, keep what is yours. Be professional in everything you do. 155.

Agnes is so frustrated. This morning she called a meeting for 9 o’clock sharp to discuss the new product launch. Though most of the key players were on time, Kim and Nelson were both 25 minutes late, making some excuses about how they had to make an important call before either could attend. That made four meetings in a row when they were late. What can you do? Other members at the meeting are getting frustrated too as you have to repeat information and reexplain key points. First, find out why they are late. Are they late because they are unhappy or dissatisfied? Or, are they simply late because it is their nature to be so? Don’t let the continued tardiness go unnoticed and “unpunished.” Ignoring the behavior may be saying to them that you somehow approve of what they are doing. Find out what everyone’s schedules are. Maybe you really are scheduling meetings when they have standing phone appointments. If they are late, require them to make up for their lateness by taking on some extra duties or responsibilities related to the project. Remind people of the meeting. Sometimes we are just so busy in today’s dynamic work environment that we do forget commitments. Reward those who do come on time. Food works well. Barring that, just thank everyone for being there on time! Make sure you are on time. If you have a tendency to call a meeting for 9 am but it never gets started to 9:10 am because you are out copying the agenda for everyone, then they will arrive late to compensate for your tardiness. Before you know it, a 9 am o’clock meeting begins at 9:30 am.

156.

Mateo is a 22-year-old accountant working in his first job at a major accounting firm in Philadelphia. When he is home in Virginia for a visit, he sits down for a chat with his father, who is a human resource director at a large manufacturing firm. Mateo tells his father how unhappy he is that he chose to work for the Philadelphia firm. As he does his job, he realizes this is not what he wants to do for the rest of his life. What advice can dad provide him to help him be a happier worker? First, be positive. Any experience is a learning experience. You are never stuck forever anywhere. If, indeed, the fit between you and the firm or you and the job is not what it should be, then find out what is wrong with the fit. Use this information as you begin a job search. Don’t however, have a knee-jerk reaction and just quit. Get accurate information about the firm and the job. Maybe you are in a job that you just don’t fit, but maybe that is only a temporary assignment with better things to come. Develop good relationships at work. The work relationships are part of your network and you never know when your network will come in handy. Know when to leave. Gather information and weigh it carefully. Make sure the next organization or job is a good fit.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 5 Theories of Motivation TRUE/FALSE 1.

Motivation is a function of the interaction between performance, ability and environment.

(False) 2. Job security is an example of Maslow’s safety needs. (True) 3.

Alderfer’s existence needs correspond to Maslow’s physiological and safety needs.

(True) 4.

The frustration-regression hypothesis offered by Alderfer suggests individuals frustrated in their attempts to satisfy one need regress to another.

(True) 5. Salary is a motivator in Herzberg’s two-factor theory. (False) 6. According to Herzberg, hygiene factors are part of the context of the job. (True) 7.

The absence of hygiene factors in the work environment leads to worker dissatisfaction.

(True) 8.

Individuals with a high need for achievement may neglect managerial activities, like coaching, because they view it as a waste of time.

(True) 9. A high need for power is always a destructive element in the workplace. (False) 10. Process-based theories view motivation as a rational process. (True) 11. One way to deal with perceived inequity is to decrease your own inputs. (True) 12.

Equity theory suggests that those perceiving inequity can react to the situation by having the referent decrease inputs.

(False)

13.

Over-rewarded individuals experience a great deal of guilt and will substantially increase their effort to restore feelings of equity.

(False) 14. Benevolents expect to receive substantial compensation for relatively little input. (False) 15.

You worked really hard on your paper and were very proud to get an A on it. Then you found out that everyone who wrote ten pages or more got an A and now you are upset. You are experiencing high distributive justice.

(False) 16.

One effective way of achieving procedural justice is to allow employees a voice in decision making.

(True) 17. High levels of perceived justice create higher levels of employee commitment. (True) 18.

People perceived as fair recognize that what they believe is fair may differ from what others perceive as fair.

(True) 19.

Expectancy theory’s instrumentality dimension refers to the degree to which one believes that effort leads to performance.

(False) 20. To influence instrumentality, make sure rewards are seen as desirable. (False) 21. Expectancy theory is a need-based theory. (False) 22.

The phenomenon of “the folly of rewarding A while hoping for B” suggests that at times, people are rewarded for the wrong kind of behavior.

(True) 23. Reinforcement theory is based on behavioral and operant conditioning. (True) 24.

To reduce the frequency of negative behaviors, remove the rewards that followed those unwanted behaviors.

(True) 25. Extinction is increasing the frequency of desirable behaviors. (False) 26.

Using the extinction approach to get a coworker to quit using inappropriate jokes during his conversations means you ignore the jokes instead of laughing at them.

(True)

27.

Giving an employee a sales commission every time he makes a sale is an example of a continuous reinforcement schedule.

(True) 28.

Michael needs to discipline one of his employees. Before doing so, he should make sure the punishment he is administering fits the crime.

(True) 29. Motivation is culturally based. (True) (False) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Case: Creating Happiness through Motivation: The Case of The Walt Disney Company

30.

(b) 31.

(b) 32.

(a) 33.

*The underlying philosophy of The Walt Disney Company is that a. if you pay employees enough, they will fake happiness b. happy employees will lead to happy customers c. the customer is always right d. with a well-written employee manual, all employees are accountable Easy/Comprehension *The first example of employee appreciation at Disney was a. all employees became honorary Mouseketeers b. Walt Disney gave a special team 100 shares of Disney stock, $50,000 cash and a Ferrari for developing ideas to draw people to the park. c. a play-day at the parks. d. Walt Disney gave all managers 100 shares of Disney stock. Easy/Comprehension *Disney tries to offer every park visitor a great experience and believes that its high level of employee engagement is due to their unifying mission: a. “We create happiness” b. “Customers first” c. “Employees are #1” d. “We make magic” Easy/Comprehension *One way that Disney creates and keeps happy employees today is a. asking new employees what types of rewards would they appreciate. b. publishing a comprehensive pay scale. c. using customer surveys to reward staff. d. promoting from within.

(a)

Easy/Comprehension

34.

*Which of these is NOT a way that Disney creates a motivated workforce that keeps customers happy? a. Recognizing mission-aligned behavior b. Rewarding creativity c. Listening to employees d. Hiring introverts and training them to be happy extroverts Easy/Comprehension

(d)

From Introduction 35.

(b) 36.

39.

(c)

Ability refers to a. having the resources, information and support one needs to perform well. b. having the skills and knowledge required to perform the job. c. the intention of achieving a goal, leading to goal-directed behavior. d. the function of performance, motivation, and environment. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is true about motivation? a. Being motivated is the same as being a high performer. b. Motivation is the sole reason why people perform well. c. Motivation is a key influence over an employee’s performance level. d. Motivation is usually the most critical factor in a person’s performance. Medium/Comprehension Motivation refers to a. having the skills and knowledge required to perform the job. b. a function of performance, ability and environment. c. the intention of achieving a goal, leading to goal-directed behavior. d. the only key to high performance. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements is correct? a. Performance is a function of the interaction between motivation, ability and environment. b. Motivation is a function of the interaction between ability, environment and performance. c. Ability is a function of the interaction between motivation, performance and environment. d. Performance is a major influence on motivation, ability and environment. (a) Easy/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a factor of environment? a. support b. information c. skills d. resources Easy/Comprehension

Section I: Need-Based Theories of Motivation 40.

(a) 41.

(d) 42.

(a) 44.

(a) 45.

(a)

Maslow’s physiological needs may be satisfied by a. food. b. feeling danger-free. c. feelings of importance. d. human bonds. Easy/Knowledge How could a firm best satisfy an employee’s safety needs? a. Enroll the employee in a Microsoft Office training course. b. Provide an employee appreciation luncheon. c. Develop a weekly employee bowling league. d. Create a job security clause in the employment contract. Medium/Application Esteem needs are a. the need to bond with other human beings. b. the desire to form lasting attachments. c. the desire to feel important. d. the freedom from an uncertain future. Easy/Knowledge One way to satisfy self-actualization needs is to a. pursue a master’s degree through a company’s tuition reimbursement program. b. go out to dinner once a month with coworkers from your department. c. get a $100 suggestion bonus from your firm for a labor cost saving tip you placed in your department’s suggestion box. d. receive an employee of the week award. Difficult/Synthesis Maslow’s theory of motivation suggests a. employee needs are ordered. b. employee needs are grouped in three categories. c. employee needs are divided into motivator and hygiene categories. d. employee needs are acquired as the result of life experiences. Easy/Comprehension Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory of motivation a. suggests once basic needs are satisfied, higher order needs become motivators. b. enjoys strong research support. c. is a systematic approach managers can utilize to explain the similar needs employees have at any given time and the similar reactions of employees to similar treatment. d. was developed based on Maslow’s observations of individual employees in a variety of workplace settings. Difficult/Comprehension

46.

(b) 47.

(d) 48.

(a) 49.

(d) 51.

The ability for employees to do interesting and rewarding work at The Walt Disney Company satisfies which of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. safety b. self-actualization c. social d. physiological Medium/Analysis The simple premise of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is a. more than one human need operates at one time. b. work environment aspects that satisfy an individual are very different than those aspects which dissatisfy an individual. c. individuals acquire three types of needs as a result of their life experiences. d. human beings have needs that are hierarchically ranked. Medium/Comprehension Maslow’s theory of motivation is criticized because a. research does not support the argument that satisfied needs no longer motivate behavior. b. its “frustration-regression” hypothesis has no practical implications for the workplace. c. the research methodology employed does not fully account for the attribution of cause to the individual or the situation. d. substantial empirical research has indicated little practical application of the theory. Difficult/Evaluation Maslow’s social needs could be satisfied by a. receiving an employee of the month award. b. getting promoted to assistant manager from a supervisor position. c. attending a department picnic after work. d. taking a class on Microsoft Office. Medium/Application Your paycheck could likely satisfy which of the following needs identified by Maslow? a. physiological needs. b. esteem needs. c. safety needs. d. all of the above. Medium/Analysis

(d)

Alderfer’s existence needs correspond to Maslow’s a. social needs. b. esteem needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. safety needs. Medium/Synthesis

52.

Alderfer’s growth needs correspond to Maslow’s

(a) 54.

(a) 55.

(d) 57.

a. social needs. b. safety needs. c. esteem needs. d. physiological needs. Medium/Synthesis In comparing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory to Alderfer’s ERG theory a. ERG theory recognizes more than one need may operate at one time. b. Maslow’s theory recognizes more than one need may operate at one time. c. ERG theory is based upon observations of individuals in clinical settings. d. Maslow’s theory suggests that individuals who are frustrated in their attempts to satisfy one need may regress to another one. Difficult/Evaluation Alderfer’s theory of motivation revised Maslow’s theory of needs by a. relaxing the basic assumptions of Maslow’s theory of needs. b. assuming needs are hierarchically-based. c. re-ordering the hierarchy of needs. d. assuming needs are grouped into five categories. Medium/Comprehension According to ERG theory, if an individual is frustrated in the growth opportunities of his job, a. he may regress only to relatedness needs. b. he may regress only to existence needs. c. he may regress to either relatedness or existence needs. d. he will be motivated by the next higher need in his need hierarchy. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following is a motivator factor in Herzberg’s theory of motivation? a. working conditions b. salary c. company policy d. recognition Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a hygiene factor in Herzberg’s theory of motivation? a. promotion opportunities. b. interesting work. c. salary. d. achievement. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a criticism of Herzberg’s theory of motivation? a. The primary research methodology used to arrive at hygiene and motivator factors is flawed. b. The classification of factors as hygiene or motivator is missing the factor of satisfiers. c. Pay should be classified as a motivator, not as a hygiene factor.

d. (a) 59.

(d) 60.

(d) 61.

(b) 62.

(b)

The theory suggests that improving the environment only goes so far in motivating employees. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true? a. A need for achievement can be a destructive element in relationships with colleagues. b. A high need for affiliation serves as a real advantage in managerial positions especially with regard to conducting performance appraisals. c. A high need for power is a trait of those successful in the sales area. d. A need for power can have an altruistic form. Difficult/Analysis Individuals with a high need for affiliation a. want to influence others. b. have a strong need to be successful. c. desire to make an impact on the organization. d. want to be accepted by others. Easy/Comprehension Abdul tends to emphasize harmonious interpersonal relationships, prefers to be with friends, and enjoys family events. Abdul would probably be categorized as being a. low in need for achievement. b. high in need for affiliation. c. high in need for power. d. low in need for affiliation. Difficult/Synthesis What job would be best suited for someone with a high need for affiliation? a. sales b. teacher c. engineer d. entrepreneur Medium/Comprehension

63.

(a) 64.

(b) 65.

(d) 67.

(b) 68.

Michele is being considered for a managerial position at Halliburton. She completes a TAT as part of an assessment center exercise for prospective managers. Facilitators will examine the results carefully for their manager choices knowing that a. individuals high in need for achievement may find it difficult to delegate authority to subordinates. b. individuals high in need for affiliation are especially effective at providing critical feedback to employees. c. individuals high in need for power have difficulties disciplining poor performers. d. individuals high in need for achievement are especially effective at coaching and meeting with subordinates. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following is a need-based theory of motivation? a. Expectancy theory. b. ERG theory. c. Reinforcement theory. d. Equity theory. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a process based theory of motivation? a. Alderfer’s ERG theory. b. Herzberg’s two-factor theory. c. Skinner’s reinforcement theory. d. McClelland’s acquired needs theory. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following need-based theories has received the greatest amount of research support? a. Herzberg’s two-factor theory b. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs c. Alderfer’s ERG theory d. McClelland’s acquired needs theory Easy/Comprehension *McClelland designed a method of showing the subject an ambiguous image and having them write a story about it. The name of this method and what it assesses is the a. ERG Theory; hierarchical need b. Thematic Apperception Test; dominant need c. Two-Factor Theory; hierarchical need d. Acquired-Needs Theory; subordinate need Medium/Comprehension *Needs-based theories propose that a manager’s job is to determine what employees’ needs are and then to a. eliminate those needs b. redefine those needs c. redirect those needs

(d)

d. create the work environment that meets those needs Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Process-Based Theories 69.

(b) 70.

(d)

Chloe and Francois are graphic designers at Highland Lithographics. Both have the same job description. Earlier this month, Chloe found out that Francois makes $12.50 an hour while she makes $11.00. What theory of motivation best explains why Chloe went to her boss to complain about the pay disparity? a. ERG theory b. Equity theory c. Expectancy theory d. Reinforcement theory Medium/Comprehension Ramone feels that he was unfairly passed over for a promotion at his firm. How might he deal with the perceived inequity? a. Have the referent decrease inputs. b. Maintain current perceptions of the referent’s inputs. c. Increase his inputs. d. Increase his outcomes. Medium/Application

71.

(d) 72.

(b) 73.

(b) 74.

(c)

All of the following are actions those who perceive inequity typically undertake to “balance the scales” EXCEPT a. steal. b. begin to arrive at work late. c. quit. d. produce higher quality work. Difficult/Synthesis Research on equity theory suggests a. those who perceive inequity increase their work performance. b. those who feel over-rewarded experience little distress over the situation. c. those who feel over-rewarded experience guilt over the situation. d. those who perceive inequity encourage their fellow coworkers to work less hard. Difficult/Analysis Individuals who expect yearly wage increases without exhibiting increased performance may be labeled a. benevolents. b. entitleds. c. equitably insensitive. d. expectancy sensitive. Medium/Application Research on procedural justice suggests a. it is best to exclude employees from commenting on potential changes in company procedures like performance appraisals because they do not understand the decision-making process anyway. b. it is best to unexpectedly announce department-wide layoffs because when employees suspect changes in their job status are upcoming, they tend to become much less productive. c. it is best to be consistent in the manner in which employees are disciplined for violating company policy for situations like cell phone usage. d. it is best to send an announcement of changes to the company benefit package for the next fiscal year without providing explanatory details because employees do not understand the financial implications anyway. Difficult/Application Interactional justice is a. the degree to which outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair. b. the degree to which fair decision-making procedures are used to arrive at a decision. c. the degree to which people are treated with respect, kindness and dignity in interpersonal interactions. d. the belief that high levels of effort will lead to high performance. Easy/Knowledge

76.

(a) 77.

(d) 79.

(b)

Nejah is reading a report on employee justice perceptions. The article notes which of the following points? a. High levels of justice create higher levels of organizational citizenship behaviors. b. High levels of justice create lower levels of employee commitment to the organization. c. Low levels of justice create higher levels of customer satisfaction. d. High levels of justice lead to support of unionization. Medium/Comprehension Joaquin received the Chancellor’s Award and an $8,000 scholarship for a research paper and formal presentation he created. He believes that he worked hard for the paper and the presentation and deserved the award. Joaquin would feel a sense of a. high interactional justice. b. high interpersonal justice. c. high distributive justice. d. high procedural justice. Medium/Application If you wanted to be perceived as a fair person, take this piece of advice: a. “People are selfish, they care only about their own justice level.” b. “Treat everyone equally when distributing rewards. Differentiation in rewards often leads to unfairness.” c. “Make your own decisions, you are the boss. Since you are accountable for those decisions, you do not need to waste time listening to everyone’s opinions.” d. “Think before you speak. Be considerate of others.” Difficult/Comprehension Michael has two finals, accounting and organizational behavior, on the same day of finals week. Based on expectancy theory, which of the following statements suggest how he should allocate his limited study time? a. For the previous three OB exams Michael studied for hours and received below average grades. He spent fewer hours studying for accounting and earned above average grades. He therefore decides to focus his efforts equally on OB and accounting. b. Accounting is Michael’s major, OB is a general business requirement in his academic program. Michael aspires to be a CPA, so he decides to focus his study time on Accounting. c. Michael is switching to another college for a communication major after this semester. His business courses will not count toward his total credits at the new college. His grades on these exams will not matter, but he decides to focus on his accounting anyway. d. Michael loved the group work format that his OB instructor used to teach the course and disliked the lecture format utilized by his accounting professor. He decides to focus his attention on OB. Difficult/Synthesis

80.

(a) 81.

(d) 82.

(c)

You work for your college’s annual alumni fund. You have averaged 25 phone calls in a three-hour shift throughout your employment. Your supervisor now demands that you increase that number to 40 calls per three-hour shift. You feel that you do not have the skills or the time to make 40 calls and that this is an unrealistic goal. According to expectancy theory, you are experiencing a. low expectancy. b. low instrumentality. c. low valence. d. low equity. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true about the manner in which managers can influence the perceptions of expectancy theory? a. Individuals with an internal locus of control and high self-esteem believe there is little connection between their effort and performance so a great deal of feedback is needed to motivate them. b. Regardless of the performance rating given on a performance evaluation, make certain that everyone gets a small raise annually. c. Recognize good performance of individuals with cost effective items like coffee mugs and t-shirts. d. Conduct employee surveys periodically to ascertain what employees consider to be rewards for performance and integrate that in some manner into the performance evaluation program. Medium/Analysis In expectancy theory, valence is a. the perception that high levels of effort will lead to outcomes of interest like performance. b. the perception that performance is related to subsequent outcomes such as rewards. c. the anticipated satisfaction that will result from an outcome. d. the degree to which people are treated with respect, kindness, and dignity. Easy/Knowledge To influence instrumentality, managers can a. ensure that the environment facilitates performance. b. give employees choice over rewards. c. consistently reward high performers. d. encourage people to believe their effort makes a difference. Medium/Application

84.

(d) 85.

(d) 88.

(a)

Steve Kerr’s proposed phenomenon, “the folly of rewarding A while hoping for B” is demonstrated by a. a manager failing to acknowledge an employee who stayed after hours for one week to complete a report for an ill coworker. b. a manager who fears his top sales person will leave if he criticizes him for being 15 minutes late every day. c. a manager who promotes a subordinate known for his propensity to argue with his coworkers so that subordinate can be transferred to another department where an individual just retired. d. rewarding a manager who orders the release of a shipment of manufactured parts with known defects to meet a deadline in spite of the company’s highly advertised quality commitment. Difficult/Application Negative reinforcement a. decreases the desired behavior. b. decreases the frequency of negative behavior. c. increases the desired behavior. d. reduces the frequency of undesired behavior. Easy/Knowledge Positive reinforcement a. decreases the desired behavior. b. decreases the frequency of negative behavior. c. increases the desired behavior. d. reduces the frequency of undesired behavior. Easy/Knowledge An example of extinction is a. nagging an employee to call a customer. b. suspending an employee for being late three days in a row. c. praising an employee for a well written report. d. ignoring a coworker who is telling dirty jokes. Medium/Comprehension When reinforcers follow all examples of positive behavior you are using a ________________ of reinforcement. a. variable ratio b. equity ratio c. continuous schedule d. fixed ratio schedule Medium/Comprehension Praising the employee occasionally when the person shows up on time is an example of ________________ of reinforcement. a. variable ratio b. equity ratio c. continuous schedule d. fixed ratio schedule Medium/Application

90.

(b) 91.

(b) 92.

(b) 93.

(a)

Which of the following is a tip discussed in the textbook to make disciplining an employee more effective? a. Discipline when you have time. b. Be consistent in your treatment of employees. c. Punishment is always the most effective way to modify behavior. d. Document behavior only if it is very severe. Medium/Synthesis Which of the following statements represents an issue with disciplining employees? a. Sticks can be more effective than carrots. b. Unfair punishment may not change unwanted behavior. c. No two employees or incidents are the same, so no two employee should be disciplined the same way. d. Discipline is the most effective way for changing behavior in the long term. Medium/Synthesis The first step of an organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) program is a. evaluate and maintain. b. identify behavior to be modified. c. analyze behavior antecedents and outcomes. d. measure the baseline level. Easy/Knowledge When organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) is used to examine employee absenteeism, which step looks at why employees are absent? a. Step 5: Evaluate and maintain. b. Step 1: Identify behavior to modify. c. Step 3: Analyze behavior antecedents and outcomes. d. Step 2: Measure the baseline level. Easy/Comprehension *While negative reinforcement can increase the desired behavior, it also runs the risk of a. creating unexpected outcomes that affect the desired behavior. b. creating a pattern of positive behavior. c. reversing positive behavior. d. alienating the manager. Medium/Comprehension Section III: The Role of Ethics and National Culture

95.

In simulations examining whether reinforcement theory explains ethical behavior, researchers found that a. subjects were less likely to cut kickback payments if there was a threat of punishment. b. subjects were less likely to continue kickback payments if they made a profit after providing the kickbacks.

(d) 96.

(a) 97.

(b) 98.

(d) 99.

(a)

the perceived likelihood of punishment is not a major influence of ethical behavior. d. the severity of expected punishment was the primary predictor of whether subjects were inclined to behave unethically. Difficult/Evaluation Research on motivation suggests the following: a. Ethical behavior is learned behavior. b. Satisfaction with social needs is a powerful motivator in industrialized countries. c. Subjects in different cultures do not vary in their distribution of rewards regardless of the subject’s age. d. Valuing justice and fairness is a distinctive American-only value. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following summary statements is true regarding motivation theories? a. Need-based motivation theories use the mental processes of employees to understand employee motivation. b. Research indicates that what is perceived as fair and unfair is culturally defined. c. Research indicates that because of the unfairness perceived in their environments, individuals no longer repeat behavior that leads to positive results. d. Process-based theories suggest managers should identify what employees need and make the work environment a means of satisfying those needs. Medium/Synthesis Research on motivation in different cultures indicates that a. high power distance cultures value having a voice in the justice process. b. Chinese study participants place the highest value on procedural justice. c. equity is not culture specific; all cultures utilize this method to achieve fairness. d. in industrialized nations, satisfaction with esteem needs was a more powerful motivator than satisfaction of physiological or security needs. Medium/Synthesis *What motivations, other than financial, might prompt an employee to engage in unethical behavior? a. Gain prestige and belong to a group b. Create a rule-breaker reputation for oneself c. Develop new work processes to share later d. Boredom Medium/Comprehension

Closing Case: Motivation in Action:

100.

(d) 101.

(b) 102.

(d)

*Analyzing Zappos success using Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation would suggest that addressing a. hygiene factors, like being among the best paid employees in the retail industry, are the only reason for the firm’s success. b. content factors, like the collaborative atmosphere each employee creates are the only reason for the firm’s success. c. motivators, like the autonomy in customer service, are the only reason for the firm’s success. d. hygiene factors and motivators all help to contribute to Zappos’ success. Easy/Comprehension *Zappos offers new hires $3,000 to quit after their 90-day anniversary. What benefit does this have for Zappos if these employees leave? a. They find out who the quitters are. b. The employees who leave won’t be the kind of employee Zappos wants so they save money in the long-run but having them exit early. c. Zappos can see who is motivated by money. d. If those employees don’t want to be at Zappos, Zappos does not want them. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT included in the textbook as a key to Zappos unique management style? a. Executives don’t have offices. (Except the lawyers) b. Customer service representatives are encourage to take their time and build a relationship with the customer. c. There’s an emphasis on team building and family. d. All employees are given stock options after their training program. Easy/Knowlege

FILL IN THE BLANK 103.

Job performance is a function of the interaction between a person’s _______, ability, and ___________. (motivation, environment) 104.

Marcus eagerly uses his company’s tuition reimbursement program for an undergraduate degree. Marcus is fulfilling his ____________ need. (self-actualization) 105.

Antonio feels strongly about satisfying his subordinates’ __________needs. Therefore, each time one of his employees does an outstanding job on some project, he calls the entire department together to formally recognize the individual’s accomplishment. (esteem) 106. For most employees, ___________________satisfies their physiological needs. (pay) 107.

Social needs is to Maslow as _______________ is to Alderfer.

(relatedness) 108. _______________ theory of motivation arranges needs in a hierarchy. (Maslow’s) 109.

Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation suggests factors that are part of the context in which the job is performed are called _______factors. (hygiene) 110.

Herzberg’s _______ factors include company policy, supervision, working conditions, security and salary. (hygiene) 111.

Li Cho is participating in a study in which after looking at a picture, she will write a story describing the person in the picture, what that person is doing and why. Li Cho is using a _________________________ to assess motivation themes. (Thematic Apperception Test) 112.

Under McClelland’s theory, individuals who focus on goals and deadlines have a ______________________. (need for achievement) 113.

Clarissa emphasizes frequent harmonious interpersonal relationships. Clarissa has a high ______________________. (need for affiliation) 114. ______________ motivation theories see motivation as a rational process. (Process-based) 115.

Mary and Jan are two graphic designers at Master Graphics. They were hired at the same time with the same basic qualifications. Under equity theory, Jan is Mary’s ________ or comparison person. (referent) 116.

In equity theory, an individual’s ____________ ratio is compared to the same ratio of a referent. (outcome/input) 117.

Nina is experiencing feelings of inequity; one way she can address the situation is by ____________ her outcomes. (increasing) 118.

________________ is a personality trait that explains different reactions to inequity. (Equity sensitivity) 119.

Monique was hired as an entry level accountant. She found out that the firm decided to hire her after learning that her mother was also an accountant. Monique likely feels low _________________ justice. (procedural)

120.

__________________ is the degree to which the outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair. (Distributive justice) 121.

You just got a promotion, one which you feel you deserve after all your hard work. You perceive high ______________________. (distributive justice) 122. ___________ are those who expect substantial compensation for little input. (Entitleds) 123.

The perception that high levels of effort will lead to performance is called __________. (expectancy) 124.

Nicholas is making sure that his subordinates view rewards offered by the firm as desirable. Nicholas is attempting to influence the _________ element of expectancy theory. (valence) 125.

The degree to which employees believe that their performance will result in rewards is called _____________. (instrumentality) 126.

_____________________ is a motivation theory based on the work of Ivan Pavlov on behavioral conditioning and B. F. Skinner on operant conditioning. (Reinforcement theory) 127.

The professor is praising the student for an outstanding PowerPoint presentation. The professor is practicing ___________________ to get the student to do as well the next time he presents. (positive reinforcement) 128.

The XYZ Corporation just announced a new bonus program where managers can provide “on the spot” bonuses for an exceptional job done that day. XYZ is proposing to offer bonuses on a _________________________ schedule. (variable ratio) 129.

Equity and expectancy theories are examples of ________-based theories of motivation. (process) 130.

ERG theory is to _______________ motivation theories as equity theory is to ______________ motivation theories. (need-based, process-based) 131.

Of the need-based theories mentioned in the text, ________________________ theory has received the most support from research. (McClelland’s acquired needs)

132.

*Research suggests that high power distance cultures value __________; and that high performance orientation cultures value _____. (power, achievement)

SHORT ANSWERS 133.

Describe the role of motivation in determining employee performance. Job performance is a function of the interaction between a person’s motivation, ability and environment. Motivation, the intention of achieving a goal, helps a person try hard to accomplish a certain task. Motivation, is not, however, sufficient for high performance and not the key reason why people perform well but is a key influence on performance.

134.

Compare and contrast Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to Alderfer’s ERG theory. Both Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and Alderfer’s ERG theory are need-based theories. Maslow suggests there are five basic human needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization, which are arranged in a hierarchy. As one need is satisfied, the next need in the hierarchy drives behavior. Alderfer modifies Maslow’s theory by proposing that there are three needs, existence, relatedness and growth. These needs are not arranged hierarchically, but grouped as categories. Consequently, Alderfer is proposing that more than one need may operate at any time. In addition, Alderfer proposes a “frustrationregression hypothesis” in his theory. The hypothesis suggests that individuals who are frustrated when trying to satisfy one need may regress to another.

135.

List each of the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy and provide an example of how a firm could try to satisfy each. Physiological needs are those related to food, water, and shelter. A firm could satisfy each of these needs by paying an employee. Safety needs are satisfied when one is free from danger, pain or uncertainty. Again, pay would be an example of how to satisfy these needs as the paycheck would enable the employee to purchase items to keep him free from danger (a car instead of walking on a busy highway). Social needs are those of belonging to a group or being loved. Firms could create a golf league, take their employees out for dinner for the holidays or hold summer picnics to satisfy this need. Esteem needs are those where one desires respect from others and wants to feel important. A program where employees are formally recognized for a job well done, like an “employee of the month” award would satisfy this need.

Self-actualization needs are where an employee desires to be “all he can be.” Offering your employees a tuition reimbursement program would help satisfy this need. 136.

Describe how Herzberg’s hygiene and motivator factors differ and give an example of each. Hygiene factors are part of the context of a workplace. Their presence is often overlooked by employees, but their absence leads to feelings of dissatisfaction in the employee. For example, if the working conditions are adequate at a place of business (relatively clean, warm and dry), employees tend not to notice. However, if the air conditioning breaks in the summer, employees will complain a great deal about the heat. Other examples of hygiene factors include company policies, supervision and relationships, salary, and security. Motivators are part of the job’s content and are intrinsic to the job. Examples include: achievement, recognition, interesting work, increased responsibility, and advancement. If these conditions are not found in the job, the worker is somewhat neutral; however, when the conditions are created by a manager, for example, they can motivate an employee to high performance levels.

137.

What are some of the key characteristics of individuals identified by a Thematic Apperception Test as high need for achievement? In what occupations do high need for achievement individuals perform well? Individuals with a high need for achievement meet deadlines, come up with great ideas, and generally aim for success in their jobs. Consequently they find success in jobs such as scientists, entrepreneurs, sales and engineers.

138.

You perceive inequity in a situation. Describe at least two reactions that equity theory suggests would alter your perception. If inequity is perceived, an individual can alter his perceptions of his own or the referent’s inputs and outcomes. For example, you could downplay your own inputs, value them more highly, and distort the other’s inputs or his outcomes. You might also get the referent to increase his inputs. Yet a third alternative is for you to reduce your inputs or increase your outcomes. Finally, you could change your comparison person (the referent) or leave the situation completely.

139.

Define distributive, procedural and interactional justice and note how they are related. Distributive justice is the degree to which the outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair. Procedural justice refers to the degree to which fair decision-making procedures are used to arrive at a decision. Finally, interactional justice is the degree to which people are treated with respect, kindness, and dignity in interpersonal interactions. The three concepts interact with each other and together. In short, the three types of justice are providing an opportunity for an employee to receive a fair outcome that was provided based upon a fair decision and awarded to the employee in a respectful, kind manner. Employers benefit from attending to all three types of justice.

140.

Describe at least two actions an organization could take to promote high employee perceptions of procedural justice. Research suggests the following ways to achieve procedural justice: provide employees advance notice, allow them a voice in decision making, provide explanations for all decisions, and above all be consistent in the manner in which you treat all employees.

141.

According to expectancy theory, what are the three questions individuals ask themselves when evaluating a situation? Will my effort lead to high performance? Will performance lead to outcomes? Do I find outcomes desirable?

142.

Name two ways in which managers can influence employees’ expectancy perceptions. If employees do not believe they have sufficient skills to handle a job, the manager could ensure they are trained. If employees do not believe the effort leads to performance because of, for example, political behavior in the workplace, the manager must ensure that the tie between the two is clearly established. Finally, many employees have low self-esteem or external loci of control that make them believe their effort will never make a difference.

143.

Name two ways in which managers can influence employees’ instrumentality perceptions. First, the connection between pay and performance must be made clear. Announcing the rewards such as bonuses and merit pay is a first step to this understanding. The manager must also make it clear that performance, and only performance, is being rewarded.

144.

Name two ways in which managers can influence employees’ valence perceptions. First, the manager must make sure the rewards are attractive to employees. Therefore, the manager must know employees’ needs, wants and desires. Then the manager must follow up on the information on a regular basis to see if there have been changes. Finally, the manager must ensure that employees have some choice between rewards.

145.

What is meant by the phrase, “the folly of rewarding A while hoping for B”?

The statement means that sometimes people are rewarded for the wrong kind of behavior. For example, a company can make public statements about its high quality products. Pressured to get products to the customers however, they often ship items that lack quality. Managers must be cognizant of the consequences of actions such as these. 146.

Name and define each of the four reinforcement methods identified by reinforcement theory and provide an example of each. Positive reinforcement is a method of increasing desired behaviors. An example of this would be to praise an employee for treating a customer nicely during a complaint call by that customer. Negative reinforcement is also a method for increasing desired behaviors. Here removing unpleasant consequences cause the desired behavior to result. For example, teenagers often clean their rooms simply to have their parents quit nagging them about it. Extinction is used to decrease the frequency of negative behaviors. When rewards are removed following negative behavior, persistent removal leads to cessation of the behavior. Employees who continually mock their co-workers cease the behavior when these comments are ignored. Punishment is presenting negative consequences following unwanted behaviors. If you are repeatedly late for work, you could have a disciplinary suspension of three days brought against you.

147.

How would a fixed ratio schedule and a variable ratio schedule be used in a workplace? A fixed ratio schedule is when rewards are provided every set time the right behavior is demonstrated. For example, a salesman may receive a bonus for every tenth sale he makes. A variable ratio schedule reinforces on a random pattern. For example, a manager may praise his employees on a very infrequent, occasional schedule.

148.

List two tips a manager could use to make the discipline process more effective. Consider whether the punishment is the most effective way of modifying the behavior. Be sure that the punishment fits the crime. Be consistent in your treatment of employees. Document the behavior in question. Be timely in discipline.

149.

List the five stages of organization behavior modification (OB Mod). 1. Identify behavior to be modified. 2. Measure the baseline level. 3. Analyze its antecedents and outcomes.

4. Intervene. 5. Evaluate and maintain. 150.

Briefly describe how process- and need-based theories of motivation are useful to firms. Need-based theories help a manager identify what people need to be motivated and will help make the work environment a place for satisfying those needs. Maslow’s hierarchy, Alderfer’s ERG and McClelland’s acquired needs theories are key in helping to identify such needs. Process theories look at the mental processes of employees that are key in driving behavior. Equity, expectancy and reinforcement theories are useful in designing reward systems for a firm. Together the two groups of theories help make a workplace productive for firm and employees alike.

151.

Describe how reinforcement theory has been successful in explaining ethical behavior. The theories help managers understand how employees behave unethically. Process theories like reinforcement suggest that people will behave unethically if those unethical behaviors are rewarded. The need-based theories help the manager understand what the basic needs and desires of employees are that drive the behavior.

152.

Give an example of how motivation is culturally bound. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is one such theory that is culturally bound. Financial satisfaction, for example, is a stronger predictor of overall life satisfaction in developing nations. In contrast, esteem needs are a more powerful motivator for industrialized countries.

ESSSAY 153.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and Alderfer’s ERG theory are need-based theories of motivation. What are some key criticisms of Maslow’s theory and how does Alderfer’s theory modify that of Maslow? Maslow’s research was done in the clinical setting, which raises questions as to its applicability in the workplace, especially since it lacks empirical support. Further, the model proposes that needs are hierarchically ranked and that as one need is satisfied, the next higher order need becomes the focus of effort. Yet one can observe individuals who, while pursuing a higher order need, seem to stay motivated not only by that need but aspects of the previous one. For example, if an individual were ever so poor that he had no food and was homeless, even after becoming somewhat successful, the fear of a return to homelessness might still drive him to some degree. Consistently, research has not supported the argument that only one need is dominant at any time or that once satisfied, a need is not motivating.

Alderfer’s model addresses some of these concerns, first by offering needs in a categorical framework (existence, relatedness and growth) rather than a hierarchical mode. This representation suggests that more than one need can be motivating at any one time. In addition, Alderfer offers a “frustration-regression” hypothesis in his model, suggesting that if individuals become frustrated in pursuing a specific need, they may regress to another need for motivating behavior. In short, Alderfer suggests that more than one need may be motivating at any time. 154.

Herzberg has been strongly criticized for his research finding that salary is a hygiene factor. Describe the nature of hygiene factors and how salary fits this category. What are the implications of this finding for managers in the workplace? Hygiene factors are ones that are found in the context of the job environment. Herzberg argues, based upon his study, that these factors are those one would expect to have in his environment. For example, the physical environment should be one free from hazards, where it is not too hot or too cold in which to work. The worker, is, in essence, neutral when these environmental factors are as expected. Only when the factors are unexpected and problematic does the employee react and then he expresses dissatisfaction. For example, if the air conditioning in an office is broken during the summer months, sweltering employees will complain, likely very loudly. Herzberg contends that salary fits this profile. Clearly employees expect a certain level of salary, at least minimum wage, only when their pay is not at the level of the market, for example, will they complain about it and begin to pursue other options. The important implications of Herzberg’s theory are that while managers need to be aware of environmental factors and their improvement, they are not sufficient to motivate an employee. Context factors matter because when they are absent, employees are dissatisfied. The job and its content also must be addressed.

155.

McClelland’s acquired needs theory has been assessed in various cultures. Choose a country with whose culture you have some familiarity. Describe some key aspects of the culture and which of the three needs might be most prevalent among residents of the country. Provide a rationale for your suggestions. Answers will vary. One general example: Latin American cultures tend to focus on close-knit work groups with strong interpersonal interactions between individuals. One professor’s personal experience is that Latin American workers are extremely attuned to each other’s likes and dislikes. Mentioning that you like an individual’s shirt could very likely result in your receipt of a gift box the next day, containing an identical shirt. Clearly these specific examples reflect a need for affiliation orientation.

156.

You are a trained expert in interpreting the themes of responses to the TAT. You get the following story based on the respondent’s viewing the TAT picture in your book: Jacqueline is a recent graduate of The University of Michigan, now employed as a marketing specialist at a Fortune 500 firm. She has just completed her first marketing campaign for the firm. The campaign was a major success. She is looking once more at the plaque the vice president of marketing

awarded her to commemorate the campaign’s success. Analyze this story to determine the key themes, and then indicate which of McClelland’s needs seem most prevalent. Finally, briefly describe what the implications are for managing this employee. Themes: success: Graduate of major research university, primary force behind outstanding marketing campaign and recipient of plaque commemorating the event. Goal-oriented: graduate, coordinator of marketing campaign Feedback-oriented: enjoying plaque received. The McClelland theme which best describes Jacqueline is need for achievement. The best way to manage Jacqueline is to continue to provide her with situations in which she can create and achieve goals and then provide her the feedback that recognizes the successes achieved. Those high in need for achievement meet deadlines, come up with innovative ideas and achieve success. Managers simply need to support these dimensions. 157.

You are the new dean of the college of business administration at a major university. One of the first tasks you have undertaken is a review of the salaries of your non-tenured faculty members. You note that the OB instructor has similar credentials to the marketing instructor, but is paid $5,000 less per year for similar teaching duties. You are also aware that faculty members recently found out salaries of all instructors when the payroll office erroneously sent an email with that information attached. Based on your knowledge of equity theory, what reactions to the inequity might you expect, and how would you address them? Equity theory suggests that two ratios are assessed by an individual: first, a selfassessment ratio comparing one’s input to outcomes. If the outcome is favorable given the input invested, an individual feels equity. That self-assessed ratio is then compared against a similar ratio “mentally” prepared on a referent. Again the comparison leads to feelings of equity or inequity. In this scenario, a comparison of the OB instructor to that of the marketing instructor, all things being equal, is going to make the OB instructor feel inequitably treated by the college. Knowing the inequity felt by the OB instructor, the dean could pursue a number of different options to address feelings of unfairness in the university system. For example, the dean might attempt to help the OB instructor alter his perception of his own or the referent’s inputs and outcomes. Specifically, the dean could help the OB instructor see that he really did not work as hard on his classes, nor teach them as successfully as he thinks he did (perhaps by providing student evaluation of such). Other options to address the inequity felt include: having the referent increase his inputs, having the OB instructor reduce his inputs or attempt to increase outcomes, change the comparison person (perhaps by comparing himself to another OB instructor) and having the OB instructor leave the university.

158.

General Motors, Ford and Daimler Chrysler are closing numerous factories and laying off thousands of employees. Based on the research on procedural justice, what recommendations could you make to the firms to be fair to those individuals? Again, answers will vary. Some options the auto companies might utilize include providing the laid-off employees with advance notice of the job action, thus providing them an opportunity to prepare themselves for the major life impact. Other options include: allowing employees a voice in decision making, providing full explanations for the need for such job action, and treating all employees in a consistent manner (having a set procedure for determining who will be laid off and not deviating from the plan).

159.

Bill is a successful pharmaceutical salesman. His company has developed a new drug and has provided him the option of staying with his previous products or adding the new product to his account. Using expectancy theory, describe the thought process Bill would go through to decide which option to take. Expectancy theory suggests that three factors should be examined. First is the notion of expectancy itself. Will my effort lead to high performance? In this case, does the salesman believe he can sell the new drug? Will his current selling techniques allow him to maintain his high performance level? The second issue to be considered is instrumentality. Instrumentality is the degree to which the person believes performance is related to rewards. Will the sale of this drug produce good commissions? Finally, the notion of valence must be assessed. Is the size of the commissions sufficient to facilitate such effort? When these issues are considered in concert with one another, the motivation to pursue the action is determined. The role of the manager of this pharmaceutical sales person is to try to influence all these perceptions.

160.

You have been hired to replace a very unpopular manager of a marketing department. Department members were especially vocal about how unfair the previous manager was in conducting performance appraisals and allocating merit bonuses. What are some key considerations or actions you might take to create a more fair environment? Being fair involves looking at a few key issues: The prior manager may not have done so, but when distributing rewards, you must make sure you are paying attention to the different contribution levels of your employees. Not all employees contribute equally and to reward them all equally is to be unfair to those with greater participation. That said, there are occasions when the nature of people’s contributions should be ignored and the rewards distributed equally. For example, when holding a luncheon to celebrate the attainment of a production goal, all employees should be invited, not just those most directly responsible for the production of the actual product.

You must also pay attention to how you actually make decisions. Though you are accountable for your decisions, you should not always make those decisions unilaterally. Talk to your employees and get some perspective by those who will be affected by the decisions. Pay attention to how you talk to people. Use the old adage: Treat people as you yourself would like to be treated. Justice is also in the eye of the beholder. Even though you may feel that you are being fair, everyone has different perceptions. Recognize that and accept it. Finally, people care about how they are treated, but they also care about how others are treated. With these thoughts in mind, you will have a head start on addressing the issues created by your predecessor. 161.

Many firms are instituting wellness programs for their employees as a means to improve those employees’ health and well-being and lower healthcare premiums. Use the stages of organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) to explain how to modify employee health in the workplace. Stage 1: Identify the behavior to be modified. Overweight individuals, particularly those who are established as being clinically obese, represent real medical concerns both now and in the future. Identifying those individuals whose BMI (body mass index) suggest they are candidates for medical problems down the road is an important first step. Stage 2: Measure the baseline level. A firm can decide to institute a wellness program whereby they publicize the opportunity to privately find out your BMI. Many firms institute a team competition to get department members to be measured. The department with the most individuals measured, for example, may get $5 gift cards to a local eatery. Stage 3: Analyze its antecedents and outcomes: Once the BMI is assessed and the potential level of obesity in the firm determined, the firm can begin to determine the potential causes of the weight problem among its employees. Often the problem is a lack of exercise. Stage 4: Intervene. If lack of activity is one contributing problem for the firm’s employees, a program addressing the issue can be created. Many firms are taking part in a walking program called “America on the Move.” The program distributes pedometers to all participants, and baseline numbers of steps in a daily routine are determined. Once that baseline is assessed, the firm attempts to encourage its employees to increase the number of steps daily. One goal might be to take 2,000 extra steps each day. Stage 5: Evaluate and maintain. Teams are formed in departments of the firm to compete against one another as each individual and group attempts to reach the 2,000 steps per day goal. After a set time period, progress toward the goal is

assessed and those teams and individuals achieving the goal are rewarded for their efforts. At one university instituting this program, goal achievers have their monthly insurance premiums reduced by an established formula for every month that goal is achieved. Clearly the overall effect is that employees become healthier and overall company healthcare premiums are reduced. 162.

Using either Maslow’s hierarchy of needs or Alderfer’s ERG theory, describe why Trader Joe’s employees provide such excellent service to customers. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs presents needs in a ranked order beginning with physiological and then moving upward to safety, social, esteem and selfactualization. The theory suggests that once a need is satisfied, it no longer motivates behavior and the next higher order need becomes the driving force for behavior. Trader Joe’s, as one of the best paying retail organizations in that sector with an average full-time employee income of $40,150 annually, satisfies the physiological and safety needs of its employees. The atmosphere found in the store where employees happily cover for each other when one is missing and enthusiastically serve the needs of the customers, goes a long way to satisfying the social and esteem needs of employees. The quarterly performance evaluations facilitate career opportunities for employees, as does the autonomy afforded by many positions. Finally, the training opportunities provided by Trader Joe’s supports self-actualization. The specific program elements when viewed as a whole demonstrate the manner in which firms can use motivational theories to support employees as well as their own competitive goals. The same argument can be made for how Alderfer’s model applies to Trader Joe’s. The only changes would be that Alderfer’s existence needs would replace the physiological and safety needs of Maslow; relatedness needs would replace social; and growth needs would replace the esteem and self actualization dimensions.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 6 Designing a Motivating Work Environment TRUE/FALSE (False) 1.

Leaving employees free to choose job performance methods is an important element of scientific management techniques.

(False) 2. Job specialization entails breaking down jobs into their simplest components. (True) 3. Job enlargement involves moving employees from job to job at different intervals. (False) 4.

You are a Walt Disney Company management trainee. The first three months of your job you will be working in the restaurant and hospitality area. The next three months you will be in the merchandising area, followed by three months in lodging and finally, three months in park operations. The Walt Disney management trainee program is designed using the job rotation philosophy.

(True) 5.

In a supermarket study, cashiers rotated through different departments had lower stress levels and less pain in their necks and shoulders.

(True) 6.

Research shows that the psychological state of meaningfulness is the most important state for employee attitudes and behaviors.

(True) 7.

The job characteristics model is an attempt to design jobs for increased motivational potential.

(True) 8.

Skill variety and task significance are the most important elements in deciding motivational potential.

(False) 9. Access to information is a key factor in empowering employees. (True)

10.

Goal commitment is higher when employees have trust-based relationships with managers.

(True) 11. Goal setting is one of the most influential theories of motivation. (True) 12. The most effective goals are easy ones. (False) 13.

The performance appraisal meeting is the most important component of a performance appraisal.

(True) 14.

In the most effective performance appraisal meetings, criticism of the individual personality traits is very important.

(False) 15.

Quality expert Edward Deming has advocated for abolishing performance appraisals in the workplace.

(True) 16.

Adequate notice ensures that there is two-way communication during the performance appraisal process.

(False) 17.

If used on a short-term basis, relative ranking appraisals may help an organization become more performance-oriented because they tend to weed out employees with persistent performance problems.

(True) 18.

To increase the effectiveness of performance meetings, increase employee participation.

(True) 19.

Attractive women are rated lower if they are employed in non-management jobs and higher if they are in management jobs.

(False) 20. Leniency bias is a common problem in performance appraisals. (True) 21. Merit pay is a permanent pay raise based on past performance. (True) 22.

In a pay system based upon commission, rewarding only sales volume could encourage salesmen to heavily discount merchandise.

(True)

23.

The notion of using incentives to increase performance is a very old idea, actually going back to the time of Napoleon.

(True) 24.

Gift cards as awards to employees are not appreciated because they are often purchased for stores and restaurants that employees do not frequent.

(False) 25.

The use of stock options remains a popular incentive technique in start-up organizations.

(True) 26.

Even though goal setting is a good motivational tool, there is strong evidence that goal setting can also lead to unethical behavior.

(True) 27.

One technique to reduce the likelihood of unethical behavior resulting from goal setting is to create multiple levels of goals and distribute rewards according to the goals achieved rather than rewarding only those who reach the highest goal.

(True) 28.

Research suggests Indian employees are more satisfied when they are empowered in the workplace than their counterparts in the United States or Poland.

(False) 29.

Some research shows that Chinese employees are more motivated than American employees when the goals set for them are very difficult.

(True) 30.

Countries high in power distance respond positively to appraisal systems where lower level employees give feedback to their managers.

(False) 31.

Research in Western countries suggests that empowerment is an effective tool to motivate employees.

(True) 32.

In China, goals high in specificity are more motivational in contrast to the low specificity goals preferred by employees in Western cultures, including the United States.

(False)

MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Retail with a Purpose: The Case of REI 33.

(a) 34.

(b) 35.

(d)

*What type of organizational structure makes REI relatively unique among retailers? a. The company is a co-op, owned by its customers. b. The company is a co-op, owned by its employees. c. The company is owned by the Anderson family. d. The company gives out stock to customers who spend over $1,000 a year at the store. Easy/Knowledge *Which of these are ways that REI shows a commitment to keeping and engaging employees? a. Pay scale 20% above similar retailers. b. Yay-days, profit-sharing, town hall meetings, and online campfire meetings. c. Town hall meetings, profit-sharing and free equipment. d. Yay-days, online campfire meetings, and free equipment. Easy/Knowledge *For both customers and employees, REI follows one organizational purpose: a. To put nature first b. Share profits with customers c. Share profits with employees d. To connect people to nature Easy/Knowledge

Section I: Motivating Employees through Job Design 36.

(b) 38.

Which of the following factors has the most influence on worker motivation? a. pay b. growth opportunities c. job design d. recognition Easy/Knowledge Scientific management’s primary focus is a. goal setting. b. efficiency. c. flexibility. d. motivation. Medium/Analysis A key element of the scientific management philosophy is a. using training and specific instructions to maximize task variety.

b. c. d. (d)

minimizing waste by identifying the most efficient method to perform the job, while still retaining high levels of autonomy. expanding the nature of tasks performed by employees to add more variety to the job. breaking down jobs into their simplest components to facilitate specialization. Medium/Analysis

39.

(a)

Job specialization a. is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform a few tasks in a repetitive manner. b. refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. c. involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. d. allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. Easy/Knowledge

40.

Which of the following is an advantage to job specialization? a. b. c. d.

(b)

Training costs are higher, but because of the specialized nature of tasks, they are learned more fully. The nature of the jobs leads to lower absenteeism. Staffing costs are lower because the repetitive nature of tasks makes skill requirements lower. The nature of the jobs is especially effective in rapidly changing environments. Difficult/Evaluation

Job rotation a. is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform a few tasks in a repetitive manner. b. refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. c. involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. d. allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. Easy/Knowledge Job enlargement a. is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform few tasks in a repetitive manner. b. refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. c. involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. d. allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. Easy/Knowledge

43.

(d) 44.

(a) 46.

(b) 47.

(a)

Job enrichment a. is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform few tasks in a repetitive manner. b. refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. c. involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. d. allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. Easy/Knowledge Frederick Taylor’s work led to a fundamental change in management philosophy. The change a. was understanding that managers could not influence the output levels of employees. b. was understanding that repetitive activities are the direct result of job generalization. c. paved the way for today’s automation and standardization. d. was increasing the complexity of jobs in the workplace for greater productivity. Difficult/Analysis The local high school band needs to raise money to pay for a trip to New York City. It decides to sell sandwiches. Early Saturday morning, 20 volunteers report to the school cafeteria to make sandwiches. Stations are set up to make the 500 sandwiches ordered for that day. Station one has four individuals cutting sandwich buns, station two has four individuals placing the meats on the rolls, station three, etc. The individual who devised the sandwich-making production plan is operating under a a. job specialization approach. b. job rotation approach. c. job enlargement approach. d. job enrichment approach. Difficult/Synthesis Job specialization can a. increase the number of employees needed to complete the job. b. minimize training costs. c. lead to greater motivation among employees. d. be very effective in rapidly changing environments. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is accurate regarding job rotation? a. Rotation is the regular movement of employees through firm jobs. b. Rotation leads to increased turnover. c. Rotation is an opportunity for employees to use skills they already have. d. Rotation leads to slightly elevated blood pressure measured in employees using the process due to their movement between jobs. Easy/Comprehension

48.

(d) 49.

(d) 50.

(b) 51.

(a) 53.

Which of the following is an advantage of job rotation? a. employees become cross-trained due to their movement between jobs. b. managers have greater scheduling flexibility in a job rotation system. c. employees experience less boredom in a job rotation system. d. all of the above. Medium/Comprehension Stuart works on an auto assembly line. Last year he was responsible for welding the upper panel of the wheel well onto the left rear wheel area. This year, he is also responsible for welding all parts of the entire left rear wheel area. This auto assembly line underwent a job re-design using the ________ ________technique. a. job specialization. b. job enrichment. c. job rotation. d. job enlargement. Medium/Application Which of the following statements is true about job design approaches? a. Job rotation takes place only with lower level jobs in an organization. b. Job enrichment may lead to employee frustration or dissatisfaction with pay. c. Job specialization is effective in rapidly changing work environments. d. Job enlargement implementation leads employees to feel less capable of performing job tasks. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following statements about job enlargement is accurate? a. Job enlargement has more positive effects when employees are given more simple tasks. b. When jobs are enlarged, employees view themselves as less capable. c. Job enlargement is beneficial because it is positively related to higher quality customer service. d. The intent behind job enlargement is to decrease the variety of tasks to be performed so that human resources are used effectively. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements about job enrichment are true? a. Job enrichment may lead to dissatisfaction with one’s pay. b. Job enrichment is a suitable technique to be used with any employee. c. Job enrichment may be associated with reduced productivity and increased absenteeism. d. The technique allows employees to try out other job roles. Medium/Comprehension Olaf works on an assembly line in an Oslo factory. Last month the assembly line processes were overhauled. Olaf is still responsible for soldering electrical contacts on an appliance component, but now he is also expected to review each component for quality defects after he solders. If he notes any defects, he can place the component in the scrap bin. If he scraps five such pieces in

(d) 55.

(b) 56.

(a)

succession, he is permitted to press an emergency button above his station, which stops the assembly line completely. This job re-design is a reflection of the _____ ______________ philosophy. a. job rotation b. job enlargement c. job enrichment d. job specialization Difficult/Synthesis Maria works at a factory in Lima, Peru where she sews blue jeans for a major American firm. On Mondays, she sews the side seams of the jeans, on Tuesdays she sews on pockets, Wednesdays she presses finished jeans, Thursdays she folds jeans, packages sets of twelve in shrink wrap and places them in boxes, and on Friday she sews decorative stitching on the pockets and side seams. Maria is working under the job design technique of a. job specialization. b. job enrichment. c. job enlargement. d. job rotation. Medium/Synthesis Task identity refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Easy/Knowledge Skill variety refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Easy/Knowledge

57.

(d) 60.

(c)

Feedback refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. the degree to which people learn how effective they are being at work. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Easy/Knowledge Task significance refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Easy/Knowledge Autonomy refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a core job characteristic in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. role variety b. task importance c. feedback d. pay Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is considered an outcome in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. task significance b. feedback c. satisfaction d. task variety Easy/Knowledge

62.

(b) 63.

(d) 65.

(a) 66.

(b) 67.

Which of the following is considered a psychological state in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. motivation b. meaningfulness c. creativity d. engagement Medium/Knowledge Which of the following best describes the elements of Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. Three psychological states lead to five core job characteristics which lead to five outcomes. b. Five core job characteristics lead to five outcomes which produce three psychological states. c. Five core job characteristics lead to three psychological states which lead to five outcomes. d. Three psychological states lead to five outcomes which are analyzed for five core job characteristics. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following psychological states has research identified as the most important for employee attitudes and behaviors? a. responsibility b. knowledge of results c. motivation d. meaningfulness Medium/Knowledge A fashion designer who creates pieces for a large fashion house for a New York or Paris runway show has a. high task identity. b. low task identity. c. low skill variety. d. low autonomy. Medium/Synthesis Employee autonomy a. makes the employees more reactive in doing their jobs. b. increases motivation at work. c. decreases employee creativity. d. decreases employee effectiveness. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between feedback and performance is true? a. The mere presence of feedback is sufficient to motivate employees to better performance. b. Regardless of whether feedback is positive or negative in nature, employees will feel motivated by it. c. Feedback is detrimental to performance in about one-third of the cases.

d. (c) 68.

(b) 70.

(b) 71.

(c)

The manner in which feedback is delivered has no bearing on its motivation effects. Medium/Analysis

According to the formula for the motivating potential score of a job, the most important elements in deciding motivation potential are a. skill variety and autonomy. b. task significance and task identity. c. autonomy and feedback. d. skill variety and feedback. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following is true regarding the motivating potential of a job? a. An employee whose expectation for his job is to pay the bills will have high growth strength. b. Even though a job is designed with the express purpose of motivating individuals, some employees may not find the job motivational. c. Career stage does not influence the importance of the five core characteristics. d. Employees with high growth need strength will respond less favorably to jobs with high motivating potential. Difficult/Evaluation In order to increase the feedback you receive, you could a. avoid asking your superior for feedback. Managers will look less favorably upon you if you continually bother them for feedback. b. develop a positive relationship with your manager. c. defend yourself by explaining your behavior when you receive negative feedback. d. seek positive feedback rather than negative feedback. Medium/Analysis Structural empowerment a. refers to making a person powerless. b. is the degree to which a person has higher order needs such as esteem and self-actualization. c. refers to the aspects of the work environment that give employees discretion, autonomy and the ability to do jobs effectively. d. is the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Medium/Knowledge

72.

(d) 73.

(a) 74.

(d) 75.

(d) 77.

(d) 78.

Which of the following factors determine empowerment? a. structure b. access to information c. leadership style d. all of the above Medium/Knowledge ___________ is an example of felt empowerment. a. Meaningful work b. Leadership style c. Organizational structure d. Organizational climate Easy/Knowledge One of the dimensions of structural empowerment is a. meaningful work. b. confidence that you can perform the job. c. feeling that one has autonomy at work. d. access to information. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements is true about empowerment? a. The notion of empowerment is appropriate for all employees. b. Empowerment is a relatively easy concept to implement in the workplace. c. Employees who are nervous about empowerment may also worry about the increased responsibility. d. Empowerment is not related to job performance. Medium/Analysis To empower your employees, a. retain information on the job until it is absolutely needed. b. take away employee power so your manager accountability is not compromised. c. make sure managers continue to manage in such a manner that they are stepping in with routine responses to issues. d. change the company structure so employees have more power on the job. Medium/Analysis *Which of these is NOT one of the job components that research indicates increase the motivation of a job? a. Autonomy b. Feedback c. Task significance d. Creativity Medium/Comprehension *Since the Hackman and Oldham model was developed in the 1970s, jobs have changed in what way?

a. b. c. d. (a) 79.

(d)

Increased in autonomy and skill variety Increased in turnover and job satisfaction Decreased in task identify and responsibility Decreased in motivation and satisfaction Medium/Comprehension

*Which of these is NOT a way to enrich a job through job crafting? a. Changing the content of the job b. Changing the way the person thinks about the job c. Changing the type of interactions with other people related to the job d. Changing the perks that go with the job Difficult/Analysis

Section II: Motivating Employees through Goal-Setting 80.

(a)

The “M” in “SMART” goals stands for a. Measurable b. Motivating c. Minimal d. Management Easy/Knowledge

81.

(d) 82.

(b) 83.

(b) 84.

(c)

Which of the following statements regarding SMART goals is correct? a. Easy goals are the most effective goals. b. When goals are specific, stress is higher. c. Adding a time limit to a goal leads to short-term decision making and ignoring the long term consequences. d. Effective goals tend to be aggressive. Medium/Analysis If you say to yourself, “As soon as I finish reading this chapter in my textbook, I am going to play Guitar Hero for an hour,” this specific goal has motivated you because a. it has given you direction. b. it has energized you to keep going until you have accomplished the goal. c. it has provided you with self-esteem. d. it has caused you to re-think how you are working. Medium/Application Which of the following conditions contribute to the effectiveness of goal setting? a. performance b. goal commitment c. time pressure d. group, as opposed to individual goals. Easy/Knowledge Under what conditions would SMART goals be most effective? a. When managers have clearly established goals without employee input. b. When employees feel the skill sets needed to perform a goal-oriented task need to be upgraded. c. When employees have a supportive and trusting relationship with their managers. d. When managers provide feedback to employees on a very irregular basis, if at all. Medium/Synthesis

85.

(a) 86.

(b) 87.

(a) 89.

(a) 90.

(b)

_______________ is (are) a downside to goal setting. a. Learning decreases b. Adaptability increases c. Developing broadmindedness d. Ethical problem decreases Easy/Knowledge Though goal setting is usually viewed as a positive process, there can be downsides if a. employees can adapt their behaviors in response to unplanned for threats. b. employees lack skills necessary to reach the goals. c. rewards are established for coming close to, as well as achieving a goal. d. goals account not just for meeting, as an example, production quotas, but also for meeting quality standards. Difficult/Evaluation A management by objectives program includes a. detaching individual goals from organizational strategy. b. setting individual goals aligned with personal strategy. c. developing action plans. d. periodically reviewing your coworker’s goals. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is accurate for goal setting? a. Management commitment is key to successful implementation of MBO programs. b. In general, there are no downsides to goal setting. c. Goals should be easily achieved to be motivating. d. Goals are more effective motivators if feedback on achievement is limited so as not to divert attention from the goal to the feedback. Difficult/Synthesis *The level to which a person is dedicated to meeting a goal is _____. a. goal commitment b. goal dedication c. goal restoration d. goal setting Easy/Knowledge *For goals to be most effective, three conditions are helpful. Which of these is NOT one of those conditions? a. Regular feedback on the employee’s progress toward the goals. b. The goals should never be made public. c. The employee should have the skills and knowledge to achieve the goals. d. The employee needs to be committed to accomplishing the goal. Easy/Knowledge

Section III: Motivating Employees through Performance Appraisals 91.

(d) 92.

(a) 93.

(a)

Research on performance appraisal suggests a. performance appraisal ratings are usually used only for feedback purposes. b. employees are always well aware of the basis for their evaluations. c. as organizations become flatter, there is less need for multiple appraisal perspectives like those of peers, customers and subordinates. d. feedback is most effective if it immediately follows high or low performance. Difficult/Evaluation The most likely individual to rate an employee is a. the employee’s supervisor. b. a coworker of the employee. c. a customer of the employee. d. a subordinate of the employee. Easy/Comprehension 360-degree feedback is a. designed to provide feedback for promotion or pay decisions. b. designed to deal with all instances where competition between coworkers is prevalent. c. designed to provide feedback for developmental purposes. d. the most frequently used form of performance appraisal in U.S. firms. Medium/Analysis Fair hearing refers to a. letting employees know what criteria are used in appraisal. b. documenting performance problems and using factual evidence in rating performance. c. ensuring that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s perspective is heard. d. the process where feedback is confidentially gathered from peers, customers and subordinates. Easy/Knowledge Adequate notice refers to a. letting employees know what criteria are used in appraisal. b. documenting performance problems and using factual evidence in rating performance. c. ensuring that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s perspective is heard. d. the process where feedback is confidentially gathered from peers, customers and subordinates. Easy/Knowledge

96.

(b) 97.

(d) 99.

(a) 100.

(c)

Judgment based on evidence refers to a. letting employees know what criteria are used in appraisal. b. documenting performance problems and using factual evidence in rating performance. c. ensuring that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s perspective is heard. d. the process where feedback is confidentially gathered from peers, customers and subordinates. Easy/Knowledge A relative ranking system is used when a. students receive an A if they got 93% of the total points in a semester. b. students receive weighted grades during a semester, like: 20 of 25 points on a quiz worth 5% of the grade, and 10 of 15 on a quiz worth 3% of the grade. c. a college implements a system where 10% of the class will receive A, 20% will receive B, 70% will receive C, 20% will receive D and 10% will receive F. d. a student must take all quizzes to receive a C, a student must take all quizzes and write a paper to receive a B, and a student must take all quizzes, write a paper and do a presentation to receive an A. Difficult/Synthesis *Forced ranking systems like those used by Intel and Uber, a. provide employees with concrete feedback on what their goals are for next year. b. are beneficial to a firm if they are used in a consistent manner and for a long period of time. c. can lead to employee stagnation and a performance-aversive culture. d. can carry the danger of lawsuits because of equal employment opportunity concerns with employees rated. Difficult/Evaluation Performance appraisals are conducted in order to a. document employee performance for pay and reward decisions. b. provide employees with feedback for developmental purposes. c. distribute bonuses, pay increases and promotions. d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Conducting an effective performance appraisal meeting a. is always easier if the rater begins the meeting with a criticism of the employee and moves forward from there. b. is always easier if the rater limits the number of opportunities the employee has to speak. c. is facilitated if the rater has empathy for the employee. d. is easier if the rater completes the performance appraisal form as he talks to the employee during the actual performance appraisal meeting. Medium/Synthesis

101.

(d) 102.

(b) 103.

(b) 105.

(a)

Raja and James are next-door neighbors and their sons are best friends. Raja and James take the boys on many father-son outings. Raja is James’ boss at ABC Corporation. James gets high ratings from Raja. There may be bias in those ratings due to a. leniency. b. stereotypes. c. contrast. d. liking. Medium/Application Renaldo is preparing to rate Marquez on his annual performance evaluation. As he looks at the first item, Renaldo thinks about the meeting he had with Marquez last week. Marquez shared with Renaldo that his wife was quite ill and that there may be days when he would be called to the hospital unexpectedly. Renaldo knows that a poor review will cost Marquez his bonus which Renaldo knows would be very difficult for Marquez financially. Based on this, Renaldo may give Marquez ratings that show ______________ bias. a. liking b. leniency c. stereotype d. recency Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about rating biases are true? a. women in stereotypically male jobs are rated higher than women in stereotypically female jobs. b. attractive women are rated higher if they hold management jobs than if they hold non-management positions. c. liking someone may cause the rater to selectively remember positive things about the person and thus rate him higher. d. leniency bias can be addressed by having the rater use absolute rankings. Difficult/Evaluation *The procedures, policies, and methods used to support and improve employee performance are known as a. operational oversight b. performance management c. appraisal operations d. performance characteristics Easy/Knowledge *A common issue companies face with performance appraisals is a. they confuse performance appraisals with performance management b. they share the appraisal with the employee c. performance appraisals don’t allow for SMART goals d. performance appraisals don’t fit into management by objective Medium/Comphrehension

106.

(b) 107.

(c)

*To improve overall performance management, in addition to performance appraisals, a company should use a. an employee ranking technique. b. frequent one-on-one meetings. c. an annual company picnic. d. a peer-review bonus system. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a typical bias to be aware of during a performance appraisal? a. Liking b. Leniency c. Geography d. Sterotypes Easy/Knowledge

108. Section IV: Motivating Employees Through Performance Incentives 109.

(c)

Research on performance incentives suggests a. employees report lower levels of pay satisfaction under pay-forperformance systems. b. firms with pay-for-performance systems have lower customer service. c. eighty percent of all American companies use merit pay. d. pay-for-performance systems are less effective at retaining higher performing employees than praise or recognition systems. Difficult/Evaluation

110.

(d) 111.

(a) 112.

(d) 113.

(d) 114.

(a)

A piece rate system refers to a. a program providing one-time rewards to employees for specific accomplishments. b. a company-wide program where employees are rewarded for performance gains compared to past performance. c. a permanent pay raise based on past performance. d. a program where employees are paid on the basis of individual output produced. Easy/Knowledge A mid-sized manufacturing company produced one thousand component assemblies in July of this year, far exceeding the previous record of 843 assemblies. One week later, the firm had grills brought on site and employees were treated to a steak luncheon. The steak grill-out is an example of a. an award. b. a bonus. c. gainsharing. d. merit pay. Easy/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding performance incentives is accurate? a. Employees who are heavily rewarded by commissions may overwhelm customers who provide them with a low probability of making a sale. b. When awarded stock options, employees tend to hold on to them rather than sell them. c. Profit sharing is an effective way of tying employee pay to individual effort. d. Gainsharing programs can be successful if the payout formula is generous and employees can participate in the management of the company. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding performance incentives is true? a. Employees tend to hold onto stock options rather than sell them. b. Merit pay is always a successful program because employees recognize they will be rewarded only if performance increases. c. Profit sharing is very effective in tying individual pay to employee effort. d. Companies are increasingly choosing to implement team- or group-based pay-for-performance programs over individual-based pay-for-performance programs. Difficult/Evaluation *PepsiCo Inc. replaces some of its stock options program with a _____ because companies now have to report the stock options as an expense. a. cash incentive program b. stock buy-back program c. gift card incentive d. paid-time off incentive Easy/Knowledge

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 115.

(a) 116.

(d)

Which of the following statements regarding goal setting and ethics is true? a. Research shows that teachers who are rewarded for their students’ success may give their students answers during tests to improve the test scores. b. The tendency to behave unethically occurs when employees know they are going to achieve their goals. c. Employees have two choices when goal accomplishment is rewarded: work hard to reach the goals, or quit. d. When a high percentage of a CEO’s pay package consists of stock options, companies are less likely to misrepresent the financial situation of the company. Difficult/Evaluation Companies can reduce the temptation to behave unethically by a. rewarding only those who reach high goals. b. rewarding everyone including those who completely missed their goals. c. withholding rewards from those who are demonstrating unethical behaviors. d. providing small recognitions for all behaviors even if the behavior has unethical overtones so that no employee feels like he has been singled out. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding cultural aspects of motivation in a work environment? a. Mexican employees work very effectively in self-managed teams. b. Indian employees are very satisfied when they are empowered. c. Chinese employees are very motivated when goals are very difficult. d. Peer appraisals are very effective in collectivism cultures. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding culture and designing a motivating work environment is true? a. countries high in power distance respond positively to appraisal systems where lower level employees give performance feedback to their managers. b. the paternalistic nature of Mexican companies makes methods of increasing employee empowerment easy to implement. c. workers in India tend to respond positively to empowerment. d. in China, goals with low specificity are more motivational than those with high specificity. Difficult/Evaluation

Closing Section:

119.

(c)

Which of the following is a reason why Nucor Steel is so effective at motivating its employees? a. The incentive system penalizes lower performers and places strict limits on how much can be made by those that perform well. b. The firm has a centralized structure that retains decision making at upper levels in the organization. c. Employees have the opportunity to fix problems that they see occurring during production. d. Employees are only promoted from within the organization. Medium/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 120.

The philosophy of _______________________focuses on the most efficient method to perform a job. (scientific management) 121.

________________ breaks down jobs into their simplest components and assigns them to employees so that they can perform tasks in a repetitive manner. (Job specialization) 122.

An auto assembly worker who works on the left rear wheel bolts on Monday, the right front headlight screws on Tuesday, the front grille connectors on Wednesday, the right rear wheel bolts on Thursday and the left front screws on Friday is working under a ___________________ system. (job rotation) 123.

The job characteristics model features the psychological states of _____________, _______________, and _____________________. (meaningfulness, responsibility, and knowledge of results) 124.

_____________ has been identified as the most important psychological state affected by job characteristics. (Meaningfulness) 125.

An organizational behavior instructor who develops a unique teamwork project for use in her classroom will have high _______________ with the project. (task identity) 126.

_________________________ describes the degree to which a person has higher-order needs such as esteem and self-actualization. (Growth need strength) 127.

Employees who feel motivated and have discretion to make decisions about the content and context of their job are __________________. (empowered) 128.

A Harley-Davidson employee’s authority to stop the assembly line if he sees a blemish on the product indicates he has ___________________ empowerment. (structural)

129.

The acronym, SMART, stands for___________, ______________,__________, realistic and time-bound when discussing goal setting. (specific, measurable, aggressive) 130.

The degree to which a person is dedicated to reaching the goal is called ___________________________. (goal commitment) 131.

______________________is the process in which a rater or raters evaluate an employee’s performance. (Performance appraisal) 132. ______________________ is the process where supervisors, peers, subordinates, and sometimes even customers provide that will later be shared with the employee for developmental purposes. (360-degree feedback) 133.

_____________ ensures that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s story is heard. (Fair hearing) 134.

If you answer 90% of the questions right on an exam, you get an A, if you get 80% correct, you get a B, and so on. This approach to grading an exam uses a(n) _________________ criteria. (absolute rating) 135.

If a manager does not want to have a confrontation with an employee or wants to avoid hurting that employee’s chances of getting a bonus, he may give the employee a rating higher than warranted. This bias in performance appraisal is called ______________. (leniency) 136.

Beliefs about different groups that may be generalized to an employee who is being evaluated, even though those beliefs may have little basis in reality, leads to a _____________ bias in performance evaluation. (stereotype) 137.

History suggests that one of the first incentive plans in place was when Napoleon promised 12,000 francs to anyone who could find a way to preserve food for the army. This is an example of a ____________. (bonus) 138.

Fruit pickers are often paid based on the amount of fruit they pick in a day. This is an example of a ________________ system. (piece rate incentive) 139. A one-time reward that follows a specific accomplishment is called a _________. (bonus)

140.

The purpose of ________________ is to align company and employee interests by making employees owners. (stock options) 141.

_____________ is a company-wide program where employees are rewarded for performance gains compared to past performance. (Gainsharing) 142.

Research suggests Chinese employees are much more motivated by ____________ goals than their American counterparts. (difficult) 143.

*In the job characteristics model, _____ is the most important of the three psychological states for employee attitudes and behaviors. (experienced meaningfulness) 144.

*The Nucor Steel Company’s _____ penalizes low performers, but sets no upper limit on the amount high performers can earn annually. (incentive system) 145.

*Evidence of the success of Nucor Steel is the low turnover rate and _____ status of the firm. (nonunion) 146.

The overall plan of methods, policies, and procedures used by companies to support and improve employee performance is _____. (performance management) SHORT ANSWERS 147.

Describe one key feature of Frederick Taylor’s scientific management philosophy. Based on his observations, Taylor saw a need for standardizing job tasks as a way to minimize waste. Under this approach, each job would be carefully planned in advance, and employees would be paid to perform the tasks in the way specified by management. Another key feature of Taylor’s approach was job specialization which refers to breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person would perform a select number of tasks in a repetitive manner.

148.

How do the job design techniques of job enlargement and job enrichment differ? Job enlargement is the process of expanding the number and kind of tasks performed by the employee to add more variety in his work.

Job enrichment is the process where workers have more control over how they perform their tasks. The key difference between the two is the nature of control, authority or responsibility the worker has under job enrichment. For example, in job enlargement, the employee may be responsible on an auto assembly line for the entire left rear wheel component. There are, obviously, a number of specific tasks that would be part of producing that component. The job would be enriched, if in addition to completing tasks to produce the left rear wheel component, the employee was also responsible for checking the quality of the assembly arriving at his work station. If the incoming assembly had quality defects, the enriched worker might be able to stop the entire assembly line. 149.

Describe the process of job rotation as it applies to an employee in your college’s photocopying center. A variety of jobs are performed at most college photocopy centers. Clearly exams and professor handouts are produced there, but there are also a number of binding activities, packing large orders, delivery of orders, and so on that are completed there. One example of a job rotation might be if on Monday, employee A would be responsible for receipt and logging of all job orders either sent through campus mail or delivered in person to the center. On Tuesday, employee A might be stationed at the copy machine doing the actual copying of work. That same employee might move to the spiral binding machine on Wednesday and the flat binding machine on Thursday. Friday would find employee A delivering completed jobs to individual offices throughout the campus. Each individual job is broken down to its simple parts for easy training. As the repetition of the tasks occurs, quality improves, as does efficiency. The rotation between the jobs addresses any monotony that might arise from completing the same tasks on a daily basis.

150.

List and define the core job characteristics found in the Hackman and Oldham’s model. Skill variety is the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. Task identity is the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. Task significance is whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s work, health or well-being. Autonomy is the degree to which a person had the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. Feedback is the degree to which people learn how effective they are being at work.

151.

What is the formula to calculate the motivating potential score (MPS) of a job, and what is the purpose of the score?

MPS = Skill variety + Task Identity + Task significance x Autonomy x Feedback 3 The formula suggests that autonomy and feedback are the most important elements in deciding the motivating potential compared to skill variety, task identity and task significance. The purpose of the formula is to assess the motivating potential of a job. 152.

What is the difference between felt empowerment and structural empowerment? Structural empowerment refers to the aspects of the work environment that give employees discretion, autonomy and the ability to do their jobs effectively. Felt empowerment is the condition where employees find the work to be meaningful, feeling confident that they can perform the job, feeling that they have discretion and autonomy at work and having the ability to influence how the company operates.

153.

What does each of the letters in the acronym, SMART, mean? S is Specific. M is Measurable. A is Aggressive. R is Realistic. T is Time-bound.

154.

Write a SMART goal. To eliminate 25% of the solid waste from US stores by the year 2015 (Wal-Mart)

155.

Explain why goals can be motivating. Goals give us direction. The goals tell you what to focus on; so they should be set carefully. Employee goals should be aligned with company goals. Goals energize employees. Even if you are tired of working toward a goal, having a specific goal in mind energizes you. Goals present challenges. When goals are set and people reach them, they feel a sense of accomplishment. SMART goals urge you to think outside the box and re-think how you are working. Goals have to be challenging and somewhat difficult to motivate.

156.

Describe two conditions under which goals are more effective. Goals are more effective when there is feedback. The feedback helps indicate the progression to goal accomplishment. Employees should have the skills, knowledge and abilities to reach their goals. Employees should be committed to the goals. Goals should be challenging, not easy, and not extremely difficult.

157.

Are there any downsides to goal setting? Explain. Yes, setting goals for specific outcomes may hamper employee performance if those employees lack skills and abilities needed to reach those goals. Therefore, goals should be set for learning, not outcomes, so the learning decreases can be addressed. Goal setting may prevent employees from adapting and changing their behaviors in response to unforeseen threats. In short, adaptability declines.

Goals tend to focus employee behavior on activities that are measured, and thus people sacrifice other important elements of performance as a singlemindedness develops. Finally, an aggressive pursuit of goals can lead to unethical behaviors. If rewards are given only for achievement of goals and not for coming close, some employees may do whatever it takes to achieve that goal. 158.

List the steps of the management by objectives (MBO) approach. 1. Make sure individual goals support team goals and team goals support the company strategy. 2. Specifically, company-wide goals should be derived from corporate strategy. 3.Team and department goals are then determined making sure they derive from the company goals. 4. Individual goals are collaboratively set between the employee and the supervisor that are aligned with the corporate strategy. 5. An action plan is developed. 6. The performance goals are periodically reviewed and revised.

159.

How does 360-degree feedback differ from the more traditional feedback systems? 360-degree feedback is a system where all sources share, in a confidential manner, feedback on an employee for developmental purposes. These sources include peers, coworkers, supervisors and customers. The traditional feedback system usually involves only supervisors

160.

What are the three characteristics of appraisals that increase the perception that they are fair? Adequate notice involves letting employees know what criteria will be used during the appraisal. Fair hearing means ensuring that two-way communication occurs during the appraisal process and making certain that the employee’s story is heard. Judgment based on evidence involves documenting performance problems and using factual evidence as opposed to personal opinions when rating performance.

161.

Differentiate between absolute and relative ranking. Absolute rating is the situation when your performance is rated based upon some objective criteria. Relative rating is when your rating depends on how your objective performance compares with the rest of the group evaluated.

162.

Name and define three common biases in performance appraisals. Liking is when the rater and the ratee have an existing relationship. The feelings of like or dislike can bias the ratings. Leniency is when managers give employees ratings that are higher than what is warranted. Stereotypes are beliefs about different groups that are generalized to the person in question even if that belief has little basis in reality.

163.

Name two types of individual incentives and describe each. Piece rate incentives are when employees are paid on the basis of individual output produced. Bonuses are onetime rewards that follow specific accomplishments of employees. Merit pay involves giving employees permanent pay raises based on past performance. Sales commissions reward sales employees with a percentage of sales volume or profit generated. Awards are methods that convey appreciation for worker performance and include such items as plaques, mugs, and gift cards.

164.

Name and describe two group- or team-based incentives. Team bonuses are one-time rewards that follow specific accomplishments of teams of employees. Gainsharing is a company-wide program where employees are rewarded for performance gains compared to past performance. An example of this is labor cost savings. Profit sharing involves sharing a percentage of company profits with all employees.

Stock options give an employee the right, but not the obligation, to purchase company stocks at a predetermined price. ESSAY 165.

Using the concepts of job design, goal setting and incentive systems, discuss how Nucor Steel Company successfully motivates its employees. Nucor employees act almost like owners on their jobs. They are encouraged to fix things when they see they are wrong and have appropriate power to do so. Nucor Steel is very well known for pushing authority and responsibility down to the lowest levels in the hierarchy, which shows how effectively the firm has designed jobs for enrichment. Incentive systems at Nucor are so effective that Nucor employees are the highest paid steel workers in the world. Much of the earnings comes from ties to performance; in fact everyone, including the CEO, has pay tied to corporate performance. The system is such that low performers are penalized while high performance is rewarded and employees become increasingly committed to the firm. The formula for Nucor success is simple: Align company goals to employee goals and give employees power to make things happen. The employee turnover rate is one of the lowest in the industry and the firm one of the most successful.

166.

Choose a job. Using Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model, analyze that job for its motivational properties. Comment on ways to enhance the job’s motivational properties and potential. Example job is college instructor. Skill variety of the job would be high as instructors teach, develop materials, tutor, counsel, etc. Task identity is high since the instructor has her own course and teaches it as she sees fit throughout the entire semester or term. Task significance is also high as the instructor’s job affects students’ well-being among others. Autonomy is high as instructors have the freedom to choose their own textbooks, make their own handouts, exams, etc. Feedback is high as instructors are evaluated formally by their students, by their deans and by other groups including informally on websites such as ratemyprofessor.com. These five factors lead to the instructors perceiving high meaningfulness in their

work where they are responsible for outcomes (student grades) and acquire knowledge of results (how the students perform as well as how the instructor performs). This, in turn, leads to overall job satisfaction, internal motivation, higher performance and lower absenteeism and turnover. Enhancing the motivational potential could occur through increasing autonomy and feedback to their highest levels possible. 167.

Jerome had been working in an accounting department for nine months and has not received much feedback from his supervisor. What steps could he undertake to increase the feedback he is receiving? Jerome can first seek the feedback, instead of trying to guess how he is doing. Jerome’s manager will become aware that Jerome cares about his performance and wants to be successful. Jerome needs to be genuine in his desire to learn. He does not want to suggest to the manager that he is only giving an impression of being motivated, but is sincerely interested in improving his performance. Jerome needs to develop a good relationship with his manager so that he can ask questions about his performance. Jerome should also find trustworthy peers who can share information regarding his performance. Finally, Jerome should be gracious in receiving his feedback.

168.

Matilda is a new sales manager in a pharmaceutical organization. She decides that she wants to implement an MBO (management by objectives) approach in that department. Describe the steps she will complete to institute such a program. Matilda will begin the process by setting company-wide goals derived from the pharmaceutical organization’s strategy. From that, team- and department-level goals are set. Next individual level goals will be collaboratively set between Matilda and her employee. Both Matilda and the employee must ensure that the goals are aligned with corporate strategy. Once the goals are set, an action plan is developed and implemented. Periodically, performance is reviewed and goals revised as needed.

169.

Brett has been a manager of the accounting department for eight months now. He will be holding his first performance appraisal meetings in the next few days. Describe some ways in which he could enhance the effectiveness of those performance appraisal meetings. Present feedback in a constructive manner, focusing not on criticizing the person, but on discussing performance problems.

Increase employee participation throughout the meeting. When employees have the opportunity to present their side of the story, they react more positively to the overall appraisal process and feel the system to be fair. Be knowledgeable about the employee’s performance and the job that is being evaluated. Prepare before the actual meeting. You might have the employee complete a self-appraisal. The rater definitely should have his form completed before the meeting with specific examples of each kind of behavior evaluated indicated on that form. Also, handle all the logistics of that meeting, including having sufficient time to actually conduct the meeting. During the actual meeting, show empathy and support for the employee. One way to do so is to avoid opening the meeting with a criticism of the employee. Keep in mind that criticism of performance is acceptable but not of the person. After the meeting, make a conscious attempt to maintain a steady feedback schedule with the employee and to follow through on all goals set during the appraisal meeting. 170.

Harvard uses a forced choice ranking system in evaluating a number of classes in its business curriculum. In this system, for example, 10% of the students might receive As, 20% Bs, 60% Cs and 10% Ds. Discuss the potential issues surrounding such a grading system. Students admitted to Harvard are already outstanding students or high performers. To then place them in a situation where they are forced into recognition that some of them are not high performers, but essentially “failures” is problematic. While some students clearly will not be able to make the transition from high school to Harvard, a large number of them will. To assume that only 10% of them will perform well enough to receive As is a bit of a stretch. Those students who have worked very hard and do not receive the grades they believe they deserve due to these artificial standards could experience a real lack of motivation. In general, this system may be counterproductive in the educational setting.

171.

Discuss an incentive system that an inner city school system might use to motivate teachers. Describe why you chose this incentive system. Merit pay is an incentive system being considered by a number of school systems. The system involves giving employees a permanent increase in pay based upon past performance. The notion of how to measure such performance in the education setting is, of course, controversial. Some options being instituted include rewarding teachers for increased standardized test scores and higher graduation rates. A formula is established whereby for every point higher a class scores on a standardized test compared to the previous year, a certain bonus is paid.

172.

Discuss some of the research findings on goal setting and ethical behavior. In general, goal setting and rewarding employees for achievement of those goals are successfully implemented by firms. However, in some settings, unintended consequences arise where unethical behavior arises. If goal accomplishment leads to rewards and the rewards are desirable, employees may feel they have only two choices: work hard to achieve the goals, or cheat. There is a multitude of examples of unethical behavior undertaken by employees to achieve desirable rewards. Sanitation workers have taken trucks far over their legal limit to landfills, car repair places have found phantom problems with cars brought in for a check-up and CEOs have exercised stock options at questionable times, to provide just a few examples. To address some of these concerns, it has been proposed that reward achievement not be an all-or-nothing proposition, but that various reward levels be established to address those who fall just short of the established goal.

173.

Discuss some of the research on goal setting and performance appraisal in other cultures. There are differences in the motivational impact of goal setting, depending on the culture in question. American employees need challenging but not difficult goals to be motivated. The Chinese, in contrast, are more motivated when the goals are difficult. Specific goals motivate salespeople from Western cultures. Again, in China, lowspecificity goals are more motivational.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 7 Managing Stress and Emotions TRUE/FALSE 1. There are a variety of ways to reduce stress in the workplace. (True) 2.

Stress, or the body’s response to a change that requires a physical, mental or emotional response, is always bad for the individual.

(False) 3.

According to one survey, over half of workers report job stress as an issue for them.

(True) 4.

When we perceive a threat to our safety, the body reacts with a “fight or flight” response.

(True) 5.

Challenge stressors have been shown to relate to increased engagement and performance.

(True) 6.

Challenge stressors generally show negative effects on performance, while hindrance stressors generally show positive effects on performance.

(False) 7.

The General Adaptation Syndrome looks at how events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different kinds of emotions.

(False) 8.

In the resistance phase of stress, an outside stressor jolts an individual insisting that something must be done.

(False) 9.

John’s company downsized, and John is now performing his own job plus most of his former coworker Sidney’s job. John is now experiencing role ambiguity.

(False) 10.

The Demand-Control model proposes that employees with high levels of autonomy and control over their jobs will be less stressed.

(True) 11. Role conflict is a result of contradictory demands at work. (True)

12. Role conflict is the strongest predictor of poor performance on the job. (False) 13. Information overload negatively impacts employee efficiency and creativity. (True) 14.

A Forbes magazine survey indicates that the most stressful job in 2017 was that of enlisted military personnel.

(True) 15. Overall, work-life conflict is more problematic for men than women. (False) 16. On the Holmes-Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is the death of a spouse. (True) 17. All stress results in negative consequences. (False) 18.

Downsizing, or the expectation of downsizing, is related to greater absence in the workforce.

(True) 19. The outcomes of stress are only psychological in their orientation. (False) 20. Blemishes and other skin problems can be outward manifestations of stress. (True) 21.

The link between stress and heart disease has been proven by the American Heart Association to be strong.

(False) 22.

Persistent stress has the potential to place vulnerable individuals at an increased risk for depression.

(True) 23.

Research shows that excessive stress is related to higher turnover and lower job performance.

(True) 24.

Marissa is generally a few minutes late for class. She feels that “class will be there, why rush?” Marissa always thinks through how to address problems that arise for her rather than responding first and thinking later. Marissa has a Type A personality.

(False) 25.

The old adage “Have a good cry” is great advice to deal with stress that has built up in an individual.

(False) 26. The “Corporate Athlete” approach to dealing with stress is a reactive approach. (False) 27.

Flow is the state of consciousness where individuals are totally absorbed in an activity.

(True) 28.

Fish contains dopamine, which when consumed can produce feelings of alertness.

(True) 29.

Physically active work breaks lead to reduced mental concentration levels and increased mental fatigue.

(False) 30. Most American adults get the appropriate amount of sleep each night. (False) 31.

Individuals with a strong social network are more stressed than individuals who do not have such networks because of the increased interpersonal demands of large social networks.

(False) 32.

Stress-related issues cost companies billions of dollars annually due to absenteeism, lost productivity, and accidents.

(True) 33.

Organizations can help employees reduce stress by offering them greater autonomy in their jobs, making their job duties clear, and providing employee assistance programs.

(True) 34.

Mindfulness-based programs are increasingly being utilized by organizations as a way to help employees combat stress at work.

(True) 35.

Firms like Apple are interested in how products are perceived emotionally because strong positive emotions make individuals more likely to use a product and recommend it to others.

(True) 36.

Both positive and negative emotions can be contagious, but the spillover from positive emotions lasts longer than negative ones.

(False) 37.

According to Affective Events Theory, the six emotions of anger, fear, joy, love, sadness and surprise inspire actions that can benefit or harm others.

(True)

38.

The customer service representative at the department store who keeps smiling as she listens to the customer bitterly complain about her newly purchased product is engaging in deep acting.

(False) 39. Americans enjoy much greater leisure time than their European counterparts. (False) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Mission to Mars 40.

(a) 41.

(a)

Managing Stress and Emotions: The Case of NASA’s

*NASA prepares astronauts to be better roommates and colleagues by a. helping them develop skills to solve problems interpersonally b. helping them to develop skills to argue without being mean c. allowing them private areas in the Space Station d. teaching them to journal Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a stress management technique used by NASA for astronauts? a. exercise b. private space c. blogging d. special food Easy/Knowledge What is Camden Property Trust’s motto: a. Have fun! b. Work hard! c. Money is the most important thing! d. You can never work too hard! Medium/Comprehension

Section I: What is Stress?

43.

(a) 44.

Stress is a. the body’s response to an environmental demand. b. decreasing in the American workplace. c. a mental barrier, but not a physical one. d. always negative. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is NOT a type of response to stress? a. physical

(d) 45.

(b) 46.

(b) 48.

(d) 49.

(b)

b. mental c. emotional d. societal Easy/Knowledge General Adaptive Syndrome refers to a. how events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different emotions. b. the hypothesis that stress plays a general role in disease. c. the body’s response to good news. d. the mismatch among emotions, attitudes, beliefs and behavior. Easy/Knowledge Challenge stressors refer to a. vagueness in regard to job responsibilities. b. stressors that detract from personal goals and prevent personal growth. c. demands and circumstances that cause stress but also promote individual growth. d. having insufficient time and resources to complete one’s job. Easy/Knowledge Hindrance stressors refer to a. vagueness in regard to job responsibilities. b. stressors that detract from personal goals and prevent personal growth. c. demands and circumstances that cause stress but also promote individual growth. d. having insufficient time and resources to complete one’s job. Easy/Knowledge In what stress phase does the body release cortisol and begin to adjust to the demands of the stress? a. alarm phase b. exhaustion phase c. adaptation phase d. resistance phase Medium/Knowledge The body’s “fight or flight” response causes which of the following physical symptoms to occur? a. narrow-eye focus. b. digestion interruption. c. decreased heart rate. d. deep breathing. Medium/Knowledge

It is finals week at State University and Agnes has five finals in three days. What phase of the stress process is she experiencing in each of the scenarios below? 50.

Agnes just went through the kitchen cupboards and found a chocolate bar loaded with caramel. She is probably experiencing the

(a)

a. exhaustion phase. b. alarm phase. c. resistance phase. d. adaptation phase. Medium/Application

It is finals week at State University and Agnes has five finals in three days. What phase of the stress process is she experiencing in each of the scenarios below? 51.

(b) 52.

(d) 53.

(d) 54.

(a) 55.

Agnes glances at the clock and notes it is three hours until her first final of the week. She still has two chapters to study. She feels a slight pain in the pit of her stomach. Agnes is experiencing symptoms of what stress phase? a. exhaustion phase b. alarm phase c. resistance phase d. stressor phase Medium/Application Stressors are defined as a. demands to perform interactions and internal calculations that exceed the supply or capacity of time available for processing. b. states of consciousness in which a person is totally absorbed in an activity. c. events on the job which cause different people to feel different emotions. d. events or contexts that cause a stress reaction by elevating levels of adrenaline and forcing a physical or mental response. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements about stress is correct? a. An American Psychological Association survey suggests that there is a strong correlation between stress and heart attacks. b. No matter how they are categorized, stressors are always bad for individuals. c. Stressors cause stress by reducing adrenaline levels and increasing cortisol levels in the body. d. Stress is a cumulative process. Medium/Comprehension Role ambiguity refers to a. vagueness in relation to job responsibilities. b. insufficient time and resources to complete a job. c. contradictory demands at work. d. processing demands that exceed the supply of time for such processing. Easy/Knowledge Facing contradictory demands at work is a form of a. role ambiguity. b. role conflict. c. role overload. d. information overload.

(b)

Easy/Knowledge

56.

Role overload refers to a. inability to reconcile the demands of one’s work and home life. b. facing contradictory demands at work. c. having insufficient time and resources to complete a job. d. vagueness in relation to what job responsibilities are. Easy/Knowledge

(d) 58.

(a) 59.

(b) 60.

(a) 61.

Information processing demands that exceed the supply or capacity of time available for such processing is called a. role conflict. b. role ambiguity. c. role overload. d. information overload. Medium/Application Which of the following role stressors has been shown to have the strongest effects on poor performance? a. role ambiguity b. role conflict c. role overload d. all role stressors have equally detrimental effects on performance. Medium/Comprehension Mary is a new employee in the handbag department of a major department store. She is not entirely sure whether she is to simply stay on the sales floor and sell purses to customers, or if she is to sell the items and then go back into the stockroom to replenish them. Mary is experiencing a. information overload. b. role ambiguity. c. role overload. d. role conflict. Medium/Application Rodney is experiencing a real dilemma. His boss just called him and told him that he had to attend a dinner meeting Wednesday night with some important out-oftown clients. Rodney’s daughter just called and told him she will be dancing a solo at her dance recital on Wednesday evening. Rodney is experiencing a. role conflict. b. role overload. c. information overload. d. role ambiguity. Medium/Application Joe was diagnosed with cancer six months ago. He is back at work between chemotherapy treatments but is unable to work more than four hours per day. Diego has been covering all Joe’s assignments that extend beyond Joe’s fourhour day as well as covering the regular tasks of his own eight-hour shift. Diego is likely experiencing

(b) 62.

(b) 63.

(d) 64.

(d) 65.

(d) 66.

a. role ambiguity. b. role overload. c. role conflict. d. information overload. Medium/Application Omar is sitting at his computer writing his organizational behavior term paper using Internet research while he e-mails his friends and watches the NFL Thursday night football game. His phone just rang and now he is also talking to his girlfriend. Omar is likely experiencing a. role conflict. b. information overload. c. role ambiguity. d. role overload. Medium/Application Research on workplace stressors indicates a. role conflict is the strongest predictor of poor performance. b. when role ambiguity is low, new employees have a difficult time fitting into their new organizations. c. role conflict hurts job performance, but role overload has little impact on job performance. d. the fragmented fashion in which we work due to information overload impacts mental acuity and creativity. Difficult/Evaluation Which was the most stressful job in America of 2017 according to Forbes magazine? a. miner b. inner city high school teacher c. police officer d. enlisted military personnel Medium/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding work-life conflict is accurate? a. Work demands and family demands are always incompatible. b. Work-life conflict has gone down in recent years due to better technology. c. Work-life conflict is greater for men than for women. d. Increased work hours and dual-earning households in the U.S. have contributed to greater work-life conflict. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding work-life conflict is correct? a. Work-life conflict increases job and life satisfaction. b. Organizations that have programs to assist employees in achieving worklife balance accept that these programs will reduce productivity while increasing retention. c. Recent surveys show that Americans rarely work overtime. d. Work-life conflict occurs when the demands of work and family negatively impact each other.

(d) 67.

(b) 68.

(b) 69.

(b) 71.

(d)

Difficult/Comprehension Maria is a customer service agent for a large Telecom. During her shift she gets a call from an irate customer who is screaming at her and calling her names. This event would be considered a(n) a. role stressor. b. interpersonal stressor. c. challenge stressor. d. life change. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true of major life changes? a. Stress results from negative life changes but not from positive ones. b. The Holmes-Rahe scale ascribes stress values to life events based upon incidences of illness and death in the 12 months after such events. c. Stressors are one-time events so the number of stressors you experience in a 12 month period is not important. d. Life events can impact our psychological but not our physical well-being. Medium/Evaluation Research on downsizing indicates which of the following is a statement? a. Since 1980, the service industry has accounted for the largest average percentage of firms which downsized five or more percent of their workforces. b. Downsizing and job insecurity are challenge stressors. c. Downsizing leads to other stressful events such as financial insecurity. d. Creativity in the work environment improves significantly during downsizing because people have to do more with less. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding life stressors is correct? a. Work-life conflict is slightly greater for men than women. b. Expectations of future downsizing leads to greater absenteeism in the workplace. c. Stress results only from negative life events; positive life events increase feelings of satisfaction. d. Organizations cannot aid employees in dealing with work-life conflicts as any interference from the firm would be seen as an invasion of privacy. Difficult/Synthesis Research on stress in the workplace indicates which of the following is an outcome of experiencing stress? a. lower turnover b. higher job performance c. higher job commitment d. lower organizational citizenship behaviors Medium/Analysis

72.

(d) 73.

(a) 74.

(b) 75.

(a) 76.

Major organizational changes can cause employees to experience higher levels of stress at work. Which of the following is considered a type of organizational change? a. changes in executive leadership b. changes in policies and protocols c. changes in workforce due to a merger or acquisition d. all of the above Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is an example of anticipatory stress? a. Anna’s coworker Julie was just let go due to downsizing. Anna worries about whether she will get to keep her job. b. Reuben feels anxious every time he thinks back to what his supervisor said during his recent performance evaluation. c. Sam is upset because he just lost an important sale that he has been working toward for a month now. d. Carlos’ son is home alone and has called Carlos at work three times in the past hour. Difficult/Evaluation Antonia received some negative feedback on her sales performance on her last performance evaluation. It’s already been a week since the meeting with her supervisor but she just can’t stop thinking about the feedback. She keeps replaying it in her mind over and over. This is an example of a. burnout. b. rumination. c. anticipation. d. a role stressor. Medium/Evaluation Marcus is a student at State University. He seems to run to each of his classes and is very upset with the professor if class does not begin exactly on time. He studies until the late hours of the night and will argue with his professor for every possible point on a multiple choice exam. Marcus would be classified as having a. Type A personality. b. Type B personality. c. pessimistic personality. d. neurotic personality. Medium/Application

(b)

Anita seems to take life as it comes. When the refrigerator and washing machine broke down in the same day flooding the kitchen, she laughed it off saying, “It could always be worse.” She then went and called the appliance repair service. Anita has a _________________ personality. a. Type A b. Type B c. pessimistic d. neurotic Medium/Application

77.

A Type B personality displays which of the following characteristics?

(d) 78.

(d) 79.

(d) 80.

(a) 82.

(b) 83.

a. impatience b. deep levels of job involvement c. high level competitiveness d. logical decision making Easy/Knowledge Research on individual differences in the type of stress experienced by employees indicates that a. workaholics enjoy work more than other employees. b. due to their stronger social networks, men process stress more effectively than women. c. men become depressed more often than women. d. individuals with Type A personalities are more likely to experience negative organizational outcomes. Medium/Evaluation Research on crying as a stress reliever suggests a. the old adage is true: “Let it all out with a good cry.” b. criers are less depressed, less anxious and less tired than those who wept less. c. crying is much more successful than humor at combating stress. d. crying may intensify negative feelings because it is a social signal that the individual weeping is very upset. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding workaholics? a. Workaholics enjoy their work more than other employees. b. Someone is a workaholic if they work very long hours. c. Despite working long hours, workaholics may feel guilty or like they haven’t worked enough. d. Workaholics are similar to Type B people. Medium/Evaluation The dimensions of psychological capital (PsyCap) are a. efficacy, optimism, hope, resilience. b. efficacy, optimism, positive affect, hope. c. Optimism, positive affect, hope, resilience. d. positive affect, self-confidence, strength, hope. Easy/Knowledge *After studying the body’s response to stress, Hans Selye determined that unmanaged stress a. helps to motivate employees. b. can create physical problems and psychological illnesses. c. can’t be avoided. d. our body knows the difference between a real threat and a work problem. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT one of the three steps in Hans Selye’s GAS model? a. exhaustion

b. c. d. (c) 84.

(a) 85.

(b) 86.

(a)

alarm drama resistance Easy/Knowledge

*The demand-control model proposes that stress occurs when a. work places a lot of demands on the person, who has little control over the situation. b. the more control a position gives a person, the more stressed that employee becomes. c. employees should demand control over their jobs. d. managers should control all the demands of the employees. Medium/Comprehension *Another model, the Job Demands-Resources model, states that even with control over the situation, people are still subject to stress if a. they aren’t paid enough. b. they don’t have the resources to meet the demands of the job. c. supervisors have more control. d. they have too many resources. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these are symptoms of burnout? a. low energy, feelings of exhaustion b. striving to get everything right c. hypertension and over-active thyroid d. laughing hysterically at inappropriate times Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Managing Stress 87.

(b) 89.

The “corporate athlete approach” to stress is a. a reactive approach to the problem. b. to avoid challenges so as not to be overwhelmed by them. c. to train mind and body to perform at peak levels by using better nutrition, and positive action. d. a technique to change eustress into distress. Medium/Comprehension The concept of flow refers to a. applying the principles of athletic performance to workplace performance. b. a state of consciousness where a person is totally absorbed in an activity. c. the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes. d. ongoing negative emotional states resulting from dissatisfaction. Easy/Knowledge Gordon is not focused on his work but has a great deal of energy. He is most likely to be

(b) 90.

(a) 91.

(d) 92.

(b) 93.

(b) 94.

a. disengaged at work. b. distracted at work. c. a procrastinator. d. totally absorbed in work. Difficult/Synthesis A manager with low focus and low energy would most likely a. procrastinate at work. b. be distracted at work. c. be disengaged at work. d. be totally absorbed in work. Difficult/Evaluation Work that flows offers a. opportunities for a large number of breaks. b. the employee little opportunity to comment on the task at hand. c. high pay. d. opportunities to use skills possessed by the employee. Medium/Comprehension Work that flows includes which of the following characteristics? a. feedback b. challenge c. conformity d. task variety Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true regarding diet and stress? a. Eating light meals in the middle of the day may slow down the body because there is insufficient food energy available to stimulate the brain to react to stress. b. Greasy foods make a person feel tired because digestion of the fats in such foods diverts blood from the brain. c. The dopamine in fish produces a feeling of sleepiness. d. Eating fish for lunch tends to reduce reaction times. Medium/Evaluation

(d)

Research indicates that exercise is an effective strategy for managing stress. Which of the following statements best describes some of the findings from studies on exercise and stress? a. Physically active breaks, like walking, actually increase mental fatigue. b. Exercise, like light calisthenics, actually absorbs energy. c. Light exercise tends to erode hand-eye coordination as well as fine motor control. d. Regular exercise increases the body’s ability to draw oxygen out of the air, thus combating stress. Medium/Evaluation

95.

Sleep research on stress indicates that

(d) 96.

(b) 98.

(b) 99.

(d) 100.

workers who miss work because of exhaustion become rejuvenated and face less stress upon their return to work. b. nearly all adults have trouble sleeping. c. work-life conflict makes good sleep easier to achieve. d. insomnia is a stress-related epidemic. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements about individual approaches to managing stress is correct? a. Time management practices like prioritizing and keeping a schedule increase stress because of added pressure to adhere to deadlines. b. Social support can make the effects of stress worse. c. When workdays are broken into smaller parts, stress can be shifted to a state of flow. d. Physical activity decreases mental fatigue, which increases stress levels. Difficult/Synthesis Stress in the form of job challenge leads to: a. Higher turnover b. Higher performance. c. Higher absenteeism. d. Higher commitment. Medium/Comprehension All of the following are steps that firms are taking to assist employees in dealing with stress in the workplace EXCEPT a. creating jobs with autonomy and control. b. replacing employees who are stressed with more resilient employees. c. ensuring fairness in the workplace. d. providing access to employee assistance programs. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is a technique used by firms to reduce the stress experienced by their employees? a. Create job descriptions for employees that are less specific and focused. b. Shift control over critical decisions to higher levels in the organization. c. Base pay decisions on tenure as opposed to performance. d. Train managers to be more interpersonally sensitive. Difficult/Synthesis Research on telecommuting indicates which of the following? a. Telecommuting decreases stress but increases work-family conflict. b. Telecommuting increases job satisfaction but decreases job performance. c. Telecommuting increases job performance and decreases turnover. d. Telecommuting decreases stress but also decreases job performance. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding telecommuting is correct? a. Telecommuting is a universally effective process, regardless of job or employee.

b. c.

(d) 102.

(d) 103.

(a) 104.

(b) 105.

The number of employees telecommuting is going down in the U.S. Research on telecommuting indicates that stress is higher but job satisfaction and job performance is also higher when the program is instituted. d. Telecommuting success is dependent on matching the right employee to the right job in the right environment. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding organizational steps to managing employee stress is correct? a. Sabbaticals are stress-reduction programs found only in the university setting. b. Employee assistance programs are found only in large Fortune 500 companies. c. Telecommuting decreases stress, but increases work-life conflict because the employee is working from home. d. Training supervisors to be aware of and sensitive to work-life demands of employees can help reduce stress. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding organizational steps to managing employee stress is correct? a. Employee assistance programs often address legal or financial problems of the employee. b. Employee autonomy increases stress and decreases job satisfaction. c. Company sabbaticals are paid vacations for extended periods of time. d. Organizations’ that have a fair environment are less profitable but have higher employee retention rates. Difficult/Evaluation *One way to recover from stress is to leave work at work, referred to as a. psychological coping b. psychological detachment c. a wellness program d. building flow Easy/Knowledge *Lakeisha and Dan just got let go because their position was eliminated after a merger. Dan is furious and can’t sleep or eat. Lakeisha went to her community center to volunteer, feels fortunate she has an opportunity to help, and is sure something better will come along. Lakeisha has a. mindfulness b. psychological detachment c. positive reappraisal d. autonomy Medium/Comprehension Wellness programs, such as gym memberships, free health screenings, weight loss programs, and smoking cessation programs a. are associated with reduced turnover and absenteeism.

(a)

b. operate based on the placebo effect. c. have little to do with work, but employees like them. d. are usually offered to only the best employees. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: What are Emotions? 107.

(b) 108.

(d) 109.

(a) 110.

(d)

Which of the following represents a negative emotion? a. stress b. fear c. surprise d. joy Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding positive emotions is true? a. Positive feelings dispose an individual to optimism but make him less open to new ideas. b. Individuals feeling positive emotions are more realistic in their evaluation of the environment. c. Positive emotions are associated with less creativity, but higher productivity. d. Having positive emotions can lead to upward positive spirals of good emotions. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about negative emotions is true? a. Negative emotions like anger can result from an event such as not having your opinions heard by your supervisor. b. Employees who manage their negative emotions are involved in more conflicts with customers compared to employees who do not. c. Negative emotions that are not managed can create a culture of openness. d. Negative emotions are always destructive in the workplace. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding research on emotional contagion is true? a. Positive emotions can be contagious, but negative emotions are not. b. All people are equally susceptible to emotional contagion. c. The spillover from positive emotions lasts longer than that from negative emotions. d. Emotions are especially salient in teams and thus teams can exhibit emotional contagion just as individuals can. Medium/Evaluation

Section IV: Emotions at Work 111.

Which of the following is NOT an emotion that is part of the Affective Events Theory?

(a) 112.

(b) 113.

(a) 114.

(d) 116.

(b) 117.

a. jealousy b. surprise c. anger d. fear Easy/Knowledge Jennifer strongly dislikes her next-door neighbors, yet every time she sees them she stops to pleasantly chat with them for a few moments. Jennifer is engaging in a. genuine acting. b. surface acting. c. deep acting. d. cognitive acting. Medium/Application When an individual is attempting to empathize with another person but nevertheless is displaying emotions he does not feel, he is engaging in a. deep acting. b. surface acting. c. genuine acting. d. cognitive dissonance. Easy/Knowledge Genuine acting is a. pretending to experience emotions not really felt. b. exhibiting physical signs that reflect emotions not felt. c. displaying emotions in alignment with your emotions. d. a mismatch of emotions. Easy/Knowledge Imagine that you are a salesperson in a major department store. Though you might not actually believe it, you follow the policy of “the customer is always right” in your daily work at the store. However, since you do not agree with that view, you often experience a. surface acting. b. genuine acting. c. deep acting d. cognitive dissonance. Medium/Application Which of the following is one way to alleviate cognitive dissonance? a. Engage in surface acting. b. Change the facts of the situation. c. Leave the situation. d. Smile more. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is considered a building block of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. business management c. cognitive intelligence

(a) 118.

(d) 120.

(a)

d. self-insight Easy/Knowledge When you understand how OTHERS feel you are exhibiting which of the building blocks of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. self-management c. social awareness d. relationship management Easy/Comprehension Conrad knows that he is flexible, enjoys challenging goals, and is very concerned about the security of his job. Conrad understands which of the following building blocks of the emotional intelligence concept? a. self-management b. relationship management c. social awareness d. self- awareness Medium/Application Research suggests high levels of emotional intelligence lead to which of the following? a. higher life satisfaction. b. cognitive dissonance c. higher stress levels. d. greater propensity to perceive situations as threats. Medium/Comprehension

Section IV: The Role of Emotions and Stress for Ethics and Culture 121.

(a) 122.

(a)

Joshua Greene’s study of how our minds and bodies react to difficult situations found that a. study subjects were largely able to agree on what was the best of possible evils in a scenario. b. human decisions are mostly rational, not impacted by emotion. c. magnetic imaging suggests emotional scenarios require less use of our brains compared to unemotional scenarios. d. humans use rationale and emotion to make decisions similar to how a computer would. Difficult/Synthesis Research on stress and leisure time around the world suggests which of the following? a. Compared to Europeans, Americans work longer hours. b. Japanese work 500 hours less than their counterparts in the USA. c. Americans are better in time management compared to their European counterparts. d. Americans are less likely to be employed than Europeans. Easy/Knowledge

Closing Section: Facing Foreclosure: The Case of Camden Property Trust

123.

(b) 124.

(d) 125.

(a)

*What approach had Camden Property Trust taken with its staff prior to 2009? a. only respond to questions b. open and honest communication c. tell staff only what they need to know d. keep managers informed but everyone else in the dark Easy/Knowledge Which of these is NOT a way Camden shows that it cares about its employees? a. offering discounted rent on apartments b. matching up to 7% of the employee’s pay at 50% in their 401(k) plan c. communicating openly d. buying everyone a Ferrari Easy/Knowledge *What is Camden Property Trust’s motto: a. Have fun! b. Work hard! c. Money is the most important thing! d. You can never work too hard! Medium/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK

126.

________ is the body’s reaction to a change that requires a physical, mental or emotional adjustment or response. (Stress) 127.

A stressor that causes stress but may also provide opportunities for growth is a _________stressor. (challenge) 128.

A stressor that detracts from personal goals and prevents growth is a __________ stressor. (hindrance) 129.

The ____________________________ is a hypothesis by Hans Selye that suggests that stress plays a general role in disease by exhausting the body’s immune system. (General Adaptation Syndrome)

130.

“Fight or flight” is the reaction to an outside stressor in the first phase, or ____________ phase of stress. (alarm) 131.

During the resistance phase of stress, the body begins to release _________ and draws on fat and sugar reserves to adjust to the demands of stress. (cortisol) 132.

The stressor has significantly weakened the individual during the ___________ phase of stress. (exhaustion) 133. _____________ refers to vagueness as to what your job responsibilities are. (Role ambiguity) 134.

Maggie’s boss wants her to complete the department project by next week. Her team leader for the corporate project wants her to travel to New York in the next few days to work on that item. Maggie is experiencing _____ ____________. (role conflict) 135.

Having insufficient time and resources to complete a job is called ______ _________. (role overload) 136.

You are at the computer working on the Internet gathering information for your term paper, your cell phone is ringing, you are receiving emails and the television is on. You are likely experiencing _____________________. (information overload) 137. Flexible scheduling is one approach to addressing ____________ conflict. (work-life) 138.

Mary is experiencing a(n) ______________ stressor when her supervisor comes to work in a bad mood and yells at her. (interpersonal) 139.

Changes to policies, downsizing, and other ______________ can cause job insecurity for employees (organizational changes) 140.

XYZ Company is merging, and everyone on staff believes that job cuts are coming. Many can’t function at work and some staff are physically ill. They are suffering from _____ (anticipatory stress) 141.

*Jesse is always tired and irritable. He never wants to do anything or has any energy. He is suffering from _____. (burnout)

142.

Alexandra is always impatient. She seems to run around the office completing this task and that. She is always the first one to work and the last to leave. Alexandra has a ________ ___ personality.

(Type A)

143.

Collectively, the dimensions of efficacy, hope, optimism, and resilience refer to ___________ ___________. (psychological capital or PsyCap). 144.

The state of consciousness when an individual is totally absorbed by an activity is ____________.

(flow) 145.

Two individual lifestyle choices that one can make to try to decrease feelings of stress include: ____________ and ______________. (diet, exercise, sleep, time management, social support network) 146.

_____________ is working remotely from home or some other locale during a portion of the workweek. (Telecommuting) 147.

A practice that has been widely used by universities that provides long periods of paid time off from the normal routine of work is called a ______________. (sabbatical) 148.

Individuals who are experiencing substance abuse problems may seek help from an ________________________ program, sponsored by their firm. (employee assistance) 149. Positive emotions include __________, _______ and ___________. (joy, love, surprise) 150.

Examples of negative emotions are _____, ______, and ______(anger, fear, and sadness)

151.

The ____________ Theory explores how events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different emotions. (Affective Events) 152.

When a hair stylist smiles even though the young child whose hair she is cutting is crying and squirming, the hair stylist is exhibiting __________ ___________. (surface acting) 153.

________________ is the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes. (Emotional labor) 154.

When a person pretends to experience emotions he does not feel, he is engaging in _________.

(deep acting) 155.

The mismatch between emotions, attitudes, beliefs and behavior is ________________. (cognitive dissonance) 156.

The subject of __________________, examined by Daniel Goleman, looks at how people can understand each other more completely by becoming more aware of their own and others’ emotions. (emotional intelligence)

SHORT ANSWERS 157.

Define stress and briefly discuss its prevalence in the workplace. Stress is the body’s reaction to a change that requires a physical, mental, or emotional adjustment or response. Today, stress is inevitable and everywhere. While we can’t change stress, we can change the manner in which we respond to it. Polls indicate that 65% of American workers report stress at work as an issue for them. Stress in the workplace is manifested through such physical effects as neck pain, aching muscles and insomnia.

158.

Describe each phase of Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome. Phase one is the alarm phase where an outside stressor jolts the individual insisting that something be done. This is the well- known “fight or flight” response. Phase two is resistance, the phase where the body begins to release cortisol and draws on fats and sugars for energy to adjust to the demands of stress. While the body can draw on its reserves to hold off stress for a while, it cannot continue in this state forever. Phase three is the exhaustion phase where the body’s stores of fats and sugars are depleted and the prolonged release of cortisol has weakened the body considerably. To cope, many individuals reach for something sweet to restore the sugars.

159.

Name two workplace stressors and give an example of each. Workplace stressors include: role demands (role ambiguity, role overload, role conflict), and information overload. Role ambiguity is the vagueness one feels about what responsibilities he holds. For example, when you begin a new job, you are often unclear what you are supposed to do.

Role conflict is when you have contradictory demands made on you at work. For example, your boss wants you to complete your project for next week while your team supervisor wants his project completed first. Role overload is when you have insufficient time and resources to complete your job. For example, if you are doing your job and covering for an individual who is out on medical leave, you may feel pulled in many directions. Information overload is simply the processing demands made on individuals where the time required to complete the tasks far exceeds the amount of time actually available. The number of emails many individuals receive in one day often far exceeds the amount of time available for responding. 160.

Name two life stressors and give examples of each. Life stressors include: work-life conflict, life changes, and downsizing. Work-life conflict is experienced when the demands from work and family negatively impact one another. An example is when you need to attend a work function and you have sick child at home to care for. Life changes are events that stress an individual. Life changes can be negative (the death of a spouse) or positive (getting married). Though each produces stress, the negative event produces distress and the positive events, eustress. The Holmes-Rahe Scale provides various life events with values that express the stress experienced. Downsizing is when firms decide to become smaller often through physical, product and employee means. Currently, many firms are downsizing to stay competitive in the worsening economy.

161.

Describe two physiological outcomes of stress. Stress can be manifested internally as nervousness, tension, anger or irritability. It can also be manifested externally through skin conditions and sweating. Because stress causes a suppression of the immune system, there are links between stress and high blood pressure, ulcers and illness susceptibility.

162.

Name two psychological outcomes of stress. Anxiety and depression are two psychological outcomes of stress. Also, burnout is an outcome of prolonged stress that is exhibited in the workplace.

163.

What does research suggest about the relationship between stress and workplace outcomes?

Stress is linked to higher turnover and lower levels of performance. Stressed individuals also tend to be less prone to engaging in organizational citizenship behaviors and to exhibit lower organization commitment. 164.

Differentiate between a Type A personality and a Type B personality. A Type A personality is a person who displays high levels of speed/impatience, job involvement and hard-driving competitiveness. Type B personalities are calmer than Type A personalities who are more prone to thinking through situations than their Type A counterparts who tend to respond emotionally.

165.

Name and describe two individual approaches to managing stress. The individual approaches to managing stress include: The corporate athlete concept, flow, diet, exercise, detachment and relaxation, mindfulness and meditation, psychological coping, social support networks and time management. The corporate athlete is training so that the employee is healthy in mind and body and embraces challenges versus avoiding them. Flow is the concept of totally immersing yourself in the job. Social support networks include coworkers, friends and family.

166.

Describe the concept of a “corporate athlete.” The corporate athlete is an approach to managing stress developed by Jack Groppel at the University of Illinois. The concept relies on applying principles of athletic performance to workplace performance. The corporate athlete is thus an individual who trains his mind and body to perform at peak levels (and under less stress) due to better eating habits, more focused training and positive action. The resulting strong mind and body embraces challenges, not avoids them.

167.

Name two organizational approaches to managing stress. Organizational approaches to managing stress include: providing employee autonomy, fair work environment, providing social support (e.g., supervisor support for work-life balance), training, telecommuting, sabbaticals, employee assistance program, and wellness programs.

168.

Name two positive emotions. Positive emotions include joy, love and surprise. These emotions result from events.

169.

Name two negative emotions. Negative emotions include: anger, fear and sadness.

170.

Describe Affective Events Theory. Affective Events Theory looks at how events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different kinds of emotions.

171.

Differentiate between surface, deep and genuine acting. Surface acting is exhibiting physical signs like smiles to reflect emotions you do not really feel. Deep acting is an individual pretending to experience emotions he does not feel. Genuine acting is when individuals are asked to display emotions aligned with their own.

172.

What is cognitive dissonance? Cognitive dissonance is a mismatch between emotions, attitudes, beliefs and behaviors. Many firms operating in multiple countries find their employees face cognitive dissonance because of the different business practices within those countries. For example, in China, to secure permission to talk about land purchases, a major U.S. company’s executives has to make payments directly to village leaders. Such scenarios created quite a bit of dissonance for those individuals.

173.

Name the four building blocks of Emotional Intelligence, and define each. The four building blocks are: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness and relationship management. Self-awareness is being able to accurately perceive, evaluate and display your emotions. Self-management is being able to direct your emotions in a positive way when needed. Social awareness is when you are able to understand how others feel. Relationship management is when you are able to help others manage their own emotions and establish supportive relationships with others.

ESSAY 174.

You are the new Human Resource manager at Lands Corporation. You have just completed examining a great deal of company data. Turnover is much higher in Lands Corporation than at its competitors or the industry average. The data that you analyzed includes a series of transcripts of exit interviews conducted over the past eight months. Repeatedly you note that past employees describe being “burned out” and then leaving the firm. What are some areas you can examine to develop organizational approaches to address and manage stress?

There are obviously a host of approaches you can take to help employees handle stress in Lands Corporation. One starting point might be to look at the jobs past “burned out” employees were performing. Are the jobs clearly defined? If the employee does not always know what he is supposed to be doing, he is more likely to feel stressed. A second step is to examine those same job descriptions for the amount of autonomy given to each employee. Stress results when employees feel a lack of control. Is the work environment fair, or is your work environment toxic? If the company does not value its employees and continually creates unfair scenarios for its employees, stress will result. Can you find any jobs for which employees are able to telecommute? Working from home at your own pace obviously reduces stress. Though universities were the first organizations to widely use employee sabbaticals, more and more companies have taken to using these programs to reduce stress and rejuvenate employees. Employee assistance programs are not just for those experiencing problems with drugs and alcohol but for those experiencing stress that negatively impacts our lives. Once you have analyzed Lands Corporation for these issues, you can begin to create action plans to address the burnout issue and ultimately the turnover. 175.

Your roommate has major stress issues every finals week. She becomes so upset about her exams and papers that she is almost impossible to live with. You do not want to see her go through these problems this finals week, so you have decided to discuss with her various approaches she can adopt that may help calm her during this time. What are some suggestions you could offer her? You have just read Jack Groppel’s work on Corporate Athletes. You suggest she concentrate on her mind and body throughout finals week as well as the weeks leading up to her exams. Let her know that lower stress levels tend to result when an individual is concerned about good nutrition, focused training and being positive in his or her actions. Help her find an activity in which she can immerse herself. Absorption in an activity makes the individual feel in control, plus makes her more alert and strong. Greasy foods make you tired. So, watch the fast foods that students are prone to eating during finals week (and other times). Talk to her about exercising. Physical activity enhances mental concentration so even a walk would reduce her stress.

Encourage her to psychologically detach, relax, and get some sleep. Sometimes it’s best to let go of school or work and take a break. Breaks like this can be energizing and allow you to refocus when you get back on task. You can’t learn a semester’s worth of material in one night, so absolutely do not pull an all-nighter. But even more important, don’t work until the wee hours of the night either. Get rest, and lots of it. Rely on her social network. Obviously she has you for support, but let her know that there are others who share her concerns. Use those others for support. Encourage her to practice some time management according to the following guidelines: Write down what she needs to do. Encourage her to cross off those items she has completed. Have her understand what activities eat up her time. Does she sit down to read emails and notice it is an hour later before she finishes? If so, then set up a specific time during the day when she does nothing but read and respond to emails. But, only complete what she can in a time frame that is established. For example, set aside 20 minutes and only 20 minutes for those emails. When the time expires, she should go on to something else. These steps should help her have a calmer finals week this time around. 176.

Meredith just brought her elderly mother to live at her house because of her mother’s current health problems. What are some options her firm might offer her to help alleviate the work-life conflict she will inevitably experience? The most obvious and, perhaps, easiest option a firm could offer, would be a flexible schedule. Flextime usually requires the employee to work some core hours and then permits that employee to work the remainder either before the core time or after. Telecommuting is a second option that the firm could consider. Again most firms require a set number of days or hours per week when the employee is physically working from the office. The remainder of days or hours are worked from home or other remote location. Other options include work sharing, family leave among others.

177.

Discuss research findings that support the value of an organization’s attention to stress management programming? Some of the research findings include: Work-life conflict leads to lower job and life satisfaction. Stressors are cumulative and can occur in trends. Stress can be negative (distress) or positive (eustress). Downsizing and job insecurity lead to greater stress, alcohol use and lower performance and creativity. Stressed individuals have lower organizational commitment. Stress can lead to internal manifestations like anger and irritability or external manifestations like high blood pressure and ulcers.

178.

Should we all have a “good cry” sometime to relieve stress? Why or why not? Though your parents may have told you to “let it all out, have a good cry”, that may not be the right answer. Research indicates that crying may not be as helpful as the old adage suggests. There is no evidence to support the hypothesis that crying improves your mood or health. In fact, one study suggested that venting only increases negative effects of negative emotions. Some research suggests that laughter may actually be the best choice. Crying may intensify negative feelings and suggest to others that the issue really does bother you. Criers tended to be more depressed, anxious and hostile than those who did not cry.

179.

Describe the Affective Events Theory and illustrate how it operates in organizations. Affective Events Theory looks at how events cause different kinds of people to feel different kinds of emotions. As an example, imagine that a co-worker unexpectedly brings you some of your favorite baked goods. You feel happy and surprised. The positive feelings you are experiencing cause you to want to do something that you had not planned before. So, you help someone else. The small moments of emotion can influence your job satisfaction. The more the employee experiences positive emotions, the more satisfied at work.

180.

Define the concept of emotional labor including the three major levels of emotional labor. Provide a real-world example of each level. Emotional labor is the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes. Imagine the worst job listed was customer service representative at a firm like Target. Complaining customers would make life in that job rather difficult. Imagine one of those customers brought in a damaged good. He is complaining bitterly. You simply smile and tell him that you have a full return policy up to thirty days after the purchase. Though the customer is ranting and raving, you are smiling and practicing surface acting. Deep acting may be an alternative. In deep acting, you empathize with the customer. Again, the customer is ranting and raving and you put yourself into his shoes and actually note that you experienced the same difficulty when you purchased the same item. Genuine acting is when individuals are asked to display emotions that are aligned with their own.

181.

An organizational behavior researcher suggests that not only should mental intelligence be assessed in each individual, but emotional intelligence should also be determined. Do you agree? Answers will vary but most individuals will probably disagree. Either from a support or opposition viewpoint, the student can discuss the various building blocks. Self-awareness, step one is something that all individuals should complete. What are you well versed in, what are your shortcomings? How can you improve on the negatives and cultivate the positives? Self-management is the phase where you can direct your emotions in a particular manner when needed. Again, it is not a problem knowing how to direct and control your emotions and the relevant aspects of the audience supporting them. Social awareness is when you are able to understand how others feel. Empathy is a difficult concept, and may not be something many students will feel is a necessity. Relationship management is when you help others manage their emotions. Since many individuals have difficulty managing their own, this may not be a very well-supported aspect of the emotional intelligence question.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 8 Communication TRUE/FALSE 1.

Communication is the process by which information is exchanged between individuals through a common system of symbols, signs, or behavior.

(True) 2.

Experts agree that organizations should regularly monitor employees’ online activity.

(False) 3.

Research indicates that communication ability is related to a manager’s performance.

(True) 4.

Deficient interpersonal communication was a factor in 70-80% of all accidents over 20 years.

(True) 5.

Though employees seem more satisfied when their company communicates with them about issues that impact them, effective communication does little to improve the firm’s market value.

(False) 6.

The communication process is very complex, and thus presents almost insurmountable challenges to understanding and controlling it.

(False) 7.

The sender in the communication process is totally responsible for successful, effective communication between the sender and receiver.

(False) 8.

In the communication process, noise is found only in the external environment of the communication situation.

(False) 9.

Filtering, emotional disconnects, and lack of credibility are all barriers to effective communication.

(True) 10.

Selective perception is the personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs.

(True)

11.

Nancy goes to work at her job at the university after the December holiday break. She opens her email and finds 312 emails after her vacation. Nancy is experiencing information overload.

(True) 12.

Research suggests that women may be speaking less in high-stakes communication situations like meetings.

(True) 13.

What women tend to perceive as “passion” in communication, men tend to view as “too much emotion”.

(True) 14. The word or term “secretary” is an example of biased language. (True) 15.

Listening is an art, not a skill, and thus individuals cannot be trained to be better listeners.

(False) 16.

The use of jargon can strengthen professional bonds with those of similar backgrounds.

(True) 17. There are two types of communication in organizations: verbal and written. (False) 18.

Storytelling is largely an ineffective means of communication as receivers perceive the senders to be largely unable to control the process.

(False) 19.

Crucial conversations are discussions where the stakes are high, so opinions need to be in line with the majority in the group.

(False) 20. Verbal communication is largely asynchronous. (False) 21.

Written communication is the most often used form of communication in business.

(False) 22. People speak much faster than they hear words. (False) 23. Nonverbal communication is at least as important as verbal communication. (True) 24.

If I emphasize the word “Max” in the following sentence, “I did not tell Max you were late,” it suggests that I might have implied it to people other than Max.

(True)

25.

There are cultural differences in the use of nonverbal communication elements like body language and facial expression.

(True) 26.

Proxemics suggests that standing at an intimate distance to a colleague increases communication effectiveness.

(False) 27.

The most information-rich communication channel is a formal written document like a report.

(False) 28. A face-to-face information channel is high in information richness. (True) 29. Written communication is best utilized when the ideas are simple. (False) 30.

In a business e-mail, using a subject line is often unnecessary as it may create unrealistic expectations about the message content.

(False) 31.

Communication flows upward, downward, and laterally in an organization, but it is not possible for communication to flow diagonally.

(False) 32. Written and verbal communication tends to seek, give, or exchange information. (True) 33. A press release is intended to appear independent of its sender. (True) 34.

People are not happy when something unexpected happens, but they are less upset when things are somewhat hidden.

(False) 35.

In crisis situations, it is extremely important that an executive be the spokesperson for the firm.

(True) 36. Communication methods and forms differ little across cultures. (False) 37.

A nonverbal gesture, like the “OK symbol” made in the United States, could be offensive in another culture.

(True) 38.

In China, as in the United States, direct eye contact is important in a communication situation.

(False)

39.

The sentence construction of the “Isn’t it?” question we ask in the United States tends to be confusing for non-native speakers.

(True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Instant Messaging in the Workplace: The Case of Slack 40.

(d) 41.

(a)

*Slack is a communications tool that provides a way to do which of these? a. Use instant messaging through private and public channels. b. Allow easily accessible channels of communication between employees and management. c. Open up communication to larger groups, not just a small email thread. d. All of the above. Easy/Knowledge *While Slack is very popular, it still has the some of the same communications issues other communications tools have including a. people reply too quickly without giving their response enough thought. b. it won’t send a message until it is complete. c. people confuse which channels they are on. d. it’s too easy to forward a message. Medium/Comprehension

Section I: Understanding Communication 42.

(a) 43.

(b)

Which of the following statements about communication is correct? a. Communication is the process by which information is exchanged between individuals, through a common system of symbols, signs or behavior. b. Miscommunication is an annoyance, but seldom has serious consequences. c. Between 10 and 20 percent of a manager’s time is spent communicating. d. Communication ability is particularly important in lower levels of organizations. Medium/Analysis Research on communication indicates that a. effective communication can lead to emotional labor. b. effective communication skills are among the top skills sought by recruiters today. c. poor communication is seen as a causal factor in 10-20% of all accidents. d. although good communication helps retain effective performers, it does not increase a firm’s market share. Difficult/Evaluation

44.

(a) 45.

(b) 46.

(a) 47.

(d) 48.

(b)

Communication fulfills three main organizational functions which are a. transmitting information, sharing emotions, and coordination. b. transmitting information, collaboration, and sharing emotions. c. control, collaboration, and coordination. d. sharing emotions, coordination, and control. Easy/Comprehension In the communication process model, the task of translating an idea into words is called a. decoding. b. encoding. c. medium. d. noise. Easy/Knowledge The individual originating a message is called the a. sender. b. encoder. c. receiver. d. decoder. Easy/Knowledge Jason sent an email to his mother, “Ur never going 2 believe this. That prof gave me no credit for my paper. I h8 him.” (with emoticons included). When his mother got the e-mail, it took her quite some time to decipher the message. Jason should have considered his audience when he _________ the message. a. decoded b. validated c. received d. encoded Easy/Comprehension Ariel was writing a paper at her laptop when the phone rang. She answered it but kept writing as she talked. It was a friend who needed an assignment that had been given last week. Ariel e-mailed her the assignment. A second e-mail just arrived from the friend, which said: “I said the assignment for Monday, this is Wednesday’s.” Ariel likely made the mistake because of the _________ in her communication situation. a. message b. noise c. sender d. feedback Easy/Analysis

A professor decides to save paper by posting her syllabus on the university’s web-based course application program instead of printing it and handing it out during the first class. She sends an e-mail to all her students prior to the actual start of the course that reads, “Your syllabus is available on Courseweb. I will go over that syllabus during the first class but, since I am attempting to conserve paper, will not make a copy available to you. Students however, are welcome to print out their own copy of the syllabus.”

49.

(d)

In this scenario, the professor has what role in the communication process? a. receiver b. medium c. decoder d. sender Easy/Application

A professor decides to save paper by posting her syllabus on the university’s web-based course application program instead of printing it and handing it out during the first class. She sends an e-mail to all her students prior to the actual start of the course that reads, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will go over that syllabus during the first class but, since I am attempting to conserve paper, will not make a copy available to you. Students however, are welcome to print out their own copy of the syllabus.” 50.

(a)

Given the above scenario, the students have what role in the communication process? a. receiver b. medium c. decoder d. sender Easy/Application

A professor decides to save paper by posting her syllabus on the university’s web-based course application program instead of printing it and handing it out during the first class. She sends an e-mail to all her students prior to the actual start of the course that reads, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will go over that syllabus during the first class but, since I am attempting to conserve paper, will not make a copy available to you. Students however, are welcome to print out their own copy of the syllabus.” 51.

(c)

The email sent by the professor represents what aspect of the communication model? a. feedback b. noise c. medium d. decoding Easy/Application

A professor decides to save paper by posting her syllabus on the university’s web-based course application program instead of printing it and handing it out during the first class. She sends an e-mail to all her students prior to the actual start of the course that reads, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will go over that syllabus during the first class but, since I am attempting to conserve paper, will not make a copy available to you. Students however, are welcome to print out their own copy of the syllabus.” 52.

Students come to class and ask why they are not receiving syllabi. This question represents what aspect of the communication model? a. noise

(b)

b. feedback c. medium d. message Medium/Application

A professor decides to save paper by posting her syllabus on the university’s web-based course application program instead of printing it and handing it out during the first class. She sends an e-mail to all her students prior to the actual start of the course that reads, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will go over that syllabus during the first class but, since I am attempting to conserve paper, will not make a copy available to you. Students however, are welcome to print out their own copy of the syllabus.” 53.

(d) 54.

(d)

If students try to go online to view the syllabus and the university’s computer system keeps shutting down on them as they read the syllabus, the students are dealing with what aspect of the communication model? a. message b. medium c. feedback d. noise Difficult/Application *Which of these is NOT a function that communication fills in an organization? a. sharing feelings b. coordinating and organizing c. assessing stock values d. transmitting information Easy/Knowledge *All of these are characteristics of effective communication EXCEPT a. be relevant and complete b. equitable for everyone to share information c. prompt and timely d. descriptive and vague Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Communication Barriers 56.

(a) 57.

Which of the following is considered a barrier to communication? a. filtering b. intention of communication c. selective judgment d. noise Easy/Comprehension Jason received the sales report and noted how badly the southern sector performed. As he prepared the presentation for the weekly executive meeting, Jason decided to focus his remarks on the northern and western sectors, which

(a) 58.

(a) 59.

(d) 60.

(b) 61.

had record sales levels, and refrain from mentioning the southern numbers. This scenario focuses on the communication barrier of a. filtering. b. selective perception. c. emotional disconnects. d. semantics. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements about filtering information is accurate? a. Filtering is withholding information to manage a person’s reactions. b. Filtering enables people to get the most accurate picture of a situation. c. People tend to filter downward communication more than upward communication. d. To maximize the chances of sending effective communication, it is advisable to use a single channel to send it. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is a criterion one may use in deciding whether or not to filter a message? a. status b. month of the year c. time available d. knowledge and perception of speaker Medium/Comprehension Martin is the financial director of a small business. He recently read a memo from one department presenting a new idea for a product. During the discussion on the item afterward, Martin kept focusing on the cost of producing and marketing that product. The barrier facing Martin in this scenario is a. filtering. b. selective perception. c. emotional disconnects. d. semantics. Medium/Comprehension The personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs is a. filtering. b. semantics. c. selective perception. d. information overload. Easy/Knowledge Martha’s mom asks her to go to the grocery store for her. Martha agrees and heads upstairs to get ready. Before she leaves her house, she sits down at her desk to check her e-mail and receives a text message from her friend Nancy to turn on the television and see the story about their friend, Jill. As the story about Jill comes on, Martha’s mom comes in and asks Martha to get her an eightounce can of diced tomatoes. Martha smiles at Mom and nods and listens to the story on television as she e-mails Sandra and picks up her phone to text Nancy. When Martha gets to the store, she heads to the tomato aisle and stands in front

(d) 63.

(b) 65.

(d) 66.

of the pureed tomatoes trying to remember if mom wanted an 8- or 16-ounce can. This scenario depicts which barrier to communication? a. filtering b. selective perception c. semantics d. information overload Medium/Application Bill is speaking to a group of fellow marketing specialists at a national convention. He opens his presentation with a “dumb blonde joke”. Unfortunately, there is dead silence in the room. Bill did not fully address which barrier to communication in preparing his speech? a. filtering b. selective perception c. lack of source familiarity or credibility d. semantics Medium/Application Which of the following statements about workplace gossip is accurate? a. Research finds that only a minimal amount of workplace communication occurs at the grapevine level. b. Politically motivated employees use the grapevine to disseminate selfpromoting information in the organization. c. Employees generally distrust their peers as a source of information. d. Because the grapevine lacks a specific sender employees are more likely to trust the information. Medium/Analysis You receive an email with the term SOX in the body and can’t remember what it refers to. In this scenario, you have been impacted by which communication barrier? a. selective perception b. lack of source familiarity or credibility c. filtering d. semantics Medium/Application Men and women tend to differ somewhat in their communication styles. Which of the following statements regarding those differences is correct? a. Women focus more on competition in their communication; men on cooperation. b. Women use metaphors from the home; men from work. c. In meetings, women tend to withhold their opinions more than men. d. Men focus on requests in their communication; women on orders. Medium/Analysis Which of the following terms is an example of biased language? a. salesman b. cleaner c. nurse d. engineer

(a)

Medium/Application

68.

Which of the following statements about listening is correct? a. Listening takes practice and concentration. b. Effective listening has a behavioral and emotional component. c. Active listening creates a real-time relationship between the sender and receiver. d. All of the above Medium/Analysis

(d) 69.

(d) 70.

(a) 71.

(d) 72.

(a)

A communication receiver who is preparing his comment or answer and not really listening to the sender is a. using jargon. b. using semantics. c. biased. d. rehearsing. Easy/Comprehension All of the following are rules for active listening EXCEPT: a. find areas of agreement with the speaker. b. listen for feelings. c. note all cues. d. listen for message content. Medium/Analysis Active listening involves a. interrupting the message sender to clarify what she is saying. b. giving partial attention to the sender so you can be thinking about your response. c. refraining from asking senders any questions about their messages. d. taking time to understand the points being made. Medium/Analysis Listening a. is an art, not a skill, and cannot be learned. b. does not require close attention to the sender so multitasking is possible. c. can be demonstrated to the sender by nonverbal signals like establishing eye contact. d. creates a bond between communicators, but does not increase communication flow or accuracy. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following pieces of advice is a tip to improve your listening habits? a. Paraphrase the speakers points to ensure you understand. b. Think about what you will say while the other person is talking; that way you’ll be prepared to answer when the time comes. c. Interrupt the speaker to clarify and ensure you understand their point. d. Don’t ask obvious questions because it will seem like you weren’t listening. Medium/Evaluation

74.

(d)

Which of the following statements about communication barriers is correct? a. Employees are often eager to share bad news with those above them in an organization to get credit for discovering potential problems. b. Jargon spoken between people from different areas and backgrounds helps them forge a professional bond. c. Managers can use grapevine to send and receive messages. d. Women often jump right into a project while men ask a lot of questions before beginning. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about communication barriers is correct? a. Speaking to your audience is an example of jargon. b. A receiver who is emotionally upset still clearly receives communication from the sender. c. There are very few words that inflame or insult people. d. Selective perception is a time saver, but it can lead to mistakes. Difficult/Synthesis

Section III: Different Types of Communication 76.

(a) 78.

Communication can be categorized into three basic types a. verbal, direct, and nonverbal. b. direct, passive, and open. c. nonverbal, verbal, and written. d. written, nonverbal, and direct. Easy/Knowledge Anna is placing her workgroup’s lunch order over the phone with the Pizza Shoppe. She is using what type of communication? a. verbal b. direct c. nonverbal d. written Easy/Comprehension Storytelling is an effective form of communication for which of the following situations? a. assigning tasks to an employee b. explaining the benefit package changes to employees c. orienting new employees to the company’s culture d. correcting an employee’s approach to a project Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about storytelling is true? a. Storytelling helps employees understand simple concepts. b. The more frequently stories are shared in an organization, the lower the organizational commitment. c. The greater the strength of the stories shared in an organization, the greater the organization commitment. d. The higher quality story relayed by an entrepreneur, the more employees will like him.

(c)

Medium/Analysis

80.

An example of a crucial conversation is a. asking for a raise. b. taking part in a weekly meeting. c. assigning weekly work to an employee. d. chatting about the company’s latest email on the firm’s holiday party plans. Easy/Comprehension

(a) 81.

(a) 82.

(a) 83.

(d) 84.

Which of the following is an aspect of crucial conversations? a. Crucial conversations are ones where opinions vary and emotions run strong. b. High-stakes conversations require less planning because they should be true to your emotions. c. Communications experts suggest using “but” not “and” in crucial conversations. d. Crucial conversations require rigid communication styles so they don’t get off track. Medium/Evaluation Nina is a career counselor in a university’s career development office. She is making recommendations to a student in a career planning session related to improving the quality of the student’s conversation. Which piece of advice should be deleted from Nina’s list? a. Speak more than the receiver. b. Ask questions. c. Use eye contact and smile. d. Be receptive to new ideas. Medium/Application A memo is an example of a. verbal communication. b. direct communication. c. nonverbal communication. d. written communication. Easy/Knowledge Communication that is asynchronous a. is written for one receiver, but can be read by many. b. is written for one receiver and read by one receiver. c. is written by the sender and can be read any time by the receiver. d. is written for many but often read by only a few. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements about written and verbal communication is correct? a. Verbal communication is constructed over a longer period of time than written. b. Written communication is better at conveying feelings than verbal communication.

(d) 87.

(a) 89.

c. Humans listen faster than they speak. d. Written communication is used more often than oral communication. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding verbal and written communication is true? a. Written communication is an inherently flawed medium for conveying specific facts. b. Individuals hear about 150 words per minute, but speak around 400–500 per minute. c. It is very difficult to teach individuals to write clearly. d. Over ninety percent of employers consider writing a key skill for hiring new employees. Medium/Analysis What has research shown to be true about nonverbal communication? a. Nonverbal cues are only minimally important. b. Our gestures and other nonverbal movements are largely habitual and really do not convey much to your audience. c. When individuals are lying, they blink more frequently, shift their feet, and shrug more often. d. Only 7% of our message is conveyed through nonverbal communication while 55% is conveyed through the actual words of the message. Medium/Analysis In the sentence, “I did not tell the teacher you were cheating,” if the word “I” was emphasized by the tone of your voice, what are you implying? a. Someone else told the teacher you were cheating. b. I was talking about someone else. c. I told the teacher you were cheating. d. I may have implied it. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements about nonverbal cues is accurate? a. If your posture mirrors that of the person to whom you are speaking, it shows you are not listening and generally, not paying attention to that speaker. b. Happiness is conveyed through facial expressions of an upturned mouth and widened eyes. c. In some countries, like the United States, direct eye contact conveys trustworthiness. d. In the United States, the firmer the handshake, the better. Medium/Evaluation You are part of a marketing team that has just secured a contract for a national ad campaign. The client firm is holding a luncheon to celebrate the contract signing and you are attending. According to Edward Hall’s work, what distance will you maintain from members of the client firm as you network with them? a. personal b. social c. intimate

(a) 91.

(b) 92.

(a) 93.

(d) 94.

(b) 95.

(a) 96.

(c)

d. public Medium/Application Information-rich channels convey more a. verbal information. b. nonverbal information. c. effective information. d. ineffective information. Difficult/Comprehension Effective managers tend to use more a. information-rich channels. b. verbal channels. c. written channels. d. nonverbal channels. Medium/Application Which of the following communication channels would be the most informationrich? a. Written letters. b. Handheld devices. c. E-mails. d. Videoconferencing. Medium/Knowledge Which of the following communication channels has the lowest information richness? a. emails b. formal written documents c. blogs d. telephone conversation Medium/Knowledge Marcus wants a record of his communication and is not physically near the person to whom he is communicating. He knows it will take the recipient of his communication some time to understand the message conveyed. What communication channel should Marcus utilize? a. written report b. meeting c. telephone conversation d. blog Difficult/Synthesis Nancy is the human resource manager at Alba Company. She needs to lay off twenty employees who are all located at her facility. Which communication channel should she use to deliver the layoff information? a. telephone conversation b. e-mail c. face-to-face conversation d. videoconferencing Difficult/Synthesis

97.

(a) 98.

(d) 99.

(b) 100.

(b) 101.

(d) 102.

(a) 103.

Verbal communication should be used when a. immediate feedback is needed. b. conveying facts. c. ideas are complicated. d. no feedback is needed. Medium/Comprehension Written communication should be used when a. there is time urgency. b. ideas are simple. c. emotions or feelings need to be conveyed. d. facts need to be conveyed. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements about e-mail is true? a. E-mails are considered highly information-rich. b. Some companies are so concerned about the amount of e-mail their employees receive that they are instituting “no e-mail Fridays.” c. E-mail is the most popular medium of communication today. d. Emotions can be easy to convey via e-mail. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is a piece of good advice regarding business e-mails? a. Do not sign off your e-mails with a closing like “Thank you”; it just wastes space. Simply send your contact information. b. Do not place anything in an e-mail you would not want the world to see. c. Use capital letters in order to convey importance. d. Make your request at the end of an email. Medium/Analysis Communication usually travels diagonally to a. supervisors. b. coworkers. c. subordinates. d. other departments. Easy/Knowledge Upward communication refers a. communication that travels from frontline employees to management. b. communication from a single individual to many. c. communication that travels from one department to another. d. communications transmitted outside the organization. Easy/Knowledge Recent surveys indicate that managers spend a majority of their time communicating with what group? a. those external to the organization b. superiors c. subordinates d. others that are internal to the firm (e.g., those in other departments).

(c)

Medium/Analysis

104.

Which of the following is an example of external communication? a. an email to new employees b. press release c. attitude survey d. suggestion box Easy/Knowledge

(b) 105.

(d) 106.

(b) 107.

(b) 108.

(b) 109.

(b)

External communication about a client’s product or service created for a specific receiver is a. a company report b. a web page c. an ad d. a press release Easy/Knowledge An external communication that combines the look of an article with the focused message of an ad is a. a web page. b. an advertorial. c. a press release. d. a sweepstakes form. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding external communications is accurate? a. Press releases are intended to inform employees of happenings within the organization. b. Ad fees are based on the perceived value of the audience who watches, reads or listens to the channel where the ad appears. c. The key to a successful external communication to customers is to keep the business message formal and professional. d. Blogs are shrinking in popularity, because people want information in a shorter, more concise fashion. Medium/Evaluation *Which of these is a nonverbal cue that would be seen as positive support of a sender’s message? a. crossing your arms b. a direct smile c. shaking hands with a clammy palm d. gnawing your lip Easy/Knowledge *How close to or how far from a person to stand is a. dioxics b. proxemics c. paralactics d. relativity Easy/Knowledge

110.

(a) 111.

(a)

*With over ___ of the world’s population using the internet, over _____ billion emails are sent daily. a. 53,290 b. 13,290 c. 23,290 d. 1,290 Easy/Knowledge *An important aspect of a company’s external communications has become their online presence, through a. websites and blogs b. shopping cart sites c. email d. catalogs Medium/Comprehension

Section IV: The Role of Ethics and Culture during Communication 112.

(a) 113.

(d) 114.

(d)

Which of the following statements regarding communication and ethics is true? a. Ethical, forthright communication by an organization should occur internally as well as externally. b. During a crisis situation, a firm spokesperson’s level in the organization is not relevant if the message is fair. c. Executives should not change their communication style based on the culture of their audiences as this would make people think they are inconsistent and unreliable. d. Exxon Oil is widely recognized as having been successful communicators during the Valdez incident. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding cross cultural communication? a. Norms for nonverbal communication is consistent across cultures. b. Attempting to adapt to another culture in business dealings is not necessary. c. High situational context cultures, “get down to business” in negotiating deals. d. Within the same culture, words can be misunderstood because of a lack of common experiences. Medium/Evaluation *During a crisis for an organization, communications should be a. denial until all the facts are in. b. to have a low-level spokesperson answer questions. c. counter-attack and blame the media. d. have a high-ranking official from the company communicate the response. Medium/Comprehension

Closing Section: Employee Satisfaction Translates to Success: The Case of Edward Jones 115.

(a) 116.

(d) 117.

(c)

*Edward Jones has appeared at least _____ on Fortune magazine’s “100 Best Companies of Work For” list. a. 19 b. 5 c. 22 d. 31 Easy/Knowledge *While Edward Jones offers employee perks, its leadership believes the key to its success is a. hiring from Ivy League universities. b. reinvesting 20% of its profits annually. c. donating 20% of its profits to charity. d. open floor plans, direct communications, and regular meetings. Medium/Comprehension *At Edward Jones, advisors and investors communicate most frequently a. through email b. through Slack c. in person or on the phone d. using Twitter Medium/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 118.

___________ is the process by which information is exchanged between individuals through a common system of symbols, signs or behavior. (Communication) 119.

Communication fulfills three main functions within an organization including _____________, _________________, and ______________. (coordination, transmission of information, and sharing emotions and feelings) 120. A ______________ originates the communication process. (sender) 121. The process of translating ideas into words is ______________. (encoding) 122.

The communication ___________ can include e-mail, phone, in person, or instant message. (medium)

123.

Anything that interferes with or distorts the message being transformed is __________________. (noise) 124.

_____________ is a communication barrier where information is withheld or distorted to manage a person’s reactions. (Filtering) 125.

Personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs is _____________ _______________. (selective perception) 126.

When we receive more information than we can take in, the imbalance is known as __________________. (information overload) 127.

An informal gossip network at work that can be a barrier to effective communication is called a ____________. (grapevine) 128.

Words mean different things to different people; this is the concept of __________. (semantics) 129.

In accounting, students talk about LIFO and FIFO; these are two examples of shortcuts called _________ that many in the field take to talk in code. (jargon) 130.

Men and women tend to differ in their communication styles. __________ are less likely to be dominant or assertive in conversations at work. (Women) 131.

To resolve the issue of biased language, instead of calling an individual a businessman, you should call that individual a _______________. (businessperson) 132.

The behavior where we are not really listening but preparing our response is called ________________. (rehearsing) 133.

Giving full attention to what other people say, taking time to understand the points made, asking questions as needed, and not interrupting at inappropriate times is called ____________ ______________. (active listening) 134.

The three types of communication are: _____________, _______________, and _______________.

(verbal, written, and nonverbal) 135.

Discussions that are high stakes and where opinions vary and emotions run strong are ____________________. (crucial conversations) 136.

A message that can be read at any time is ____________ unlike a conversation, which is carried out in real time. (asynchronous) 137.

______________ communication does a better job of conveying feelings while _______________ communication does a better job of conveying facts. (Verbal, written) 138.

Nonverbal cues including the tone, pace, and volume of speech is called ______________. (paralanguage) 139.

___________ is a term coined by Edward T. Hall to denote the different degrees of physical distance between people during person-to-person communication. (Proxemics) 140.

The distance between two people, like a mother and child, usually in the zero to eighteen inch range is called the ___________ distance. (intimate) 141.

___________________ communication channels convey more nonverbal information and tend to be used by effective managers. (Information-rich) 142.

__________ communication is best utilized when you need feedback and there is time urgency.

(Oral) 143.

____________ communication is best utilized when ideas are complicated or you are conveying facts. (Written) 144.

_____________ are symbols that offer clues to the emotional side of words used in e-mail messages. (Emoticons) 145.

_______ professionals create external communication about a client’s products, services, or practices for specific receivers. (Public relations) 146.

High __________ cultures place a high value on establishing relationships prior to working with others while low ____________ cultures “get down to business.” (context, context)

SHORT ANSWERS 147.

Briefly discuss the elements in the communication process. A sender encodes a message that translates an idea into words. The message is sent through a medium that may include spoken or written words or signs. The receiver receives the message and decodes it by assigning meaning to the words. The receiver may then decide to respond to the original message by also encoding or translating his idea into words. This process of responding is called feedback. The entire process from sender to receiver may be altered or distorted due to noise in the system. The noise can be external to the environment or internal. If too much noise impacts the encoding or decoding, or any other aspect of the communication process, miscommunication can occur.

148.

Name the three main organizational functions which communication fulfills and provide an example of each. The three main functions of communication are: coordination, transmission of information, and sharing emotions and feelings. Coordination would ensure that everyone is aware of the strategy and goals of the organization and all are working together toward them. Transmission of information would be demonstrated by, for example, a written copy of the firm’s objectives such that all employees would know the goals and their general direction. Finally, the sharing of emotions and feelings could be exemplified by praising a department for exceeding annual goals set at a luncheon in their honor.

149.

Name, describe and provide an example of two barriers to effective communication. Barriers to communication include: Filtering: a distortion or withholding of information to manage a person’s reaction. An example might be a manager who keeps negative comments about his department from his superior. Selective perception is personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs. An example is when a sports fan reads the newspaper, he often does not “see” news stories but only those items related to sports. Information overload is when the information processing demands on an individual’s time to perform interactions and internal calculations exceed the supply or capacity of time available for such processing. When an individual returns from vacation, he often has hundreds of email messages, phone messages and memos on his desk. Emotional disconnects are when there are opinion or personality differences which impact communication. I have had a terrible day already and then you say something to me that is actually pretty innocuous, but I take offense.

Lack of source familiarity or credibility. There is no common context for the sender and receiver in the communication situation. This is a prime example of why some jokes just fail to make anyone laugh. Workplace gossip is an informal gossip network. Sometimes people hear about events that will occur in a firm over lunch and then get the official e-mail about it later. Semantics are the meanings we give to words. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is an acronym widely understood by accounting and finance people but is something lost on others not in the field. Gender differences in communication. Example: Men tend to focus on orders in their communication, women on requests. Differences in meaning between the sender and receiver: The perspectives of the two parties differ and miscommunication occurs. For example, I use generational slang like the word “cool.” I think it means, “that’s interesting,” you are from a previous generation, so you think it has to do with temperature. Biased language: words or actions that offend or stereotype others. For example, gender bias is shown when the word “salesman” is used. To avoid gender bias, use the term “salesperson.” 150.

Give two examples of biased language and indicate why they would be considered biased. Biased language is words or actions that offend or stereotype others. Examples: cleaning lady instead of cleaner. Also, chairman instead of chairperson.

151.

Why is storytelling an important verbal communication skill? Storytelling is important to the organization because it helps to establish common meanings for organization members. Stories clarify key values and indicate how tasks are to be performed. Story frequency, strength and tone are related to higher organizational commitment. Story telling on an individual level enhances interviewing skills.

152.

Define a crucial conversation and give an example of it. A crucial conversation is a discussion where the stakes are high and where opinions vary and emotions run strong. An example is during a performance evaluation where you might be asking for a raise.

153.

Discuss the conditions under which written communication would be more useful than verbal communication. Written communication is printed messages. These include memos, proposals, e-mails, letters, training manuals, and operating policies. They may be printed on paper or appear on the screen. Written is asynchronous, which means that the message can be read at any time. Further, written communication can be read by

many people, and can be constructed by many people in a collaborative fashion. Written communication is better for conveying facts. 154.

Define and provide an example of paralanguage. Paralanguage is the tone, pace and volume of speech. The tone can change even with the same sentence thereby changing the meaning of the sentence. For example, if I say, “I did not tell the teacher you copied the problem,” you are implying that someone else might have told. Changing the emphasis to another word in the sentence, “I did NOT tell the teacher you copied the problem,” implies that this event did not occur.

155.

Define and provide an example of body language. Body language is a series of nonverbal cues that arise from use of various parts of the body. For example, eye contact when direct in the United States shows that you are interested and listening; when indirect that you are not really paying attention to the speaker.

156.

Define proxemics and provide an example of it. Proxemics is the study of the different kinds of space or distance between people and their meaning. For example, a space of 0 to 18 inches is called intimate space and is reserved for those who are very close to an individual. 1.5 feet to 5 feet is the personal distance, and 5 to 7 feet is the social distance.

157.

Define an “information-rich” communication channel and provide an example of such a channel. Information-rich communication channels convey more nonverbal information in addition to the verbal or written information. A channel high in information richness is the face-to-face conversation.

158.

Provide two instances when written communication should be utilized and two when the choice should be oral communication. Written communication is used when: conveying facts, the message needs to be part of a permanent file, there is little time urgency, you do not need immediate feedback, and ideas are complicated. Oral communication is used when: conveying feelings and emotions, the message does not need to be permanent, there is time urgency, you need feedback, and the ideas are simple or can be simple with explanations.

159.

Briefly discuss the different directions information can flow in an organization. Information flows downward to subordinates, upward to supervisors, laterally to coworkers, and diagonally to different departments.

160.

Provide two examples of external communications.

External communications include: press/public relations releases, ads, web pages, and customer communications. Press releases are external communication about a client’s products, services or practices for specific receivers. Ads are external business messages for target receivers reached through media buys. Web pages combine elements of public relations, advertising, and editorial content and include banner ads, blogs or advertiser-driven click-throughs. Customer communications include letters, catalogs, direct mail, e-mails, text messages, or telemarketing messages. ESSAY 161.

Using the process model of communications as a focal point, discuss how a manager might prepare for his first meeting as the new head of a marketing department. The manager will initiate the meeting, so he will serve as the original sender. The new manager must recognize that first impressions are lasting impressions, so the first message he sends is a critical communication to his future success in his position. Announcing the meeting would be the first communication and he wants to ensure he encodes the message carefully to convey the importance of that meeting. It is at the initial meeting that the strategy for subsequent meetings will be set, so that importance must be obvious in the words chosen. The medium through which the meeting announcement will be sent must also be carefully considered. Multiple channels are always best since individuals’ schedules differ and the medium choice is most dependent on which channel works best for which individual at any given moment in those busy schedules. For all intents and purposes, e-mail is effective but bulletin board notices would also be workable as might face-to-face reminders of this meeting. Clearly words will be used in the various channels of communication but some attention-getting symbols or signs might also be used. The receivers are all those in the marketing department. The words chosen for the communication might contain some jargon from the marketing area so that some credibility is initially established as well as some camaraderie, since those in other departments who may view, for example, the bulletin board reminder, may not understand that jargon. The marketing department members will decode the message and, hopefully, provide some feedback. The feedback could itself be a written response email or simply showing up at the meeting at the designated time and place. This entire communication scenario will take place within the context of noise in the environment. Some examples of the distortions or interferences that may occur include the email for some recipients “bouncing back,” the recipient being distracted when he/she reads the e-mail and focuses on the wrong date or time for the meeting, and/or some offense taken at words contained in the message because of their gender-basis or other aspects.

162.

Maynard is the production department supervisor in a manufacturing firm. Recently rumors have been spreading through the department grapevine

regarding a possible company-wide downsizing that will lay off approximately 20% of the employees. If you were Maynard, how would you handle this situation? The grapevine is an informal network and can be the key source of company information for many employees. It is a two-edged sword for managers and supervisors. The grapevine must be recognized as an organizational fact of life, but must also be managed, or the gossip within the grapevine will manage the department and, ultimately, the firm. Since the grapevine is a grassroots structure, it is viewed as having a great deal of credibility. In fact, the grapevine is often viewed as having greater credibility than managerial information because it is located at the grassroots level. Managers like Maynard must be wary of politically motivated employees who will use the grapevine for misinformation or information supportive of their views. In Maynard’s position, one must understand who the key information disseminators in the grapevine are and the manner in which they choose the type of information to disseminate and how they so disseminate it. Once these two aspects are thoroughly understood, then Maynard can begin to place the nature of information he needs to have placed at the times he needs to do so. An alternative approach is to understand the dynamics of the grapevine and provide official communication that beats the grapevine to its dissemination. 163.

Sergei has a career coach. The coach has just finished two extensive assessment sessions with Sergei and is now reporting to him on his results. The career coach tells Sergei that he has poor listening skills and must address them immediately before focusing on any other weaknesses. If you were the career coach, what tips might you give to him to begin an improvement plan focused on enhancing active listening skills? The first step in any listening improvement plan is to stop talking. If you are talking, you cannot be listening so the best first step is to just stop the talking. It is also important to recognize if Sergei physically can hear. Many people do suffer from slight to moderate or worse hearing loss and may need some assistance. Active listening is giving full attention to what other people are saying, taking the time to understand the points being made, asking questions as needed and not interrupting at inappropriate times. Active listening creates a relationship between the sender and the receiver. The process focuses on how to eliminate rehearsing, which is when the recipient of a verbal message is not really listening because he is preparing to respond to your item or question. Active listening involves not only listening to the content of the message, but also the feelings associated with that message. The “plan” to improve listening begins with deciding that you want to listen. Then, you need to show the sender that you are listening. Nonverbal cues can help you convey the notion that you are listening. For example, one could shake his head

as the sender speaks to acknowledge receipt of the message. In addition, what the sender has spoken can be repeated, either in full or part to convey receipt. Some quick pieces of advice for the active listening training include: Start by stopping. Don’t worry about what will be said when the time comes. Paraphrase. Don’t multitask while listening. Try to empathize with the speaker’s point of view. Ask questions if confused. Establish and retain eye contact. Determine the goal of the communication. Be surprised – listen with an open mind. Pay attention to what is not said; body language is very important. 164.

You have been asked to teach a business communication lesson on business emails. What are some important topics and tips you might want to include in that lesson? Knowing the volume of e-mails sent each day and the number each individual employee is faced with each day, companies should provide their employees with some assistance in using this form of written communication, which studies indicate is the second most popular form of communication worldwide. Some tips include: Do not send or forward chain e-mails. Do not send cc e-mails to everyone. Do not send, “reply to all” responses to every e-mail received. Do not put anything into an e-mail that you would not want the world to see. Do not write your message in all capital letters. Do not hit the send button until you are absolutely sure you wish to send the email. Use a subject line with the e-mail. Make your request early in the e-mail, preferably in the first line if possible. End your e-mail with a brief sign-off like “thank you.” Make sure to provide contact information on each e-mail. Keep it brief. Make sure the e-mail contains complete thoughts. Keep in mind that the recipient may not want to take the time to pull up and closely look at the preceding e-mail and thus you want to make sure that recipient understands what you are conveying.

165.

Your company has just received a phone call from the local news station requesting a response to a claim made on the air by a viewer. The viewer accuses your store of selling a toy she purchased that has made her child sick. The customer alleges that the paint used on the toy contains lead. Further, she has stated, on the air, that your firm was aware of the problem but because the toy is so popular and made exclusively for your store, you were unwilling to pull the item from the store shelves, choosing instead to make the profit on the toy. What will you do?

This scenario is obviously a crisis situation and the communication used in this instance is critical. Clear messages must be sent that are credible and that get to the parties necessary to address the issue and prevent further damage to your firm and the buying public. A lesson learned from the Exxon Valdez incident as well as the Tylenol situation is to make certain that a high ranking official be the official spokesperson in any crisis situation. Also, keep in mind that while no one is happy when the unexpected occurs, they are even more unhappy when they find out you tried to hide something about the matter. Also, make certain that all communication is ethical and forthright. If the truth is missing people are demoralized. Employees want to be “in the know” and trusted with the truth about the business. If such a trust is established, employees are more loyal. 166.

You are part of a group in a business communication class. You have a project due next week where you are to discuss nonverbal communication cues that differ depending on the country or culture. What will your segment of the project look like? One aspect of nonverbal communication that can be examined is gestures around the globe. Some examples follow: “V” for victory. In the U.S., this is a victory symbol, but in England, it is something like, “Take this.” The “OK” gesture means things are going well in North America, but in France, it means that a person is worthless. In Brazil, Russia or Germany it means something not appropriate for the workplace. The ‘thumbs up” means one in Germany, but five in Japan. “Hook ’em horns” is the symbol for the Texas Longhorns at the University of Texas. In Italy, however, it means that you are being tricked. Waving your hand in the United States means greetings; in Europe however, it signals disagreement.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 9 Managing Groups and Teams TRUE/FALSE 1.

Tuckman’s Group Development Stage Model sequences group evolution in the following order: forming to norming to storming to performing.

(False) 2.

The forming stage of group development involves member examination of such questions as “What will my role be?” and “Will I be accepted?

(True) 3.

The appointed leader is often tested during the performing phase of group development.

(False) 4.

Because the storming stage is a very chaotic one, many groups get stuck in that phase of group development.

(True) 5.

The norming stage of group development involves the establishment of ground rules for the group and an increased commitment to other members and the group goal.

(True) 6.

The performing stage of group development involves attention to work content and process.

(True) 7.

The adjourning stage of groups is seldom met with any emotional feelings or concern.

(False) 8. The punctuated equilibrium model proposed by Connie Gersick is a linear model. (False) 9.

The punctuated equilibrium model suggests that groups remain static for long periods of time experiencing only incremental change and radical, revolutionary change occurs in brief, punctuated bursts that provide opportunity for innovation.

(True)

10.

Generally speaking, the more cohesive a group is, the less productive it is because the preservation of individual feelings supersedes any task oriented role.

(False) 11.

The more similar group members are with regard to age, gender, education, and skill set, the more cohesive the group will be.

(True) 12.

Groupthink is the tendency for individuals to put forth less effort when working in a group context.

(False) 13.

Groups with high group cohesion and high task commitment generally have high performance.

(True) 14.

Collective efficacy is generally influenced by verbal persuasion, group observation, and pay level.

(False) 15.

A group is a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals while a team is a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on another’s.

(False) 16. Process loss is any aspect of group interaction that inhibits group functioning. (True) 17.

The key properties of a true team are collaborative action, sacrifice for the common good, and compensation based upon individual outcomes.

(False) 18.

Research evidence exists to demonstrate that teams can reduce labor costs, increase product quality, and raise revenues.

(True) 19.

If a variety of knowledge, skills, and abilities is needed, if feedback from different organizational groups is needed, if tasks are largely independent, and if wide cooperation is needed to achieve mutual goals, then a team is needed.

(False) 20.

Idea-generation tasks include coming up with plans for actions and making decisions.

(False) 21.

Pooled interdependence is when team members work independently and combine their efforts to create the team’s output.

(True)

22.

Reciprocal interdependence exists when team members work on tasks simultaneously.

(True) 23. Task roles in a group include consul, cooperator, and completer. (False) 24. Social roles in a group or team include cooperator, communicator, and calibrator. (True) 25.

A task force is a temporary team charged with addressing a specific problem or issue until it is resolved.

(True) 26.

Virtual teams represent special management challenges because of issues related to trust and communication.

(True) 27. A firm’s top management team often represents a variety of functional areas. (True) 28.

Succession planning is the identification of future members of a top management team.

(True) 29. Empowered teams have the responsibility and authority to achieve their goals. (True) 30.

The difference between a self-managed and self-directed team is that the leader in the self-managed team has less decision-making responsibility.

(True) 31. As a rule of thumb, a good size for a team is between twenty and forty members. (False) 32.

The more diverse a team is with regard to expertise, gender, age, and background, the more likely the team is to avoid groupthink.

(True) 33. Norms are shared expectations about how things operate within a group or team. (True) 34.

An effective way of dealing with overbearing behavior is to evaluate the balance of participation by team members.

(True) 35.

When team members are found to be poor performers due to a lack of ability, the team is likely to try and train the individual.

(True)

36.

Research suggests that sometimes replacing a hierarchy with self-managing teams decreases control over individual workers.

(False) 37.

Collectivist societies value individual achievements over interpersonal relationships.

(False) 38.

People in high power distance countries expect unequal power distribution and greater stratification in economic, social, and political settings.

(True) 39. The meaning of teamwork differs across cultures. (True) MULTIPLE CHOICE OPENING SECTION: Four Generations of Teamwork: The Case of the Lego Group

40.

(b) 41.

(d) 42.

(a) 43.

*Lego experienced a turning point in 2004. What was it? a. The family-owned company was taken over by Wal-Mart b. The company faced potential bankruptcy c. The company experienced its highest sales year ever. d. The board removed the CEO and broke the company up into 3 separate firms. Easy/Knowledge *The team structure that Jorgen Vig Knudstorp implemented did all of the following except a. reduced the number of organizational layers. b. reorganized into 3 business areas. c. added depth to the top management group. d. diversified to use small retailers. Easy/Knowledge *Which of these is an example of Lego’s commitment to innovation? a. By 2030, use only sustainable materials in packaging and products. b. By 2020, use robotics in 55% of its workforce. c. Donate 10% of all sales to educating females in engineering. d. Provide incentives to employee teams who suggest the best use of recycled Legos. Easy/Knowledge *What does the example of teamwork at Lego have to offer other companies around the world? a. Improved meetings b. Team growth c. Better communication

d. (d)

All the above Easy/Knowledge

Section I: Group Dynamics 44.

(b) 47.

(b) 48.

An informal work group refers to a. a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. b. made up of managers, subordinates, or both, with close associations among group members that influence the behavior of individuals in the group. c. made up of two or more individuals associated with one another but not by the organization. d. a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals. Easy/Knowledge A group is defined as a. a temporary team addressing a specific problem or issue until it is resolved. b. a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals. c. a collection of individuals interacting with each other in such a way that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. d. teams with members who are not located in the same physical space. Easy/Knowledge A formal work group is a. a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. b. made up of managers, subordinates, or both with close associations among group members that influence the behavior of individuals in the group. c. made up of two or more individuals who are associated with one another in ways not prescribed by the formal organization. d. a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve happiness. Easy/Knowledge To successfully facilitate a group, a leader needs to move through a series of leadership styles over time. Which of the following styles is the FIRST a successful group leader should exhibit? a. delegator b. director c. coordinator d. coach Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following leadership styles best serves a successful group as it has evolved to the performing stage? a. director b. coordinator

(d) 50.

(b) 51.

(d) 54.

c. coach d. delegator Medium/Knowledge Which of the following is the order Tuckman proposes for group development stages? a. forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning b. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning c. forming, performing, storming, norming, and adjourning d. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning Easy/Comprehension What is the second stage in Tuckman’s four-stage map of group evolution? a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing Easy/Knowledge What was the final stage that Tuckman added to his enhanced group development model? a. forming b. norming c. adjourning d. storming Easy/Knowledge Which of stage in Tuckman’s group development model is characterized by the establishment of ground rules and operating procedures and goals by group participants? a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing Easy/Comprehension Which stage of Tuckman’s group development model is characterized by general information sharing? a. storming b. norming c. performing d. forming Difficult/Comprehension Tuckman’s forming stage is characterized by a. uncertainty, with observant, conflict avoidant group members who are trying to achieve several goals at once. b. competent group members who work interdependently as part of a greater entity. c. chaos with group members exploring power and influence roles.

d. (a) 55.

(d) 56.

(a) 57.

(a) 58.

(b) 60.

high energy with group members committed to each other and the overall goal. Medium/Evaluation The norming stage in Tuckman’s model of group evolution features a. uncertainty, with observant, conflict avoidant group members who are trying to achieve several goals at once. b. competent group members who work interdependently as part of a greater entity. c. chaos with group members exploring power and influence roles. d. high energy with group members committed to each other and the overall goal. Medium/Evaluation Tuckman’s five stage group evolution model asks which of the following questions in the performing stage? a. Are we using appropriate information on this task? b. Will I be accepted? c. Why do I have to listen to you? d. Can you help me plan this project? Medium/Evaluation Which of the following questions might be asked during the norming stage of Tuckman’s five-stage group evolution model? a. Are we using appropriate means to address differences so that conflicts can be avoided? b. Will I be successful at completing this task? c. I wonder what the other people in this group are like? d. Can you help me with this section of the project? Easy/Evaluation Group members in the norming stage a. not only get the work done, but they also pay greater attention to how they are doing it. b. begin to explore their power and influence. c. find it easy to establish their own ground rules. d. try to figure out who likes whom. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the forming stage of group development? a. Leadership does not matter at this stage. b. Group members are trying to learn about one another. c. Group members are cohesive and cooperative. d. Group members are trying to clarify what needs to be done and who needs to do it. Easy/Analysis Which of the following statements characterize a group at the storming stage? a. the group is competent, autonomous, and insightful.

(d) 62.

(b) 63.

(d)

b. the group’s members are comfortable with each other and know where they fit in c. the group members are argumentative. d. group discussions are reflective and centered on learning from the past. Easy/Analysis Michael is part of an organizational behavior project group. The group decided on the overall theme of its project and individual members are now completing specific sections of the project. Michael has been e-mailing Rachel almost every day asking her opinion on various parts of his section. The group tends to sit together in class and they have even decided to go out for coffee after class next Tuesday. What phase of group development is Michael’s group in? a. storming b. adjourning c. forming d. performing Medium/Synthesis Jennifer has been very emphatic in her comments supporting the new addition to the product line. Christopher has been equally spirited in his opposition to the new item. Gordon and Antonio seem to be leaning to Jennifer’s perspective while Marques supports Christopher. The discussion about the product has consumed the last hour of the meeting of the marketing group. At what stage of Tuckman’s model does this group seem to be functioning? a. forming. b. storming. c. norming. d. performing. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following actions would be recommended in order to avoid getting stuck in the storming phase of Tuckman’s group development? a. Make sure to limit discussions and discussants. It is not productive to rehash all the same points over and over. b. Focus on developing out of the storming phase quickly. The quicker you can move to norming, the better. c. Normalize conflict. Conflict is normal and can be cathartic. d. Majority rules. Focus on the opinions of most people in the group. Easy/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding Gersick’s punctuated equilibrium model is accurate? a. The model views group development as a linear process. b. Generally groups are dynamic in their orientation. c. For most periods of time in groups, change is substantial. d. While disruption, chaos and conflict are seen as inevitable in a group, those events can represent opportunities for innovation. Difficult/Comprehension

65.

(d) 66.

(b) 68.

(b) 69.

(a) 70.

(b)

According to Gersick’s punctuated equilibrium model, groups repeatedly cycle through which two stages? a. storming and norming. b. forming and performing. c. forming and norming. d. storming and performing. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding Gersick’s study of punctuated equilibrium is correct? a. Most change in groups is characterized by periods of revolutionary chaos. b. All groups are able to readily adapt to new environments that arise due to change. c. The punctuated equilibrium model is cyclical in nature. d. Groups generally cycle through the Storming and Norming stages of group development. Medium/Comprehension A group where there is a great deal of camaraderie is a group experiencing a. group action. b. cohesion. c. social loafing. d. collective efficacy. Easy/Knowledge Characteristics of cohesive groups include a. knowing each other before formation of the group. b. working together on a meaningful task. c. having a random pattern of communication. d. indifference regarding membership in the group. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is a factor most likely to impact a group’s cohesion? a. size b. height c. industry d. past experience Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements related to fundamental factors affecting a group’s cohesion is correct? a. The larger a group, the more cohesive it is likely to be. b. The more similar group members are, the more cohesive the group is likely to be. c. The more coaching group members receive, the less cohesive the group is likely to be. d. The less time a group has stayed together, the more cohesive a group is likely to be. Medium/Analysis

71.

(d) 72.

(a) 73.

(d) 74.

(a) 75.

(d) 76.

Marina is encouraging her sorority sisters to function as a cohesive group. She lists all of the following as benefits EXCEPT a. you will have greater self-confidence and self-esteem if you are a regular part of the group. b. if you are experiencing stress, as you might during finals week, you can depend on your sisters to help get you through. c. if you experience a personal tragedy or challenge, your sisters will help you cope. d. If you are part of the sorority, you do not have to attend meetings and events often because you can depend on your sisters to cover for you. Easy/Evaluation Eduardo is the new manager of Great Corporation. He is sitting at his desk and writing down a list of steps that he can follow to create and maintain a cohesive work group. Which of the following would appear on that list? a. Celebrate differences so each individual’s contribution is noticed. b. Give praise sparingly; if it is given too often, it loses its luster. c. Focus on supporting the “best and brightest” in the group. d. Set goals for group members to reduce competition or feelings of jealousy. Easy/Analysis NASA endured the Challenger disaster when group members conformed with top managers’ decisions that launching the space shuttle in freezing temperatures was better than missing the launch window. This is an example of what group process? a. social loafing b. cohesion c. collective efficacy d. groupthink Difficult/Synthesis Symptoms of too much cohesion include a. failures are blamed on external factors. b. internal pressures to question the status quo. c. greater questioning of external constraints. d. tolerance for deviants. Difficult/Evaluation Which group would be the most effective from a performance standpoint? a. A group with low task commitment and low group cohesion. b. A group with high group cohesion and low task commitment. c. A group with high task commitment and low group cohesion. d. A group with high group cohesion and high task commitment. Easy/Analysis Michael’s group is very cohesive and very committed to the task at hand. What is their likely performance level? a. low performance b. high performance if they do not value performance

(d) 77.

(b) 79.

(d) 80.

(b) 81.

(d) 82.

c. average performance d. high performance if they value performance Medium/Application The Ringelmann effect is also known as a. group cohesion. b. collective efficacy. c. social loafing. d. groupthink. Medium/Comprehension Social loafing a. declines as group size increases. b. develops when a perception of inequity in regard to rewards and/or blame arises in a group. c. is relatively rare within groups. d. is more frequent in the United States. Medium/Analysis Maria strongly disliked working in groups in college because she always felt there was someone who did not “pull his weight.” However, now that she is a manager, she must organize teams in her firm. Which of the following is a tip to prevent social loafing she has received from other managers in her company? a. Evaluate the team only, not the individuals within the team. b. Assign equal amounts of work to group members. c. Choose a larger number of employees for each team. d. Define each individual’s tasks in front of the group. Medium/Analysis Collective efficacy refers to a. a tendency of individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context. b. a group’s perception of its ability to perform well. c. a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group making flawed decisions. d. the degree of camaraderie within the group. Easy/Knowledge Collective efficacy is influenced by which of the following factors? a. Use of technology. b. Ties to the organization c. Incentives and bonuses. d. Verbal persuasion. Medium/Comprehension *Co-workers who gather for a pool league on Thursday nights would be considered a. a formal work group b. a storming work group c. an informal work group

(b) 84.

(a)

d. a norming work group Easy/Knowledge *A meeting that helps analyze how a project went, what went well and what could have been done better is a. a norming meeting b. an after-action review c. an informal review d. a cohesion meeting Medium/Comprehension *Serena listened to her manager discuss with her group the idea of painting the office walls yellow. Serena thought it was a bad idea but didn’t say anything. Serena is a. conflict avoidant b. group avoidant c. team avoidant d. group conforming Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Understanding Team Design Characteristics 85.

(d) 86.

(a) 87.

How does a group differ from a team? a. A group is a cohesive coalition of people; a team is a collection of people. b. In a group, individuals have personal agendas. In a team, personal agendas are totally suppressed. c. Groups are smaller than teams. d. A group is often a collection of people working independently on their own goals; a team is assembled to accomplish complex goals. Difficult/Synthesis How does a team differ from a group? a. A team is focused on joint goals; a group often has a collection of individual goals. b. A team involves the simple sum of independent actions of individuals; a group involves the integrated, collaborative actions of the collective of people. c. A team has personal agendas; a group has a shared vision. d. A team has compensation based upon individual outcomes; a group has compensation based upon shared outcomes. Difficult/Synthesis Process loss refers to a. a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group making a flawed decision. b. a group’s perception of its ability to successfully perform well. c. any aspect of group interaction that inhibits group functioning.

d. (c) 88.

(b) 89.

(b) 91.

(d) 92.

(b)

the tendency for individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a key property of a team? a. compensation based on individual outcomes b. collaborative action c. clear simple goals d. independent tasks Medium/Analysis Analyses of companies that utilize teams indicate some impressive results. Team-based organizations tend to show which of the following results? a. increased hiring b. increased costs c. increased revenue d. increased marketing Difficult/Synthesis In which of the following situations would a team be needed? a. Tasks to be performed are independent of one another. b. The organization benefits from shared goals. c. Few, specialized skills are required. d. Goals are low in complexity. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following are tasks performed by teams? a. production tasks b. idea-generation tasks c. problem-solving tasks d. all of the above Easy/Comprehension Arielle is part of a team charged with developing a new name for a product. This is a(n) ________________ task. a. development b. production c. idea generation d. problem-solving Medium/Application Hank is part of a team doing engineering design on a new hybrid automobile. Hank’s team has completed designing the vehicle. His team is now ready to hand off to another team who will be dealing with _____________ tasks. a. development b. production c. idea generation d. problem Medium/Application

94.

(b) 96.

(d) 97.

(b) 98.

(a)

Problem solving tasks a. include actually making something such as a building, product or marketing plan. b. deal with creative tasks such as brainstorming a new direction or creating a new process. c. refer to coming up with plans for actions and making decisions. d. involve team members working on each task simultaneously. Easy/Knowledge Idea generation tasks a. include actually making something such as a building, product or marketing plan. b. deal with creative tasks such as brainstorming a new direction or creating a new process. c. refer to coming up with plans for actions and making decisions. d. involve team members working on each task simultaneously. Easy/Knowledge Task interdependence a. exists when team members work independently and simply combine their efforts to create a team’s outputs. b. refers to one individual’s output becoming another’s input. c. involves team members working on each task simultaneously. d. refers to the degree that team members are dependent upon one another to get information, support or materials from other team members to be effective. Easy/Knowledge An organizational behavior class has students working in teams. The teams have a final paper due. Maria’s group has divided the paper up into sections making each group member responsible for one section. Maria is responsible for integrating all those sections. The group is organizing these tasks by using a. sequential interdependence. b. pooled interdependence. c. reciprocal interdependence. d. outcome interdependence. Medium/Application Nathan’s group is responsible for a presentation on their Human Resource project. The group is meeting this evening to prepare the presentation. Nathan has never prepared a presentation as part of a group before, and he is hoping that using such ________________ interdependence will not take a great deal of time because of side conversations and general camaraderie among group members. a. reciprocal b. outcome c. sequential d. pooled Medium/Application

99.

(d) 100.

(d) 101.

(a) 102.

(b)

Outcome interdependence a. exists when team members may work independently and simply combine their efforts to create the team’s output. b. involves team members working on each task simultaneously. c. refers to the degree that team members are dependent upon one another to get information, support or materials from other team members to be effective. d. is when the rewards that an individual receives depend on the performance of others. Easy/Knowledge Task roles include contractor, creator, and a. cooperator b. consul. c. coordinator. d. completer. Easy/Knowledge Boundary spanning roles include coordinator and a. consul. b. cooperator. c. contributor. d. critic. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a social role? a. consul. b. coordinator. c. calibrator. d. contractor. Easy/Knowledge Eduardo always challenges team members’ positions on various issues discussed in the weekly meeting. Nannette told Eduardo yesterday, “I always have to be prepared when I present ideas to our team because I know you will question everything and make us see the other side of every issue.” Eduardo performs the task role of ____________________ on the team. a. creator b. contributor c. critic d. completer Medium/Application What group-related phenomenon would the critic on a team help to guard against? a. cohesion b. groupthink c. interdependence d. Social loafing Difficult/Synthesis

105.

(a) 106.

(a) 107.

(b) 108.

(a) 109.

(b) 110.

The superintendent of the school district is writing a new mission statement for the district. He is engaged in the _____________ role. a. creator b. contractor c. communicator d. calibrator Medium/Application The _____________ role in a team creates deadlines for the team, schedules production, and sequences tasks. a. contractor b. contributor c. completer d. creator Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is accurate regarding the nature of social roles in a team? a. If social roles are filled in a firm, groups are more prone to suffer process losses. b. If social roles are filled in a firm, groups are more cohesive. c. If social roles are filled in a firm, group members are more likely to engage in social loafing. d. If social roles are filled in a firm, group members are more likely to have biases. Medium/Analysis The calibrator role a. keeps the team on track by suggesting any needed changes to the team’s process. b. supports those with expertise toward the team’s goals. c. uses good listening skills and humor to defuse tense situations. d. helps transform ideas into action. Easy/Knowledge Mike listens carefully to the exchanges between team members during meetings and is particularly adept at using humor to lighten any tense situations that arise between team members because of those exchanges. Mike plays the a. completer role. b. communicator role. c. cooperator role. d. calibrator role. Medium/Analysis Because the ________ role involves gathering information from the larger organization and informing those within the organization about team goals, activities and success, it is often filled by the team manager. a. coordinator b. completer c. consul

contractor

(d) 113.

(a) 114.

(d) 115.

(a) 116.

(d)

Which of the following is an example of a temporary team? a. empowered team b. virtual team c. task force d. self-managed team Easy/Comprehension Which of the following represents a unique challenge with regard to the management of virtual teams? a. Building trust with virtual team. b. Not being physically seen by managers. c. Nature of communication used with virtual team. d. All of the above Medium/Analysis All of the following statements are correct about top management teams EXCEPT a. Top teams are most effective when there is limited diversity in their composition. b. Top management teams generally function without formal rules for team design or structure. c. Top management teams are important for their symbolic roles. d. Top management teams make decisions on new products, markets and expansions and divestitures. Difficult/Analysis Self-managed teams a. increase the hierarchy in an organization. b. operate under goals provided by top level management and passed down through the chain of command. c. have an appointed leader, but can select individual team members. d. can be found at all levels in an organization. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is accurate regarding self-managed teams? a. Employees on self-managed teams have higher job satisfaction. b. Self-managed teams have higher turnover. c. Self-managed teams lack direction. d. Employees on self-managed teams have higher skill variety. Difficult/Analysis Empowerment means a. having the responsibility to reach goals. b. having the authority to reach goals. c. having the ability to make decisions. d. having the responsibility and authority to reach goals. Medium/Knowledge

117.

(d) 118.

(b) 119.

(c)

A self-directed team a. manages itself but still has a team leader and has the potential for low, medium or high autonomy. b. has a leader who resides outside the team and has the potential for low, medium or high autonomy. c. has a leader that resides outside the team and has the potential for low autonomy. d. makes all decisions internally about leadership and how the work is done and has the potential for high autonomy. Difficult/Evaluation The ideal composition of a team should be determined based on a. team member demographics. b. the nature of the team’s goals. c. the size of the organization. d. all of the above. Medium/Knowledge Research on team size suggests a. groups larger than 20 members are highly effective. b. teams with fewer members are less effective at working through differences. c. larger groups are generally required for very complex tasks. d. there is little relationship between team size and performance. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding team size and diversity is correct? a. The more diverse the team, the more likely the team is to engage in groupthink. b. The rule of thumb for team size is between 10 and 20 members. c. Teams that believe in the value of diversity perform better than those which do not. d. Teams whose members have complementary skills are less successful than those with specialized skills. Difficult/Evaluation

Section III: Management of Teams 121.

(b) 122.

Norms refer to a. agreements on established ground rules, goals and roles. b. shared expectations about how things operate within a group or team. c. formal approaches to decision making in the group or team. d. measures of camaraderie in the group or team. Easy/Knowledge To make a team contract meaningful, which of the following sections should be included? a. team compensation. b. team decision making. c. team meetings. d. team dynamics.

(b)

Easy/Knowledge

123.

Which of the following is considered a key aspect to ensuring a successful meeting? a. Start the meeting when everyone arrives. b. Don’t worry about group dynamics. c. Manage the group dynamic for full participation. d. Let participants discuss whatever is on their mind. Easy/Comprehension

(b) 125.

(b) 126.

(d) 127.

(a)

Research and hands-on experience have demonstrated that teams are most successful when they determine shared values and goals, develop a communication strategy, and establish how decisions will be made and by whom, which is known as a. an operation manual b. the team contract c. a binding agreement d. the team strategy Medium/Comprehension Which of the following are considered key to ensuring a successful meeting? a. Create an agenda, start on time, open the meeting to anyone interested. b. Start on time, set a time limit, and create an agenda. c. Set a time limit, add new items to the agenda during the meeting, let everyone talk as long as they need. d. Open the meeting to anyone interested, set an agenda, end the meeting on time. Medium/Comprehension Prior to the meeting, a best practice is to a. test any technology being used during the meeting. b. send out a meeting reminder. c. create and distribute an agenda. d. do all of the above. Medium/Comprehension As the meeting begins, some managers allow time to review the material being covered in the meeting, allowing everyone to a. create a new agenda b. prepare a list of action items c. get on the same page d. invite others to the meeting Easy/Knowledge The idea that people can participate in a meeting without being embarrassed or experience retribution for their comments is a. psychological safety. b. a human resources problem. c. something people just need to get over. d. physiological barrier protection. Medium/Comprehension

129.

(d) 130.

(a)

If psychological safety can be established for a team, the benefits will include a. happier employees b. higher profits c. longer meetings d. more information sharing and improved performance Medium/Comprehension Which of these are ways to cultivate psychological safety for a team? a. Establish peer support and role clarity b. Allow longer meetings c. Include a human resources representative in each meeting d. Only allow managers to speak Easy/Knowledge

Section IV: Barriers to Effective Teams 131.

(b) 132.

(a) 134.

(d)

One barrier to effective teams is a. overly helpful team members. b. challenges of knowing how to work together. c. poorly managed team conflict. d. low organizational commitment. Medium/Comprehension Rodney is a new project team leader. Jerome is chatting with him about some of the problems that could arise and prevent his team from being successful. Jerome offers which of the following pieces of advice to overcome barriers to team success? a. Floundering often results from a lack of clear goals; clarify goals from the outset of the project. b. Disagreements among team members may be the result of long simmering personality conflicts; it’s not helpful to get involved in these disputes as it may just make it worse. c. Dominant personalities can only help a group; let those that are the most vocal have their say. d. Poor performance by a group member is probably due to lack of commitment; best to let those members go. Difficult/Evaluation Which of these is NOT a way to handle team conflict? a. Try to keep people with long-running conflicts, personal or professional, off of the team. b. Create a team contract and outline expected behaviors. c. Bring two conflicting parties together prior to the team meeting to discuss issues. d. Conflict is good; just allow the team to discuss all the issues during the meeting and let the other team members mediate the problem. Medium/Comprehension

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture in Teams 133.

(b) 134.

(a)

Which of the following statements regarding ethics and teams is accurate? a. Research demonstrates that hierarchical systems always constrain team members more than a self- managed team does. b. Self- managed teams are viewed as a technique to overcome the negative aspects of bureaucracy. c. Team pressure is often less powerful than managerial control. d. Team pressure is unlikely to result in unethical behavior by team members. Difficult/Synthesis Collectivist societies tend to a. value individual achievement over interpersonal relationships. b. have employees who adapt readily to working in different teams. c. have employees who evaluate their group members higher than their counterparts in individualistic societies do. d. value loyalty much less than individualistic societies do. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding power distance and teams is correct? a. People in high power distance countries expect unequal power distribution in the social, political and economic areas. b. Countries with high power distance tend to use participative decision making. c. Countries high in power distance tend to use sports metaphors more often in training than family metaphors. d. Countries with high power distance define the roles of team members very clearly. Difficult/Evaluation

CLOSING SECTION: Putting Peer Pressure to Work: The Case of Pret a Manger

136.

(b) 137.

Which of the following is true regarding Pret a Manger’s unique hiring practices? a. All applications are reviewed by a team of frontline employees. b. Applicants who pass an initial selection step are brought in for a shift to work side-by-side with current employees, who get to vote on whether that person gets hired. c. Pret a Manger only promotes from within. d. Interviews are conducted by a team of Pret a Manger employees. Easy/Knowledge Compared to the overall high rate of turnover in the fast-food industry (up to 400%) the turnoever at Pret a Manger is a. under 20%

(b)

b. 60% c. 45% d. 80% Easy/Knowledge

FILL IN THE BLANK 138.

A ___________ is a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. (group) 139.

Two or more individuals who are associated with one another in ways not prescribed by the formal organization are a(n) ____________________. (informal group) 140.

Tuckman’s four-stage model of group development features the forming___________-_____________ and performing stages. (storming, norming) 141.

In the _________ stage, group members can be defensive, competitive or jealous. (storming) 142. Many groups get stuck in the _____________ phase. (storming) 143.

Group members establish ground rules and define operating procedures during the ___________ phase of Tuckman’s model. (norming) 144.

The _________ stage was added to Tuckman’s original model and can feature participant emotions ranging from victory to grief to insecurity. (adjourning) 145.

The _________________ model is a cyclical theory that suggests that change in groups occurs in radical spurts rather than incrementally over time. (punctuated equilibrium) 146.

____________ groups have a collective identity, share a sense of purpose, work together on meaningful tasks, and establish a structured pattern of communication. (Cohesive) 147.

__________ is a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group’s making flawed decisions by allowing reductions in mental efficiency, reality testing and moral judgment. (Groupthink) 148.

The Ringelmann effect, or ______________ is the tendency of individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context. (social loafing)

149.

A group’s perception of its ability to successfully perform well is ______________. (collective efficacy) 150.

A ________ is a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals.

(team) 151.

Team tasks include __________ tasks, ________ tasks and _____________ tasks. (production, idea generation, problem-solving) 152.

_____________________ is where team members work independently on items and then combine their efforts for a final product while __________________ is where team members work on each task simultaneously. (Pooled interdependence, reciprocal interdependence) 153.

The Team Role Typology suggests that ___________ and ____________ are boundary spanning roles. (consul, coordinator) 154.

___________, ______________, and _______________ are three task roles in the Team Role Typology. (Contractor, creator, contributor, completer, critic) 155. The task role of ____________ includes “devil’s advocate” behavior. (critic) 156.

The social role of ________________ serves to keep the team on track with regard to needed changes in team process. (calibrator) 157.

A ___________________ is a temporary team that is created to address a specific problem or issue until it is resolved. (task force) 158.

__________ teams are those where members are not located in the same physical place. (Virtual) 159.

Empowered teams have the ___________ as well as the __________ to achieve their goals. (responsibility, authority) 160.

_______________________ teams make all decisions internally about leadership and how work is done and have the potential for high autonomy. (Self-directed) 161. Shared expectations of how things operate with a group or team are _________. (norms.)

162.

_______ ___________ include agreements on established ground rules, goals and roles. (Team contracts) 163.

The ideal that employees in a meeting will not be punished or embarrassed for speaking up is _____. (psychological safety) 164.

Pret a Manger’s relatively low turnover rate is in part attributed to their _____ culture. (team-based) SHORT ANSWERS 165.

List the stages in Tuckman’s model of group development including the phase added later in his work. Briefly describe the nature of each stage. The stages are forming, storming, norming and performing with adjourning added later. Forming is the initial stage where the group comes together for the first time. Storming is the second stage where group members keep up their guard but become more argumentative. Also, during this phase, group members explore their power and influence and stake out their territory by differentiating themselves from others. Norming is the phase where group members establish their own ground rules and define operating procedures and goals. Performing is the phase where participants are getting the work done and paying attention to how they are doing it. Adjourning is the phase added later which is focused on how a group ends. Endings are often accompanied by emotions that can range from relief to grief.

166.

Briefly discuss the punctuated equilibrium model. The punctuated equilibrium model was developed by Connie Gersick. The model suggests that groups remain fairly static for long periods of time where change is largely incremental. At some point, however, revolutionary change occurs in a brief, punctuated burst that shakes the very essence of the organization and poses a real opportunity for innovation and creativity to take root.

167.

List and describe three factors which affect group cohesion. Any of these factors impact group cohesion: Similarity: The more similar group members are with regard to gender, age, education, skills, attitudes and values, the more likely the group will bond.

Stability: The longer a group stays together, the more cohesive it becomes. Size: The smaller the group, the more cohesive the group. Support: When group members support their fellow team members, their group identity strengthens. Satisfaction: Cohesion is correlated with how pleased group members are with each other’s performance, behavior and conformity to group norms. 168.

What is the difference between a group and a team? A group is a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. A team is a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals. The difference is that teams are focused on a joint goal that gives them a common purpose, performance goal and approach for which they are mutually accountable.

169.

Hackman identified three major classes of tasks. List those classes and briefly describe them. Production tasks are those involved with making something. Idea generation tasks deal with creative tasks like brainstorming. Problem-solving tasks refer to coming up with plans for action and making decisions.

170.

Describe the different task interdependence levels as they relate to team work flow. Task interdependence is the degree to which team members are dependent upon one another to get information, support, or materials from other team members to be effective. The three types of task interdependence are: pooled interdependence, sequential interdependence and reciprocal interdependence. Pooled interdependence exists when team members work independently and combine their efforts to create a team’s output. Sequential interdependence exists when one person’s output is another’s input. Reciprocal interdependence exists when team members work on a task simultaneously. Outcome interdependence is not specific to a task but exists when rewards received by an individual are dependent on the performance of others.

171.

Describe the three general categories of work team roles and give an example of each. Describe the nature of each example role given. The three categories of team roles are: task roles, social roles and boundary spanning roles. Task roles include: critic, completer, contributor, creator and contractor.

A critic is a “devil’s advocate”; a completer is one who transforms ideas into action; a contributor brings information and expertise to the team; a creator deals with changes in the team’s process and a contractor organizes the team’s work. Social roles include: calibrator, communicator, and cooperator. A cooperator supports those with expertise to aid in the team’s goals; a communicator includes behaviors targeted at collaboration like humor and good listening skills; and a calibrator keeps the team on track in terms of any changes needed to the team’s process. Boundary spanning roles include: consul and coordinator. A consul gathers information from the larger organization and informs those within the organization about the team’s activities, goals and successes; and a coordinator interfaces with others so that the team’s efforts are in line with other individuals and teams within the organization. 172.

There are several types of temporary teams. Describe one such temporary team. A task force is one designed to address a specific issue or problem until it is resolved. A product development team is one that develops a product. A cross functional team involves individuals from different parts of the organization staff.

173.

Teams vary in the manner in which they are led. Choose one type of team leadership and briefly describe it. Traditional manager led teams have a manager who is outside the team. The manager assigns work to team members and has the power to hire and fire team members. Manager led teams have little potential for autonomy. Self-managed teams are those that manage themselves and do not report directly to a supervisor. Team members select their own leader and can even take turns in the leadership role. A self-managed team has the potential for low, medium or high autonomy. Self-directed teams are a special form of self managed teams where members determine who will lead them with no external oversight. Thus, the team makes all decisions internally about how work is done. There is the potential for high autonomy in this team.

ESSAY

174.

Think about a group that you belong or belonged to. Describe the phases of the Tuckman model that the group progressed through or the current phase at which it is now functioning. Answers will vary. Students might discuss a group they are part of from one of their classes. Students are often quite willing to discuss the formation problems many groups have. The initial, and indeed early meetings are characterized by members being very polite and very general and noncommittal in most of their comments as they observe what is going on to figure out the direction the group might be headed. If a leader has been appointed for the group, that leader might be tested. The group might have progressed to the storming stage and here the stories will really flow. As the name suggests there are battles fought during the storming stage as group members explore power and influence. There may be cliques, they may take sides, but whatever occurs, there will be chaos. Though many groups in the workplace may not get out of the storming stage, class groups must progress because terms end and final projects or papers are ultimately due. So, while a group may get its project out while functioning in the storming phase, class groups move to adjournment. Some of the leave-taking in the groups is bittersweet, some joyful. If a class group progressed out of the storming stage to norming, the analysis will discuss the ground rules and procedures agreed upon by the group. In the performing stage there will be discussion of how the work is getting done and the manner in which process issues or items that may impact the process (like conflicts) are addressed so the work of the group moves forward.

175.

Marta has just been appointed a project team leader for the first time. She is interested in understanding key characteristics that could impact the cohesion of her group. You are her supervisor and she is coming to see you tomorrow for advice. What are some of the key elements you will mention to her and what impact do they have upon a team? What are some things to watch out for? One item you could mention is the notion of building cohesion in the team. Cohesive groups have a common identity, and members want to be part of the group. Help Marta understand how to build that notion in the team members. Share with Marta that similarity, stability, size, support and satisfaction are all issues connected to cohesion. Discuss with her how groups that are similar in terms of gender, age, background, skills, attitudes and beliefs are more cohesive, but warn her of going too far that the group becomes involved in a groupthink situation. Stable groups are more cohesive. Small groups are easier for building cohesion.

176.

One of the biggest complaints about college courses is often the requirement to work in groups. Many students are uncomfortable with group work because some of their colleagues do not fully participate in the assignments leaving individual

members with extra work to do. What are some actions you can take the next time you are assigned to a group that will help prevent such social loafing in your group? Carefully choose the number of people you work with if that number is not assigned by the instructor of the course. Obviously, the larger the group, the easier it is for a student to “hide.” During the initial meetings, make certain that all members are aware of their roles and publicly acknowledge those roles. Be specific about the tasks assigned and make sure to assign them to individuals. Specificity provides for greater accountability. Have a way to evaluate each person’s contribution to the group. Many courses create group feedback forms so individuals are aware of the expectations they must fulfill as well as the evaluation provided for completion of such. Build a cohesive group. Recognize that mutual goals bond people. Work on building that shared experience. Assign tasks that are engaging and rewarding. Make sure everyone feels needed. With these tips in mind, social loafing should be minimized in the group. 177.

As part of a Fundamentals of Business Communication course, students are placed in four-person teams to engage in various team activities throughout the course. The first exercise the groups are required to complete is the development of a team contract. Discuss what some key elements of that team contract should be, given that work produced by the team will be evaluated and will impact the individual grade achieved by a student. Some categories to include are: Team goal: A mutually shared goal is paramount to building cohesion. Team roles: Who is responsible for what in the team? When assigning roles, first ensure that the team covers all three key categories of roles (boundary spanning, task and social). Team decisions: How are decisions made in the team? Team communication: Who will be the individual to inform all group members of meetings or cancellations? What medium will be used to communicate? Team performance: What criteria will you use to evaluate your team members? What is good performance of a team?

178.

A second assignment for the Fundamentals of Business Communication is to be the leader of a team meeting held for a project. Offer some advice to a student

taking the Fundamentals class on how to make his meeting the most effective possible. The very first step is to ascertain whether a meeting actually needs to be held. While in the scenario above it will take place because a grade is awarded for the meeting project, in the workplace, sometimes meetings simply do not need to be held. If one is needed, before the meeting, make sure everyone has an agenda. Determine whether people will be attending in person, or virtually and test that technology prior to the start of the meeting. And send out a reminder to every about the meeting. During the meeting make sure the meeting opens on time and that the meeting agenda is followed. It may be a good idea to allow everyone to review the content that is being discussed for the first few minutes of the meeting. If there is a time limit indicated for each agenda item, honor it. Make sure you get equitable participation from all group members. Work to establish a level of trust in the meeting and be careful to monitor that no one is mocked for their opinions; that everyone feels safe to speak up. Summarize the meeting with specific action items. End the meeting on time.After the meeting, follow up on action items. Send minutes of the meeting in a timely manner.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 10 Conflict and Negotiations TRUE/FALSE 1.

Managing conflict and engaging in effective negotiations are key factors for a successful organization.

(True) 2.

Conflict management and negotiation tactics are art, not skills, and are very difficult to learn.

(False) 3. Intrapersonal conflict can arise due to role ambiguity and role conflict. (True) 4.

Interpersonal conflicts should be centered around individual differences, not ideas, to avoid conflict escalation.

(False) 5. Conflict in an organization is always bad. (False) 6. If conflict in an organization is too low, performance is also likely low. (True) 7.

Personal conflicts can be good in certain circumstances, but task conflicts are never good.

(False) 8.

Research on effective teams indicates that they are characterized by low but increasing levels of process conflict.

(True) 9.

Research on effective teams indicates that they are characterized by low but increasing levels of task conflict.

(False) 10.

Matrix-structured organizations often experience decisional conflict because each manager reports to two bosses.

(True) 11. Task independence is a root cause of much conflict in the organization. (False)

12. Conflict can result in both positive and negative outcomes. (True) 13. Conflict can be dysfunctional if it involves personal attacks. (True) 14.

Bank tellers are at a higher risk of workplace violence than many other occupations.

(True) 15.

If your job involves caring for others in a nursing home, you have an increased risk of experiencing workplace violence.

(True) 16.

Taking a vote among the team, or the majority rule approach, can be successful when parties believe the process is fair.

(True) 17.

The avoidance conflict handling style is characterized by high levels of cooperativeness and assertiveness.

(False) 18.

An individual who deals with conflict by saying, “Maybe we can both agree to give in a little,” has an accommodating conflict handling style.

(False) 19.

Competition is an effective conflict handling style if the alternatives proposed are unethical.

(True) 20.

The collaboration style of conflict generally results in the most favorable outcomes for both parties.

(True) 21.

Research suggests that when it comes to dealing with conflict, managers are more likely to engage in avoiding, accommodating or compromising styles than their subordinates.

(False) 22.

The key to keeping conflict or disagreement healthy in an organization is to focus the discussion on the task, not the personalities.

(True) 23.

Healthy conflict can be stimulated in a firm by having appointed individuals play “devil’s advocate.”

(True) 24.

The BATNA phase of the negotiation process only applies in certain circumstances.

(False) 25.

The first place to begin the investigation phase of negotiation is to look at yourself.

(True) 26.

The party with the best alternative to a negotiated agreement is in the best negotiating position.

(True) 27. Making a concession during negotiation is a sign of weakness. (False) 28.

The closure phase of the negotiation process may include finding a final offer that is unacceptable and from which the party has walked away.

(True) 29.

The integrative approach is a new creative approach to negotiation that can lead to a “win-win” situation.

(True) 30.

It is a perfectly acceptable business practice to attempt to negotiate a higher salary with your boss.

(True) 31. A common mistake women tend to make is failing to negotiate their salary offers. (True) 32.

Those with unreasonable expectations in negotiations are no more likely to fail at negotiations than those with reasonable expectations.

(False) 33.

Mediation is the process of bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and make a binding decision in the conflict situation.

(False) 34.

The arbitration-mediation approach had led to voluntary agreements in a greater percentage of situations than the more common mediation-arbitration approach.

(True) 35.

If your negotiating counterpart feels you are unfair or dishonest, he or she is less likely to make concessions.

(True) 36.

The platinum rule of negotiations is to care for others enough to treat them the way they want to be treated.

(True) 37.

Americans tend to have a higher tolerance for conflict as a way of working through issues than their Japanese counterparts.

(True) 38.

In negotiations, Japanese negotiators tend to draw information from what is said as well as what is not said.

(True) 39.

Western cultures view negotiations as a social activity while their Eastern culture counterparts view it as a business activity.

(False) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: When Conflict is Productive: The Case of Amazon 40.

(a) 42.

(a) 43.

(b)

*At Amazon, what is the two pizza rule? a. Anyone with a successful new idea gets a coupon for two free pizzas. b. If a team can end meetings in 30 minutes or less, everyone gets two free pizzas. c. Teams should be small enough in number that they can be fed with just two pizzas. d. Managers get two pizzas to award to the employees who worked the hardest each month. Easy/Knowledge *Amazon is so committed to creative conflict its Number 13 leadership principle is a. Have Backbone; Disagree and Commit b. Be Strong; Stand your ground c. Be a Leader; Argue and Resolve d. Stand Down; Let Others Fight Easy/Knowledge *Intel offers a _____ course to instruct new employees on conflict-oriented leadership. a. constructive confrontation training b. anger management c. reducing conflict d. incite and argue Easy/Knowledge *Amazon’s company culture favors _____ above all else. a. cross-team communication b. intensity c. friendliness d. anger Medium/Comprehension

Section I: Understanding Conflict 44.

(d) 47.

(a) 48.

(b) 49.

Conflict refers to a. a process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement. b. a process where an outside third party enters the situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. c. a process that involves people disagreeing. d. a process that involves bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and will make a decision to which parties must adhere. Easy/Knowledge Jared is a member of the engineering department in the manufacturing firm and also serves on the Strategy 2015 team, which is crafting an engineering strategy for the firm’s future. He has a “Do not miss” meeting in the engineering department scheduled for Wednesday at 8 a.m. and just received an urgent email about a “Can’t miss” meeting for the strategy group at 8:15 a.m. Wednesday morning. Jared is experiencing a. interpersonal conflict. b. role ambiguity. c. role conflict. d. group conflict. Medium/Application Intrapersonal conflict refers to a. a type of conflict between two people. b. conflict that takes place between different groups such as between different departments. c. a process that involves people disagreeing. d. a type of conflict that arises when a person is uncertain about what is expected or wanted or has a sense of being inadequate to the task. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict? a. role conflict b. an argument between coworkers c. a conflict with a customer d. role reversal Easy/Comprehension Conflict between two individuals such as coworkers is also known as a. intrapersonal conflict b. interpersonal conflict. c. intergroup conflict. d. interdepartmental conflict. Easy/Knowledge Nancy and Mary are in the same sorority. Nancy is running for the university’s student government treasurer position. Mary says, “I’ll never vote for her, whether she is my sister or not.” Mary is experiencing what kind of conflict? a. interpersonal

(a) 50.

(a) 52.

(b) 53.

b. intergroup c. intrapersonal d. interdependent Medium/Application Intergroup conflict a. occurs between two individuals. b. occurs within the individual. c. occurs between two departments. d. occurs between team members. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements about conflict is accurate? a. Conflict can paralyze an organization. b. Conflict can lead to higher organizational commitment. c. Conflict is not a major issue in the workplace. d. Conflict is always problematic in an organization. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between conflict and performance? a. Low conflict leads to medium performance. b. Medium conflict leads to high performance. c. High conflict leads to high performance. d. Low conflict leads to high performance. Difficult/Evaluation In which of the following scenarios would you expect high performance? a. The five team members never have a negative word to say to each other; there never seems to be any conflict on the team. b. The two members of the team are constantly bickering. One never says anything without the other disagreeing. c. The team members seem to get along well enough, but on occasion they will argue about a number of issues. d. The three partners have an interesting relationship. Partner A is almost always in agreement with Partner B, but fights constantly with Partner C. Partners B and C get along at times and fight at times. Difficult/Synthesis Research on effective teams indicates that they experience a. high levels of relationship conflict. b. moderate levels of process conflict at the beginning of the project timeline. c. moderate levels of task conflict in the middle of the project timeline. d. moderate levels of relationship conflict and high levels of process conflict. Difficult/Evaluation *Which of these is NOT one of the types of conflict that typically occur in organizations? a. intergroup

(d) 56. a. b. c. (c) 57. a. b. c. (b)

b. interpersonal c. intrapersonal d. intragroup Easy/Knowledge *Role ambiguity and role conflict are examples of intergroup conflict interpersonal conflict intrapersonal conflict d. intragroup conflict Easy/Knowledge *Competition, personality differences, or values beliefs could lead to intergroup conflict interpersonal conflict intrapersonal conflict d. intragroup conflict Easy/Knowledge

Section II: Causes and Outcomes of Conflict 58.

(d) 59.

(a) 61.

Which of the following is considered a root cause of conflict in the workplace? a. organizational tenure b. task independence c. compatible goals d. personality differences Easy/Comprehension In which of the following scenarios are you most likely to experience conflict? a. Resources within the firm are relatively plentiful and most departments in the organization are seeing a modest increase in their annual budget. b. Interdepartmental meetings have just been concluded resulting in a list of goals for each department that are compatible with one another. c. The firm just instituted a matrix structure. d. Self-awareness exercises have been completed and most of the team members were categorized as Type B. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following is NOT a root cause of conflict in the workplace? a. task satisfaction b. communication issues c. limited resources d. personality differences Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is a positive outcome of conflict in the organization? a. increased creativity b. accurate assumptions c. enhanced volunteering behavior

(a) 62.

(d) 63.

(b) 64.

(d) 65.

(b) 66.

(a) 67.

d. individual task satisfaction Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is a negative outcome of conflict in the organization? a. excessive personal attacks b. climate of distrust c. employee feelings of being demeaned with resulting lower morale d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following factors is likely to increase your risk for violence in the workplace? a. working in a big city b. dealing with valuables c. being well paid d. not fitting in with coworkers Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is a high-risk situation where your job might be at risk for workplace violence? a. supervising others b. denying requests made by others c. caring for others d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following occupations is least likely to be a high-risk situation for workplace violence? a. law enforcement b. education c. bartending d. overnight gas station attendant Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding conflict in the workplace is accurate? a. A bureaucratic organizational structure can lead to conflict between high and low power people. b. To avoid conflict in communication, focus on the person, not behavior or its effects. c. Conflict can be dysfunctional in an organization even if it is moderate. d. Consideration of a broader range of ideas is a negative outcome of conflict in the organization. Difficult/Synthesis *Tijuan has to address the issue that Jaime has been late to work three times in two weeks. Which of these would be the best approach for Tijuan? a. fire Jaime the fourth time she is late b. ask Jaime if there is a situation that is contributing to being late recently and try to help resolve the issue c. send Jaime to the human resources department

d. (b) 68.

(b)

call Jaime to his office and promise her she’ll be fired the next time she is late Difficult/Synthesis *Sal is an Account Executive and when he sells a new client, he promises delivery in two weeks even though the company standard is four weeks. Dina is the delivery manager and she is angry with Sal because he made the promise that she has to deliver. Sal and Dina have conflict over a. personality differences b. incompatible goals c communication problems. d. limited resources Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Conflict Management 69.

(d) 71.

(b) 72.

Which of the following is an effective way to manage organizational conflict? a. consensus decision making b. change the team composition to have more diversity c. create a common opposing force d. eliminate hierarchy Easy/Comprehension If there is conflict between two members of a team and the underlying reason for the conflict is personality differences, what is a viable way of managing the organizational conflict? a. Change the structure of the organization. b. Focus attention on a common enemy of the two clashing team members. c. Take a majority vote on which individual is causing more issues on the team. d. Change the composition of the team by separating the individuals at odds. Difficult/Synthesis If two marketing groups within a firm’s marketing department are vying against each other for a larger percentage of the budget, which option could the marketing manager consider that would be MOST effective in managing the conflict? a. Take a majority vote on what the two departments feel is the best budget allocation. b. Focus the attention of the two groups on a common “enemy” such as another firm that that they compete with for business. c. Change the composition of the two departments. d. Restructure the entire department so that teams are no longer used. Difficult/Synthesis The conflict handling style that is uncooperative and unassertive is a. compromise.

(b) 73.

(d) 74.

(d) 75.

(a) 77.

b. avoidance. c. accommodation. d. competition. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a middle-ground conflict handling style characterized by an individual’s desire to get his or her way but respect others’ goals? a. competition b. avoidance c. accommodation d. compromise Easy/Knowledge The competition conflict handling style a. is a middle ground style. b. is uncooperative and unassertive. c. is cooperative and unassertive. d. is highly assertive but low on cooperation. Easy/Knowledge The collaborative conflict handling style is a. low in cooperativeness and low in competitiveness. b. low in competitiveness and high in cooperativeness. c. high in cooperativeness and high in competitiveness. d. high in competitiveness and low in cooperativeness. Medium/Comprehension The accommodation conflict handling style is a. cooperative and unassertive. b. uncooperative and unassertive. c. cooperative and assertive. d. uncooperative and assertive. Medium/Comprehension Nicholas is the production manager for a manufacturing firm. He has two supervisors who are experiencing conflict with each other based upon personality differences. Nicholas should have held a meeting last week to discuss next year’s budget, but cancelled it because the two supervisors had a verbal confrontation on the shop floor the previous day. What conflict handling style is Nicholas demonstrating? a. compromise b. collaboration c. avoidance d. accommodation Medium/Application The United Auto Workers (UAW) and Ford Motor Company were negotiating a new agreement to address the auto industry woes during a severe economic downturn. Ford offered to consider delaying layoffs if the UAW agreed to

(d) 79.

(a) 81.

(b)

changes in contractual work rules related to the jobs bank. This negotiation suggests the use of what conflict handling style? a. avoidance b. collaboration c. accommodation d. compromise Medium/Application Ned and Michael are managers of two different departments at Beckett Corporation. The two have not gotten along well over the years. Yesterday the two attended a budget meeting for the new fiscal year. Both wanted more funding for their departments. When the finance vice president suggested an increase for Ned’s department, Michael became quite agitated and made a number of accusations about the nature of the numbers that Ned had used to support his position. After the meeting, Michael cornered the finance vice president in his office and continued his spiel on why his department deserved the extra funding but Ned’s did not. What style of conflict handling does Michael exhibit? a. compromise b. accommodation c. competition d. avoidance Medium/Application Olivia and her teenage daughter, Natalie, are arguing again about whether Natalie should go to a family gathering this Sunday or attend an outing with her friends. Olivia and her daughter argue about this topic every week. This time, Olivia turns to her daughter and says, “OK, if it is that important that you go out with Jenna Sunday, then I can agree this time around.” Olivia is using what conflict handling style? a. accommodation b. controlling c. collaboration d. avoidance Medium/Application Maris Manufacturing is a unionized company producing customized metal units for the appliance and medical equipment industries. Each contract negotiation is a contentious affair for the union and management. However, over the past few months both union and management officials have become very concerned about the number of Maris union employees who are experiencing alcoholrelated issues. Last month alone, six employees sought medical assistance under the employee assistance program. Management and union officials will be meeting next week to address the issue. This is an example of what conflict handling style? a. accommodation b. collaboration c. compromise d. competition Medium/Application

82.

(a) 84.

(d) 86.

(a) 87.

(a) 88.

Which conflict handling style is indicated by an individual who says, “I don’t really care if we work this out.”? a. accommodation b. collaboration c. avoidance d. compromise Medium/Application Which conflict handling style is indicated by an individual who says, “Maybe we can both agree to give in a little.”? a. compromise b. collaboration c. accommodation d. avoidance Medium/Application Though no conflict handling style is perfect, which style seems to be the most effective in many different situations? a. compromise b. competition c. collaboration d. accommodation Medium/Comprehension Research shows that when managers are dealing with conflict they prefer which conflict handling style? a. compromising b. accommodating c. avoiding d. forcing Medium/Comprehension Research shows that when confronted with a conflict situation, subordinates are most likely to use which of the following conflict handling styles? a. compromising b. forcing c. “devil’s advocate” d. competing Medium/Analysis With regard to conflict, which of the following statements is accurate? a. The best solution often requires a discussion of varying opinions. b. A lack of disagreement may indicate employees are successfully matched. c. Conflict is inherently bad. d. A key to a healthy discussion is a focus on personalities, not tasks. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following would be an effective means of stimulating conflict? a. Assigning someone to play cooperator.

(b) 89.

(d) 91.

(b)

b. Encouraging disagreement with no fear of reprisal. c. Creating a common enemy. d. Building clarity into the situation. Medium/Analysis *When individuals in conflict focus on the issues and not on the other people they can take this approach to managing conflict. a. Majority rule b. Create a common opposing force c. Problem solving d. Structural change Easy/Knowledge *Which of these is NOT a way to stimulate productive conflict? a. ask someone on the team to play devil’s advocate and offer alternate ideas b. create a competition between teams c. allow team members to come up with their own ideas and allow for some ambiguity in the process d. be sure to critique or reprimand any solutions that do not agree with the team leader’s Medium/Comprehension *Organizations that never experience conflict would be doing all of the following EXCEPT: a. be suppressing opinions. b. having meaningful group discussions. c. be “nice to death.” d. silencing themselves. Easy/Knowledge

Section IV: Negotiations 91.

(d) 92.

(a)

Negotiation refers to a. the process that involves bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and will make a binding decision. b. the process that involves two people disagreeing. c. the process where a third party enters a situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. d. the process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is the first phase of the negotiation process? a. investigation b. presentation c. determining BATNA d. bargaining Easy/Knowledge

93.

(d) 94.

(b) 95.

(a) 96.

During which phase of the negotiation process does an individual assemble the information gathered in such a manner that his position is supported? a. investigation b. determining the BATNA c. bargaining d. presentation Easy/Comprehension The investigation phase of the negotiation process involves a. understanding what your alternatives are. b. gathering information. c. making concessions. d. agreeing on terms. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding to the first phase of the negotiation process, investigation, is accurate? a. Investigation is the phase of the negotiation process that is often ignored. b. Focus on the party with whom you are negotiating first and then analyze yourself. c. The investigation phase of negotiation is designed to deliver information. d. The investigation phase necessitates a clear understanding of both parties’ goals. Difficult/Evaluation The BATNA is a. the first phase of the negotiation process. b. a delaying tactic in negotiation. c. important to assisting you in deciding whether to accept an offer or not. d. the process of making concessions in negotiation. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements are true with regard to determining your BATNA? a. The party with less BATNA is in the best negotiating position. b. You must determine your own BATNA but there is little you can do with regard to the BATNA of the party with whom you are negotiating. c. Assessing the best alternative to a negotiated agreement assists you in deciding whether to accept an offer. d. The reason you negotiate is to demonstrate confidence. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding the bargaining phase of negotiation is correct? a. The bargaining phase gets the least amount of attention during the negotiation process. b. Making concessions during the negotiation process is a sign of weakness. c. A key to the bargaining phase is asking questions. d. This is the phase of negotiation where you determine your BATNA.

(c)

Difficult/Evaluation

99.

Which of the following statements regarding the closure phase of negotiations is accurate? a. Closure is the phase of the negotiation process where you either have come to an agreement or walk away from an unacceptable offer. b. Rejection of an offer during closure can be an opportunity to walk away. c. It is usually clear why an agreement has not been reached during negotiation. d. If the best offer in a negotiation has been rejected, there is nothing left to do. Medium/Analysis

(a) 100.

(a) 102.

(d)

The department managers for Zylog Corporation are meeting for a budget meeting. If the marketing manager gets the 6% increase he is requesting, the human resource manager will not get any increase in his department budget. This is an example of what kind of negotiation strategy? a. integrative approach b. accommodating approach c. distributive approach d. concession approach Medium/Application If both parties involved in a budget negotiation seek to expand the overall budget so that each party gets more, this is an example of which kind of negotiation strategy? a. integrative approach b. accommodating approach c. distributive approach d. concession approach Medium/Application The first step to an integrative approach to negotiation is a. listening. b. exploring options to achieving goals. c. adopting a cooperative stance. d. adopting an adversarial stance. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding negotiation strategies is correct? a. An adversarial stance is needed to begin integrative negotiation. b. Focusing on a “fixed pie” in negotiations is a good approach because it controls the number of options to be considered. c. Reviews of negotiation experiments indicate that in almost all those situations where an integrative approach to negotiations could be adopted, such an approach was utilized. d. Listening is a key element in the integrative approach to negotiation. Difficult/Synthesis

104.

(a) 105.

(b) 106.

(a) 107.

(d)

Which of the following steps is the FIRST you should undertake in negotiating a higher salary? a. Overcome your fear. b. Get the facts. c. Know what you want. d. Be assertive. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is NOT a recommended step in negotiating a higher salary for yourself? a. Overcome your fear. b. Begin aggressively. c. Get the facts. d. Listen more than you talk. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is a common mistake in negotiations? a. Letting your ego get in the way. b. Deciding to negotiate. c. Having realistic expectations. d. Getting overly invested. Medium/Analysis Mark has been the teachers’ union representative for contract negotiations for the past five contracts. Today the school district presented a counterproposal in which they requested that teachers make a minimal contribution for their healthcare premiums. The expiring contract makes the school district entirely responsible for the premiums. Mark is outraged. He throws the proposal given him on the floor and yells at the school district representative as he exits the negotiation room, “This is a pure and simple insult to my members and I will not sit at a table with anyone who treats them so poorly.” Mark is committing what negotiation mistake? a. having unrealistic expectations b. letting past negative outcomes impact the present ones c. getting overly emotional d. letting his ego get in the way Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding common mistakes in negotiations is correct? a. Research shows that negotiation avoidance is particularly pronounced among men. b. Setting high goals decreases some of the tension of negotiations. c. Negotiators that have engaged in ineffective negotiations in the past are more likely to learn lessons which make them successful negotiators in the future. d. Those with greater power are more likely to be effective when using anger in negotiations. Difficult/Analysis

109.

(d) 110.

(b) 112.

Research indicates which of the following findings regarding negotiations is correct? a. Those who encounter anger during negotiation are likely to counter with an accommodation approach to negotiations. b. Though men have a greater tendency to negotiate in a salary situation, they are no more successful than women in securing an increase. c. Setting integrative goals is no more likely to improve the chances of arriving at an agreement than going into negotiations with adversarial goals. d. Individuals who were unable to negotiate a deal in previous negotiation situations tended to have lower outcomes in subsequent negotiations than those who had initially negotiated deals in the past. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following is considered a good piece of advice to offer individuals who want to engage in successful negotiations? a. Don’t establish deadlines; when the negotiations are over, they are over. b. Rushing negotiations can be a good tactic. c. Don’t worry about periods of silence; just wait. d. Focus on disagreement first and then go back to those areas that are resolved. Medium/Analysis Mediation refers to a. the process of bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and will make a binding decision. b. the process where a third party enters the situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. c. the process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement. d. the process that involves people disagreeing. Easy/Knowledge Allan is a member of a union. The supervisor at the firm where he works gave Allan a three-day suspension for not wearing his protective shoes on the manufacturing floor of his firm. Allan appealed the suspension and the company’s plant manager refused to rescind the suspension. The union wants to appeal this decision to a neutral third party for a ruling. What procedure does the union want to utilize? a. mediation b. negotiation c. arbitration d. conflict management Easy/Application Which of the following statements regarding the process of mediation is accurate? a. A mediator determines the BATNA for each party. b. A mediator makes a binding judgment. c. A mediator resolves the charge made in a negotiation. d. A mediator incorporates areas of agreement into resolutions.

(d)

Medium/Comprehension

114.

Which of the following statements regarding third party negotiations is correct? a. Individuals who utilized mediation indicated in a survey that they would not be supportive of using the process again. b. The mediator assists the parties in agreeing on mutually exclusive resolutions. c. Arbitrators help prepare for a formal hearing. d. Arbitration is an acceptable practice for many companies to resolve challenging problems. Medium/Evaluation

(d) 115.

(b) 117.

(b) 118.

(a)

A mediator should enter a negotiation when a. personal differences are detected. b. the parties are only talking for short periods of time and tension is rising. c. the parties are unable to find a solution. d. a quick resolution is desired but not imperative. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding the arbitration-mediation approach is accurate? a. Agreements between the two parties are less likely to occur with an arbitration-mediation approach than a mediation-arbitration approach. b. In the arbitration-mediation approach, the arbitrator makes a decision and then places it in a sealed envelope while the mediation progresses. c. The arbitration-mediation approach begins with both sides meeting with a third party to discuss their goals. d. The mediation-arbitration approach is a less common approach than the arbitration-mediation one. Medium/Evaluation *When the parties in a negotiation focus on the solution as a pie that they are dividing between them, that’s a(n) a. integrative approach. b. distributive approach. c. alternative approach. d. opportunistic approach. Easy/Knowledge *An integrative approach to negotiations is when both parties a. try to get what they want by expanding the pie. b. try to get what they want by removing the other party completely. c. reverse roles to see what the other party is experiencing. d. prioritize their requests and the list is divided. Medium/Comprehension

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 119.

Which of the following statements regarding ethics and negotiations is accurate?

(b) 120.

(d) 121.

(d) 122.

(b)

Hardball negotiation tactics are fair game; the goal after all is to “get” all you can. b. If you try to destroy one party in negotiating, that party may return the favor at a future date. c. A party who feels you are being unfair will be more likely to make concessions. d. A party who feels you are dishonest may be more likely to concede. Medium/Evaluation *Which of these is NOT a tip from the textbook on how to negotiate ethically/ a. Keep your promises. b. Be honest. c. Follow the Platinum Rule. d. Deception is okay as long as you win. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding negotiations around the world is correct? e. American negotiators like to establish a strong relationship first while Chinese negotiators like to “get down to business”. f. Japanese negotiators have a higher tolerance for conflict as a way of working through issues than their American counterparts. g. Japanese negotiators reveal more information during negotiations than their American counterparts. h. In collectivist cultures the use of deception during negotiations is more common than in individualistic cultures. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiations around the world? i. Given their culture, Chinese negotiators are comfortable saying “no.” j. Some cultures find it disrespectful to negotiate prior to establishing a trusting relationship. k. Since Japan is a low context culture, information for negotiation is learned primarily from what is said. l. Eastern cultures tend view negotiations as a business activity while Western cultures see it as a social activity. Difficult/Evaluation

Closing Section: Negotiation Failure: The Case of PointCast 123.

The lesson learned from PointCast is m. social issues in negotiation can be deal-breakers. n. take the first offer you are presented. o. financial issues always make or break a deal. p. unless you have to disclose something, don’t. (a) Medium/Evaluation FILL IN THE BLANK

124. __________ is the process that involves people disagreeing. (Conflict) 125.

When you are uncertain about what is expected or wanted or have the sense of being inadequate to perform a task, you are experiencing _____________ conflict. (intrapersonal) 126. Union and management conflicts are examples of ____________ conflict. (intergroup) 127. *Individuals tend to favor the group to which they belong, known as _____. (in-group bias) 128. A __________ amount of conflict is related to high performance. (moderate) 129.

Two root causes of work conflict are task _______________ and ____________ goals. (interdependence, incompatible) 130. The _________ conflict handling style is uncooperative and unassertive. (avoidance) 131.

*Moving people around in the room, separating individuals who are most combative, or replacing some members of the groups would be a way to manage conflict by _____. (changing the composition of the team) 132.

*One way to manage conflict would be to allow all members of the group to vote and have the _____ apply to the decision. (majority rule) 133.

A person with a(n) _________ conflict handling style might say, “If it’s important to you, I can go along with it.” (accommodation) 134.

The conflict handling style in which an individual has some desire to express his own concerns and get his way but still respects the other person’s goals is the _______________ style. (compromising) 135.

The conflict handling style in which people are highly assertive but low on cooperation is _______________. (competition)

136.

When two people who are in conflict emphasize problem solving and integration of each other’s goals, they are utilizing a ____________ conflict handling style. (collaboration) 137.

The ____________ conflict handling style has the most potential to be highly effective in many different situations. (collaboration) 138. The process where two parties work toward an agreement is ____________. (negotiation) 139. BATNA stands for ________________________________ ____________. (best alternative to negotiated agreement) 140.

A key stage that is often ignored in the negotiating process is the ____________ phase where information is gathered. (investigation) 141.

___________ is the third phase of the negotiation process where you assemble the gathered information in a way that supports your position. (Presentation) 142.

The ______________ phase of the negotiation process is where each party discusses his goals and seeks to get an agreement. (bargaining) 143. A _____________ is giving up something to get something in return. (concession) 144.

The final phase of the negotiation process, ______________, is where the two parties either come to an agreement on terms or one party has found the final offer to be unacceptable and walks away from it. (closure) 145.

The traditional “fixed-pie” approach where negotiators see the situation as a pie that has to be divided between them is an example of a(n) ______________ negotiation strategy. (distributive) 146.

The ____________ negotiation strategy looks for ways for the two parties to integrate goals under a larger umbrella. (integrative) 147.

Mediation, arbitration and other ways of resolving conflicts with the help of a specially trained third party without need for a formal trial or hearing is called _____________ ____________________. (Alternative Disputesolution) 148.

___________ is a process where an outside third party enters the situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. (Mediation)

149.

The conflict resolution process where a neutral third party listens to each side’s case and makes a binding decision is called ___________. (arbitration) 150.

If your counterpart feels you are being __________ in your negotiations, he is less likely to make any concessions. (unethical or dishonest or unfair) 151.

The social issues of _________ and ____ derailed the PointCast deal and are among the most difficult aspects of negotiating mergers today. (ego, corporate pride) SHORT ANSWERS 152.

Briefly describe the “social issues” that were identified in relation to negotiating that kept firms such as PointCast from reaching agreement. The chapter opens with a description of PointCast, one of the Silicon Valley’s hottest start-ups on the 1990s, in merger negotiations with Rupert Murdoch’s News Corporation. Though media speculation valued PointCast at $750 million, Murdoch offered a package of $450 million that PointCast rejected. Subsequent decisions to go public also failed and ultimately, PointCast was sold for $7 million. The missed opportunity is often cited as one of the biggest mistakes in Internet history and is largely credited to the social issues of ego and corporate pride which created conflict in the initial merger negotiations. Apparently PointCast CEO Christopher Hassett believed the hype about his firm and was unwilling to alter his perception during negotiations. Social issues can get in the way of fruitful negotiations and produce painful lessons.

153.

Name the three types of conflict and briefly describe each. Conflict is the process that involves people disagreeing. The three types of conflict include intrapersonal conflict (which arises in a person due to uncertainty about what is wanted or expected or when you feel inadequate to perform a task), interpersonal conflict (which is conflict between individuals sometimes due to personality or competition differences), and intergroup conflict (which occurs between groups like union and management or different departments within the same firm).

154.

Describe the nature of the relationship that exists between conflict and performance in organizations. Conflict in an organization is not always bad. Research tends to suggest that both low and high levels of conflict lead to lower performance. Moderate conflict, on the other hand, leads to higher levels of performance. The moderate conflict is viewed as optimal because it creates a situation where there is healthy debate on

ideas, stimulating, for example, creativity. In general, personal conflict is never healthy, but others, like task conflict can be beneficial to the firm. 155.

Describe two root causes of conflict at work. Six root causes of workplace conflict are: organizational structure, limited resources, task interdependence, incompatible goals, personality differences and communication problems. An organizational structure like a matrix can present workplace conflict because it has each manager reporting to two bosses while a bureaucratic structure has different levels of people with different power creating high-power and low-power clashes. Limited resources like money create conflict around budget time when an increase in one department’s budget will necessitate a decrease in a second department’s budget. Task interdependence creates conflict when the output of one individual is the input of another. If the first individual delays his output, he has negatively impacted another. Incompatible goals create conflict when two parties believe their goals to be mutually exclusive and then end up being connected in some manner. For example, compensation systems often reward salespeople for the amount of sales they make regardless of the production department’s ability to fill those orders. Personality differences are the most common basis of conflict in the organization. Type A and Type B personalities often do not mix when work needs to be completed on a deadline. Communication problems also create conflict. Dealing with people who do not return phone calls can be very trying for many individuals.

156.

What are two positive and two negative outcomes of conflict? Positive conflict outcomes include: considering a broader range of ideas resulting in a stronger idea; bringing forward assumptions that may be inaccurate or invalid; increasing participation or creativity; and clarifying individual views. Negative outcomes of conflict include: increased stress and anxiety which decreases productivity and satisfaction; the feeling of defeat or detachment that some people experience which lowers their morale; and the development of a climate of distrust which hinders teamwork and cooperation.

157.

What are some of the conditions or factors that increase the risk of an employee experiencing workplace violence on the job? Two general categories of situations increase your risk of experiencing workplace violence: dealing with people and being in high-risk situations.

In dealing with people, circumstances like caring for others either emotionally or physically, interacting with frustrated customers, supervising other and denying requests others make of you increases your chances of experiencing workplace violence. Being in high-risk situations like dealing with valuables and money; handling weapons; working with drugs, alcohol or those under the influences of either of them; and working nights and weekends increases your chances of experiencing workplace violence. 158.

Describe two ways in which organizational conflict can be managed. Change the structure: When a structure in an organization is dysfunctional, as when a firm uses a matrix and there is confusion as to which of two bosses a manager should attend to first, then the structure may need to be altered. Change the team composition: When team members clash repeatedly, it may be a good idea to change one or two team members to ensure greater harmony. Create a common opposing force: When two work groups within a department are clashing over, for example, funding, a manager could divert their anger toward each other by focusing their attention on another department entirely which received substantial funding increases in the last budget cycle. Consider majority rule: When group members are disagreeing over ideas, take a vote and the idea with the most support wins. Problem solve: A common approach, the problem solving approach gets group members to focus on the task and not on the people involved so that the root cause of the problem is found.

159.

List and briefly describe each of the five conflict handling styles. Avoidance is where the individual is uncooperative and unassertive. The person practicing this conflict resolution style denies conflict is there. Accommodation is where the individual is cooperative and unassertive. The person gives in to what the other side wants even if it means giving up personal goals. Compromise is a middle ground style where individuals express their own concerns and want to get their own way, but respect the other person’s goals. Competition is where the person wants to reach his goal regardless of what others say or feel. Collaboration is the style high in both assertiveness and cooperation. This is the strategy that tends to be most effective in the most different conflict situations.

160.

List the steps in the negotiation process.

Investigate, determine your best alternative to a negotiated agreement, present, bargain, and close. 161.

Briefly describe the two major types of negotiation strategies. The distributive approach to negotiation is the fixed pie approach where if one department increases its budget, another department’s budget is cut. The integrative approach to negotiation is a more creative approach where both parties look for ways to integrate their goals under a larger umbrella.

162.

List and describe two common mistakes made in negotiation. Failing to negotiate or taking the first offer: Research indicates that women are less likely to negotiate their starting salary than men and that this may be a contributing factor to the lower salaries women receive than their male counterparts. Letting your ego get in the way: PointCast is a classic example of a firm that could have been part of a successful merger until its CEO let his ego do the talking and the deal was squelched. Having unrealistic expectations: In labor contract negotiations, the unrealistic expectations often set forth in the initial contract proposal by the union are called “pie in the sky” demands. Getting overly emotional: Anger never serves anyone when negotiating. Bargaining should involve the task or issue at hand and not the personalities involved. Letting past negative outcomes affect the present ones: Research indicates that those who have been less successful in past negotiations tend to have lower outcomes than those who had successfully negotiated deals in the past.

163.

Describe two alternative dispute resolution techniques. Mediation is the process where a neutral third party enters a stalled negotiation to assist the parties involved in getting back on track. The mediator works with both parties to reach a solution without representing either side. Arbitration is the process where a neutral third party listens to each party’s side in a dispute and then renders a decision. In most cases the decision is said to be binding, which means both parties must adhere to it.

ESSAY 164.

Janice is a new manager for XYZ Corporation. She is about to attend two weeks of management training. The first topic she will examine is that of conflict and its management. You are the instructor for the conflict seminar. Describe the types

of conflict Janice and other managers may face in the workplace, their underlying causes and some strategies for managing those conflicts in the workplace. There are three types of conflict that should be noted at the outset of the seminar session. The three are: intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup conflict. Intrapersonal conflict arises when an individual does not know what is expected or wanted of him in the workplace or where he feels inadequate to perform a task. Perceived lack of trust of the employee, role ambiguity and role conflict are causes of intrapersonal conflict. Clarifying the employee’s role and empowering him with various responsibilities are two viable options for managing this type of conflict in the workplace. Interpersonal conflict is likely the most common form in the workplace. Personality differences are a key cause of such conflict. Problem solving approaches that focus attention on the task or issue at hand and not on the personalities are two options to consider in dealing with this type of conflict. If neither of those works, there is always the possibility that a manager should consider moving or removing one of the personalities from his department. Intergroup conflict is often found between groups in a single department or between departments in a workplace. In unionized settings in the United States, the union and management tend to have longstanding adversarial relations. One effective way of dealing with intergroup conflict is to create a common “enemy” for the clashing parties. Diverting their attention from each other and refocusing it on an outside group can actually result in more cooperation among group members and ultimately, a more cohesive group. 165.

Angelo is the new superintendent of the school district. In his first two weeks on the job he makes it a point to talk to every staff and faculty member as well as key stakeholders in the community and those who interact with the district on a regular basis. His assessment after those interviews is that the district is conflictridden. Seemingly everywhere he turns intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup conflicts are found. Discuss how he can get his arms around this situation and begin to manage some of the conflicts he is encountering. Angelo needs to determine the root causes of the conflicts. Such root causes can cover a wide spectrum but some common ones are: organizational structure, limited resources, task interdependence, incompatible goals, personality differences and communication problems. Each of the root causes identified could take substantial time and effort to address, but identification is always the first step. If organizational structure seems to be an issue, Angelo might consider changing it. He needs to understand how authority really flows in the district as well as how communication and decision making flows. Once that is assessed, the nature of changes needed may be obvious. Limited resources are always an issue regardless of the nature of the organization, but Angelo may want to consider getting a clear handle on what each department’s budget is and how such budgets are determined yearly. He

may want to institute some changes in identification of new spending items separating out, for example, those items basic to the educational process and required by law and those discretionary that enhance the curriculum. Task interdependence may be an issue in the staff areas. Again, a thorough assessment of what jobs’ outputs become the inputs for other jobs and the timing of each could lead to the redesign of some jobs for enhanced efficiency and effectiveness. Incompatible goals and communication problems could be intertwined. Understanding how information is disseminated to employees in the district may indicate a very haphazard pattern. Some of the information partially or incompletely disseminated may be the district and individual goals. When that information is clarified and input appropriately received and processed, both problems may be addressed. Personality differences are the common denominator in the conflicts of many organizations. Focusing employee attention on the task and not the personalities involved is always the first step but sometimes that proves to provide only temporary relief and the ultimate step of moving or removing individuals must be assessed. 166.

Nejah and Omar are two supervisors in the production department of a manufacturing firm. The two have known each other since high school intensely dislike each other and their animosity repeatedly spills over into the workplace. Kareem is the production department manager. After yesterday’s five-minute shouting match between Nejah and Omar on the factory floor with the production crew looking on, Kareem is at wit’s end. Using the conflict handling style grid as a focal point, discuss what style Kareem might use to handle this situation. Kareem might have used the avoidance style of conflict handling to have allowed this situation to escalate to this point. In short, he may have denied that the two individuals had a personality conflict or simply delayed handling it because it was so longstanding he felt it would resolve itself as it had in the past. Kareem might want to consider collaboration or compromise as his conflict handling style with Omar and Nejah but it will take time and patience to use either because of how much ill-will has built up between the two. In compromise, Kareem will need to find a middle ground for the two where he accounts for and assists the pair in recognizing the desires of each and how those wants can be expressed and then both rescinded a bit. Kareem must be cautious in making sure each party gives in the same amount as the other and that each party accepts and perceives the fallback in position to be equivalent. An alternative approach to this conflict scenario might be collaboration. In this scenario both parties will argue for their respective positions, personalities taken out of the mix, supporting each position with facts and rationale. Then, with Kareem’s oversight, both sides will attempt to secure a win-win situation. Again the time and effort Kareem might invest in trying such a conflict resolution needs to be considered. The competition style of conflict handling would not be effective in this scenario since the two parties involved are already competitive. Adding Kareem’s

competitive style would only make it seem like he is playing favorites further escalating the situation. The accommodation style may also prove to be less effective in this scenario since it involves one side giving up a personal goal to facilitate the other. Since the feud between these two is so long-standing, this style might take so much time to initiate and carry through to fruition that it is a pointless exercise. 167.

The Challenger incident is widely recognized as a situation of groupthink at NASA. While some testing had indicated potential concerns with cold weather and the sustainability and performance of “O-rings” in the shuttle design, the desire of NASA executives to meet a timetable for budgetary and public relations reasons caused that information to not be properly presented in the debate over launch timing. What are some ways that NASA executives could stimulate conflict in such meetings to avoid future tragedies? Conflict can be stimulated by encouraging people to raise issues and disagree with the status quo without fear of any retribution or reprisal. The freedom to dissent without retribution must be a part of the organization culture. Written procedures ensuring such positive conflict outcomes are a good beginning but a conscious management of vital discussions by a manager in which such dissent is featured is also critical. Assign an employee a devil’s advocate role in all meetings. If you know that someone will always question the issue or the solution to it, you are more accepting and prepared for such dissent and it brings out the key inaccuracies in assumptions much faster. Create competition among teams or individuals with “prizes” or bonuses for those who come up with the best solution to a problem or issue. Rewards that are understood, attainable and appreciated are motivating. Build ambiguity into the process. When clarity is not found, questions are asked and those questions can stimulate greater creativity or pinpoint problematic areas.

168.

Mario is preparing to negotiate a marketing agreement for his product with an advertising firm. What are the key steps he should prepare for in that negotiation? At the outset, Mario needs to do some investigation and gather information. The better informed you are, the better bargaining position you place yourself in. In Mario’s case, he should begin by looking at his own goals. What does he want to get out of the negotiation? What can he achieve? What can he concede? His second step will be to develop his best alternative to a negotiated agreement or BATNA. The reason he is negotiating is to produce results that are better than what he could have obtained without negotiating, so what are those results? Thinking through his BATNA will assist him in ultimately deciding to go with the advertising firm or walk away for another option.

Mario must prepare for his presentation where he will bring together the information he has gathered in a manner that will support his position. The actual bargaining will be when the two parties meet to discuss their goals and attempt to reach an agreement. Mario must keep in mind that a regular part of such bargaining is making some concessions. His BATNA will guide him in assessing such concessions. Further, Mario must understand that he can ask questions during this phase to ensure he is getting the best deal for himself and to understand, possibly, why a deal is not made. Finally, the bargaining needs to come to a close either with an agreement or with one or the other party walking away. 169.

Clarissa is preparing for a meeting with a manager at a firm that has just offered her a job. Clarissa was approached by this firm while she was working for one of its competitors and the new firm has convinced her that she has greater opportunities there so she has tentatively accepted its offer contingent on salary negotiations. What advice would you offer to Clarissa to assist her in obtaining a higher salary from those negotiations? The first piece of advice to be offered to Clarissa is to negotiate! Research indicates that women are less likely to engage in negotiations over salary and less likely attain higher levels of salary than their male counterparts. To get to a higher level, Clarissa must negotiate. In order to negotiate, Clarissa must overcome any fears she might have of the process. Especially since she wants to go to this firm, she may be afraid of angering her manager before she even gets going in the new firm. That said, it doesn’t hurt to ask, particularly if you are prepared to defend your request. Get the facts. Make sure you have checked with various websites to understand what the market rate is. Clarissa does not want to over or undersell herself and her skill set in the market. Build your case. Clarissa must be very clear as to why she believes she is worth a specific dollar amount. She must clearly indicate what she will contribute to this firm and why she believes such a contribution is equate with a specific dollar figure. Know what you want: Clarissa must be clear on her salary goal and how set she is in that goal. If the new firm is unwilling to meet her salary demands, will she walk away? Don’t make the first offer. Clarissa should allow her new manager to initially name the starting figure. Negotiations generally work with one party starting high and the other countering. Listen more than talk. Clarissa may learn a lot by listening so temper your comments with periods when you listen to the new manager for best results.

170.

Antonio is preparing to negotiate his individual contract with a financial services firm. He is very nervous and does not want to shortchange himself. Provide him some advice for being successful at negotiations. Focus on securing an agreement. If the goal is an agreement, when an issue arises that might lead to an impasse, simply set it aside as something you agree to disagree on and address it later. Dealing with contentious issues at a later time or in a different environment often leads to their resolution. Be patient. If there is no deadline in place to reach an agreement by, be flexible. Recognize whose reality you are dealing with. Each side perceives their version of reality. Be clear on yours. Deadlines: If a deadline is established, negotiators tend to move toward agreement as that deadline approaches. Be comfortable with silence: After an offer or counteroffer is made, allow the other party to contemplate it. Do not expect an immediate response.

171.

Alemeda has just been hired by an aluminum maker to negotiate supply agreements between the aluminum firm and various international companies. What are some cultural issues that Alemeda should keep in mind as she begins negotiations? Alemeda should recognize that some cultures have a lower threshold for conflict than others. Countries like Japan and Korea, for example, prefer harmony to conflict. Americans and Germans, in contrast, have a higher tolerance for conflict as a way to work through issues. The nature of the relationship between negotiating parties also differs based upon the culture. Americans are prone to “getting right down to business” while negotiators in Japan and China must establish a friendly, trust-based relationship before bargaining. Consequently, Japanese negotiators, because of their high context culture are likely to look for patterns in what is not said as well as what is said during negotiations and factor those patterns into their offers. Similarly, the relationship between the negotiators impacts the view of the overall activity. Americans view the negotiation as a business activity while Brazilians see it as a social activity. In all cases, Alemeda must assess the cultural implications of negotiations before initiating the activity.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 11 Making Decisions TRUE/FALSE 1. All decisions have major consequences and require much thought. (False) 2. Decision making requires action as a solution. (False) 3. Programmed decisions are unique, creative decisions. (False) 4.

A decision rule is an automated response to a problem or issue that occurs frequently.

(True) 5.

An example of a nonprogrammed decision is deciding whether to merge with another firm.

(True) 6. Strategic decisions are usually made by middle level managers. (False) 7. Tactical decisions are those concerned with how things get done. (True) 8. The rational decision-making model limits the number of alternatives considered. (False) 9.

The first step of both the rational decision-making model and the creative decision-making process is to identify the problem.

(True) 10.

The most difficult step of the rational decision-making process is to establish the decision criteria.

(False) 11.

Analysis paralysis is when more and more time is spent on gathering information and thinking about it, but no decisions are made.

(True) 12. People are always interested in making an optimal decision. (False)

13. To satisfice is to accept the first alternative that meets minimum criteria. (True) 14. In the intuitive decision-making process, only one choice is considered at a time. (True) 15. Innovation and creativity are the same thing. (False) 16. Immersion is to conscious thought as incubation is to unconscious thought. (True) 17.

The three factors that evaluate the level of creativity in the decision-making process are fluency, flexibility, and originality.

(True) 18. Creativity is the interaction between personality traits, attributes, and serendipity. (False) 19.

While setting high idea quotas appears to logically maximize the effectiveness of brainstorming, in reality it has just the opposite effect.

(False) 20.

Wildstorming is a process where the group focuses on ideas that are impossible and then tries to imagine what would need to happen to make them possible.

(True) 21.

The intuitive decision-making model is best used when the decision maker has experience with the problem and there is time pressure.

(True) 22.

The rational decision-making process is best used when the decision is important and you are trying to maximize outcomes.

(True) 23. Crowdsourcing refers to outsourcing a problem to a large group. (True) 24. Hindsight bias is the opposite of framing bias. (False) 25.

Given research on anchoring bias, individuals are more likely to assume that more people die from car accidents as compared to stomach cancer.

(False) 26. Escalation of commitment is also known as “sunken cost fallacy.” (True)

27.

One way to avoid escalation of commitment is to have identifiable turning back points.

(True) 28.

Cliff and Beth both received poor grades on their finance exam. Because of the fundamental attribution error, Cliff is more likely to blame his poor test grade on a bad instructor, but blame Beth’s poor test grade on Beth’s lack of effort studying for the test.

(True) 29.

One of the pros of group decision making is the potential for greater commitment to the decision.

(True) 30.

Groupthink is one of the reasons cited for the tragedy of the Challenger space shuttle.

(True) 31. Group decisions regularly outperform the decision of the group’s best member. (False) 32.

Individual decision making produces a greater commitment to the ultimate decision than does group decision making.

(False) 33.

Groupthink is characterized by symptoms like questioning the morality of the group.

(False) 34.

Having a devil’s advocate in meetings is a technique that can help avoid groupthink.

(True) 35.

The nominal group technique involves using written responses to a series of questionnaires instead of physically bringing individuals together to make a decision.

(False) 36.

Research shows that consensus decision making is less accurate and can even make group members feel less satisfied with a decision.

(False) 37.

Group decision support systems could make employees more reluctant to share information due to lack of control.

(True) 38. Decision trees are helpful in avoiding errors due to overconfidence bias. (False)

39.

One basic question to ask to ascertain the ethics of a decision is: “How would I feel if this decision was broadcast on the news?”

(True) 40.

American managers tend to value quick decision making while Chinese managers favor more reflective decision making.

(True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Trusting Employees to Make Decisions: The Case of Microsoft

41.

(a) 42.

(b)

*What was the goal of the new mission statement that Satya Nadella implemented when he took the helm at Microsoft? a. To enable employees to make decisions for themselves b. To centralize decision making at the top management levels c. To become customer-centric d. To emphasize cost-saving measures Medium/Comprehension *Satya Nadella believed that Microsoft was suffering from a lack of what when he became CEO in 2014? a. fiscal responsibility b. management structure c. spontaneity and creativity d. customer appreciation Medium/Comprehension *The culture that Satya Nadella is working to create at Microsoft is one a. employees have a lot of perks and feel appreciated. b. where employees grow through experience and learn from their mistakes. c. in which managers lead by example. d. where fiscal responsibility is all that matters. Medium/Comprehension

Section I: Understanding Decision Making 44.

(a) 45.

Making choices among alternative courses of action, including inaction, is a. decision making. b. programmed decisions. c. satisficing. d. Consensus. Easy/Knowledge Programmed decisions are a. unique, nonroutine, and important, requiring conscious thinking, information gathering and careful consideration of alternatives.

b. c.

(d)

decisions that are made to set the course of an organization. a set of parameters against which all of the potential options in decision making will be evaluated. d. ones which occur frequently enough that an automated response is developed for them. Easy/Knowledge

Mark works as the frozen food manager in a major grocery store chain. When his stock of two-pound bags of frozen shrimp gets down to two cases, he e-mails his warehouse to send ten cases to restock. 46.

(c)

The type of decision Mark is making about restocking shrimp is a a. strategic decision. b. nonprogrammed decision. c. programmed decision. d. tactical decision. Medium/Application

(b) 48.

The “automated” ordering of ten cases when supply gets to two cases in the store is called a(n) a. consensus decision. b. decision rule. c. alternative. d. anchor. Medium/Application A unique, nonroutine, important decision requiring conscious thinking, information gathering, and careful consideration of alternatives is a(n) a. programmed decision. b. operational decision. c. nonprogrammed decision. d. decision rule. Easy/Knowledge In 2003, six people died from Hepatitis A and 660 were sickened after eating at Chi Chi’s, a popular Mexican restaurant in suburban Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania. In the days following the first death, the CEO of the Chi Chi’s chain made a decision to have all restaurant workers and the restaurant itself tested to determine what established the dangerous conditions. (Eventually the hepatitis outbreak was traced to the green onions in the firm’s salsa.) The decision to order such testing in the crisis situation is an example of a. b. c. d.

a programmed decision. a nonprogrammed decision. a decision rule. a tactical decision.

(b)

Medium/Application

50.

Strategic decisions refer to a. those that make the organization run on a daily basis. b. how things get done. c. those setting the course of the organization. d. those that occur frequently enough to have an automated response to them. Easy/Knowledge

(d) 52.

(a) 54.

(b) 56.

Who is most responsible for making strategic decisions? a. managers b. engineers c. low-level employees d. CEOs, executives, boards of directors Medium/Knowledge An example of a question requiring a strategic decision is a. How often should I communicate with my new coworkers? b. How should we market the new product line? c. Should we downsize our organization? d. What should I say to customers about our new product? Medium/Comprehension A decision which centers on how things get done is a(n) a. tactical decision. b. strategic decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision. Easy/Comprehension Tactical decisions are generally made by a. CEOs. b. engineers. c. managers. d. Boards of Directors. Medium/Knowledge Which of the following questions would require a tactical decision in response? a. Should we takeover our competitor? b. How should we market the new product line? c. What should I say to the customers about our return policy? d. How will I balance my master’s degree workload with my work assignments? Medium/Comprehension Operational decisions refer to a. those things that employees do each day to make the organization run. b. things that might happen in the future. c. those that set the course of the organization.

d. (a) 57.

(b) 59.

(a) 61.

(c)

those that occur frequently enough to develop an automated response to them. Medium/Knowledge Operational decisions are typically made by a. managers. b. top management teams. c. employees throughout the organization. d. CEOs. Medium/Comprehension An example of a question requiring an operational decision in response is: a. Should we consider a merger with our biggest competitor? b. How often do I go back to the stockroom to get additional products for display? c. Should we develop a new corporate structure? d. Which advertising firm should we choose for our fall advertising campaign? Medium/Analysis Antonio, Alpha Company’s marketing manager, will be listening to the advertising pitches from the final four firms today as he chooses the television ad campaign for his product for the fall season. Antonio is making a(n) a. programmed decision. b. strategic decision. c. tactical decision. d. operational decision. Difficult/Application Doris and Lydia are members of the Board of Directors at Beta Corporation. They are giving very serious consideration to voting to merge their company with Zeta Company for enhanced efficiency, effectiveness and competitive advantage. Doris and Lydia are making a(n) a. strategic decision. b. tactical decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision. Medium/Application Claudia is a salesperson with a major department store chain that is currently running a “secret coupon sale.” The program allows the salesperson to randomly award a savings coupon to any shopper of the salesperson’s choice. Who the salesperson chooses to award the coupon to is a(n) a. strategic decision. b. tactical decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision. Medium/Application

62.

(b) 63.

(d) 64.

(b) 66.

A series of steps that decision makers should consider if their goal is to maximize their outcome and make the best choice describes a. the bounded rationality model. b. the rational decision-making model. c. the intuitive decision-making model. d. the creative decision-making model. Easy/Comprehension If the goal of your decision making is to make the optimum decision or make the best choice, you should utilize a. the bounded rationality model of decision making. b. the intuitive decision-making model. c. the creative decision-making model. d. the rational decision making model. Medium/Comprehension When the goal of the decision making exercise is to make a satisfactory decision with time, you should utilize a. the rational decision-making model. b. the intuitive decision-making model. c. the bounded rationality decision-making model. d. the creative decision-making model. Medium/Comprehension The bounded rationality decision-making model a. describes a series of steps that decision makers should consider if their goal is to maximize their outcome and make the best choice. b. recognizes the limitations of decision making processes by having individuals knowingly limit their options to a manageable set and choose the best alternative without conducting an exhaustive search of alternatives. c. refers to arriving at decisions without conscious reasoning, arguing that experts make decisions by scanning the environment for cues to recognize patterns. d. refers to arriving at decisions after first gathering information about the problem and then setting the problem consciously aside until an insightful solution to the problem arises. Medium/Knowledge The creative decision-making process a. describes a series of steps that decision makers should consider if their goal is to maximize their outcome and make the best choice. b. recognizes the limitations of decision making processes by having individuals knowingly limit their options to a manageable set and choose the best alternative without conducting an exhaustive search of alternatives. c. refers to arriving at decisions without conscious reasoning, arguing that experts make decisions by scanning the environment for cues to recognize patterns.

d. (d) 67.

(a) 69.

(b) 70.

refers to arriving at decisions after first gathering information about the problem and then setting the problem consciously aside until an insightful solution to the problem arises. Medium/Knowledge The decision-making process where decisions are arrived at without conscious reasoning, arguing that experts make decisions by scanning the environment for cues to recognize patterns is a. the creative decision-making model. b. the bounded rationality model. c. the intuitive decision-making model. d. the rational decision-making model. Medium/Comprehension Jennifer has to decide which of two job offers she is going to choose. She begins her process by listing the key criteria she is looking for in a job including salary level, location, promotional opportunities, and so on. She then takes each job offer letter and carefully goes through each line assessing the offer in relationship to the criteria she has established. Jennifer is using which of decision-making model to choose her job? a. the rational decision-making model b. the creative decision-making model c. the intuitive decision-making model d. the programmed decision-making model Medium/Application Which is the first step in the rational decision-making model? a. Establish decision criteria. b. Identify the problem. c. Weigh decision criteria. d. Generate alternatives. Easy/Comprehension What is the most challenging or difficult step in the rational decision-making process? a. Identify the problem. b. Establish decision criteria. c. Generate alternatives. d. Evaluate alternatives. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the rational decision-making model is accurate? a. The decision maker should generate alternatives before establishing criteria. b. The decision maker should make certain to clearly identify alternatives before undertaking any other step. c. Successful managers tend to be clear on what they want at the outset of the decision making process.

d. (c) 72.

(b) 74.

(b) 76.

One research study indicated that alternative generation occurred in 85% of the decisions examined. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following is an unrealistic assumption made in the rational decision making model? a. People often don’t understand the decision to be made. b. People know few of their available choices. c. People want to make optimal decisions. d. People have perceptual biases. Medium/Analysis The availability of too much information leading to more and more time being spent on gathering information and thinking about it, resulting in no decisions being made is a. satisficing. b. analysis paralysis. c. wildstorming. d. anchoring. Easy/Knowledge To satisfice is to a. generate new ideas that are original, fluent and flexible. b. set parameters against which all of the potential options can be evaluated. c. accept the first alternative that meets your general criteria. d. be influenced by the way in which problems are framed. Easy/Knowledge Anita finishes her college semester on April 15. She will be home from April 15 until May 20 when she is scheduled to have her wisdom teeth removed. She will be going on a family vacation during the third week in July and will be returning to school on August 10 for majorette camp. Anita is looking for a job for the summer. She figures she will take the first job that pays minimum wage and will allow her flexibility for her dental appointment and vacation. Anita is making a decision using the a. rational decision-making model. b. bounded rationality decision-making model. c. intuitive decision-making model. d. creative decision-making model. Medium/Application Susan is a paramedic for the county ambulance service. Yesterday there was a terrible accident on the interstate when a bus carrying senior citizens to an Atlantic City casino was struck by a small dump truck as the truck tried to change lanes. Fifteen of the bus riders were killed and 25 injured. As Susan arrived on the scene to perform triage on the accident victims, she quickly made decisions as to which victims needed immediate care and who could wait. Susan was using what decision-making model in making these stressful decisions? a. bounded rationality model of decision making

(b) 79.

(b) 80.

(b) 81.

b. creative decision-making model c. intuitive decision-making model d. rational decision-making model Difficult/Evaluation Experts make decisions in the intuitive decision-making models based on a. climate. b. mood. c. experience. d. analysis. Medium/Comprehension The incubation step in the creative decision-making process refers to a. the step where the decision maker consciously thinks about the problem. b. the step where the decision maker sets the problem aside and does not consciously think of it. c. the step where the decision maker gains insight into the problem and has a “eureka” moment. d. the step where the decision maker verifies the feasibility of the solution and implements the decision. Medium/Knowledge Which of the following statements about the creative decision-making model is accurate? a. Innovation is the generation of new, imaginative ideas. b. The dynamic nature of today’s organizations, including structural changes and cost cutting, have driven creativity in the business. c. Problem identification is the last step in the creative decision making model. d. Innovation and creativity are the same process. Medium/Analysis Which of the following is the correct order of the phases in the creative decisionmaking model? a. Problem identification, incubation, immersion, illumination, verification and application. b. Problem identification, immersion, incubation, illumination, verification and application. c. Problem identification, illumination, immersion, incubation, verification and application. d. Problem identification, illumination, incubation, immersion, verification and application. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following make up the three factors that researchers focus on to evaluate the level of creativity in the decision making process? a. fluency, flexibility, innovation b. agility, fluency, originality c. fluency, flexibility, originality d. originality, agility, innovation

(c)

Easy/Knowledge

82.

The creativity level evaluation factor of fluency refers to a. how different the ideas are from one another. b. the number of ideas a person is able to generate. c. how unique a person’s ideas are. d. the set number of ideas a group must reach. Easy/Knowledge

(b) 83.

(a) 85.

(d) 86.

(d) 87.

Experts propose that creativity occurs as a result of the interaction between all of the following factors EXCEPT a. situational context (like physical structure). b. personality traits (like risk-taking). c. serendipity or luck. d. attributes (like expertise). Medium/Comprehension To enhance organizational creativity, a manager might consider focusing on a. team composition. b. employee pay. c. technical training. d. use of attainable goals. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is a way to enhance organizational creativity? a. Promote brainstorming as a way to generate ideas. b. Build a physical space conducive to creativity. c. Role model creative behavior. d. All of the above. Medium/Analysis Which of the following would be a good piece of advice to offer a company that is trying to enhance organizational creativity? a. Ensure team stability by keeping team membership intact for extended periods of time. b. Reduce task significance. c. Increase task conflict from moderate to high. d. Incorporate creative behavior into the performance appraisal process. Medium/Analysis Which decision-making model would you use when your goals are unclear, there is time pressure, and you have experience with the problem? a. the rational decision making model b. bounded rational model c. intuitive decision making model d. creative decision making model Medium/Evaluation The bounded rationality model should be used to make decisions when a. the minimum criteria are clear.

(a) 89.

(d) 90.

(b) 91.

(b) 93.

(b)

b. the decision is important. c. there is time pressure. d. new solutions need to be generated. Medium/Evaluation If you do not have relevant expertise in the issues to make a decision, you should avoid using which decision making model? a. bounded rationality decision-making b. rational decision-making model c. creative decision-making d. intuitive decision-making Medium/Evaluation *The parameters that can be used to evaluate all possible options are the a. rational markers b. decision criteria c. alternative criteria d. default steps Easy/Knowledge *Emma is ready to buy new tires for her car, and she finds a great sale. However, after she analyzes the brand of tire she wants for two weeks and whether she needs snow tires too, the tires are no longer on sale. Emma lost out on the sale because of a. bad timing b. bad retailers c analysis paralysis d. deficient market functions Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a step in the creative decision making process? a. Immersion b. Intervention c. Incubation d. Illumination Easy/Knowledge *The SCAMPER framework offers the options to spur creativity using ________ put to other uses, eliminate, rearrange. a. submit, change, adjust, manipulate b. substitute, combine, adapt, modify c. sweeten, combine, adjust, magnify d. submit, change, alter, minimize Easy/Knowledge

Section II: Faulty Decision Making 94.

Individuals are influenced in their decision making by which of the following biases?

(d) 95.

(d) 96.

(d) 97.

(b) 98.

(d) 99.

a. Escalation of commitment b. Anchoring c. Framing bias d. All of the above Easy/Knowledge Overconfidence bias a. is the tendency of decision makers to be influenced by the way that problems are framed. b. occurs when looking backward in time where mistakes seem obvious after they have already occurred. c. refers to the tendency for individuals to rely too heavily on a single piece of information. d. occurs when individuals overestimate their ability to predict future events. Easy/Knowledge Sara’s laptop started causing her problems. It was taking a long time to boot up, and froze unexpectedly a number of times. Now the laptop has shut down completely and she cannot get it started up again. One of the group members on her project said to Sara, “You should have gone for help when it started acting up, now you’ve affected all of us.” This scenario is an example of what type of decision-making trap? a. framing bias b. anchoring c. overconfidence bias d. hindsight bias Difficult/Application A movie called the “Money Pit” starring Tom Hanks and Shelley Long focused on the couple buying a house and continually having to spend money repairing one part of it after another. A number of times they should have sold the house, but they kept thinking that if they did just one more thing, the house would be great. This is situation is an example of what decision-making trap? a. anchoring b. escalation of commitment c. framing bias d. overconfidence bias Medium/Application The tendency for decision makers to be influenced by the way that a situation or problem is presented is a. escalation of commitment. b. anchoring. c. overconfidence bias. d. framing bias. Easy/Knowledge Escalation of commitment occurs because a. decision makers do not want to admit they were wrong. b. strict “turn back” points have been established.

(a) 100.

(b) 101.

(a) 102.

(d) 103.

(d) 104.

(d) 105.

c. persistence pays off. d. decision makers lack personal pride. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding the judgments about correlation and causality bias? a. A correlation rules out other potential causes. b. A correlation between two variables is not evidence for causality. c. Temporal order indicates causality. d. An association between two variables is evidence for causality. Difficult/Evaluation *Individuals have flawed decision making processes are because of a. cognitive biases b. lunarl biases c. banking biases d. foundational biases Easy/Knowledge *Selecting a new computer based on a low price without analyzing what software, warranties, and peripherals come with it is an example of a. availability bias. b. framing bias. c. escalation of commitment bias. d. anchoring and adjustment bias. Medium/Comprehension *Indira thought her nose piercing was really unique, but after she got it, she noticed that so many other people on campus had nose piercings too. She is experiencing a. anchoring and adjustment bias. b. framing bias. c. escalation of commitment bias. d. availability bias. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a reason escalation of commitment bias would occur? a. People don’t want to admit they are wrong. b. People believe that if they just devote more time/money/energy they can recover their losses. c. People want to preserve their reputation. d. People observe that what is more readily available is more likely to occur. Medium/Comprehension *Sandi’s Bakery started selling out of their muffins. Sandi thought that it was because she changed the recipe slightly and now her customer’s loved the muffins. (Actually, it was because Pablo at ABC Trucking promised to bring muffins for a month if the drivers all made their deliveries on time.) Sandi experienced a(n) a. framing bias. b. correlation and causality bias.

(b) 106.

(c)

c. availability bias. d. misunderstanding and sampling bias. Medium/Comprehension *Tomas was excited because Sandi’s Bakery was offering buy one-get one free on their tasty eclairs so he bought a dozen. Last week, the eclairs were 50% off and he didn’t buy any. Tomas experienced a. correlation and causality bias. b. availability bias. c. framing bias. d. overconfidence bias. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Decision Making in Groups 107.

(a) 108.

(b) 109.

(b) 110.

(a) 111.

One advantage of group decision making over individual decision is a. the decision is more creative. b. accountability is easier to determine. c. the decision-making process is more efficient. d. the implementation of the decision is more difficult. Medium/Analysis The tendency to avoid a critical evaluation of ideas that the group favors is called a. anchoring. b. groupthink. c. analysis paralysis. d. wildstorming. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is true for group decision making? a. Group decision making is faster than individual decision making. b. Groups often perform lower than the best individual in the group. c. Groups make it easier to achieve accountability for decisions. d. Groups generate fewer ideas than individuals. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following is a symptom of groupthink? a. collective rationalizations b. illusion of vulnerability c. direct time pressure d. illusions of diversity Difficult/Analysis The decision-making technique designed to help with group decision making by ensuring that all members participate fully is a. majority rule. b. consensus. c. the Delphi technique.

(d) 112.

(b) 113.

(c)

d. the nominal group technique. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding techniques for making better decisions is accurate? a. The nominal group technique is a technique used routinely at most meetings. b. Consensus requires more time to carry out, but it works well when support is needed for a plan. c. The GDSS technique is a group process using written responses to a series of questionnaires so individuals are not physically brought together to make a decision. d. Majority rule is the most common type of group decision making strategy. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements regarding group decision support systems (GDSS) is accurate? a. GDSS could make employees eager to share information. b. GDSS could become too simple. c. GDSS improves the output of group collaborative work through higher information sharing. d. GDSS avoids all possibilities of information overload. Difficult/Analysis

Section IV: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 114.

(d) 115.

(d)

Which of the following is a guideline in determining whether a decision is ethical? a. Will I feel better or worse about myself after I make this decision? b. Does the decision break any organizational rules? c. Is the decision fair? d. All of the above Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding decision-making styles in other cultures is correct? a. Chinese managers value quicker decision making more than their American counterparts. b. Though they use consensus group decision making, the Japanese make much faster decisions than Dutch decision makers. c. Dutch managers tend to complete consensus decision making much more than their Japanese counterparts. d. Japanese managers using consensus decision making implement those decisions much faster than other cultures. Medium/Evaluation

Closing Section: Decisions, Decisions: The Case of Angry Birds

116.

(a) 117.

(b)

*In order to successfully bring Mikael back to the rebuild Rovio, Niklas had to a. manage the father-son conflict. b. get Mikael out of rehab. c. convince the stockholders it was a good idea. d. offer the employees a bonus. Easy/Knowledge *The release of Angry Birds was helped by a change in the gaming industry with a. Nintendo becoming the dominant player. b. more women wanting to play games. c. Apple revolutionizing games through iPhones and iTunes. d. the release of PlayStation. Medium/Comprehension The success of the game Angry Birds was in part attributed to the company’s decision to a. change the color of the birds. b. focus on local, smaller markets before trying to enter the US and UK. c. give the game complex rules to follow. d. pilot test the game with teenagers. Easy/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 119.

______________ is making choices among alternative courses of action including inaction. (Decision making) 120.

__________ decisions occur frequently and have automated responses developed for them, while ___________ decisions are unique and require conscious thinking, information gathering and careful alternative generation. (Programmed, nonprogrammed) 121. Automated responses that we use to make decisions are called _____________. (decision rules) 122.

___________ decisions set the course for an organization and are made by CEOs, while ______________ decisions are those that make the organization run and are made daily by employees. (Strategic, operational) 123.

“How should we market the new product line?” is an example of a ____________ decision made by managers. (tactical) 124.

When a decision is important and outcomes need to be maximized, use the _________________________ to make your decision. (rational decision-making model)

125.

The ___________________________________ recognizes the limitations of the decision-making process and thus the tendency of individuals to satisfice in their decisions. (bounded rationality decision-making model) 126.

When time pressures arise, as when a life or death situation occurs, and an individual has expertise in the area, the __________________________ is often used to make decisions. (intuitive decision-making model) 127. The generation of new, imaginative ideas is ___________. (creativity) 128.

The phase of the creative decision-making process where the individual sets the problem aside and does not consciously think about it for a while is the ________________ phase. (incubation) 129.

The insightful or “eureka” moment in the creative decision-making process is the ___________ phase. (illumination) 130.

In assessing the level of creativity in the decision-making process, ______ is the number of ideas a person is able to generate. (fluency) 131.

_________________ refers to the extent to which ideas generated in the creative decision-making process are different from one another. (Flexibility) 132.

The uniqueness of ideas generated during the creative decision-making process is _______________. (originality) 133.

Some experts suggest that creativity is the interaction among the three factors of _______________, ________________, and ________________. (personality traits, attributes, situational context) 134.

Ideas for enhancing organizational creativity focus on team composition, team process, ________ and ____________. (leadership, culture) 135.

The group process of generating ideas that follow a set of guidelines including no criticism of ideas during the process, the notion that no idea is too crazy, and that builds on other ideas is _______________. (brainstorming) 136.

Since research suggests that the quantity of ideas leads to better quality ideas in the end, setting ______________________ where the group must reach a set number of ideas before they are done brainstorming is a recommended practice. (high idea quotas)

137.

_______________ is a variation on brainstorming where the group focuses on ideas that are impossible and then imagines what would need to happen to make them possible. (Wildstorming) 138.

__________ refers to outsourcing a problem to a large group, and has been used successfully by companies like Netflix. (Crowdsourcing) 139.

A decision-making trap where people overestimate their ability to predict future events is called ____________________. (overconfidence bias) 140.

When you say, “I know I should have taken this car in for service when I first heard the noises, and now it’s just quit on me,” you are exhibiting the decisionmaking trap, ______________. (hindsight bias) 141.

Maria relied on knowing what an outstanding worker Gordon was to hire Gordon’s sister for the entry-level position. Gordon’s sister is very unreliable. Maria fell into the decision-making trap of _______________ in making her hiring decision. (anchoring) 142.

The tendency for people to focus on television ads that say, “Medicine X is 60% effective in reducing symptoms” does not look at the fact that that statement means that “Medicine X fails to reduce those symptoms 40% of the time.” This tendency is called ___________________. (framing bias) 143.

The old adage, “Don’t throw good money after bad” is another way to describe the decision-making trap of _____________________ also known as the “sunken costs fallacy.” (escalation of commitment) 144.

Research suggests that _____________ decision making offers fewer ideas than ________ decision making. (individual, group) 145.

___________ is the collective pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the team making flawed decisions by leading to a reduction in mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment. (Groupthink) 146.

One of the symptoms of ________ is the illusion of invulnerability which, when shared by all team members, creates excessive optimism and encourages them to take extreme risks. (groupthink)

147.

The ___________________ is a tool designed to help group decision making by ensuring that all members participate fully. (nominal group technique) 148.

The ______________ is a group process using written responses to a series of questionnaires instead of physically bringing individuals together to make a decision. (Delphi technique) 149.

When the goal is to gain support for a particular idea or plan of action, the _______ form of decision should be used as it is inclusive, participatory, cooperative and democratic in nature. (consensus) 150.

An interactive computer-based system that combines communication and decision technologies to help groups make better decisions is a _________ ________________________. (group decision support system) 151.

A _________________ is a diagram where answers to yes or no questions lead decision makers to address additional questions until they reach the end of the tree. (decision tree) 152.

In Japan, nemawashi refers to building _______________ within a group before a decision is made. (consensus) SHORT ANSWERS 153.

What is the difference between a programmed and a nonprogrammed decision? Give an example of each. A programmed decision is a decision that occurs frequently enough that an automated response is developed for it. A nonprogrammed decision is one that is unique and requires conscious thinking, information gathering and careful consideration of alternatives. An example of a programmed decision is when a restaurant automatically reorders napkins and placemats for use in the restaurant when the stock of those items gets to, for example, two cases in the stockroom. A nonprogrammed decision might be when a firm faces a crisis situation as when Procter and Gamble was faced with allegations that its corporate logo was supportive of the devil and had to address such charges.

154.

Give an example of a strategic decision and indicate who usually makes it. A strategic decision sets the course for the organization. An example of a strategic decision is to decide whether you should acquire another company or

not. Strategic decisions are made by CEOs, boards of directors, or other top level teams. 155.

Give an example of a tactical decision and indicate who makes it. A tactical decision is focused on how things get done. An example is how to market a new product. Tactical decisions are made by managers.

156.

Give an example of an operational decision and indicate who makes it. An operational decision is made by employees throughout the organization and refers to decisions that employees make each day to make the organization run. An example is when an employee is expected to visit the stockroom in a retail establishment.

157.

Compare the rational decision-making and the bounded rationality model. The rational decision-making model is a series of steps that decision makers consider if their goal is to maximize the quality of their outcomes. The optimal outcome desired creates a need to thoroughly examine alternatives. The bounded rationality model recognizes the limitations of searching for alternatives and suggests that decision makers often satisfice, accepting the first alternative that meets minimum criteria because an exhaustive search is not possible.

158.

Differentiate between the intuitive and creative decision-making processes. The intuitive decision-making process is one where experts scan the environment for cues and once a pattern is discerned, choose a course of action based upon their experience. The creative decision-making process is one where problem identification is followed by immersion, incubation and then illumination and finally verified and applied. The creative process is characterized by the incubation period where the problem is set aside for a time period and illumination is the “eureka” moment when the decision is made.

159.

What are the three factors that are used to evaluate the level of creativity in the decision-making process? The three factors are: fluency or the number of ideas a person is able to generate; flexibility or how different the ideas are from one another; and originality or how unique a person’s ideas are.

160.

Describe two decision-making biases and how to avoid them. There are ten decision-making biases: Overconfidence bias is when individuals overestimate their ability to predict future events. To avoid this trap, stop and be realistic in your judgments. Hindsight bias is the opposite of overconfidence bias as it looks backward in time where mistakes seem obvious after they have occurred. It is important that decision makers remember this bias when judging other people’s actions.

Anchoring and adjustment bias is the tendency for individuals to rely too heavily on a single piece of information. To avoid this bias, the individual needs to gather sufficient data for assessment. Availability bias occurs when more readily available information is incorrectly assessed to also be more likely. The fundamental attribution error occurs when good outcomes are attributed to personal characteristics, but undesirable outcomes are attributed to external circumstances. Framing bias is the tendency for decision makers to be influenced by the way a situation or problem is presented. Avoidance of this bias occurs through simple awareness of the problem and a close monitoring of actions to discern when it occurs. Escalation of commitment is when individuals continue on a failing course of action after information reveals it may be a poor path to follow. The approach to dealing with this is to assess the scenario and make a clear decision recognizing that sometimes the best choice is to admit you failed. Judgment about correlation and causality bias occurs when individuals make inaccurate attributions about the causality of events. Sampling bias occurs when individuals draw broad conclusions based on small sets of observations instead of more reliable sources of information derived from large, randomly drawn samples. Satisficing occurs when individuals settle for the first acceptable alternative instead of seeking the best possible option. 161.

Do groups make better decisions than individuals? Briefly explain your answer. It depends on the specifics of the situation. What research does tell us however, is that groups, particularly those that are diverse, often make better decisions than individuals because more options are considered. When groups make decisions, they are often implemented much more easily because those involved in the process have already “bought into” the decision. What must be guarded against is the group becoming too cohesive and not evaluating alternatives critically but simply accepting them because the group supports them.

162.

What are two symptoms of groupthink? There are eight symptoms of groupthink: illusion of invulnerability; collective rationalization; unquestioned belief in the group’s inherent morality; stereotyped views of outgroups; direct pressure; self-censorship; illusions of unanimity and the emergence of self appointed mindguards.

163.

Describe the steps in the nominal group technique.

The nominal group technique was developed to ensure all members in a group participate fully. The first step is when each member of the group silently and independently writes down ideas. Step two is going around the room in order gathering all the ideas that were generated. The third step is a discussion that focuses on each of the ideas generated and finally, the group votes on their favorite ideas. 164.

What is the difference between majority rule and consensus? Majority rule is when each individual within a group gets a vote and whatever alternative received the most votes, wins. It is considered effective and is simple, speedy, easy to use and fair. Consensus is a decision-making rule that groups use when the goal is to gain support for an idea or plan of action. This process requires more time and focuses on the aspect of plan support.

165.

Explain how group decision support systems can become counterproductive. Individuals can only process so many ideas and so much information at one time. As virtual meetings grow larger, it is reasonable to figure that information overload can occur and good ideas will fall through the cracks, recreating the problem that the group decision support system was designed to prevent. Also, the system could also just get too complicated.

166.

What are two basic questions that can be asked to assess the ethics of a decision? Is this decision fair? Will I feel better or worse about myself after I make the decision? Does this decision break any organizational rules? Does this decision break any laws? How would I feel if this decision was broadcast on the news?

167.

Briefly describe how decision making differs around the globe. Decision-making styles and approaches differ depending on the culture. Research, for example, shows that Japanese and Dutch decision makers are consensus-oriented while American decision makers value quick decisions.

ESSAY 168.

Using the rational decision-making model as a template, discuss a recent decision you made. Be sure to describe each step. Step one: Identify the problem. Choosing a college to attend. Step two: Establish decision criteria. Offers specific major, cost parameters, distance from home.

Step three: Weigh decision criteria. Prioritize each of the criteria, say the cost is the most important factor. Step four: Generate alternatives. List the schools you are considering Step five: Evaluate alternatives. What is the positive and negative of each school? Step six: Choose the best alternative. Pick a school. Step seven: Implement the decision. Apply to the school and gain admission. Step eight: Evaluate the decision. After a semester, do you still like it? 169.

Darlene is a new manager at XYZ Corporation. She is most interested in enhancing the creativity of her department. What recommendations would you suggest to her? Four areas can be the focus of creativity enhancement efforts. They are team composition, team process, leadership and culture. Team composition might be enhanced if you diversify the team, change group membership or use leaderless teams to allow teams freedom to create without trying to please anyone up front. Team process can be enhanced by engaging in brainstorming, using the nominal group technique, or using analogies to envision problems and solutions. Leadership: Challenge teams so they are engaged, not overwhelmed; let people decide how to achieve goals, support and celebrate creativity, and role model creative behavior. Culture: institute organizational memory; build a physical space conducive to creativity; and incorporate creative behavior into the performance appraisal process.

170.

You work for a company that was a sub-contractor for the Challenger space shuttle. Cognizant of the groupthink that made the fateful launch decision, you want to ensure that such a condition does not exist in your firm. The company executives have decided that a seminar is necessary to define groupthink, its causes, and provide recommendations do avoid it in the future. You are in charge of that seminar. What insight could you provide?

Groupthink is a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group’s making flawed decisions leading to a reduction in mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment. The eight symptoms of groupthink are: illusion of invulnerability; collective rationalization; unquestioned belief in the group’s inherent morality; stereotyped views of outgroups; direct pressure; selfcensorship; illusions of unanimity and the emergence of self-appointed mindguards. To avoid groupthink, groups should: discuss the symptoms of groupthink, assign a rotating devil’s advocate, invite experts who are not part of core decision making; encourage a culture of difference; and debate the ethical implications of the decisions. Individuals should: monitor personal behavior for signs of groupthink, check for self-censorship; carefully avoid mindguard behavior; avoid putting pressure on other group members to conform; and remind members of the ground rules for avoiding groupthink. Finally, group leaders should break the group into subgroups from time to time; have more than one group work on the same problem; remain impartial and refrain from stating preferences at the outset of decisions; set a tone of encouraging critical evaluations throughout deliberations; and create an anonymous feedback channel through which all group members can contribute if desired. 171.

Ron is the owner of a small business. He is deciding whether to expand his operation to a second location or remain only at his original site. He decides to perform a “premortem” on the project and has asked your assistance in making sure he covers all appropriate steps in the process. What recommendations would you provide him? A premortem is designed to imagine what could go wrong and avoid it before spending any money or having to change course. The six steps to be followed are: A planning team creates a plan outline for the issue. Either the existing group or a unique group imagines the issue at its worst. The group writes down all the reasons they can imagine that led to this failure. The list of ideas is reviewed for additional ideas. The issues are sorted into categories in a search for themes. The plan should be revised to account for the flaws detected.

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Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 12 Leading People Within Organizations TRUE/FALSE 1. Leaders do not need to rely on the use of force to influence people. (True) 2.

A formal leader is one who holds a position of authority and may utilize the power that comes from that position as well as personal power to influence others.

(True) 3.

When intelligence is measured with a paper and pencil test, its relationship to leadership is a bit weaker than when intelligence is viewed as the perceived intelligence of the leader.

(True) 4.

Emotional intelligence helps an individual attain the management ranks, but once there, mental intelligence becomes important.

(False) 5. All effective leaders are extraverts. (False) 6.

The only trait of the Big 5 personality traits that is related to leadership emergence or leader effectiveness is conscientiousness.

(False) 7. There is no relationship between height and being viewed as a leader. (False) 8.

Three key traits associated with leadership are: integrity, conscientiousness and introversion.

(False) 9.

Agreeable people who are modest, good-natured and avoid conflict are less likely to be perceived as leaders.

(True) 10.

A key finding from research completed on traits is that all traits are not equally effective in predicting leadership potential.

(True) 11.

Research supports the argument that demonstrating both initiating structure and consideration makes leaders more effective.

(False) 12.

Initiating structure involves structuring the roles of subordinates, providing them instructions, and behaving in ways to increase the group’s performance.

(True) 13. Task-based leadership behaviors are also referred to as consideration. (False) 14. Initiating structure refers to task-based leadership behaviors. (True) 15.

Autocratic decision makers make decisions alone without necessarily involving employees in the decision making process.

(True) 16.

Research suggests that the democratic decision-making style helps satisfy employees and improves decision quality.

(False) 17.

Laissez-faire leaders create high levels of ambiguity about job expectations for their employees and thus lower employee satisfaction.

(True) 18.

If you have a low least preferred coworker (LPC) rating, it means that you have a people-oriented personality and are able to separate your liking of a person from your ability to work with that person.

(False) 19.

Fiedler’s contingency theory suggests different leaders can be effective in different situations.

(True) 20.

Research generally supports Fiedler’s predictions about when low LPC leadership should be used.

(True) 21. House’s path-goal theory is based on equity theory of motivation. (False) 22.

Path-goal theory predicts that the type of leader behavior effective under different circumstances will depend on the characteristics of the employee and the work environment.

(True) 23.

A supportive leadership style works best when there is high role ambiguity for employees, they have low abilities, and they have an external locus of control.

(False)

24.

When employees have high abilities and high achievement motivation, the directive leadership style is best.

(False) 25.

In House’s path-goal theory, the leader’s style is viewed as fixed and the environment changes; Fiedler’s theory assumes just the opposite.

(False) 26.

On average, research suggests that decisions made using the leadership style recommended by Vroom and Yetton’s decision tree model tend to be more effective compared to using a style not recommended.

(True) 27.

Transformational leaders use charisma, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration to influence individuals and create commitment to company goals.

(True) 28.

Passive management by exception involves leaving employees alone and waiting until something goes wrong before entering the picture.

(True) 29.

Transactional leadership is a more effective form than transformational leadership.

(False) 30.

The key factor in making transformational leadership more effective is extraversion.

(False) 31.

Charisma is an inherent characteristic, so those firms attempting to teach charisma, are not making good use of their time or money.

(False) 32.

Individuals with high LMX receive higher levels of resources than those with a low LMX relationship.

(True) 33. All employees want a high-quality relationship with their manager. (False) 34. Servant leaders put their employees first. (True) 35.

Authentic leaders are self-aware, introspective, and have thorough understanding of their own values.

(True) 36.

Employees of abusive leaders are more likely to quit their jobs and experience higher levels of unhappiness and stress.

(True) 37.

Men leaders are more likely to be task-oriented, while women leaders are more likely to be relationally-oriented.

(False) 38.

Women occupying traditionally male-dominated roles tend to be rated less effective than men.

(True) 39.

People in positions of authority are influential in driving people to ethical behaviors but not unethical behaviors.

(False) 40.

The global leadership and organizational behavior effectiveness project (GLOBE) found, thus far, that there are no universal traits that are desirable or undesirable in a leader.

(False) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: A Different Approach to Leadership at Apple: The Case of Tim Cook 41.

(b) 42.

(c)

*Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Tim Cook as compared to Steve Jobs at Apple? a. humble b. craves the spotlight c. values transparency d. attentive to social issues Easy/Knowledge *Cook believes that a key to a happy life is to find something that you are passionate about and that is a. a big moneymaker. b. truly innovative. c. in the service of others. d. something no one else has ever done. Medium/Comprehension

Section I: Who is Considered a Leader? Trait Approaches to Leadership 43.

The earliest approach to the study of leadership was a. the trait approach. b. the behavioral approach. c. the transactional approach.

(a) 44.

(b) 46.

(b) 47.

(b) 48.

(d) 49.

d. the transformational approach. Easy/Comprehension The trait approach to leadership examines which of the following factors? a. environmental influences on leadership b. leadership behaviors c. personality characteristics d. both personality and the work environment Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is an example of a Big 5 Personality trait? a. self-esteem b. extraversion c. intelligence d. assertiveness Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding intelligence is accurate? a. One’s intelligence is the strongest predictor of leadership performance. b. People with high mental abilities are more likely to be viewed as leaders in their environment. c. Effective leaders tend to have high emotional intelligence, but mental intelligence has no effect on leadership effectiveness. d. EQ matters for entry into the high level managerial ranks, but once there, EQ is less effective since all others at that level also possess high EQ. Difficult/Evaluation Jien has the ability to control his emotions in multiple situations and has empathy for others; he is internally motivated and has many admirable social skills. Jien has a. high mental intelligence. b. high emotional intelligence. c. low mental intelligence. d. low emotional intelligence. Medium/Application Being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented and dependable are characteristics of the personality trait a. openness. b. agreeableness. c. extraversion. d. conscientiousness. Easy/Knowledge Openness refers to a. being outgoing, talkative, sociable, and enjoying social situations. b. being affable, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind and warm. c. being curious, original, intellectual, creative and receptive to new ideas. d. being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented and dependable.

(c)

Easy/Knowledge

50.

Being anxious, irritable, temperamental and moody is a. anxiety. b. neuroticism. c. anger. d. aggressiveness. Easy/Knowledge

(b) 51.

Being affable, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind and warm is a. agreeableness. b. extraversion. c. conscientiousness. d. openness.

(a) 52.

(d) 53.

(d) 55.

Extraversion refers to a. being curious, original, intellectual, creative and open to new ideas. b. being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement oriented and dependable. c. being affable, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind and warm. d. being outgoing, talkative, sociable, and enjoying social situations. Easy/Knowledge Maria is part of an organizational behavior project group. Her group members chose her as the leader of the group because she is always on task, on time for meetings, sets achievable goals and is willing to assist anyone who needs help. Maria is a. agreeable. b. extraverted. c. conscientious. d. open. Medium/Application Nick’s roommate is attending a networking event for his business fraternity this weekend. He says, “Nick, you are so good at going up to someone and starting a conversation. You always seem to know what to do and what to say. You never seem awkward and you can talk to anyone about anything. I want to handle this networking event well—give me some tips.” Nick seems to be very a. agreeable. b. conscientious. c. narcissistic. d. extraverted. Medium/Application The Big 5 personality trait ___________ has the strongest relationship to both leader emergence and leader effectiveness. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion

(a) 57.

(a) 59.

(a) 60.

(d) 61.

d. openness Medium/Comprehension Research has found which of the Big 5 personality traits to be related to leader emergence and leader effectiveness? a. conscientiousness. b. agreeableness. c. assertiveness. d. creativity. Difficult/Synthesis The degree to which a person is at peace with himself and has an overall positive assessment of one’s self worth and capabilities is also known as a. agreeableness. b. self-efficacy. c. self-esteem. d. integrity. Medium/Comprehension Martin finds out that his manager has been cheating employees out of pay bonuses. Martin’s manager seems to lack a. integrity. b. agreeableness. c. extraversion. d. neuroticism. Medium/Application Which of the following statements regarding self-esteem and leadership is accurate? a. Leaders with high self esteem support their subordinates more than leaders with lower self esteem. b. Research shows a strong relationship between weight and being viewed as a leader which may be accounted for by self-esteem. c. Those with high self-esteem have low self-confidence which may affect the image perceived by followers. d. Leaders with high self esteem punish their subordinates less effectively, when such punishment is due, than do leaders with lower self esteem. Medium/Analysis A key trait associated with leadership is a. high sensitivity. b. high introversion. c. high agreeableness. d. high integrity. Medium/Synthesis Which of the following is a key trait associated with leadership? a. High likability b. High conscientiousness c. High agreeableness

(b) 62.

d. High authoritarianism Medium/Synthesis

(d)

*Which of the following statements regarding traits and leadership is accurate? a. All traits are equally effective in predicting leadership potential across organizations. b. In large, bureaucratic organizations, leader traits have more impact on behavior than in a small, entrepreneurial organization. c. Traits have an equal impact on leader emergence and leader effectiveness. d. Recognition of leader traits can help select appropriate managers for organizations. Difficult/Synthesis

63. a. b. c. d. (b)

*The correlation between high intelligence and leadership is strong; the higher the IQ the better the leader. moderate; having a leader who is smarter, but not too smart, works best. irrelevant; leaders do not need to be smart, just extroverted. irrelevant; leaders do not need to be smart, just conscientious. Difficult/Analysis

64.

*Demonstrating originality, creativity and being willing to try new things is a leadership quality known as a. agreeableness b. openness to experience c. extraversion d. conscientiousness Easy/Knowledge

(b) 65.

(a) 66.

(c)

*Correctly complete the following quote about hiring people Warren Buffet made in a commencement speech. “We look for intelligence, we look for initiative or energy, and we look for integrity. a. And if they don’t have the latter, the first two will kill you.” b. As long as they have one, you don’t need the other two.” c. As long as they have two out of three, you have a great leader.” d. And really, the only thing they have to have is integrity.” Medium/Comprehension *The most successful way to apply the trait approach is to a. pick the trait the organization lacks and hire for that. b. you can’t really understand people’s traits so don’t try. c. identify the conditions under which different traits are needed. d. rank the traits and rank the person. Medium/Comprehension

Section II: What Do Leaders Do?: Behavioral Approaches to Leadership 67.

The two broad categories of leader behaviors are a. task-oriented and authority-oriented structures.

(d) 68.

(b) 69.

(b) 71.

(d)

b. task-oriented and initiating structures. c. people-oriented and authority-oriented structures. d. task-oriented and people-oriented structures. Easy/Knowledge People-oriented behaviors are also called a. initiating structure. b. consideration. c. laissez-faire. d. authoritarian. Easy/Knowledge Task-oriented behaviors are also called a. authoritarianism. b. consideration. c. initiating structure d. laissez-faire. Easy/Knowledge People-oriented behaviors include a. providing employees instructions. b. treating employees with respect. c. structuring employee roles. d. planning for increased employee performance. Medium/Comprehension Research findings of leader behaviors suggest a. when leaders are task oriented, employees are more satisfied. b. task oriented behaviors tend to be more effective in large companies. c. extremely high levels of leader task-oriented behaviors may lead to burnout in employees. d. employees who work under people oriented leaders are more productive. Difficult/Evaluation When leaders make decisions alone without involving employees in the decision making process, they are using a. laissez-faire decision making. b. participative decision making c. autocratic decision making. d. democratic decision making. Easy/Knowledge In democratic decision making a. leaders leave employees alone to make decisions. b. the leader provides minimum guidance and involvement in the decision. c. leaders make the decision alone without necessarily involving employees in the decision making process. d. employees participate in the making of the decision. Easy/Knowledge

74.

(b) 75.

(c)

Nelson is the manager of a marketing department in a medium sized company. Nelson has six employees reporting to him. In deciding the goals for the department for next quarter, Nelson is holding a meeting for employee input and direction. Nelson uses a(n) _________ style of decision making in the marketing department. a. autocratic b. democratic c. laissez-faire d. supportive Medium/Application Research on decision-making styles finds a. Laissez-faire decision making is positively related to employee satisfaction. b. Democratic decision making leads to stronger employee productivity. c. Employees often care more about the overall participativeness of the organizational climate than involvement in every single decision. d. Scientists favor autocratic decision making over democratic decision making. Difficult/Synthesis

Section III: What is the Role of the Context? Contingency Approaches to Leadership 76.

(b) 77.

(a) 78.

(b) 79.

Nancy argues with Janet over every work project and generally does not want to be assigned to work with her. Yet, Nancy thinks Janet is a very nice person and enjoys her company at social outings. a. Nancy would have a low least preferred coworker score. b. Nancy would have a high least preferred coworker score. c. Nancy would have a midrange least preferred coworker score. d. Nancy would not have a least preferred coworker score. Difficult/Application If you dislike working with a person and do not care for them on a personal level either, a. you would have a low least preferred coworker score. b. you would have a high least preferred coworker score. c. you would have a midrange least preferred coworker score. d. you would not have a least preferred coworker score. Medium/Comprehension In situations of medium favorableness, a. low LPC leaders are most effective. b. high LPC leaders are most effective. c. medium LPC leaders are most effective. d. either low or high LPC leaders will be most effective. Difficult/Evaluation Situational favorableness includes which of the following conditions? a. leader-leader relations

(b) 80.

(a) 82.

(b) 83.

(b) 84.

b. position power c. motivation level d. people structure Easy/Comprehension Paolo is a manager of a department in a small, family-run retail department store. He and his subordinates clash over scheduling and other procedural aspects of the job almost daily. While having the title of manager, Paolo makes few decisions for the department, instead implementing those relayed by his manager. The sales associate position as well as his managerial position do not have specific duties tied to them; instead everyone is supposed to do “whatever it takes.” According to Fiedler’s Contingency theory, the situation would best be described as a. favorable. b. medium favorable c. unfavorable. d. controlled. Medium/Application If leader-subordinate relations are good, position power is low and task structure is high, the situation would be categorized as a. favorable. b. medium favorable. c. unfavorable. d. controlled. Medium/Analysis If leader-subordinate relations are poor, position power is high and task structure is high, the situation would be categorized as a. favorable. b. medium favorable. c. unfavorable. d. controlled. Medium/Analysis Karli is the designated leader of a class project group. She gets along well with the group members but often is not sure exactly what she should do to assist her group in producing a high-quality project. Which LPC style is best for this scenario? a. Low LPC b. High LPC c. Medium LPC d. Either low or high LPC Difficult/Synthesis Michael is the United Way pledge leader for his department. He gets along quite well with his coworkers. His pledge leader duties, with regard to specific steps to follow in asking coworkers for pledges and how to collect and report them, are clearly laid out for him in a United Way brochure. Which LPC style is best for this scenario?

(a) 85.

(a) 87.

(d) 88.

(a) 89.

a. Low LPC b. High LPC c. Medium LPC d. Either low or high LPC Difficult/Synthesis Research on Fiedler’s Contingency Theory indicates which of the following? a. Predictions about where high LPC leadership will be effective are supported more than those where low LPC leadership is effective. b. There is full support for Fiedler’s Contingency Theory. c. Fiedler’s theory is important because it recognizes the importance of the leadership context. d. Fiedler’s theory is a useful framework for thinking about which personality traits are useful in predicting leadership. Medium/Analysis Expectancy theory suggests individuals are motivated when a. effort leads to high performance. b. rewards lead to high performance. c. rewards are expected. d. low effort will be rewarded. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding House’s path-goal theory of leadership? a. The role of the leader in the path-goal theory is to match leadership style with employee needs. b. Each leadership style identified in the path-goal theory is effective depending on the trait of the leader. c. House’s path-goal theory of motivation is based upon the equity theory of motivation. d. Leaders can create high performing employees by making sure employee effort leads to performance and that performance is rewarded with desired rewards. Medium/Synthesis Maurice is a manager in the production area of a large manufacturing firm. He sets a tight production schedule every day and makes certain each employee knows what job he is performing that day and how to perform it. Maurice has a ____________ leadership style. a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented Difficult/Application Nina makes it a point to talk to her subordinates every day about what is going on in their personal lives. She always congratulates them when they share successes and has a kind word and “a shoulder to cry on” if necessary when things are not going well. Nina has a _____________ leadership style.

(b) 90.

(d) 91.

(d) 92.

(d) 93.

(a) 94.

(d) 95.

a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented Difficult/Application Leaders who ensure their employees take part in decision making have a(n) _________________ leadership style. a. achievement-oriented b. supportive c. directive d. participative Medium/Comprehension An achievement-oriented leader a. makes sure employees are involved in decision making. b. provides directions for his employees. c. provides emotional support to employees. d. sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach their goals. Medium/Knowledge In which scenario would directive leadership be most effective? a. When employees have low role ambiguity. b. When employees have high abilities. c. When employees have an internal locus of control. d. When employees have an external locus of control. Difficult/Evaluation If jobs are boring and repetitive or tasks are stressful, the ________ style of leadership is most effective. a. supportive b. achievement oriented c. directive d. participative Medium/Knowledge The information system department’s employees are highly skilled individuals who possess a very internal locus of control. The firm is looking to hire a manager for the department to replace the retiring manager. What type of leadership style would likely be most effective with this group? a. supportive b. achievement-oriented c. directive d. participative Medium/Analysis Which of the statements regarding research on House’s path-goal theory is correct? a. House’s theory suggests that the leader’s style is fixed and the environment changes.

b. c. (c) 96.

(d) 97.

(a) 98.

(b)

The theory has been fully tested and verified. The theory’s greatest contribution is the importance of the leader’s ability to change styles depending on the circumstances. d. House’s theory is based upon goal-setting theory. Difficult/Evaluation The leadership decision tree a. focuses on a static leadership style. b. focuses on leader emergence. c. focuses on an adaptive leadership style. d. leads to the determination of how much involvement leaders should seek in making decisions. Medium/Comprehension According to the leadership decision tree, a leader who makes a decision alone using available information has a(n) a. autocratic decision-making style. b. consultative decision-making style. c. group decision-making style. d. laissez-faire decision-making style. Medium/Analysis Bob meets with his subordinates on a regular basis to share concerns and information with the group. He takes their feedback but makes decisions on his own. According to the leadership decision tree, Bob has a(n) _____________ decision-making style. a. laissez-faire b. consultative c. group d. autocratic Medium/Analysis

Section IV: What’s New? Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 99.

(c)

___________ leaders lead employees by aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals. a. Directive b. Transactional c. Transformational d. Achievement-oriented Easy/Knowledge Which one of the following traits is a tool that transformational leaders use to influence employees and create commitment to the company goals? a. autocratic leader behaviors b. management by exception c. intellectual stimulation d. inspirational charisma Medium/Comprehension

101.

(a) 105.

(b) 106.

Most research on leadership has been conducted on which of the following theories of leadership? a. Fiedler’s contingency theory b. House’s path-goal theory c. transformational leadership theory d. authentic leadership theory Difficult/Synthesis Malcolm is the manager of his department. After performance evaluations, he gives those who have met their goals for the year a pay raise. He gives his employees their assignments and leaves them to do their work but does monitor them so that if he notices a potential problem, it gets resolved before causing difficulties. What kind of contemporary leadership style is Malcolm demonstrating? a. directive leadership b. transformational leadership c. transactional leadership d. laissez-faire leadership Difficult/Application Research on transformational and transactional leadership shows a. transactional leadership is more effective than transformational leadership. b. transactional leaders have little to no influence on employee attitudes. c. transformational leaders create higher levels of commitment to organizational change efforts. d. transactional leaders increase the intrinsic motivation of their followers. Difficult/Evaluation The key factor in the effectiveness of transformational leadership is a. trust. b. creativeness. c. extraversion. d. charisma. Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is a true statement about leader-member exchange (LMX) theory? a. High LMX relationships involve an active dislike between the leader and member. b. In high LMX relationships, the leader has a trust-based relationship with the member. c. In low LMX relationships, both leader and member go above and beyond their job descriptions to assist the other party in succeeding. d. In high LMX relationships, the leader does his job and the member does his. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following factors contribute to building high-quality leader-member exchange?

(a) 107.

(a) 108.

(a) 109.

(a) 110.

(a) 111.

a. leader fairness b. member support c. employee job satisfaction d. personality differences Medium/Analysis High quality LMX is related to a. increased job satisfaction. b. higher turnover. c. reduced organizational commitment. d. effort in building good relationships. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding leader-member exchange relationships? a. A problem with a low-quality exchange relationship is that employees may not have access to a positive work environment. b. All employees would like to have a positive relationship with their leader. c. If a leader is unethical, LMX quality is likely to increase. d. When high LMX employees succeed, leaders credit their leadership ability. Difficult/Evaluation Servant leadership a. is a leadership approach that defines the leader’s role as serving the needs of others. b. refers to effective leaders who stay true to themselves. c. is leading employees by aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals. d. involves structuring the roles of subordinates, providing them with instructions, and behaving in ways that will increase the performance of the group. Easy/Knowledge Servant leadership has an explicit focus on a. ethics. b. organizational change. c. paternalism. d. authoritarianism. Medium/Analysis

(d)

Servant leaders a. put themselves first. b. make their overriding goal getting their employees to contribute to the community. c. make their primary mission high-level personal achievement. d. feel an obligation to their employees, customers and the larger community. Medium/Analysis

112.

Authentic leadership

(b) 113.

(d) 114.

(d) 115.

(b) 116.

(b) 117.

(a) 118.

is a leadership approach that defines the leader’s role as serving the needs of others. b. refers to effective leaders who stay true to themselves. c. makes sure employees are involved in decision making. d. sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach those goals. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following is a key characteristic of authentic leaders? a. They are afraid to act the way they are. b. They prioritize employee needs. c. They have no set priorities. d. They have high levels of personal integrity. Medium/Comprehension Abusive leaders are costly to organizations because of a. lost productivity. b. increased absenteeism. c. increased health care costs. d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is true with respect to gender differences in leadership style? a. Women are more relationally-oriented while men are task-oriented. b. Women tend to display more democratic and less autocratic styles as compared to men. c. Men display higher levels of transformational behaviors. d. When women succeed in traditionally masculine roles they are liked more by their peers. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a tool that transformational leaders are able to utilize? a. individualized consideration b. independent aspiration c. intellectual stimulation d. inspirational motivation Easy/Knowledge *Research shows that there is a connection between which of these personality traits and charisma? a. extraversion, conscientiousness, cognitive abilities b. creativity, cognitive abilities, intelligence c. agreeableness, extraversion, creativity d. intellectualism, agreeableness, extraversion Easy/Knowledge *Being charismatic is a. something that you are born with and can’t develop. b. the only thing that matters as a leader. c. something that can be increased through training. d. always a good thing for an organization.

(c)

Medium/Comprehension

119.

*For abusive leaders, research has found a correlation between their negative behavior with employees to their a. ability (or lack thereof) to regulation their emotions. b. inability to get attention. c. ability to get control of the situation. d. desire to command authority. Easy/Knowledge

(a) 120.

(a) 121.

(b) 122.

(a)

*What organizational problem(s) can occur if abusive leaders are perceived as competent and successful, and are allowed to operate within the management structure? a. New managers may adapt to the same leadership style and the abuse become even more prevalent. b. Sales will be higher even if moral isn’t. c. Nothing, eventually they will be removed. d. Other organizations will refuse to do business with the company. Difficult/Analysis *As the analysis of leadership characteristics as evolved, the concept of what makes a strong leader has moved from a. abusive to all knowing and powerful. b. all powerful and knowing to humble and open to feedback. c. super-smart to average intelligence. d. tall and handsome to super-smart. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a humble leader? a. likes being noticed b. has a shared leadership approach to teamwork c. open to feedback d. appreciates the strengths of others Easy/Knowledge

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 123.

(a) 124.

Which of the following statements regarding leadership and ethics is accurate? a. People in positions of authority are influential in driving others to ethical or unethical behaviors. b. Ethics is a matter of organizational culture rather than leadership style. c. The contingency theories of leadership are explicit in noting the important role that ethics play in effective leadership. d. Ethical behaviors are a central component to transactional leadership theory. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding leadership and culture? a. Ninety-eight percent of all leadership studies confirm cultural differences are small.

(d) 125.

(b)

b. The applicability of leadership theories to other cultures is a consistent finding in the research literature. c. Only decisiveness is a universal leadership trait. d. Given the differences between cultures, a sensitivity to those differences and the ability to adapt style to circumstances are needed in global leaders. Medium/Analysis Which statement regarding global leader characteristics is correct? a. In Western and Latin cultures, leaders who speak in a monotonous voice convey the ability to control emotions. b. Universally, people feel that honesty, trustworthiness and fairness are related to leadership effectiveness. c. Transactional leaders are found to be the most influential leaders around the world. d. There is no universal agreement on characteristics viewed as undesirable in leaders. Difficult/Evaluation

Closing Section: Taking the Pepsi Challenge: The Case of Indra Nooyi 126.

(d) 127.

(a) 128.

(c)

Indra Nooyi proved to be an effective leader at PepsiCo when she took over the firm in 2006 until she departed in 2018. She exhibited which of the following leadership qualities? a. vision b. charisma c. proven track record in the industry d. all of the above Medium/Analysis The act of influencing others toward a goal is a. leadership. b. charisma. c. power. d. motivation. Easy/Knowledge Leaders who hold a position of authority and utilize the power that comes from their position as well as personal power to influence others are called a. informal leaders. b. transformational leaders. c. formal leaders. d. charismatic leaders. Easy/Knowledge

FILL IN THE BLANK 129. ___________ is the act of influencing others to work toward a goal. (Leadership) 130.

Leaders who demonstrate leadership by influencing others, but are without a formal position are ____________ leaders. (informal) 131.

*A formal leader would have a _____ and the power that comes with that position and can use that power, as well as their personal power, to influence others. (position of authority) 132.

“IQ” refers to _____________________ while “EQ” refers to ______________________. (mental intelligence, emotional intelligence) 133.

A person who is talkative, outgoing, sociable and enjoys social situations is ___________. (extraverted) 134.

___________ is being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented and dependable. (Conscientiousness) 135.

Two personality traits of the Big 5 that are positively related to leadership are ____________ and ___________. (conscientiousness, extraversion, openness to experience) 136.

____________ may explain the relationship between being tall and being viewed as a leader. (Self-esteem) 137.

Researchers at the Ohio State University and the University of Michigan found that there are two broad categories of behaviors related to leadership; they are __________ and ____________. (task-oriented, people-oriented or initiating structure, consideration) 138.

A __________ leader decision-making style leaves employees alone to make a decision. (laissez-faire) 139.

*McGregor proposed two basic assumptions from managers about employee behavior. _____ assumes employees are lazy and avoid work. _____ believes employees enjoy work and will try to achieve organizational goals. (Theory X, Theory Y)

140.

A ______ ______ score from Fiedler’s contingency theory means that an individual has a people-oriented personality and can separate his liking of a person from his ability to work with that person. (high LPC) 141.

The three conditions creating Fiedler’s situational favorableness are __________, ______________and _______________. (leader-subordinate relations, position power, task structure) 142.

The __________ leadership style is appropriate for situations when tasks are boring and repetitive and they are stressful. (supportive) 143.

Leaders who provide specific directions for employees, treat them well, care about them on a personal level and are encouraging have the ____________ leadership style. (directive) 144.

A ______________ is a decision-making tool to help leaders determine how much involvement they should seek in making decisions. (decision tree) 145.

Those leaders who lead employees by aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals are _______________ leaders. (transformational) 146.

______________ leaders ensure that employees demonstrate the right behaviors because they provide resources in exchange. (Transactional) 147. A magnetic personality is _____________. (charisma) 148.

___________________ involves leaving employees to do their jobs without interference but at the same time proactively predicting problems. (Active management by exception) 149.

Leaving employees alone, and, as a manager, waiting until something happens before interacting is ______________________________. (passive management by exception) 150.

_______________is the key factor in making transformational leadership more effective.

(Trust) 151.

In a high _______________, the leader forms a trust-based relationship with the members. (leader-member exchange or LMX) 152. When a leader puts his employees first, he is exhibiting ___________ _____ (servant leadership)

153.

Key characteristics of _________leadership are self-awareness, a thorough understanding of values and priorities, and personal integrity. (authentic) 154.

The ________________ experiments, where those participating provided electric shocks to others answering questions incorrectly, are an example of unethical behaviors by people in positions of authority. (Milgram) 155.

*A sustained display of negative behaviors toward employees is considered _____ behavior. (abusive) 156. *For a team with _____ a leader with humility can have a negative impact. (high level of power distance) 157.

__________leaders are found to be one of the most influential leaders around the world. (Charismatic) SHORT ANSWERS 158.

List and describe two traits that are associated with leadership. Indicate what impact they have on leadership. Traits that can be presented include: general mental intelligence and emotional intelligence, the Big 5 traits, self-esteem and integrity. General intelligence is often viewed as getting individuals to the leader level, but once there, emotional intelligence may take over, as everyone at the leader level has mental intelligence. The Big 5 traits of openness, conscientiousness and extraversion are related both to leader emergence and leader effectiveness. Extraversion has the strongest relationship to both leader emergence and effectiveness. Individual leaders with high self-esteem tend to have greater levels of selfconfidence, and studies show that they support their subordinates more and when they punish, punish more effectively. Also, self-esteem may be the underlying reason why height and leadership are connected, because people who are taller have greater self-esteem and therefore project more charisma and get more followers. Those individuals who have greater integrity are viewed as more trustworthy and thus gain more followers.

159.

Differentiate between mental intelligence and emotional intelligence. What impact does either have on leadership in an organization?

Mental intelligence is represented by IQ and obviously reflects abilities such as mathematical and verbal comprehension. Emotional intelligence is a concept popularized by Daniel Goleman and refers to individuals’ ability to control their own emotions, understand other people’s emotions, internal motivations and their social skills. Goleman suggests that mental ability gets the individual to the leader level but once there, emotional intelligence takes over, as everyone at the leader level has general intelligence. 160.

Describe the ties between each of the Big 5 personality traits and leadership. Extraversion is the Big 5 trait with the strongest relationship between both leader emergence and leader effectiveness. Conscientious individuals are organized, take initiative and demonstrate persistence, so this factor also is tied to leader emergence, and then effectiveness in that position. Openness is the trait representing originality and creativity and tends to lead to leader emergence, then effectiveness. Agreeable people are modest, good-natured and avoid conflict but are less likely to be perceived as leaders. Clearly, neuroticism, which is being anxious, irritable, temperamental and moody, is not a characteristic tied to leader emergence or effectiveness.

161.

What is the difference between task-oriented and people-oriented behaviors? Task-oriented or initiating structure, delineate the roles of subordinates, provide them instructions and behave in ways that generally increase the performance of the group. Task-oriented people get things done and meet organizational goals. People-oriented behaviors, or consideration, include showing concern for employee feelings and treating employees with respect. People-oriented managers care about their employees and demonstrate that concern through action and decision. Both types of behaviors are beneficial to an organization but for different purposes. For example, when people-oriented behaviors are demonstrated, employees are more satisfied. When task-oriented behaviors are demonstrated, productivity tends to be higher.

162.

Describe each of the types of leader decision making. There are three types of leader decision-making styles. Autocratic decision making is when leaders make the decisions alone without involving employees in the decision-making process. Laissez-faire decision making is when leaders leave employees alone to make the decision providing minimal guidance in the

decision. Democratic decision-making leaders have employees participate in the decision making process. 163.

How does Fiedler’s contingency theory compare to that of House’s path-goal theory of leadership? Fiedler’s contingency theory looks at individual scores on a least preferred coworker scale. This score indicates whether you can dislike an individual personally and still work effectively with him. This theory assumes the leader’s style is fixed and the environment changes. Thus you assess the leader style in relationship to situational favorableness (leader-subordinate relations, position power, task structure) to determine the most effective style. House’s path-goal theory is based upon expectancy theory and looks at how a leader’s style can change depending on the circumstances. Underlying path-goal theory is the expectation that effort leads to high performance, high performance will be rewarded. and the rewards will be valuable. The leader’s job is to remove roadblocks from this process and create environments that subordinates see as motivational.

164.

Under what conditions would a task-oriented manager be most successful? Task-oriented managers work best in scenarios where structured roles for subordinates, clear instructions and behaviors to enhance performance are warranted. Research suggests small businesses are appropriate places for such attributes.

165.

Describe each of the four leadership styles and under what circumstances the style is most effective. Directive leaders are those who provide specific directions to employees. They lead by clarifying role expectations, setting schedules, and making sure employees how what to do. This style works best when there is high role ambiguity for employees, where employees have low abilities and external loci of control. Supportive leaders provide emotional support to employees. They treat employees well, treat people on a personal level and are encouraging. This style is most effective when the tasks are boring and repetitive and stressful. The participative leadership style makes certain employees are involved in making important decisions. The style is most effective when employees have high-level abilities, when the decision is relevant to them and when they have a high locus of control. The achievement-oriented leader sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach those goals. The circumstances under which this style works most effectively are when employees have high abilities and a high achievement motivation.

166.

Define transformational leadership.

Transformational leadership is when leaders align employee goals with their own. To do so, the leader uses his charisma, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation and individualized consideration to influence subordinates. 167.

Describe transactional leadership. Transactional leadership ensures that employees demonstrate the right behaviors because the leader provides resources in exchange. The leaders provide contingent rewards and management by exception.

168.

Why would some employees not want to have a high quality relationship with their leader? All employees may not want to have a high quality relationship with their manager. Some employees do not like their managers, at times because they see them as unethical or unkind and do not want to be labeled as such simply because they associate with him. Some employees do not have any interest in advancing their career in a particular company or industry so they are simply in the firm to get their paycheck and there is no need for additional time spent in a relationship. Finally, some leaders simply cannot influence some people.

169.

What is servant leadership? Servant leadership is where the leader serves the needs of others including employees, customers, and the external community. Servant leaders feel a need to understand their employees’ personal needs, to empower them and to help them develop their careers.

170.

What is authentic leadership? The key to authentic leadership is to be true to yourself. Authentic leaders are self-aware, they are introspective and understand where they are coming from and have a thorough understanding of their own values and priorities. They are not afraid to act the way they are and they have high personal integrity.

171.

What implications do the Milgram experiments have for the concept of leadership? The Milgram experiments, where subjects were directed by an individual in a lab coat to administer electric shocks to other people when those individuals gave a wrong answer to questions, demonstrates that people in positions of authority are influential in driving others to ethical or unethical behaviors. In the Milgram situation, the individuals giving the INCORRECT answers were actually actors, and the electric shocks subjects thought they were delivering were not real. Yet, the actors pretended the shocks were occurring. About two-thirds of the subjects continued to administer the shocks to INCORRECT answers even when those shocks reached “dangerous” levels.

172.

*Describe the characteristics of a leader with humility.

An increasingly positive characteristic that’s been identified for effective leaders is humility. Leadership humility is described as the leader’s ability to view their own shortcomings accurately, an ability to appreciate the strengths of others, and an openness to feedback to learn and improve. The benefits for teams can include employees embracing a “shared leadership” approach to teamwork, which helps with team performance, allocating tasks more effectively within the group, and employees imitating the characteristics of humble leaders, which results in a group climate where team members demonstrate the same behaviors. At the same time, there are some boundary conditions to the effectiveness of leader humility. For example, fit with team member values matters. One study has shown that when the team has high levels of power distance, leader humility had negative effects on the team, suggesting that some teams may actually expect their leaders to be all powerful, which would diminish the usefulness of leader humility for the team.[Footnote ]

ESSAY 173.

Choose any two of the leadership theories presented in this chapter, define them and then compare and contrast the theories. There are four sets of theories in this chapter: Trait theories, behavioral theories, contingency and contemporary theories. Students can choose in the trait theory category to discuss specific traits like the Big 5 personality traits, mental and emotional intelligence, self-esteem and integrity. Their discussions should center on the relationship between the individual trait and either leadership emergence or leadership effectiveness. The intent behind the trait theories was to define a limited number of attributes that could define a leader or the success of a leader. The major limitation of the trait theories is that they do not take into account the situation in which the leadership takes place. A second group of theories that can serve as a comparison point are the behavioral theories. These theories look at what leaders actually do. The Ohio State and University of Michigan studies pointed out that leaders tend to demonstrate task- or people-oriented behaviors, and students can discuss the relationship between those behaviors and leadership effectiveness. Further, students can discuss the style of leader decision making and its relationship to leader effectiveness. The value of the behavioral theories is that they indicate the need to understand the context of leadership, and so the third category, contingency theory, might be a point of comparison for the writer. Contingency theories presented include Fiedler’s and House’s theories. Fiedler’s work assumed the leader style to be fixed and only the environment can be changed. House took a different track underscoring the importance of varying one’s style depending on the situation. The final group of theories are contemporary theories including those of transformational, transactional, leader-member exchange, servant and authentic

leadership. Each of these new theories focuses on a different aspect of leadership, but all suggest that effective leaders need to change their style based upon the demands of the situation as well as using their own values and needs. 174.

What contribution to building effective leaders does the trait theory offer? The trait theories attempt to create a limited set of attributes that can define a leader or the success of the leader. While the number of traits is large and the theory does not account for the situation a leader faces, the notion of understanding leader attributes is a good way to begin building such strengths in your organization or your personal repertoire of skills. The more likely individuals are to demonstrate these attributes, the more likely they are to be successful and to make their organizations successful. So while the topics that could be discussed in a leadership development seminar from a trait perspective are large, the value of those traits to individual development is unquestionable.

175.

Compare and contrast transformational and transactional leadership. Transformational leadership is where managers lead by aligning employee goals with the leader’s own. To do so, the leader uses charisma, individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation and inspirational motivation. In contrast, transactional leaders ensure that employees demonstrate the right behaviors because the leader provides resources in exchange. These resources include contingent rewards. Transactional managers often use active management by exception as a tool to success. Both of these leadership approaches are part of the contemporary body of work on leadership. Both have shown to lead to effectiveness, but the circumstances where that occurs obviously differs. Transformational leadership is viewed as more effective because of the trust established in the relationship.

176.

How would you train an individual so as to increase his charisma? There is some argument as to whether charisma is an inherent characteristic and untrainable. If you do believe you can train charisma, you might want to consider: Teaching individuals how to create a vision that you understand and are immersed in and then demonstrate how to share that with others so they too pursue it with you. This vision must be tied to history in the department or organization, so the notion of teaching the history or culture of the firm needs to be addressed in training. Body language recognition is very important, so a session of training could be devoted to the study of body language and its implications. Charisma involves confidence. Do self-esteem assessments during a training session and develop techniques to enhance self-esteem.

Charisma also involves having novel approaches to problems, so training could focus on developing out-of-the-box thinking by using different brainstorming techniques including wildstorming. 177.

Critique the leader-member exchange theory (LMX) with regard to the implications it has for effective leadership in the organization. There are many different relationships in a work organization between the leader and subordinates. Clearly there will be in-group and out-group situations. There are advantages to high LMX relationships particularly from the perspective of the subordinate and the manager often gets a committed, productive worker because of the resources available from that relationship. That said, not everyone can have a high LMX relationship, so, some of the best advice for a leader is that he be fair in all his dealings with employees and that he treat all his employees with respect. The key issue to remember as a leader is relationships have an important influence over employee attitudes and behaviors, so be aware how you build relationships and how you could build relationships—put conscious effort into it.

178.

Denise wants to improve her relationship with her manager. Right now, she feels like she really does not know him well. She recognizes that part of the issue is that she works in her office with the door closed and opens it to meet with people only on an “as needed” basis. What are some recommendations for Denise? Create interaction opportunities with your manager. Denise should not stay in her office. Get out, ask questions. Recognize that people are more attracted to others like them. Denise needs to establish and convey the similarities she and her manager share so they have a common starting point. Tactfully utilize impression management techniques. For example, compliment your manager on work-related issues. Be a reliable employee. Trust is key to building and sustaining relationships. Be aware that relationships develop early. Denise created some issues for herself by staying in her office. She is working from behind but using the right techniques, can catch up.

179.

In what context might a servant leader be successful? Servant leadership can actually work in any firm. In today’s business climate where daily news bulletins present yet another leader who has created a Ponzi scheme or otherwise defrauded firms and individuals, the move to putting employees, customers and the larger external community first is radical but needed. Those who practice servant leadership will get attention and will be successful just for the simple reason of trust. People will begin to pull out of the economic environment when that trust is gone, but will enter full scale when they see integrity demonstrated.

180.

What leadership theory or characteristics are most applicable to other countries? The answer for all situations is, it depends. Students can cite specific examples provided in this chapter with regard to the Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness project, but it comes down to understanding that there is variation and similarity across cultures. Being aware, being open and constantly monitoring other cultures are the best pieces of advice for understanding what the key characteristics are. In this situation, the characteristics of vision, team orientation and participative leadership seem to be preferred styles around the world. Traits like how confident leaders should be and whether they should sacrifice themselves for the good of their employees differ. Universally charismatic and support leadership is common but how those traits are achieved varied.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 13 Power and Politics TRUE/FALSE 1. Power is the ability to get things done the way you want them to be done. (True) 2. Power distribution is usually not visible in organizations. (False) 3. Power has negative consequences but never has positive consequences. (False) 4.

One reason why power can be so easily abused is because individuals are quick to conform.

(True) 5. Conformity refers to people’s tendency to behave consistently with social norms. (True) 6.

The Hawthorne studies illustrate how important it is to create checks and balances to help individuals resist the tendency to conform or abuse authority.

(False) 7.

In the Milgram studies, participants were willing to administer harmful levels of voltage to learners when those learners provided incorrect answers.

(True) 8.

The Asch experiments showed that a dissenting minority does not have much power.

(False) 9.

Meta-analysis suggests that the level of conformity in the United States has been increasing since the 1950s.

(False) 10.

The Zimbardo experiment was stopped early because all parties involved became too entrenched in their experimental roles.

(True) 11. The more that a party is dependent upon you, the less power you have. (False) 12.

The greater the scarcity of a resource you control, the more power you possess.

(True) 13.

The more vital the resource you control, the greater the level of power you possess.

(True) 14.

The more substitutes available for a resource, the higher the power level of the person possessing that resource.

(False) 15. The CEO of an organization has legitimate power because of his or her role. (True) 16. Coercive power tends to accompany legitimate power in an organization. (False) 17.

Coercive power works through fear and forces people to do things they otherwise would not consider.

(True) 18.

Michael is the individual in the firm who knows everything about computer issues. When anyone has a problem, they go to Michael. Michael has referent power.

(False) 19. Charisma is a type of referent power. (True) 20. Influence is getting others to do what we want them to do. (True) 21. The most commonly used influence technique is personal appeal. (False) 22.

Compliance is when the target of influence not only agrees to your request, but actively supports it.

(False) 23.

Rational persuasion uses facts, data and logical arguments to influence a target person.

(True) 24.

When college students are told by a speaker seeking their support, “You can make a difference. Do this for future generations,” that speaker is using inspirational appeals to convince students to join the cause.

(True) 25.

Using any form of flattery in an appeal is an example of the exchange influence tactic.

(False)

26.

Research shows that individuals who lived near stairwells in dorms were the most well liked people in those dorms because they were seen most often by everyone who was coming and going. This is an example of the personal appeal influence tactic.

(True) 27.

Research shows that managers with high referent power tend to use pressure tactics much more frequently than those with low referent power.

(False) 28. Legitimating tactics are those whose appeal is based upon position power. (True) 29.

Referent power is more effective than formal power bases and is positively related to employees’ satisfaction with supervision.

(True) 30.

The most effective approach to impression management on the job is to build credibility and maintain authenticity.

(True) 31.

Impression management has been shown to be related to higher performance ratings by increasing liking and perceived similarity.

(True) 32.

The tone of your voice, rate of speech, and how you deliver your message are relatively unimportant in the impression management area.

(False) 33.

Impression management is particularly salient in job interviews and promotional contexts.

(True) 34.

Upward influence includes appealing to a higher authority or citing a firm’s goals as a reason for others to follow your suggestion.

(True) 35.

Managers report using personal appeals most frequently with other managers and rational persuasion most frequently with subordinates.

(False) 36. Effective politics is about winning at all costs. (False) 37.

Almost all managers surveyed suggest workplace politics exist in their organizations and that to be successful individuals must engage in politics.

(True) 38.

If employees feel their organizations are too driven by politics, they are less committed to the organization and perform worse on the job.

(True) 39.

Individuals high in internal locus of control tend to engage in more political behavior.

(True) 40.

When resources such as raises or promotions are limited, employees see the organization as more political.

(True) 41.

When individuals feel role ambiguity in their jobs, they feel the organization is more political.

(True) 42.

The more democratic the decision making is in a firm, the more the firm will be perceived as political.

(True) 43.

Social network analysis can reveal who can be trusted in an organization, who is important to decision making and even who is innovative.

(True) 44.

Boundary spanners are people who are linked to the greatest number of people in the organization.

(False) 45.

Social network analysis indicating strong ties suggests informational, not emotional support.

(False) 46.

Peripheral specialists in a social network are those with special expertise who can be called upon for advice even though they work independently from the group.

(True) 47. Strong ties in a social network are especially useful for innovation. (False) 48.

Company presidents usually possess at least legitimate, coercive, and referent power.

(False) 49.

High power distance countries are those where power is centralized in the hands of a few.

(True) 50.

In low power distance countries, decisions are often made based upon loyalty rather than some formal review process.

(False)

MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: English Teacher to Billionaire: The Case of Jack Ma 51.

(a) 52.

(c)

*Which of these was a key to Jack Ma building Alibaba? a. He chose to share his story and his vision rather than detailed business plans. b. He did a lot of networking on social media. c. He presented a detailed business plan personally. d. He saw every other competitor as an enemy. Easy/Knowledge *Jack Ma believes is finding employees that a. he can intimidate. b. know how to play office politics. c. are smarter than he is. d. will argue with him and never give in. Medium/Comprehension

Section I: The Basics of Power 53.

(b) 54.

(a) 55.

(b)

The ability to influence the behavior of others to get what you want is a. charisma. b. power. c. conformity. d. pressure. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding power distribution research is accurate? a. Power distribution is visible in organizations. b. Individuals ranked themselves lower than their coworkers did. c. In comparing rankings given to managers with regard to their influence, there was general agreement on the top five but no agreement on the bottom five. d. Research indicates the ability to rank managers by influence is a underutilized practice in most industries and firms. Difficult/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding the positive and negative consequences of power? a. Individuals are often quick to question the actions of those in power. b. Powerful CEOs can align an organization to achieve goals. c. The adage, “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” is rarely true. d. Power often leads to corruption and the destruction of companies. Difficult/Evaluation

56.

(b) 57.

(d) 58.

(b) 59.

(d) 60.

People’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms is a. culture. b. conformity. c. power. d. dependency. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding the Milgram experiment on conformity to authority is correct? a. Participants believed they were engaged in an experiment on job design. b. Over half of the participants refused to shock the learner at very high voltage levels regardless of the encouragement to do so provided by the experimenter. c. Several learners were treated for depression at the conclusion of the study. d. The researcher/experimenter’s role was very important in obtaining group compliance with the experiment procedures/guidelines. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding the Asch studies is accurate? a. Most of the participants in the Asch groups were unaware of the correct answer. b. A dissenting minority influenced the nature of response given by participants. c. Conformity with an incorrect answer was attributed to the perception that some members of the group were more intelligent. d. A dissenting minority response caused the participants to give the correct answer only if that minority also gave the right answer. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding the Zimbardo study is correct? a. The experimental guards received training before they were told to keep order. b. The guards became abusive and aggressive, but the prisoners exhibited little reaction. c. Study participants refused to adapt to their roles. d. The Zimbardo study was ended early due to the participant’s deep entrenchment of the roles. Difficult/Evaluation The strategic contingencies model suggests a. the more difficult it is find a substitute, the less power held by the person with the substitute. b. the more unique your resource, the more power you will have. c. the more vital the resources you control, the less power you hold. d. the more dependent an individual is on another, the less power the one being depended on has in the situation. (b) Difficult/Analysis

61.

(a) 62.

(d) 64.

(d) 65.

(b)

Mark is the only individual in his organization who speaks Spanish fluently. His firm just purchased a firm located in Mexico. Mark’s boss just told him how valuable he is to the firm. This scenario is an example of what factor in the strategic contingency model? a. scarcity b. dependent c. independence d. substitutability Medium/Application The value of the resource is its a. scarcity. b. substitutability. c. importance. d. dependency. Easy/Knowledge The organizational behavior course has a project as a key requirement in the course. As part of the course’s evaluation, students must indicate which group member is the most valuable to the group. The designated individual will receive bonus points. Nick is the only one in his course project group who can create effective PowerPoint presentations. As the group’s presentation must feature a visual aid, Nick is very confident he will be chosen as the most valuable group member. Elizabeth just arrived at the group meeting with ideas for depicting colorful poster boards with the same information. The group was very enthusiastic about her novel ideas. This scenario demonstrates the impact ___________ has on the level of power one has. a. importance b. dependency c. scarcity d. substitutability Medium/Application Which of the following is correct regarding aspects of the strategic contingency model? a. If the resources you control are vital to the organization, you will be viewed as a threat to the others and will have less job security. b. If there is a clear substitute that exists, the level of power held is greater. c. The more difficult something is to obtain, the less value it tends to have. d. The more dependent you are on another, the less power you have. Medium/Analysis. *Power can easily corrupt an organization, one reason being a. no one pays attention. b. people conform because they fear retaliation. c. people are inherently evil. d. it’s impossible to remain ethical in a position of leadership. Easy/Knowledge

Section II: The Power to Influence 66.

(d) 67.

(b) 68.

(a) 69.

A professor assigns grades due to _________ power. a. coercive b. referent c. reward d. legitimate Medium/Application Managers at a pharmaceutical research and development firm have checkbooks that they carry around with them as they monitor their subordinates. If a manager notes outstanding behavior by a subordinate, they can write the high-level performer a check on the spot. This is an example of the manager’s ___________ power. a. referent b. reward c. expert power d. information Medium/Application Whitt Company made a substantial monetary offer to Bob to leave his design job at Lincoln Industries and come to work at Whitt. The Whitt CEO, on hearing some complaints from members of the Whitt Board of Directors about the size of Bob’s pay package, responded, “Bob is one of the few people in the industry who really understands what the customer wants and can design it into the product.” Bob has ____________ power. a. expert b. legitimate c. referent d. legitimate Medium/Application Professor Lamb is a fabulous speaker—funny, topical, and very knowledgeable about his subject. His classes are always filled as soon as they open for scheduling and the waiting list to get into them is long. Students never miss his class and they highly recommend him to their friends. Graduate students want to study with him to learn his techniques. Professor Lamb has ___________ power. a. coercive b. legitimate c. referent d. reward Medium/Application Al Dunlap was recognized as a turnaround artist for firms experiencing financial and performance difficulties. When Dunlap arrived at a firm, downsizing usually followed. Dunlap received the nickname, “Chainsaw Al” due to his cost-cutting abilities. When Dunlap arrived at a firm he would recommend major restructuring and though they were not supportive of his tactics, his managers implemented his plan. Dunlap had ___________ power. a. legitimate

(a) 71.

(b) 73.

(d) 74.

(a) 75.

b. likability c. referent d. informational Medium/Application When negotiating a deal on the purchase of a new automobile, Bradley had manufacturing cost data from his neighbor who worked for the car manufacturer. Bradley got himself a good deal on his purchase due to his ___________ power in the negotiation. a. referent b. legitimate c. information d. coercive Medium/Application Access to specific knowledge or skills is _______________ power. a. expert b. information c. referent d. reward Easy/Comprehension The ability to grant an increase in pay, a perk, or an attractive job assignment is ___________ power. a. referent b. legitimate c. expert d. reward Easy/Comprehension Coercive power a. is the ability to take something away or punish someone for noncompliance. b. is the ability to influence due to the possession of knowledge or skill. c. stems from the personal characteristics of the person such as the degree to which we respect and want to be like them. d. stems from one’s organizational role or position. Easy/Knowledge Referent power a. is the ability to take something away or punish someone for noncompliance. b. is the ability to influence due to the possession of knowledge or skill. c. stems from the personal characteristics of the person such as the degree to which we respect and want to be like them. d. stems from one’s organizational role or position. Easy/Knowledge Power that comes from one’s organizational role or position is a. expert power.

(a) 78.

(d) 79.

(b) 81.

(a) 82.

b. referent power. c. legitimate power. d. information power. Easy/Comprehension Power that comes from knowledge and skill is a. expert power. b. referent power. c. legitimate power. d. reward power. Easy/Comprehension Attempting to get others to do what we want is a. commitment. b. power. c. charisma. d. influence. Easy/Knowledge The ability to attract others, win their admiration, and hold them spellbound is a. power. b. influence. c. charisma. d. commitment. Easy/Knowledge According to surveys, the most frequently used influence tactic is a. personal appeals. b. rational persuasion. c. legitimating. d. pressure. Easy/Comprehension Mike was playing video games. His mother came downstairs and said, “Mike, your room is a mess. I want you to go upstairs right now and clean it up or you will not be able to go out on Saturday.” Mike wanted to finish his game but saved it instead and went to clean his room. Mike has responded to Mom’s influence attempt with a. compliance. b. resistance. c. commitment. d. exchange. Medium/Application When a target agrees to a request and actively supports it, the target’s response is a. resistance. b. compliance. c. commitment. d. conformity.

(c)

Easy/Comprehension

83.

The college organization president spoke to her members noting that the organization needed monetary donations to reach their goals. She cited numerous reasons why the money was needed and encouraged all members to call alumni members of the group for such donations. She suggested that the group members remind the alumni of the organization’s importance and their ties to that group. John dislikes asking anyone for money and decided not to make the calls. John is responding to the president’s influence tactics with a. resistance. b. conformity. c. compliance. d. commitment. Medium/Application

(a) 84.

(d) 85.

(c)

When the influence target does not wish to comply with the request and either passively or actively repels the influence attempt, they are exhibiting a. conformity. b. compliance. c. commitment. d. resistance. Easy/Knowledge The school district negotiator notes during contract negotiations with the teachers’ union that the district cannot afford a 3% wage increase. The district negotiator presents the current expenditure budget, the projected tax revenue and state contributions, and the currently increasing unemployment rate in the community’s tax base as evidence of the lack of extra money for the increases. The district negotiator is attempting to convince the teachers’ negotiator to pull back his demands using a. inspirational appeals. b. pressure. c. rational persuasion. d. personal appeals. Medium/Application The Teach for America representative faced the group of college students and asked, “Do you want to make a difference in this world? Do you want to give back for all the good things you have had happen to you over your lifetime? Do you want to help a child have a chance, a chance like yours? Then, won’t you consider giving just nine months of your life to make a difference? Consider joining me and thousands of your peers in leading this country in a new direction by taking part in Teach for America.” The representative is using the _______________ influence tactic. a. rational persuasion b. personal appeal c. inspirational appeal d. pressure Difficult/Application

87.

(b) 88.

(b) 89.

(d) 90.

(d) 92.

Giving students a free mug, t-shirt, or blanket just for getting their names on a mailing list at an organization is an example of the ____________ influence tactic. Research suggests individuals try to repay what has been given them. a. ingratiation b. exchange c. pressure d. personal appeal Medium/Analysis Using different forms of making others feel good about themselves is the influence tactic of a. exchange. b. ingratiation. c. pressure. d. personal appeal. Easy/Comprehension The use of client lists by advertisers and businesses to promote goods and services is an example of the _____________ influence tactic. And, it works! a. pressure b. personal appeal c. exchange d. coalition Medium/Comprehension The influence tactic that works most effectively in organizations that value democratic decision making is a. pressure. b. coalition. c. consultation. d. ingratiation. Medium/Comprehension A number of weight loss products advertised on television feature doctors who note the safety and effectiveness of the product. This approach to convincing viewers to purchase the product is an example of the _______________ influence tactic. a. liking b. personal appeal c. pressure d. legitimating Medium/Analysis Getting a person to enter an employee assistance program for a substance abuse problem as a condition of keeping their job is an example of using the ____________ influence tactic. a. legitimating b. pressure c. personal appeal d. consultation

(b)

Medium/Comprehension

93.

Your roommate says to you, “I really need to make sure that I do not have any typos or misspelled words on my cover letter for my business communications class. Will you please read it for me?” This is an example of the a. exchange influence tactic. b. ingratiation influence tactic. c. personal appeal influence tactic. d. rational persuasion influence tactic. Medium/Application

(b) 95.

(a) 96.

_______________ power is more effective than formal power and is positively related to employee performance and organizational commitment. a. Legitimate b. Referent c. Reward d. Information Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true regarding impression management? a. Whether you are actively managing your image or not, people are forming impressions of you. b. You can begin managing your impression as soon as your first day of work. c. At work, the most effective approach to impression management is to build credibility and be the person you want to be. d. You cannot actively shape the way people perceive you. Medium/Synthesis Which of the following is a category of strategies that an individual can use to effectively manage their impression? a. personality b. social c. nonverbal d. all of the above Easy/Comprehension Your posture, hand gestures, and eye contact are all examples of what aspect of impression management? a. other-focused b. self-focused c. nonverbal d. personality Medium/Analysis Which of the following best represents the self-focused strategy of impression management? a. “I like your tattoo.” b. “Maybe we could grab lunch?” c. “I am a hard worker.”

(a) 100.

(b) 101.

(b) 102.

(d)

d. “You must really be an expert in this.” Difficult/Application Research suggests which of the following is an outcome of impression management? a. higher performance ratings b. decreased liking c. decreased likelihood of being hired d. increased commitment to the organization Medium/Comprehension The ability to influence those in positions lower than yours is a. upward influence. b. downward influence. c. peer influence. d. diagonal influence. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding upward influence is accurate? a. While helping higher-ups be more effective can help employees gain more power for themselves, there is no gain for those same employees from allowing those below to influence them. b. Asian American and Caucasian American managers use different tactics in influencing their superiors than they utilize in influencing their subordinates. c. As organization complexity grows, the need for upward influence decreases. d. Downward influence examples include forming an alliance or a perceived alliance with a higher up and appealing to a higher authority. Difficult/Synthesis Downward influence is best achieved through a. citing the firm’s goals. b. forming alliances. c. an inspiring vision. d. forming support networks. Medium/Analysis Research on the direction of influence and the effectiveness of various influence techniques indicates a. rational persuasion is the least frequently used influence tactic across all functional groups. b. subordinate use of assertiveness and rationality as influence tactics lead to negative outcomes. c. introverts are more likely to use inspirational appeal as an influence tactic. d. the better the quality of relationship between the subordinate and supervisor, the more positively resistance to influence techniques are seen. Difficult/Synthesis

104.

(a) 105.

(d) 107.

(b) 108.

(a) 110.

*A seemingly logical argument can be flawed because of logical fallacies, which are a. common errors that undermine the logic of an argument. b. artifacts of previous discussions. c. impersonations of real events. d. radical personality errors. Medium/Comprehension *“All I ever see are Chevrolets, so everyone must be buying a Chevy” is an example of a(n) a. red herring argument. b. bandwagon argument. c. circular reasoning argument. d. moral equivalence argument. Medium/Comprehension *“That Jonas family is full of thieves, so I’m sure Amy Jonas is the one who stole my notebook” is an example of a(n) a. red herring argument. b. moral equivalence argument. c. bandwagon argument. d. ad hominem argument. Medium/Comprehension *”Everyone says that I’m the most popular sorority president ever so you know it’s true!” is an example of a(n) a. either/or argument. b. bandwagon argument. c. circular reasoning argument. d. moral equivalence argument. Medium/Comprehension *An argument that ties an unrelated group of events together, assuming that if one thing happens then another one will, is a(n) a. red herring argument. b. bandwagon argument. c. slippery slope argument. d. moral equivalence argument. Medium/Comprehension *After Deena wrecked into another car, she told the police officer “I couldn’t help it, my dog jumped on my lap and I swerved.” Deena’s reasoning is a(n) a. red herring argument. b. straw person argument. c. circular reasoning argument. d. ad hominem argument. Medium/Comprehension *Comparing a minor item, like a waitress overcharging you, with a major one, like Bernie Madoff, is an example of a a. slippery slope argument.

b. c. d. (c) 111.

(a)

straw person argument. circular reasoning argument. moral equivalence argument. Medium/Comprehension

*Ricardo told his sister Maria that if she didn’t agree with him on how to divide up their parent’s estate, then she was no sister of his. Ricardo is using the a. either/or argument. b. bandwagon argument. c. circular reasoning argument. d. moral equivalence argument. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Organizational Politics 112.

(d) 113.

(a) 114.

(b) 115.

(a) 116.

Political behaviors in organizations include which of the following? a. negotiating b. alliance building c. resolving conflicting interests d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational politics? a. Organizational politics are informal, unofficial, and even behind-the-scene efforts to influence, increase power or achieve objectives. b. Politics arise in an organization when there is a surplus of resources. c. Effective politics is all about winning at all costs. d. Organizational politics are universally bad for organizations. Medium/Synthesis If employees think that their organization is overly driven by politics a. employees have lower job satisfaction, but are no less committed to the organization. b. employees perform worse on their jobs. c. employees have higher levels of job performance. d. that perception is nearly impossible to change. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is an individual antecedent of political behavior? a. political skill b. role ambiguity c. availability of resources d. tenure Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is an organizational antecedent of political behavior? a. expectations of success b. role ambiguity

(b) 117.

(a)

c. political skill d. internal locus of control Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding antecedents of political behavior is accurate? a. Role conflict presents opportunities for employees to negotiate their duties. b. Authoritarian decision making leads to more political behavior in the organization. c. Individuals high in political skill are more effective at their jobs. d. Individuals low in internal locus of control engage in more political behavior. Medium/Synthesis *Which of these is NOT a recommended step to avoid ineffective politics, or turf wars, at the office? a. Allow everyone to have a set of rules for their specific department b. Have defining objectives and ongoing operating objectives c. Organize the office around a unifying goal d. Have a way to measure the objectives Medium/Comprehension

Section IV: Understanding Social Networks 119.

(a) 121.

(b) 122.

Informal social networks serve which of the following important functions? a. Delivering public information b. Providing support c. Allowing individuals access to diverse skill sets d. Helping diffuse power Medium/Comprehension Social network analysis has been used to assess who in the organization a. in the group can be trusted. b. in the group is innovative. c. in the group is important in decision making. d. all of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following is considered a key role in a social network? a. peripheral connectors b. boundary spanners c. external specialists d. internal specialists Easy/Knowledge People who connect one network to another within the company or even across organizations are a. central connectors. b. boundary spanners.

(b) 123.

(d) 124.

(a) 125.

(b) 126.

(d)

c. external specialists. d. peripheral specialists. Easy/Comprehension Allan does not work for Core Company, but the human resource director calls him whenever he wants some advice on labor unions. Allan is classified as a _____________ in a social network analysis. a. central connector b. boundary spanner c. external specialist d. peripheral specialist Medium/Analysis ________________ indicate emotional as well as informational support in a social network. a. Strong ties b. Weak ties c. Social ties d. Casual ties Easy/Comprehension Brokering power in a social network means you a. have a high level role in a social network. b. can introduce people to each other. c. have expert power in a social network. d. have resources that others in a social network desire. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding the analysis of social networks is correct? a. Weak ties are more difficult to maintain than strong ties. b. Strong ties indicate emotional support but not informational support. c. Strong ties are particularly useful for innovation. d. Ties that are reciprocated are strong ties. Medium/Synthesis

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 127.

(a) 128.

In countries with high power distance a. decisions are sometimes based on loyalty, not performance. b. it is unclear who is in power. c. people expect small differences in pay. d. people perceive inequity to be inherently wrong. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is correct about power distance? a. Leaders in high power distance countries emphasize equality and opportunity for everyone.

(b) 129.

(a)

In low power distance countries leaders are not to “stand out too much” from the rest of their firms. c. Organizations in low power distance countries are more hierarchical in nature than in high power distance countries. d. In high power distance countries formal review mechanisms are in place to give everyone a fair chance at pay raises. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding culture and perceptions of power? a. A country’s culture determines how people will attempt to influence each other. b. In Mexico, which has a higher power distance dimension than in the United States, lower level managers were able to make decisions on behalf of their bosses. c. Rational persuasion is seen as more effective in China than in the United States. d. Chinese managers rated influence tactics like coalitions lower than their American counterparts. Medium/Analysis

Closing Section: You’ve Got a Friend in Me: The Case of Dale Carnegie 130.

(d) 131.

(b)

In his influential book, How to Win Friends and Influence People, Dale Carnegie recommends which of the following actions in order to increase your referent power? a. Smile b. Become genuinely interested in other people c. Be a good listener d. All of the above Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements about referent power is true? a. Referent power is less effective than formal power. b. Referent power is positively related to employees’ satisfaction with supervision. c. Referent power can lead others to view a person as overly political. d. Referent power refers to how powerful one is in relation to others. Medium/Analysis

FILL IN THE BLANK 132.

_______________ is the ability to influence the behavior of others to get what you want. (Power) 133.

People’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms is __________.

(conformity) 134.

The __________studies looked at conformity and authority by having participants shock learners when those learners provided an INCORRECT response. (Milgram) 135.

Individuals could be influenced to say that two lines were the same length when one was clearly shorter than the other due to conformity in the _________ studies.

(Asch) 136.

The ___________ study was stopped early because participants and the experimenter became too entrenched in their roles of aggressive jail guard and helpless prisoner. (Zimbardo) 137.

When discussing dependency, the concept of ___________ means the uniqueness of a resource. (scarcity) 138.

To determine how dependent you are on someone you need to assess three key factors— ___________, ____________, and ____________. (scarcity, importance, substitutability) 139. Power derived from one’s role in the organization is ______________ power. (legitimate) 140.

A manager possesses ___________ power because he can provide you an increase in pay or a promotion. (reward) 141.

Punishing someone for noncompliance, as a parent does to a child when the child does not clean her room, is an example of __________ power. (coercive) 142.

__________ power comes from knowledge and skills such as the long-time employee who knows everything about company history and procedures. (Expert) 143.

When negotiations are going on, the person computing the numbers to determine if a requested pay increase can be given possesses _________ power. (information) 144.

Oprah Winfrey has tremendous charisma and is adored by many fans. Oprah has ____________ power. (referent) 145. When we try to get others to do what we want, we are using _________. (influence)

146.

The influence tactic used most frequently in the United States is ________________. (rational persuasion) 147.

When an influence target does not wish to comply with the request and either passively or actively repels the influence attempt, the influence attempt response of ____________ is occurring. (resistance) 148.

The influence attempt response______________ occurs when the target not only agrees to the request but also actively supports it as well. (commitment) 149.

*The structure of an argument that has the premise provide conclusive proof for the answer is _____.

(logic) 150.

The influence tactic that uses facts, data and logical arguments is ___________________. (rational persuasion) 151.

The influence tactic that seeks to tap into your values, emotions and beliefs is __________________. (inspirational appeals) 152.

The influence tactic that causes you to help another person because you like him or her and he or she asked for your help is __________________. (personal appeal) 153.

_____________ is the influence tactic that uses flattery or other forms of making others feel good about themselves. (Ingratiation) 154.

The influence tactic where there is give and take such that if someone does something for you, you do something for them is called ___________. (exchange) 155.

Exerting undue influence on someone to do what you want or else something undesirable will occur is the __________ influence tactic. (pressure) 156.

When someone tries to influence you by saying, “by the power vested in me…,” he or she is using __________. (legitimation) 157.

____________________ is actively shaping the way others perceive you such as being concerned about your nonverbal, self-focused behaviors, and otherfocused behaviors. (Impression management)

158.

The ability to influence your boss and others in positions above you is ____________. (upward influence) 159.

People’s ability to relate well to others, self-monitor, inspire confidence and trust, and alter their reactions depending upon the situation they are in is _____________________. (political skill) 160. The visual map of relationships between individuals is a ________ __________. (social network) 161.

One of the key roles in a social network is a ______________, or people who are linked to the greatest number of people. (central connector) 162.

A ______________________ is a person who connects one network to another within the company or even across organizations. (boundary spanner) 163.

In a social network analysis, ___________ are characterized by less frequent interaction with less emotional attachment, which are easier to maintain and thus people have more of them. (weak ties) SHORT ANSWERS 164.

What is conformity? Give an example of an instance where people conformed. Conformity is people’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms. People conform because they want to fit in with and please those around them. There is also a tendency to look to others in ambiguous situations, which can lead to conformity.

165.

What is the relationship between dependency and power? Dependency is directly related to power. To ascertain how dependent you are on someone you need to assess: Scarcity or the uniqueness of the resource. The more unique your resource and the more difficult to obtain, the higher the level of power you possess. Importance or the value of the resource. The more important the resource, the more power you have. Substitutability or the ability to find another option that works as well. The fewer options available, the more power possessed.

The interaction of the three factors determines the level of dependence and power. 166.

Identify and define two bases of power discussed in the text. There are six bases of power: Legitimate power coming from the organizational role or position. Reward power coming from the ability to grant a reward like an increase in pay. Coercive power which is the ability to take something away or punish someone for noncompliance. Expert power comes from knowledge and skill. Information power is similar to expert power but information power centers on the access to specific information. Referent power comes from the personal characteristics of the person. Referent power is also called charisma.

167.

Name and define two of the most commonly used influence tactics. The influence tactics are: Rational persuasion using data, facts and logical arguments. Inspirational appeals tapping into values, emotions and beliefs. Consultation using an influence agent to ask others for help in directly influencing or planning to influence another person or group. Ingratiation refers to different forms of making others feel good about themselves. Personal appeal is helping another person because you like him or her and he or she asked for your help. Exchange is give and take where if someone does something for you, you do something for him or her in return. Coalition tactics refer to a group of individuals working together toward a common goal to influence others. Pressure is exerting undue influence on someone to do what you want or else something undesirable will occur. Legitimating tactics occur when the appeal is based on legitimate or position power such as “By the power vested in me….”.

168.

What is impression management? Provide a brief definition and note an example of when one might engage in impression management. Impression management means actively shaping the way you are perceived by others. This is particularly important for those who are seeking their first jobs. In interviews you must be aware of the cues about yourself you are sending through verbal and nonverbal behaviors.

169.

What are the directions that influence attempts can take? Upward influence is the ability to influence those in positions higher than yours. Downward influence is the ability to influence those in positions lower than yours.

Peer influence must be carried out in such a manner that it does not become destructively competitive. 170.

What are three individual antecedents of political behavior? Individual antecedents include: political skill, internal locus of control, investment in the organization, and expectations of success.

171.

What are three organizational antecedents of political behavior? Organizational antecedents include: scarcity of resources, role ambiguity, performance evaluations, promotions, and democratic decision making.

172.

What is a key role in a social network? There are three key roles in a social network. Central connectors are those linked to the greatest number of people. Boundary spanners are people who connect one network to another. Peripheral specialists have special expertise that can be drawn upon even if they work independently of the group.

173.

*Describe the steps to present arguments effectively and to avoid logical fallacies. Present each idea – each premise – in clear, specific language. Be sure to incorporate evidence for each premise, and to draw a clear connection between the premise and the conclusion. Don’t insert opinions or stereotypes or oversimplify; avoid logical fallacies.

ESSAY 174.

Choose a leader from entertainment, business or government. Describe the kinds of power that leader possesses. Answers will vary. Barack Obama had legitimate power as the President of the United States. He had coercive power as the Commander-in-Chief of the Military. He could appoint individuals to Cabinet positions, which gives him reward power. He had expert power given his years in government, and referent power based upon the size of his victory in the November, 2008 election. His regular briefings on national security and domestic economic issues gave him information power. Jeff Bezos has legitimate power as the CEO of Amazon. He has coercive power over his employees through hiring and firing. He has reward power through raises and promotions. He has expert power because of his development of the products and systems that grew Amazon, and by insight into what customers want. He has information power through his high-level, in-depth management meetings.

175.

Discuss the three sets of classic studies on conformity and what the implications of their findings are.

The Milgram studies involved an experimenter, study participants and learners who were actually confederates chosen by the experimenter. The experimenter directed the participants to ask questions of the learners and when the learners were INCORRECT in their answers, to deliver a shock to those learners. The participants delivered shocks for INCORRECT answers long after the “fake” shocks would have been in a damaging range and long after they heard “screams” of pain from the learners. The study showed that people conform to the direction given to them by someone in authority. In the Asch studies, individual participants were paired with confederates and asked about the length of lines. The confederates were to influence the individuals to say that two lines were the same length when one was clearly shorter than others. Research participants went along with wrong answers about 37% of the time. When a confederate acted as a dissenting minority, and gave the correct answer, the INCORRECT response decreased by 75%. In short, the power of a small dissenting minority was demonstrated. In the Zimbardo study, volunteers were placed in a prison simulation. The prisoners were picked up by real police officers and placed in the basement of a Stanford building. Guards were chosen from among the volunteers and were told to keep order without any training. It did not take long for the guards to become aggressive and abusive and the prisoners to become depressed and helpless. Because the participants were becoming so entrenched in their roles, the experiment was terminated early. All three studies demonstrate how authority can produce conformity. Also, conformity is a tendency people gravitate toward, so checks and balances must be put into place to ensure abuse does not occur. 176.

Present a scenario when someone attempted to influence you to do something. Indicate what influence tactics or tactics they used to get you to do what they wanted. Answers will vary with the student. Among the influence tactics that can be presented are: rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, personal appeal, exchange, coalition tactics, pressure and legitimating tactics. One scenario that occurs on college campuses is where students come to speak to juniors and seniors to encourage them to join “Teach for America.” The speakers are usually recent graduates of the particular college who are part of the program and are attempting to recruit their peers to join the program. They use influence tactics centered on inspirational appeals particularly with regard to how the soon-to-be graduates can make a difference in the world before they begin their corporate lives. The inspirational appeals are accompanied by visuals showing how one can aid America’s troubled youth.

177.

Discuss Dale Carnegie’s recommendations for get others to like you. Do you find them viable?

Carnegie’s recommendations are: Be genuinely interested in other people. Smile. Remember that a person’s name is the most important sound in any language. Be a good listener. Talk in terms of the other person’s interests. Make the other person feel important. The viability is an issue that is student specific. Generally, Carnegie’s work relies on referent power and the recognition that referent power grows if others like, respect and admire you. 178.

How can you use impression management in an interviewing situation? Some key aspects of impression management for the interviewing situation are the three main categories of: Nonverbal: When someone looks at you what does your clothing have to say about you? Do you have body piercings? What will the interviewer, who likely will be of a different generation than you, think? Self-focused: Promoting and enhancing your skills and positive qualities. What are you saying that conveys positive aspects of yourself? Are you demonstrating behavior that highlights your skills and qualifications? Other-focused: Do you complement your interviewer? Do you acknowledge the interviewers skills and experiences?

179.

Choose a social network of which you are a part. How would you go about doing a social network analysis? What would you be looking for in the results of that analysis? A social network analysis looks at the structure of social relationships in the group. You might look at who emails whom in a class group you have. Who calls whom? What do they talk about? How frequently do these actions occur? After the data is collected, you use software to determine the contacts and membership in the central connectors, boundary spanners and peripheral specialist categories. Further, you assess strong ties and weak ties. Both ties are important to understand where one might begin to lay the groundwork for a change in the group, for example.

Organizational Behavior, Version .0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 14 Organizational Structure and Change TRUE/FALSE (False) 1.

Decentralization is the concentration of decision making at higher levels in the organization.

(False) 2.

Employees feel that decentralized organizations provide greater levels of procedural fairness.

(True) 3.

If a firm is operating in a stable environment, the centralized organizational structure may lead to the most efficient operations.

(True) 4. A formalized structure leads to faster decision making. (False) 5. Tall structures have wider span of control than flat structures. (False) 6.

Flat structures are better at satisfying employee self-actualization needs while tall structures are better at satisfying employee security needs.

(True) 7. In divisional structures, employees tend to be more specialists than generalists. (False) 8. Functional structures are most effective for companies with large product lines. (False) 9.

Employees working in dynamic environments depend on their general mental abilities for good performance.

(True) 10. Organic structures are highly formalized and centralized. (False) 11.

The biggest advantage of a mechanistic structure, especially in a stable environment, is its efficiency.

(True)

12. Organic structures are related to higher levels of job satisfaction. (True) 13. Matrix organizations violate the unity of command principle. (True) 14. Conflict at various levels is a potential issue for matrix organizations. (True) 15.

A strategic alliance is a type of boundaryless organization where all nonessential functions are outsourced.

(False) 16.

A learning organization is one where acquiring knowledge and changing behavior as a result of the newly acquired knowledge is part of the organization’s design.

(True) 17. Organizational change can be either radical or incremental. (True) 18.

Moore’s law says the overall complexity of computer circuits will double every 18 months with no increase in costs, so firms will rapidly change their technology.

(True) 19.

While manufacturing jobs have been outsourced, knowledge-based jobs are safe from outsourcing.

(False) 20.

Change is more likely to occur in firms that are performing poorly because successful firms keep doing what they have done to make them successful.

(True) 21.

Surveys indicate that resistance to change is one of the top two reasons why change efforts within organizations fail.

(True) 22.

Passive resistance refers to sabotaging the change effort and being outspoken about the negative effects of change.

(False) 23.

When people react to organizational change negatively, they are absent more often and are more likely to voluntarily leave the company.

(True) 24. Employees with a positive self-concept are better at coping with change. (True) 25.

Those employees who feel they can perform well under a new system will be more committed to change.

(True) 26. People do not welcome change whether it is favorable or not to them. (False) 27. Resistance to change is never a positive force for an organization. (False) 28. The first stage in Lewin’s Model of planned change is unfreezing. (True) 29.

Employees with more complete information are no more committed to the change effort than those who have less than complete information.

(False) 30.

Convincing the opinion leaders in your organization of the need for organizational change is likely to be a more successful technique to ensure change than trying to get everyone on board at the same time.

(True) 31.

During change efforts, the organization should focus on big wins to demonstrate the success of the effort.

(False) 32. Cultures low in uncertainty avoidance are comfortable with change. (True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: Changes in Latitudes, Changes in Attitudes: The Case of Kronos

33.

(b) 34.

*What is the main reason that Kronos changed its organization’s culture by allowing unlimited vacation time? a. managers were tired of tracking employees’ time b. to attract the best people to the organization c. to compete with international competitors d. it added a major sales incentives program, so no one would want to take time off Medium/Comprehension *In an organization offering unlimited vacation time, employees typically are what percentage in favor/not in favor? a. 95% / 5% b. 60% / 40% c. 30% / 70% d. 75% / 25%

(a)

Easy/Knowledge

35.

*When rolling out a change like unlimited vacation time, it’s important to mitigate the concerns of a. customers who are afraid the product will change b. suppliers who have a different vacation system c. investors who never take vacation d. employees who have worked at the organization for a long time and accrued vacation time Medium/Comprehension

(d) 36.

(b)

*After Kronos implemented the unlimited vacation time policy, the company a. decided to go private. b. had a year of record profits. c. lost over 20% of its employees. d. became unionized. Easy/Knowledge

Section I: Organizational Structure 37.

(b) 38.

(b) 39.

Organization structure refers to a. the degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in the organization. b. how individual and team work within an organization is coordinated. c. the degree to which policies, procedures, job descriptions and rules are written and explicitly articulated. d. the number of employees reporting to a single manager. Easy/Knowledge The degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in an organization is a. formalization b. centralization c. hierarchical levels d. departmentalization Easy/Knowledge

(d)

In an organization, the union contract is very explicit as to employee work rules, the tasks each individual employee will perform, the pay each individual will receive, how each individual can move from one position to another and so on. This organization’s structure is an example of a ____________ structure in the organization. a. centralized b. departmentalized c. hierarchical d. formalized Medium/Application

40.

_________ refers to the number of levels within an organization.

(a) 41.

(b) 42.

(a) 43.

(d) 44.

(d) 45.

(c)

a. Hierarchy b. Departments c. Structure d. Centralization Easy/Knowledge The company is organized into accounting, marketing, human resource management, and production departments. This firm has a a. divisional structure. b. functional structure. c. product structure. d. matrix structure. Easy/Application The company was organized into the detergent area, the dishwashing soap area, and the health and beauty aid area. This firm has a a. divisional structure. b. functional structure. c. mechanistic structure. d. matrix structure. Easy/Application Centralized organizations a. tend to have faster, more efficient decision making. b. attract more job candidates. c. put less pressure on higher level managers. d. can lead to large cost savings in purchasing operations. Medium/Analysis Formalization a. can lead to greater innovativeness. b. enhances employee motivation. c. provides for quicker decision making. d. makes employee behavior predictable. Medium/Analysis In which of the following firms is formalization likely to occur? a. small, local pizza shop b. advertising agency c. unionized manufacturing firm d. nonunion heavy construction firm Difficult/Synthesis Tall structures provide a. employees greater levels of role ambiguity. b. employees with greater self-actualization need satisfaction. c. employees with greater security need satisfaction. d. managers with a greater span of control. Difficult/Evaluation

47.

(d) 48.

(d) 49.

(a) 50.

(b) 52.

(d) 53.

Flat structures a. have narrow spans of control. b. provide lower levels of self-actualization than tall structures. c. provide opportunities for greater role clarity for employees. d. provide limited advancement opportunities. Medium/Analysis Functional structures a. are most effective when an organization has a large number of products. b. are most effective in dynamic environments. c. tend to facilitate the effective performance of employees with general mental abilities. d. are cost-effective structures for the human resource and information technology departments of most companies. Medium/Analysis Highly formalized and centralized structures similar to bureaucracies are a. mechanistic structures. b. organic structures. c. matrix structures. d. product structures. Easy/Knowledge Organic structures a. are those that resemble a bureaucracy and are highly formalized and centralized. b. cross a functional structure with a product structure. c. are flexible and decentralized structures with low levels of formalization where communication lines are more fluid. d. are how individual and team work within an organization are coordinated. Easy/Knowledge Mechanistic structures a. are conducive to entrepreneurial activity and general innovativeness. b. maximize efficiency and minimize costs. c. enhance intrinsic motivation on the job. d. are flexible and react well to change. Medium/Analysis Organic structures a. are related to lower job satisfaction. b. have formal communication channels. c. maximize efficiency and minimize costs. d. are conducive to entrepreneurial activity and general innovativeness. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding the matrix structure is correct? a. The matrix structure increases the frequency of informal communication but decreases the frequency of formal communication.

(b) 54.

(b) 55.

(d) 58.

(a) 59.

The matrix structure is a response to uncertainty and dynamism in the environment. c. Matrix structures adhere to the unity of command principle. d. Matrix structures require managers to be more independent than in traditional structures. Difficult/Synthesis Unity of command refers to a. a centralized organizational structure. b. the situation in which each employee reports to a single manager. c. a matrix organizational structure. d. a strong organizational vision from executive leadership. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is a good piece of advice to give to individuals who have multiple bosses in a matrix structured organization? a. Set a schedule so that you work with one manager on certain days and the other manager on the other days. b. Keep conflicts you are experiencing to yourself. c. Make sure all managers are familiar with your overall workload. d. Avoid situations where you have multiple managers as they produce more conflict than benefits. Medium/Evaluation An organization that eliminates traditional barriers between departments as well as barriers between the organization and the external environment is a a. matrix organization. b. functional organization. c. boundaryless organization. d. divisional organization. Easy/Knowledge Learning organizations use which of the following approaches to acquire knowledge that they can use to change behavior? a. conducting formal retrospective meetings. b. studying customer habits. c. benchmarking against best industry practices. d. all of the above. Medium/Evaluation Two or more companies that find an area of collaboration and combine their efforts to create a partnership beneficial to both parties is a a. strategic alliance. b. modular organization. c. matrix organization. d. learning organization. Easy/Comprehension An organization where all the nonessential functions are outsourced is a a. strategic alliance.

(b) 60.

(b) 61.

(a) 62.

(a)

b. modular organization. c. matrix organization. d. learning organization. Easy/Comprehension *Which of these is a typical characteristic of a decentralized organization, not a centralized organization? a. employee exhaustion b. positive emotional climate c. more efficient operations d. negative employee attitudes Easy/Comprehension *Centralized operations are typically more efficient and cost-effective, while decentralized operations are typically a. more customer service oriented and employee friendly b. more responsive to investors needs c. better equipped to deal with a crisis d. more productive Easy/Knowledge *Which of these is NOT a way to seek advancement at an organization with a flat structure? a. mentor other employees b. seek a lateral move c. work closely with your direct supervisor d. redefine role at the company Medium/Comprehension *Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a matrix organization? a. unity of command b. coordination between managers c. improved response time for customer demands d. improved communication within the organization Easy/Knowledge

Section II: Organizational Change 64.

(a)

Which of the following statements regarding change is accurate? a. Organizational change is the movement of an organization from one state of affairs to another. b. Organizational change takes on limited forms. c. Organizational change has little to do with people management. d. Organizational change is rarely successful. Easy/Comprehension

65.

(d) 66.

(b) 67.

(b) 68.

(a) 69.

Which of the following is an external force that is creating change for organizations? a. technology b. workforce demographics c. market conditions d. all of the above Easy/Knowledge Which of the statements is true regarding workplace demographics and their impact on change? a. An older workforce that chooses retirement may cause an increase in valuable knowledge for firms. b. More older workers in the workforce will create a need for new types of benefits. c. Demographic shifts in the workforce will likely cause flexible work hours and job sharing to diminish as older people like the structure of set hours of work. d. An older workforce will result in a change demographically, but little else. Medium/Evaluation The practice of outsourcing as a response to the globalization of business has created which of the following changes for organizations? a. A reduction in the reliance on skilled workers. b. A need to deal with employee stress. c. A need to decentralize the organizational structure. d. A need to restructure employee communication channels. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements regarding factors of change in the organization is accurate? a. Rapid developments in technology force a firm to change its technology to keep up. b. Manufacturing jobs have been outsourced, but knowledge-based jobs are largely safe from such movement. c. Though 50% of all small businesses fail, those that succeed often do not become large, complex organizations. d. Changes in market conditions or the economy may cause companies to be resistant to change. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following statements is true regarding performance and organizational change? a. More successful firms find it easier to change than those performing poorly. b. ‘Nothing fails like success’ is a saying with little accuracy when it comes to organizational change. c. Change in upper level management is a motivator for organizational level change. d. Successful companies often have special practices in place to keep the organization working toward the status quo.

(c)

Medium/Synthesis

70.

The most negative reaction to a proposed change attempt is a. enthusiastic support. b. active resistance. c. passive resistance. d. compliance. Easy/Knowledge

(b) 71.

(a) 73.

(b) 74.

Andy is vehemently opposed to the restructuring of the jobs in his department in the manufacturing firm. He decides that since no one is listening to what he has to say he will get their attention by damaging each of the parts he is making for tomorrow’s shipment. This is an example of what kind of change reaction? a. enthusiastic support b. passive resistance c. active resistance d. compliance Medium/Application Marta has been a part-time faculty member at the university for nine years. She has been teaching two to three writing courses a semester. Last month, the dean held a meeting where he announced that next academic year, part-time instructors would be limited to teaching only two classes during the entire year. Marta is very upset and tells her husband, “I may look into teaching at the community college next year but don’t let anyone at the university know.” This is an example of what kind of change reaction? a. passive resistance b. enthusiastic support c. compliance d. active resistance Medium/Application The new CEO of XYZ Corporation has developed a plan that will call for the restructuring of the organization from a functional structure to a matrix one. In his meeting with his subordinates, manager Ervin says, “This will be great. You will still work for this area and me, but you will have variety in that you will also all be reporting to a second manager for various projects to which you will be assigned. This new structure will only help grow this company.” This is what kind of a reaction to change? a. compliance b. enthusiastic support c. active resistance d. passive resistance Medium/Application Georgio just returned from a meeting where his boss informed everyone of the new procedures to use in requesting reimbursement for travel. Georgio says, “I just figured out how to fill the other one out and now they are changing things. Oh, well, what are you going to do?” This is what kind of a reaction to change? a. enthusiastic support

(b) 76.

(a) 77.

(a) 78.

(d) 79.

(d) 80.

b. active resistance c. compliance d. passive resistance Medium/Application Being disturbed by changes without voicing your opinion is a. active resistance. b. passive resistance. c. enthusiastic support. d. compliance. Easy/Comprehension Compliance refers to a. going along with proposed changes with little enthusiasm. b. the most negative reaction to a proposed change. c. defending the change and encouraging others to give their support to the change as well. d. being disturbed by changes without voicing those opinions. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding resistance to change is correct? a. All change attempts have to overcome the resistance of people. b. Resistance to change is the first step in Lewin’s model of change. c. When people react negatively to change, they are absent less often. d. When people react negatively to change, they experience negative emotions, but are no more likely to leave the firm than they would be in a firm that was not undergoing organizational change. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following is a reason people resist change? a. low job satisfaction b. low agreeableness c. feelings of certainty d. fear of failure Easy/Comprehension All of the following statements regarding reasons employees resist change are correct EXCEPT a. those who feel they can perform well under a new system will be more committed than those who have lower confidence in their ability to perform. b. we are creatures of habit. c. feelings of uncertainty create stress. d. people with a negative self-concept view change as an opportunity. Medium/Synthesis Which of the following statements regarding reasons employees resist change is correct?

(d) 81.

(a) 82.

(b) 83.

(b) 84.

(a) 85.

People may not welcome the change currently proposed, but they do not usually place those changes into any past context, so former unsuccessful changes have little impact on the situation. b. People resist change even if it is personally beneficial to them. c. People are less likely to resist a change that is big in scope and has far reaching consequences. d. People resist change that negatively impacts their influence and power in the firm. Difficult/Synthesis Abdul has been downsized. Which of the following is a good piece of advice to offer him? a. Polish your resume and job hunting skills. b. Contact others in the organization to see if they are also affected by the downsizing. c. Cut your losses. d. Get angry! You just lost your job, you deserve to vent. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following is a stage of Lewin’s model of planned change? a. de-ice b. unfreeze c. assess d. resistance Easy/Comprehension Making sure that organizational members are ready for and receptive to change is what step of the Lewin model? a. refreeze b. unfreeze c. assess d. change Easy/Comprehension Ensuring that change becomes permanent and the new procedures become the norm is what stage of Lewin’s model of planned change? a. refreeze b. unfreeze c. assess d. change Easy/Comprehension

(b)

What is the first step in Lewin’s model of planned change? a. refreeze b. unfreeze c. assess d. change Easy/Comprehension

86.

When unfreezing for planned change it is important to

(b) 87.

(d) 88.

(d) 89.

(d) 91.

(b)

a. take things slowly; do not suggest a crisis is imminent. b. create a vision for change. c. communicate regarding change only on a need-to-know basis. d. provide rewards. Medium/Analysis Which of the following statements is true regarding the second stage of planned change? a. Squash resistance to change as this could derail progress. b. Get everyone on board with the change as soon as possible. c. Create big wins because people need to see that things are happening. d. Ensure that management keeps alert to and deals with obstacles that arise. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding the final stage of planned change? a. Employees should be informed of the results of change only after sufficient time has passed since the change effort. b. Declare victory early in making the change and get into a routine. c. Reward all employee regardless of whether they embraced the change effort. d. Change the mindset of people so change becomes a regular part of the corporate culture. Medium/Evaluation What advice would you give someone regarding overcoming resistance to your proposals? a. Do not listen to naysayers. b. Involve only those who are absolutely necessary in the change. c. Understand the reasons for resistance. d. Use at least three influence tactics. Medium/Analysis *What is one way that organizational change may need to respond to an aging workforce? a. lower the age for mandatory retirement b. raise the age for mandatory retirement c. force aging workers to document their activities d. offer more flexible work situations like job sharing and flexible work hours Medium/Comprehension *What is one of the advantages traditional retail stores still have over online retailers? a. lower prices b. larger selection c. being able to see and touch the product d. having most up-to-date items available Medium/Comprehension

92.

(d) 94.

(c)

*Which of these are emotions typically experienced by a person who is passively resistant to change? a. calm, relaxed, content b. stressed, angry, upset c. eager, excited, happy d. helplessness, despair, sadness Easy/Knowledge *Antonio started working at DEF Finance right out of college and was quickly promoted several times, becoming a division manager before age 30. After DEF Finance announced a plan to decentralize operations and eliminate divisions, Antonio because worried because of a. a perceived loss of power. b. a prevalence of change c. disrupted habits d. all of the above Difficult/Analysis *Organizational change may mean downsizing; which of these is NOT an appropriate way to handle being downsized? a. Find out what you are entitled to, whether it’s severance pay, continued health benefits, or training. b. Update your resume and secure a good reference at your current company. c. Share your situation on social media and make sure to criticized the company so everyone knows it wasn’t your fault. d. Consider new options and other career fields, using this as an opportunity. Medium/Comprehension

Section III: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 95.

(d) 96.

Which of the following is a more ethical alternative to downsizing? a. early retirement programs b. job sharing c. hiring freezes d. all of the above Medium/Analysis The system where proposals at lower levels are signed and passed along to higher level management in an effort to build consensus is the a. boundaryless organization. b. modular organization. c. ringi system. d. strategic alliance. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding structure and change around the world is correct?

(b) 98.

(a)

France is relatively comfortable with change because it is low in uncertainty avoidance. b. The United States is more likely to use rational persuasion as an influence tactic than China. c. The United States is characterized by higher levels of centralization than firms in Singapore and Hong Kong. d. Japanese organizations are largely decentralized as evidenced by their ringi system. Medium/Evaluation *A country’s culture may impact the organizational structure, since when leaders are expected to be, and are, power distant, the organization’s structure a. may have little impact on how employees are motivated. b. can be confusing to employees. c. can be used to change the culture. d. offers a way to remove the leaders. Medium/Comprehension

Closing Section: Lean, Mean, Driving Machine: The Case of Toyota

99.

(b) 100.

(d)

The fundamental idea behind TPS, or lean manufacturing, is a. efficiency at all costs. b. respect for customers and employees, where frontline employees are empowered to provide the best products with minimum waste. c. standardization in systems and processes so human resources can be transferred and utilized across the operation. d. centralized decision-making and standardization across the business. Medium/Analysis Which of the following components is part of Toyota’s TPS manufacturing system? a. Kaizen, the idea of continuous improvement. b. Kanban, just-in-time production. c. AndonCord, employees can stop the operation if they see an issue. d. All of the above. Medium/Comprehension

FILL IN THE BLANK 101.

A culture of “never being satisfied” and rethinking how things are done facilitates _____________________ (continuous improvement or learning)

102.

The fundamental idea behind TPS, or just-in-time production developed by Toyota, is respect for customers and employees, where __________________ are empowered to the best products and services with minimum waste. (frontline employees) 103.

__________________ refers to how individual work and team work are coordinated within an organization. (Organization structure) 104.

The degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in an organization is _____________. (centralization) 105.

An organization where policies, procedures, job descriptions and rules are written and explicitly articulated is ____________. (formalized) 106.

____________structures are associated with reduced motivation and job satisfaction and a slower pace of decision making. (Formalized) 107.

A firm with several layers of management between frontline employees and the top level has a __________ structure.

(tall) 108. The number of employees reporting to a single manager is the ______________. (span of control) 109.

A firm that has departments for finance, manufacturing, human resources, accounting, and marketing is an organization with a ___________ structure. (functional) 110.

A pharmaceutical company with medical devices, consumer products, baby care, and health supplements as its departments is organized as a _____________ structure. (divisional or product) 111.

_________ structures are most effective for organizations that do not have large numbers of products. (Functional) 112. ___________ structures are highly formalized and centralized. (Mechanistic) 113.

A flexible, decentralized structure with low levels of formalization where communication lines are more fluid is a(n) __________ structure. (organic) 114.

__________ organizations, which combine functional structures with product structures, violate the unity of command principle. (Matrix)

115.

A ___________organization is a type of boundaryless organization where all nonessential functions are outsourced. Toyota is one such organization. (modular) 116.

____________ organizations are organizations that eliminate traditional barriers between departments as well as barriers between the organization and external environment. (Boundaryless) 117.

A form of boundaryless organization where two or more companies find an area of collaboration and combine their efforts to create a partnership that is beneficial to both parties is a _______________. (strategic alliance) 118.

In _____________ experimenting, learning new things and reflecting on new knowledge are the norms. (learning organizations) 119.

The most negative reaction to a proposed change attempt is __________________. (active resistance) 120. Going along with proposed changes with little enthusiasm is ___________. (compliance) 121.

Michael defends the new change in company healthcare registration as helping the firm be more efficient. He says, “After all, we have healthcare. Let’s learn how to do this since it will help us.” Michael is reacting to the change using the ______________ form. (enthusiastic support) 122.

The first stage of Lewin’s process of change model is ___________, which ensures that employees are ready for change. (unfreezing) 123.

_______ is the final stage of Lewin’s process of change model which ensures that the change becomes permanent. (Refreezing) 124.

The _________ is used in Japan to build consensus by having proposals signed at lower levels and passed along to higher level management. (ringi system) 125. Toyota’s production system is built on principles of ______________ production (just-in-time) 126.

Toyota owes its success in large part to its manufacturing system known as _____.. (Total Production System)

127.

One issue faced by Toyota was the ______, Japanese-controlled organizational structure, which complicated decision-making in the United States. (centralized) 128. Toyota uses a system of _____ improvement and learning. (continuous) SHORT ANSWERS 129.

What are the four building blocks of a company’s structure? Centralization, departmentalization, formalization and hierarchical levels.

130.

In what type of firms does centralization seem to work best? Centralization is the concentration of decision making at higher levels in the organization. Centralization works well with organizations that need efficiency in their operations and works especially well in stable environments.

131.

Formalization works well in what type of organization? Formalization works best where explicitly articulated, clearly written rules, procedures, plans and programs are needed. Unionized settings are one such organization where such specificity is needed.

132.

Provide an example of an organization that has a functional structure. A company organized into human resource, finance, manufacturing, marketing and information technology departments would be a functional organization. Manufacturing firms are often organized in this manner.

133.

Give an example of a company that is organized along divisional lines. A firm organized along divisional lines may be organized based upon the products it produces. For example, a consumer snack food company like FritoLay might have its beverage division, its snack foods division, its restaurant division, etc.

134.

Compare and contrast mechanistic and organic structures. Mechanistic structures resemble a bureaucracy and are highly formalized and centralized. Organic structures are flexible and decentralized with low formalization.

135.

What is a matrix organization? A matrix organization is a cross between a functional structure and a product structure. Thus, employees report to department managers and project or team

managers. Such an arrangement violates the unity of command principle but is effective in uncertain and dynamic environments. 136.

What is a boundaryless organization? A boundaryless organization is a term coined by GE’s Jack Welch to refer to an organization that has eliminated traditional barriers between departments as well as barriers between the organization and external environment. There are two forms of the boundaryless organization: the modular organization and the strategic alliance.

137.

What is a learning organization? A learning organization is one where acquiring knowledge and changing behavior as a result of newly acquired knowledge is part of an organization’s design.

138.

Describe some forms that organizational change takes. Organizational change may impact a company’s strategy, structure, policies, procedures, technology or culture. The change can be radical or incremental.

139.

List some issues in the external environment that might create a need for change in an organization. Workplace demographics like the aging of that workforce, technological changes, globalization of business and market conditions are all issues that might create a need for change.

140.

What impact might workforce demographics have on an organization? A workforce demographic that might impact a firm is the aging workforce. Older people might require new or different benefits not currently offered to the existing workforce. They also might need different work arrangements and schedules.

141.

What impact might technology have on an organization? As technology rapidly changes, organizations must keep up. Firms struggle with the technology itself, funding the technology changes and training employees to keep up with those changes. Online retailers have had a major impact on traditional retailers, and companies like Toys R Us have closed.

142.

What impact does globalization have on an organization? Globalization can be a threat or an opportunity for a firm. Many firms have begun to outsource much of their production to be competitive through low-cost structures. Sometimes the outsourcing is a success, sometimes the whole adaptation must be reviewed. The toy companies in the United States that outsourced to China and now deal with concerns about lead paint on those toys are doing some rethinking of the outsourcing process.

143.

What impact do market conditions have on an organization?

The upheaval in the economy currently has created a dramatic need for change. Consolidations in multiple industries, ongoing corporate scandals and general uncertainty have necessitated a need to examine the way each firm does business and to look at alternatives that might help it remain viable. 144.

Name two ways in which people react to change. People react in four ways: active resistance, passive resistance, compliance and enthusiastic support. Any change attempt must overcome resistance on the part of people and recognizing these reactions makes a manager better able to address that reaction and provide for a successful change implementation.

145.

Name two reasons why people resist change. People resist change for a variety of reasons including: it disrupts their habits; because of their personality, feelings of uncertainty, fear of failure, the personal impact of the change, the prevalence of change and the perceived loss of power.

146.

Is resistance to change always bad? No, resistance to change can be a positive force. When resistance provides feedback to assess the changes and the methods to achieve such change it can be serving a constructive purpose. When people provide constructive criticism, those suggestions can be integrated into the change process for better implementation.

147.

Briefly describe the Lewin process of change model. Lewin’s model is comprised of three stages: unfreezing, change and refreezing. The first stage ensures that employees are ready for change. The second stage executes the intended change and the third stage ensures the change is permanent.

148.

What are two key steps to take in ensuring success in unfreezing for change? The steps include: creating a vision for change, communicating a plan for change, developing a sense of urgency for change, building a coalition, providing support and allowing employees to participate.

149.

What are two key steps to take to ensure change is appropriately executed? The steps include: continue to provide support, create small wins, and eliminate obstacles.

150.

What are two key steps in refreezing for change? The steps include: publicizing success, building on prior change, rewarding change adoption, and making change a part of the organizational culture.

151.

What impact does organizational structure have on ethics? If the organizational structure is too rigid or hierarchical, employees are not provided opportunities to develop moral intelligence. This moral intelligence is key in assessing what is ethical or not in the business setting. Similarly, when the structure prohibits an employee from making decisions with some degree of autonomy, ethical behaviors fail to develop.

152.

Do organizational structures differ around the world? Briefly explain your answer. The answer is very simply, yes. The student may choose to cite specific countries and their structures but generally they will be noting the nature of centralization or decentralization of organizations in each country. In addition, the student may note the culture’s level of uncertainty avoidance in noting structure.

ESSAY 153.

What impact does structure have on Toyota Company’s success in the automobile industry? Toyota is successful because its structure supports its strategy. Toyota functions under just-in-time production. Such a production focus requires employees who are expert at their positions, and who are continuously learning and improving. Toyota, which is functionally structured, has aspects of a matrix organization whereby employees are placed on teams to engage in that continuous learning process. Their success was recently challenged due to their highly centralized structure which caused decision-making to be slow and bureaucratic. This limited the ability for regional leaders to respond to safety concerns of their vehicles in a timely fashion and caused the organization to be highly criticized by consumers.

154.

Choose a firm and discuss the nature of its structure using the four building blocks of structure as your focus. Student responses will vary. But they should include a discussion of centralization, formalization, departmentalization and hierarchical levels. The university is generally centralized with key decisions made in the chancellor/president’s office and implemented at the college level. The university is highly formalized with explicit policies, rules, and procedures in place to guide all activities from teaching to tuition payment by students. Everyone is covered by a general employee handbook and each school has specific additional rules. The university is departmentalized into schools based on functional area. The hierarchical levels include the chancellor/president, vice presidents, deans, full professors, associate professors, assistant professors, etc.

155.

Max has just been assigned to a project team after his organization restructured to a matrix organization. What kinds of advice could be offered him to help him deal with multiple bosses? Having multiple bosses is a difficult adjustment for many individuals because we are accustomed to the unity of command structure. The potential for conflict with the multiple boss, multiple duty/obligation structure is thus obvious. Some tips to meet the challenges include: Do not assume that having multiple bosses is necessarily a bad thing. Make sure all your managers are familiar with your overall workload. Make conflicts known to your bosses. Do not be afraid to request a meeting with all your managers. Make an effort to establish effective relations with each manager. Be cognizant of the relationships among managers as well. With these tips in mind, Max should be able to make the adjustment.

156.

Describe a time when a change was made in some organization of which you were a part. Were you resistant to the change? Why or why not? Answers will vary with the student but the response should clearly delineate what the change was that was instituted. Also, the reaction to the change should be noted with the commentary on whether the student was resistant or not. Sample: A manufacturing firm reclassified secretarial jobs. The company suggested the reclassification was necessary because the nature of jobs had changed. In this particular organization, computers had been provided to all members of the firm. Thus individuals throughout the organization were now able to type their own communication; they did not have to send work to the secretary for typing. Further, the organization had purchased a new telephone system so all organization members were able to put calls through to voice mail if they were busy. Again, secretaries had no need to answer phones. The overall result of the reclassification was that many secretarial jobs were placed at a lower level in the pay scale to reflect few duties performed. There was very vocal resistance to the plan, but that active resistance never rose to the level of sabotage. Clearly, the fact that employees’ livelihoods were impacted made the change a difficult one for the firm to implement. A number of secretaries ultimately left the firm, which likely was the intent of the company in reclassifying the jobs to begin with, as those positions were never filled when vacated.

157.

Describe an organization that you believe needs to undergo a change. Describe the change that is needed and, using Lewin’s model of planned change, discuss how you would implement that change. Answers will vary depending on the organization chosen. A family business owner of a mid-size manufacturing firm is aging and wants to leave the organization for retirement. He has two sons who are both part of the business and both desire to lead the organization. Before choosing a successor, he needs to work on stage one of change, unfreezing. He must prepare all employees of the firm and his external stakeholders for his departure. As the founder of the

firm, he is the face of the firm so he must inform everyone of his desires but also of the smooth transition that will not interrupt their service. Once he informs the stakeholders of his plans, he must choose a leader. That leader must create a vision for the future. This vision must be communicated to the employees. A sense of urgency must be imparted as transitions cannot drag on but must take place. Change leaders need to be found who will serve as key supporters for the new leader. All management members must support each other and the employees as this change takes place. Clearly, stage two is the actual change. As the transition occurs, small wins must be publicized so the employees believe that the firm will continue to prosper. The final stage of the change, refreezing, will be a publicizing of the success of the transition and how the firm continues to serve its customers. 158.

You have just been downsized from the firm where you have worked for nine years. What do you do to recover? Though a painful experience, given the economic circumstances and the fact that firms now compete in a global setting, downsizing is a possibility at any time for any level employee. To recover: Be calm. Easier said than done, but rational approaches to the incident as well as your next job search are needed at this critical time. Do not get angry. This is not your fault, it is circumstances. Do not burn bridges because of those circumstances. Know your rights. Make sure you understand severance packages and continued health insurance coverage. Think about your ideal job situation. Are you in the right field? Are you in the right size firm? Now is the time to make any changes that help you realize your ideal job. Get help. If the firm is not providing some job search assistance, find organizations that offer the resources you need including assistance on resume writing, job interview skills, etc. Polish your resume and job-hunting skills. Do not give up. You will find a job.

159.

Grace has been with her firm for a year and sees a number of procedures that she feels can be changed to enhance efficiency and effectiveness. She has offered those suggestions during group meetings and even through written communication to her boss. No one seems to pay any attention to the suggestions she has offered. How can she get support for her suggested changes? Grace might consider the following: Listen to the naysayers. Grace may believe she has a great idea, but maybe it is not as good as she thinks. Those who dissent may offer suggestions for change that make the original proposal, now a viable one. Assess whether your change is revolutionary. If Grace’s suggestions are dramatic changes, resistance is to be expected.

Involve those around you in planning the change. Grace should not provide everyone her suggestions, but make them a part of building those suggestions into a useful plan of action. Do you have credibility? Grace has ideas for changes but how is she perceived in the organization? Grace must be honest with herself and assess whether others trust her and thus will be willing to follow through on her suggestions. Present data to the audience. Grace needs to not just say “this needs to be done”; she needs to provide rationale for that change and why it would be successful. Appeal to the audience’s ideals. What is the purpose behind the suggestion? Will the suggestion in some manner make the company employees happier? Will it improve the company’s prospects? Understand the reasons for resistance to change. Grace must understand why employees are ignoring her proposals. Do her suggestions threaten the personal influence of some members? Are employees afraid to fail if this suggestion is implemented? As Grace reviews these items, she can reshape and reword her suggestions and resubmit them for consideration.

Organizational Behavior, Version 3.0 Bauer & Erdogan Chapter 15 Organizational Culture TRUE/FALSE 1.

Nordstrom’s has a lengthy employee handbook full of rules and regulations designed to emphasize quality in customer service.

(False) 2.

Organizational culture is a system of shared assumptions, values and beliefs indicating what are appropriate and inappropriate behaviors within an organization.

(True) 3.

Individuals are more aware of their firm’s culture when they have an opportunity to compare it with that of another firm.

(True) 4.

Research suggests that corporate strategy is the most important factor for business success, but organization culture is a close second.

(False) 5.

Researchers found a relationship between organizational success, measured by indicators like revenues, sales and market share, and organizational culture.

(True) 6. The three levels of organizational culture are beliefs, assumptions and artifacts. (False) 7. The deepest or innermost level of organizational culture is values. (False) 8.

Firms with an aggressive culture can face a number of lawsuits because of the focus on outperforming the competitor at all costs.

(True) 9.

Outcome-oriented cultures hold managers accountable for performance but not employees.

(False) 10.

If performance pressures increase too much, individuals begin to see their peers as competitors and short-term results become important, which can create unethical behaviors.

(True)

11.

Creating a safety culture can reduce accidents, improve employee retention and increase profitability due to reduced workers’ compensation claims.

(True) 12.

A strong culture always outperforms a weak culture because of the consistency of expectations.

(False) 13.

Subcultures can arise from the personal characteristics of employees and managers or the conditions of the workplace.

(True) 14.

Employee perceptions of subcultures have little impact on employee performance or commitment to the organization.

(False) 15. Countercultures are never tolerated in an organization once they are identified. (False) 16.

Organizational structure is the most important factor in the creation of an organization’s culture.

(False) 17.

A founder’s values could be one explanation for the difficulty encountered when trying to change a culture.

(True) 18.

Founder values are a part of the company culture regardless of the success of the firm.

(False) 19.

Companies within the same industry generally have similar organizational cultures, but on occasion, they can be wildly different.

(True) 20.

The industry influence over culture suggests that it may not be possible to duplicate the culture of a firm in another industry.

(True) 21. Organizational cultures help determine who is hired by a firm. (True) 22.

Organizational culture will both attract potential employees and cause some to self-select out of the organization.

(True) 23.

Individuals high in agreeableness would likely seek out firms with aggressive cultures.

(False)

24. Person-organization misfit is one of the important reasons for employee turnover. (True) 25.

The attraction-selection-attrition process explains how a certain level of homogeneity in personalities and values is maintained within an organization.

(True) 26.

Onboarding activities in a firm produce higher levels of job satisfaction in new employees but have little impact on their organizational commitment long term.

(False) 27.

The inability to network is a major reason why new employees either leave their jobs voluntarily or are terminated within the first two years of employment.

(True) 28.

Computer-oriented orientation programs are more cost effective and more effective in conveying the firm’s culture than classroom-oriented programs.

(False) 29.

While managers and supervisors are very important in helping new employees adjust to a firm’s culture, coworkers actually hamper the process.

(False) 30.

Mentors and protégés who had input into the matching process were no more satisfied with the outcome of the program then were those who were placed into a mentor-protégé pair.

(False) 31.

It is less important to find an individual to serve as a mentor who personifies company values than to find an individual who is enthusiastic about participating in the program.

(False) 32.

Leader role modeling is an important influence in the creation or change in an organization’s culture.

(True) 33.

A firm that rewards the achievement of goals only, and not the process to achieve those goals, is likely to have an outcome-based culture.

(True) 34.

A firm that uses a ranking system where employees are pitted against each other for the top rewards is more likely to have an aggressive culture.

(True) 35.

The behaviors that are punished, ignored or rewarded are likely to help determine how a culture evolves in a firm.

(True)

36.

All mission statements are effective because they describe who the companies are and what they do.

(False) 37.

Extending benefits to full- and part-time employees as well as spouses and domestic partners can convey to those employees the people orientation of the firm.

(True) 38.

While a firm’s physical layout impacts motivation and job satisfaction, it does little to convey company culture.

(False) 39. Culture is generally resistant to change efforts. (True) 40.

Two conditions that help effect a cultural change include experiencing failure in a firm and changes in the external environment impacting the firm.

(True) 41.

The first step in the cultural change process is changing leaders and the leadership team.

(False) 42.

Renovating the firm’s facilities and updating a firm’s logo can help enable a cultural change.

(True) 43.

Making ethics assessment a regular part of performance evaluation can ensure ethical behavior becomes part of a firm’s core values.

(True) 44. The culture of a company is heavily impacted by the culture of its nation of origin. (True) 45.

The Japanese culture emphasizes harmony, so it is highly unlikely a Japanese company would have an aggressive culture.

(True) MULTIPLE CHOICE Opening Section: When It Comes to Culture, Strong Signals Matter: The Case of General Motors 46.

*What was one of the first actions Mary Barra took when becoming CEO at General Motors to start to change its corporate culture? a. Fire 100 people to show she was serious. b. Change the dress code. c. Write a new employee manual.

(b) 47.

(a) 48.

(a)

d. Give everyone a raise. Easy/Knowledge *Mary Barra used the mandate “Dress Appropriately” at General Motors to help her determine a. how the current leaders can handle decision making. b. who had better taste in clothes. c. who would follow her lead. d. how to start to write a manual for a dress code. Easy/Knowledge *At General Motors, rather than focus on a new strategic plan for the company when she began as CEO, Mary Barra worked to a. create a new management team. b. sell off the company. c. effect a cultural change. d. diversify. Medium/Comprehension *Which of these would NOT fit the culture Mary Barra was trying to build at General Motors? a. It’s ok to make assumptions about that other people think. b. Focus on foundational issues. c. Build an environment where people feel engaged. d. Have fun and build teamwork. Medium/Comprehension

Section I: Understanding Organizational Culture 50.

(a) 51.

(c)

A system of shared assumptions, values, and beliefs that indicates what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior in an organization is a. culture. b. mission. c. goals. d. strategy. Easy/Knowledge Which of the following statements regarding organizational culture and its impact on the firm is accurate? a. Strong organizational cultures are always a strategic advantage. b. Having a culture that fits with the company leads to good company performance, but having a culture that does not fit has no impact. c. Organizational cultures that are hard to imitate can create a competitive advantage for a firm. d. Organizational culture is an effective control mechanism for dictating employee job attitudes. Medium/Evaluation

52.

(d) 53.

(a) 54.

(b) 56.

(d) 58.

(c)

Organizational culture consists of three levels: a. assumptions, orientations, and beliefs. b. beliefs, values, and artifacts. c. artifacts, assumptions, and beliefs. d. assumptions, artifacts, and values. Easy/Comprehension Cultural assumptions a. lie below the awareness level and reflect beliefs about human nature and reality. b. are shared principles, standards and goals. c. are a set of values unique to a limited cross-section of the organization. d. are the visible and tangible elements of culture. Easy/Comprehension The visible and tangible elements of culture are a. assumptions. b. values. c. artifacts. d. beliefs. Easy/Knowledge Shared principles, standards and goals are a. artifacts. b. values. c. beliefs. d. assumptions. Easy/Comprehension The corner office, mahogany desks and credenzas, gold name plates on office doors and reserved parking places are examples of a. cultural beliefs. b. cultural assumptions. c. cultural artifacts. d. cultural values. Medium/Application “People are generally dishonest” is an example of a a. cultural orientation. b. cultural artifact. c. cultural value. d. cultural assumption. Difficult/Application Security, safety and social equality are all examples of a. cultural assumptions. b. cultural artifacts. c. cultural values. d. cultural orientations. Difficult/Application

59.

(a)

*Which of these is the strongest way to control employee behavior in an organization? a. Employee handbooks b. Online orientations c. Strong corporate culture d. Water cooler chats Easy/Knowledge Uma just started a new job at a new company. The first day there, she observes whether people eat lunch at their desks, if they take timed breaks, and if they leave right at 5 pm. She is trying to understand a. the organizational culture b. the company rules c. office gossip d. organizational conflict Medium/Comprehension

Section II: Characteristics of Organizational Culture 61.

(a) 62.

(b) 63.

3M Corporation provides its employees time each week to generate ideas for new products. This practice is responsible for the development of such products as Post-it notes. 3M has a(n) _____________ culture. a. innovative b. people-centered c. detail oriented d. aggressive Medium/Application The Internal Revenue Service has many rules and regulations with regard to tax code and the filing of returns. The organization is large and very bureaucratic. If an individual has issues with the agency, getting it resolved is a laborious process filled with “red tape” and takes an extensive amount of time and patience to resolve. The Internal Revenue Service has a(n) _________ culture. a. team-oriented b. stable c. people-oriented d. outcome-oriented Medium/Application The school district has established achievement-oriented goals. Teachers are told that their instruction must thoroughly prepare students for high scores on the state achievement tests. Each nine-week grading period, teachers meet to discuss overall progress toward the goals set for increasing state achievement test scores. Recently the superintendent of the school district proposed establishing a bonus fund to reward teachers whose students’ scores increased the most from year to year on those tests. This school has what kind of culture? a. people-oriented

(d) 64.

(a) 66.

(b)

b. detail-oriented c. aggressive d. outcome-oriented Medium/Application Lincoln Manufacturing has a large sign posted at the entrance to the firm’s parking area that keeps count of the number of days since the last accident in the firm. Currently, the number stands at 150. The count is changed every day in somewhat of a “ceremony,” and every time another 50 days go by without an accident, the firm provides a free lunch to employees. Posters throughout the plant remind workers to wear protective clothing including earplugs, safety hats and glasses and safety shoes. Lincoln has what kind of culture? a. person-oriented b. aggressive c. safety d. stable Medium/Application The mother of the young man always has such difficulty getting him jeans to wear to elementary school. He needs the husky size and does not want any color EXCEPT the dark blue denim. The mother needs four pair of jeans. She usually purchases them at a major department store located in the mall near her home. She is at the mall today and is disappointed that only one pair in the size she needs is available. The salesclerk says that more should be available soon, but she is not sure exactly when. The day after the purchase, the phone rings in the mother’s home. It is the salesclerk from the major department store reporting that three pairs of the husky jeans in the child’s size have arrived and she is holding them for the mother. The mother thanks the clerk and asks how she got the mother’s phone number. “It took me some time”, says the clerk, “but I found your receipt from yesterday and looked up your phone number through our computer system.” This store has a _________ culture. a. service b. detail-oriented c. stable d. people-oriented Medium/Application At Walt Disney World, guests staying at The Grand Floridian Resort and Spa find thick white terrycloth robes hanging in the cupboard when they arrive in the room. The cleaning staff do not just place washcloths in the bath area; they form the washcloths into animals and arrange them on the vanity ready for a photograph. At night mints appear on the pillows and when the beds are made in the morning, any plush animals children have purchased or brought from home will be arranged in an entertaining formation on the finished bed. These examples suggest that Walt Disney Company is _______________. a. people-oriented. b. detail-oriented. c. team-oriented. d. outcome oriented. Medium/Application

67.

(d) 69.

(b) 71.

The firm pays above average wages to its employees. Each employee is given at least two weeks of vacation and any time family matters arise and time is needed, flexible arrangements are made to facilitate the employee. Each Thanksgiving, a turkey is provided to each employee, $25 gift certificates are given for the Christmas holiday, and during the summer, the firm pays for each employee and one other individual to attend an expense-paid day at the local amusement park. This firm seems to be a(n) _________ company. a. outcome-oriented b. service-oriented c. people-oriented d. team-oriented Medium/Application ABC Corporation has its sights clearly set on XYZ Company. The firm’s employees often talk about “cutting XYZ off at the knees.” Recently a lawsuit was filed against ABC by XYZ because ABC “raided” the middle-level management level of XYZ and hired away 5 of its 7 managers. ABC has a(n) ____________________ culture. a. service b. outcome c. stable d. aggressive Medium/Application The firm places its employees into five-person groups and gives them projects that are to be completed by each group with minimum direction from a project leader. Compensation in the firm is divided into two parts—that earned for your primary job, and that earned for work in your group. Once each year, training seminars are conducted for all company employees to learn the latest techniques in collaboration. This firm has a(n) ____________ culture. a. people-oriented b. detail-oriented c. team-oriented d. outcome-oriented Medium/Application Firms that are flexible, adaptable and experiment with new ideas are _________ firms. a. aggressive b. innovative c. stable d. outcome-oriented Easy/Knowledge People-oriented cultures a. value fairness, supportiveness and respecting individual rights. b. value competitiveness and outperforming competitors. c. are flexible, adaptable, and experiment with new ideas. d. emphasize precision and paying attention to details.

(a)

Easy/Comprehension

72.

Companies that are collaborative and emphasize cooperation among employees have a(n) ______________ culture. a. people-oriented b. outcome-oriented c. detail-oriented d. team-oriented Easy/Comprehension

(d) 73.

(b) 74.

(a) 76.

(a) 77.

(c)

A company with a stable culture is a. flexible, adaptable, and experiments with new ideas. b. predictable, rule-oriented, and bureaucratic. c. achievement-oriented, results-oriented, and action-oriented. d. fair, supportive, and respects individual rights. Easy/Comprehension A culture that emphasizes precision and paying attention to details is a. a service culture. b. an aggressive culture. c. a detail-oriented culture. d. an outcome-oriented culture. Easy/Comprehension Those who emphasize achievement, results and action create a(n) _________ __________ culture in their organizations. a. outcome-oriented b. team-oriented c. detail-oriented d. people-oriented Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true regarding the dimensions of culture? a. Employees tend to stay longer in people-oriented cultures. b. Outcome-oriented cultures hold managers accountable for success, but not other employees. c. In team-oriented cultures, managers have less positive relationships with their subordinates than in other cultures. d. Proactive behavior tends to emerge often in stable companies. Medium/Evaluation To ensure all cast members share the history of Walt Disney World, new hires at the resort must take the courses on traditions at Disney. With these classes, the Walt Disney Company is creating a a. weak culture. b. counterculture. c. strong culture. d. subculture. Medium/Analysis

78.

(d) 79.

(a) 80.

(b) 81.

(d) 82.

(d)

Strong cultures a. facilitate the changes that must occur in firms during mergers and acquisitions. b. outperform weak cultures regardless of the volatility of the environment. c. are no more difficult to change than weak cultures. d. are evidenced by consensus among employees on the values of the company. Medium/Evaluation A defined set of values unique to a limited cross-section of the organization is a. a subculture. b. a counterculture. c. a strong culture. d. a service culture. Easy/Comprehension The marketing department at Langston Industries meets once a week for a pizza luncheon after which the marketing manager holds his weekly “venting session” where department members can express their concerns about what is going right and wrong in the department and firm. The finance department, on the other hand, never meets. The finance manager simply sends emails to his subordinates each Monday with a list of the items to be accomplished each week and tries to get around to seeing each individual sometime during the week for any questions the employee might have. Langston appears to have _________ in its organization. a. countercultures b. subcultures c. onboarding d. strong cultures Medium/Application The culture of Altmira Corporation is characterized by participative decision making, innovation and openness. The accounting department, however, is run using authoritarian decision making to ensure efficiency and effectiveness. Accounting manager Gordon Paul believes in tight control to prevent errors. The accounting department’s culture could be classified as a a. strong culture. b. weak culture. c. side culture. d. counterculture. Medium/Application Shared values and beliefs that are in direct opposition to the values of the broader organizational culture represent a a. strong culture. b. weak culture. c. subculture. d. counterculture. Easy/Comprehension

83.

(d) 84.

(d)

Which of the following statements is true regarding culture in organizations? a. Multiple subcultures cannot exist in a single organization. b. Subcultures arise in a firm due to founder values and industry demands. c. Countercultures are never tolerated by an organization once they are identified. d. Employee perceptions of subcultures are related to employee commitment to the organization. Medium/Evaluation *All of the following are part of the seven distinct values in an organizational culture profile EXCEPT: a. aggressive, detail-oriented, team-oriented b. innovative, outcome-oriented, stable, c. detail-oriented, innovative, people-oriented d. genuine, finance-oriented, action-oriented Medium/Comprehension

Section III: Creating and Maintaining Organizational Cultures 85.

(b) 87.

(a) 88.

Which of the following statements regarding culture creation is correct? a. An organization’s culture is shaped only by internal environmental factors. b. New organization members are rarely taught the “way of business” in the firm; they simply acquire that knowledge through daily activities. c. When the organization’s way of doing business provides a successful adaptation to environmental challenges, those beliefs and values are retained. d. Studies show the only factor consistently found to determine culture creation in a firm is the founder’s values. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding founder’s values is accurate? a. Founder values continue to be reflected in a firm regardless of the firm’s success. b. The difficulty in changing firm culture can be, at least, partially attributed to the shaping provided by founder values. c. Founder values have no impact on organizational culture. d. Founder values lay the cornerstone of the firm’s culture, but values have a rapidly decreasing impact as the firm grows and ages. Difficult/Evaluation If an industry is highly regulated, firms competing within it likely have a. bureaucratic structures. b. dynamic, innovative cultures. c. low concern for rules and authority. d. businesses processes characterized by agility and quick action. Difficult/Synthesis _____________ is (are) part of the culture maintenance phase. a. Founder values b. Industry demands

(a) 91.

(b) 92.

(d) 93.

c. Leadership d. Preferences Easy/Knowledge In completing a Big 5 personality inventory, Manuel was found to have high openness to experience. He would probably be attracted to an organization like a. Target where jobs tend to be structured in their duties and responsibilities. b. the IRS, which has a bureaucratic structure and authoritarian decision making processes. c. Google with a laid-back, innovative culture. d. General Motors with a tradition-bound culture experiencing serious viability issues. Medium/Application Which of the following statements is true regarding the attraction-selectionattrition (ASA) process? a. Individuals self-select the companies for which they choose to work. b. Due to economic circumstances, companies today hire people for fit with the job only and are much less concerned about fit with the culture. c. The ASA process aids organizations in maintaining the relative heterogeneity of employee personalities and values. d. Person-organization misfit has only a minor impact on employee turnover. Difficult/Evaluation The process through which new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization is a. attraction-selection-attrition. b. organizational socialization. c. mentoring. d. assessment. Easy/Comprehension If onboarding activities are successful a. employees experience greater job satisfaction but are no more likely to remain with the firm compared to those who do not take part in onboarding. b. employees feel comfortable in the organization but have no greater belief that their abilities are sufficient for work in the firm than those employees who did not take part in the onboarding activities. c. employees feel accepted by their peers but do not necessarily share the values and norms of the larger organization. d. employees are more confident about their ability to perform in the organization and are likely to remain longer with the firm. Difficult/Analysis During onboarding activities, successful employees are more likely to a. seek feedback. b. network. c. be proactive.

(d) 94.

(d) 96.

(b) 98.

(c)

d. all of the above Easy/Comprehension Research on the employee role in onboarding activities indicates that a. feedback-seeking reduces employee adjustment. b. reactive individuals are more successful than proactive individuals. c. active relationship building is particularly important to avoid turnover in those firms lacking systematic onboarding activities. d. networking often causes employees to turnover in a job. Medium/Evaluation Angelina has just accepted a new job. Her career counselor would offer her which of the following pieces of advice if she wanted to ensure that Angelina gets “on board” in the new firm quickly? a. Leave every day exactly at quitting time to show you’re punctual and respectful of work-life boundaries. b. Do not worry about impression management. You got the job so they already think you’re great. c. Do not ask too many questions, as this would reveal your weaknesses. d. Try to build success early on in your tenure at the company. Volunteer for projects and complete them effectively. Show your value to the firm. Difficult/Evaluation A trusted individual who provides the employee with advice and support regarding career-related matters is a a. coworker. b. manager. c. mentor. d. counselor. Easy/Comprehension Which of the following statements regarding the organization’s role in onboarding and orientation activities is accurate? a. The mere existence of mentoring programs guarantees their success. b. The speed with which new employees learn the company’s culture is strongly influenced by the support of supervisors and managers. c. Adjustment to a new company is most effective with the “sink or swim” approach. d. How companies do onboarding doesn’t really matter much. Easy/Comprehension Research on mentoring suggests a. the mere existence of the program ensures its success. b. mentor and protégé input to the program has little impact on satisfaction with the program. c. mentor training enhances program outcomes. d. mentor characteristics are less important in their selection to the program than willingness to participate. Difficult/Evaluation

99.

(a) 100.

(a) 102.

(d) 103.

(c)

Leaders impact organization culture through a. role modeling. b. leader height. c. leader intelligence. d. leader personality. Easy/Comprehension Which if the following statements regarding the impact of reward systems on culture shaping is correct? a. A firm that uses a forced choice method of evaluation where a percentage of employees are ranked as excellent, average and failures, and the failures are threatened with turnover, is likely to have a team-oriented culture. b. Firms that reward based on how an employee meets a goal and not just whether the goal is met are likely to have highly aggressive cultures. c. A firm that rewards purely on the basis of goal achievement is likely to have an outcome-oriented culture. d. In outcome oriented cultures, supportive, cooperative behaviors are rewarded. Difficult/Evaluation Which of the following statements is true regarding the creation and maintenance of culture? a. One reason for the difficulty encountered in trying to change a firm’s culture is the early shaping of culture based on the founder’s vision. b. If a leader motivates by rewarding for performance, a detail-oriented culture can develop. c. The attraction-selection-attrition process is a self-protective mechanism by which ensures diversity regarding the values of organization members. d. Computer-based orientation programs are more cost efficient and are more effective at conveying corporate culture than classroom-based programs. Difficult/Synthesis Which of the following represents best practice for onboarding programs in firms? a. Make interaction key to the program. Get participation from all organization members to the greatest extent possible. b. Be clear on goals of the program and those who are actively participating. c. Establish milestones for the program and monitor them. Try to build a rhythm for the program. d. All of the above. Medium/Analysis A statement of purpose describing who a company is and what it does is a. a policy. b. a ritual. c. a mission statement. d. a rule. Easy/Knowledge

104.

(a) 105.

(a) 106.

(b) 107.

(b) 108.

Which of the following statements is true about the effectiveness of a mission statement? a. The mission statement must be provided to the employees when they first enter the firm to be effective. b. The mere act of publishing the mission statement makes it effective as it clarifies to all employees the purpose of the organization. c. Effective mission statements are always posted on the company website. d. Detailed mission statements are more effective than simple ones. Medium/Analysis A well-known Fortune 500 CEO dresses up in a different outlandish costume each year for his presentation during the annual stockholder meeting. The presentation is broadcasted to all divisions and offices of the firm and employees enthusiastically view the proceedings. This scenario is an example of what visual element of culture? a. rituals b. stories c. policies d. artifacts Medium/Comprehension If the firm has a strict dress code policy in its employee handbook calling for male employees to wear “ties and white or light colored shirts, no pastels” and female employees to wear “dark skirts of knee length or below or dress slacks,” the culture of the firm is likely a. innovative. b. stable. c. aggressive. d. team-based. Medium/Application Alcoa Corporation’s headquarters facility has a minimal number of traditional offices with four walls and a door. The elevators on each floor are located at the ends of the long corridors in out-of-the-way alcoves. An open-air escalator runs in the center of the building. Workers largely are seated in low-walled cubicles. Copy machines and other office equipment are centrally located on each floor. This physical layout encourages what kind of culture? a. aggressive b. team-based c. detail-oriented d. outcome-oriented Medium/Application Which of the following statements regarding visual elements of culture is accurate? a. Stories highlight critical events faced or heroic efforts put forth by individual employees to instill cultural values in employees. b. Employee handbooks are more effective than culture in controlling acceptable and unacceptable behavior in an organization.

(a) 109.

(d)

Repetitive activities in an organization, like weekly meetings opened with calisthenics, are examples of values. d. While physical layouts impact motivational levels in employees, they do little to convey the firm’s culture to those employees. Medium/Synthesis *Which of these is NOT a recommended way to find out if you are a good fit for a job with a new company? a. Observe the workplace environment b. Do research about the company; ask questions of the company c. Ask your current supervisor d. Respond to your reactions to the company and the people you met therelisten to your gut. Easy/Knowledge *There are five visual elements of culture at a company. Which of these is NOT one of them? a. Rituals b. Mission Statement c. Stories d. Frugality Easy/Knowledge

Section IV: Creating Culture Change 111.

(a) 112.

(d) 113.

What is the first step in increasing the chances of success in effecting a cultural change? a. creating a sense of urgency b. role modeling c. changing the reward system d. changing key players Easy/Comprehension What is the final step in a successful cultural change process? a. training b. role modeling c. changing the reward system d. creating new stories and symbols Medium/Comprehension Which of the following statements is true with regard to steps to effecting successful cultural change? a. Renaming a firm and creating a new logo for it constitutes a cultural change. b. Replacing the staff employees but not the CEO can ensure the establishment of a new value system in a firm. c. Slowly conveying information on a “need-to-know basis” only to employees ensures the firm establishment of a new value system for the firm.

d. (d) 114.

(a) 115.

(b) 116.

(d) 117.

(b)

Thoughtfully developed, well administered training programs help establish new corporate norms of behavior. Difficult/Synthesis *What was the “culture clash heard around the world?” a. The merger of Daimler-Benz and Chrysler b. The merger of CBS and Viacom c. The merger of Kraft and Heinz d. The merger of Vodafone and Mannesmann Easy/Knowledge *To create a culture change at an organization, a common practice is to a. fire all the current employees. b. remove the CEO and/or other top managers. c. publish the emails of previous managers. d. publish the salaries of the previous managers. Easy/Knowledge *Which of these is the correct order of steps two through five for culture change? a. Role modeling, training, changing the reward system, change leaders b. Change the reward system, role modeling, training, change leaders c. Training, change leaders, role modeling, changing the reward system d. Change leaders, role modeling, training, changing the reward system Easy/Knowledge *Which of these is an example of the “creating a sense of urgency” step of culture change? a. Replacing UBER CEO Travis Kalanick. b. IBM’s crisis and loss of marketshare. c. Satya Nadella’s misstatement about women in the workplace. d. Continental Airlines burning of the company policy manual. Moderate/Evaluation

Section V: The Role of Ethics and National Culture 118.

Studies indicate that the most influential factor in creating an ethical culture is a. the reward system. b. the training program. c. leadership. d. the attraction-selection-attrition process. Medium/Evaluation Which of the following statements regarding the impact of national culture on the culture of domestic firms is correct? a. The harmonious culture of Japan is likely to lead to the establishment of more team-oriented corporate cultures in Japanese firms. b. The hierarchical orientation in Brazilian culture is likely to produce Brazilian companies with flat corporate structures.

c. (a) 120.

(a)

The high power distance culture of Arab countries is likely to produce people-oriented cultures in Arab companies. d. National culture has little impact on domestic firms. Difficult/Evaluation *Which of these is NOT an indicator of a corrupt organization? a. Acting like a commune. b. Believing that job security is more important above anything else c. Offering bonus vacation days to employees who engage in teamwork d. Believing that the company is facing a war, not normal business competition. Medium/Comprehension *Even with an ethics training program, an organization that does not have _________ is most likely to have ethics issues. a. integrity, honesty, and trust b. a global culture c. corporate lawyers d. adaptability Medium/Comprehension Closing Section: Service Culture Makes All the Difference: The Case of the Four Seasons Hotels

122.

(a)

*Which of these is NOT one of the ways that the Four Seasons provides a culture of service? a. Use employee-customer touchpoints to wow the customer b. Go above and beyond to meet the needs of the customer. c. Provide a very low-cost room rate. d. Make the customer feel like a celebrity. Easy/Knowledge *How does the Four Seasons make sure that its employees to provide a high service culture? a. A 12-week training program, mentors, and excellent benefits b. Daily incentives for a good customer survey c. Employees are fired for any negative feedback from customers d. Employees are rotated out frequently to keep them motivated Easy/Knowledge

FILL IN THE BLANK 124.

The system of shared assumptions, values and beliefs that indicate what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior in an organization is ______________ ___________. (organizational culture) 125.

Beliefs about human nature and reality that are below the awareness level are ___________. (assumptions.)

126. The corner office is an example of a cultural _____________. (artifact) 127.

Cultures that are flexible, adaptable and experiment with new ideas are __________ cultures. (innovative) 128.

_____________ value competitiveness, outperforming competitors, and may not feature corporate social responsibility. (Aggressive cultures) 129.

Cultures that value fairness, supportiveness and respecting individual’s rights are _____________________________. (people-oriented cultures) 130. ___________ cultures are predictable, rule-oriented and bureaucratic. (Stable) 131.

Firms that emphasize achievement, results and action are ___________ cultures. (outcome-oriented) 132.

Emphasis on precision and paying attention to minutae characterize a ______________ culture. (detail-oriented) 133.

A ___________ culture is one that is shared by organization members and is very difficult to alter in business situations like mergers or acquisitions. (strong) 134.

Cultures that emerge in different departments, branches or geographic locations are called __________. (subcultures) 135.

A ____________ is a form of a ______________ that shares values and beliefs in direct opposition to the values of the larger organization. (counterculture, subculture) 136.

The most important factors in the creation of an organization’s culture are _________, ____________ and _____________. (founder values, preferences and industry demands) 137.

___________ refers to the process where new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills and behaviors required to function effectively within the organization. (Onboarding) 138.

__________ or relationship building is an important activity new employees can undertake to ensure their adjustment to a firm. (Networking)

139.

A ______________ program indoctrinates new employees to the company culture, as well as introducing them to their new jobs and colleagues. (formal orientation) 140.

A trusted person who provides an employee with advice and support regarding career related matters is a __________. (mentor) 141.

A statement of purpose describing who the company is and what it does is a _________________. (mission statement) 142.

Repetitive activities within an organization that have symbolic meaning are called __________. (rituals) 143.

___________________ is the process by which employees modify their own beliefs and behaviors to reflect those of the leader. (Role modeling) SHORT ANSWERS 144.

Define organizational culture. Organizational culture is shared assumptions, values and beliefs that show employees what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior.

145.

What impact does culture have on the organization? Culture is as important as corporate strategy for business success and can impact employee attitudes and performance.

146.

What are the three levels of culture? Innermost level is assumptions that are taken for granted, belief in human nature, and reality. Second layer is values or shared principles, standards and goals. Outermost layer is artifacts that are the visible and tangible elements of culture.

147.

Name two dimensions of culture according to the organizational culture profile and provide an example for each. The dimensions are detail-oriented, innovative, aggressive, outcome-oriented, stable, people-oriented, and team-oriented. A detail-oriented firm is Stitch Fix, which built its business around details and compiles data about customers to predict future purchases.

An innovative firm is Apple, which uses small teams with defined responsibilities to remain accountable and agile. An aggressive firm is Wells Fargo, which set sales goals that were difficult to achieve and created a culture that let to corruption. An outcome-oriented firm emphasizes attaining goals set and rewards the attainment but not the goal process. Many salespeople work under such a culture if they are in a commission-only program. Nordstrom’s employees are dependent upon commissions for a large portion of their pay. A stable organization is a school district, where the product and the way to “produce” it vary little over the years. Some organizations struggle when their stable culture makes cultural change more difficult. GM had a difficult time emerging from bankruptcy because of its slow decision making process. A people-oriented culture is found at Costco. Costco offers a generous pay and benefits package and, in an industry where low pay and lack of benefits is prevalent, has managed to have low employee turnover. A team-oriented culture emphasizes collaboration among employees. Southwest Airlines cross-trains staff so they can support each other when needed, and holds twice-daily meetings to collaborate on problem-solving. 148.

What is meant by a strong culture? A strong culture is one that is shared by all organizational members. This ends up affecting the way employees act internally and externally. It can be good or bad for an organization. An emphasis on customer service will lead to better customer relations. If an organization has a strong, unethical culture, it can take time to change that culture.

149.

Provide the definition of a subculture and note one example. A subculture is a culture that emerges within different departments, branches or geographic locations. An example is that of a department that is divided by age. Older employees could have certain ways they approach their jobs, maybe individually, versus the way that young members of the department approach their jobs, maybe as somewhat of a team.

150.

What is a counterculture and what is an example of it? A counterculture is one whose shared values and beliefs are in direct opposition to the values of the broader organizational culture. An example is in a static, bureaucratic organization, you might find a department that is very innovative and takes risks.

151.

What are the fundamental elements that create a culture? Key to the creation of a culture is the values and preferences of a founder and the demand of the industry. A founder’s values help determine the way the firm

does business. The industry demands also impact a culture. If the industry, for example, is highly regulated, founder values of risk taking and innovativeness have a much less likely chance of supporting success in that firm. 152.

What are key factors in maintaining a firm’s culture? Cultures are maintained by the attraction-selection-attrition process, new employee onboarding, leadership and reward systems.

153.

Briefly describe the attraction-selection-attrition process and how it relates to organizational culture. The attraction process is what initially draws an individual to applying for a position in a firm. What signals is the applicant picking up that suggest the firm will be some place he would want to work? From the standpoint of the firm, what types of personalities and skills will best fit the firm’s needs? The selection process is a series of techniques where the fit between applicant and firm is further investigated. Attrition is the process where an individual who has been brought into a firm is “weeded out” when he does not perform as successfully has he might and the selection or attraction processes did not indicate such a scenario. The attraction-selection-attrition process self defends the organizational culture.

154.

What is employee onboarding? Onboarding is the process through which new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization.

155.

What is the new employee’s role in onboarding? Onboarding is not a passive practice for the new employee. An employee should seek feedback on how she is performing and should network or build relationships. In addition, she needs to gather information, practice impression management and show success early on.

156.

What is a mentor? A mentor is a trusted person who provides an employee with advice and support regarding career related matters.

157.

How do leaders influence culture? Leaders influence culture through their style, role modeling and general reactions to the actions of those around them.

158.

What are key factors in a reward system that reflects the culture of the firm?

The key factors are: the kinds of behaviors that are rewarded, punished or ignored in the firm, whether a firm rewards behaviors or results, and whether a firm uses ranking or rating in evaluation of performance. 159.

Describe two visual elements of a firm’s culture and provide an example of each. There are five visual elements: mission statement, rituals, stories, rule and policies and physical layout. Mission statement may focus wording on employees, or on customers come first Rituals:; Sam Adams founder sits in a dunking booth of stale beer Stories:., Apple’s humble beginnings in the garage Rules: Dress code, Starbuck’s free coffee pound each week Physical Layout: Offices versus cubicles

160.

What are the six steps to changing a culture? Create a sense of urgency. Change leaders and other key players. Role model. Train. Change the reward system. Create new stories.

161.

What is key to maintaining ethics in a firm’s culture? Recent studies indicate the key element is leadership. Using firms like Enron, WorldCom and others, qualitative analysis consistently points to the need for leaders to role model ethical behavior in order for it to be part of the company culture. Further, the reward systems that the leader puts into place must reflect the ethical standards for them to be effective.

162.

What impact does the national culture of a country have upon its domestic company cultures? The impact of a country’s culture on that of the company is small. The values of the country from which a founder comes are likely to have shaped his value system somewhat, but not to such a degree that country culture dictates company culture.

ESSAY 163.

Choose an organization and using the dimensions of culture, describe which dimensions are present in the firm. Answers will vary. A major research university has an aggressive and innovative culture in that professor pay and teaching load are dictated by the amount of research dollars garnered by grant. That university also has a people-oriented culture in that flexible scheduling is permitted not only for faculty, but much of the staff. Outstanding benefits are provided to all university employees and pay is

generally above the average for similar universities. Finally, a service culture is supported in that many university departments have extensive outreach programs to the local and state communities that allow the application of basic research concepts in the real world. 164.

Choose a firm with which you are very familiar and discuss how culture was created and is maintained in that firm. Use the culture creation-maintenance model to frame your discussion. Answers will vary. Students should include, as much as possible given their choices, some of these elements: founder values and preferences, and industry demands. For the maintenance aspect, students should discuss the attractionselection-attrition process, new employee onboarding, leadership and the reward system. A popular midsize, local restaurant was created 50 years ago by a now deceased individual who believed in: quality for your money and a friendly face. The founder felt that money was always tight for most people and a restaurant had to offer a better deal and experience than a customer could secure in his own home. Industry barriers to entry are relatively low so the firm had few problems getting started. The basic meals the firm offers, such as meatloaf, roast, pork chops, and the outstanding desserts, were a great success when the firm first opened and they continue to draw people in today. The founder value of good food has not changed over the years. The atmosphere of the restaurant has also not changed. Maintenance activities help retain that climate. The founder of the restaurant believed in good conversation over a meal in a friendly, supportive atmosphere. The hiring process reflects this culture. Interview questions focus heavily on assessing the candidate’s personality and ability to withstand stress. Further, a knowledge of the items offered on a daily basis is a key element of the selection decision. The founder’s son now owns the restaurant and continues the same culture, role modeling the very values that originally made the place a success. Each day and evening, the current owner chats with customers at each table. Many of the customers are such regulars that personal questions about family are answered, further maintaining the key founding values.

165.

Design an onboarding program for a firm of your choice. Make sure to include what employee, leader and coworker roles will be during the onboarding. An onboarding program teaches new employees attitudes, knowledge, skills and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization. While student answers will vary, they should mention what the key values of the organization are that need to be conveyed, how they will be conveyed and the role of the leader, new employee and coworkers will be. New employees need to seek feedback and network, gather information and manage their first impressions.

Current coworkers need to convey information and support new employees in general. Leaders need to be cognizant of the style they exhibit and its influence on the program, role model the firm’s values and react consistently to the actions of those around him. 166.

You are going to your first full-time position in the morning. What can you do to make sure you get “on board” immediately? Answers will vary, but some key elements that should be mentioned include: Gather information. Find out as much as you possibly can about the company and your job as quickly as you can. Be a good observer. Manage your first impression. Network. Seek feedback. Show success early on.

167.

What are some of the visual elements, or artifacts that represent the culture of your firm? Again answers will vary but students should mention items like: mission statement, rituals, stories, physical layout, and rules and policies. Universities are very easy organizations in which to see visual elements of the culture. As an example, a large mid-Atlantic university is physically located in a city but has a campus defined by small park islands on each of the campus’ borders with the city. Each of the buildings is clearly marked with the university emblem. The deans of each of the university’s colleges cite the mission statement as a means of developing programming that reaches out to various groups and individuals in the city itself. One interesting ritual each spring is the closing of a portion of a city road located in front of the student union to facilitate gurney and wheelchair races between fraternities and sororities and as a means of uniting the education and medical subdivisions of the university. One of the campus classroom buildings is a very tall facility and is the most recognizable aspect of the campus. Stories abound, particularly around the Halloween season, of ghosts that haunt the halls. These stories are shared with incoming freshmen, especially with those who have classes in that location. Regardless of the element, the culture is conveyed successfully.

168.

You are applying for a job at a variety of different companies. How will you determine whether you will be a good fit at those firms?

The most important thing you can do is research all the firms. Do not just assume because you know the firm’s products, for example, that you would like to work there. Talk to people, go to job placement centers, use the Internet. Observe the physical environment when you go to interview. How is the office laid out? Do you like to work in cubicles? What is the dress code? Are employees pleasant? Read between the lines. Does the firm have an employee handbook? Is it long, short, typed? How are you treated? Did they go out of their way to make you feel at home? First impressions work both ways. Ask questions. Take an active part in the interview beyond just answering your interviewer’s questions. Listen to your gut. How do you feel about your experience?